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COM 002

81. Which of the following is the best headline?


a. Publishing books up during pandemic
b. Covid-19 failed to affect book publishing
c. Number of books published increased
d. Books about covid-19 pandemic
82. Which of the following does not require a rhyme scheme?
a. Villanelle
b. Sonnet
c. Haiku
d. Dalit
83. What should a personality sketch be?
a. Descriptive-informative
b. Informative
c. Suggestive
d. Opinionated
84. It comes from the Latin word diurnal which means “daily”
a. Journal
b. Adjourn
c. Journal entries
d. Journalism
85. Which of the following is true?
a. An editorial article should have a by-line
b. A cartoonist must not exaggerate a known personality’s face
c. A column writer should not tackle personal opinions
d. An editorial of crusade promotes an advocacy
86. It is the coverage of what happened to a game?
a. Sports news
b. Sports feature
c. Sports editorial
d. Sports poetry
87. If an editorial aims to interpret, news is to inform, what do you call an article that aims to entertain?
a. Cartoon
b. Feature
c. Comics
d. Development communication
88. In what page is the official stand of the newspaper found?
a. Inside page
b. Feature page
c. Editorial page
d. Front page
89.Which term includes the cutting of certain portion of pictures that are not needed?
a. Cropping
b. Retouching
c. Drawing
d. Bleeding
90. Which of the following is a good technique in taking photos for school paper?
a. Use ‘is shown” or “is pictured” in writing a caption
b. Events with sadness and anger should not be pictured
c. If taken from other source, it is okay not to credit the owner
d. A photo should not be too dark or too light

EDU 542
81. Which of the following is the best definition of a good digital citizen?
a. Someone who limits the amount of time they spend on the internet
b. Someone who is good at using computers or mobile devices
c. Someone who participates actively and often in social media
d. Someone who recognizes that there are rights and responsibilities associated with using the internet and other
information technology
82. Which is NOT life and career skills?
a. Leadership & responsibility
b. Productivity & accountability
c. Social & cross-cultural skills, initiative & self-direction
d. information literacy
83. Which is an example of unanticipated instructional material?
a. A novel
b. A textbook
c. A blog
d. A worksheet
84. Which is TRUE? Materials should be suited to _
a. The students reading readiness
b. The maturity level of the students for whom they are intended
c. The ability to grasp information
d. All of the above
85. Which is NOT a role of ICT in education?
a. It can serve multiple teaching functions.
b. ICT replaces the convention education curriculums
c. It can be used in different teaching and learning modes.
d. Information can be delivered in an instant.
86. Which of the following is NOT included in the list of the nine elements of digital citizenship?
a. Digital access
b. Digital health and wellness
c. digital identity
d. digital commerce
87. Teachers should analyse different instructional materials such as?
a. Purchased materials
b. Materials provided online
c. Both purchased materials and materials provided online
d. None of the above
88. Which is NOT one of the learning and innovation skills?
a. Communication & collaboration
b. Flexibility & adaptability
c. Critical thinking & problem solving
d. Creativity & innovation
89. Which ICT tools involves playing with and using language to create, explore, and discover while producing content and
learning performances that can be measured?
a. E-creation tools
b. E-assessment tools
c. E-communication tools
d. Facilitative e-tools
90. What word means guidelines to live by when communicating online?
a. Plagiarism
b. Cyberspace
c. Netiquette
d. Digital citizenship

ENG 015
81. It is used with an s to form the possessive case of some nouns (the report’s title). For further advice on using
apostrophes to show possession.
a. Showing possession
b. Indicating Omission
c. Forming plurals
d. All of the above
82. Which of the following is the correct sentence.
a. Yes, sir, I will do it immediately.
b. Yes sir, I will do it immediately.
c. Yes, Sir, I will do it immediately.
d. Yes Sir, I will do it immediately
83. It defines a group of words that do not express a complete thought.
a. Sentence
b. Fragment
c. A and B
d. None of the above
84.The predicate of a sentence always includes
a. a noun
b. a verb
c. a pronoun
d. a compound
85. It is customary to place definitions of terms in all of the following parts of a technical document EXCEPT the
a. abstract
b. introduction
c. footnotes
d. glossary
86. Which of the following graphics is best for displaying continuous change over time?
a. Bar chart
b. Line graph
c. Schematic diagram
d. Table
87. The major difference between proposals and many other technical documents is that proposals are
a. long and formal
b. written by committees
c. overtly persuasive
d. presented orally as well as in writing
88. Laboratory reports customarily contain all of the following sections EXCEPT
a. materials and methods
b. results
c. discussions
d. recommendations
89. Which of the following organizational patterns would be appropriate to use when describing a mechanism?
I. Order of assembly
II. Spatial order
III. Operating order
a. II only
b. III only
c. I and III only
d. I, II, and III
90. Which of the following does NOT need revision to correct an error in parallel structure?
a. We found it impossible either to replicate their results or even approximate them.
b. The ideal environment for colonizing plants like ragweed is bare, windswept, and, of course, contains
little groundwater.
c. The platypus is an animal with mammalian, reptilian, and avian aspects and which illustrates the
difficulty of exact biological classification.
d. The proposed pertussis vaccine not only is as effective as the vaccine currently in use but also poses
little or no health risk to children under two years of age.

