1.

If the intake valve is opened too early in the cycle of A- 25 degrees increase the pressure to its maximum value inside the
operation of a four-stroke cycle engine, it may result B- 20 degrees engine.
in C- 30 degrees
D- 15 degress A - converging-diverging
A – improper scavenging of exhaust gases. B – diverging – converging
B - engine kickback. 6. Among the given data, which are not causing C - Converging only
C - backfiring into the induction system. detonation? D - Diverging only
D - improper ignition after compression. a. Using a fuel grade lower than recommended
and allowing the engine to overheat. 10. In a typical multiple can combustion chamber, how
2. Full-floating piston pins are those which allow b. Wrong ignition timing many is usual number or igniters if it has 8 cans?
movement between the pin and c. Sharp bends on induction system
d. Heavy engine load at low rpm A - Same as the total number of cans
A - the piston. e. Fuel air mixture to lean B - Half of the total number of cans
B - both the piston and the large end of the f. Incomplete scavenging C – Three-fourths the total number of cans
connecting rod. g. Compression ratios of 12:1 or higher D - One-fourths the total number of cans
C - both the piston and the small end of the
connecting rod. A- B and D 11. The turbine blade design in such way that it allows the
D - the connecting rod. B- E and G distribution of the workload throughout the length of
C- C and F the blade.
3. In engine identification GTSIR 450-L, what is the type D- A and E
of engine? A- Impulse-reaction
7. During overhaul, the disassembled parts of an B- Impulse
A- In-line engine engine are usually degreased with some form of C- Reaction
B- Opposed engine mineral spirits solvents rather than water-mixed D- No reaction
C- Radial engine degreasers primarily because
D- V-type engine 12. Which one is not a function of a thrust reverser?
A – solvent degreasers are much more effective.
4. Its primary purpose is to allow fuel/air charge to enter B – water-mixed degreaser residues may cause a. Aid in breaking and directional control during
the cylinder as early as possible to increase engine engine oil contamination in the engine. normal landing, and reduce brake
efficiency and aid in cylinder cooling. C – water-mixed degreaser cause corrosion. maintenance.
D – solvent degreaser are expensive. b. Provide breaking and directional control during
A - Valve lead emergency landings and balked takeoffs.
B - Valve lag 8. Which one among the following blade have the c. Back an aircraft out of a parking spot in a “power
C - Valve overlap highest aspect ratio? back” operation.
D - Valve seat d. Allows the aircraft to make steep turn a high
5. Given the following data on valve position: A- A long blade with a narrow chord flight speeds.
100 BTDC – intake valve opens B- A short blade with a wide chord
500 BBDC – intake valve closes C- A long blade with a long chord A – a only
250 BTDC – Ignition occurs D- A short blade with a short chord B – b only
550 BBDC – exhuast valve opens C – c only
150 ATDC – exhaust valve closes 9. A diffuser design in such a way that it slows down the D – d only
How long is the valve overlap? compressor discharge while at the same time
13. In a typical gas turbine engine, which part is exposed C – Trend Analysis 22. A helicopter rotor whose blades are attached to a hub
to the highest operating temperature? D – Spectrometric Oil Analysis Program in such a way that they are free to flap, drag and
feather.
A – Combustion chamber 18. A type of system wherein the hydromechanical fuel
B – Exhaust section control unit controls most engine operations including A – Rigid rotor system
C – Turbine inlet starting, idle, acceleration, deceleration, and B – Semi-rigid rotor system
D – Turbine discharge touchdown. C – Fully articulated rotor system
D – Rotor mast system
A – Fuel Control Unit (FCU)
B – Supervisory Electronic Engine Control (EEC) 23. In the relationship between manifold pressure, rpm,
14. If a severe centrifugal load imposed by high operating C – Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC) collective, and throttle, if the manifold pressure is
speed is combined with elevated temperature in the D – Engine Indicating and Crew Alerting System LOW and the rpm is HIGH the solution will be.
turbine it will eventually may result on blades that (EICAS)
grow in length. This type of engine damage is called? A – lower the collective pitch
19. A type of force that occurs as air resistance opposes B – decrease manifold pressure
A – Burnishing the rotational motion of the propeller’s blades. This C – increase the throttle
B – Creep force tends to bend the blades opposite the direction D – increase manifold pressure and rpm
C – Erosion of rotation.
D – Galling 24. Calculate the indicated horsepower for a four-
A – Thrust bending force cylinder engine that has a bore of five inches, and is
15. What most likely to happen in a engine that start B – Torque bending force turning at 2,750 rpm with a measured IMEP of 500 psi
normal, EGT within limits but engine fails to C – Aerodynamic twisting force for all cylinders. Assume square engine.
accelerate in reach the idle rpm? D – Centrifugal force
A – 175.11
A – Hot start 20. A type of constant speed propeller that has the ability
B – Hung start to rotate the propeller blade so that the leading edge B – 180.12
C – False start of each blade is pointed straight forward into the wind. C – 170.13
D – Fail start
A - Featherable propeller D – 169.14
16. In the event of engine fire, what is most commonly B - Constant-speed propeller
use fire extinguisher? C - Controllable propeller
D - Reversible propeller 25. Determine the pressure at the end of compression
A – Helium inside the cylinder (assume air standard & isentropic
B – Argon 21. Change in blade design, hub design, and governor or process) if the initial pressure and temperature is 15
C – Carbon dioxide control design are all example of? psi and 600F respectively. At the end of compression
D – Carbon monoxide the temperature is 4600F.
A – Minor repair
17. This are normally performed after an engine of fuel B – Major Repair A – 115.36 psi
control unit is changed or whenever an engine does C – Minor alteration B – 113.23 psi
not produce its maximum thrust. D – Major alteration C – 109.45 psi
D – 110.49 psi
A – Trimming
B – EGT and Tachometer check
1 The fan rotational speed of a dual axial compressor forward
fan engine is the same as the
a) low-pressure compressor.
b) forward turbine wheel.
c) high-pressure compressor.
2 The turbine section of a jet engine
a) increases air velocity for propulsion.
b) circulates air to cool the engine.
c) drives the compressor section.
3 Using standard atmospheric conditions, the standard sea
level temperature is
a) 59 degrees F.
b) 59 degrees C.
c) 29 degrees C.
4 A gas turbine engine comprises which three main sections?
a) Compressor, diffuser, and stator.
b) Turbine, combustion, and stator.
c) Turbine, compressor, and combustion.
5 An advantage of the centrifugal-flow compressor is its high
a) pressure rise per stage.
b) ram efficiency.
c) peak efficiency.
6 Which of the following engine variables is the most critical
during turbine engine operation?
a) Compressor inlet air temperature. a) Can.
b) Compressor RPM. b) Can annular.
7 When an engine with a subsonic divergent type inlet duct is c) Annular.
running in place at high speed on
12 What term is used to describe a permanent and cumulative
the ground, the air pressure within the inlet is deformation of the turbine blades
a) positive. of a turbojet engine?
b) negative. a) Stretch.
c) ambient. b) Distortion.
8 The stator vanes in an axial-flow compressor c) Creep.
a) convert velocity energy into pressure energy. 13 What is the profile of a turbine engine compressor blade?
b) convert pressure energy into velocity energy. a) The leading edge of the blade.
c) direct air into the first stage rotor vanes at the proper angle. b) A cutout that reduces blade tip thickness.
9 The two types of centrifugal compressor impellers are c) The curvature of the blade root.
a) single entry and double entry. 14 Turbine blades are generally more susceptible to operating
damage than compressor blades
b) rotor and stator.
because of
c) impeller and diffuser.
a) higher centrifugal loading.
10 What are the two functional elements in a centrifugal
compressor? b) exposure to high temperatures.
a) Turbine and compressor. c) high pressure and high velocity gas flow.
b) Bucket and expander. 15 The diffuser section of a jet engine is located between
c) Impeller and diffuser. a) the burner section and the turbine section.
11 In which type of turbine engine combustion chamber is the b) station No. 7 and station No. 8.
case and liner removed and
c) the compressor section and the burner section.
installed as one unit during routine maintenance?
16 What is one purpose of the diffuser section in a turbine
engine?
a) To increase pressure and reduce velocity.
b) To convert pressure to velocity.
c) To reduce pressure and increase velocity.
17 The rearward thrust capability of an engine with the thrust
reverser system deployed is
a) less than its forward capability.
b) equal to or less than its forward capability, depending on
ambient conditions and system design.
c) equal to its forward capability.
18 Why is high nickel chromium steel used in many exhaust
systems?
a) High heat conductivity and flexibility.
b) Corrosion resistance and low expansion coefficient.
c) Corrosion resistance and high heat conductivity.
19 Engines using cold stream, or both cold and hot stream
reversing include
a) high bypass turbofans.
b) turbojets.
c) turbojets with afterburner.
20 What can be done to eliminate or minimize the microbial
growth problem in an aircraft jet fuel
tank?
a) USE anti-icing and antibacterial additives.
b) Add CO2 as a purgative.
c) Keep the fuel tank topped off.
21 The recommended aircraft engine lubricants are
a) mineral or synthetic based.
b) vegetable, mineral, or synthetic based.
c) animal, mineral, or synthetic based.
22 Which of the following factors helps determine the proper
grade of oil to use in a particular
engine?
a) Adequate lubrication in various attitudes of flight.
b) Positive introduction of oil to the bearings.
c) Operating speeds of bearings.
23 What determines the minimum particle size which will be
excluded or filtered by a cuno-type
(stacked disc, edge filtration) filter?
a) The disc thickness.
b) The spacer thickness.
c) Both the number and thickness of the discs in the assembly.
24 A turbine engine dry sump lubrication system of the self-
contained, high-pressure design
a) has no heat exchanger.
b) consists of pressure, breather, and scavenge sub-system.
c) stores oil in the engine crankcase.
25 The main oil filters strain the oil at which point in the system?
a) Immediately after it leaves the scavenger pump.
b) Immediately before it enters the pressure pump.
c) Just as it leaves the pressure pump.
26 What is the primary purpose of the oil breather
pressurization system that is used on turbine
engines?
a) Prevents foaming of the oil.
b) Allows aeration of the oil for better lubrication because of the
air/oil mist.
c) Provides a proper oil spray pattern from the main bearing oil
jets.
27 When trimming a turbine engine, the fuel control is adjusted
to
a) produce as much power as the engine is capable of
producing.
b) set idle RPM and maximum speed or EPR.
c) allow the engine to produce maximum RPM without regard to
power output.
28 What causes the fuel divider valve to open in a turbine
engine duplex fuel nozzle?
a) Fuel pressure.
b) Bleed air after the engine reaches idle RPM.
c) An electrically operated solenoid.
29 Which of the following turbine fuel filters has the greatest
filtering action?
a) Micron.
b) Small wire mesh. 34 Which statement is true regarding the air passing through b) the starter will overspeed at a given N2.
the combustion section of a jet
c) Stacked charcoal. c) the starter oil will be blown over board.
engine?
30 What is the purpose of the flow divider in a turbine engine 38 Great caution should be exercised in handling damaged
duplex fuel nozzle? a) Most is used for engine cooling. hermetically sealed turbine engine

