La Ex TSPSC Group-1

Prelims Test Series-2022 (EM)

Explanations
(MOCK TEST – 1)

1. Answer: D enriching uranium above 3.67% with

Explanation: exception of research reactor
 China shares its land boundary with activities.
14 countries including India, the third-  Enriched uranium above 90% can be
longest after Mongolia and Russia. used in a nuclear weapon.
 Western sector: It pertains to the  Iran also agreed to implement a
Johnson Line proposed by the British protocol that would allow inspectors
in the 1860s that put Aksai Chin in from the International Atomic
the then princely state of Jammu and  Energy Agency (IAEA) to access its
Kashmir. China, however, does not nuclear sites to ensure Iran would
accept Johnson Line. not be able to develop nuclear
 Middle sector: It is the only one where weapons in secret.
India and China have exchanged maps
on which they broadly agree. 4. Answer: A
 Eastern sector: The disputed boundary Explanation: In 2015, India signed an
is over the MacMahon Line. agreement with Mauritius for the
development of the Agalega Islands.
2. Answer: A
Explanation:

5. Answer: A
Explanation:
 Quadrilateral Security Dialogue
(Quad) is an informal association of
India, the United States, Australia,
and Japan.
3. Answer: D  The group met for the first time in
Explanation: 2007 on the sidelines of the
 JCPOA is also known as the 2015 Association of Southeast Asian
Iran nuclear deal was signed between Nations (ASEAN)
Iran and P5+1 (China, France,  Build Back Better World (B3W)
Germany, Russia, UK, and US). In initiative is related to G7 not QUAD.
2018, US withdrew from the deal.
 Under the terms of the Joint
Comprehensive Plan of Action
(JCPOA), Iran was prohibited from

TSPSC_Group-1_Prelims Test Series_Mock Test-1(EM) - 2022 | https://manalaexcellence.com

6. Answer: A ‘Comprehensive Strategic
Explanation: Partnership’.
 Farzad B is an offshore natural gas  Roadmap will pave the way for a
field located in the Persian Gulf deeper and stronger engagement
(Iran). over the next ten years in the key
 It lies in the Farsi block on the areas of people-to-people contacts,
border between Iran and Saudi trade, and economy, defence and
Arabia. security, climate action and health.
 The Farzad-B gas field holds 23
trillion cubic feet of in-place gas 10. Answer: D
reserves, of which about 60% is Explanation:
recoverable.  India has signed four foundational
 It also holds gas condensates of defence agreements with the USA.
about 5,000 barrels per billion cubic  General Security of Military
feet of gas. Information Agreement (GSOMIA) in
 The gas field was discovered in 2008 2002 on military information
by OVL, the overseas investment exchange.
arm of India’s state-owned Oil and  Logistics Exchange Memorandum of
Natural Gas Corp (ONGC). Agreement (LEMOA) in 2016 to use
each other’s military base.
7. Answer: D  Communications Compatibility and
Explanation: All three countries are Security Agreement (COMCASA) in
members of SCO. 2018 for interoperability between the
two militaries and the sale of high-
8. Answer: B end technology to India.
Explanation:  Basic Exchange and Cooperation
 PGII: It is a $600-billion global Agreement (BECA) in 2020 to share
infrastructure investment high-end military technology,
partnership aimed at helping logistics, and geospatial maps.
developing countries by G7
countries. 11. Answer: A
 Build Back Better World (B3W) Explanation:
initiative: launched during the G-7 PUSA bio-decomposer
meet, is a values-driven and  Developed by ICAR, it is a low-cost
transparent infrastructure microbial bio-enzyme solution that
partnership to help narrow USD 40+ accelerates the decomposition of
trillion infrastructure needs in the crop residue, including stubble from
developing world. paddy crops into manure within 15-
 Asia-Africa Growth Corridor: an 20 days.
Indian- Japanese collaborative vision  It is emerging as a potential solution
regarding development, connectivity, toward curbing stubble burning.
and cooperation between Asia and  Also, it provides additional manure
Africa. through the decomposed stubble,
 Global Gateway: It is European improving the soil quality as well.
Union (EU’s) €300 billion
infrastructure fund plan to counter 12. Answer: A
China’s Belt and Road Initiative Explanation:
(BRI).  BreakthroughAgenda: It commits
countries to work together to make
9. Answer: B clean technologies and sustainable
Explanation: solutions the most affordable,
 During the virtual summit with the accessible, and attractive option in
UK, ‘Roadmap 2030’ was adopted to each emitting sector (power, road
elevate bilateral ties to a transport, steel, agriculture, etc.)
globally before 2030.
TSPSC_Group-1_Prelims Test Series_Mock Test-1(EM) - 2022 | https://manalaexcellence.com
  India joined the initiative. and they are awarded weightage
 Global Methane Pledge: A voluntary accordingly for 100 marks.
non-binding agreement under which  The parameters include Gram
signatory countries have promised to Panchayat conducting Environment
cut their methane emissions by at Creation activities, completing
least 30 percent by 2030. baseline survey and uploading the
Forest, agriculture, and commodity survey details, whether the draft
trade (FACT) statement: Village Development Plan got
 It is Jointly led by the UK and clearance of Gram Sabha, number of
Indonesia. non-infrastructure projects
 Aim: to support sustainable trade completed, number of economic and
between commodity-producing and livelihood activities etc.
consuming countries.
17. Answer: B
13. Answer: C Explanation: Bengaluru-based Rajesh
Explanation: During the rule of Exports entity is all set to invest Rs 24,000
Bahamani, Quli Qutub, born in Persia, crore in setting up India's first fab for
came to Deccan and he had become the manufacturing AMOLED displays in
Governor of this region. Quli Qutub later Telangana.
became independent and formed his own
Qutubshahi Dynasty in 1518. The 18. Answer: B
Golkonda fort was built by Quli qutub. In Explanation:
his reign, two tanks such as Ibrahim
Pantam tank and Hussainsagar were built
including a bridge on river Musi, which is
known as Puranapul.

14. Answer: A
Explanation:

19. Answer: C
15. Answer: D Explanation:
Explanation: Both the statements are International Solar Alliance
correct.  It was launched at Paris Climate
Change Conference in 2015 by the
16. Answer: C president of France and the Prime
Explanation: Minister of India.
 Among the top 20 Panchayats across  It is a multi-country partnership
the country, 19 are from Telangana organization with membership from
and ten panchayats featured in the solar resource-rich countries
top 10 rankings issued under between the two tropics, where the
Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana global community can make a
(SAGY). positive contribution towards
 As part of SAGY, villages are ranked increasing the use of solar energy.
based on 12 different parameters

TSPSC_Group-1_Prelims Test Series_Mock Test-1(EM) - 2022 | https://manalaexcellence.com

  It has now been decided to extend 24. Answer: D
the membership of the alliance to all Explanation:
the UN member states.  CHAMAN Phase II has been
launched in 2018.
20. Answer: A  The programme uses GIS
Explanation: Option A has the correct (Geographical Information System)
order. tools along with remote sensing data
for generating action plans for
21. Answer: A horticultural development (site
Explanation: suitability, infrastructure
 This technology is being used for the development, crop intensification,
first time in India to stop plastic orchard rejuvenation, aqua-
from entering the river horticulture, etc.).
 The Yamuna. It is a non-invasive  Another component of CHAMAN is to
solution to stop plastic from entering carry out research activities on
the oceans. horticultural crop condition studies,
 Ships and fish can pass through the disease assessment, and precision
air bubbles, but plastics will be farming.
stopped.
 The bubble screen is created by a 25. Answer: B
specially designed air tube which is Explanation:
placed diagonally on the bed of the  BEE is a statutory body under the
canal or river. It brings waste to the Ministry of Power.
surface and channels the plastic  It is mandated to assist in
onto the banks where it can be developing policies and strategies
extracted. with a thrust on self-regulation and
market principles with the primary
22. Answer: D objective of reducing the energy
Explanation: intensity of the Indian economy
within the overall framework of the
Energy Conservation Act, 2001.

26. Answer: C
Explanation:
1. White goods refer to heavy consumer
durables or large home appliances,
which were traditionally available
only in white.
2. The white goods industry consists of
air conditioners, refrigerators,
washing machines, dryers,
dishwashers, and LED Lights.

