Clave de Examen

Hidráulico
1- Refer to the refill indication (RF) to the right of the hidraulic system quantity indication.
Indication is displayed:
a- Automatically when the hydraulic quantity is below 88% in either system A or B
b- At all times
c- When hydraulic quantity is bellow 76% in either system A and/or B and the airplane is on the ground with
both engines shutdown or after landing with flaps up during taxi-in
d- Only during master caution system recall
e- Valid only when the airplanes is on the ground with both engines shutdown or after landing with flaps up
during taxi-in
2- If a leak develops in either pump, line or component of system B, the quantity, the
quantity decrease until it indicates approximately zero and system B pressure is lost. The
system B reservoir has one standpipe with supplies fluid to both the engine driven pump
and the electric motor pump. However, with fluid level at the top of the standpipe, fluid
remaining in the system B reservoir is sufficient for power transfer unit operation.
a- True
b- False
3- If a leak occurs in the standby hydraulic system, the standby reservoir quantity decrease
to zero. What is the effect on system B reservoir quantity?
a- No effect
b- Decrease to zero
c- Decrease to 20% full
d- Decrease to approximately 72% full
4- Either A or B hydraulic system can power all flight controls with no decrease in airplane
controllability
a- True
b- False

The power transfer unit (PTU) provides a backup source of hydraulic pressure to operate the:
a- Trailing edge flaps
b- Landing gear
c- Autoslats and leading edge flaps and slats
d- Outboard spoilers
5- The purpose of the PTU is to supply the additional volume of hydraulic fluid needed to
operate the autoslats and leading edge flaps and slats at normal rate when system A
engine-driven hydraulic pump volume is lost. The PTU uses system B pressure to power
a hydraulic motor-driven pump, which pressurizes system A hydraulic fluid.
a- True
b- False
The purpose of the PTU is to supply the additional volume of hydraulic fluid needed to operate the autoslats and leading edge flaps and slats
at the normal rate when system B engine driven hydraulic pump volume is lost. The PTU uses system A pressure to power a hydraulic motor-
driven pump, which pressurizes system B hydraulic fluid.
6- The autoslats system:
 a- Is normally power by hydraulic system B
b- Uses hydraulic system A pressure
c- Uses hydraulic system A fluid
d- Uses standby hydraulic system fluid
7- Pulling the N°.2 engine fire warning switch shuts off hydraulic fluid to the:
a- Electric pump in system B
b- Engine driven pump in system B
c- Electric pump in system A
d- Engine driven pump in system A
8- The standby hydraulic system powers the:
a- Outboard spoilers, rudder and thrust reverser
b- Leading edge devices, rudder, thrust reverser and standby yaw damper
c- Inboard spoilers, rudder and thrust reversers
d- Alternate brakes, rudder, thrust reversers, and standby yaw damper
9- What is one indication of a leak in the standby hydraulic system?
a- Decrease in system A quantity
b- The low quantity light illuminates
c- Illumination of the system A Low pressure lights
d- Illumination of the system B low pressure lights
10- The amber standby hydraulic system low pressure light is armed:
a- At all the times
b- Only when either FLT control switch is moved to standby rudder
c- Only when the alternate flaps switch is moved to arm
d- Only when standby pump operation has been selected or automatic standby function is activated
11- Which of the following actions will affect hydraulic quantity indications?
a- Flaps are extended from 15 to 30
b- Landing gear is extended
c- Leading edge devices are extended
d- Landing gear is extended & leading edge devices are extended
12- The amber low pressure lights for the N°.1 engine driven hydraulic pump illuminates.
What should you do?
a- Position the hydraulic switch to Off
b- Pull the N°.1 engine fire warning switch
c- Disconnect the N°.1 CSD
d- Monitor system A and B pressure
13- What is the minimum fuel quantity limitation in the main fuel tanks for ground
operation of the electric hydraulic pumps?
a- 453 kg (1000 lbs) in the related main tanks
b- 726 kg (1600 lbs) in both main tanks
c- 760 kgs (1676 lbs) in the related main tanks
d- 760 kgs (1676 lbs) in the center tank
14- The landing gear transfer unit:
a- Ensure system B can raise the gear on loss of system A
b- Ensure system A can operate leading edge flaps ans slats when system B is lost
c- Is used to lower the gear on loss of system B
d- Ensure system a can raise the gear on loss of system B
15- System A hydraulic leak if a leak develops in the engine driven pump or its realted lines,
a standpipe in the reservoir prevents a total system fluid loss. With fluid level at the top
of the stand pipe, the reservoir quantity displayed indicates approximately__ full
a- 5%
b- 10%
c- 20 %
d- 30 %
16- System A and B hydraulic fluid is cooled by:
a- Air provided by the recirculation fans
b- Heat exchangers in the left and right packs
c- Heat exchangers located in the main fuel tanks
d- Hydraulic fluid is not cooled
17- A fluid leak develops in system A electric pump or its related lines, or components
common to both the engine and electric motor driven pumps, the quantity in the
reservoir steadily decreases to zero and all system pressure is lost.
a- True
b- False
18- The power transfer unit operates operates automatically when all of the following
conditions exist:
a- System B engine- driven pump hydraulic pressure drops below limits only when airborne
b- System B engine- driven pump hydraulic pressure drops below limits only when airborne and when flaps
are less than 5 but not up
c- System B engine- driven pump hydraulic pressure drops below limits only when airborne and when flaps
are less than 15 but not up
d- System B engine- driven pump hydraulic pressure drops below limits only when airborne and when flaps
are less than 5 but not up with landing gear positioned to up
19- The purpose of the landing gear transfer unit is to supply the volume of hydraulic fluid
needed to raise the landing gear at the normal rate when system B engine- driven pump
volume is lost
a- True
b- False

When system A engine- driven pump volume is lost: the engine system B engine- driven pump supplies the volume of hydraulic fluid needed
to operate tha landing gear transfer unit when all of the following condition exist: airborne, N°.1 engine RPM drops below a limit value,
landing gear lever is positioned up, either main landing gear is not up and locked

20- The standby hydraulic system is provided backup if system A and/or B pressure is lost.
The standby system can be activated manually or automatically and uses a single electric
motor- driven pump to power:
a- Thrust reversers, rudder and leading edge flaps and slats
b- Thrust reversers, rudder, leading edge flaps and slats (extended only) and standby yaw damper
c- Thrust reversers, rudder, leading edge flaps and slats (extended only) and yaw damper
d- Rudder, leading edge flaps and slats (extended only) and yaw damper
21- Automatic operation of the standby hydraulic system is initiated when all the following
conditions exist:
a- Loss of system A, flaps extended more than 1 and airborne
b- Loss of system A or B, flaps extended more than 1 and airborne or wheel speed greater than 60 kts
c- Loss of system A or B, flaps extended more than 1 and airborne or wheel speed greater than 20 kts
 d- Loss of system A or B, flaps extended and airborne or wheel speed greater than 60 kts and FLT control
switch A or B hydraulic system ON
22- During normal operations, variations in hydraulic quantity indications occur when the
system becomes pressurized after engine start, when raising or lowering gear or leading
edge devices or when cold soaking occurs during long periods of cruise
a- True
b- False

These variations have little effect on systems operation. If the hydraulic system is not properly pressurized, foaming can occur at higher altitudes. Foaming
can be recognized by pressure fluctuations and the blinking of the related LOW Pressure lights. The master caution and hydraulic annunciator lights may
also illuminate momentarily.

23- With the lost of system A, you have to plan for alternate gear extension
a- True
b- False
24- To start the standby hydraulic system, what must you do?
a- Select both FLT CONTROL switches to standby rudder
b- Select ARM with the alternate flaps switch
c- Flight crew action is not required to start the standby system
25- Why do the engine driven- pump switches normally stay in the ON position?
a- To increase the life of the blocking solenoids.
b- To ensure the hydraulic system operates when the engines are running.
c- To energize the blocking solenoids.
26- What condition is not necessary before the PTU operates?
a- The number 2 engine-driven pump pressure is low.
b- The number 1 engine-driven pump pressure is low.
c- The flaps are less than 15 not UP.
d- The airplane is in flight.
27- What condition is NOT necessary for the landing gear transfer unit to operate?
a- System A hydraulic pressure is low
b- The landing gear lever is in the UP position
c- One of the main gear is not in the fully up position
d- The number 1 engine N2 is less than idle.

28- The hydraulic brake pressure indicator displays accumulator nitrogen pre-charge
pressure of 1000 psi and:
a- Brake pressure from hydraulic system B if it is greater than 1000 psi.
b- Brake pressure from hydraulic system A if it is greater than 1000 psi
c- Brake pressure from standby hydraulic system.
d- Brake pressure from the PTU.
29- The STANDBY LOW QUANTITY light illuminates, what other indication(s) will you have?
a- System A quantity between 3/4 and RF (Refill) indication.
b- Both master caution lights and the flight control annunciator light will illuminate.
c- Both system B pump overhead lights illuminated.
d- Illumination of the low pressure standby hydraulic amber light.
30- An Engine Driven Hydraulic pump supplies approximately ____ times the volume of an
electrical hydraulic pump.
a- 2 times.
b- 4 times.
c- 5 times.
d- 6 times.
 31- With the loss of the system B hydraulic fluid and the system B FLIGHT CONTROL switch
to STBY RUD, what allows the movement of trailing edge flaps?
a- A system pressure.
b- Standby hydraulic system pressure.
c- Power Transfer Unit (PTU).
d- Electrical motor.
32- Where is the heat exchanger for hydraulic system A located?
a- In the standby hydraulic tank.
b- In the System A hydraulic tank.
c- In the centre fuel tank.
d- In fuel tank No.1.
Hydraulic fluid used for cooling and lubrication of the pumps passes through a heat exchanger before returning to the reservoir. The heat exchanger for
system A is located in main fuel tank No. 1 and for system B is in main fuel tank No. 2.
33- Which hydraulic system operates the Flight Spoilers?
a- All on left wing system A, all on right wing system B.
b- All on right wing system A, all on left wing system B.
c- Both wings by system B
d- 2 left wing and 2 right wing by system A, 2 left wing and 2 right wing by system B
There are 12 spoilers in total: 4 ground spoilers and 8 flight spoilers
34- Switching ENG 1 hydraulic pump OFF:
a- Disengages pump drive.
b- Energizes the blocking valve to block pump output.
c- De-energizes the pump recirculation solenoid.
e- Transfers system to ENG 2 pump output.
35- Hydraulic system pressure indication is derived from:
a- Engine driven pump output only.
b- Combined engine and electric pump outputs.
c- Selectable engine or electric pump outputs.
d- Related system low pressure switch.
Pressure switches, located in the engine–driven and electric motor–driven pump output lines, send signals to illuminate the related LOW PRESSURE light if
pump output pressure is low. A check valve, located in each output line, isolates the related pump from the system. The related system pressure
transmitter sends the combined pressure of the engine–driven and electric motor–driven pump to the related hydraulic system pressure indication.
36- Maximum hydraulic system pressure indication is:
a- 3000psi in white
b- 3500psi in white
c- 3500psi in amber
d- 3000psi in amber
37- Selecting the ALTERNATE FLAPS master switch to:
a- ON, activates the standby pump and arms the ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch.
b- STBY, activates the standby pump and arms ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch.
c- OFF, activates the PTU and arms the primary flap selector.
d- ARM, closes trailing edge flap bypass valve, activates standby pump and arms ALTERNATE FLAPS position
switch.
e- OFF and ARM are the only two positions for this switch
38- Alternate brakes are operated by:
a- System A
b- System B
c- System B via PTU
d- standby system
39- Hydraulic system fluid quantity shown on the Lower Display Unit indicates percentage in
the band:
a- 0% - 100%
b- 0% - 106%
c- 10% - 100%
d- 10% - 106%
40- If you lose hydraulic pressure in System B, the following systems will be affected:
a- Yaw Damper, Alternate Brakes, Autopilot A, Trailing Edge Flaps
b- Main Yaw Damper, Normal Brakes, Autopilot B, Trailing Edge Flaps
c- Standby Yaw Damper, Normal Brakes, Autopilot A, Flight Spoilers
 d- Ground Spoilers, Normal Brakes, Autopilot B, Trailing Edge Flaps
41- Switching ENG 1 hydraulic pump OFF:
a- Energizes a blocking valve in the pump.
b- Disengages pump drive.
c- De-energizes the pump recirculation valve.
d- Opens system transfer valve to System 2.
42- The Standby system LOW QUANTITY lights is always armed. It illuminates if the fluid
level is below____.
a. 75%
b. 35%
c. 50%
d. 60%
43- The “B” System electric Motor Pump receives electrical power from ____.
a. AC Transfer Bus 2
b. AC Transfer Bus 1
44- The Power Transfer Unit operates when the aircraft is airborne, the ___ system engine
driven pump pressure falls below an acceptable limit, and the flaps are less than 15 –
but not up.
a. A
b. B
c. Both A and B
45- How many hydraulic pumps are located in the hydraulic system?
a. Three
b. Five
c. Four
d. Two
46- Notice – the Leading Edge Devices and the Autoslat system normally receive hydraulic
pressure from the ___.
a. A system
b. B system
c. Both A and B systems
47- The PTU shut off valve automatically opens to provide ____ system pressure when
necessary to operate the PTU.
a. A
b. B
c. Both A and B
48- In the event system A or B fails, the Standby system may be pressurized by a motor
driven pump that is powered by the ___.
a. #2 AC Transfer Bus
b. DC ESS BUS
c. #1 AC Transfer Bus
49- The PTU provides a backup source of hydraulic pressure to assist the ___ system electric
motor pump to operate the leading edge devices and the autoslat system when the ___
system engine driven pump output is below normal
a. A
b. B
50- If the Standby system has a leak, the “B” system reservoir will provide fluid to the
Standby Reservoir, until the “B” system reservoir has decreased and stabilized at
approximately ____.
a. 65%
b. 72%
c. 50%
d. 80%
 51- The Standby reservoir is pressurized and receives fluid from an interconnecting balance
line from ___ reservoir (s).
a. A
b. B
c. Both A and B
52- The Standby system reservoir receives fluid and pressure from the ____ reservoir.
a. B
b. A
53- Each hydraulic pump delivers ____ psi.
a. 3000
b. 2500
c. 2000
d. 3500
54- A system reservoir pressure is maintained by ___.
a. Pneumatic Pressure
b. Outflow Valve
c. Recirculation Fan
55- The RF (refill) indication appears if the quantity is below ____ with both engines shut
down or after landing with flaps up during the taxi in.
a. 76%
b. 75%
c. 60%
d. 80%
56- After takeoff, if the #1 engine N2 RPM falls below 56% with the Landing Gear Lever Up
and either main Gear not up, the Landing Gear Transfer Unit will use system ____ to
retract the gear at the normal rate.
a. B
b. A.
57- In the event of a leak in the lines associated with the engine driven pump, the reservoir
will maintain approximately ____.
a. 15%
b. 25%
c. 30%
d. 20%

ENGINES
1- Reverse thrust can be selected with the forward thrust levers in what position?
a- Maximum thrust position
b- Forward thrust position
c- Idle thrust position
d- Any position
2- Each engine has two igniter plugs. The EEC arms the igniter plug(s) selected by the
ignition select switch. The Left igniter plug receives power from the DC Standby bus
while the Right igniter plug receives power from the AC standby bus.
a- True
b- False
The Left igniter receives power from the associated transfer bus.
3- Starter Cutout speed is:
a- 25%
b- 46%
c- Approximately 50%
d- Approximately 56%
4- An auto-relight capability is provided for flame-out protection. Whenever the EEC
detects an engine flameout, both igniters are activated. A flameout is detected when:
 a- An uncommanded rapid decrease in N1 occurs
b- An uncommanded rapid decrease in N1 occurs or N2 is below idle RPM
c- An uncommanded rapid decrease in N2 occurs or N2 is below idle RPM
d- An uncommanded rapid decrease in N1 occurs or N2 is below idle RPM or EGT is below 200°C
5- At low N2 values, the oil scavenge pump may not provide enough pressure to return oil
to the tank, causing a low quantity indication. Normal oil quantity should be indicated
after start.
a- True
b- False.
6- Which hydraulic system normally powers the thrust reversers?
a- System A
b- System B
c- System A for engine No.1 & system B for Engine No.2
d- System A for engine No.2 & system B for Engine No.1
7- The EEC drives all engine indications except:
a- Fuel flow & oil pressure
b- Oil temperature & engine vibration
c- Oil quantity & engine vibration
d- Oil temperature, pressure & quantity indications.
8- Loss of either DEU:
a- Has no effect on EECs results in a loss of signal to the affected EEC
b- Results in a loss of signal to both EECs
c- The EEC lights illuminate and each EEC reverts to the alternate mode to prevent engines from operating
on a single source of data.
9- If a wet start is detected, the EEC will automatically turn off ignition & shut off fuel to
the engine:
a- 15 seconds after the start valve opens during ground starts
b- 15 seconds after the start lever is moved to idle during ground starts
c- 10 seconds on the ground or 30 seconds in flight after the start lever is moved to idle
d- No automatic shutdown is provided for a wet start.
e- A wet start occurs if the EGT does not rise after the start lever is moved to IDLE.
10- The amber DUAL BLEED light is illuminated before starting engines. What should you do?
a- Nothing, this is normal condition
b- Do not start the engines
c- Shut down the APU
d- Use a pneumatic ground cart for starting engines
11- The EEC automatically selects ground minimum idle, flight minimum idle and approach
idle. Approach idle is selected in flight:
a- Below approximately 12000 ft
b- If flaps are greater than 1 or engine & wing anti-ice are ON
c- If flaps are in landing configuration or engine anti-ice is ON for either engine
d- Below 1500 ft, f flaps are greater than 1 or engine anti-ice is ON
e- This higher % RPM improves engine acceleration time in the event of a go-around.
12- Approach idle is maintained:
a- Until after touchdown (60 KIAS)
b- Until Reverser selection
c- Until 84 KIAS
d- Until after touchdown, when ground minimum idle is selected.
13- In flight, if a fault prevents the EEC from receiving flap or anti-ice signals, approach idle
schedule begins:
a- Below 20 000 feet MSL
b- Below 15 000 feet MSL
c- Below 10 000 feet MSL
d- Below 5 000 feet MSL.
14- The EGT display, both box & dial, turn red and the EEC automatically turns off ignition
and shut off fuel to the engine if:
a- An impending hot start is detected during ground starts
b- An impending hot start is detected during ground starts or in flight starts
c- The EGT exceeds the starting limit during ground starts
d- The EGT exceeds the starting limit during ground or in flight starts.
15- Once activated, the DC operated fuel pump operates automatically until:
a- The completion of the APU start cycle
b- Once the APU is at governed speed, ready to acceptable load
c- An AC fuel pump pressurizes the manifold
d- APU shutdown
16- What are the indications that the engine starter has disengaged?
a- The fuel LOW PRESSURE lights extinguish with N1 RPM 56%
b- The start switch automatically returns to OFF, and the START VALVE OPEN light extinguishes
c- An immediate increase in the N1 indication due to closure of the compressor bleed valves
d- Start switch rotates to OFF and N2 RPM is stabilized (FUEL LOW PRESSURE extinguishes)
17- Engine oil pressure is in the yellow band at idle power. Which of the following is true?
a- Acceptable, no action is necessary
b- Normal, but requires continuous monitoring of the oil temperature
c- Undesirable, and permitted only for the completion of the flight, preferably at reduced thrust setting
d- Unsafe and requires that the engine be shut down as soon as possible.
18- EEC alternate mode thrust is always equal to or greater than normal mode thrust for the
same thrust lever position.
a- True
b- False.
19- The EEC automatically selects approach idle in flight anytime:
a- The airplane descends below 15000 feet MSL
b- Flaps are in the landing configuration or engine start switches are placed to CONT or FLT
c- Flaps are in the landing configuration and thrust lever angle is above 34 degrees for either engine
d- Flaps are in the landing configuration or engine anti-ice is ON for either engine
20- During a normal engine start:
a- Only oil quantity and engine vibration are available prior to placing the engine start switch to GND
b- Only N1, N2, oil quantity and engine vibration are available prior to placing the engine start switch to GND
c- The EEC is not powered until the engine accelerates to a speed greater that 15% N2
d- Only round dials are visible for engine indications prior to placing the engine start switch to GND
21- The APU GEN OFF BUS light will illuminate:
a- When the APU is at operational speed and is not supplying an AC Transfer bus
b- Whenever the APU is supplying power to generator bus No.1
c- Whenever the APU is supplying power to generator bus No.2
d- Whenever the APU is supplying power to a Main bus but not the associated Transfer bus
22- If a crossbleed start is required during in flight starting, the X BLEED START indication
will be displayed above the N2 dial.
a- True
b- False.
23- Of the four lights located on the APU control panel, which light will NOT cause an
automatic shutdown of the APU when it illuminates?
a- LOW OIL PRESSURE
b- LOW OIL QUANTITY / MAINT
c- HIGH OIL TEMP / FAULT
d- OVERSPEED
24- The EEC provides EGT redline exceedance protection.
a- True
b- False.
25- The EEC provides redline overspeed protection for:
a- N1 only in both the normal and alternate modes
 b- N2 only in both the normal and alternate modes
c- N1 & N2 in the normal mode only
d- N1 & N2 in both the normal and alternate modes.
26- The thrust reverser may be deployed:
a- Inflight when the thrust lever is at idle
b- When either radio altimeter is sensing less than 10 feet altitude
c- When the air/ground safety sensor is in the ground mode
d- All of the above
27- The REVERSER light, located on the aft overhead panel, illuminates when the thrust
reverser is commanded to stow and extinguishes 10 seconds later when the isolation
valve closes.
a- True
b- False
Any time the REVERSER light illuminates for more than 12 seconds, a malfunction has occured and the MASTER CAUTION and ENG system annunciator
lights illuminate.
28- The first action during an 'ABORTED ENGINE START' (before starter cutout) is:
a- ENGINE START SWITCH .........OFF
b- ENGINE START SWITCH......... GROUND
c- ENGINE START LEVER ..........CUT OFF
Continue to monitor the engine for 60 seconds (clears fuel and cools engine components) and then ENGINE START SWITCH OFF.
29- In case of LOSS OF THRUST ON BOTH ENGINES, you are supposed to wait for successful
engine start(s) before starting APU.
a- True.
b- False.
DO NOT wait for successful engine start(s) prior to starting APU. The APU has demonstrated the capability to provide electrical power up to 20 000 feet.
APU may be placed on either or both busses.
30- After a LOSS THRUST ON BOTH ENGINES, in moderate to heavy rain, it may take up to
______ to accelerate to idle.
a- 30 seconds
b- 60 seconds
c- 2 minutes
d- 3 minutes
31- During battery start, when does the EEC become energized?
a- When positioning the start switch to GND
b- N2 greater than 15%
c- When start lever is raised to idle
d- Above 25% N1
32- The loss of one DEU results in activation of the EEC´s alternate mode. What is correct?
a- The EEC´s automatically switch into hard mode and the engines might overboost
b- The soft alternate mode is entered first, using last valid flight conditions to define engine parameters
c- If the thrust levers are reduced the hard mode is entered and last valid flight conditions will be used for
the engine parameters.
d- You can only enter the hard mode by manually selecting it on the engine control panel.
33- An amber ENG FAIL alert appears on the EGT display if the N2 rpm falls below ____ with
the start lever in idle.
a. 55%
b. 50%
c. 40%
d. 60%
34- If the EEC detects a rapid EGT rise or an EGT approaching the start limit, the white box
around the digital EGT display ____.
a. changes to red
b. flashes
35- Soft Alternate occurs when the EEC ___ selects the Alternate mode.
a. manually
b. automatically
36- The primary airflow continues to flow normally during reverse operations.
a. True
b. False
37- The N1 dial, pointer, and digital display turn _____ if the max operating N1 rpm is
exceeded.
a. blue
b. amber
c. red
d. magenta
38- The ____ stage bleed air is the normal bleed supply to the pneumatic system.
a. 7th
b. 9th
c. 5th
d. 13th
39- The fuel used display is automatically reset when electrical power is removed from the
aircraft systems.
a. True
b. False
40- Which ignition position operates both igniters regardless of the selected igniter?
a- CONT
b- FLT
41- The ignition ____ position is used for takeoff, landing, flight in precipitation, and engine
operation in icing conditions.
a. FLT
b. GND
c. CONT
42- The start switch is magnetically held in the GND position (by normal AC power) until the
engine N2 rpm exceeds ____%
a. 50
b. 55
c. 56
d. 60
43- The HMU functions independently of the EEC.
a. True
b. False
44- The ____ stage bleed air will augment the 5th stage bleed air, whenever the 5th stage air
is not sufficient, such as during low thrust settings.
a. 9th
b. 13th
c. 11th
d. 15th
45- The lights for the engine fuel shutoff valve and the spar shutoff valve appear ____ when
the valves are closed.
a. dim blue
b. bright blue
46- The EEC is electrically powered from the Transfer Buses until approximately ____ N2 on
engine start.
a. 25%
b. 13%
c. 20%
d. 15%
47- The EEC is a ___ computer.
a. 4 channel
b. 3 channel
 c. 1 channel
d. 2 channel
48- The EGT display changes from white to amber if the maximum continuous EGT is
exceeded for more than _____.
a. five minutes
b. 30 second
c. two minutes
d. three minutes
49- A _____ X-BLD appears above the N2 display if airspeed is less than the airspeed
required for a windmill start.
a. magenta
b. amber
c. red
d. blue
50- The starter is ____ operated.
a. pneumatically
b. hydraulically
c. electrically
51- The EEC provides EGT redline exceedance protection in the Alternate Mode.
a. true
b. false
52- The ____ is the free spool, while the ____ is the driven spool that is connected (by
gears) to the accessory section.
a. N2, N1
b. N1, N3
c. N1, N2
d. N2, N3
53- TAI displays in ____ if the cowl anti-ice valve is not in the position commanded by the
cowl anti-ice switch.
a. amber
b. green
c. blue
d. red
54- During engine start, a red radial appears on the EGT display to represent the maximum
start EGT of ___ degrees C.
a. 700
b. 550
c. 725
d. 650
55- When engine reverse thrust is selected, an ____ REV appears above the N1 digital
display box while the reverser is in transit.
a. green
b. amber
c. red
d. blue
56- Low oil pressure (below approximately 13psi) causes the illumination of the associated
____ LOW OIL PRESSURE annunciator on the Upper DU.
a. white
b. red
c. amber
d. green.
57- What is the purpose of the white stripes that are painted on the engine bullet?
a- Visual indication that engine is running
b- Indicates the correct direction of N1 rotation
58- Which spool generates most of the engine thrust?
 a- N2
b- N1
59- During reverse operations, which airflow is actually reversed?
a- Fan airflow (secondary)
b- Primary airflow
60- The N2 operating speed is determined by the____
a- EEC
b- N1
61- Which of these items are driven by the accessory section which is gear connected to the
N2
a- Engine starter, IDG, Hydraulic Pump, Oil Pump, fuel Pump, and N2 tachometer.
b- Engine starter, Pack, Oil Pump, Fuel Pump, and EGT.
62- The Oil press must display_____ when takeoff power is applied.
a- In white range
b- At 40 psi
63- What device actually delivers the oil temperature information to the DU?
a- EEC
b- Sensing Probe
64- The Oil Pressure Low light will blink for 10 seconds when the oil pressure is bellow
approximately ____.
Note: Blinking is inhibited during takeoff
a- 33 psi
b- 13 psi
65- What causes the active EEC channel to switch under normal conditions?
a- Engine start
b- Ground Shift
66- Does either the normal or alternate EEC mode provide EGT exceedance protection
a- Yes- just the normal mode
b- No
67- The engine start valve is ____ controlled, and _____ operated.
a. electrically, hydraulically
b. electrically, pneumatically
c. hydraulically, pneumatically
d. pneumatically, electrically