ENG 018
81. Which of the following is the BEST definition of morphology?
a. The study of the rules governing the sounds that form words
b. The study of the rules governing sentence formation
c. The study of the rules governing word formation
d. The study of the prescribe words to be used in English language
82. Which sentence describes inflectional morphology?
a. Adding a morpheme to produce a new word but the same lexeme
b. Adding a morpheme to produce a new word and different lexeme
c. Adding a morpheme to produce the same word but different lexeme
d. Adding a morpheme to produce same word but the same lexeme
83. In the sentence “I saw the car with Patrick” The sentence is said to be _________
a. Semantically incorrect
b. Syntactically ambiguous
c. Structurally ambiguous
d. Structurally incorrect
84. In sentence parsing or structural analysis, what does this symbol (*) means?
a. Passive sentence
b. Active sentence
c. Sentence
d. Ungrammatical sentence
85. In a word / cat/, it consists of how many meaning-distinguishing sounds?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 0
86. What is the other term for grammatical category?
a. Parts of speech
b. Sentence parsing
c. Terminal marks
d. Syntax analysis
87. An editor modifying the organization of words in a magazine article to make them fit with proper grammar is an example
of which approach?
a. Prescriptive grammar
b. Descriptive grammar
c. Code switching
d. All of the answers are correct
88. If grammar deals with the study of correct usage of rules, what about syntax?
a. Arrangement of words in the sentences
b. How sounds are produced in the sentence
c. Understanding the context of the sentence
d. Implying meaning of the sentence
89.In studying syntax, which one refers to the repeated sequential use of a particular type of linguistic element or
grammatical structure?
a. Structural ambiguity
b. Recursion
c. Parsing
d. Tree diagram
90. The egg yolk is white. What is the problem with the sentence?
a. There is no error in the sentence
b. This sentence is syntactically good, but semantically odd
c. It grammatically wrong but its meaning is correct
d. Both syntax and semantics are erroneous

ENG 028
81. All of us are foreign language teachers. What is the function of the word foreign language in the sentence?
a. noun
b. verb
c. adjective
d. adverb
82. The player won the contest. He was given a special citation. What is the compound sentence structure of these two
sentences?
a. The player won the contest when he was given a special citation.
b. Since he was given a special citation, the player won the contest.
c. The player won the contest but was given a special citation.
d. The player won the contest, so he was given a special citation.
83. Which words fit the sentence below? The man in the mirror looks _______. His _______ behavior made me call the
attention of the police officer.
a. strange, stranger
b. strangely, strange
c. stranger, strange
d. strange, strange
84. Why is grammar most likely connected with syntax?
a. it concerns correct pronunciation of sounds and words
b. it deals with history of how words are changed
c. it studies the correct word tense and arrangement
d. it focuses on practical use of language

85. Which of the sentences DO NOT contain an adverb of time?


a. The time is now.
b. I love to eat fruits today.
c. They left early.
d. I will meet you there
86. Which of the sentences below suggest strong emotional appeal?
a. The Philippines currently struggle for territorial disputes.
b. Which of the explanations will be fair for all?
c. Oh! I can feel pity for her current loss.
d. Please give me some alms.
87. Which of the following statements BEST define phrase?
a. A phrase is a group of words with a subject only that functions as one part of speech.
b. A phrase is a group of words with a verb only that functions as one part of speech.
c. A phrase is a group of words with subject and verb that can stand alone.
d. A phrase is a group of words without a subject and a verb that functions as one part of speech.
88. What is the function of a direct object in a sentence?
a. It answers the what or who of the verb.
b. It is the doer in the sentence.
c. It tells the action.
d. It describes the subject.
89. I am lucky. What is the function of the word lucky in the sentence?
a. Predicate nominative
b. Predicate objective
c. Predicate adjective
d. Object complement
90. Which of the sentences below show CORRECT usage of interjection?
a. Awe! Couples are winning the lotto.
b. Help! The house is on fire.
c. Wow! The nipa house is so small.
d. Tsk! I love the interior of the new restaurant.

