CLASS 6 SAMPLE PAPER 1

SECTION 01 LOGICAL REASONING

1. How many meaningful words can be made from the letters
‘AEML’ using each letter only once in each word?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
Answer: The correct option is (D).
Explanation:
Meaningful word = LAME, MEAL and MALE

2. Arrange the following words in a meaningful order:

1. Gold 2. Iron 3. Sand
4. Platinum 5. Diamond
(A) 3 2 1 5 4
(B) 2 4 3 5 1
(C) 5 4 3 2 1
(D) 4 5 1 3 2
Answer: The correct option is (A).

3. A car goes from A to B in three hours. It stays at A for five

hours and then returns to A. If the total item taken in the
journey including the stay at B be 12 hrs and the average
running speed of the car be 60km/hr., how far is B from A?
(A) 210 km
(B) 360 km
(C) 420 km
(D) 720 km
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 Answer: The correct option is (A).
Explanation:
In 7 hours, the car moves 420 m from A to B and then B to A.

4. Complete the series

W S O____
(A) C
(B) F
(C) D
(D) K
Answer: The correct option is (D).
Explanation:
W VUT S RQP O NMLK

Sequence logic = skip 3 letters

 Next in sequence = K.

5. ‘BDFH’ is related to ‘JLNP’ in the same way as ‘RTVX’ is

related to
(A) BDHF
(B) BDFZ
(C) ZBDF
(D) YZAB
Answer: The correct option is (C).
Explanation:
All the letter are moved eight steps forward.

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 6. Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would
replace the question mark (?).

Problem Figures Answer Figures

Answer: The correct option is (B).

Explanation:
Left figure (triangle) becomes bigger and right figure (triangle)
becomes smaller.
.
7. Era walks 6 km towards north and then she turns towards
right and walks 8 km. Again she turns towards right and walks
2 km. Now she turns back and walks 4 km. How far is she from
her starting point?
(A) 10.33 km.
(B) 11.31 km.
(C) 23.12 km.
(D) 25.45 km.
Answer: The correct option is (B).
Explanation:
C

8 km 4 km
2 km
6 km
4 km

A 8 km B

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𝐀𝐂 = √𝟖𝟐 + 𝟖𝟐 )
= √(𝟔𝟒 + 𝟔𝟒) = √𝟏𝟐𝟖
=11.31 KM

8. Which one will replace the question mark?

A. 115
B. 130
C. 135
D. 140
Answer: The correct option is (B).
Explanation:
(5 x 6 x 8) + (7 x 4 x 9) = 492
and (7 x 5 x 4) + (6 x 8 x 9) = 572
Therefore (4 x 3 x 5) + (7 x 2 x 5) = 130

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 Directions (9-10): find the figures which will continue the
same series.

9.

a)

b)

c)

d)
Answer: The correct option is (C).
Explanation:
In alternate steps the lower-row elements go to the upper row
and new elements appear in the lower row.

10.

a)

b)

c)

d)
Answer: The correct option is (C).
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Explanation:
In each step the elements shift from left to right in a cyclic order
and one element is replaced beginning from the extreme left from 5
to 6, the rightmost element should get replaced.

SECTION 02 SCIENCE
11. A blurred view is obtained through a paper when a little
amount of oil of grease is applied on it because the paper
become________.

(A) Clear
(B) Transparent
(C) Translucent
(D) Opaque
Answer: The correct option is (C).
Explanation:
The materials through which objects can be seen, but not clearly
are known as translucent e.g; oily paper or greased paper.

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12. Study the flow chart carefully and match column I
(Objects) with column II (Materials).

(A) (P) – (i); (Q) – (ii); (R) – (iii)

(B) (P) – (ii); (Q) – (iii); (R) – (i)
(C) (P) – (ii); (Q) – (i); (R) – (iii)
(D) (P) – (iii); (Q) – (i); (R) – (ii)
Answer: The correct option is (C).
Explanation:
Object P is a metal which is not brittle and not elastic.
Object Q is clay which is brittle, opaque and non-lustrous.
Object R is glass which is brittle and transparent.

13. What kind of change taking place in the given pictorial

representation?

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(A) Reversible and physical
(B) Irreversible and chemical
(C) Reversible and chemical
(D) Irreversible and physical
Answer: The correct option is (A).
Explanation:
Only state of matter (H2O) changes and all of these can be
reversed. Thus, these are physical and reversible changes.

