19 FAITH OVER FEAR!

CLAIM YOUR RMT!

A. Cortisol
CLINICAL CHEMISTRY B. Catecholamines
By: BUDDY-SENSEI C. Thyroxin
D. Calcitonin

6. 140 mmol/L of Na+ is equivalent to _______

1. Which protein is quantified by standard
mEq/L.
potein electrophoresis?
A. 160
1. Fibrinogen
B. 140
2. Transferrin
C. 280
3. C3
D. 70
A. 1,2 and 3
B. 1 and 2
7. How do you compute for the globulin fraction
C. 2 and 3
in the serum?
D. 1 and 3
A. Add Albumin and Total Protein
B. Subtract Albumin from Total Protein
2. Which of the following is/are
C. Subtract Globulin from Albumin
macroenzyme/s?
D. Subtract Total Protein from Albumin
1. ALP
2. AST
8. Standard test for the individual assay of
3. G6PD
Anticonvulsants:
4. LDH
A. Chromatography
A. 1,2,3
B. Immunoassay
B. 1,2,4
C. HPLC
C. 3 only
D. Gas Chromatography
D. 1,2,3,4

9. Which statement refers to Type 1 Diabetes?

3. What is the most important and most
A. Results from B-cell destruction and usually
sensitive test in diagnosing Neonatal
diagnosed in children.
Hypothyroidism?
B. Results from B-cell destruction, usually leads
A. CRH Stimulation
to absolute insulin deficiency, and usually
B. TSH
diagnosed in children.
C. FT3/FT4
C. Usually leads to absolute insulin deficiency
D. Thyroid FNAB
and usually diagnosed in children
D. Results from B-cell destruction and usually
4. INTERPRET:
leads to absolute insulin deficiency.
FT4/FT3: Normal
TSH: Increased
10. Which is acceptable dress code policy in the
A. Secondary Hyperthyroidism
laboratory?
B. Subclinical Hypothyroidism
1. Comfortable foot wear such as sandals and
C. Subclinical Hyperthyroidism
flip-flops.
D. Secondary Hypothyroidism
2. Clean laboratory coats
3. Minimal use of jewels
5. Which hormone serves as the first
4. Shoulder-length hair pulled back and secured
responders to stress by acting within seconds?
19 FAITH OVER FEAR!
CLAIM YOUR RMT!

A. 1,2,3,4 16. Converts light into electrical energy.

B. 2, 3, and 4 A. Monochromator
C. 1,2 B. Readout device
D. 2,3 C. Photodetector
D. Diffraction gratings
11. Which is a physiologic factor for
consideration in specimen collection? 17. AFP is known to be an oncofetal antigen, it
A. Smoking is normally produced by cells of developing
B. Drug intake fetus. However, it is not normally produced by
C. Age adults. Elevated AFP levels in adult is best
D. Alcohol/Ethanol consumption associated with:
A. Colorectal Cancer
12. Which of the following is NOT used as a liver B. Lenticular Carcinoma
function test? C. Hepatoma
A. Prothrombin Time D. Osteogenic Sarcoma
B. Enzymes
C. Factor Assays 18. A protein that protects the kidneys from
D. Bilirubin the harmful effects of free hemoglobin:
A. Hemopexin
13. Defined as the transport of the drug from B. Haptoglobin
the site of administration to the blood? C. Ceruloplasmin
A. Liberation D. Transferrin
B. Adsorption
C. Distribution 19. Moderate risk level of TChol for age group
D. Metabolism 40 years old and above:
A. >200 mg/dL
14. Which of the following are risk factors for B. >220 mg/dL
Diabetes Mellitus? C. >240 mg/dL
1. Elevated TAG D. >260 mg/dL
2. PCOS
3. Low HDL 20. Nonprotein molecules used by enzymes to
show full activity.
A. 1 ONLY A. Cofactor
B. 2,3 B. Coenzyme
C. 1,2,3 C. Activator
D. 1,3 D. Proenzyme

15. The illicit drug “Ecstasy” is chemically known 21. A chemical that gives off hydroxyl ions.
as: A. Alkali
A. Methamphetamine Hydrochloride B. Acid
B. Methylenedioxymethylamphetamine C. Base excess
C. Tetrahydrocannabinol D. Isotonic
D. Monoethylene glycol ethyl ether
19 FAITH OVER FEAR!
CLAIM YOUR RMT!

