WOLAYTA SODDO UNIVERSITY

COLLEGE OF MEDICIN AND HEALTH SCIENCE, SCHOOL OF NURSING AND

MIDWIFERY, DEPARTMENT OF MIDWIFERY, COMPREHENSIVE
(QUALIFICATION) EXAM FOR 4th YEAR STUDENTS.
EXAM CONTENT:
-OBSTETRICS I
-OBSTETRICS II
-OBSTETRICS III
-GYNACOLOGY
-FAMILY PLANING
-NEONATOLOGY AND PEDIATRICS

PREPARED BY; MIDWIFERY DEPARTMENT

TIME ALLOWED: 3HR

GOOD LUCK!!!
AUG 2015

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READ ALL QUESTIONES CAREFULLY AND INCIRCLE YOUR CORRECT
ANSWER
Part I; OBSTATRICS I,II and III
1. Which one of the following conditions does not describes a labor to be normal?
A. Delivery should be spontaneous vertex delivery
B. Labor starts at term and be spontaneous
C. Presentation should be cephalic
D. Labor has to be without complication
2, Suppose you are working in a health center and a woman Gravida 2 Para 1 comes to the
Health facility with a complaint of cramping, back pain and lower abdominal pain and when you
do physical examination, you find out that the laboring mother has 2c/10’/15-24’’,cervical
effacement is 25-30%, cervix admits two finger, So as a midwife what will be your diagnosis of
labor
A. Active phase of labor C. Transition phase of labor
B.
C. Latent phase of labor D. Second stage of labor
3. Among the types of episiotomy which one of the following is easy for repair, has less
bleeding and is cosmetically good for the mother
A. Median episiotomy C. Lateral episiotomy
B. Medio-lateral episiotomy D. J shaped episiotomy
4. Which one of the following is the CORRECT order for the mechanism of labor?

A. Engagement →Descent →Internal rotation →Flexion →Extension→ External

rotation →Expulsion
B. Engagement--Descent→ Extension→ Internal rotation→ Flexion→ External
rotation→ Expulsion
C. Engagement→ Descent→ Flexion→ Internal rotation→ Extension→ External
rotation→ Expulsion
D. Engagement→ Flexion→ Descent→ Internal rotation→ Extension→ External
rotation →Expulsion

5,supose you are in a hospital and you just helped a mother deliver a baby while the baby is
delivered you dried and tried to stimulate the baby but when you try to calculate the APGAR

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score you find out the following: the body is pink but the extremities are blue, the pulse rate is
<100/min (1), the baby’s grimace is minimal(1), activity/muscle tone is limp(0), respiratory
effort was slow and irregular(1), so how much is the APGAR score at 1st minute of the
newborn?
A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6
6. To monitor the duration of the uterine contraction during labor, the right technique is to time
the contraction

A. From the beginning of one contraction to the end of the same contraction
B. From the beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next contraction
C. From the end of one contraction to the beginning of the next contraction
D. From the deceleration of one contraction to the acme of the next contraction

7. The normal umbilical cord is composed of:

A. 2 arteries and 1 vein

B. 2 veins and 1 artery
C. 2 arteries and 2 veins
D. none of the above

8. All indicates fetal condition on a pantograph EXCEPT:

A. Molding C. Fetal heart rate

B. Amniotic fluid D. Descent

9.W/roAlmaz is on her 5thpregnancy and has a history of abortion in the 4th pregnancy and the
first pregnancy was a twin. She is considered to be
A. G4 P3 C. G5 P3
B. G5 P4 D. G4 P4

10. Vaginal examination of the patient in early labor finds the presenting part (vertex) to be at the
level of the ischial spines. The station is reported as
A. +1 C. +2
B. 0 D. -2
11, Anti- hypertensive drug should be given for hypertension in severe pre-eclampsia or
eclampsia if diastolic blood pressure is?
A. Between 90 and 100 mmHg
B. Between 100 and 109 mm Hg

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 C. 110 mmHg and more
D. None
12, Fatuma is 16 years old. She is 30 weeks pregnant and has attended the antenatal clinic three
times. She has come to the clinic today, as requested, for follow up. You have completed your
assessment of Fatumaand your main findings include the following: Fatuma’s blood pressure
is 130/90 mm Hg, and she has proteinuria 1+. She has no adverse symptoms (headache, visual
disturbance, upper abdominal pain, convulsion or loss of consciousness. The fetus is active and
fetal heart sounds are normal. Uterine size is consistent with dates. Based on these findings,
what is Fatuma’s diagnosis?