27. Answer: C
Explanation: Mulugu has just 3.9% of its
population living in the urban area.

28. Answer: B
23. Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation: Renowned Gussadi Dancer,
Sri. Kanakaraju was facilitated with the  Recently, Defence Research and
Padma Shri award on 10.11.2021 in Development Organisation (DRDO)
recognition of his contributions to art and successfully conducted the test of
culture. the New Generation Akash missile
(Akash-NG).

TSPSC_Group-1_Prelims Test Series_Mock Test-1(EM) - 2022 | https://manalaexcellence.com

  Akash-NG is a new generation 32. Answer: A
Surface to Air Missile meant for use Explanation:
by the Indian Air Force with an aim  As per census of India 2011;
of intercepting high manoeuvring  Hindus = 79.8%
low RCS (Radar Cross Section) aerial  Muslims = 14.2%
threats.  Christians = 2.3%
 Jainism = 0.4%
29. Answer: A  Buddhism = 0.7%
Explanation: Pochampally village in
Yadadri Bhuvanagiri district was awarded
33. Answer: D
the title ‘Best Tourism Village’ by the
Explanation:
United Nations World Tourism
 The electoral college for the election
Organisation (UNWTO).
to the president of India:
 All the elected members of Lok
30. Answer: D
Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
Explanation: According to the Ministry of
Jal Shakti, the Government of India,  All the elected members of the
Telangana is one of the first states in the legislative assemblies of the states
country to achieve 100% coverage of (including legislative assemblies of
Functional Household Tap Connections NCT and U.T. Puducherry).
(FHTC) in all rural habitations through
sustainable surface resources, along with 34. Answer: B
Haryana and Goa. Explanation: The constitution of India
confers the power of judicial review and
31. Answer: B the power to interpret the constitution
Explanation: All three applications are upon the Supreme Court and the High
launched by the Telangana government. Courts.
Hawk Eye App
The Government launched the ‘Hawk Eye 35. Answer: B
App’, a mobile application through which Explanation:
citizens can report traffic violations,  The constitution of India confers the
crimes, criminal information, and power to issue writs on the high
violations by police personnel, and provide courts and the
suggestions to improve policing. Currently, Supreme Court of India, under art.
the app has above 5 lakh downloads on 32. These writs can be issued for the
Google Play Store. enforcement
VERIFAST App of fundamental rights (by SC and
 The Government of Telangana has HCs) as well as legal rights (by HCs
introduced this mobile application to only). It can be
reduce the turnaround time for issued against the executive as well
verification and issue of passports. as the judiciary.
The applicants are continuously  According to Dr. B. R. Ambedkar,
updated about the status of their the right to constitutional remedies
applications through SMS under article 32
messaging services. The average is the heart and soul of the Indian
time taken from the time of applying constitution.
to the issue of Passport Verification
Report in the state is 4 days, as 36. Answer: D
against the national average of 21 Explanation:
days for police verification.
 Article 196(4) provides that the bill
 TS Government has launched TS pending in Legislative Council,
Globallinker - a digital networking which has not
platform that helps MSMEs contact
been passed by the Legislative
global buyers and sellers, and get
assembly, shall not lapse on the
appraised about opportunities in the
dissolution of the
sector.
Assembly.
TSPSC_Group-1_Prelims Test Series_Mock Test-1(EM) - 2022 | https://manalaexcellence.com
  Article 196(5) provides that a Bill
which is pending in the Assembly or
which having been passed by the
Assembly is pending in the council,
shall lapse on a dissolution of the
Assembly.
 Bill pending with the Governor for
his assent does not lapse on the
dissolution of the Assembly.
37. Answer: C
Explanation: The collegium only send the
name of judges, which is scrutinized by
the Ministry of Law and Justice and finally
sent to the the president and he appoints
them.
38. Answer: B
Explanation:
Concurrent List, freedom of
trade, commerce, and
Australia intercourse,
and the joint sitting of the
two Houses of Parliament
Procedure for amendment
South of the Constitution and
Africa election of members of
Rajya Sabha.
Directive Principles of State
Policy, the nomination of
members to Rajya Sabha
Irland
and the method of election
of
president.
Fundamental rights,
independence of the
judiciary, judicial
review, impeachment of the
US
president, removal of
Supreme Court and high
court judges and post of
vice president.
39. Answer: D
Explanation: Article 164 (1A) of the
Constitution prescribed that the total
number of Ministers, including the Chief
Minister, in the Council of Ministers in a
State shall not exceed 15% of the total
number of members of the Legislative
Assembly of that State.
TSPSC_Group-1_Prelims Test Series_Mock Test-1(EM) - 2022
This provision was introduced through the
91st Constitution (Amendment) Act, 2003.
It also provides that the number of
Ministers, including the Chief Minister in a
State,
shall not be less than twelve.
40. Answer: C
Explanation:
 It is compulsory for every citizen of
the country to register in a National
Register of Indian Citizens (NRIC) as
per Section 14A of the Citizenship
Act 1955 as amended in 2004.
 NPR information will be self-attested,
that is, whatever information is
provided by the respondent will be
deemed correct and no documents
or biometrics would be required,
thus no need to produce any
document.
41. Answer: A
Explanation: Democracy means rule by
the public. Under this rule, the decisions
are taken either by the public directly
(called direct democracy) or by the elected
representatives of the people (called
indirect democracy). The fundamental
basis of a democracy is that people of the
country are allowed to elect their head of
the Government through the process of
election. Therefore, option A is the correct
answer.
42. Answer: C
Explanation:
The Election Commission of India has
recognised only eight political parties as
National parties.
 Indian National Congress
 Communist Party of India
 Bhartiya Janata Party
 All India Trinamool National
Congress
 Nationalist Congress Party
 Bahujan Samaj Party
 Samajwadi Party
 Communist Party of India – Marxist.
43. Answer: C
Explanation: Clause 2 A of Article 124
provides that the age of the Judge of the
Supreme court shall be determined by
authority decided by Parliament by law
| https://manalaexcellence.com
 provides, but according to Article 217 (3),
Dispute over the age of the judge of HC is
decided by the president.
44. Answer: A
Explanation:
 The World Press Freedom Index has
been released by Reporters without
borders. This is a NGO from France.
 India's Rank is 142 in 2021.
 Rank is not steadily decreasing, it
was 142 in 2020,140 in 2019 and
138 in 2018.
while refusing to act on a petition filed by
all political parties from Tamil Nadu who
sought 50% OBC reservation in the all-
India NEET seats surrendered by states.
51. Answer: B
Explanation:
Palitana temples are located in
Shatrunjaya hills South of Gujarat.
 It is a sacred temple for Svetambaras
 One hill is dedicated to Digambaras
 It is said that 23 out of 24
Tirthankaras visited this site

45. Answer: A
Explanation: The Speaker does not leave
the House just after dissolution. The
Speaker holds office from the date of her
election till immediately before the first
meeting of the Lok Sabha after the
dissolution of the one to which she was
elected. She is eligible for re-election.

46. Answer: C
Explanation: Cryptocurrency and Cyber
52. Answer: D
Security are residuary subjects. i.e. they
Explanation: Option D has the right
do not belong to any of the three lists.
sequence.
The relative contribution of various
47. Answer: B
greenhouse gases to total global warming.
Explanation: The election of Deputy
Chairman shall be held on such date as
53. Answer: D
the Chairman may fix, and the Secretary
Explanation: Kuchipudi dance- dramas,
shall send notice thereof to every member.
each present a particular episode or a
series of episodes.
48. Answer: B
A solo recital consists of such items as the
Explanation:
“Sabdam”, “Bhamakalapam” which is the
 Payment of minimum wages is a part
main item, ‘Padams’ and ‘Tarangams’.
of DPSP, not fundamental rights.
 Workers going on strike is not a
54. Answer: C
fundamental right.
Explanation: All the pairs are correctly
 The banning of a movie is a violation matched.
of a right to freedom of speech and
expression under Article 19 (1)(a). It 55. Answer: C
is a part of fundamental rights. Explanation: Kakati Devi temple built by
Kakatiya ruler Ganapati Deva in
49. Answer: B Dharanikota is converted into an abode of
Explanation: According to Article 268, the local Goddess ‘Balusulamma’.
Centre levied the Stamp duty but collected
and appropriated by the states. Thus, the
proceeds are not part of the Consolidated
Fund of India.