ENG 029
81. Which of the following make an introduction of an essay?
a. Topic sentence, background information, and supporting sentences
b. Attention grabber, background information, and transitional sentences
c. Attention grabber, background information, and thesis statement
d. Thesis statement, background information, and concluding sentences
82. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Peter feels dizzy, he should sit immediately.
b. Peter feels a dizzy, he should sit immediately.
c. Peter has a dizzy, he should sit immediately.
d. Peter is in dizzy, he should sit immediately.
83. In the sentence “The fish wasn’t cooked properly; as soon as she ate it, she brought it up” the sentence in bold means:
a. She took the fish away.
b. She vomited the fish.
c. She enjoyed the fish.
d. The fish fell down
84. The term “proofreading” refers to?
a. Borrowing other people’s ideas and use them in your work
b. Using your own words to express other people’s ideas
c. Examining the organization of your written work
d. Reading something written or printed so as to correct errors
85. A good conclusion in an essay does the following except:
a. Restates the thesis statement in different words
b. Suggests to the readers where they can find more information on the topic
c. Gives a strong recommendation or prediction of what will happen based on what discussed
d. Summarizes the main ideas expressed in different body paragraphs
86. A good thesis statement in essay writing
a. Attracts the reader’s attention
b. Provides more facts on the points
c. Explains the writer’s idea or position about the topic
d. It provides a smooth transition to the next paragraph
87. An ESP teacher provides advanced-level English language learners with explicit instruction in the accurate use of
language forms, such as rules of complex English sentence structure. This practice is likely to benefit these students'
English language development primarily by improving their ability to:
a. Comprehends the general meaning of authentic texts
b. Communicates fluently in social situations
c. Use learning strategies to develop academic knowledge
d. Express ideas clearly in academic writing
88. An ESP teacher shows English language learners clips from television programs in which the characters are engaged in
various conflicts involving everyday situations. In small groups, the students discuss the situations and how the conflicts
depicted could have been prevented or resolved. This activity would be most effective in promoting students' ability to:
a. Communicates clearly to a range of audiences
b. Analyzes the effectiveness of these conflict resolutions
c. Check for comprehension of these conflict resolutions
d. Use conversational repair as a communication strategy
89. An ESP teacher is working on public speaking skills with intermediate- and advanced-level English language learners.
The teacher wants to promote the students' ability to assess their own strengths and weaknesses in regard to formal
communication. Which of the following speaking tasks would be most effective for this purpose?
a. Preparing a presentation and delivering the presentation at a school open house
b. Viewing a videotape of a famous speech and discussing with a peer the speaker's use of tone and style
c. Giving a presentation in class and using a scoring rubric as a guide for revising the presentation
d. Attending a public lecture and participating in a question and answer session following the lecture
90. Use the exchange below between an ESP teacher and an English language learner to answer the question that follows.
Teacher: Your group was hands down the fastest to solve the problem!
Student: But our hands were not down; they were up!
Which of the following best explains the student's response?
a. The student is transferring word meanings from the primary language to English.
b. The student has an incomplete understanding of English sentence structure.
c. The student is interpreting the meaning of an English idiom literally.
d. The student has not yet developed cognitive academic language proficiency in English
ENG 149
81. What is the major turning point in the history of materials development?
a. The advancement of the Communicative Approach in the 1960s.
b. The founding of associations such as MATSDA (Materials Development Association) in 1990s.
c. The advent of the Communicative Approach in the 1970s where materials moved from audiolingual approaches to an
approach which encouraged learners to use the language for communication
d. There is no such thing recorded in history
82. How many series of events lead to the entire history of materials development?
a. 7
b. 3
c. 8
d. 5
83. Which among the following is an example of inauthentic material?
a. Bills
b. Modules
c. Newspapers
d. Calendars
84. Which among the following is not an example of authentic material?
a. Calendars
b. Greeting cards
c. Newspapers
d. None of the above
85. What is the main factor authentic material is considered as better tool to use in language learning?
a. Get clear objectives to develop
b. It is adapted for a particular aspect
c. They provide exposure to real language
d. Materials are relevant, useful and focused on what students are learning at the point
86. Teachers Role: Task-Based Language Learning
A. Learners are not allowed to use his or her mother tongue
B. View language as a complex of grammatical rules
C. Focus is on the completion of a task which in itself is interesting to the learners
D. Maintain passive state; allow materials to work on them
87. Why is material development important?
a. To teach better a language
b. To prepare teachers for the realities of classroom
c. It's way of helping teachers to understand and apply theories
d. Because every teacher is a materials developer
88. What is the importance of material development for language learning?
a. Materials doesn't develop your critical thinking skills
b. It helps teachers to make decisions of their activities.
c. Materials development contributes to teacher and student’s growth
d. Materials development is not totally effective on teachers
89. What is mobile learning (M-Learning)?
a. Play the language games through the mobile phone
b. The usage of the mobile phones in learning.
c. The learning through social and content interaction, using personal electronic devices.
d. The possible way to contact friends through the different social medias.
90. What does “C” in PEACE model stand for?
a. Creation
b. Co – Creation
c. Carefulness
d. Creativity

ENG 150
81. Which of the variables is not included in the affective filter hypothesis?
a. Motivation
b. Self-confidence
c. Anxiety
d. Reward
82. It refers to the incorporation of features of the L1 into knowledge of the L2 which is the learner is trying to build.
a. Translation
b. Borrowing
c. Language Transfer
d. Code switching
83. A theory of language that assumes all natural languages share a set of underlying principles and constraints, and derive
from an innate language faculty.
a. Grammar Translation
b. Universal Grammar
c. Natural Approach
d. Universal Dimension Language
84. A term proposed in the 1970s to capture a view of learner language as a developing system in its own right, rather than
a debased form of the target language; a continuing central concept in L2 learning research.
a. Inner speech
b. Interfaces
c. Interlanguage
d. Outer speech
85. Low motivation, low self-esteem, anxiety, and extroverts can lead to...
a. Silent period
b. Mental block for language acquisition
c. Equips from second language acquisition
d. None of the above
86. This hypothesis explains the relationship between acquisition and learning and defines the influence of the later to the
former.
a. Acquisition learning hypothesis
b. Monitor hypothesis
c. Input hypothesis
d. Affective filter hypothesis
87. What is the main premise of the Natural Order Hypothesis?
a. Grammar and language rules are acquired in a predictable order.
b. Grammar and language rules are learned in a predictable order.
c. Grammar and language rules are acquired in reverse order of the first language.
d. Grammar and language rules are acquired in a random order.
88. Which sentence is false?
a. The input level should be just beyond the learner’s current level. Thus, both comprehension and acquisition will occur.
b. When acquiring a language, our affective filters should be high.
c. Acquisition is subconscious while learning is conscious.
d. Monitor Hypothesis explains the relation between learning and acquisition.
89. According to the Krashen’s Monitor Theory, which term argues that emotions can be described as an imaginary barrier?
a. Affective Filter
b. Input
c. Monitor
d. Natural order
90. Which is not the domain of behaviorism?
a. Imitate
b. Drill
c. Reinforcement
d. Universal Grammar