A. Superimposed mild preeclampsia

B. Severe preeclampsia
C. Chronic hypertension
D. Mild preeclampsia
13,Any of the following indicates manifestations of multi organ involvement due to severe
preeclampsia EXCEPT?
A. Oliguria
B. Right upper quadrant pain
C. Pulmonary edema
D. Mild nausea & vomiting
14,Which one of the following can be risk factor for Hyper-emesis gravidarum EXCEPT?
A. high level of estrogen and HCG
B. vitamin B6 deficiency
C. Psychological factor
D. molar pregnancy and multiple pregnancy
E. decreased level of progesterone and estrogen

15,Which is the most common cause of primary PPH?

A. Genital tract laceration
B. Uterine Antonia
C. coagulation disorder
D. retained placenta
16,Which one of the following is NOT risk factor for puerperal sepsis?
A. IUGR
B. manual removal of placenta
C. Multiple vaginal examination
D. prolonged rupture of membrane

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17,Which of the following is late complication of sepsis?
A. Pelvic abscess
B. ectopic pregnancy
C. Peritonitis
D. pelvic thrombo-phlebitis
18,Which one of the following is prerequisite for Rh iso-immunization to occur?
A. Rh- negative mother merry Rh- positive husband.
B. Seepage of fetal Rh- negative red blood cell into maternal circulation.
C. Incapacitation of Rh- antibodies
D. Rh- positive mother carrying Rh- negative fetus
19,Which one of the following is a denominator for face presentation?
A. Bergman
B. Acromium
C. Mentum
D. occiput
20, All are precipitating factors for cord prolapsed EXCEPT?
A. Long umbilical cord
B. Amniotomy before fetal head is engaged
C. Polyhdramnious
D. Excessive vaginal examination
21,Which one of the following is condition in which large number of nuculeted red cell are seen
in fetal circulation?
A. Hydropsfetalis C, Erytroblastosisfetalis
B. Kernicterus D, Severe anemia

22,Which one of the following is NOT complication of medical induction?

A. fetal distress
B. Tetanic uterine contraction
C. uterine rupture
D. PROM
23,Which one of the follwingis NOT a risk factor for shoulder dystocia?
A. Fetal Macrosomia
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Obesity
D. Twin pregnancy
24,Which one is the characteristic of mastitis?
A. Gradual onset

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 B. generalized pain
C. Bilateral
D. feeling ill
25,Derartu is 28 years old. She is 32 weeks pregnant when she presents at the health center
complaining of light vaginal bleeding. This is Derartu’s first pregnancy. It is a planned
pregnancy, and she has been well until now. What will be the causes of bleeding?
A. Abortion
B. Ectopic pregnancy
C. Placenta prevae and abruption of placenta
D. Molar pregnancy
26,Which one of the following is INCORRECTLY matched?
A. Mag’nesiumsulphate------tocolytic
B. Hydralizine----------------anti hypertensive
C. Betamethasone------------steroid’2
D. Nifidipine------------------anticonvulsant
E. Calcium gluconate-------- anticonvulsant
27,Which one of the following is NOT considered as risk factor for placenta preavea?
A. Large placenta
B. Scared uterus
C. Excessive abdominal palpation
D. High parity and maternal age
28,One of the following signs indicates intra-amniotic infection EXCEPT?
A. Maternal fever
B. Fetal tachycardia
C. Tender uterus
D. Purulent cervical discharge
E. Vaginal bleeding
29,Which one of the following is NOT indication for induction?
A. Diabetes mellitus
B. None reassuring fetal heart rate pattern
C. IUGR
D. Rh- isoimmunization
30,Which of the following is cause for immediate bleeding after rupture of membrane in case of
APH?
A. Placenta abruption
B. Placenta prevea
C. Vasa prevea
D. Genital laceration

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31,Which one of the following can be the cause of Couvelaire Uterus?