ELECTRICAL SYSTEM
1- Which of the following is false concerning the B737NG electrical system?
a. Each Integrated Drive Generator (IDG) supplies its own and can also supply essential and non-
essential loads of the opposite side bus system.
b. The AC power sources are paralleled by an auto-paralleling system.
c. The source of power being connected to a transfer bus automatically disconnects an existing power
source.
2- The purpose of the AC ground service bus is to power:
a. The cabin lighting
b. The utility outlets
c. The battery charger
d. All the above.
3- The TR´s ( Transformer rectifier ) convert:
a. 115 volts DC to 28 volts AC
b. 115 volts AC to 28 volts AC
c. 115 volts AC to 28 volts DC
d. 115 volts DC to 28 volts DC
4- Which is the power source for the AC standby bus?
a. Transfer bus 1 under normal conditions
 b. Transfer bus 2
c. AC main bus 1
d. Battery Bus through the Static Inverter under normal conditions
5- If the AC source powering a transfer bus fails, the transfer bus will remain
unpowered.
a. True.
b. False.
6- A high oil temperature in the IDG would cause an automatic disconnect of the
IDG.
a. True
b. False.
7- The TR3 cross bus tie relay automatically opens at glide slope capture to:
a. Prevent a single bus failure from affecting both navigation receivers and Flight Control Computers
(FCCs)
b. Provide more power to the AC STANDBY Bus
c. Ensure that the STANDBY DC is powered.
d. Provide more power to DC bus 1
8- In flight, if the APU is supplying both AC Transfer busses, positioning the BUS
TRANS switch to OFF will:
a. Cause AC Transfer bus No.1 to lose power
b. Cause AC Transfer bus No.2 to lose power
c. Cause both AC Transfer busses to lose power
d. Not cause either AC Transfer bus to fail.
9- The TR3 Disconnect Relay:
a. Must be manually opened using the BUS TRANSFER Switch during a Flight Director approach
b. Normally powers the Battery Charger and backs-up TR units 1 & 2 through a diode
c. Automatically opens at glide slope capture during a Flight Director or Autopilot ILS approach
d. Will trip off when AC volts reaches 26 volts (+ or - 4 Volts) as dispalyed on the AC Voltmeter.
10- The Engine Integrated Drive Generators (IDGs):
a. Are used in conjunction with a separate generator drive unit (CSD)
b. Adjust varying generator speeds to maintain a constant frequency throughout normal range of
operation
c. Allow the generator to maintain a constant speed throughout the normal range of operation
d. Operate whenever the engine is operating and cannot be completely isolated from their associated
generator.
11- After the loss of all generators, a fully charged battery can furnish power to the
STANDBY Bus equipment for a minimum of:
a. 20 minutes
b. 30 minutes
c. 60 minutes
d. 90 minutes
12- The cross bus tie relay:
a. Must be manually opened using the BUS TRANSFER Switch during a Flight Director approach
b. Normally powers the Battery Charger and backs-up TR units 1 and 2 through a diode
c. Opens up if BUS TRANSFER switch is moved to OFF
d. Will trip off when AC volts reaches 26 volts (plus or minus 4 volts) as displayed on the AC voltmeter
13- Illumination of the GND POWER AVAILABLE light indicates:
a. Ground power is connected and meets airplane power quality standards.
b. Ground power is connected however no airplane power quality is measured.
c. The Ground Service Bus is powered by a ground power supply.
d. The external power bus is powered by a ground power supply.
14- For ground service, a ground service switch is placed:
a. On aft overhead panel on the Flight Deck
b. On aft attendant´s panel
c. On forward attendant´s panel
d. On external receptacle on the right side of the aircraft exterior
15- The GROUND POWER AVAILABLE light will extinguish when:
a. The GROUND POWER switch is positioned ON
 b. The GROUND SERVICE switch is positioned ON
c. The pneumatic ground cart is disconnected
d. The AC ground power cart has been disconnected
16- The 115V AC Standby Bus is powered by:
a. The 115V Transfer Bus No.1 under normal conditions.
b. The Battery Bus through the Static Inverter under normal conditions.
c. The Battery through the Static Inverter with a failure of both engine driven generators.
d. The first & the third statements are correct.
17- One basic principle of operation for the B737 electrical system is:
a. All generator bus sources can be automatically connected by the Standby Power System.
b. There is no paralleling of the AC power sources.
c. There is no paralleling of any power source.
d. An AC power source may be used in parallel with a DC power source..
18- Because engine generators power the transfer busses directly, and transfer
busses are connected by a bus tie system, the loss of an engine driven generator
will not necessarily result in the loss of any bus(ses).
a. True
b. False.
19- The modified DC system archiqueture resulted in the TR3 disconnect relay
found in the boeing 737- 300 thru 500 being replaced with a bus tie relay. The
cross bus tie relay opens automatically under the same circumstances as did the
TR3 disconnect relay.
a. True
b. False
20- The SOURCE OFF light will illuminate:
a. When the source selected to power the transfer bus has failed and the automatic bus transfer
function has closed the BTBs to power the transfer bus from another source.
b. When the source selected to power the Transfer bus and the automatic transfer function have both
failed resulting in the transfer bus being. unpowered
c. When the TRANSFER BUS OFF light is illuminated.
d. All of the above.
21- When the STANDBY POWER Switch is OFF:
a. The STANDBY PWR OFF light will be illuminated
b. Automatic switching is provided from normal power sources to alternate power sources
c. The STANDBY PWR OFF light will be extinguished
d. The Static Inverter provides 28V DC power to Transfer Bus No.1.
22- Illumination of the BAT DISCHARGE light indicates:
a. The battery is being overcharged.
b. Excessive battery discharge is detected with the battery switch ON.
c. The DC meter is in the BAT position with the battery switch ON.
d. The battery bus is not powered.
23- In the event that the airplane battery is depleted, the APU can be started using
DC external power.
a. True
b. False.
24- Illumination of the blue GEN OFF BUS light indicates:
a. The associated generator bus is not powered
b. The associated transfer bus is not powered
c. The IDG is not supplying power to its associated transfer bus
d. The generator is not supplying power to its associated generator bus.
25- When the aircraft batteries is the only source of power:
a. The Captain\'s inboard and outboard displays operate until the battery is discharged and the First
Officer\'s inboard and outboard displays operate for a minimum of 5 minutes
b. The Captain\'s inboard and outboard displays operate until the battery is discharged
c. The Captain\'s inboard and the First Officer\'s inboard and outboard displays are inoperative
d. Both the Captain\'s and First Officer\'s PFD/ND displays remain operative but only DEU No 1 is
powered until the battery is discharged
26- Illumination of the GEN BUS OFF light indicates:
a. The associated generator bus is not powered.
b. The associated transfer bus is not powered.
c. The IDG is not supplying power to its associated Transfer bus.
d. The generator is not supplying power to its associated generator bus.
27- It is possible to power one transfer bus with external power and the other
transfer bus with the APU.
a. True.
b. False.
28- The crew fails to properly accomplish normal procedures and takes off with the
APU powering both Transfer busses (SELECT THE INCORRECT STATEMENT)
a. One Transfer bus will disconnect automatically after lift-off.
b. During climb, the galleys may become inoperative.
c. Both Main busses may become inoperative above 400 feet RA or after 12 sec. from lift-off.
d. The generators will come on line automatically if the APU is either shut down or fails.
29- AC amperage can be observed on the AC ammeter for the source selected by the
AC meter selector.
a. True
b. False.
30- During cruise, one engine driven generator drops off-line. Indications that the
crew should see include:
a. A TRANSFER BUS OFF light and a GEN OFF BUS light
b. A SOURCE OFF light and a GEN OFF BUS light
c. Illumination of the fuel pump, probe heat, respective hydraulic pumps powered by the associated
Transfer bus
d. All Of the Above
31- Illumination of the DRIVE light indicates:
a. IDG failure
b. IDG automatic disconnect due to high oil temperature
c. IDG disconnected through the drive disconnect switch
d. Any of the above.
32- Both AC Transfer busses can be powered simultaneously by:
a. A single IDG on the ground or inflight
b. The APU generator while on the ground or inflight
c. Both of the above
d. No single source can power both AC Transfer busses simultaneously
33- On the ground, with the battery switch OFF and STANBY POWER Switch in AUTO,
the Battery Bus is:
a. Not powered.
b. Powered by TR3.
c. Powered by the Hot Battery Bus.
d. Powered by the Battery.
34- The TR UNIT will illuminate in flight if:
a. Any TR unit fails.
b. TR1 fails or TR2 and TR3 fail.
c. TR2 fails.
d. TR3 fails.
35- The ELEC light will illuminate in flight if:
a. A fault exists in the AC or Standby power system.
b. A fault exists in the DC or Standby system.
c. A fault exists in the AC, DC or the Standby system.
d. The ELEC light only operates on the ground.
36- What is the significance of an illuminated ELEC light?
a. One of the three TRs has failed.
b. The DC system or standby system equipment has failed.
c. The battery is discharged.
d. Two or more TRs have failed.
 37- With external DC power connected to the external DC power receptacle:
a. The APU can be started using DC external power.
b. The battery is paralleled with the DC External power source.
c. All circuits normally powered by the battery are powered.
d. There is no external DC power receptacle.
38- Illumination of the STANDBY POWER OFF light indicates:
a. The AC Standby Bus is unpowered
b. The DC Standby Bus is unpowered
c. The Battery Bus is unpowered
d. Any of the above.
39- With the STANDBY switch in the AUTO position, the loss of all engine or APU
electrical power results in the automatic switching from the normal power
source to the alternate source for standby power:
a. Inflight only.
b. On the ground only.
c. Either inflight or on the ground.
d. Will not occur.
40- In flight if APU is the only source of electrical power:
a. All galley busses are automatically shed
b. Only galley bus A & B are automatically shed
c. Only galley bus C & D are automatically shed
d. No galley busses are automatically shed
41- With the STANDBY POWER switch in AUTO (guarded position). In flight, or on
the ground, loss of all AC power. AC Standby bus is powered by battery through
static inverter & DC Standby bus is powered by battery.
a. True.
b. False.
42- DC voltage and amperage may be read on the DC voltmeter and ammeter for the
battery and each of the 3 TRs. The standby power and battery bus displays only
DC voltage. Normal indication is:____ Volts
a. 24 +/- 4
b. 26 +/- 6
c. 24 +/-2
d. 26 +/-4
43- The DRIVE amber caution light comes on when:
a. Low oil pressure is sensed in the IDG
b. The IDG is disconnected automatically due to high oil pressure
c. The IDG is disconnected manually with the drive disconnect switch
d. The engine is not running.
44- The purpose of the static inverter is to convert 24 volt DC power from the
battery to 115V AC power to supply the AC standby bus during the loss of
normal electrical power.
a. True.
b. False.
The power supply to the inverter is controlled by the standby power switch and the battery switch on the overhead panel.
45- The two nickel-cadmium batteries can provide standby power for a minimum of
_____ minutes (if fully charged).
a. 30
b. 45
c. 60
d. 75
46- DC busses powered from the battery following a loss of both generators are:
a. Battery bus, DC Standby bus, Hot battery bus.
b. DC standby Bus, Hot Battery Bus & Switched hot battery bus.
c. Battery bus, DC Standby bus, Hot battery bus & Switched hot battery bus (even when the battery
switch is OFF).
 d. Battery bus, DC Standby bus, Hot battery bus & Switched hot battery bus.
e. Switched hot battery bus is powered whenever the battery switch is ON.
47- If the TR UNIT light is illuminates in flight, it indicates that one or more TR's
have failed and you are supposed not to use the AFDS approach mode.
a. True.
b. False.
48- An illuminated TR UNIT light while on the ground indicates that at least two TRs
have failed.
a. True
b. False
49- What is the purpose of the GROUND SERVICE switch?
a. Provides automatic control of ground service bus.
b. Provide automatic control of ground service busses.
c. Provide manual control of ground service bus.
d. Provide manual control of ground service busses.
e. Enables servicing airplane using external power without activating AC transfer busses.
50- Either generator or the APU can power both transfer buses. In the event a power
source fails, what is required for that transfer bus to be powered by the opposite
transfer bus power source?
a. The generator switch must be OFF.
b. The battery switch must be ON.
c. The BUS TRANS switch must be in the AUTO position.
51- Normal AC voltmeter indication for the APU generator with the AC busses
loaded:
a. 100 to 125 volts.
b. 110 to 125 volts.
c. 110 to 135 volts.
d. 115 to 125 volts.
52- Illumination of the STANDBY POWER OFF light indicates:
a. DC bus 1 unpowered
b. DC bus 2 unpowered
c. AC standby bus unpowered
d. Hot battery bus unpowered
53- DC voltage and amperage may be read on the DC voltmeter and ammeter for the
battery and each of the three TRs. The standby power and battery bus displays
only DC voltage. Normal indication is:
a. 12 +/- 4 volts.
b. 24+/- 10 volts
c. 26 +/- 4 Volts
During primary charge cycle operation battery voltage can be as high as 30 +/- 3 volts
54- Both On the ground and in flight amber ELEC light comes on to indicate that a
fault exists in DC power system or standby power system.
a. True.
b. False.
The ELEC light is inhibited in flight.
55- Galley busses are powered from:
a. The AC Transfer busses.
b. The generator busses.
c. The Battery bus.
d. The main busses.
56- How many TRs are required to power the entire DC system?
a. Any one TR.
b. Two TRs.
c. Three TRs.
d. Any TR and the battery.
57- What is the source of power for TR3?
a. Transfer bus 1.
 b. Transfer bus 2.
c. AC standby bus.
d. None of above
58- What is the source of power for TR2?
a. Transfer bus 1.
b. Transfer bus 2.
c. AC Standby bus
d. None of above.
59- The switched hot battery bus is powered whenever:
a. TR1 is powered.
b. Transfer bus 1 is powered.
c. AC ground service bus is powered.
d. The battery switch is ON.
60- The purpose of the cross tie relay is to:
a. Isolate transfer bus 1 and 2
b. Isolate DC bus 1 from DC bus 2
c. Disconnect TR1 and TR3
61- What is the source of power for TR1?
a. Transfer bus 1
b. Transfer bus 2
c. AC standby bus
62- On the ground, with the BATTERY switch OFF and STANDBY POWER Switch in
BAT, the switched hot battery bus is:
a. Not powered
b. Powered by TR 3
c. Powered by the Hot Battery Bus
d. Powered by the Battery
63- The main battery charger is powered through:
a. DC bus 1
b. AC ground service bus 2
c. AC main bus 1
d. Transfer Bus 1
64- Which bus supplies electrical power to the auxiliary battery charger?
a. AC ground service bus 1
b. AC ground service bus 2
c. Transfer bus 2
d. Transfer bus 1
65- The auxiliary battery operates in parallel with the main battery when the
battery is powering the standby bus.
a. True
b. False
66- The electrical system incorporates an automatic load shedding feature. What is
the first bus that is shed?
a. Galleys on transfer bus 1 are shed first.
b. Galleys on transfer bus 2 are shed first.
c. The AC standby bus is shed first.
d. None of above.
67- The electrical system incorporates an automatic load shedding feature. What is
the second bus that is shed?
a. Galleys on transfer bus 1
b. Galleys on transfer bus 2
c. The AC ground service bus.
d. The AC standby bus
68- After an overload situation has been resolved, how do you recover the galley
buses?
a. It happens automatically.
b. Move the galley power switch to OFF then ON.
 c. A ground engineer should reselect the appropriate switch in the E/E
69- Once disconnected, the IDG can be reconnected in flight.
a. True
b. False
70- When the APU is started, it will automatically come on-line and replace the previous
power source.
a. True
b. False
71- With the Battery switch OFF – the Standby Power switch must be placed to _____ to
power the Standby system from the Battery.
a. AUTO
b. BATT
c. MAN
72- The OFF position of the Bus Transfer Switch opens the ____ .
a. DC Crosstie Relay
b. Bus Tie Breaker
73- The normally closed Cross Bus Tie relay opens when the autoflight Approach mode
captures the ____ with the Flight Director or Autopilot in use.
a. localizer and glideslope
b. glideslope
c. localizer
74- The Battery Bus is normally powered from _____.
a. TR1
b. TR2
c. TR3
d. All TR’s
75- If an overload exists after shedding of galley power, Main Bus 1 and Main Bus 2 are
shed.
a. true
b. false
76- A disconnected IDG can only be reconnected on the ground, by maintenance.
a. True
b. False
77- When an engine is started, its IDG automatically comes on line and powers the
respective side of the electrical system.
a. True
b. False
78- The BAT switch OFF position removes power from the Battery Bus and _____ when
operating with normal power available and the Standby Power switch in AUTO.
a. DC Standby Bus
b. AC Standby Bus
c. Switched Hot Battery Bus
79- The aircraft battery cannot provide power to AC components.
a. True
b. False
80- How is the DC system powered?
a. External Power
b. IDGs
c. APU
d. Powered from the AC system through transformer rectifiers
81- The aircraft is equipped with _____ -90KVA generators.
a. three
b. five
c. two
d. four
 82- In case of an overload condition, the galley power on ____ is shed first.
a. Transfer Bus 1
b. Transfer Bus 2
83- Inflight or on the Ground with normal conditions, the Standby Power switch in the AUTO
position allows the AC Standby Bus to be normally powered by ____.
a. Transfer Bus 1
b. Transfer Bus 2
c. Both Transfer Bus 1 and 2
84- Each IDG is driven by the ____ accessory drive of the engine.
a. N2
b. N1
85- There is never a time that two generators are allowed to power the same Transfer Bus.
a. true
b. false
86- With the Bus Transfer switch in ____, the Bus Tie Breakers (BTB) can automatically
power the entire electrical system from a single AC power source.
a. ON
b. Transfer
c. AUTO
87- DC power is normally provided by onboard _____ DC Transformer Rectifiers that convert
AC power to DC power.
a. 28 volt
b. 14 volt

FLIGHT CONTROLS
1- The primary flight controls consist of rudder, ailerons and ______
a- Spoilers
b- Flaps
c- Elevators
d- Speedbrakes
2- Why are mechanical gates installed on the flap selector unit.
a- To prevent inadvertent flap lever movement beyond F1 and F15 during G/A
b- To hinder flap movement beyond F15 until gear down is selected.
c- Prevent flap movement to UP position when speed is too low.
d- Has no particular function.
3- If the spoilers become jammed:
a- The first officer’s control wheel operates the ailerons
b- The captain’s control wheel operates the ailerons
c- The ALT spoiler system is selected
d- The first officer’s control wheel operates the spoilers and ailerons
4- In the event of hydraulic Systems A & B fail, ailerons, elevators, and rudder can
be operated with the Standby system.
a- True
b- False
5- Roll control is provided by the ailerons, assisted by the _____
a- Flight spoilers
b- Ground spoilers
c- Flight spoilers & ground spoilers
d- Flight spoilers or ground spoilers (depending on speed)
6- During a normal landing, flight spoilers & ground spoilers will always extend
simultaneously.
a- True
b- False.
7- Elevator Feel provides simulated aero forces using airspeed from elevator pitot
& stabilizer position.
 a- True
b- False
The feel is transmitted to the control columns by the elevator feel & centering unit.
8- To operate the Feel system, the Elevator Feel Computer uses:
a- Either hydraulics system A or B pressure
b- Either hydraulics system A or B pressure (whichever is higher)
c- Hydraulics system A
d- Hydraulics system B
e- The system operates normally even with only one hydraulics system remaining
9- A Mach Trim system provides speed stability at the higher Mach numbers. Mach
trim is automatically accomplished above:
a- Mach 0.50
b- Mach 0.615
c- Mach 0.655
d- Mach 0.70
10- Mach Trim system corrects for Mach tuck by moving stabilizer up.
a- True
b- False.
It moves elevators up (not the stabilizer)
11- Concerning Mach Trim operation, FCCs use Mach information from the ADC /
ADIRU, to compute a Mach trim actuator position which repositions the elevator
feel & centering unit, which adjusts the control column neutral position (column
will not move).
a- True
b- False.
Of course the column will move !
12- In addition to hydraulic system A and B, the rudder can also powered by the
standby hydraulic system through the:
a- System A Standby Rudder Power Control Unit
b- System B Standby Rudder Power Control Unit
c- Standby Rudder Power Control Unit
d- Main Rudder Power Control Unit
13- The Power Transfer Unit provides an alternate source of power for the Autoslat
System if:
a- A loss of Hydraulic System A pressure is sensed
b- Hydraulic System A engine driven pump is inoperative
c- The Alternate Flaps Position Switch is momentarily held down
d- A loss of pressure from the Hydraulic System B engine pump is sensed.
14- The trailing edge flaps are at 15 units. The correct indication on the aft overhead
panel for the leading edge devices is:
a- All amber TRANSIT lights illuminated
b- All LE devices FULL EXT lights illuminated
c- All LE devices EXT lights illuminated
d- LE slats EXT lights and LE flaps FULL EXT lights illuminated.
15- During flight with both hydraulic systems A & B inoperative:
a- The standby hydraulic system operates the trailing edge flaps normally
b- Trim is available for the stabilizer and rudder only. Aileron trim is inoperative with the autopilots
disengaged.
c- The autoslat system is still functional through the operation of the PTU
16- The elevator transfer mechanism allows:
a- The elevator feel and centering unit to transfer the source of power for elevator actuators to
hydraulic systems A or B, depending upon which is producing higher pressure.
b- The control column to be physically separated in the event of an elevator jam.
c- Forces from either control column to be transferred to the stabilizer.
d- The elevator feel & centering unit to transfer proper aerodynamic forces to the control columns.
17- Autopilot trim & main stabilizer trim use separate motors.
a- True
b- False.
18- What is the number of flight spoilers located on each wing?
a- 2
b- 3
c- 4
d- 6.
19- The Flap/Slat Electronics Unit (FSEU) provides:
a- LE skew detection for slats 2 through 7 except during autoslat operation
b- TE asymetry protection by removing hydraulic pressure to the TE flaps if an asymetry is detected
c- Uncommanded motion protection for LE devices and TE flaps.
d- All of the above are correct.
20- Select the correct statement:
a- The primary flight controls are powered by hydraulics systems A & B, with backup from the standby
hydraulic system for the rudder and manual reversion for the rest.
b- Flight spoilers are used both for roll control, descent and decelaration.
c- The trailing edge flaps can be both extended and retracted using the Alternate Flap drive system.
d- All statements are correct.
21- Loss of Hydraulic System B pressure does not cause illumination of the amber
YAW DAMPER light or yaw damper disengagement.
a- True
b- False.
22- Leading Edge devices are normally operated by ______
a- Hydraulic System A
b- Hydraulic System B
c- Hydraulic Systems A & B
d- Standby Hydraulic system.
23- The amber LE FLAPS TRANSIT light :
a- Indicates all LE Devices are fully extended
b- Indicates LE Slats are fully extended
c- Is inhibited during Autoslat operation inflight
d- Provide TE flap asymmetry protection
24- Elevator system feel is provided by the elevator feel computer. This computer
receives inputs of:
a- Altitude & elevator position
b- Elevator balance tabs position
c- Only System A hydraulic pressure
d- Airspeed & stabilzer position.
25- The number of slats located on each wing are:
a- 2
b- 3
c- 4
d- 6.
26- When the Standby Yaw Damper is active, rudder movements are indicated on
the yaw damper indicator.
a- True
b- False.
27- The trailing edge flaps devices consist of double slotted flaps inboard outboard
of each engine.
a- True
b- False.
28- With the loss of hydraulic system B, (system A operating normally):
a- Main yaw damper functions are available as long as hydraulic system A is providing normal pressure
and the yaw damper switch is ON.
b- Standby yaw damper functions are available as long as hydraulic system A is providing normal
pressure and the yaw damper switch is ON
c- Main & standby yaw damper functions are lost
d- Standby yaw damper functions are available if the FLT CONTROL B switch is placed to STBY RUD and
the YAW DAMPER switch is reset to ON
29- The amber FEEL DIFF PRESS light illuminates when the:
 a- Flaps are up & a pressure imbalance between hydraulic systems A & B is detected or if one of the
elevator feel pitot systems fails
b- Flaps are not up and a hydraulic pressure imbalance is detected or one of the elevator feel pitot
systems fails
c- Flaps are up or down and a hydraulic pressure imbalance is detected or if one of the elevator pitot
systems fails.
d- No correct answer is provided.
30- The airspeed range for trim operation is:
a- 100-300 KIAS
b- 158-300 KIAS
c- 100 KIAS - Mach 0.50
d- 100 KIAS - Mach 0.615
31- Yaw damper inputs (main or standby) can be overridden:
a- Only when the yaw damper switch is off
b- By trim inputs but not rudder pedal inputs
c- By rudder pedal inputs but not trim inputs
d- By either trim or rudder pedal inputs.
32- Main electric trim can be used to apply up to +14.5 units.
a- True
b- False.
Main Electric Trim: a)Flaps retracted 3.95 to 14.5 units b)Flaps extended 0.05 to 14.5 units(same than autopilot trim) Manual
trim: 0.20 to 16.9 units.
33- Main electric trim has 2 speed modes: high & low speed.
a- True
b- False.
34- An alternate retraction system is provided for the LE Devices.
a- True
b- False.
35- What is number of ground spoilers on each wing?
a- 2
b- 3
c- 4
d- 6.
36- The Autoslat system:
a- Provides for slat deployment above VMMO/MMO
b- Drives the slats to FULL EXTEND when TE Flaps 1 through 5 are selected and the airplane
approaches a stall
c- Is normally powered by Hydraulic System A
d- Is normally powered by Transfer Bus No.2
37- The flap load relief system is operational at:
a- All flap settings
b- Flaps 15, 30 & 40
c- Flaps 30 & 40
d- Flaps 40 only.
38- The ALTERNATE FLAPS Master Switch:
a- Fully extends the LE Devices using Standby Hydraulic pressure, and electrically extends the TE Flaps
b- Closes the Flight Spoiler Shutoff valve
c- Activates the Standby Hydraulic Pump and pressurizes the STANDBY Rudder Power Control Unit.
d- Arms the Alternate Flaps Position Switch, activates the Standby Hydraulic Pump, and closes the
Trailing
39- During landing, compression of any landing gear strut enables the flight spoilers
to deploy. Compression of the Right main landing gear strut enables the ground
spoilers to deploy...
a- True
b- False.
Note : if a wheel spin-up signal is not detected, when the air/ground system senses ground mode (any gear compresses), the
SPEED BRAKE lever moves to the UP position and flight spoiler panels deploy automatically. When the Right main landing gear
strut compresses, a mechanical linkage opens the ground spoiler shutoff valve and the ground spoilers deploy.
40- During descent from altitude you need to decrease your airspeed by using your
speed brakes. What is the correct position of the SPEED BRAKE LEVER.
a- ARMED
b- FLIGHT DETENT
c- UP
d- Any intermediate position.
41- If wheel spin up is not detected on landing with the speed brake armed the flight
spoilers will deploy automatically :
a- Only when the RIGHT main landing gear strut compresses
b- When the air/ground system senses the ground mode (any strut compresses)
c- When the ground spoilers deploy
d- Flight spoilers do not deploy on landing, only ground spoilers deploy.
42- What is the maximum flap extension altitude?
a- 10 000 feet
b- 17 000 feet
c- 20 000 feet
d- 23 000 feet
43- Dual AILERON trim switches, located on the aft electronic panel, must be pushed
simultaneously to command trim changes. The trim electrically repositions the
aileron feel and centering unit, which causes the control wheel to rotate and
redefines the aileron neutral position.
a- True
b- False.
44- The flight control computers use Mach Information from the _____ to compute a
Mach trim actuator position.
a- Airspeed Indicator
b- ADIRU
c- Mach/Airspeed Indicator & thrust levers position
45- What do the MACH TRIM FAIL, SPEED TRIM FAIL & AUTO SLAT FAIL lights have
in common?
a- Will illuminate if both system computers fail
b- Will illuminate during Master Caution Recall if only one computer has failed
c- Also illuminates the Master Caution & FLT CONT annunciator Lights.
d- All of the above.
46- Extending the flaps to flaps 15 using ALTERNATE FLAPS takes approximately
_______
a- 30 seconds
b- 1 minute
c- 2 minutes
d- 4 minutes.
47- If you experience a 'JAMMED OR RESTRICTED ELEVATOR OR AILERON' you may:
a- Use maximum force, including a combined effort of both pilots, if required (a maximum two-pilot effort)
on the controls will cause a cable or system failure)
 b- Turn off any flight control switches
c- Limit bank angle to 10 degrees
d- All of the above.
Never turn off any flight control switches. See QRH: 'JAMMED OR RESTRICTED ELEVATOR OR AILERON'
48- The LE FLAPS TRANSIT light illuminated indicates _______
a- Leading edge devices are in transit
b- Leading edge devices do not agree with trailing edge flap setting
c- Asymetric leading edge devices
d- Any of the above.
49- The speedbrake lever will move forward and all spoilers will retract if either
thrust lever is advanced after landing.
a- True
b- False.
50- The SPEED BRAKE DO NOT ARM light indicates that the speedbrake is not
usable.
a- True
b- False.
51- The flight spoilers rise on the wing with up aileron and remain faired on the
wing with down aileron. When the control wheel is displaced more than
approximately ____ degrees, spoiler deflection is initiated.
a- 6,5
b- 8
c- 10
d- 12.
52- At what flap setting(s) should the leading edge slats be in the FULL EXTEND
position?
a- 1
b- 1 to 5
c- Greater than 5
d- 5 to 40.
53- With a loss of both system A & B, the elevator FEEL DIFF PRESS light will
illuminate:
a- True
b- False.
54- What is the correct flap setting for a jammed stabilizer landing?
a- 1
b- 5
c- 15
d- 30 or 40.
55- During an 'ALL FLAPS UP LANDING', the speed to be maintained is:
a- VREF40 + 15
b- VREF40 + 30
c- VREF40 + 55
d- VREF40 + 60
56- During the 'ALTERNATE FLAPS OPERATION' procedure, you have to plan a Flaps
15 landing. After arming the ALTERNATE FLAPS MASTER SWITCH (230 kt max),
you set the flaps to desired flap position & extend flaps on maneuvering speed
schedule. The LE FLAPS TRANSIT light will remain illuminates until the flaps
approach the:
a- Flaps 1 position
b- Flaps 5 position
c- Flaps 10 position
d- Flaps 15 position.
57- If the SPEEDBRAKES EXTENDED light is illuminated in flight. It indicates:
a- The speed brake lever is beyond the ARMED position with either the TE flaps extended more than
Flaps 5 or the Radio altitude is less than 500 ft
 b- The speed brake lever is beyond the ARMED position with either the TE flaps extended more than
Flaps 10 or the Radio altitude is less than 800 ft
c- The speed brake lever is beyond the ARMED position with either the TE flaps extended more than
Flaps 15 or the Radio altitude is less than 2500 ft
d- The speed brake lever is beyond the ARMED position with either the TE flaps extended more than
Flaps 1 or the Radio altitude is less than 800 ft
58- You have to perform a runway stabilizer recall items. What are your
chronological actions?
a- 1) Hold firmly the Control column 2) Disengage the autopilot 3) if runaway continues, cutout the
stabilizer cutout switches (if runaway continues you'll have to grasp & hold trim wheel)
b- You immediately grasp & hold trim wheel while declaring an emergency
c- You disengage autopilot and cutout immediately cutout switches
d- You disengage autopilot and cutout the both A & B FLT CONTROL switches
e- See QRH.
59- The Speed Trim System (STS) is a speed stability augmentation system designed
to improve flight characteristics during operation with a low gross weight, aft
center of gravity and high thrust when the autopilot is not engaged.
a- True
b- False.
The STS monitors inputs of stabilizer position, thrust lever position, airspeed and vertical speed and then trims the stabilizer
using the autopilot stabilizer trim.Remember that the SPEED TRIM FAIL amber light is often illuminated when you arrive at the
aircraft. It is only due to the Inertial Vertical Speed Indicator which is not powered by the ADIRUs (IRS selectors OFF): the STS
receive invalid inputs.
60- The Speed Trim System (STS) operates most frequently during takeoffs & go-
arounds. Conditions for speed trim operation are:
a- Airspeed between 100 KIAS and Mach 0.68, 10 seconds after takeoff, 5 seconds following release of
trim switches, N1 above 60%, autopilot not engaged, sensing of trim requirement
b- Airspeed between 100 KIAS and Mach 0.68, 10 seconds after takeoff, 5 seconds following release of
trim switches, N1 above 40%, sensing of trim requirement
c- Airspeed between 100 KIAS and Mach 0.68, 15 seconds after takeoff, 5 seconds following release of
trim switches, N1 above 60%, sensing of trim requirement
d- Airspeed between 100 KIAS and Mach 0.68, 10 seconds after takeoff, 5 seconds following release of
trim switches, N1 above 40%, autopilot not engaged, sensing of trim requirement
61- During a steady right-handed turn on the ground, correct indications of the Yaw
Damper indicator would be?
a- Steady full scale left deflection.
b- Steady full scale right deflection
c- Steady in the center position.
62- Landing flap 40 selected and in position. An IAS of 178kts is flown due to a
highwind gust. Would you expect:
a- Flaps to retract to 30.
b- Flaps to retract to 25.
c- Flaps to remain in the current configuration.
When the flaps are set at 40, the TE flaps:- retract to 30 if airspeed exceeds 163 knots- re-extend when airspeed is reduced below
158 knots.When the flaps are set at 30, the TE flaps:- retract to 25 if the airspeed exceeds 176 knots- re-extend when airspeed is
reduced below 171 knots.
63- Trailing uncommanded motion protection is provided by:
a- The FSEU.
b- The Trailing Edge flaps bypass valve.
c- Both of the answers above.
64- With the MACH TRIM FAIL light illuminated (indicating failure of the Mach trim
system), you must:
a- Limit airspeed to 280 kt / .82 Mach
b- Limit aispeed to 270 kt
c- Limit airspeed to 280 kt and altitude to 20,000 ft
d- See QRH (Flight Controls / Mach Trim Fail).
65- If you activate the FLT CONTROL switch Overhead panel) to STBY RUD, you
activate:
 a- standby hydraulic systemp pump.
b- standby hydraulic system pump and close flight control shutoff valve, isolating ailerons and
elevators.
c- activates standby hydraulic system pump and opens standby rudder shutoff valve to pressurize
standby rudder power control unit.
66- If you select the ALTERNATE FLAPS to the 'ARM' position:
a- Trailing Edge flap bypass valve closes, standby pump activates and ALTERNATE FLAPS position
switch is armed
b- Trailing Edge flap bypass valve closes and standby pump activates.
c- Standby pump is armed while the Trailing Edge flap bypass valve is de-energized.
d- Standby pump is armed while the Trailing Edge flap bypass valve is energized.
67- The FEEL DIFF PRESS light indicates:
a- A loss of pressure in the elvator feel computer.
b- An excessive differential pressure in the elevator feel computer.
c- An excessive temperature in the elevator feel computer
d- a data loss in the elevator feel computer.

