ENGLISH LANGUAGE

The questions in this section are based on a single passage. The questions
are to be answered
on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage.

Passage for Questions 1 to 10:

In 1954, a Bombay economist named A.D. Shroff began a Forum of Free Enterprise,
whose ideas on economic development were somewhat at odds with those then
influentially articulated by the Planning Commission of the Government of India.
Shroff complained against the ‘indifference, if not discouragement’ with which the
state treated entrepreneurs.
At the same time as Shroff, but independently of him, a journalist named Philip
Spratt was writing a series of essays in favour of free enterprise. Spratt was a
Cambridge communist who was sent by the party in

1920s to foment revolution in the subcontinent. Detected in the act, he spent many
years in an Indian jail. The books he read in the prison, and his marriage to an Indian
woman afterwards, inspired a steady move rightwards. By the 1950s, he was editing
a pro- American weekly from Bangalore, called MysIndia. There he inveighed
against the economic policies of the government of India. These, he said, treated the
entrepreneur ‘as a criminal who has dared to use his brains independently of the
state to create wealth and give employment’. The state’s chief planner, P.C.
Mahalanobis, had surrounded himself with Western leftists and Soviet academicians,
who reinforced his belief in ‘rigid control by the government over all activities’.

The result, said Spratt, would be ‘the smothering of free enterprise, a famine of
consumer goods, and the tying down of millions of workers to soul-deadening
techniques.’
The voices of men like Spratt and Shroff were drowned in the chorus of popular
support for a model of heavy industrialization funded and directed by the
governments. The 1950s were certainly not propitious times for free marketers in
India. But from time to time their ideas were revived. After the rupee was devalued in
1966, there were some moves towards freeing the trade regime, and hopes that the
licensing system would also be liberalized. However, after Indira Gandhi split the
Congress Party in 1969, her government took its ‘left turn’, nationalizing a fresh
range of industries and returning to economic autarky.

1. Which of the following statements can most reasonably be inferred from the
information available in the passage:
(a) P.C. Mahalanobis believed in empowering private entrepreneurs and
promoting free market.
(b) Phillip Spratt preferred plans that would create economic conditions
favourable for a forward march by the private enterprise.
(c) Restrictions on free markets enriched large Indian companies.
(d) Philip Spratt opposed the devaluation of rupee in 1966.
2. Which of the following statements is least likely to be inferred from the passage:
(a) Acceptance of A.D. Shroff’s plans in the official circles smothered free
enterprise in India.
(b) The views of the Forum of Free Enterprise ran against the conception of
development then prevalent among the policy makers.
(c) A.D. Shroff believed that state should actively support the private sector.
(d) Philip Spratt had been educated in Cambridge.
3. Select the statement that best captures the central purpose of this passage:
(a) Highlight that even though there were advocates for free-market and private
enterprise in the early years of independent India, they were crowded out by
others who supported a dominant role for state over private enterprise.
(b) Explain the politics behind Indira Gandhi’s decision to nationalise the banks.
(c) Demonstrate with the help of statistics how the preference of policy makers
for Soviet-style economic policies prevented India’s economic growth.
(d) Establish that devaluation of rupee in 1966 was vindicated by subsequent
experience.

4. Philip Spratt came to India because he:

(a) Fell in love with an Indian women
(b) Wanted to protest against the economic policies of the Indian government.
(c) Was offered the editorship of Mysindia.
(d) Had been instructed to work towards the goal of inciting a revolution in India.
5. The author avers that A.D Shroff’s ideas were somewhat at odds with the views of
Planning Commission because:
(a) A.D. Shroff was in favour of rigid governmental control over all economic
activities.
(b) Shroff had opposed government’s decision to devalue Indian rupee.
(c) The hostility of the government to private entrepreneurs was complained
against by A.D. Shroff.
(d) Shroff had been critical of the influence of Soviet academicians over India’s
economic policy.
6. The ideological shift of Philip Spratt to the right was caused by:
(a) The demise of the Soviet Union.
(b) The start of the weekly called MysIndia.
(c) The books that he encountered in the prison.
(d) The dissolution of his first marriage to his college friend.
7. Select the statement that could be most plausibly inferred from this passage:
(a) Philip Spratt and A.D. Shroff were members of the Forum for Free Enterprise.
(b) The first two Five Year Plans emphasised on the importance of private
enterprise as the spearhead of economic growth.
(c) P.C. Mahalanobis had mooted the expulsion of foreign firms like Coca Cola
and IBM from India.
(d) The hopes that the licensing regime would be liberalized after the devaluation
of Indian rupee were belied in the aftermath of the split in the Congress Party.
8. The author alludes to nationalization of industries in 1969 in order to:
 (a) Show the contradictions between AD Shroff’s economic views and the official
economic policies of the Government of India.
(b) Exemplify the shift of the Indira Gandhi led government to the ‘left’
(c) Demonstrate the ideological changes in the worldview of Philip Spratt.
(d) Highlight the negative political repercussions of the decision to devalue the
Indian currency.
9. “Neither Philip Spratt nor A.D. Shroff __________ able to convince Mahalanobis.”
Select the most appropriate phrase out of the four options for filling the blank space
in the aforesaid sentence.
(a) Were (b) Are (c) Was (d) Is.
10. The word ‘inveighed’ in this passage means:
(a) Praised (b) Recited (c) Proclaimed (d)Remonstrated
Passage 2
Excellence in public services requires a civic environment that is safe and peaceful.
The ordinary citizen must feel secure. This is where good policing matters.
Unfortunately, the common citizen's perception in respect of police is one of fear and
distrust. This has to change. Police is a uniformed force with clear command lines
and prescribed standards of conduct and discipline. The ground reality, sadly, is
different. Police is often used by political parties in power for their own ends.
Maintaining peace and order, preventing, controlling and investigating crimes,
surveillance, etc, are their main tasks. These do not receive the required attention.
Police is deployed in large numbers on personal security and VIP duties. Their
working hours are often unduly long and arduous. Their training, equipment and
living conditions are deficient in many ways. Their morale is low. They have
developed external loops of loyalty and find ways to bring outside influence for their
postings. The command lines of a uniformed force stand undermined by these
developments. Police and policing reforms are indeed an area of priority.
11. According to the passage what are the main functions of police?
1. Protecting life of the VIPs
2. Maintenance of Public Order.
3. Crime control.
Choose the correct answer:
(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 2, 3 (c) 1, 3 (d)1, 2
12. According to author why the attention of Police is not on its Core functions?
1. Its core functions do not get priority because most of the time it is busy in
personal security.
2. There is politicisation of police force.
Choose the correct answer:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d)None
13. According to the passage, what means by 'police is a uniformed force with clear
command lines'?
1. Its structure is uniform throughout the country.
2. It has a hierarchy which binds it indiscipline.
3. There are strict guidelines for its conduct which is supposed to be maintained.
4. It has to be under strict discipline.
 5. Members of the force wear identical dress so that their presence is felt. Choose
the correct answer:
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 2, 3, 4 (c) 2, 3, 4, 5 (d)1, 2, 3, 4, 5
14. According to the passage why good policing is significant?
(a) Citizens should feel that it is safety and peace everywhere.
(b) Common man feels that he is secure.
(c) 'a' and 'b' above.
(d) None of the above.
15. Why command lines in police has been undermined?
1. They do not have reasonable residential facilities.
2. Police has to work for long hours.
3. Transfer and pooling in police is influenced by external forces who are not the
part of police hierarchy.
4. They are still performing their duty with the help of obsolete arms and
ammunition.
Choose the correct option:
(a) 1, 2, 3 only (b) 2, 3, 4 only (c) 3, 4 (d)1, 2, 3, 4

Passage 3.
Some modern anthropologists hold that biological evolution has shaped not only
human morphology but also human behaviour. The role those anthropologists
ascribe to evolution is not of dictating the details of human behaviour but one of
imposing constraints - ways of feeling, thinking, and acting that ''come naturally'' in
archetypal situations in any culture. Our ''frailties'' - emotions and motives such as
rage, fear, greed, gluttony, joy, lust, love-may be a very mixed assortment quality: we
are, as we say, ''in the grip'' of them. And thus, they give us our sense of constraints.
Unhappily, some of those frailties our need for ever-increasing security among them
are presently maladaptive. Yet beneath the overlay of cultural detail, they, too, are
said to be biological in direction, and therefore as natural to us as are our
appendixes. We would need to comprehend thoroughly their adaptive origins in
order to understand how badly they guide us now. And we might then begin to resist
their pressure.

