English Questions All in One Red

AIR LAW
1 - INTERNATIONAL AIR LAW
1. An aircraft entering another contracting state’s airspace and proposing to land must:
a. Conform to the C of A of the airspace of the state into which it is flying
b. Be registered, airworthy and carry all the relative documents required including the C of A
c. Carry the C of A and the International Interception Table of Signals
d. Ensure it carries an original copy of the flight plan only
2. Does each state have the right to search, without reasonable delay, the aircraft of other contracting states
on landing and departure?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Yes but this applies only to commercial aircraft
d. Yes but this applies only to non-commercial aircraft
3. When an ICAO aircraft lands in another contracting state what items are temporarily exempt from customs
duty?
a. Aircraft spare parts and items of flight safety
b. Only the fuel and oils remaining on board the aircraft
c. Fuel, oil, spare parts and aircraft stores plus any regular equipment that is on board the aircraft
d. Un-bonded goods under the strict supervision of customs
4. You are flying a UK registered aircraft over Germany. Whose Rules of the Air must you obey?
a. ICAO’s
b. UK’s
c. JAA’s
d. Germany’s
5. When can an ICAO aircraft make flights into the airspace of another contracting state without permission?
a. If it is a non-scheduled flight
b. If it is a scheduled flight
c. Never
d. If it is not carrying passengers
6. When entering into another country’s airspace, the licence of the Pilot-in-Command must have been issued
by the authority of:
a. The state of aircraft registration
b. Any JAA member state
c. The State of Airworthiness
d. Any contracting ICAO state
7. Which rules of the air govern the entry and departure of international air traffic into and out of a foreign
state?
a. ICAO’s
b. The foreign state’s
c. International Rules and Regulations
d. lATA’s
8. A state must recognise as valid the C of A of another member state if the CofA:
a. Was issued in accordance with ICAO requirements and standards
b. Was issued in accordance with international requirements and standards
c. Is valid and current
d. Was issued in accordance with the State of Registry
9. The C of R must be:

a. Carried in the aircraft at all times and may be a copy of the original
b. Carried in the aircraft at all times and must be in the original form issued
c. Signed by the Pilot-in-Command
d. Held in safe-keeping at the aerodrome of departure
10. All contracting states recognise that every state has complete and exclusive sovereignty over the airspace
above its territory. Is this statement true?
a. Yes
b. No
11. Who has the responsibility to ensure that all aircraft entering a state’s airspace obey that state’s rules and
regulations?
a. The state of aircraft registration
b. The state issuing the C of A of the aircraft
c. The state which regulates the airspace in which the aircraft is operating
d. ICAO
12. An aircraft which has failed its C of A but nevertheless has written details of the reasons why it had so failed
shall:
a. Not take part in international navigation
b. Be allowed to depart another contracting state’s airspace but cannot enter it
c. Be allowed to enter another contracting state’s airspace but cannot depart until all the failures are rectified
d. Not take part in international navigation except with the permission of the state, or states whose territory is
entered
13. All UK registered aircraft are subject to the provisions of the ANO and the Rules of the Air Regulations:
a. Only when inside UK territorial airspace
b. Only when within the airspace of any ICAO contracting State
c. Anywhere at any time
d. Only if they carry a C of A issued by the UK CAA
14. What is the name of the Convention which is commonly known as “The Chicago Convention?"
a. The Convention of Civil Commercial Aviation
b. The Convention on International Civil Aviation
c. The ICAO Convention of Civil Aviation
d. The Convention on International Civil Transportation
15. According to the Chicago Convention which of the following documents, amongst others, are required to be
carried in the aircraft on an international flight?
a. Certificate of Airworthiness (C of A), Certificate of Registration (C of R) and crew passports
b. Crew licences and log books, journey log book and, if applicable, Radio Station Licence
c. Crew licences, journey log book and, if applicable, the cargo manifest and a detailed declaration of the
cargo
d. Passports for all crew and passengers, Certificate of Airworthiness (C of A), Certificate of Registration (C of
R)
16. The U.K. Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) is subdivided into the following sections:
a. GEN, AGA, ENR and AD
b. AGA, ENR and AD
c. GEN, AGA and ENR
d. GEN, ENR and AD
17. Can a state search a visiting aircraft from another contracting state without permission?
a. No
b. Yes
c. Only if a crime is reasonably suspected
d. Only if it is reasonably suspected that the aircraft is carrying inadmissible passengers
18. What does ICAO Annex 2 concern itself with?

a. Personnel Licensing
b. Facilitation
c. Rules of the Air
d. Aerodromes
19. What ICAO Annex covers the Airworthiness of Aircraft?

a. Annex 8
b. Annex 9
c. Annex 12
d. Annex 14
20. What organisation will take over the responsibilities and role of the JAA?
a. IATA
b. ECAC
c. EU
d. EASA
21. The Chicago Convention recognises that:

a. Every State has sovereignty over airspace above its territory up to FL660
b. Every Contracting State has complete and exclusive sovereignty over the airspace above its territory
c. Every Contracting State has complete but not exclusive sovereignty over the airspace above its territory
d. Every Contracting State has complete and exclusive sovereignty over the airspace above its territorial
waters
22. Under the Chicago Convention, the Territory of a State consists of:
a. Its total land area
b. Its total land areas and up to 10 miles of its surrounding territorial waters (if any)
c. The land areas and its adjacent territorial waters
d. Its total lnad areas and up to 25 miles of its surrounding territorial waters (if any)
23. All aircraft entering or departing from a State must obey the laws and regulations of:
a. The State of Registry of the aircraft
b. ICAO
c. The State in question
d. The State having jurisdiction over the Customs Laws
1 - ICAO RULES OF THE AIR
1. When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same level the one that has the other on its right is
required to give way. True or false?
a. True, provided they are in the same class
b. False. The one that has the other on its left is required to give way
c. True, unless the other aircraft has a glider on tow
d. The Rules of the High Seas apply
2. An aircraft is not permitted to fly over a congested area below 1000 feet above the highest fixed obstacle
within 600 metres of the aircraft, except in the following circumstances:
a. When carrying out a practice forced landing
b. When necessary to fix one’s position on a cross-country flight
c. When landing or taking off
d. When carrying out a low flying exercise with a qualified flying instructor
3. What is the definition of Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC)?

a. Meteorological conditions in which all flights must take place in accordance with the Visual Flight Rules
(VFR)
b. A set of rules which defines how aircraft are to be flown with reference to external, visual features
c. Meteorological conditions in which only VFR flights may take place
d. Meteorological conditions expressed in terms of visibility, distance from cloud, and cloud ceiling, equal to or
better than specified minima
4. What is the basic presumption about VFR flight?

a. That the pilot holds the correct rating to allow the aeroplane to be flown in VFR
b. That the flight will be flown in Visual Meteorological Conditions
c. That the flight will only take place in Class F or G airspace
d. That the flight will not take place above FL180
5. In uncontrolled airspace, below FL 100, and above 3 000 feet AMSL or 1 000 feet above terrain, whichever
is the higher, what are the VMC minima?
a. Clear of cloud and in sight of the surface with an in-flight visibility of 5 km
b. 1 000 feet vertical and 1 500 m horizontal separation from cloud with an in-flight visibility of 5 km
c. 1 000 feet vertical and 1 500 m horizontal separation from cloud with an in-flight visibility of 8 km
d. Clear of cloud with an in-flight visibility of 8 km
6. An aircraft following a road, railway line, river, canal or other line feature should keep such a feature:
a. On its left
b. On its right
c. Directly underneath it
d. On its left during the day and on the right at night
7. With certain exceptions, an aircraft must not fly closer than … feet to any person, vessel, vehicle or
structure unless it is landing or taking off in accordance with normal aviation practice. Select the correct minimum
separation distance from the following options:
a. 1 000 feet
b. 500 feet
c. 1 500 feet
d. 1 000 m
8. When a pilot, for the purposes of practising instrument flight, is flying under simulated Instrument
Meteorological Conditions such that his ability to see outside the cockpit is artificially restricted, which of the
following regulations applies?
a. An observer must also be present in the cockpit
b. The exercise must be carried out at a licensed airfield
c. An appropriately qualified safety pilot must be present in one of the control seats. If necessary, an
additional observer may need to be carried to ensure that an adequate lookout is being kept
d. The exercise must be carried out as part of a commercial or air transport pilot’s licence flying training
course at an approved Flying Training Organisation
9. Which SSR Code should be selected to indicate radio failure?

a. 7700 + Mode C
b. 7500 + Mode C
c. 7000
d. 7600 + Mode C
10. The definition “flying machine" may refer to:

a. Any aircraft of any category or classification
b. Fixed wing aircraft only
c. Gliders and power-driven aeroplanes or dirigibles
d. Any heavier-than-air, power-driven aircraft
11. You are about to overtake an aircraft at night from a position behind and almost immediately astern of the
other aircraft. Which of its navigation lights will you see?
a. A white and a red light
b. A white light only
c. It depends on which side you are overtaking the other aircraft
d. A white and a green light
12. When flying in accordance with the Visual Flight Rules in uncontrolled airspace, responsibility for
maintaining VMC and terrain clearance rests with:
a. Any Air Traffic Control Unit with whom the pilot is in contact
b. The Pilot-in-Command
c. Any radar controller with whom the pilot is in contact
d. Any Air Traffic Service Unit with whom the pilot is in contact
13. The definition of night, unless otherwise specified by a national aviation authority is:
a. From the end of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight
b. From the beginning to the end of civil twilight
c. From the beginning of evening civil twilight to the end of morning civil twilight
d. From the end of morning civil twilight to the beginning of evening civil twilight
14. If two aircraft are converging while taxiing on the apron, what is the priority rule?
a. The aircraft which has the other aircraft on its right shall give way
b. The aircraft which has the other aircraft on its left shall give way
c. The aircraft which is farthest from a taxiway centre line shall give way
d. The smaller of the two aircraft shall give way
15. The navigation lights of a flying machine or airship should cover the following arcs: green and red wingtip-
lights … degrees each side from dead ahead and a white tail-light … degrees either side of dead astern.
a. 220, 140
b. 110, 70
c. 100, 90
d. 90, 90
16. Which of a), b), c) and d) below, most correctly completes the following statement? When two or more
aircraft are on final approach:
a. The lower aircraft has the right of way unless ATC has already specified a landing order
b. The lower performance aircraft has right of way
c. The higher aircraft has the right of way
d. The aircraft which has the least horizontal distance to run to the runway threshold has the right of way
17. Which of a), b), c) and d) below, provides the most correct conclusion to the following statement? In order
to minimise the risk of collision, the following rules apply when aircraft of different categories are converging:
a. Powered aeroplanes must give way to airships, gliders and balloons
b. Gliders must give way to powered aeroplanes and airships
c. Airships must give way to powered aeroplanes, gliders and balloons
d. Tug-aircraft with a glider on tow must give way to all other airspace users
18. Complete the following sentence correctly. Except with permission of the Authority:
a. No aircraft shall fly within 500 feet of an open-air gathering of more than 500 people
b. No aircraft shall fly within 500 feet of an open-air gathering of more than 1 000 people
c. No aircraft shall fly within 1 000 feet of an open-air gathering of more than 500 people
d. No aircraft shall fly within 1 000 feet of an open-air gathering of more than 1 000 people
19. While flying at night, as the pilot-in-command, you see an anti-collision light and a steady red light at the
same altitude, which maintain a constant relative bearing from you of 050 degrees. Is there a risk of collision?
And who has right of way?
a. Yes. You do
b. Yes. The other aircraft does
c. No. The other aircraft does
d. No. You do
20. As you are taxiing back to the apron you encounter a tractor towing an aircraft. Your correct course of
action is to:
a. Stop
b. Continue because you have right of way
c. Turn right
d. Give way to the tractor/aircraft combine; it has the right of way
21. You are IFR in VMC and experience a communication failure. Your correct actions are to:
a. Adhere to your flight plan and continue to your destination
b. Continue in VMC and land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and report your arrival to the appropriate
ATSU
c. Land immediately
d. Adhere to your last ATC clearance for 20 minutes and then revert to your filed flight plan continuing to your
planned destination
22. You are intercepted by a fighter aircraft. On which frequency would you try and establish contact?
a. The frequency with which you are in contact at the moment of interception
b. 121.5 MHz
c. 2182 MHz
d. 500 KHz
23. Whilst maintaining a steady course, level and speed you see another aircraft in your 2 o’clock about 4
nautical miles away and at the same level as yourself. The danger of collision exists if the other aircraft:
a. Appears to get bigger
b. Remains in the same relative position
c. Appears to be overtaking you, by moving towards your 12 o’clock
d. Appears to be dropping behind you, moving towards your 4 o’clock
24. When are navigation lights required to be shown?

a. When moving on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome
b. From sunset to sunrise or when specified by the Authority
c. Whenever the Pilot-In-Command thinks it is sensible to switch them on
d. At night or when specified by the authority
25. If two aircraft are approaching head on:

a. Both aircraft must turn left
b. A powered aircraft must give way to a glider by turning right
c. Both aircraft should turn right regardless of aircraft type
d. The larger aircraft should give way by turning right
26. If you were following a river which flows from east to west while maintaining a track of 270° True, which side
of the river must you fly?
a. To the North of the river, because you must fly to the right of the line feature
b. To the South of the river, because you should fly to the left of the line feature
c. Directly overhead the river
d. Either side of the river as long as you keep a good look out for other aircraft
27. You see a red light of another aircraft on your right and it remains on a constant relative bearing. What must
you do?
a. Continue to maintain heading and speed, keeping a good watch on the other aircraft
b. Take avoiding action; you are probably on a collision course
c. Continue to maintain heading, altitude and speed, keeping a good watch on the other aircraft
d. Immediately descend
28. You see a red and green light of another aircraft straight ahead of you. What must you do?
a. Immediately turn left
b. Immediately turn right
c. Immediately descend
d. Immediately climb
29. During the course of a night flight, you notice that a navigation light has failed; the correct action to be
followed is:
a. Make a “PAN" call on the frequency in use and proceed on planned route to destination
b. Land as soon as practically possible unless permission to continue to your destination is given by the
appropriate ATCU
c. If the anti-collision light is working, switch off the navigation lights and continue to destination
d. Land at the nearest suitable airfield
30. You see a red light of another aircraft on your left. What must you do?
a. Continue to maintain heading and speed, keeping a good watch on the other aircraft; the aircraft is heading
in an opposite direction to you
b. Take avoiding action
c. Continue to maintain heading, altitude and speed, keeping a good watch on the other aircraft
d. Immediately descend
31. In level flight at night, from your aircraft, you see an anti-collision beacon and a red navigation light. The
lights are at the same altitude as yourself and are steady at 2 o’ clock and closing. This indicates that there is:
a. An airship which should give way to you
b. A flying machine which should give way to you
c. A flying machine to which you should give way
d. No threat
32. An aircraft is considered to be overtaking another when the faster aircraft is approaching from behind
within:
a. 10° of the extended centreline of the aircraft
b. 20° of the extended centreline of the aircraft
c. 70° of the extended centreline of the aircraft
d. 80° of the extended centreline of the aircraft
33. During a flight, by day, a pilot notices that an anti-collision light is inoperative. Which of the following actions
is correct?
a. He should land as soon as safe to do so unless authorised by ATC to continue the flight
b. He may continue flight by day provided that the light is repaired at the earliest practical opportunity
c. He must land as soon as possible and get the light repaired
d. Provided the aircraft is flown VFR only, the problem may be ignored
3 - ICAO REGISTRATION
Representative PPL - type questions to test your theoretical knowledge of ICAO Registration.
1. What is a Common Mark?
a. The markings of an aircraft that has not received a C of A
b. The markings of an aircraft owned by an international agency
c. The markings of an aircraft owned by two or three different operators
d. The markings of an aircraft that is shared by two owners
2. Which of the following would be an illegal registration marking?

a. MINE
b. PPP
c. TTT
d. YOU
3. From which organisation does the Nationality Mark originate?

a. The Chicago Convention
b. The State of Manufacture
c. The International Telecommunication Union
d. The State of Design
4. An aircraft’s markings on its wings must be at least:

a. 30 cms high
b. 30 inches high
c. 50 inches high
d. 50 cms high
5. Where must an aircraft's identification plate be located?

a. Inside the pilot’s access door by the handle
b. In a prominent location close to the middle of the instrument panel
c. In a prominent location anywhere on the outside of the fuselage
d. In a prominent location near the main entrance
6. Which State is responsible for issuing the registration mark of an aircraft?
a. The State of Manufacture
b. The State of Design
c. The State of Registration
d. The State of the Operator
7. The identity plate must be made of:

a. Any metal
b. Any material
c. No particular material is specified
d. Fire-proof metal
4 - ICAO AIRWORTHINESS
1. Is the State of Registration responsible for the continuing airworthiness of the aircraft?
a. No
b. Yes at all times
c. Only in the case of aircraft over 5 700 kgs
d. Only when required to do so by ICAO
2. Where is the validity of a C of A specified?

a. In the national AIP
b. In the Aircraft Flight Manual
c. In the Certificate of Registration (C of R)
d. In the C of A itself
3. When an ICAO Contracting State issues an aircraft with a C of A, do other Contracting States have to
recognise the C of A as valid?
a. Only if the aircraft is flying outside ICAO airspace
b. No
c. Yes
d. Only if it is flying within the airspace of the State of Registry
4. Information on aircraft placards is for:

a. Flight crew only
b. Ground crew only
c. Flight crew, ground crew and the general public
d. Both flight and ground crew
5. Safety and survival equipment must be:

a. Kept under the passenger seats
b. Inspected every week
c. Easily identifiable
d. Not be kept near aircraft emergency exits
6. In which document would you normally find the oil pressure limitations for your aircraft?
a. Operation Manual
b. Aircraft Placard
c. The Flight Manual or Pilot’s Operating Handbook
d. The Technical Log
7. Which ICAO Annex concerns itself with Airworthiness?

a. Annex 8
b. Annex 9
c. Annex 6
d. Annex 7
8. What is the validity of the C of A?

a. 1 year
b. According to the Rules and Regulations of the State of Registry
c. According to the Rules and Regulations of ICAO
d. 6 months
9. Which of the following is included in the C of A?

a. Empty weight C of G position
b. Aircraft Category
c. The Maximum Take-Off Mass
d. The name and address of the owner
5 - ICAO AIRSPACE DIVISION AND AIR TRAFFIC SERVICES
1. You are a private pilot but hold neither an instrument rating nor an IMC rating. How would you enter a CTR
which is Class A airspace?
a. Complete a flight plan prior to departure
b. Request a SVFR clearance to enter the Zone
c. Call 10 minutes prior to CTR penetration
d. You can enter the CTR as long as the conditions are VMC
2. In which class of airspace are both IFR and VFR flights permitted, all flights are provided with ATC, IFR
flights are separated from other IFR flights and receive traffic information concerning VFR flights while VFR flights
receive traffic information in respect of all other flights?
a. Class B
b. Class C
c. Class D
d. Class E
3. What is the Indicated Airspeed limit in Class C Airspace for VFR traffic?
a. 120 kts TAS below 10 000 feet
b. There is no specified speed limit
c. 250 kts IAS below FL 100
d. 120 kts
4. What airspace/s are considered “Controlled Airspace”?

a. A only
b. A, B, C and D only
c. A, B, C, D and E only
d. A, B, C, D, E and F only
5. What are the 3 types of Air Traffic Services?

a. Air Traffic Control Service (ATCS), Flight Information Service (FIS) and the Alerting Service
b. ATCS, FIS and Radar
c. ATCS, Advisory Service and Alerting Service
d. Alerting Service, Advisory Service and Radar
6. What is the definition of 'Alerting Service’?

a. A service provided by the air traffic services which provides search and rescue facilities
b. A service provided by the air traffic services in order to disseminate information about any aircraft in need of
assistance
c. A service provided by the air traffic services in order to notify appropriate organizations about aircraft in
need of search and rescue aid, and to assist such organizations, as required
d. A unit of the air traffic services established to coordinate search and rescue operations
7. An aircraft is known or believed to be the subject of Unlawful Interference (hi-jack). What phase of the
Alerting Service should be declared?
a. Emergency Phase
b. Uncertainty Phase
c. Alert Phase
d. Distress Phase
8. An aircraft has been cleared to land and fails to do so within 5 minutes of the estimated time of landing, and
communications have not been reestablished. What phase of the Alerting Service should be declared?
a. Emergency Phase
b. Alert Phase
c. Uncertainty Phase
d. Distress Phase
9. Which organisation is responsible for the coordination of Search and Rescue efforts within a State?
a. Flight Information Centre
b. Air Traffic Control Centre
c. Approach Control Centre
d. Rescue Coordination Centre
10. To which of the following is the Alerting Service available?

a. All aircraft in Class F airspace
b. Any aircraft known to the air traffic services
c. All aircraft in Class G airspace
d. To all aircraft more than 15 minutes late at the destination airfield
11. No communication has been received from an aircraft within 30 minutes after the time a communication
should have been received. What phase of the Alerting Service must be declared?
a. Emergency Phase
b. Uncertainty Phase
c. Alert Phase
d. Distress Phase
12. What is the standard width of an airway?

a. 10 nautical miles
b. 5 nautical miles
c. 8 nautical miles
d. 3 nautical miles
13. What is the boundary separating the Flight Information Region from the Upper Information Region?
a. The national aviation authority of the State concerned sets the boundary
b. FL250
c. 3000 feet
d. FL100
14. What is the difference between a Control Zone (CTR) and a Control Area (CTA)?
a. A CTR extends from a Flight Level (FL) to a FL whereas a CTA extends from an altitude to an altitude
b. A CTA extends from a FL to a FL whereas a CTR extends from an altitude to an altitude
c. A CTR extends from a FL to a FL whereas a CTA extends from the ground or water to an altitude
d. A CTR extends from the ground or water to an altitude or FL whereas a CTA extends from an altitude or FL
to a higher altitude or FL
15. What meteorological conditions must prevail in order for a flight to take place in accordance with the Visual
Flight Rules?
a. At least IMC
b. Clear of cloud and in sight of the surface
c. 5 km in-flight visibility, with 1500 metres horizontal and 1000 feet vertical separation from cloud
d. VMC appropriate to the Class of Airspace in which the aircraft is flying and appropriate to its vertical
position
16. What minimum level of air traffic service is provided in a Flight Information Region?
a. A Flight Information Service and an Alerting Service
b. ATC and Flight Information Service
c. ATC and Advisory Service
d. Advisory and Alerting Services
17. Where is a TMA most likely to be found?

a. At the confluence of airways or controlled routes and in the vicinity of one or more major airports
b. In the vicinity of an International Airport
c. When special routes are required for arrivals and departures
d. In the vicinity of Controlled Aerodromes
18. Which class of airspace provides IFR flights with an Air Traffic Advisory Service and all flights with a Flight
Information Service, if requested?
a. B
b. D
c. G
d. F
19. What may be the lowest point of the CTA according to ICAO regulations?
a. From any specified height above the ground or water
b. From a specified height above ground or water being not less than 700 feet
c. At least 1000 feet amsl
d. There is no such regulation
20. You are about to enter an Aerodrome Traffic Zone (ATZ) of an airfield at which you have received prior
permission to land. Immediately upon entering the ATZ you must report your:
a. Height and magnetic heading
b. Height and position
c. Altitude and magnetic heading
d. Flight Rules and magnetic heading
21. What is the lowest level of a CTA permitted by international agreement?

a. Not lower than 700 feet above the surface of the ground or water
b. Not lower than 1000 feet above the surface of the ground or water
c. Not lower than 1500 feet above the surface of the ground or water
d. Not lower than 500 feet above the surface of the ground or water
22. What is the Class Airspace in which both VFR and IFR traffic is controlled and in which IFR and SVFR
flights are separated from each other and receive information regarding VFR traffic, and in which VFR traffic
receives information regarding all other traffic?
a. A
b. E
c. C
d. D
23. What action may a Pilot-in-Command elect to take if he judges that an ATC clearance does not suit his
circumstances?
a. He should say nothing to the air traffic controller and proceed in the manner he judges to be most suitable
to his circumstances
b. He may request an amended clearance
c. He must accept the ATC clearance without question
d. He must inform the air traffic controller of his intentions and then proceed as he judges to be most suitable
to his circumstances
24. What are the lateral dimensions of a Control Zone?

a. 10 nautical miles in the direction from which approaches are made, measured from the centre of the
aerodrome or, where more than one aerodrome is covered, 10 nautical miles from the centre of the combined
aerodromes in the direction from which approaches are made
b. 5 nautical miles in the direction from which approaches are made, measured from the centre of the
c. 5 kilometres in the direction from which approaches are made, measured from the centre of the aerodrome
or, where more than one aerodrome is covered, 5 kilometres from the centre of the combined aerodromes in the
direction from which approaches are made
d. 5 nautical miles in the direction from which approaches are made, measured from the centre of the
25. A service provided by an Air Traffic Control Unit for all controlled flights arriving at or departing from an
aerodrome is called:
a. An Area Control Service
b. An Approach Control Service
c. A Flight Information Service
d. An Alerting Service
26. If the actual or forecast conditions give the visibility and cloud base as less than specified minimum weather
conditions and the distance from cloud is seen also to be less than specified minima, the prevailing weather
conditions are referred to as:
a. VMC
b. IMC
c. VFR
d. IFR
6 - ICAO FLIGHT PLANS AND CLEARANCES
1. During a Controlled Flight, your actual TAS is 120 kts however your flight planned TAS is 115 kts. Must you
inform ATSU?
a. Only if requested by ATC
b. Yes
c. No
d. Only if you are outside CAS
2. Is the PIC of an aircraft obliged to accept an ATC clearance?

a. Yes
b. No
c. Only if it is an IFR clearance
d. Only is it is to be a controlled flight
3. By when must you submit a Flight Plan prior to departure if you wish to be provided with an ATC service?
a. 30 minutes
b. It depends whether you intend to fly VFR or IFR
c. It depends on whether you will be flying in Controlled Air Space (CAS) or outside CAS
d. 60 minutes
4. What event closes a flight plan?

a. Landing at the destination aerodrome
b. Arriving overhead the destination aerodrome
c. The receipt of an Arrival Report
d. Being on short finals
5. You have flight planned to arrive over a Reporting Point at 1400Z. However, due to an unexpected tailwind,
you realize that you will arrive at 1355Z. Do you have to inform the relevant ATCU?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Only if you are outside Controlled Air Space
d. Only if you are conducting the flight under Special VFR
6. Do you have to submit a Flight Plan if you are crossing the London/Brest FIR boundary under VFR?
a. Yes
b. No
7. You are entering an advisory route (ADR) under IFR. Do you have to submit a Flight Plan?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Only if that part of the ADR is Controlled Air Space
d. Only if that part of the ADR is an ATS route
8. You have to cross an Airway. How soon prior to penetration must you file an in-fiight Flight Plan?
a. At least 5 minutes
b. At least 10 minutes
c. At least 15 minutes
d. There is no set time limit
9. Your take-off is delayed for an uncontrolled flight. At what point must you resubmit your Flight Plan?
a. 30 minutes in excess of Estimated Off-Blocks Time (EOBT)
b. 45 minutes in excess of EOBT
c. 60 minutes in excess of EOBT
d. 90 minutes in excess of EOBT
10. Must you enter your wake turbulence category in a Flight Plan?
a. Only if the aircraft is in the Heavy category
b. No
c. Only if the aircraft is in the Medium or Heavy categories
d. Yes
11. Do you have to send an in-flight Flight Plan to unexpectedly enter a CTR under SVFR?
a. Only if you are a Controlled Flight
b. Only if you are an Uncontrolled Flight
c. No
d. Yes
12. You are a Controlled VFR Flight landing at a private strip in a valley in Scotland. Your estimated landing
time is exactly that which you entered in the Flight Plan prior to departure. As you descend you call ATC to inform
them you are landing but receive no answer. What would be the correct course of action?
a. No further action is necessary as your ETA is accurate
b. Wait until your next take-off and, when airborne, inform ATC of the circumstances
c. Assume your radio has failed and have it tested as soon as possible after landing
d. Either climb and re-establish communications with ATC or telephone ATC as soon as possible (and within
30 minutes) after landing passing them your Arrival Report
13. What is one of the primary functions of an Air Traffic Clearance?

a. To agree to allow a flight to proceed
b. To ensure separation of aircraft
c. To acknowledge that the information of the flight details have been logged by ATC
d. To acknowledge that ATC is now responsible for the flight
14. How is an abbreviated Flight Plan normally submitted?

a. By e-mail or fax
b. Over the radio or by telephone
c. By filling out only specific parts of the Flight Plan form
d. In person
7 - ICAO AERONAUTICAL INFORMATION SERVICES
1. Contracting States are responsible for providing an Aeronautical Information Service for the operational
requirements of:
a. Flight Crew only
b. Operational staff only
c. Those involved in Flight Operations (including flight crew), flight planning, flight simulators and the ATSU
responsible for pre-flight information
d. All flight crew, ATC and Operations staff
2. What are the names of the 3 parts of an AIP?

a. AGA, AD and GEN
b. ENR, AGA and GEN
c. ENR, AD and AGA
d. GEN, ENR and AD
3. What kind of information is contained in a NOTAM?

a. Information of permanent changes only
b. Temporary and short-termed information only
c. Temporary changes of long duration which are made at short notice
d. Information of permanent changes, temporary and short-term information and temporary changes of long
duration which are made at short notice
4. What information is contained in a Pre-Flight Information Bulletin (PIB)?

a. NOTAMS and local operational information relevant to a particular aerodrome
b. Information of major changes (e.g. the introduction of a new airway)
c. Details of Danger, Restricted and Prohibited Areas within the UK
d. Information of general interest to pilots (e.g. information with regards to low level turbulence or altimeter
errors)
5. How is information of a purely explanatory or advisory nature published?

a. In a NOTAM
b. In an Aeronautical Information Circular
c. In an AIRAC
d. In an Pre-Flight Information Bulletin
8 - ICAO SEPARATION
1. A light aircraft is entering a runway from an intermediate point, following a heavy aircraft which is taking-off.
What is the minimum wake turbulence separation which must be applied?
a. 1 minute
b. 2 minutes
c. 3 minutes
d. 4 minutes
2. ICAO divides separation into three types. These are:

a. Lateral, Longitudinal and Vertical
b. Vertical, Longitudinal and Composite
c. Vertical, Lateral and Composite
d. Vertical, Horizontal and Composite
3. What is the normal minimum longitudinal radar separation between two aircraft following the same track?
a. 5 nautical miles
b. 5 minutes
c. 15 minutes
d. 10 nautical miles
4. Which of the following statements is true?

a. Procedural (non-radar) wake turbulence separation is measured in distance
b. Radar wake turbulence separation is measured in time
c. Radar separation is normally closer than procedural separation
d. Procedural separation is normally closer than radar separation
5. What is the normal minimum longitudinal non-radar separation between two aircraft following the same
track?
b. 15 minutes
c. 10 nautical miles
d. 10 minutes
6. What is the minimum lateral separation between two aircraft using the same VOR?
a. 15° at 15 nautical miles
b. 30° at 15 nautical miles
c. 45° at 15 nautical miles
d. 30° at 20 nautical miles
7. In which of the following circumstances is wake turbulence separation applied?

a. When operating below 700 feet, on finals
b. Whenever the following aircraft is at the same height as, or less than 1 000 feet above the leading aircraft
c. Whenever the following aircraft is at the same height as, or less than 1 000 feet below the leading aircraft
d. Whenever the following aircraft is at the same height as, or less than 500 feet below the leading aircraft
8. What is the Maximum Take-Off Mass of a medium category aircraft in terms of its Wake Turbulence
Category?
a. Between 136 000 kgs and 7 000 kgs inclusive
b. Below 136 000 kgs and above 7 000 kgs
c. Below 130 000 kgs and above 7 000 kgs
d. Below 136 000 kgs and above 8 000 kgs
9. If the pilot of a following aircraft is concerned about the separation he has been given by ATC, what action
should be taken?
a. None. ATC are solely responsible for separation between aircraft and have their own safety factors built in
to separation minima
b. The pilot should inform ATC about his concern and receive clearance to increase the separation between
the two aircraft
c. The pilot must increase the separation between the two aircraft. There is no need to inform ATC since the
pilot ultimately is responsible for the safety of the aircraft
d. The pilot must decrease the separation between the two aircraft. There is no need to inform ATC since the
pilot ultimately is responsible for the safety of the aircraft
10. What is the minimum wake turbulence separation between a light aircraft taking off behind a heavy aircraft
from the same point on the runway?
a. 5 minutes
b. 5 nautical miles
c. 2 minutes
d. 2 nautical miles
9 - AERODROMES
1. What colour are the markings on runways?

a. Yellow
b. Green
c. Yellow or white
d. White
2. What is the colour of the markings on taxiways?

a. Yellow
b. Green
c. Yellow or white
d. White
3. What is the definition of a "damp" runway?

a. The surface is soaked but there is no standing water
b. The runway has a shiny appearance due to the moisture
c. The surface shows a change of colour due to the moisture
d. The runway is affected by moisture but it is safe for landing operations
4. A hand-held signalling lamp is to be held in Control Towers. What colours must it be capable of signalling?
a. White or red only
b. White, red or green
c. Green or red only
d. White, red, green or blue
5. An aerodrome has no Signals Area. What does this imply?

a. It has no significance. Aerodromes may or may not have a Signals Area and the choice as to whether to
have one or not is that of the owner of the Aerodrome
b. Except in an emergency no non-radio aircraft will be accepted
c. The aerodrome can only be used by day
d. Only IFR traffic is accepted
6. What is the basic marking for a displaced threshold?

a. A yellow chevron marking at the end of the runway
b. Two white arrows at the end of the runway
c. A white transverse stripe
d. A single white arrow at the end of the runway
7. Which holding position is closest to the runway?

a. Pattern ‘A’
b. Pattern ‘B’
c. Pattern ‘C’
d. Can be any of the above depending on the length of the runway
8. What colours indicate mandatory markings and signs?

a. Yellow lettering on a black background
b. Black lettering on a yellow background
c. Red lettering on a white background
d. White lettering on a red background
9. An Aerodrome Beacon flashes in what colour(s)?

a. Green
b. White
c. Red
d. White or green and white
10. What colour are threshold lights?

a. Red
b. Green
c. Green threshold lights and red end lights
d. Red and green
11. What colour are taxiway side lights?

a. Red
b. Green
c. White
d. Blue
12. What colour are taxiway centreline lights?

a. Yellow
b. Green
c. Red
d. Blue
13. How is a Location Sign depicted?

a. Yellow lettering on a black background
b. Black lettering on a yellow background
c. Red lettering on a white background
d. White lettering on a red background
14. How is a closed runway indicated?

a. White cross
b. Yellow cross
c. With the use of barriers
d. The word “CLOSED” in white
15. How is a non-load bearing surface to the side of a taxiway depicted?

a. A white side stripe
b. Yellow side stripes
c. A yellow or white side stripe
d. A yellow and white side stripe
16. What is the Response Time for Fire and Rescue?

