Syllabus

UNIT I PRINCIPLES OF SOLAR RADIATION 10

Role and potential of new and renewable source, the solar energy option, Environmental impact of solar power, physics
of the sun, the solar constant, extraterrestrial and terrestrial solar radiation, solar radiation on titled surface, instruments
for measuring solar radiation and sun shine, solar radiation data.

UNIT II SOLAR ENERGY COLLECTION 8

Flat plate and concentrating collectors, classification of concentrating collectors, orientation and thermal analysis,
advanced collectors.

UNIT III SOLAR ENERGY STORAGE AND APPLICATIONS 7

Different methods, Sensible, latent heat and stratified storage, solar ponds. Solar Applications- solar heating/cooling
technique, solar distillation and drying, photovoltaic energy conversion

UNIT IV WIND ENERGY 10

Sources and potentials, horizontal and vertical axis windmills, performance characteristics, Betz criteria BIO-MASS:
Principles of Bio-Conversion, Anaerobic/aerobic digestion, types of Bio-gas digesters, gas yield, combustion
characteristics of bio-gas, utilization for cooking, I.C.Engine operation and economic aspects.

UNIT V GEOTHERMAL ENERGY 9

Resources, types of wells, methods of harnessing the energy, potential in India. OCEAN ENERGY: OTEC, Principles
utilization, setting of OTEC plants, thermodynamic cycles. Tidal and wave energy: Potential and conversion techniques,
mini-hydel power plants, and their economics. DIRECT ENERGY CONVERSION: Need for DEC, Carnot cycle, limitations,
principles of DEC

TOTAL: 45 PERIODS

TEXT BOOK(S):

TEXT BOOKS:
1. Rai G.D. , “Non-Conventional Energy Sources”, Khanna Publishers, 2011
2. Twidell & Wier, “Renewable Energy Resources”, CRC Press (Taylor & Francis), 2011

REFERENCES:

1. Tiwari and Ghosal, “Renewable energy resources”, Narosa Publishing House, 2007
2. Ramesh R & Kumar K.U , “Renewable Energy Technologies”,Narosa Publishing House, 2004
3. Mittal K M , “Non-Conventional Energy Systems”, Wheeler Publishing Co. Ltd, New Delhi, 2003
4. Kothari D.P, Singhal ., K.C., “Renewable energy sources and emerging technologies”, P.H.I, New Delhi, 2010
 VCET-ECE
V sem A&B
ORO551 – RES- MCQs

1. The resources that are inexhaustible and replace by nature are known as
(A) non- renewable resources
(B) renewable resources
(C) conventional resources
(D) non-natural resources

2. Which Ministry is mainly responsible for research and development in renewable energy sources
such as wind power, small hydro, biogas and solar power?
A) Human Resource Development
B) Agriculture and Farmers Welfare
C) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
D) Health and Family Welfare

3. Sunlight, air, soil, and water are examples of

A) renewable resources
B) non- renewable resources
C) conventional resources
D) non-natural resources

4. Which of the following is a disadvantage of most of the renewable energy sources?

A) Unreliable supply
B) Highly polluting
C) High waste disposal cost
D) High running cost

5. Out of energy, economy, and environment

A) Only energy and environment are related
B) Only energy and economy are related
C) All the three are interrelated
D) All the three are independent

6. Which of the following is not under the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy?
A) Wind energy
B) Solar energy
C) Tidal energy
D) Large hydro
7. Which among the following have a large amount of installed grid interactive renewable power
capacity in India?
A) Wind power
B) Solar power
C) Biomass power
D) Small Hydro power
8. The world’s first 100% solar powered airport located at ___
9. The largest Wind Farm located in India is located at ____

10. Which of the following energy has the greatest potential among all the sources of renewable
energy?
A) Solar energy
B) Wind Energy
C) Thermal energy
D) Hydro-electrical energy

11. Solar radiation that reaches surface without any absorption or distortion is called as _
A) Beam Radiation
B) Diffuse Radiation
C) Beta radiation
D) Gamma Radiation