a) Allows an alternate flow of fuel if the primary flow clogs or is b) Most is used for support combustion. igniter transformer units because
restricted.
c) A small percentage is frequently bleed off at this point to be a) compounds in the unit may because a fire or explosion
b) Creates the primary and secondary fuel supply. used for air-conditioning and/or other hazard when exposed to the air.

c) Provides a flow path for bleed air which aids in the pneumatic powered systems. b) some contain radioactive material.
atomization of fuel.
35 A safety feature usually employed in pneumatic starters that c) some contain toxic chemicals.
31 Anti-icing of jet engine air inlets is commonly accomplished is used if the clutch does not
by 39 Generally, when removing a turbine engine igniter plug, in
release from the engine drive at the proper time during start is order to eliminate the possibility of
a) electrical heating elements inside the inlet guide vanes. the
the technician receiving a lethal shock, the ignition switch is
b) engine bleed air ducted through the critical areas. a) flyweight cutout switch. turned off and

c) electrical heating elements located within the engine air inlet b) spring coupling release. a) disconnected from the power supply circuit.
cowling.
c) drive shaft shear point. b) the igniter lead is disconnected from the plug and the center
32 What indications may shift when a gas turbine engine anti- electrode grounded to the engine after
icing (bleed air) system is turned 36 Why do turbine engine ignition systems require high energy?
disconnecting the transformer-exciter input lead and waiting the
on? a) To ignite the fuel under conditions of high altitude and high prescribed time.
temperatures.
(1) Fuel flow; (2) EGT; (3) EPR c) the transformer-exciter input lead is disconnected and the
b) Because the applied voltage is much greater. center electrode grounded to the engine
a) 1 and 2 b) 1, 2 and 3 c) 2 and 3
c) To ignite the fuel under conditions of high altitude and low after disconnecting the igniter lead from the plug and waiting
33 In an axial-flow turbine engine, compressor bleed air is temperatures. the prescribed time.
sometimes used to aid in cooling the
37 In the event a pneumatic start valve will not operate and the 40 The engine pressure ratio (EPR) indicator is a direct
a) fuel. manual override must be used, indication of

b) inlet guide vanes. the starter T handle must be closed at scheduled starter drop a) engine thrust being produced.
out because
c) turbine, vanes, blades, and bearings. b) pressure ratio between the front and aft end of the
a) the starter will overheat. compressor.
c) ratio of engine RPM to compressor pressure.
41 Engine pressure ratio is determined by
a) multiplying engine inlet total pressure by turbine outlet total
pressure.
b) dividing turbine outlet total pressure by engine inlet total
pressure.
c) dividing engine inlet total pressure by turbine outlet total
pressure.
42 The fuel-flow indication data sent from motor driven impeller
and turbine, and motorless type
fuel flow transmitters is a measure of
a) fuel mass-flow.
b) fuel volume-flow.
c) engine burner pressure drop.
43 What instrument indicates the thrust of a gas turbine
engine?
a) Exhaust gas temperature indicator.
b) Turbine inlet temperature indicator.
c) Engine pressure ratio indicator.
44 In what units are turbine engine tachometers calibrated?
a) Percent of engine RPM.
b) Actual engine RPM.
c) Percent of engine pressure ratio.
45 Which statement concerning a turbo-prop engine is correct?
a) A turbo-prop engine has always a N1 and a N2 compressor.
b) A turbo-prop engine includes always a reduction gearbox.
c) On a turbo-prop engine propeller shaft the staft runs with the
same speed as the turbine.
46 Which statement concerning a turbo-shaft engine is correct?
a) A turbo-shaft engine has always a N1 and a N2 compressor.
b) A turbo-shaft engine includes always a reduction gearbox.
c) A turboshaft engine provides the engine power on the shaft
which is generated by the turbine.
47 The function of an APU air inlet plenum is to
a) increase the velocity of the air before entering the
compressor.
b) decrease the pressure of the air before entering the
compressor.
c) stabilize the pressure of the air before it enters the
compressor.
48 When necessary, APU engine cooling before shutdown may
be accomplished by
a) unloading the generator(s).
b) closing the bleed air valve.
c) opening the bleed air valve.
49 An APU is usually rotated during start by
a) a turbine impingement system.
b) a pneumatic starter.
c) an electric starter.
50 Frequently, an aircraft Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) generator
a) is identical to the engine driven generator.
b) supplements the engine driven generator during peak loads.
c) has a higher load capacity than the engine driven generator.
51 In order to stabilize cams, springs, and linkages within the
fuel control, manufacturers
generally recommend that all final turbine engine trim
adjustments be made in the
a) increase direction.
b) decrease direction.
c) decrease direction after over-adjustment.
52 What is the principle of operation of the continuous-loop fire
detector system sensor?
a) Fuse material which melts at high temperatures.
b) Core resistance material which prevents current flow at
normal temperatures.
c) A bimetallic thermoswitch which closes when heated to a
high temperature.
53 The fire detection system that uses a single wire surrounded
by a continuous string of
ceramic beads in a tube is the
a) Fenwal system.
b) Kidde system.
c) thermocouple system.
54 Which of the following fire detection systems uses heat in
the normal testing of the system?
a) The thermocouple system and the Lindberg system.
b) The Kidde system and the Fenwal system.
c) The thermocouple system and the Fenwal system.
55 Two continuous-loop fire detection systems that will not test
due to broken detector element
are the
a) Kidde system and the Lindberg system.
b) Kidde system and the Fenwal system.
c) thermocouple system and the Lindberg system.
56 Who establishes mandatory replacement times for critical
components of turbine engines?
a) The FAA.
b) The operator working in conjunction with the FAA.
c) The engine manufacturer.
57 Compressor field cleaning on turbine engines is performed
primarily in order to
a) prevent engine oil contamination and subsequent engine
bearing wear or damage.
b) facilitate flight line inspection of engine inlet and compressor
areas for defects or FOD.
c) prevent engine performance degradation, increased fuel
costs, and damage or corrosion to gas path
surfaces.
58 What publication contains the mandatory replacement time
for parts of a turbine engine?
a) Engine Manufacturer's service instructions.
b) Engine Manufacturer's maintenance manual.
c) Airworthiness directive issued by the engine manufacturer. 2. Select the correct order of best propulsive efficiency, from
low to high airspeed
59 Each powerplant installed on an airplane with a Standard
Airworthiness Certificate must have a. High by-pass ratio turbo jet, Low by-pass ratio turbo jet, Pure
turbo jet, Turbo-prop.
been
b. Low by-pass ratio turbo jet, Pure turbo jet, Turbo-prop, High
a) type certificated. by-pass ratio turbo jet.
b) manufactured under the TSO system. c. Pure turbo jet, Turbo-prop, High by-pass ratio turbo jet, Low
by-pass ratio turbo jet.
c) originally certificated for that aircraft.
d. Turbo-prop, High by-pass ratio turbo jet, Low by-pass ratio
60 The recurrent ingestion of dust or other fine airborne turbo jet, Pure turbo jet.
particulates into a turbine engine can
3. The highest pressure in a gas turbine engine occurs:
result in
a. Between the compressor and the combustion chamber.
a) foreign object damage to the compressor section.
b. In the combustion chamber.
b) the need for less frequent abrasive grit cleaning of the
engine. c. In the jet pipe.
c) erosion damage to the compressor and turbine sections d. At the P1 probe.
4. In a turbo-fan engine, the fan speed is controlled by:
a. A reduction gear.
QUESTIONS b. A waste gate.
1. When gases pass through a convergent duct their: c. The turbine.
a. Velocity and temperature increase and their pressure d. Varying the pitch.
decreases.
5. In a high ratio by-pass engine:
b. Their velocity increases and their temperature and pressure
decrease. a. All of the air goes through both the low and high pressure
compressors.
c. Their velocity decreases and their temperature and pressure
increase. b. Not all the air goes through the high pressure compressor.
d. They expand adiabatically. c. Not all the air goes through the low pressure compressor.
d. All the air goes through the high pressure compressor. 9. The By-Pass Ratio of an engine is the ratio of: 13. In a twin spool engine:

6. Modular construction: a. Primary air to tertiary air. a. The L.P. compressor is connected to the H.P. compressor.

a. Is only used on turbo-prop engines. b. Cold stream air to that flowing through the hot core of the b. The H.P. turbine is connected to the L.P. compressor, the
engine. L.P. turbine is connected to the
b. Cannot be used on high ratio engines.
c. Exhaust gas pressure to air intake pressure. H.P. compressor.
c. Has a weight saving function.
d. Primary air to secondary air. c. The L.P. turbine is connected to the L.P. compressor, the
d. Enables malfunctioning sections of the engine to be changed H.P. turbine is connected to the
without changing the 10. The Gas Turbine Engine uses the principle of:
H.P. compressor.
whole engine. a. Newton’s Third Law of motion.
d. The H.P. turbine is connected to the L.P. turbine, the H.P.
7. Gas turbine engine efficiency increases with: b. Creating thrust equal to the weight of the aircraft. compressor is connected to the

a. An increase in volumetric efficiency. c. Expelling air at the same speed as that of the aircraft. L.P. compressor.

b. An increase in ambient temperature. d. The fluid flywheel. 14. A By-Pass Ratio of 5:1 means that:

c. A decrease in ambient temperature.
d. A decrease in ambient air pressure.
222
11. The addition of heat in a combustion chamber allows a:
a. Large expansion at a substantially constant pressure.
b. Large expansion at a constant volume.
a. 5 pounds of air is by-passed for every 10 pounds entering the
engine intake.
b. 5 pounds of goes through the H.P. compressor for every 10
pounds that enters the

Gas Turbine Engines c. Large expansion at a decreasing static pressure. intake.

Introduction Chapter 13 d. Minimum expansion at a constant volume. c. 10 pounds of air goes through the by-pass for every 5
pounds that enters the intake.
8. On a cold day, the idle speed of a gas turbine engine which 12. In a divergent duct:
has no fuel control unit d. 5 pounds of air is by-passed for every 1 pound that goes
a. The pressure decreases and the temperature and velocity through the hot core of the
compensation: increases.
engine.
a. Is unaffected by temperature. b. The pressure, velocity and temperature increases.
223
b. Will increase. c. The pressure temperature increases and the velocity
decreases. Chapter 13 Gas Turbine Engines
c. Will decrease.
d. The pressure decreases, the temperature increases and the Introduction
d. Will increase by no more than 4%. velocity remains constant.
15. Aft of the compressor:
a. The velocity of the airflow remains the same.
b. The velocity of the airflow decreases before the combustion
chamber.
c. The velocity increases before the combustion chamber.
d. The air pressure decreases before the combustion chamber.
16. The fan in a ducted fan engine, is driven by:
a. The high pressure turbine.
b. The rearmost turbine.
c. The intermediate pressure turbine.
d. All of the above.
17. In a by-pass engine, the by-pass air:
a. Increases the air mass flow and therefore increases the
propulsive efficiency.
b. Cools the combustion chamber and therefore increases the
thermal efficiency.
c. Reduces the air mass flow and therefore increases the
propulsive efficiency.
d. Increases the air mass flow and therefore reduces the
propulsive efficiency.
18. The majority of the thrust of a:
a. Turbo-fan engine comes from the turbine exhaust.
b. Turbo-prop engine comes from the turbine exhaust.
c. Turbo-shaft engine comes from the free power turbine
exhaust.
d. Turbo-fan engine comes from the by-pass air.
19. A Pure Turbo-Jet engine gives: to ________ and achieves a ________
a. A small acceleration to a large mass of air. a. convergent before speeds up subsonic pressure rise
b. A large acceleration to a large mass of air. b. divergent after slows down subsonic pressure rise
c. A small acceleration to a small mass of air. c. divergent before speeds up sonic pressure drop
d. A large acceleration to a small mass of air. d. divergent, before slows down, subsonic, pressure rise
20. During the Brayton cycle, combustion takes place: 3. What effect will severe icing in the intake have on a high by-
pass engine?
a. Continuously.
a. The axial velocity of the air will increase with a reduction in
b. Once every revolution. the angle of aĴack of the
c. Once every other revolution. airflow with the compressor blades and a possible stall.
d. Only during the start cycle. b. The axial velocity of the air will decrease with a reduction in
the angle of aĴack of the
231
airflow with the compressor blades and a possible stall.
Chapter 14 Gas Turbine Engines
c. The axial velocity of the air will decrease with an increase in
Air Inlets the angle that the resultant
QUESTIONS airflow forms with the compressor blades chord line and a
possible stall.
1. In a high by-pass engine with a ‘pitot’ intake, with the engine
running and the brakes on, what d. The axial velocity of the air will increase with an increase in
the angle of aĴack of the
will P1 be in relation to P0?
airflow with the compressor blades and a possible stall.
a. Same
4. Which of the following would be classed as prudent when
b. Greater carrying out Engine Ground Runs?
c. Less a. Only carry out engine runs with a tail wind
d. 14.7psi b. Fit debris guards when running
2. A pitot intake forms a ____________ duct______ the fan to c. Only do ground runs on Tarmac
ensure that the airflow ______
d. Only do ground runs on concrete
5. With an ‘S’ type intake, if the pilot selects max RPM while
standing still, there is a strong
possibility that:
a. The angle, which the relative airflow forms with the
compressor blades, will become
too small, which will cause the engine to stall and surge.
b. The angle, which the relative airflow forms with the
compressor blades, will become
too small, which will cause the engine to surge then stall.
c. The angle which the relative airflow forms with the
compressor blades will become too
large, which will cause the engine to stall and surge.
d. The angle, which the relative airflow forms with the
compressor blades, will become
too large, which will cause the engine to surge then stall.
6. Secondary air inlet doors are utilised:
a. When an aircraft is in the cruise
b. When the aircraft is near its maximum IAS.
c. When the rpm of the engine is low while stationary.
d. When the rpm of the engine is high when stationary.
232
Gas Turbine Engines
Air Inlets Chapter 14
7. What is the purpose of the supersonic diffuser in the variable
throat intake?
a. Final reduction in velocity prior to compressor face.
b. Interim reduction in velocity to below Mach 1 prior to a further
reduction in the subsonic
diffuser.
c. Interim reduction in velocity to below Mach .5 prior to a
further reduction in the
subsonic diffuser.
d. Increase in velocity prior to compressor face.
8. The purpose of an air inlet is to provide a relatively ________
supply of air to the ________ of
the ________ compressor.
a. turbulent free face low pressure
b. turbulent face low pressure
c. turbulent free rear low pressure
d. turbulent free face high pressure
9. In a pitot intake the term ‘Ram Pressure Recovery’ refers to
the time when:
a. EPR has aĴained the take off seĴing.
b. The HP Compressor has reached its maximum.
c. The EPR has recovered to its optimum figure.
d. Intake pressure has been re-established to ambient
pressure.
10. The effect on EPR with an iced up P1 probe with the RPM
of the engine increasing
a. EPR would decrease.
b. No change.
c. EPR would momentarily decrease then increase.
d. EPR would increase.
252
Gas Turbine Engines
Compressors Chapter 15
QUESTIONS
1. The pressure ratio of a gas turbine engine compressor is:
a. Equal to the number of compression stages.
b. The ratio between compressor outlet and compressor inlet
pressure.
c. The ratio between exhaust inlet and exhaust outlet pressure.
d. Never greater than 5 to 1.
2. The compressor idling speed of a gas turbine engine will
increase:
a. At higher ambient temperature.
b. With higher than sea level density.
c. At altitudes lower than sea level.
d. At lower ambient temperature.
3. One stage of an axial flow compressor consists of:
a. One rotor assembly and one row of stator vanes.
b. One stator assembly and one row of guide vanes.
c. One rotor and one impeller assembly.
d. One impeller and one diffuser assembly. c. To open the throĴle fully. d. Allows slight movement because of the different expansion
rates of the blades and the
4. The pressure rise across each stage of an axial flow d. To close the LP fuel valve.
compressor is: disc, which would otherwise cause center line closure.
253
a. Greater than that of a centrifugal compressor. 11. Compressor blades are designed to produce:
Chapter 15 Gas Turbine Engines
b. Between 3 and 5 to one. a. A given pressure and velocity rise.
Compressors
c. Twice the inlet pressure. b. A constant flow over the engine speed range.
8. Shrouding of stator blade tips is designed to:
d. Between 1.1 and 1.2 to one. c. A steady velocity with a pressure rise over the engine speed
a. Prevent tip turbulence. range.
5. The ring of blades which sometimes precede the first rotor
stage of an axial flow compressor are b. Ensure adequate cooling. d. Turbulent flow into the combustion chamber.