16. The primary purpose of the passage is to present

(a) A position on the foundations of human behaviour and on what those
foundation simply
(b) A theory outlining the parallel development of human morphology and of
human behaviour
(c) An overview of those human emotions and motive's that impose constraints
on human behaviour
(d) A practical method for resting the pressures of biologically determined
drives.
17. Our constraints are the result of our frailties.
(a) That there is little or no overlay of cultural detail that masks one's true
nature.
 (b) We are the slaves to our own emotions.
(c) Changes are inevitable.
(d) None of the above
18. It can be inferred from the above passage
(a) Human morphology and human behaviour are a result of biological
evolution.
(b) Changes in the total human environment can outpace evolutionary change.
(c) Our mal adaptiveness of our frailties results in our misunderstanding of the
Evolution.
(d) d. None of these.
Passage 4.
Indian Railways are the principal mode of transport in the country and are an integral
part of our socio-economic life. From a system which essentially served the colonial
interests of the British in the first 94 years of its existence when the first wheels rolled
on rails from Bombay to Thane on April 16, 1853, Indian. Railways have emerged,
since Independence, as the main vehicle for socio-economic development of free
India. With over 63,000 km of route, they are today entrusted with the indispensable
task of fulfilling the country's transport needs, particularly in respect of long-distance
passenger and goods traffic. This indispensability also extends to the suburban
traffic at India's major cities. Freight trains carrying over 1.1 million tonnes of
originating traffic operate on Indian Railways every day, transporting in their wagons
every conceivable commodity, from steel to cement, coal to petroleum, fertilisers to
fodder and foodgrains to fruits. Everyday 7,525 passenger trains carry over 11-
million passengers across India's mountains, deserts and rivers and under the
ground.
The pre-eminent position of Indian Railways in the nation's economy is essentially
due to the fact that they remain, even today, the most economical mode of vehicular
transport. At a time when the country is confronted with severe scarcity in energy
resources, the indispensability of railways is even greater than ever before. Energy
efficiency of rail transport is six times that of road transport and many more times
that of air transport. In India, the relevance of railways as the prime low-cost carrier
of goods and passengers over long distances is, therefore, bound to continue for
ever.
19. According to the passage what is the most important factor that has made
Indian Railways a popular mode of transport?
(a) It is a cheaper mode.
(b) It is user friendly.
(c) It is energy efficient.
(d) It has been responsible for socioeconomic development of the country.
20. Consider the following assumptions regarding the above passage.
1. It served the colonial interest for more than a century.
2. Railways had been partly responsible for socio-economic development of India.
3. Railways is responsible and is indispensable for both long distance and short
distance destinations. Choose the correct option:
(a) 1, 2 only (b) 2, 3 only (c) 1, 2, 3 (d)None
 21. How railways have played a significant role in socio-economic development of
free India?
(a) Railways are being used for transportation of various goods, including
essential commodities.
(b) Both rich and poor use the railways.
(c) Both 'a' and 'b' above.
(d) None of the above.
22. According to the passage why railways should be preferred over other modes
of transport?
1. It will consume less fuel and will transport more people.
2. It will cause less pollution.
3. It is also preferred by suburban population. Choose the correct option:
(a) 1, 2 only (b) 2, only (c) 1, 2, 3 (d)1, 3 only

23. What is the correct inference drawn from the above passage?
(a) Expansion of Indian Railways is inevitable.
(b) Indian Railways is cost efficient.
(c) Railways are fuel efficient.
(d) None of the above.

Passage 5
Opera refers to a dramatic art form, originating in Europe, in which the emotional
content is conveyed to the audience as much through music, both vocal and
instrumental, as it is through the lyrics. By contrast, in musical theatre an actor’s
dramatic performance is primary, and the music plays a lesser role. The drama in
opera is presented using the primary elements of theatre such as scenery,
costumes, and acting. However, the words of the opera, or libretto, are sung rather
than spoken. The singers are accompanied by a musical ensemble ranging from a
small instrumental ensemble to a full symphonic orchestra.

24. It is pointed out in the reading that opera —-.

A) has developed under the influence of musical theatre
B) is a drama sung with the accompaniment of an orchestra
C) is not a high-budget production
D) is often performed in Europe

25. We can understand from the reading that —-.

A) people are captivated more by opera than musical theatre
B) drama in opera is more important than the music
C) orchestras in operas can vary considerably in size
D) musical theatre relies above all on music

26. It is stated in the reading that —-.

A) acting and costumes are secondary to music in musical theatre
B) many people find musical theatre more captivating than opera
C) music in musical theatre is not as important as it is in opera
D) an opera requires a huge orchestra as well as a large choir
Passage 6
Naval architects never claim that a ship is unsinkable, but the sinking of the
passenger-and-car ferry Estonia in the Baltic surely should never have happened. It
was well designed and carefully maintained. It carried the proper number of lifeboats.
It had been thoroughly inspected the day of its fatal voyage. Yet hours later, the
Estonia rolled over and sank in a cold, stormy night. It went down so quickly that
most of those on board, caught in their dark, flooding cabins, had no chance to save
themselves: Of those who managed to scramble overboard, only 139 survived. The
rest died of hypothermia before the rescuers could pluck them from the cold sea.
The final death toll amounted to 912 souls. However, there were an unpleasant
number of questions about why the Estonia sank and why so many survivors were
men in the prime of life, while most of the dead were women, children, and the
elderly.
27. One can understand from the reading that —-.
A) most victims were trapped inside the boat as they were in their cabins
B) design faults and incompetent crew contributed to the sinking of the Estonia ferry
C) 139 people managed to leave the vessel but died in freezing water
D) naval architects claimed that the Estonia was unsinkable

28. It is clear from the passage that the survivors of the accident —-.
A) helped one another to overcome the tragedy that had affected them all
B) were mostly young men but women, children and the elderly stood little chance
C) helped save hundreds of lives
D) are still suffering from severe post-traumatic stress disorder

29. According to the passage, when the Estonia sank, —-.

A) there were only 139 passengers on board
B) few of the passengers were asleep
C) there were enough lifeboats for the number of people on board
D) faster reaction by the crew could have increased the Estonia’s chances of survival
Passage 7
However, there are formidable obstacles. AI start-ups already offer some solutions,
but the challenge lies in scaling these to cover the entire value chain, as NITI Aayog
envisions. The first problem is data. Machine learning, the set of technologies used
to create AI, is a data-guzzling monster. It takes reams of historical data as input,
identifies the relationships among data elements, and makes predictions. More
sophisticated forms of machine learning, like “deep learning”, attempt to mimic the
human brain. And even though they promise greater accuracy, they also need more
data than what is required by traditional machine learning. Unfortunately, India has
sparse data in sectors like agriculture, and this is already hampering AI-based
businesses today.