12. In what form is solar energy radiated from the sun?

a) Ultraviolet Radiation
b) Infrared radiation
c) Electromagnetic waves
d) Transverse waves

13. Which among the following is not a renewable source of energy?

A) Biomass energy
B) Solar energy
C) Hydro-power
D) Geothermal energy

14. Which of the following type of collector is used for low temperature systems?
A) Flat plate collector
B) Line focussing parabolic collector
C) Paraboloid dish collector
D) All of the above

15. Identify the non-renewable energy resource from the following:

A) fuel cells
B) wind power
C) wave power
D) coal

16. The value of Solar Constant is ___

17. Solar radiation received at any point of earth is called

(A) Insolation
(B) Beam Radiation
(C) Diffuse Radiation
(D) Infrared rays

18. What is the total amount of solar energy received by earth and the atmosphere?
(A) 
(B) 
(C)   
(D) 

19. The scattered solar radiation is called ____________

(A) Direct Radiation
(B) Beam Radiation
(C) Diffuse radiation
(D) Infrared Radiation

20. Sunlight at Earth's surface is around

(A) 52 to 55 percent infrared
(B) 52 to 65 percent infrared
(C) 20 to 55 percent infrared
(D) 52 to 75 percent infrared

21. Sunlight at Earth's surface is around

(A) 42 to 63 percent visible
(B) 32 to 43 percent visible
(C) 22 to 73 percent visible
(D) 42 to 43 percent visible

22. Sunlight at Earth's surface is around

(A) 0.6 to 0.10 percent ultraviolet
(B) 3 to 5 percent ultraviolet
(C) 0.3 to 0.8 percent ultraviolet
(D) 0.1 to 0.5 percent ultraviolet

23. The zenith angle is the angle made by the sun’s rays with the normal to a horizontal surface.

24. Beam radiations are measured with _____.

25. ________iceland________is the only country which uses 100%

renewable energy sources.

26. Global warming is mainly caused due to

A) emissions of heat from engines
B) emission of CO2 due to the burning of fossil fuels
C) use of nuclear energy
D) air pollution

27. Global warming would lead to

A) reduced ozone depletion
B) acid rains
C) change of climate pattern and its severity
D) increase in the efficiency of heat engines

28. What is a solar collector?

a)A system to collect heat by absorbing sunlight
b)A system to collect rainwater using sunlight
c)A system to collect electricity by using sunlight
d) A device to reflect sunlight back

29. What is aperture area in a solar collector?

a) Area of the system
b) Area in the receiver that receives the solar radiation
c) Area occupied by the system after installation
d) Cross-sectional area of the receiver

30. Aperture area of a solar collector is roughly equal to _______

a) Coolant area
b) Generator area
c) Absorber area
d) System area

31. What are the components of a flat plate collector?

a) Flat box, a plate with reflective coating and fluid circulation passageways, an opaque cover, a circulating
fluid
b) Flat box, a dark coloured plate with fluid circulation passageways, an opaque, a circulating fluid
c) Flat box, a dark coloured plate with fluid circulation passageways, a transparent cover
d) Flat box, a dark coloured plate fluid circulation passageways, a transparent cover, a circulating fluid

32. Why is a transparent cover used in a flat plate collector?

a) To maximize transmission of the incident sunlight into the box
b) To minimize transmission of the incident sunlight into the box
c) To entirely reflect the incident sunlight back
d) To ensure partial transmission of the incident sunlight into the box

33. Which of the following is generally used as circulating fluid in tropical and sub-tropical climates?
a) A mixture of ethylene glycol and water
b) Water
c) A mixture of propylene glycol and water
d) Glycerol

34. Which of the following is generally used as circulating fluid in freezing climates?
a) Liquid carbon dioxide
b) Water
c) A mixture of propylene glycol and water
d) Liquid nitrogen

35. Why is antifreeze solutions (antifreeze agents with water) used as coolants in freezing climates?
a) To increase boiling point of water
b) To decrease boiling point of water
c) To increase freezing point of water
d) To decrease freezing point water