AIR and PRESSURIZATION SYSTEMS

1- During preflight procedure the trim air switch is left in the OFF position and
only one pack is selected ON for air conditioning. What is the consequence?
a- Since the trim air is off both packs will average the temperature that satisfies the zone which
requires the most cooling
b- During single pack operation the zone temperature is controlled the same as during two pack
operation.
c- With the TRIM AIR selected OFF, the pack attempts to produce an air temperature to satisfy the
average temperature demands of all three zones.
d- If a passenger cabin zone trim air, or all trim air is lost, the forward and aft zone temperature
demands will be averaged for control of the left pack.
2- When pressing Master Caution Recall the CONT CAB amber ZONE TEMP light
illuminates. What is correct?
a- This indicates a failure of both the primary and standby temperature control systems.
b- Due to failure of the primary flight deck temperature control, automatic switching to the backup
system has occurred.
c- This indicates one PACK has overheated and has to be reset by pushing the trip reset button.
d- This indicates that both temperature controllers will regulate the temperature to a preset value.
3- When will the descent mode be activated in the pressurization system?
a- When T/D is reached.
b- When retard is announced in the FMA.
c- When descending 0.25psi below the selected flight altitude.
d- When within 15 000 feet of the landing airport.
4- Due to a malfunction you are required to return to the airport of departure. To
avoid the OFF SCHED DESCENT warning you reset the FLT ALT. What can you
expect?
a- The system will be recalculating the pressurization for the departure airport
b- The pressurization will increase its ventilation and possibly pressurization will be lost
c- The automatic abort capability for the departure airport is lost
d- Nothing will happen and you will still get the OFF SCHED DESCENT warning.
5- From where does the Cabin Auto Controller get its inputs?
a- From the static ports
b- From the Captain’s CDU
c- From the ADIRU’s
d- From the EFIS control panel
6- Where are the bleed trip sensors installed?
a- On the 9th Stage bleed air line.
b- On the engine side of the engine bleed air valve.
c- Sensors are positioned on both sides of the engine bleed air valve.
d- On the bleed air duct prior to the pack valve.
 7- The right WING-BODY OVERHEAT light is illuminated, what area is affected?
a- The keel beam
b- APU bleed duct
c- Left air cond bay
d- Right engine strut
8- What is the purpose of the recirculation fans?
a- To increase the pressure in the cabin.
b- To decrease the air conditioning system pack load
c- If increased smoke removal is required
d- To operate as air mixers in the mix manifold
9- The wing-body overheat light comes on. What is the related master caution
warning?
a- OVHT /DET
b- AIR COND
c- OVERHEAD
d- As the light is in the proximity of the pilot’s perception there is no master caution for this condition.
10- One PACK light illuminates on recall only. What is the situation?
a- There is FOD in the RAM AIR intake forcing the pack to shut down.
b- Both primary and secondary pack controls have failed.
c- The primary pack control has failed and the pack is now controlled by the standby pack control
d- Both temperature control valves have shut closed in the affected pack.
11- The recirculation Fan:
a- Is driven by a DC motor.
b- Increases airflow at greater cabin differential pressures.
c- Reduces air conditioning pack load.
d- Provides overheat detection downstream of the packs.
12- Cruising at FL 370. The motorized Overboard Exhaust valve will open if:
a- Either pack switches are in HIGH and recirculation fan is OFF.
b- Both pack switches are in AUTO and recirculation fan is OFF.
c- Both pack switches are in HIGH and recirculation fan is ON.
d- Both pack switches are in AUTO and recirculation fan is ON.
13- The amber OFF SCHEDULE DESCENT light illuminates. What does it indicates?
a- The main pressurization controller is unable to maintain pressurization and has to be manually shift
to manual
b- The pressurization standby controller has failed and will automatically shift to STANDBY.
c- The aircraft has descended before reaching the planned cruise altitude set in the altitude window.
d- The pressurization controller has failed and will automatically shift to manual.
14- In MANUAL pressurization mode the outflow is driven by?
a- A motor supplied from DC bus 2.
b- A motor supplied from DC standby bus.
c- A motor supplied from DC bus 1.
d- Requires AC power from transfer bus 1.
15- What is the primary source of conditioned air for the cockpit?
a- The Right pack.
b- The Left pack.
c- Both packs.
d- Ground air
16- During descent when the descent mode is activated:
a- Aircraft descends 0.25 psi below the selected FLT ALT.
b- Aircraft descends 0.50 below the selected FLT ALT.
c- Aircraft descends 0.25 psi below the selected LAND ALT;
d- Aircraft descends 0.50 psi below the selected LAND ALT.
17- The maximum differential pressure is:
a- 7.90 psi
b- 8.45 psi
c- 8.65 psi
d-9.10 psi

18- What are the causes of an Amber AUTO FAIL light?
a- Loss of DC power;
b- Excessive rate of cabin press change or cabin altitude above 15800 ft;
c- Both above statements are correct;
19- Given the scenario that the expected cruise level of FL310 was selected into the
FLT ALT selector during preflight, but subsequently the A/C climbed to FL390,
would you expect:
a- A differential pressure of 7.45 psi maintained by the negative pressure relief valve;
b- A differential pressure of 9.1 psi maintained by the positive pressure relief valve;
c- A differential pressure of 8.35 psi maintained by the forward outflow valve;
20- The cabin will automatically pressurize to 0.125 PSI on the ground when:
a- Engine thrust is increased towards takeoff thrust.
b- When the PSEU is activated.
c- When the aircraft goes into the ground mode of the air/ground sensor.
21- AUTO mode active. The AUTO FAIL light illuminates when:
a- The cabin altitude exceeds 15,800ft.
b- The rate of cabin pressure change exceeds 1000 ft/min.
c- The pressurization controller is moved to ALTN.
22- When both the AUTO FAIL light and the ALTN light illuminate:
a- Pressurization has automatically switched to the ALTN system.
b- Pressurization has automatically switched to the MAN system.
c- Pressurization has automatically switched to the opposite automatic controller.
23- Where the AUTO mode controllers do received their barometric information
from?
a- The captain's pitot/static system.
b- The FO's pitot/static system.
c- The ADIRUs.
24- Loss of airflow due to failure of an equipment cooling fan results in illumination
of the related equipment cooling OFF light. Selecting the alternate fan should
restore airflow and extinguish the OFF light within approximately _____.
a- 5 seconds
b- 30 seconds
c- 1 minute
d- 3 minutes
25- Where is the forward outflow valve located?
a- Just in front of the forward airstairs.
b- Forward of the left hand air conditioning inlet.
c- There is no forward outflow valve.
26- The forward outflow valve:
a- Closes automatically to assist in maintaining cabin pressure when the main outflow valve is almost
closed or the recirculation fan is operating.
b- Is motor operated and operates independently of the main outflow valve.
c- Opens while on the ground and in flight with less than 2.5 psig cabin differential pressure.
d- Has been removed from the 737-600/700 models.
27- Why should livestock (animals) be transported in the FWD cargo holds?
a- Because they are cooled by air from the E&E bay.
b- Because they are heated by air from the E&E bay.
c- The FWD cargo hold is the preferred hold, because the door is larger than the aft cargo door making
loading easier
28- If a flight is aborted, and a return to the field of departure is made, the crew:
a- Should reset the LAND ALT selector to field ELEV.
b- Should reset the FLT ALT selector to current aircraft altitude.
c- Should do nothing to the pressurization panel, as the system will automatically return to the field of
departure.
29- What is the flight level limitation for DISPATCH with one pack INOP?
a- FL410.
b- FL250.
 c- FL180.
d- FL100.
30- Takeoff is allowed with Pack switches in HIGH, but landing is not permitted:
a- True.
b- False.
31- The Altitude Warning Horn is:
a- An intermittent warning horn.
b- A continuous warning horn.
c- An intermittent warning horn accompanied by a Master Caution warning.
d- A continuous warning horn accompanied by a Master Caution warning.
32- On hearing the Altitude Warning Horn the pilot's first action should be to:
a- Analyze the situation and decide on corrective action.
b- To don oxygen masks.
c- Initiate an emergency descent.
d- Cancel the Altitude Warning Horn and call for the appropriate QRH checklist.
33- An amber AUTOFAIL indication will illuminate if one or more of the following
conditions occur:
a- A single controller failure when \'ALTN\' light is also illuminated.
b- Loss of AC power for more than 15 seconds; Main Outflow valve DC motor fails or if the cabin
altitude exceeds 13,875ft
c- Cabin Altitude exceeds 13,875 ft; pressurization differential exceeds 8.65psi or with the loss of AC
power.
d- Cabin Altitude exceeds 10,000 ft.
34- A decompression of the cabin will result in the following:
a- An Altitude Warning Horn at 10,000 ft. At 14,000 ft (approximately) a \'Master Caution\', plus an
\'Overhead\' indication on the light/glare shield will illuminate. The overhead panel will illuminate
with \'PAX OXY ON\' amber indications.
b- An Altitude Warning Horn at 14,000 ft. The overhead panel will illuminate \'AUTOFAIL\' and
\'ALTN\' amber indications on the pressurisation panel. These indications may be reset by selecting
manual mode on the pressurisation selector.
c- An Altitude Warning Horn at 10,000 ft. At 14,000 ft the Passenger Oxygen mask will deploy. To
activate Oxygen flow to the Passengers the Crew must select the \'Passenger Oxygen Switch\' to ON.
d- An altitude warning buzzer at 10,000 ft. At 14,000ft the oxygen mask deploy and the overhead panel
will show CREW OXYGEN ON
35- A flight deck zone temp light which remain illuminated after the master caution
system is reset indicates:
a- A flight deck duct overheat.
b- A failure of the standby or primary flight deck zone controller.
c- Both above statements are correct.
d- Insufficient trim air available from the cooling packs.
36- A ZONE TEMP light may be reset by the trip reset switch on the Bleed Panel.
a- True.
b- False. This reset switch is only for PACK and BLEED TRIP OFF resets.
c- False. This reset is only for resetting a PACK trip.
d- False. This reset switch is for BLEED TRIP OFF only.
37- In Cruise the air conditioning ram air doors are:
a- Fully open.
b- Fully closed.
c- Modulate between open and closed as required for pack temperature control.
d- Modulate as a function of airspeed.
38- If a PACK light can be reset by the TRIP RESET switch then:
a- The fault was caused by an overheat trip.
b- The fault was caused by a controller fault.
c- The fault was caused by an overheat trip or by a controller fault.
d- The pack should be selected off as per the QRH.
39- The ram air system provides cooling air for:
a- The cargo area.
b- The heat exchangers.
 c- The E/E.
40- Deflector doors are installed forward of the ram air inlet doors to prevent slush
ingestion prior to liftoff and after touchdown. Deflector doors extend when
activated:
a- Electrically by the air-ground safety sensor
b- Hydraulically when extended the main landing gear
c- Electrically (same switch as the recirculation fans).
41- If all zone controls and primary pack controls fail, the standby pack controls
command the packs to produce air temperatures which will satisfy the average
temperature demand of the two cabin zones. The trim air modulating valves
will:
a- Open.
b- Close.
42- If all Temperature Selectors are positioned OFF, the pack controls will cause the
Left pack to maintain a fixed temperature of ____ and the Right pack to maintain
____ as measured at the pack temperature sensor.
a- 20°C (68°F) and 18°C (65°F)
b- 24°C (75°F) and 18°C (65°F)
c- 18°C (65°F) and 22°C (72°F)
43- Overheat detection is provided by temperature sensors located:
a- In the mix manifold.
b- Downstream of the packs.
c- Downstream of the packs and the mix manifold.
d- Downstream of the packs, the trim air valve and the mix manifold.
44- The recirculation fan system circulates air from the passenger cabin around the
lining of the forward cargo compartment. When the overboard exhaust valve is
closed, exhaust air from the equipment cooling system is also diffused to the
lining of the aft cargo compartment for additional inflight heating.
a- True
b- False
Forward cargo compartment only!
45- The cabin pressure controller controls cabin pressure in the following modes:
AUTO (automatic) - ALT (alternate) - MAN (manual).
a- All three modes use DC motor.
b- Automatic mode uses AC motor while the two other modes use DC motor.
c- Automatic and alternate modes use AC motor while the manual mode use DC motor.
46- Cabin altitude is normally rate- controlled by the cabin pressure controller up to
a cabin altitude of ____ feet at the airplane maximum certified ceiling of ____ feet.
a- 10.000ft and 41.000ft.
b- 8.000ft and 41 000ft.
c-12 000 ft and 41 000 ft.
d-7 500 ft and 41 000 ft.
47- The air data inertial reference units (ADIRUs) provides ambient static pressure,
baro corrected altitude, non corrected altitude and calibrated airspeed to both
automatic controllers. The ADIRUs receive barometric corrections from the
Captain's and First Officer's BARO reference selectors. The automatic
controllers also receive:
a- Throttle position from both stall management computers.
b- Throttle position from both stall management computers and signals from the air/ground sensors.
c- Throttle position from both stall management computers and signals from the IRS.
48- Cabin air outflow is controlled by the outflow valve and the overboard exhaust
valve. A small amount is also exhausted through toilet and galley vents,
miscellaneous fixed vents, and by seal leakage.
a- True
b- False
 49- If both the primary and the standby pack controls fail for the same pack, the
PACK, MASTER CAUTION, and AIR COND System Annunciator lights illuminate.
a- The pack will continue to operate without control unless excessive
b- The affected pack is controlled by the \'main\' standby pack control
c- The pack will be inoperative
50- Manual Mode Operation: a separate DC motor, powered by the DC standby
system, drives the outflow valve at a slower rate than the automatic modes.
Outflow valve full range of motion takes up to 2 minutes.
a- True
b- False
Fortunately Outflow valve full range of motion takes up to 20 seconds only.
51- A DUCT OVERHEAT light only will cause:
a- The temperature mix valves to drive full cold.
b- The temperature mix valves to drive full hot.
c- An automatic shutdown of the pack.
d- A BLEED TRIP OFF.
52- What systems need pneumatic power for operation?
a- Air Conditioning, pressurization, wing anti-ice and APU.
b- Wing anti-ice, APU and engine starting.
c- APU, engine starting, air Conditioning and pressurization.
d- Engine starting, air conditioning, pressurization, wing & engine anti-ice, hydraulic reservoirs and
water tank pressurization.
53- Engine bleed air is obtained from:
a- 4th and 9th stage of the compressor section.
b- 5th and 9th stage of the compressor section.
c- 4th and 8th stage of the compressor section.
d- 5th and 8th stage of the compressor section.
54- Illumination of the amber BLEED TRIP OFF light indicates what valve has
automatically closed?
a- Modulating and Shutoff valve.
b- Engine Bleed Air valve.
c- Isolation valve.
d- 5th valve of the compressor section.
55- How are the Engine Bleed Air valves powered?
a- They are AC activated and pneumatically operated.
b- They are DC activated and pneumatically operated.
c- They are pneumatically activated and AC operated.
d- They are pneumatically activated and DC operated.
56- An illuminated BLEED TRIP OFF light indicates:
a- Too high temperature in bleed air duct and bleed air valve stays open.
b- Too high temperature in bleed air duct and bleed air valve stays closes.
c- Too high pressure in bleed air duct and bleed air valve stays open.
d- Too high temperature or pressure in bleed air duct and bleed air valve stays closes.
57- What is the position of the isolation valve when the ISOLATION VALVE switch is
in AUTO?
a- The isolation valve is always open
b- The isolation valve is always closed.
c- The isolation valve automatically modulates between open & closed, depending on pneumatic load.
d- Open when any Engine Bleed Air switch or Air Conditioning pack switch is positioned OFF.
58- What happens when the WING BODY OVHT TEST switch is pressed?
a- The amber WING-BODY OVERHEAT Lights illuminate.
b- The amber PACK TRIP OFF Lights illuminate.
c- The amber BLEED TRIP OFF Lights illuminate
d- All of the above.
59- When does the amber DUAL BLEED Light illuminate?
a- When the APU bleed valve is open.
b- When the APU bleed valve is open and the No.1 engine bleed switch is ON.
 c- When the APU bleed valve is open, the No.2 engine bleed switch is ON and the isolation valve is
closed.
d- When the APU bleed valve is open and the No.1 engine bleed switch is OFF.
60- In the PACK TRIP OFF Non Normal Check-List, the crew selects a warmer
temperature in order to:
a- Reduce cabin airflow.
b- Reduce the workload on the other pack.
c- Reduce the workload on the affected air conditioning pack
d- Reduce the air flow through the air mix valves.
61- The amber DUAL BLEED Light is illuminated before starting engines. What
should you do?
a- Nothing. This is normal condition before engine start.
b- Do not start the engines, call Maintenance.
c- Do not start the engines, check MEL.
d- Shut down the APU and use a pneumatic ground cart for engine start.
62- The motorized Exhaust valve:
a- Allows for increased ventilation in the smoke removal configuration.
b- Serves as backup to the outflow valve if the outflow valve fails.
c- Is normally open in pressurized flights above 8,000 feet.
d- All the above.
63- The amber DUAL BLEED light indicates a possible APU back pressure condition
and thrust must be limited to IDLE.
a- True.
b- False.
64- What happens to engine fan air that is used to cool engine bleed air?
a- It is ducted into the pneumatic manifold.
b- It is ducted into the crossbleed manifold.
c- It is discharged overboard.
d- It is ducted into the 5th stage compressor section.
65- What causes the amber PACK TRIP OFF Light to illuminate?
a- Main distribution duct temperature has exceeded limits.
b- Compressor outlet duct temperature has exceeded limits
c- Turbine inlet duct temperature has exceeded limits.
d- All of the above.
66- The ram air system deflector doors:
a- Are always extended when the gear is down.
b- Extend during slow flight when flaps are not retracted.
c- Modulate between fully extended and retracted through the entire flight.
d- Extend on the ground only.
67- If any individual zone is switched OFF, the Temperature Selector setting will be
ignored by the temperature control system.
a- True
b- False
68- The Equipment Cooling Supply or Exhaust OFF light illuminated indicates a loss
of airflow from the selected cooling fan. You position the EQUIPMENT COOLING
SUPPLY/EXHAUST switch on ALTERNATE
a- No further action is necessary in flight if the equipment cooling OFF light does not extinguish.
b- Diversion is necessary in flight if the equipment cooling OFF light does not extinguish.
c- Descending below FL250 is necessary in flight if the equipment cooling OFF light does not extinguish.
d- Descending below FL200 is necessary in flight if the equipment cooling OFF light does not extinguish.
e- See QRH air system- equipment cooling off
69- A leak in the APU bleed air duct will be indicated by:
a- Right WING-BODY OVERHEAT light illuminates
b- APU BLEED light illuminates on overhead panel
c- Left WING-BODY OVERHEAT light illuminates
d- CWS Master Caution BLEED
70- On the Bleed Air Duct pressure indicator the L pressure indicates 40psi, the R
pressure indicates 50psi:
a- As long as there is sufficient air for cabin pressurization, this is normal.
b- Select L pack to HIGH until pressure indications equalize.
c- Set both packs to high for 2 minutes.
d- Set R RECIRC FAN to OFF
71- When an external air cart is connected, does the ground pneumatic air enter the
manifold on the right or left side of the isolation valve?
a. right
b. left
c. both
72- On the B737-700, if the Recirculation fan is OFF, the electrical equipment cooling
airflow is maintained by automatically opening of the __________ at all differential
pressures.
a. overboard exhaust valve
b. main outflow valve
c. cabin door seals
72- On the B737 -800, how many Recirculation fans are installed?
a. One
b. Two (Left and Right)
73- With AUTO selected on the pack switch and the aircraft in flight with flaps retracted, the
pack flow rate automatically shifts to _____ if the opposite pack switch is in OFF.
a. HIGH
b. OFF
c. AUTO
d. LOW
74- The inlet door for the Pack Ram Air ONLY opens fully when on the ground.
a. True
b. False
75- The Pack switch AUTO position provides pack ______ if either pack is shut off in flight
with the flaps retracted.
a. high flow
b. low flow
Resp. a. high flow
76- On the B737-700, when a DUCT OVERHEAT light comes on, the pack temperature mix
valves drive to the full cold position ______.
a. and no longer respond to the temperature controller.
b. and will return to normal operation automatically.
c. and the pack will shut down.
d. and the opposite pack will operate at HIGH flow.
77- On the B737-700, with both packs operating and either or both packs switches in the
HIGH position, the recirculation fan ______.
a. will shut down
b. will operate
78- On the B737-700, the _____ provides temperature control for the flight deck.
a. left controller.
b. right controller.
79- On the ground with external air connected, can the external air be used to operate both
packs?
a. Yes
b. No
80- What sources of high pressure air may be used to supply the pack?
a. ground high pressure air source
b. Any of these may be used
 c. APU
d. Engine
81- Which pack(s) normally deliver conditioned air to the mix chamber?
a. right
b. left
c. both
82- Which pack provides conditioned air directly to the flight deck?
a. left
b. right
c. center
d. both
83- Ground Conditioned Air is plugged directly into the ______.
a. Mix Manifold
b. Right Pack
c. Left Pack
83- In the Pack, the airflow through the cold mix valve is ______, and is then combined with
_____.
a. delivered to the recirculation fan; warm air from the E/E compartment.
b. processed through a cooling cycle; hot air flowing from the hot air mix valve.
c. frozen in the water separator; hot air to flow overboard.
d. dumped overboard; cabin air the flows overboard.
84- For the Equipment cooling fans, what determines which fan (Normal or Alternate) is
operating?
a. The Normal fans run in flight but the Alternate fans run on the ground.
b. A switch position determines which fan operates.
85- On the B737-800, what system is provided so that each zone can be warmed
independently from the pack temperature?
a. Equipment Heat system. (uses heat from E/E)
b. Trim Air system. (uses bleed air)
c. Electrical Heat system. (uses electric heaters)
86- The _______ is the exhaust exit for the majority of the air circulated through the
passenger cabin.
a. overboard exhaust valve
b. main outflow valve
87- How many total EQUIP COOLING fans are installed? (include supply and exhaust fans)
a. four (there is a Normal and Alternate for Supply and Exhaust)
b. two (there is one Supply and one Exhaust fan)
88- On the B737-700, moving a Temperature Selector to the MANUAL position will cause the
pack mix valves to ________.
a. remain automatically controlled unless a fault is detected.
b. move to a position that maintains a temperature of 650F (180C)
c. move so the cold mix valve is open and the hot mix valve is closed.
d. be manually controlled by holding the Temperature Selector toward COOL or WARM.
89- The APU can operate the electrical system and one pack at altitudes up to _____.
a. 12,000 feet
b. 20,000 feet
c. 10,000 feet
d. 8,000 feet
89- On the B737-700, the left DUCT OVERHEAT light comes on if the temperature of the
conditioned air delivered from the ______ to the cockpit is too hot.
a. right pack
b. left pack
c. center pack
d. standby pack
 90- The cabin can be maintained at ______ feet when the airplane is at maximum certified
ceiling with only one pack operating.
a. 10,000
b. 8,000
c. 7,000
d. 6,000
91- With no electrical load, the APU can operate one pack up to _____.
a. 8,000 feet
b. 20,000 feet
c. 17,000 feet
d. 10,000 feet
92- On the ground, the Pack switch HIGH position may be used on both packs to provide
maximum flow with the APU Bleed switch ______.
a. OFF
b. ON
93- Where are the two packs located?
a. Lower fuselage, between the wings.
b. Aft fuselage, by the APU
c. Left Main Gear Wheel Well
d. Right Main Gear Wheel Well
94- Anytime the pack valve closes, the mix valves are driven to the ______ position
automatically.
a. full cold
b. full hot
c. neutral
d. fluctuating
95- The pack AUTO position provides ______ if both packs are operating on the ground or
inflight.
a. high flow
b. normal flow
95- Warm air from the cabin normally circulates between the aircraft skin and the aft cargo
compartment walls and then exits through the _______.
a. main outflow valve
b. pressure valve
c. relief valve
d. overboard exhaust valve
96- The pack valves are spring loaded and will only open if the Pack switch is in AUTO (or
HIGH) and ___________.
a. pneumatic air is available.
b. the temperature selectors are in the automatic range.
c. the temperature selectors are in the manual range.
d. The Isolation valve is manually set to CLOSE.
97- The deflector doors extend when ______ to provide slush and debris protection to the
Ram Air system.
a. in flight
b. on the ground
98- During normal cruise flight, the ram doors will modulate between a normal open and a
normal closed position to automatically regulate airflow through the system.
a. True
b. False
99- On the B737-700, all of the air from the ______ flows to the mix chamber.
a. left pack
b. standby pack
c. right pack
 100- Warm air exhaust from the electronic equipment cooling is dumped overboard
through the _____ when aircraft is on the ground.
a. main outflow valve
b. relief valve
c. pressure valve
d. overboard exhaust valve
101- Single engine operation for takeoff is able to normal second segment climb
performance with the operating pack in HIGH.
a. True
b. False
102- The maximum certified ceiling is ___________.
a. 39,000 feet
b. 41,000 feet
c. 42,000 feet
d. 43,000 feet
103- Outflow valve full range of motion takes approximately _____ seconds.
a. 20
b. 15
c. 30
d. 10
104- The ___________ provide ambient static pressure, barometric corrected altitude, non
corrected altitude and calibrated airspeed to both automatic pressurization controllers.
a. FMCs
b. ADIRUs
c. pressurization controllers
105- Which of the following is not a cabin altitude control mode?
a- Standby
b- Auto
c- Manual
d- alternate
106- The differential pressure is limited by the two pressure relief valves to a maximum of
_________?
a- 9.1 pisd
b. 8 pisd
c- 9.5 psid
d-8.1 psid
107- The purpose of the _____________ is to control the cabin pressurization.
a- overboard exhaust valve
b- main outflow valve
108- During isobaric cruise, minor airplane excursion from flight altitude may cause the pressure
differential to go as high as ___________ to maintain a constant cabin altitude.
a- 8 psid
b-8.9 psid
c-8.45 psid
d-7 psid
109- The altitude horn activates when the cabin altitude reaches ___________ feet.
a- 12,500
b- 14,000
c- 15,000
d- 10,000
110- The motorized overboard exhaust valve is normally __________.
a- Closed
b- open
111- Beginning descent, approximately 1,000 feet below cruise, the cabin begins a proportional
descent to _____ feet below the selected LAND ALT.
a- 300
b- 100
c- 500
112- The purpose of the ___________ is to provide cooling to the E/E Compartment.
a- overboard exhaust valve
b- main outflow valve
113- On the 737, the cabin altitude can be maintained at sea level for flights up to __________.
a- 18,000
b- 24,000
c- 19,000
d- 18,500
114- While taxiing in, the controller drives the main outflow valve slowly to full open position
depressurizing the cabin when N1 is less than ________.
a- 40%
b- 35%
c- 50%
d- 60%
115- After a ____ second delay, when the throttles are advanced to achieve an N1 greater than
60% and an N2 greater than 89%, the controller modulates the main outflow valve toward close,
slightly pressurizing the cabin.
a- 2
b- 1
c- 1.5
d- 1.8
116- The maximum certified ceiling is ____.
a- 41,000 feet
b- 42,000 feet
c- 43,000 feet
d- 39,000 feet