called: c. Minimise vibration. 12. A compressor blade will stall when:

a. The first stage stator blades. d. Prevent tip losses. a. The air axial velocity and rotational speed relationship is
disturbed.
b. The inlet guides vanes. 9. The cross sectional area of the air annulus is reduced as it
approaches the combustion b. The mass air flow and speed relationship is constant.
c. First stage diffuser blades.
chamber: c. The speed of the gas flow through the turbine falls below 0.4
d. Nozzle guide vanes. Mach.
a. To maintain the volume of the air under rising pressure.
6. As air passes through an axial flow compressor, a pressure d. The compression ratio exceeds 10 to 1.
rise takes place in: b. To prevent an increase of the velocity of the air under rising
pressure. 13. Compressor surge will occur when:
a. The impeller and the diffuser.
c. To maintain the speed of the air entering the engine. a. All stages are at maximum efficiency.
b. The rotor blades only.
d. To allow longer blades to be used in the laĴer stages of the b. All stages are at maximum RPM.
c. Both the rotor blades and the stator vanes. compressor.
c. There is a partial breakdown of airflow through the
d. The stator vanes only. 10. The aĴachment of blades to the compressor disc: compressor.

7. In the event of a surge occurring the correct action to be a. Allows slight movement to relieve stress concentration. d. All stages have stalled.
taken is:
b. Is rigid. 14. Cascade vanes are fiĴed in which part of the centrifugal
a. To close the throĴle quickly. compressor?
c. Prevents them being contaminated by the atmosphere.
b. To close the throĴle slowly. a. The air inlet
b. The outlet elbow 18. The major disadvantage of a centrifugal compressor is that: 22. An advantage of a centrifugal compressor is that it is:

c. The impeller a. It cannot cope with a large mass flow of air. a. Dynamically balanced.

d. The diffuser b. It cannot be used for a turbo jet engine. b. More robust and is easier to develop and manufacture.

254 c. A larger turbine must be used. c. Unaffected by turbulence.

Gas Turbine Engines d. It is more prone to damage than the axial flow compressor d. Able to handle a larger mass of air than an axial flow
compressor.
Compressors Chapter 15 19. The purpose of cascade vanes is to:
255
15. The purpose of the diffuser vanes in a centrifugal a. Increase the velocity of the airflow prior to it entering the
compressor is to: combustion chambers. Chapter 15 Gas Turbine Engines

a. Increase the charge temperature. b. Turn the air smoothly through 90 degrees and complete Compressors
diffusion.
b. Convert pressure energy into kinetic energy. 23. A compressor stall causes:
c. Remove swirl from the airflow.
c. Increase the air velocity. a. The vibration level to increase with a decrease in the turbine
d. Swirl the air, ready for the next compression stage. gas temperature.
d. Convert kinetic energy into pressure energy.
20. The type of compressor used to create radial airflow would b. An increase in the turbine gas temperature and the vibration
16. The pressure rise across a centrifugal compressor: be: level.

a. Occurs in the impeller only. a. Positive displacement. c. The rotation of the engine to stop suddenly.

b. Occurs in the diffuser only. b. Axial. d. The airflow through the engine to stop suddenly.

c. Is shared almost equally by the impeller and the diffuser. c. Centrifugal. 24. Air passing through a convergent duct experiences:

d. Is always greater in the diffuser than in the impeller. d. Constant volume. a. A decrease in temperature and pressure with an increase in
velocity.
17. To gain a greater pressure ratio than 4:1: 21. Under ideal conditions the pressure rise across a centrifugal
compressor can be: b. An increase in temperature and velocity with a decrease in
a. Two centrifugal compressors can be placed in parallel. pressure.
a. 1.1 or 1.2 to 1.
b. The compressor diameter must be reduced. c. An increase in temperature and pressure with a velocity
b. Not more than 4 to 1. decrease.
c. The cascade vanes must be convergent.
c. 1.5 to 1. d. Adiabatic expansion.
d. Two centrifugal compressors can be placed in series with
each other. d. 30 to 1. 25. Fuel is regulated on rapid engine acceleration:
a. To prevent detonation in the combustion chambers. d. Cascade vanes. b. An inability to achieve full power.

b. Because the rapid response of the compressor might cause
a flame out.
c. Because the cooling effect of too much fuel would cause a
drop in pressure in the
29. Bleed valves are automatically opened: c. That bleed air is reduced.
a. At maximum R.P.M. to prevent compressor stall. d. That the engine will stop.
b. At low R.P.M. to prevent the turbine stalling. 33. Within the compressor:

combustion chamber. c. During engine acceleration to prevent turbine surge. a. Bleed valves are set to open at high R.P.M.

d. To prevent inducing a compressor stall and surge. d. At low engine R.P.M to prevent the compressor stalling. b. Pressure decreases.

