Advanced Cardiac Life Support (ACLS)

Certification Course Exam

Congratulations! You have passed this quiz achieving 92%
1. True or False: Any organized rhythm without a pulse is defined as
pulseless electrical activity (PEA).
Your Answer: True
CORRECT
2. True or False: A nasopharyngeal airway (NPA) can be used on a
semi-conscious or conscious individual, while an oropharyngeal
airway (OPA) should only be used on an unconscious individual.
Your Answer: True
CORRECT
3. True or False: Any bradycardia less than 60 beats per minute is a
pathologic event.
Your Answer: False
CORRECT
4. True or False: Therapeutic hypothermia should be considered in the
comatose adult after cardiac arrest.
Your Answer: True
CORRECT
5. True or False: An individual in PEA has an organized cardiac
rhythm on ECG.
Your Answer: True
CORRECT
6. True or False: PEA and asystole are considered non-shockable
rhythms and follow the same ACLS algorithm.
Your Answer: True
CORRECT
7. True or False: It is recommended to interrupt CPR when obtaining
IV access for an individual in asystole.
Your Answer: False
CORRECT
8. True or False: Nausea in conjunction with chest pain may be
indicative of myocardial ischemia.
Your Answer: True
CORRECT
9. True or False: Low blood pressure may be an indication of
hemodynamic instability.
Your Answer: True
CORRECT
10. True or False: In a suspected acute stroke individual, you must
always immediately obtain IV access.
Your Answer: False
CORRECT
11. True or False: If atropine is unsuccessful in treating bradycardia, it
is doubtful that the individual will respond to any other
interventions.
Your Answer: False
CORRECT
12. The ACLS Survey includes assessing which of the following?
o  Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Differential Diagnosis
o  Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Deformity
o  Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Defibrillation
o  Airway, Blood Pressure, CPR, Differential Diagnosis
CORRECT
13. Hyperventilation (over-ventilation) can be harmful because it:
o  Increases intrathoracic pressure
o  Decreases venous return to the heart
o  Diminishes cardiac output
o  All of the above
CORRECT
14. What item is NOT an example of Advanced Airways?
o  Laryngeal mask airway (LMA)
o  Endotracheal tube (ET tube)
o  Oropharyngeal airway (OPA)
o  Esophageal-tracheal tube (combitube)
CORRECT
15. What reason is NOT valid during the critical early defibrillation for
individuals experiencing sudden cardiac arrest?
o  The most effective treatment for ventricular fibrillation (VF) is
electrical defibrillation.
o  The probability of successful defibrillation decreases quickly over
time.
o  A common initial rhythm in out-of-hospital witnessed sudden
cardiac arrest is ventricular fibrillation (VF).
o  Individuals in asystole respond well to early defibrillation.
INCORRECT - RIGHT ANSWER: INDIVIDUALS IN ASYSTOLE
RESPOND WELL TO EARLY DEFIBRILLATION.
16. Which of the following is an essential component of high-quality
CPR?
 o  Push hard and fast.
o  Minimize interruptions.
o  Switch rescuers every two minutes.
o  All of the above
CORRECT
17. For persistent VF/pulseless VT, vasopressors that may be given
during CPR include:
o  Magnesium and potassium
o  Epinephrine and dopamine
o  Epinephrine
o  Amiodarone and diltiazem
CORRECT
18. Common causes of PEA include all of the following EXCEPT:
o  Hyperkalemia
o  Hypoxia
o  Hyperventilation
o  Hypothermia
CORRECT
19. Early access to medical care, from EMS through reperfusion,
improves overall outcomes by:
o  Saving more heart tissue from cell death
o  Faster access to medications that increase blood clotting
o  Delaying onset of hypothermia
o  Increased access to social support services
CORRECT
20. Symptoms suggestive of ACS may include all of the following
EXCEPT:
o  Headache and blurry vision
o  Unexplained shortness of breath with or without chest discomfort
o  Uncomfortable pressure in the center of the chest
o  Chest discomfort with lightheadedness, sweating, or nausea
INCORRECT - RIGHT ANSWER: HEADACHE AND BLURRY VISION
21. Nitroglycerin should not be used in individuals experiencing which
of the following situations?
o  Hypotension or recent Viagra use
o  Frequent premature ventricular contractions
o  Atypical chest pain
o  Individuals with a history of ST-elevation MI (STEMI)
 CORRECT
22. What is the only means of identifying ST-elevation MI (STEMI)?
o  Fibrinolytic checklist
o  Coronary angiography
o  None of the above
o  12-lead ECG
CORRECT
23. The best treatment for ST-elevation MI (STEMI) is:
o  Early reperfusion therapy
o  Epinephrine and vasopressin
o  Rapid transfusion
o  Lidocaine and magnesium
CORRECT
24. If uncertain whether or not an individual is an appropriate candidate
for synchronized cardioversion, the ACLS trained provider should:
o  Provide increased oxygenation.
o  Seek expert consultation.
o  Defer cardioversion until symptoms become irreversible.
o  Obtain a coronary CT scan.
CORRECT
25. Which of the following is true concerning ischemic strokes?
o  They account for 80% of all strokes and are caused by an occlusion
of a vein to a region of the brain.
o  They account for 87% of all strokes and are usually caused by an
occlusion of an artery to a region of the brain.
o  They account for 50% of all strokes and are caused by an occlusion
of a vein to a region of the brain.
o  They account for 13% of all strokes and are caused by an occlusion
of an artery to a region of the brain.