APU
1- APU operation requires the following:
a- APU fire switch on the overheat/fire panel must be IN
b- APU fire control handle on the APU ground control panel must be IN
c- Battery switch must be ON.
d- All of the above.
2- The APU Electronics Control Unit (ECU) provides:
a- Automatic shutdown protection for over speed conditions, low oil pressure and high oil temperature
b- Automatic shutdown protection for APU fire, fuel control unit failure and EGT exceedance
c- Automatic control of APU speed through the electronic fuel unit
d- All of the above are correct.
3- The APU can supply both transfer busses:
a- On the ground only
b- In the air only
c- On the ground or in the air
d- Never.
4- APU cooling air:
a- Enters through the air inlet door
b- Enters through the ram air system
c- Enters through a cooling air inlet above the APU exhaust outlet
d- Is supplied by the air conditioning packs.
5- During APU operation, fuel is automatically heated to prevent icing:
 a- True
b- False.
6- Moving the battery switch to OFF automatically shuts down the APU.
a- On the ground only
b- In the air only
c- On the ground or in the air
d- Never.
Because of power loss to the Electronic Control Unit (ECU)
7- The APU generator ammeter:
a- Remains unchanged from the B737-300 thru 500
b- Is displayed in a digital readout format on the electrical panel
c- Displays APU generator voltage
d- APU generator amperage is no longer displayed on the flight deck.
8- It is recommended to operate the APU for _____ before using it as a bleed air
source.
a- 20 seconds
b- 30 seconds
c- 45 seconds.
d- 1 full minute
This one minute stabilization is recommended to extend the service life of the APU.
9- During the APU start cycle, the APU EGT indication may fluctuate from 0° to
1100°C prior to normal EGT rise and the LOW OIL PRESSURE light may cycle on
and off several times. These indications have no adverse effect on starting the
APU. It is not necessary to monitor EGT during start.
a- True
b- False.
10- Electrical power to start the APU comes from:
a- The battery bus or the DC ground power receptacle
b- Battery power or either AC transfer bus
c- Either the AC or DC standby bus
d- The No.1 Transfer bus if available. If AC power is not available, battery power is used.
With AC power available, the starter generator uses AC power to start the APU. With no AC power, the starter generator uses
battery power to start the APU.
11- If the APU is the only source of electrical power:
a- In flight, the galley busses are automatically shed
b- In flight, the APU attempts to carry the full electrical load
c- On the ground, the galley busses are automatically shed
d- On the ground, the main busses are shed first if an overload condition is sensed.
12- The APU switch OFF position has an automatic shutdown delay of:
a- 30 seconds
b- 60 seconds
c- 120 seconds
d- 135 seconds
13- The APU is capable of supplying bleed air for both air conditioning packs:
a- On the ground only
b- In the air only
c- On the ground or in the air
d- Never.
14- The APU may be used as an electrical and pneumatic source simultaneously up
to:
a- 10 000 feet
b- 17 000 feet
c- 25 000 feet
d- 30 000 feet
15- The APU start cycle may take up to:
a- 60 seconds
b- 120 seconds
c- 135 seconds
 d- 3 minutes
Automatic shutdown occurs in the event of EGT exceedance.
16- The APU may be used as a pneumatic source up to:
a- 10 000 feet
b- 17 000 feet
c- 25 000 feet
d- 35 000 feet
17- The APU will shut down on the ground if:
a- The battery switch is placed to OFF
b- The LOW OIL QUANTITY / MAINT light illuminates
c- The fuel LOW PRESSURE lights in the main tank illuminate
d- All of the above are correct.
18- When the APU is started using battery power only, there is a normal indication
on the electrical metering panel that the APU generator has come on line and is
ready to be selected.
a- True
b- False.
When the APU is started using battery power only, there is a NO indication on the electrical metering panel that the APU
generator has come on line and is ready to be selected. Both the frequency and voltage readings are zero until the APU generator
is placed on line.
19- If the APU GEN OFF BUS light fails to illuminate by the end of the start cycle:
a- The FAULT light illuminates
b- The MAINT light illuminates
c- The APU failed a self test and the OVERSPEED light will illuminate
d- There is no light associated with this malfunction.
20- In flight, if the APU is the only source of electrical power, all galley busses are
automatically shed. If electrical load still exceeds design limits, both main
busses automatically shed until the load is within design limits. On the ground,
the APU attempts to carry a full electrical load. If an overload condition is
sensed, the APU sheds galley busses first, and then both main busses until the
load is within limits.
a- True
b- False.
21- The APU OVERSPEED light illuminated indicates:
a- APU RPM limit has been exceeded resulting in an automatic shutdown
b- The over speed shutdown protection feature has failed a self-test during a normal APU shutdown.
c- The first two statements are correct.
d- None of the above
If light is illuminated when APU switch is placed to OFF, light extinguishes after 5 minutes (light is disarmed when the APU switch
is in OFF position).
22- Of the four lights located on the APU control panel, which light will NOT cause an
automatic shutdown of the APU when it illuminates?
a- LOW OIL PRESSURE
b- FAULT
c- OVERSPEED
d- MAINT
23- The APU starts, operates and can supply electrical power alone up to:
a- 41,000 feet
b- 17,000 feet
c- 25,000 feet
d- 37,000 feet
24- The blue APU MAINT light means that:
a- APU may be operated
b- APU shuts down automatically
c- APU has to be shut down manually in flight or on ground
d- APU has to be shut down manually on ground only
25- Pulling up the APU fire warning switch:
a- Discharges the APU fire extinguisher
 b- Discharges the APU fire extinguisher and shuts down the APU
c- Discharges the APU fire extinguisher and closes the bleed air valve
d- Trips the generator controls relay and breaker, arms the associated extinguisher and closes the bleed
air valve, closes the fuel shutoff valve, and the APU inlet door.
26- When the APU is started using battery power only, there is no indication on the
electrical metering panel that the APU generator has come on line and is ready
to be selected. Both the frequency and voltage readings are zero until the APU
generator is placed on line.
a- True
b- False
27- What is the minimum battery voltage for APU start?
a- 23
b- 25
28- How is APU generator power removed from a system?
a- Hit the APU repeatedly with a large hammer.
b- Moving the APU generator switches to OFF – or applying another power source to the electrical system.
c- Disconnect that APU jumper cable.
d- Moving the APU generator switches to OFF and applying another power source to the electrical system.
29- Which electrical system can be powered by the APU when the aircraft is on the ground?
a- Left only.
b- right only.
c- Either left and right – but not both.
d- Both left and right.
30- (B737-500) Inflight – with the Battery Switch OFF – the APU will continue to run, but
_____.
a- The battery will not recharge.
b- No emergency power will be available.
c- It will provide NO power to the electrical system.
d- There will be no fire detection.
31- What is the maximum operating FL altitude of the APU?
a- FL350
b- FL410
32- What is the maximum altitude for use of APU bleed air (in feet)?
a- 18,000
b- 17,000
33- How long after APU shutdown should the Battery Switch remain ON to allow time for
the INLET door to close?
a- 20 seconds
b- 15 seconds
34- If the Battery Switch is turned OFF in flight, the APU will ______.
a- Continue to operate
b- Shutdown
35- Can fuel be delivered to the APU from Tank 2 or from the right pump in the Center tank?
a- No.
b- Yes – if the Fuel Crossfeed is open.
36- How many packs can be powered by the APU on the ground?
a- One
b- Two
37- Succesful APU starts are not assured above FL____.
a- 250
b- 280
38- The APU GENERATOR OFF BUS light illuminates____.
a- When the APU is running and the generator is not in sync with main power.
b- When the APU is not running
c- When the APU is running and it’s generator is no powering any buses.
 d- When the APU is running and the generator is overloaded and must be shut off.
39- The APU start cycle can take up to ____ seconds.
a- 120
b- 130
40- How many packs can be powered by the APU during takeoff?
a- Two
b- One
41- Which APU lights are inhibited when the APU control switch is in the OFF position?
a- HIGH OIL TEMP.
b- LOW OIL QUANTITY
c- LOW OIL PRESSURE
d- All of these.
42- In order for the APU to power the aircraft on the ground, is it necessary for the pilot to
place both APU Generator switches to ON?
a- Yes
b- No
43- For extended operations, APU fuel may be provided by the ____ pump in the Center
tank.
a- Right
b- Left
44- Fuel is normally supplied to the APU from _____.
a- Tank 1.
b- Tank 2.
45- APU Bleed air should not be turned on until _____ minute (s) after APU start.
a- Three
b- One
46- Does the Battery Charger continue to charge the aircraft battery during APU start?
a- Yes
b- No
47- How many electrical systems and packs can be powered by the APU between 10,000 and
17,000?
a- One – either one electrical system or one pack – but not both.
b- One electrical system and one pack (at a time).
c- Both electrical systems and both packs.
d- Two – any combination of electrical systems and paks.
48- Does moving the APU control switch to OFF cause an immediate shutdown?
a- Yes
b- No
49- What is indicated if the OVERSPEED light is on after APU shutdown?
a- The APU has not really shutdown.
b- A fault has been detected that will cause an over speed condition on restart.
c- An over speed condition existed prior to shutdown.
d- Indicates that the over speed circuit detection is faulty.
50- What light comes on if the APU start is interrupted?
a- OIL PRESS LOW.
b- OVERSPEED
c- APU FIRE
d- OIL TEMP HIGH
51- The APU Bleed Air Valve also functions as a ____ to give priority to the delivery of
electrical power.
a- Pneumatic switch.
b- Exhaust
c- Load Control Valve.
d- Emergency release valve.
52- How is APU fuel heated to prevent icing?
 a- The freezing point of the fuel is low enough that this is not a problem.
b- By an electric heater.
c- By an external heat source.
d- Automatically by use of bleed air.
53- Air that enters through the Inlet door flows to:
a- The engine cooler.
b- The Pneumatic system
c- The compressor and to cooling airflow for accessories.
d- The oxygen generators.
54- After the APU control switch is moved to START, approximately how long (in seconds)
does it take for the Inlet Door to open?
a- 30
b- 20
55- Will the APU start if there are no operating fuel boost pumps?
a- Yes – it will suction from tank 1.
b- No, fuel pumps are mandatory.
56- APU Bleed air should be turned off _____ minute (s) before APU shutdown.
a- Five
b- One
57- When electrical loads and bleed load on the APU Generator are too high during engine
start, ___.
a- Electrical load is shed prior to reducing bleed air extraction.
b- Bleed air extraction is reduced prior to reducing electrical loads.
58- When electrical loads and bleed load on the APU Generator are too high at times other
than during engine start ____.
a- The compressor variable vanes adjust to reduces bleed extraction and maintain electrical supply.
b- The electrical system sheds to give priority to the air supply.
59- Selecting the Battery switch to OFF, ____.
a- Will shut down the APU only on the ground.
b- Will shut down the APU.

LANDING GEAR & BRAKES

1- The airplane has two main landing gear and a single nose gear. Each main gear
is a conventional two–wheel landing gear unit. The nose gear is a conventional
steerable one–wheel unit.
a- True
b- False
The nose gear is a conventional steerable two–wheel unit.
2- When the manual Extension Access Door is open:
a- Manual landing gear extension is possible with landing gear lever in any position
b- Normal landing gear extension is still possible if hydraulic system B pressure is available
c- Normal landing gear extension is still possible if hydraulic system A pressure is available
d- Landing gear retraction is enabled.
3- Fittings located in the opening of each main gear well:
a- Are intended to provide automatic braking to main gear wheels during retraction
b- Provide positive unlock during main gear retraction
c- Are intended to provide protection to wheel well components during gear retraction by preventing a
gear with a spinning tire and loose tread from entering the wheel well
d- Allows the landing gear transfer unit to use hydraulic system B pressure to raise the gear if hydraulic
system A fails.
4- Which pressure is indicated by the Hydraulic Brake Pressure Indicator?
a- Normal pressure of 3500 PSI
b- Maximum pressure of 3500 PSI
c- Normal precharge of 2800 PSI
d- Normal precharge in the brake accumulator of 1200 PSI.
5- During alternate brake system operation, the following protection is provided:
 a- Skid, locked wheel, touchdown and hydroplane
b- Skid and hydroplane only
c- Skid, locked wheel and hydroplane only
d- None of the above.
6- If a landing is made with RTO selected:
a- Automatic braking action occurs at the RTO level
b- Automatic braking occurs at the MAX level
c- AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates 3 seconds after touchdown
d- AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates 2 seconds after touchdown and no automatic braking action
occurs.
7- Landing autobrake settings may be selected after touchdown:
a- However, the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will illuminate and autobrake application will not occur
b- However, autobrake action will occur only when both thrust levers are retarded to reverse thrust
range
c- Prior to decelerating through 60 knots groundspeed
d- After decelerating through 60 knots groundspeed.
8- After braking has started, which of the following pilots actions will disarm the
system immediately and illuminate the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light:
a- Moving the SPEED BRAKE lever to the flight detent position
b- Advancing the forward thrust lever(s), except during the first 3 seconds after touchdown for landing
c- Applying manual brakes
d- Both second & third statements are correct.
9- The air/ground system receives air/ground logic signals from:
a- The altimeter
b- The cabin pressure controller
c- Six sensors, two on each landing gear
d- The FMC position updating from the GPS
In flight and ground operation of various airplane systems are controlled by the air/ground system. The system receives
air/ground logic signals from six sensors, two on each landing gear. These signals are used to configure the airplane systems to
the appropriate air or ground status.
10- What system normally provides hydraulic pressure for Nose Wheel Steering?
a- System A
b- System B
c- Standby system
d- Nose wheel steering accumulator
11- The lockout pin is installed in the steering depressurization valve. What does
this do?
a- Bypasses system B pressure
b- Depressurizes both system A & B pressure
c- Allows airplane pushback or towing without depressurizing the hydraulic systems
d- Both first & third statements are correct.
12- Which of the following is not part of the braking system?
a- Antiskid protection
b- Parking brake
c- Brake accumulator
d- Nose wheel brakes
13- Which of the following conditions must exit to arm the RTO mode prior to
takeoff?
a- AUTO BRAKE select switch positioned to ON
b- Wheel speed greater than 60 knots
c- Forward thrust levers positioned to IDLE
d- Position ANTISKID switch to RTO
14- The nose wheel doors remain open when the gear is down.
a- True.
b- False.
15- What could cause the amber ANTISKID INOP light to illuminate?
a- AUTO BRAKE select switch OFF
b- A system fault has been detected by the antiskid monitoring system
 c- Brake accumulator pressure is in the red band
d- System B pressure is low
16- When the NOSE WHEEL STEERING switch is in ALT position:
a- Hydraulic system B provides power for nose wheel steering.
b- Hydraulic system A provides power for nose wheel steering.
c- Standby hydraulic system provides power for nose wheel steering.
d- The nose wheel steering tiller changes sensitivity for precision parking
17- What could cause the amber ANTISKID INOP light to illuminate?
a- AUTO BRAKE select switch OFF.
b- A fault in the braking system.
c- Brake accumulator pressure is in the red band.
d- System B pressure is low.
18- The landing gear warning horn is deactivated with all gear down and locked.
a- True.
b- False.
19- What airspeed must be considered with a wheel well fire situation?
a- Observe extend limit speed (280 KIAS/.72M)
b- Retract landing gear speed of 245 knots maximum
c- Maintain 235kts maximum for 20 minutes
d- Observe extend Limit speed (270 kts/.82MACH)
20- What happens if you reject a takeoff after reaching 90 knots with the autobrakes
in RTO?
a- Maximum braking when thrust levers are retarded to idle
b- Automatic braking when reverse thrust selected
c- Automatic speed brake deployment when thrust levers are retarded to idle
d- AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will illuminate
21- The brake pressure accumulator also provides pressure to maintain the parking
brake when hydraulic system A & B are depressurized.
a- True
b- False.
22- Hydraulic pressure from System B will be used to raise the landing gear:
a- When System A pressure is low and the landing lever is positioned up
b- When the ALTERNATE NOSE WHEEL Switch is positioned ON
c- When the No.1 engine RPM drops below a limit value with the landing gear still down and the
landing gear is positioned up
d- After a failure of the No.1 engine hydraulic pump with the landing gear still down and the landing
gear is positioned up
23- The parking brake can be set with either A or B hydraulic systems pressurized.
If A & B hydraulic systems are not pressurized, parking brake pressure is
maintained by the brake accumulator. Accumulator pressure is shown on the
HYD BRAKE PRESS indicator.
a- True
b- False.
24- Landing autobrake settings may be selected after touchdown prior to
decelerating through 30 kts of ground speed. Braking initiates immediately if
both forward thrust levers are retarded to IDLE and the main wheels spin–up.
a- True
b- False
25- Where is the main wheel gear viewing sight located?
a- Two rows aft of the over-wing exits on the port side
b- Two rows aft of the over-wing exits on the starboard side
c- There is no viewing sight on the 737-NG
26- Is autobrake available with alternate brakes?
a- No.
b- Yes for takeoff only.
c- Yes for landing only.
d- Yes for takeoff and landing.
 27- The parking brake will fail when:
a- The hydraulic A system is depressurized.
b- The hydraulic B system is depressurized.
c- The hydraulic A and B systems are depressurized.
d- None of the above as the parking brake pressure is maintained by the brake accumulator.
28- What is the maximum airspeed to retract the gear?
a- 210 kt.
b- 235 kt.
c- 250 kt.
d- 270 kt.
29- What is the maximum Operating airspeed with the gear extended?
a- 235 kt / .78M.
b- 235 kt / .80M.
c- 270 kt / .80M.
d- 320 kt / .82M.
30- A landing gear indicator light will illuminate red when:
a- Landing gear is not down and locked (with either thrust lever retarded to idle, and below 800 ft AGL.
b- Related landing gear is in disagreement with landing gear lever position.
c- Landing gear is up and locked with landing gear lever UP and OFF.
d- Both first and second statements are correct.
31- What is the minimum preflight pressure for the brake accumulator?
a- 2500 psi.
b- 2800 psi.
c- 3000 psi.
d- 3500 psi
32- If the landing gear cannot be raised after takeoff:
a- Use the override trigger.
b- Pull the landing gear lever out to the second detent then raise it to the up position.
c- When at a safe altitude follow the QRH procedure.
d- Land at the nearest suitable airfield.
33- If the landing gear indicator lights are illuminated red:
a- Landing gear is not down and locked (with either or both forward thrust levers retarded to idle, and
below 800 feet AGL).
b- Related landing gear is in disagreement with LANDING GEAR lever POSITION (in transit or unsafe)
c- Both above statements are correct.
34- Hydraulic pressure is removed from the landing gear system with the LANDING
GEAR lever in the UP position.
a- True.
b- False.
The hydraulic pressure is removed with the LANDING GEAR lever in the OFF position!
35- The parking brake can be set with only B hydraulic system pressurized.
a- True
b- False
The parking brake can be set with either A or B hydraulic systems pressurized. If A and B hydraulic systems are not pressurized,
parking brake pressure is maintained by the brake accumulator. Accumulator pressure is shown on the HYD BRAKE PRESS
indicator.
36- When the manual gear extension access door is open:
a- Normal landing gear extension is not possible.
b- Manual landing gear extension may be accomplished with the LANDING GEAR handle in the UP
position.
c- Landing gear uplocks are released.
d- The landing gear may be retracted by moving the landing gear lever to the UP position only if
hydraulic system A pressure is available.
37- The brake pressure accumulator provides pressure to the brake system and:
a- Parking brake system.
b- Flap system.
c- Landing gear system.
d- Nose wheel steering system.
38- The wheels should be chocked in case the brake pressure has bled down.
 a- True.
b- False.
39- Which statement is true?
a- Rudder pedal steering overrides the steering wheel inputs.
b- Rudder pedal steering is deactivated as the nose gear extends.
c- Rudder pedal steering allows 37 degrees of steering in either direction.
d- Hydraulic system B pressure is bypassed with the lock out pin installed in the steering
depressurization valve.
40- If the thrust levers are advanced after touchdown:
a- The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will illuminate immediately.
b- The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will illuminate after 3 seconds.
c- The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will not illuminate.
d- The AUTO BRAKE select switch will move to OFF.
41- If the go-around mode is selected after touchdown and prior to A/T
disengagement, the A/Ps disengages and the A/Ts may command GA thrust.
a- True.
b- False.
42- Impact fittings located in the opening of each main gear well:
a- Are intended to provide automatic braking to main gear wheels during retraction.
b- Provide positive uplock during main gear retraction.
c- Are intended to provide protection to wheel well components during gear retraction by preventing a
gear with a spinning tire and loose tread from entering the wheel well.
43- The autobrake system performs a self-test at initial AC power application. If the
self test is not successful, the AUTO BRAKE DIARM light illuminates and the
system does not work.
a- True.
b- False.
44- With the AUTO BRAKE select switch at RTO, autobrake is initiated when:
a- Wheel speed is ˃ 60 kts and thrust levers are retarded to idle
b- Wheel speed is ˃ 90 kts and thrust levers are retarded to idle
c- Automatically when thrust levers are retard to idle
d- AUTO BRAKE ARM illuminated with wheel speed is ˃ 90 kts and thrust levers are retarded to idle
45- Hydraulic system pressure from System B will be used to retract the landing
gear:
a- When System A pressure is low and the landing lever is positioned UP.
b- When the ALTERNATE NOSE WHEEL switch is positioned ON.
c- After failure of the No.1 engine with the landing gear still down and the landing gear lever is
positioned up.
d- After a failure of the No.1 engine hydraulic pump with the landing gear still down and the landing
gear lever is positioned UP.
46- After landing, autobrake application begins when both forward thrust levers are
retarded to IDLE and Nose wheel and main wheels spin up.
a- True.
b- False.
The Nose wheel has no input.
47- The landing gear indicator lights found on the center panel will illuminate red
when:
a- One of the 6 green lights are faulty.
b- There are no red lights.
c- All landing gear are UP and the gear handle is in OFF position
d- All landing gear are DOWN and the gear handle is in OFF position
48- You are using the manual gear extension lever to lower the gear. At what point
do the gear unlocks all release?
a- When the Manual Extension Access door is opened.
b- When either gear extension handle is raised.
c- When all gear extension handles have been pulled to their limits.
49- Which controls operate the nose wheel steering system?
 a- The control wheel.
b- The thrust levers.
c- The control column.
d- The steering wheel and the rudder pedals on the ground.
50- Following a manual extension, can the landing gear be retracted?
a- Yes.
b- No.
Following a manual extension, the landing gear may be retracted normally by accomplishing the following steps: 1. Close the
manual extension access door. 2. Move the LANDING GEAR lever to DOWN with hydraulic system A pressure available, and then
3. Position the LANDING GEAR lever to UP.
51- What is the steering authority for the rudder pedals?
a- +/- 5 degrees
b- +/- 7 degrees
c- +/- 57 degrees
d- +/- 78 degrees
52- Landing autobrake settings may be selected after touchdown:
a- However the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will illuminate and autobrake application will not occur.
b- However autobrake action will occur only when both thust levers are retarded to reverse thrust
range.
c- Prior to decelerating through 60 kts groundspeed.
d- After decelerating through 60 kts groundspeed
53- What happens if you reject a takeoff at 100 kts with Autobrakes in RTO?
a- Automatic braking when thrust levers are retarded to idle.
b- Automatic braking when reverse thrust selected.
c- Automatic speed brake deployment when thrust levers are retarded to idle.
d- AUTO BRAKE light will illuminate.
54- There are a second set of landing gear indicator lights on the aft overhead panel.
These lights:
a- Illuminate red when the related landing gear is not down and locked and the gear handle is down.
b- Illuminate red when the related landing gear is not down and either thrust lever is retarded to idle at
a radio altitude of 800 feet or less.
c- Illuminate green when the landing gear is in agreement with the landing gear lever.
d- Are a redundant but separate set of landing gear indicator circuits and green lights.
55- What is the normal source of power for the alternate brake system?
a- System A
b- System B
c- Standby system
d- System A or Standby system
56- Manual landing gear extension is not possible with the landing gear lever in the
up position.
a- True.
b- False.
57- During taxiing for takeoff, the amber AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates.
What should you do?
a- Position the AUTO BRAKE select switch to OFF and then reselect RTO. If light re-illuminates, use
manual brakes in case of RTO.
b- Position the AUTO BRAKE select switch to OFF. Do not attempt takeoff if light remains illuminated.
c- Position ANTISKID select switch to OFF. Use manual brakes in case of RTO.
d- AUTO BRAKE system is not mandatory. There is no limitation.
58- With the manual gear extension door open, which statement is correct?
a- Landing gear can be retracted.
b- Landing gear can be extended with the gear lever up and by pulling the manual extension handles.
c- Normal landing gear extension is possible with hydraulic B pressure.
d- Pull the manual extension handles and landing gear lever must me selected down
59- What is the purpose of the landing gear transfer unit?
a- If hydraulic B fluid is lost the landing gear can be extended by automatic activation of the transfer
unit
b- In case of No1 engine failure/separation, the gear can be retracted after takeoff.
c- In case of engine failure the gear can be retracted in order to reduce drag for the cruise segment.
 d- If hydraulic A fluid is lost, the transfer unit must be manually selected to B fluid when the gear lever
is selected up.
60- How can you disarm the autobrake after landing?
a- Moving speed brake to down detent
b- Advancing thrust lever 3 seconds after landing
c- Apply manual braking
d- All of the above.
61- The AUTO BRAKE Select Switch:
a- Is always selected to 2.
b- Must be pulled out to select RTO.
c- Set to RTO will apply maximum brake pressure if the thrust levers are retarded to idle at or above
90kts
d- Set at RST should extinguish the ANTISKID INOP light.
62- When the gear is down with three greens, you can:
a- Assume the gear is down and locked, provided the indicator lights on the overhead panel are
illuminated as well.
b- Still get a landing gear warning horn
c- Assume the gear is down and locked, even if one landing gear indicator light on the overhead panel is
NOT illuminated.
d- All of the above is correct
63- Normal hydraulic brake pressure is:
a- 1000psi
b- 2000psi
c- 3000psi
d- 3500psi
64- Full rudder pedal displacement will turn the nose wheel by:
a- 7 degrees
b- 17 degrees
c- 47 degrees
d- 78 degrees
65- Regarding Normal and Alternate braking systems, which statement is true?
a- Antiskid protection will operate on both systems, Autobrake will only operate on the normal system.
b- Antiskid protection will operate on both systems, Autobrake will operate on both systems.
c- Antiskid protection will only operate on the normal system, Autobrake will operate on both systems.
d- Antiskid protection will only operate on the normal system, autobrake will only operate on the
normal system.
66- During landing gear retraction:
a- Snubbers in the wheel bays stop the rotation of all wheels.
b- The pilot applies manual brakes to stop main gear rotation.
c- The brakes automatically stop rotation of the main gear wheels.
d- A fitting in the wheel well opening applies a braking force to the wheels.
67- Manual Gear Extension Handles: each landing gear unlock is released when
related handle is pulled to its limit, approximately 24 inches (61 cm).
a- True
b- False
68- What conditions must be met for the Landing Gear Transfer Unit to operate:
a- Airborne, No2 engine RPM drops below a limit value, both main landing gear are not up and locked.
b- Airborne, No1 and No2 engine RPM drop below a limit value, Landing Gear Lever is positioned
DOWN, either main landing gear is not up and locked.
c- Airborne, No1 engine RPM drops below a limit value, Landing Gear Lever is positioned UP, both main
landing gear are not up and locked.
d- Airborne, No1 engine RPM drops below a limit value, Landing Gear Lever is positioned UP, either
main landing gear is not up and locked.
69- When the Landing Gear Lever is positioned DOWN, the landing gear extends by:
a- Hydraulic pressure
b- Gravity
c- Air loads
d- All the above
When the LANDING GEAR lever is moved to DN, hydraulic system A pressure is used to release the unlocks. The landing gear
extends by hydraulic pressure, gravity and air loads. Over center mechanical and hydraulic locks hold the gear at full extension.
70- After braking has started, the Autobrake system will disengage automatically
when:
a- Wheel speed falls below 20kts.
b- The pilot moves the speed brake lever to UP position.
c- A forward thrust lever is advanced after landing.
d- Reverse thrust is deselected.
71- The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates for 2 seconds then extinguishes.
Likely cause is:
a- Thrust levers advanced during first 3 seconds after touchdown.
b- RTO mode selected on the ground.
c- A malfunction has been detected in the automatic braking system.
d- AUTO BRAKE select switch set to OFF.
e- The RTO mode can be selected only when on the ground. Upon selection, the AUTO BRAKE DISARM
light illuminates for one to two seconds and then extinguishes, indicating that an automatic self–test
has been successfully accomplished.
72- What is the maximum operating speed (in knots) with the Landing Gear extended?
a- 300
b- 235
c- 320
d- 285
73- Are any cockpit indicating lights installed to monitor the position of the main gear
doors?
a- No – the doors are mechanically connected to the landing gear assemblies.
b- Yes – the main gear door information is available.
74- Where is the BRAKE pressure gage?
a- On the Captain’s Instrument Panel.
b- Just above the brake handle.
c- On the First Officer’s Instrument Panel.
d- On the Navigator’s Instrument Panel.
75- Individual wheel brake control ____ available when the Alternate Brakes are operating.
a- Is not
b- Is
76- During gear retraction, the red lights ____ until the respective gear position agrees with
the Lever position.
a- Remain extinguished
b- Remain illuminated
77- The green gear position lights illuminate when _____.
a- Each respective gear is down and locked.
b- The nose gear is down and locked
c- Either respective gear is down and locked
d- Neither respective gear is down and locked.
78- Should hydraulic pressure fail, the gear remain locked down mechanically
a- True
b- False
79- If the ____ is inoperative – you will lose both the Antiskid and ABS.
a- UPLOCK HOOK
b- ANTISKID/AUTOBRAKE CONTROL UNIT
c- OVERRIDE TRIGGER
d- The Landing Gear Lever.
80- With any or all gear not down, an aural warning horn will sound with the flaps selected
to 15 – when one throttle is set to less than 10 degrees thrust lever angle, with the
opposite throttle set to more than 30 degrees angle. Can the horn be silenced by
pressing the HORN CUTOUT button?
a- Yes
b- No
81- What holds the gear in the retracted position during fight?
a- The gear UPLOCK HOOK.
b- The landing gear doors.
c- Friction within the gear mechanism.
d- An electromagnet.
82- The Landing Gear Lever can be in any position for manual gear extension.
a- True
b- False
83- If the RTO is initiated at speeds over 90 knots, the AUTOBRAKE RTO MODE _____.
a- Will apply full braking action.
b- Will not apply full braking action.
84- After the gear are retracted for a minimum of 10 seconds, the autopilot will move the
Landing Gear Lever to the _____ position to remove hydraulic pressure from the landing
gear system.
a- On
b- Off
85- The nosewheel steering receives hydraulic pressure only when the gear are ____.
a- Up
b- Down.
86- What is the maximum speed to extend the Landing Gear?
a- 250
b- 280
c- 300
d- 270
87- Nosewheel steering pressure is normally provided by the ____.
a- “A” system
b- “B” system
88- For landing, the Autobrakes will apply the selected deceleration rate when main wheel
spin up is detected and ______.
a- The thrust levers are not retarded to near idle.
b- The thrust levers are retarded to near idle.
89- What device automatically stops the spin of the main gear wheels during gear
retraction?
a- Wheel brakes.
b- Emergency brakes
c- Wheel spin is not actively stopped.
d- Air brakes.
90- Normally – during flight – the gear are locked in the up position and all Landing Gear
Position Indicating lights are _____.
a- In
b- Out
100- _____ seconds after the gear are retracted, the pilot will place the Lever in the OFF
position. All landing gear lights should remain extinguished.
a- Five
b- Twenty
c- Fifteen
d- Ten
101- The Normal brake pressure is delivered from the ____ system, while the
Alternate brakes are pressurized from the ____ system.
a- “B” hydraulic; “A” hydraulic
b- “A” hydraulic; “B” hydraulic
102- RTO or Landing Autobrakes are Disarmed by:
a- Positioning the Autobrakes select switch to OFF or Applying manual brakes
b- Moving the Speed brake handle to the down detent.
c- Advancing the either or both Thrust levers after touchdown.
d- All of the above.
103- Autobrakes ____ available when Alternate brakes are operating.
a- Are not
b- Are
104- When the RTO mode is armed, the _____ light should illuminate for 1 to 2
seconds, while a system self test is performed.
a- Override Trigger
b- Autobrake Disarm
c- Red lever.
d- Green lever.
105- The hydraulic pressure for gear retraction/extension is normally delivered by the
____ , however, the _____ can provide the pressure to raise the gear through the
Landing Gear Transfer Unit.
a- “B” system; “A” system
b- “A” system; “B” system
106- Accumulator pressure operates the brakes as a last resort. The Brake Pressure
gage in the cockpit will indicate ____ when the accumulator is depleted.
a- 1000 psi
b- 1500 psi
c- 0 psi
d- 500 psi
107- With any or all gear not down, an aural warning horn will sound with the flaps
selected to 15 – when both throttles are set to less than 30 degrees. Can the horn be
silenced by pressing the HORN CUTOUT button
a- Yes
b- No
108- Is hydraulic pressure needed to hold the nose gear in the retract position
a- Yes
b- No
109- With any or all gear not down, an aural warning horn will sound with the flaps
selected between 1 and 10 – when the throttles are set to less than 10 degrees thrust
lever angle. Can the horn be silenced by pressing the HORN CUTOUT button?
a- Yes
 b- No
110- How many Manual Gear Extension Handles are installed?
a- There are 3 handles – 1 for each gear.
b- None of these
c- Just one for all gear
d- There are 6 handles – 2 for each gear
111- The red gear position indicating lights illuminate whenever ______ the Landing
Gear Lever position and the actual position of the respective gear.
a- Electrical power is lost between
b- The signal is lost between
c- There is a disagreement between
d- There is a match between
112- Normally during cruise flight, all gear lights should be extinguished, however, the
red lights illuminate inflight if the gear is not down and ____.
a- Either throttle is retarded to idle.
b- Either throttle is at full power
c- Both throttles are retarded to idle.
d- Neither throttle is retarded to idle.
113- With an AUTOBRAKE mode armed, the _____ light should remain out.
a- Red lever.
b- Green lever
c- AUTOBRAKE DISARM
d- OVERRIDE TRIGGER
114- The two nose gear doors are _____ whenever the nose gear is extended. The
doors mechanically close when the nose gear retracts.
a- Open
b- Closed
115- To arm one of the Landing modes, the aircraft must be ____ and the Antiskid
must be ON.
a- Inflight
b- On the ground
116- The Autobrake switch _____ after the takeoff.
a- Must be manually turned OFF by the pilot.
b- Will be automatically turned OFF.
117- After takeoff, if the #1 engine RPM ____, the Landing Gear Transfer Unit will
transfer from using A system hydraulic pressure to using B system hydraulic pressure to
raise the landing gear.
a- Falls below 56%N2
b- Falls below 75%N2
c- Rises above 56%N2
d- Rises above 75%N2
118- Concerning the Normal Brake system; If the B system pressure fails, the ____
automatically provides Alternate Brake pressure.
a- “B” system
b- “A” system
119- With the Landing Gear Retracted, the nose gear doors completely enclose the
Nose Gear.
 a- True
b- False
120- When the aircraft is towed, the ____ should be off, or a steering lockout pin
must be installed.
a- “B” system.
b- “A” system.
121- Which is the normal inflight position for the Landing Gear Lever?
a- Off
b- Down
c- On
d- Up
122- During gear extension, when each gear is locked down, the ____ and the red
light will go out.
a- Opposite green light will extinguish
b- Opposite green light will illuminate
c- Respective green light will extinguish.
d- Respective green light will illuminate.
123- The Rejected Take off mode (RTO) can only be selected with these conditions
satisfied:
a- Antiskid must be on and ABS set to the RTO mode.
b- The aircraft must be on the ground and wheel speed must be less than 60 kntos.
c- Thrust levers must be at idle.
d- All of the above.
124- If – due to a malfunction – the Landing Gear Lever remains locked down after
takeoff the pilot can pull the _____ to release the Landing Gear Lever Lock – and then
raise the Lever to the UP position.
a- ANTISKID/AUTOBRAKE CONTROL UNIT
b- HORN CUTOUT
c- UPLOCK HOOK
d- OVERRIDE TRIGGER
125- What is the maximum speed to retract the Landing Gear?
a- 225
b- 265
c- 235
d- 250
126- What is the maximum nosewheel turning angle that can be commanded by the
nosewheel steering wheel (either direction)?
a- 78 degrees
b- 7 degrees
c- 68 degrees
d- 70 degrees
127- With any or all gear not down, an aural warning horn will sound with the flaps
selected to more than 15 – when the throttles are in any position. Can the horn be
silenced by pressing the HORN CUTOUT button?
a- Yes
b- No
128- Can the Parking brake be set or released by either pilot?
 a- Yes
b- No
129- The RTO mode disarms automatically when the right main gear lifts off during
takeoff, however ____.
a- The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light does not illuminate.
b- The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates.
130- The AUTOBRAKE DISARM light illuminates when the system has failed or _____.
a- When the pilot has manually activaded the Autobrake system
b- When the pilot has manually overridden the Autobrake system.
131- What is the maximum nosewheel turning angle that can be commanded by the
rudder pedals?
a- 17 degrees
b- 79 degrees
c- 10 degrees
d- 7 degrees
132- If the RTO is initiated at speeds between 60 -90 knots, the AUTOBRAKING _____,
and the AUTOBRAKE DISARM light will come on.
a- Does not initiate
b- Initiates
133- What device automatically stops the spin of the nose gear wheels during gear
retraction?
a- Snubbers
b- Nothing
c- Air brakes
d- Wheel brakes
134- The air/ground sensors are connected to _____and also to the nose gear strut.
When the aircraft s inflight, these sensors activate a solenoid to unlock the Landing Gear
Lever.
a- The Right and Left main landing gear strut.
b- Only the Right main landing gear strut.
135- Where is the control panel for the Anti-skid and the Autobrake Systems?
a- To the left of the Captain’s seat.
b- To the right of the Landing Gear Lever
c- To the right of the First Officers seat.
d- To the left of the Landing Gear Lever
136- Touchdown and locked wheel protection ____ available with Alternate brakes.
a- Are not
b- Are
137- Are any cockpit indicating lights to monitor the position of the nose gear doors?
a- Yes
b- No