26. A compressor stall: 256 c. Temperature decreases.

a. Is overcome by increasing the fuel flow. Gas Turbine Engines d. Temperature increases.

b. Is a complete breakdown of the airflow through the Compressors Chapter 15 34. Bleeding compressor air for anti-icing will cause:
compressor.
30. To prevent compressor stall at the rear of the compressor, a. An increase in T.G.T., a decrease in thrust and an increase
c. May only affect one stage or several stages of a compressor. bleed valves must be positioned: in S.F.C.

d. Is mechanical failure of the compressor. a. At the rear stages of the compressor. b. A decrease in T.G.T., an increase in thrust and a decrease in
S.F.C.
27. Compressor blades increase in size: b. At the front stages of the compressor.
c. An increase in R.P.M. and fuel flow.
a. From the root to the tip to increase the temperature. c. At the mid stages of the compressor.
d. An increase in R.P.M. and a decrease in fuel flow.
b. From the high pressure section of the compressor to the low- d. At the intake of the engine.
pressure section. 35. Variable inlet guide vanes:
31. A complete breakdown of airflow through a compressor is
c. From the low-pressure section of the compressor to the high- known as: a. Deflect air past the compressor.
pressure section to
a. Compressor turbulence. b. Prevent compressor stall.
maintain a constant airflow velocity.
b. Compressor buffet. c. Deflect air past the turbine.
d. From the tip to the root to decrease the temperature.
c. Compressor surge. d. Induce air into a centrifugal compressor.
28. The occurrence of compressor stalls is limited by:
d. Compressor seizure. 36. Compressor blades are twisted from root to tip:
a. Bleed valves.
32. One indication that a compressor bleed valve has stuck a. To decrease the pressure.
b. Nozzle guide vanes. closed at low R.P.M. is:
b. To maintain a correct angle of aĴack.
c. Swirl vanes. a. Possible compressor stall.
c. To reduce the relative airflow.
d. To give added rigidity to the blade structure.
37. In a compressor:
a. The air temperature is steady with a pressure rise.
b. The air temperature falls with a pressure rise.
c. The drop in air temperature is inversely proportional to the
pressure rise.
d. Can be reduced by periodically flying through thunderstorms. 3. Of the total airflow entering the combustion chamber the
percentage that is mixed with the fuel
40. The low pressure compressor of a high ratio by-pass
engine: and burnt is:
a. Is driven by the high pressure turbine. a. 10%
b. Rotates faster than the high-pressure compressor. b. 40%
c. Is always a centrifugal compressor. c. 20%
d. Is driven by the rearmost turbine. d. 60%

d. The air temperature rises with a pressure rise. 274 4. The combustion chamber drain valve is closed:

257 Gas Turbine Engines a. By combustion chamber gas pressure.

Chapter 15 Gas Turbine Engines Combustion Chambers Chapter 16 b. By a return spring.

Compressors QUESTIONS c. By 12th stage compressor air pressure.

38. A stall in a gas turbine engine is most likely to occur with: 1. The ratio of air to kerosene to give the greatest heat release d. During a blow out cycle.
during combustion is:
Pressure Ratio Location in Compressor 5. A cannular combustion system is:
a. 45 : 1.
a. High Front a. A set of flame tubes, each of which is mounted in a separate
b. 130 : 1. air casing.
b. High Back
c. 12.5 : 1. b. A set of flame tubes enclosed in a common air casing.
c. Low Back
d. 15 : 1. c. One common flame tube enclosed in a common air casing.
d. Low Front
2. One advantage of an annular combustion chamber system is d. Superior to the annular system because it only requires one
39. Contamination of the compressor: that: igniter.

a. Is not likely to prove a problem if the aircraft is not flown at
low level over the sea.
b. Will not decrease the performance of the engine if the fuel
sulphur content does not
a. The diameter of the engine is reduced. 6. It is necessary to have a combustion drain system:
b. There is unrestricted airflow at maximum r.p.m. a. To prevent pressure build up in the combustion chamber.
c. There are no flame propagation problems. b. To allow moisture content in the fuel to drain away.

exceed .001%. d. The air casing area is greater. c. To allow any unburnt fuel to drain after shut down or a wet
start.
c. Can seriously reduce the efficiency of the engine.
d. To prevent the igniters becoming weĴed by excess fuel. a. Is syphoned off for airframe anti-icing purposes. a. To reduce “creep” which may occur in the blades.

7. The purpose of the tertiary airflow created in the combustion b. Is used only for cooling the gases before they exit the b. To improve efficiency and reduce vibration.
chamber is to: combustion chamber.
c. To enable thinner blades to be used.
a. Reduce the gas temperature and cool the flame tube. c. Is used to reduce the oil temperature and cool the turbine
blades. d. To minimise blade end erosion.
b. Form a toroidal vortex, which anchors and stabilises the
flame. d. Is used to cool both the gases exiting the chamber and the 4. The blades are usually aĴached to the turbine disc by a “Fir
walls of the air casing. Tree” root. A tight fit is ensured
c. Reduce the gas temperature and cool the burner head.
287 during operation:
d. Ensure complete combustion of the fuel.
Chapter 17 Gas Turbine Engines a. By the action of centrifugal force.
275
The Turbine Assembly b. By thermal expansion of the disc.
Chapter 16 Gas Turbine Engines
QUESTIONS c. By blade compression loads and thermal expansion.
Combustion Chambers
1. The effect on the temperature and pressure of the gases as d. By torque loading and thermal expansion.
8. A re-light envelope: they pass across the turbine is:
5. The main contributory factors which cause creep in turbine
a. Shows the flame stability limits. a. Their temperature decreases and their pressure rises. blades are:

b. Shows airspeed and altitude limitations for an in-flight restart. b. Both their temperature and pressure increase. a. High temperature and tensile loading.

c. Shows fuel / air mixture limitations for an in-flight restart. c. Both their temperature and pressure decrease. b. High rpm and torque loading.

d. Contains the in flight re-start igniter plugs. d. Their temperature increases and their pressure falls. c. High rpm and high gas speeds.

9. Swirl vanes in the combustion chamber: 2. Nozzle guide vanes are fiĴed before the turbine: d. High temperature and high gas speeds.

a. Increase the velocity of the airflow. a. To increase the velocity of the airflow. 6. A free power turbine:

b. Reduce the velocity of the airflow. b. To decrease the velocity of the gas flow therefore increasing a. Has a clutch between the compressor and the power output
its pressure. shaft.
c. Prevent compressor stall.
c. To increase the velocity of the gas flow therefore reducing its b. Has no mechanical connection with the other turbine or
d. Help to stabilize combustion. pressure. compressor shafts.

10. The air entering the combustion chamber is divided; a small d. To increase the temperature of the gas flow. c. Has a direct drive with a free wheel unit.
percentage is used in combustion,
3. One reason for shrouding turbine blades is: d. Comes free with every 2,000 gallons of AVTUR.
the rest:
7. The mixture of impulse and reaction blade shape in the
average turbine blade is such that:
a. The inner half is impulse and the outer half is reaction.
b. The inner half is reaction and the outer half is impulse.
c. The leading edge is reaction and the trailing edge is impulse.
d. The trailing edge is reaction and the leading edge is impulse.
288
Gas Turbine Engines
The Turbine Assembly Chapter 17
8. Blade creep is:
a. Movement of the turbine blades around the turbine disc.
b. Temporary expansion due to temperature change.
c. Temporary elongation due to centrifugal forces.
d. Permanent elongation due to heat and centrifugal force.
9. The net operating temperature of a gas turbine engine is
limited by:
a. The materials from which the combustion chamber is
constructed.
b. The amount of fuel which can be fed into the combustion
chamber.
c. The ability of the compressor to pass sufficient air rearwards.
d. The materials from which the nozzle guide vanes and the
turbine blades are
constructed.
10. The impulse-reaction blade is twisted along its length so
that:
a. There is a greater angle at the base than at the tip.
b. The gas flow is accelerated through the turbine.
c. The gas does equal work along the whole of its length.
d. The gas flow is decelerated through the nozzle guide vanes.
301
Chapter 18 Gas Turbine Engines
The Exhaust System
QUESTIONS
1. The velocity of the gases in the exhaust unit is held to:
a. 0.5 Mach to minimise turbulence.
b. 0.75 Mach to optimise the pressure distribution.
c. 0.85 Mach to maximise thrust.
d. Mach 1 to maximise acceleration.
2. The exhaust cone:
a. Straightens the gas flow before it goes into the turbine
assembly.
b. Prevents the hot gases flowing across the rear turbine face.
c. Increases the velocity of the gases.
d. Decreases the pressure of the gas.
3. The propelling nozzle is designed to:
a. Increase the velocity and decrease the pressure of the gas
stream.
b. Decrease the velocity and increase the pressure of the gas
stream.
c. To increase the velocity and the pressure of the gas stream.
d. To decrease the velocity and the pressure of the gas stream.
4. A nozzle is said to be “choked” when:
a. The gas flow through it is subsonic.
b. The gas flow through it reaches its sonic value.
c. The gas temperature rises.
d. The gas flow through it is supersonic.
5. A choked nozzle:
a. Decreases thrust.
b. Gives additional pressure without the addition of heat.
c. Has no effect on thrust.
d. Implies that no further increase in velocity can be obtained
without the increase of
heat.
6. The exhaust gasses pass to atmosphere via the propelling
nozzle which:
a. Is a convergent duct, thus it increases the gas velocity.
b. Converts kinetic energy into pressure energy.
c. Is a divergent duct, thus it increases the gas velocity.
d. Is a divergent nozzle, thus it increases the gas pressure.
7. The jet pipe is insulated from the airframe by:
a. Heat insulation materials.
b. A cooling air jacket.
c. A combination of cooling air and insulating material.
d. Semi-conducting geodetic structures.
302
Gas Turbine Engines
The Exhaust System Chapter 18
8. The noise from a high ratio by-pass engine:
a. Is created mainly in the exhaust section.
b. Prevent the hot gases flowing across the rear face of the rear d. The air intake of the oil cooler was blocked.
turbine bearing.
3. Oil seals are pressurised:
c. Allow entry of the by-pass air into the exhaust system.
a. To ensure oil is forced into the bearings.
d. Straighten out any residual whirl in the gas stream.
b. To ensure minimum oil loss.
11. An exhaust nozzle is said to be choked when the velocity at
the throat is: c. To ensure that the oil is prevented from leaving the bearing
housing.
a. Mach.5.
d. To minimise heat loss in the bearing housing.
b. Below Mach 1.
4. In the event that damage occurs to the matrix of the fuel
c. At Mach 1. cooled oil cooler:

b. Is high in the exhaust section because of the high velocity d. Above Mach 1. a. A pressure-maintaining valve ensures that the oil pressure is
gas flow. always higher than the
317
c. Is predominantly from the fan and the turbine. fuel pressure.
Chapter 19 Gas Turbine Engines
d. Is greater than that from a turbo-jet engine of comparable b. The fuel pressure is always kept higher than the oil pressure
power output. Lubrication to ensure that the fuel will

9. The shape of the volume within the jet pipe casing
immediately to the rear of the turbine:
a. Is convergent to accelerate the gases towards the propelling
nozzle.
b. Is divergent to accelerate the gases away from the turbine
blades.
c. Is convergent to increase the pressure of the gases in the jet
pipes.
QUESTIONS
1. A centrifugal breather is used on a gas turbine engine:
a. To circulate the oil smoothly.
b. To minimise oil loss.
c. To emulsify the oil and air mixture for greater viscosity.
d. To allow oxidisation of the oil.
leak into the oil system.
c. A differential pressure switch will illuminate a light in the
cockpit.
d. The oil by-pass valve will prevent a complete loss of oil
pressure.
5. The bearing chambers of a gas turbine engine are vented:
a. Via the auxiliary gear box drive.

d. Is divergent to reduce the velocity of the gases leaving the 2. A high oil temperature would indicate that: b. Via the centrifugal breather.
turbine.
a. The oil pressure was high. c. Via the air seals, into the gas stream.
10. The turbine rear support struts:
b. The exhaust gas temperature (E.G.T.) was high. d. To prevent oil loss.
a. Add swirl to the gases before they travel down the jet pipe.
c. The oil filter was blocked. 6. The main bearings in an axial flow gas turbine engine are
normally pressurised by:
a. Compressor by-pass air.
b. Air at intake pressure.
c. Air from an intermediate stage of the compressor.
d. Gas from the second stage turbine section.
7. Magnetic Chip Detectors are fiĴed in the engine:
a. To facilitate early detection of cracks in the compressor
blades.
b. To facilitate early warning of cracks in the turbine blades.
c. To provide a warning of impending failure in the engine
bearings.
d. To prevent a build up of starch in the scavenge oil filter.
318
Gas Turbine Engines
Lubrication Chapter 19
8. An inter-stage air seal is used where:
a. Engine sections are operating at different pressures.
b. Engine sections are subjected to pressures of the same
value.
c. It is more convenient.
d. It is difficult to obtain access during routine servicing.
9. An Internal Engine Overheat warning would necessitate:
a. The oil temperature to be closely monitored.
b. The EGT to be closely monitored.
c. The engine power to be reduced to idle.
d. The engine to be shut down. a. Will continue to operate at a lower RPM because the engine
will be able to suck the oil
10. If engine run down time is short, coupled with high oil
consumption, the most probable cause from the reservoir and be sufficiently lubricated.
is: b. Should be shut down.
a. Compressor blade rub. c. Will be unaffected because the scavenge pumps have a
larger operating capacity than
b. Incorrect relief valve seĴing.
the pressure pumps and will ensure the engine is lubricated
c. Excessive sealing air pressure. sufficiently.
d. Bearing chamber labryinth seal rubbing. d. Should be monitored for a period of time to record oil
temperature.
11. Gas turbines use for lubrication:
14. In a Gas Turbine engine oil temperature is measured:
a. Mineral oil with additives (compound).
a. As it leaves the fuel cooled oil cooler (FCOC).
b. Mineral oil straight.
b. Before entering the engine.
c. Multi-grade 20/50.
c. Immediately after leaving the engine.
d. Synthetic oil.
d. In the engine.
12. For a pressure relief lubricating system, select the correct
statement: 319
a. The flow and pressure change with engine speed. Chapter 19 Gas Turbine Engines
b. The pressure relief valve is fiĴed in series with the pump. Lubrication
c. The pressure remains the same for all engine operating 15. In a Gas Turbine engine oil pressure is measured:
parameters.
a. In the engine.
d. The relief valve opens when pressure has reached the
required pressure. Any excess b. In the return line.
flow is returned by a dedicated line to the base of the engine for c. After the pressure pump.
scavenging.
d. In the FCOC to ensure oil pressure is always above fuel
13. If the engine oil pump ceases to function the engine: pressure.
16. The magnetic chip detectors are fiĴed in:
a. The pressure line between the pressure pump and the 3 With an increase in altitude which of the following statements _______ fuel must be added or the compressor will _________.
engine. are correct for a jet aircraft with
a. decreases decreases increases increases less slow down
b. Suction line between the reservoir and the pressure pump. constant engine speed for a fixed throĴle seĴing?
b. increases decreases decreases increases more slow down
c. Return line between the engine and the scavenge pump. 1. Temperature and pressure reduce with a resulting drop in
thrust. c. decreases increases increases increases more slow down
d. Return line after the FCOC.
2. Fuel consumption will increase. d. increases decreases increases decreases less speed up
17. Gas Turbines use:
3. Fuel consumption will decrease. 6. From a standing start with an increase in forward speed jet
a. Wet sump and mineral oil. thrust will:
4. Specific fuel consumption will increase.
b. Dry sump and synthetic oil. a. Increase.
5. Specific fuel consumption will decrease.
c. Wet sump and synthetic oil. b. Stay the same.
6. Specific fuel consumption stays relatively the same
d. Dry sump and mineral oil c. Decrease.
7. Temperature and pressure will reduce, resulting in an
QUESTIONS increase in thrust. d. Decrease then recover but will never achieve its initial
seĴing.
1. EPR is a a. 1, 3, 6.
332
a. Ratio between ambient pressure and exhaust pressure. b. 2, 4, 1.
Gas Turbine Engines
b. Ratio between ambient pressure and fan pressure. c. 7, 2, 4.
Thrust Chapter 20
c. Ratio between intake pressure and compressor delivery d. 1, 2, 5
pressure. 7. On a turboprop aircraft with a 14 stage axial flow compressor
4. The maximum thrust that a jet engine can develop will be: while climbing it will
d. Ratio between exhaust pressure and intake pressure.
a. Take off thrust. experience:
2. In a high by pass engine whose fan max rpm is 20000rpm,
when turning at 5000rpm will develop b. Go around thrust. a. Increase shaft horse-power increase jet thrust increase fuel
consumption
approx. c. Max climb thrust.
b. Decrease shaft horse-power decrease jet thrust decrease
a. 25% take off thrust. d. Max Static Thrust. fuel consumption