a. Not exceeding 1 minute
b. Not exceeding 2 minutes
c. Not exceeding 3 minutes
d. Not exceeding 5 minutes
17. An emergency vehicle responding to an emergency will display what colour flashing light?
a. White
b. Green
c. Yellow
d. Blue
18. An emergency vehicle responding to an emergency has priority over:

a. All vehicles
b. All aircraft only
c. All surface movements
d. It has no special priority
19. All aerodromes must have:

a. At least 2 windsocks
b. At least 1 windsock
c. At least 1 windsock and a Landing T
d. At least 2 windsocks and a Landing T
20. Runway approach lights are:

a. White and can be adjusted for brightness
b. White and cannot be adjusted for brightness
c. Red and can be adjusted
d. Red and cannot be adjusted
21. Runway side lights are:

a. Green
b. White
c. Blue
d. Red
ANNEX A - GENERAL LIGHTS AND SIGNALS
1. What is the meaning of a continuous red light directed from the tower to an aircraft in flight?
a. Return to the aerodrome.
b. Land immediately.
c. Do not land. Airfield unavailable for landing.
d. Give way to other aircraft and continue circling.
2. What is the meaning of a series of white flashes directed at an aircraft in flight or on the ground?
In Flight - On the Ground
a. Do not land, the airfieldis - Move clear of the landing area, unavailable for landing.
b. Give way to other aircraft. Continue circling. - Stop.
c. Land at this aerodrome after receiving a continuous green and await further instructions. - Return to
the starting point on the aerodrome.
d. Land immediately. - Clear the runway.
3. What ground sign do the survivors construct to indicate that they require medical assistance?
a X
b. N
c. Y
d. I (up arrow)
4. What ground sign do the survivors construct to indicate that they require assistance?
a X
b. N
c. Y
d. >
5. What is the meaning of a black ball hoisted on a signals mast or a white T with a white disc placed in the
middle of a cross-bar?
a. Glider flying in progress
b. Direction of take-off and landing may differ
c. Movement of aircraft and gliders confined to hard surface areas.
d. Landing prohibited.
6. What is the meaning of a flashing red light directed from the tower to an aircraft in flight?
a. Do not land. Aerodrome is unavailable for landing.
b. Give way to other aircraft and continue circling.
c. Land immediately
d. Return to aerodrome.
ANNEX B - THE JAR-FCL PPL LICENSE
1. Of the total hours requirement for the issue of a JAA PPL(A), how many may be flown in a FNPT or Flight
Simulator?
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 2
2. Which of the following statements applies to the carriage of passengers by the holder of a JAR-FCL PPL(A)
licence?
a. Any money you receive must be given to charity
b. You cannot carry passengers with a JAA PPL(A)
c. You must have made 3 take-offs and landings in the last 90 days
d. You must receive special clearance to carry passengers
3. Which of the following does a pilot require in addition to his licence in order to fly an aeroplane?
a. A Medical certificate issued in accordance with JAR-FCL 3
b. A valid type rating only
c. A radiotelephony licence
d. An MCC certificate
4. The flying experience that you record in your pilot’s log book must be only:
a. Actual airborne time
b. Flight time only (as defined as the total time from when the aircraft first moves for the purpose of taking off
until it finally comes to rest at the end of the flight)
c. Flight time, as defined in b, above, but also to include relevant simulator and flight navigation procedure
trainer (FNPT) hours
d. Flight time and taxi time only
5. In addition to your pilot licence, what else is required before you can exercise the privilege of the licence?
a. A valid medical certificate and a valid Class Rating or Type Rating
b. A valid medical certificate, a valid Class Rating or Type Rating and a valid Instrument Rating
c. A valid medical certificate and a valid Class Rating or Type Rating and recent experience consisting of 3
take-offs and landings in the past 90 days
d. A valid medical certificate and an MCC Certificate for dual operations
6. What does a student pilot require in order to fly a solo training sortie?
a. A Class or Type Rating
b. A certificate of proficiency signed by his instructor
c. To have attained 17 years of age
d. A valid medical certificate, be at least 16 years of age, and have the authorisation of a qualified flying
instructor.
7. The JAA document dealing with matters relating to the training for and issue of pilots’ licences for flying
aeroplanes is:
a. JAR OPS-3
b. JAR FCL-3
c. JAR FCL-2
d. JAR FCL-1
8. For how long is the Class Rating for a single-pilot, single-engine aircraft valid?
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. 5 years
9. A pilot gained his JAR-FCL PPL (A) on a single piston-engine, fixed tricycle-undercarriage aircraft, fitted
with a constant speed propeller. For which of the following types of aircraft would he be required to undergo
differences training?
a. Any aircraft of similar handling characteristics
b. A similar aircraft fitted with a Global Positioning Navigation System
c. A tail wheel aeroplane
d. A similar aircraft fitted with electrically operated flaps
10. You are the holder of a JAR-FCL PPL(A). If your optician tells you that you now need to use spectacles to
read, do you need to tell the Licensing Authority?
a. No
b. Yes, immediately
c. Yes, but only if you cannot read the instruments without the spectacles
d. Not if contact lenses solve your problem
11. As part of the flying experience a student pilot needs for the issue of a JAR-FCL PPL (A), he must
undertake a solo cross-country flight. At least one cross-country flight must exceed a stated minimum distance.
What is this distance?
a. 100 nm
b. 150 nm
c. 200 nm
d. 270 nm
12. For which of the following aircraft types would a pilot require a Type Rating?
a. An aeroplane with dual controls
b. A single-pilot aeroplane with a variable-pitch propeller
c. A single-pilot aeroplane fitted with a turbo-prop or gas-turbine engine
d. A touring motor glider
13. Can the Class Rating for a single-engine piston aeroplane (land) be revalidated by a proficiency check?
a. Yes, but the check must be completed within the 3 months prior to the expiry date of the current rating
b. No, the rating is experience dependent only
c. Yes, but there is also an experience requirement which must also be achieved
d. No
14. Can a student pilot ‘log’ all dual instructional time towards the 45 hours experience he needs to gain his
licence?
a. No, he can only log half the dual time
b. No, he cannot log any instruction hours, it must all be solo hours
c. Yes, provided he has attained the age of 14
d. Only if it is VMC time
15. For how long is a Class 2 Medical Certificate for a JAR-FCL PPL (A) valid for a pilot who is 34 years of
age?
a. 60 months
b. 24 months
c. 12 months
d. 6 months
16. One of the requirements permitting the retention of a current single-engine piston class rating for a JAR-
FCL PPL (A) holder is that, preceding the expiry of the rating, a pilot must fly:
a. 20 hours flight time in the relevant Class of aeroplane within the preceding 2 years
b. 4 hours as Pilot-in-Command within the preceding 12 months
c. 10 take-offs and 10 landings within the preceding 12 months
d. A training flight of at least 1 hour’s duration with a qualified Flying Instructor or a Class Rating Instructor
within the preceding 3 months
17. In order to exercise the privileges of a flying licence, the holder must hold a Medical Certificate issued in
accordance with the provisions of:
a. JAR-FCL 1
b. JAR-FCL 2
c. JAR-FCL 3
d. JAR-FCL 4
18. The definitive privileges of licences and ratings issued by the United Kingdom Civil Aviation Authority (UK
CAA) are contained in:
a. The appropriate UK CAA Safety Sense Leaflet
b. Schedule 8 of the Air Navigation Order.
c. The United Kingdom Aeronautical Information Publication
d. In the appropriate AIC.
19. If the holder of a JAR-FCL PPL (A) has discovered that he has a medical condition for which he needs
surgery, he should:
a. Consult an authorised medical authority as soon as possible
b. Continue to fly as normal but, not fly as pilot-in-command during the 24 hours preceding the surgery
c. Continue to fly as normal until admitted to hospital
d. Not fly until 6 months after the surgery has been performed
20. In order to be able to carry passengers, the holder of a JAR-FCL PPL (A) must have met the following
currency requirements:
a. 3 take-offs and 3 landings within the preceding 28 days
b. 3 take-offs and 3 landings within the preceding 90 days
c. 5 take-offs and 5 landings within the preceding 28 days
d. 5 take-offs and 5 landings within the preceding 90 days
21. The flying hours that the holder of a JAR-FCL licence enters in his pilot’s log book are defined as:
a. The time from lift-off to touch down
b. Airborne time only
c. The time from engine start to engine shutdown
d. The time from the aircraft’s first moving under its own power to its coming to rest at the end of the flight
22. What are the options open to the holder of a JAR-PCL PPL (A) for revalidating a single-pilot, single-engine
piston Class Rating?
a. Complete a proficiency check within 3 months preceding the expiry of the Class Rating, and also, within 12
months of its expiry, have completed 12 hours flying time, including 6 hours as pilot-incommand, with 12 take-offs
and landings, and to include a flight of at least one hour’s duration with a qualified flying instructor or class rating
instructor.
b. Complete a proficiency check within 12 months preceding the expiry of the Class Rating, or, within 24
months of its expiry, have completed 12 hours flying time, including 6 hours as pilot in command, with 12 take-
offs and landings, and to include a flight of at least one hour’s duration with a qualified flying instructor or class
rating instructor.
c. Complete a proficiency check within 3 months preceding the expiry of the Class Rating, or, within 12
months of its expiry, have completed 12 hours flying time, including 6 hours as pilot-in-command, with 12 take-
offs and landings, and to include a flight of at least one hour’s duration with a qualified flying instructor or class
rating instructor.
d. Complete a proficiency check within 3 months preceding the expiry of the Class Rating, and also, within 24
months of its expiry, have completed 12 hours flying time, including 5 hours as pilot-incommand, with 10 take-offs
and landings, and to include a flight of at least one hour’s duration with a qualified flying instructor.
23. The holder of a medical certificate issued in accordance with JAR-FCL 3 must inform the appropriate
National Aviation Authority, in writing, of any condition which affects his ability to act as a flight crew member if:
a. In the case of sickness, the condition makes him unfit to act as a flight crew member for 21 days or more
b. The condition will make him unfit to act as a flight crew member beyond the date of expiry of his medical
certificate
c. He is advised to do so by his flying instructor
d. A visit to a doctor has been necessary
24. The holder of a JAR-FCL pilot’s licence is entitled to act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft only if:
a. He holds at least a valid class rating for the aircraft he is to fly
b. He holds at least a valid medical rating
c. He also holds an Instrument Rating or Night Qualification for the aircraft he is to fly
d. He also holds a valid medical certificate for his licence and a valid class or type rating for the aircraft he is to
fly
25. The period of validity of a JAR-FCL PPL (A) is

a. 3 years
b. Life
c. 5 years
d. 10 years
26. For the purposes of obtaining a JAR-FCL PPL (A), flying hours accumulated towards the issue of the
licence must have been carried out in an aircraft:
a. Of the same type as that for which the basic licence is to be issued
b. Of the same class as that for which the basic licence is to be issued
c. Of the same performance category as that for which the basic licence is to be issued
d. With the same type of propeller as that for which the basic licence is to be issued
27. An injury which incapacitates the holder of a JAR-FCL pilot’s licence:

a. Renders the associated medical certificate invalid as soon as the National Aviation Authority is informed in
writing of the injury
b. Automatically renders invalid the associated medical certificate
c. Does not affect the validity of the medical certificate but the licence-holder must not fly as pilot while he
remains incapacitated
d. Will prevent a valid medical certificate from being revalidated
28. A pilot who does not hold a Flight Radiotelephony Operator’s Licence (FRTOL) may operate an aircraft’s
radio:
a. Provided he does not seek a full air traffic control service
b. Provided he remains clear of controlled airspace
c. If flying as a student pilot with the authorisation of a qualified flying instructor for the purposes of obtaining a
pilot’s licence
d. Provided he is accompanied by a qualified pilot who is an FRTOL holder
29. The minimum number of dual instructional hours to be completed by a candidate for a JAR-FCL PPL (A) is:
a. 25 hours
b. 45 hours
c. 10 hours
d. 30 hours
30. A JAR-FCL PPL (A) holder may:

a. Not fly in controlled airspace
b. Not operate as a pilot on a revenue-earning flight or flight for “valuable consideration”
c. Not operate above the transition level
d. Not fly in accordance with the Instrument Flight Rules
31. In order to transfer a JAR-FCL pilot's licence from the State of Licence Issue to another JAA member state
the licence holder must:
a. Be normally resident in the new State (for at least 185 days per year) or have taken up full-time
employment within that State
b. Have resided in the new State for at least 30 consecutr/e days
c. Reside in the new State for a minimum of 30 days annually.
d. Must have become a citizen of the new State
Who is responsible for separation in a non-controlled airspace?
the Pilot In Command
Air Traffic Service or Air Traffic Control
Air Traffic Control
Air Traffic Service
Which of the following is a non-controlled airspace?
TIZ.
TMA.
CTR.
CTA.
The … is a controlled airspace around the aerodrome that extends from ground level to a limited
CTR.
CTA.
TIZ.
TMA.
is an area enclosed by the state boundaries of the Republic of Hungary which extends from ground level to
the highest altitude available for air traffic.
Budapest FIR
Ferihegy CTR
Budapest TMA
Budapest CTA
Budapest TMA and Ferihegy CTR are ... aispaces.
C-class
D-class
G-class
F-class
In Budapest FIR G-class airspaces are gliding and aerobatic airspaces which are....
below 4000 feet.
below 4500 feet.
between 4000 feet AMSL and 9500 feet AMSL.
between 4500 feet AMSL and 9000 feet AMSL.
Which of the following are the airspaces in which entrance is only possible with filed flight plan?
C- and D-class airspaces.
F- and G-class airspaces.
C- and F-class airspaces.
C-, D- and F-class arispaces.
What is the minimum clearance related to clouds in a G-class airspace in VFR?
The flight must be conducted outside clouds, with constant visibility of the land or waters.
1500 m horizontally, 300 m vertically.
1000 feet horizontally , 1500 m vertically.
What is the minimum clearance related to clouds in an F-class airspace in VFR?
The flight must be conducted outside clouds, with constant visibility of the land or waters.
1000 láb horizontally, 1500 m vertically.
1500 láb horizontally, 300 láb vertically.
What is the lowest visibility allowed for flight in an F-class airspace in VFR?
8 km at FL100 and above, 5 km below FL100.
8 km.
5 km.
5 km, but if the speed of the airplane allows notice and avoidance of other traffic, obstacles or collision this
distance can be reduced to 1500m
What is the lowest visibility allowed for flight in an F-class airspace in VFR?
5 km, but if the speed of the airplane allows notice and avoidance of other traffic, obstacles or collision this
distance can be reduced to 1500m.
5 km
8 km.
8 km at FL100 and above, 5 km below FL100.
Excluding takeoffs and landings, VFR flights can not be performed above densely populated areas of cities
and groups of people residing outdoors, and circle with a radius of … and an altitude of … must be held using
the aircraft as the centre point to avoid the highest obstacle of the area.
600 m - 1000 feet
600 m - 300 feet
300 m - 1000 feet
300 m - 500 feet
Outside the densely populated areas of cities and where are no groups of people residing outdoors, exluding
takeoffs and landings, the minimal allowed height in VFR flight is ..., not including the flights requiring special
500 feet
500 m
300 feet
300 m
If an airplane is equipped with a Charlie-mode transponder, then …
its transponder must, in every case, remain in Charlie-mode, unless instructed otherwise by ATS
in every case the transponder must be kept in-Charlie mode.
its transponder can be set to Alpha and Charlie-modes also.
In case of emergency, if the aircraft is equipped with a transponder, the .... code must be set.
7700
7600
7500
7000
When loss of radio contact, if the aircraft is equipped with a transponder, the .... code must be set.
7600
7700
7500
7000
In case of unlawful interference, if the aircraft is equipped with a transponder, the .... code must be set.
7500
7700
7600
7000
If the ATS has not instructed the pilot to set special ident, then in an uncontrolled airspace the .... code must
7000
7600
7500
7700
What is transition altitude in Budapest FIR?
QNH 9000 feet
QNH 9500 feet
FL 100
FL 100, FL 110 or FL 120
What is transition level in Budapest FIR?
FL 100, FL 110 or FL 120
QNH 9000 feet
QNH 9500 feet
FL 100
What does affect the position of transition level?
QNH
altimeter setting
actual traffic
transition altitude
Two powered aircrafts are on convergent tracks on the same altitude
right hand rule must be obeyed. Towing is exception, it always have priority.
Both of them should turn right to avoid
Both of them should turn left to avoid
Two powered aircrafts are on same altitude located face to face.

Both of them should turn right to avoid
Both of them should turn left to avoid
right hand rule must be obeyed. Towing is exception, it always have priority.
Which statement is true?

The aircraft which is already on a traffic pattern has priority against joining aircraft
The aircraft which is already on a traffic pattern has no priority against joining aircraft, should leave it to join
The lighter aircraft which is already on a traffic pattern has no priority against a heavier joining aircraft,
should leave it to join
The non-powered aircraft should give priority to all heavier and motored aircraft
Entry into …. Can only be made through designated entry points
CTR
TMA
CTR and TMA
… is the situation, that the aircraft is in a serious and direct threat and need immediate assistance. In such a
situation three times in a row ... expression should be transmitted on the radio.
Emergency - MAYDAY
Urgency - MAYDAY
Urgency - PAN PAN
Emergency - PAN PAN
In Budapest FIR at summer local time 1600. What is the time in UTC?
1400
1500
1700
1800
In Budapest FIR, filing a flight plan should be made no sooner than …. And no later than …. Before takeoff.
3 hours - 30 minutes
24 hours - 10 minutes
10 hours - 3 hours
24 hours - 1 hour
When filing a flight plan, what should be written into "type of flight" for a general purpose VFR flight?
G
A
V
N
When filing a flight plan, what should be written into "wake turbulence" for an aircraft with lower takeoff
weight than 7000 kg?
L
H
M
S
When filing a flight plan, what should be written into "cruise speed" for 100kts TAS ?
N0100
K0100
C0100
T0100
When filing a flight plan, what should be written into "level" for the altitude of 4500 feet ?
A045
F045
S045
M045
When filing a flight plan, the …. Rescue and emergency equipments should be marked with X.
not available
available
The one whose right is make all the decisions while the flight is on is the
Commander
Co-pilot
Chief pilot
Operator
Minimum height for VFR flight over non-populated areas?
150 m
300 m
150 feet
300 feet
Minimum height for VFR flight over a group of animals or mankinds?
300m over the highest obstacle in 600 m radius sphere centered on the aircraft, or the height from the
glideout is still possible, whichever is higher
300 feet over the highest obstacle in 600 feet radius sphere centered on the aircraft, or the height, from the
glideout is still possible, whichever is higher
300m over the highest obstacle in 600 m radius sphere centered on the aircraft
300 feet over the highest obstacle in 600 feet radius sphere centered on the aircraft
Where QNE to be set on the altitude indicator?
On the transition level or higher levels.
While readings measured from mean sea level is required
While height readings are required
On the airport, to set altimeter to zero.
When the squawk Charlie to be set?
If available and working perfectly
If the aircraft is equipped with an Alpha mode transponder
If the aircraft is equipped with a Sierra mode transponder
While taxiing
Minimum visibility for VFR flights in Hungary according to ICAO annexes:
In "C" and "D" airspaces over FL100 at least 8 km, below 5 km, in "F" and "G" airspaces 5 km
In "C" and "D" airspaces over FL100 at least 8000 feet, below 5 km, in "F" and "G" airspaces 5 feet
In "C" and "D" airspaces over FL100 at least 8 km, below 5000 feet, in "F" and "G" airspaces 5 km
In "C" and "D" airspaces over FL150 at least 8 km, below 4 km, in "F" and "G" airspaces 5 km
Airworthiness maintenance for civil aircraft between two CAA inspection fall under scope of responsibility of
the aircraft operator.
the aircraft owner.
the Aviation Authority.
the organisation responsible for maintenance.
Which of the following documents have to be kept on board the aeroplane at all times?
Pilot's Operating Handbook.
Maintenance schedule.
Service bulletins.
Log books.
What do you do if any document to be kept on board of the aeroplane is missing?
Take-off should be postponed, and the irregularity should be reported to aeroplane operator.
Take-off can be executed with special permission of the operator.
Take-off can be executed with special permission of the owner.
Take-off can be executed with special permission from the chief pilot.
Before take-off, can the pilot check whether periodic maintenance has been carried out on the aeroplane?
The pilot must check it.
Yes, when authorised by the operator.
No, it is the operator's task.
No, it is the mechanic's task.
What repairs and maintenance operations can a pilot carry out on an aeroplane?
Maintenance operations and repairs for which the operator has authorised the pilot.
No repairs or maintenance can be carried out by the pilot.
Minor repairs or maintenance can be carried out by the pilot.
Repairs and maintenance operations depend on pilot ratings.
Which document proves that all scheduled maintenance operations have been completed on the aeroplane?
Certificate of Operation.
The log book.
Book of registration.
Certificate of Airworthiness.
Hungarian civil aircraft shall bear the following on surfaces set forth by law:
insignia and registration.
national insignia.
aircraft registration.
The national insignia of Hungarian civil aircraft are ...

red-white-green colour markings and HA characters.
red-white-green colour markings.
HA characters.
Characters HA followed by alphanumeric characters.
The registration markings of Hungarian civil aircraft are ...
Characters HA followed by alphanumeric characters.
red-white-green colour markings and HA characters.
HA characters.
Characters HA followed by a group of alphanumeric characters.
What would you do if prior to take-off you noticed that aircraft national insignia or registration is damaged
and incomplete?
Take-off should be postponed, and the irregularity should be reported to the aeroplane operator.
The pilot should not worry about it, because it should be taken care of by the operator.
International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) establishes standards and recommended practices for ...
contracting states.
air traffic services.
aviation authorities.
member states.
Contracting states shall acknowledge that each state is eligible for ... in the airspace above its territory.
complete and exclusive sovereignty
free and unlimited flying
right to dispose
priority in air traffic.
Standards in the Annexes to the Chicago Convention ...
are compulsory for contracting states which have not reported discrepancies to the Council.
guidelines and tools for contracting states for the establishment of their own regulations.
are obligations for all member states.
are obligatory for all airlines participating in international air traffic.
What do the Annexes to the Convention on International Civil Aviation, also known as the Chicago
Convention, contain?
Standards and recommended practices.
Recommendations.
International Rules.
International Standards.
One of ICAO's main objectives is to ...
facilitate flight safety in international air traffic.
facilitate the establishment of new international airlines.
allow airlines to put jet aircraft into service.
approve air fares used by international airlines.
ICAO member states should ...
report all standard discrepancies to the Council.
ask permission from the Council to start international flights.
report all changes in national regulations to the ICAO.
report pilot licences issued by them to the president of the council.
Aircraft landing and service fees are set by .... and approved by the ...
aerodrome owner - Aviation Authority
aerodrome owner - Minister of Finance
aerodrome operator - Tax Office
aerodrome owner - ICAO
Which international organisation does ICAO enter discussions about measures preventing the transfer of
contagious diseases via air traffic?
WHO.
ILO.
ITU.
WMO.
Regulations on aircraft registration are listed in ICAO ...
Annex 7
Annex 5
Annex 6
Annex 8
Aircraft registration or re-registration in contracting states is conducted in accordance with ....
rules of the country in question
ICAO rules
JAA rules
as requested by the operator
Which ICAO Annex details assistance and procedures for aircraft in distress or danger?.
Annex 11 and 12
Annex 8
Annex 9
Annex 10
Which ICAO Annex details standards and recommended practices of design and operation of international
aerodromes?
Annex 14
Annex 12
Annex 13
Annex 15
Aircraft participating in air traffic shall be provided with an airworthiness certificate issued and validated by
the state of registration.
ICAO
JAA
EASA
Which ICAO Annex contains rules on airwothiness certificate?
Annex 8
Annex 6
Annex 10
Annex 12
... ... is applicable to offences against penal law and to any acts jeopardising the safety of persons or
property on board civilian aircraft while in-flight and engaged in international air navigation.
Tokyo Convention – 1963
Hague Convention – 1970
Montreal Convention – 1971
Rome Convention – 1952
... ... is applicable to the suppression of unlawful acts against the safety of civil aviation.
... ... is applicable to damage caused by foreign aircraft to third parties on the surface.
... ... applicable to the suppression of unlawful seizure of aircraft
An AIS publication which contains administrative information on domestic and international flights is ..
AIC.
AIP.
NOTAM.
AIRAC.
A publication issued by or with the authority of a state and containing aeronautical information of a lasting
character essential to air navigation .is called ...
AIP.
AIC.
NOTAM.
AIRAC.
Aviation accidents and serious incidents in Hungary are investigated by ...
Transportation Safety Bureau of Hungary
Civil Aviation Department of National Transport Authority (NTA)
the police
EASA
Aviation authority taks of the first degree are accomplished in Hungary by ...
Civil Aviation Department of National Transport Authority (NTA)
Central Office of the National Transport Authority
Military Aviation Office of the Ministry of Defence.
the Air Support Division
In Hungary, a civilian motor plane can take off and land
only at aerodromes or non-public take--off and landing site, except for emergency landings and when urgent
assistance is needed in the case of accidents.
only at aerodromes.
at an aerodrome, non-public take-off and landing site or outside city limits.
at an aerodrome, non-public take-off and landing site, outside city limits or at own property.
At a public aerodrome in Hungary ...
any civilian aircraft can take-off and land.
civilian aircraft can only take-off and land with the permission of the owner or the operator.
civilian aircraft can only take-off and land with the permission of the owner or the operator – except for
aircraft in emergency situation.
a civilian aircraft can only land when in an emergency situation.
The Hungarian airspace reaches as high as ... over the area outlined by the state border.
FL660
the Karman line
the altitude available for air transportation
the stratopause
... for flight executed by state aircraft which require protection from other aircraft not participating in the
Temporary Segregated Area shall be assigned
Dangerous airspace shall be assigned
Prohibited airspace shall be assigned
Restricted airspace shall be assigned
In temporarily restricted airspaces ...
there is always military flight control service provided.
rules which apply to a shared airspace shall be used.
there is always flight information service provided.
civilian air traffic is always prohibited.
In restricted airspaces ...
rules which apply to a shared airspace shall be used.
there is always flight information service provided.
there is always military flight control service provided.
civilian air traffic is always prohibited.
Entry into restricted airspace is ...
possible after the Aviation Authority has given preliminary permission.
allowed only for aircraft in emergency.
possible after an ATS unit has given preliminary permission.
always forbidden for civil aircraft.
... is a controlled airspace with a specified lower level.
CTA.
TIZ.
CTR.
FIR.
In Budapest FIR TIZ zones are ... airspaces.
Class F
Class C
Class C or D airspaces
Class G or F
... lower limit is the lower limit of Class C controlled airspace, upper limit is FL660, lateral limits are country
Budapest CTA
Budapest TMA
Budapest FIR
Ferihegy CTR
In Budapest FIR ...
Class C and D airspaces are controlled.
only Class C airspace is controlled.
only Class D airspace is controlled.
Class C-, D-and F airspaces are controlled.
In Budapest FIR Class F airspaces are non-controlled airspaces ... and TIZs.
between 4,000 feet AMSL and 9,500 feet AMSL
below 4,000 feet
below 4,500 feet
between 4,500 feet AMSL and 9,000 feet AMSL
In order to avoid collisions, air traffic advisory services and flight information services ensure the same safety
level and have the same level of responsibility as air traffic control service.
False.
True.
In harmony with visual flight rules, what is the minimum allowable distance from clouds in Class C and D
1,500 m horizontally, 300 m vertically.
1,500 feet horizontally, 300 feet vertically.
1,000 feet horizontally, 1500 m vertically.
Pilots must fly outside the clouds, having the ground or water surface continuously in sight.
What is the minimum visibility of VMC operations in Class D and C airspaces?
8 km at FL100 or above, 5 km below FL100.
8 km.
5 km.
5 km, however, if the flight is carried out at a speed which ensures monitoring and locating traffic and
obstacles in time and enables proper collision avoidance, 1,500 meters.
An aeroplane flying in Budapest FIR at 3,500 feet ...
shall fly QNH and with altitude separation.
shall fly QNH without altitude separation.
shall fly QNE and with altitude separation.
shall fly QNE without altitude separation.
In what altitude range would you fly in Budapest FIR by QNH and altitude separation?
Between QNH 3,500 and QNH 9,000.
Up to what altitude do you have fly at separated altitudes in Budapest FIR?
Up to FL660.
Up to QNH 3,500 feet.
In Budapest FIR ... QNH 9000 feet.
transition altitude
Transition layer
Transition level
In the case of overtaking aircraft ...

the aircraft being overtaken has the right to remain on an unchanged course, while the overtaking aircraft
has to divert to the right to ensure clear pass for the other aircraft.
each aircraft that is being overtaken has the right-of-way and each pilot of an overtaking aircraft shall alter
course to the right to pass well clear.
the aircraft being overtaken has the right to remain on an unchanged course, while the overtaking aircraft
has to divert to the left to ensure clear pass for the other aircraft.
each aircraft that is being overtaken has the right-of-way and each pilot of an overtaking aircraft shall alter
course to the left to pass well clear.
When two or more heavier-than-air aircraft are approaching an aerodrome for the purpose of landing ...
aircraft at the greater height shall give way to aircraft at the lesser height.
the aircraft that has the other on its right shall give way shall give way.
the aircraft that has the other on its left shall give way shall give way.
the aircraft with a lower MTOW shall give way to the aircraft with the higher MTOW.
Which statement is false?
Non-powered aircraft shall give way to all heavier than air aircraft whose engine is operating.
An aircraft in flight, or operating on the ground or water, shall give way to other aircraft landing or on final
approach to land.
Aircraft taxiing on the ground shall give way to other aircraft in take-off or landing.
Should a pilot become aware that an other aircraft is making an emergency landing, s/he must give way to
If on the aerodrome operation area two aircraft are approaching head on, or nearly so ...
both aircraft shall stop, wherever it is possible divert to the right while maintaining the necessary lateral
aircraft should avoid in the most appropriate and handy direction.
aircraft with the lower MTOW shall give way to the one with higher MTOW.
the aircraft seeing the other on the right shall give way.
If on the aerodrome operation area two aircraft are approaching head on ...
the aircraft seeing the other on the right shall give way.
aircraft should avoid in the most appropriate and handy direction.
aircraft with the lower MTOW shall give way to the one with higher MTOW.
both aircraft shall stop, wherever it is possible divert to the right while maintaining the necessary lateral
On the aerodrome movement area ...
the aircraft being overtaken has the right of way, and the overtaking aircraft shall keep adequate lateral
separation from the other plane.
moving aircraft can only overtake parking aircraft.
moving aircraft cannot overtake each other.
the aircraft being overtaken shall stop and give way to the overtaking aircraft, however, the overtaking
aircraft shall keep adequate lateral separation from the other plane.
Which of the following would you not inform the AFIS unit about?
Engine start intention.
Planned route after take-off.
Taxi intention for take-off.
Taxi intention to runway.
You can only enter ... if you plan to land at Ferihegy (Liszt Ferenc International Airport) or you have a special
permission.
final approach area designated in Ferihegy CTR
Ferihegy CTR
Budapest TMA
Ferihegy CTR and Budapest TMA
You see a white diagonal cross painted after the threshold on the runway. What does it mean?
The runway cannot be used for taxiing, landing or taking off.
Landing should be executed on the diagonal cross.
The aeroplane should touch down after the diagonal cross.
This is the aerodrome reference point.
If you see two arrows in the centreline pointing to the runway heading before a line of even number,
adjacent, uniformly-spaced, white-painted threshold markings, what does it mean?
Permanently displaced threshold.
Temporarily displaced threshold.
It is the indication of runway heading.
Touch down zone.
If you see two diagonal crosses in the centreline before a line of even number, adjacent, uniformly-spaced,
white-painted threshold markings, what does it mean?
Permanently displaced threshold. The area before the threshold cannot be used at all.
The runway cannot be used for taxiing, landing or taking off.
Temporarily displaced threshold.
Touch down zone.
What colour are taxiway surface signs?
Yellow.
White.
Green.
Red.
What colour are runway surface signs?
White.
Green.
Yellow.
Red.
What do 2 continuous and 2 dashed lines crossing the taxiway mean?
Holding point before the runway.
Marking for ground crew vehicles.
Intermediate holding position.
Intersection is next.
What does a dashed line crossing the taxiway mean?
Intermediate holding position.
Warning sign for ground crew vehicles.
Holding point before the runway.
Intersection is next.
Taxiing should be carried out ...
on the centreline.
to the left from the centreline painted on the taxiway, in order to ensure safe passage for opposing traffic.
to the right from the centreline painted on the taxiway, in order to ensure safe passage for opposing traffic.
You see a sign next to the taxiway. It has a letter "A" in black background and a letter "C" in yellow
background, as well as an arrow pointing to the right, What does it mean?
"A" denotes the location, the yellow direction indicator tells you which way you will find taxiway "C".
"A" denotes the location, the yellow sign tells which is the compulsory direction of traffic.
Going straight forward next is taxiway "A", to the right taxiway "C".
Going straight forward no entry to taxiway "A", you must turn right onto taxiway "C".
A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area indicates that
the aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider flights are being performed.
landing is permanently prohibited.
aircraft should use the runway only for taking off and landing, and taxiways only for taxiing.
only take-offs and landings should be executed on the runway, other manoeuvres do not necessarily have to
be executed on the runways or taxiways.
A horizontal red panel with one yellow diagonal means that ...
special conditions need to be observed when approaching or landing on the airfield due to poor surface
conditions or other reasons.
landing is permanently prohibited.
aircraft should use the runway only for taking off and landing, and taxiways only for taxiing.
only take-offs and landings should be executed on the runway, other manoeuvres do not necessarily have to
be executed on the runways or taxiways.
In the case radio communication is lost, how would you interpret a flashing red sign given from the control
The airfield is unsafe, do not land!
Landing command.
Civilian airport.
Military airport.
In the case radio communication is lost, how would you interpret a continuous red sign given from the
Give way to other aircraft, and continue circling.
Landing command.
Disregard all instruction that have been given so far, do not land.
What does a flare (exploding red and green or sparkling stars) shot in 10 sec intervals indicate?
The aircraft is in restricted, prohibited or dangerous airspace or proceeding toward such space.
Give way to other aircraft, and continue circling.
Disregard all instruction that have been given so far, do not land.
When do you have to switch on your navigation lights?
From official sunset until sunrise.
Regardless of night or day, navigation lights should be turned on before engine start and switched off after
engine stop.
Regardless of night or day, nav lights should be turned on when taxiing onto the runway, and switched off
when leaving the runway.
When the pilot is instructed to do so by the air traffic controller.
When do you have to switch on the beacon (anti-collision light)?
Regardless of night or day, navigation lights should be turned on before engine start and switched off after
engine stop.
From official sunset until sunrise.
Regardless of night or day, navigation lights should be turned on when taxiing onto the runway, and switched
off when leaving the runway.
When the pilot is instructed to do so by the air traffic controller.
What does it mean when the intercepting aircraft is making a slow level turn to the left?
Follow me
You may proceed.
Acknowledgement.
An intercepting aircraft makes a sudden 90° or higher climbing turn. What does it mean?
You may proceed.
Acknowledgement.
Follow me
Survivors of an accident should form what letter on the ground for SAR teams if they need medical
Letter X.
Letter V.
Letter N.
Letter Y.
In Budapest FIR during winter time UTC 1100 is
12 LT.
9 LT.
10 LT.
13 LT.
In Budapest FIR, how long before the estimated time of entry into controlled airspace do you have to file an
10 minutes
3 minutes
30 minutes
1 hour
"DOF" should be written in the flight plan if ...
date of departure differs from the date when the plan is filed.
aircraft registration differs from the one stated earlier.
departure aerodrome was earlier indicated with "ZZZZ".
destination aerodrome was earlier indicated with "ZZZZ".
Abbreviation "RMK" should be written into which field?
"Remarks"
"Other information"
"Space reserved for additional requirements"
AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
1 - AIRFRAMES
1. Which of the following correctly describes a semi-monocoque or stressed skin structure?

a. Containing no openings, but having internal structural members, known as longerons, running lengthwise
joining the frames together
b. Containing openings which are reinforced to maintain the integrity of the load bearing skin
c. Containing a load bearing structure that transmits loads proportionately to the load bearing skin
d. Containing no openings and no internal support structure, all loads being carried by the skin
2. A fixed trim tab should:

a. Never be adjusted
b. Be adjusted on the ground by an aircraft technician, to correct permanent out-of-trim conditions
c. Be adjusted to achieve laterally level flight
d. Only be adjusted if the aircraft pitch trim mechanism is found to be incapable of sufficient movement to trim
the aircraft longitudinally
3. Which stabilising surface provides directional stability?