36.  Which of the following is a circulating fluid in evacuated flat-plate solar collectors?
a) Water
b) Steam
c) Nitrogen
d) Hydrogen

37. Which of the following metals are used to make pipes of low cost solar water heating system?
a) Gold
b) Copper
c) Polymer
d) Silver

38. Which of the following are used as absorbers in evacuated-tube solar collectors?
a) Carbon tubes
b) Wooden or metallic tubes
c) Plastic or glass tubes
d) Metallic or glass tubes

39. What is a heat pipe?

a) A heat-transfer device
b) A pipe made of heat
c) A pipe that consists of heat
d) A heat pumping device

40. For better efficiency, solar collectors do not coat their transparent cover with an anti-reflective
coating.
a) True
b) False

41. Which of the following provides highest energy conversion efficiency in non-concentrating solar
collectors?
a) Flat plate collectors
b) Evacuated flat plate collectors
c) Evacuated-tube collectors
d) Parabolic collectors

42. What is solar dryer?

a) Use solar energy to dry substances
b) Use solar energy to evaporate water and collect it within the same closed system
c) Use solar energy to evaporate water and collect its condensate within the same closed system
d) Use solar energy to dry liquids

43. What is the most popular use of solar dryer?

a) Water
b) Food
c) Chemicals
d) Industrial substances

44. Which of the following surface is best suited to absorb sunlight?

a) White surface
b) Red surface
c) Black surface
d) Silver surface

45. A glass cover _______ solar dryers.

a) decreases the efficiency of
b) is not used in
c) does not affect the efficiency of
d) increases the efficiency of

46. What is solar distillation?

a) Use solar energy to evaporate water and collect its condensate within the same closed system
b) Use solar energy to evaporate water and collect it within the same closed system
c) Use solar energy to collect the condensate of water within the same closed system
d) Use solar energy to evaporate water and collect its condensate within different closed systems

47. Which of the following houses the process of solar distillation?

a) Solar thermo-mechanical system
b) Solar still
c) Photovoltaics
d) Heat engines

48. Which of the following is a configuration of solar still?

a) Solar panel
b) Solar cell
c) Cone shaped
d) Frustum shaped

49. A good insulator is necessary to reduce thermal losses in solar stills.

a) True
b) False

50. Which of the following provides energy for winds to blow naturally?
a) Sun
b) Water
c) Man
d) Food

51. Wind flows from _______ pressure area to ________ pressure area.
a) high, high
b) high, low
c) low, high
d) low, low

52. Which of the following is required for the installation of a wind turbine system?
a) A weak wind flow
b) A consistent and strong wind flow
c) Still air
d) A consistent wind flow with obstructions

53. Does the wind turbine harm birds?

a) True
b) False

54.  What is wind speed?

A) Net molecular flux along the wind axis divided by the mean molecular number density
b) Molecular flux along the wind axis divided by the mean molecular number density
c) Net molecular flux along the wind axis divided by molecular number density
d) Molecular flux opposite the wind axis divided by the mean molecular number density

55. Wind speed is measure by ______

a) anemometers
b) odometers
c) ammeter
d) weather vanes

56. Which of the following devices indicate wind direction?

a) Weather vanes, windsocks
b) Multimeter, oscilloscope
c) Accelerometer
d) Wind’s direction cannot be measured

57. Which of the following factors affect wind speed near the turbine system?
a) Birds flying
b) Sunlight
c) Time of the day, temperature, season
d) A village far away from the wind site

58. Which of the following is not an application of wind energy?

a) Electricity
b) Steam engine
c) Agriculture
d) Energy storage for emergencies

59. Which of the following sports use wind energy?

a) Wind surfing
b) Chess
c) Carroms
d) Kho-Kho

60. Which of the following wind turbine is mostly used to extract wind energy?
a) DC generator
b) Vertical-axis wind turbines
c) Sailing boat
d) Horizontal-axis wind turbines
61. Wind energy is not used to pump water to a higher level.
a) True
b) False