22. What is the prefix used to denote a notation

of 106? 27. Which among the following will yield the
A. mega highest enzyme activation?
B. giga A. Coenzymes
C. milli B. Cofactors
D. micro C. Activators
D. Isoenzymess
23. Decreased A/G Ratio is associated with:
1. Multiple Myeloma
2. Nephrotic Syndrome 28. Serum Amyloid A is an essential acute phase
3. Liver Cirrhosis reactant that help in the transport of what
A. 1, 2 substance?
B. 1 only A. Cholesterol
C. 2, 3 B. TAG
D.1,2,3 C. Carbohydrates
D. Aldehydes
24. What color does greater than 750 nm gives
off? 29. Which is not a naturally occurring opiates?
A. Infrared A. Codeine
B. Violet B. Opium
C. Orange C. Morphine
D. Green D. Talwin(pentazocine)

25. Electrolytes essential for Myocardial Rhythm 30. Individual who subjects himself for a drug
and excitability: testing is called:
1. Ca2+ A. Patient
2. Mg2+ B. Donor
3. K+ C. Consumer
4. Na+ D. Drug addict
A. 4 only
B. 1,2,3,4 31. An enzyme used as Liver function test which
C. 1, 2 is significant if its level is decreased.
D.1,2,3 A. 5’-NT
B. OCT
26. Electrolytes for Volume and Osmotic C. GGT
Regulation: D. Cholinesterase
1. Mg2+
2. Cl- 32. Which of the following is the major thyroid
3. K+ hormone?
4. Na+ A. Triidothyronine
A. 3, 4 B. Thyroxine
B. 2, 3, 4 C. Calcitonin
C. 1,2,3,4 D. Procalcitonin
D. 2,4
19 FAITH OVER FEAR!
CLAIM YOUR RMT!

33. The factor used to conver mg/dL of 39. Similar to Non-competitive ELISA in that
cholesterol to mmol/L. there is a double antibody system that forms s
A. 0.260 “sandwich” with the hormone.
B. 0.026 A. Chemiluminescence
C. 0.0595 B. Microparticle Enzyme Immunoassay
D. 2.60 C. Fluorescent Polarization Immunoassay
D. Fluorescent Substrate Inhibition Reaction
34. Which of the following is not a tropic
hormone? 40. During hyperglycemic episodes, the body
A. GH responds by a process which stores the excess
B. TSH glucose in the liver in the form of glycogen. This
C. FSH process is called:
D. LH A. Glycogenolysis
B. Gluconeogenesis
35. The principal and most important use of SPE C. Glycolysis
is to detect the presence of: D. Glycogenesis
A. Beta-Gamma Bridging
B. Nephrotic Syndrome 41. Tests used to diagnose Diabetes Mellitus:
C. Monoclonal Gammopathies 1. HBA1c
D. Liver Cirrhosis 2. 2 Hr PP Glucose level
3. FBS
36. Hormone that stimulates thyroid gland for A. 1,2
the production of T3 and T4. B. 1,2,3
A. TRH C. 2,3
B. TSH D.1,3
C. Hypothalamic sensing hormone
D. Atrionatriuretic Factor 42. A competitive assay by which a fluorophore
labeled thyroxine competes with patient
37. If blood was collected at a high altitude, thyroxine for an antibody in homogenous
how would the volume of blood collected be system. Antibody bound labeled thyroxine
affected? rotates slowly, emitting lower energy polarized
A. Lower light. The amount of fluorescence is inversely
B. Same proportional to the amount of patient
C. Greater thyroxine.
D. Indeterminate A. Chemiluminescence
B. Microparticle Enzyme Immunoassay
38. Route of Administration with 100% C. Fluorescent Polarization Immunoassay
Bioavailability and is the most efficient route in D. Fluorescent Substrate Inhibition Reaction
critical cases of diseases.
A. Intramuscular 43. Which of the following causes hyperkalemia
B. Intravenous due to excessive intake?
C. Rectal A. Infusion of stored blood
D. Inhalation B. Hemolysis
C. Vomiting
19 FAITH OVER FEAR!
CLAIM YOUR RMT!

D. Diuresis 2. Eight consecutive values exceeds 1 SD

3. Detects systematic error
44. A system that promotes water reabsorption 4. Detects random error
and plasma volume expansion. A. 1 and 3
A. ADH B. 2 and 3
B. RAAS C. 1 and 4
C.ANF D. 2 and 5
D. Angiotensin II
51. It is the MOST commonly used clearance
45. Which organ will compensate in cases of test and serves as a rough estimate of GFR.
Respiratory Acidosis? A. Urea Clearance
A. Lungs B. MDRD
B. Liver C. Cystatin C
C. Heart D. Creatinine Clearance
D. Kidneys
52. Lipoprotein responsible for carrying the
46. The type of pipet designed to dispense or endogenous Triglyceridess.
transfer aqueous solutions and is always self- A. VLDL
draining. This type of pipet usually has the B. Chylomicrons
greatest degree of accuracy and precision and C. Lp-a
should be used when diluting standards, D. Apo-B
calibrators, or quality-control material.
A. Volumetric Pipet 53. Which of the following tests can assess both
B. Serologic Pipet Circulatory and Respiratory Functions.
C. Graduated Piper A. Blood Ph
D. Mohr Pipet B. Arterial Blood Gas
C. Electrolytes
47. Protein that migrates closest to the D. Anion Gap
positively charged electrode.
A. Gamma globulins 54. Reverse Cholesterol Transport is promoted
B. Albumin by which lipoprotein?
C. A1-Antitrypsin A. LDL
D. Haptoglobin B. VLDL
C. HDL
48. NOT a First time test used for Cushing’s D. Chylomicrons
Syndrome
A. Low Dose Dexamethasone Test 55. Electrochemical analysis
B. Midnight Salivary Cortisol 1. Polarography
C. 24 Hr Urinary Free Cortisol 2. Amperometry
D. Plasma ACTH 3. Chromatography
4. Coulometry
50. Which of the following refer to 8:1s? A. 1,2,3,4
1. One observation exceeds 3SD from the target B. 3 only
value C. 1,2,4
19 FAITH OVER FEAR!
CLAIM YOUR RMT!