Take the Bengaluru-based Intello Labs, for instance. This is a start-up which helps
buyers at agricultural mandis evaluate the quality of grains, fruits, or vegetables. In
the normal course, a buyer determines visually how much wheat is destroyed by
pests, and if foreign particles are present, before offering the farmer a price. But this
process is subjective and prone to error. Visual inspection relies too much on the
buyer’s expertise, and corrupt middlemen may cheat farmers. So, a smartphone-
based AI product, such as Intello Labs’ grading app, can help. To develop this
product, the Intello Labs team had to photograph 2.5 million agricultural samples.
Experts then identified the contents of these photos — a laborious process called
annotation. Next, the team wrote a deep learning algorithm, which was trained using
the photos.

30."Machine learning, the set of technologies used to create AI, is a data-guzzling

monster." Why is the set of technologies termed as data-guzzling monsters?
(a) AI is considered as a monster as it provides negative results.
(b) It requires a huge amount of funds to create AI based technologies.
(c) AI involves a laborious process called annotation.
(d) Large amount of data is required as input to create AI

Q31. As per the passage, what are the drawbacks of normal inspection of
agricultural products?
(a) Virtual inspection involves a laborious process called annotation.
(b) It becomes challenging to inspect a large amount of grains physically.
(c) To inspect visually, it requires expertise of buyer and middlemen may cheat
farmers.
(d) None is correct

Q32. Which of the following statements is/are correct in context with the passage?
(a) The dream of a computer system with godlike powers and the wisdom to use
them well is a theological construct, not a technological possibility.
(b) The biggest agricultural data today resides with the government. It’s entirely up to
them to annotate it and make it usable.
(c) Machine learning (a more precise term for AI) will certainly continue to surpass
human capabilities in specific domains such as medical diagnosis and facial
recognition.
(d) People wonder whether instead of our controlling artificial intelligence, it will
control us, turning us, in effect, into cyborgs

Passage 8
The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India has banned formaldehyde in fresh
fish, while the International Agency for Research on Cancer labelled the chemical a
carcinogen in 2004. The evidence the IARC relied on mainly consists of studies on
workers in industries such as printing, textiles, and embalming. Such workers inhale
formaldehyde fumes, and the studies show high rates of nasopharyngeal and other
cancers among them. But there is little evidence that formaldehyde causes cancer
when ingested orally. A 1990 study by U.S. researchers estimated that humans
consume 11 mg of the chemical through dietary sources every day. So, why is
formaldehyde in fish a problem? For one thing, fresh fish should not have
preservatives, and the presence of formaldehyde points to unscrupulous vendors
trying to pass off stale catch as recent. Two, the lack of evidence linking ingested
formaldehyde with cancer doesn’t necessarily make the chemical safe.
At high doses, it causes gastric irritation. Plus, the lack of data could merely mean
that not enough people are consuming formaldehyde regularly enough for its
carcinogenic effects to show — the absence of evidence is not evidence of absence.
There is a third complication. When certain marine fish are improperly frozen during
transit, formaldehyde forms in them naturally. But this formaldehyde binds to the
tissue, unlike added formaldehyde, which remains free. And so, measuring free
formaldehyde versus bound formaldehyde can be one way of distinguishing a
contaminant from a naturally occurring chemical. In this context, the Goan
government must clarify its claim. Did the Goan FDA measure free formaldehyde or
bound formaldehyde?

33. Which of the following can be inferred as the theme of the passage?
(a) Shortcomings of Food and Drugs Administration.
(b) Did the Goan FDA measure free formaldehyde or bound formaldehyde?
(c) Nothing beats dynamite fishing for sheer efficiency.
(d) Concerns over formaldehyde contamination of fish need to be addressed
scientifically

34. Which of the following statements is/are correct in context with the passage?
(a) Fish markets over the last few days wore a desolate look following the
controversy.
(b) The researchers obtained five commonly used fishmeal products and
subjected each one to a detailed genetic analysis.
(c) The discovery of fish food as a source of resistance genes migrating into
oceanic bacteria is worrying, and the researchers say more work is needed to
determine if these resistance traits can find their way into the human food
chain.
(d) The Goa Government has not clarified the criteria on which they conducted
the formaldehyde test.

35. What does the author mean by the phrase "the absence of evidence is not
evidence of absence" in context with the above passage?
(a) Goa Government has not provided the proper evidence of absence of
Formaldehyde in fresh fish.
(b) There is a lack of evidence that inhaling formaldehyde fumes causes cancer.
(c) There is no evidence that consuming formaldehyde shows carcinogenic
effects, but this does not prove that formaldehyde is absent in fishes.
(d) There is no evidence proving that enough people are fishes and thus no
evidence of contamination of fish.

Passage 9
Dolphins are regarded as the friendliest creatures in the sea and stories of them
helping drowning sailors have been common since Roman times. The more we learn
about dolphins, the more we realize that their society is more complex than people
previously imagined. They look after other dolphins when they are ill, care for
pregnant mothers and protect the weakest in the community, as we do. Some
scientists have suggested that dolphins have a language but it is much more
probable that they communicate with each other without needing words. Could any
of these mammals be more intelligent than man? Certainly the most common
argument in favour of man’s superiority over them that we can kill them more easily
than they can kill us is the least satisfactory. On the contrary, the more we discover
about these remarkable creatures, the less we appear superior when we destroy
them.
36. It is clear from the passage that dolphin?
A) don’t want to be with us as much as we want to be with them
B) are proven to be less intelligent than once thought
C) have a reputation for being friendly to humans
D) are the most powerful creatures that live in the oceans

37. The fact that the writer of the passage thinks that we can kill dolphins more easily
than they can kill us —-.
A) means that they are better adapted to their environment than we are
B) shows that dolphins have a very sophisticated form of communication
C) proves that dolphins are not the most intelligent species at sea
D) does not mean that we are superior to them

38. One can infer from the reading that —-.

A) dolphins have some social traits that are similar to those of humans
B) communication is the most fascinating aspect of the dolphins
C) dolphins have skills that no other living creatures have such as the ability to think
D) it is not usual for dolphins to communicate with each other

Passage 10
Erosion of America’s farmland by wind and water has been a problem since settlers
first put the prairies and grasslands under the plow in the nineteenth century. By the
1930s, more than 282 million acres of farmland were damaged by erosion. After 40
years of conservation efforts, soil erosion has accelerated due to new demands
placed on the land by heavy crop production. In the years ahead, soil erosion and
the pollution problems it causes are likely to replace petroleum scarcity as the
nation’s most critical natural resource problem.
39. As we understand from the reading, today, soil erosion in America
A) causes humans to place new demands on the land
B) is worse than it was in the nineteenth century
C) happens so slowly that it is hardly noticed
D) is the most critical problem that the nation faces

