1

CLINICAL MICROSCOPY (URINALYSIS AND OTHER BODY FLUIDS)

INTENSIVE RECAP

Name = ______________________________________ Score = ___________

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark
only one answer for each item.
1. Reagent used in the foam stability index for testing fetal
lung maturity:
a. 1% sodium hydroxide
b. 90% ethyl alcohol
c. 95% ethyl alcohol
d. 3% acetic acid

2. The following are the recommended conditions in using and

preserving reagent strips, EXCEPT:
a. Keep at room temperature
b. Closed tightly
c. Store in a dark container
d. Blotted on the tissue faced down

3. Post-vasectomy semen analysis should be done ____ after the

surgery:
a. 3 months
b. 2 months
c. 6 months
d. 1 year

4. What is(are) the variable(s) included in the Modification of

Diet in Renal Disease formula?
1. Ethnicity 3. Serum Albumin
2. BUN 4. Body weight
a. 3 only
b. 1 and 3
c. 1, 2 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 3

5. HCG is produced by which of the following?

a. Syncytiotrophoblast cells
b. Argentaffin cells
c. Endocervical glandular cells
d. Type II pneumocytes

6. How many days will hCG in urine disappear after ectopic

pregnancy?
a. 10 days
b. 3-7 days
c. 15 days
d. 30 days
 2

7. The animal source of anti-hCG used in home-based pregnancy

test kits is:
a. Frog
b. Mouse
c. Rabbit
d. Horse

8. Synovial fluid forms a string that is 6 cm long. This is

considered:
a. Abnormal
b. Poorly viscous
c. Normal
d. Highly viscous

9. True regarding sputum:

a. Normal color is green
b. Usually sterile
c. Rusty with pus is due to CHF
d. Produced by the tracheobronchial tree

10. Reagent used in the Apt test:

a. Potassium hydroxide
b. Sulfuric acid
c. Sodium hydroxide
d. Hydrochloric acid

11. Bence-Jones protein coagulates at ________ and dissolves at

__________:
a. 40-60OC, 100OC
b. 100OC, 40-60OC
c. <40OC, 100OC
d. 100OC, <40OC

12. How many neutrophils per high power field are indicative of
invasive diarrhea?
a. 0-2
b. 1-3
c. 2-3
d. ≥ 3

13. An obsolete test of evaluating kidney function in which the

patient should not drink any fluid for 24 hours and then urine
S.G. is measured:
a. PSP dye test
b. PAH dye test
c. Mosenthal test
d. Fishberg test

14. The last step in the handwashing procedure is:

a. Turn off faucets with a clean paper towel
b. Clean between fingers for at least 15 seconds
c. Rinse hands in a downward position
d. Wet hands with warm water
 3

15. A nurse arrived from the ward with a urine specimen and left
immediately. You checked the specimen right after the nurse
left. Upon checking the specimen, there is no label attached to
it. As a medical technologist, what is the best course of action
to take?
a. Reject the specimen
b. Call the nurse who delivered the specimen and ask to
label it
c. Call the nurse and tell that the specimen is QNS and
reject it
d. Tell the nurse to inform the patient to recollect a new
urine sample

16. Principle(s) applied in the mechanism of the slideless

automated instrument for urine microscopy:
a. Fluorescence, impedance and light scatter
b. Fluorescence
c. Impedance and reflectance photometry
d. Light scatter

17. Which of the following is a gastric stimulant?

a. Histamine
b. Cholecystokinin
c. Secretin
d. Pepsin

18. Ten calcium oxalate crystals were seen per HPF. How do you
report this finding?
a. Rare
b. Few
c. Moderate
d. Many

19. Which of the following can be used to differentiate

bacterial from non-bacterial (viral) meningitis?
a. CEA
b. AFP
c. Procalcitonin
d. CYFRA 21-1

20. These are blood vessels that supply blood to the kidneys:
a. Efferent arterioles
b. Afferent arterioles
c. Renal arteries
d. Renal veins

21. A protein reagent strip reaction of 1+ is equivalent to

approximately ____ of protein:
a. <30 mg/dL
b. 30 mg/dL
c. 100 mg/dL
d. 300 mg/dL
 4

22. Which of the following organisms produces positive nitrite

reagent strip reaction?
a. Gram-positive cocci
b. Gram-negative bacilli
c. Gram-negative cocci
d. Gram-positive bacilli