14. A mixture contains two solids X and Y. Solid X and light

in weight while solid is very heavy. Their sizes are almost
same. Here, X is the unwanted component. To get pure solid
Y, which separation method would you suggest?
(A) Winnowing
(B) Filtration
(C) Magnetic separation
(D) None of these
Answer: The correct option is (B).
Explanation:
Winnowing is agricultural method and used to separate heavier
and lighter components of a mixture by wind or by blowing air.

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15. Which of the following materials upon burning smells lime
burning paper?
(i) Cotton (ii) Silk
(iii)Flax (iv) Wool
(v) Fur (vi) Jute
(A) (i), (iii) and (vi)
(B) (ii), (iv) and (v)
(C) (i), (ii), (iv) and (vi)
(D) (iv) and (v)
Answer: The correct option is (A).
Explanation:
Animal fibres when burnt, give smell of burning heir while plant
fibres when burnt, give smell of burning paper. Cotton, flax and
jute are plant fibres and thus will give smell of burning paper.

16. What conclusion can you draw from the following

experiment?

(A) Stirring decreases solubility, increases in temperature

increases solubility.
(B) Stirring increases solubility, increases in temperature
decreases solubility.
(C) Stirring increases solubility, decreases in temperature
decreases solubility.

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(D) Stirring decreases solubility, decrease in temperature increases
solubility.
Answer: The correct option is (C).
Explanation:
Solubility increases with increase in temperature (heating) while it
decrease with decrease in temperature. Stirring makes the process
faster.

17. Match the columns and mark the correct option.

Separation process
(1) Separate stones from rice
(2) Churning milk to obtain butter.
(3) Separate tea leaves
Purpose for which we do the separation
(a) To separate two different, but useful components.
(b) To remove non-useful components
(c) To remove impurities of harmful components
What do we do with the separated components?
(i) We throw away the solid component.
(ii)We throw away the impurities.
(iii) We use both the
(A) (1)-(b)-(i); (2)-(a)-(iii); (3)-(c)-(ii)
(B) (1)-(c)-(i); (2)-(b)-(iii); (3)-(a)-(ii)
(C) (1)-(a)-(i); (2)-(b)-(ii); (3)-(c)-(iii)
(D) (1)-(b)-(ii); (2)-(a)-(i); (3)-(c)-(iii)

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Answer: The correct option is (A).
Explanation:
1. In separation of stones from rice, non-useful solid component
‘stone’ is removed and thrown away.
2. In churning milk to obtain butter, both useful components
butter and milk are separated.
3. In separation of tea leaves from tea, impurities i.e.; harmful
components (tea leaves) are removed and thrown away.

18. Which of the following activities would show that air is

dissolved in water?
(A) Press of piece of cotton wool into the bottom of a tumbler.
Hold the tumbler upside down and insert it into a bowl of
water, without tilting it.
(B) Press steel wool into the bottom of the gas jar. Invert the gas
jar into the bowl of water on two small wooden blocks so that
there is space between the gas jar and the bowl.
(C) Take some water in a pan. Heat it gently on a gas burner.
Observe the water as it begins to heat.
(D) None of these.
Answer: The correct option is (C).
Explanation:
As we heat water, we can see air bubbles forming. This shows that
air is dissolved in water.

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19. Reema’s mother has done some preparation for her
‘Birthday Party’. Which of the following changes can be
reversed?
(A) Baking cake in an oven
(B) Burning of a candle
(C) Rolling a ball of dough and baking it to make kulcha
(D) Blowing of a ballon
Answer: The correct option is (D).
Explanation:
Blowing of balloon is reversible change while all other changes
are irreversible.

20. Shreya made a cup of hot a tea and out a metal soon in
the cup so that the tea would cool down faster.

Which of the following statements best describes the cooling

of tea faster?

(A) The metal spoon absorbs the coldness from the surroundings
and transfers the coldness to the hot tea.
(B) The metal spoon absorbs heat from the hot tea and transfers
the heat to the surroundings.
(C) The metal spoon absorbs heat from the cup and transfers the
heat to the surroundings.

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(D) None of these.
Answer: The correct option is (B).
Explanation:
The metal spoon being a good conductor of heat, absorbs heat
from the hot tea and trAnswer: The correct option isfers the heat
of the surroundings.

21. A copper bar XY is stroked with a permanent magnet as

shown in the diagram. Which of the following statements is
correct?
(A) A south pole will be produced at X and a north pole at y after
the stroking.
(B) XY will be a weak permanent magnet after the stroking.
(C) The pole on the magnet will be inverted after the stroking.
(D) The needle of a plotting compass would not point to X after
the stroking.
Answer: The correct option is (D).
Explanation:
Copper is not a magnetic, thus it cannot be magntised.