a. The fin
b. The rudder
c. The rudder trim tab
d. The stabilator
4. Movement about an aircraft’s vertical (normal) axis is known as:

a. Side slipping
b. Roll
c. Yaw
d. Pitch
5. The purpose of a control surface mass balance is to:

a. Balance the extra mass of the trim tab on the leading edge
b. Balance the extra mass of the spring tab
c. Make the control easier to move
d. Prevent “flutter” at higher speeds
6. The tendency for control surfaces to flutter at high speed can be avoided by:
a. Adjusting servo tabs on the trailing edge
b. Fitting a mass balance forward of the leading edge of the control surface
c. Using balance tabs on the leading edge
d. Fitting spring tabs to the trailing edge
7. Ailerons are control surfaces which control an aircraft in:

a. Roll
b. Pitch
c. Yaw
d. Stall
8. The elevator is a control surface which controls an aircraft in:

a. Roll
b. Pitch
c. Yaw
d. Stall
9. The rudder is a control surface which controls an aircraft in:

a. Roll
b. Pitch
c. Yaw
d. Stall
10. The most common type of modern light aircraft fuselage construction is:
a. Monocoque
b. Truss or framework construction
c. Wood and canvas
d. Semi monocoque / stressed skin
11. Increased lift at lower airspeeds is achieved by deploying:

a. The elevator
b. The trailing edge flaps
c. The rudder
d. The aileron
12. Rotation of the aircraft about its lateral axis is called:

a. Side slipping
b. Roll
c. Yaw
d. Pitch
13. Rotation of the aircraft about its longitudinal axis is known as:
a. Side slipping
b. Roll
c. Yaw
d. Pitch
14. A flying control lock:

a. Locks controls in flight to neutralise aerodynamic loads and ease the physical load on the pilot
b. Locks the trim tabs once straight and level flight is established
c. Locks controls on the ground to prevent damage in windy conditions.
d. Locks controls on the ground to prevent the pilot damaging them while manoeuvring the aircraft
15. If a fire occurs in a wheel and tyre assembly and immediate action is required to extinguish it. the safest
extinguishant to use is:
a. Dry powder
b. Carbon dioxide (CO2)
c. Bromotrifluoromethane (BTF)
d. Water acid
16. A BCF fire extinguisher that is used in an enclosed cockpit:

a. Gives off highly toxic fumes and must never be used.
b. Is quite safe to use provided the cockpit is subsequently ventilated
c. May not extinguish wood and fabric fires and may not be suitable for all aircraft
d. May be refilled with Carbon Dioxide (C02) and refitted to the aircraft
2 - LANDING GEAR, TYRES AND BRAKES
1. Tyre creep:
a. Can be prevented by painting lines on the tyre and wheel
b. Refers to the movement of an aircraft against the brakes
c. Can be recognized by the misalignment of markings painted on the tyre and the wheel
d. Can be prevented with glue
2. Awl vents in an aircraft tyre:

a. Prevent damage to the tyre, which might be caused at high altitude because of pressure trapped between
the tyre plies
b. Enable tyre creep to be detected
c. Assist in balancing the wheel assembly
d. Prevent tyre slippage
3. The principal reason why light training aircraft have fixed undercarriages is that:
a. Training aircraft need to manoeuvre on the ground
b. The reduced performance caused by the additional drag of a fixed undercarriage is offset by its simplicity,
low cost and easy maintenance
c. Training aircraft need to be supported at a convenient height
d. Training aircraft need to ensure that kinetic energy on landing is absorbed
4. Tyre creep may be identified by:

a. Two yellow diametrically opposed arrows painted on the tyre sidewalls
b. A tyre pressure check
c. Alignment marks painted on the tyre sidewall and wheel flange
d. Two white blocks painted on the wheel flange
5. If a fire occurs in a wheel and tyre assembly and immediate action is required to extinguish it, the safest
extinguishant to use is:
a. Dry powder
b. Carbon dioxide (C02)
c. Bromotrifluoromethane (BTF)
d. Water acid
6. Most nose wheel assemblies on modern light aircraft consist of:

a. Oleo-pneumatic shock-absorber struts
b. Spring steel struts
c. Spring coil struts
d. Compressed rubber struts
7. On a light aircraft fitted with a mechanically-steered nose wheel, steering on the ground is normally effected
by:
a. Cables operated from the aileron control wheel
b. Use of the differential braking technique, only
c. Hydraulic jacks which allow self-centreing
d. Control rods/cables operated by the rudder pedals
8. Aquaplaning speed:
a. Increases as the depth of tread on the tyres reduces
b. Can be calculated, in knots, by multiplying the square root of the tyre pressure in PSI by nine
c. Increases as the depth of water on the ground increases
d. Is measured in miles per hour
9. The ‘Ply Rating’ of a tyre:

a. Indicates the number of rayon or nylon cords
b. Shows how many breaker strips are embedded in the tyre
c. Has nothing to do with the strength of the tyre
d. Is an index of the strength of the tyre
3 - ENGINES GENERAL
1. I na piston engine aircraft the crankshaft:

a. Converts reciprocating movement into rotary motion
b. Controls the clearance of the valves
c. Converts rotary motion into reciprocating movement
d. Rotates at half the speed of the camshaft
2. During one complete cycle of a four stroke internal combustion engine how many times will each valve
open and close?
a. Four times
b. Twice
c. Three times
d. Once
3. If the crankshaft rotates twice in a piston engine, the camshaft rotates:

a. Once, because the camshaft operates at 50% of the engine speed
b. Twice, because the camshaft operates at twice engine speed
c. Four times, because the camshaft operates at twice engine speed
d. Once, because the camshaft operates at twice engine speed
4. In one complete Otto cycle, each piston moves:

a. Up once and down once
b. Up once and down twice
c. Up four times and down four times
d. Up twice and down twice
5. At sea level, the power developed by a four-stroke piston engine:

a. Decreases proportional to RPM.
b. Increases along with RPM
c. Remains constant to RPM
d. Is proportional to the volume of mixture in the cylinder
6. The power output of an internal combustion engine can be increased by:

a. Decreasing the area of the cylinder
b. Decreasing the length of the stroke
c. Increasing the engine RPM
d. Increasing the size of the fuel tank
7. The correct working cycle of a four stroke engine is:

a. exhaust, power, induction, compression
b. induction, compression, power, exhaust
c. induction, power, compression, exhaust
d. exhaust, induction, power, compression
8. The temperature of the gases within the cylinder of a four stroke engine during the power stroke, after
completion of combustion:
a. Decrease
b. Increase
c. Follow Charles’s Law
d. Remain constant
9. Engine compression ratio is the ratio of the:

a. Swept volume to the clearance volume
b. Clearance volume to the swept volume
c. Swept volume to the total volume
d. Total volume to the clearance volume
3A - AERO DIESEL ENGINES
1. The purpose of the glow plug in the cylinder of a diesel engine is to:
a. Heat up the diesel fuel in the fuel tank in order to aid compression-ignition on starting
b. Raise the temperature of the air in the cylinder in order to aid compression-ignition on starting
c. To warm the air in the induction manifold in order to aid compression-ignition on starting
d. To ignite the diesel fuel in the cylinder.
2. The principle of operation of a diesel engine is that:

a. The piston compresses the air in the cylinder causing the temperature of the air to rise to a level high
enough to ignite the air-fuel gas as diesel fuel injected into the cylinder mixes with the compressed air
b. The diesel fuel is injected into the cylinder and the piston compresses the air-fuel mixture in the causing the
temperature of the mixture to rise to a point where ignition occurs
c. The piston compresses the air in the cylinder and the diesel fuel is ignited by the glow plug as it is injected
into the engine
d. The mixture of air and diesel fuel is drawn into the cylinder on the induction stroke, compressed on the
compression stroke and the mixture is ignited by the glow plug just before Top Dead Centre
3. The compression ratio of a diesel engine can be as high as:

a. 45:1
b. 5:1
c. 8:1
d. 25:1
4. The advantages of diesel engines over petrol (gasoline) engines are:

a. Diesel fuel is cheaper than gasoline
b. Fuel consumption is lower
c. Diesel engines are more durable
d. All of the above
5. Which of the following fuel is used to power aircraft diesel engines:

a. AVGAS
b. MOGAS
c. JetAI
d. Paraffin
4 - ENGINE COOLING
1. Which of the following actions would help to improve engine cooling during the climb in an aircraft fitted with
an air cooled engine?
a. Leaning the air/fuel mixture
b. Closing the cowl flaps
c. Increasing power and reducing speed
d. Decreasing power and increasing speed
2. Which of the following design features would not increase the effectiveness of the air-cooling of an aircraft
piston engine?
a. The fitting of baffles and directional air ducts
b. “Finning” the cylinders
c. Manufacturing major engine components using low conductivity materials
d. Fitting cowl flaps and gills
5 - ENGINE LUBRICATION
1. By what activation method does the valve which allows oil to either flow through or by-pass a serviceable
engine oil cooler work?
a. Temperature activated
b. Pressure activated
c. Manually activated
d. Electrically activated
2. Excessive oil pressure can be resolved by using:
a. An oil pressure relief valve
b. A thermal cut-out
c. A filter by-pass valve
d. An oil tank overflow
3. The prevention of excessive oil pressure in an aircraft engine is assured by:

a. Ensuring that the engine does not exceed the red-line RPM value.
b. The engine’s high capacity pressure pump.
c. The engine’s oil pressure relief valve.
d. The engine’s filter by-pass valve.
4. Where is the sensor of the engine oil temperature gauge located?

a. Within the exhaust sections of the engine
b. Before the oil cooler
c. After passing through the oil cooler, but before reaching the hot sections of the engine
d. In the same position as the pressure sensor for the oil pressure gauge
5. The scavenge pump:

a. Is of a similar design as the pressure pump but has a smaller capacity
b. Is located at the exit of the oil cooler
c. Has a fine mesh filter at its outlet to protect the oil cooler matrix
d. Is of the same design as the pressure pump but has a larger capacity
6 - IGNITION SYSTEMS
1. The high tension supply connected to the spark plugs comes from:
a. The magnetos primary and secondary self-generation and distribution system
b. The battery during start up and low idle
c. The battery, and is transformed by the magneto
d. The battery and the high tension coil
2. When a magneto is selected OFF, the switch located in the primary circuit:
a. Is closed and the circuit is earthed
b. Is opened, breaking circuit continuity
c. Is opened and the circuit is earthed
d. Is closed, earthing the plug leads
3. If a magneto becomes inadvertently disconnected from its ignition switch, it will:

a. Stop the engine if the other magneto is "OFF"
b. Cause a high mag drop indication
c. Cause the engine to continue running when both magnetos are selected to "OFF"
d. Cause the failure of one plug in each cylinder
4. The high tension supply to the spark plugs is supplied from:

a. The alternator
b. The magneto and is independent of the aircraft electrical system
c. The magneto, supplied from the aircraft electrical system
d. The battery on engine start-up and low idle, and the magneto once the engine is running at fast idle
5. Magnetos are:
a. Generators, driven by the cam-shaft, used to supply electrical equipment
b. Used to generate low voltage sparks for the spark plugs
c. Fitted within the distributor, and fire in the same sequence as the spark plugs
d. Self-contained, engine-driven, electrical generators which produce high voltage sparks
6. The function of the contact breaker in the primary circuit of a magneto is to:
a. Allow the magneto to be switched on and off
b. Time the sparks to the spark plugs
c. Assist in the collapse of the magnetic field created by the permanent magnet generator
d. Prevent the build up of excess static charge
7. Of the following, which are functions of the capacitor in the primary circuit of a magneto?
(i) Assists in collapsing the magnetic field
(ii) Smooths the output of the magnetic field
(iii) Helps prevent erosion of the contact breaker points
(iv) Prevents sparking at the contact breaker points
a. (i) and (ii) only.
b. (iii) and (iv) only.
c. (i) and (iv) only
d. (i), (iii) and (iv).
8. The distributor arm rotates at:

a. One quarter engine speed
b. A half engine speed
c. Engine speed
d. Twice engine speed
9. Of the following statements, which relates factually to an Impulse Coupling?

a. It supplies a stream of high voltage impulses to a trailing brush on the distributor rotor
b. It supplies the primary coil of the magneto with a low voltage during engine start
c. It is a mechanical device which uses a spring to temporarily increase the speed of rotation of the magneto
d. All of the above
10. Aircraft engine ignition systems incorporate a means of spark augmentation:

a. Because, at high engine speeds, a fat spark is needed to extract maximum power from the air-fuel mixture
b. Because the speed of rotation of the engine, during starting, is too low for the magneto to produce sufficient
energy to ignite the air-fuel mixture
c. In order to overcome the problem of spark-retard during starting
d. All of the above
11. While carrying out the Dead Cut Check, with the right magneto selected, you notice that the engine falters,
and you suspect it will stop running. You should:
a. Allow the engine to stop completely
b. Quickly switch to the left magneto
c. Quickly switch to both magnetos.
d. Open the throttle to keep the engine running, then select both magnetos
7 - CARBURATION
1. At what power setting is serious carburettor icing likely to occur if operating at an ambient temperature of
+30°C and a relative humidity of 50%?
a. Climb power
b. Cruise power
c. Take-off power
d. Descent power
2. What is the ideal fuel/air mixture ratio in a piston engine?

a. 1:15 by weight
b. 1 : 9 by volume
c. 1:12 by weight
d. 1 : 7 by weight
3. The idle cut-off valve in a piston engined aeroplane:

a. Inhibits fuel flow from the discharge nozzle when selected
b. Controls engine slow running via the carburettor idle jet
c. Changes fuel flow to the main jet from the idle jet when power is increased
d. Allows instant response to throttle opening
4. How does the venturi throat of a carburettor change the characteristic of the air?
a. A dynamic pressure increase and a velocity decrease
b. A dynamic pressure decrease and a velocity increase
c. A drop in local static pressure and velocity increase
d. A dynamic pressure increase and a temperature increase
5. Detonation could result from:
a. Weak mixtures and high cylinder head temperatures
b. A designed interrupted ignition sequence during start-up when backfiring occurs
c. Rich mixtures and low cylinder head temperatures
d. High engine RPM when using high octane fuel
6. Pre-ignition, in a four stroke piston engine, is:

a. An uncontrolled explosion of the fuel/air mixture
b. A hot spot in the combustion chamber causing premature ignition of the fuel/air mixture
c. Slow burning of a rich mixture in a hot engine
d. The generation of fulminates in the combustion chamber which explode spontaneously under conditions of
great pressure and temperature
7. The “chemically correct ratio" for air to fuel is 15:1 by weight, Whnt, however, is the approximate air-fuel
ratio for the optimum mixture strength for use In a piston engine?
a. 15:1 by volume
b. 8 : 1 by volume
c. 9 : 1 by weight
d. 12:1 by weight
8. Detonation:
a. Is harmful to the pistons
b. Is also known as ‘piston slap'
c. Is part of normal engine running
d. Cannot be identified externally
9. It is best to run the engine with the mixture:

a. Slightly rich, as the surplus fuel helps cool the engine
b. Chemically correct, as this is most efficient
c. Slightly rich, as the surplus air helps cool the engine
d. Slightly weak, as the surplus air helps cool the engine
10. As the aircraft climbs, density … and the weight of air entering the engine … . Therefore, the mixture will
become … :
a. decreases, increases, richer
b. increases, decreases, weaker
c. decreases, decreases, richer
d. decreases, decreases, weaker
11. As air enters the restriction of a Venturi, its velocity … , static or ambient pressure … and temperature … .
a. increases, increases, increases
b. increases, decreases, decreases
c. decreases, increases, decreases
d. decreases, decreases, increases
12. Some carburettors are fitted with a diffuser which:

a. Prevents the mixture becoming too lean as the rpm increases
b. Prevents the mixture becoming too lean as the rpm decreases
c. Prevents the mixture becoming too rich as the rpm increases
d. Prevents the mixture becoming too rich as the rpm decreases
13. An accelerator pump is used to prevent a flat spot. A flat spot arises:
a. When the throttle is opened quickly and the mixture becomes temporarily too rich
b. When the throttle is closed quickly and the engine is starved of fuel
c. When the throttle is closed and the mixture becomes temporarily too rich
d. When the throttle is opened quickly and the mixture becomes temporarily too weak to support combustion
8 - AERO ENGINE FUELS AND FUEL SYSTEMS

1. During preflight checks, water in the fuel system is monitored. This is because water will cause:
a. Icing
b. The fuel to freeze
c. Fuel system contamination resulting in the loss of engine power
d. Emulsification of the fuel in the fuel lines which could cause them to become blocked
2. The type of aeroplane which may legally be fuelled with MOGAS may be found in:
a. CAA Airworthiness Notices and Safety Sense leaflets
b. AlCs
c. Notams.
d. Flight Information Handbook
3. The fuel and the tank labels of refuelling installations are colour coded. The colour for all labels relating to
100LL is … and the colour of the fuel itself is … :
a. black, red
b. red, blue
c. blue, straw
d. red, straw
4. The electrically driven auxiliary fuel pump on a piston engine is located:

a. At the lowest point of the fuel tank
b. Upstream of the tank selector valve
c. In the tank-to-tank fuel transfer line
d. Upstream of the engine driven pump
5. A fuel priming pump normally delivers fuel directly to:

a. The induction manifold or inlet valve port
b. The carburettor float chamber
c. The combustion chamber
d. The accelerator pump outlet
6. In the aircraft tanks, fuel is most likely to be contaminated by water from:

a. Poorly fitting fuel caps
b. Contamination during refueling
c. Leaks in the tanks that have let in rain
d. Atmospheric air remaining in partially-filled tanks
7. It is important to ensure that the priming pump is locked after use because:
a. It may cause a fuel leak, resulting in an increased fire risk
b. It may cause fuel to be sucked from the fuel tank into the carburettor, causing an extremely rich mixture
c. It may allow fuel to be sucked from the fuel strainer into the inlet manifold, causing an extremely rich
mixture
d. If it vibrates closed, it will cause the engine to stop
9 - PROPELLERS
1. The purpose of a twist along the length of a propeller blade is to:

a. Prevent aerodynamic interference with the engine cowling
b. Reduce drag at the propeller tips, thereby reducing torque
c. Ensure an optimum angle of attack over the whole length of the blade
d. Increase drag at the propeller tips, thereby reducing torque
2. The twist in a propeller blade is designed to do what to the blade angle?

a. Maintain the same blade angle from hub to tip
b. Increase the blade angle towards the tip
c. Reduce the blade angle towards the hub
d. Reduce the blade angle towards the tip
3. With a constant throttle setting and a fixed pitch propeller, during acceleration the engine RPM will:
a. Increase
b. Remain unchanged
c. Decrease
d. Initially increase, but then decrease
4. As viewed from the cockpit, a clockwise turning propeller, the torque reaction will cause:
a. The tail to rise
b. A roll to the left
c. A roll to the right
d. The tail to drop
5. Of the following, which will increase the angle of attack of a fixed-pitch propeller blade?
a. Increased TAS and increased RPM
b. Increased TAS and decreased RPM
c. Decreased TAS and increased RPM
d. Decreased TAS and decreased RPM
6. For an aircraft with a fixed pitch propeller, propeller efficiency will be:
a. Low at low True Air Speed (TAS) and high at high TAS
b. High at low TAS and low at high TAS
c. Constant at all airspeeds
d. Low at both very low TAS and very high TAS and optimal at cruising TAS
7. The purpose of a constant-speed propeller is:

a. To improve performance during take-off
b. To improve performance in cruising flight
c. To adopt the most efficient blade pitch angle for all phases of flight
d. To prevent windmilling
10 - ENGINE HANDLING
1. To correctly set the fuel/air mixture whilst in flight, the control is moved to the lean position until engine
RPM:
a. Drops and then the mixture control is then moved slightly to the RICH side of peak RPM
b. Rises and then the mixture control is left in that position
c. Decreases by approximately 150 RPM. The mixture control is then moved slightly more towards the LEAN
position
d. Decreases. The mixture control is then left in that position
2. What is an appropriate action to take if you have a carburettor fire on startup?

a. Deselect carburettor heat
b. Select mixture control to Idle Cut-Off
c. Turn the starter switch to “Off1
d. All of the above
3. Immediately after starting an aircraft engine, you must check the starter warning light. If it is still illuminated
you should:
a. Monitor it for 30 seconds. If it remains illuminated shut down the engine
b. Do nothing. The starter warning light is designed to stay on while the engine is running
c. Shut down the engine immediately
d. Shut down the engine, count to 30, then attempt a re-start
4. After starting a cold aircraft engine the oil pressure gauge should register:
a. Immediately; otherwise shut down the engine
b. Within 30 seconds; otherwise shut down the engine
c. By the time pre-flight checks are complete; otherwise shut down the engine
d. Immediately, otherwise, as long as the oil levels were at an adequate level before start-up, and RPM is
within limits, it is probable that the oil pressure gauge is faulty and this should be reported after the flight
5. The normal method for shutting down an aircraft engine is to:

a. Switch the starter switch to off
b. Move the mixture to idle cut-off (ICO)
c. Close the throttle
d. Close the throttle and move the mixture to ICO
6. On take-off, the throttle should be operated:

a. Smoothly, to avoid a weak cut, allowing the engine to respond as fast as it is able, and permitting the
mixture-strength and charge quantity to change in line with the engine requirements
b. Smoothly, but it may be opened abruptly if several aircraft are waiting to take off
c. Smoothly, following a count of three
d. As required by the air traffic situation
11 - ELECTRICAL SYSTEMS
1. If the only alternator or generator fails during flight:

a. No action need to be taken
b. The master switch should be turned off and the flight aborted
c. The electrical loads should be reduced to a minimum and the flight aborted
d. An emergency landing should be carried out as soon as possible, because the engine ignition system gets
its supply from the aircraft battery
2. Continuing the flight with a ‘flat’ battery:

a. Is not a concern, because the alternator will charge the battery during flight
b. Is not recommended, because the dilute battery add may freeze during high altitude flight
c. Is not a concern because the battery is not essential
d. Is not recommended, as the alternator may not fully charge the battery during normal operations
3. If a fuse blows during flight then it:

a. Should be replaced, once only, by one of the same value
b. May not be replaced
c. Should not be replaced until after landing
d. May be replaced by fuses of greater and greater value until one is found that does not blow
4. A 100 Amp/hour battery theoretically will supply 20 Amps for up to:

a. 2 hours
b. 3 hours
c. 5 hours
d. 30 minutes
5. Compared with the current flow through the starter motor, the current flow through the starter switch in the
start position:
a. Is lower
b. Is higher
c. Is the same
d. Leads the voltage because of the inductive nature of the starter motor circuit
6. Connecting two 12 Volt 40 Ampere hour capacity batteries in senes will provide a battery with a total
capacity of:
a. 12 Volts and 80 Ampere hours
b. 24 Volts and 40 Ampere hours
c. 24 Volts and 20 Ampere hours
d. 12 Volts and 40 Ampere hours
7. Below is a schematic diagram of a light aircraft DC electrical system using a centre-zero reading ammeter.
The most probable cause of the needle of the ammeter being in the centre-zero position would be that:
a. The battery is fully charged
b. The alternator has failed
c. The battery is flat
d. All electrical loads have been switched off
8. Below is a schematic diagram of a light aircraft DC electrical system. The most probable cause of the
needle of the loadmeter being in the position shown would be that:
a. The battery is fully charged
b. The alternator has failed
c. The battery is flat
d. All electrical loads have been switched off
9. Secondary cells:
a. Cannot be recharged
b. Have an off-load voltage of 1.5 Volts when fully charged
c. Are used in hand-held equipment like radios and torches
d. Can be charged and discharged many times
10. A double-pole electrical system:

a. Is not required in aircraft which are made of non-conductive materials
b. Requires one cable taking the current from the generator or alternator to the component and another to
complete the circuit back to the of the generator or alternator
c. Has the return current flowing back through the metal of the airframe to complete the circuit
d. Is fail-safe, and so does not require a battery
12 - VACUUM SYSTEMS
1. The engine driven vacuum pump is designed to produce and direct sufficient airflow:
a. Across a turbine that, in turn, drives the gyros
b. Through a helical impeller which drives the gyros
c. Onto gyro rotors to drive them round
d. Over the instrument case to move the gyro
2. The instruments usually powered by a vacuum pump system are:

(i) Direction Indicator
(ii) Turn Coordinator
(iii) Attitude Indicator or Artificial Horizon
(iv) Altimeter
(v) Magnetic Compass
a. (i) and (ii)
b. (i) and (iii)
c. (i) (iii) and (iv)
d. (i) (iii) and (v)
3. Which of the following is not a component of a dry vacuum system?

a. A vacuum generator
b. A vacuum controller
c. A filter to clean the air
d. A system lubrication device
4. One disadvantage of a dry vacuum pump when compared to a wet vacuum pump is that:
a. Dry pumps tend to be less reliable
b. Dry pumps fail catastrophically with no warning
c. Dry pumps require regular lubricating
d. Dry pumps are tolerant of contamination
5. On your instrument panel, the suction gauge is showing system failure. However, the gyro-driven
instruments appear to be functioning normally, and the low vacuum warning light is out. The fault probably lies:
a. In the suction gauge
b. In the suction system
c. With the low vacuum warning light
d. In the gyro driven instruments
13 - ENGINE INSTRUMENTS
1. Where in the engine is the oil temperature read by the temperature probe which is connected to the
engine's oil temperature gauge?
a. Inside the hot sections of the engine
b. As the oil leaves the oil tank
c. Before the oil has passed through the oil cooler
d. After the oil has passed through the oil cooler but before it reaches the hot sections of the engine
2. The exhaust gas temperature gauge:

a. Is an engine instrument designed to protect the engine from excessive heat
b. Can indicate whether the air-fuel mixture being drawn into the combustion chamber is too lean or too rich
c. Requires power from the D.C. bus-bar
d. Does the same job as the cylinder head temperature gauge
3. The cylinder head temperature gauge:

a. Obtains its temperature information from the hottest engine cylinder, by means of a probe consisting of two
dissimilar metals joined together
b. Is primarily a fuel management instrument
c. Requires alternating current to power the instrument needle
d. Obtains its information from a probe which is installed about four inches from the cylinder head on the
exhaust system
4. A simple float-system fuel-contents gauge of a light aircraft:

a. Is designed to be accurate at all stages of flight
b. Is totally linear throughout its entire range
c. Is calibrated to be accurate at the low and empty positions
d. Accurately indicates the weight of fuel in the tank, only while the aircraft is either in straight and level flight,
or parked on level ground
5. The mechanical tachometer.-

a. Uses the friction generated in a drag-cup to rotate a shaft, which ie connected to a pointer, against the
pressure of a hairspring
b. Is driven directly from the prop shaft Gears reduce the speed of rotation so that a generator can be used to
produce a voltage proportional to shaft speed which is indicated on a gauge calibrated In RPM
c. Is driven directly from the alternator drive
d. Works on the principle of a magnetic field being induced in a drag-cup and creating a torque which rotates a
shaft attached to the pointer on the dial of a tachometer
14 - PRESSURE SYSTEMS
1. If, while an aircraft is descending, the static vent leading to the Vertical Speed Indicator becomes blocked,
the indicator will:
a. continue to show the same reading
b. indicate a climb
c. indicate a descent
d. show a zero reading, after a short delay
2. When an aircraft is in flight, the pressure sensed by the forward facing hole in the pitot tube is:
a. static pressure only
b. total pressure plus dynamic pressure
c. dynamic pressure plus static pressure
d. dynamic pressure only
3. The principle of operation of the Vertical Speed Indicator (VSI) is that it:
a. compares static pressure in a capsule, sensed through a direct static vent, with that in the instrument’s
case, sensed though a metered vent. The VSI is, thus, able to detect the rate of change of static pressure with
height
b. compares total pressure from the pitot tube with static pressure from the static vents. The VSI is calibrated
to show the difference between the two as a vertical speed in feet per minute
c. compares dynamic pressure from the pitot tube with static pressure from the static vents. The VSI is
calibrated to show the difference between the two as a vertical speed in feet per minute or metres per second
d. senses total pressure only, from the pitot tube, and converts the change in total pressure with height into a
rate of climb or descent, measured either in feet per minute or metres per second
4. If, during descent, the static sources to the Airspeed Indicator and Altimeter become blocked by ice:
a. the Airspeed Indicator will over-read and the Altimeter will underread
b. the Airspeed Indicator will under-read and the Altimeter will overread
c. both instruments will over-read
d. both instruments will under-read
5. Ignoring any instrument or position errors, in what conditions will the Airspeed Indicator indicate the True
Airspeed of an aircraft?
a. at any altitude or temperature
b. in ICAO Standard Atmosphere, sea-level conditions only
c. at any altitude, provided that the temperature lapse rate is in accordance with ISA
d. at any altitude, but only when ISA conditions prevail
6. If an unpressurised aircraft has an alternate static source within the cockpit, the alternate static pressure:
a. must be selected immediately there is any fluctuation of the Airspeed Indicator
b. will be higher than the outside static source
c. will be unreliable because of ingress of moisture from the pitot head
d. will be lower than the outside static source
7. An Altimeter:
a. contains a barometric capsule, connected to a total pressure source, that contracts during a descent
b. contains an aneroid capsule connected to a static pressure source. The capsule contracts during a descent
c. contains a barometric capsule that expands during a descent
d. contains a partially evacuated capsule that expands during a descent
8. If a static vent became blocked during level flight in icing conditions and the aircraft subsequently climbed,
the readings on the altimeter, the VSI and the ASI would: (Altimeter, VSI, ASI)
a. remain unchanged, remain unchanged, under-read
b. remain unchanged, under-read, over-read
c. under-read, remain unchanged, over-read
d. over-read, over-read, under-read
9. If the power supply to the pitot heater failed during flight in icing conditions and the aircraft subsequently
descended, the readings on the Altimeter, the VSI and the ASI would, if ice had blocked the pitot (total pressure)
tube: (Altimeter, VSI, ASI)
a. read correctly, under-read, over-read
b. under-read, read correctly, over-read
c. read correctly, read correctly, over-read
d. read correctly, read correctly, under-read
15 - GYROSCOPIC INSTRUMENT AND THE MAGNETIC COMPASS
1. What is the purpose of the ball in the Turn and Slip Indicator or Turn Coordinator?
a. The ball indicates rate of turn
b. The ball indicates angle of bank
c. The ball indicates slip and skid
d. The ball indicates rate of descent in a turn
2. A magnetic heading:
a. is the sum of the true heading, and magnetic deviation
b. is the sum of the magnetic deviation and the magnetic variation
c. is always referenced to true north
d. is the sum of the compass reading and compass deviation
3. If the variation is west of true north:

a. add it to the desired true track to get the correct magnetic heading
b. add it to your aircraft’s magnetic heading to get the desired true track
c. subtract it from the desired true track to get the correct magnetic heading
d. the angle of dip will be greatest
4. The turning errors of the magnetic compass are such that:

a. They are zero when turning through North and South
b. They are maximum when turning through North and South, requiring the pilot to roll out on heading early
when turning through the nearer pole and late when turning through the further pole
c. They are maximum when turning through East and West
d. They are maximum when turning through North and South, requiring the pilot to roll out on heading early
when turning through the further pole and late when turning through the nearer pole.
5. The gyroscope in an artificial horizon is:

a. an Earth gyroscope rotating in a vertical plane about the aircraft’s lateral axis
b. an Earth gyroscope rotating in a horizontal plane about a vertical spin axis
c. an Earth gyroscope rotating in a vertical plane about the aircraft’s longitudinal axis
d. a tied gyroscope rotating in a horizontal plane about the aircraft’s longitudinal axis
6 Thu rigidity in space of a gyro:

a. keeps Its axis pointing in a fixed direction in space unless it is acted on by an external force
b. is decreased by manufacturing the rotor from brass
c. is maximum at the magnetic equator
d. is minimum at the magnetic equator
7 A Direction Indicator should be aligned with the magnetic compass; approximately every 15 minutes:
a. to minimise the effect of magnetic dip
b. to offset the affect of acceleration during a turn
c. because of the effect of liquid swirl
d. in order to compensate for precession and apparent wander, by using the caging knob to rotate the Dl
azimuth card when the wings are level and the aircraft is in unaccelerated flight
8. A Direction Indicator:
a. is badly affected by acceleration in a turn
b. suffers from apparent drift of the gyroscope from the fixed position in space to which it was aligned,
produced by earth rotation
c. is not affected by drift produced from mechanical friction in the gyroscope gimbal bearings
d. provides a stable reference in elevation in order to indicate accurate pitch attitudes
9. The purpose of the compass deviation card is to:

a. compensate for the influence of non-ferrous material carried on the person of the pilot and/or passengers
b. indicate the discrepancy between the heading shown on the compass and the actual magnetic heading
c. indicate the discrepancy between the aircraft’s track and magnetic north
d. indicate the discrepancy between the aircraft’s track and true north
10. When referring to the magnetic compass, pilots must bear in mind that:
a. turning errors are maximum when turning through north and south, and minimum when turning through east
and west
b. turning errors are maximum when turning through east and west, and minimum when turning through north
and south
c. turning errors increase, the nearer the aircraft is to the magnetic equator, and diminish as the aircraft
approaches the magnetic poles
d. acceleration errors decrease the nearer the aircraft is to the magnetic poles, and increase as the aircraft
approaches the magnetic equator
11. If the gyroscope of a turn indicator runs at a lower RPM than its design specification, how will the actual rate
of turn of the aircraft compare to the rate of turn shown on the turn indicator?
a. the actual rate of turn of the aircraft will be same as the rate indicated
b. the actual rate of turn of the aircraft will be less than the rate indicated
c. the turn indicator will not indicate a rate of turn
d. the actual rate of turn of the aircraft will be greater than the rate indicated
12. When a compass swing is being carried out:

a. the location of the aircraft must coincide with a suitable isogonal
b. it will enable the aircraft’s variation to be determined
c. the aircraft’s heading compass reading is compared with readings from a highly accurate ‘land’ or ‘datum’
compass
d. the whole aircraft must be electrically dead
13. If there are metallic objects close to an aircraft’s magnetic compass:

a. they should have no effect on compass indications
b. they will have a significant effect on magnetic variation
c. the Direction Indicator will not be able to be synchronised with the compass
d. they will cause errors in the indications of the compass
16 - AIRWORTHINESS
1. A Flight Manual Supplement issued by the CAA deals with additional limitations:
a. it will contain only limitations not dealt with in the manual published by the aircraft manufacturer
b. the limitations apply only to in-flight tests carried out for the purpose of amending the Certificate of
Airworthiness flight test
c. the limitations are to be complied with, even where they conflict with those published in the aircraft
manufacturer's manual
d. it can be disregarded as long as the limitations in the original aircraft manufacturer's manual continue to be
complied with
2. Aircraft maintenance carried out by a private pilot in accordance With the pilot’s legal entitlement:
a. is to be entered in the aircraft's log book and certified by a licensed engineer
b. need not be logged or recorded
c. is to be entered in the aircraft's log book and certified by a CAA approved inspector
d. is to be entered in the aircraft’s log book and certified by the pilot who carried out the maintenance
3. The consequence for the validity of an aircraft’s Certificate of Airworthiness (C of A) if the aircraft is not
maintained in accordance with the approved maintenance schedule detailed in the C of A will be that:
a. the aircraft owner must apply to the CAA for an exemption from the required maintenance schedule
b. the C of A will be rendered invalid until such time as the required maintenance is completed
c. the C of A must be renewed before the aircraft may fly
d. the validity of the C of A will not be affected
4. The second part of a duplicate inspection, required by Chapter A6-2 of BCARs, on an aircraft’s control
system which has had a minor adjustment away from its home airfield, may be:
a. delayed until the aircraft returns to its home airfield
b. carried out by a type-licensed engineer only
c. carried out by a pilot type-licensed for the aircraft concerned
d. postponed until the next convenient opportunity
5. An aircraft’s Certificate of Airworthiness (C of A):
a. is valid for the period specified in the C of A
b. expires only when the aircraft is removed from the British register
c. is valid indefinitely, provided that the aeroplane is maintained in accordance with the requirements specified
in the C of A
d. is valid for 6 months
1 - MASS AND BALANCE
1. If an aircraft’s C of G is at or beyond its aft limit:

a. The aircraft will be more stable longitudinally
b. The aircraft will be difficult to rotate on take-off
c. The aircraft’s stall speed will decrease
d. The aircraft’s range will be reduced
2. An aircraft loaded in a dangerous manner, so that its C of G is beyond its forward limit, will:
a. require less effort to flare when landing
b. require less effort to rotate on take off
c. have both an increased longitudinal stability and stalling speed
d. have both an increased range and endurance
3. The flight characteristics of an aircraft which has its C of G at the forward limit will be:
a. insensitivity to Pitch Control and little Longitudinal Stability
b. sensitivity to Pitch Control and little Longitudinal Stability
c. sensitivity to Pitch Control and great Longitudinal Stability
d. insensitivity to Pitch Control and great Longitudinal Stability
4. The consequences of operating an aeroplane with the C of G beyond the aft limit will be:
I. on the ground the aircraft would be tail heavy and passenger or crew movement or fuel usage could
make it tip up
II. the flying controls would be too sensitive, increasing the risk of a tail strike at rotation
III. the tendency to stall would increase and it may be impossible to achieve “hands off’ balanced flight
IV. recovery from a spin would be much more difficult
a. All statements are correct
b. Only statement I is correct
c. Only statements I and IV are correct
d. Only statements II and III are correct
5. When calculating the MZFM (maximum zero fuel mass), the following are included:
a. pilot, passengers & baggage, unusable fuel
b. pilot, passengers, baggage & operating fuel
c. pilot, unusable fuel, but less passengers and baggage
d. pilot, passengers, operating fuel but less baggage
6. Complete the following sentence. If an aircraft is loaded such that its C of G is approaching the aft limit:
a. the stall speed increases
b. the aircraft’s longitudinal stability will decrease
c. range and endurance increase
d. stick forces increase
7. Assuming the aircraft is at rest on the ground, what term best describes image ‘A’?
a. Zero Fuel Mass
b. Take Off Mass
c. Maximum All Up Mass
d. Empty Mass
8. Assuming the aircraft is at rest on the ground, what “mass expression” best describes image ‘D’?
a. Zero Fuel Mass
b. Basic Empty Mass
c. Empty Mass
d. Maximum All Up Mass
9. What name is given to the total mass of an aeroplane, including its total load that it is carrying, at any given
time?
a. Zero Fuel Mass
b. Gross Mass
c. Basic Empty Mass
d. Maximum Landing Mass
10. What effect will increase in the gross mass of an aeroplane have on its stall speed and take-off and landing
run?
a. Increase the stall speed, but decrease the take-off and landing run
b. No effect
c. Decrease the stall speed and increase the take-off and landing run
d. Increase the stall speed and increase the take-off and landing run
11. What effect will an increase in the landing mass have on an aircraft’s landing run at any given approach
speed and flap setting:
a. A decrease in landing run
b. No effect
c. Length of landing run is independent of mass
d. Increase in landing run
2 - CENTRE OF GRAVITY CALCULATIONS
1. An aircraft weighing 2 000 lb with a total C of G moment of 169 400 lb-ins uplifts 440 lb of fuel. If the
effective arm of the fuel is 88.5 inches aft of the datum, what will be the aircraft’s new mass and C of G moment?
a. 1 560 lb 208 340 lb-ins.
b. 2 440 lb 169 488.5 lb-ins.
c. 1 560 lb 169 488.5 lb-ins.
d. 2 440 lb 208 340 lb-ins.
2. Your aircraft has: Take-off Mass = 2 353 lbs, calculated C of G for departure = 89.75 inches aft of the
datum, estimated fuel burn = 200 lb with a C of G 85.00 inches aft of datum. The position of the C of G on landing
will be?
a. 90.19 inches aft of the datum
b. 82.52 inches aft of the datum
c. 105.98 inches aft of the datum
d. 96.97 inches aft of the datum
3. Your aircraft has an oil reservoir, with a capacity of 3 Imperial gallons, which is positioned 20 inches aft of
the datum. Given that the oil weighs 9.1 lb/gal, the reservoir will possess a moment of:
a. 60 lb-ins
b. 27.3 lb-ins
c. 182 lb-ins
d. 546 lb-ins
4. The Maximum Take off Mass of an aircraft may be limited by:

a. structural design load limits and or runway length, altitude and temperature
b. the authorised performance category of the aircraft, i.e. utility / normal / aerobatic
c. the airworthiness condition of the aircraft
d. all of the above
5. At what mass and C of G position would it be safe to operate the aircraft represented by the attached Mass
vs C of G Envelope?
a. 2 250 lb 86.00 inches aft of the datum
b. 2 000 lb 84.00 inches aft of the datum
c. 1 900 lb 82.00 inches aft of the datum
d. 2 300 1b 86.00 inches aft of the datum
6. At what mass and C of G moment would it be permissible to operate, in the Normal Category, the aircraft
represented by the Centre of Gravity / Moment Envelope at Graph 2, Page 432
Mass Moment
a. 2 1001b 75 000 lb-ins
b. 2 3001b 110 000 lb-ins
c. 2 275 lb 98 000 lb-ins
d. 2 400 lb 93 000 lb-ins
7. At what mass and C of G moment would it be permissible to operate, in the Utility Category, the aircraft
represented by the Centre of Gravity / Moment Envelope
a. 1 900 lb 63 000 lb-ins
b. 1 700 lb 83 000 lb-ins
c. 2 000 lb 69 000 lb-ins
d. 2 050 lb 75 000 lb-ins
8. In which Category, Utility or Normal, would you expect to operate the aircraft represented by the attached C
of G / Moment Envelope at Graph 2, Page 43, if its mass is 2 100 lb and its C of G moment 90 000 lb-inches?
a. Utility
b. Normal
c. Both
d. Neither
Aviation powerplants can be 2 or 4 stroke Otto or Diesel engine, turboprop or jet engine
Diesel engines are not utilised in aviation
2 stroke engines are not utilised in aviation
The 4 strokes in order

suction-compression-power-exhaust
suction-compression-exhaust-power
compression-power-suction-exhaust
exhaust-suction-compression-power
Inlet valve opens before top dead center and closes after bottom dead center
Inlet valve opens after top dead center and closes after bottom dead center
Inlet valve opens before top dead center and closes before bottom dead center
Inlet valve opens after top dead center and closes before bottom dead center
Exhaust valve opens before bottom dead center and closes after top dead center
Exhaust valve opens after bottom dead center and closes after top dead center
Exhaust valve opens before bottom dead center and closes before top dead center
Exhaust valve opens after bottom dead center and closes before top dead center
Ignition is timed to ignite shortly before upper dead center related to the engine speed
Ignition is timed to ignite on upper dead center
Ignition is timed to ignite shortly after upper dead center related to the engine speed
Ignition is timed to ignite shortly before upper dead center
The valve is opened by the cam and closed by the spring
The valve is closed by the cam and opened by the spring
If the breakdown of engine lubrication system is inferential

Landing is in the shortest time is needed, even outlanding or on an alternate airport, taking into account the
Flight can be further conducted, paying more attention on the failure
What do you conclude if while in flight the oil temperature start to rise and suddenly oil pressure goes down
Significant oil leak
Not enough oil in the sump
Overheat of the engine
Too much oil in the sump, engine is decreasing the amount through the vent
What do you conclude if oil pressure is too high?
The failure of oil presure relief valve
Not enough oil in the sump
Overheat of the engine
The efficiency of air cooling is

affected by the outer air temperature
not affected by the outer air temperature
When the engine tends to overheat?
Low RPM and high speed
Low RPM and low speed
High RPM and high speed
High RPM and low speed
The most efficient air cooling can be reached by
a radial engine
an inline engine
an opposed engine
a wankel engine
Undercooling or overheating the engine can be avoided by monitoring the
Cylinder head temperature
Oil temperature
Exhaust Gas Temperature
Right leaning procedure was conducted, but the cooling is not sufficient…
Richening the mixture can help, as it reduces combustion temperature
Richening the mixture cannot help, as it increases the combustion temperature
Richening the mixture cannot help, as it has no effect on combustion temperature

On low wing, carburettor fitted aircraft, the fuel system is supported by an engine driven fuel pump, and an
On low wing, carburettor fitted aircraft, the fuel system is supported by the gravity, and an auxiliary pump is
On high wing, carburettor fitted aircraft, the fuel system is supported by an engine driven fuel pump, and an
On high wing, carburettor fitted aircraft, the fuel system is supported by the gravity, and an auxiliary pump is
Before takeoff, fuel drain is released. In the sample debris can bee seen. What should be done?
More drains, and if those samples are contaminated, the take off should be delayed
Nothing, with this action all the contamination is removed
Take off should be delayed
In case only small amount of debris can be seen, the flight can be conducted
The theoretical air-fuel mixture ratio
is the ratio between the mass of the fuel and the mass of the air
is the ratio between the volume of the fuel and the mass of the air
is the ratio between the mass of the fuel and the volume of the air
is the ratio between the volume of the fuel and the volume the of air
Icing, which means danger to the fuel system…
can occur in a wide temperature range, from +20°C to temperatures below freeze point
can occur below freeze point
can occur when the super freezed aircraft flies into warmer and humid air
cannot occur over +20°C
While using carburettor heating, the density of intake air is…
decrease, so the mixture goes rich which leads to decreased engine speed
decrease, so the mixture goes rich which leads to increased engine speed
increase, so the mixture goes lean which leads to decreased engine speed
increase, so the mixture goes lean which leads to increased engine speed
Icing of throttle body can occur with
Low RPM settings
High speed ad low RPM setting
low speed ad high RPM setting
High RPM settings
The work of a fuel injection system can be monitored by
Fuel pressure or fuel flow gauges
Fuel quantity and exhaust gas temperature gauges
Fuel temperature and Cylinder head temperature gauges
The advantage of fuel injection is the fact, that it is free of icing

False
true

In aviation magneto type ignition is used, as it is independent from electrical sytem of the aircraft
In aviation battery based ignition is utilised, as magneto type ignition is obsolete
Rotating the propeller by hand can be harmful or lethal, as

the engine can start up, if the ignition switch is on
the engine can start up, if the master switch is on
the engine can start up, if the master and the ignition switch is both on
For increased safety, in aviation

two magnetos are utilised with two set of leads
one magneto is utilised with two set of leads
two magnetos are utilised with one set of leads
The engine is running. What will happen, if we switch off one of the magnetos?
RPM will drop, as two sparks per ignition is favorable for combustion
RPM will remain the same, as the doubled magnetos are for redundancy
RPM will increase, as the disadvantage of the two sparks is that the combustion time is increased
In a four stroke otto engine the crankshaft made 2 full rotation. Which is true?
All cylinder made 4 strokes
All cylinder made 8 strokes
Not all cylinder made the 4 strokes
The power development of an engine is increased by the following:

High pressure, cold, dry air
Low pressure, cold, humid air
High pressure, warm, dry air
Low pressure, warm, humid air
With increasing altitude, the mixture should be
leaned, so the quantity of fuel should be reduced
leaned, so the quantity of air should be reduced
richened, so the quantity of fuel should be icreased
leaned, so the quantity of air should be increased
In accordance with the procedure prescribed by the manufacturer after leaning of the mixture
the ratio is around 1:15
the mixture will be lean
the mixture will be rich
the mixture will be rich or lean
The viscosity of lubricants with increasing temperature
is decreasing
is increasing
On a modern aircraft, the engine is started with

a DC electrical motor driving the crankshaft
compressed air
hand
On an aviation engine, gearbox is fitted. The gearbox

will keep or reduce rotation speed
will keep or increase rotation speed
will reduce rotation speed
will increase rotation speed
Pressure measured in the pitot tube..
the sum of dynamic and static
static pressure
dynamic, also known as stagnation pressure
the difference between total pressure and dynamic pressure
Pitot heating
is switched on when icing conditions are present
is switched on when icing conditions are present and before descend
is switched on when winter conditions are present
is switched on when winter conditions are present and before descend
Static port is situated
coincidentally to the stream
paralelly to the stream
Pressure measured on the static port:

the difference between total pressure and dynamic pressure
total pressure
the difference between total pressure and static pressure
the difference between static pressure and dynamic pressure
The pitot-static holes are paralell to the stream
False
True
The pitot-static pressure can be monitored with the suction gauge

False
True
The simple speed measuring utilises

open type bellow
closed type bellow
both open and closed type bellow
The pressure which is driven into the house of airspeed indicator is
static pressure
dynamic pressure
total pressure
The yellow arc on the airspeed indicates

the speed region between Vno and Vne
the speed region between Vs and Vno
the speed region between Va and Vno
the speed region between VA and Vne
The lower limit of white arc on te airspeed indicator compared to the lower limit of green arc
is lower
is higher
is the same
How the speed region between VSO and VFE is marked on an airspeed indicator?
white arc
yellow arc
red arc
green arc
Which speed is the limit between green and yellow arc on the airspeed indicator?
VNO
VA
VNE
VFE
yellow arc on the airspeed indicator designates
the region for flights in non-turbulent air
the region for normal operation
the region, where full elevator deflection is allowed
the region for flaps operation
What is the relation between TAS values, if the IAS remains the same?
On higher altitudes, the TAS will increase
On higher altitudes, the TAS will decrease
TAS is not changing with altitude change
What is the relation between IAS values, if the TAS remains the same?
On higher altitudes, the IAS will decrease
On higher altitudes, the IAS will increase
IAS is not changing with altitude change
When ISA conditions are present, on seal level, with no wind, which of the followings is true?
GS,CAS,TAS is equal
IAS,CAS,TAS is equal
IAS,TAS,GS is equal
IAS,CAS,TAS,GS is equal
The error on airspeed indicator caused by density change is corrected in the following
TAS,GS
IAS,CAS
CAS, TAS
CAS,TAS,GS
A flight is conducted at 2500 ft. TAS=100kts, GS=98kts. The difference
is caused by the wind
is caused by the error of construction
is caused by the compressibility of air
is caused by the density change of air
In ISA conditions a flight is conducted at sea level. IAS=100kts, TAS=98kts. The difference
is caused by the error of construction
is caused by headwind
is caused by the tailwind
is caused by the compressibility of air
We expreience, that the airspeed indication is changing with altitude and nor do with speed. What is
pitot tube is clogged
static port is clogged
pitot line is leaking
static line is leaking
When static port is clogged, the airspeed indicator will
show false values regarding to outer ambient pressure
not react to speed changes
show more than correct IAS values
act as a pressure gauge
The altimeter utilises ……. Pressure to be measured by ……
static - closed type bellow
static - open type bellow
Total - closed type bellow
Total - open type bellow
To measure altitude, the pressure to be set
QNH
QFE
QNE
To measure height, the pressure to be set

QFE
QNH
QNE
1013.25 hPa means

QNE
QFE
QNH
On altimeter standing on the airport, the QNH is set. What will be the reading
Airport elevation
0 ft
a value measured from 1013.15 hPa
On an airport QFE=1001 hPa, QNH= 1013 hPa. What is the elevation?

approx. 330 feet
approx. 250 feet
approx. 170 feet
approx. 110 feet
In case QNH is higher than 1013.25 hPa, then a reading measured from QNH will be higher than measured
True
False
What could the explanation be, if the rate of climb reading is 0, regardless we climb or descend?
static port is clogged
pitot line is leaking
static line is leaking
pitot port is clogged
On a bellow type variometer:
The pressure in the case is static pressure and in the bellow is static pressure
The pressure in the case is static pressure and the bellow is a closed type
The pressure in the case is total pressure and the bellow is a closed type
The pressure in the case is total pressure and in the bellow is total pressure
In a left turn, the slip indicatoer goes out to the right. What is the good reaction?
Left roll or right yaw
right roll or right yaw
Left roll or left yaw
right roll or left yaw
... is the angle between magnetic field and the horizontal magnetic intensity vector. …is the angle between
the magnetic meridian and the meridian on the compass. ... The ange between the geographic North and the
inclination - declination - deviation
deviation - declination - inclination
inclination - deviation - declination
declination - inclination - deviation
The liquid magnetic compass of aircraft ... Is compensated by a counterweight … is compensated with small
movable magnet pairs ... can only be taken into consideration, cannot be compensated
inclination - deviation - declination
inclination - declination - deviation
deviation - declination - inclination
declination - inclination - deviation
The temperature of an air-cooled engine can be monitored by
Cylinder head temperature
fuel flow meter
manifold pressure
exhaust gas temperature
RPM gauge indicates
the rotational speed of the crankshaft or the prop shaft, regarding to type of driving
the rotational speed of the propeller shaft
the rotational speed of the crankshaft
The fuel level indicators, utilised on aircrafts are only linearly measuring and has no error by the attitude.
False
True
The attitude indicator utilises a ….. Degrees of freedom gyro, which has a …… rotational axis
3 - vertical
3 - horizontal
2 - vertical
2 - horizontal
The attitude indicator is useful in low visibility conditions, as the AoA easily can be monitored.
False
True
The load factor in flight:

The ratio between the weight and lift (W/L)
The ratio between the lift and weight (L/W)
The ratio between the lift and the forces, which are directed vertically down
The ratio between the forces, which are directed vertically down and the lift
In a constant climb or descend, the load factor is:
n<1
n>1
n=0
n=1
In a turn, the load factor is
n>1
n<1
n=0
n=1
In a zero-g situation, the load factor is
n=0
n<1
n>1
n=1
An airplane is designed for n=+4.4 . What will happen if load factor is raised over this value?
Permanent damage or breakage can occur
Only permanent damage can occur
breakage cannot be avoided
Nothing, as it can be overshot due to the safe factor
With lower weight, the value of Va is lower
With higher weight, the value of Va is higher
the value of Va is not affected by the weight of the airplane
In a calm weather, the Vne can be exceeded

False
True
The flutter of the aileron is a

self-induced swing
vibration caused by an outer effect
The structure of a wing can be

single spar, multi spar, semi-monocoque or monocoque
Forward swept, back swept, variable
cantilever or braced
The main stress forms on a wing:

Bending, twist and shear
Twist and shear
Bending and shear
bending and twist
The skin receives loads in
monocoque and semi-monocoque structures
fabric covered, monocoque and semi-monocoque structures
monocoque structures
semi-monocoque structures
The bending stress on a wing can be reduced by placing engines, fuel tanks and etc on the wing
True
False
The role of fabric is to achieve required aerodinamical shape

True
False
The wing is covered with layered metal sheets, so it can resist

bending load
shear load
twist load
compression load
Which part of the airplane can be cantilever or braced?
the wing, horizontal stabiliser, undercarriage
wing
wing and the horizontal stabiliser
Taking the same take off weight and surface load, which structure is to be the heaviest?
Biplane
high wing
low wing
any of them
Taking the same take off weight and surface load, which structure is to be the most resistant to bending?
Biplane
low wing
high wing
any of them
The compression and tensile loads apply the most to which fuselage structure?
Lattice-work
semi-monocoque
monocoque
The main load receiving elements of a semi-monocoque fuselage

the skin, longerons, mainframes
main frames, longerons
skin and mainframes
skin and longerons
The most common structure for a horizontal stabiliser is
manufactured without any spar, as the loads are not requiring it
single spar
multi spar
Disadvantage of a T-tail, that the vortices, caused by the wing, can reduce their effectiveness
True
False
In a nose wheel layout, the CG is situated

forward to the main wheels
aft to the main wheels
between the main wheels
On a rectractable undercarriage, which operation utilises the drag and the weight of the gear
gear lowering
gear retracting
The most common tyre structures for airplanes

any of them
tubeless
tubed
the shimmy is a
self-induced swing
vbration caused by an outer effect

If small cracks can be seen on the surface of the tyre , then the tyre should not be replaced
If small cracks can be seen on the surface of the tyre , then the tyre should be replaced
If the chord can be seen on the tread, the the tyre does not need replacing
In an oleo-pneumatic shock absorber

Damping action is provided by oil, shock absorbing action provided by gas
Damping action is provided by gas, shock absorbing action provided by oil
Damping action is provided by gas, shock absorbing action provided by water
Damping action is provided by water, shock absorbing action provided by gas
On a climb oriented, fixed pitch propeller…
pitch is set to fine, so high thrust is available at low speeds
pitch is set to fine, so high thrust is available at high speeds
pitch is set to coarse, so high thrust is available at low speeds
pitch is set to coarse, so high thrust is available at high speeds
On a cruise oriented, fixed pitch propeller…
pitch is set to coarse, so high thrust is available at high speeds
pitch is set to fine, so high thrust is available at low speeds
pitch is set to fine, so high thrust is available at high speeds
pitch is set to coarse, so high thrust is available at low speeds
turn coordinators, fuel level indicators, flaps operation, engine starting can be operated without electricity
turn coordinators, fuel level indicators, flaps operation, engine starting cannot be operated without
turn coordinators, fuel level indicators can be operated without electricity
turn coordinators, fuel level indicators cannot be operated without electricity
without battery the alternator cannot produce electric power
the power needed by the electrical system is produced by the battery
while the aircraft is on the ground, battery supplies the systems with electricty
The alternator is the starting power source for the engine
What to do when a circuit breaker melts down?
Try to push back or replace if you cannot smell any burnt smell. If breaks again leave it and report the
The error must be reported, only technician can repair it
Try to push back or replace if you cannot smell any burnt smell.
Try to push back or replace if you cannot smell any burnt smell. You can try arbitrary times.
A magneto fitted engine with a discharged battery will…
start by hand propping, but the generator will produce electrictity, nor do the alternator
start by hand propping, but the generator will produce electrictity, so do the alternator
not start by hand propping, as the alternator has not enough excitation voltage
not start by hand propping, as the generator has not enough excitation voltage
Will the magneto fitted engine start, if only the battery is connected to the power bus?
Yes
No
Current indicator shows -10A in flight. What error is reasonable?

Alternator broken down, battery is being discharged.
Alternator broken down, battery is being charged.
Battery is broken down.
Normal operation
Which frequency region is for COM?
118,000-136,975 MHz
108,000-136,975 MHz
108,000-118,000 MHz
104,000-121,500 MHz
Which frequency region is for NAV?
108,000-118,000 MHz
118,000-136,975 MHz
108,000-118,000 MHz
104,000-121,500 MHz
ATS services mainly utilises
Secondary radar signals
Primary radar signals
Which of the following numbers can be in a Squawk?

0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7
0, 1, 2, 3, 4
0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9
A C mode transponder switched to A mode will transmit
only Squawk
only altitude
Squawk and altitude
Mainly squawk and altitude, however able to transmit additional information
As a result of the axis directional normal force acting in the centre of gravity for the cross section of the
central pushing or pulling forces are generated.
pure shearing forces are generated.
bending forces are generated.
twisting forces are generated.
The plane of the torque generating the twisting force is ...
perpendicular to the bar axis.
parallel with the bar axis.
A bar cross section is exposed to which of the following stresses when the resultant force of a system of
forces acting on one side of the cross-section rotates around the bar axis.
twist
shear
bend
When a short and thick rod is compressed ...

its length decreases and its cross section increases.
its length decreases and its cross section does not change.
its length increases and its cross section decreases.
When aircraft structures are exposed to pushing stress, this stress is mostly pure pushing stress.
False.
True.
If forces of identical magnitude act in opposite directions and an unlimitedly small distance from each other
and in parallel with the cross-section plane, it is called ...
shear stress.
twist stress.
Stress-strain diagram phases are as follows: ...

flexible phase, ductile phase, brittle phase, intensive necking and rupture.
ductile phase, flexible phase, brittle phase, intensive necking and rupture.
brittle phase, ductile phase, flexible phase, intensive necking and rupture.
flexible phase, brittle phase, ductile phase, intensive necking and rupture.
If a thin bar is exposed to critical braking force ...
after the cessation of the lateral force, the bar will undergo temporary deformation.
after the cessation of the lateral force, the bar will become straight again.
it will bend upon a small lateral force, its bend increases and finally brakes.
As a result of clean bending bar cross section planes will ... retain their position perpendicular to bar axis.
-
not
When bending there is bending torque generated in the bar cross sections, and as a result the bar bends, ...
however, no change in length occurs.
its length changes.
In practice, shear stress is accompanied by bending and pushing stress as well.

True.
False.
Landing gear load is ...

created by dynamic and concentrated forces.
created by static and concentrated forces.
created by static forces and forces acting along the surface.
created by dynamic forces and forces acting along the surface.
Which of the following constitute a part of any aeroplane mechanism?
undercarriage, flaps, leading edge slats.
stick, horizontal stabiliser, aileron.
disc brake, engine, trim tabs.
Which equation is true?

load factor causing structural failure / factor of safety = allowed load factor
factor of safety ∙ load factor causing structural failure = allowed load factor
allowed load factor / load factor causing structural failure = factor of safety
factor of safety = load factor causing structural failure ∙ allowed load factor
Even if you make sudden control movements up to VA, you will never be able to exceed the load factor causing structural failure.
True.
False.

Unbalanced mass forces of the engine are transferred to the aircraft via the mountings even when
Unbalanced mass forces of the engine are not transferred to the aircraft via the mountings because proper
What is low frequency periodic movement?

Swaying.
Vibration.
Resonance.
Only hard wood is used for building aeroplanes.

False.
True.
Fibre-reinforced materials enable significant weight savings, and they are almost as rigid as other
True.
False.
Dural alloys ...

are aluminium alloys with magnesium and copper constituents.
are magnesium alloys with aluminium and copper constituents.
steel alloys.
Cylinder blocks in modern aircraft engines are made from ...

aluminium alloys.
iron.
steel alloys.
In terms of factor of safety, which wing layout is the most rigid?

Any layout.
Low wing.
High wing.
Biplane.
A high wing ...
can be both monocoque and strut reinforced.
is free monocoque structure.
is reinforced with struts.
Aircraft fuselage made from composite materials is typically ...

monocoque.
grid structure.
semi-monocoque.
A divided empennage layout is ...

H-tail.
T-tail.
V-tail.
Retractable undercarriage reduces which drag by 20-25%?

parasitic drag
induced drag.
interference drag.
Likelihood of shimmying is higher ...

if using low pressure tyres and simple wheel.
if using high pressure tyres and simple wheel.
if using high pressure tyres and twin wheels.
if using low pressure tyres and twin wheels.
Low pressure tyres are usually inflated to 2 bars, and they are able to absorb large amount of forces.
Low pressure tyres are usually inflated to 0.2 bars, and they are able to absorb large amount of forces.
Low pressure tyres are usually inflated to 0.2 bars, and they are able to absorb small amount of forces.
Low pressure tyres are usually inflated to 2 bars, and they are able to absorb small amount of forces.
Tyre tread surface is called carcass
False.
True.

As long as mounting marks on the tyre and the wheel rim align, there is no need to do anything with the tyre.
If a mounting mark on a tyre moves, the tyre should be removed and refit properly.
If mounting marks on the tyre and the wheel rim do not align, the tyre is worn, and must be replaced.
The following characters are written on the tyre side: „267,75–13 PR10 210MPH” – it means that:
external diameter 26 inches, width 7.75 inches, internal diameter 13 inches, load bearing capacity 10,
maximum operating speed is 210 mph.
×external diameter 26 inches, internal diameter 7.75 inches, width 13 inches, load bearing capacity 10,
external diameter 26 inches, internal diameter 7.75 inches, load bearing capacity 13, width 10 inches,
In hydro-pneumatic undercarriage struts ...

dampening is provided oil, recoil is ensured by air or gas.
dampening is provided by air or gas, recoil is ensured by oil.
dampening is provided by air or gas, recoil is ensured by water.
dampening is provided water, recoil is ensured by air or gas.
Strut recoil is when the strut takes on the energy of the acting forces, it absorbs some of these forces and it
only transfers back a fragment of such forces during the spring-back phase.
False.
True
In which brake system are brake pads pushed against the brake disc from both sides?
Fix calliper disc brake.
Floating calliper disc brake.
Duplex brake pads.
Which statement is true in terms of drum and disc brakes?

The drum and the disc rotates together with the wheel.
The drum and the disc belong to the fix part attached to the wheel strut.
The drum rotates in unison with the wheel, the disc connects to the fix part attached to the wheel strut.
The disc rotates in unison with the wheel, the drum connects to the fix part attached to the wheel strut.
Advantage of disc brakes is that they are lighter and they are capable of generating large braking torque.
Main advantage of drum brakes is that they are lighter, and they are capable of producing large braking
Drum brakes weighs more, however, this helps to ensure the necessary braking torque.
Disc brakes are lighter, however, their small size results in limited braking torque.
Aileron differentiation is used ...
to counteract adverse yawing moment.
to minimise control forces.
to improve stall characteristics.
Weight balancing of control surfaces is ...

necessary due to flatter.
necessary due to bafting and flettner.
necessary due to bafting.
necessary due to flettner.
Which control surface force reduction system uses pressure difference between the area above and below
the membrane mounted to control surface leading edge?
Irwing compensation.
Axis compensation.
Lateral compensation.
Transferred compensation.
Frise ailerons are used ...
to counteract adverse yawing moment.
to minimise control forces.
to battle flatter.
Which control surface movement system uses the following parts: rocker, roller, tension lock?
Cable.
Push rod.
Servo assisted.
Push rod actuate control surfaces are protected against warping by ...
pipe cross-section rods.
rockers.
bar cross-section rods.
Which engine structure uses bent beams supported by vibration dampers and grid bars?
Mixed engine suspension.
Support beams.
Grid structure.
Propeller control is called twin-sided if ...

adjustment to both sides is made by hydraulic cylinders.
adjustment to one side is made by a hydraulic cylinder, while adjustment to the other side is made by the
centrifugal torque of counter weights or the blades own mass torque.
If the constant speed propeller control uses its own mass torque for adjustment to one side, then the
high pitch.
low pitch.
Pins, tension locks, universal joints, bearings and hose clamps are ...
non-permanent mechanical fasteners.
permanent mechanical fasteners.
Riveting is a ...
permanent mechanical fastener.
non-permanent mechanical fastener.
Anti-corrosion treatment of wooden surfaces is provided by ...
painting.
plating.
alitation.
Eloxation is used to ...

ensure anti-corrosion treatment for aluminium alloys.
prevent oxidation of wooden surfaces.
create crack free coating on plastic surfaces.
Four-stroke Otto and Diesel engines can be carburettor or injection fed.

False.
True.

Power is only generated during combustion.
One complete cycle of the four strokes is called the power generating phase.
Power is only generated during compression and combustion.
Power is only generated during compression.
Stroke dephasing ...
occurs in all four strokes.
occurs only the first and the second stroke.
occurs only the second and the third stroke.
occurs only the fourth and the first stroke.
Valve overlap ...
occurs only between the fourth and the first stroke.
occurs only between the second and the third stroke.
occurs only between the third and the fourth stroke.
occurs in all four strokes.
Which of the following listings has all elements of the crank mechanism?
Main shaft, piston pin, crank rod.
Piston, cylinder head gasket, compression ring.
Crank rod, piston rings, valve stem.
Traction force generated by the propeller is transferred to the airframe by ...

the crankcase via the engine mountings.
the crankshaft via the engine mountings.
the crank mechanism via the engine mountings.
the crank assembly via the engine mountings.
Which engine component consists of the following units: main bearings, counter weights, crank pin and
Crankshaft.
Crankshaft assembly.
Crank rod.
Crankshaft mechanism.
Which word fits into the gaps? ... stem, ... small end, ... big end
crank rod
valve
piston
cylinder
What type of cylinder arrangement does the use of a cam disc imply?
Radial engine.
Boxer engine.
Vertical in-line engine.
Inverted in-line engine.
The number of cams on the camshaft equals the number of engine valves.
There are half as many cams on the camshaft as the number of engine valves.
The number of cams on the camshaft equals the number of engine cylinders.
There are twice as many cams on the camshaft as the number of engine valves.
The camshaft is driven by ...
the crankshaft via gears, a belt or chain.
the crankshaft via gears or chain.
the crankshaft via a belt or chain.
the input shaft.
The camshaft rotates ...
once while the crankshaft rotates twice.
twice while the crankshaft rotates once.
once while the crankshaft rotates four times.
once while the crankshaft rotates once.
.... should withstand gas pressure and high temperature in the combustion chamber.
The valve disc
The valve stem and the valve disc
The valve stem, the valve disc and the valve spring
The valve stem, the valve disc, the valve spring and the valve tappet
OHV engines valve timing can use camshafts and cam discs.
True.
False.
Radial engines are ...

equipped with an over head valve (OHV).
equipped with an over head camshaft (OHC).
equipped with side valves (SV).
Which valve train mechanism has the following components: push rod, guide, rocker arm.
OHV (Over Head Valve).
OHC (Over Head Camshaft).
SV (side valves).
In which system does the cam directly touch the valve stem?
OHC (Over Head Camshaft).
OHV (Over Head Valve).
SV (side valves).
Modern aircraft engines are equipped with ...

forced-circulation lubrication.
oil bath lubrication.
combined lubrication.
In an oil bath lubrication system ...
rotating parts submerge into the oil in the collector; lubrication is ensured by the oil’s splashing.
a diaphragm pump transfers the pressurised oil to lubrication points.
a rotary vane pump transfers the pressurised oil to lubrication points.
a gear pump transfers the pressurised oil to lubrication points.
In a forced-circulation lubrication system ...
a gear pump transfers the pressurised oil to lubrication points.
a diaphragm pump transfers the pressurised oil to lubrication points.
a rotary vane pump transfers the pressurised oil to lubrication points.
rotating parts submerge into the oil in the collector; lubrication is ensured by splashing the oil.
Aircraft engines are ...
either dry or wet sump lubricated engines.
dry sump lubrication engines.
wet sump lubrication engines.
Which statement is correct?

Dry sump lubricated engines have a separate oil tank.
Wet sump lubricated engines have a separate oil tank.

Fluctuating oil pressure is an indication of a serious malfunction in the oil system.
Fluctuating oil pressure is normal.
Most intensive air cooling can be achieved in ...

radial engines.
in-line engines.
boxer engines.
Engine overheating can induce knocking.

True.
False.
By closing the engine cowling ...

air cooling efficiency is decreased, thus the cooling effect is reduced.
air cooling efficiency is increased, thus the cooling effect is reduced.
air cooling efficiency is decreased, thus the cooling effect is increased.
air cooling efficiency is increased, thus the cooling effect is increased.
By opening the engine cowling ...
air cooling efficiency is increased, thus the cooling effect is increased.
air cooling efficiency is increased, thus the cooling effect is reduced.
air cooling efficiency is decreased, thus the cooling effect is increased.
air cooling efficiency is decreased, thus the cooling effect is reduced.
By opening the engine cowling ...
higher drag is generated.
lower drag is generated.
there is no change generated in drag.
Mixed cooling ...
cylinder head is liquid cooled while the cylinder itself is air cooled.
cylinder itself is liquid cooled while the cylinder head is air cooled.
crankcase is liquid cooled while the cylinder head is air cooled.
Low-wing aeroplanes have an electrically powered main fuel pump. Should this system fail to operate, there
is a back-up pump operated by the engine.
False.
True.
Engine driven fuel pumps are usually ...

pumps with lift levers and diaphragms.
gear pumps.
rotary vane pumps.
Compression ratio is ...

the ratio of cylindrical volume and compression volume.
the fuel-to-air ratio in the cylinder.
derived from intake and exhaust gas volumes.
the relationship between the gas pressure measured at the end of the heat transfer and the pressure
measured at the end of the compression.
Increasing the compression ratio is limited by ...
knocking.
fuel flashpoint.
highest engine RPM.
load bearing capacity of engine structural elements.
If the fuel and the air fails to mix properly, burning will be slower, even if mixture is of the correct ratio.
True.
False.
The amount of mixture flowing into the intake is governed by ...

carburettor's throttle valve.
carburettor's drain valve.
carburettor's needle valve.
carburettor's nozzle.
Sudden opening of the throttle valve makes the mixture flowing into the engine leaner. The proper mixture
ration in this scenario is reinstated by ...
the main nozzle.
the balancing nozzle.
the pilot air jet.
the accelerating device.
If the size of the main nozzle is adjusted to provide proper mixture ratio at low RPMs, then ...
the pilot air jet prevents the mixture from getting too rich.
the balancing nozzle prevents the mixture from getting too lean.
the pilot air jet prevents the mixture from getting too lean.
the balancing nozzle prevents the mixture from getting too rich.
If the size of the main nozzle is adjusted to provide proper mixture ratio at high RPMs, then ...
the balancing nozzle prevents the mixture from getting too lean.
the pilot air jet prevents the mixture from getting too rich.
the pilot air jet prevents the mixture from getting too lean.
the balancing nozzle prevents the mixture from getting too rich.
If an engine has injection in each cylinder then this system is called ...
direct injection.
central injection.
indirect injection.
controlled injection.
A disadvantage of magnetic ignition is that it fails to provide strong sparks at start.
True.
False.