D. 2,3,4 4. One observation exceeds 3 SD from the

target value
56. A mixture consists of 4 parts of Solution A A. 2 and 4
and 6 parts of Solution B. How many mL of B. 2 and 3
Solution A and B are needed to create a 3000 m C. 1 and 3
of mixture? D. 1 and 4
A. Solution A= 1,000 mL
Solution B= 2,000 mL 61. Which characterizes Chronic glomerular
B. Solution A= 1,500 mL nephritis?
Solution B= 1,500 mL 1. Slow developing disease
C. Solution A= 1,200 mL 2. Gradual Uremia
Solution B= 1,800 mL 3. Loss of functioning Nephrons
D. Solution A= 900 mL A. 1 and 2
Solution B= 2,100 mL B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3
57. Which among the following describes a TD D. 1,2 and 3
pipet?
A. Holds exact volume and dispense exact 62. Which hyponatremia is NOT caused by
amount increased sodium loss?
B. Needs to be blown the excess by mouth A. Potassium deficiency
C. Contains etched mark B. Diuretic use
D. Needs to be blown the excess by an aspirator C. Renal failure
D. Severe burns

58. SGPT is classified under what enzyme 63. Which is considered as a medical
classification? emergency?
A. Hydrolase 1. Ketoacidosis
B. Oxidoreductase 2. Glucosuria
C. Isomerase 3. Marked Hyperkalemia
D. Transferase A. 1,2 and 3
B. 2 and 3
59. Which test conveys information on C. 1 and 3
hepatocellular damage and necrosis? D. 1 and 2
A. Albumin
B. Bilirubin 64. The major role of regulation of water
C. Ammonia balance in the body is attributed to which
D. Transaminases cation?
A. Calcium
60. Which of the following refer to 13s? B. Sodium
1. Range between two observations in the same C. Potassium
run exceeds 4SD D. Chloride
2. Detects Imprecision or Systematic bias
3. Not recommended 65. Which enzyme has a moderate specificity
for liver, heart and skeletal muscles?
19 FAITH OVER FEAR!
CLAIM YOUR RMT!

A. AST B. Sensitivity and accuracy

B. ALT C. Accuracy and Precision
C. CPK D. Sensitivity and Specificity
D. LDH
71. Enzymes are involved in which of the
66. Which assesses excretory and synthetic following processes?
capability of the liver? 1. Anabolism
A. Bilirubin 2. Catabolism
B. Albumin 3. Energy generation
C. Transaminases A. 1, 2 and 3
D. Prothrombin Time B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 2
67. Which of the following are minor D. 1 and 3
lipoproteins?
1. VLDL 72. Which is a major protein constituent of LDL?
2. LDL A. Apo B
3. IDL B. Apo C
4. Lipoprotein A C. Apo A
A. 1 and 3 D. Apo D
B. 2 and 4
C. 1 and 4 73. Which of the following is/ are catabolite of
D. 3 and 4 protein and nucleic acid metabolism?
1. Urea
68. Which centrifuge is used when rapid 2. Uric Acid
centrifugation is needed? 3. Glucose
A. Horizontal-head 4. Creatinine
B. Fixed-angle head A. 1,2,3 and 4
C. Cytocentrifuge B. 1,2,and 3
D. None of these C. 1 and 2
D. 1,2 and 4
69. Which are acute phase reactants?
1. Alpha-acid glycoprotein 74. Which is NOT a hazard associated with the
2. Alpha-antitrypsin use of Liquid Nitrogen?
3. CRP A. Shock
A. 2 and 3 B. Thermal Burns
B. 1 and 2 C. Asphyxiation
C. 1, 2 and 3 D. Explosion
D. 1 and 3
75. MOST frequently used method/s of
70. Which performance characteristics of Osmolality analysis in Clinical setting.
laboratory test are more relevant for the 1. Freezing Point Depression
diagnosis of disease and therapeutic 2. Boiling Point Elevation
monitoring? 3. Vapor Pressure Depression
A. Specificity and precision 4. Osmotic Pressure Elevation
19 FAITH OVER FEAR!
CLAIM YOUR RMT!