62. Which of the following is a mechanical application of wind energy?

a) Lighting
b) Electricity
c) Pumping water
d) Wind surfing

63. Which of the following is a potential application of wind energy?

a) Converting heat to wind energy
b) Converting electrical energy to wind energy
c) Transportation of electrical energy
d) Converting the wind flow due to speeding cars into electricity on highways

64. What are the two primary aerodynamic forces acting on wind turbine rotors?
a) Lift, drag
b) Drag, gravitational force
c) Gravitational force, lift
d) Gravitational force, electrical force
65. Lift is an aerodynamic force acting _______
a) opposite to the direction of wind flow
b) parallel to the direction of wind flow
c) diagonal to the direction of wind flow
d) perpendicular to the direction of wind flow

66. Drag is an aerodynamic force acting ______

a) perpendicular to the direction of wind flow
b) parallel to the direction of wind flow
c) diagonal to the direction of wind flow
d) opposite to the direction of wind flow

67. What is lift-to-drag ratio?

a) Amount of lift generated by a blade divided by its aerodynamic drag
b) Amount of drag generated by a blade divided by its lift
c) Amount of drag generated by a blade divided by its aerodynamic lift
d) Amount of lift generated by a blade divided by its aerodynamic drag

68. A higher lift-to-drag ratio indicates a higher efficiency.

a) False
b) True

69. Turbine blades use a/an _______ design.

a) bulky
b) airfoil
c) teardrop
d) train’s

70. Which of the following is the governing equation for power extraction and calculation? Note that
the text in bold denotes a vector quantity.
a) Power = force . velocity
b) Power = force . area
c) Power = velocity . force
d) Power = energy / time

71. What is tip speed ratio (TSR)?

a) Ratio of wind speed to the speed of rotor
b) Ratio of the speed of rotor tip to wind speed
c) Ratio of wind speed to the speed of rotor tip
d) Ratio of wind speed to the speed of the blade’s center

72. Why is it necessary to have an optimal tip speed ratio (TSR)?

a) To ensure maximum efficiency
b) To ensure good aerodynamics
c) To increase drag
d) To ensure minimum efficiency but good aerodynamics

73. What does tip speed ratio (TSR) depend on?

a) Motor material
b) Wind tower material
c) Rotor blade shape profile
d) Different types of gases

74.  What is angle of attack?

a) Angle between downwind side and upwind side
b) Angle between the blade and the rotor
c) Angle between the direction of wind and pitch of the blade
d) Angle between the blade and the wind tower

75. Which of the following components of a wind turbine system is arranged in the order in which
energy is being converted?
a) Blades – rotor – electric generator – shaft
b) Blades – rotor – shaft – electric generator
c) Shaft – blades – rotor – electric generator
d) Electric generator – blades – rotor — shaft

76. What are horizontal wind turbines?

a) Wind turbines are rotate about an axis perpendicular to the plane of ground
b) Wind turbines are rotate about an axis diagonal to the plane of ground
c) Wind turbines are rotate about an axis 30 degrees to the plane of ground
d) Wind turbines are rotate about an axis parallel to the plane of wind streamlines

77. What is an upwind turbine?

a) Rotor of the turbine is behind the unit
b) Rotor of the turbine is in front of the unit
c) Rotor is positioned at the bottom of the tower
d) Rotor is positioned at the center of the tower

78. What is the main advantage of an upwind turbine?

a) Increased tower shadow effect
b) Reduced tower shadow effect
c) No tower shadow effect
d) Manufacturing

79. What is the main disadvantage of an upwind turbine?

a) Increased tower shadow effect
b) Reduced tower shadow effect
c) A rotor that needs to be placed at some distance from the tower
d) An inflexible rotor that needs to be placed close to the tower

80. What is a downwind turbine?

a) Rotor is positioned at the three-quarters of the height of the tower
b) Rotor of the turbine is in front of the unit
c) Rotor is positioned at the bottom of the tower
d) Rotor of the turbine is behind the unit

81. What is the main advantage of any downwind turbine?

a) Inflexible rotor blades
b) Flexible rotor blades
c) Position of the rotor
d) Reduced tower shadow effect