23. If alcohol is added to urine with tyrosine crystals, this

other type of abnormal crystal may be precipitated:
a. Bilirubin
b. Sulfonamide
c. Leucine
d. Cystine

24. WBCs stain what color when using Sternheimer-Malbin stain?

a. Pale pink
b. Pale blue
c. Violet
d. Red

25. Glitter cells stain what color when using Sternheimer-Malbin

stain?
a. Pink
b. Violet
c. Red
d. Pale blue

26. Myoglobin in urine must be at what concentration to produce

a red color?
a. 25 mg/dL
b. 10 mg/dL
c. 15 mg/dL
d. 20 mg/dL

27. Approximately nine bacteria were seen per high power field.
This is reported as:
a. Moderate
b. Few
c. Rare
d. Many

28. Bacteria that produce positive Greiss reaction:

a. Gram-negative bacilli
b. E. coli
c. Gram-positive cocci
d. None of these

29. Sensitivity of albumin reagent strip:

a. 5 mg/dL
b. 30 mg/dL
c. 50 mg/dL
d. 0.5 mg/dL
 5

30. In most cases, the precursor of acute glomerulonephritis is

a(n):
a. Diabetes mellitus
b. UTI
c. Dehydration
d. Respiratory disease

31. Which of the following crystals is most commonly seen in

alkaline urine?
a. Calcium oxalate
b. Struvite
c. Staghorn
d. Calcium carbonate

32. The Split fat stain is composed of:

a. 95% ethyl alcohol & Sudan III
b. 10% eosin & Sudan III
c. 10% eosin
d. 36% acetic acid & Sudan III

33. A kidney stone that forms branches resembling a staghorn is

mainly composed of:
a. Calcium oxalate
b. Triple phosphate
c. Uric acid
d. Cystine

34. What sample is used in the Diagnex Tubeless test for gastric
analysis?
a. Urine
b. Stool
c. Blood
d. Gastric fluid

35. PDCA stands for:

a. Plan-Do-Choose-Act
b. Plan-Develop-Confirm-Act
c. Plan-Do-Check-Act
d. Plan-Develop-Check-Act

36. The most commonly seen form(s) of broad cast is(are):

a. Granular
b. Granular and waxy
c. Waxy
d. Hyaline and granular

37. A device used to calibrate centrifuge:

a. Tachometer
b. Galvanometer
c. Stopwatch
d. A and C
 6

38. A part of microscope that performs initial magnification of

an object on the mechanical stage:
a. Adjustment knob
b. Oculars
c. Condenser
d. Objectives

39. To convert brightfield microsopy into darkfield, one should

replace the:
a. Objectives
b. Condenser
c. Oculars
d. Light source

40. Which of the following factors is most likely to cause a

brown-colored seminal fluid?
a. Bile pigment
b. Blood
c. Continence
d. Urine contamination

41. This chemical can be used to preserve albumin and does not
interfere with most routine analyses:
a. Thymol
b. Formalin
c. Boric acid
d. Sodium fluoride

42. Indirect test for ammonia in the CSF:

a. Protein
b. Urea
c. Glutamine
d. Lactate

43. In the sputum analysis, the only clinical significance of

this finding is its resemblance to Blastomyces:
a. Creola bodies
b. Myelin globules
c. Curschmann’s spirals
d. Blue bodies

44. A slightly bloody CSF should be diluted using what dilution?

a. 1:100
b. 1:10,000
c. 1:200
d. 1:10

45. Specimen(s) used in the latex agglutination test for

Cryptococcus neoformans:
a. Serum
b. CSF
c. None
d. Both
 7

46. Which of the following is the best way of determining urine

clarity?
a. Hold the specimen in front of a white background
b. Place a light on your behind
c. Hold the specimen in front of a newspaper print
d. View through a dark container

47. Prior to cytocentrifugation, CSF specimens should be treated

with ___ to increase cell recovery:
a. 95% ethanol
b. 10% formalin
c. 50% albumin
d. 30% albumin

48. The length of a sperm cell tail is approximately:

a. 3 um
b. 3-5 um
c. 5 um
d. 45 um

49. The normal acrosomal cap should encompass:

a. 1/2 of the sperm head
b. 1/3 of the sperm nucleus
c. 3/4 of the sperm head
d. 1/4 of the sperm nucleus

