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12 Preboard-2021
12 Preboard-2021
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
1. The question paper consists of three sections.
2. Sec-A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions
3. Sec-B has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions
4. Sec-C has 12 questions. Attempt any 10 questions
5. There is no negative marking.
6. All questions carry equal marks.
7. The following details have to be written in the OMR sheet before answering the questions. Name, class,
section, date, roll number and subject.
8. Partial bubbling will not be considered as answered. Ensure you bubbled your option thickly with a pen.
SECTION - A
Section – A consists of 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions from this section. The firstattempted 20 questions
would be evaluated.
2 Find out the incorrectly matched combinations of label, structure and function.
N
P
O
A) P- Micropyle – Entry of pollen tube
B) O -Hilum –connects placenta and ovule
C) M- Polar nuclei- Endosperm
D) N – Integument- Protection
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4 In embryo sac, n, 2n and 3n conditions are found respectively in
A) Egg, antipodal and endosperm
B) Nucellus, endosperm and egg
C) Antipodal, zygote and endosperm
D) Endosperm, nucellus and egg
A) I & II
B) III & IV
C) I & III
D) I, II, III, IV
7 Select the correct labeled phase in menstrual cycle does implantation occurs.
M N O P
8 The hormones which are present in the body of female only during pregnancy.
A) hCG, hPL, Relaxin B) hCG, hPL, Oxytocin
C) hCG, hPL, Prolactin D) hCG, hPL, Progestrone
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10 “Apomixes mimic sexual reproduction”. Give the option/s applicable to the given statement.
I. Diploid nucellus cells grow into embryo sac and form embryo
II. Embryo formation from unfertilized egg
III. Meiotic division is avoided during embryo sac formation
A) I & II
B) II & III
C) I & III
D) I, II & III
A) A - Chasmogamous – autogamy,
B - Cleistogamous – xenogamy
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15 Which of the following is an example of pleiotropy?
A) Mating between earless sheep and long eared sheep result in short eared offspring.
B) Wheat kernels can range from white to red in colour.
C) The genes for scarlet eyes and hairy body in fruit flies located on the same chromosome.
D) Human cystic fibrosis causes many symptoms from respiratory distress to digestive problems.
16 If both parents carry the trait of beta thalassemia, what is the chance of a female baby having beta
thalassemia?
A) 100%
B) 50%
C) 25%
D) 15%
17 If a DNA strand has 32% guanine before replication occurs, what percent thymine will each strand after
replication?
A) 18% B)32% C) 64% D) 36%
18 Thymine is
A) 5’methyl uracil
B) 3’methyl uracil
C) 5’methyl cytosine
D) 3’methyl cytosine
19 In the picture given below, arrow labeled 1 corresponds to _______ and arrow labeled 2 corresponds
to _______.
A) Replication, transcription
B) Translation, transcription
C) Mutation, replication
D) Transcription, translation
20 Identify the mutated mRNA sequence that cause premature termination of translation.
A) AUGCCUAGGUCCCAU
B) CCAAUAUAGCAAGAC
C) GCAGAGUUCUUAACA
D) AUUCAGACGCUAGGC
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21 Select the true statement regarding the role of sigma factor.
A) Required for promoter site recognition and subsequent initiation of transcription
B) Required for initiation and elongation of mRNA transcription
C) Required for termination with rho factor
D) Both A and B are correct
22 Identify M, N, O and P in the given diagram of mRNA if the red region is the one with exons.
M N O P
M N O P
A) Methylated cap Initiationcodon Termination Poly A tail
codon
B) Poly A tail Termination Initiation Methylated
codon codon cap
C) Methylated cap Non- coding Coding region Poly A tail
region
D) Methylated cap Coding region Non coding Poly A tail
region
23 What happens to lactose operon when medium contains both glucose and lactose?
A) No transcription of Lac genes
B) Low level expression of Lac genes
C) Strong transcription of Lac genes
D) All are correct
SECTION B
Section - B consists of 24 questions (Sl. No.25 to 48). Attempt any 20 questions from this section.The first
attempted 20 questions would be evaluated.
Question No. 25 to 28 consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer thesequestions selecting
the appropriate option given below:
A) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
B) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
C) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
D) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
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26 Assertion: Amniocentesis is often misused. A
Reason: Amniocentesis is meant for determining the genetic disorders in the foetus, but it isbeing used to
determine the sex of the foetus, leading female foeticide.
31 Arrange the events in artificial hybridization in the correct sequential order and select thecorrect option.
1. Re-bagging
2. Selection of parents
3. Bagging
4. Dusting the pollen on stigma
5. Emasculation
6. Collection of pollen from the male parent
A) 2-3-5-6-4-1
B) 2-5-3-6-4-1
C) 5-2-3-6-1-4
D) 2-3-6-4-5-1
32 The number of ova and polar bodies formed after the completion of 1 oogenesis
A) 1 ovum and 2 polar bodies
B) 1 ovum and 3 polar bodies
C) 2 ova and 2 polar bodies
D) 2 ova and 3 polar bodies
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33 Given below are four methods of contraception and their mode of action. Select the correctmatch from the
following options.