A. Post partum haemorrhage

B. Early Pregnancy Bleeding
C. Placenta prevea
D. Abruption placenta

32, Conditions for vacuum extraction are:

A. a term fetus, vertex presentation
B. a fully dilated cervix
C. fetal head at least at 0 station or not more than 2/5 above symphysis pubis
D. all of the above
33, Prostaglandins should not be given
A. per vaginumC. by IV
B. by IM injection D. by mouth
34,Which one is not maternal complication on pedalic version?
A. Rupture uterus D.Asphyxia
B. Cervical lacerations E. None
C. Postpartum hemorrhage
35. All are indication of Destructive Vaginal Deliveries,except
A. Dead fetus with mechanical C. Alive fetus or dead fetus with
obstruction hydrocephalus
B. Dead fetus with shoulder dystocia D. Dead fetus in transverse lie
E. None

36. For repair of vaginal and perineal tears, local anesthetic should be infiltrated
A. beneath the vaginal mucosa C. deeply into the perineal muscle
B. beneath the skin of the perineum D. all

37. The single-most practical procedure for preventing the spread of infection is
A. Wearing gloves C. Hand washing
B. Wearing a mask D. Cleaning skin with alcohol before-
injections

38. Which one is notComplications of Caesarean Section?

A. Hemorrhage C. Bowel injury
B. Bladder and ureteral injury D. Puerperal sepsis
E. None
39. Which one is notcontraindication of forceps delivery?
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 A. Suspected CPD C. inexperienced provider
B. Inadequate facilities and support D. Prematurity
staff E. None
40. All are the indication of vacuum extractor,except
A. Severe anemia in second stage D. Prolonged active 1st stage of labor
B. Maternal cardiac problems E. None
C. Eclampsia in second stage

41.Preparation forvacuum extraction are:

A. Empty bladder
B. Regional anesthesia infiltration for episiotomy
C. Assembled and tested vacuum extractor
D. A and C
E. All
42. Which types of forceps are typically used when rotation of the vertex is not required for
delivery?

A. Classical C. Kielland
B. Specialized D. Piper

43.The location of forceps where the operator holds the device and applies traction to the fetal
head is:
A. Lock C. Handles
B. Shank D. Blades
44. Complications of Forceps Delivery are:
A. Cervical lacerations. C. Rupture uterus
B. Bladder injury. D. All

45. Which one an Indications for Emergency Caesarean- Section?

A. A previous repaired uterine rupture C. Cord prolapse
B. A previous classical caesarean section D. All of the above

46. Which one is notComplications of Destructive Vaginal Deliveries?

A. Uterine rupture D. Bladder and rectal injuries
B. Cervical and vaginal lacerations E. None
C. Ante partum hemorrhage
47. All are the Indication to perform episiotomy, except
A. Macrosomia C. Breech delivery
B. Tight perineum D. Shoulder dystocia
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 E. None
48. The indications of External Cephalic Version is:
A. Oblique lie.
B. Retained second twin in a transverse lie.
C. Some cases of shoulder presentation
D. All
49. The most common types of episiotomy is:
A. Median
B. Medio- lateral
C. Lateral
D. A and B

50.Which one is true for repair of

lacerations?
A. For vaginal tear, use 2–0 chromic or
vicryl suture
B. For periurethral tears, use 0
chromic or vicryl suture
C. For cervical tears, use 3-0 or 4-0
chromic suture
D. All of the above

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51.Which one is notIndications for induction and augmentation of labor?
A. Preeclampsia D. IUFD
B. Diabetes mellitus E. Placenta previa
C. Heart disease
Part II; Gynecology
52,Rabia is 23, and has been living with her current boy friend for 14 months. She was not
concerned about getting pregnant when they started to live together and they have not used
contraception. She has had several long relationships in the past with other men, and occasional
one-night stands. Before meeting her current partner, she took the Pill as she didn’t trust her
partners enough to rely on them for contraception. Over the past four years, she has had several
episodes of lower abdominal pain, some of which were thought to be grumbling appendicitis and
she was admitted to hospital during the last episode, as the pain was so severe. In the mean while
her boy friend is strongly insisted her have child but she can’t to be conceive even if they have
unprotected sexual intercourse. What will be the cause of infertility for the above case?
A. An ovulation
B. Abnormal sperm production
C. Tubal damage
D. Cervical factor
53,The appropriate tool to screen cervical cancer in low level recourse country is:
A. Colposcopy
B. PAP Smear
C. Visual Inspection of the Cervix with Acetic Acid (VIA)
D. Laparoscopy
54,A 21 years old nulliparous lady who was amennoric for the last three month presented with
chief compliant of vaginal bleeding for the last two days duration in gynecologic OPD. The
bleeding is intermittent which is associated with abdominal cramp .She has no history of passage
of fleshy matter.Up on arrival, the midwife practitioner evaluated her as follows: GA exaused,
pulse 100 BPM, Temp. ATT, the abdomen is soft and non tender. Upon pelvic examination, the
vulva is socked with blood and the cervix is closed. What is the definitive diagnosis for the
above case?