Hot plugs are less prone to heating, they are short and have thick legs.
Cold plugs are less prone to heating, they are long and have thin legs.
Hot plugs are more prone to heating, they are long and have thin legs.
Cold plugs are more prone to heating, they are short and have thick legs.
As the altitude increases, performance of an turbocharged engine ...
remains unchanged up to the full pressure altitude, and it decreases above this altitude.
increases up to the full pressure altitude, and it remains unchanged above this altitude.
decreases up to the full pressure altitude, and it remains unchanged above this altitude.
increases up to the full pressure altitude, and it decreases above this altitude.
An aeroplane fitted with a turbocharged engine has ... than an aeroplane of the same category equipped
with a non-turbocharged engine.
higher theoretical ceiling and lower actual ceiling
higher theoretical and actual ceiling
identical theoretical and actual ceiling
higher theoretical ceiling and identical actual ceiling
When using too low octane fuel in relation to compression ratio or when over-leaning the mixture, the
Aviation fuel is clean, additive free hydrocarbon distillate.
Avgas is a mixture of normal heptane and iso-octane.
Flashpoint denotes a temperature at which the fuel will spontaneously ignite in a normal atmosphere
without an external source of ignition.
Fuel mixture ratio has no influence on engine knocking.
A leaner mixture is more likely to cause knocking.
A richer mixture is more likely to cause knocking.
Knocking can occur in the following cases: too ... octane fuel in comparison with compression ration, ...
mixture, when manifold pressure is ... and RPM is ... on constant speed propeller aeroplanes.
low - over-lean - high - low
high - over-lean - low - high
high - over-rich - low - high
low - over-rich - high - low
What is the colour code of aviation fuel: ...
small blue section, large red section with a white stripe in between them.
small yellow section, large red section with a white stripe in between them.
full black with two white stripes.
In SAE viscosity system, the .... the number the ... the oil viscosity is, i.e. the .... it is.
higher - higher - thicker.
lower - higher - thicker.
higher - higher - thinner.
lower - lower - thicker.
In order to reach the highest possible power, propeller RPM can be increased freely regardless of aircraft
False.
True.
Two identical aeroplanes are flying level in ISA atmosphere at different altitudes, and their speeds are the
same. What is the relationship between the two planes' angle of attack and power setting?
They share the same angle of attack, however, the one flying higher has a higher power setting.
Their angles of attack and power settings are identical.
They share the same power setting, however, the one flying higher has a higher angle of attack.
The one flying higher is using higher power settings and higher angle of attack.
If the Pitot-static system receives the static pressure from the alternate static port, the speedometer will
show slightly ... because the alternate static port channels somewhat ... pressure to the system.
more - lower
more - higher
less - lower
less - higher
If the QNH is higher than 1013.25, then an altimeter set by QNH indicates more than the QFE.
True.
False.
Two aeroplanes are flying in the same air mass, and both altimeters show 3000 feet. What is the altitude
difference between two aeroplanes, and which one flies higher, if one pilot set his altimeter correctly to QNH
1002 while the other mistakenly set his altimeter to QNH 1020?
The aircraft flying on QNH 1020 is actually flying approximately 540 feet lower than the aircraft flying on
The aircraft flying on QNH 1020 is actually flying approximately 160 feet lower than the aircraft flying on
The aircraft flying on QNH 1020 is actually flying approximately 280 feet higher than the aircraft flying on
The aircraft flying on QNH 1020 is actually flying approximately 690 feet higher than the aircraft flying on
If the aeroplane enters an air mass which is colder (compared with ISA), its altimeter ...
shows more than the real value.
shows less than the real value.
Temperature fluctuations do not influence altitude indications.
When the air temperature is high, density altitude of a given altitude in comparison with ISA is ...
higher.
lower.
Air temperature does not affect density altitude.
If the static probe gets clogged, the altimeter ...

does not react to changes in altitude.
will indicate more than the correct value.
will indicate less than the correct value.
will indicate incorrect values in harmony with air pressure changes.
After setting the correct QNH, can a pilot commence his flight if the altimeter shows 60 feet more than the
actual altitude of the airfield over sea level?
No.
Yes.
A flap-type vertical speed meter ...

operates based on delayed pressure compensation.
operates based on changes of thermal resistance.
is a device with a diaphragm.
Artificial horizon operation is based on motion principles of a ... degrees-of-freedom gyroscope. Its gyroscope
three - vertical.
two - vertical.
three - horizontal.
two - horizontal.
The artificial horizon is useful during adverse weather as its display provides accurate information on actual
False.
True.
Turn indicator operation is based on motion principles of a ... degrees-of-freedom gyroscope. Its gyroscope
two - horizontal.
two - vertical.
three - horizontal.
three - vertical.
Which of the following instruments indicates angular speed of movement around longitudinal axis?
Turn and bank indicator.
Slip indicator.
Turn indicator.
Artificial horizon.
In a standard turn it takes ... minutes for the aeroplane to turn ..., i.e. the aeroplane turns ... degrees a
2 - 360 - 3
1 - 360 - 6
2 - 180 - 1,5
3 - 360 - 2
What does the turn and slip indicator show in a right spin?
The needle is fully to the right, the ball is fully to the left.
Both the need and the ball are at the far right position.
Both the need and the ball are at the far left position.
The needle is fully to the left, the ball is fully to the right.
Gyrocompass operation is based on motion principles of a ... degrees-of-freedom gyroscope. Its gyroscope
three - horizontal.
two - vertical.
two - horizontal.
three - vertical.
Map lines which connect points of identical magnetic declination are called ... Lines connecting points with
zero magnetic declination are called ... lines. Lines connecting points of identical magnetic inclination are
isogon - agon - izocline
agon - isocline - isogon
izocline - isogon - agon
agon - isogon - izocline
Fuel economy is judged by monitoring the quality of fuel combustion. Which instrument serves to check this
The exhaust gas temperature gauge.
The manifold pressure gauge.
The cylinder head temperature gauge.
The fuel flow meter.
The manifold pressure gauge ...
measures the engine performance of aircraft equipped with constant speed propellers.
measures the engine performance of low-wing aeroplanes.
measures the engine performance of aircraft engines equipped with fuel injection.
measures the engine performance of low-wing aeroplanes and aircraft engines equipped with fuel injection.
A Bourdon tube type oil pressure meter uses a spring which straightens when pressure is acted upon it.
A Bourdon tube type oil pressure meter has a rotary vane mechanism moved by the oil flowing through the
A Bourdon tube type oil pressure meter uses a remote pressure meter with a potentiometer in which swirl
The oil temperature meter is typically ...

resistance thermometer.
heat element thermometer.
bimetal thermometer.
The cylinder head temperature meter is typically ...

The outside air temperature meter is typically a ...

What is the name of the fuel indicator display of which is placed on the wing or in the cockpit, above the
windows, at the junction of the wing root and fuselage?
Float-conic gear gauge.
Float-potentiometer gauge.
Float-swirl gauge.
Float-centrifugal gauge.
... is equal to the work which would have to be done, per unit charge, against a static electric field to move
the charge between two points
Voltage
Current
Resistance
Capacity
... is a measure of the amount of electric charge passing a point in an electric circuit per unit time.
Current
Voltage
Resistance
Capacity
Metals are good conductors, carbon is a fairly good conductor, however, glass, porcelain, rubber, plastic and
clean water practically does not conduct electricity.
True.
False.
... is a measure of the degree to which an object opposes an electric current through it.
Resistance
Current
Voltage
Capacity
In light of Ohm's law which equation is true? (R resistance, U voltage, I current)
I=U/R
U x I =R
R x U =I
U=R/I
Which equation is true? (P electrical power, U voltage, I current)
P=U x I
I=U/P
P x U=I
U=I/P
In aeroplane electrical systems ...
loads are connected parallel.
all connections are parallel.
all connections are series.
loads are connected series.
Aeroplane electrical systems are typically ...
are direct current systems.
are alternating current systems.
Aircraft batteries ...

are direct current systems.
are alternating current systems.
can be both DC and AC devices.
Which of the following figures applies to a battery's capacity?

44 Ah.
24 V.
0,416666667
30 W.
Connecting two 12 V / 40 Ah batteries in series ...
we get a 24 V / 40 Ah power source.
Batteries can only be connected in parallel.
If a battery can provide 2 A for 20 hours, then this battery is ...
40 Ah.
10 Ah.
18 Ah.
22 Ah.
Battery electrolyte level is correct if it is ... above the upper part of the lamellae, if not, ... should be poured
approximately 1-1.5 cm - distilled water
approximately. 1-1.5 mm - sulphuric acid
approximately 1-1.5 mm - distilled water or sulphuric acid
approximately 1-1.5 cm - distilled water or tap water
... can produce electric current without external electric source. The ... is externally powered, it need battery
DC generators - alternator
Alternators - DC generator
Basically, generators and alternators both produce alternating current. In ... electricity is rectified by diodes,
in ... electricity is rectified by the commutator.
alternators - DC generators
DC generators - alternators
Most ... fail to output sufficient voltage, however, this statement is not true for ...
DC generators - alternators
alternators - DC generators
Voltage regulation in an electric system is executed by ...

the regulator
the commutator
the contactor
the diode block
A 28 V electrical system hosts a ...
24 V battery.
12 V battery.
14 V battery.
28 V battery.
Which component is a common element in DC motors and generators?
the commutator.
the diode block.
the regulator.
the contactor.
If 0 charging is indicated on the left side of an ampere-meter scale, then this device ...
measures the amperes in the current flowing from the generator.
indicates the amperes in the current flowing to and from the battery.
If 0 charging is indicated in the middle of an ampere-meter scale, then this device ...
indicates the amperes in the current flowing to and from the battery.
measures the amperes in the current flowing from the generator.
What is the discharge terminal voltage of a 12 V battery?

10.5 V
1.75 V
2V
6V
In the case of in-flight alternator failure when the accumulated power of all loads in the system amounts to
130 W, and battery capacity is 30 Ah, for how long do you estimate this battery can maintain electricity in a
For about 2.8 hours.
Should the alternator fail, what voltage is indicated by the voltmeter in a system with a charged 14V battery?
Approximately 12V which will gradually decrease.
Approximately 10.5V which will gradually decrease.
If activated loads on an aeroplane use 20 A, and the alternator is switched off, the ampere-meter with a
scale showing 0 in the middle will indicate ...., the ampere-meter with a scale showing 0.
-20 A - 0 A.
-20 A - 20 A.
0 A - 0 A.
0 A - 20 A.
Which is the AIR range?
108.000-136.975 MHz.
118.000-136.975 MHz.
108.000-118.000 MHz.
104.000-121.500 MHz.
On-board aeroplane radio sets operate in ... frequency rage with ...
VHF - AM modulation.
SLF - FM modulation.
MF - FM modulation.
UHF - AM modulation.
VHF radio station operation is .... – Range of ground to ground communication .... limited by the Earth's
not influenced by the weather – is
influenced by weather – is not
not influenced by the weather – is not
influenced by weather – is
Aircraft radio sets have ... kHz frequency separation or above ... for high level air traffic control they have ...
25 - FL195 - 8.33
8.33 - FL100 - 25
25 - FL100 - 8.33
8.33 - FL195 - 25
... radar equipment aka passive radar detects signals transmitted by itself and reflected from an object.
The primary
The secondary
Civil aviation radars operate in the following frequency range:

300 MHz - 30 GHz
300 kHz - 30 MHz
300 kHz - 30 GHz
30 MHz - 300 GHz
Secondary radar equipment is smaller, and smaller transmission power is enough for its operation.
True.
False.
One advantage of primary radar devices is that the quality of the received signal is not affected by the size of
the aeroplane; such devices detect neither moisture in the air nor stationary objects.
False.
True.
The higher an aeroplane flies, the ... distance it can be detected by radar.
longer
shorter
Aeroplane detection is independent of flight altitude.
COMMUNICATIONS
1. When arriving at an airfield with an Aerodrome Flight Information Service, a pilot receives the following call
“G-EFIM, Land at your discretion, Surface Wind 230/08" Which of the following pilot responses to this radio call is
correct?”
a. "At my discretion, 230/08, G-EFIM."
b. "G-EFIM." or "Roger, G-EFIM." or "Landing, G-EFIM."
c. “Cleared to land, G-EFIM."
d. “Land at my discretion. G-IM."
2. In a distress call, immediately following the MAYDAY prefix, what information should an aircraft next
transmit, if circumstances permit:
a. The call-sign of the station addressed.
b. The position of the aircraft.
c. Aircraft type.
d. The nature of the emergency.
3. What should be the full content of a Distress call?

a. Station Addressed, MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY, Call-sign, Position, Intention of Person in command.
b. PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN, Position, Heading, Nature of Emergency, Intention of Person in command,
Pilot Qualification, Any Other Useful Information.
c. MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY, Call-sign of Station Addressed, Type of Aircraft, Nature of Emergency,
Intention of Person in command, Position, Level and Heading, Pilot Qualification (wherever possible), Any other
useful information.
d. MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY, Nature of Emergency, Intention of Person in command, Endurance.
4. What should be the content of an Urgency call?

a. Station Addressed, PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN, Call-sign, Position, Pilot Qualification Intention of
Person in command.
b. MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY, Position, Heading, Nature of Emergency, Intention of Person in command,
Any Other Useful Information.
c. PAN, PAN, PAN, Call-sign of Station Addressed, Position, Nature of Emergency, Intention of Person in
command, Endurance.
d. PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN, Call-sign of Station Addressed (time and circumstances permitting) , Type
of Aircraft, Nature of Emergency, Intention of Person in command, Position, Level and Heading, Pilot Qualification
(wherever possible), Any other useful information.
5. In United Kingdom RT Phraseology, which of the following options is correct regarding the wording of radio
messages relating an aircraft’s climb or descent to a HEIGHT or ALTITUDE?
a. The message should avoid all use of the word “to".
b. The message should employ the word “to", followed immediately by the word HEIGHT or ALTITUDE.
c. The message should employ the word “to”, followed by the QFE or QNH.
d. The message should employ the word “to”, followed immediately by the word LEVEL.
6. Which of the following options best describes the purpose of a Special VFR clearance?
a. It enables a pilot to fly in the Open FIR with weather minima which are lower than for VFR.
b. It enables a pilot flying VFR to cross an airway.
c. It permits a pilot flying VFR to operate at his discretion within Control Zone.
d. It enables a pilot flying VFR to fly in a Control Zone where normally an IFR clearance would be required.
7. Under what circumstances would a conditional clearance be used to direct movements on an active
runway?
a. When an aircraft not equipped with a radio is landing or taking off.
b. When air traffic movements are particularly dense, provided it is safe to do so.
c. When all aircraft and/or vehicles included in the clearance can be seen by the controller issuing, and the
pilot receiving, the clearance, and provided that the clearance relates to a single movement.
d. When vehicles not equipped with radio require to cross the active runway.
8. Which of the options below gives a correct order and content for a Position Report?
a. Call-sign, Route, Position, Level, ETA next Position, Heading, Request.
b. Call-sign, Position, Time, Level or Altitude, Next Position with ETA.
c. Position, Level or Altitude, Time, ETA at Next Position, Call-sign.
d. Route, Position, Time, Level or Altitude, ETA at Next Position, Call-sign.
9. Within what limits of accuracy is a VDF bearing which is passed to a pilot over the RT, and identified as a
Class B bearing?
a. + or - 5 degrees.
b. + or - 3 degrees.
c. + or -10 degrees.
d. + or - more than 10 degrees.
10. When requesting a Special VFR clearance, in flight, what details must a pilot pass to ATC?
a. Call-sign, Altitude, Heading, ETA at entry point of Control Zone.
b. Call-sign, Type, Heading, ETA at entry point of Control Zone.
c. Type, Heading, ETA at entry point of Control Zone, Call-sign.
d. Call-sign, Type, Intentions, ETA at entry point of Control Zone.
11. Emergency procedures may be practised using the Frequency 121.5 provided that:
a. The permission of the appropriate Control Centre has been previously obtained by telephone.
b. The permission of the ATSU with which the pilot is in contact has been previously obtained.
c. The procedure practised does not include simulating a condition of Distress.
d. The procedure practised does not include simulating either a condition of Distress or a condition of
Urgency.
12. What are the three categories of aeronautical communication service?

a. Air, Land and Sea.
b. Approach, Tower, Ground.
c. IFR, VFR, SVFR.
d. Air Ground Communication Service, UK Flight Information Service, Air Traffic Control.
13. When transmitting an emergency message, a pilot is required to give his aircraft's position as:
a. The present or last known position, together with altitude or level, and heading.
b. A GPS position.
c. A position relative to the nearest airfield or aerodrome.
d. A DME range from the station being addressed.
14. Having obtained a clearance to cross a Military Aerodrome Traffic Zone (MATZ), a pilot is requested to
maintain 2,500 feet on the MATZ QFE. All references to the aircraft's vertical position should, from that point, be
made in terms of its:
a. Altitude.
b. Height.
c. Flight Level.
d. Minimum Vertical Separation Distance.
15. If the pilot of G-ABCD wishes to obtain a true bearing from a VDF station, the correct RTF call to make is:
a. G-ABCD, Request QDR, G-ABCD.
b. True Bearing, True Bearing, G-ABCD, Request True Bearing, G-ABCD.
c. G-ABCD, Request QDM, G-ABCD.
d. QDR, QDR, G-ABCD, Request QDR, G-ABCD.
16. Which of the following is a correctly worded Conditional Clearance, using United Kingdom phraseology?
a. Whiteknuckle 248, After the landing 737, Line up.
b. Whiteknuckle 248, Line up after the landing 737.
c. Oxbow 321, Report Final, One ahead.
d. Cheapo 742, Cleared for take-off, Caution Wake turbulence.
17. The pilot of G-GOOD is carrying out a standard, overhead join at an unattended airfield in the United
Kingdom. Which of the following RT calls indicates that he is commencing his descent in accordance with the
standard procedure?
a. G-GOOD, Crosswind, Descending.
b. G-GOOD, Overhead, Descending.
c. G-GOOD, Deadside, Descending.
d. G-GOOD, Right Base, Descending.
18. When requesting a clearance to cross a Military Aerodrome Traffic Zone, a pilot should pass information to
the military controller with the following content and in the following order:
a. Call-sign, Heading, Route, Present Position. Intentions.
b. Call-sign, Aircraft Type, Departure Point and Destination. Present Position, Altitude or Level, Additional
Details or Intentions.
c. Aircraft Type, Route, Present Position, Additional Details or Intentions, Call-sign
d. Call-sign, Altitude, Position, Intentions.
19. A pilot receives the following message from ATC. “G-HOPE, After departure cleared to zone boundary via
Route Bravo, Climb to Altitude 2 500 feet, QNH 1005, Squawk 6521." What type of clearance is this?
a. A Take-off Clearance.
b. A Conditional Clearance.
c. A Departure Clearance.
d. A Route Clearance.
20. What should be the most correct content and order of a pilot’s reply to the ATC instruction, “Pass Your
Message"?
a. Aircraft Call-sign, Aircraft Type, Departure Point and Destination, Present Position, Altitude or Level,
Additional Details and Intention (e.g. Flight Rules, Next Point on Route.).
b. Aircraft Call-sign, Aircraft Type, Departure Point and Destination, Present Position, Heading, Altitude or
Level, Additional Details and Intentions, Request.
c. Aircraft Call-sign, Aircraft Type, Position, Heading, Level, Request.
d. AircraftType, Route Information, Position, Heading, Level, Additional Details and Intentions, Aircraft Call-
sign.
21. In his initial call to Stealthy Approach, what words should be transmitted by the pilot of aircraft G-KEEN, if,
during a cross-country flight, he requires a Flight Information Service?
a. Stealthy Approach, Golf Kilo Echo Echo November.
b. Golf Kilo Echo Echo November, Stealthy Approach.
c. Stealthy Approach, Golf Kilo Echo Echo November, Request Flight Information Service.
d. Golf Kilo Echo Echo November, Stealthy Approach, Request Flight Information Service .
22. You discover in your pre-flight planning that the air traffic service at your destination airfield is provided by
an Aerodrome Flight Information Service Officer (AFISO). What will be the allocated RT call-sign of the of the
ground station?
a. Information.
b. Radio.
c. Tower.
d. Approach.
23. You discover in your pre-flight planning that the air traffic service at your destination airfield is provided by
an Air-Ground Communications Service. What will be the allocated RT call-sign of the of the ground station?
a. Information.
b. Approach.
c. Tower.
d. Radio.
24. On entering United Kingdom Airspace from an adjacent region where you have not been required to
squawk a transponder code, what transponder code should you select?
a. 7000
b. 7600
c. 2000
d. You would contact the appropriate FIR to ask for a transponder code.
25. ‘SQUAWK IDENT means:

a. select the SSR transponder code to 7000.
b. select the SSR transponder mode to ‘ALT’.
c. say again your call-sign.
d. operate the SSR transponder ‘Special Position Identification' feature.
26. The phrase “Squawk Charlie” means:

a. transponder.
b. select ‘ALT’ on the transponder.
c. confirm the transponder is selected ON.
d. select 7700 on the transponder.
27. From which aeronautical communications service would you obtain automated broadcasts on aerodrome
and weather information?
a. RIS
b. FIS
c. ATIS
d. AGCS
28. The frequency used for the initial transmission of a MAYDAY call should be
a. the distress frequency 121.5 MHz.
b. the frequency on which the pilot is currently receiving a service.
c. any international distress frequency.
d. the approach frequency of the nearest airfield.
29. An altitude of 1500 feet is transmitted as:

a. FIFTEEN HUNDRED FEET.
b. WUN TOUSAND FIFE HUNDRED FEET.
c. WUN FIFE HUNDRED FEET.
d. WUN FIFE ZERO ZERO FEET.
30. The correct pronunciation of the frequency 122.1 MHz when passed by RT is:
a. WUN TOO TOO POINT WUN.
b. WUN TOO TOO DAYSEEMAL WUN.
c. WUN TOO TOO DECIMAL WUN.
d. WUN TWENTY WUN DECIMAL WUN.
31. The word ‘ROGER’ means:

a. that is correct.
b. message received and understood.
c. pass your message.
d. I have received all of your last transmission.
32. Which of the following is correct?

a. Runway 18 is passed as “Runway Eighteen”.
b. “With you" means that you are on frequency.
c. ROGER means I have received all of your last transmission.
d. WILCO means I have received and understood the message.
33. What is the Q code for a true bearing from a station?

a. QDR
b. QNH
c. QTE
d. QFE
34. What is the Q code for a magnetic bearing from a station?

a. QGH
b. QDM
c. QNH
d. QDR
35. Your radio check is reported as ‘Readability 3’, your transmission is:
a. unreadable.
b. perfectly readable.
c. reading only half the time.
d. readable but with difficulty.
36. Pilots requiring a MATZ penetration service must establish 2-way communications with the aerodrome
controlling the zone when:
a. 10 miles or 15 mins flying time from the zone boundary, whichever is sooner.
b. 15 miles or 10 mins flying time from the zone boundary, whichever is sooner.
c. 15 miles or 5 mins flying time from the zone boundary, whichever is sooner.
d. 10 miles or 5 mins flying time from the zone boundary, whichever is sooner.
37. Which of these statements is true?

a. If you are receiving a Danger Area Activity Information Service the unit providing the service can also give
you clearance to cross the danger area.
b. VFR flights are allowed in Danger Areas only if aircraft are equipped with a transponder fitted with Mode
Charlie.
c. VFR flights are not allowed in Danger Areas under any circumstances.
d. If you are receiving a Danger Area Activity Information Service the unit providing the service cannot also
give you clearance to cross the danger area.
38. A pilot may file a flight plan with an ATSU during flight. The frequency that would normally be used for this
purpose is:
a. the frequency of the FIR in which you are flying.
b. the Radar frequency of the ATSU with which you are in contact.
c. the Approach frequency of the ATSU with which you are in contact.
d. the Tower frequency of the ATSU with which you are in contact.
39. What RT call would you make when you are ready to take off is?
a. Request departure.
b. Ready for take off.
c. Request take-off clearance.
d. Ready for departure.
40. In the United Kingdom, when operating in the vicinity of a busy aerodrome, which has a high concentration
of visual circuit traffic, what transponder code may the controller ask the pilot to select?
a. 7700
b. 7010
c. 7600
d. 7000
41. If you wish to request a service from an Air Traffic Services Unit:
a. you must do so in your initial call.
b. you must do so after you have established two way communications with the station.
c. you must monitor the ground station frequency until you hear the ground station giving the service you
require to another aircraft.
d. as a private pilot you are not entitled to request a service.
42. A pilot may abbreviate his call-sign only:

a. after having established communication with an aeronautical ground station on the frequency in use.
b. when he considers no confusion with another similar call-sign is likely to occur on the frequency in use.
c. when communicating with the departure and destination airfields.
d. if it has first been abbreviated by the aeronautical ground station on the frequency in use.
43. Which of the following lists are all ATC messages that must read back in full:
a. level instructions, altimeter settings, surface wind, runway information.
b. clearance to enter, land on. take off on. backtrack, cross or hold short of an active runway; speed
instructions. SSR instructions.
c. VDF information, frequency changes, type of radar service, serviceability of approach aid.
d. ATC route clearances, runway clearances, actual weather reports.
44. On hearing a Distress message a pilot must:
a. acknowledge the message immediately and standby to relay further messages if required.
b. maintain radio silence and monitor the frequency to ensure assistance is provided.
c. change frequency because radio silence will be imposed on the frequency in use.
d. take control of the situation and co-ordinate the efforts of all agencies in the rescue operation.
45. URGENCY is defined as a condition:

a. of being threatened by serious and or immediate danger and of requiring immediate assistance.
b. concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle or of some person on board or within sight and requiring
immediate assistance.
c. concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle or of some person on board or within sight, but which
does not require immediate assistance.
d. requiring urgent assistance from ground stations.
46. What are the two classified states of Emergency Message?

a. Emergency and PAN PAN.
b. Distress and Urgency.
c. MAYDAY and PAN PAN.
d. Emergency and Security.
47. If making a straight-in approach, the FINAL call should be made at about:
a. 2 nm
b. 4 nm
c. 8 nm
d. 25 nm
48. A condition of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance
describes what category of message?
a. Distress,
b. Flight Safety.
c. Urgency
d. Emergency
49. 'STANDBY' means:

a. wait and I will call you again.
b. select STANDBY on the SSR Transponder.
c. hold your present position.
d. continue on present heading and listen out.
50. Which of the following messages has the highest priority?

a. CAUTION, WORK IN PROGRESS ON THE TAXIWAY.
b. REPORT FINAL NUMBER 1.
c. REQUEST QDM.
d. TAXY TO THE REFUELLING PUMPS.
51. Which statement is correct?

a. A VHF Direction Finding message has priority over a flight safety message.
b. A meteorological message has priority over a flight safety message.
c. An urgency message is lower priority than a flight safety message.
d. A "windshear" warning has a higher priority than "cleared to take off”.
52. Altitude is defined as:

a. the vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered as a point, measured from mean sea level.
b. the vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered as a point, measured from another point.
c. the vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered as a point, measured from an aircraft.
d. the vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered as a point, measured from an airfield.
53. Which transponder mode gives an altitude readout:

a. Mode Alpha.
b. Mode Bravo.
c. Mode Charlie.
d. Mode Delta.
54. What are the 4 categories of Flight Information Service?

a. Basic, Radar Information, Radar Advisory, Procedural
b. Basic, Normal, Collision Avoidance, Procedural
c. Basic, Traffic, Deconfliction, Procedural
d. Basic, Normal, Deconfliction, Procedural
55. What is the Q-code for a magnetic bearing to a VDF station?

a. QGH
b. QDM
c. QDR
d. QTE
56. Frequency 121.725 MHz should be transmitted as:

a. ONE TWO ONE POINT SEVEN TWO.
b. WUN TOO WUN DAYSEEMAL SEVEN TOO FIFE.
c. WUN TOO WUN POINT SEVEN TOO.
d. ONE TWENTY ONE DECIMAL SEVEN TWENTY FIVE.
57. Certain words may be omitted from transmissions provided no confusion will result. Which of the following
underlined words must not be omitted?
a. SURFACE in relation to surface wind and direction.
b. FEET in relation to altitude or height.
c. DEGREES in relation to radar headings.
d. CLOUD in meteorological reports.
58. Loss of communications is indicated by which transponder code?

a. 7700
b. 7600
c. 7500
d. 7400
59. When transmitting a message preceded by the phrase “Transmitting blind due to receiver failure" the
aircraft station shall also:
a. advise the time of its next intended transmission.
b. hold for 5 minutes at its present position.
c. proceed to the alternate airport.
d. enter the next en-route holding pattern.
60. Radio test transmissions should take the following form:

a. station being called, aircraft identification, words “Readability check", frequency.
b. station being called, aircraft identification, words “radio check", frequency being used.
c. station being called, aircraft identification, words “How do you read?".
d. station being called, aircraft identification, frequency, words “Do you read?".
61. The point to which an aircraft is granted ATC clearance is the:

a. limit point.
b. clearance limit.
c. no go point.
d. point of No Return.
62. Taxy instructions issued by the controller will include a clearance limit which will normally be:
a. the threshold of the runway in use.
b. the entrance to the parking area.
c. the holding point of the runway in use.
d. the holding point of an intermediate runway.
63. Which of these statements is true?
a. When making an initial call from an aircraft to a ground station you must state the ground station name and
suffix first and then your abbreviated call-sign.
b. When making an initial call from an aircraft to a ground station you must state the ground station name and
suffix first and then your full call-sign.
c. When making an initial call from an aircraft to a ground station you must state your full call-sign first and
then the ground station name and suffix.
d. When making an initial call from an aircraft to a ground station you must state your abbreviated call-sign
first and then the ground station name and suffix.
64. What is the meaning of the UK term FREECALL when used by an ATSU to a pilot in flight?
a. Call (designator of unit/frequency), when you choose to do so.
b. Call (designator of unit/frequency), before contacting your destination airfield.
c. Call (designator of unit/frequency), passing what information you judge relevant to the safe continuation of
your flight.
d. Call (designator of unit/frequency) and pass your full details on first contact.
65. If a pilot receives an instruction from ATC which he cannot carry out, he should use the phrase:
a. UNABLE.
b. NEGATIVE INSTRUCTION.
c. NO CAN DO.
d. CANCEL INSTRUCTION.
How to spell HA-EJF?
HOTEL-ALPHA-ECHO-JULIETT-FOXTROT
HOTEL-APPLE-EASY-JOHNNY-FOX
HOTEL-ALPHA-EASY-JULIETT-FOX
HOTEL-ACE-ECHO-JOHNNY-FREDDIE
How to abbreviate HA-TUO?
HOTEL-ALFA-TANGO-UNIFORM
HOTEL-TANGO-UNIFORM
HOTEL-UNIFORM-OSCAR
UNIFORM-OSCAR
When can a call sign be abbreviated?
If the ground station did so.
In a non-controlled airspace
If the connection has been established
Any time, as it makes the transmission time shorter
What should not be read back?
Windspeed
Squawk
Altitude
Frequency
What does SQUAWK IDENT mean?
Push the squawk ident button on transponder
Reset squawk
Transmit present squawk
Transmit registration number
What would you do if radio communication failed in CTR?
Continue the approach, hold for 5 minutes, then land on runway in use
Monitor for ground light signals and comply with them
Continue the approach, hold until ground light signals appear and comply with them
Leave the CTR as soon as possible
What is the name of the automatic terminal information service?
ATIS
AFIS
AFIL
AFTN
How to perform blind transmission?
"PAN PAN" announced 3 time
"blind transmission" announced two times
start with "to all stations"
start with "general call"
What expression is to be announced three times for emergency?
MAYDAY
PAN PAN
BREAK BREAK
What does BREAK BREAK mean?

Urgency message
emergency message
aknowledgement
fast separation between two messages
What international frequencies are for emergency?
121,5 MHz and 243 MHz
118,00 MHz and 236 MHz.
125,1 MHz and 250,2 MHz.
136,00 MHz and 272 MHz.
How to transmit the following: HB-JYC?
Hotel Bravo Juliet Yankee Charlie
Hotel Beta Juliet Yaw Cherokee
Honduras Beta Jungo Yankee Charlie
Hotel Beta Juliet Yankee Cherokee
A station in the air is allowed to use the abbreviated callsign if…
the ground station already started using it
the channel is very busy, to make communication easier
it enters a controlled airspace
it flies in Budapest FIR
What information should be read back?
Runway in use, altimeter settings, squawk, speed, heading, altitude information
Runway in use, wind, speed, heading, altitude information
Runway in use, heading, altitude information
Runway in use, altimeter settings, squawk, speed, heading, wind, altitude information
Which part of the radio frequency range is used for VHF communication in aviation?
118.000 - 136.975 MHz
110.000 - 117.975 MHz
110.000 - 136.975 MHz
105.000 - 127.975 MHz
How shall a pilot inform the control tower that he/she is prepared for takeoff?
Ready for departure/ ready
Ready to leave
Request start
Ready to start
Which of the following abbreviated call signs of aircraft XY-ABC is correct?
X-BC
XY-BC
ABC
BC
What does the word "NEGATIVE" mean?
Permission not granted
Proposed action granted
Disregard last instruction
The transmission has not been sent
On the readability scale what does READABILITY 1 mean?
Unreadable
Perfectly readable
Readable
Readable but with difficulty
What is the correct way of transmitting 1001 as QNH?
QNH one zero zero one
roger
QNH one thousand and one
QNH one double zero one
When transmitting time, which time system shall be used?
Co-ordinated universal time (UTC)
Local time
Local time with 24h clock
No specific system as only minutes are transmitted
Which word or phrase to be used for "WAIT AND I WILL CALL YOU" ?
Standby
Wilco
Go ahead
Roger
Attentuation of radio waves means
The weakening of the radiated waves
The atmospheric bending of waves
The scattering effect of tropopause
Radio energy absortion of the sea surfaces
You are flying nort-east at 2500 feet. What is the correct answer for heading and level inquiry?
Heading 045 at 2500 feet
045 and 2500
heading 45 and 2500 feet
045 and level 2500
An aircraft squawking 7700 indicates
The aircraft is in distress
The aircraft is hijacked
The radio on-board is out of service
The aircraft carries a sick passenger
Which phrase shall be used to make the other station to report it's previous message?
Say again
Repeat
Request repeat
What was your message?
Which abbreviation is used for Coordinated Universal Time?
UTC
GMT
CUT
COUT
The word "scattered" in aviation report means the cloud covering of the sky is:
3 or 4 oktas
5 to 7 oktas
8 oktas
No clouds below 5000 feet AGL
What does the instruction "ORBIT RIGHT" mean?
Make 360° turns to the right
turn right and descend
Right hand traffic circuits are in use
Leave the RWY immediately to the right
If you are requested to report your height, which pressure setting is relevant?
QFE
QDM
QNH
QGO
The instruction "SQUAWK IDENT" received. What to do?
Shall operate the IDENT button
Reset squawk
Set 7000 on transponder
Operate transponder in Alpha mode
When the term "CAVOK" is used in meteorology report, the visibility is:
More than 10 kilometres
More than 5 kilometers
More than 10000 feet
More than 8 kilometers
In distress or urgency calls, the prefix MAYDAY or PAN PAN should be repeated
three times
Dobule times
Four times
At least five times
What are the consequences of an aircraft with a transmit button stuck on?
No one else can use the frequency
Improves readability for everyone else
It has no effect on the others
It prevents other aircraft to transmit, but everyone can receive ATC messages
What does AFIS stand for?
Aerodrome Flight Information Service
Advisory Flight Information Service
Aerodrome Flight Information Station
Advisory Flight Information Station
Radio communication between ground and aerial stations ...
is a two way, simplex system.
is a one way, simplex system.
is a one way, duplex system.
is a two way, duplex system.
How are ground stations which provide daytime services called?
HJ
HS
HN
HX
Radio messages of private nature can be transmitted ...
under no circumstances.
briefly if necessary.
if the control station has given permission.
in non-controlled airspace.
Transmission on a given radio frequency between sub-stations ...
is only possible with the permission of the main station.
is always possible.
is always possible in non-controlled airspace.
In Budapest FIR controlled airspace ...

primarily English should be used, however, Hungarian can also be used.
pilots should use the English language for radio communications.
pilots should use the Hungarian language for radio communications.
primarily Hungarian should be used, however, English can also be used.
Using a proper manner of speech you should …
speak using even volume and pace, and well-structured sentences.
speak quickly in order to minimise communication time.
speak slowly to make understanding as easy as possible.
How would you pronounce number 4702?