b. 50% take off thrust 5. As temperature ___________air density ____________ and c. Decrease shaft horse-power increase jet thrust decrease fuel
the mass of air for given engine speed consumption
c. 5% take off thrust
__________ therefore thrust ___________. To maintain the d. Decrease shaft horse-power decrease jet thrust increase fuel
d. 15% take off thrust. compressor speed however consumption
8. On a turboprop aircraft with a 14 stage axial flow compressor a. Close to allow for the decreased volume of gas 7. EGT decreases
while increasing forward speed,
b. Open to allow for the increased volume of gas. 8. Thrust decreases.
it will experience:
c. Remain the same a. 1, 3, 4 and 6
a. Increase shaft horse-power increase jet thrust
d. Remain the same until the temperature reaches 1700C then b. 2, 4, 5 and 6
b. Decrease shaft horse-power decrease jet thrust open.
c. 8, 1, 5 and 7
c. Decrease shaft horse-power increase jet thrust 2. When does the variable nozzle open?
d. 6, 5, 4 and 1
d. Increase shaft horse-power decrease jet thrust a. When the exhaust temperature reaches 1700C
5. On a turbojet aircraft which of the following statements would
9. On a part throĴled engine, take off thrust would be achieved: b. Automatic when after burning selected. be correct with the introduction

a. Later than normal due to pressure in the compressor being
low.
b. Later than normal due to the EPR being low.
c. Earlier than normal.
d. Later than normal due to the EPR being high.
10. In a gas turbine engine:
a. Ram pressure is maximum at the start of the take off run.
c. Automatic on take off. of water into the combustion chamber?
d. Automatic when approaching Mach 1. a. Power can be restored up to its flat rated 100% only, and is
prevented from exceeding
3. When leaving the turbine the gas stream:
its limitations due to a pressure sensor at the high pressure
a. Increases velocity immediately to maximise thrust. outlet.
b. Is diffused to ensure the afterburning flame is stabilised. b. Power can be restored up to its flat rated 100% only, due to a
pressure sensor at the
c. Goes through a convergent duct to ensure the after-burning
flame is stabilised. combustion chamber outlet.

b. Ram pressure is unaffected by airspeed. d. Goes through a divergent duct to maximise thrust. c. Power can be restored up to its flat rated 100% only, due to a
pressure sensor in the
c. Thrust is unaffected by the aircraft’s forward speed. 4. Which of the following statements are correct with regard to
after-burning? exhaust.
d. Thrust is maximum and ram pressure at minimum at the start
of the take off run. 1. Fuel consumption increases d. Power can be augmented above100% due to the denser
mixture impinging on the
341 2. Fuel consumption decreases.
turbine, which consequently drives the compressor quicker.
Chapter 21 Gas Turbine Engines 3. Pressure thrust decreases
342
Performance and Thrust Augmentation 4. Thrust increases.
Gas Turbine Engines
QUESTIONS 5. Pressure thrust increases.
Performance and Thrust Augmentation Chapter 21
1. When after burning the jet pipe will: 6. EGT increases
6. In a turboprop aircraft with water methanol injection in the
combustion chamber, which of the
following statements would be correct?
a. SHP can be re-established up to 100% only, when operating
in warmer climates.
b. SHP can be increased beyond 100% by maintaining the
RPM and increasing the blade
angle.
c. SHP can be increased beyond 100% by increasing RPM and
decreasing the blade
angle.
d. SHP can be increased beyond 100% by maintaining RPM
and decreasing the blade
angle.
7. Water Methanol is injected into an engine so that the
combustion chamber inlet temperature is
reduced and there is:
a. A substantial power decrease.
b. A substantial power increase with no increase in fuel flow.
c. A substantial power increase which is due solely to the
combustion of methanol.
d. An increase in power output solely due to the increased fuel
flow, since methanol does
not burn.
8. When methanol is added to a water injection system:
a. It is an important source of fuel.
b. It is an anti-freeze.
c. It is an important source of fuel and an anti-freeze.
d. The temperature of combustion remains the same.
9. Water injection is used for take off:
a. To cool the combustion chambers.
b. To cool the turbine blades.
c. Only at high altitude airfields where the prevailing
temperature is high.
d. At airfields with an ambient temperature above 30F
351
Chapter 22 Gas Turbine Engines
Reverse Thrust
QUESTIONS
1. Use of reverse thrust below the recommended speed may
cause:
a. Over stressing of the gear oleos.
b. Ingestion of the exhaust gases and foreign objects.
c. More fuel to be provided to the burners.
d. The T.G.T. limit to be exceeded, in which case the reverse
thrust lever will return to the
forward thrust position.
2. A big fan engine gets reverse thrust by:
a. Reversing the direction of rotation of the compressor.
b. Deflecting the exhaust gases.
c. Blocking the by-pass air.
d. Reversing the hot stream gases.
3. Before reverse thrust can be selected, the forward thrust
lever must be:
a. Pulled back to idle power.
b. Positioned to reverse minimum power.
c. Put back to the reverser deploy position.
d. Positioned to reverse maximum power.
4. An aircraft uses clamshell doors for thrust reversal to:
a. Direct the gas flow rearwards.
b. Block the flow of exhaust gas.
c. Absorb any change in thrust.
d. Change the direction of the exhaust gas.
5. A Reverse Thrust Warning Light illuminates:
a. Only when the reverser doors are fully deployed in the
reverse thrust position.
b. When the reverser doors are stowed in the forward thrust
position.
c. When the reverser doors are not stowed in the forward thrust
position.
d. Whenever reverse thrust is selected.
6. Once the blocker doors are fully deployed, with an increase
in RPM, which of the following
statements would be incorrect?
a. Forward thrust from the hot gases would increase.
b. Forward thrust from the hot gases would decrease.
c. Reverse thrust from the blocked air would increase.
d. TGT will increase.
367
Chapter 24 Gas Turbine Engines
Ignition Systems
QUESTIONS
1. The low energy ignition system would be used:
a. Only for starting the engine on the ground.
b. During take off from wet runways.
c. For re-light at high altitude.
d. During a blow out (motoring over) cycle.
2. A typical APU can provide:
a. Air for air conditioning on the ground.
b. Air for engine starting.
c. Electrical power for ground or in flight use.
d. All of the above.
3. The advantage of an air starter system is that:
a. It is safer in operation than other systems, and no fire risk.
b. It is light, simple and economical.
c. It provides a more rapid start.
d. It is totally self contained and needs no external source of
power.
4. A “Hung Start” is indicated by: 368
a. High E.G.T. - high fuel flow - low R.P.M. Gas Turbine Engines
b. Low E.G.T. - idle fuel flow - low R.P.M. Ignition Systems Chapter 24
c. Low E.G.T. - high fuel flow - high R.P.M. 8. A “Hung Start” occurs when:
d. High E.G.T. - idle fuel flow - low R.P.M. a. The engine accelerates but does not light up.
5. If a gas turbine engine fails to light up within the specified b. The engine stabilises above self sustaining speed.
time:
c. The engine lights up but does not accelerate to self
a. It must be motored over with the H.P. fuel cock shut. sustaining speed.
b. The fuel system must be drained. d. There is a double igniter failure.
c. No further aĴempt to start may be made until the fuel has 9. After engine start, the engine igniters are normally
evaporated. deactivated by:
d. It must be motored over with the H.P. fuel cock shut and no a. An electric interlock system.
igniters selected.
b. A speed switch.
6. A Re-light is:
c. The time switch.
a. The action of re-starting a flamed out engine, usually while
airborne. d. Centrifugal force.
b. What occurs when the engine drain valve is stuck open. 10. Failure of the engine to light up is shown by:
c. The initiation of the after-burning system. a. The failure of the engine to turn and no T.G.T.
d. What must be prevented after a “wet start”. b. Low R.P.M. fuel flow indication, and no T.G.T.
7. Precautionary use of igniters may be necessary during: c. T.G.T. increasing but no R.P.M.
a. Flight through heavy tropical rainstorm. d. No R.P.M. and no T.G.T.
b. Ground running. 11. The term “Self Sustaining Speed” means that:
c. Flight through sandy conditions. a. The aircraft can roll forward with no further opening of the
throĴles.
d. Flight through very dry air.
b. The speed from which the engine can accelerate to full b. High altitude relighting Take off from contaminated runways 18. The rate of discharge of a High Energy Ignition Unit is:
power within 5 seconds.
c. Take off from snowy runways Engine start a. 60 - 100 times per minute.
c. The engine will run independently of external help.
d. Take off from flooded runways Take off from snowy runways. b. 4 discharges per revolution.
d. The speed from which the engine can accelerate to idle
without the help of the starter 369 c. 60 - 100 per second.

motor. Chapter 24 Gas Turbine Engines d. Governed by the resistance of the igniter plug.