50. Answer: C
Explanation: The Court said that
Reservation is not a Fundamental Right
TSPSC_Group-1_Prelims Test Series_Mock Test-1(EM) - 2022 | https://manalaexcellence.com

56. Answer: C
Explanation:
 At his coronation as Emperor of
India on Dec 12, 1911, Britain’s
King George V announced, “We have
decided upon the transfer of the seat
of the Government of India from
Calcutta to the ancient Capital of
Delhi.”
 Thereafter, a 20-year-long project to
build modern New Delhi was
spearheaded by architects Edwin
Lutyens and Herbert Baker.
57. Answer: C
Explanation:
 Udham Singh was a political activist
who got associated with the Ghadar
Party while in the US.
 In 1940, Singh shot and killed
Michael O’Dwyer, the colonial official
considered responsible for
Jallianwala Bagh.
 December 26 is the birth
anniversary of freedom fighter
Udham Singh, known for avenging
the Jallianwala Bagh massacre of
1919.
58. Answer: C
Explanation:
 ‘Joy Bangla’, which translates as
‘victory to Bengal’ or ‘hail Bengal’ is
the national slogan of Bangladesh,
and it has a special place in the
country’s memory of the 1971
Liberation war.
 The phrase ‘Joy Bangla’ is taken out
of a poem written by Bengali poet,
musician, and writer Kazi Nazrul
Islam.
TSPSC_Group-1_Prelims Test Series_Mock Test-1(EM) - 2022
 Kazi Nazrul Islam’s writings were of
inspiration to Bengalis of East
Bengal during the 1971 Bangladesh
Liberation war, when the country
broke away from West Pakistan.
 In 1972, Nazrul has crowned the
title ‘national poet of Bangladesh’.
59. Answer: C
Explanation: All pairs are correctly
matched.
60. Answer: C
Explanation: Sarna, a so-called "religion"
based on the concept of nature worship, is
followed by tribals in several.
Indian states including Jharkhand.
 The followers of the Sarna faith believe
pray to nature.
 The holy grail of the faith is “Jal
(water), Jungle (forest), Zameen (land)”
and its followers pray to the trees and
hills while believing in protecting the
forest areas.
61. Answer: C
Explanation:
Carnatic Musical Trinity - Tyagaraja,
Muthuswami Dikshitar, and Syama Sastri,
between the years 1750 to 1850 A.D.
ushered in an era of dynamic development
in Carnatic music. The Trinity was not
only contemporaries among themselves
but, also contemporaries of great
composers of Western Music.
62. Answer: C
Explanation: Alauddin Khilji maintained a
strong and huge standing army to
safeguard his empire. o He introduced the
system of branding of horses (dagh) and
maintenance of the descriptive register of
soldiers to prevent false musters and
corrupt practices. Alauddin abolished the
Jagir system and paid the salaries in cash
to soldiers. He fixed the pay of soldiers at
234 tankas a year, with an additional 78
tankas for a soldier maintaining two
horses.
63. Answer: C
Explanation:
 Farm forestry: commercial and non-
commercial farm forestry is being
promoted where individual farmers
| https://manalaexcellence.com
 were encouraged to plant trees on
their own farmland.
 Community forestry: raising of trees
on community land by communities
for the benefit of the entire
community. The government has the
responsibility of providing seedlings
and fertilizer.
 Extension forestry: Planting of trees
on the sides of roads, canals, and
railways, along with planting on
wastelands is known as ‘extension’
forestry. Under this project, there
has been the creation of wood lots in
the village common lands,
government wastelands, and
panchayat lands.
 Agroforestry: Planting of trees on
and around agricultural boundaries,
and on marginal, private lands, in
combination with crops is known as
agroforestry.
64. Answer: B
Explanation:
The most important points in the
agreement were
1. Expenditure on Administration was
to be borne proportionately by the
two regions and surplus revenue
from the Telangana region would be
spent only for the development of
Telangana.
2. The existing educational facilities in
Telangana would be reserved for the
students from the Telangana region
only.
3. It was agreed to continue the Mulki
rules under which only those with a
minimum of 12 years of residence in
Telangana was eligible for jobs and
admission to educational
institutions in Telangana.
4. It was agreed to set up a Regional
Council, a statutory body consisting
of 20 members from the Legislative
Assembly to oversee the needs and
development of Telangana.
5. Sale of agricultural land in
Telangana would be controlled by
the Regional Council
6. The Andhra Pradesh ministry will
consist of 40 percent members from
Telangana and 60 percent from
Andhra.
TSPSC_Group-1_Prelims Test Series_Mock Test-1(EM) - 2022
7. If the Chief Minster was from
Andhra, the Deputy Chief Minister
would be from Telangana and vice
versa.
65. Answer: D
Explanation: Telangana, under the
Nizams, Urdu was the medium of
instruction. The process was slow in
promoting modern education. In 1948
Telangana's literacy rate was only 9%
especially women's literacy was only 4%.
66. Answer: C
Explanation: Telia Rumal's painting of
Telangana involves intricate handmade
work with a cotton loom displaying a
variety of designs and motifs in three
particular colours — red. black and white.
67. Answer: B
Explanation:
 Meghaduta: It is a lyric poem written
by Kālidāsa. A poem of 120 stanzas,
it is one of Kālidāsa's most famous
works. The work is divided into two
parts, Purva-Megha and Uttara-
Megha. It recounts how a yakṣa, a
subject king Kubera (the god of
wealth), after being exiled for a year
to Central India for neglecting his
duties, convinces a passing cloud to
take a message to his wife at Alaka
on Mount Kailāsa in the Himālaya
mountains
 Mudrarakshasa: It is a Sanskrit -
language play by Vishakhadatta that
narrates the ascent of the king
Chandragupta Maurya to power in
India.
 Malavikagnimitra: It is a Sanskrit
play by Kālidāsa. The play tells the
story of the love of Agnimitra, the
Shunga Emperor at Vidisha for the
beautiful handmaiden of his chief
queen. He falls in love with the
picture of an exiled servant girl
named Mālavikā.
 Mricchakatika meaning " the clay
cart", was penned by Sudraka (248
A.D.
| https://manalaexcellence.com
68. Answer: A
Explanation: Samudragupta’s court poet
Harishena wrote a glowing account of the
military exploits of his patron. The
inscription is engraved at Allahabad on the
same pillar as carries an inscription of the
peace-loving Asoka. The Allahabad Pillar
inscription contains a long list of states,
kings, and tribes which were conquered
and brought under various degrees of
subjugation.
69. Answer: C
Explanation:
 The Congress Socialist Party (CSP)
was a socialist caucus within the
Indian National Congress. It was
founded in 1934 by Congress
members who rejected what they
saw as the anti-rational mysticism of
Gandhi as well as the sectarian
attitude of the Communist Party of
India towards Congress.
 Influenced by Fabianism as well as
Marxism-Leninism, the CSP
included advocates of armed
struggle or sabotage (such as Yusuf
Meherally, Jai Prakash Narayan, and
Basawon Sinha) as well as those
who insisted upon ahimsa or Non-
violent resistance (such as Acharya
Narendra Deva).
70. Answer: C
Explanation:
 In August 1935, the Government of
India passed the longest act i.e.
Government of India Act 1935 under
the British Act of Parliament. This
act also included the Government of
Burma Act 1935.
 The Act provided for the
establishment of an All-India
Federation to be based on the union
of the British Indian provinces and
the Princely States.
 It provided for the adoption of
dyarchy at the Centre.
Consequently, the federal subjects
were divided into reserved subjects
and transferred subjects. However,
this provision of the Act did not
come into operation at all.
 The provinces were to be governed
under a new system based on
TSPSC_Group-1_Prelims Test Series_Mock Test-1(EM) - 2022
provincial autonomy under which
elected ministers controlled all