FOUR THOUSAND SEVEN HUNDRED TWO.
FOUR THOUSAND SEVEN HUNDRED SECOND.
FOURTH THOUSAND SEVEN HUNDRED TWO.
How would you pronounce number 5608?

FIVE THOUSAND SIX HUNDRED EIGHTH.
FIFTH THOUSAND SIX HUNDRED EIGHTH.
FIVE THOUSAND SIX HUNDRED EIGHT.
When doing radio checks, what does READABILITY 4 mean?

Transmission is readable.
Transmission is perfectly readable.
Transmission is readable with difficulties.
Transmission is readable now and then.
What is the first thing to do should radio connection terminate?
I have to check my radio set.
I must immediately set squawk code 7600.
I need to initiate blind transmission to let others know of my problem.
I must find the most suitable airfield for landing.
What would you do if radio communication broke in CTR while approach?
The pilot should continue the approach as approved, and if no landing clearance has been given, should wait
for 5 minutes in the designated holding airspace, and then land on the runway in use for landing. In the
meantime, the pilot should monitor any ground light signals.
The pilot should leave the CTR as soon as possible.
The pilot should monitor ground light signals and act accordingly.
The pilot should continue the approach as approved, and if no landing clearance has been given, should wait
in the designated holding airspace, and should monitor any ground light signals.
What would you do if radio communication broke in CTR after take-off?
The pilot should leave the CTR following the route clearance given by the TWR.
The pilot should leave the CTR as soon as possible.
The pilot should hold for 5 minutes in the designated holding area, then if no light signal are given, should
leave the CTR following the route clearance given by the TWR.
The pilot should wait for the ground light signals in the designated holding area.
Should one of your passengers suffer a suspected heart attack ...
you need to transmit an urgency message by repeating PAN PAN three times, the transponder does not need
to be set as distress situations have no specific codes.
you need to transmit an emergency message by repeating MAYDAY three times, and you have to set code
7700 on your transponder.
you need to transmit an emergency message by repeating PAN PAN three times, and you have to set code
7500 on your transponder
you need to transmit an urgency message by repeating MAYDAY three times, and you have to set code 7700
on your transponder.
AIRCRAFT PERFORMANCE
2 - TAKE-OFF
1. If the density of the atmosphere is reduced, the take-off distance required will be:
a. increased
b. decreased
c. unaffected
d. reduced with a wind
2. What effect will a higher aircraft mass have on the rotate speed and take off safety speed?
a. It will decrease both speeds
b. It will increase rotate speed and decrease take off safety speed
c It will increase both speeds
d. It will decrease rotate speed and increase take off safety speed
3. That part of a runway surface which is used for normal operations during take off, excluding any clearway or
stopway, is referred to as:
a. the Take-Off Run Available (TORA)
b. the Accelerate-Stop Distance Available (ASDA)
c. the Take-Off Distance Available (TODA)
d. the Emergency Distance Avertable if (EMDA)
4. Complete the following statement as accurately as possible using one of the options a), b), c) or d). If the
density of the air increases the effect will be.
a. to increase the take-off distance required
b. to increase the take-off run
c. to decrease the take-off distance required
d. to decrease the indicated airspeed at lift-off
5. Complete the following statement as accurately as possible using one of the options a), b), c) or d). The main
reason for taking off into wind is to
a. increase the take-off distance required
b. decrease the take-off distance available
c. increase the ground speed of the aircraft at lift-off
d. decrease the ground speed of the aircraft at lift-off and to decrease the Take-Off Distance Required
6. Complete the following statement as accurately as possible using one of the following options: a), b), c) or d).
During take-off, the use of the manufacturer's recommended take-off flap setting:
a. compared to zero flap, will increase the length of the take-off run and obstacle clearance performance
b. compared to zero flap, will decrease the take-off run required but reduce obstacle clearance performance
c compared to zero flap, will increase the indicated airspeed at which the aircraft can lift-off
d. compared to zero flap, will ensure a steeper angle of climb after lift-off
7. Complete the following statement accurately using one of the options: a), b), c) or d). When the density of the
atmosphere is relatively low, the resulting reduction in:
a. thrust and drag has no apparent effect on the take-off distance required
b. both lift and engine power will require a longer take-off distance
c. drag will permit the use of greater flap angles
d. drag offsets the loss of engine power giving improved acceleration
8. The horizontal distance covered during take-off, from brakes-release to the 50 feet screen height, and which
includes any stopway or clearway, is referred to as:
b. the Accelerate-Stop Distance Available (ASDA)
d. the Emergency Distance Available (EMDA)
9. That part of a take-off strip which includes the Take-Off Run Available and the stopway, is referred to as:
b. the clearway
d. the Accelerate-Stop Distance Available (ASDA) or Emergency Distance Available (EDA)
10. What name is given to the distance which comprises Take-Off Run Available (TORA) and any clearway?
a. Emergency Distance Available (EMDA)
b. Take-Off Distance Required (TODA)
c. Accelerate-Stop Distance Available (ASDA)
d. Take-Off Distance Available (TODA)
11. A 15 knot wind at 60° off the runway heading gives a headwind component of approximately:
a. 8 knots
b. 14 knots
c. 12 knots
d. 3 knots
12. A 15 knot wind at 60° off the runway heading gives a crosswind component of approximately:
a. 8 knots
b. 14 knots
c. 12 knots
d. 3 knots
3 - CLIMB
1. From the table shown, extract the rate of climb for an aircraft operating at 5000 feet with an outside air
temperature of 0° C.
a. 555 feet per minute
b. 425 feet per minute
c. 490 feet per minute
d. 295 feet per minute
2. To gain the greatest amount of height in the shortest time, an aircraft should be flown at:
a. 60 knots
b. the best rate of climb speed (Vy)
c. the best angle of climb speed (Vx)
d. at the speed for maximum endurance
3. The indicated air speed for the best rate of climb when climbing to an aircraft's service ceiling will tend to:
a. decrease then increase
b. remain the same
c. increase
d. decrease
4. What is the reason for increasing the speed in a prolonged climb?

a. to maintain the best rate of climb
b. to reduce the noise of the aircraft in sensitive areas
c. to increase the flow of air through the engine and keep it cool
d. to maintain the best angle of climb
5. The best rate of climb is achieved:

a. when flying at the speed for maximum excess thrust available
b. when climbing into wind
c. when flying at Vx
d. when flying at the speed for maximum excess power available.
6. Climbing at Vx will achieve:

a. the best time to height
b. the greatest increase in altitude in a given time
c. the maximum angle of climb
d. the maximum horizontal distance for a given vertical distance
7. One effect of climbing an aircraft with flap selected would be:

a. an improved climb performance
b. a decreased co-efficient of drag
c. a decreased co-efficient of lift
d. a reduced rate and angle of climb
8. Increasing the mass (and, therefore, the weight) of an aircraft will:

a. decrease the rate and angle of climb
b. increase the rate and angle of climb
c. increase the rate of climb and decrease the angle of climb
d. decrease the rate of climb and increase the angle of climb
9. Climbing at Vy will achieve:

a. the maximum angle of climb
b. the greatest increase in altitude in a given period of time
c. the maximum increase in height in the shortest horizontal distance
d. the best obstacle clearance performance
10. An aircraft cruising at a pressure altitude 2 000 feet is cleared to climb to a pressure altitude 8 000 feet. Using
the table, calculate the time taken in minutes, the fuel used in gallons and the horizontal distance flown in the
climb, assuming zero wind.
a. 19 minutes, 4 gallons, 27 miles
b. 23 minutes, 4.07 gallons, 32 miles
c. 15 minutes, 3.3 gallons, 22 miles
d. 4 minutes, 0.7 gallons, 5 miles
11 The lift produced by the wing of an aircraft in a steady climb maintaining a constant indicated airspeed will
be:
a. less than weight
b. greater than weight
c. equal to weight
d. independent of weight
12. How will an aircraft's maximum rate of climb be affected by selecting take-off flap?
a. The maximum rate of climb will increase
b. The maximum rate of climb will not be affected
c. The maximum rate of climb will remain the same provided that the pilot chooses an appropriate power setting
d. The maximum rate of climb will decrease
13. What effect will a decreasing headwind component have on the best achievable angle of climb.
a. The angle of climb will decrease
b. The angle of climb will steepen
c. The angle of climb will remain constant at all values of headwind component.
d. The angle of climb is independent of the value of headwind component.
4 - EN-ROUTE
1. If the centre of gravity of an aircraft is moved rearwards, the effect is:

a. a stronger lift/weight couple which requires a greater tailplane force to maintain the aircraft in equilibrium
b. an increased range and endurance
c a reduced range and endurance
d. a greater tail-load
2. What speed must be flown to attain maximum cruise endurance?

a. Vy
b. Maximum Speed
c Vmp
d. Vmd
3. A wing contaminated by a small amount of ice will produce:

a. more weight and more lift
b. more drag, more weight and less lift
c. an increase in both lift and drag co-efficient
d. an increase in weight and decrease in drag
4. When gliding for maximum range an aircraft with a greater weight will:
a. have a reduced glide range
b. have a shallower glide angle
c. have a faster gliding speed but the same glide angle
d. have a faster gliding speed and a reduced gliding range
5. What speed, from Figure 4.15, should be flown for maximum range?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
6. The glide range will be maximised by flying at:

a. a relatively high angle of attack such as 10°
b. a relatively low angle of attack such as 4° which will give the best lift/drag ratio
c. a negative angle of attack
d. a high descent angle
7. A pilot wishes to fly at a speed which will give him maximum range. He knows that he is flying in a tailwind.
How will the speed selected by the pilot compare with the maximum range speed for still air quoted in the Flight
Manual?
a. It will be decreased slightly
b. It will increased slightly
c. It will be the same as for still air
d. The speed will be greater by the value of the tailwind component
8. What is the effect of a headwind on the glide angle and gliding range with respect to the ground?
a. Glide angle and glide range will remain the same as in still air
b. Glide angle and glide range will increase
c. Glide angle and glide range will decrease
d. Glide angle will increase and glide range decrease
9. What is the maximum range speed for a piston engine aircraft?
a. Vmp
b. Vmd
c. At a lower speed than Vmp
d. At a speed less than Vmd
10. The true airspeed of an aircraft which maintains a constant indicated airspeed will:
a. increase as altitude increase
b. remain constant as altitude increases
c. decrease as altitude increases
d. act unpredictably, as true airspeed has no connection with indicated airspeed
11. Examine the graph in Figure 4.16, Which of the speeds Indicated by A, B, C or D should be flown for
maximum endurance?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
12. The Centre of Pressure of a given aircraft is aft of the aircraft's Centre of Gravity. During straight and level
flight, any increase in the lift causing an imbalance in the equilibrium of forces is compensated for by:
a. an upward force generated by the tailplane
b. a downward force generated by the tailplane
c. an increase in thrust
d. a decrease in drag
13. Compared to gliding in still air, the effect of a tailwind will:

a. increase the glide range but have no effect on the rate of descent
b. decrease the glide angle and decrease the rate of descent
c. have no effect on the glide range or the rate of descent
d. increase the glide angle and increase the rate of descent
14. What would be the effect of an increase in temperature upon air density and aircraft performance?
a. Increased density and reduced aircraft performance
b. Increased density and increased aircraft performance
c. Reduced density and an increase in aircraft performance
d. Reduced density and reduced aircraft performance
15. In order to maximise glide range, the aircraft should be flown:

a. at a high angle of attack to achieve Vy
b. at a low angle of attack to achieve Vmp
c. at a negative angle of attack to achieve Vx
d. at a low angle of attack to achieve Vmd
16. What speed must be flown to attain maximum cruise range?

a. Vx
b. Maximum speed
C Vmd
d. Vmp
17. If weight is increased, the range of the aircraft will be:

a. reduced
b. unchanged
c. increased
d. increased unless lift can be reduced
18. An aircraft has a best lift/drag ratio of 9:1. What is the maximum distance it could glide from 4 000 ft above
ground level, in zero wind conditions?
a. 6 nautical miles approximately
b. 7 nautical miles approximately
c. 18 nautical miles approximately
d. 9 nautical miles approximately
5 - LANDING
1. What effect would a 2% down-slope have on the landing distance required?

a. Increase it by 5%
b. Decrease it by 5%
c. Increase it by 10%
d. Decrease it by 10%
2. Compared to a level runway, what would be the effect of landing on a downward sloping runway?
a. The landing performance will improve
b. The landing distance will be decreased
c. The landing distance will be increased
d. The landing distance will be unaffected
3. Landings are carried out into wind because:

a. it increases the ground speed and reduces the landing distance required
b. it decreases the ground speed and reduces the landing distance available
c. it gives the pilot greater control over the aircraft at lower speeds
d. it will reduce the ground speed and reduce the landing distance required
4. If the stalling speed in the landing configuration is 55 knots, VREF would be approximately:
a. 65 knots
b. 75 knots
c. 71 knots
d. 69 knots
5. If the aircraft mass is increased by 15%, the landing distance required will increase by approximately:
a. 15%, or a factor of 1.15
b. 33%, or a factor of 1.33
c. 10%, or a factor of 1.1
d. 20%, or a factor of 1.2
6. Why is flap used for landing?

a. The approach speed is increased and a flatter approach path is flown which improves forward vision
b. The approach speed is reduced and a steeper approach path is flown which improves forward vision
c. The approach speed is reduced and a flatter approach path is flown which improves forward vision
d. The approach speed is increased and a steeper approach path is flown which improves forward vision
7. If the approach and landing speeds flown in an actual landing are higher than the speeds recommended in
the aircraft manual, the effect will be that:
a. the landing distance will be increased
b. the landing distance will be decreased
c. the landing performance will improve
d. the landing distance will be unaffected
8. The VREF to be achieved by the landing screen height of 50 feet must be:
a. 1.15 times the stalling speed in the take off configuration
b. 1.3 times the stalling speed in the landing configuration
c. 1.43 times the stalling speed in the landing configuration
d. 33% of the stalling speed
9. When landing, if an aircraft's indicated airspeed is lower than its ground speed, then the aircraft is
experiencing:
a. a tailwind
b. a headwind
c. increased atmospheric pressure
d. a 90° cross wind
10. What is the effect of an increase in mass on the stalling speed and landing distance required?
a. Increased stalling speed and decreased landing distance
b. Decreased stalling speed and decreased landing distance
c. Increased stalling speed and increased landing distance
d. Decreased stalling speed and increased landing distance
If a fuel tank is situated behind CG, as the fuel being burned…
CG travels forward, which creates nose down moment
CG travels backward, which creates nose down moment
CG travels forward, which creates nose down moment
CG travels forward, which creates nose up moment
Takeoff run is the distance between
brake release to unstick
brake release to rotation
brake release to reaching 50 feet
brake release to reaching 1.2 Vs
In general, ….. % weight increase increases takeoff distance by …. %
10 -- 20
5 -- 20
10 -- 5
30 -- 5
In general, every 1000 feet elevation or …..°C temperature increasement increases takeoff distance by …. %
10 -- 10
5 -- 20
10 -- 5
5 -- 20
In general, ….. % runway slope increases takeoff distance by …. %
1 -- 5
5 -- 1
10 -- 1
1 -- 10
With tailwind
GS is higher than IAS, so the aircraft needs longer run than in wind calm conditions
GS is higher than IAS, so the aircraft needs shorter run than in wind calm conditions
GS is lower than IAS, so the aircraft needs shorter run than in wind calm conditions
GS is lower than IAS, so the aircraft needs longer run than in wind calm conditions
An aircraft can climb 5500 feet in 12 minutes. What is the average rate of climb?
460 fpm
480 fpm
580 fpm
660 fpm
Time spent in the air
is not influenced by wind.
is increasing with headwind, decreasing with tailwind
is increasing with tailwind, decreasing with headwind
is decreasing with headwind, increasing with tailwind
In headwind, the glide angle …. and flyable distance ….
increases -- decreases
decreases -- increases
remains unchanged -- decrease
remains unchanged -- increases
With glide ratio of 12, how long we can glide from 4500 feet without engine?
16.5 km
14.4 km
15.7 km
37.5 km
The bigger the flap extension, the shorter the landing distance
True
False
Still air distance is 189 Nm in 30 minutes. What ground distance has been flown in 30 kts headwind?
174 NM
203 NM
188 NM
193 NM
In the ATS flight plan the cruising speed should be filed in:
TAS/mach number
IAS
CAS
GS
In the ATS flight plan the cruising speed of 90 knots should be entered as:
N090
KN090
N90
090KN
QNH is 1013. What is the deviation in temperature according to ISA, If the measured temperature is 0°C at
6000 feet AMSL?
-3°C
+3°C
-7°C
No deviation
Flight planning chart states, that it takes 36 minutes a 157 NM travelled in zero wind, to climb desired level.
What will be the distance travelled with an average tailwind of 60 knots?
193 NM
128 NM
157 NM
228 NM
As planned, CAS will be 150 knots, TAS will be 180 knots and GS will be 210 knots. What value should be
entered into flight plan?
180 knots
150 knots
210 knots
an average value of them
You flies from A to B and back to A with 380 knots TAS. AB distance is 480 NM. When going from A to B, you
experience 60 knots of headwind. What will be the total flight time?
2 h 35 min
3h
2 h 10 min
2 h 32 min
GS 120 knots. You have to descend enroute from 8000 feet to 1000 feet. You can descend 500 feet/min.
What is the distance from A point to initiate descend, if you want level off at 1000 feet over A?
28 NM
33 NM
14 NM
40 NM
Where would you find information about Sunset/Sunrise times?
AIP
NOTAM
METAR
VOLMET
What is the minimum visibility for VFR departure from an airport which provides AFIS service?
5 kilometres
8 kilometres
5000 feet
1500 metres
VFR flights shall not be flown over the congested areas of cities at a height less than:
1000 feet above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft
2000 feet above the highest obstacle within a radius of 800 m from the aircraft
The highest obstacle
500 feet above the highest obstacle
In the ATS flight plan item 10 (equipment) should be filled up with which letter to indicate, that the aircraft
has serviceable transponder with both A and C mode?
C
B
S
X
In METAR report "NOSIG" means:
No significant change
No significant cloud
No significant weather
No significant problems
You are required to fill 151 liters of AVGAS with the specific gravity of 0,72. How many kilograms is this?
109 kg
289 kg
131 kg
151 kg
In the appropriate box of a flight plan form, corresponding to estimated time of departure, the time of which
event to be filled in?
Go off blocks
Takeoff
Start-up
Reaching airspace boundary
True heading is 270°. Magnetic Variation is 10°East. What is magnetic heading?
260°
280°
270°
Cannot be calculated
It is possible to file a flight plan while you are already in flight.
True
False
If your destination aerodrome has no ICAO indicator, you should fill the appropriate box with:
ZZZZ
AAAA
CCCC
////
Which phenomena means real threat for low level VFR flights and should be avoided?
Thunderstorm
Jet streams
Convection
Advection
In ISA, the temperature at 12000 feet is:
-9°C
-12°C
1°C
-56,5°C
By increasing aircraft weight ...
structural overload limits are smaller.
structural overload limits are bigger.
structural overload limits do not change.
Which of the following scenarios would most likely result in structural overload?
Higher weight and aft CoG.
Higher weight and forward CoG.
Lower weight and forward CoG.
Lower weight and aft CoG.
The amount of time and aeroplane can spend in the air and her range ...
decreases in both cases.
decreases with the centre of gravity at the front.
increases with the centre of gravity in the back.
CoG has no effect on these parameters.
If CoG is before the forward limit, the aeroplane is hard to control, and it requires constant piloting.
False.
True.
In which situation does a wing induce higher drag?

With the centre of gravity at the front.
With the centre of gravity in the back.
In both cases.
CoG has no effect on these parameters.
Zero fuel weight is ..
the weight which may incorporate some fuel.
the weight which incorporates no fuel at all.
Aircraft empty weight is ...

the weight which may incorporate some fuel.
the weight which incorporates no fuel at all.

Zero fuel weight is the sum of dry operating weight and useful load.
Zero fuel weight incorporates crew and their luggage weight.
Zero fuel weight is the weight of the aeroplane minus usable fuel.
Zero fuel weight may incorporate a certain amount of fuel.
Aircraft empty weight not necessary equals empty weight established by the manufacturer.
Structurally allowable maximum take-off and landing weights are identical.
Structurally allowable maximum taxi weight can be lower than structurally allowable maximum take-off
Taxi weight is the weight with which the aircraft starts taxiing.
Dry operating weight plus total traffic load is ...
zero fuel weight.
operating weight.
take-off weight.
maximum take-off weight.
The operating weight is ...
the sum of dry operating weight and fuel weight.
the sum of dry operating weight, fuel weight and useful load.
the sum of dry operating weight, fuel weight and traffic load.
zero fuel weight.
Which weight definition includes crew and their baggage weight?
Dry operating weight.
Traffic load.
Useful load.
Empty weight.
Traffic load includes ...
none of the above.
crew weight and their baggage weight.
weight of catering devices and portable hygiene equipment and accessories.
crew weight and their baggage weight, weight of catering devices and portable hygiene equipment and
Centre of gravity calculation ...
considers positive torque for torque generated behind the reference plane, and considers negative torque
for torque generated before the reference plane.
considers negative torque for torque generated behind the reference plane, and considers positive torque
for torque generated before the reference plane.
considers positive torque for clockwise torque, and negative torque for counter-clockwise torque.
considers negative torque for clockwise torque, and positive torque for counter-clockwise torque.
Weight measured at the nose wheel is 90 pounds, the measurement point is 40 inches from the reference
plane. Main gears are 95 inches away from the reference plane, and weight measures at main gears is 700
pound on each side. How far will the CoG be from the reference plane?
91.6 inches.
88.7 inches.
90 inches.
93.2 inches.
If the point defined by CoG calculation is outside the left section of the envelope (between the envelope and
the y axis), ...
aircraft CoG is beyond its forward limit.
aircraft CoG is beyond its aft limit.
aircraft take-off weight exceeds maximum allowable value.
A four-seater aeroplane reference plane is the plane of the spinner. Empty aircraft weight and oil filled into
the aircraft equal 1521.2 pounds, associated torque is 134855 pound-inch. Fuel filled into the plane weighs
288 pounds, and its momentum is 95 inches. Planned load of the first row of seats is 330 pounds, and its arm
is 80.5 inches. Planned load of the first row of seats is 150 pounds, and its arm is 118.1 inches. MTOW is
2300 pounds, maximum forward CoG position is 82 inches, maximum aft CoG position is 93 inches. Can you
take-off in these circumstances? How far will the CoG be from the reference plane?
Yes. 90.2 inches.
Yes. 87.9 inches.
No. 92.4 inches.
No. 93.6 inches.
If the point defined by CoG calculation is above the envelope ...
aircraft take-off weight exceeds maximum allowable value.
aircraft CoG is beyond its forward limit.
aircraft CoG is beyond its aft limit.
If there is no clearway designated on a runway, after the initial climb, the aeroplane most reach 50 ft in the
TORA section.
ASDA section.
LDA section.
The part of the runway which can be used to slow the aicraft down after an aborted take-off is called ...
stopway.
clearway.
obstacle free zone.
LDA.
TORA + Stopway = ...
ASDA
TODA
Clearway.
LDA
TODA - Clearway = ...
TORA
ASDA
Stopway.
LDA
4 inches of dry grass increases take-off distance by ..., 4 inches of wet grass increases take-off distance by ...
Dry grass longer than 4 inches increases the take-off run by ... percent.
approximately by 20% - approximately. by 25% - approximately by 25%.
approximately by 10% - approximately by 20% - approximately by 20%
Runway TORA is 600 m, no clearway is provided. Distance required for take-off is 389 m, to reach 50 feet the
aeroplane needs 761 m. Can you take-off?
No.
Yes.
When using appropriate flaps setting for take-off (compared with clean wing take-off), take-off roll ..., and ....
ground distance is required to finish the initial climb to 50 ft. Take-off distance required in general ...
decreases - longer - decreases.
increases - longer - increases.
decreases - shorter - decreases.
increases - shorter - will not change.
Safety reasons require us to estimate ... of the head wind component and ... of the tail wind component
when determining take-off distance.
50% - 150%
150% - 50%
80% - 120%
120% - 80%
Speed assigned to the best angle of climb is called ..... This speed is available at ...
VX - Fp - X excess traction force
VY - Fp - X excess power
VX - Pr - Psz excess traction force
VY - Pr - Psz excess power
Speed assigned to the best rate of climbs is called. This speed is available at ...
VY - Pr - Psz excess power
VX - Fp - X excess traction force
VY - Fp - X excess power
VX - Pr - Psz excess traction force
What speed would you maintain if you wish reach the fastest rate of climb while covering the shortest
distance on the ground?
VX speed.
Veco speed.
Vopt speed.
VY speed.
What speed would you maintain if you wish to reach a given altitude in the shortest possible time?
VY speed.
Veco speed.
Vopt speed.
VX speed.
With the altitude increasing, VX ...
increases as indicated by both IAS and TAS.
increases as indicated by IAS, and decreases as indicated by TAS.
decreases as indicated by both IAS and TAS.
decreases by IAS, and increases by TAS.
With the altitude increasing, VY ...
decreases by IAS, and increases by TAS.
increases as indicated by IAS, and decreases as indicated by TAS.
decreases as indicated by both IAS and TAS.
increases as indicated by both IAS and TAS.
both VX and VY increase.
VX decreases and VY increases.
VX increases and VY decreases.
VX increases and VY doe not change.
While climbing, the climbing angle ...
becomes steeper in head wind, becomes lower in tail wind.
becomes lower in head wind, becomes steeper in tail wind.
The wind has no effect on climbing angle.
best angle of climb and best rate of climb both decrease.
best angle of climb increases and best rate of climb decreases.
best angle of climb decreases and best rate of climb increases.
best angle of climb and best rate of climb do not change.
While climbing, the best rate of climb ...
The wind has no effect on the best rate of climb.
increases in head wind, decreases in tail wind.
decreases in head wind, increases in tail wind.
Range ...
decreases in head wind, increases in tail wind.
increases in head wind, decreases in tail wind.
Wind has no effect on range.
Power necessary for an aeroplane equipped with an internal combustion Otto engine is minimal, if air
resistance (drag) is minimal.
False.
True.

Range is maximised when power is minimal.
You can achieve the longest range if the aeroplane flies with the lowest drag possible.
The amount of time that can be spent airborne reaches its maximum when the engine use the smallest
amount of fuel.
You need to fly at Vopt to maximise range.
Should you choose Vopt, you are flying ...
with the least power.
with smallest drag.
to reach maximum range.
to reach maximum fuel consumption.
In the event of the engine quitting, ...
by choosing Vopt you can cover the largest distance. This gives you the smallest gliding angle.
by choosing Vopt you can cover the largest distance. This gives you the highest gliding angle.
by choosing Veco you can cover the largest distance. This gives you the highest gliding angle.
by choosing Veco you can cover the largest distance. This gives you the smallest gliding angle.
In case of head wind, the aircraft's best L/D ratio ... and its glide performance ...
will not change - deteriorates.
decreases - improves.
decreases - deteriorates.
When increasing aircraft weight, speed values assigned to minimal aerodynamic drag:
Vopt will be higher.
Vopt will be lower.
Veco will be lower.
Veco will be higher.
Landing distance available = ...
LDA.
TODA.
TORA + Stopway.
LDA + Stopway.
Generally speaking, ... weight increase makes landing distance ...
10% – 10% longer.
10% – 5% longer.
10% – 10% shorter.
10% – 5% shorter.
Generally speaking, 1000 feet altitude increase or .... temperature increase makes the landing distance ...
10°C - 5% longer
5°C - 10% shorter
5°C - 20% shorter
10°C - 10% longer
Generally speaking, if the tail wind component is ... of the stall speed, the landing distance is ...
10% - 20% longer
1% - 5% longer
1% - 5% shorter
10% - 20% shorter
Generally speaking, 1% of runway slope make the landing distance ...
5% longer.
5% shorter.
10% shorter.
10% longer.
4 inches of dry grass increases landing distance by ..., 10 inches of wet grass increases landing distance by ...
approximately 20% - approximately 30%
approximately15% - approximately 30%
More than 4 inches of dry grass increases the landing distance by ..., while more than 4 inches of wet grass
can increase the landing distance by ... Snow-covered runway increases the landing distance at least by ...
Approximately 30% - 40% - 25%
Safety reasons require us to estimate ... of the head wind component and ... of the tail wind component
when determining landing distance.
50% - 150%
80% - 120%
120% - 80%
150% - 50%
The stopway has been created to provide room for braking the aeroplane should the pilot have miscalculated
the landing distance.
False.
True.
HUMAN PERFORMANCE
2 - THE ATMOSPHERE
1. The percentage of Oxygen in the atmosphere:

a. Decreases with an increase in altitude
b. Remains constant up to approximately 33 700 feet
c. Remains constant up to approximately 70 000 feet
d. Increases with an increase in altitude
2. The approximate altitude where the atmospheric pressure is half the sea-level value is:
a. 10 000 feet
b. 12 000 feet
c. 18 000 feet
d. 33 000 feet
3. A healthy pilot should be able to operate without suffering the effects of hypoxia up to altitudes of:
a. 10 000 feet
b. 16 000 feet
c. 18 000 feet
d. 20 000 feet
4. The percentage of Oxygen in the atmosphere remains at 21%, by volume:

a. Up to 10 000 feet
b. Up to 18 000 feet
c. Up to 8 000 feet
d. Throughout the majority of the atmosphere
5. Pilots need to breathe supplementary Oxygen when flying at high altitude because of:
a. The decreased temperature
b. Decreased atmospheric pressure, and a decrease in the partial pressure of Oxygen
c. A decrease in the proportion of Oxygen by volume
d. The upper limit of the Troposphere
6. The respective percentages of the gases that make up the atmosphere are:
a. Nitrogen 78% Oxygen 21% Argon 0.95% Carbon Dioxide and trace gases 0.05%
b. Oxygen 78% Nitrogen 21% Argon 0.95% Carbon Dioxide 0.05%
c. Nitrogen 78% Oxygen 21% Argon 0.05% Carbon Dioxide and trace gases 0.95%
d. Oxygen 78% Nitrogen 21% Argon 0.95% Carbon Dioxide 0.05%
7. At 36 000 feet, the air pressure is:

a. Three quarters of the sea-level value
b. Half of the sea-level value
c. One quarter of the sea-level value
d. One tenth of the sea-level value
3 - THE HUMAN BODY
1. Breathing is regulated by:

a. The will of each human being
b. The presence of haemoglobin in the blood
c. Monitoring changes in the level of Carbon Dioxide in the blood
d. The transfer of Oxygen from the blood to the tissues of the body
2. A smoker will feel the symptoms of hypoxia (Oxygen starvation) at:

a. A lower altitude than a non-smoker
b. A higher altitude than a non-smoker
c. The same altitude as a non-smoker
d. Smoking makes no difference to a person’s susceptibility to hypoxia
3. On average, how long does it take to eliminate one unit of alcohol from the blood?
a. 24 hours
b. 12 hours
c. One hour
d. 8 hours
4. The mechanism that maintains a constant flow of blood around the body is called:
a. The Respiratory System
b. The Reproduction System
c. The Nervous System
d. The Circulatory System
5. How long after prolonged breathing-in of Carbon Monoxide must a pilot refrain from flying?
a. 8 hours
b. 12 hours
c. Several days
d. 24 hours
6. Pilots should not fly within ... hours of donating blood.