82. What is the main disadvantage of a downward wind turbine?

a) Increased tower shadow effect
b) Flexible rotor blades
c) Inflexible rotor blades
d) Bending of blades at high wind speeds
83. What is a vertical wind turbine?
a) Wind turbines are rotate about an axis perpendicular to the plane of wind streamlines
b) Wind turbines are rotate about an axis diagonal to the plane of ground
c) Wind turbines are rotate about an axis 30 degrees to the plane of ground
d) Wind turbines are rotate about an axis parallel to the plane of ground
84. What is the main advantage of a vertical axis wind turbine?
a) Directional and sensitive to wind turbulence
b) Not directional and sensitive to wind turbulence
c) Directional and insensitive to wind turbulence
d) Not directional and insensitive to wind turbulence
85. What is the main disadvantage of a vertical axis wind turbine?
a) Not directional and insensitive to wind turbulence
b) More drag than HAWTs
c) Less drag than HAWTs
d) High starting torque
86. What is the main disadvantage of a horizontal axis wind turbine?
a) Easy operation at near ground winds
b) Does not self-start
c) Difficult operation at near ground winds
d) High starting torque
87. Which of the following is a part of a general wind energy conversion system?
a) Server
b) Wind turbine
c) Cloud User
d) Service Provider
88. What are the two types of gear boxes used in wind turbine?
a) VAWT and HAWT
b) Differential
c) Parallel shaft and planetary shaft
d) Manual transmission

89. Parallel shaft gearbox is used in small turbines.

a) False
b) True

90. Which of the following is a flowchart depicting WECS modelling?

a) Wind turbine aerodynamic model → gear train model → power grid → generator (PMSG/DFIG)
b) Wind turbine aerodynamic model → generator (PMSG/DFIG) → gear train model → power grid
c) Wind turbine aerodynamic model → generator (PMSG/DFIG) → power grid → gear train model
d) Wind turbine aerodynamic model → gear train model → generator (PMSG/DFIG) → power grid

91. Which of the following is true?

a) More than 50% of the land area on earth can generate 1W per square meter
b) Less than 5% of the land area on earth can generate 1W per square meter
c) 60 – 80% of the land area on earth can generate 1W per square meter
d) More than 80% of the land area on earth can generate 1W per square meter

92. Which of the following can be classified under solid biomass?

a) Agricultural residues
b) Waste water
c) Industrial effluents into rivers
d) Plastic

93. What are energy crops?

a) Crops grown to remove insects
b) Crops grown to be used in generating energy
c) Crops grown to feed people
d) Crops that produce energy

94. Which of the following are examples of energy crops?

a) Banyan
b) Mango
c) Herbaceous and woody
d) Apple and herbaceous

95. __________ wastes are used as methane boosters.

a) Agricultural
b) Forestry
c) Industrial
d) Municipal

96. Which of the following technologies are used to convert biomass into useful energy forms?
a) Bio-chemical process
b) Galvanization
c) Doping
d) Photoelectric effect

97. What are the four main types of thermo-chemical processes?

a) Galvanization, photovoltaic effect, chemo-mechanical effect, pyrolysis
b) Pyrolysis, gasification, combustion, hydrothermal processing
c) Pyrolysis, gasification, combustion, doping
d) Photovoltaic effect, gasification, combustion, hydrothermal processing

98. What are the two primary processes under bio-chemical conversion?
a) Photosynthesis and respiration
b) Photosynthesis and photovoltaic
c) Anaerobic digestion and fermentation
d) Anaerobic digestion and photosynthesis

99. Pyrolysis occurs in the presence of _______ oxygen.

a) large amounts of
b) absence of
c) extremely large amount of
d) low amounts of

100. Which of the following best indicates the process of gasification?

a) Biomass → carbon dioxide and water → producer gas and charcoal → carbon monoxide and hydrogen
b) Biomass → carbon monoxide and hydrogen → carbon dioxide and water → producer gas and charcoal
c) Biomass → producer gas and charcoal → carbon dioxide and water → carbon monoxide and hydrogen
d) Producer gas and charcoal → carbon dioxide and water → carbon monoxide and hydrogen → biomass