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22. Two identical metal balls P and Q moving in opposite
directions hit each other at point O as shown in the figure.
Changes are most likely to appear in their
A O B

(A) Shapes and directions

(B) Speeds and shapes
(C) Directions and volumes
(D) Volumes and shapes
Answer: The correct option is (B).
Explanation:
Due to collision of two identical metal balls, changes are most
likely to appear in their speeds and directions.

23. Study the set- up given here. Which of the following

options shows the correct shape of the shadow formed on the
screen?

Square loop Iron ball Screen

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Answer: The correct option is (D).
Explanation:
The correct shape of the shadow formed on the screen due to set-
up is shown in option D.
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24. In which of the following arrangement of electrical
circuits will the bulbs not light up, assuming that all the
bulbs and dry cells are identical?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

Answer: The correct option is (B).

Explanation:
In electrical circuit (B), the negative terminals of both the
identical dry cells are joined together. Hence, current will not
flow in the circuit and so, the bulbs will not light up.

25. To measure the length of a pencil by a broken scale, one

puts the pencil like this.

One end of the pencil reads 4 cm. The other end reads 13.8 cm.
The length of the pencil is
(A) 9.2 cm
(B) 9. 8 cm
(C) 13. 8 cm
(D) 13.4 cm
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Answer: The correct option is (B).
Explanation:
Initial reading = 4 cm
Final reading = 13.8 cm
So, the length of the pencil
= final reading – initial reading = 13.8 cm – 4 cm = 9.8 cm

26. Ankit has to put two cells in a torch. Which of the

following arrangements should she choose?
(A) – + – +
(B) – + + –
(C) + – – +
(D) Any of the arrangements
Answer: The correct option is (A).
Explanation:
When more than one electric cell are to be used, they should be
joined in such a way that the positive terminal of one cell is
connected to the negative terminal of the other cell.

27. There are two toy cars P and Q in which Q is fixed, as

shown in figure. A magnet is mounted on car P which can
move. To move car P away from Q, Q should have a magnet
placed on the top
N S Magnet

X Y

(A) With the North Pole pointing towards P.

(B) With the South Pole pointing towards P.
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(C) With either pole pointing towards P.
(D) Car P cannot be moved away.
Answer: The correct option is (B).
Explanation:
Similar poles of magnets repel each other while opposite poles
attract each other. So, to move car X away from car Y, South Pole
of magnet on car Y should point towards X.

28. The shadow of a cylinder is a rectangle when light falls in

one direction, and a _____ when light falls in the other
direction.
(A) Sheet
(B) Line
(C) Circle
(D) None of the above
Answer: The correct option is (C).

29. It can be concluded that a bar of metal is a magnet if

………..
(A) A copper needle is attracted to it.
(B) Both ends of a compass needle are attracted to the same end
of a bar.
(C) One end of a compass needle is repelled by one end of the
bar.
(D) A copper needle is repelled by it.
Answer: The correct option is (C).
Explanation:

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A bar of metal is a magnet if one end of a compass needle is
repelled by one end of the bar.
The test for magnetism is repulsion.

30. In a completely dark room, if you hold up a mirror in front

of you, will you see?
(A) Your shadow
(B) A sharp shadow
(C) Your image
(D) No image
Answer: The correct option is (D).
Explanation:
In dark we cannot see any image.

31. Which of the following statements does not describe

structure P?
P

U Q

T R

S
Which of the following statement does not describe structure
P?
(A) Filled with cell sap.
(B) Stores liquid in the cell.
(C) Large and forms the biggest part of a cell.
(D) Supports the cell and gives it a regular shape.

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Answer: The correct option is (D).
Explanation:
The cellulose cell wall is the structure that supports the cell and
gives it a regular shape, not structure P which is the vacuole.
However, the vacuole does contain cell sap that aids in retention
of water thereby maintaining the turgidity of the plant cell.

32. The table below shows the properties of cells P, Q and R.

P Q R
Cytoplasm   
Cell membrane   
Nucleus   
Cell wall  
Chloroplast 
Some students made the following conclusions:
(1) Cell P is plant cell.
(2) Cell Q is plant cell.
(3) Cell R is an animal cell.
(4) We cannot determine if R is plant or animal cell from the
information given.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) 1 and 2
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: The correct option is (D).