ENG 151
81. A social position that an individual occupies in a society
a. Ascribed status
b. Role
c. Master status
d. Status
82. In the Philippines, the middle-income class are
a. Between two and four times the poverty line
b. Between four and seven times the poverty line
c. Between seven and twelve times the poverty line
d. Between the twelve and twenty times the poverty line
83. The position or rank of a person or group within the society can be determined in two ways
a. Restricted and elaborated
b. High and low prestige
c. Achieved and ascribed
d. Covert and overt prestige
84. A status that is placed in the stratification system by their inherited position
a. Achieved
b. Ascribed
c. Restricted
d. Elaborated
85. Which is an example of an achieved status?
a. Being a daughter
b. Old age
c. Race
d. Being honor student
86. People build reality from
a. Their environment
b. Their genetic heritage
c. Their surrounding culture
d. Their social class
87. According to Tannen’s book, the following are the distinctions of male/female language use except
a. Status vs. support
b. Independence vs. Intimacy
c. Advice vs. understanding
d. Order vs. prestige
88. Which of the following is true about culture?
a. Language are culture
b. Archeologists dig up culture in their excavations
c. Culture is a powerful human tool for survival
d. All of the above
89. Which of the following is not identified as defining feature of culture?
a. Culture is symbolic
b. Culture is cumulative
c. Culture is transmitted
d. Culture is learned
90. Language is usually considered to be_____-
a. A cultural barrier
b. A key cultural marker
c. A cultural universal
d. A flexible system of symbol

ENG 152
81. He is known as the Father of Children's Literature.
a. Hans Christian Andersen
b. Lewis Carroll
c. John Newberry
d. Edgar Allan Poe
82. The first man to elite lesson book for children
a. Alcott
b. Aldheim
c. Lewis
d. Newton
83. He was regarded as the great master of the literary fairy tales.
a. Jean Jacques Rousseau
b. Lewis Carroll
c. Hans Christian Andersen
d. Edgar Allan Poe
84. Who coined the term "graphic novel"?
a. Lois Lowry
b. Charlie of Chocolate Factory
c. Norton Holt
d. Will Eisner
85. What is the main purpose of Transitional Books?
a. To entertain readers
b. To help the young readers to transition from physical books to online books
c. To help young ones to be independent readers
d. To encourage readers to think outside the box
86. What is the word limit for transitional books?
a. 150 words
b. 230 words
c. 250 words
d. 280 words
87. In transitional books, the pictures are larger than the texts.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. both A and b
d. none of the above
88. Transitional books are also known as ____________.
a. Morality books
b. Graphic novels
c. Easy-to-read books
d. Modern books
89. Diary of a Wimpy Kid is an example of __________.
a. Graphic Novels
b. Transitional books
c. Coloring books
d. All of the choices
90. “Picture books are illustrated, but not all illustrated books are picture books." Who said this?
a. Burton, 2015
b. Norton, 2010
c. Labell, 2002
d. Holm, 2020

ENG 153
81. It is a form or technique of language that exhibits a natural flow of speech and grammatical structure.
a. fiction
b. narrative poem
c. non-fiction
d. prose
82. This pertains to a narrative form, in any medium, consisting of people, events, or places that are imaginary. In other
words, it is not based strictly on history or fact
a. fiction
b. non-fiction
c. poem
d. prose
83. It is the specific mode of fiction represented in performance like play, opera, mime, ballet, etc., performed in a theatre, or
on radio or television
a. drama
b. epic
c. fairytale
d. proverb
84. It is derived from the Greek poises, "making" and it is a form of literature thatuses aesthetic and often rhythmic qualities
of languages.
a. epic
b. fable
c. poem
d. short story
85. It is any document or content that purports in good faith to represent truth and accuracy regarding information, events,
or people.
a. drama
b. non-fiction
c. poetry
d. proverb
86. In the model of teaching literature, this helps English as a Foreign Language(EFL) students enhance their knowledge of
the target language by working on familiar grammar, lexical and discourse categories.
a. communication model
b. financial growth model
c. language model
d. personal growth model
87. Literature has ______________ if reading it gives occasion to learn a lesson.
a. entertainment value
b. moral value
c. artistic value
d. cultural
88. Literature has _________________ if reading it gives occasion to explore the nature of human knowledge, how we
know and what we can know.
a. entertainment value
b. political value
c. artistic value
d. philosophical value
89. What is the first sentence of a Body paragraph called?
a. The supporting idea.
b. The topic phrase.
c. The supporting sentence.
d. The topic sentence.
90. Literature has __________________ if reading it gives occasion to enjoy yourself. This type of value is inherently
subjective because not everyone will enjoy the same kinds of stories, styles, or themes.
a. entertainment value
b. political value
c. historical value
d. cultural