101. What is anaerobic digestion?

a) Produces biogas by heating the biomass
b) Produces biogas using micro-organisms operating in anaerobic conditions
c) Produces biogas by subjecting the biomass to high pressures
d) Produces biogas using micro-organisms operating in aerobic conditions

102. What are the two main products of anaerobic digestion?

a) Biogas and bio-fertilizer
b) Waste water
c) Producer gas
d) Syngas

103. Which of the following organic compounds are present in biogas?

a) Butane gas and carbon dioxide
b) Methane gas and carbon dioxide
c) Nitrogen
d) Sodium

104. Which of the following are considered as contaminant gases in biogas?

a) Chlorine
b) Fluorine
c) Nitrogen, hydrogen and carbon monoxide
d) Methane gas and carbon dioxide
105. Thermo-chemical processes have higher efficiencies than bio-chemical processes.
a) True
b) False

106. What is a concentrating solar collector?

a) Collects and concentrates sunlight on an absorber
b) Collects and concentrates sunlight on a reflector
c) Reflects sunlight
d) Directly uses the incoming global radiation

107. How does geothermal energy work?

a) Uses water from the earth
b) Uses potential energy
c) Uses heat from the core of earth
d) Uses heat from atmosphere

108. Which of the following is a thermal application of biomass?

a) Freezing
b) Anaerobic Digestion
c) Fermentation
d) Combustion

109. How is the heat inside earth restored?

a) Radioactive decay of elements
b) Sun restores the heat
c) Hot steam is pumped into earth
d) Cosmic rays

110. What are the types of geothermal energy resources?

a) Hydrothermal, geo-pressurised brines, hot dry rocks, magma
b) Hydrothermal, geo-pressurised brines, hot dry rocks, sun
c) Biomass, geo-pressurised brines, hot dry rocks
d) Wind, magma, geopressurised brines, hydrothermal

111. Which of the following temperature ranges is most suitable to generate electricity from
hydrothermal resources? Note that “F” stands for Fahrenheit.
a) 100 – 150 degree F
b) 55 – 60 degree F
c) -200 – -90 degree F
d) 300 – 700 degree F

112. What is the increase in temperature per kilometer starting from the crust?
a) 15 degree Celsius
b) 17 – 30 degree Celsius
c) 100 degree Celsius
d) 50 – 87 degree Celsius
113. Which of the following countries hosts the largest geothermal field?
a) Iran
b) Italy
c) Australia
d) United States
114. Which of the following is a type of high temperature geothermal resource?
a) Dry steam
b) Dry water
c) Wet steam
d) Water

115. Which of the following is used to locate a geothermal site?

a) Drilling wells
b) Reflection
c) Seismograph
d) SONAR

116.  Which of the following gases is released by a geothermal site and power plant?
a) Carbon dioxide
b) Sulphur
c) Iron
d) Steel

117. Which of the following organisations deals with geothermal energy locations in India?
a) Geological Survey of India
b) Geological Society of India
c) Forestry Department
d) Ministry of external affairs

118. Which of the following is the most promising geothermal locations in India?
a) Sohana
b) Puga valley
c) Gurgaon
d) Patna

119. The reservoir rock in Puga valley is made up of ________

a) sulphite
b) nitrogen
c) carbon
d) granite

120. What is the estimated potential for geothermal energy in India?

a) 1000MW
b) 1MW
c) 10000MW
d) 100MW

121. Which of the following geothermal sites is in Gujarat?

a) Tattapani
b) Cambay Garden
c) Surajkund
d) Manikaran

122. Where is the volcanic arc in India?

a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
b) Lakshadweep Islands
c) Godavari
d) Puga valley

123. What is the thermal temperature gradient in Tatapani?

a) 1 degree Celsius/km
b) 10 degree Celsius/km
c) 60 – 100 degree Celsius/km
d) 110 – 150 degree Celsius/km