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33. Which one of the statements(S) is/are correct?
(A) A only
(B) B only
(C) A, B and C only
(D) A, B and D only
Answer: The correct option is (C).
Explanation:
Plant cell contains cytoplasm, cell membrane, nucleus, cell wall
and chloroplast. Cell Q can be plant cell and cell R contains
cytoplasm, cell membrane and nucleus so it can be animal cell.

34. A specific characteristic that an organism can pass to its

offspring is called a (n).
(A) Function
(B) Structure
(C) Embryo
(D) Trait
Answer: The correct option is (D).
Explanation:
Trait is a distinguishing quality or characteristic of an organism.

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35. The diagram below shows a section through the stem of a
green plant. Which part most likely contains the substance
which gives a positive result with Benedict’s test?
A

B C

(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D
Answer: The correct option is (A).
Explanation:
Phloem is responsible for the transportation of sugar; sugar gives
positive result with Benedict’s test.

36. Which of the following statement is correct about

ovulation?
(A) Ovulation stimulates the uterus lining to grow again after
menstruation.
(B) Ovulation causes the shedding of uterus lining.
(C) During ovulation, both ovaries release an egg to the fallopian
tube for fertilization.
(D) Ovulation takes place about once every 28 years.
Answer: The correct option is (D).
Explanation:
Ovulation is the release of egg from the ovaries. In humans, this
event occurs when the de Graaf's follicles rupture and release the
secondary oocyte ovarian cells. After ovulation,
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during the luteal phase, the egg will be available to be fertilized
by sperm.

37. Which of the following changes take place when a boy

reaches puberty?
I. The hips become rounder and wider.
II. The voice sounds deeper.
III. The reproductive organ grows larger in size.
(A) Both I and II
(B) Both I and III
(C) Both II and III
(D) All I, II and III
Answer: The correct option is (C).
Explanation:
Onset of puberty brings many physical changes in boys like-
deepening of voice and appearance of facial hair, appearance of
body hair and pubic hair, Increase in size of genitals and ability
to ejaculate.

38. The following diagram shows an action taking place at a

region of broken blood vessel.

What is Q?
(A) Red blood cell
(B) White blood cell
(C) Platelet
(D) Plasma
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Answer: The correct option is (B).
Explanation:
Q is engulfing bacteria, thus it represents bacteria. White blood
cells help fight infections by attacking bacteria, viruses, and
germs that invade the body.

39. Two organisms do not interact for an extended period of

time. What is the type of interaction?
(A) Mutualism
(B) Commensalism
(C) Parasitism
(D) Predator-prey
Answer: The correct option is (D).
Explanation:
Mutualism, commensalism and parasitism interact for an
extended period of time.

40. Which order of food chain shown below is correct?

(A) Phytoplankton small sharkbig shark  zooplankton
(B) ZooplanktonPhytoplanktonsmall shark  big shark
(C) Small shark  big shark  Phytoplankton  Zooplankton
(D) PhytoplanktonZooplanktonsmall shark  big shark
Answer: The correct option is (D).

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41. Ali took four beakers P, Q, R and S and poured equal
amounts of water in each of them. He soaks same-sized piece
of fabrics of cotton, wool, silk and polyester in beakers P, Q,
R and S respectively and kept them for five minutes. Now
the removed all the fabric pieces from the beakers and
measured the amount of water left in each of the four
beakers.
Which of the following is the correct observation of Ali?
(A) Maximum amount of water is left in beaker S, followed by
beakers R, P and Q.
(B) Minimum amount of water is left in beaker S, followed by
beaker R, P and Q.
(C) Maximum amount of water is left in beaker Q, followed by
beakers P, R and S.
(D) Minimum amount of water is left in beaker Q, followed by
beakers S, R and P.
Answer: The correct option is (A).
Explanation:
Plant covered within netted container will get all the
prerequisites for photosynthesis i.e., water, CO2 and light.
Performing starch test on insectivorous plant without insects in
its container and insectivorous plant with insects in its container
will prove that if these plant depend upon insects to produce
their food or not. If starch test is found positive for both the
plants it means that insects are used only to supplement their
nutrition, otherwise they can produce carbohydrates by the
process of photosynthesis.

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42. Two students of Class VI have performed the same
experiment ‘Separation of Sugar’ by different methods a
shown below:

Which of the following statement are correct?