ENG 154
81. It is the study of speech sounds related to reading.
a. Phonics
b. Morpheme
c. Morphology
d. Words
82. It is the set of words in a particular language
a. Words
b. Sentence
c. Vocabulary
d. Grammar
83. It is one prepared by teachers for use in the classroom, with no established norms for scoring and interpretation of
results.
a. Objective
b. Subjective
c. Standardized
d. Unstandardized
84. It is reading for leisure.
a. Top down
b. Bottom up
c. Intensive
d. Extensive
85. This is the last step of reading.
a. Pre-reading
b. While reading
c. Post-reading
d. Brainstorming
86. What is the other term for productive vocabulary?
a. Active
b. Receptive
c. Balanced
d. Voluntary
87. A process of relating the readers background knowledge with the information in the text to get message of the text. It is
the definition of_____________.
a. Writing
b. Speaking
c. Reading
d. Listening
88. Reading comprehension should focus on three areas. Which area is the least necessary regarding reading
comprehension skills?
a. Before reading
b. Background reading
c. After reading
d. During reading
89. According to Akar, how many words can children ages 10-11 years old can learn in a lesson?
a. 4-5 words
b. 7-8 words
c. 14-18 words
d. 30 words
90. Reader’s background knowledge, world knowledge takes active role in this reading process.
a. Top down
b. Bottom up
c. Intensive
d. Extensive

ENG 155
81. Which of the following is an advantage of computer-based testing?
a. It is costly and time consuming
b. Unsupervised CBT sessions present a risk of plagiarism
c. Differences in the degree to which students are familiar with using computers
d. Tutors can monitor the progress of students through frequent use of assessment
82. Which of the following will improve a test’s reliability?
a. Use vague words in your exam
b. Compose items of that are less difficult
c. Increase the subjectivity of scoring procedures
d. Include more multiple-choice items
83. Which of the following is the most explicit technique of focus on form?
a. Recast
b. Negotiation
c. Garden path
d. Input flooding
84. Which type of validity is also referred to as ‘test appeal’?
a. Concurrent
b. Construct
c. Face
d. Predictive
85. This technique is very effective with younger students. Students create “living” scenes or model processes to show what
they know.
a. Give Me What I Want
b. Human Tableau
c. Simon Says
d. Pictionary
86. All of the following are pros in using information gap activities, which is NOT?
a. They force students to ask each other questions
b. They lessen student participation
c. They are meaningful activities
d. They create more communicative environments
87. Repetition drills and substitution drills to practice the use of particular grammatical items are examples of?
a. Mechanical practice
b. Meaningful practice
c. Communicative practice
d. Functional practice
88. We can have the party in the garden, ______ it rains.
a. which
b. unless
c. to be
d. won't
89. I saw him at the beach when he was supposed ______ in the office!
a. which
b. had
c. to be
d. will be
90. I can't stand people chewing gum in class. __________.
a. So can't I.
b. Neither I can.
c. Neither can I.
d. Nor can I.

ENG 156
81. Which of the following statements is false of the MTB MLE framework?
a. MTB MLE is a structured program of language learning and cognitive development.
b. MTB MLE provides a strong educational foundation in the first language.
c. MTB MLE provides bridging learners to one or more additional languages using their strongly founded first language.
d. MTB MLE aims to promote the sole utilization of Filipino as home and academic language.
82. A salient feature of the MTB MLE framework that emphasizes the importance of the development of reading proficiency
a. Literacy
b. Prior Knowledge
c. Cognitive Development
d. Scaffolding
83. A salient feature of the MTB MLE framework that views the learners’ skills, attitudes, and values, which are learned
through their L1 as a strong foundation in learning other languages
a. Literacy
b. Prior Knowledge
c. Cognitive Development
d. Scaffolding
84. A salient feature of the MTB MLE framework that encourages the use of the learners’ L1 in content discussion based on
what is already familiar to them to enable better learning of the curriculum
a. Literacy
b. Prior Knowledge
c. Cognitive Development
d. Scaffolding
86. This refers to the ability of speakers of a language to stand up to the pressure of more powerful languages.
a. Language Planning
b. Language Loyalty
c. Language Diffusion
d. Language Contact
87. This refers to a decision to make one language official or to ban another from use.
a. Status Planning
b. Corpus Planning
c. Language Planning
d. Language Policy
88. This refers to the attempt to formalize grammar and pronunciation towards some norm that is invented by a group of
language guardians.
a. Language Standardization
b. Language Acquisition Planning
c. Language Policy
d. Status Planning
89. In the journey of making her classroom version of a language policy, Teacher Maria also considered the changes that
have taken place in the world in the last few decades as a result of globalization, and the consequent tidal wave of English
that is moving into almost every sociolinguistic repertoire. What factor is highlighted in the given situation?
a. Existence of English as a world language
b. National ideology
c. Notions of language rights
d. Sociolinguistic situation
90. What notion of language rights limitation states that a language is recognized as deserving of rights when a significant
proportion of the population living in a defined region speaks it?
a. Demographic
b. Functional
c. Meaning
d. Territorial
ENG 157
81. Which of the following type of speech has the purpose of changing the minds of the listeners and move them into
action?
a. Persuasive Speech
b. Informative Speech
c. Entertainment Speech
d. Funny Speech
82. Which delivery method is most often used for speeches by presidents and other world leaders?
a. Impromptu
b. Manuscript
c. Memorized
d. Extemporaneous
83. Which of the following principles of speech delivery is evident in this situation? “A Grade 11 contestant in impromptu
speech practices the proper pronunciation of words in her speech.”
a. Articulation
b. Gesture
c. Modulation of Voice
d. Stage Presence
84. Which comparison of verbal and nonverbal communication is accurate?
a. Both verbal and nonverbal communication are formally taught
b. The sender has more control over verbal communication
c. More channels are used for verbal communication
d. The setting is more restricted in nonverbal communication
85. Today, I’m going to give you some tips to effectively reach your New Year resolutions. Try “to get” instead of “to get rid
of”. Many times New Year resolutions fail because people try to desperately RUN AWAY from their bad behaviors. Instead
of running away from something, focuses on running towards something. The only time “running away from something”
works is when you are chased by a hungry dog.” Identify the dominating purpose of the speech.
a. Persuasive Speech
b. Demonstrative Speech
c. Entertainment Speech
d. Informative Speech
86. “Hello everyone, I am here today to present to you all, our upcoming launch for new product. Many of you are already
aware that we have been working hard over the past 5 years to be able to get to where we are today and be ready to move
forward with this exciting new venture. I will be the senior marketing manager and during this period, which we estimate will
unfold over the next 6 months, we will be aiming to reach our proposed sales targets.” Identify the dominating purpose of
the speech.
a. Persuasive Speech
b. Demonstrative Speech
c. Entertainment Speech
d. Informative Speech
87. The goal of this speech is to make the listeners understand the topic the same way the speaker does.
a. Persuasive Speech
b. Informative Speech
c. Entertainment Speech
d. Demonstrative Speech
88. Former Pres. Marcos was considered as one of the best Filipino speakers. He made sure that his voice varies
depending on the ideas that he needs to give emphasis. Which of the following principles of speech delivery did he use?
a. Modulation of Voice
b. Stage Presence
c. Gesture
d. Facial Expression
89. A playwright has begun writing a series of loosely connected scenes that explore the theme of
greed. This play would best be served by which of the following types of dramatic structure?
A. episodic
B. climactic
C. serial
D. circular
90. A playwright whose work is describe as “vividly dreamlike and nightmarish” is most likely utilizing which of the following
dramatic form?
a. Melodrama
b. Realism
c. Expressionism
d. Tragedy

