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TELANGANA SOCIAL WELFARE RESIDENTIAL EDUCATIONAL

INSTITUTIONS SOCIETY
SECTION: Jr.BiPC NEET WEEKLYEXAM Max Marks: 720
Time:3.00 Hrs. Date: 20-11-2022
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BOTANY
1. Centromere is required for
1) movementofchromosomestowardspoles 2) cytoplasmiccleavage
3) crossingover 4)transcription
2. Ingerminatingseeds,fattyacidsaredegradedexclusivelyinthe
1)peroxisomes 2)Mitochondria 3) Proplastids 4)Glyoxysomes
3. The chromosomes in which centromere is situatedclosetooneendare
1) Telocentric 2)Sub-metacentric 3)Metacentric 4)Acrocentric
4. Identify the correct statement with regard to G1phase(Gap1)ofinterphase.
1) DNAsynthesisorreplicationtakesplace.
2) Reorganisationofallcellcomponentstakesplace.
3) Cell is metabolically active, grows but does notreplicate its DNA.
4) Nucleardivisiontakesplace.
5. CellsinG0phase
1) terminatethecellcycle 2)exitthecellcycle
3) enterthecellcycle 4) suspendthecellcycle.
6. Thecorrectsequenceofphasesofcellcycleis
1)G1→S→G2→M 2 )M→G1→G2→S
3)G1→G2→S→M 4)S→G1→G2→M.
7. In‘S’phaseofthecellcycle
1) amountofDNAdoublesineachcell 2) amountofDNAremainssameineachcell
3) chromosomenumberisincreased 4) amountofDNAisreducedtohalfineachcell.
8. At whatstage ofthecell cycleare histoneproteinssynthesizedinaeukaryoticcell?
1) DuringG2stageofprophase 2) DuringS-phase
3) Duringentireprophase 4) Duringtelophase
9. Astageofmitosisisshowninthediagram. Which stage is it and whatareits
characteristics?

1) Metaphase-Spindlefibersattachedto kinetochores, centromeres

splitandchromatidsseparate.
2) Metaphase - Chromosomes moved to spindleequator, chromosomes made up of two
sisterchromatids.
3) Anaphase - Centromeres split and chromatidsseparateandstartmovingaway.
4) Lateprophase-Chromosomesmovetospindleequator.
10. Spindlefibresattachonto
1) centromereofthechromosome 2) kinetosomeofthechromosome
3) telomereofthechromosome 4) kinetochoreofthechromosome.
11. Duringmitosis,ERandnucleolusdisappearat
1) lateprophase 2)earlyanaphase 3)latemetaphase 4)earlyprophase.
12. If you are provided with root-tips of onion in yourclassandareaskedtocountthechromosomes, whichof
the following stages can you most convenientlylookinto?
1) Metaphase 2)Telophase 3)Anaphase 4)Prophase
13. Crossing over occurring in
1) Leptotene 2) Zygotene3)Pachytene4) Diplotene
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14. Whichofthefollowingstructureswillnotbecommontomitoticcellofahigherplant?
1) Centriole 2)Spindlefibre 3)Cellplate 4)Centromere
15. Mitoticanaphasediffersfrommetaphaseinpossessing
1) samenumberofchromosomesandsamenumberofchromatids
2) half number of chromosomes and half numberofchromatids
3) halfnumberofchromosomesandsamenumberofchromatids
4) samenumberofchromosomesandhalfnumberofchromatids.
16. Matchthefollowingwithrespecttomeiosis.
A)Zygotene (i)Terminalization
B)Pachytene (ii)Chiasmata
C)Diplotene (iii)Crossingover
D)Diakinesis (iv)SynapsisSelectthecorrectoptionfromthefollowing
(A) (B) (C) (D)
1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
17. Crossingovertakesplacebetweenwhichchromatidsandinwhichstageofthecellcycle?
1)Non-sisterchromatidsofnon-homologouschromosomesatZygotenestageofprophaseI.
2)Non-sister chromatids of homologouschromosomesatPachytenestageofprophaseI.
3)Non-sister chromatids of homologouschromosomesatZygotenestageofprophaseI.
4)Non-sisterchromatidsofnon-homologouschromosomesatPachytenestageofprophaseI.
18. Arrangethefollowingeventsofmeiosisincorrectsequence
(i) Crossingover (ii)Synapsis
iii) Terminalisationofchiasmata iv) Disappearanceofnucleolus
1)(i),(ii),(iii),(iv) 2)(ii),(iii),(iv),(i)
3)(ii),(i),(iv),(iii) 4)(ii),(i),(iii),(iv)
19. Theenzymerecombinaseisrequiredatwhichstageofmeiosis?
1)Pachytene 2)Zygotene 3)Diplotene 4)Diakinesis
20. Thecomplexformedbyapairofsynapsedhomologouschromosomesiscalled
1)bivalent 2)axoneme 3)equatorialplate 4)kinetochore
21. Numberofchromatidsatmetaphaseis
1) twoeachinmitosisandmeiosis 2) twoinmitosisandoneinmeiosis
3)twoinmitosisandfourinmeiosis 4) oneinmitosisandtwoinmeiosis.
22. MeiosisIisreductionaldivision.MeiosisIIisequationaldivisiondueto
1) pairingofhomologouschromosomes 2) crossingover
3) separationofchromatids 4) disjunctionofhomologouschromosomes
23. A chromosome with two equal arms is
1) Sub-metacentric 2) Metacentric 3) Telocentric 4) Acrocentric
24. The number of base pairs wrapped over a nucleosome
1) 200 bp 2) 150 bp 3) 250 bp 4) 100 bp
25. The histone proteins present in a histone octamer are
1) H2A, H2B, H2C, H3 2) H2A, H2B, H1, H3
3) H2A, H2B, H3, H4 4) H1, H2, H3, H4
26. Approximate of length of all DNA in a mammalian cell is
1) 2.0m 2) 2.2m 3) 3.4m 4) 1m
27. Each nucleosome consists of
1) RNA and Protein 2) Histone Proteins and Lipids
3) Lipids and DNA 4) DNA and Histone proteins
28. Peroxysomes are present in
1) Plant cells 2) Animal cells 3) Both 1 and 2 4) None
29. Initiation of terminalization occur in
1) Leptotene 2) Zygotene 3) Pachytene 4) Diplotene
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30. Actual reduction division occur in