A. 1,2,3 and 4 81. Which class of enzyme catalyzes structural

B. 2 and 4 shifts in a molecule, causing a change in
C. 1,2, and 4 structural conformation?
D. 1 and 3 A. Isomerases
B. Ligases
76. Which is the steroid hormone produced by C. Transferases
the corpus luteum and placenta that prepares D. Oxidoreductases
the endometrium for blastocyst implantation
and maintains pregnancy? 82. Which does NOT refer to neonatal primary
A. Progesterone hypothyroidism?
B. Estriol A. Growth deficiency or failure
C. hPL B. Thyroiditis
D. hCG C. Mental Retardation
D. Cretinism
77. If plasma appears hazy or turbid, after a 12-
hour fast, TAG level is probably_____ mg/dL. 83. Which is the result of urea being reabsorbed
A. >200 mg/dL into the circulation due to obstruction?
B. <250 mg/dL A. Pre-Renal azotemia
C. >300 mg/dL B. Renal azotemia
D. >600 mg/dL C. Post-Renal Azotemia
D. None of these
78. In the H-H equation, the denominator
represents_____ function. 84. Practice safety in the laboratory
A. Liver involves_____.
B. Kidney A. The medical technologists doing the test
C. Heart B. Everyone working in the laboratory
D. Lung C. The laboratory aides handling the laboratory
wastes
79. Which condition can cause cardiac arrest D. The heads and supervisors only
and can occur in the absence of any warning
clinical symptoms? 85. Which are considered when interpreting
A. Hypernatremia ABGs in the clinical setting?
B. Hypercalcemia 1. Acid-base status
C. Hyperkalemia 2. Alveolar ventilation
D. Hypocalcemia 3. Oxygenation status and 02 transport
4. Carboxyhemoglobin
80. BUN will be significantly increased when A. 1,2,3 and 4
GFR is decreased by at least: B. 2,3, and 4
A. 25% C. 1 and 3
B. 50% D. 1,2 and 3
C. 75%
D. 100% 86. The usual lipid studies fasting for _____
hours.
A. 8
19 FAITH OVER FEAR!
CLAIM YOUR RMT!

B. 16 92. AST and ALT are elevated, what organ are

C. 12 affected?
D. 6 A. Liver
B. Heart
87. The gram-molecular weight of NaCl is 58.5g. C. Skeletal Muscle
What is the NORMALITY of a solution containing D. Bone
75g of NaCl per liter?
A. 1.3 93. Which are causes of Random Error?
B. 1.7 1. Temperature of Analyzer
C. 1.0 2. Reagent dispensing
D. 1.6 3. Instability of instrument
88. The concept of treating all blood and body 4. Calibration differences
fluids are capable of transmitting A. 1 and 4
infection/disease is_________. B. 2 and 3
A. Safe Practice Standard C. 1,2,3 and 4
B. Infection Control D. 1, 2 and 3
C. Universal Precaution
D. Safety Protocol 91. Which is a pathologic cause of pronounced
elevation of ALP more than 5 times the upper
89. A comprehensive program in an institution limit of normal?
in which all areas of operation are monitored to A. Bone Tumor
ensure quality with the aim of providing the B. Pregnancy
highest quality patient care is quality________. C. Cirrhosis
A. Control D. Hepatitis
B. System
C. Assurance 92. A numeric rating of 3 indicates _______
D. Assessment hazard.
A. Moderate
90. All of the following inhibits growth hormone B. Extreme
secretion, EXCEPT: C. Slight
A. Glucose loading D. Severe
B. Thyroxine deficiency
C. Amino Acids 93. Which is the drug of choice for petit mal
D. Insulin deficiency seizures?
A. Valproic Acid
91. Which is the MOST likely disease? B. Ethosuximide
ACTH: Increased C. Carbamazepine
24 Hr Urinary Free Cortisol: Increased D. Phenobarbital
Plasma Cortisol: Increased
A. Cushing’s Syndrome 94. Which of the following follows the order og
B. Cushing’s Disease the grades of reagent from purest to least?
C. Primary Hypercortisolism A. Analytical grade> Commercial or Technical
D. Primary Hypocortisolism Grade> Chemically pure
19 FAITH OVER FEAR!
CLAIM YOUR RMT!

B. Chemically Pure> Analytical grade>

Commercial or Technical Grade 100. What is the recommended storage
C. Chemically Pure> Commercial or Technical temperature when serum and plasma samples
Grade> Analytical grade are not tested immediately and delayed beyond
D. Analytical grade > Chemically pure > 4 hours?
Commercial or Technical Grade A. 1-2 deg C
B. 3-4 deg C
95. Glycogen storage disorder, no debrancher C. 4-6 deg C
enzyme. D. 7-8 deg C
A. Von Gierke
B. Pompei
C. Cori Forbes
D. Andersen

96. Hormone predominant in pregnant women.

A. Progesterone
B. Estradiol
C. Estriol
D. Pregnenolone

97. Recent reference method for the

measurement of cholesterol.
A. GCMS
B. Lieberman reaction
C. Chromatography
D. Polarography

98. Which of the following methods are utilized

to measure creatinine?
1. Enzymatic
2. Kinetic
3. Endpoint
4. Colorimetric
A. 1, 2, and 3
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 1, 2,3 and 4

99. Maximum time for the application of

tourniquet.
A. 120 seconds
B. 160 seconds
C. 130 seconds
D. 180 seconds
19 FAITH OVER FEAR!
CLAIM YOUR RMT!