A. Ectopic pregnancy
B. Threatened abortion
C. Inevitable abprtio
D. Septic abortion

55,. A pregnant mother with GA of 24wks came to health institution with the compliant of loss
signs and symptoms of pregnancy and fetal heart beat is absent.
What is the most likely management?

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 A. Manual vacuum aspiration
B. use mefipriston and misopriston
C. dilatation and curettage
D. Oxytocin induction

56,A 45 yrs women has come to you with the complaint of Persistent abnormal bleeding,
excessive abdominal pain as a result of is rapidly growing mass which about 10 cm. she has
diagnosis was myomas what will be your best management for these case?

A. Hysterectomy
B. Myomectomy
C. Medical therapy Medical therapy
D. Radiology

57,A pregnant mother with GA of 24wks came to health institution with the compliant of loss
signs and symptoms of pregnancy and fetal heart beat is absen.What is the most likely
management?

A. Manual vacuum aspiration

B. use mefipriston and misopriston
C. dilatation and curettage
D. Oxytocin induction

……..58.The Uterus ,cervix ,fallopian tubes and parts of vagina are formed from:
A. Paramesonephric Duct C. Nephrogenic Cord
B. Mesonephric Duct D. Gonadal Ridge
……..59.An uncommon abnormality of Uterus where it has two linear cavities and its cavity
may lead to its own vagina and cervix is:
A. Uterine Didelphys C. Septate Uterus
B. Bicornuate Uterus D. Unicornuate Uterus

……….60.A woman whose GA is 24 wks by date comes to you with the complaint ofvaginal
discharge and absence of fetal movement. She has no morning sickness, breast tenderness and
vaginal bleeding. Up on physical examination you found brownish vaginal discharge,closed
cervix, smallfor gestation uterus and negative fetal heart beat but your lab result showsHCG
positive. What might be your most probable diagnosis for this mother
A. Inevitable abortion C. Missed abortion
B. Threatened abortion D. Incomplete aborttion

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………61.One is not an indication/legalization of abortion to terminate pregnancy for women
coming to the sake of abortion service in Ethiopia
A. Pregnancy resulting from rape C. Divorce after becoming pregnant
B. Pregnancy resulting from incest D. Pregnancy endangers the life of the mother
……62.Common steps on administration of medication abortion
A. Misoprostol 800µgm vaginally,followed 48hrs later, mifepristone 200mg orally
B. Mifepristone 200mg orally, followed 48 hrs later, misoprostol 800µgm vaginally
C. Mifepristone 200mg vaginally, followed 48hrs later , misoprostol 800µgm orally
D. Misoprostol 800µgm orally, followed 48 hrslater,mifepristone 200mg vaginally
___63. One is not included in the classic triads of ectopic pregnancy
A. Abdominal pain C. Amenorrhea
B. Cervical motion tenderness D. Vaginal bleeding
___64.A secondary form of ectopic pregnancy in which a primary tubal pregnancy erodes into
the mesosalpinx is:
A. Ligamentous pregnancy C. Ovarian pregnancy
B. Abdominal pregnancy D. Interstitial pregnancy

___65.Whichtype of family planning method is not preferable for post Gestational-trophoblastic

Disease

A. COC B. DepoProvera C. Implants D. IUCD

____66.Which one is a cause for primary dysmenorrhea?

A. Abnormal growth of functional endometrial cells outside endometrium
B. Excess production of prostaglandin by endometrial cells
C. Abnormal growth or proliferation of cells in the uterus
D. Pelvic adhesions secondary to chronic pelvic inflammatory disease
____67. One is a cause for Ovulatory Dysfunctional Uterine Bleeding
A. Estrogen producer tumor
B. Excess androgen production
C. Systemic metabolic disorder
D. Decreased progesterone production by corpus luteum
____68. A vesicular genital ulcer is caused by
A. Syphilis B. Chancroid C. Lympho-granuloma Venereum D. Genital Herpes

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____69. Neonatal conjunctivitis is caused by sexual transmitted infections, if it is occurring in a
baby age of:
A. < 1 Week after birth C. < 4 Weeks after birth
B. <2 weeks after birth D. <6 weeks after birth