1) Meiosis-1 2) Meiosis-2 3) Mitosis 4) All
31. Meiosis division occur in
1) Vegetative cells 2) Germ cells 3) Somatic cells 4) All
32. In some organisms, karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis as a result of which, multinucleate
condition arises leading to the formation of syncytium. The perfect example for this is
1) appearance of furrow in cell membrane 2) liquid endosperm in coconut
3) sexual reproduction 4) Endosperm in mango
33. Histone octamer acts as the core of the nucleo-some. The type of histone which is not a component
of octamer?
1) H2A 2) H2B 3) H4 4) H1
34. The stage of mitosis in which spindle fibres disappear around the poles and golgi body as well of
E.R are reformed as
1) anaphase 2) telophase 3) cytokinesis 4) metaphase
35. Meiosis consists of two divisions meiosis – I and Meiosis – II which are respectively called.
1) heterotypic and homotypic divisions 2) reduction and equational divisions
3) homotypic and heterotypic divisions 4) both 1 and 2
36. Select the incorrect statement about meiosis
1) it maintain the chromosome number of an organism
2) Fixed number of chromosomes are present in all organisms
3) it helps in duplication of cells
4) it bring out variations that help in evolution of species
37. Time required approximately for interphase in cell cycle of a human cell is ___
1) 20 hrs 2) 21 hrs 3) 22 hrs 4) 23 hours
38. _____ phase is called phase of apparent division.
1) Interphase 2) M phase 3) G0 phase 4) Quiscent phase
39. In which phase of interphase , the cell is metabolically active and grows continuously
1) G1 phase. 2) G2 phase. 3) S phase. 4) All
40. If the content of DNA in a chromosome is 2C after M phase , what will be the content of DNA at
G1 ,S and Anaphase of mitosis?
1) 2C, 4C & 2C 2) 2C , 4C & 4C. 3) 4C , 4C & 2C. 4) 4C, 4C & 4C
41. Identify the correct statement
1) At G0 phase cell remains metabolically inactive
2) In G2 phase proteins are synthesized
3) In animal cells during S phase duplication of centrioles occur in cytoplasm
4) During cell cycle, most of the time cell remains in interphase
42. The time taken for the completion of cell cycle in yeast is
1) 60 minutes 2) 80 minutes 3) 90 minutes 4) 50 minutes
43. Stage of mitosis in which two chromatids of a chromosome separate from each other? Anaphase
1) Anaphase 2) Metaphase 3) Telophase 4) Prophase
44. Haploid cells undergo mitotis in.
1) All plants and animals 2)Some lower plants and some insects
3) All higher plants and animals 4) All insects
45. If there are 20 chromatids in a meristematic cell at metaphase, how many chromosomes are there in
each daughter cell following cytokinesis
1) 30 2) 20 3) 10 4) 40
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ZOOLOGY
46. The interaction between sea anemone and down fish is an example for
1) Ammensalism 2) Mutualism 3) Commensalism 4) Predation
47. Mostly the plant-pollinator interactions come under
1) Predation, because rector is collected by pollinator
2) Competition, because two pollinators struggle together
3) Parasitism, because during rector siphoning, the rector glands are affected
4) Mutualism, because both the plant and the pollinator are benefited
48. The detritus includes
1) Dead plants remains 2) Dead remains of animals
3) Faucal matter 4) All the above
49. Which is incorrect about humus
1) Dark coloured amorphous substance 2) Highly resistant to microbial action
3) Humus is degraded by some microbes and release organic
4) Humus acts as reservoir of nutrients and increases water holding capacity of soil
50. Which of the following organisms are capable of withstanding the ‘fluctuations’ in salinity
1) Marine organisms 2) Estuarine organisms
3) Fresh water organisms 4) All the above
51. Primary produces in aquatic ecosystem are
1) Zooplanktons, Fungi and lower plants 2) Algae, fungi and higher plants
3) Phytoplankton’s, green algae and higher plants
4) Capepods, fishes and higher plants
52. Find out the aquatic ecosystem from the following
1) Tundra 2) Wet lands 3) Grass lands 4) Tiagas
53. Identify the mismatched combination
1) Hedge plant – Host of cuscuta 2) Host of copepods – Marine fish
3) Mango tree – Epiphytic orchid: Mutualism 4) Fig fruit : Wasp - Mutualism
54. The rate of decomposition depends on
1) Chemical composition of detritus 2) Temperature
3) Soil moisture 4) All the above
55. Select the option that correctly identifies A, B and C in the given table.
Organisms Trophic level Food chain
Eagle A Grazing
Earthworm Primary consumer B
Frog C Grazing
A B C
1 Secondary consumer Top carnivore Detritus
2 Top carnivore Detritus Secondary consume
3 Secondary consumer Grazing Secondary consumer
4 Scavenger Grazing Producer
56. The animals living at the air-water interface are
1) Neuston 2) Nector 3) Periphytons 4) Benthos
57. If the host evolves special mechanisms for rejecting (or) resisting the parasite, the parasite has to
evolve mechanisms to counteract (or) neutralize them. This biological process is called.
1) Co- evolution 2) Retrogressive evolution
3) Divergent evolution 4) Mutualism
58. The rate of function of the pond is regulated by
1) Solar input 2) Day length 3) Temperature 4) All of these
59. In terrestrial ecosystem, the major producers are
1) Phytoplankton and grass plants 2) Herbaceous and woody plants
3) Ferns and masses 4) Large size trees and Fungi
60. Find out the correct food chain from the following
1) Grass → Chameleon → Insect → Bird 2) Grass → Fox → Rabbit → Bird
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3) Phytoplankton → Zooplankton → Fish → Bird