50. Semen viscosity graded as 0:

a. Gel-like
b. Lumpy
c. Watery
d. Ropy

51. How can bacteria be quantitated using automated slideless

urinalysis analyzers?
a. Colorimetry
b. Use of histogram and scattergram
c. Indirectly through nitrite test
d. Reflectance photometry

52. % population of lymphocytes in the bronchoalveolar lavage:

a. 56-80%
b. <3%
c. 1-15%
d. 4-17%

53. Stain that best delineates the cysts of Pneumocystis

jiroveci is:
a. Lugol’s iodine
b. PAS
c. Trichrome stain
d. Grocott’s methenamine silver
 8

54. Arthrocentesis is performed on a 57-year-old male patient.

Synovial fluid appears clear and yellow, and the WBC count is
1,000/uL. From these results, the patient could possibly have:
a. Healthy joints
b. Crystal-induced arthritis
c. Non-inflammatory arthritis
d. Septic arthritis

55. Sputum collection method for unconscious patients:

a. Throat swab
b. Tracheal aspiration
c. Sputum induction
d. All of these

56. These are clusters of columnar cells seen in sputum of a

patient with bronchial asthma:
a. Curschmann’s spirals
b. Charcot-Leyden crystals
c. Creola bodies
d. Dittrich’s plugs

57. These are crystalline concretions found in sputum specimens:

a. Bronchial casts
b. Broncholiths
c. Dittrich’s plugs
d. Foreign bodies

58. Adenosine deaminase level highly indicative of tuberculosis:

a. >20 U/L
b. <30 U/L
c. <40 U/L
d. >40 U/L

59. MAO stands for:

a. Minimum acid output
b. Minor acid output
c. Major acid output
d. Maximum acid output

60. Normal fasting gastric fluid appears:

a. Yellow and frothy
b. Crystal clear
c. Pale yellow with food particles
d. Pale gray and slightly mucoid

61. Normal volume of gastric fluid of a patient in fasting state

a. 500 mL
b. 20-50 mL
c. <20 mL
d. 45-50 mL
 9

62. Duration of routine gastric fluid collection for basal

gastric acidity:
a. 1 hour w/ 15-min interval
b. 2 hours w/ 30-min interval
c. 1 hour
d. 2 hours

63. Basal acid output in pernicious anemia:

a. 2.5
b. 0
c. 5.0
d. 18.0

64. Frothy stools may indicate:

a. Upper GI bleeding
b. Cholera
c. Cystic fibrosis
d. Pancreatic disorders

65. Why is Guaiac reagent preferred over other chromogens in the

fecal occult blood testing?
a. Color change is readily observable using Guaiac
chromogen
b. It is more sensitive than other chromogens
c. To avoid false-negative reactions
d. To avoid false-positive reactions

66. Positive color in the Guaiac-based FOBT:

a. Yellow
b. Green
c. Blue
d. Red

67. A pancreatic enzyme that breaks down gelatin in the X-ray

film test:
a. Secretin
b. Lactase
c. Pepsin
d. Trypsin

68. Quantitative fecal fat determination utilizes what type of

specimen?
a. Random stool
b. 1-day stool
c. 2-day stool
d. 3-day stool

69. Prior to testing urinary nitrite, the patient should:

a. Wash urethral opening before collection
b. Abstain from coitus
c. Undergo 8-10 hours of fasting
d. Eat vegetables the night before collection
 10

70. Reagent(s) used in the leukocyte esterase reagent strip:

a. Indoxylcarbonic acid ester
b. p-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde
c. Diazonium salt
d. A and C

71. The most important component in the handwashing procedure

is:
a. Friction
b. Time
c. Type of soap
d. Running water

72. The presence of oligoclonal bands in the CSF but not in

serum is indicative of one of the following diseases:
a. HIV
b. Leukemia
c. Neurosyphilis
d. Multiple myeloma

73. CSF tube number 4 must be sent to what section in the

laboratory?
a. Cytology
b. Microbiology
c. Hematology
d. Serology

74. A web-like clot or pellicle is formed in the CSF from

patients with:
a. Bacterial meningitis
b. Viral meningitis
c. Tubercular meningitis
d. Fungal meningitis