40. The author points out in the passage that erosion in America —-.
A) has damaged 282 million acres ever since settlers first put the prairies grasslands
under the plow
B) has been so severe that it has forced people to abandon their settlements
C) occurs only in areas with no vegetation
D) can become a more serious problem in the future
DIRECTIONS: For questions 41 and 42, select the pair of the words nearest in
meaning to the original.
41. FRAYED: FABRIC
(A) Watered : Garden (B) Dilapidated : Building
(C) Frozen : Ice (D) Crumpled : Paper
42. LEVITATE: MAGICIAN
(A) Cook: Mother (B) Argue : Lawyer
(C) Float : Astronaut (D) Sky jump: Parachutists

Fill in the blank with the appropriate option:

43. Judicial decrees may not change the heart, but they can_____ the heartless.
(A) Transform (B) Subdue (C) Diarm (D) Regulate

DIRECTIONS: In the following questions 44 to 47, choose the word which is most
nearly the SAME in meaning to the word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.
44. Charlatan
(A) Monster (B) Pre-historic man (C) Quack (D) An ex-convict

45. Cavil
(A) Frivolous objection (B) To criticize sharply; reprove
(C) Moving away from centre (D) Working of brain; thought process

46. Cynosure
(A) Able to coexist (B) Brief (C) Centre of attention (D) Abridgement

47. Consummate
(A) One of zenith of perfection (B) Existing from birth
(C) Constant; always present (D) A history

DIRECTIONS: In the following questions 48 to 50: choose the word which is most
nearly the OPPOSITE in meaning to the word and mark it in the Answer sheet.
48. Equanimity
(A) Resentment (B) Dubiousness (C) Duplicity (D) Excitement
49. Palliate
(A) Apologise (B) Hesitate (C) Wait impatiently (D) Cure completely
50. Obsequious
(A) Brusque (B) Quick-witted (C) Sharp-tongued (D) Luxurious

GNERAL KNOWLEDGE
Q51. Who has been appointed to the High-Level Expert Group on Net-Zero
Emissions Commitments of NonState Entities ?
A. Arunabha Ghosh B. Pankaj Sen C. Arun Das D. Pavan Ghosh
Q52. HarperCollins India's new book Tiger of Drass is based on the life of which
Indian Army officer?
 A. Captain Anuj Nayyar B Captain Vikram Batra
C. Captain Manoj Pandey D. Captain Jintu Gogoi
Q53. Who is set to take over from Harsh Vardhan Shringla as Foreign Secretary of
India ?
A. Rakesh Mishra B. Somesh Patel C. Vinay Mohan Kwatra D. Ashish
Jindal
Q54. Which company is set to launch the Neu app which is an all-in-one platform
that will offer
electronics, groceries, and getaways?
A. Tata group B. Adani group C. Reliance group D. Wipro group
Q55. Which state set up its first ‘She Auto’ stands ?
A. Telangana B. Andhra Pradesh C. Odisha D. Rajasthan
Q56. Bangladesh has signed an agreement with which Indian company to sset up an
Indian Economic Zone at the Bangabandhu Sheikh Mujib Shilpa Nagar ?
A. Adani B. Reliance C. Larsen & Toubro D. GMR
Q57. Leh is set to sign a tripartite agreement to develop which village as Dark Sky
Sanctuary?
A. Bazgoo B. Hanle C. Khardong D. Panamik
Q58. Dune won the Academy Award for Best Visual Effects. Which Indian played a
major role in the VFX for the movie?
A. Namit Malhotra B. Tushar Khanna C. Arihant Pandey D. Subhash
Anand
Q59. In which country is the statue of Sardar Patel is being unveiled at the Sanatan
Mandir Cultural Centre?
A. Bangladesh B. Canada C. Brazil D. South Africa
Q60. The Indian Railways has announced the closure of which of its entity ?
A. IRCTC B. SRESTHA C. UTTAM D. VAANI
Q61. Which Indian badminton player won a bronze medal in the Asia Badminton
Championships 2022?
A. Saina Nehwal B. PV Sindhu C. P Kashyap D. Srikanth
Kidambi
Q62. The 2nd edition of the Atal New India Challenge (ANIC 2.0) been launched
under which institution/ Ministry?
A. Ministry of Education B. Ministry of Science Technology
C. NITI Aayog D. Ministry of New Renewable Energy
Q63. Which two states celebrate their statehood day on 1 st May ?
A. Maharashtra-Karnataka B. Maharashtra-Gujarat
C. Maharashtra-Andhra Pradesh D. Maharashtra- Goa
Q64. Transnistria, recently in news is a breakaway region of which country?
A. Russia B. Ukraine C. Moldova D. Belarus
Q65. ‘Mukhyamantri Muft Sewer Connection Yojana’ is the initiative of which
state/UT?
A. Delhi B. Punjab C. Chandigarh D. Odisha
Q66. What is the name of a new train which starts on June 21 to pilgrimage sites
dedicated to Lord
 Ram across the country in the Ramayana circuit?
A. Desh Gaurav Tourist Train B. Bharat Gaurav Tourist Train
C. Bharat Darshan Tourist Train D. Desh Darshan Tourist Train
Q67. The delimitation commission set up by the Centre recently submitted its final
report on the delimitation of Assembly and parliamentary constituencies in which
state/UT?
A. J&K B. Ladakh C. Assam D. Uttar Pradesh
Q68. Who has been awarded the World food prize 2022?
A. Alton Brown B. Hang Xiao C. Yeonhwa Park D. Cynthia
Rosenzweig
Q69. Where has the union Home minister inaugurated the Narmada, Sutlej, and
Cauvery Floating Border Outposts (BOP) to protect the inaccessible areas of the
Sundarbans?
A. India-Sri Lanka border B. India-Nepal border
--C. India-Bangladesh border D. Andaman & Nicobar
Q70. Recently, the SC of India suspended all pending criminal trials and court
proceedings under Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC). This section is
better known as____.
A. Marital Rape Law B. Homosexuality Law
C. Sedition Law D. Anti-defection Law
Q71. The 12th edition of the IBA Women’s World Boxing Championships has started
in which city?
A. Nairobi B. Istanbul C. Cairo D. Tel Aviv
Q72 Which Chief Minister received the Bangla Academy Award for "relentless
literary pursuit"?
A. Naveen Patnaik B. Dr. Himanta Biswa Sarma
C. Biplab Kumar Deb D. Mamta Banerjee
Q73. What is the name of the twin identical satellite to be built by ISRO for studying
upper atmosphere?
A. GATI B. DISHA C. AAKASH D. KIRAN
Q74. Who has been appointed the Chief Executive Officer and Managing Director
(MD) of Air India?
A. Ajay Singh B. Wilson Campbell C. Tony Fernandes D. Sanjiv Kapoor
Q75. Which country will host the 2027 South East Asian Games?
A. Thailand B. Japan C. Philippines D. Malaysi
Q76. Which state has launched the ‘Chaara-Bijaee Yojana’ for fodder growers?
A. Rajasthan B. Haryana C. Madhya Pradesh D. Odisha
Q77. As per data from the National Horticulture Board, which is the largest
mushroom producing state in India for 2021-2022?
A. Odisha B. Assam C. Bihar D. Himachal Pradesh
Q78. Recently, Krishnan Sankar Subramanian has been appointed as the Managing
Director and CEO of which of the following banks?
A. Punjab and Sind Bank B. Canara Bank
C. Tamilnad Mercantile Bank D. ICICI Bank
Q79. ‘WEST’ initiative, recently launched, is related to which of the following?
 A. Women with STEM background C. Climate Change
B. Indian Diplomacy tool with European Union D. Ground Water