6. A low quantity of a parasite is expected to be

MICROPARA found in stool specimen. What method is
PREBOARD EXAMINATION preferred?
A. Molecular method
by: BUDDY-SENSEI B. Direct wet mount
C. Staining method
D. Concentration technique
1. Which of the following bacterial isolates has
the following reaction: 7. What is the traditional gold standard or
confirmatory test for the identification of
• Negative in MAC leptospira species?
• Nonmotile A. Culture
• Negative in nitrate B. TPA-Abs
• No growth in BAP C. Molecular technique
A. B. pertussis D. Microscopic Agglutination Test
B. B. parapertussis
C. B. bronchiseptica 8. What is the reagent for Sniff or whiff test
D. B. holmesii a. KOH
b. NaOH
2. This nematode is incapable of maturation c. HCL
within the human host and migrate aimlessly d. Ethanol
causing tissue damage and inflammation.
A. T. spiralis 9. Which of the following parasite is found in
B. G. spinigerum the large intestine?
C. D. caninum a. A. lumbricoides
D. T. solium b. E. vermicularis
c. A. duodenale
3. Plasmodium species divide through d. M. perstans
A. binary fission
B. multiple fission 10. What is the identity of a protozoan parasite
C. budding seen as trophozoite with ingested wbc?
D. parthenogenesis a. E. histolytica
b. E. ginigvalis
4. What is the specimen used for the detection c. T. tenax
of active filarial infection? d. E. dispar
A. urine
B. blood 11. What is the confirmatory test to
C. stool differentiate E. histolytica and E. dispar?
D. swab a. Molecular
b. Permanent smear
5. A particular barangay was flooded for few c. Culture
days. Infection with what organism will be most d. Concentration technique
common?
A. E. coli 12. Which of the following has a mushroom like
B. Salmonella odor?
C. Syphilis a. P. multocida
D. Chlamydia b. P. aeruginosa
c. Proteus
19 FAITH OVER FEAR!
CLAIM YOUR RMT!

d. Alkaligenes B. Chromogenic Agar

13. Which of the following organisms can be C. Molecular Method
eliminated when the niacin result is negative? D. Staining
a. M. tuberculosis
b. M. leprae 20. What is the best protection to be used for
c. M. bovis serious infections transmitted by aerosol
d. M. xenopi droplet?
A. Well fit mask and googles
14. Mycobacterium leprae is diagnosed through B. N95
a. biopsy C. Gown and Gloves
b. clinical manifestation D. Adequate handwashing
c. culture
d. swab 21. An organism is seen with a round vacuolar
inclusion body, positive for glycogen inclusion,
15. Which of the following organisms has a and is sexually transmitted.
round elementary body, susceptible to a. C. trachomatis
sulfonamides and has a glycogen containing b. legionella
inclusions? c. Bordetella spp.
a. C. trachomatis d. Syphilis
b. C. psittaci
c. C. pneumoniae 22. An outbreak of hepatitis A infection
d. R. ricketsii occurred after a meal in a certain restaurant.
What is the most probable reason for this
16. Herpes virus is transmitted through outbreak?
a. aerosol A. Food handler not washing hands after having
b. contact a CR break
c. blood B. Improper storage of food ingredients
d. stool C. Failure to practice handwashing of the
customers
17. An appropriate specimen D. Not observing proper etiquettes when
A. Folley catheter tip for aerobic culture sneezing
B. Rectal swab for gonorrhea
C. Swab specimen for dermatophytes 23. What do you call when the scolex,
D. Urine for afb culture proglottid, cyst are inside the daughter cyst?
A. Hydatid sand
18. After the collection of nasopharyngeal B. Morula balls
and/or throat swab for virus, what is the C. Brood capsule
recommended medium where will you place D. Egg packets
the swab?
A. Dry sealed container 24. A component of Chocolate Agar.
B. Agar Plate A. Lysed blood cells
C. Saline B. Rabbit plasma
D. Agar broth C. Chocolate
D. Sheep RBCs
19. A staphylococcal specie is found to be
resistant towards vancomycin, what is the best 25. Method used to investigate and identify the
way to identify this specie? organism responsible for a particular food-
A. Sensitivity test poisoning outbreak.
19 FAITH OVER FEAR!
CLAIM YOUR RMT!