ENG 158
81. This is a story of a certain person’s life written by another who knows him.
a. Autobiography
b. Biography
c. Bibliography
d. Anecdota
82. A prose form that imitates another author’s work, where ridicule is the main goal.
a. Sermon
b. Oration
c. Parody
d. Comedy
83. This is an example of prose fiction which is narrative in form and is made up of chapters.
a. Novel
b. Short Story
c. Anecdote
d. Drama
84. This is an example of prose form which consists of entirely of dialogues and is acted on stage.
a. Prose Fiction
b. Prose Drama
c. Talk
d. Theater
85. This is a narrative poem that centers on a hero or among men who are in such a position that their struggles take on
tribal or national significance
a. Ballad
b. Metrical Tale
c. Epic
d. Lyric
86. A narrative poem that tells a story of adventure, love and chivalry. The typical hero is a knight on a quest.
a. Metrical Tale
b. Ballad
c. Metrical Romance
d. Lyrical
87. It is a stage play on the passion and death of Christ.
a. Awit
b. Talinghaga
c. Sinakulo
d. korido
88. Match the author with their corresponding literary work. Author: Gregoria de Jesus
a. Ang mga Librong Pag-aaralan ng mga Tagalog ng Wikang Castila
b. Florante at Laura
c. What the Filipinos Should Know
d. My Love, Ever Since You Left Me
89. An example of prose form which is usually delivered in praise of a dead person, event, or thing.
a. Elegy
b. Euphemism
c. Eulogy
d. Euphoria
90. These have been the source of Myths and Legends of Greece. They were written by Homer.
a. The Divine Comedy
b. The Koran
c. Canterbury Tales
d. The Iliad and the Odyssey

ENG 159
81.This important aspect of Africa is multifaceted and has been a major influence on art, culture and philosophy. *
a. Education
b. Language
c. Literature
d. Religion
82.Which statement below is an disadvantage of formal criteria? *
a. Including within a definition of literature some compositions that a modern reader might not privilege with the term - as in
medieval literature, New Kingdom literary manuscripts can include hymns and prayers alongside didactic or lyrical passages
b. It depends on the breadth of reading by the modern receiver, and this depends in turn on the proportion of surviving
writing
c. Insufficient information: both transmission history and the calligraphic writing style can be paralleled for compositions
d. Can be used to delineate provisionally separated groups of compositions as Tales, Teachings, Lamentations, Hymns,
Songs
83.Tale of Woe (the 'Moscow Letter') is an example of
a. Lamentation
b. Love Song
c. Teachings
d. Tales
84.Long before there were textbooks, newspapers or email, the Egyptians came up with a way to record history. They
designed their own paper called... *
a. Hieroglyphics
b. Plant-based paper
c. Papyrus
d. Trojan Paper
85.What is the official name of Egypt?
a. Egypt
b. Egyptian
c. Republic of Egypt
d. Arab Republic of Egypt
86.What is the capital of Egypt?
a. Cairo
b. Cero
c. Centre
d. Center
87. What is the major river of Egypt?
a. Nile
b. Colorado
c. Danube
d. Amazon
88.There are ______ intact tales, teachings and reflective sayings from the New Kingdom (about 1550-1069 BC)
a. 5
b. 7
c. 9
d. None
89.There are ______ intact tales, teachings and reflective sayings from the Middle Kingdom (about 2025-1700 BC).
a. 5
b. 7
c. 9
d. None
90. How many recognized languages are there in Africa? *
a. 25
b. 10
c. 24
d. 1 national language only