Q80. Which of the following states/union territories will host the first-ever Mountain
Bicycle, MTB, World Cup- the ‘UCI MTB Eliminator World Cup’ in India?
A. Jammu and Kashmir B. Ladakh C. Uttarakhand D. Himachal
Pradesh

LOGICAL REASONING
DIRECTIONS: For questions (Q. 81-84), some information is provided in the form of
statements. On the basis of that information find the answer to the questions which
follow. Coach Bal kishen is trying to put together a team of four players for a tennis
tournament. He has seven players available: males A, B and C and the females M,
N, O and P. All players are of equal ability and there must be at least two males on
the team. For a team of four, all players must be able to play with each other player.
Player B cannot play with player M Player C cannot play with player P Player M
cannot play with player O
81. If player O is selected and player B is rejected the team will consist of which
foursome?
(A) A, C, M and O (B) A, C, N and O (C) A, C, P and O (D) A, N, P and
O
82. If player M is on the team, what other players must be on the team as well?
(A) A, B and N (B) A, C and N (C) A, C and O (D) A, C and P
83. What statement is false?
(M) Player B and C are never selected together
(N) Player C and O are never selected together
(O) Player C and N are never selected together
(a) Only M
(b) Only N
(c) Only O
(d) All the three
84. Which statement must always be true?
(M) If M plays, A plays
(N) If O plays, B plays
(O) If M plays, O plays
(a) Only M
(b) Only N
(c) Only O
(d) Only M and O

85. The door of my house is towards east direction. From the backside of my house I
drove straight 100 metres, then turned towards right and drove for 100 metres, then
turned towards left and drove for 50 metres and reached my destination. In what
direction am I from the starting point?
(a) North-west
 (b) West
(c) North
(d) East

DIRECTIONS: Each interrogative statement (Qs. 86-87) is followed by two

arguments. You are to pick up one of the following responses as the answer.

86. Should divorce laws be made more favourable to women in India?

(X) Yes, because women are persecuted by their women in India.
(Y) No, because it will disrupt family life.
(a) Argument ‘X’ is forceful
(b) Argument ‘Y’ is forceful
(c) Neither ‘X’ nor ‘Y’ is forceful
(d) Both ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are forceful
87. Is leisure irrelevant to modern life?
(M) Yes, because life has become too much mechanical today.
(N) No, because without leisure efficiency will fall, body and brain must be given rest.
(a) Only argument ‘M’ is forceful
(b) Only argument ‘N’ is forceful
(c) Both ‘M’ and ‘N’ is forceful
(d) Neither ‘M’ nor ‘N’ is forceful

Directions: The following two (5) items consist of two Statements, one labelled the
‘Assertion A’ and the other labelled the ‘Reason R’. You are to examine these two
Statements carefully and decide if the Assertion A and the Reason R are individually
true and if so whether the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Select
your answers to these items using the codes given below and mark your answer
accordingly.
Code:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A .
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.
88. Assertion (A) : A stranger to a contract has no right to enforce it against the
parties to the contract.
Reason (R) : Privity of contract between the parties is essential for enforcement
of contract.
88. Assertion (A) : A finder of a thing has title to it.
Reason (R) : The finder’s title to a thing is superior to that of the owner.
89. Assertion (A) : A minor is not competent to enter into any contract, even for
necessaries.
Reason (R) : For necessaries supplied to a minor, his estate can be made liable
to reimburse.
90. Assertion (A) : A legal right is a legally protected interest.
Reason (R) : An element of advantage is essential to constitute a right.
91. Assertion (A) : Customs to have the force of law must be immemorial.
Reason (R) : Custom represents common consciousness of people.

Direction: In each of the following questions one statements is followed by two

arguments (A) and (B), one supporting and the other against it.
(A) if only argument (A) is strong.
(B) if only argument (B) is strong.
(C) if either (A) or (B) is strong.
(D) if both (A) and (B) are strong.
92. Statement : Should India adopt a Presidential system?
Arguments
(A) Yes-Because our experience of Parliamentary democracy is disappointing
(B) No - Because it will concentrate power in the hands of a few people.
93. Statement : Should the death sentence be abolished?
Arguments
(A) Yes-The death sentence deprives the culprit of all chances of improving
his behaviour.
(B) No - Capital punishment restrains criminal tendency.

Directions: In the following question, a statement is followed by two

conclusions (A) and (B) . You have to assume everything in the statement to
be true, consider both the conclusions together, and then decide which of the
two given conclusions logically follow beyond a reasonable doubt from the
information given in the statement.
(A) if only conclusion (A) follows.
(B) if only conclusion (B) follows.
(C) if either (A) or (B) follows.
(D) If neither (A) nor (B) follows.
94. Statement: The greatest advantage of democracy over all other forms of
governments is not that the men who have gone to the top are exceptionally wise,
but that since their power depends upon popular support, they know that they cannot
retain their position if they are guilty of more than a modicum of injustice.
Conclusions: (A) In a democracy, persons in power cannot act arbitrarily.
(B) Democratic countries cannot have excellent leaders.

Directions(95-98): The questions in this section are based on the reasoning

contained in brief statements or passages. For some questions, more than one of
the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the
best answer, that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the
question. You should not make assumptions that are by common sense standards
implausible, superfluous or incompatible with the passage.
95. Consumer advocate: Businesses are typically motivated primarily by the desire
to make as great a profit as possible, and advertising helps business to achieve this
goal. But it is clear that the motive of maximizing profits does not impel businesses to
present accurate information in their advertisements. It follows that consumers
should be sceptical of the claims made in advertisements.
Each of the following if true would strengthen the Consumer advocate’s argument
EXCEPT:
(A) Businesses know that they can usually maximize their profits by using
inaccurate information in their advertisements.
(B) Businesses have often included inaccurate information in their
advertisement.
(C) Many consumers have a cynical attitude toward advertising.
(D) Those who create advertisements are less concerned with the accuracy
than with the creativity of advertisements.

96. Science columnist: It is clear why humans have so many diseases in common
with cats. Many human diseases are genetically based, and cats are genetically
closer to humans than are any other mammals except nonhuman primates. Each of
the genes identified so far in cats has an exact counterpart in humans.
Which one of the following if true, most weakens the science columnist’s explanation
for the claim that humans have so many diseases in common with cats?
(A) Cats have built up resistance to many of the disease they have in common
with humans.
(B) Most diseases that humans have in common with cats have no genetic
basis.
(C) Cats have more diseases in common with nonhuman primates than with
humans.
(D) Many of the diseases human have in common with cats are mild and are
rarely diagnosed.

97. Psychologist: It is well known that becoming angry often induces temporary
incidents of high blood pressure. A recent study further showed, however, that
people who are easily angered are significantly more likely to have permanently high
blood pressure than are people who have more tranquil personalities. Coupled with
the long-established fact that those with permanently high blood pressure are
especially likely to have heart disease, the recent findings indicate that heart disease
can result from psychological factors.
Which one of the following would, if true, most weaken the psychologist’s argument?
(A) Those who are easily angered are less likely to recover fully from
episodes of heart disease than are other people.
(B) Medication designed to control high blood pressure can greatly affect the
moods of those who use it.
(C) People with permanently high blood pressure who have tranquil
personalities virtually never develop heart disease.
 (D) The physiological factors that cause permanently high blood pressure
generally make people quick to anger.