I. Method 1 is faster than method 2
II. Method 2 leads to the decomposition of sugar to carbon
III. Method 2 is more appropriate than method 1.
IV. Method 2 is slow but pure sugar is obtained without
getting decomposed.
(A) I and II
(B) I, III and IV
(C) III and IV
(D) All of these
Answer: The correct option is (B).
Direct heating of sugar solution (method 1) is faster than heating
sugar solution
over a water bath (method 2).
Method 2 is slow but more appropriate because pure sugar is
obtained without getting decomposed.

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43. Sunita classified different materials based on their
properties. Which of the following sets are correctly
matched?
Floats
Insoluble
Set Hard Opaque in
in water
water
Butter Glass
I Sponge Honey
paper marble
Wooden Mustard
II Steel Ice
board oil
Iron Sugar
III Glass Grass
nail candy
Lump Glass
IV Thermocol Hair
of sugar powder
(A) II and IV
(B) I and II
(C) III and IV
(D) All of these
Answer: The correct option is (A).
Explanation:
Sets II and IV correctly matched.
Set I: Sponge is soft; Butter paper is translucent; glass marble
sinks in water and honey is soluble in water.
Set III: Iron nail is heard; glass is transparent; grass floats on
water and sugar candy is soluble in water.
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44. Which of the following mixtures cannot be separated by
the method of winnowing?
(A) Kidney beans and chickpeas
(B) Potato wafers and biscuits
(C) Rice flaks and corn
(D) Sawdust and sand
Answer: The correct option is (A).
Explanation:
Winnowing is used to separate heavier and lighter components
of mixtures by wind or by blowing air. Kidney beans and
chickpeas, both are heavier components.

45. Refer of the given flowchart and select the correct option.

(A) X – Flax, Y – Silk

(B) W – Cotton, Y – Silk
(C) W – Flax, Z – wool
(D) X – Jute, Z – Wool
Answer: The correct option is (C).
Explanation:

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Flax is a plant fibre obtained from the stem of flax plant. Flax
fibres are soft and used for making linen and laces and may also
be used for making fine paper e.g., cigarette paper. Cotton and

jute are also plant fibres. Cotton is obtained from seeds while
jute is obtained from stem.
Wool and silk and animal fibres. The process of obtaining wool
does not harm sheep as air are dead, but in the process of
obtaining silk, animal is harmed. The cocoons are put in boiled
water to kill the insect inside. Otherwise, it will cut out through
the cocoon to emerge and will break the silk fibres.

ACHIEVER SECTION

46. Refer to the given Venn diagram and select the correct
option regarding energy resources.

X Y
(A) Coal Petroleum
(B) Water Pertoleum
(C) Coal Solar radiation
(D) Wind Petroleum
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Answer: The correct option is (C).

47. A mixture of four different powders is taken in a petri

dish. The properties of the powders are listed below in the
table.

Which pair of substances would be most difficult to

separate?
(A) 2 and 4
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 2
Answer: The correct option is (B).

48. Study the Venn diagram. Centre point () represents

which of the following change?

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(A) Child to an adult
(B) Wet clothes to dry clothes
(C) Raw egg to boiled egg
(D) Cow dung to biogas

Answer: The correct option is (B).

Explanation:
The changes such as child to an adult, raw egg to boiled egg and
cow dung to biogas are chemical, permanent and irreversible
changes.
Wet clothes to dry clothes is a physical, temporary and
reversible change.

49. Nancy noticed that her coin collection had begun to

tarnish. Some of the metals in the coins had begun to change
colour. The formation of tarnish is most similar to which of
the following changes?
(A) Dropping a dinner plate on the floor
(B) Melting ice cubes in a glass of juice
(C) Cutting coloured paper into different shapes
(D) Burning a log of wood to ashes in a fireplace
Answer: The correct option is (D).

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Explanation:
Tarnishing of coins is a chemical change and burning a log of
wood is also a chemical change.

50. Read the given statements and select the correct option.
Statement – 1: Clothes made from natural fibres are
stronger than the clothes made from synthetic firbes.
Statement – 2: Cotton, wool and rayon are some of the
important natural fibres.

(A) Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the

correct explanation of statement 1.
(B) Both statements 1 and 2 are the true but statement 2 is not
the correct explanation of statement 1.
(C) Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false.
(D) Both statements 1 and 2 are false.
Answer: The correct option is (D).
Explanation:
Clothes made from synthetic fibres are stronger than clothes
made from natural fibres. Cotton and wool are example of
natural fibre whereas rayon is a synthetic fibre.

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