A. Culture C. After the fever

B. Staining D. At night time while the patient is sleeping
C. Disk diffusion technique
D. Phage typing 31. In the semi-quantitative method of
susceptibility testing, the concentration of the
26. The oocysts f this protozoan infects warm- antibiotic is higher at the _____.
blooded A. edge
animals has the following characteristic: B. center
• survive in the environment for several C. middle third
months to more D. under surface
than 1 year
• resistant to disinfectants, freezing and 32. What is the required minimum PPE inside
dying the laboratory?
• killed by heating to 70oc A. Face shield
Identify the most probable organism involved. B. safety glasses
A. Trichomonas tenax C. Lab coat
B. Toxoplasma gondii D. Gloves
C. Naegleria fowleri
D. Balamuthia mandrillaris 33. What Gram positive organism cause
antibiotic-associated diarrhea that is seen as
27. An organism with indole (-), urea (+) is yellow ground-glass colonies on cycloserine
suggestive cefoxitin fructose agar?
of _____. A. Clostridium tetani
A. E. tarda B. Closrtridium difficile
B. P. vulgaris C. Clostridium perfringens
C. S. typhi D. Clostridium botulinum
D. P. mirabilis
34. Which is an error during the pre-analytic
28. What is a test that identifies the presence of phase of testing?
drug resistant A. Undetected failure in quality control
TB? B. Instrument malfunction
A. Microscopy C. Contamination from infusion route
B. Culture D. Specimen interference
C. DNA-based
D. Serology 35. In which of the following are yeasts BEST
utilized?
29. Bacterial analysis for the suitability of milk A. Food production
for drinking uses which of the following B. Manufacture of drugs and medicines
indicators to be tested? C. Ethanol production
A. Staphylococcus D. Breakdown of organic materials
B. Staph. aureus and fecal coliforms
C. Taste and appearance 36. Which is CORRECT sequence of the Gram
D. Staphylococcus spp. And coliforms staining procedure?
A. crystal violet, safranin, iodine, alcohol
30. When is the best time for the collection of B. crystal violet, alcohol, iodine, safranin
blood in active malarial infection? C. crystal violet, iodine, alcohol, safranin
A. Before the fever D. crystal violet, iodine, safranin, alcohol
B. At the height of the fever
19 FAITH OVER FEAR!
CLAIM YOUR RMT!

37. In the surgical treatment of echinococcosis,

a scolicidal agent like _____ is injected in to 41. To what type of stool specimen will you find
the cyst/s to sterilize the area prior to remove both trophozoites and cysts?
of the cysts. A. Watery
A. acetone B. Solid
B. KOH C. Soft
C. 10% formaline D. Hard
D. india ink
42. Which special media is used for growing
38. An oncology nurse from YYY General organisms that need low oxygen content,
Hospital collected bronchial washing specimen reduced oxidation reduction protential and
from a 70 year old female receiving extra nutrients?
chemotherapy and sent directly to the A. Alkaline Peptone Water
laboratory. Microscopic examination revealed B. Lowenstein-Jensen medium
a gram positive, and partially colored acid fast C. Thiogycollate broth
organism. Biochemical tests showed the D. Pseudosel agar
following:
• negative: hydrolysis in casein, tyrosine, 43. The drug of choice for treatment of
and xanthine Paragonimus infection is _____.
• Positive: catalase A. Praziquantel
What organism is most identifiable with the B. Thaibendazole
foregoing C. Albenazole
characteristic? D. Ivermectin
A. Streptomycs somaliensis
B. Nocardia asteroids 44. Why is a second dengue infection worse
C. Actinomadura madurae than the first?
D. Nocardia caviae A. Infection with other serotypes
B. Infection with related viruses
39. The result of blood smear from EDTA tube C. Inadequate treatment
of a patient is a follows: D. Inadequate immune response
* Crescent-shape gametocytes,
* Presence of all size of red blood cells 45. Which of the following is NOT used to
* Maurer’s dots describe the colony morphology of fungal
* multiplke delicate ring with two (2) chromatin cultures?
dots in red cells A. Verrucose
What is the most likely organism identified? B. Rugose
A. Plasmodium vivax C. Umbonate
B. plasmodium falciparum D. Glaborous
C. plasmodium knowlesi
D. plasmodium ovale 46. Determining an organism’s ability to liquefy
_____, aids in the classification of the
40. Protozoan trophozoites may be destroyed Enterobacteriaceae.
when processing stool specimen using _____ A. Peptone
technique B. mannitol
A. culture C. nutrient gelatin
B. concentration D. beef extract
C. viral isolation
D. direct microscope
19 FAITH OVER FEAR!
CLAIM YOUR RMT!