98. A professor of business placed a case-study assignment for her class on her
university’s computer network. She later found out that instead of reading the
assignment on the computer screen. 50 out of the 70 students printed it out on
paper. Thus, it is not the case that books delivered via computer will make printed
books obsolete.
Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens the argument?
(A) Several colleagues of the professor have found that, in their non-business
courses, several of their students behave similarly in relation to assignments
placed on the computer network.
(B) Studies consistently show that most computer users will print reading
material that is more than a few pages in length rather than read it on the
computer screen.
(C) Some people get impaired vision from long periods of reading printed
matter on computer screens, even if they use high quality computer screens.
(D) Scanning technology is very poor, causing books delivered via computer
to be full of errors unless editors carefully read the scanned versions.

In each of the questions 99 to 103 two statements are given. There may or may
not be cause and
effect relationship between the two statements.
Mark your answer using this code.
(a) Statement I is the cause and statement II is the effect
(b) Statement Il is the cause and statement I is the effect
(c) Both the statements are independent causes
(d) Both the statements are independent effects
99. Statement I: School education has been made free for children of poor families.
Statement II: Literacy rate among the poor is steadily growing.
100. Statement I: Hallmarking of gold jewellery has been made compulsory.
Statement II: Many persons do not prefer to buy hallmarked jewellery.
101. Statement I: Many vegetarians are suffering from stomach ailments.
Statement II: Many dead fish were found near the lake shore.
102. Statement I: Ahmed is a healthy boy.
Statement II: His mother is very particular about the food he eats.
103. Statement I: Rate of crime is very low in this city.
Statement II: The police is efficient in this city.

In each of the questions 104 to 108 a statement is followed by two

assumptions. These
assumptions may or may not be implicit in the statement. Select your
response in accordance
with the following code.
(a) Only assumption I is implicit
 (b) Only assumption II is implicit
(c) Both assumptions I and II are implicit
(d) Neither of the assumptions I nor II is implicit

104. Statement: If Ram has finished reading the instructions, let him begin activities
accordingly.
Assumption I: Ram has understood the instructions.
Assumption II: Ram would be able to act accordingly.
105. Statement: Children below the age of seven should not be prosecuted for
crimes.
Assumption I: Generally, children below seven cannot distinguish between
right and wrong.
Assumption II: Children below the age of seven are generally mentally
unsound.
106. Statement: The employer has a right to reject the application of any candidate
for employment
without assigning any reason, while short listing candidates for
interview.
Assumption I: The employer is impartial and believes in transparency in
employment practices.
Assumption II: The employer wants to call only those candidates for interview,
who in his opinion are eligible.
107. Statement: The government has decided to reduce custom duty on computers.
Assumption I: The government wants to make computers accessible to
larger number of people
Assumption II: Prices in domestic market may go up in near future.
108. Statement: You can win over new friends by your warm smile.
Assumption I: It is necessary to win over new friends.
Assumption II: It is always better to smile warmly to new persons.

In question 109 to 113 a question and two arguments are given. Arguments in
relation to the question are either weak or strong. Use this key to give your
responses.
(a) Argument I is strong
(b) Argument Il is strong
(c) Both I and II are strong
(d) Both I and II are weak
109. Question: Should there be complete ban on manufacture of fire crackers in
India?
Argument I: No, this will render thousands of workers jobless.
Argument II: Yes, the fire cracker manufacturers use child labour.

110. Question: Should private operators be allowed to operate passenger train

service in India? Argument I: No, private operators do not agree to operate
on non profitable sectors.
Argument II: Yes, it will improve the quality of Indian Railway Service.

111. Question: Should the system of reservation of posts for scheduled castes be
introduced in private sector?
Argument I: Yes, this would give more opportunity of development to these groups.
Argument II: No, this would effect merit.

112. Question: Would the problem of old parents be solved if children are made
legally responsible to take care of their parents in old age?
Argument I: Yes, such problems can be solved only through law.
Argument II: Yes, this will bring relief to old parents.

113. Question: Should right to primary education be made a fundamental right?

Argument I: We should first complete other developmental projects,
education of children can wait.
Argument II: Yes, without primary education for all there cannot be inclusive
development.

Note: The following six questions comprise of one or more statements. Please
answer the questions based on the given statement(s). Please make the
factual assumptions required by the question even if you believe the statement
is false.
114. ‘Where there is smoke, there is fire.’ Which of the following statements, if true,
would show that the above statement is false?
(a) There is sometimes smoke where there is no fire.
(b) There is sometimes fire where there is no smoke.
(c) There is no fire where there is no smoke.
(d) None of the above.
115. ‘Where there is poverty, there are always thieves.’ Which of the following
statements, if true, would show that the above statement is false?
(a) America is a rich country and there are thieves in America.
(b) Bhutan is a poor country and there are no thieves in Bhutan.
(c) Bangladesh is a poor country and there are many thieves in Bangladesh.
(d) Nepal is a rich country and there are no thieves in Nepal.
116. Statement 1: Sugar is bad for people with diabetes.
Statement 2: Leela does not eat sugar. Assuming that Statements 1 and 2 are true,
which of the following statements follows?
(a) Leela has diabetes.
(b) Sugar is bad for Leela.
(c) People with diabetes do not eat sugar.
(d) None of the above.
117. Statement 1: People who read fashion magazines do not like to read fiction.
Statement 2: Tenzin does not read fashion magazines. Assuming that Statements 1
and 2 are true, which of the following conclusions might be said to follow?
(a) Tenzin likes to read fiction.
 (b) Tenzin may or may not like to read fiction.
(c) Tenzin does not like to read fiction.
(d) Tenzin does not like fashion magazines.
118. Suleiman: All Communists are atheists. Sheeba: That is not true. Which of the
following, if true, would make Sheeba’s reply the most convincing?
(a) My uncle is an atheist but he is not a Communist.
(b) My uncle is a Communist but he is not an atheist.
(c) My uncle is a Communist and an atheist.
(d) My uncle is neither a Communist nor an atheist.
119. ‘In 399 BC, a jury in Athens condemned Socrates to death for impiety and
corrupting the morals of the youth. Socrates’ friends offered to help him escape, but
Socrates refused. Socrates argued that the fact that he had lived in Athens for so
many years meant that he had committed himself to obeying its laws. It would
therefore be wrong for him to break those very laws he was implicitly committed to
obeying.’ Which one of the following claims constitutes the most plausible challenge
to Socrates’ argument?
(a) Long residence only commits someone to obeying just laws and Socrates
was convicted under an unjust law.
(b) Long residence by itself does not imply a commitment to obeying laws
since one never made any explicit commitment.
(c) Obedience to the law is not always required.
(d) There is no point in escaping from prison since one will anyway be
captured again.
120. ‘Soft drinks have been shown by scientists to be bad for the teeth. Therefore,
the government would be justified in banning all soft drinks from the Indian market.’
Assuming that the factual claim in the above argument is true, what else needs to be
assumed for the conclusion to follow?
(a) The government is justified in banning anything that is bad for dental
health.
(b) Soft drinks are also bad for gastric health.
(c) Dental hygiene is a matter of great concern.
(d) No further assumptions are necessary.