provincial departments. Dyarchy
which was introduced at the
provincial level in the Government of
India Act, 1919 was abolished.
71. Answer: C
Explanation:
 The P-waves or primary waves
(longitudinal in nature ― wave
propagation is similar to sound
waves)
 The S-waves or secondary waves
(transverse in nature ― wave
propagation is similar to ripples on
the surface of the water).
 The body waves interact with the
surface rocks and generate a new set
of waves called surface waves (long
or L-waves). These waves move only
along the surface.
o Surface Waves are also called
long period waves because of
their long wavelength.
o They are low-frequency
transverse waves (shear
waves).
72. Answer: B
Explanation: The Kármán line is located
within the thermosphere at an altitude of
100 km
73. Answer: C
Explanation:
A drought year is defined by the Indian
Meteorological Department (IMD) as a year
in which:
 The overall rainfall deficiency is
more than 10% of the Long Period
Average value (LPA) value; and
 If more than 20% of its area is
affected by drought conditions,
either moderate or severe or
combined moderate & severe.
74. Answer: D
Explanation:
Conditions necessary for the Formation of
a Tropical Cyclone
 Large sea surface with temperature
higher than 27° C.
 Presence of the Coriolis force enough
to create a cyclonic vortex.
| https://manalaexcellence.com
  A pre-existing weak low-pressure 79. Answer: C
area or low-level cyclonic circulation. Explanation:
 Low wind shear. Structure of Atmosphere
 Upper-level divergence. 1. Troposphere: 0 to 12 km
2. Stratosphere: 12 to 50 km
75. Answer: D 3. Mesosphere: 50 to 80 km
Explanation: 4. Thermosphere: 80 to 700 km
 The continental crust is composed of 5. Exosphere: 700 to 10,000 km
lighter (felsic) sodium potassium
aluminium silicate rocks, like 80. Answer: C
granite. Explanation:
 The oceanic crust, on the other  Recently, a Flow Chemistry
hand, is composed of dense (mafic) Technology Hub (FCT Hub) was
iron magnesium silicate igneous opened in Hyderabad.
rocks, like basalt.  “Flow chemistry”, also known as
“continuous flow chemistry” is the
76. Answer: C process of performing chemical
Explanation: In a normal year, a surface reactions in a tube or pipe. Here, a
low-pressure develops in the region of chemical reaction is run in a
northern Australia and Indonesia and a continuously flowing stream rather
high-pressure system over the coast of than in batch production.
Peru. In the El Nino year, this system
becomes reverse. 81. Answer: C
The normal low-pressure system is Explanation:
replaced by a weak high in the western  The 24th National E-Governance
Pacific region. Conference is to be organized by the
Department of Administrative
77. Answer: B Reforms and Public Grievances
Explanation: (DARPG), the State Government of
Telangana, and the Ministry of
Revenue Villages 10,434 Electronics and Information
(as per Census, 2011) Technology. The conference is to be
held at Hyderabad International
Inhabited Villages 9,834 Convention Centre, Madhapur.
(as per Census, 2011)  The conference is to be organized
under the theme, “India’s Techade:
Rural Population 213.95 Lakhs Digital Governance in a Post
Pandemic World”. The sub-themes
are emerging technologies,
Rural Population Male 107.05 Lakhs
universalization of public services,
ease of living by good governance,
Rural Population 106.90 Lakhs
universalization of public services,
Female
innovation – platformization,
government re-engineering, and
participation of citizens in
78. Answer: B
government processes.
Explanation:
 The report titled ‘Climate Vulnerability
82. Answer: C
Assessment for Adaptation Planning in
Explanation: The large group of asteroids
India Using a Common Framework’
that share Jupiter’s orbit around the Sun
was released by the Ministry of
are commonly called as Trojan asteroids or
Science.
Jupiter Trojans. The trojans follow the
 It identifies the most vulnerable states
same orbit of the planet but stay either
& districts in India with respect to
around 60 degrees ahead or 60 degrees
current climate risk.
behind along the orbit.
TSPSC_Group-1_Prelims Test Series_Mock Test-1(EM) - 2022 | https://manalaexcellence.com
83. Answer: A 88. Answer: D
Explanation: Chindu Baavatam, A variant Explanation:
of Yakshagana, Chindu Bhagavatham is District Area(sq km)
performed widely across Telangana. It is a Bhadradri 7,483
theater art form that combines dance, Kothagudem
music, dialogue, costume, make-up, and Nalgonda 7,122
stage techniques with a unique style and Nagarkurnool 6,545
form. The word ‘Chindu’ in Telugu means Jayashankar 6,175
‘jump’. As their presentation is Bhupalapally
interspersed with leaps and jumps, it
gained the name of Chindu Bhagavatam.
89. Answer: D
Most of the stories narrated are from
Explanation:
‘Bhagavatam’.
 FASTag is an electronic toll
collection system.
84. Answer: D
 It is operated by the National
Explanation:
Highways Authority of India (NHAI).
 Bloack soils are best suited for
cotton crops. Hence these soils are  The device employs Radio Frequency
called as regur and black cotton Identification (RFID) technology for
soils. payments directly from the prepaid
 laterites are suitable for growing or savings account linked to it.
plantation crops like tea, coffee,
rubber, cinchona, coconut, areca 90. Answer: B
nut, etc. Explanation:
 The rocket carrying NASA’s
85. Answer: C Endurance mission was
Explanation: Dhokra or Dokra is also successfully launched from
known as bell metal craft and is widely Norway. According to NASA, the
seen in Jainoor Mandal, Ushegaon, and Endurance mission will attempt to
Chittalbori in the Adilabad district. The measure Earth’s global electric
tribal craft produces objects like figurines, potential.
tribal gods, etc. The work consists of folk  As the electric potential is expected
motifs, peacocks, elephants, horses, to be very weak, it is difficult to
measuring bowls, lamp caskets, and other measure. It is also considered as
simple art forms and traditional designs. one reason Earth can support life.
The mission will measure electrons
86. Answer: A escaping from Earth’s atmosphere.
Explanation: China has reported the first
human infection of a rare strain of bird flu 91. Answer: B
known as H10N3. The case has been Explanation: A global collaboration called
confirmed in a 41-year-old man, by the Telomere-2- Telomere (T2T) project has
China’s National Health Commission. managed to sequence the remaining 8% of
the human genome, 92% of which was
This bird flu variant is supposed to be low already sequenced through the Human
pathogenic, which means it causes Genome Project (HGP).
relatively less severe disease in poultry. No
other case of this infection has been 92. Answer: D
reported in the world. Explanation: “Zoonosis” is a disease that
has passed into the human population
87. Answer: C from an animal source. All of them are
Explanation: T-Chits, Telangana’s zoonotic diseases.
Blockchain Project for administering Chit
Funds in the State, has won National 93. Answer: D
Conference on e-Governance 2020 (NCeG Explanation:
2020) Gold Award under the ‘Excellence in
 The Amrabad Tiger Reserve which is
Adopting Emerging Technologies category.
part of the Nallamala Forest track has
TSPSC_Group-1_Prelims Test Series_Mock Test-1(EM) - 2022 | https://manalaexcellence.com
 rich Biological Diversity with several
endemic species of flora and fauna.
 This Forest tract is home to the largest
number of Tigers in Telangana State.
The hilly terrain of this Tiger Reserve
with deep valleys and gorges forms the
catchment of the Krishna River.
 This Tiger Reserve (ATR) is one of the
largest tiger reserves in India that
extends about 2611.4 Sq Km over
Nagarkurnool and Nalgonda districts of
Telangana State.
94. Answer: A
Explanation:
About the Standard Model
 It is a set of mathematical formulae
and measurements describing