4) Leaf litter → Insect → Rabbit → Snake
61. In broad parasitism, the host and parasite respectively
1) Cuckoo and Crow 2) Peacock and Snake 3) Crow and Cuckoo 4) Peacock and Crow
62. In absence of decomposers, an ecosystem functioning is adversely affected due to
1) Blocking of energy flow 2) Blocking of cycling of minerals
3) Blocking of solar energy to producers 4) Rate of decomposition of mineral will increase
63. Statement – I: Major conduit for energy flow in aquatic ecosystem in DFC
Statement – II: Marine ecosystem is the largest of all aquatic ecosystems and is the most stable
1) Both statements I and II are correct
2) Statement – I is correct, Statement – II is incorrect
3) Statement – I is incorrect Statement – II is correct
4) Both statements I and II are incorrect
64. The number of trophic levels in a food chain is limited to 4 (or) 5 because
1) The amount of food produced by producer is limited
2) Consumers demand is high
3) 90% of the food is lost as heat at each transfer between trophic levels
4) Activity of decomposer is poor
65. Which of the following is not a functional aspect of ecosystem?
1) Cycling of nutrients 2) Flow of energy 3) Stratification 4) Decompose
66. Identify the correct statements
1) The wasp pollinates the flowers of fig plant while searching for suitable egg laying sites
2) Fig offers the whole fruit to the wasp as food for the development of wasp’s larval
3) Female wasp lays eggs within the seed of fig
4) The interaction between fig species and wasp species is an example for commensalism
67. Match the following
List – I List – II
a) Grass i) Decomposers
b) Grass hopper ii) Primary carnivore
c) Wolf iii) Primary consumer
d) Bacteria iv) Producers
v) Secondary carnivore
1) a – iv, b – i, c – iii, d – v 2) a – iv, b – iii, c – ii, d – i
3) a – i, b – iii, c – ii, d – iv 4) a – iii, b – ii, c – v, d - iv
68. All are natural ecosystems, except
1) Estuaries, pond ecosystems 2) Forest, desert ecosystems
3) Agroecosytem, aquarium 4) Coral reef, wet land ecosystem
69. The factors favour fast decomposition of detritus matter, choose correct option from the following
a) Detritus rich in lignin b) Moist environment c) Aerobiosis
d) Low temperature e) Nitrogen rich detritus f) Anaerobiasis
1) a, d & e 2) b, c & e 3) c, d & f 4) All of these
70. Following pair of organisms belongs to the same trophic level
1) Grass, Man 2) Grasshopper, Wolf
3) Phytoplankton, Earthworm 4) Zooplankton, Cow
71. Which of the following is not the special adaptation evolved in parasites
1) Presence of well developed digestive system
2) Loss of unnecessary sense organs
3) Presence of adhesive organs 4) High reproductive capacity
72. Hawk eats snake and snake eats rabbit while rabbit eats green plant. Them the position of hawk is
1) Tertiary carnivore 2) Primary consumer 3) Primary carnivore 4) Secondary carnivore
73. Match the following
List – I List – II
A) Ophrys and bee i) Mutualism
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B) Barnacles and whale ii) Snail and fish