a. 12
b. 24
c. 36
d. 48
7. The main function of the red blood cells is to:

a. Carry Oxygen to the tissues
b. Assist in the clotting process
c. Produce antibodies to fight infection
d. Deliver digested food products to the tissues
8. Angina is caused by:

a. Death of part of the heart muscle
b. A blockage of pulmonary blood vessels
c. Insufficient blood reaching the heart muscle
d. A blocked blood vessel in the brain
9. Carbon monoxide is dangerous because:

a. Its smell and taste are not easily recognisable to the inexperienced pilot
b. Haemoglobin has 10 times the affinity for it than it has for Oxygen
c. Haemoglobin has 110 times the affinity for it than it has for Oxygen
d. Haemoglobin has 210 times the affinity for it than it has for Oxygen
10. The damaging levels of alcohol are 21 units for men and 14 units for women. This is:
a. Per day
b. Per week
c. Per month
d. Per year
4 - THE EFFECTS OF PARTIAL PRESSURE
1. Compared to a non-smoker, someone who smokes is likely to experience the effects of hypoxia at:
a. A higher altitude
b. The same altitude
c. A lower altitude
d. Any altitude
2. The % of Oxygen in the atmosphere, by volume, is:
a. 21% to an altitude of 10 000 feet
b. 14% to an altitude of 10 000 feet
c. 21 % to an altitude of 33 700 feet
d. 21 % throughout the atmosphere
3. Hypoxia is defined as:

a. The condition where there is insufficient Oxygen to meet the body’s needs
b. The altitude at which a person begins to show symptoms of decompression sickness
c. The condition where Carbon Monoxide replaces Oxygen in the white cells
d. The condition where Carbon Dioxide will not bind to haemoglobin
4. At low altitude, the most common symptoms of hyperventilation include:

a. Anxiety, scuba diving, vibration and poor visual acuity
b. Feeling of well-being, shock, heat and poor visual acuity
c. Motion sickness, poor visual acuity, heat and scuba diving
d. Dizziness, visual disorder, anxiety, tingling around feet, hands and lips
5. You have been diving to a depth of 32 feet using SCUBA pressure breathing equipment:
a. Do not fly for a period of 12 hours
b. Do not fly for a period of 24 hours
c. Do not fly for a period of 48 hours
d. There is no limitation on when you can next fly
5 - THE EYE
1. How would a light aircraft pilot perceive the image of a fast moving jet approaching head-on? The image
would be:
a. Small at first and grow in size steadily and regularly
b. Small at first, displaying an immediate rapid growth rate, but less rapidly just before impact
c. Small at first, maintaining a constant size and approach rate
d. Small at first, displaying a slow growth rate, then increasing in size rapidly just before impact
2. The iris is responsible for controlling:

a. The rate of dark adaption
b. The amount of light entering the eye
c. The rate of light adaption
d. The amount of accommodation
3. In order to see an object best, at night, a pilot should:

a. Look directly at the object, blinking several times
b. Look slightly to one side of the object
c. Look directly and intensely at the object
d. Look away from the object and then repeatedly look back at it
4. The ability of the lens to change shape to focus an image on the retina is called:
a. Acuity
b. Acclimatisation
c. Accommodation
d. Auto-kinesis
5. The sensors called ‘Rods’:

a. Are sensitive to lower light levels than the ‘Cones’
b. Are used primarily by day
c. Are highly sensitive to colour changes
d. Are concentrated on the optic nerve
6. Light levels at high altitude are dangerous because they:
a. Cause reflections on the windscreen
b. Contain more of the damaging Blue and UV light
c. Cause the iris to close, blinding the pilot
d. Cause a blind spot on the optic nerve
7. A person who has “Myopia”:

a. Has a shorter than normal eyeball and vision is corrected with a Concave lens
b. Has a longer than normal eyeball and vision is corrected with a Convex lens
c. Has a shorter than normal eyeball and vision is corrected with a Convex lens
d. Has a longer than normal eyeball and vision is corrected with a Concave lens
8. The part of the eye where we have the best visual acuity is:
a. The fovea
b. The iris
c. The pupil
d. The peripheral retina
9. Astigmatism is the name for:

a. The ability of the lens to change shape
b. An eyeball which is too short
c. A mis-shapen cornea
d. Colour blindness
10. Two light aircraft are on a head-on collision course with a closing speed of 180 knots and a flight visibility of
3 kilometres. If contact was made at maximum visual range, what time is available for either pilot to take avoiding
action?
a. 27 seconds
b. 34 seconds
c. 51 seconds
d. 1 minute and 30 seconds
11. The light-sensitive tissue lining the rear of the eyeball which contains rods and cones is know as:
a. The pupil
b. The cornea
c. The retina
d. The iris
6 - THE EAR
1. The three parts of the ear are the:

a. Incus, malleus and stapes
b. Outer, middle and inner
c. Cochlea, otoliths and tympanum
d. Ear lobe, ear canal and ear drum
2. The bones in the middle ear are known collectively as:

a. The otoliths
b. The monoliths
c. The ossicles
d. The saccules
3. A fit young person can detect a range of sounds between:

a. 20 and 20 000 Hertz
b. 500 and 3 000 Hertz
c. 700 and 5 000 Hertz
d. 50 and 10 000 Hertz
4. The function of the eustachian tube is to:
a. Equalise pressure between the middle and inner ear
b. Connect the inner ear to the back of the throat
c. Allow circulation of fluid in the semi-circular canals
d. Equalise pressure between the outer and middle ear
5. Permanent hearing loss may result from continuous exposure to:

a. Noise in excess of 120 decibels
b. Dusty conditions, allowing a build-up in ear wax
c. Noise in excess of 90 decibels
d. Excessive heat which boils the fluid in the semi-circular canals
6. Permanent deafness that is associated with old age, is known as:

a. Myopia
b. Presbyopia
c. Mycusis
d. Presbycusis
7. The main function of the vestibular apparatus is to:

a. Detect angular and linear accelerations
b. Mechanically transmit sound to the cochlea
c. Prevent excessive sounds from damaging the ear drum
d. Prevent excessive sounds from damaging the otoliths
8 To maintain spatial orientation in the absence of visual references, the pilot should:
a. Believe the sensations of his vestibular apparatus
b. Immediately climb to get above cloud
c. Believe the “seat of the pants" sensations from the somatosensory system
d. Believe the aircraft instruments
9. Motion sickness arises when there is:

a. Vertical displacement from the horizontal axis
b. Disorientation caused by loss of visual references
c. A mismatch between visual and vestibular signals
d. Vertical displacement from the longitudinal axis
10. Which of the conditions given below, are symptomatic of motion sickness:
(i) Nausea
(ii) Hypoxia
(iii) Hyperventilation
(iv) Pallor
(v) Stomach cramp
(vi) Cold sweating
a. i, ii, iii and iv

b. iii only
c. i, iii, iv and vi
d. i, iii, v and vi
11. What is the cause of conductive deafness?

a. Damage to the Pinna
b. Blockage of the Eustachian Tube
c. Damage to the Ossicles and/or the Ear-Drum
d. Low ambient pressure
12. Which part of the ear senses linear accelerations?

a. The Ossicles
b. The Eustachian Tube
c. The Auditory Nerve
d. The Otoliths in the Vestibular Apparatus
7 - FLYING AND HEALTH
1. The body mass index is obtained by:

a. Multiplying body weight in kilograms by height in metres squared
b. Adding body weight in kilograms to height in metres squared
c. Multiplying body weight in pounds by height in feet squared
d. Dividing body weight in kilograms by height in metres squared
2. A body mass index of 23 for a male or female pilot indicates he/she is:
a. Underweight
b. Normal
c. Overweight
d. Obese
3. In order to be effective, exercise should be:

a. Sufficient to double the resting heart rate for 20 minutes at least twice per week
b. Sufficient to halve the resting heart rate for 20 minutes, at least three times per week
c. Sufficient to double the resting heart rate for 20 minutes, at least three times per week
d. Sufficient to double the resting heart rate for 30 minutes, at least twice a week
4. Breakfast should supply:

a. At least 25% of the daily calorie intake
b. Sufficient calories to spend a whole day at the airfield
c. Enough protein to make up 50% of the daily calories consumed
d. A high fat start to the day to give energy and reduce the risk of heart disease
5. An intake of iron is essential for:

a. Improving personal magnetism
b. The manufacture of haemoglobin
c. The production of Rhodopsin to improve night vision
d. Building and maintaining healthy bones and teeth
6. The condition of Gastroenteritis makes a pilot:

a. Fit to fly
b. Fit to fly if no attack has been experienced for an hour
c. Fit to fly provided appropriate medication is being taken
d. Unfit to fly
7. A fit or seizure is symptomatic of:

a. An interruption of the blood supply to the pulmonary system
b. A reduction in the blood supply to the brain
c. An electrical disturbance in the brain
d. The failure of the pancreas to produce insulin
8. The recommended maximum daily caffeine intake is approximately:

a. 150 - 200mg
b. 200 - 250mg
c. 250 - 300mg
d. 300 - 350mg
9. The maximum number of units of alcohol is 21 for men and 14 for women. These limits are:
a. Per day
b. Per week
c. Per month
d. Per year
10. If a pilot is suffering from a cold or flu, he:

a. Is unfit to fly
b. Is fit to fly if taking appropriate medication
c. Is fit to fly if no sneezing has being experienced for one hour
d. Is fit to fly if he can clear his ears
11. A pilot is 2 metres tall and weighs 90 kilograms. What is his Body Mass Index and is he over-weight?
a. 40; yes
b. 22.5; no
c. 22.5, yes
d. 40; no
12. What angle of bank, in a balanced turn, will subject the body to an acceleration of 2g?
a. 15°
b. 60°
c. 30°
d. 45°
13. What is the best way for a pilot to reassure any nervous passenger whom he is about to take flying?
a. To allow the passenger to see his pilot’s licence
b. To show the passenger his log book which is a record of his experience of safe flying
c. To explain to the passenger how much other people have enjoyed flying with him
d. To give the passenger a thorough pre-flight briefing, following established and approved guidelines
14. For what period of time must a pilot refrain from flying after being given an anaesthetic?
a. 24 hours following a local anaesthetic and 48 hours following a general anaesthetic
b. 12 hours following a local anaesthetic and 24 hours following a general anaesthetic
c. 12 hours following a local anaesthetic and 48 hours following a general anaesthetic
d. 24 hours following both local anaesthetic and a general anaesthetic
15. At what rate does the body remove alcohol from the blood?
a. 100 milligrams per 15 millilitres per hour
b. 50 milligrams per 100 millilitres per hour
c. 15 milligrams per 100 millilitres per hour
d. 120 milligrams per 80 millilitres per hour
16. Which of the answer options below includes three important health risks to which obese people are
exposed by virtue of excessive body weight?
a. Heart attack, blood circulatory problems, hypertension
b. Myopia, loss of appetite, nausea
c. Insomnia, disorientation, muscular tension
d. Memory lapse, diminished awareness, lack of coordination
8 - THE INFORMATION PROCESS
1. Unconditioned reflexes are:

a. Those which can be learned
b. Those that may be improved by repetition
c. Those which are instinctive
d. Those that are required by the check list
2. Perception is one of the most important aspects of information processing because:

a. Sensory information is modelled into a meaningful structure
b. Good judgements and decisions are made at this stage
c. Corrective actions and responses are carried out at this stage
d. It incorporates selective, divided and focused attention
3. "Chunking" is:
a. The grouping of check list items to reduce turn round time
b. A bizarre method of word association technique
c. A method of increasing the number of unrelated items held in working memory
d. The associative phase of learning a skill
4. The three parts of long-term memory are classified as:

a. Ultra short, short and working
b. Selective, divided and focused
c. Static, dynamic and motor
d. Semantic, episodic and procedural
5. An Illusion is:
a. A deliberate modification of the truth to catch out the unwary pilot
b. When perception is not the same as the real world
c. The difference between divided and selective attention
d. A condition arising when deprived of visual or auditory stimuli
6. If a pilot flies a visual approach to a runway which has a pronounced upward slope of which he is unaware,
what will be the likely result?
a. The pilot will fly an approach which is shallower than intended, leading to the possibility of undershooting.
b. The pilot will fly an approach which is steeper than intended, leading to the possibility of overshooting.
c. The pilot will fly an approach which is shallower than intended, leading to the possibility of overshooting
d. The pilot will fly an approach which is steeper than intended, leading to the possibility of undershooting.
7. If a pilot flies a visual approach to a runway which has a pronounced downward slope of which he is
unaware, what will be the likely result?
a. The pilot will fly an approach which is shallower than intended, leading to the possibility of undershooting.
b. The pilot will fly an approach which is steeper than intended, leading to the possibility of overshooting.
c. The pilot will fly an approach which is shallower than intended, leading to the possibility of overshooting
d. The pilot will fly an approach which is steeper than intended, leading to the possibility of undershooting.
8. If a pilot flies a visual approach to a runway which is wider than the runway he is used to, what will be the
likely result?
a. The pilot will fly an approach which is higher than intended with the danger that he will round out too late, or
undershoot the runway.
b. The pilot will fly an approach which is lower than intended with the danger that he will round out too late, or
undershoot the runway.
c. The pilot will fly an approach which is lower than intended with the danger that he will round out too late, or
overshoot the runway.
d. The pilot will fly an approach which is higher than intended with the danger that he will round out too soon,
or overshoot the runway.
9. If a pilot is on the final approach to a runway which is narrower than he expects, what will be the most likely
result?
a. The pilot will be led to fly a higher approach than normal, with the danger of rounding out too soon, or
overshooting the runway.
b. The pilot will fly a lower approach than normal, with the danger of rounding out too soon, or overshooting
the runway.
c. The pilot will fly a lower approach than normal, with the danger of rounding out too late, or undershooting
the runway.
d. The pilot will be led to fly a higher approach than normal, and be forced to go around.
10. If a pilot is flying above a layer of stratus cloud with a sloping upper surface, how is the pilot most likely to
misperceive the visual image?
a. The pilot may mistake the slope as a lowering cloud base, and divert to an alternate airfield.
b. The pilot may feel that he is climbing and initiate a descent.
c. The pilot may mistake the upper surface of the cloud layer as the true horizon and apply bank as he selects
an attitude which puts the aircraft’s wings parallel to the cloud surface.
d. The pilot may feel that he is descending and initiate a climb.
11. Hazy conditions may lead a pilot to perceive:
a. Objects outside the aircraft as being further away than they actually are
b. Objects outside the aircraft as being closer than they actually are
c. Objects outside the aircraft as being more numerous than they actually are
d. Objects outside the aircraft in exactly the same way as in conditions of good visibility
12. Approaching a runway at night where only the runway lights are visible, with no lights to indicate the nature
of the surrounding terrain may result in the pilot:
a. Flying too high an approach and overshooting the runway
b. Flying too high an approach and undershooting the runway
c. Flying too low an approach and overshooting the runway
d. Flying too low an approach and undershooting the runway
13. How will a pilot perceive a runway to which he is flying an approach, but which is smaller than the runways
he his used to?
a. The runway will appear nearer than it is in reality.
b. The runway will appear further away than it is in reality.
c. The pilot will get the impression that he is low and close.
d. The pilot will perceive no difference between this runway and the ones he is used to.
14. How will a pilot perceive a runway to which he is flying an approach, but which is bigger than the runways
he his used to?
a. The runway will appear nearer than it is in reality.
b. The runway will appear further away than it is in reality.
c. The pilot will get the impression that he is high and distant.
d. The pilot will perceive no difference between this runway and the ones he is used to.
9 - JUDGEMENT AND DECISION MAKING
1. As captain of an aircraft you will need to show good leadership skills. Which one of the following is not one
such skill?
a. Forward planning
b. Maintaining good situational awareness
c. Being aware of one’s limitations and capabilities
d. Aggressive assertiveness
2. You have planned to take a couple of friends on an air experience flight. On the day, the weather conditions
are marginal and there is a strong cross-wind on the runway. As a competent assessor of risk, which of the
following decisions should you take?
a. Get airborne as planned, as it is always wise to stick to your flight plan if you possibly can
b. Reschedule the flight for another time, discounting the immediate disappointment to your friends
c. Proceed with the flight and treat it as an opportunity to practise flying in adverse conditions.
d. Ask your friends if they are prepared to fly in the prevailing conditions.
3. Complete the following statement: Mental Overload usually:

a. leads to better performance
b. leads to degraded performance
c. has no effect on performance
d. causes changes in the speed and accuracy of performance which vary from individual to individual
4. Complete the following statement: If, as an experienced pilot, you are flying with someone of much greater
experience, and you see him do something you consider to be dangerous, you should:
a. immediately question his course of action
b. wait until the action or manoeuvre is completed, and then question him
c. ignore the situation because he obviously knows what he is doing
d. do nothing for the moment, but check the wisdom and correctness of his action by discussing it with an
instructor after you have landed
11 - STRESS
1. A moderate level of arousal will:

a. Lead to a breakdown in health over a period of time
b. Produce interest in external events and performing tasks
c. Lead to slow processing of sensory information
d. Lead to deterioration of performance due to narrowing of attention
2. The life event that is considered to produce the most stress is:
a. Minor violations of the law
b. Marital separation
c. Personal injury or illness
d. Death of a partner or spouse
3. Having successfully overcome a stressful situation once, how will the person react if placed in the same or
similar situation a second time?
a. There will be little difference
b. Stress will increase because he will be afraid of what he knows lies ahead
c. Stress will reduce because, having already successfully overcome the stressful situation, he will be
confident he can do so again
d. Experience can not affect reaction to stress
4. An important factor to remember with regard to stress factors is:

a. They decay with time
b. They are cumulative
c. They are objective in nature
d. They affect all pilots equally
5. The relationship between arousal and performance means:

a. Performance is degraded by under-arousal and improved by over-arousal
b. Performance is improved by both under and over-arousal
c. Performance is degraded by both under and over-arousal
d. Performance is improved by under arousal and degraded by over-arousal
6. Which of the following statements is false?

a. All people react in the same way to the same stressful situation
b. Stress is a natural condition of life
c. Stress is cumulative
d. The right training can make a stressful task less stressful
7. Complete the following statement. The level of stress felt by an individual is dependent on:
a. actual ability
b. perceived demand
c. a combination of perceived demand and actual ability
d. none of the above
8. You are positioned short of the holding point and are in the middle of your pre take-off checks when you
receive clearance to take-off from ATC. The wisest course of action is:
a. Ask ATC to “standby” and complete your checks properly, recommencing your checks by going back over
the last one or two previously completed items on your check list.
b. Rapidly run through your remaining checks, acknowledge ATC’s clearance and take-off.
c. Skip the last few items on your checklist and take-off as cleared.
d. Ignore ATC, and finish your checks before replying.
9. What are Stress Factors or Stressors?

a. Pulse-rate inducers
b. Circumstances or events which provoke any kind of reaction to the demands placed upon the human
organism
c. Events and circumstances which cause stress
d. Measures of stress exhibited by a person
12 - THE COCKPIT
1. Sitting below the eye datum point:

a. Prevents the pilot’s head from coming into contact with the cockpit roof
b. Means that part of the undershoot may be obscured, on the approach
c. Allows faster egress from the cockpit in an emergency
d. Means that part of the overshoot may be obscured, on the approach
2. If a pilot is interrupted when carrying out the pre-take-off checks, he should:

a. Recommence the checks from the item in the checklist reached when the interruption occurred
b. Recommence the checks from the beginning of the checklist
c. Recommence the checks beginning with an item located one step back in the checklist from the item
reached when the interruption occurred
d. Recommence the checks beginning with an item located one step further on in the checklist from the item
reached when the interruption occurred
3. Which of the following is NOT a basic consideration governing the way controls should be both designed
and arranged?
a. Controls should be standardised in location and sense of use from one aircraft to the other
b. Controls should be standardised between aircraft, in terms of their shape and materials only
c. Controls having different functions should both look and feel different
d. Important controls should be located in easily reached and unobstructed positions
4. You are preparing for a training flight with an instructor and cannot find your checklist. You should:
a. Perform the checks from memory
b. Use a checklist for a different aircraft type
c. Take time to find the checklist even at the risk of missing part of your airborne time
d. Rely on the instructor to point out anything that you might have missed
5. Which of the following occur(s) when a pilot is sitting too high in a cockpit?
i) Good downward outside view
ii) Poor view of instruments
iii) Upwards outside view obstructed
a. i) only
b. i) and ii) only
c. i), ii) and iii)
d. ii) and iii) only
6. An analogue display is generally better than a digital display for showing which sort of data?
a. Quantitative
b. Qualitative
c. Numerical
d. Subjective
7. A standard “T” layout has the artificial horizon or attitude indicator at the centre. Which of the following is
NOT included in the rest of the “T"?
a. The altimeter
b. The airspeed indicator
c. The direction indicator
d. The compass
8. Which of the following actions does NOT constitute a pilot error when carrying out checks from a check list?
a. Carrying out checks diligently and expeditiously
b. Carrying out checks from the list slowly and laboriously
c. Automatically responding to the check list without carrying out the check
d. M issing out items
The lack of oxygen in the body is called
hypoxia
hyperventillation
euphoria
caisson desease
Hypoxia in terms of breathing ambient air, the confusion zone is
15000-20000 feet
10000-15000 feet
4000-10000 feet
20000 feet and above
In case of hyperventilation what is the best solution over 10000 feet?
breathing from a bag
L-1 maneouver
Valsalva maneouver
breathing 100% oxygen
In case of hyperventilation the blood's
CO2 level decrease
CO level decrease
CO level increase
CO2 level increase
Any altitude can be survived in case
There is proper oxygen, pressure, temperature level
the inhaled air has 21% oxygen
pressurized breather is available
the temperature remains over 10°C
CO is odorless, cannot be discovered by sniffling
Low level of CO is harmless
CO is increasing oxygen saturation of blood
At higher altitude, the harmful effect of CO is compensated
The runway slopes down from the threshold. The danger is
The final will be too high, landing distance increases
Pilot will descend under glide slope
Missed estimation of runway length
Pilot feels his/her position higher than it is
Alcohol in little quantity…
Can decrease hypoxia tolerance
do not mean any danger
increasing situation awareness
Can increase hypoxia tolerance
Flying in cloud, the spatial disorientation of the pilot can be avoided by
Believing in the instrument indications
not believing in the instrument indications
searching for a visual reference
continously monitoring altimeter and variometer
What is motion sickness?
Sensory disturbance in the labyrinth, which accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and anxiety
A desease, caused by gas contamination in blood
A desease, caused by low pressure
A disease is caused by middle ear infection
In case of smoking
Mild CO poisoning can occur, which decreases hypoxy tolerance
Mild CO2 poisoning can occur, which decreases hypoxy tolerance
Mild CO2 poisoning can occur, which increases hypoxy tolerance
Mild CO poisoning can occur, which increases hypoxy tolerance
Barotrauma can occur in
the middle ear, sinuses and gastrointestinal system.
the middle ear
gastrointestinal system
sinuses
Decompression desease is caused by
triggered by a sudden decompression, during which nitrogen bubbles in the blood and release pressure on
the surrounding tissues, and block the blood flow path.
triggered by a sudden decompression, during which the gas expansion makes the abdominal compartment to
press diaphragm so it hinders breathing.
Detection os balance is made by …., they are situated in….

the semicircular canals, the sacs and tubes - the inner ear
the semicircular canals, the sacs and tubes - in the middle ear
the anvil, the stirrup and hammer - the middle ear
the anvil, the stirrup and hammer - the inner ear
If the pilot performs landing on a runway which is wider than normal, then
his/her position can be lower than it looks like
runway looks longer than it is
his/her position can be higher than it looks like
runway looks shorter than it is
If the pilot performs landing on a runway which is shorter than normal, then
runway looks farther, than it is
runway looks closer, than it is
his/her position can be higher than it looks like
his/her position can be lower than it looks like
In a turn, if the pilot tilts his/her head suddenly, which illusion can occur?
Coriolis illusion
Graveyard spin
Graveyard spiral
roll illusion
What illusion can occur, if the aircraft start to turn without he knowledge of the pilot, but this movement has
not enough stimulation on the canals?
roll illusion
Graveyard spin
Graveyard spiral
Coriolis illusion
In which period(s) of the day the minimum of vigilance is expected? (top of drowsiness)
3-5 AM, 3-5 PM
5-7 AM
1-3 PM
1-3 PM and 0-2 AM
When resolving an incident, which mind status gives the best performance?
Moderate level of excitement
Fully relaxed
the more intense the stress, the better the performance
An average pilot can recall a frequency from his mind for ….

approx. 15-30 seconds
approx. 7 seconds
approx. 1-2 minutes
approx. 2-3 minutes
short-term memory can hold approximately ... element.
10 ± 2
4±2
7±2
9±2
Too high or low temperature, noise, turbulence, vibration, discomfort may cause additional stress
True
False
When executing complex activities

the performance is decreasing as the level of attention to grows
the performance is increasing as the level of attention to grows
the performance is not changing as the level of attention to grows
When executing simple, routine activities

the performance is increasing as the level of attention to grows
the performance is decreasing as the level of attention to grows
the performance is not changing as the level of attention to grows
Optimal level of stress can help us remain vigilant and thus be allowed to substantiate our stand over the
demands of the situation.
False
True
The normal respiration number for and adult is…

14-16 / minute
10-12 / minute
18-20 / minute
20-24 / minute
The examination of circulation…
is by touching the carotid artery to measure pulse
is by touching the inner side of wrist to measure pulse
is by listening the heartbeat through the chest
What is the fisrt to do, if the patient is unconsciousness?

Examine the circulation and breathing
put him/her into recovery position
put him/her into a sitting position
have her/him laid on her/his back and lift her/his leg
The normal pulse number for and adult is…
60-80 / min
40-60 / min
80-100 / min
100-120 / min
For the blowing ventilation…
the patient should be laid on her/his back
the patient should be laid in recovery postion
the patient should be laid on her/his side
the patient should be put into sitting position
While blowing ventilating somebody, …. Blows should be made in a minute.
16-20
10 - 14
22-26
28-30
… chest compression should be made in a minute.
100-120
60-80
80-100
120-140
In a complex reanimation sequence the ratio between blowing and chest compression.
2:30
1:30
1:15
2:15
What do you conclude if the patient complains about dizziness, nausea and headache and can not remember
the accident?
concussion of the brain
stroke
Loss of consciousness
CO poisoning
In case of arterian bleeding…
On specified locations fingers must be pressed on artery to stop the bleeding, relieve pressure bandage
should be applied.
The bleeding limb should be constricted with a strap and compression bandages should be applied.
The bleeding limb should be constricted with a strap and covering bandages should be applied.
The bleeding limb should be constricted with a strap and on specified locations fingers must be pressed on
artery to stop the bleeding
If limb fracture is suspected…
the injured limb to be fixed in position it is found
the injured limb should be moved, thus convinced of the fracture
the injured limb should be adjusted and fixed in that position
If spinal injury is suspected…

Moving of the patient is prohibited
The patient should be placed in recovery position
The patient should be placed into a sitting position
The patient should be laid on her/his side on a flat surface
A stimulus only generates sensation if its strength exceeds the absolute upper sensory limit.
False.
True.
If a stimulus of a given intensity is applied throughout a long period, human sensitivity to this stimulus ... In
response to strong stimuli our sensory sensitivity ... .
intensifies - weakens
intensifies - intensifies
weakens - intensifies
weakens - weakens
Law of ... states that two stimuli of opposing characteristics mutually intensify each other.
sensory contrast
adaptation
co-operating senses
movement parallaxis
If you use only of your eyes for sensing distances ...
monocular signalling movements and movement parallaxis help us.
monocular signalling movements help us.
movement parallaxis helps us.
When the central decision channel is also affected in executing an answer, the reaction time is ... than time
required for automatic activities.
longer
shorter
If a mastered and automatised action is not practised and forgotten, this action will be under the control of
central decision channel
sensory storage
short term memory
long term memory
Verbal communication is speech non-verbal communication is writing, vocal signals, face and gestures.
False.
True.
Sensory storage holds data for a short time, app. 1-2 seconds.
True.
False.
Stimuli reaching our attention are transferred from the sensory storage to the long term memory.
False.
True.
As far as hypoxia is concerned, the compensated zone when breathing external air is ...
0-10,000 ft.
0-4,000 ft.
0-15,000 ft.
0-20,000 ft.
When breathing external air above this altitude, hypoxia symptoms are: loss of consciousness, cramps,
20,000 ft
10,000 ft
15,000 ft
30,000 ft
Hypoxia and hyperventilation are easy to tell apart as their symptoms significantly differ.
False.
True.
Exhaustion and constant concentration ...

reduce hypoxia tolerance.
increase hypoxia tolerance.
increase hypoxia tolerance when flying below 15,000 ft.
do not affect hypoxia tolerance.
The breathing process comprises of the following phases:
diffusion of oxygen into the blood, oxygen transfer and diffusion into cells, removal of carbon-dioxide from
delivering oxygen to the cells, removal of carbon-monoxide.
delivering carbon-dioxide to the cells, removal of oxygen.
delivering oxygen to the cells, removal of nitrogen.
The following describe some symptoms of hypoxia and carbon-monoxide poisoning. Which relate to carbon-
monoxide poisoning?
Headache, nausea, dizziness.
Increased liveliness, increasing number of errors, inaccuracies.
Euphoria, adaptation disturbances, blurred vision.
Muscle cramps, hearing loss, delirium.
Loss of peripheral vision can occur as early as ...
1-2.5 +Gz
2.5-4 +Gz
4-4.5 +Gz
4.5-5 +Gz
Greyout can occur as early as ...
2.5-4 +Gz
1-2.5 +Gz
4-4.5 +Gz
4.5-5 +Gz
The Eustachian tube ensures pressure balancing ...
between middle ear and outer world.
between paranasal sinuses and outer world.
between paranasal sinuses, pharynx and outer world.
between sinus frontalis, sinus maxillaris and the nose.
How would you avoid middle ear barotrauma?
Valsalva manoeuvre.
The pilots should take medication against cold before each flight.
Climb should be interrupted and you should start descending.
Rate of descent should be increased.
In a cockpit of a non-pressurised aeroplane flying at high altitudes, the pilot feels heavily bloated. The right
thing to do:
The pilot should descend to lower altitude.
The pilot has to breathe oxygen.
The pilot should perform a Valsalva manoeuvre.
The pilot should climb to higher altitude.
What is the main effect of positive acceleration?
Blood rushes to the lower body, hence, less blood is in circulation.
Hyperoxygenisation of the blood which leads to perceptual disturbances.
Increasing blood pressure in the upper body (above the heart).
Improving peripheral vision.
Which acceleration affects aviators the most?
Radial acceleration (+Gz).
Linear acceleration (+Gx).
Diagonal acceleration (+Gy).
Diagonal and linear acceleration.
What is time of useful consciousness (TUC)?
The amount of time an individual is able to perform flying duties efficiently in an environment of inadequate
oxygen supply.
Time between gradual decompression and hypoxia onset.
Pilot's reaction time in hypoxia.
Time between hypoxia onset and the time when the pilot realises it.
Bodily sensations have an important part in movement co-ordination. These stimuli are ...
completely incorrect for spatial orientation in IMC conditions.
important inputs in IMC conditions.
present only when G-forces appear.
help the pilot determine the absolute altitude.
Which part of the inner ear senses noise?
The cochlea.
Semi-circular canals.
Utricle and the saccule.
The Eustachian tube.
People are prone to get airsick when ...
they are scared of flying.
they administered medication against motion sickness prior to take-off.
students are well-motivated and adapted for special effects encountered in-flight.
there are ample visual references available for the student.
Once the aeroplane has entered a spin, the dominant acceleration is ...
angular acceleration.
vertical acceleration.
linear acceleration.
radial acceleration.
The retina of the human eye uses .... to perceive light.
rods and cones
cones and the saccule
utricle and the saccule
rods and the saccule
Angular acceleration is sensed by the ...
semi-circular canals.
utricle and the saccule
incus, stapes and malleus
rods and cones.
Resting minimises sleep debt.
If were are to face a sleep deprivation period, it is good to sleep a lot in advance to create "reserve sleep
buffers" to prepare the body for periods without sleep.
If the circadiam rhythm is not disturbed, even a person with most severe sleep deptivation can regenerate
itself after two 9–10 hour long full sleep periods.
Sleep is actually the time we spend in the REM phase.
... sleep is the deeper sleep phase.
A non-REM
REM
Due to the strong relationship between breathing and circulation, if either of them stops, how long the other
will be able to operate?
2-3 minutes
1 minute
4 minutes
7 minutes
How long does it take a human to transfer from clinical death to biological death?
4 minutes
1 minute
2-3 minutes
7 minutes
Breathing must be both heard and seen simultaneously to be sufficient.
Breathing check is primarily done by examining vertical chest movement.
You should initially bend close to the person's mouth and nose, and listen carefully for air flow.
In the case of this bleeding, dark red blood exits the wound slowly.
Venous
Capillary
Arterial
In the case of this bleeding, the blood slowing bubbles from the wound.
Capillary
Venous
Arterial
In the case of this bleeding the bright red pulsating blood exits the wound.
Arterial
Capillary
Venous
In the case of venous bleeding ...

pressure type dressing shall be used.
sterile cover pad shall be used.
tight dressing shall be used.
you need to stop bleeding by pushing your fingers on the bleeding artery at some spots.
Prior to placing a sterile cover pad ...
nothing can be poured or sprayed into the wound.
the wound shall be thoroughly rinsed, then iodine or baby powder shall be applied to it.
Rough materials from the wound ...
can only be removed if the material has not embedded in the wound, and it is not necessary to reach into
the wound while removing it.
must not be removed at all.
can only be removed if the material threatens the patients life.
can only be removed if the material has not embedded in the wound, and can be easily removed by reaching
into the wound.
Contusio (bruise) is when ...
skin is not damaged, but subcutaneous haematoma develops.
the injury affects the skin.
deep tissues are also damaged.
the joint is an irregular position.
How are bruises treated?
Flexible pads should be applied to the affected area, then use frequently changed cold fomentation.
You have to make subcutaneous haematoma dissipate with massage, then apply compression bandage.
the wound shall be thoroughly rinsed, then iodine or baby powder shall be applied to it. Then sterile cover
pad shall be used.
What do you suspect if an irregularly positioned limb has its joint significantly deformed, and the patient
complains about intensive pain even when the limb is in a resting position.
Joint dislocation.
Bruise.
Sprain.
Open fracture.
How can you prevent shock?
The patient must be placed in a supine position, and legs should be raised. Bleeding should be stopped,
injured limbs should be placed at rest and fixed. Water or tea can be given to the patient slowly.
Patient shall be placed in recovery position. The patient shall sip water or tea.
Shocks cannot be prevented, however, a developed shock can be treated as necessary.
Incised wound of the eye or the eye lid ...