elementary or fundamental particles
and their interactions. It contains
12 fundamental matter particles
categorised as quarks and leptons
and three forces that govern the
behavior of matter:
electromagnetism, the strong and
weak nuclear forces.
 The force of gravity is currently not
included in the standard model.
 This model was developed in the
early 1970s and is still considered to
be the most accurate theory covering
the foundations of particle physics.
It predicted the existence of yet-to-
be-discovered particles, such as the
Higgs boson. However, this model is
yet incomplete and falls short in
explaining: General relativity's
description of gravity, why is the
Universe expanding ever faster, why
is there more matter than
antimatter, etc
95. Answer: B
Explanation: Telangana has hosted the
triennial International Seed Testing
Association (ISTA) Congress in Hyderabad.
ISTA Congress was held for the first time
in Asia. The Congress was held from 26
June to 3 July 2019.
96. Answer: A
Explanation:
 It is a Central Sector Scheme with
100% funding from the Government
of India.
TSPSC_Group-1_Prelims Test Series_Mock Test-1(EM) - 2022
 Income support of Rs.6000/- per
year is provided to all land-holding
eligible farmer families across the
country, in three equal installments
of Rs.2000/- every four months.
 The scheme provides exclusion
criteria for a certain category of
farmers.
 Exclusion includes All Institutional
Landholders, Former and present
holders of constitutional posts, All
serving or retired officers and
employees of Central/ State
Government Ministries, etc.
97. Answer: C
Explanation: PM-WANI aims to elevate
wireless internet connectivity in the
country by envisaging provision of
Broadband through Public Wi-Fi Hotspot
providers.
98. Answer: C
Explanation:
 National Initiative for Proficiency in
Reading with Understanding and
Numeracy (NIPUN Bharat) Mission
 It is launched under the Centrally
Sponsored Scheme ‘Samagra
Shiksha’.
 This mission was launched to
ensure the universal acquisition of
Foundational Literacy & Numeracy
(FLN) by 2026-27.
 Implementing agency: Department of
School Education and Literacy,
Ministry of Education. Beneficiaries:
Children in the age group of 3 to 9
years including preschool to grade 3
& children who are in classes 4 and
5 and have not attained the
foundational skills.
99. Answer: B
Explanation: Conjugal rights are rights
created by marriage, i.e. right of the
husband or the wife to the society of the
other spouse.
100. Answer: C
Explanation:
Meaning “Peace March ” or “Purification
Hunt ” in the language of the Gonds, the
Salwa Judum was a militia specifically
mobilised with the intention of countering
| https://manalaexcellence.com
 the Naxalite violence in the Chhattisgarh
region. It consisted of local tribal youth
with logistical and training support from
the state government of Chhattisgarh.
101. Answer: D
Explanation:
102. Answer: B
Explanation: Warangal city has been
selected as one among the 10 Smart Cities
under “Nurturing Neighbourhood
Challenge (NNC)”. It is based on making
urban public spaces friendly for the 0-5
age group children, among 63 cities. The
Smart Cities Mission, Ministry of Housing
and Urban Affairs (MoHUA), announced 10
winning cities for the NNC in collaboration
with the Bernard van Leer Foundation
(BvLF) and technical partner World
Resources Institute (WRI). The challenge is
a three-year phased initiative. While
Bengaluru topped the list, Warangal made
it into the list by securing the 10th
position.
103. Answer: D
Explanation: Option D has right order
104. Answer: C
Explanation: The chief minister launched
the distribution of free bins as part of the
"Swacch Hyderabad" initiative. The state
government is spending about Rs.42 crore
on garbage bins for segregation of dry solid
waste or non-biodegradable and
recyclable, and wet municipal solid waste
or biodegradable waste, which is
mandatory as per the Municipal Solid
Waste Rules and National Green Tribunal
orders.
105. Answer: B
Explanation:
Star Rating System
The Environment Ministry is to rank and
incentivize the states with this new
system. The ministry will find out states
TSPSC_Group-1_Prelims Test Series_Mock Test-1(EM) - 2022
that provide environmental clearances
efficiently in a short duration of time. It
will then incentivize such states. For this,
the star rating system provides marks to
the states on a scale of seven. The states
receive two marks for clearing a project in
less than 80 days. One mark for clearing
in 105 days. Zero for clearing more than
this duration. If the state has less than
10% of projects for scrutiny, then one
mark is provided, and so on.
106. Answer: B
Explanation: Glyphosate is a controversial
herbicide usually use to kill weeds in
cotton farms.
The usage of Glyphosate is banned
because it is carcinogenic. Also, it is being
banned to control the illegal cultivation of
HTBt cotton.
107. Answer: B
Explanation: Famous Italian merchant
and explorer Marco Polo had remarked the
temple as “the brightest star in the galaxy
of medieval temples of the Deccan”
108. Answer: C
Explanation: NITI Aayog’s, in its strategy
for New India @ 75 suggested a new
system using Geographic Information
System (GIS) based maps at all levels to
create preapproved land banks for
manufacturing facilities.
109. Answer: D
Explanation: Globally, IIBs were first
issued in 1981 in the UK. In India, RBI
issued IIBs (linked to WPI) in 2013.
IIB provides the investor a constant return
irrespective of the level of inflation in the
economy.
The Main objective of Inflation Indexed
Bonds is to provide a hedge and to
safeguard the investor against
macroeconomic risks in an economy. o
Inflation index used in IIBs may be WPI or
CPI.
110. Answer: D
Explanation: Under Section 4(2) of the
Act, the Centre can exceed the annual
fiscal deficit target citing certain grounds.
The grounds include
 National security, war
| https://manalaexcellence.com
  National calamity adoption of Electric Vehicles
 Collapse of agriculture in public transportation, 2 &
 Structural reforms 3 Wheelers, 4 wheelers, Light
 A decline in real output growth of a Commercial Vehicles &
quarter by at least three percentage Shared Transportation.
points below the average of the II. To make Telangana a major
previous four quarters. base for EV & ESS sectors
and to attract investments
111. Answer: B worth $ 4.0 Billion and create
Explanation: UN Department of employment for 120,000
Economic and Social affairs, Population persons by year 2030
Division released “World Population through EVs in shared
Prospects, 2022” mobility, charging
Highlights of the report: infrastructure development
 World’s population may reach 8 and EV & ESS
billion by mid November, 2022 & to manufacturing activities.
8.5 billion in 2030 & 9.7 billion in III. Promote Recycle and
2050 & 10.4 billion during the 2080s Cascading of Batteries
and will remain in that level till 2100. IV. Develop Telangana as a
 India will surpass China by 2023 as global center for cutting-edge
World’s most populous country. research and innovation in
 India’s population was 1.21 billion in Electric vehicles, battery
2011. technologies and other
emerging technologies such
 Life expectancy reached 72.8 years in
as Autonomous/Connected
2019.
vehicles.
 Life expectancy at birth for women
Ex: Quantum computers can solve
exceeded that for men by 5.4 years
complex computations more effectively
globally, with female and male life
than regular computers (like desktop).
expectancy standing at 73.8 and
Potential applications of quantum
68.4. Hence statement 1 is
technology:
incorrect.
 Secured communications
 Fast and smart computing
 Sensors
 Reliable navigation and timing
systems
 Secured financial transactions
 Cyber security
 Advanced manufacturing
 Accurate health care imaging etc….
Educational objective: Applications of
Quantum technology