CORRECT
26. All of the following are found within the 8 D’s of Stroke Care
EXCEPT:
o  Detection
o  Decision
o  Debilitation
o  Delivery
CORRECT
27. The Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale (CPSS) identifies stroke on
the basis of the following physical findings EXCEPT:
 o  Abnormal gait
o  Abnormal speech
o  Facial droop
o  Arm drift
CORRECT
28. The chambers of the heart responsible for circulating deoxygenated
blood from the systemic circulation to the pulmonary circulation are
the following:
o  Left atrium and left ventricle
o  Right atrium and right ventricle
o  Left ventricle and right atrium
o  Left atrium and right ventricle
CORRECT
29. The normal sinus rhythm of the heart starts in the:
o  Sinoatrial node
o  Purkinje system
o  Right ventricle
o  Atrioventricular node
CORRECT
30. What does a P wave on an ECG reflect?
o  AV block
o  Atrial contraction
o  Ventricular repolarization
o  Ventricular contraction
CORRECT
31. What does the QRS represent?
o  Depolarization of the ventricle
o  SA node
o  Repolarization of the ventricle
o  Conduction through the AV node
CORRECT
32. What does the PR interval on an ECG reflect?
o  Opening of mitral valve between the left atrium and left ventricle
o  Time between atrial and ventricular contraction
o  Width of septum
o  T wave inversion
CORRECT
33. You are alone when you encounter an individual in what appears to
be cardiac or respiratory arrest. What are the first three steps you
should take to stabilize them? Check for danger, check for
response, and ____________.
o  Call 911/EMS on your cell phone and put it on speakerphone.
o  Start CPR.
o  Insert an advanced airway.
o  Administer an initial shock.
CORRECT
34. Which of the following may be essential to maintain an individual’s
open airway?
o  O2 administration
o  Suctioning
o  Rescue breaths
o  Chest thrusts
CORRECT
35. After performing CPR for two minutes on an individual in asystole,
what is the ACLS trained provider’s next intervention?
o  AED shock administration
o  IV or IO access for atropine administration
o  Advanced airway insertion
o  IV or IO access for epinephrine administration
INCORRECT - RIGHT ANSWER: IV OR IO ACCESS FOR
EPINEPHRINE ADMINISTRATION
36. An important link in the STEMI Chain of Survival is improving
myocardial perfusion by:
o  CPR
o  Percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) or fibrinolytics
o  Defibrillation
o  Chest compressions
INCORRECT - RIGHT ANSWER: PERCUTANEOUS CORONARY
INTERVENTION (PCI) OR FIBRINOLYTICS
37. The following drugs and/or interventions may be used in the ACS
individual for cardiac reperfusion:
o  A. Fibrinolytic therapy
o  B. Atropine
o  C. Percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI)
o  D. Both A and C
CORRECT
38. In a bradycardic individual who is symptomatic and does not
respond to atropine, the next treatment to consider is:
o  Transcutaneous pacing
o  Amiodarone
o  Analgesics
o  Sedatives
CORRECT
39. Tachycardia may reduce coronary perfusion and cause a
myocardial infarction, which is also known as a(n):
o  Heart attack
o  Stroke
o  Irregular ventricular rhythm
o  Stenosis of the heart
CORRECT
40. If an individual suffering from tachycardia loses their pulse, the
following should be done:
o  Immediate defibrillation
o  Immediately resume CPR and switch to ACLS cardiac arrest
algorithm
o  Administer atropine
o  CPR until pulse is detectable
CORRECT
41. For appropriate treatment, it is vital to discern if the QRS wave is
___________in a tachycardic individual.
o  Positive or negative
o  Right or left
o  Present or absent
o  Wide or narrow
CORRECT
42. All of the following are considered classic symptoms of an acute
stroke EXCEPT:
o  A. Jaw pain
o  B. Headache
o  C. Numbness
o  D. All of the above are symptoms
CORRECT
43. Which of the following is correct regarding individuals with acute
stroke?
o  Hemorrhagic stroke is caused by the rupture of a blood vessel.
 o  Ischemic stroke is caused by the occlusion of an artery.
o  Time between symptoms onset and time of arrival at an ED are
critical to individual's survival.
o  All of the above
CORRECT
44. All of the following are appropriate actions by first responders
EXCEPT:
o  Find IV access immediately.
o  Check glucose level.
o  Transport to a nearby stroke center.
o  Administer oxygen.
CORRECT
45. For confirming and monitoring placement of the ET tube, the 2020
ACLS guidelines suggest which method?
o  Pulse oximetry
o  Glucose check
o  Blood pressure monitoring
o  Quantitative waveform capnography
CORRECT
46. All of the following are goals of resuscitation EXCEPT:
o  Maintain blood pressure.
o  Decrease glucose level.
o  Obtain normal sinus rhythm.
o  Adequate perfusion.
CORRECT
47. Which of the following side effects may be expected during
amiodarone infusion?
o  Hypotension
o  Bradycardia
o  Gastrointestinal toxicity
o  All of the above
CORRECT
48. Fast coronary reperfusion times are associated with:
o  Atrioventricular block
o  Sinus bradycardia
o  Improved outcomes
o  Increased risk of preeclampsia
CORRECT
49. Which of the following would be appropriate actions following
transcutaneous pacing?
o  Follow VT/VF algorithm
o  Consult a specialist.
o  Administer amiodarone.
o  Confirm ET tube placement with quantitative waveform
capnography.
CORRECT
50. Which rhythm can be defined as unstable tachycardia?
o  Atrial fibrillation
o  Atrial flutter
o  Supraventricular tachycardia
o  All of the above
CORRECT