AUTOMATIC FLIGHT
1- With VNAV engaged, the AFDS (Autopilot Flight Director System) pitch and A/T
modes are commanded by the:
a- MCP
b- FMC
 c- FCC.
2- The Automatic Flight System (AFS) consists of :
a- The autopilots (A/P)
b- The Flight Directors (F/D)
c- The Autothrottles (A/T)
d- All of the above are correct.
3- Normally, N1 limits and target N1 values are provided to the A/T by the:
a- A/T computer
b- FMC
c- IRUs
4- VNAV is terminated by:
a- Selecting a different pitch mode
b- G/S capture
c- Extending flaps beyond 15 with APP mode engaged
d- All of the above.
5- Moving the autopilot Stabilizer Trim Cutout Switch to the CUTOUT position will
disengage the autopilot.
a- True
b- False.
6- If the autopilot ALT HOLD mode is manually overridden with control column
pressure, which of the following occurs?
a- The autopilot disengages
b- LNAV disengages
c- The autopilot changes to CWS P and returns to ALT HLD if control pressure released within 250 ft of
selected altitude.
d- LEVEL CHANGE automatically engages.
e- If pitch is manually overridden while in ALT HOLD and control force is released within 250 feet of
selected altitude, A/P pitch mode engages in ALT ACQ and returns to selected altitude in ALT HOLD
mode.
7- The Control wheel force required to override the A/P COMMAND mode is:
a- Less than normal CWS force
b- Greater than normal CWS force
c- The same as normal CWS force.
8- When performing an autopilot ILS approach, the glide slope can be captured
from above or below:
a- True
b- False
9- When control wheel pressure is released during CWS roll operation, the
airplane will roll wings level when the bank angle is:
a- 5 degrees or less
b- 6 degrees or less
c- 10 degrees or less
d- 15 degrees or less.
10- How many independent Flight Control Computers (FCCs) are there in the AFDS?
a- One
b- Two
c- Three
d- Fours (two for each channel)
11- The AUTOLAND warning light is armed during dual ILS A/P approach below ____
feet.
a- 2500 feet
b- 800 feet
c- 500 feet
d- 200 feet
12- What pitch mode is annunciated after takeoff when the autopilot is first
engaged in CMD?
a- CWS P
 b- MCP SPD
c- VNAV
d- V/S
13- The autopilot cannot be engaged while force is applied to the control wheel.
a- True
b- False.
14- In the 'ARM' autothrottle mode, the thrust lever autothrottle servos maintain
thrust at the selected N1 limit displayed on the thrust mode display.
a- True
b- False.
ARM mode = No autothrottle mode engaged. The thrust lever autothrottle servos are inhibited. The pilot can set thrust levers
manually.
15- LNAV terminates when:
a- HDG SEL mode is engaged
b- Upon VOR or localizer capture
c- Aircraft is not within LNAV capture criteria
d- All of the above are correct.
16- Minimum speed reversion is also available when the A/T is OFF and the AFDS is
in ALT HOLD or after G/S capture.
a- True
b- False.
Minimum speed reversion is NOT available in that case.
17- Which A/T modes permit manual thrust change without A/T interference?
a- GA & ARM
b- N1 & ARM
c- THR HLD & ARM
d- Only THR HLD
18- What is the minimum altitude (AGL) for selecting 'CMD' on the second autopilot
during an ILS approach?
a- 2000 feet
b- 1500 feet
c- 800 feet
d- 500 feet.
19- Which of the following occurs when a TO/GA switch is pressed below 2000 feet
RA for a flight director go-around from a single autopilot ILS approach?
a- The autopilot disengages
b- GA mode of the Flight Director engages
c- The autothrottle advances thrust levers to reduced go-around N1
d- All the above are correct.
20- The airplane can be flown in the CWS mode even through the autopilot is
engaged in CMD:
a- True
b- False.
21- LNAV must be manually disengaged in order to capture an ILS localizer.
a- True
b- False.
22- After lift-off, the A/T remains in THR HLD until:
a- 400 feet RA
b- 800 feet RA
c- 400 feet RA & 18 seconds after lift-off
d- 800 feet RA & 18 seconds after lift-off
23- If an engine failure occurs during takeoff, the pitch command target speed is:
a- V2, if airspeed is below V2
b- Existing speed, if airspeed is between V2 & V2+20
c- V2+20, if airspeed is above V2+20
d- All of the above
 24- Engaging LVL CHG or VNAV climb modes automatically engages the A/T N1
mode:
a- True
b- False.
25- The airplane is in level flight at the selected altitude with ALT HOLD engaged.
Changing the MCP altitude by at least 100 feet, arms the V/S mode.
a- True
b- False
26- Trimming the stabilizer with the electrical trim switch on the control wheel
disengages the autopilot.
a- True
b- False.
27- Which mode must be armed before the second autopilot can be selected?
a- VNAV
b- VOR LOC
c- APP
d- LNAV
28- During takeoff with F/D ON, the AFDS commands pitch attitude ____ degrees
after ____ IAS.
a- 10 degrees nose up & 60 kt IAS.
b- 15 degrees nose up & 60 kt IAS
c- 10 degrees nose up & 84 kt IAS.
d- 15 degrees nose up & 84 kt IAS.
29- Dual channel A/P operation is possible ONLY when two generators are
powering the busses.
a- True
b- False.
30- Pushing a CWS engage switch engages the A/P pitch and roll axes in the CWS
mode and displays CWS P & CWS R on the FMAs. The A/P maneuvers the
airplane in response to control pressures applied by either pilot. The control
pressure is similar to that required for manual flight. If aileron pressure is
released with 6 degrees or less bank, the A/P rolls the wings level and holds
existing heading. The heading hold feature with bank less than 6 degrees is
inhibited when:
a- Below 1500 feet RA with the landing gear down or after F/D VOR capture with TAS 250 knots or less
or after F/D LOC capture in the APP mode.
b- Below 2500 feet RA with the landing gear down or after F/D VOR capture with TAS 200 knots or less
or after F/D LOC capture in the APP mode.
c- Below 1500 feet RA with the landing gear down or after F/D VOR capture with TAS 200 knots or less
or after F/D LOC capture in the APP mode.
d- Below 2500 feet RA with the landing gear down or after F/D VOR capture with TAS 250 knots or less
or after F/D LOC capture in the APP mode.
31- If engaged the autothrottle will disengaged ____ after landing touchdown.
a- 2 seconds
b- 5 seconds
c- 8 seconds
d- 10 seconds
32- If thrust levers become separated more than 10 degrees during a dual channel
approach (before FLARE armed is annunciated), the autothrottle is then
disengaged.
a- True
b- False.
this is true but after FLARE armed is annunciated...
33- The autopilot flare maneuver starts at approximately ____ feet RA and is
completed at touchdown.
a- 27 feet
 b- 35 feet
c- 50 feet
d- 100 feet.
34- During a single engine F/D go-around, F/D pitch commands ____ degrees nose
up. As climb rate increases, F/D pitch commands maintain a target speed.
a- 8 degrees
b- 10 degrees
c- 13 degrees
d- 15 degrees.
35- If windshear is encountered during F/D takeoff or go-around, the F/D pitch
command bar provides commands to maintain V2+20 kts until vertical speed
decreases to approximately :
a- 600 fpm
b- 800 fpm
c- 1000 fpm
d- 1200 fpm
36- If windshear is encountered during an ILS approach, both the F/D and A/P
attempt to hold the airplane on altitude, or on glideslope after glideslope
capture, without regard to angle of attack or stick shaker limitations.
a- True
b- False.
Airspeed could decrease below stick shaker and into a stall if the pilot does not intervene by pushing the TO/GA switch or
disconnecting the A/P and flying manually.
37- The AUTOLAND warning light flashed RED if:
a- A/P disengages & ILS deviation occurs below 200 feet
b- A/P disengages, stab trim warning occurs & ILS deviation occurs below 200 feet
c- A/P disengages, stab trim warning occurs & ILS deviation occurs below 500 feet
d- A/P disengages, stab trim or A/T warning occurs & ILS deviation occurs below 500 feet
38- An A/T disengages flashing light (amber) indicates airspeed error under
following conditions: inflight, flight not up and airspeed differs from
commanded value by____ and is not approaching commanded value.
a- + or- 10 kts
b- + 10 knots or - 5 knots
c- + 5 knots or - 10 knots
d- + 15 knots or -10 knots.
39- Localizer can be intercepted in HDG SEL, LNAV or CWS R.
a- True
b- False.
40- The following annunciation provide the flight crew with autoland system mode
and status:
a- LAND 3 means two autopilots, two inertial sources at least and the associated sensors are operating
normally for an automatic landing
b- LAND 3 means two autopilots, three inertial sources at least and the associated sensors are operating
normally for an automatic landing
c- LAND 3 means two autopilots, three inertial sources and the associated sensors are operating
normally for an automatic landing and rollout.
d- LAND 3 means two autopilots, three inertial sources, the associated sensors are operating normally
for an automatic landing and rollout and at least one FMS is operative.
41- The Autopilot Disengage Light is illuminated steady red when:1- Stabilizer out
of trim below 800 feet RA on dual channel approach.2- ALT ACQ mode inhibited
during A/P go-around if stabilizer not trimmed for single A/P operation.3-
Disengage light test switch held in position 2.4- Automatic ground test system
fail.
a- True.
b- False.
 42- After localizer & glideslope capture, CWS cannot be engaged by manually
overriding pitch and roll. Manual override of autopilots causes autopilot
disengagement.
a- True
b- False.
43- Two independent radio altimeters provide radio altitude to the respective
FCCs. With a radio altimeter inoperative, the autopilot will disconnect ____ after
LOC and GS capture.
a- Immediately.
b- 2 seconds.
c- Between 2 and 5 seconds depending on the altitude.
d- 4 seconds.
44- When a conflict occurs between the VNAV profile and the MCP altitude, the
airplane levels and the pitch flight mode annunciation becomes:
a- VNAV SPD.
b- VNAV PTH.
c- VNAV ACQ.
d- VNAV ALT.
VNAV ALT maintains altitude.
45- During a single F/D go-around, with a push of either TO/GA switch:
a- F/D roll commands hold current heading.
b- F/D roll commands hold current ground track.
c- F/D roll commands hold current heading until passing 400 ft.
d- The Roll Engaged Mode annunciation on the FMA is blank.
46- What happens with the IAS/MACH display on the MCP if SPD INTV is pushed
during VNAV operations?
a- IAS/MACH displays opens up and shows 250 kts.
b- IAS/MACH displays opens up and shows FMC target speed.
c- IAS/MACH displays opens up and shows slashes.
d- IAS/MACH displays opens up and shows dashes.
47- Antenna switching from tail antenna to nose antenna occurs when:
a- VOR frequency is selected and VOR/LOC is armed or engaged.
b- LOC frequency is selected only.
c- LOC frequency is selected and VOR/LOC is armed or engaged.
d- VOR frequency is selected only.
48- At what altitude will both A/P's automatically disengage if FLARE is not armed
during an ILS dual channel approach?
a- 350 feet RA.
b- 500 feet RA
c- 50 feet RA.
d- Will not disengage.
49- After a normal takeoff which pitch command can you expect?
a- V2
b- V2 to V2+15kt
c- V2 to V2+20kt
d- V2+20kt
50- Condition: After takeoff, A/P engaged before flaps up. (Thrust mode / Roll mode
/ Pitch mode) Which is the correct mode on the FMA?
a- ARM / HDG SEL / TO/GA
b- N1 / LNAV / MCP SPD
c- ARM / LNAV / FMC SPD
d- N1 / HDG SEL / VNAV
51- As you push the TO/GA switch for an automatic Go-Around, what is the correct
FMA announcement? (Thrust mode / Roll mode / Pitch mode)
a- N1 / VOR/LOC / TO/GA
b- GA / LNAV / MCP SPD
c- GA / - / TO/GA
 d- MCP SPD / - / GA
52- When flying on a geometrical path with VNAV engaged you push SPD INTV.
What will happen?
a- VNAV SPD will engage and MCP SPD will be annunciated in the FMA.
b- VNAV PTH will remain engaged and MCP SPD will be annunciated in the FMA.
c- VNAV PTH will remain engaged and FMC SPD will be annunciated in the FMA.
d- VNAV SPD will engage and FMC SPD will be annunciated in the FMA.
53- When in ALT HOLD FL80 you change the barometric setting from STD to QNH
1030. What will the aircraft do?
a- The aircraft will climb 500 feet to the new pressure level
b- The aircraft will descend 500 feet to the new pressure level
c- You cannot change the altitude when in ALT HOLD
d- The aircraft will continue at FL80, but the ALT readout will change.
54- On a normal ILS approach, when will the respective LLZ and G/S captures occur.
a- LLZ 2 dots on the expanded scale, GS 5/8 dot on the expanded scale
b- LLZ 1/2 dot on the normal scale, GS 5/2 dot below the glideslope
c- LLZ not later than 1/2 dot deviation, GS 2/5 dot below glideslope.
d- LLZ 5/8 dot deviation, GS 1/2 dot below the glideslope
55- You are established on the ILS at 3000´and inadvertently press TO/GA once.
What will happen?
a- The A/P will disengage but the A/C will remain in approach logic
b- The A/P will stay connected but the FMS will change to G/A logic
c- Nothing will happen since the A/C has not descended below 2000´
d- The A/P will disconnect and A/T add thrust to reduced G/A, F/D pitch 15deg nose up
56- The white A/T LIM symbol appears on the upper display unit. What is correct?
a- The A/T has reach the thrust limit for the selected assumed temperature
b- The N1 has been manually set and not by the FMC, therefore the A/T LIM will be illuminated
c- The A/T is using the upgraded BLT performance information
d- The FMC is not providing A/T with N1 limit values
57- Each rotational click of a Course Selector knob – will change the respective Course
readout by 1 degree, and will move the _____ on the respective ND by one degree.
a- heading pointer
b- course deviation pointer
58- A bank angle selector is used to limit the roll guidance for the Heading Select mode and
the ____ mode.
a- LNAV
b- VOR
59- The N1 mode sets power to the N1 limit that is calculated by the ____. The available
limits are Reduced Takeoff, Takeoff, Go Around, Reduced Climb, Climb, Cruise, and
Continuous.
a- FMC
b- IRS
60- The command bars are enabled when the respective FD switch is turned on, however
the pitch command bar will come into view only if a ____ is engaged.
a- AP
b- pitch command mode
61- The AP can also control the horizontal stabilizer trim – but has no control over ___.
a- the rudder system
b- the elevator system
62- The speed selector is used to adjust the selected speed for the ____ modes.
a- MCP SPD and LVL CHG
b- VNAV and LNAV
63- During takeoff, failures of _____ will cause the A/T to disengage.
a- the crew to advance the throttles
b- valid N1 limit signals from the FMC
64- When Autopilot “A” is engaged – FCC “A” controls the autopilot through the “A” system
aileron and elevator servos – utilizing the ____ actuators.
a- Standby Hydraulic System
b- A Hydraulic System
c- B Hydraulic System
65- When VNAV is engaged, the aircraft will automatically level off at the altitude displayed
in ____ or the FMC altitude – whichever is reached first.
a- The MCP altitude display
b- The Radio Altitude
66- If a ____ is selected on the MCP Altitude Display, the A/T will advance power to the N1
limit, and the AFDS will provide pitch guidance to hold the selected IAS/MACH value.
a- higher altitude.
b- lower altitude.
67- Autothrottle operation is available with flight directors _____ with the Autopilot
engaged or not engaged.
a- ON only
b- ON or OFF
68- If no active speed mode is displayed when LVL CHG is engaged, the _____ appears, and
the display and airspeed cursors synchronize to allow current speed to be the target LVL
CHG speed.
a- FMC speed
b- present speed
69- The selected speed appears in the IAS/MACH display when ____ is engaged.
a- MCP SPD
b- VNAV
70- LNAV will automatically disconnect upon reaching the end of the _____ or entering into
a route discontinuity.
a- top of descent
b- active route
71- During Autopilot operations, the operating FCC sends control commands to the
respective pitch and roll hydraulic servos, which operate the flight controls through
____.
a- separate hydraulic systems
b- a single hydraulic system
72- In VNAV descent, the A/T ____, and the AFDS holds the FMC target speed using pitch.
a- retards thrust to idle
b- goes to throttle hold
73- The Autothrottle system is normally engaged ____ takeoff.
a- Before
b- After
74- LVL CHG cannot engage after _____.
a- APP is armed
b- glideslope capture
75- With VORLOC armed, the AFDS will intercept the selected radial or localizer course from
the Heading Select mode or from the ___ mode.
a- AP CWS Roll
b- AP CMD Roll
76- Two Autopilots are installed. Except for ____ , only one AP can be engaged at a time.
a- an approach
b- a coupled Dual Channel Approach
77- Illuminated MCP switch lights do not indicate the operating mode, you must view the
mode status on the _____.
a- AFDS panel
 b- FMA displays
78- An illuminated Master (MA) light indicates which ____.
a- FCC is the current master computer
b- FD is on
79- The AFDS captures the glideslope at ___ dot, then commands a descent rate to track the
glideslope signal.
a- 3/5
b- 2/5
c- 1/5
d- 4/5
80- If a ____ is selected on the MCP Altitude Display, the A/T will set idle thrust, and the
AFDS will provide pitch guidance to hold the selected IAS/MACH value.
a- lower altitude
b- higher altitude
81- When the localizer is captured, the AFDS will command up to ____ degrees of bank
regardless of the MCP bank angle selector.
a- 15
b- 30

COMMUNICATIONS SYSTEMS
1- How is the communication systems controlled?
a- By their respective control modulators.
b- By the Mode Control Panel.
c- By the Audio Control Panel.
2- What is the purpose of the ALT-NORM switch on the Audio Control Panel?
a- It selects an alternate radio.
b- It selects a degraded mode of operation of the ACP.
c- It swaps audio control panels with the observer.
3- The MASK-BOOM switch allows selection of the oxygen mask microphone or the
boom microphone. The MASK-BOOM switch does not affect the operation of the
hand microphone.
a- True.
b- False
4- In cased of degraded audio system operation:
a- Audio warnings for altitude alert are not heard.
b- Audio warnings for altitude alert and GPWS are not heard. Windshear alerts are not affected.
c- Audio warnings for altitude alert, GPWS and windshear are not heard.
5- In cased of degraded audio system operation can access the passenger address
system through the ACP (Audio Control Panel).
a- True.
b- False.
An audio system operating in the degraded mode cannot access the passenger address system through the audio control panel.
The crewmember can still use the service interphone handset and PA microphone if they are installed on the control stand.
6- The call system is used as a means for various crewmembers to gain the
attention of other crewmembers and to indicate that interphone communication
is desired. Attention is gained through the use of lights and aural signals (chimes
or horn). If the flight deck calls the cabin crew, the visual signal at called
position is:
a- Blue.
b- Red.
c- Green.
d- Blue then becomes red after 5 seconds.
7- On the Audio Control panel (ACP) the Cabin call light comes ON. It will illuminate
until:
a- remains illuminated for 10 seconds.
 b- remains illuminated for 20 seconds.
c- remains illuminated for 30 seconds.
d- remains illuminated for 40 seconds.
8- The Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) can be erased:
a- Pushing erase button for 2 seconds and aircraft in flight.
b- Pushing erase button for 2 seconds and aircraft in ground with parking brake ON.
c- Pushing erase button for 2 seconds and aircraft in ground with parking brake ON or OFF.
d- Pushing erase button for 2 seconds and aircraft in flight with parking brake ON.
9- The Cockpit Voice Recorder in AUTO:
a- Always powers the CVR when DC bus 1 is powered.
b- Always powers the CVR when DC bus 2 is powered.
c- Always powers the CVR when AC Transfer bus 1 is powered.
d- Always powers the CVR from first engine start until 5 minutes after last engine shutdown.
10- The CVR uses four independent channels to record flight deck audio for
maximum of:
a- 30 minutes.
b- 60 minutes.
c- 90 minutes.
d- 120 minutes.
11- The Cockpit Voice Recorder in ON:
a- Always powers the CVR from first engine start until 5 minutes then trips the switch to AUTO.
b- Always powers the CVR from first engine start until 5 minutes then trips the switch to AUTO (after
takeoff)
c- Always powers the CVR from first engine start until 5 minutes then trips the switch to AUTO (after
landing).
12- The CVR (orange box) is located:
a- In the forward Electronic & Equipment bay (E&E).
b- In the aft right side of the aft cargo compartment
c- In the flight deck (under the captain's seat)
d- In the aft galley
13- When is the Cockpit Voice Recorder active?
a- Anytime the battery switch is ON.
b- In flight only.
c- Anytime DC power is available,
d- Anytime 115 VAC is applied to the aircraft.
14- Which radio does the First Officer use in the degraded mode?
a- VHF-1
b- VHF-2
c- Both VHFs
15- In the degraded mode of operation, are the ACP transmitter selectors
functional?
a- Yes
b- No
16- Audio warnings for altitude alert, GPWS, and windshear are not heard on an
audio system operating in the degraded mode.
a- True
b- False
17- When the ALT‐NORM switch on the Audio Control Panel (ACP) is set to ALT:
a- The ACP at that station is inoperative and the crewmember cannot communicate on any radios.
b- The ACP at that station is inoperative but the crewmember can communicate on one radio.
c- The ACP switches to an alternate ACP and all functions operate normally and the crewmember can
communicate on all radios.
d- The ACP switches to standby ACP and all functions operate normally except PA and interphone.
18- With the Captain’s ACP operating in degraded mode, at that station:
a- All ACP transmitter selectors remain functional, but receiver selectors are lost.
b- Altitude alert, GPWS and windshear audio warnings are not heard.
c- The flight interphone remains useable, the PA is lost.
d- VHF-2 is the only useable radio.
 19- The call system from flight deck to cabin operates:
a- Blue call lights and a single low-tone chime
b- Green call lights and a two-tone chime
c- Blue call lights and a single high-tone chime
d- Red call lights and a two-tone chime
20- Flight Attendants may be called from the flight deck, the other attendant station,
or from any passenger seat or lavatory. Master call lights in the passenger cabin
identify the source of incoming calls to the attendants.
a- True
b- False