………70. W/ro Aster whose age is a 27 years old woman comes to the health institution with
the complain of vaginal discharge. She states that the discharge is profuse, frothy, foul smelling
with a fishy odor which is particularly noticeable following coitus. when you examine her you
found that the vaginal mucosa has no sign of inflammation but it has offensive discharge which
is easily wiped from the vaginal wall. What is the most likely diagnosis of w/ro Aster’s
complaint?
A.Trichomonas-Vaginalis C.CandidalVulvo-vaginitis
B. Bacterial Vaginosis D. Vulvar Pruritis
Part III; Family planing
71,One of the following statement is/are not true about family planning
A. Family planning is simply to mean birth control
B. Family planning eliminates the needs for abortion
C. All family planning methods are equal important
D. All of the above

72,Which one of the following FP method has /have dual function

A. Condom B.Abstenince C. voluntary surgical contraceptives
D, A&B E. all
73,A 28 year old Para II women comes to your FP clinic and decided to use fertility awareness
method after your constructive counseling and she told that her menses were occurred
32,31,30,28,27 and 26 for last 6 months respectively .So which one is her fertile period?
A. 8-21 B. 14-15 C. 10-25
74,One is the latest form implants relative to others
A. Jadella B. Sino –plants C.implanon D. Norplant
75,One of the following characteristics is /are peculiar for Depo-Provera after certain period of
use comparing with other hormonal contraceptives
A. Preventing of pregnancy
B. Delayness of fertility
C. Mechanism of action after injection
D. All of the above
76,All are absolute contraindication for progesterone only contraceptive users except
A. Unexplained genital tract bleeding
B. Smoker whose age greater than 35
C. Weight of user greater than 70kg
D. B&C

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77,W/roAbebech is 25yrs old, Para III women who is on Depo-Provera for 4&half years w/out
any delayness of her appointment. So how many times she returned for her normal follow up
during this period?
A. 17 times B .18 times C.19times D. 20 times
78,W/roAmarech had her ANC follow up in your clinic for last 9months and during this follow
up she counseled for different family planning methods .After all she decided to use IUCD (CU-
T-380A).So one is not feasible period for its insertion
A.Within two days of postpartum period B. 2 days -28days C. >28 days
79, Rarely pregnancy may occur with IUCD in place and Unoppurtunetly your client come back
to your clinic with 16 weeks an intrauterine pregnancy with an IUCD. How will you manage
until term?
A. Remove IUCD to continue pregnancy
B. Leave IUCD in place and monitor for fetal well being
C. Abort the fetus and leave IUCD in place
D. All of the above
80,Components of CUT-380A which used to identifies with x-ray when CUT-380A displaced
from its normal position and not visible with genital examination
A. Polyethylene filled Barium sulphate
B. Polyethylene string
C. Small copper bands of stem and arm
81,W/roAynalem is Para III woman who is using IUCD to space for her fourth child and she
comes to your clinic with irregular and heavy bleeding for the last 4 months. During your
assessment she look like severe anemic and non-pregnant. All are the correct modalities to
manage this case EXCEPT
A. Performing speculum and bimanual examination
B. Treating anemia and leaving IUCD in place for further protection
C. Treating anemia, removing IUCD and switching to other method

82,Which one the following emergency contraceptive is relatively better than others by
preventing unwanted pregnancy after 3 days of unprotected sexual intercourse?
A. COCs B.POPs C.IUCDs
83,One of following is not characteristics of effective counselor?
A.Provide services in a nonjudgmental manner for all types of clients
B. Tailor information to clients’ needs
C. Encourage the clients
D. Reading from a chart or any document during counseling
Part IV Neonatology

84. An instrument that used to measure oxygen saturation?

A/ echocardiography C/ pulse-oxiometry
B/ thermometer D/ oxygen machine
85. Sucking reflex refers to;
A/ the neonate turns to the side of touched chin
B/ the neonate turns to the opposite to touched chin
C/ the neonate open the mouth
D/ the neonate start sucking when nipple/finger put on its mouth

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86. Normal neonatal body temperature at axilla;
A/ 37°C
B/ 36.5°C to 37 °C
C/ 36.5°C to 38°C
D/ 37°C to 38°C
87. The APGAR score of the neonate at first minute is 10/10. Which one is false about the
condition of neonate at that time?
A/ the neonate breathes 50/min regularly
B/ well flexed and active motion of the extremities
C/ pulse rate of the neonate is 148beats/ minute
D/ the neonate suck well
88. Correct sequence for neonatal resuscitation;
A/ prepareanticipateresuscitateevaluatedocument
B/ evaluate anticipateprepareresuscitate document
C/ anticipate prepare resuscitateevaluatedocument
D/ resuscitate prepare anticipate documentevaluate