C) Cuscuta iii) Parasite plant
D) Liver fluke iv) Commensalism
E) Plant – Polinator v) Sexual deceit
1) A – iv, B – v, C – iii, D – i, E - ii 2) A – v, B – i, C – iii, D – ii, E – iv
3) A – v, B – iv, C – iii, D – ii, E – i 4) A – v, B – iii, C – iv, D – i, E – ii
74. GFC is the major conduct for energy flow in
1) Grassland ecosystem 2) Aquatic ecosystem
3) Forest ecosystem 4) Desert ecosystem
75. Which of the following acts as a primary consumer as well as a secondary consumer
1) Grasshopper 2) Sparrow 3) Frog 4) Snake
76. Which of the following is a detritus food chain?
1) Rose bush → aphids → spiders → birds
2) Grass → Grasshoppers → Frog → Snake → Hawk
3) Leaf litter → Earthworm → Birds → Hawk
4) Phytoplankton → Zooplankton → Smell fish → Squid
77. Which of the following organisms in the given below are decomposers (reducers)
1) Cuscuta, fungi, algae and mealworm 2) Fungi, bacteria, flagellates and earthworm
3) Bacteria, flagellates, amoeba and silkworm 4) Cattle egret, fungi, algae and earthworm
78. Generally a food chain ends with
1) Producers 2) Carnivores 3) Herbivores 4) Decomposers
79. The major difference between grazing food chain and detritus food chain is/are
1) Grazing food chain begins with producers and detritus food chain begins with detrivores
2) GFC is received energy from sun and DFC received energy from detritus
3) GFC – is major conduct for energy flow in aquatic ecosystem and DFC-is major conduct for
energy flow in terrestrial ecosystem
4) Usually GFC has less trophics than DFC
1) 1, 2, 3 correct 2) 1, 3, 4 correct 3) 1, 2, 3, 4 correct 4) 1, 2, 4 correct
80. Man made ecosystem with highest productivity
1) Sanctuary 2) Cropland 3) Aquarium 4) Grass land
81. Arrange the consumers in a correct sequence from the following
a) secondary consumers b) heterotrophs
c) tertiary consumers d) primary consumers
1) b-d-a-c 2) b-d-c-a 3) a-b-c-d 4) c-d-a-b
82. Find out the micro-consumers from the following
1) omnivores 2) decomposers 3) primary consumers 4) secondary consumers
83. In the word saprotrophs, ‘Sapro’ refers to
1) produce 2) consume 3) decompose 4) nutrition
84. Raw material for decomposition is
1) minerals 2) humus 3) detritus 4) urine
85. Cold type of desert is seen in
1) Rajasthan 2) Ladakh 3) Kolkata 4) Mumbai
86. Which of the following is a part of the GFC
1) parasitic food chain 2) detritus food chain 3) grazing food chain 4) none of the above
87. Match the following
List – I List – II
a) Nekton 1) live at air-water interface
b) periphyton 2) live at the bottom of the lake
c) Neuston 3) capable of swimming
d) Benthos 4) attached to aquatic plants
1) a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2 2) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4 3) a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1 4) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
88. The maximum energy is stored at following tropic level in any ecosystem
1) producers 2) herbivores 3) carnivores 4) tap carnivores
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89. Statements – I: In a grazing food chain, trophic levels are limited in number
Statements – II: Generally detritus food chains are shorted than grazing food chains
1) both statement I and II are true 2) both I and II are false
3) statement I is true and II is false 4) statement I is false, II is true
90. Which one of the following process during decomposition is correctly described?
1) leaching-water soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil, get precipitated as available
salts
2) Humification-leads to the accumulation of a dark coloured substance humus, on which microbial
action occurs at a very fast rate
3) catabolism-last step in the decomposition under fully anaerobic condition
4) fragmentation-carried out by organisms such as earthworms
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PHYSICS

91. A particle is subjected to two SHMs x1  A2 sin wt and x2  A 2 sin( wt   / 4) . The resultant SHM
will have an amplitude of
A  A2
1) 1 2) A12  A22 3) A12  A22  2 A1 A2 4) A1A2
2
92. The angular velocity and amplitude of a simple pendulum are ‘w’ and A respectively. At a
displacement ‘x’. If its KE is ‘T’ and PE is ‘U’ then the ratio of ‘t’ to ‘U’ is
x 2 w2 x2 A2  w2 x 2 A2  x 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
A2  w2 x 2 A2  x 2 x 2 w2 x2
93. Two simple harmonic oscillators with amplitudes in the ratio 1:2 are having the same total energy.
The ratio of their frequencies is
1) 1:4 2) 1:2 3) 2:1 4) 4:1