FIRE PROTECTION
1- Pulling up the APU fire warning switch:
a- Discharges the APU fire extinguisher.
b- Trips the generator control relay, and generator breaker, arms the associated extinguisher and
closes the bleed air valve
c- Closes the fuel shutoff valve, and the APU inlet door.
d- The first & the second statement are correct.
e- The second & the third statement are correct.
2- The power source for Engine Fire Extinguishing is:
a- Transfer Bus No.1.
b- The Switched Battery Bus.
c- The Hot Battery Bus.
d- None of the above.
3- Some of the indications for an engine fire warning are MASTER CAUTION &
OVHT/DET annunciator lights, the ENG OVERHEAT light, the Master FIRE WARN
lights and the red fire switch light. What are the other indications?
a- The APU DET INOP light illuminates.
b- A Red ENG OVERHEAT light illuminates.
c- The Fire Bell.
4- Pulling the engine fire warning switch up:
a- Closes both the engine fuel shutoff valve and the spar fuel shutoff valve.
b- Closes both the engine fuel shutoff valve and the spar fuel shutoff valve only if the battery switch is
ON
c- Closes the spar fuel shutoff valve. The engine fuel shutoff valve must be closed using the engine start
lever.
d- Closes the engine fuel shutoff valve. The spar fuel shutoff valve must be closed using the engine start
lever.
5- Illumination of the APU DET INOP light will also cause the MASTER CAUTION and
OVHT/DET annunciator lights to illuminate.
a- True.
b- False.
6- Placing the TEST switch in the FAULT / INOP position tests:
a- The engine overheat detectors.
b- The fault detection circuits for both engines and the APU.
c- The APU DET INOP light, FAULT light and APU BOTTLE DISCHARGE.
7- During normal operation as a dual loop system, with the OVHT DET switch in
NORMAL, an alert is initiated only if one of the detector elements in Loop A and
one of the detector elements in Loop B signal an overheat or fire condition.
a- True.
b- False.
8- In case of APU fire, the Recall Items are :
1) APU SWITCH.........................................................OFF
2) APU FIRE WARNING SWITCH...... PULL & ROTATE
a- True
b- False.
There is no RECALL ITEMS for an APU Fire! (see QRH).
9- If the OVHT DET switch is positioned to A or B, the system operates as a single
loop system. The non-selected loop is not monitored.
a- True.
b- False.
10- During cargo fire test, individual detector faults can only be detected by a
manually initiated test. The master caution light does not illuminate.
a- True.
b- False.
11- Cargo Compartment Fire Extinguishing: a single fire extinguisher bottle is
installed in the air conditioning mix bay on the forward wing spar. Detection of
fire in either the forward or aft compartment will cause the FWD or AFT cargo
fire warning light to illuminate. The extinguisher is armed by pushing the
appropriate cargo fire ARMED switch.
a- True
b- False.
12- In case of Cargo Fire, the Cargo Fire (FWD / AFT) Warning Lights are illuminated
red.
a- At least one detector in each loop detects smoke (with power failed in one loop, at least one detector
on the remaining loop detects smoke)
b- At least one detector in each loop detects smoke.
c- At least one detector in each loop detects smoke or fire condition.
13- If the DETECTOR FAULT light is illuminated (amber), a minimum of one loop in
one or both cargo compartments have failed.
a- True.
b- False.
BOTH loops in one or both cargo compartments have failed.
14- Main wheel well fire protection consists of fire detection powered by the:
a- Battery bus.
b- No.1 AC Transfer bus.
c- Switched hot battery bus.
15- A dual fire detector loop is installed in the main wheel well.
a- True.
b- False.
A single fire detector loop is installed in the main wheel well. As the temperature of the detector increases to a predetermined
limit, the detector senses a fire condition. The WHEEL WELL fire warning remains illuminated until the temperature of the
detector has decreased below the onset temperature.
16- Cargo compartment smoke detection is powered by :
a- Hot battery bus.
b- Switch hot battery bus.
c- Transfer bus No.1.
d- DC bus 1 & DC bus 2.
Cargo compartment fire extinguishing is powered by the hot battery bus.
17- The lavatory smoke detection system monitors for the presence of smoke. When
smoke is detected :- an aural warning sounds- the red alarm indicator light on
the lavatory smoke detector panel illuminates
a- True.
b- False.
There is no flight indication. When smoke is no longer present, the system automatically resets.
18- After a wheel well fire, if the landing gear must be retracted for airplane
performance, leave the landing gear extended for ___ minutes after the WHEEL
WELL fire warning light has extinguished.
a- 10 minutes.
b- 15 minutes.
c- 20 minutes.
d- 30 minutes.
 19- During 'SMOKE / FUMES REMOVAL' procedure, First Officer's window should be
opened if packs are off and smoke / fumes source is confirmed to be in the flight
deck.
a- True.
b- False.
CAUTION : - Establish normal holding airspeed (high airspeed may prevent opening the window)- Window should not be opened
unless the source is confirmed to be originating in the flight deck.
20- If smoke / fumes are uncontrollable, the crew is supposed to descent to the
lowest safe altitude and at 14000 or below, the PRESSURIZATION MODE
SELECTOR should be positioned to MAN while the OUTFLOW VALVE switch
should be opened. What is the main cause of the OUTFLOW VALVE operation?
a- To depressurize the cabin.
b- To provide maximum cabin ventilation.
c- To provide smoke/fumes contamination of/from other compartments.
d- This cause the airflow to carry smoke/ fumes aft
e- The outflow valve can take up to 20 seconds to open
21- APU Fire Detection is powered by the __________.
a. Battery Bus
b. Hot Battery Bus
22- Since there is no overheat detection for the APU, the APU switch will automatically
__________.
a- unlock only if a fire is sensed
b- either an overheat or a fire condition is sensed.
23- If both loops on one engine are malfunctioning when the OVHT/DET switch is in
NORMAL position – the ___________.
a- “FAULT” light illuminates only during recall
b- “FAULT” light illuminates
will not cause MASTER CAUTION or Fire handles lights to illuminate
24- Engine Fire Protection is provided by two Freon bottles.
a- True
b- False
25- The overheat and fire detector loops test – with A.C. power on the aircraft – will activate
_____ red and amber lights and the fire alarm bell. The FAULT light should not
illuminate during test.
a- 12
b- 11
26- The FIRE WARNING lights and the bell can also be cancelled by pressing the _______
switch on the Aft Electronics Panel.
a- EXTERNAL FIRE POWER
b- “BELL CUTOUT”
27- The MASTERS CAUTION lights illuminate when the amber ________ - or APU DET INOP
lights illuminate on the Aft Electronic Panel.
a- ENG OVERHEAT
b- ENG FIRE
Observation: ENG FIRE light is not AMBER but RED, lo cual hace la resp b erronea.
28- When a FAULT light comes on, which other lights are triggered to come on?
a- None
b- OVHT
 29- The APU bottle has external blow out disks located on the AFT _____ - side of the
aircraft.
a- Left
b- Right
Observation: B737NG red and yellow discs removed
30- If the Loop Selector is in the Both position and both loops are faulty, the FAULT light will
not come on.
a- True
b- False
31- Overheat Detection occurs if both loops detect an overheat; or one detects an overheat
and the other detects a _______; or if one loop detects and overheat and the other has a
fault: or if only one is selected and the selected loop detects and overheat.
a- Fire
b- Loss of engine thrust
32- The Fire Detection system is powered by the _______.
a- Hot Battery Bus
b- Battery Bus
33- APU Fire Protection is provided from two Freon bottles.
a- True
b- False
34- The engine Fire Warning Switches are automatically unlocked for _______.
a- only a fire condition.
b- either an overheat or a fire condition.
35- The Extinguisher TEST switch can test the circuitry _______.
a- to the detector loops
b- to the squibs on all three bottles.
36- When the loop detector senses a fire in the APU compartment, the red light will flash,
and if the aircraft is on the ground, the horn will sound. The red light will flash and the
horn _____ sound in the wheel well – when the fire loop detectors are tested by the
pilot.
a- Will
b- will not
37- There is no fault warning for a failure of the Wheel Well Fire detector. This detector is
checked by the use of the OVHT/FIRE TEST switch.
a- True
b- False
38- If the Loop Selector is in the Both position and both loops are faulty, the FAULT light will
not come on.
a- True
b- False
39- The APU detector system monitors fire conditions and fault conditions – but does not
monitor or shutdown for overheat conditions.
a- True
b- False
40- There are no ______ lights associated with the system fault/inop test.
a- Red
 b- Amber
41- Each Loop Selector switch is usually in the NORMAL position. If loop “A” or “ B” is
selected and the loop is defective, the amber ______ light indicates the selected engine
loop has failed.
a- FAULT
b- INOP
42- There is no fire extinguisher for the wheel whell area. The procedure tells the pilot to
extend the landing gear to allow the relative wind to blow out the fire.
a- True
b- False
43- The wheel well system monitors fire conditions, but does not monitor _____ or fault
conditions.
a- Overheat
b- Power
44- The power to the bottle squibs is provided by the
a- HOT BATTERY BUS
b- BATTERY BUS
45- There is ____ alert to the flight crew when a loop has failed.
a- An
b- No
46- The APU has a Ground Control Panel and Fire Warning Horn in the _____ aft main wheel
well.
a- Right
b- Left
47- There is no fire extinguisher for the wheel well area. The procedure tells the pilot to
extend the landing gear to allow the relative wind to blow out the fire.
a- True
b- False

FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS & DISPLAYS

1- To climb to FL280 in the shortest distance, MAX ANGLE should be selected on
this page:
a- CLB or CRZ
b- PROG
c- CLB
d- CLB or PERF
2- When penetrating turbulence:
a- The Turbulence N1 is line selected to the scratch pad on the CRZ page and transferred to the N1
LIMIT page for activation & execution
b- The Turbulence N1 is activated on the CRZ page
c- The Turbulence N1 is a reference only. The autothrottle must be disconnected and the N1 set
manually
3- The purpose of the FMC FIX INFO page is to:
a- Establish your position relative to any stored fix
b- Create new waypoints, and using place bearing / place bearing or along track fix methods, monitor
flight progress
c- Create a new waypoint at the intersection of the active route and a radial or distance from a known
fix
d- The first & the third statements are correct.
4- If the FAULT light on the IRS Mode Selector Unit illuminates; it indicates:
 a- A failure of a Symbol Generator or a system fault affective NAV Mode of the ADIRU
b- An entry of an invalid present position
c- A system fault affecting the respective IRS ATT and/or NAV Mode
d- That DC power for the respective IRS is not normal.
5- On the FMC TAKEOFF REF Page, the SEL temperature entry may be made in
either degrees Celsius or Fahrenheit:
a- True
b- False.
6- The FMC Alerting Message 'VERIFY POSITION' indicates:
a- The airplane is excessively off the flight planned course
b- Position information is contradictory
c- The airplane is more than 3.5 NM off the flight planned course
d- The captain has left the cockpit for an excessive period of time
7- During PATH DESCENT and below the Speed Restriction Altitude, the FMC
Alerting Message 'OVERSPEED DICONNECT' means:
a- VNAV has disengaged because airspeed has exceeded FMC Speed Restriction by more than 15 knots
b- The FMC has disengaged the autothrottles due to excessive Speed
c- VNAV has disengaged at VMO minus 5 knots
d- VNAV has disengaged because airspeed has exceeded FMC Target Speed by more than 10 knots
8- Using a Reduced Takeoff thrust setting may result in Automatic FMC of Reduced
Climb Thrust.
a- True
b- False.
9- The purpose of the FMC LEGS page is to display the lateral and vertical flight
path details for each waypoint and to make route modifications involving a
portion of a route segment:
a- True
b- False.
10- The airplane is not certified for operations:
a- Above 78°15' N or below 78°15'S
b- Above 73°N or below 60°S
c- Above 82°N or below 82°S
d- Approaching North or South pole
11- On which CDU is the ground speed displayed?
a- PROGRESS page 1
b- CRZ
c- POS REF page 2
d- INIT REF
12- Selection of an ILS approach from a DEP/ARR page will automatically remove a
previously selected approach:
a- True
b- False
13- With the CONTROL PANEL select switch on the DISPLAYS Source Panel in the
BOTH ON 2 position:
a- The First Officer's EFIS Control Panel is supplying identical inputs to the captain's & First Officer's
displays
b- Both pilots displays are using the No.2 symbol generator
c- DEU 2 controls all six display units
d- ADIRU inputs for both the L & R ADIRU are being received from the First Officer's pitot probe
14- The Slip/Skid indication of the Attitude Indicator will turn amber if bank angle
is 35 degrees or more.
a- True
b- False.
Amber if the slip/skid indicator is also at full scale deflection.
15- The rising runway is displayed when localizer pointer is in view and radio
altitude is less than ____ feet.
a- 2500
 b- 1500
c- 500
d- 200
16- The Glide Slope Pointer is not displayed when the track and the front course on
the Mode Control Panel differ by more than 90 degrees (backcourse)
a- True
b- False.
17- The standby radio magnetic indicator (RMI) displays magnetic heading &
VOR/ADF bearing to the station. The RMI is powered by:
a- The AC transfer bus 2
b- The AC standby bus
c- The DC standby bus.
d- The TR3.
The RMI is powered by the AC standby bus & remains powered after the loss of all normal AC power as long as battery power is
available.
18- When the 'ROLL' flag (amber) appear on the Attitude indicator:
a- The Captain & First Officer roll display differ by more than 2 degrees
b- The Captain & First Officer roll display differ by more than 5 degrees
c- The Captain & First Officer roll display differ by more than 10 degrees
d- The Captain & First Officer roll display differ by more than 15 degrees
19- The Altitude Disagree Alert (amber 'ALT DISAGREE') on the digital altimeter
indicates the Captain's & F/O's altitude indications disagree by more than:
a- 50 feet
b- 100 feet for more than 2 continuous seconds
c- 200 feet for more than 5 continuous seconds
d- 500 feet for more than 10 continuous seconds
20- If the Altitude Failure Flag (amber) appears, it means that the barometric
altitude or barometric correction has failed. All altimeter symbols are removed
except the ALT ALERT annunciation and the barometric setting.
a- True
b- False.
21- Concerning Navigation Display Information, Heading is supplied by Air Data
Inertial Reference System (ADIRS) & Track is supplied by the FMC during
normal operation.
a- True
b- False
22- The message EXCESS DATA is displayed if the amount of information sent to the
navigation display exceeds the display capability. The message can be removed
by:
a- Reducing the amount of map information
b- Reducing range
c- Deselecting one or more of the EFIS control map switches (STA, WPT, ARPT, DATA, POS)
d- All of the above.
23- If you select the 'BOTH ON 1' switch of the CONTROL PANEL:
a- The Left EFIS control panel controls both pilots' outboard & inboard display units
b- The Right EFIS control panel controls both pilots' outboard & inboard display units
c- The Left ADIRS controls both pilots' outboard & inboard display units
d- The Right ADIRS controls both pilots' outboard & inboard display units
24- In the air, the flight recorder is not powered if both engines are shut down.
a- True
b- false
In the air the flight recorder is powered even with both engine shut down as long as APU electrical power is available.
25- The Pitch Limit Indicator (amber) indicates:
a- Pitch attitude corresponding to stick pusher activation
b- Appears anytime the Flaps are UP
c- Pitch limit
d- Pitch Limit when flaps are UP
 26- The Mach digital counter indicates current Mach number & it is displayed when
airspeed increases above ___ Mach
a- 0.30
b- 0.40
c- 0.50
d- 0.60
It blanks when airspeed decreases below 0.38 Mach
27- The V2+15 white bug of the airspeed indicator is normally displayed for takeoff.
It is removed:
a- At first flap retraction or when VREF is entered
b- When landing gear lever is placed UP
c- When speed is more than 250 knots KIAS
d- All of the above.
28- The Flaps Up Airspeed Bug (green) is displayed after Zero Fuel Weight is
entered in the CDU and takeoff gross weight is calculated or after takeoff gross
weight is set with the speed reference selector.
a- True
b- False.
It is not displayed above approximately 20,000 feet altitude.
29- The display SOURCE selector also allows the crew to manually select either
DEU1 or DEU2 for all 6 display units. If the displays are automatically or
manually switched to a single DEU source, a 'DSLPY SOURCE' annunciation
illuminates above both pilot's altimeters.
a- True
b- False.
30- If the Upper Display fails:
a- The engine display automatically moves to the Inboard display and the Upper display blanks
b- The engine display automatically moves to the Outboard display and the Upper display blanks.
c- The engine display automatically moves to the Lower display and the Upper display blanks
d- The engine display automatically moves to the Inboard or Outboard display and the Upper display
blanks
e- There is no automatic switching for a lower DU failure.
31- If the MAIN PANEL DUs switch is turned to Outboard Primary Flight Display
(OUTBD PFD), the compact EFIS format is displayed on the outboard display unit
& the inboard display unit blanks.
a- True
b- False.
32- What is the purpose of the Air Data Modules (ADMs)?
a- The ADMs convert pneumatic pressure to electrical signals and send these data to the ADIRUs
b- The ADMs provide only pitot & static pressure to the standby instruments
c- The ADMs provide inertial position & track data to the displays thru the ADIRUs
d- The ADMs measure thru the Alpha vanes the airplane angle-of-attack.
There are 4 ADMs. They convert pneumatic pressure to electrical signals and send these data to the ADIRUs. Each pitot air data
module is connected to its on-side pitot probe; there is no cross connection.
33- The Static Air temperature is displayed on:
a- The CDU IDENT page
b- The CDU PERF INIT page
c- The CDU CLB page
d- The CDU PROGRESS page
34- The Standby attitude indicator provides attitude information that is
independent of the primary attitude displays. The indicator is powered by:
a- The Battery bus
b- The Transfer bus 1
c- The Transfer bus 2
d- The TR2
The indicator is powered by the battery bus and remains powered after the loss of all normal AC power as long as battery power
is available. The gyro reaches operational speed approximately 60 seconds after power is applied.
35- The weather radar annunciation WXR ATT indicates:
a- The Weather radar has failed
b- The Weather radar Attitude calibration has been lost
c- The Attitude stabilization for antenna has been lost
d- The Display unit cooling has been lost or an overheat condition has occurred
36- The ND Wind direction/speed and wind arrow is:
a- Displayed in only in ND MAP mode
b- Blanked if wind speed becomes less than 6 knots
c- Displayed if wind speed is greater than 6 knots
d- Displayed only in ILS mode
37- What will occur if the aircraft pitch attitude reaches the Pitch Limit Indication
(PLI ) on the PFD during slow speed maneuvering ?
a- The aircraft stalls
b- The aircraft will experience initial stall buffet
c- The stick shaker warning activates
d- The stick nudger pushes the control column forward.
38- During an ILS approach the Captain observes his BARO minimum reference/
altitude turns from green to flashing amber for three second. What does it
mean?
a- Radio altitude data is unreliable
b- The aircraft has descended below the Captain's selected minimum altitude (DA)
c- A windshear has been encountered
d- The aircraft has descended below 1000 feet
39- The decision height (DH) display on the CDS is set:
a- Automatically when APPROACH is selected on the MCP panel
b- Independently by each pilot using his/her EFIS control panel
c- By entering the desired DH on the FMC CDU APPROACH REFERENCE page
d- By using the DH selector knob on the forward instrument panel
40- The aircraft is on the ground and the Flight Recorder Switch is in NORMAL:
a- The Flight Recorder operates anytime electrical power is available
b- The Flight Recorder operates when electrical power is available and either engine is operating
c- The Flight Recorder operates whenever the Battery Switch is ON
d- The Flight Recorder operates anytime electrical power is available and start switch in GROUND
position
41- The First Officer observes the word PITCH displayed in amber in the lower
portion of the PFD during an ILS approach. What does it mean?
a- The autopilot has defaulted to CWS pitch
b- Glide slope is not being tracked
c- The Captain's and First Officer's pitch displays differ by 5 degrees or more
d- The First Officer's pitch display is more than 3 degrees in error
42- An amber DSPLY SOURCE annunciation below each speed tape indicates:
a- The altimeter is receiving inputs from a source other than the ADIRU and should be considered unreliable
unless verified by another source
b- A single DEU has been manually or automatically selected to drive all six display units
c- A non-dispatchable CDS fault has occurred
d- A single EFIS control panel has been manually or automatically selected as the source for all six display
units
43- If an outboard display unit fails, the PFD is automatically displayed:
a- Never. It can only be displayed manually with the MAIN PANEL DU selectors
b- On the ENGINE PRIMARY display
c- On the ENGINE SECONDARY display
d- On the inboard display unit
44- Speed Trend Vector: Tip of arrow indicates predicted airspeed in the next _____
based on the current airspeed and acceleration.
a- 5 seconds
b- 7 seconds
c- 2 seconds
d- 10 seconds
 45- The curved trend vector extending from the aircraft symbol on ND MAP and
MAP CTR is divided into three segments. With range greater than 20 Nm the
trend vector:
a- Predicts position at the end of 10,20 and 30 second intervals
b- Predicts position at the end of 20,40 and 60 second intervals
c- Predicts position at the end of 30,60 and 90 second intervals
d- Predicts position at the end of 60,90 and 120 second intervals
Predicts position at the end of 30, 60, and 90 second intervals. Each segment represents 30 seconds. Based on bank angle and
ground speed. Selected range determines the number of segments displayed. For range:
46- With the CONTROL PANEL select switch on the Displays Source Panel in the
BOTH ON 2 position:
a- The First Officer's EFIS control panel is supplying identical inputs to the Captain's and First Officer's
displays
b- Both pilots displays are using the No2 DEU
c- DEU 2 controls all six display units
d- ADIRU inputs for both the L and R ADIRU are being received from the First Officer's pitot probe
The CONTROL PANEL select switch determines which EFIS control panel controls the pilots’ display functions. With the switch
positioned to either BOTH ON 1 or BOTH ON 2, the selected EFIS control panel provides inputs for both sets of pilot displays.
When in the NORMAL position, a 'DISPLAYS CONTROL PANEL' annunciation illuminates on the pilot’s altimeters and indicates a
failure of the associated EFIS control panel.
47- An amber CDS FAULT annunciation below each speed tape indicates:
a- The altimeter is receiving inputs from a source other than the ADIRU and should be considered unreliable
unless verified by another source
b- A single DEU has been manually selected to drive all six display units
c- A non-dispatchable CDS fault has occurred
d- Single EFIS control panel has been manually or automatically selected as the source for all six display
units
CDS FAULT (amber) – A non–dispatchable CDS fault has occurred. Displayed on the ground only, prior to start of the second
engine. CDS MAINT (white) – A dispatchable CDS fault has occurred. Displayed on the ground only, prior to start of the second
engine.
48- A magenta bug on the vertical speed indicator in the PFD indicates:
a- Actual vertical speed
b- Selected vertical speed on the MCP panel with V/S pitch mode selected
c- Electrical power loss to the indicator
d- Indicates vertical speed in VNAV mode
49- The Air Data Inertial Reference System (ADIRS) produces following flight data:
a- Position and speed only
b- Attitude and speed only
c- Altitude and speed only
d- Position, attitude, altitude and speed
The ADIRS produces flight data such as position, speed, altitude and attitude for the flight displays, flight management computers,
flight controls, engine controls and all other systems requiring inertial and air data.
50- The Landing Altitude reference bar (Amber- 0-500ft, White- 500 –1000ft)
indicates:
a- Height above Minimum descent altitude
b- Height above touchdown / Landing Altitude
c- Radio Altitude
d- Height above MSL
51- WXR selector on the EFIS Control Panel energizes the weather radar transmitter
and displays weather radar returns in:
a- APP, VOR, MAP and PLN modes
b- Map, centre Map, expanded VOR and expanded APP modes
c- Only APP and Map modes
d- Only expanded VOR and expanded APP modes
52- When Max range is selected on the EFIS Control Panel, weather radar returns
are limited to:
a- 80 NM
b- 160 NM
c- 320 NM
 d- 640 NM
53- With the weather radar in WX/TURB mode, turbulence will be shown within:
a- 160 NM
b- 120 NM
c- 80 NM
d- 40 NM
 54- During an ILS Approach with the Localizer pointer in view, the rising runway
symbol comes into view:
a- Below 2500ft RA and will rise toward the airplane symbol at 200ft RA
b- Below 1500ft RA and will rise toward the airplane symbol at 50ft RA
c- At glideslope capture and will rise toward the airplane symbol at 1500ft RA
d- At glideslope capture and will rise toward the airplane symbol at 200ft RA
displayed when localizer pointer is in view and radio altitude is less than 2500 feet • rises towards airplane symbol when radio
altitude is below 200 feet • is not displayed when the localizer signal is unusable.
55- 'WXR RANGE DISAGREE' indicates selected range on the EFIS control panel is
different than the WXR display range.
a- True
b- False
56- The message __________ is displayed if the amount of information sent to the ND
exceeds the display capability.
a- TOO MUCH DATA
b- TOO MUCH DATA DISPLAYED
c- EXCESS DATA
57- An airspeed trend vector indicates predicted airspeed in _____ seconds.
a- 5
b- 10
c- 15
d- 12
58- A ______ bar is displayed from 500 feet to the landing altitude.
a- Amber
b- Blue
c- White
d- Red
59- The glideslope pointer fills in solid when it is within ______ dots from the center of the
scale.
a- 3
b- 2½
c- 1½
d- 2
60- The VOR and APP modes are displayed in a ________ orientation.
a- Trak Up
b- Heading Up
61- Vertical speed is digitally displayed above or below the vertical speed display when
vertical speed is greater than _____ feet per minute.
a- 600
b- 500
c- 400
d- 250
62- Flap speed indications are not displayed above approximately ______ feet.
a- 10,000
b- 15,000
c- 20,000
d- 25,000
63- With the SOURCE SELECT switch in _____, upon failure of either DEU, automatic
switching ensures that all DUs remain operable.
a- NORM
b- AUTO
64- If the tuned ILS frequencies disagree, the frequency display turns _____ with an amber
line through it.
a- White
b- Red
 c- Amber
d- blue
65- A ____ Landing Altitude Reference bar is displayed from 1000 to 500 feet above landing
altitude.
a- Amber
b- Red
c- green
d- white
66- The current Radio Altitude is displayed in the bottom center of the attitude indication
area when radio altitude is below ______ feet AGL.
a- 3,000
b- 1,500
c- 2,500
d- 2,000
67- Flight mode annunciations are displayed in the top three windows on the PFD. Armed
modes appear in _____ subscript format. Active modes appear in _____.
a- white; green
b- white; red
c- green; white
d- green; red
68- The MAP mode is displayed in a _______ orientation.
a- Heading Up
b- Track Up
69- The PLN mode is presented _________ up.
a- Magnetic North
b- True North
70- The pitch scale is show in ______________ increments.
a- 2.5 degree
b- 3 degree
c- 2 degree
71- Below _____ feet radio altitude, with the localizer pointer in view, a rising runway
symbol comes into view to provide lateral guidance.
a- 2000
b- 2500
c- 1500
d- 3000
72- The slip and skid indicator becomes filled ______ at full scale deflection.
a- Yellow
b- White
c- amber
73- Weather radar and TCAS can be displayed in the ______ mode.
a- Expanded MAP only
b- Center MAP only
c- Expanded MAP and Center MAP
74- If the LOWER DU switch is moved to the ENG PRI position, the Engine display moves to
the Upper DU and the Lower DU blanks.
a- True
b- False
ENG PRI: displays the primary engine instruments on the lower display unit and blanks the upper display unit.)
75- Weather Radar and TCAS cannot display in the _____ mode.
a- Map
b- Plan
c- VOR
76- The minimum speed that can be displayed on the airspeed tape is ____ kts.
a- 40
 b- 30
c- 25
d- 35
77- At bank angles of _______ degrees or more, the bank angle pointer and slip and skid
indicator turn amber.
a- 30
b- 40
c- 35
d- 45
78- If both Flight Directors are on, the _____ EFIS control panel is the reference panel.
a- Right
b- left
79- Weather Radar display range is determined by the _______.
a- Weather Range Selector.
b- ND Range Selector.