12. A high energy ignition system works on the principle of: Ignition Systems 19. The air supply for an air start system is:

a. Obtaining power from a step up transformer from the 15. The air supply to operate an air starter usually comes from: a. At a relatively low pressure, but high volume.
aircraft’s A.C. power system.
a. An external installation. b. Filtered to prevent damage to the starter motor.
b. Magneto static induction.
b. Storage boĴles carried in the aircraft. c. Preheated to avoid icing in the starter nozzle guide vanes.
c. Fleming’s Right Hand Rule.
c. The auxiliary power unit. d. At a high pressure but low volume.
d. Obtaining energy from the discharge of a capacitor.
d. A cross bleed start. 20. The starter motor is disengaged from the engine start
13. Before opening the high-pressure fuel shut off valve during system:
the engine start: 16. In a High Energy Igniter Unit, the discharge resistors:
a. As soon as the engine lights up.
a. The compressor must be turning at the correct RPM in the a. Allow sufficient energy to be stored in the capacitor to
right direction. provide re-light facilities up to b. Just above self-sustaining speed.

b. The Low-Pressure compressor must be stationary. 55 000 ft. c. At 26% H.P. R.P.M.

c. The Low Pressure fuel cock must be shut. b. Protects the unit from excessive voltages. d. Just below self-sustaining speed.

d. The Low Pressure compressor must be rotating faster than c. Allow the capacitor to discharge when the unit is switched off. 21. The power supply for the spark in the combustion chamber
the High-Pressure is:
d. Prolong the discharge.
compressor. a. Low volts high current
17. In a High Energy Igniter Unit, the choke:
14. A gas turbine engine which has both high and low energy b. Low volts low current
ignition systems uses the high energy a. Protects the unit from excessive voltages.
c. High volts low current
system for (i), and the low energy system for (ii): b. Prolongs the discharge to the plug.
d. High volts high current
(i) (ii) c. Prolongs the life of the igniter
370
a. Engine starting High altitude relighting d. Protects the unit from excessive current.
Gas Turbine Engines provide an amount of thrust. d. 2, 3, 4 and 6

Ignition Systems Chapter 24 d. APU’s provide electrical, pneumatic and hydraulic power for 4. A Ram Air Turbine is used to provide:
ground and air use and
22. In a twin spool engine self sustaining speed is normally a. Emergency hydraulic power for the flaps and slats only.
reached at: can provide an amount of thrust.
b. Emergency hydraulic power for the undercarriage.
a. 60% N2 2. In the event of a fire in an APU:
c. Emergency hydraulic power for the elevator, rudder and
b. 60% N1 a. Will need to be shut down immediately. ailerons along with possible

c. 30% N2 b. Will shut down immediately. emergency electrical power.

d. 30% N1 c. Will shut down immediately and if the fire persists the fire d. Emergency hydraulic power for the brakes along with
boĴles will automatically be possible emergency electrical
23. In a twin spool engine the typical idle speeds are:
fired. power.
a. 60% N2 25% N1
d. Will need to be shut down immediately and the fire boĴles will 5. The power to start an APU comes from:
b. 25% N2 60% N1 be required to be fired
a. Ground power unit.
c. 40% N2 30% N1 immediately.
b. Aircraft main DC baĴery.
d. 80% N2 45% N1 3. Which of the following would result in an automatic shut
down of an APU? c. Aircraft main engine generator.
385
1. overspeed of compressor d. Aircraft main AC baĴery.
Chapter 25 Gas Turbine Engines
2. over-temp of lubrication system 393
Auxilliary Power Units and Engine Starting
3. turbine over-temp Chapter 26 Gas Turbine Engines
QUESTIONS
4. combustion chamber over-temp Fuels
1. Which of the following statements would be more correct with
regard to an APU? 5. Compressor outlet pressure exceeded QUESTIONS

a. APU’s provide emergency hydraulics power for the brakes 6. low pressure of lubrication system 1. Water in the fuel tanks is:
only.
a. 1, 2, 3 and 6 a. Added with FS11 when refuelling.
b. APU’s provide electrical, pneumatic and hydraulic power for
ground use only. b. 1, 2, 4 and 6 b. Is a consequence of atmospheric air entering the tanks
through the engine.
c. APU’s provide electrical, pneumatic and hydraulic power for c. 2, 3, 5 and 6
air use only and can
c. Is a consequence of atmospheric air entering the tanks QUESTIONS 5. The efficiency of a bearing chamber oil seal depends on its
through the vent system. mechanical design and:
1. An inter-stage air seal is used where:
d. Is a consequence of atmospheric air entering the tanks a. The fuel pressure.
through the feeder box. a. Engine sections are operating at different pressures.
b. Compressor bleed air pressure.
2. Water in the fuel tank is removed: b. Engine sections are subjected to pressures of the same
value. c. The engine compression ratio.
a. Via a drain valve at the lowest point in the tank.
c. It is more convenient. d. The engine oil pressure.
b. Via a drain tank at the base of the engine.
d. It is difficult to obtain access during routine servicing. 6. With a bleed air anti-icing system the effect of selecting ‘on’
c. Via a scoop at the top of the tank. while maintaining thrust will:
2. An Internal Engine Overheat warning would necessitate:
d. Every major servicing only. a. Decrease fuel consumption.
a. The oil temperature to be closely monitored.
3. The flash point of Avtur is: b. Decrease specific fuel consumption.
b. The EGT to be closely monitored.
a. -38.7°C c. Increase specific fuel consumption.
c. The engine power to be reduced to idle.
b. 38.7°C d. Specific fuel consumption will remain the same.
d. The engine to be shut down.
c. -40°C 7. Which of the following ice removal methods does a modern
3. Turbine blades are cooled by: jet aircraft normally utilize?
d. -20°C
a. H.P. compressor air internally ducted through the blades. a. Hot air.
4. When using which of the following fuels can refuelling be
carried out with passengers on b. H.P. air tapped from the combustion chambers. b. Rubber boots.

board? c. Air ducted from just before the intake guide vanes. c. Electrical thermal blankets.

a. Avtag d. Intermediate pressure air taken from the bleed valves. d. FPD freezing point depressant fluid.

b. Jet B 4. Bleed air for engine anti-icing is provided by: 417

c. Wide cut a. The bleed valves. Chapter 28 Gas Turbine Engines

d. Jet A1 b. The turbine stages. Bleed Air

416 c. The compressor. 8. With a bleed air anti-icing system the effect of selecting ‘on’
will have what effect?
Gas Turbine Engines d. The combustion chambers.
a. EGT will decrease.
Bleed Air Chapter 28
b. EGT will increase. d. The engine to be shut down. 7. Which of the following ice removal methods does a modern
jet aircraft normally utilize?
c. EGT will remain the same. 3. Turbine blades are cooled by:
a. Hot air.
d. The ratio between exhaust pressure and intake pressure will a. H.P. compressor air internally ducted through the blades.
increase. b. Rubber boots.
b. H.P. air tapped from the combustion chambers.
9. The air obtained from the engine for air conditioning is c. Electrical thermal blankets.
essentially: c. Air ducted from just before the intake guide vanes.
d. FPD freezing point depressant fluid
a. High pressure low volume d. Intermediate pressure air taken from the bleed valves.

b. High pressure high volume 4. Bleed air for engine anti-icing is provided by:

c. Low pressure low volume a. The bleed valves.

d. Low pressure high volume b. The turbine stages.

416 c. The compressor.

Gas Turbine Engines d. The combustion chambers.

Bleed Air Chapter 28 5. The efficiency of a bearing chamber oil seal depends on its
mechanical design and:
QUESTIONS
a. The fuel pressure.
1. An inter-stage air seal is used where:
b. Compressor bleed air pressure.
a. Engine sections are operating at different pressures.
c. The engine compression ratio.
b. Engine sections are subjected to pressures of the same
value. d. The engine oil pressure.

c. It is more convenient. 6. With a bleed air anti-icing system the effect of selecting ‘on’
while maintaining thrust will:
d. It is difficult to obtain access during routine servicing.
a. Decrease fuel consumption.
2. An Internal Engine Overheat warning would necessitate:
b. Decrease specific fuel consumption.
a. The oil temperature to be closely monitored.
c. Increase specific fuel consumption.
b. The EGT to be closely monitored.
d. Specific fuel consumption will remain the same.
c. The engine power to be reduced to idle.