75. Centrifuges, refrigerators, autoclaves and glasswares

possess what type of hazard?
a. Mechanical
b. Cryogenic
c. Ergonomic
d. Flammability

76. Degree of hazard: “slight hazard”

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
 11

77. Handwashing procedure: “thoroughly clean between fingers,

including thumbs, under fingernails and rings, and up to the
wrist for at least:
a. 15 seconds
b. 30 seconds
c. 45 seconds
d. 60 seconds

78. Prior to seminal fluid collection, the patient should

abstain from sex for how long?
a. 10-14 days
b. 2-7 days
c. 3-5 days
d. 7-10 days

79. When should assessment of Down syndrome be performed?

a. 24th week of pregnancy
b. 18th week of pregnancy
c. 36th week of pregnancy
d. 32nd week of pregnancy

80. Which of the following can cause a false-positive result for

protein in urine using SSA?
a. X-ray contrast media
b. Tolbutamide
c. Salicylates
d. All of these

81. Recommended extinguisher for fire involving computer

devices:
a. Halon
b. Pressurized water
c. Sand
d. Dry chemical

82. The “E” in the “RACE” acronym stands for:

a. Eliminate
b. Eradicate
c. Exterminate
d. Extinguish

83. A freshly voided urine has strong pungent odor. Which of the
following is the most probable cause?
a. Renal failure
b. Phenylketonuria
c. Diabetes mellitus
d. Bacteriuria

84. The minimum required urine volume for drug testing is:
a. 60 mL
b. 30-45 mL
c. 45-60 mL
d. 50 mL
 12

85. Urine clarity grading: “Print blurred through urine”

a. Clear
b. Hazy
c. Turbid
d. Cloudy

86. Insoluble in dilute acetic acid:

1. WBCs 2. Bacteria 3. Yeast 4. Spermatozoa
a. 1 and 4
b. 1, 2 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

87. Which of the following represents the proper reporting of

health hazard in the NFPA diamond symbol?
a. XOX
b. 0, 1, 2, 3, 4
c. A, B, C, D
d. I, II, III, IV

88. A type of microscope that forms a halo around the specimen

is:
a. Brightfield
b. Phase-contrast
c. Interference-contrast
d. Fluorescent

89. Preservative for testing urinary 5-HIAA:

a. Refrigeration
b. Phenol
c. HCl
d. Formalin

90. A urine sample was subjected to Benedict's test. The medtech

described the solution as yellow‐orange in color and has a
yellow to orange colored precipitate. How should this result be
graded?
a. 3+
b. 1+
c. 2+
d. 4+

91. A renal calculi described as yellowish to brownish red in

color with a moderately hard consistency is:
a. Cystine
b. Phosphate
c. Calcium oxalate
d. Uric acid
 13

92. This stain is used to differentiate WBCs and RTE cells in

urine:
a. Sternheimer-Malbin
b. Prussian blue
c. Toluidine blue
d. Hansel stain

93. What is the sequence of cast formation starting from the

most significant?
a. Waxy, hyaline, cellular, coarsely granular, finely
granular
b. Cellular, coarsely granular, finely granular, hyaline,
waxy
c. Hyaline, cellular, finely granular, coarsely granular,
waxy
d. Waxy, finely granular, coarsely granular, cellular,
hyaline

94. Stain used by automated urinalysis analyzer for visualizing

WBC elements:
a. Safranin O
b. Phenathridine
c. Carbocyanine
d. Methylene blue

95. What is the clinical significance of a cylindroid?

a. Renal cell carcinoma
b. Tubular bleeding
c. Chronic glomerulonephritis
d. Same significance as casts

96. The principle behind the automation used to count lamellar

bodies is?
a. Fluorescence
b. Compound microscopy
c. Electrical impedance
d. Optical scatter

97. What is the earliest form of sperm cell?

a. Spermatid
b. Spermatozoon
c. Spermatocyte
d. Spermatogonium

98. This is used to properly clean the optical surfaces of the

microscope:
a. Camel hair brush
b. Lens paper
c. Commercial lens cleaner
d. Soap and water
 14

99. First morning urine specimen is appropriate for all of the

following, EXCEPT:
a. Urobilinogen
b. Nitrite
c. Culture
d. Pregnancy testing

100. Positive color reaction in the mucopolysaccharide paper

test:
a. Blue
b. Red
c. Yellow
d. Green

101. How do you report bladder cells?

a. Average number per LPF
b. Average number per HPF
c. Rare, few, moderate or many per LPF
d. Rare, few, moderate or many per HPF