Method Mode of action
A. Oral pill (i) Prevents sperm reaching cervix
B. Condom (ii) Prevents implantation
C. Vasectomy (iii) Prevents ovulation
D. Copper T (iv) Semen contains no sperms
34 The technique called Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT) is recommended for thosefemales
A) who cannot produce an ovum.
B) who cannot retain the fetus inside uterus.
C) who cannot provide suitable environment for fertilisation.
D) all of these.
35 The number of meiotic divisions required for the formation of 100 functional megaspores?
A) 100
B) 50
C) 25
D)26
36 Failure of segregation of chromatid during cell division cycle, results in the gain or loss of chromosome
which is called
A) aneuploidy
B) hypopolyploidy
C) hyperpolyploidy
D) polyploidy
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39 What pattern of inheritance is shown in the pedigree?
A) Autosomal dominant
B) Autosomal recessive
C) Sex linked dominant
D) Sex linked recessive
40 Two genes R and Y are located very close on the chromosomal linkage map of maize plant. When RRYY and
rryy genotypes are hybridized then F2 generation will show
A) higher number of the recombinant types
B) segregation is expected in 9:3:3:1 ratio
C) segregation in 3:1 ratio
D) higher number of parental types
41 Select the correct base of DNA, RNA and amino acid of beta chain resulting in sickle cell anaemia.
42 Dr. Khaurana and his colleagues synthesised an RNA molecule with repeating sequence of UG bases (UG UG
UG UG UG UG). It produced a tetra peptide with alternating sequence of cysteine and valine. It proves that
codons for cysteine and valine are
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44 Given figure represents the DNA double helix model as proposed by Watson and Crick (1953).Select the
option that shows correct measurements of A, B and C.
45 Starting with 15N 15N (heavy) DNA, and after TWO generations in the 14N medium, Escherichia coli cells will
contain
A) 25% 15N15N DNA, 50% 15N14N DNA, and 25% 14N14N DNA.
B) 25% 15N14N DNA and 75% 14N14N DNA.
C) 50% 15N14N DNA and 50% 14N14N DNA.
D) 50% 15N15N DNA and 50% 14N14N DNA.
46 Satellite DNA is an example of_________ DNA which shows DNA _____________ which is __________________in nature.
Fill in the blank with the right sequences of the answers.
A) genomic, inheritable, variable
B) repetitive, polymorphism, variable
C) polymorphism, variable, repetitive
D) repetitive, polymorphism, inheritable
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48 The diagram given below lists simulations of the DNA "fingerprint" band patterns for six individuals―a
missing child and five young people who have the missing child’s physical characteristics.
Based on the DNA diagram, which of the five children might be related to the missing child?
A) Child 1 B) Child 2 C) Child 3 D) Child 4 or 5
SECTION C
Section-C consists of one case followed by 6 questions linked to this case (Q.No.49 to 54). Besidesthis, 6 more
questions are given. Attempt any 10 questions in this section. The first attempted 10 questions would be
evaluated.
CASE:- The Human Genome Project was an international scientific research project with the goal of determining the
base pairs that make up human DNA, and of identifying and mapping all of thegenes of the human genome from
both a physical and a functional standpoint.
The given graph is prepared according to HGP.
49 Which of the following chromosomes have the least number of genes and highest number ofgenes in them?
A) Chromosome 1 and Y respectively
B) Chromosome 2 and 21 respectively
C) Chromosome Y and 1 respectively
D) Chromosome Y and X respectively
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50 Which of the following methodology is used to identify all the genes that are expressed as RNAin Human
Genome Project (HGP)?
A) Sequence Annotation
B) Expressed Sequence Tags
C) Karyotyping
D) Autoradiography
51 Find the incorrect statement regarding the genome of male and female.
A)Y chromosome has approximately 50 MBP and X chromosome has 156MBP
B) Both are having approximately 20000 genes in the genome
C) Y chromosome has approximately 250 genes
D) None of the above are incorrect
53 It is currently estimated that there are human protein-coding genes although thisestimate may
be reduced over time.
A)10,000–15,000
B)19,000–20,000
C)29,000–30,000
D)100,000
55
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56 The image given below shows the gene loci for alpha and beta thalassemia. Based on the image choose the
correct option regarding alpha and beta thalassemia.
57 Observe the image given below and answer the following question.
Which of the following is the first part of the protein molecule that would be translated from mRNA2?
A) AA4 – AA2– AA7 – AA6 B) AA6 – AA7 – AA2 – AA4
C) AA3 – AA1 – AA6 – AA8 D) AA8 – AA5 – AA1 – AA3
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58
59
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60 In the given T.S of human ovary. Identify A to D
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