94. The time period of simple pendulum is T. When the length increases by 10cm, its period is T1.
When the length is decreased by 10cm, its period is T2. Then the relation between T, T1 and T2 is
2 1 1 2 1 1
1) 2
 2 2 2) 2
 2 2 3) 2T 2  T12  T22 4) 2T 2  T12  T22
T T1 T2 T T1 T2
95. T1T2 and T3 the time periods of a given pendulum on the surface of the earth, at a depth ‘h’ in a
mine and at an altitude ‘h’ above the earth’s surface respectively, then
1) T1  T2  T3 2) T2  T1  T3 3) T3  T2  T1 4) T1  T2  T3
96. The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum of length L suspended from the ceiling of a vehicle
which moves with out friction down in an inclined plane of inclination  is given by
L L L L
1) 2 2) 2 3) 2 4) 2
g cos  g sin  g g tan 
2
97. For a particle executing SHM. The KE K is given by K = K0 cos wt. The maximum value of PE is
K0 K0
1) K0 2) zero 3) 4)
2 4
98. A body executing SHM at a displacement x its PE is E1, at a displacement Y its PE is E2. The P.E at
a displacement (x + y) is
1) E  E1  E2 2) E  E1  E2 3) E  E1  E2 4) E  E1  E2
99. A particle of mass m executes SHM with amplitude a and frequency v. The average kinetic energy
during motion from the position of equilibrium to the end is
1 2 2
1) 2 2 ma 2 v 2 2)  2 ma 2 v2 3) ma v 4) 4 2 ma 2 v 2
4
100. A mass M is suspended from a spring of negligible mass. The spring is pulled a little and then
released so that the mass executes SHM o time period T, if the mass is increased by m, time period
becomes 5T/3, then the ratio of (m/M) is
1) 3/2 2) 25/9 3) 16/9 4) 5/3
101. Two springs of force constant 1000 N/m and 2000 N/m are stretched by same force. The ratio of
their respective potential energies is
1) 2:1 2) 1:2 3) 4:1 4) 1:4
102. K is the force constant of a spring. The work done is increasing its extension from 11 to 12 will be
K K 2 2
1) K (12  11 ) 2) (l2  l1 ) 3) K (122  112 ) 4) (l2  l1 )
2 2
103. A spring of unstretched length l has a mass m with one end fixed to a rigid support. Assuming
spring to be made of a uniform wire, the kinetic energy possessed by it if its free end is pulled with
uniform velocity  is
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1 1 2 1
1) m 2 2) m 3) m 2 4) m 2
2 3 6
104. A uniform circular disc of mass 12kg is held by two identical springs as shown in the figure. When
the disc is pressed down slightly and released, it executes SHM wiwith
th a time period of 2 sec. The
force constant of each spring is

1) 236 Nm-1 2) 118.3 Nm-1 3) 59.15 Nm-1 4) none of the above

2
9d Y
105. The differential equation representing the SHM of a particle is  4Y  0. The time period of
dt 2
the particle is given by
 2
1) sec 2)  sec 3) sec 4) 3 sec
3 3
106. A body executes SHM under the influence to one force and has time period T1 seconds and the same
body executes SHM with period T2 seconds when under the influence of another force. When both
forces act simultaneously and in the same direction then the time period of the same body is
T1  T2 T12  T22
1) (T1  T2 ) sec 2) T12  T22 sec 3) sec 4) a
T1T2 (T12  T22 )
107. A particle executes SHM on a straight line. AT two positions, its velocities are u and v while
accelerations are  and  respectively [     0] . The distance between these two positions is
u2  v2 u 2  v2 u 2  v2 u2  v2
1) 2) 3) 4)
      
108. The ratio between kinetic and potential ener
energies
gies of a body executing simple harmonic motion, when
it is at a distance of 1/N of its amplitude from the mean position is
1
1) N 2  1 2) 2
3) N2 4) N2-1
N
109. A simple pendulum executing SHM in a straight line has zero velocity at a and b whose distances
from o in the same line OAB are a and b. If the velocity half way between them is v then its time
period is
 (b  a) ba ba ba
1) 2)    3)   4)  
v  v   2v   2v 
110. A simple pendulum with a bob of mass m oscillates from A to C and back A such that PB is H. If
the acceleration due to gravity is g then the velocity of the bob as it passes through B is

1) mg H 2) 22gH 3) 2gH 4) zero

111. A spherical ball of mass m and radius r rolls without slipping on a rough concave surface of large
 9 
radius R  R  m  . It makes small oscillations about the lowest point. Finds the time period. (Take
 7 
2
g = 10m/sec )
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6 7
1) 5 sec 2) 5 sec 3) sec 4) sec
7 2
112. For a body in SHM the velocity is given by the relation v  144  16s 2 m / sec . The maximum
acceleration is
1) 12 m/sec2 2) 16 m/sec2 3) 36 m/sec2 4) 48 m/sec2
113. Acceleration displacement graph of a particle executing SHM is as shown in given figure. The time
period of its oscillation is ( insec)