102. Which of the following is NOT a reactant included in a

glucose reagent strip?
a. Potassium iodide
b. Peroxidase
c. Glucose oxidase
d. Gluconic acid

103. The normal value for albumin excretion rate is:

a. 20-200 ug/min
b. 0-20 ug/min
c. >200 ug/min
d. 10-100 ug/min

104. Which of the following tests is least affected by standing

or unpreserved urine?
a. Glucose
b. Protein
c. pH
d. Bilirubin

105. The pH buffer utilized for protein reagent strips is:

a. Ascorbate, pH 3.0
b. Citrate, pH 3.0
c. Carbonate, pH 7.0
d. Citrate, pH 5.0

106. A fire is discovered in laboratory section, and the source

was from flammable metals. Which of the following can be used as
an extinguisher?
a. Pressurized water
b. Halon
c. Dry chemicals
d. Sand
 15

107. NFPA Health Hazard classification: “Deadly”

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

108. The symbol for poisonous chemicals is:

a. Biohazard symbol
b. Syringe with a “no sign”
c. Skull with crossed-bones
d. Flame symbol

109. What change in urine is an indicator of pre-eclampsia?

a. Albuminuria
b. 4+ Glucose
c. Hematuria
d. Positive nitrite

110. The principle of protein reagent strip to produce a visible

colorimetric reaction is:
a. Catalytic reaction between hydrogen peroxide and a
chromogen
b. Polyelectrolyte ionizes, releasing hydrogen ions in
proportion to the number of ions in the solution
c. Double indicator system with 0.5 increments
d. Certain indicators change in color in the presence of
protein because protein accepts hydrogen ions from the
indicator.

111. Which of the following factors will NOT interfere with the
reagent strip test for leukocytes?
a. Ascorbic acid
b. Formaldehyde
c. Urinary protein level of 500 mg/dL
d. Nitrite

112. What is the renal threshold for glucose?

a. 160-180 mg/L
b. 160-180 g/L
c. 160-180 mg/dL
d. 160-180 g/dL

113. Gold standard for glomerular filtration rate:

a. Creatinine clearance
b. Cystatin C clearance
c. Inulin clearance
d. Urea clearance

114. Instrument based on refractive index:

a. Harmonic oscillation densitometer
b. Reflectance photometer
c. Hydrometer
d. Total solids meter
 16

115. Oval fat bodies are often associated with:

a. Nephrotic syndrome
b. Acute glomerulonephritis
c. Chronic renal failure
d. Chronic pyelonephritis

116. Preferred urine sample for pregnancy testing:

a. Random
b. Fasting
c. First morning
d. Midstream clean-catch

117. A physician requested for sperm count using undiluted

semen. Which of the following can be used for counting?
a. Neubauer counting chamber
b. Hemocytometer
c. Makler counting chamber
d. None of these

118. Principle utilized by home-based pregnancy testing kits:

a. Radioimmunoassay
b. Enzyme immunoassay
c. Agglutination
d. Hemagglutination

119. Epithelial cell in urine with eccentric nucleus:

a. Renal tubular
b. Squamous
c. Transitional
d. Urothelial

120. What is the specific gravity of triple distilled water when

measured by refractometer?
a. 1.003
b. 3.000
c. 1.000
d. 1.010

121. Sensitivity of glucose reagent strip:

a. 200 mg/dL
b. 100 mg/dL
c. 100 g/dL
d. 200 g/dL

122. What is the normal stool pH?

a. 5.0 to 6.0
b. 7.0 to 8.0
c. 5.0 to 7.0
d. 4.5 to 8.0
 17

123. A protein level of 100-200 mg/dL is equivalent to a

sulfosalicylic acid test grading of:
a. Trace
b. 1+
c. 2+
d. 3+

124. What type of tube for gastric fluid collection is passed

through the nose?
a. Rehfuss tube
b. Levin tube
c. Diagnex tube
d. None of these

125. For drug testing analysis, the urine temperature within 4

minutes should be between:
a. 35.2 - 37.5OC
b. 32.5 – 35.7OC
c. 35.7 – 37.2OC
d. 32.5 – 37.7OC