47. How do you confirm an unconscious A. Zinc Floatation

patient’s identity in the ward? B. Brine’s Floatation
A. ask patient to state and spell his/ her name C. Knott’s Concentration
and bith date D. Sedimentation techniques
B. Check bed number
C. Ask the nurse in charge 54. What is the container used for stool culture?
D. Bar-coding technology A. Clean, Leak-proof container
48. Which of the following are foodborne- B. Sterile, screw-cap container
parasitic infections? C. Container with NSS solution
A. Hookworm infections D. Anaerobic jar
B. Katayama’s disease
C. Fascioliasis and Fasciolopsis 55. Which is NOT a vector-borne viral disease?’
D. Filarial infections A. Respiratory syncitial Virus infection
B. Jap B encephalitis
49. A flexible calcium alginate nasopharyngeal C. Dengue fever
swab is the collection device of choice for D. Chikungunya fever
recovery of _____ from the nasopharynx.
A. Corynebacterium diptheriae 56. The first larval stage of a trematode which is
B. Streptococcus pneumonia hatched from an egg, often ciliated and free-
C. staphylococcus aureus swimming is _____.
D. Bacteroides fragilis A. rediae
B. cercaria
50. The specimen to be collected for Epstein C. miracidium
Barr Virus PCR amplification is _____. D. metacercaria
A. synovial fluid
B. serum 57. Select the Biosafety level as described by
C. whole blood in 5 mls. EDTA the following condition:
D. sputum • work is conducted in a standard
laboratory bench in a contained area
51. During culture and sensitivity, after the • use of PPE
addition of antibiotic disks, the Kirby-bauer A. BSL – 1
demonstrates colonies inside the zone of B. BSL – 4
inhibition. What is the most probable cause of C. BSL – 3
this? D. BSL – 2
A. mixed culture
B. expired antibiotics 58. Which organism is the cause of human
C. agar too thick infection by ingestion of uncooked fish
D. too heavy inoculum harbouring the infective larvae, residing in the
small intestine and which burrow into the
52. Which of the following is a preservative for mucosa?
stool specimens? A. T. trichiura
A. KOH B. E. vmicularis
B. NaOH C. S. stercoralis
C. SAF D. C. philippinensis
D. Tolouene
59. A urine specimen showed the following
53. What concentration technique is culture and biochemical profile:
recommended for large nematodes? • swarming in agar plate
19 FAITH OVER FEAR!
CLAIM YOUR RMT!

• decompose urea B. Burkholderia mallei

• deaminate phenylalanine to C. Burkholderia pseudomallei
phenylpyruvic acid D. Stenotrophomonas maltophila
What organism can most likely be identified?
A. Alcaligenes faecalis 65. What staining techniques is used to detect
B. Shigella subgroup A small protozoa missed by wet mount
C. Klebsiella-Aerogenes spp. examination?
D. Proteus spp. A. Methyl red
B. Gram
60. What is the unique morphological feature of C. Pap Stain
Spirochetes? D. Trichrome
A. Presence of sterols in the cell wall
B. Motility without flagella 66. A patient tested for ASO titer. The result is
C. Lack of cell wall >200 unit.ml. What organism is the most
D. Lack of plasma membrane probable etiologic agents?
A. Mycobacterium spp.
61. All these aerobes have cell walls containing B. Enterobacteriaceae spp.
mycolic acid, EXCEPT: C. Streptococcus spp.
A. Nocardia D. Staphylococcus ssp
B. Rhodococcus
C. Corynebacterium
67. All genera in the list given grow on 5% sheep
D. Streptomyces
Blood Agar and Chocolate Agar but not in MAC,
EXCEPT:
62. The method that gives an antimicrobial a
A. Staphylococcus
concentration resulting in a 99.9% reduction
B. Erysipelothrix
in CFU/ml compared with the organism
C. Gardnerella
concentration in the original inoculums is
D. Lactobacillus
recorded as _____.
A. MBC
68. Which is an activity during the pre-analytical
B. MIB
phase of Parasitology testing?
C. ESBL
A. Correct patient identification
D. MIC
B. Use of control.
C. Standardized reporting of parasite
63. Which test can distinguish M. tubculosis
concentration
from M.bovis where a positive test (canary
D. Ensure proper storage of reagents and stains
yellow color) is given.
A. Hydroxyamine
69. Identify the organism belonging to the
B. Nitrate
Enterobacteriacceae giving the following
C. Niacin
results:
D. Nitrite
*Lactose ( - )
*K/A TSI
64. An organism capable of causing opportunistic
*nonmotile at 35oC
infections in humans but a usual pathogen of
A. Edwardsiela
horses and related animals.
B. Klebsiella
• MAC: NLF
C. Salmonella
• Nitrate: Positive
D. Shigella
• Oxidase: Positive
A. Acinetobacter baumanii
19 FAITH OVER FEAR!
CLAIM YOUR RMT!

70. Which is the most common cestode in 76. In normal circumstances, fungal culture
humans with infection prevalence highest results are reported _____.
among children and in warm climates with poor A. 0-5 colonies
sanitation facilities? B. positive
A. Taenia solium C. negative
B. Echinococcus granulosus D. 0-1 colonies
C. Diphyllobothrium latum
D. Hymenolepis nana 77. A solution used or routine examination of
stool
71. In the Formal Ether Sedimentation samples is _____.
Technique, the top layer consists of _____. A. Phosphate buffered saline
A. formalin B. normal saline
B. plug of debris C. haft normal saline
C. ethyl acetate D. plain water
D. parasitic elements
78. What type of infection mimics acute viral
72. What is the color change of the methylene enteritis, bacillary dysentery. bacterial
blue poisoning and travelers diarrhea where the
infused strip when an anaerobic environment diarrehiec stools lack blood, mucus, and cellular
has been achieved in an anaerobic jar? exudates?
A. Blue A. Cryptosporidiosis
B. Colorless B. Giardiasis
C. Green C. Balantidiosis
D. White D. Sarcocysticosis

73. What information about an organism is 79. What test can identify an organism even
given when using PCR? after
A. The species to which bacteria are most antibiotics have been given to a patient?
closely related to A. Gram staining
B. Motility characteristic of bacterium B. PCR
C. Morphology of the bacterium C. susceptibility
D. type of energy metabolism the bacteria has D. Electron microscope