121. PRINCIPLE: Whoever, intending to take dishonestly any movable property out
of the possession of any person without that person's consent moves that property,
such taking is said to commit theft.
FACT: RAMU cuts down a tree on RINKU'S ground, with the intention of dishonestly
taking the tree out of RINKU'S possession without RINKU'S consent. A could not
take the tree away.
(a) RAMU can be prosecuted for theft
(b) RAMU cannot be prosecuted for theft
(c) RAMU can be prosecuted for attempt to theft
(d) RAMU has neither committed theft nor attempt to commit theft
122. PRINCIPLE: injuria sine damnum i.e. injury without damage.
FACT: SONU, who was a returning officer at a polling booth, wrongly refused to
register a duly tendered vote of MONU, though he was a qualified voter. The
candidate, whom MONU sought to vote, was declared elected.
(a) MONU can sue SONU on the ground that he was denied to cast vote,
which is a fundamental right.
(b) MONU can sue SONU on the ground that he was denied to cast vote,
which is a legal right.
(c) MONU cannot sue SONU because there is no injury or damage cause to
MONU.
(d) MONU cannot sue SONU because to whom he sought to vote was
declared elected.
123. PRINCIPLE: A person is said to be of sound mind for the purpose of making a
contract if, at the time when he makes it, he is capable of understanding it and of
forming a rational judgment as to its effect upon his interests.
FACT: Mr. X who is usually of sound mind, but occasionally of unsound mind enters
a contract with Mr. Y when he is of unsound mind. Y came to know about this fact
afterwards and now wants to file a suit against Mr. X.
(a) Mr. X cannot enter into contract because he is of unsound mind when he
entered into contract.
(b) Mr. X can enter into contract but the burden is on the other party to prove
that he was of unsound mind at the time of contract.
(c) Mr. X can enter into a contract but the burden is on Mr. X to prove that he
was of unsound mind at the time of contract.
(d) None of the above.
124. PRINCIPLE: When one person signifies to another his willingness to do or to
abstain from doing anything, with a view to obtaining the assent of that other to such
act or abstinence, he is said to make a proposal.
FACT: "Ramanuj telegrammed to the Shyamsunder, writing: "will you sell me your
Rolls Royce CAR? Telegram the lowest cash price." Shyamsunder replied, too by
telegram: 'Lowest price for CAR is Rs. 20 lacs.' Ramanuj immediately sends his
consent through telegram stating: 'I agree to buy the CAR for Rs. 20 laks asked by
you.' Now Shyamsunder refused to sell the CAR.
(a) He cannot refuse to sell the CAR because the contract has already been
made.
(b) He can refuse to sell the CAR because it was only invitation to offer and
not the real offer.
(c) It was not a valid offer because willingness to enter into a contract was
absent.
(d) None of the above.
125. PRINCIPLE: A master is liable for the acts committed by his servant in the
course of employment.
FACT: Sanjay is a driver working in Brookebond and Co. One day, the Manager
asked him to drop a customer at the airport and get back at the earliest. On his way
back from the airport, he happened to see his fiance Ruhina waiting for a bus to go
home. He offered to drop her at home, which happened to be close to his office. She
got into the car and soon thereafter; the car somersaulted due to the negligence of
Sanjay. Ruhina was thrown out of the car and suffered multiple injuries. She seeks
compensation from Brookebond and Co.
(a) Brookebond and Co., shall be liable, because Sanjay was in the course of
employment at the time of accident
(b) Brookebond and Co., shall not be liable, Sanjay was not in the course of
employment when he took Ruhina inside the car.
(c) Ruhina got into the car at her own risk, and therefore, she cannot sue
anybody.
(d) None of the above.
126. PRINCIPLE: Nuisance as a tort (civil wrong) means an unlawful interference
with a person's use or enjoyment of land, or some right over, or in connection with it.
FACT: During the scarcity of onions, long queues were made outside the
defendant's shop who having a license to sell fruits and vegetables used to sell only
1 Kg. of onion per ration card. The queues extended on to the highway and also
caused some obstruction to the neighboring shops. The neighboring shopkeepers
brought an action for nuisance against the defendant.
(a) The defendant is liable for nuisance
(b) The defendant was not liable for nuisance
(c) The defendant was liable under the principle of strict liability
(d) The plaintiffs suit should be decreed in his favour
127. PRINCIPLE: Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who, at the time
of doing it, by reason of unsoundness of mind, is incapable of knowing the nature of
the act, or that he is doing what is either wrong or contrary to law.
FACT: A takes his son B who is three years old, for a bath to the well. He throws his
son inside the well so that he could have a good bath. After 10 minutes he also
jumped in the well to take a bath and take his son out of the well. Both were rescued
by the villagers but his son was found dead.
(a) A has committed culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(b) A has committed murder
(c) A has done no offence as he can plead the defence of unsoundness of
mind
(d) A's family should be responsible for this incident to let him to take child to
the well
128. PRINCIPLE: ignorantia juris non excusat and ingnorantia facit excusat
FACT: George was a passenger from Zurich to Manila in a Swiss Plane. When the
plane landed at the airport at Bombay on 28th Nov. 1962 it was found on search that
George carried 34 kgs of gold bars in person and that he had not declared it in the
'Manifest for transit'. On 26th Nov. 1962 Government of India issued a notification
and modified its earlier exemption and now it is necessary that, the gold must be
declared in the "Manifest" of the aircraft.
(a) George cannot be prosecuted because he had actually no knowledge
about the new notification issued only two days ago.
(b) George cannot be prosecuted because it is mistake of fact which is
excusable.
(c) George's will be prosecuted because mistake of law is not excusable.
(d) George liability would depend on the discretion of the court
129. PRINCIPLE: Everybody is under a legal obligation to take reasonable care to
avoid an act or omission which he can foresee would injure his neighbour. The
neighbour for this purpose, is any person whom he should have in his mind as likely
to be affected by his act.
FACT: Krishnan, while driving a car at high speed in a crowded road, knocked down
a cyclist. The cyclist died on the spot with a lot of blood spilling around, Lakshmi, a
pregnant woman passing by, suffered from a nervous shock, leading to abortion.
Lakshmi filed a suit against Krishnan claiming damages.
(a) Krishna will be liable, because he owed a duty of reasonable care to
everybody on the road including Lakshmi
(b) Krishna will not be liable, because he could not have foreseen Lakshmi
suffering from nervous shock as a result of his act.
(c) Krishna will be liable to Lakshmi because he failed to drive carefully
(d) None of the above
130. PRINCIPLE: Preparation is not an offence except the preparation of some
special offences.
FACT: Ramesh keeps poisoned halua in his house, wishing to kill Binoy whom he
invited to a party and to whom he wishes to give it. Unknown to Ramesh, his only
son takes the halua and dies. In this case
(a) Ramesh is liable for the murder.
(b) He is not liable for murder since it is a preparation alone.
(c) He is liable for culpable homicide
(d) None of the above
131. PRINCIPLE: Agreements, the meaning of which is not certain, or capable of
being made certain, are void.
FACT: A horse was bought for a certain price coupled with a promise to give Rs. 500
more if the horse proved lucky.
(a) This is a valid agreement.
(b) This agreement is void for uncertainty because it is very difficult to determine
what luck, bad or good, the horse had brought to the buyer.
(c) The agreement is partially valid and partially void.
(d) None of the above.

132. PRINCIPLE: Mere silence as to facts likely to affect the willingness of a person
to enter into a contract is not fraud, unless the circumstances of the case are such
that, regard being had to them, it is the duty of the person keeping silence to speak,
or unless his silence is, in itself, equivalent to speech.
FACT: A sells, by auction, to B, a horse which A knows to be unsound. A says
nothing to B about the horse's unsoundness.
(a) A can be held liable for fraud
(b) A can be held liable for misrepresentation
(c) A cannot be held liable, because he did not say anything positive about the
soundness of horse.
(d) (d) A cannot be held liable because it is the buyer who must be aware of the
things.
133. PRINCIPLE: Any direct physical interference with the goods in somebody's
possession without lawful justification is called trespass to goods.
FACT: A purchased a car from a person who had no title to it and had sent it to a
garage for repair. X, believing, wrongly, that the car was his, removed it from the
garage.
(a) X can be held responsible for trespass to goods.
(b) X cannot be held responsible for trespass to good as he was under a wrong
belief.
(c) X has not committed any wrong.
(d) None of the above.