1)  / 2 2) 2 3)  4)  / 4
114. Two SHMs are represented by the equations
y1  10sin(3 t   / 4) and y2  5[sin 3 t  3 cos 3 t ]. Their amplitudes are in the ratio
1) 1:2 2) 2:1 3) 1:3 4) 1:1
115. The shape of l-TT graph of simple pendulum is
1) straight line 2) parabola 3) curve 4) hyperbola
116. If the value of ‘g’ on the surface of the moon is g/6, the time period of a pendulum on the surface of
the moon w.r.t time period on the earth will be
1
1) 6 times 2) 6 times 3) times 4) 1/6 times
6
117. The mass m is attached to two springs according to the figure. If the frictional force is absent the
period of horizontal oscillations of the body will be

3k k m m
1) 2 2) 2 3) 2 4) 2
m m 2k 3k

118. The total force constant of the springs shown in the figure will be

1
k   1 1  1 1  1
1)  1  k2  2)    3)    4)  2k1  
2   2k
2 1 k2   2k1 k2   k2 
119. A particle at the end of the spring executes SHM with a period t1, while the corresponding period
for another spring is t2. If the period of oscillation with two springs in series is T then
1) T  t1  t2 2) T 2  t12  t 22 3) T 2  t11  t21 4) T 2  t12  t22
120. A mass M is suspended from a light spring an additional mass m added displaces the spring further
by a distance x. Now the combined mass will oscillate the spring with a period
 11

mg ( M  m) x M m mgx
1) T  2 2) T  2 3) T  2 4) T  2
x ( M  m) mg mgx M m
121. A particle executes linear simple harmonic motion with an amplitude of 3cm. When the particle is
at, 2 cm from the mean position, the magnitude of its velocity is equal to that of its acceleration.
Then its time period in seconds is
2 5 5 4
1) 2) 3) 4)
3  2 5
122. Two bodies M and N of equal masses are suspended from two separate massless springs to spring- spring
constants k1 and k2 respectively. If the two bodies oscillate vertically such that their maximum
velocities are equal, the ratio of the amplitude of vibration of M to that of N is
1) k1 / k2 2) k1 / k2 3) k 2 / k1 4) k2 / k1
123. A particle executes linear simple harmonic motion with an amplitude of 3cm. When the particle is at
2 cm from the mean position, the magnitude of its vvelocity
elocity is equal to that of its acceleration. Then
its time period in seconds is
5 5 4 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
 2 5 3
124. Two simple harmonic motions are represented by the equations
  
y1  0.1sin  100 t   and y2  0.1cos  t . the phase difference of the velocity of particle 1 with
 3
respect to the velocity of particle 2 is
1)  / 3 2)  / 6 3)  / 6 4)  / 3
125. A particle is executing SHM along a straight line. Its velocities at distance x1 and x2 from the mean
position are v1 and v2 respectively. Its time period is
x22  x12 v12  v22 v12  v22 x12  x22
1) 2 2 2) 2 2 3) 2 2 4) 2 2
v1  v22 x1  x22 x1  x22 v1  v22
126. When a sound wave of frequency 300 hertz passes through a medium, the maximum displacement
of a particle of the medium is 0.1 cm. The maximum velocity of the particl
particlee is equal to
1) 60 cms 1
2) 30 cms 1
3) 30cms 1
4) 60cms 1
127. Two blocks A and B of masses 3m and m respectively are connected by a massless and inextensible
string. The whole system
stem is suspended by a massless spring as shown in figure. The magnitudes of
acceleration of A and B immediately after the string is cut, the respectively

g g
1) g , 2) ,g 3) g, g 4) g/3, g/3
3 3
128. A mass M is suspended
uspended from a light spring. An additional mass m added displaces the spring further
by a distance x. Now the combined mass will oscillate on the spring with period
1) T  2 mg / x( M  m) 2) T  2 ( M  m) x / mg
1
3) T   mg / x( M  m) 4) T  2 ( M  m) / mgx
2
 12

129. A spring of force constant k is cut into lengths of ratio 1:2:3. They are connected in series and the
new force constant is k. Then they are connected in parallel and force constant is k. Then k : k is
1) 1:L6 2) 1:9 3) 1:11 4) 1:14
130. A particle executes linear simple harmonic motion with an amplitude of 3cm. When the particle is at
2cm from the mean position, the magnitude of its velocity is equal to that of its acceleration. Then
its time period in seconds is
5 5 4 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
 2 5 3
131. A pendulum is hung from the roof of a sufficiently high building and is moving freely to and from
like a simple harmonic oscillator. The acceleration of the bob of the pendulum is 20 m/s2 at a
distance of 5m from the mean position. The time period of oscillation is
1) 2 s 2) 1s 3) 2s 4)  s
132. A particle is executing a simple harmonic motion. Its maximum acceleration is  and maximum
velocity is  . Then, its time period of vibration will be
 2 2 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
   2
133. A particle of mass m is performing the linear simple harmonic motion. Its equilibrium is at x = 0,
fore constant is K and amplitude of SHM is A. The maximum power supplied by the restoring force
to the particle during SHM will be
3 3 3 3
K 2 A2 2K 2 A2 K 2 A2 K 2 A2
1) 2) 3) 4)
m m 3 m 2 m
134. The mass and the diameter of a planet are three times of the respective values for the earth. If the
time period of oscillation of a simple pendulum on earth is 2s, then the time period of oscillation of
the same pendulum on the surface of the given planet would be
2 3
1) 3/2 s 2) s 3) s 4) 2 3s
3 2
135. Calculate the angular frequency of the system shown in figure. Friction is absent everywhere and
the threads, spring and pulleys are massless. Given that mA  mB  m