USA is third most populous country in the 113. Answer: A

world. Explanation:
Educational objective: USA is third most  National Mission on Quantum
populous country in the world. Technologies and Applications is
launched to address the ever-
112. Answer: D increasing technological
Explanation: Important objectives under requirements of the society by
Telangana Elictric vehicles and energy adopting international technology
storage policy 2020-2030. trends and road maps of leading
I. To reduce the total cost of countries for developing next
mobility by increasing the generation technologies.

TSPSC_Group-1_Prelims Test Series_Mock Test-1(EM) - 2022 | https://manalaexcellence.com

  Nodal Agency for mission is  Antivenom in India is derived from
Department of Science & the “Big Four” snakes in India namely
Technology under Ministry of Russell’s viper, Common Krait, Indian
Science and Technology. Hence Cobra and Saw-scaled viper.
statement 2 is incorrect.  The green pit viper is not more lethal
 In 2018, the Department of Science than Russell’s viper, but the venom it
& Technology unveiled a injects prevents the blood in the body
programme called Quantum- from clotting resulting in internal
Enabled Science & Technology bleeding.
(QuEST) and committed to  Educational objective: The green pit
investing Rs. 80 crore over the next viper is not more lethal than Russell’s
three years to accelerate research. viper, but the venom it injects
 Educational objective: Nodal prevents the blood in the body from
Agency for mission is Department clotting resulting in internal bleeding.
of Science & Technology under
Ministry of Science and 116. Answer: C
Technology. Explanation:
 Recently, the Union Minister of
114. Answer: A Agriculture and Farmers
Explanation: Welfare launched the Platform of
 Protozoa are unicellular, eukaryotic, Platforms (PoP) under the National
heterotrophic organisms. They are Agriculture Market (e-NAM) Hence,
either free-living or parasites. There statement 1 incorrect.
are around 65000 species of  e-NAM integrates the platform of
protozoans categorised in different Service Providers as a "Platform of
groups. They lack a cell wall. There Platforms" which includes:
are many different cell organelles,  Composite Service Providers
that perform various tasks performed (Service Providers who provide
by different organs in higher animals, holistic services for the trading of
e.g. mouth, anus, intestinal tract, etc. agricultural produce including
 There are many protozoa, that cause quality analysis, trading, payment
various diseases in animals and systems, and logistics) Logistics
humans, e.g. Plasmodium (malarial Service Provider, Quality Assurance
parasite), Trypanosoma (sleeping Service Provider, Cleaning,
sickness), Trichomonas Grading, Sorting & Packaging
(trichomoniasis), Visceral Service Provider, Warehousing
leishmaniasis (VL) also known as Facility Service Provider, etc
Kala Azar. through a single window. Hence,
 Dengue is a viral disease statement 2 is correct.
 Cholera is a bacterial disease. Benefits
 Educational objective: Dengue is a  Enables famers, traders, FPOs, etc.
viral disease and Cholera is a to access goods & services across
bacterial disease. agriculture value chain through a
single window.
115. Answer: C  Increases farmers’ digital access to
Explanation: multiple markets.
 Green Pit Viper is a species of tree-  Brings transparency to business
dwelling pit vipers that belong to the transactions. Hence, statement 3
genus Trimeresurus . is correct.
 Habitat: Commonly found in the hilly Educational objective: Union Minister
areas of northeast and southern of Agriculture and Farmers
India, mainly in bamboo grooves and Welfare launched the Platform of
dense foliage near streams. Hence Platforms (PoP) under the National
statement 2 is incorrect. Agriculture Market (e-NAM).

TSPSC_Group-1_Prelims Test Series_Mock Test-1(EM) - 2022 | https://manalaexcellence.com