ENG 160
81. Which of the following list of oral genres from American Indian literature is INCORRECT?
a. lyrics, chants, myths, fairy tales, humorous anecdotes, proverbs, epics
b. lyrics, chants, legends, fairy tales, humorous anecdotes, proverbs, epics
c. lyrics, chants, myths, fairy tales, humorous anecdotes, maxims, epics
d. lyrics, chants, myths, riddles, humorous anecdotes, proverbs, epics
82. Which of the following describes the Brahmin poet James Russell Lowell?
a. Responsible for the misty, historical, legendary sense of the past that merged American and European traditions
b. Ended as a critic and educator
c. Best-known American poet of his day
d. Wrote three long narrative poems popularizing native legend in European meters.
83. Who among the Romantic authors below has stories which are populated with doomed and introspective aristocrats?
a. Nathaniel Hawthorne
b. Edgar Allan Poe
c. Herman Melville
d. Frederick Douglass
84. Who among the American fiction writers developed the genre of American Gothic?
a. James Fennimore Cooper
b. Charles Brockden Brown
c. Washington Irving
d. Phillis Wheatley
85. Why was romanticism considered as appropriate for most American poets and creative essayists?
a. Because it affirmed the value of the common person
b. Because of the vast mountains, deserts and tropics
c. Because it suited to American democracy
d. All of the above
86. What does scarlet letter represent to the townspeople?
a. Hester’s infidelity
b. Hester’s extreme love to an unknown person
c. Hester’s ultimate cry for attention
d. Hester’s pride to be part of the townspeople
87. The early literature of exploration in America was composed of the following, EXCEPT.
a. Diaries
b. Travel Journals
c. News
d. Letters
88. What is the effect of Pocahontas and John Rolfe marriage?
a. A support to the colonies of King James I of England
b. Model for beneficial possibilities of the indigenous and colonial cultures
c. Peace between the English and Native Americans until Chief Powhatan lived
d. Racial harmony
89. He was considered as the first historian of his colony with the piece entitled “Of Plymouth Plantation.”
a. Cotton Mather
b. Samuel Sewall
c. Edward Taylor
D. William Bradford
90. The following are the problems met by Americans in their literature during the Democratic Origins and Revolutionary
Period, EXCEPT.
a. American books were harshly reviewed in England
b. Lack of audience
c. Absence of adequate copyright laws
d. Search for a native literature became a national obsession

ENG 161
81. Which of the following relates to how texts are held together lexically and grammatically as a whole?
a. Parallelism
b. Cohesion
c. Coherence
d. Grammatical
82. Which of the following terms has to do with sense wherein text is called with this term if a discourse
makes sense to the readers?
a. Lexical cohesion
b. Coherence
c. Illocutionary
d. Cohesion
83. Which ways of giving a text cohesion uses pronouns or determiners to refer to the known nouns in
a text?
a. Parallelism
b. Elliptical
c. Substitution
d. Referential
84. Which poem is sung and/or accompanied with the playing of instrument?
a. Panegyric
b. Epic
c. Dirge
d. Lyrical
85. This form is said to have a dramatic presentation that not only ends on a lighthearted note with no
serious misfortunes, but also designed to create and involve humor.
a. Tragicomic
b. Funny play
c. Comic
d. All of the above
86. This term is said to be related to the explicit issues contained in a poem.
a. Language
b. Subject matter
c. Themes
d. Persona
87. Who said that the prominence in foregrounding is motivated?
a. Wales
b. Stern
c. Halliday
d. Quirk
88. In studying a poem, there are two things we expect it to have. What are these?
a. Themes and characters.
b. Themes and Subject matter
c. Language and themes
d. Subject matter and Language
89. This kind of story in drama ends so sadly that makes the audience feel pity for the characters.
a. Sad story
b. Tragicomic
c. Tragic
d. Lyrical
90. Whenever a poet adopts someone else’s personality in his writing, what kind of device he uses?
a. Characterization
b. Actor
c. Persona
d. Poet

ENG 162
81. Professor Webber asked his students to write their own stories inspired by mythology and folklore that include elements
of magic. Which genre of Science fiction is he asking his students to write?
a. Cyberpunk
b. Fantasy fiction
c. Steampunk
d. Supernatural fiction
82. During the class recitation, teacher Miranda asked which genre of Science fiction deals with the problematic side of
society such as in government rules, poverty, or oppression. What is the correct answer?
a. Cyberpunk
b. Dystopian fiction
c. Steampunk
d. Utopian fiction
83. The librarian is making sure that books treating of sexual love in a sensuous or voluptuous manner are NOT accessible
by children. What genre is she trying the children NOT to be exposed to?
a. Chick Literature
b. Flash Fiction
c. Speculative Fiction
d. Urban Fiction
84. Teacher Rowena wanted her students to practice interpreting images in order to comprehend a story. Given this goal in
mind which literary material should she provide to her class?
a. Digi Fiction
b. Doodle Fiction
c. Illustrated novel
d. Manga
85. Based on the scholars, when did contemporary literature start?
a. 1990
b. 1920
c. 1940
d. 1960
86. How important are lights and sound in theatre play?
a. They illuminate and equip the venue
b. They give signals to the audience and director
c. They create emotional atmosphere of the scene
d. They attract potential audience to watch the play
87. In the elements of fiction, which one creates the drama in the story?
a. Conflict
b. Point of view
c. Setting
d. Theme
88. Among the choices below, in poetry, which element is present ONLY in spoken poetry?
a. Figure of speech
b. Meter
c. Performance
d. Rhyme
89. (A.) Contemporary literature is aggressively confronting issues of general urgency.
(B.) Dominant best-sellers are in former niche genres such as fantasies, romances and teen books.
a. Both statements are FALSE
b. Both statements are TRUE
c. Statement A is FALSE and statement B is TRUE
d. Statement A is TRUE and statement B is FALSE
90. (A.) Core demographic for printed media is aging faster than the general population.
(B.) Failure of print and newspapers is disenfranchising young apprentice writers.
a. Both statements are FALSE
b. Both statements are TRUE
c. Statement A is FALSE and statement B is TRUE
d. Statement A is TRUE and statement B is FALSE