124. What is/are the cause(s) of tides?

a) Gravitational pull of moon
b) Gravitational pull of moon and sun
c) Gravitational pull of sun and moon and rotation of earth
d) Gravitational pull of sun

125. What is tidal power?

a) Energy from tides
b) Energy from water
c) Energy from moon
d) Energy from sun

126. Which of the following categories does tidal power fall into?
a) Hydrothermal
b) Hydropower
c) Solar
d) Wind

127. Tidal barrage is similar to ______

a) wind plant
b) dam
c) wind turbines
d) coal plant

128. Which of the following best describes the working of a tidal barrage for an incoming tide?
a) Incoming tides → generator → barrage → basin
b) Incoming tides → basin → generator → barrage
c) Incoming tides → barrage → basin → generator
d) Generator → barrage → basin → incoming tides

129. What is ocean thermal energy conversion?

a) Harnessing the temperature differences between surface waters and deep ocean waters
b) Harnessing the temperature differences between the coastal waters and deep ocean waters
c) Harnessing the heat energy from the underwater volcanoes
d) Harnessing the heat energy between surface water vapour and atmospheric gases

130. What is the maximum estimated potential of ocean thermal energy conversion per year?
a) 80 GWh
b) 900 MWh
c) 10000 TWh
d) 88000 TWh
131. Why is ocean thermal energy conversion a renewable resource?
a) Because the temperature gradient lasts for a short period of time
b) Because the upwelling of cold water from the deep ocean is replaced by downwelling of surface waters
c) Because ocean water is available in plenty
d) Because of sun’s heat

132. Which of the following are types of systems used in ocean thermal energy conversion?
a) Horizontal and vertical
b) Vertical and open cycle
c) Open cycle and closed cycle
d) Horizontal and closed cycle

133. Which of the following is used as working fluid in closed cycle oceanic thermal energy conversion
systems?
a) Thermohaline circulation
b) Temperature gradient
c) Greenhouse gases
d) Refrigerants

134. Rankine Cycle is the most commonly used heat cycle for ocean thermal energy conversion.
a) True
b) False

135.  _______ turbine is used in closed cycle ocean thermal energy conversion.
a) Horizontal
b) Low-pressure
c) High-pressure
d) Vertical

136. What is the byproduct of an ocean thermal energy conversion system?

a) Electricity
b) Clean water
c) Water vapour
d) Cold water

137. Where is the world’s only operating ocean thermal energy conversion plant located?
a) Japan
b) United States
c) China
d) Korea

138. Which of the following best describes the working of an ocean thermal energy conversion plant?
a) Oceanic water → evaporator → turbine/generator → electricity
b) Warm surface oceanic water → evaporator containing working fluid → turbine/generator → electricity
c) Cold surface oceanic water → electricity → evaporator containing working fluid → turbine/generator
d) Cold deep oceanic water → electricity → evaporator containing working fluid → turbine/generator

139. The vapourized fluid in an ocean thermal energy conversion system is converted back into working
liquid.
a) True
b) False

140.  What type of working fluids do closed-cycle ocean thermal energy conversion (OTEC) systems
use?
a) Low boiling point fluids at atmospheric pressure
b) High boiling point fluids at atmospheric pressure
c) Low boiling point fluids at 100 bar
d) High boiling point fluids at 100 bar

141. What is the warm surface seawater pumped through in a closed-cycle ocean thermal energy
conversion (OTEC) system?
a) Heat compressor
b) Heat exchanger
c) Fluid compressor
d) Turbine

142. Which of the following organisations developed the “mini OTEC”?

a) CERN
b) NASA
c) ISRO
d) Natural Energy Laboratory

143. Which of the following best describes the open-cycle OTEC?

a) Warm surface seawater → heat exchanger → working fluid → turbine
b) Warm surface seawater → low-pressure container → turbine/generator
c) Deep seawater → heat exchanger → working fluid → turbine
d) Deep seawater → low-pressure container → turbine/generator

**************** It continues*******************