117. Answer: C Arunachal Pradesh on July 15, 2022, at
Explanation: Namsai, Arunachal Pradesh to minimize
National Institutional Ranking Framework the border dispute between the two states
(NIRF) was started by the Ministry of in respect of 123 villages placed before the
Human Resource and Development (now it Local Commission by Arunachal Pradesh.
is Ministry of Education) in 2015. According to the declaration, all border
The framework outlines a methodology to issues between Assam and Arunachal
rank institutions across the country. Pradesh will be confined to those raised
Hence, statement 1 is correct. before the local commission in
It is an annual report card on the 2007.Hence, option C is correct
performance of Higher Educational Educational objective: NAMSIA
Institutions. declaration is signed between the states of
The ranking framework evaluates Assam and Arunachal Pradesh.
institutions on five parameters:
 Teaching, Learning & Resources 120. Answer: A
 Research & Professional Practice Explanation: Shifting cultivation is an
(RP) agricultural system in which plots of land
 Graduation Outcomes are cultivated temporarily, then
 Outreach & Inclusivity (OI) abandoned while post-disturbance fallow
 Perception (PR) vegetation is allowed to freely grow while
Hence, statement 2 is correct the cultivator moves on to another plot.
Educational objective: National One major reason for deforestation (loss of
Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) trees) is agriculture (i.e., to get land for
was started by the Ministry of Human agriculture, nontribal people are
Resources and Development encroaching on forests and cutting down
the trees) Along with the loss of forest
118. Answer: A cover, the land is getting degraded due to
Explanation: the usage of ‘Shifting Cultivation. In
Characteristics: Telangana people use the ‘Podu’ method to
 It is Endemic to the Indian use the land for continuous cropping so, to
subcontinent. Hence, statement 1 curtail this the Telangana government has
is correct. decided to move landless, non-tribal
 ICUN Status: Critically endangered. farmers engaged in ‘Podu’ shifting
Hence, statement 2 is correct. cultivation inside forests to peripheral
areas by allotting lands to them for
 It is one of the heaviest flying birds
cultivation. Hence, option A is correct
(weighing up to 15kgs).
Educational objective: Shifting
 It has a black crown on the
cultivation is an agricultural system in
forehead with a pale neck and
which plots of land are cultivated
head.
temporarily, then abandoned while post-
 Larger than the other three
disturbance fallow vegetation is allowed to
Bustards (i.e., MacQueen’s
freely grow while the cultivator moves on
bustard, lesser florican, and the
to another plot
Bengal florican). They are
considered flagship bird species of
121. Answer: A
grassland and indicate the health
Explanation: Recently, Uber deployed ‘Kill
of grassland ecosystems. Hence,
Switches’ at least 12 times in France, the
statement 3 is incorrect.
Netherlands, Belgium, India, Hungary and
Educational objective: Great Indian
Romania to shut down its service when the
Bustard is categorized as critically
company data is being accessed by police
endangered under IUCN.
and officials legally.
119. Answer: C
Explanation:
Namsai Declaration: This declaration is
signed between the states of Assam and
TSPSC_Group-1_Prelims Test Series_Mock Test-1(EM) - 2022 | https://manalaexcellence.com
 What exactly does a Kill Switch do? but recent amendment allowed
 It can disable a specific function or manufacture of hand-spun, hand-
stop a certain process instantly woven or machine-made
 In the manufacturing sector, they cotton/polyester/wool/silk/khad
are deployed to terminate i bunting National Flag. Hence
operations to arrest damage in statement 2 is incorrect.
assembly lines or save a worker’s Educational objective: Recent
life. Hence, statement 1 is correct amendment to flag code allowed
 In the digital world, they are mostly manufacture of hand-spun, hand-woven
software-based or machine-made
 In 2014, the kill switch was cotton/polyester/wool/silk/khadi bunting
proposed as a solution to combat National Flag.
smartphone theft in the US
 A smartphone can remotely delete 123. Answer: D
their data and render their Explanation:
smartphones useless if lost or PMFBY was launched in 2016 and is being
stolen. Hence, statement 2 is administered by the Ministry of
correct Agriculture and Farmers Welfare with an
 Even amusement parks and petrol aim to provide a comprehensive insurance
pumps also use “kill switches cover against the failure of the crop thus
Countries like Turkey, Iran, China, India, helping in stabilising the income of the
the US, and the UK etc. order internet farmers.
services providers (ISPs) and telcos to Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana
block citizens from accessing the internet (PMFBY) aims at supporting sustainable
either completely, or in certain areas in the production in agriculture sector by way of
name of national security but it is not -
considered as ‘Kill Switch’. Hence, 1. Providing financial support to
statement 3 is incorrect. farmers suffering crop loss/damage
Educational objective: Kill Switch can arising out of unforeseen events
disable a specific function or stop a certain 2. Stabilizing the income of farmers to
process instantly. ensure their continuance in farming
3. Encouraging farmers to adopt
122. Answer: A innovative and modern agricultural
Explanation: practices
 Recently, Flag Code of India, 2002 4. Ensuring flow of credit to the
was amended through an order. agriculture sector; which will
 Flag Code of India, 2002. contribute to food security, crop
diversification and enhancing growth
 Set of instructions on how to use,
and competitiveness of agriculture
display and hoist the National Flag
sector besides protecting farmers
in the country.
from production risks
 It brings together all laws,
Educational objective: Encouraging
conventions, practices, and
farmers to adopt innovative and modern
instructions for the display of the
agricultural practices is an objective of
National Flag.
PMFBY.
 It governs the display of the
Issue: Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana
National Flag by private, public,
Context: Andhra Pradesh has re-joined the
and government institutions.
Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana
Hence statement 1 is correct.
 Members of the general public,
124. Answer: A
private organizations, educational
Explanation:
institutions etc.
PMFBY helps the farmers overcome losses
 As per Flag code, 2002 the flag
created by natural calamities including
shall be made from hand spun and
loses from prevented sowing, mid-season
hand woven cotton or silk bunting,
adversities and post-harvest losses (i.e.,
TSPSC_Group-1_Prelims Test Series_Mock Test-1(EM) - 2022 | https://manalaexcellence.com
 drought, floods, natural fires, cloudburst,  It supersedes all existing bodies
pest and disease attack, wild animal like Central Pollution Control
attack, hailstorm etc…). Board (CPCB), as well as state
(*Note: Losses arising out of war and governments in matters of air
nuclear risks, malicious damage and pollution mitigation.
other preventable risks will not be Composition:
insured). Hence option A is the correct  It consists of at least six permanent
answer. members
Educational objective: Losses arising out  It is headed by a former or
of war and nuclear risks, malicious incumbent Secretary to the
damage and other preventable risks will Central government, or a Chief
not be insured under PMFBY. Secretary to a State government.
Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
125. Answer: B  Includes members from Ministries as
Explanation: well as representatives from States
Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana: Educational objective: Commission for
 It is in line with the One Nation – Air Quality Management replaced the
One Scheme theme- It replaced Environment Pollution (Prevention and
National Agricultural Insurance Control) Authority (EPCA) and It
Scheme (NAIS) and Modified supersedes all existing bodies like Central
National Agricultural Insurance Pollution Control Board.
Scheme (MNAIS). Issue: Commission for Air Quality
Who implements it? Management in NCR
 Ministry of Agriculture and
Farmers Welfare 127. Answer: D
Which all crops will be covered? Explanation:
 Food crops (Cereals, Millets and The Ministry of Environment, Forest and
Pulses) Climate Change in consultation with
 Oilseeds Central Pollution Control Board has
 Annual Commercial / Annual reclassified the industries into “Red”,
Horticultural crops “Orange”, “Green” and “White” category, as
Significance of the scheme: part of policies and objective of
 Enables the farmer to be self- government to promote ‘Ease of Doing
sufficient in times of crisis Responsible Business.
 Supports in the creation of an  ‘Red’ category industries (which have
Aatmanirbhar Kisan a Pollution Index score of 60 and
Educational objective: Ministry of above like petrochemical
Agriculture and Farmers Welfare is the manufacturing, and coal
implementing ministry of PMFBY. liquefaction)
 ‘Orange’ category industries (with a
126. Answer: B pollution index score of 41-59) Ex:
Explanation: jute processing
Recently, Commission for Air Quality  ‘White’ industries that are
Management (CAQM) formulated a considered non-polluting Ex: chalk
Comprehensive Policy to curb air pollution making
in Delhi. Educational objective: Coal liquefaction
Commission for Air Quality industry is a Red’ category industry, Jute
Management in NCR & Adjoining areas processing industry is a ‘Orange’ category
(CAQM) industry and Chalk making industry is a
 It replaced the Environment ‘White’ category industry.
Pollution (Prevention and Control)
Authority (EPCA) for the National 128. Answer: B
Capital Region (NCR) Explanation:
 Permanent pollution control body Western Ghats Ecology Expert Panel
(WGEEP):
TSPSC_Group-1_Prelims Test Series_Mock Test-1(EM) - 2022 | https://manalaexcellence.com
  In the year 2010, Western Ghats
Ecology Expert Panel (WGEEP) was
constituted by the Central
Government, under the
chairmanship of Madhav Gadgil.
Hence option B is the correct
answer.
 WGEEP issued recommendations for
the preservation of the fragile
western peninsular region.
Highlights of Gadgil Report
 Recommended that the entire
stretch of the Western Ghats should
be declared as Ecologically Sensitive
Area (ESA).
 It recommended the division of
region into three zones – ESZ1,
ESZ2, ESZ3 and gave a broad
outline of certain restrictions for
each zone.
 The committee recommended the
division of region into zones at the
block/taluk level.
 It recommended that no new
polluting industries (red and orange)
were to be permitted in ESZ1 and
ESZ2 and gradual phasing out of
such existing industries by 2016.
Complete ban on mining in ESZ1
and regulation of mining in ESZ-2.
 It was recommended that bottom to
top approach be followed for
conservation of Western Ghats.
 Western Ghats Ecological Authority
was proposed to be set up as a
statutory body and given powers
under the Environment protection
Act 1986.
Educational objective: WGEEP was
constituted by the Central Government,
under the chairmanship of Madhav Gadgil
129. Answer: D
Explanation:
 The Western Ghats, also known as
the Sahyadri Hills, are well known
for their rich and unique
assemblage of flora and fauna.
 It is recognized as a UNESCO
World Heritage Site.
 It is one of the eight "hottest
hot-spots" of biological diversity
in the world due to its high level of
biological diversity and endemism.
TSPSC_Group-1_Prelims Test Series_Mock Test-1(EM) - 2022
 The mountains of the Western
Ghats are Block Mountains formed
due to the down warping of a part
of land into the Arabian Sea.
 The mountains of the Western
Ghats are not true mountains, but
are the faulted edge of the Deccan
Plateau.
Educational objective: It is recognized as
a UNESCO World Heritage Site. It is one of
the eight "hottest hot-spots" of biological
diversity in the world
130. Answer: D
Explanation:
 Remission of Duties and Taxes on
Export Products (RoDTEP) scheme.
 It is a tax refund scheme for Indian
exporters.
 So far, exporters were getting refunds
only under duty drawback and GST
paid on raw materials or intermediates.
Now, all the taxes levied at central, state
and local levels will be refunded to the
exporters like,
1. Duty on power charges
2. VAT on fuel in transportation, farm
sector, captive power generation
3. Mandi tax
4. Stamp duty on export documents
5. CGST and compensation cess on
coal in power production
6. Central excise duty on fuel used
in transportation
Educational objective: Under the
RoDTEP scheme all the taxes levied at
central, state, and local levels will be
refunded to the exporters.
131. Answer : A
Explanation: 3 * 4 $ 5 = [{3 × 4 + 3 × 5} ×
(5 - 3)] = 27 × 2 = 54
Similarly,
2 * 3 $ 5 = [{2 × 3 + 2 × 5} × (5 - 2)] = 16 ×
3 = 48
Similarly,
5 * 6 $ 7 = [{5 × 6 + 5 × 7} × (7 - 5)] = 65 ×
2 = 130
132. Answer : A
Explanation: Four different subjects
Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry and
Biology are taught in five days starting
from Monday to Friday and only one
subject is taught per day.
| https://manalaexcellence.com
 Statement 1: If Mathematics is taught on
Monday and Friday, then the other three
subjects will be taught on the rest three
days. Hence, we can determine exactly
that any two different subjects are taught
on consecutive days.

Hence, statement 1 alone is sufficient.

Statement 2: If different subjects are
taught on Tuesday and Thursday, then we
cannot say that any two different
subjects are taught on consecutive days.
Hence, statement 2 is not sufficient.

By looking at the diagrams in the above

three cases we can say that only
conclusion III is true.
Hence, only conclusion 3 is true.
Statement 3: If different subjects are
taught on Wednesday and Friday, then we 134. Answer : B
cannot say that any two different Explanation: We know that total
subjects are taught on consecutive days. probability of any event is one.

Hence, statement 3 is not sufficient.

Statement 2 and 3 together: If different
subjects are taught on Tuesday and
Thursday and different subjects are taught
on Wednesday and Friday, then also we
Probability of selection of only Golu = Golu
cannot say that any two different subjects
gets selected AND Bholu gets rejected
are taught on consecutive days.
= (1/3) × (6/7) = 2/7
Probability of selection of only Bholu =
Bholu gets selected AND Golu gets
rejected.
= (1/7) × (2/3) = 2/21
Probability of selection of only one = {only
Golu gets selected} OR {only Bholu gets
Hence, statement 2 along with statement 3 selected}
is not sufficient. Hence, option (a) is = (2/7) + (2/21)
correct. = 8/21
[Note: ‘AND’ means multiply, ‘OR’
133. Answer : C means addition]
Explanation: From the given statements
we can draw following possible diagrams.