74. Transmission of food-borne trematodes may
be influenced by _____.
A. sex
B. geography
C. climate change
D. age
75. How is bacteria growth rate established?
A. count the number of colony forming units /
ml
B. count the number of colonies in Petri dish
C. Estimate reproductive ratio
D. Use growth rate calculator
80. Curved Gram negative bacilli seen in a 35
years old patient with gastric ulcers. What can
be used to cinfirm a possible GI tract infection?
A. H2S test
B. culture the organism in agar
C. Urease test
D. PYR test
81. What must done if a stool sample cannot be
submitted to the laboratory for immediate
testing?
A. Add saline solution
B. Add ethyl alcohol
C. Place the specimen in the freezer at 0 deg
Celsius
19 FAITH OVER FEAR!
CLAIM YOUR RMT!

D. Refrigerate for no longer than 24 hrs.

88. Which organism has the ability to survive
82. How is the result of H2S test interpreted
when there is no black precipitate formed? harsh environment and is highly resistant to
A. Doubtful heat and dessication? Its spores may be
B. Negative effectively used as an agent of biological
C. Indeterminate warfare.
D. Positive A. B. cereus
83. A part of the compound microscope that B. B. anthracis
gather and focuses light from the illuminator C. B. subtilis
into the specimen being viewed is the _____. D. Pseudomonas
A. iris diaphragm
B. lens 89. Which of the following is the correct result
C. aperture for E. coli using the methyl Red/Voges-
D. condenser Proskauer test?
A. MR +/ VP –
84. What is the role of charcoal in liquid media B. MR - /VP –
for blood culture? C. MR + / VP +
A. Maintains survival of organisms in changing D. MR -/ VP +
environmental conditions
B. Absorbs fatty acids that could kill fastidious 90. Which of the following is the ultimate goal
organisms of the National External Quality Assurance
C. Prevents clotting of blood in agar Scheme (NUQAS) for Parasitology?
D. Maintains the appropriate colony counts in A. An unsatisfactory result is a basis for
urine culture discontinuing the testing.
B. Validate the entire testing process
85. Which of the following does NOT apply to a C. Validate performance characteristic of
right reagents
result? D. Verify accuracy and reliability of testing
A. right reference data
91. Which is a nonmotile, non-spore-forming,
B. right patient
obligate aerobe that often appears beaded or
C. right specimen
unstained using Gram stain but forms stable
D. right price
mycolate complexes with arylmethane dyes?
A. Neisseria spp.
86. Which of the following is BEST for use on a
B. Klebsiella peumoniae
surface that may be contaminated with
C. M. tuberculosis
Hepatitis B virus?
D. Strep.pneumoniae
A. Quaternary ammonium compound
B. 70% alcohol
C. soap 92. What selective and differential medium is
D. Hypoclorites used to isolate Vibrio species?
A. Thiosulfate citate bile salts agar
87. Which organism grow at 44 or 44.5 degrees B. Campy blood agar
C and ferment lactoe to produce acid and gas? C. Cefsulodin-Irgasan-Novobiocin agar
A. Amoeba D. Thioglycollate broth
B. Thermotolerant coliforms
C. Streptococci
D. Bacteria of fecal origin
19 FAITH OVER FEAR!
CLAIM YOUR RMT!

93. To ensure accurate diagnosis of viral C. Sexual contact

disease, it is imperative to collect specimen D. contact with fomites
during the _____ phase of the infection.
A. lag 99. What is the traditional diagnostic specimen
B. acute to test for Chlamydia in males?
C. chronic A. Rectal swabs
D. incubation B. urethral swabs
C. serum
94. Which organism has the following D. urine
characteristics?
*quadrate scolex, 100. Which is the most significant human liver
* no rostellum or hooklets fluke where infections can highly be associated
* 4 suckers with development of cholangiocarcinoma?
A. Hymenolepis nana A. Paragonimus westermanii
B. Dipylidium caninum B. Clonorchis sinensis
C. Diphyllobothrium latum C. Schistosoma haematobium
D. Taenia saginata D. Fasciolopsis buski

95. Which of the following parasites causes a

food-borne parasitic zoonosis causing an acute
syndrome with cough, abdominal pain,
discomfort and low grade fever that may occur
2-15 days after infection. Long term infection
may mimic tuberculosis. Consumption of
shellfish specialty dishes are implicated in this
condition.
A. Ascaris lumbricodes
PLEASE AVOID SPREADING THE NOTES
B. Schistosoma japonicum
-KLUBSY BEAR TEAM
C. Entamoeba histolytica
D. Paragonimus westermani

96. An organism capanle of growth in cold

environmentis a _____.
A. mesophile
B. thermophile
C. hyperthermophile
D. psychrophile

97. How is the presence of Strongloides

strecoralis confirmed in recent stool sample?
A. Presence of parasite debris
B. Evidence of body fragments of parasite
C. Presence of juvenile larvae
D. Evidence of molts

98. How are head lice transmitted?

A. Poor hygiene
B. Direct contact