FLIGHT MANAGEMENT & NAVIGATION

1- When the IRSs are operating in the normal navigation mode they provide:
a- Attitude and true + magnetic heading
b- Acceleration, vertical speed & ground speed
c- Track, present position & wind data
d- All of the above.
2- A fast alignment should be complete in:
a- 15 seconds
b- 30 seconds
c- 45 seconds
d- 1 minute
3- Which of the following is not a major component of the inertial system?
a- Air Data Inertial Reference Units (ADIRU)
b- Inertial System Display Unit (ISDU)
c- Instrument Display Unit (IDU) transfer switch
d- Mode Select Unit (MSU)
4- During the preliminary cockpit preparation the pilot accidentally moves the IRS
Mode Selector switch from OFF to ATT instead from OFF to NAV. How can
normal IRS operation be regained?
a- Switch to OFF, wait for ALIGN lights to extinguish, then perform full alignment procedures
b- Switch directly to NAV from the ATT position
c- Switch to the ALIGN position then to NAV
d- Switch to the OFF position
5- The FMC contains 2 databases (Performance & Navigation database)
a- True
b- False
The database includes:- airplane drag & engine characteristics, maximum & optimum altitudes, maximum & minimum speeds,
etc.- the location of VHF navigation database, waypoints, airports, runways, SIDs, STARs, etc.
6- With correct takeoff parameters, the FMC commands the selected takeoff thrust
when the TO/GA switch is pushed. During the takeoff roll, the autothrottle
commands the thrust & the FMC commands acceleration to between V2+15 &
V2+25 knots.
a- True
b- False.
7- For LNAV to be engaged on the ground, the departure runway must be selected
and the course, to the first waypoint, must be within ___ degrees of the runway
heading.
a- 5
b- 10
 c- 12
d- 20
8- To climb to FL280 in the shortest distance, MAX ANGLE should be selected on
this page:
a- CLB or CRZ
b- PROG
c- CLB
d- CLB or PERF
9- When penetrating turbulence:
a- The Turbulence N1 is line selected to the scratch pad on the CRZ page and transferred to the N1
LIMIT page for activation & execution
b- The Turbulence N1 is activated on the CRZ page
c- The turbulence N1 is a reference only. The autothrottle must be disconnected and the N1 set
manually
d- The turbulence N1 is the minimum speed commanded by the autothrottle during all flight conditions
to ensure safe penetration when it is encountered.
10- The purpose of the FMC FIX INFO page is to:
a- Establish your position relative to any stored fix
b- Create new waypoints, and using place bearing / place bearing or along track fix methods, monitor
flight progress
c- Create a new waypoint at the intersection of the active route and a radial or distance from a known
fix
d- The first & the third statements are correct.
11- If the FAULT light on the IRS Mode Selector Unit illuminates, it indicates:
a- A failure of a Symbol Generator or a system fault affective NAV Mode of the ADIRU.
b- An entry of an invalid present position.
c- A system fault affecting the respective IRS ATT and/or NAV Mode.
d- That DC power for the respective IRS is not normal.
12- On the FMC TAKEOFF REF Page, the SEL temperature entry may be made in
either degrees Celsius or Farenheit:
a- True
b- False.
13- The FMC Alerting Message 'VERIFY POSITION' indicates:
a- The airplane is excessively off the flight planned course.
b- Position information is contradictory.
c- The airplane is more than 3.5 NM off the flight planned course.
d- The captain has left the cockpit for an excessive period of time.
14- After completing the FMC CDU preflight actions, you look at the POS INIT page
again. The SET IRS POS line is missing. What is required?
a- Nothing. This is a normal indication once both IRS's have entered the NAV mode.
b- Re-enter PPOS LAT/LONG into the FMC.
c- The alignment was not performed. Cycle the IRS's to OFF and start a new alignment, then re-enter
PPOS LAT/LONG
d- Return to ALIGN, then NAV, and enter the PPOS LAT/LONG into the Left or Right IRS unit.
15- During PATH DESCENT and below the Speed Restriction Altitude, the FMC
Alerting Message 'OVERSPEED DICONNECT' means:
a- VNAV has disengaged because airspeed has exceeded FMC Speed Restriction by more than 15 knots
b- The FMC has disengaged the autothrottles due to excessive Speed.
c- VNAV has disengaged at VMO minus 5 knots.
d- VNAV has disengaged because airspeed has exceeded FMC Target Speed by more than 10 knots
16- Using a Reduced Takeoff thrust setting may result in Automatic FMC of Reduced
Climb Thrust.
a- True
b- False.
17- The purpose of the FMC LEGS page is to display the lateral and vertical flight
path details for each waypoint and to make route modifications involving a
portion of a route segment:
 a- True
b- False.
18- The airplane is not certified for operations:
a- Above 78°15' N or below 78°15'S
b- Above 73°N or below 60°S
c- Above 82°N or below 82°S
d- Approaching North or South pole
19- On which CDU is the ground speed displayed?
a- PROGRESS page 1
b- CRZ
c- POS REF page 2
d- INIT REF
20- Selection of an ILS approach from a DEP/ARR page will automatically remove a
previously selected approach:
a- True
b- False.
21- With the CONTROL PANEL select switch on the DISPLAYS Source Panel in the
BOTH ON 2 position:
a- The First Officer's EFIS Control Panel is supplying identical inputs to the captain's & First Officer's
displays
b- Both pilots displays are using the No.2 symbol generator.
c- DEU 2 controls all six display units.
d- ADIRU inputs for both the L & R ADIRU are being received from the First Officer's pitot probe.
22- Holding patterns appears as scaled representation is the aircraft is within 3
minutes of the holding fix with the range scale set at 80 Nm:
a- True
b- False
23- If the FMC Alert Light of the LEFT / RIGHT FORWARD PANEL is illuminated. It
means:
a- The FAIL light on CDU(s) is illuminated.
b- The FAIL light on CDU(s) is illuminated or an alerting message exists for both CDUs.
c- The FAIL light on CDU(s) is illuminated or an alerting message exists for both CDUs or test switch is
in position 1 or 2
d- The FAIL light on CDU(s) is illuminated or test switch is in position 1 or 2
24- Two GPS receivers receive GPS satellite positioning signals. The LEFT & RIGHT
GPS receivers are independent and each provides an accurate airplane
geographical position to the FMC & other aircraft systems. GPS operation is
automatic.
a- True
b- False.
25- When the IRS Mode Selector is turned OFF, the IRS remains powered for
approximately ________.
a- 10 seconds.
b- 30 seconds.
c- 60 seconds.
d- 90 seconds.
The ALIGN light illuminates until the system is completely shut down
26- During IRS alignment, if the Latitude / Longitude is not within ___ NM of the
origin airport, the CDU scratchpad message VEIFY POSITION is displayed.
a- 1,2
b- 2,5
c- 4
d- 5
If the entered Latitude/Longitude position does not pass the internal comparison tests, the scratchpad message ENTER IRS
POSITION is displayed
27- During an IRS alignment a flashing white ALIGN light indicates alignment cannot
be completed due to IRS detection of:
 a- A significant difference between previous & entered position
b- An unreasonable present position
c- A related IRS operating in the ALIGN mode
d- Both first & second statements are correct.
28- The display selector of the ISDU (IRS Display Unit) is moved to position
'HDG/STS' during alignment. What is shown in the right window?
a- Right window displays ground speed.
b- Right window displays wind speed.
c- Right window displays minutes remaining until alignment is complete.
d- Right window displays true track.
29- If the airplane is moved during alignment or fast realignment, the IRS
automatically begins the full alignment process:
a- True
b- False.
30- When the FMC is not receiving required fuel data:
a- VNAV disengages and VNAV operation is not possible
b- The scratchpad message 'USING RSV FUEL' may be displayed
c- The pilot is responsible for periodic entry of fuel weight in order to keep gross weight value current
d- Both second & third statements are correct.
31- Fuel onboard is automatically displayed as received from the airplane fuel
summation unit and:
a- A valid fuel entry is xxx.xx
b- Airplane zero fuel weight is not a required entry
c- When FMC is not receiving the required fuel data, displayed dashes and manual fuel weight entry is
not possible
d- Normally the ZFW is entered from the airplane dispatch papers and the FMC calculates the airplane
gross weight.
32- The fuel quantity displayed on the FMC PROGRESS page 1 is:
a- Wing tank fuel only
b- Center tank fuel only
c- Total fuel quantity remaining direct from the fuel summation unit
d- Total fuel used since engine start based on fuel flow inputs to the FMC
33- With HDG SEL engaged, selecting LNAV will:
a- Engage if the airplane is within 3 NM of the LNAV course, regardless of the heading
b- Arm if the airplane is on intercept heading of 90 degrees or more regardless of distance from the
LNAV course
c- Engage if the airplane is on an intercept heading of 90 degrees or less and the intercept will occur
before the active waypoint
d- Both first & second statements are correct
34- An acceptable required time of arrival entry found on ACT RTA PROGRESS page
2/3 is:
a- 10/30/45
b- 10304
c- 10/30.5
d- 103045B
35- Which data is available by line selecting the RTE DATA prompt on the ACT RTE
LEGS page?
a- FMC calculated speed & altitude data for each waypoint
b- Manually entered speed & altitude restrictions for each waypoint
c- ETA & forecast wind data for cruising points
d- All of the above are correct.
36- When an active data base expires in flight, the expired database continues to be
used until the active data is changed after landing.
a- True
b- False.
37- When aligning the IRS between 78 degrees 15 minutes North or South latitude:
a- Rotate the IRS switch from OFF to ALIGN
b- Alignment time will vary from 5 minutes to 17 minutes depending on airplane latitude
 c- The alignment process begins when the ON DC light illuminates & the ALIGN light extinguishes
d- Airplane present position is not a required entry.
38- The FMC supplies a default required navigation performance (RNP) value that:
a- Should not exceed actual navigation performance
b- With RNP exceeded, the message FMC appears on the scratch pad
c- Is shown on the POS SCHIFT page 3/3 only
d- Is used for takeoff, enroute, oceanic, terminal and approach phases
39- What does the DES NOW prompt on the PATH DES page provide?
a- Provides a DES NOW display in ACT or MOD mode
b- Execution allows early initiation of a SPD descent at 1000 FPM until intercepting the computing path
c- Execution allows early initiation of a PATH descent at 1000 FPM until intercepting the computed
path
d- Arms the DES NOW function& extinguishes the EXEC light
40- The transition altitude of the FMC PERF INIT page:
a- Displays 10000 feet at FMC power up
b- Changes after selecting a departure procedure with a different altitude
c- Cannot be manually changed by the crew to a new altitude
d- Is automatically entered when the TRIP/CRZ altitude is entered in the FMC
41- Which factor is not considered in the FMC TRIP/CRZ computation?
a- GROSS WEIGHT
b- COST INDEX
c- ORIGIN
d- RESERVES
42- On the FMC RTE page, the origin airport will still have to be entered if the
company route is entered.
a- True
b- False.
43- Pushing the ACTIVATE key arms the route for execution as the active route.
a- True
b- False.
44- On the FMC RTE page invalid VIA entries are:
a- Airways & company routes which do contain the VIA waypoint of the previous line
b- Airways & company routes that are in the navigation database
c- Airways or company routes that are in their performance database
d- Airways or company routes which do not contain the TO waypoint of the previous line.
45- Arrivals can be selected on the FMC for either the origin or destination airport.
a- True
b- False
46- On the FIX page, radial/distance from the fix, displays the radial and distance
from the fix to the airplane. This information is continually updated as the
airplane position changes.
a- True
b- False.
47- The SELECT DESIRED WPT page is automatically displayed when the FMC
encounters more than one location for the same waypoint name after a
waypoint entry.
a- True
b- False.
48- On the FMC CDU, how is the MOD CRZ CLB page automatically displayed?
a- Entering a higher CRZ ALT on line 1L of the CRZ page
b- Pressing the CLB Mode Key during cruise
c- Entering a higher cruising altitude in the STEP TO line on the CRZ page
d- All of the above are correct.
49- In the FMC a lateral offset may be specified up to 99.9 miles. Some legs are
invalid for offset. One of these is:
a- Beginning of a flight plan waypoint
b- Discontinuity
 c- PPOS holding pattern
d- Course change greater than 90 degrees.
50- The FMC Advisory Message 'DRAG REQUIRED' indicates the airplane is ___ knots
or more above the FMC target speed or within ___ knots of VMO/MMO
a- 10 & 8
b- 5 & 10
c- 5 & 8
d- 10 & 5
51- The FMC Advisory Message 'BUFFET ALERT' indicates:
a- Current conditions result in a maneuver margin less than specified.
b- Clear air turbulence has been detected in the immediate flight path.
c- The airplane is in partial or full stall.
d- The crew's dinner is being prepared in the galley.
52- The FMC Alerting Message 'SELECT MODE AFTER RTA' means:
a- RTA mode has been discontinued due to sequencing of the RTA waypoint
b- The RTA time does not fall within the earliest and latest takeoff time
c- RTA mode has been discontinued because the RTA waypoint has been removed from the Flight Plan
d- Both first & third are correct.
53- After RTA waypoint entry, the displayed ETA is based on:
a- The active flight plan.
b- Performance parameters at the time of waypoint entry.
c- Desired RTA and may not be overwritten.
d- Both first & second are correct.
54- Speed restriction (SPD REST) displays the most restrictive of the following
speeds:
a- Destination airport speed minus 5 knots
b- Waypoint speed restriction if greater than 200 knots
c- Minimum flaps up maneuvering speed
d- Minimum flap restriction speed.
55- Vertical Path Parameters (FPA, V/B, V/S) display which of the following
parameters related to the present vertical path:
a- FPA-actual flight path angle based on flight plan ground speed & vertical speed
b- V/B vertical bearing direct from present position of the WPT/ALT line
c- V/S-the required vertical speed to fly the displayed FPA
d- Blank if there is no entry on the FPA/VS line
56- FMC position updates from navigation sensor positions are used in the following
priority order:- GPS- Two or more DME stations- One VOR with a collocated
DME- One localizer & collocated DME- One localizer
a- True
b- false
FMC logic selects the GPS position as the primary update to the FMC position. If all GPS data becomes unavailable, the FMC
reverts to radio or IRS updating.
57- When airplane gross weight is not available from the FMC, the Approach Ref
page will be:
a- Flashing
b- Blank
c- Box Prompts
d- INVALID
58- What information is available with the IRS mode selector in ATT?
a- Only attitude information
b- Only heading information
c- Only attitude & heading information
d- Only altitude information
59- An entry of .79 for descent into the TGT SPD line on the FMC ECON PATH DES
will:
a- Change the descent mode to a M.79 SPD DES
b- Change the page title to display M.79 PATH DES
c- Result in VNAV & LNAV disengagement
 d- Result in VNAV disengagement
60- Below 2500 feet RA, go around is engaged when a TO/GA switch is pushed.
a- True
b- False
Below 2000 ft RA
61- Upon initiation of TO/GA, a new cruise altitude will be automatically assigned &
will appear on the FMC pages. The new cruise altitude will be...
a- The highest restriction in the missed approach routing
b- Default value of 1500 feet above airport elevation
62- Two fixed climb thrust derates can be selected on the N1 LIMIT page.CLB-1
provides a climb limit reduced by ___ % N1CLB-2 provides a climb limit reduced
by ___ % N1
a- 3% N1 (approximately 10% thrust) & 6% N1 (approximately 20% thrust)
b- 5% N1 (approximately 10% thrust) & 10% N1 (approximately 20% thrust)
c- 7 % N1 (approximately 10% thrust) & 13 % N1 (approximately 20% thrust)
d- 10 % N1 & 20% N1
63- Use of derated climb thrust reduces engine maintenance costs, and decreases
also total trip fuel
a- True
b- False
Use of derated climb thrust reduces engine maintenance costs, and increases total trip fuel
64- If a CLB1 or CLB2 derate is selected, the derate is maintained for the initial part
of the climb. Thrust eventually increases to maximum climb thrust by:
a- 10 000 feet
b- 12 000 feet
c- 15 000 feet
d- 18 000 feet
65- If the FMC fails, the FMC alert light will illuminate, the FMC/CDU FAIL light will
appear on both CDUs, and both CDUs will display failure modes. VTK will appear
on both navigation displays. LNAV & VNAV will disengage. After 25 to 30
seconds, both navigation displays will display failure information.
a- True
b- False
During an FMC software restart, the navigation display map track may rapidly slew to a few degrees, then to the correct value.
66- 'INSUFFICIENT FUEL' FMC alerting message appears in CDU. What does it mean?
a- A change in conditions or flight plan route causes predicted fuel at destination to be 400 kg / 900 lbs or
less
b- A change in conditions or flight plan route causes predicted fuel at destination to be 500 kg / 1100 lbs or
less
c- A change in conditions or flight plan route causes predicted fuel at destination to be 900 kg / 2000 lbs or
less
d- A change in conditions or flight plan route causes predicted fuel at destination to be 1200 kg / 2700 lbs or
less
67- 'RESET MCP ALTITUDE' FMC alerting message appears in CDU. What does it
mean?
a- You are within 1 NM of the top-of-descent point without selecting a lower altitude on the AFDS MCP
b- You are within 3 NM of the top-of-descent point without selecting a lower altitude on the AFDS MCP
c- You are within 5 NM of the top-of-descent point without selecting a lower altitude on the AFDS MCP
d- You are within 10 NM of the top-of-descent point without selecting a lower altitude on the AFDS MCP
68- 'DRAG REQUIRED' FMC Advisory message appears in CDU. What does it mean?
a- Airspeed is 10 knots or more above FMC target speed or within 10 knots of VMO/MMO
b- Airspeed is 5 knots or more above FMC target speed or within 10 knots of VMO/MMO
c- Airspeed is 5 knots or more above FMC target speed or within 5 knots of VMO/MMO
d- Airspeed is 10 kts or more above FMC target speed or within 5 kts of VMO/MMO
Use speedbrakes, trim or reduce thrust, as required, to bring the airplane within 5 knots of FMC target speed.
69- If you have a look in your Descent Page (DES), 'V/B' indication means:
 a- Actual flight path angle based on present ground speed & vertical speed (Vertical Bearing or Total
Vertical Speed)
b- Vertical bearing direct from present position on the WPT/ALT line(the flight path angle required if
flying direct to the waypoint & altitude on the WPT/ALT line)
c- The required vertical speed (in degrees) based on ground speed
d- The required vertical speed (in fpm, based on present ground speed) to fly the dispmayed V/B
70- The IRSs can operate on either AC or DC power. The Left IRS is normally
powered from the AC transfer bus 2, and the Right IRS from the AC Standby bus.
a- True
b- False
The Left IRS is normally powered from the AC Standby bus, and the Right IRS from the AC transfer bus 2.If AC power is not
normal, either or both systems automatically switch to backup DC power from the switched hot battery bus. Backup DC power to
the Right IRS is automatically terminated if AC power is not restored within 5 minutes.
71- Deceleration points show on the MAP as green open circles with the label
DECEL. Deceleration points show prior to:
a- Airspeed constrained waypoints
b- Holding patterns
c- Approach flap extension
d- All of the above.
72- The supplemental navigation database is accessed by typing SUPP in the
scratchpad while on the INIT/REF index page, then selecting the NAV DATA
prompt. Access is available either in flight or on ground.
a- True
b- False.
Access is ONLY available on the ground.
73- Data may be deleted from the supplemental database (SUPP) by 2 methods.
Deletion may be accomplished one item at a time on the display pages, or the
entire database may be deleted by selecting this prompt. The prompt is only
available before entry of an origin airport.
a- True.
b- False.
74- The STEP POINT displays the computed ETA at, and distance to, the first possible
step climb point based on gross weight. The STEP button (1R) is then used to
enter step climb or step descent altitudes for crew evaluation. It is blank when
within ___ NM of top of descent or when RTA mode is active.
a- 100
b- 50
c- 30
d- 10
75- Let's have a look in the cruise page (CRZ)...The actual wind displays computed or
manually entered true wind for present altitude.
a- True
b- False.

FUEL
1- Each fuel tank uses two AC powered fuel pumps which are cooled and lubricated
by fuel passing through the pump.
a- True
b- False.
2- Inflight, two fuel pumps LOW PRESSURE lights for the No.1 tank illuminate.
What happens to the No.1 engine?
a- It receives fuel from the No.2 tank automatically
b- It will shut down due to fuel starvation
c- It receives fuel from the No.1 tank through the fuel pump bypass valve
d- It continues to operate using fuel though the center tank bypass valve.
3- Center fuel tank fuel is used before main tank fuel because:
 a- Center tank check valves open at a lower differential pressure than main tank check valves.
b- Center tank check valves open at a higher differential pressure than main tank check valves.
c- Center tank fuel pumps produce higher pressure than main tank pumps.
d- Main tanks pumps cannot produce pressure until the center tank Low pressure lights illuminate and
center tank pumps are turned off.
4- The Engine Fuel Shutoff valve:
a- Is controlled by both the Engine Fire Warning switch and the Engine Start lever; however, the spar
fuel shutoff valve is controlled only by the Engine Start lever.
b- Is the only fuel shutoff with an associated blue light on the forward overhead fuel panel
c- And the spar fuel shutoff valve require AC power to operate
d- And the spar fuel shutoff valves close whenever their respective Engine Fire Warning switch is
pulled or Engine Start lever is placed to CUTOFF
5- Fuel Quantity indicators will display:
a- An 88888 reading if a malfunction occurs.
b- Blank if a malfunction occurs
c- An ERR symbol if a malfunction occurs
d- A FUEL ERROR message if a malfunction occurs.
6- The center tank scavenge jet pump operates when:
a- Both Center Tank Fuel Pump switches are turned off.
b- The No.1 main fuel tank is about 2/3 full and the main tank No.1 forward pump is operating.
c- The Center fuel tank is about 3/4 full.
d- Either engine is operating.
7- The center tank scavenge jet pump transfers remaining fuel from the center
tank at a rate of approximately ____.
a- 80 kg/hr (177 lbs/hr) depending upon altitude.
b- 80 kg/hr (177 lbs/hr) depending upon speed.
c- 80 kg/hr (177 lbs/hr) depending upon weight.
d- 80 kg/hr (177 lbs/hr) depending upon temperature.
8- Overwing fueling receptacles exist for both main tanks.
a- True
b- False.
9- The capacity of the center fuel tank is greater than the capacity of the two main
fuel tanks combined.
a- True
b- False
10- There are CDS fuel alert for:
a- Fuel quantity low in the main tank, impending fuel filter bypass, excessive fuel flow difference
between engines
b- Fuel quantity low in the main tank, both center tank fuel pumps producing low or no pressure with
fuel in the center tank, excessive fuel quantity difference between main tanks
c- Fuel quantity low in center or main tank, either center tank fuel pump producing low or no pressure
with fuel in center tank, excessive fuel flow difference between engines
d- Any fuel pump producing low or no pressure with the pump switch ON, impending fuel filter bypass,
excessive fuel quantity difference between main tanks.
11- During cruise, both center tank fuel pumps have failed. You still have 320 kg
(700 lbs) of fuel in the center tank and both main tanks are full. The Upper
Display Unit will show:
a- A LOW indication
b- A CONFIG indication
c- A pump LOW PRESSURE indication
d- None of the above.
12- You have 2500 kg (5500 lbs) of fuel in the No.1 main tank and 3060 kg (6750
lbs) of fuel in the No2 main tank. You will see:
a- A LOW indication below main tank No.1 accompanied by a Master Caution light and system
annunciation for fuel
b- An IMBAL indication below main tank No.1 accompanied by a Master Caution light and system
annunciation for fuel
 c- An IMBAL indication below main tank No.1 with no Master Caution light and no system annunciation
for fuel
d- The fuel quantity arc and digits on main tank No.2 turn amber.
13- Which valve connects the fuel engine manifold to the fueling manifold?
a- The fueling valve.
b- The crossfeed valve.
c- The Manual Defuelling valve
14- For landing, what is the maximum fuel imbalance between No.1 and No.2 main
tanks?
a- 453 kg (1000 lbs)
b- 500 kg (1100 lbs)
c- 590 kg (1300 lbs)
d- There is no maximum fuel imbalance
15- In which fuel tanks are bypass valves located?
a- Center tank.
b- Both main tanks.
c- All tanks.
d- None.
16- The Engine Fuel Shut Off valves:
a- Are AC operated to OPEN and mechanically closed by the engine start lever or fire switch.
b- Are Hot Battery Bus powered and may be closed by the engine start lever or the respective engine
fire switch.
c- Are cable operated to CLOSE or OPEN.
d- Are cable operated to CLOSE.
17- What does an illuminated main tank fuel pump LOW PRESSURE light indicate?
a- Low fuel pressure in the affected tank
b- Low pressure in the fuel manifold
c- Low fuel pump output pressure
d- The first two statements are correct.
18- What is the condition of the VALVE OPEN light when the crossfeed selector is
positioned OPEN and the crossfeed valve is closed?
a- Illuminated dim blue.
b- Illuminated bright blue.
c- Illuminated amber.
d- Extinguished.
19- Fuel for the APU is:
a- Approximately 164 kg/hr with electrics & bleeds at sea level, decreasing to 17 kg/hr at high altitude
and low loads
b- Not heated
c- recorded on the fuel flow meters.
20- What is the source of electrical power for the engine fuel shutoff valves?
a- The Hot Battery Bus.
b- The Battery Bus.
c- The DC Standby Bus.
d- The AC Standby Bus.
21- What is the source of electrical power for the spar fuel shutoff valves?
a- The DC Standby Bus.
b- The Battery Bus.
c- The Hot Battery Bus.
d- The Transfer Bus No.2.
22- Fuel for the APU is normally supplied from the:
a- Left side of the fuel manifold.
b- No.2 Main tank.
c- Center tank.
d- Aux tank.
If the AC fuel pumps are not operating, fuel is suction fed from main tank No.1.
23- The crossfeed valve when OPEN:
a- Allows fuel transfer from any tank to either engine or APU.
 b- Allows transfer of fuel between wing tanks only.
c- Clos.es the Bypass valve in each wing tank
24- The fuel temperature indicator indicates fuel temperature in the:
a- No.1 tank.
b- No.2 tank.
c- Center tank.
d- No;1 & No.2 tanks.
The temperature indicating system uses AC electrical power.
25- Once the fuel scavenging process begins, it continues for the remainder of the
flight.
a- True.
b- False.
26- The accuracy of the fuel quantity indicators is plus or minus:
a- 1 % of full scale reading.
b- 2,5 % of full scale reading.
c- 4 % of full scale Reading
d- 5 % of full scale Reading
27- The fuel quantity indicators are powered by:
a- Standby DC power.
b- Standby AC power.
c- Battery bus.
d- TR2.
28- The fuel measuring stick allows comparison of fuel quantity or weight as
determined from measuring stick reading and fuel weight indicated by fuel
quantity indicators. Reading is obtained by withdrawing measuring stick from
tank and latching it magnetically to an internal float. Fuel depth is read where
stick passes through wing skin.
a- True.
b- False.
29- How many fuel measuring sticks are installed in each main tank?
a- Two.
b- Three.
c- Four.
d- Six.
Four are also installed in center tank.
30- The engine fuel manifolds are interconnected by use of the crossfeed valve. The
valve is ___ motor operated from the ___.
a- AC & Transfer Bus No.1
b- DC & Battery bus
c- AC & Transfer Bus No.2
d- DC & DC Standby Bus.
31- With the Fuel LOW Alert displayed (amber):
a- Fuel quantity is at least less than 2200 lbs / 1000 kg.
b- Fuel quantity is at least less than 2000 lbs / 907 kg.
c- Fuel quantity is at least less than 1000 lbs / 453 kg.
32- What is the main purpose of the FUEL DOOR SWITCH BYPASS located in the
Right Wing fueling panel?
a- It energizes fueling panel if refueling power control relay fails.
b- It checks operation of fuel quantity indicators.
c- It de-energizes fueling panel if necessary (in case of thunderstorm for example).
33- The engine fuel manifolds are interconnected by use of the crossfeed valve. The
valve is ____ operated from the ____:
a- AC motor & Transfer bus 1.
b- DC motor & Hot battery bus.
c- AC motor & Transfer bus 2.
d- DC motor & Battery bus.
34- The FUEL TEMP indicator located on the fuel control panel displays fuel
temperature. A sensor in main tank No. 1 allows monitoring of fuel temperature.
The temperature indicating system uses:
a- DC power.
b- AC power.
35- The Fueling Valve Position Lights on the External Fueling Panel illuminate blue
when:
a- The respective fueling valve is OPEN.
b- The respective fueling valve is OPEN and fuel is being transferred into the tank
c- The respective fuelling valve is in transit.
d- The respective fueling valve is inoperative.
36- A Crossfeed selector inoperative is mainly indicated by a crossfeed VALVE OPEN
light remaining blue. It indicates the crossfeed valve position disagrees with the
crossfeed selector position. If the valve is suspected closed:
a- Maintain fuel balance with selective use of fuel pumps.
b- Land as soon as possible.
c- Flight conditions permitting, vary thrust to maintain fuel balance. If unable to maintain acceptable
balance, land as soon as possible.
d- See B737NG QRH (CROSSFEED SELECTOR INOPERATIVE).
37- A fuel FILTER BYPASS light illuminated indicated impending fuel filter bypass
due to a contaminated filter. Erratic engine operation and flameout may occur
due to fuel contamination.
a- True.
b- False.
38- With FUEL TEMP LOW amber message displayed, fuel is approaching minimum.
Boeing QRH asks to increase speed, change altitude and/ or deviate to a warmer
air mass to achieve a TAT equal to or higher than the fuel temperature limit
(3°C/ 5°F above the fuel freeze point or – 43°C/ -45°F whichever is higher).
a- TAT will increase approximately 0.5 degrees C for each .05 Mach increase in speed.
b- TAT will increase approximately 0.5 to 0.7 degrees C for each .01 Mach increase in speed.
c- TAT will increase approximately 1 degree C for each .05 Mach increase in speed.
d- TAT will increase approximately 1 degree C for each .05 to .07 Mach increase in speed.
e- In extreme conditions, it maybe necessary to descend as low as FL250.
39- The fuel LOW indication may be caused by an engine fuel leak. For indication(s)
of an engine fuel leak, check:
a- Total fuel remaining compared to planned fuel remaining.
b- Individual tank quantities.
c- Fuel Flow indications for an engine with excessive fuel flow.
d- The first two statements are correct.
e- Check \'LOW Fuel\' NNC in the B737NG QRH.