TSPSC_Group-1_Prelims Test Series_Mock Test-1(EM) - 2022 | https://manalaexcellence.com

135. Answer : C So, Rakesh‟s profit = Rs.8704 - Rs.4608 =
Explanation: On drawing the direction Rs.4096
diagram as per the question, we get: So, 9/(12 - x) = 4608/4096
or 12 – x = 8
or x = 4 months
Hence, ratio of time period of investment of
Ambuj and Rakesh = 12 : (12 - 4) or 3 : 2

138. Answer : D
Explanation: Let the radius of bigger
sphere be R, radius of small sphere be r
and side of cube be a.
Hence by Pythagoras theorem, The following diagram shows the bigger
Required distance = √ (92 + 122) = 15 km sphere, small sphere and cube.
Hence, the school is 15 km in the north-
west direction from his house.

136. Answer : C
Explanation: Let the transportation cost
be X, distance be D and weight of goods be
W.
Now from question,
X1 ∝ √D1 × ∛W1
Or X1 = K √D1 × ∛W1 …. (i) {K is a
constant}
According to question,
X2 ∝ √4D1 × ∛W2 We know that,
Or X2 = 2K√D1 × ∛W2 …. (ii) {K is a Diagonal of cube of maximum side in a
constant} sphere is equal to the diameter of sphere.
On making X1 and X2 equal, because
Diagonal of cube = 3 side = a 3
transportation cost is same in both cases.
√D1 × ∛W1 = 2√D1 × ∛W2 or a 3 = 2R
∛W1 = 2 ∛W2
or R = ( a 3 )/ 2 …. (i)
On cubing both sides, we get
W1 = 8W2 We know that the diameter of sphere of
Or W2 = (1/8)W1 maximum radius inscribed in a cube is
So, W2 = 12.5% of W1 equal to the side of cube.
Hence, 12.5 % of the original weight can Diameter of smaller sphere = side of cube
be transported at same cost. or 2 r = a
or r = a /2 ….(ii)
137. Answer : B From equations (i) and (ii), we get:
Explanation: Let after x months Rakesh Ratio of radius of smaller sphere and that
joined Ambuj in business. of bigger sphere = r : R
Rakesh invested 33.33% more amount ∴ r : R = (a /2) : ( a 3 )/2 = 1 : 3
than Ambuj.
33.33% = 1/3 139. Answer : D
Ratio of amounts of Ambuj and Rakesh is Explanation: It is given that when
3 : 4. milkman packed milk in the packets of 2
Ratio of time period of investment of litres, 4 litres or 5 litres, 1 litre is left in
Ambuj and Rakesh is 12 : (12 - x). every case.
Ratio of amount of Ambuj and Rakesh = 3 So we can say that total quantity is a
× 12 : 4 × (12 - x) = 9 : (12 - x) multiple of L.C.M. of 2, 4 and 5, i.e. 20
Total profit = Rs.8704 with remainder 1 and total quantity is also
Ambuj‟s profit = Rs.4608 a multiple of 9.

TSPSC_Group-1_Prelims Test Series_Mock Test-1(EM) - 2022 | https://manalaexcellence.com

 Hence, required value of ordered milk will
be multiple of 9 and also a multiple of 20
with remainder 1.
Only, option (d) satisfies both conditions.
So 81 litres is the answer.
140. Answer : D
Explanation: Total strength of school =
600
∵ Girls are 40% more than boys.
∴ Girls/Boys = 140/100 = 7/5
or Girls : Boys = 7 : 5
∴ Number of girls = (600/12) × 7 = 350
girls
Number of boys = (600/12) × 5 = 250 girls
Average weight of girls is 50 kg. Let
average weight of boys and all students be
x kg.
Now, according to the question,
⇒ 600x = 350 × 50 + 250x
⇒ 350x = 350 × 50
⇒ x = 50
Hence, average weight of all the students
is 50 kg.
Alternate Method:
The average weight of girls is 50 kg and
average weight of all students and boys is
same. If the average weight of all boys and
the whole student community is the same,
then the average weight of the girls must
be the same too, i.e. 50 kg will be the
average weight of the whole student body.
141. Answer : C
Explanation: Let total time taken to
complete marathon = X minutes.
Now, according to the question,
(60/100) × X = 30 minutes
or X = [(30/60) × 100]
or X = 50 minutes
Hence, the runner has to run 50 – 30 = 20
minutes more in this marathon.
142. Answer : D
Explanation: All possibilities of scores are
as follows:
TSPSC_Group-1_Prelims Test Series_Mock Test-1(EM) - 2022
Hence, 12 cannot be the score of the
batsman after the over.
143. Answer : D
Explanation: Factors of 12  2  3 1
2
Factors of 36  2  3 1
2 2
Factors of 180  2  3  5 1
2 2
We can see that, 5 is the factor of 180 so
the number x must have 5 in the factor.
Only one possibility of this happening.
Since, in the factor of 180, maximum
power of 2 is 2. Hence, possibility of power

of 2 in X  20 , 21 , 22 
i.e. 3 possibilities.
Similarly, in 180 maximum power of 3 is
also 2. So, possibilities of 3's power in
X   30 ,31 ,32  , i.e. 3 possibilities.
Hence, number of possible values of X = 3
×3=9
144. Answer : C
Explanation: Statement 1 states that, at
least three batsmen scored less runs than
C. So if we arrange them in decreasing
order of their score, two cases will be
formed. Either C will be the highest scorer
or C will be the second highest scorer.
Case 1: C > – > – > – > –
Case 2: – > C > – > – > –
Hence, statement 1 alone is not sufficient
to get the highest scorer. Same is the case
with statement 2.
Now let us combine statement 1 with
statement 2 which states that, runs
scored by C and that scored by the lowest
scoring batsman are less than that of D.
So, it is clear that C will not be the highest
scorer.
Instead D will be the highest scorer.
Hence, both statements together are
necessary to find the highest scoring
batsman.
| https://manalaexcellence.com
145. Answer : D 148. Answer : A
Explanation: Total number of students in Explanation: Let b be black and g be
school A = 1200 green.
Ratio of boys: girls = 5:7 The sample space of the experiment is, S =
∴ Total number of girls = (7/12) × 1200 = {(b, b), (g, b), (b, g), (g, g)}
700 girls Let E and F denote the following events:
Now, total number of students of school E : ‗both the bags are black‘
―A‖ who like Mango = 60%, i.e. 720 F : ‗at least one of the bags is black‘
students Then E = {(b, b)} and F = {(b, b), (g, b), (b,
But we do not know the percentage of girls g)}
of school A who like Mango. So, we cannot Required probability = 1/3
determine their exact number. It may
range from 700 to 220. 149. Answer : B
Explanation: Let, principle = P; Rate = r%;
146. Answer : D Time = T
Explanation: The number of students who According to question,
like Mango from school B = 45% of 1000 = Amount – Principle = SI1
450 students Or 4P – P = SI1
The number of students who like Banana Or SI1 = 3P
from school D = 55% of 1800 = 990 Simple interest (SI1) = (P × R1 × T)/100
students Or 3P = (P × R1 × 24)/100
Required ratio = 450/990 = 45 : 99 = 5 : ⇒ 300P = 24R1P
11 ⇒ R1 = 300/24
⇒ R1 = 12.5%
147. Answer : A Again, Amount – Principle = SI2
Explanation: The number of students who Or 9P – P = SI2
like Mango from school A = 60% of 1200 = Or SI2 = 8P
720 students Simple interest (SI2) = (P × R2 × T)/100
The number of students who like Mango Or 8P = (P × R2 × 40)/100
from school B = 45% of 1000 = 450 ⇒ 800P = 40R2P
students ⇒ R2 = 800/40
The number of students who like Mango ⇒ R2 = 20%
from school C = 80% of 1500 = 1200 Therefore, bank Y offers higher rate of
students interest.
The number of students who like Mango Hence, option (b) is correct.
from school D = 50% of 1800 = 900
students 150. Answer : D
Required average = (720 + 450 + 1200 + Explanation: Dolphin comes up once in 2
900)/4 = 3270/4 = 817.5 students. min; Beluga comes up once in 5 min.
So, dolphin comes up 2.5 times as
frequently as beluga, which is = [(5-
2)/2]*100 = 150%.

TSPSC_Group-1_Prelims Test Series_Mock Test-1(EM) - 2022 | https://manalaexcellence.com