2K 4K 6K 8K
1) 2) 3) 4)
4m 5m 7m 5m
 13

CHEMISTRY
136. Which of the following is Gibbs-Helmholtz each
1) s  q / T 2) E  Qtw 3) G  s  T .H 4) G  H  T .S
137. The correct thermodynamic conditions for spontaneous process at all temp
1) H  O, S  O 2) H  O, S  O 3) H  O, S  O 4) H  O, G  O
138. Which one of the following conditions will favours maximum formation of product in the reaction
A2 ( g )  B2 ( g ) ƒ X 2 ( g )H   X K / J
1) low ‘T’ high ‘P’ 2) low ‘T’ & low ‘P’ 3) high T, high P 4) all of these
139. For chemical reaction HP< HR, then the reaction is
1) endothermic 2) exothermic 3) both 1 & 2 4) none of these
140. In an exothermic reaction, heat is evolved, and system losses heat to surroundings. For such system
1) qp will negative 2) H will be negative 3) both 1 & 2 4) qp will positive
141. For the process (1 Bar, 373K) H 2O( l )  H 2 O( g ) , the correct set of thermodynamic parameter is
1) G  O, S  Ve 2) G  O, S  Ve 3) G  ve, S  o 4) G  ve, S  ve
142. In a chemical reaction H is 150 KJ and S =100 at 350K, then G value is
1) 100 K.J 2) 200 K.J 3) 120 K.J 4) 250 K.J
143. Values of heat of formation for SiO2& MgO are-48.4 and -34.7 K.J respectively. The heat of the
reaction 2Mg + SiO2→2MgO+Si. is
1) +20. KJ 2) -21. KJ 3) +13.7 K.J 4) -13.7 K.J
144. Heat of combustion of ethane and benzene -1560 and -3268 K.J mole respectively. Which fuel is the
best
1) ethane 2) benzene 3) both 1 & 2 4) none
145. The entropy change for the certain reaction is 150 JK-1 mole. The H is… (T=298K), where the
minimum work done in the process (in K.J)
1) 44.7 K.J 2) 15 K.J 3) 300 K.J 4) 24.8 K.J
146. The conversion of S to S  is
1) Exothermic 2) Endothermic 3) Both 1 & 2 4) None of these
147. Hess law deals with.
1) Rate of reaction 2) Change in heat of reaction 3) both 1 & 2 4) none of these
148. The heat of neutralization 5 moles of HCl and 3 moles KOH solution is (nearby)
1) 190 K.J 2) 152 K 3) 172 K.J 4) 57.3 K.J
149. For the reaction H2SO4 reacts with NaOH undergoes compete neutralization of form ‘X’ kcal, then
heat of neutralization of that reaction is ….
1) X 2) 2X 3) X/2 4) 4X
150. If K<1 what will be the value of ∆𝐺
1) 1 2) Zero 3) Negative 4) Positive
151. Among them intensive property is
1) Mass 2) Value 3) Surface tension 4) Enthalpy
152. The heat of neutralization will be highest in
1) NH4 OH and CH3 COOH 2)NH4OH and HCl 3)KOH and CH3 COOH 4) KOH and HCl
153. Which of the following is / are undergoes sublimation
1) Sodium metal 2) Naphthalene 3) Camphor 4) All
154. Work done during the combustion of mole of CH4 in bomb calorimeters is
1) 0 2) 1 3) 3 4) 10

155. Heat of Hydrogenation is always

1) Positive 2) Negative 3) Both 1&2 4) Not predictable
156. Which of these has a standard enthalpy of formation is equal to 0
1) F2 2)HF 3) C02 4) HCl
157. The standard enthalpy of formation of NH3 is -918kj /mol the amount of heat required to
decompose 34g of NH3 in to its elements is
 14