89. Correctly matched; in case of interpretation of APGAR score result with

Corresponding management options.
A/ 0-4/10----needs minimal manipulation
B/ 5-7/10---needs resuscitation at first score
C/ 8-10/10---needs minimal manipulation rather than newborn care
D/ 0-4/10----needs immediate resuscitation

90. Which one is true about Meconium aspiration syndrome?

A/ aspiration of Meconium during natal period
B/ the severity of syndrome depends up on viscosity of Meconium
C/ the main cause for neonatal birth asphyxia
D/ all
91. During cleaning air way after delivery of suspected amniotic fluid aspirated baby; one is not
correct.
A/ suck nose then mouth
B/ suck mouth then nose
C/ extend head slightly
D/ position new born on supine
92. The normal breath/minute for neonatal resuscitation is;
A/ 30 B/ 40
C/ 50 D/ 60
93. The dose for vit-k injection for term baby is;
A/ 1ml B/ 1mg
C/ 1gm D/ 10mg
94. The first line drug for eye care of newborn;
A/ tetracycline eye ointment
B/ gentamycine eye ointment
C/ silver nitrate eye ointment

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 D/ none
95. All are advantages of breast milk except;
A/ maternal contraceptive effects
B/ decreases premenopausal breast cancer
C/ it decreases unplanned expenses
D/ easily available and affordable
E/ none

Part VI; Pediatrics

96, The best growth chart indicator in patients with acute malnutrition is:
A, BMI C, weight-for-height
B, body weight D, head circumference

97, All of the following vaccines are recommended to be stored at the top of the main
compartment of the refrigerator except:
A, BCG C, measles vaccine
B, mumps vaccine D, DPT
98, From the four types of plasmodium protozoa’s, which one may relapses in the liver once
after treatment?
A, p. falcifarem and P. vivax C, P. vivax and P. ovale
B, P. ovale and P. malaria D, P. malaria and P. vivax
99, which one of the following is not attenuated vaccine
A, BCG C, measles vaccine
B, OPV D, tetanus vaccine
100, One of the following is not the criteria to admit a child with protein energy malnutrition:
A, weight-for-height < 90% C, MUAC< 11cm
B, bilateral edema D, weight- for-age < 80%
101, ______is a macrocytic anemia caused by deficiency of vitamin- B-12, folic acid or both.
A, Leukemia C, Megaloblastic anemia
B, iron-deficiency anemia D, Anemia due to chronic-illness

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102, which one of the following infectious diseases is the commonest cause for child morbidity
and mortality in developing countries;
A, Bronchitis C, Common-cold
B, Bronchial asthma D, Pneumonia
103, All of the following features may manifest in marasmic child except:
A, Old man face C, Hepato-megaly
B, Good appetite D, Distended abdomen
104, A child comes with a complain of difficulty of suckling and swallowing, hunger and cry,
diminished movement and stiffness to touch and spasm at your hospital , so what will be your
possible diagnosis for this child?
A, Typhoid fever C, Meningitis
B, Mumps D, Tetanus

105, One of the following is the important criteria/ indices for the assessment of growth:
A, BMI C, Skin-fold thickness
B, MUAC D, All are correct
106, which one of the following baby needs rescitataion:
A, A baby with HR- 120, RR- Crying, colour- pink
B, A baby with RR-Irregular, muscle tone- limp
C, A baby with colour-pink, response to nasal catheter- sneeze
D, None of the above
107, one of the following is not true about physiologic jaundice:
A, It is visible on the 2nd or the 3rd day of delivery
B, Decreases between the 5th and the 7th day of delivery
C, Persists 10-14 days of life
D, Is the result of increased bilirubin production
108, A mother giving exclusive breast feed to her baby should feed her baby ______times per
day:
A, 6-8 C, 8-12
B, 5-6 D, 4-5
109, All are true about meningitis except:

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 A, It can be manifested by increased intra- cranial pressure
B, It can be confirmed by CSF examination
C, It can be manifested by nuechal rigidity
D, If the cause is gram –ve bacteria, treatment will be ampicillin and gentamycin
110, All of the following are sign’s of good attachment of infants while breast feeding except:
A, Infants lower lip turned out ward C, Infants mouth wide open
B, Infants chin touches mothers breast D, None of the above

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