126. What technique can be used to differentiate Trichomonas

vaginalis from lookalike sediment constituents?
a. Wet mount
b. Routine permanent staining
c. Pap smear
d. Use of fluorescent antibody reagent

127. The sensitivity of bilirubin reagent strip is:

a. 0.4 to 0.8 mg/dL
b. 0.1 to 0.4 mg/dL
c. 0.2 to 0.4 mg/dL
d. 0.5 to 2.0 mg/dL

128. Which of the following is toxic to the renal tubules?

a. Hemoglobin
b. Myoglobin
c. Bilirubin
d. Porphyrin

129. Centrifuges should be disinfected every:

a. 3 months
b. Week
c. 2 weeks
d. 1 month

130. Effect of refrigeration on glucose reagent strip:

a. False-positive
b. False-negative
c. Variable
d. No effect
 18

131. Abnormalities in the sperm head morphology are associated

with:
a. Poor motility
b. Poor ovum penetration
c. Poor viability
d. None of these

132. Triglycerides level in Pseudochylous effusion in mg/dL.

a. <110
b. <50
c. >110
d. >50

133. The following can be used as WBC diluent in synovial fluid,

EXCEPT:
a. Saline with saponin
b. 3% acetic acid with methylene blue
c. Hypotonic saline
d. NSS with methylene blue

134. A highly viscous synovial fluid may be pretreated with

which of the following prior to cell counting?
a. 1% hydrochloric acid
b. 0.5% hyaluronidase
c. 0.05% hyaluronidase
d. 3% glacial acetic acid

135. Recommended test to differentiate transudates of hepatic

origin from exudates in ascitic fluid:
a. WBC count
b. SAAG
c. Fluid : serum protein & LD ratios
d. Rivalta’s test

136. Birefringence of CPPD crystal when the slow light is

aligned with its long axis:
a. Red
b. Blue
c. Yellow
d. Green

137. A healthy joint should have a blood-synovial glucose

difference of:
a. <20 mg/dL
b. <10 mg/dL
c. 0 mg/dL
d. <15 mg/dL

138. Significance of green peritoneal fluid:

a. Lymphatic trauma
b. Gall bladder disorder
c. Microbial infection
d. None of these
 19

139. These are pieces of pigmented cartilage with a

characteristic ground pepper appearance:
a. Rice bodies
b. Psammoma bodies
c. Ochronotic shards
d. None of these

140. Type of effusion in empyema:

a. Pleural exudate
b. Pericardial transudate
c. Peritoneal exudate
d. Pleural transudate

141. Neutrophilic pleocytosis in pleural fluid is caused by

which of the following?
a. Hemothorax
b. Pancreatitis
c. Tuberculosis
d. None of these

142. What is the expected amniotic fluid volume during the 3rd
trimester of normal pregnancy?
a. 600 mL
b. 1000 mL
c. 1500 mL
d. 2000 mL

143. Zone in the Liley graph that indicates moderate hemolysis

and requires careful monitoring:
a. Zone IV
b. Zone I
c. Zone II
d. Zone III

144. Alpha-fetoprotein in amniotic fluid is produced by the:

a. Fetal kidney
b. Maternal liver
c. Fetal liver
d. Maternal kidney

145. Prior to performing lamellar body count, what specimen

preparation is done first?
a. Incubate the sample at 37OC for 10 minutes
b. Centrifuge the sample at 2000 g for 10 minutes
c. Add 3% acetic acid to lyse fetal red cells
d. No preparation is required

146. Down syndrome is also known as:

a. Trisomy 13
b. XXY syndrome
c. Trisomy 18
d. Trisomy 21
 20

147. Major contributor to the amniotic fluid volume after the

first trimester of pregnancy:
a. Lung fluid
b. Fetal urine
c. Maternal urine
d. All of the above

148. The positive cut-off point for pregnancy is:

a. 25 mIU/mL
b. 50 mIU/mL
c. 25 U/mL
d. 50 U/mL

149. What anticoagulant can be used for serous fluids submitted

for chemistry tests?
a. EDTA
b. Citrate
c. Heparin
d. SPS

150. Lack of urine odor is seen in patients with:

a. Renal tubular necrosis
b. PKU
c. Nocturia
d. Tyrosinemia

END OF CLINICAL MICROSCOPY INTENSIVE RECAP

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