1) 183.6 kj 2) 91.8 kj 3)45.9 kj 4) 137.7 kj

158. Heat if Neutralization of strong acid and strong base in K.Cal /Mol is
1) 57.3 2) -157.3 3) -12.7 4) +12.7
159. ∆𝐺 for the reaction where minimum work done is
1) -ve 2) +ve 3) 0 4) none of these
160. The heat of combustion of C to CO2 is -393.5 K.J/mol. The heat released upon the formation 35.2 gr
of CO2 from ‘C’ and O2 gas is
1) -3.15 K.J 2) -315 K.J 3) +315 K.J 4) -630 K.J
161. At the sublimation temperature, for the process CO2( s ) ƒ CO2( g )
1) H  O, S  O, G  O 2) H  O, S  O; G  O
3) Both 1 & 2 4) None of these
15
162. Consider the following reaction C6 H 6 (l ) 
O2 ( g )  6CO2 ( g )  3H 2O ( g ) signs of
2
H , S and G for the above reaction will be
1) +,-,+ 2) -,+,- 3) -,+,+ 4) +,+,-
163. An imaginary reaction X →Y takes place in three steps
X  A, H   q1 ; B  A, H   q2 ; B  Y , H  q3 . If Hess’ law is applicable, then the heat
of the reaction (X→Y) is
1) q1 – q2 + q3 2) q2 – q3 – q1 3) q1 – q2 - q3 4) q3 – q2 - q3
164. The enthalpy change for a reaction does depend upon:
1) The physical states of reactants and products 2) Use of different reactants for the same
product
3) The number of intermediate reaction steps 4) the differences in initial or final temperatures of
involved substances
165. Which of the following value of H f represent that the products is least stable?
1) -94.0 kcal mol-1 2) -231.6 kcal mol-1 3) +21.4 kcal mol-1 4) +64.8 kcal mol-1
166. For which of the following substances the enthalpy of formation in the standard state is zero?
1) Sucrose 2) diamond 3) aluminum 4) calcium chloride
167. Use the given standard enthalpies of formation (in kJ/mol) to determine the enthalpy of reaction of
the following reaction: NH 3 ( g )  3F2 ( g )  NF3 ( g )  3HF ( g )
H 0 f ( NH 3 , g )  46.2; H 0 f ( NF3 , g )  113.0; H 0 f ( HF , g )  269.0
1) -335.8 KJ/mol 2) -873.8 KJ/mol 3) -697.2 KJ/mol 4) -890.4 KJ/mol
-1
168. If  f H (C2 H 4 ) and  f H (C2 H 6 ) are x1 and x2 kcal mol , then heat of hydrogenation of C2H4 is
0 0

1) x1 + x2 2) x1 – x2 3) x2 – x1 4) x1 + 2x2
169. Which of the following reaction is endothermic?
1) CaCO3  CaO  CO2 2) Fe  S  FeS
3) NaOH  HCl  NaCl  H 2O 4) CH 4  2O2  CO2  2 H 2O
170. Enthalpy of neutralization of acetic acid by NaOH is -50.6 KJ/mol and the heat of neutralization of a
strong acid with a strong acid with a strong base is -55.9 KJ/mol. What is the value of H for the
ionization of CH3COOH?
1) +5.3 kJ/mol 2) +6.2 KJ/mol 3) +8.2 KJ/mol 4) +9.3 KJ/mol
171. In the reaction : H 2  Cl2  2 HCl ; H  194 KJ . Heat of formation of HCl is
1) +97kJ 2) +194 KJ 3) -194 KJ 4) -97KJ
172. For a hypothetic reaction A → B, the activation energies for forward and backward reaction are
19KJ/mol and 9 kJ/mol respectively. The heat of reaction is
1) 28 kJ 2) 19 kJ 3) 10 kJ 4) 9 kJ
173. When 0.5 g of Sulphur is burnt to SO2, 4.6kJ of heat is liberated. What is the enthalpy of formation
of sulphur dioxide?
 15

1) +147.2 kJ 2) -147.2 kJ 3) -294.4 kJ 4) +294.4 kJ

174. For conversion C( graphite )  C( diamond ) the S is :
1) zero 2) positive 3) negative 4) unknown
175. The enthalpy change (H ) for the process N 2 H 4( g )  2 N ( g )  4 H ( g ) in 1724 kJmol-1. If bond energy
of N – H bond in ammonia is 391 kJ mol-1. What is the bond energy of N – H bond is N2H4?
1) 160 kJ mol-1 2) 391 kJ mol-1 3) 1173 kJ mol-1 4) 320 kJ mol-1
176. The standard molar heat of formation of ethane, CO2 and water (l) are respectively -21.1, -94.1 and -
68.3 kcal. The standard molar heat of combustion of ethane will be
1) -372 kcal 2) 162 kcal 3) -240 kcal 4) 183.5 kcal
177. The enthalpy change ( H ) for the neutralization of 1M HCl by caustic potash in dilute solution at
298 K is
1) 68 kJ 2) 65 kJ 3) 57.3 kJ 4) 50 kJ
178. In a chemical reaction H is 150 kJ and S is 100 JK-1 at 300 K, then G is :
1) 200 kJ 2) 333 kJ 3) 300 kJ 4) 120 kJ
179. The enthalpy change (H ) for the reaction. N 2( g )  3H 2( g )  2 NH 3( g ) is -92.38 kJ at 298 k. The
internal energy change U at 298 K is
1) -92.38 kJ 2) -87.42 kJ 3) -97.34 kJ 4) -89.9 kJ
180. The correct relation between equilibrium constant (K), standard free energy ( G 0 ) temperature (T)
is
0 0
1) G 0 =RT1n K 2) K  e G /2.303 RT 3) G 0   RT log10 K 4) K  10G / 2.303 RT