ENG 163
81. Which is not an appropriate tool for identifying the problem for research?
a. Gap analysis
b. Prediction
c. Critical thinking
d. Summarizing
82. Which of the following is not true about hypothesis?
a. It is an educated guess
b. It is a vision
c. testable supposition
d. It is a provisional explanation of the outcome
83. Which the following statement is TRUE about action research?
a. A four-step process of AR is identifying an area of focus, collecting data, analyzing data, and transforming data.
b. Critical AR emphasizes the importance of teachers’ autonomy.
c. The two main theories of AR are critical and typical.
d. AR is a systematic inquiry conducted by teacher researchers, principals, and other stakeholders.
84. This part of action research answers the who, why, where, when and how of the research.
a. Data analysis
b. Statistical treatment
c. Scope and limitation
d. Action plan
85. The average of the numbers is also known as
a. mode
b. median
c. mean
d. total
86. It is used to select a sample from within a general population.
a. Statistics
b. Classifying
c. Sampling
d. Data analysis
87. According to Nunan, which of the following is NOT a major characteristic in the definition of action research?
a. It is carried out by practitioners (eg: classroom teacher).
b. It is aimed at changing things.
c. It is carried out by using of oral interviews.
d. It is collaborative.
88. How many steps are there to get an overall framework your analysis?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
88. It is a technique for analyzing and synthesizing qualitative data.
a. Analyzing talk
b. Range
c. Descriptive statistic
d. Measures of central tendency
89. It is a visual mode of sharing with others in reflecting an action research.
a. Conversation
b. Chatroom
c. Video Clips
d. Debates
90. The following are criteria for research problem selection except_______
a. newness of the topic
b. qualification of the researcher
c. peers' preference
d. availability of resources

LIT 006
81. Who among the Goddess gave Harmonia a wondrous necklace that had been made by Hephaestus?
a. Athena
b. Aphrodite
c. Hera
d. Hestia
82. Who introduced alphabets to Greece according to Herodotus?
a. Zeus
b. Cadmus
c. Dionysus
d. Semele
83. What does Aeneas need to gain entrance to the underworld?
a. Golden Fleece
b. Golden bough
c. Magic bow & arrow
A soul to trade
84. Aeneas is the son of what Roman goddess?
a. Venus
b. Virgil
c. Sophocles
d. Homer
85. When did Achilles die and who killed him?
a. After Trojan war, by King Priam
b. During the attack of Greeks, by Hector
c. After Hector’s death, by Paris
d. After Patroclus’ death, by Andromache
86. Who is the queen of Carthage that falls in love with Aeneas?
a. Tiberius
b. Juno
c. Lavinia
d. Dido
87. Who was the prophetess that no one believed?
a. Cassandra
b. Athena
c. Penelope
d. Circe
88. What is the pessimistic belief of the Norse on how the world will end?
a. The good will eventually lose to evil
b. Humans will have short lives
c. The world will melt
d. No human will survive doomsday
89. According to Hamilton, why is it that only little has survived of the old Norse mythology?
a. It was destroyed by early Christian priest
b. It was based on oral tradition
c. Only few stories were written
d. They do not have many storytellers
90. Which of the following happened last?
a. The Rutulians and the Latins joined forces to battle Aeneas and the Trojans.
b. Latinus plans to marry his daughter Lavinia to Aeneas.
c. Aeneas continues to marry Lavinia and found the Roman people.
d. Euryalus is captured and Nisus attempts to save him, only to be murdered alongside him.

LIT 007
81. Which type of poem expresses feelings and emotions?
A. Narrative
B. Lyric
C. Fixed Form
D. Free Form
82. It is the release date of generally published around the film.
A. film analysis
B. film review
C. film criticism
D. film viewing
83. It discusses films as part of historical a larger or theoretical context
A. film analysis
B. film review
C. film criticism
D. film viewing
84. A divisions of acts that occur in different settings.
a. Comedy
b. Conflict
c. Farce
d. Scenes
85. When should setting be used in a story?
A. Setting should be used in the beginning of the story, when there are new events in the story line, or when the reader
needs information to understand the plot.
B. Setting should be used at the end of the story to help explain the resolution.
C. Setting should be used when there are new characters.
D. Setting should be used to help solve the conflict and to show the climax.
86. What is the genre name that encompasses facts that can be proven and checked and is it true?
A. Historical
B. Fiction
C. Realistic Fiction
D. Non-Fiction
87. Why is setting important to a story/film?
A. It tells us about the characters.
B. It lets us know the context of characters’ actions and sets the mood.
C. It settles the conflict.
D. It helps predict the ending of a story.
88. One of the main techniques for generating emotion in poetry is through diction. Diction refers to
_________________.
A. the sounds of words
B. the meanings of words
C. the emotional quality of words
D. the words being chosen for the poem
89. Speaker, stanza, couplet, and quatrain are all...
A. Poetic Structures
B. Figurative Language
C. Sound Devices
D. Types of poems
90. Personification, hyperbole, and symbolism are all...
A. Poetic Structures
B. Figurative Language
C. Sound Devices
D. Types of poems

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