40- A shut-off system is used during refuelling to:
a- Automatically close the fueling valve in each fuel tank when the tank is full.
b- Prevent refuelling pressures in excess of 50 psi.
c- Automatically close the manual defuelling valve when the wing tanks are full.
d- Are only available for Left & Right main tanks (not on the Center one).
41- The manual De-fueling valve is located:
a- Outboard of the Number 1 engine.
b- Outboard of the Number 2 engine.
c- Inboard of the Number 1 engine.
d- Inboard of the Number 2 engine.
42- To defuel No. 1 tank:
a- Select the No. 1 and No. 2 Main tank fuel pumps ON, the Crossfeed valve OPEN and the Manual
Defueling valve OPEN
b- Select the No. 1 Main tank fuel pumps ON, the Crossfeed valve OPEN and the Manual Defueling valve
OPEN
 c- Select the No. 1 Main tank fuel pumps ON, the Crossfeed valve CLOSED and the Manual Defueling
valve OPEN
43- When the APU is inoperative and no external power is available, refueling can
be accomplished as follows:
a- Battery switch ON - Standby Power switch to BAT = the entire fuel system operate normally.
b- Battery switch ON - Standby Power switch to BAT = the entire fuel system operate normally. except
the fuel shut-off system.
c- Battery switch OFF - Standby Power switch to BAT = the entire fuel system operate normally.
44- With failure of all generators, the center tank fuel :
a- Cannot be used.
b- Can be used by switching off all wing tank pumps and opening the crossfeed valve.
c- Will be fed to the tanks by the center tank scavenge jet pump
45- Lateral imbalance between main tanks 1 and 2 must be scheduled to be zero.
Random fuel imbalance must not exceed 453 kgs (1000 lbs):
a- For takeoff, flight or landing but not for takeoff
b- For taxi, takeoff, flight or landing.
c- In flight only
46- Main tanks 1 and 2 must be full if center tank contains more than 453 kgs (1000
lbs)
a- True
b- False.
47- When main tank fuel pump pressure is low, each engine can draw fuel from is
corresponding main tank through a suction feed line that bypasses the pumps.
a- True
b- False
48- Total fuel weight is displayed on the fuel quantity gauges and on the ______ pages
of the CDU.
a- PERF INIT and HOLDING
b- PERF INIT and LEGS
c- LEGS and PROGRESS
d- PROGRESS and PERF INIT
49- Is there any fuel quantity measuring sticks installed in the Center tank?
a- Yes
b- No.
There are 4 measuring sticks in the Center tank.
50- The engines can suction fuel from the center tank.
a- True
b- False
51- For refuelling, which tank(s) have an automatic shutoff valve that closes when
the tank is full?
a- Left and right wing tanks
b- Left and right wing tanks and center tank.
c- A float switch removes power to the fuel valve solenoid when the tank is full
52- Maximum tank fuel temperature is:
a- 42°C
b- 45°C
c- 49°C
d- 55°C
53- Center fuel pump switches must be positioned OFF at the first indication of low
pressure.
a- True.
b- False.
54- When is the fuel CONFIG light inhibited?
a- When total fuel quantity is less than 726 kg
b- When center tank fuel is less than 363 kg
c- When center tank fuel quantity is less than 726 kg
d- When total fuel quantity is less than 363 kg
 55- Fuel Measuring Stick allows comparison of fuel quantity or weight as
determined from measuring stick reading and fuel weight indicated by fuel
quantity indicators.
a- Reading is obtained by withdrawing measuring stick from tank and latching it magnetically to an
internal float.
b- Reading is obtained by withdrawing measuring stick from tank and latching it electrically to an
internal float.
c- Reading is obtained by withdrawing measuring stick from tank and latching it pneumatically to an
internal float.
d- Reading is obtained by withdrawing measuring stick from tank and latching it automatically to an
internal float.
Fuel depth is read where stick passes through wing skin.
56- What operates the spar fuel shutoff valve?
a- Cables and pulleys
b- DC from Hot Battery Bus
c- Pushrods and cranks
d- AC from Standby Bus
Spar fuel shutoff valves are located at the engine–mounting wing stations. The valves are DC motor operated from the hot battery
bus.
57- How many fuel measuring sticks are installed?
a- 20
b- 16
c- 12
d- 6
Six in each main tank (12) + 4 in the center tank = 16
58- An amber fuel IMBAL alert will remain displayed until the imbalance is reduced
to:
a- 91kgs
b- 363kgs
c- 453kgs
d- 726kgs
59- Fuel Imbalance (IMBAL) alert is inhibited when airplane is on ground.
a- True
b- False
60- The Wing Tanks can feed fuel to either engine or the APU if the _____.
a- Fuel Crossfeed Valve is closed.
b- Fuel Crossfeed Valve is open.
61- If one Wing Tank Fuel Pump LOW PRESSURE light comes on, the Master Caution and
FUEL system annunciator lights _____.
a- Immediately come on.
b- Immediately go out.
c- Will only come on when the recall feature is used.
d- Will never on when the recall feature is used.
62- The Fuel Quantity Gauges are powered by Standby AC power.
a- True
b- False
63- The Engine Fuel Shutoff Valves are operated with power from the ____.
a- DC Transfer bus.
b- AC Transfer bus.
c- Hot battery bus.
d- AC bus 1
64- What is the purpose of the Fuel Crossfeed Valve?
a- To correct an imbalance condition
b- To allow for emergency fuel access.
c- To improve fuel economy.
d- To transfer fuel to the center tank.
65- When is the Fuel Crossfeed VALVE OPEN light illuminated bright?
 a- When the valve is in transit or otherwise disagrees with the selected position.
b- When the valve should be in the OPEN position.
c- When the valve is in the OPEN position.
d- When the valve should not be in the OPEN position.
66- How many quantity measuring sticks are installed in each wing?
a- Six
b- Three
67- Fuel from which tank(s) is used first?
a- The Center Tank.
b- The Left wing tank.
c- All tanks equally.
d- Both wing tanks equally.
68- Which Wing Tank fuel boost pumps are running for normal flight operations?
a- The right tank pumps only.
b- Both
c- Neither
d- The Left tank pumps only.
69- When is the Fuel Crossfeed VALVE OPEN light illuminated dim?
a- When the valve is open and the selector is in the open position
b- When the valve is closed and the selector is in the open position
c- When the valve is open and the selector is in the closed position.
d- When the valve should be open and the selector is in the closed position.
70- For refueling, which tank(s) have an automatic shutoff valve that closes when the tank is
full?
a- The right wing tank
b- The center tank
c- The left wing tank
d- All of them
71- Which tank normally provides fuel to the APU?
a- Tank 2
b- Tank 1
72- How many AC powered boost pumps are installed for each tank?
a- Two
b- Three
73- Are there any fuel quantity measuring sticks installed in the Center tank?
a- Yes
b- No
74- How can Center Tank fuel be delivered to both engines if one Center tank fuel pump has
failed?
a- Turn off the Center tank pump switches
b- Close the Fuel Crossfeed Valve
c- Open the Fuel Crossfeed Valve
d- Turn on the Center tank pump switches
75- The Fuel Crossfeed Valve is electrically operated.
a- True
b- False
76- The illuminated FUEL FILTER BYPASS light indicates _____.
a- The fuel filter bypass valve has failed and reduced engine thrust may result.
b- That the fuel does not need filtering and improved engine performance may result.
c- That the filter is contaminated and engine failure may result
d- That the filter is contaminated and degraded engine performance may result.
77- What controls the position of the Engine Fuel Shutoff Valves?
a- Engine Start Lever
b- Fire Switch
c- Both of these
d- Neither of these
78- Which Center tank fuel pump normally feeds the #2 engine?
a- Right
b- Left
79- Can the 737 Dump fuel?
a- Yes
b- No
80- The APU can suction feed fuel from the ____ Wing Tank.
a- #2
b- #1
81- The engines can suction feed fuel from the Center tank.
a- True
b- False
82- When all fuel pumps are operating, why does the Center Tank fuel feed first?
a- the Center Tank check valves close at a lower differential pressure than the wing tank check valves.
b- The wing Tank pumps operate only when the center tank is empty.
c- The center Tank fuel pumps operate with a high pressure than the wing tank pumps.
83- The power to operate the Fuel Crossfeed Valve comes from the _____.
a- DC Transfer bus
b- AC Transfer bus
c- Battery bus.
d- DC bus 1.
84- The Center Tank fuel pump LOW PRESSURE lights illuminate if the pump output pressure
is low and ___.
a- The opposite pump switch is ON or OFF.
b- The associated pump switch is ON or OFF.
c- The associated pump switch is ON only.
d- The opposite pump switch is ON only.
85- For extended ground operations, which fuel pump should be used to provide fuel to the
APU?
a- Left Center Tank Pump
b- AFT Left Wing Tank Pump
c- Right Center Tank Pump
d- AFT Right Wing Tank Pump
86- Which Center tank fuel pump normally feeds the #1 engine and APU?
a- Left
b- Right
87- What is the purpose of the Fuel Vent lines?
a- To prevent positive or negative overpressures within the fuel tanks.
b- To prevent positive overpressures only within the fuel tanks.
c- To prevent negative overpressures only within the fuel tanks
d- To prevent positive or negative overpressures within the Center fuel tank only.
88- The engines can suction feed fuel from the respective Wing Tank.
a- True
b- False
89- When operating with only Wing Tank fuel – If Both Wing Tank Fuel Pump LOW
PRESSURE lights are ON at high altitude, engine flameout or thrust deterioration may
occur.
a- True
b- False
90- The Fuel Temperature Indicator displays the temperature of the fuel in tank ___.
a- 1
b- 2
91- What is the minimum inflight fuel temperature if the freezing point of your fuel is -53
degrees C (in degrees centigrade)?
 a- -43
b- -45
c- -30
92- Gravity Refueling can be performed to the ____.
a- Wing tanks only
b- Center tank only
c- Center and Wing tanks
d- None of these
93- Will the Wing Tank fuel boost pumps operate if only standby electrical power is
available?
a- Yes
b- No
94- The Wing Tank fuel pump LOW PRESSURE lights illuminate if the pump output pressure
is low and ___.
a- The associated pump switch is ON or OFF
b- The associated pump switch is ON only
c- The opposite pump switch is ON or OFF
d- The opposite pump switch is ON only
95- Can the 737 transfer fuel from tank to tank when inflight?
a- Yes
b- No
96- Where is the Manual Defueling valve Lever for transferring fuel or Defueling on the
ground?
a- Under the right wing
b- If the nose wheel well
c- In the main wheel well
d- Under the left wing
97- What action causes the Fuel Scavenge Shutoff Valve to open?
a- Turning off the Wing tank pump switches.
b- Turning off the Center tank pump switches
c- Turning on the Center tank pump switches.
d- Turning on the Wing tank pump switches.
98- If both Wing Tank Fuel pump LOW PRESSURE lights come on , the Master Caution and
FUEL system annunciator lights ____.
a- Will go out
b- Will come on

ICE & RAIN

1- Illumination of an amber COWL ANTI ICE light indicates:
a- An overpressure condition
b- An over temperature or overpressure condition
c- The respective cowl anti-ice valve is open
d- The respective cowl anti-ice valve is in transit, the cowl anti-ice valve position disagrees with the
respective engine anti-ice switch position.
2- Windshield wipers are provided to maintain a clear area on the cockpit No.1
windows. Which of the following statements is correct?
a- Each wiper is operated by a separate system
b- Windshield wipers are hydraulically operated & electrically controlled
c- Windshield wipers may be operated on a dry windshield
d- None of the above.
3- Both windshield wipers are controlled with a common switch.
a- True.
b- False.
4- When are the ENGINE ANTI-ICE switches turned ON if icing conditions exist on
ground?
 a- When cleared on the runway.
b- During taxi out.
c- Before engine start.
d- Immediately after engine start.
5- The amber COWL ANTI-ICE is illuminated.
a- It indicates an overpressure condition in duct downstream of engine cowl anti-ice valve
b- It indicates an overpressure and excessive temperature condition
c- It indicates an excessive temperature in the duct between the cowl anti-ice valve and cowl lip.
d- It indicates either an overpressure or an excessive temperature condition
6- In flight there are 2 methods recommended for operating the wing anti-ice
system:
a- True.
b- False.
7- The CAPT, F/O and AUX pitot probes contain static sensors.
a- True.
b- False.
8- What maintains the correct temperature on windows No. 4 and 5?
a- Individual thermal switches
b- A thermal switch located on window No. 5
c- A thermal switch on window No. 4
d- These windows are heated with cabin air
9- The window heat PWR TEST:
a- Must be tested before each flight.
b- Provides a confident test.
c- Also tests the overheat protection system.
d- Must be tested before using the window heat system.
10- The wing anti-ice system provides bleed air to all leading edge slats:
a- True
b- False.
The wing anti-ice provides protection for the three inboard leading edge slats by using bleed air. The wing anti-ice does not
include the leading edge flaps or the outboard leading edge flaps
11- Wing anti-ice should not be used when the Total Air Temperature is above +10
degrees C.
a- True
b- False.
12- What can cause a window heat on light to be extinguished?
a- The window heat switch is OFF.
b- An overheat has occurred.
c- There has been a system failure.
d- All of the above.
13- Refer to the Thermal Anti-Ice (TAI) CDS indication. TAI shown at the top Left
side of each indicator indicates :
a- If amber, an over temperature condition exists in the duct downstream of the engine cowl anti-ice
valve.
b- If green; the cowl anti-ice valve is closed and the related engine anti-ice switch is OFF.
c- If green, the cowl anti-ice valve is open and the related engine anti-ice switch is ON.
d- All of the above.
14- What is the maximum airspeed limit when WINDOW HEAT is inoperative?
a- 250 KIAS.
b- 280 KIAS.
c- 250 KIAS below 10 000 feet.
d- 280 KIAS below 10 000 feet.
15- Dual angle-airflow sensors (alpha vanes) provide angle-of-attack information to
the stall warning system, autothrottle, autopilot and autoslats and are anti iced:
a- By actuating the LEFT or RIGHT FWD window heat switch.
b- Whenever wing anti-ice is being used.
c- Whenever the alternate static ports are heated.
d- By independent 115V AC heating elements, controlled by the Probe Heat switches.
16- Which pitot probes and static ports are not heated?
a- Elevator pitot probes.
b- Alternate static ports.
c- No.1 Aux pitot probe and static port.
d- No.2 Aux pitot probe and static port.
17- The R ELEV PITOT light is illuminated. What does this indicate?
a- The Right elevator pitot is blocked.
b- System B hydraulic pressure is low.
c- The Right elevator pitot is not heated.
d- All of the above are correct.
18- Which window(s) are heated with the LEFT FWD WINDOW HEAT Switch ON?
a- L2, L3, L4, L5.
b- L1, L2, L3.
c- L2, L4, L5.
d- L1 only.
19- What happens when the WING ANTI-ICE switch is placed ON while in flight?
a- Both Control valves open
b- Stick shaker logic is based for icing conditions
c- FMC displayed Vref is not adjusted
d- All of the above
20- The Engine Anti-Ice should be turned on:
a- When there is any visible moisture.
b- If the temperature is 10 degrees C or less and there is visible moisture
c- Before takeoff if icing is forecast to occur when you enter the clouds.
d- If the temperature is 10 degrees C or less.
21- When operating on standby power, only the captain's pitot probe is heated,
however, the CAPT PITOT light does not illuminate for a failure.
a- True.
b- False.
22- Temperature controllers maintain the correct temperature on windows No. 1
and 2. In the event of an overheat, power is automatically removed.
a- True.
b- False.
23- Positioning the WING ANTI-ICE switch to ON in flight:
a- Sets stick shaker logic for icing conditions only when WING ANTI-ICE switch is ON.
b- Sets stick shaker logic for icing conditions for the remainder of the flight.
c- Adjusts FMC displayed VREF automatically when WING ANTI-ICE switch is ON.
d- Have no influence on stick shaker logic
24- With the wing anti-ice ON ant the aircraft on the ground, the wing anti-ice switch
remains on regardless of the control valve position
a- True.
b- False.
25- The aircraft is on the ground. You place the WING ANTI-ICE switch to ON. Which
conditions will allow the wing anti-ice valve to open?
a- Thrust on both engines is above the setting for takeoff thrust or the temperature inside both wing
distribution ducts is above the thermal switch activation temperature.
b- Thrust on both engines is above the setting for takeoff thrust and the temperature inside both wing
distribution ducts is below the thermal switch activation temperature.
c- Thrust on both engines is below the setting for takeoff thrust and the temperature inside both wing
distribution ducts is below the thermal switch activation temperature.
d- Thrust on both engines is below the setting for takeoff thrust or the temperature inside both wing
distribution ducts is above the thermal switch activation temperature.
26- The cowl anti-ice valve is _________ controlled and _______ operated.
a- Electrically – Electrically
b- Pneumatically – Mechanically
c- Electrically – Mechanically
d- Electrically - Pneumatically
 27- You select the engine anti-ice valve to the ON position. The COWL VALVE OPEN
light is illuminated blue and the TAI indication illuminates on the CDS. What
happened?
a- This is a normal indication.
b- There is excessive pressure in the duct leading from the cowl anti-ice valve to the cowl lip.
c- There is excessive heat applied to the cowl lip.
d- The cowl anti-ice valve fails to move to the position commanded by the ENG ANTI-ICE switch.
28- Which portion of the wings does the wing anti-ice system heat?
a- Leading flaps.
b- Outboard leading edge slats
c- Three inboard leading edge slats
d- All of the above
29- If operating on standby power, probe heat lights do not indicate system status
a- True
b- False
30- Windshield wiper selector has ______ position
a- 2
b- 3
c- 4
d- 5
PARK / INT / LOW / HIGH
31- If you select the WING ANTI-ICE switch on the ground:
a- Wing anti-ice control valves open if thrust on both engines is below takeoff warning setting and
temperature inside both distribution ducts is below thermal switch activation temperature
b- Wing anti-ice control valves open if thrust on either engine is below takeoff warning setting and
temperature inside both distribution ducts is below thermal switch activation temperature
c- Wing anti-ice control valves open if thrust on both engines is below takeoff warning setting.
32- Passing 3000' climbing, you have selected Engine Anti-Ice ON. Passing FL90, you
select them OFF.
a- Stall warning logic, airspeed indications and minimum maneuver speeds on the airspeed indicator
return to normal.
b- Stall warning logic and minimum maneuver speeds on the airspeed indicator return to normal.
c- Stall warning logic, airspeed indications and minimum maneuver speeds on the airspeed indicator
return to normal, if wing anti-ice has not been used in flight.
d- Stall warning logic and minimum maneuver speeds on the airspeed indicator return to normal, if
wing anti-ice has not been used for takeoff.
33- The wing anti-ice control valves are:
a- DC motor-operated
b- AC motor operated
c- Both DC & AC motor-operated
34- The wing anti-ice system is effective with the slats in any position.
a- True
b- False
35- Does the availability of bleed air for engine anti-ice require that the engine
bleed air switch be ON?
a- Yes
b- No.
36- Which system annunciator light illuminates when any of the pitot lights comes
on?
a- OVERHEAD
b- ANTI-ICE
c- PITOT
37- The OVHT test will cause all overheat lights to come on and the ON lights will
eventually go out. How does a pitot reinstate the Window heat after performing
an Overheat test?
a- Cycle power OFF and ON to Main AC Bus # 2
b- Cycle all switches OFF and ON
 c- Cycle all switches OFF for 10 seconds and ON
38- Positioning the ENG ANTI-ICE switch to ON in flight:
a- Sets stick shaker logic for icing conditions only when ENG-ANTI ICE switch is ON
b- Sets stick shaker logic for icing conditions for the remainder of flight
c- Adjusts FMC displayed Vref automatically when ENG-ANTI ICE switch is ON
d- Has no influence on stick shaker logic

WARNINGS
1- What is the purpose of the Proximity Switch Electronic Unit?
a- Monitors the takeoff configuration warning.
b- Monitors the landing configuration warning.
c- Monitors the landing gear.
d- All of the above.
2- The PSEU system on the ground monitors which of the following?
a- Takeoff/landing configuration warnings
b- Landing gear
c- Air/ground sensing
d- All of the above.
3- A steady warning horn alerts the crew when the landing gear is not down and
locked and a landing is attempted.
a- True
b- False
4- When is the Proximity Switch Electronic Unit light inhibited?
a- In flight.
b- For 1 minute after landing.
c- All of the above.
5- The takeoff configuration warning horn sounds when the stabilizer trim is not in
the takeoff range.
a- True
b- False
6- Which of the following is an input into the Stall Management Yaw Damper
computers?
a- ADIRU data.
b- Anti-ice controls.
c- All of the above.
7- Which of the following will cause activation of the takeoff configuration warning
system?
a- Leading edge flaps in the extend position and trailing edge flaps at flaps 5.
b- Leading edge flpas in the full extend position and trailing edge flaps at 15.
c- Spoilers partially extended.
d- SPEED BRAKE lever in the DOWN position.
8- While performing the LANDING checklist the PSEU light illuminates on recall.
This indicates:
a- A normal condition
b- A fault is detected in the landing gear locking system or the air/ground sensing systems
c- The landing gear configuration warning horn will sound upon landing.
d- A problem exists in the PSEU system because the light should be inhibited in flight
9- Illumination of the PSEU light on the aft overhead panel will activate the
MASTER CAUTION system.
a- True
b- False.
10- The landing gear configuration warning horn will activate anytime a gear is not
down and locked with the flaps set to 15, one thrust lever at idle and the other at a
high power setting (above 34 degrees):
a- True
b- False.
11- The GPWS will provide a warning/alert of slow descents into unprepared
terrain while in the landing configuration.
a- True
b- False.
12- The SMYD computers receive inputs from:
a- Anti ice controls.
b- ADIRU's
c- FMC
d- All of the above.
13- The Ground Proximity Warning System Test:
a- Can be performed only on the ground.
b- Is inhibited from liftoff to 1,000 feet Radio Altitude.
c- Can be performed only above 1,000 feet Radio Altitude.
d- Can be performed anytime.
14- When are the GPWS windshear warnings available?
a- Below 1500 feet AGL.
b- Below 2500 feet AGL.
c- Below 3000 feet AGL.
d- Below 5000 feet AGL.
15- The windshear warning mode of the GPWS has priority over all other GPWS
modes.
a- True
b- False.
16- When is a traffic advisory issued?
a- When the other aircraft is within 40 NM.
b- When the other aircraft is within 20 NM.
c- When the aircraft is within 40 seconds of the closest approach.
d- When the aircraft is within 20 seconds of the closest approach.
17- When is TCAS inhibited?
a- By windshear alerts.
b- By GPWS.
c- At low altitudes where traffic avoidance maneuvers are inappropriate.
d- All of the above.
18- The Takeoff Configuration Warning horn sounds if:
a- Stabilizer trim is not in the green band.
b- Leading edge flaps and trailing edge flaps are not in the correct position for takeoff.
c- Speedbrake lever is not in the down position.
d- All of the above is correct.
19- When does the ALT ALERT light extinguish?
a- When you level off at the selected altitude.
b- 300 feet before the selected altitude.
c- 200 feet before the selected altitude.
d- 600 feet before the selected altitude
20- How can you silence the Mach/Airspeed warning inflight?
a- Slow the airplane speed to below Vmo/Mmo
b- Press the Mach/airspeed warning test switch
c- Descent to a lower altitude.
d- Climb to a higher altitude.
21- The mach/airspeed warning system can only be checked on the ground:
a- True
b- False.
22- While flying an ILS approach below 1,000 feet Radio Altitude, a BELOW G/S alert
occurs. To cancel the alert:
a- Correct the flight path back to the glide slope.
b- Press either pilot's BELOW G/S P-INHIBIT light
c- The alert cannot be cancelled
d- The first two statements are correct.
23- Which of the following will illuminate a landing gear configuration warning?
 a- Landing gear disagrees with the position of the landing gear lever.
b- Landing gear is not down and locked.
c- Either or both thrust levers are at idle and the aircraft is below 800 feet AGL.
d- All of the above.
24- The GPWS provides a "BANK ANGLE" warning when the roll rate exceeds 25
degrees, 30 degrees, and 35 degrees.
a- True
b- False.
25- Which of the following is NOT a GPWS mode?
a- Excessive descent rate.
b- Excessive terrain closure.
c- Unsafe terrain clearance when in the landing configuration.
d- Windshear.
26- While flying an ILS approach below 1, 000 feet Radio Altitude, a BELOW G/S alert
occurs. To cancel the alert:
a- Press RECALL.
b- Press either pilot\'s BELOW G/S P-INHIBIT light, or correct the flight path back to the glide slope.
c- The alert cannot be cancelled.
d- Select another mode on MCP.
The volume of the aural alert and the repetition rate increase as deviation increases.
27- The Ground Proximity Warning System Test:
a- Can be performed only on the ground.
b- Is inhibited from lift-off to 1, 000 feet RA
c- Can be performed only above 1, 000 feet radio altitude.
d- Can be performed any time.
28- The Predictive Windshear alerts are issued:
a- When TERR switch on EFIS control panel is pressed.
b- When WPT switch on EFIS control panel is pressed.
c- Automatically below 1, 200 feet RA.
d- Automatically below 2, 500 feet RA.
29- Predictive windshear alerts are triggered from:
a- EGPWS.
b- Weather Radar System.
c- Aural Warning Module.
30- Serviceability of the tailskid cartridge is shown by:
a- A green decal.
b- A green indicator light
c- Wear dimples.
d- A green and red decal.
31- In the event of an over rotation, which part of the tailskid structure contacts the
runway?
a- The skirt.
b- The fairing.
c- The shoe.
d- The cartridge.
32- The terrain displayed in the look- ahead terrain alerting system is generated
from:
a- Weather Radar correlated with IRS position.
b- GPWS nav data base correlated with IRS position.
c- GPWS nav data base correlated with GPS position.
d- FMC nav data base correlated with GPS position.
33- When is a traffic advisory issued?
a- When the other aircraft is within 20 NM
b- When the aircraft is within 20 seconds of the closest approach.
c- When the other aircraft is within 40 NM.
d- When the aircraft is within 40 seconds of the closest approach.
34- The Look-Ahead Terrain alerting system will show for terrain:
a- Within 2,000 feet RA.
 b- Below 1,000 feet barometric altitude.
c- Above 1,000 feet RA.
d- Within 2,000 feet barometric altitude.
35- In what mode will the TCAS automatically show if a TA/RA occurs and the TFC
switches are selected OFF.
a- In PLAN, MAP, VOR or APP modes
b- In MAP, center MAP, PLAN or APP modes
c- In center MAP, VOR or APP modes.
d- In MAP, center MAP, VOR, or APP modes.
36- What is correct about the color on the terrain display?
a- Dotted green – terrain 2500’ below up to 500’ below
b- Dotted amber - terrain 2000’ below up to 500’ below
c- Dotted red – terrain more than 5000´above the aircraft
d- Solid red – look ahead terrain warning is active
37- Which statement is correct?
a- When the RHS pilot omits to set the minima on the baro, but the LHS pilot sets the minima correctly,
there will be no GPWS minimums callouts.
b- When the RHS pilot omits to set the minima on the baro, but the LHS pilot sets the minima correctly,
there will be a GPWS minimums callouts, since the callouts are based on the captain’s minimums
selector.
c- It is impossible to omit to set the minima before any approach, because the aircraft GPWS will
remind you in time.
d- None of the statements above are correct
38- On takeoff the config warning sounds. What can be the cause?
a- Trailing edge flaps set to 2
b- Trailing edge flaps are in a skew condition
c- Stabilizer set in the takeoff range
d- Takeoff power not set on both engines
39- When can you expect the EGPWS "Five Hundred" call?
a- When descending through the 500 feet amber band on the ALT tape on a stable ILS approach.
b- When descending through 500 feet RA outside 2 dots of the LLZ
c- If descending through 500 feet RA on a CAT III approach for the FLARE ARM check.
d- On an ILS approach descending through the amber band and the GS is 1 dot from the glideslope
beam.
40- TCAS TEST is displayed on the navigation display during the test followed by
TCAS TEST PASSED or TCAS TEST FAILED. This test remains in view for _____ then
blanks. An aural annunciation sounds at the completion of the test.
a- 3 seconds
b- 5 seconds
c- 8 seconds
d- 10 seconds
41- The area(s) inside the red lines indicate(s) the pitch region(s) to avoid in order
to resolve the traffic conflict. The airplane symbol must be outside the TCAS pitch
command area(s) to ensure traffic avoidance.
a- True
b- False
42- The RA aural alert "CLIMB – CLIMB NOW" means:
a- Increase climb rate from initial pitch attitude.
b- Climb at displayed pitch. Airplane climbs through traffic’s altitude.
c- Climb at the displayed pitch.
d- Reversal maneuver from initial descent RA.
43- When performance is limited, such as with an inoperative engine, to prevent
receiving RAs beyond the airplane´s capabilities:
a- Select ALT OFF
b- Select TCAS OFF
c- Select TA/RA
d- Select TA




44- All TCAS alerts are inhibited:
a- Below approximately 500 feet radio altitude.
b- By GPWS and windshear warnings.
c- Below approximately 1,100 feet radio altitude.
d- Until the flaps are fully retracted after takeoff.
45- The TCAS symbol for proximate traffic is:
a- A red square
b- An amber circle
c- A white solid diamond
d- A white hollow diamond
46- A TA symbol showing on the ND has, alongside it, a down arrow and "-07". This
means:
a- The traffic is descending at 700fpm.
b- You should descend at 700fpm.
c- The traffic is descending at minimum 500fpm.
d- You should descend at minimum 500fpm.
47- RAs can only be generated if the other airplane has a working:
a- Mode A transponder.
b- Mode C transponder.
c- Mode S transponder.
d- TCAS system.
48- Coordinated RAs require both airplanes to have TCAS.
a- True
b- False
49- Vertical motion information is indicated by an arrow depicting a climb or
descent if a change of greater than _____ is detected.
a- 250 feet per minute
b- 500 feet per minute
c- 750 feet per minute
d- 800 feet per minute