134. PRINCIPLE: "Nobody shall unlawfully interfere with a person's use or

enjoyment of land, or some right over, or in connection with it. The use or enjoyment,
envisaged herein, should be normal and reasonable taking into account surrounding
situation."
FACT: Jeevan and Pavan were neighbours in a residential locality. Pavan started a
typing class in a part of his house and his typing sound disturbed Jeevan who could
not put up with any kind of continuous noise. He filed a suit against Pavan.
(a) Pavan is liable, because he should not have started typing class in his house
(b) Pavan is liable, because as a neighbour, he should have realised Jeevan's
delicate nature
(c) Pavan is not liable, because typing sound did not disturb anyone else other
than Jeevan
(d) None of the above.

135. PRINCIPLE: Doctrine of Double Jeopardy: No person shall be prosecuted and

punished for the same offence twice.
FACT: Maqbool brought some gold into India without making any declaration to
Custom department on the airport. The custom authorities confiscated the gold
under the Sea Customs Act. Maqbool was later charged for having committed an
offence under Foreign Exchange Regulation Act.
(a) He cannot be prosecuted because it would amount to double jeopardy.
(b) He can be prosecuted because confiscation of good by custom authorities
does not amount to prosecution by the Court.
(c) Maqbool ought to have known that he can be stopped by the custom
authorities.
(d) None of the above.
Direction (Qs. 136–145) : The question consist of two statements, one labelled as
Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R). You are to examine the two statements
carefully and select the best option.

136. Assertion (A) : Custom per se is law, independent of prior recognition by the
sovereign or the judge.
Reason (R) : Custom is source of law but by itself is not law.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A
 (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

137. Assertion (A) : Idol is a person who can hold property.

Reason (R) : Only human being can be called person not the lifeless things.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A
(b) Both A and R are individually true, but R is not correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

138. Assertion (A) : Laws are means of achieving an end namely social control.
Reason (R) : The ultimate end of law is to secure greatest happiness to greatest
number.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

139. Assertion (A) : Every person should have the freedom of speech and
expression.
Reason (R) : If a person is stopped from speaking then mankind will lose the truth.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

140. Assertion (A) : Attempt to commit an offence though does not result in any
harm, should also be punished.
Reason (R) : A person who tries to cause a prohibited harm and fails, is, in terms of
moral culpability, not materially different from the person who tries and succeeds.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

141. Assertion (A) : In India, every state has a High Court in its territory.
Reason (R) : The Constitution of India provides for a High Court in each state.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

142. Assertion (A) : The Council of Ministers at the centre is collectively responsible
both to the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
Reason (R) : The members of both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha are eligible to be
ministers of the Union Government.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

143. Assertion (A) : The reservation of thirty-three percent of seats for women in
Parliament and State Legislature does not require Constitutional Amendment.
Reason (R) : Political parties contesting elections can allocate thirty-three per cent of
seats they contest to women candidates without any Constitutional Amendment.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

144. Assertion (A) : We, the people of India, having solemnly resolved to constitute
India into a Democratic Republic.
Reason (R) : A republic will ensure we have a head of state that is democratically
elected and accountable to voters. As a result the head of state will be a more
effective constitutional safeguard.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

145. Assertion (A) : Republic Day is celebrated on 26th January every year in the
country.
Reason (R) : The Constitution of India came into force on 26th January 1950.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

Direction (Qs. 146–148) : Read the definition and elements of the attempt, apply
them on the given fact situations and answer the question:

Definition of Attempt: Lord Blackburn has said that "there is no doubt that there is
difference between a preparation antecedent to an attempt and the actual attempt,
but if the actual transaction has commenced which would have ended in the crime if
not interrupted, there is clearly an attempt to commit the crime."
1. Fault element: Intention or knowledge requisite for committing an offence; and
2. Conduct Element: does any act towards its commission and has crossed the
stage of preparation. This act is so closely connected with, and proximate to the
commission that it fails in object because of facts not known to him or because of
circumstances beyond his control.
146. 'RANI' ran to a well stating that she would jump into it, and she started running
towards the well but she was caught before she could reach it.
(a) She is not guilty of attempt to commit suicide because she might have
changed her mind before jumping into the well.
(b) She is guilty of attempt to commit suicide
(c) Right to life includes rights right to die hence a person should not be held
responsible for attempt to commit suicide.
(d) None of the above.
147. 'SINY' with an intention to pick-pocket puts his hand into MINU's pocket. MINU
had a loaded pistol in his pocket. The thief touches the pistol and trigger goes on,
whereby MINU is shot dead.
(a) SINY will be liable only for attempting to pick-pocket and not for killing
because she cannot be treated differently from all other pick-pockets who
steal under exactly similar circumstances and same intention, with no risk
of causing death and with no greater care to avoid it.
(b) SINY will be liable for attempting to murder
(c) SINY will be liable for culpable homicide not amounting to murder as his
intention was definitely not to kill.
(d) None of the above
148. 'JAM' denied food to his wife JANE for several days by keeping her confined in
a room with an intention to accelerate her death. JANE ultimately managed to
escape.
(a) JAM is guilty for attempt to murder his wife.
(b) JAM is not guilty for attempt to murder his wife and he was only doing
preparation.
(c) JAM is not guilty for attempt to murder his wife as she always had option
to escape.
(d) None of the above

149. Principles: An independent contractor is one who is employed to do some work

of his employer. He is engaged under a contract for services. He undertakes to
produce a given result, and in the actual execution of the work, he is not under the
direct control or following directions of his employer. He may use his own discretion
in execution of the work assigned. In general, an employer is not liable for the torts
(wrongful acts) of his independent contractor. But, the employer may be held liable if
he directs him to do some careless acts.
Facts: Ramesh hired a taxi-cab to go to Delhi Airport. As he started late from his
home, he kept on urging the taxi-driver to drive at a high speed and driver followed
the directions; and ultimately due to high speed an accident took place causing
injuries to a person.
(a) Ramesh would not be held liable for damages because the driver was an
independent contractor and not his servant.
(b) Ramesh would not be held liable for damages because Ramesh did not know
the consequences of such rash driving.
 (c) Ramesh would be held liable for damages as he exercised the control by
giving directions to the driver.
(d) Ramesh would not be liable as car was not owned by him.

150.Principle: Where a person lawfully does anything for another person, or delivers
anything to him, not intending to do so or to provide gratuitously, and such other
person takes the benefit of that; the latter is bound to compensate the former for
something done or thing provided, or to restore, the thing so delivered.
Facts: Trader 'A' delivers certain eatables at B's house by mistake. 'B' consumed the
eatables without asking anything. Which of the following derivations is correct?
(a) It is the discretion of 'B' to make payment to 'A'
(b) 'B' is bound to pay 'A' for the eatables.
(c) 'B' can be made liable to pay for the eatables, only if 'A' establishes an
express contract between 'A' and 'B'.
(d) 'B' is not bound to pay 'A' for the eatables