The injured eye shall be covered loosely with clean pads. The other eye shall be covered to prevent eyeball
movement.
shall be covered with pressure type dressing, the other eye shall be covered to prevent eyeball movement.
shall be treated with cold fomentation placed on the injured eye, the other eye shall be covered to prevent
eyeball movement.
The injured shall be rinsed with flowing cold water, then both eyes shall be covered.
The most important symptom of electric current passing through the human body ...
stopping heart and breathing.
is an electric shock mark appearing where electricity entered the body.
is shock.
... burn is when the skin and possibly subcutaneous tissues are necrotic, the area is yellow-white or brownish,
and no bleeding occurs when the skin is scraped.
3rd degree.
1st degree.
2nd degree.
4th degree.
In the case of a 2nd degree burn, after cooling the affected body part, loose cover bandage should be placed
on the burn.
In the case of a 1st degree burn, after cooling the affected body part, oil or cream should be applied onto the
In the case of a 3rd degree burn, affected body part must not be cooled and no cover bandage should be
placed on the burn
METEOROLOGY
1 - THE ATMOSPHERE
1. What is the value of the environmental temperature lapse rate assumed by the ICAO Standard
Atmosphere?
a. 1°C / 1 000 feet
b. 1,5°C / 1 000 feet
c. 3°C / 1 000 feet
d. 1,98°C / 1 000 feet
2, In which atmospheric layer Is most of the water vapour contained?

a. Tropopause
b. Stratosphere
c. Troposphere
d. Stratopause
3. On a given day, the air temperature at 2000 feet above mean sea-level is forecast to be 5°C. Compared to
the ICAO Standard Atmosphere this is:
a. ISA -6
b. ISA +6
c. ISA +5
d. ISA -5
4. Below the Tropopause, the ICAO Standard Atmosphere assumes:

a. A mean sea-level pressure of 1013.25 hPa and a mean sea-level temperature of 15°C, decreasing at a rate
of 3°C per 1 000 feet until It reaches -65.6°C at 36 090 feet
b. A mean sea-levelpressure of 1013.25 hPA and a sea-level temperature of 15°C, decreasing at a rate of
1.98°C per 1 000 feet until it roaches absolute zero
c. A mean sea-level pressure of 1013.25 hPA and a sea-level temperature of 15°C, decreasing by 1.98°C per
1 000 feet up to 36 090 feet
d. A mean sea-level pressure of 1225 gm/m3 a mean sea-level temperature of 15°C, decreasing at a rate of
1.5°C per 1 000 feet up to 36 090 feet
5. Which of the following statements gives the most correct and complete description of ISA?
a. The mean sea-level (MSL) pressure is 1013.25 hPa and the temperature is +15°C
b. The MSL pressure Is 1013.25 hPa and the temperature is +15°C with a lapse rate of 1.98°C per 1000 feet
c. The MSL pressure Is 1013.25 mb and the temperature is +15°C with a lapse rate of 1.98°C per 1000 feet
up to 36,090 feet above which there Is frequently an inversion
d. Tlio MSL pressure Is 1013.25 hPa and the temperature is +15°C with a lapse rate of 1.98°C per 1000 feet
up to 36,090 feet
6. Which of the following options gives the most accurate description of the constituent gases of the Earth’s
atmosphere? (Ignore the variable concentration of water vapour in the atmosphere.)
a. Oxygen 21%, Nitrogen 78%, other gases 1%
b. Oxygen 21%, Hydrogen 78%, other gases 1%
c. Nitrogen 78%, Argon 21%, Oxygen 1%
d. Nitrogen 78%, Oxygen 21%, Hydrogen 1%
7. The layer of the atmosphere closest to the Earth’s surface where the majority of the weather is found is
called the:
a. Tropopause
b. Troposphere
c. Stratosphere
d. Mesosphere
2 - ATMOSPHERIC PRESSURE
1. What effect does cold air have on the vertical distribution of isobars?
a. It compacts them
b. It expands them
c. It has no effect on them
d. It raises them
2. A line drawn on a chart joining locations of equal barometric pressure at the same level is:
a. An isotherm
b. An isogonal
c. A contour
d. An isobar
3. What do tightly-spaced isobars indicate?

a. A steep pressure gradient and strong winds
b. A weak pressure gradient and light winds
c. A weak pressure gradient and strong winds
d. A steep pressure gradient and light winds
4. The pressure of the atmosphere:

a. decreases at an increasing rate as height increases
b. decreases at a constant rate as height increases
c. decreases at a decreasing rate as height increases
d. decreases at a constant rate up to the Tropopause and then remains constant
5. Compared to ISA, how does warm air affect the vertical distance represented by 1 hPa change in pressure?
a. Increases it
b. Decreases it
c. Not at all
d. It is impossible to determine
6. What is the name of the instrument which gives a continuous printed reading and record of variations in
atmospheric pressure?
a. Barometer
b. Hygrometer
c. Anemograph
d. Barograph
3 - ATMOSPHERIC DENSITY
1. Generally, within the Troposphere, as altitude increases:

a. temperature decreases and density increases
b. temperature, pressure and density decrease
c. temperature and pressure increase and density decreases
d. temperature decreases, pressure and density increase
2. What is the effect of reduced density on aircraft performance?

a. There will be an increase in performance
b. There will be a decrease in performance
c. There will be no change in performance
d. There will be less lift but more engine power
3. Density is defined as:

a. mass per unit volume
b. mass per unit area
c. weight of air per unit area
d. volume divided by mass
4. Under which of the following conditions would the air density at a given location be least?
a. Low altitude, high temperature and high humidity
b. High altitude, high temperature and low humidity
c. High altitude, high temperature and high humidity
d. Low altitude, low temperature and low humidity
5. What is the density at sea-level in the ICAO Standard Atmosphere?

a. 1225 g/m3
b. 12.25 g/m3
c. 1.225 g/m3
d. 122.5 g/m3
6. Air density at the Earth’s surface will be low when:

a. pressure is high and temperature is high
b. pressure is high and temperature is low
c. pressure is low and temperature is low
d. pressure is low and temperature is high
4 - TEMPERATURE
1. If a temperature inversion is present in the lower atmosphere;

a. there is no horizontal gradient of temperature
b. there is no change in temperature with height
c. there is an increase in temperature as height increases
d. there is a decrease in temperature as height increases
2. The surface of the Earth is heated by:

a. convection
b. conduction
c. long wave solar radiation
d. short wave solar radiation
3. Which of the following words defines temperature remaining constant with an increase in altitude?
a. isotherm
b. isogonal
c. isobar
d. inversion
4. The method by which heat energy is transferred from one body to another, with which it is in contact, is
called:
a. radiation
b. convection
c. conduction
d. latent heat
5. The diurnal variation of temperature is:

a. greater over the sea than the land
b. less over desert areas than over temperate grassland
c. increased by convection currents
d. greater when the wind is strongest
6. Replace the missing words: The sun radiates … amounts of heat energy with … wavelengths. The Earth
radiates … amounts of heat energy with … wavelengths.
a. great, short, smaller, long
b. small, short, greater, long
c. great, long, greater, long
d. great, long, smaller, short
7. Cloud cover will reduce surface diurnal variation of temperature because:
a. incoming solar radiation is reflected back to space and outgoing terrestrial radiation is reflected back to
earth
b. incoming solar radiation is re-radiated back to space and atmospheric heating by convection will stop at the
level of the cloud layer
c. the cloud stops the sun’s rays getting through to the earth and also reduces outgoing conduction
d. incoming solar radiation is reflected back to space and terrestrial radiation is absorbed by the cloud and re-
radiated back to the surface.
8. Diurnal variation of the surface temperature will:

a. be unaffected by a change in wind speed
b. decrease as the wind speed increases
c. increase as the wind speed increases
d. be at a minimum in calm conditions
9. The primary source of atmospheric heating is:

a. long-wave solar radiation
b. long-wave terrestrial radiation
c. short-wave solar radiation
d. latent-heat of evaporation
5 - PRESSURE SYSTEMS
1. Which of the statements below best describes a Col?

a. An area between two highs where the isobars are very close together
b. An extension of high pressure
c. An extension of low pressure
d. An area of widely spaced isobars between two highs and two lows
2. A ridge of high pressure is generally associated with:

a. convergence at the surface, causing increased cloud and precipitation
b. atmospheric subsidence, but not so pronounced as in an anticyclone, fine-weather cumulus, and moderate
to good visibility
c. tightly packed isobars, causing strong winds blowing anticlockwise around the high pressure system
d. subsidence of air, then divergence at the surface causing clear skies and poor visibility
3. An area of widely spaced isobars and light and variable winds, between two
depressions and two anticyclones, is called:
a. a trough
b. a ridge
c. a col
d. a saddle
4. With an anti-cyclone predominating over the United Kingdom the expected

weather would be:
a. thunderstorms in summer, fog in winter
b. stratus in summer with drizzle, cumulus and snow in winter
c. clear skies or possibly fair weather cumulus in summer, fog in winter
d. clear skies in summer with haze, and cold frontal weather in winter
5: During the winter months, which of the following weather conditions would most likely be produced by an
anti-cyclone?
a. Subsidence due to surface cooling creating extensive cloud
b. During the day, the surface warming would create an unstable atmosphere with extensive cloud cover
c. During the night as the land cools, there would be an increase in the vertical cloud development
d. General subsidence producing clear skies, inversion with poor surface visibility, and heavy surface frosts
6. A trough of low pressure at the surface is generally associated with:

a. surface convergence causing increased cloud and precipitation
b. surface divergence causing increased cloud and precipitation
c. subsidence causing increased cloud and precipitation
d. subsidence causing decreased cloud and precipitation
7. If a pilot flying at a given altitude in the Northern Hemisphere experiences a constant drift to the right, he will
probably be flying:
a. towards the centre of an anticyclone
b. towards the centre of a depression
c. away from a low pressure area
d. within a col
8. What is the cause of high pressure at the Earth’s surface within an anticyclone?
a. lower atmosphere convergence
b. large scale ascending air
c. upper atmosphere convergence and subsidence
d. rotating winds
9. What is the cause of low pressure around a Polar Front depression?

a. the intrusion of warm air into a colder air mass along a Polar Front
b. subsidence
c. upper atmosphere convergence
d. divergence at the Earth’s surface
6 - ALTIMETRY
1. The aerodrome QFE is:

a. the reading on the altimeter at an aerodrome when the aerodrome barometric pressure is set on the sub-
scale
b. the reading on the altimeter at touchdown at an aerodrome, when 1013.2 millibars is set on the sub-scale
c. the reading on the altimeter at an aerodrome, when the sea-level barometric pressure is set on the sub-
scale
d. the observed barometric pressure at the aerodrome
2. You are flying at a constant indicated altitude with a QNH of 1015 mb set on the altimeter sub-scale and
you notice that the outside air temperature has been falling constantly. What can you expect to happen to your
true altitude?
a. It will decrease
b. It will increase
c. It will remain the same
d. It will increase then decrease
3. When flying towards a depression, at a constant indicated altitude, the true altitude will be:
a. lower than indicated
b. higher than indicated
c. the same as indicated
d. lower than indicated at first then the same as indicated later
4. The altimeter will always read:

a. the altitude above mean sea-level, with 1013 set
b. the height above the airfield datum with the airfield QNH set
c. the vertical distance above the pressure level set on the altimeter sub-scale
d. the correct flight level with the regional QFE set
5. When an altimeter sub-scale is set to the aerodrome QFE, the altimeter reads:
a. the elevation of the aerodrome at the aerodrome reference point
b. zero at the aerodrome reference point
c. the height of the aircraft above sea-level
d. the appropriate altitude of the aircraft
6. An aircraft flies from aerodrome "A", where the QNH is 1020 mb, to aerodrome “B” where the QNH is 999
mb. Aerodrome “A” is 800 feet above mean sea-level and Aerodrome “B" is 500 feet above mean sea-level. If the
altimeter sub-scale is not changed from 1020 mb, what will be the altimeter indication on landing at Aerodrome
"B"?
a. 1 430 feet
b. 130 feet
c. 1 130 feet
d. -130 feet
7. The name given to the lowest forecast mean sea-level pressure in an Altimeter Setting Region, in the
United Kingdom, is:
a. QFE
b. Regional Pressure Setting
c. QFF
d. QNE
8. An aircraft flies at a constant indicated altitude from airfield A (QNH 1009 mb) to airfield B (QNH 1019 mb).
If the sub-scale remains on 1009 mb, when the aircraft arrives over airfield B:
a. the indicated altitude will be the same as the actual altitude
b. the indicated altitude will be less than actual altitude
c. the indicated altitude will be more than actual altitude
d. the indicated altitude may be greater or less depending on the airfield elevation
9. You experience a constant drift to the right when flying over Europe at a constant indicated altitude. If the
altimeter sub-scale is not updated, this will result in:
a. flying at a progressively lower true altitude
b. flying at a progressively higher true altitude
c. flying at a progressively lower indicated altitude
d. flying at a progressively higher indicated altitude
10. When an aircraft is on the ground at an airfield, its altimeter will read airfield elevation with which pressure
setting on the sub-scale?
a. QFF
b. QFE
c. QNE
d. QNH
11. An aircraft is descending to land from above the transition altitude. If the aerodrome QNH passed to the
pilot is 1009 millibars (hectopascals), how will the altimeter reading change when the pilot changes the altimeter
subscale setting from the SPS (1013 mb) to QNH, at the transition level?
a. It will remain the same
b. It will decrease
c. It will increase
d. The pilot must not change the sub-scale setting as he descends through the transition level
12. After take-off from an aerodrome on a cross country flight, in the United Kingdom, at an altitude of 2500
feet, and well away from controlled airspace, a pilot would, in general, on leaving the vicinity of the aerodrome,
change the altimeter sub-scale setting from:
a. Local QNH to QFE
b. RPS to QFE
c. Airfield QNH to the Regional Pressure Setting
d. SPS to QNH
13. Which of the following pressure settings should a pilot select on the altimeter sub-scale when operating
above the transition altitude in the en-route phase of flight?
a. The Standard Pressure Setting
b. The Regional Pressure Setting
c. The QFE of the nearest aerodrome
d. The QNH of the nearest aerodrome
7 - HUMIDITY
1. Which of the processes listed below can cause air to become saturated?
a. Melting
b. Condensation
c. Heating
d. Evaporation
2. The instrument used for measuring the humidity in the air is a:

a. hydrometer
b. hygrometer
c. wet bulb thermometer
d. hygroscope
3. A change of state directly from a solid to a vapour, or vice versa, is known as:
a. insolation
b. condensation
c. evaporation
d. sublimation
4. When condensation takes place, latent heat:

a. is released
b. is absorbed
c. causes a rise in temperature during the change of state
d. causes a fall in temperature during the change of state
5. In a hygrometer, the wet bulb temperature would normally be lower than the dry bulb temperature because:
a. condensation causes a release of latent heat
b. evaporation causes cooling of the wet bulb thermometer
c. latent heat is absorbed by the wet bulb thermometer
d. of condensation on the muslin wick on the bulb
6. When water vapour changes to ice:

a. latent heat is absorbed
b. specific heat is released
c. latent heat is released
d. specific heat is absorbed
7. The process of change of state from water to water vapour is known as:
a. condensation in which latent heat is released
b. evaporation in which latent heat is released
c. condensation in which latent heat is absorbed
d. evaporation in which latent heat is absorbed
8. The process of change of state from water vapour to water is known as:
a. evaporation in which latent heat is absorbed
b. evaporation in which latent heat is released
c. condensation in which latent heat is absorbed
d. condensation in which latent heat is released
9. Which of the processes listed below can cause the air to become saturated?
a. Heating
b. Cooling
c. Digression
d. Compression
8 - ADIABATIC PROCESSES AND STABILITY
1. Air is stable if:

a. it moves very little
b. there are few changes in pressure
c. when the lifting force is removed, the air tends to return to its original position
d. when the lifting force is removed, the air continues to rise
2. Absolute instability occurs when:

a. DALR > ELR
b. ELR > DALR
c. SALR > ELR
d. SALR < ELR
3. Given atmospheric conditions in which the Relative Humidity is 60% and the ELR is less than the DALR. if
air is forced to rise it will be:
a. unstable and carry on rising
b. stable and will carry on rising
c. unstable and will tend to regain its former position
d. stable and will tend to regain its former position
4. … instability exists when the … is … than the DALR.

a. Conditional, SALR, less
b. Conditional, ELR, greater
c. Absolute, ELR, greater
d. Absolute, SALR, less
5. Which of the following weather descriptions characterises unstable air:

a. Layered cloud with showers and generally poor visibility
b. Layered cloud with good visibility and drizzle
c. Cumulus cloud with continuous precipitation and poor visibility
d. Cumulus cloud with showers and generally good visibility outside the showers
6. If saturated air is forced to rise it will:

a. tend to regain its former position if the ELR is less than the SALR
b. tend to regain its former position if the ELR is greater than the SALR
c. carry on rising if the ELR is less than the SALR
d. be classified as stable air when the ELR is greater than the SALR
7. The change of ambient air temperature with height is known as:

a. the environmental lapse rate
b. the adiabatic lapse rate
c. the temperature curve
d. the tephigram
9 - TURBULENCE
1. In a mountain wave situation, the worst of the turbulence is most likely to be found when flying:
a. at about mid-height between the lenticular and roll cloud
b. in or just below the roll cloud
c. in the cap cloud
d. in the lenticular cloud
2. Complete the following sentence: Low level windshear:

a. is rare where there is a strong inversion level close to the surface
b. is found only under the core of the anvil of a thunderstorm
c. is only ever found on the fringes of a micro-burst
d. may be experienced 15 to 20 miles ahead of a fast-moving thunderstorm
3. A light aircraft flying at low level near a mountain range across Which a strong wind is blowing may expect:
1. severe turbulence below or within the rotor zone
2. downdraughts on the leeward side of the mountain, below ridge level, which may exceed the climb
rate of the aircraft
3. strong smooth upcurrents on the windward side of the mountain wave
4. lenticular cloud
a. Only 1 and 3 are correct
b. Only 1 and 2 are correct
c. 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
d. Only 1,2 and 4 are correct
4. The pilot of an aircraft which is approaching a mountain from the downwind, or leeward, side, a few
hundred feet above ridge level, observes lenticular cloud above. Which of the following conditions would the pilot
expect to encounter as the flight continues?
a. Strong thermal upcurrents at the top of the ridge
b. Strong downdraughts and turbulence after passing over the ridge
c. Strong downdraughts immediately before the ridge of the mountain is reached, with strong updraughts after
passing the ridge to the windward side
d. Strong updraughts before the ridge is passed and strong downdraughts after the ridge is passed
5. An aircraft is flying in the vicinity of a range of hills, lying North/South, across which a wind is blowing from
the West to the East. Which of the following situations might cause the aircraft to encounter dangerous
downdraughts?
a. When flying East towards the hills from the West
b. When flying West towards the hills from the East
c. When flying North towards the hill from the South
d. When flying South towards the hill from the North
6. A low level temperature inversion may produce:

a. windshear at the inversion boundary
b. an on-shore breeze
c. a decrease in stability
d. good visibility by day because of the steep temperature lapse rate
10 - CLOUDS AND PRECIPITATION
1 Unstable air is forced to rise up the side of a mountain. What weather might you expect to see on the windward
slopes?
a. Cloud of extensive vertical development embedded in orographic cloud
b. Thick stratiform cloud, possibly nimbostratus
c. None, as the air will subside and warm adiabatically after passing over the summit
d. Cap clouds with possible altocumulus lenticularis
2. Meteorological textual information defines the height of the cloud base as follows: (agl = above ground
level: amsl = above mean sea-level)
a. METAR - agl, TAF - amsl, Area Forecast - amsl
b. METAR - agl, TAF - agl, Area Forecast - amsl
c. METAR - amsl, TAF - amsl, Area Forecast - agl
d. METAR - amsl, TAF - agl, Area Forecast - agl
3. The use of the suffix "nimbus" or prefix "nimbo" means:

a. dark and threatening
b. wispy, detached or fibrous
c. medium cloud
d. rain bearing
4. The precipitation produced by stratus is normally:
a. heavy showers
b. heavy rain
c. drizzle
d. light showers
5. Hail is most likely to fall from which type of cloud?

a. NS
b. AC
c. CB
d. AS
6. Which of the following clouds is most closely associated with extensive light rain?
a. Nimbostratus
b. Cumulus
c. Cumulonimbus
d. Cirrostratus and stratocumulus
7. From the list below, select the Low, Medium and High clouds in ascending order
a Stratus, altocumulus, cirrus
b Nimbostratus, cumulonimbus, cirrus
c, Altostratus, altocumulus, cirrus
d, Cirrus, cumulonimbus, stratus
8. Given a surface temperature of +21°C and a dew point of +6°C, at approximately what height will the cloud
base of a cumulus cloud be? Use the UK CAA‘s formula for calculating height of cloud base.
a. 500 ft
b. 58 000 ft
c. 4 000 ft
d. 5 000 ft
9. One or more coloured rings around the Sun or Moon may indicate the presence of which type of cloud?
a, High
b. Cirrostratus
c. Stratus
d, Cirrocumulus
10. What type of weather phenomenon would you expect in a valley on the leeward side of a mountain over
which a Föhn wind was blowing?
a. Heavy precipitation
b. A warm, dry wind
c. A cold, moist wind
d. Valley fog
11. Lenticular clouds observed in the lee of a range of hills indicate the possibility of what type of
meteorological phenomenon?
a. Strong upcurrents in the lee of the hills
b. Severe downdraughts on the immediate windward side of the hills
c. Severe downdraughts in the immediate lee of the hills and turbulent rotor clouds beneath the lenticular
cloud
d. the imminent development of cumulonimbus
12. An unstable atmosphere where the Environmental Lapse Rate is greater than the Saturated Adiabatic
Lapse Rate, is characterised by:
a. clear skies and heat haze
b. a predominance of cirrostratus and altostratus with no low level cloud
c. fog with an almost complete absence of wind
d. extensive cumulus or cumulonimbus cloud with frequent showers and otherwise good visibility
13. Heavy showers of rain and the possibility of thunderstorms are most often associated with cloud:
a. in advance of a cold front
b. behind a warm front
c. in advance of a warm front
d. within a ridge of high pressure
14. A stable air mass which is subject to orographic lifting will most likely produce:
a. cloud of extensive vertical development
b. stratiform cap cloud at the summit of the high ground
c. no cloud because the air is stable
d. warm, dry, valley winds
11 - THUNDERSTORMS
1. Thunderstorm activity is most likely to be associated with which of the following:

a. A ridge of high pressure
b. Stable anticyclonic conditions
c. The presence of mountain wave
d. A cold front
2. Which of the following combinations of weather-producing variables would be most likely to result in the
formation of cumulonimbus cloud?
a. Stable moist air combined with the Föhn effect
b. Unstable air and no lifting mechanism
c. Stable dry air and orographic uplifting
d. Unstable moist air and orographic uplifting
3. For cumulonimbus clouds to develop, which of the following atmospheric conditions must be present?
a. A deep layer of stable moist air
b. A shallow layer of stable moist air at the Earth’s surface
c. A deep layer of very unstable moist air with an appropriate trigger mechanism
d. A conditionally stable dry air
4. What stage of a thunderstorm is characterised mainly by downdraughts?

a. Initial stage
b. Dissipating stage
c. Mature stage
d. Cumulus stage
5. What stage of a cumulonimbus is most likely to be characterised by a fibrous anvil shape at the cloud’s
summit?
a. Dissipating stage
b. Initial stage
c. Mature Stage
d. Cumulus stage
6. Hazards of the mature stage of a thunderstorm cell include lightning, turbulence and:
a. a decreasing intensity of precipitation
b. icing, micro-burst and wind-shear
c. icing, drizzle and micro-burst
d. wind-shear, hail and fog
7. Which of the following are most likely to produce thunderstorms?

a. A high moisture content with the ELR greater than the SALR
b. A high moisture content with the ELR less than the SALR
c. A low moisture content with the ELR less than the SALR
d. A low moisture content with the DALR greater than the SALR
8. What stage of a thunderstorm is characterised by updraughts only?
a. Mature stage
b. Initial stage
c. Dissipating stage
d. End stage
9. The atmospheric conditions which must exist to allow a thunderstorm to develop are:
a. a trigger action, a plentiful supply of moisture and a very stable atmosphere
b. a steep lapse rate and a stable atmosphere through a large vertical extent
c. a high moisture content with the ELR greater than the SALR through a large vertical extent of the
atmosphere, together with a trigger action
d. a steep lapse rate through a large vertical extent, a low relative humidity and a trigger action
10. Hazards to an aircraft caused by the presence of cumulonimbus thundercloud may be experienced:
a. only when the aircraft is within the cloud
b. only when the aircraft is within or beneath the cloud
c. when the aircraft is within 10 nm of the cloud
d. when the aircraft is within 5 nm of the cloud
12 - WINDS
1. At about mid-afternoon the surface wind at an aerodrome was reported as 220/25. Using the rule of thumb,
what might you expect the 2,000 ft wind to be?
a. 205/50
b. 205/15
c. 245/50
d. 235/12
2. Low level winds in the northern hemisphere that blow around a depression are drawn on surface weather
charts in:
a. A clockwise direction
b. An anti-clockwise direction
c. An anti-cyclonic direction
d. Either clockwise or anti-clockwise depending on whether the depression is cyclonic or ant-cyclonic
3. How would the wind in the evening be described compared to the surface wind at 1600 local time?
a. Veered and decreased
b. Backed and increased
c. Backed and decreased
d. Veered and increased
4. Winds that blow round an anti-cyclone (high pressure system) at low levels in the northern hemisphere are
represented on a low level chart as blowing in:
a. A clockwise direction
b. A clockwise direction if it is warm air and anti-clockwise if it is cold air
c. An anti-clockwise direction
d. A cyclonic direction
5. Select the statement that is most representative of land and sea breezes.
a. The surface wind is likely to blow on-shore during the day
b. The surface wind is likely to blow on-shore during the night
c. By day the 1000 ft wind is likely to blow on-shore
d. They can only be observed in strong pressure gradient forces
6. A pressure gradient causes air to move:

a. Between the high pressure and the low pressure
b. From a cyclonic region to an anti-cyclonic region
c. From low pressure to high pressure
d. From an anti-cyclonic region to a cyclonic region
7. The wind over an aerodrome was reported as 330/15. Using the rule of thumb, what might you expect the
surface wind to be.
a. 305/30
b. 355/30
c. 315/30
d. 307/7
8. The latest weather report for an aerodrome on the south coast indicates a sea breeze. If your ETA is mid-
afternoon, on what runway might you expect an into wind landing?
a. 09
b. 35
c. 18
d. 27
9. Coriolis force in the northern hemisphere will cause moving air to be apparently deflected to:
a. The left and cause the wind to blow parallel to the isobars at about 2 000 ft agl
b. The right and cause the wind to blow parallel to the isobars at about 2 000 ft agl
c. The left and cause the wind to blow slightly across the isobars at about 2,000 ft agl
d. The right and cause the wind to blow slightly across the isobars at about 2 000 ft agl
10. Which of the following types of weather report or forecast give the wind direction with respect to true north?
a. TAF, ATIS, AIRMET
b. METAR, ATIS, SIGMET
c. TAF, METAR, VOLMET
d. METAR, TAF, ATIS
13 - VISIBILITY AND FOG
1. A type of fog commonly found around coastlines, that develops rapidly both by day or night is typically:
a. advection fog
b. radiation fog
c. frontal fog
d. dense fog
2. Advection fog is often caused by:

a. a cold moist air mass under the influence of a moderate wind being warmed to below its dew point by
flowing over a much warmer surface
b. a warm moist air mass under the influence of a moderate wind being cooled to below its dew point by
flowing over a much colder surface
c. High relative humidity, moderate wind and a cloudy sky
d. a warm moist air mass under the influence of a very strong wind on a clear cloudless night
3. Which of the following conditions is most favourable to the formation of radiation fog?
a. High relative humidity, moderate wind and a cloudy sky
b. High relative humidity, light winds and a clear sky, just after sunrise, in autumn
c. Low relative humidity, light winds and a clear sky, just after sunrise, in summer
d. High relative humidity, light winds and a cloudy sky
4. Over an inland airfield, radiation fog is reported in the morning. As the wind speed increases to 10 knots,
what would you expect?
a. The fog to thicken
b. The fog to dissipate
c. The fog to lift and form low stratus
d. An increase in mixing, allowing more fog to develop
5 In the vicinity of industrial areas, smoke is most likely to affect surface visibility when:
a. the surface wind is strong and gusty
b. cumulus clouds have developed in the afternoon
c. there is deep low pressure system over the area
d. there is a low level inversion
6. In unstable air, surface visibility is most likely to be restricted by:

a. haze
b. drizzle
c. showers of rain or snow
d. low stratus
7. Frontal fog is most likely to occur:

a. in summer in the early morning
b. at the rear of a warm front
c. in winter in the early morning
d. in advance of a warm front
14 - ICING
1. Ice accretion in a piston engine induction system is produced by:

a. high power settings, moderate humidity and cold air
b. low power settings, low humidity and warm air
c. low power settings, high humidity, at an outside air temperature of between -10°C and +30°C
d. high power settings, 30% Relative Humidity, at an outside air temperature of between -10°C and +30°C
2. If a cloudy, granular type of ice is seen to collect and protrude from the leading edge of the aerofoil, what
type of ice is it most likely be?
a. Rime ice
b. Clear ice
c. Rain ice
d. Hoar frost
3. If flying just below a cloud base from which rain is falling, with an outside air temperature is between 4°C
and 6°C, there would be a risk of:
a. rime ice
b. clear ice
c. rain ice
d. carburettor icing
4. Hoar frost forms on an aircraft when:

a. the aircraft suddenly enters a cloud at below freezing temperature
b. the aircraft in sub-zero clear air suddenly enters a colder region
c. the aircraft in sub-zero clear air suddenly enters a warmer, more humid region
d. the aircraft in warm air suddenly enters a cloud containing supercooled raindrops
5. Clear ice forms as a result of:

a. water vapour freezing to the aircraft
b. ice pellets splattering on the aircraft
c. small supercooled water droplets splashing over the aircraft
d. large supercooled water droplets spreading as they freeze
6. What is the main reason water can exist in a liquid state even though the temperature is sub-zero?
a. No freezing nuclei
b. No condensation nuclei
c. Water takes a long time to cool to below zero degrees
d. Water is hygroscopic
7. You are flying above the freezing level in the cold air just ahead of the warm front. If rain were to fall in this
area, what kind of icing might you expect?
a. Carburettor ice
b. Rain ice
c. Rime ice
d. Hoarfrost
15 - AIR MASSES AND FRONTS
1. The extent of rainfall ahead of a typical warm front may stretch up to distance of:
a. 50 miles ahead of the surface position of the warm front
b. 200 miles ahead of the surface position of the warm front
c. 500 miles ahead of the surface position of the warm front
d. 2 miles ahead of the surface position of the warm front
2. Seen from the surface, the passage of a warm front is characterised by which of the following cloud types,
seen in sequence:
a. Embedded cumulonimbus within dense nimbostratus
b. Cirrostratus, cirrocumulus, nimbostratus and finally cumulus
c. Cirrus, cirrostratus, altostratus, nimbostratus and finally stratus
d. Nimbostratus, altostratus, cirrostratus and finally cirrus
3. What will normally happen to the surface wind direction following the passage of a warm front?
a. Stay constant
b. Back
c. Veer
d. Veer then back
4. What is the general speed of a warm front?

a. Approximately 1/3 of the speed of the cold front
b. Approximately 2/3 of the speed of the cold front
c. Approximately 1/2 the speed of the cold front
d. The same speed as the cold front
5. Which air mass arriving over the United Kingdom would be characterised by cold, moist, unstable air?
a. Polar maritime
b. Tropical maritime
c. Polar continental
d. Tropical continental
6. Your planned flight lies within the warm sector of a polar front depression. What would you expect the cloud
to be?
a. A fairly low, uniform base of stratus or stratocumulus cloud
b. Low, medium and high level cloud
c. Only high level cloud
d. Clear skies
7. You observe the passage of a frontal system and notice this sequence of clouds: cirrus, cirrostratus,
altostratus, nimbostratus and stratus. What kind of a front are you observing?
a. A cold front
b. An occluded front
c. A stationary front
d. A warm front
8. When two air masses converge in a depression, and warmer air replaces the colder air at the surface, the
front is known as:
a. A cold front with a typical slope of 1:150
b. A warm front witha typical slope of 1:150
c. A warm front witha typical slope of 1:50
d. A cold front with a typical slope of 1:50
9. The conditions most likely to be encountered when following an East/West track that crosses an occluded
front lying North/South, would be:
a. Thick stratus and drizzle ahead of the occlusion, with a light wind generally backing across the occlusion
b. Calm conditions before the occlusion, with considerable backing of the wind across the occlusion
c. Extensive rain, interspersed with heavy showers
d. Calm, settled weather with poor visibility
10. When dry air flows over a warm water surface, the air in contact with the surface will absorb water vapour
and become:
a. More dense and stable
b. Less dense, colder and remain at the surface
c. Less denseand unstable
d. More dense and cool
11. What are the characteristics of the passage of a cold front?

a. A dew point rise, a temperature fall and wind backing
b. A dew point rise, a temperature fall and wind veering
c. Steady dew point and temperature but a sharp backing in the wind
d. A dew point fall, a temperature fall and the wind veering
12. Tropical maritime air that affects European weather originates from:
a. The Azores
b. The Indian Ocean
c. The Mediterranean
d. The North Sea in summer
13. Which of the following frontal systems is most likely to produce thunderstorms?
a. A quasi-stationary front
b. A warm front
c. A ridge of high pressure
d. A cold front
14. What would be the change in weather of a typical warm front?

a. Pressure falls, 8 oktas of cloud with a lowering base, and poor visibility
b. Pressure increases steadily, no more then 4 oktas of cloud and good visibility
c. Pressure stops falling, 4 oktas of cloud with a very low base and rapidly improving visibility
d. Pressure falls, 8 oktas of cloud with a lowering base and improving visibility
15. Tropical maritime air coming from the Azores gives what kind of weather?
a. Moist unstable conditions leading to well developed cumulonimbus
b. Moist but stable conditions due to the general subsidence caused by cooling from below, giving low stratus
and poor visibility
c. Dry stable conditions leading to good visibility at low level
d. Moist but stable conditions due to the ascent of air caused by being warmed from below, giving low stratus
and poor visibility
16. What features characterise an air mass?

a. A mass of air of constant temperature, pressure and humidity, overlying a localised hotspot on the Earth’s
surface
b. A mass of air displaced from an anticyclone to a depression, as a frontal wind
c. A mass of air, of large horizontal extent, possessing fairly uniform horizontal values of temperature,
pressure and humidity drawn from the cyclonic weather of which it is part
d. A mass of air, of large horizontal extent, displays fairly uniform horizontal values of temperature, pressure
and humidity, drawn from the anticyclonic region over which it lies
16 - THE METAR
1. When a TREND is included at the end of a METAR, the TREND is a forecast valid for:
a. 1 hour after the time of observation
b. 2 hours after the time of observation
c. 2 hours after it was issued
d. 1 hour after it was issued
2. A METAR is:
a. A routine weather report for a large area
b. An aerodrome forecast containing a TREND for the next 2 hours
c. A routine weather report concerning a specific aerodrome
d. A weather forecast concerning a specific aerodrome
3. In the METAR shown below, the cloud base has been omitted. At what height might you expect the cloud-
base to be if cumulus cloud was present? 28005KT 9999 SCT??? 12/05 Q1020 NŐSIG
a. SCT042
b. SCT020
c. SCT280
d. SCT024
4. Which of the following correctly decodes the METAR shown below? METAR EGKL 130350Z 32005KT
0400N DZ BCFG VV002
a. Observed on the 13th day of the month at 0350Z, surface wind 320° (T), 05 knots, minimum visibility 400
metres to the north, moderate drizzle, with fog patches and a vertical visibility of 200 ft
b. Reported on the 13th day of the month at 0350Z, surface wind 320° (M), 05 knots, minimum visibility 400
metres to the north, moderate drizzle, with fog patches and a vertical visibility of 200 ft
c. Valid on the 13th day of the month between 0300 and 1500Z, surface wind 320° (T)/05 knots, minimum
visibility 400 metres, drizzle, with fog patches and a vertical visibility of 200 ft
d. Valid between 1300 and 1350Z, surface wind 320° (T)/05 knots, minimum visibility 400 metres to the north,
moderate drizzle, with fog patches and a vertical visibility of 200 ft
5. A temperature group of 12/06 in a METAR means that;

a. the temperature is 12°C at the time of reporting, but it is expected to become 6°C by the end of the TREND
report
b. the dry bulb is 12°C and the wet bulb temperature is 6°C
c. the dew point is 12°C and the temperature is 6°C
d. the temperature is 12°C and the dew point is 6°C
6. Providing the minimum sector altitude is not a factor. CAVOK in a TAF or METAR:
a. means visibility 10 km or more, and no cloud below 5 000 ft
b. means visibility 10 km or more, and few cloud below 5 000 ft
c. means visibility 10 nm or more, and no cloud below 5 000 ft
d. means visibility 10 nm or more, and no scattered cloud below 5 000 ft
7. The visibility group R20/0050 in a METAR means:

a. as measured by runway measuring equipment for Runway 20, a current visibility of 50 metres
b. for Runway 20, a current visibility of 500 metres measured by runway visual range equipment
c. the runway visibility reported is 50 metres as measured by runway visual range equipment in the last 20
minutes
d. on Runway 20 the current viability is less than 5 000 metres
8. The code "BECMG FM 1100 -RASH” in a METAR means:

a. from 1100UTC, the cessation of rain showers
b. becoming from 1100UTC slight rain showers
c. becoming from 1100UTC rain showers
d. becoming from 1100UTC till 0000UTC slight rain showers
17 - TERMINAL AERODROME FORECASTS

1. The weather group RERA in a TAF means:
a. rain in retreat
b. recent rain
c. returning rain
d. retreating rain
2. TEMPO in a TAF means:

a. a temporary variation to the main forecast that will last for less than one hour or, if recurring, for less than
half the period indicated
b. a temporary variation to the main forecast lasting less than an hour
c. the development of unpredictable conditions that may be a hazard to aviation
d. a variation to the base line conditions laid down in the main forecast that will continue to prevail until the
end of the main forecast
3. The weather group SHSNRA in a TAF means:

a. slight showers of snow and rain
b. moderate showers of snow and rain
c. heavy showers of snow and rain
d. recent snow showers
4. A TAF time group 0220 means that the TAF:

a. is a short range forecast only, at 0220 UTC
b. was observed at 0220 UTC
c. was issued at 0220 UTC
d. is a long range forecast for the 18 hour period from 0200 UTC to 2000 UTC
5. BECMG 1820 BKN030 in a TAF means:

a. becoming between 1800 UTC and 2000 UTC 3-4 oktas of cloud at 300 ft AGL
b. becoming from 1820 UTC 5-7 oktas of cloud at 3000 ft AGL
c. becoming from 1820 UTC 3-4 oktas of cloud at 3000 ft AGL
d. becoming between 1800 UTC and 2000 UTC 5-7 oktas of cloud at 3000 ft AGL
6. Which of the following correctly decodes a TAF that reads:

EGLL 0615 VRB08KT 9999 SCT025=
a. Valid from 0600 UTC to 1500 UTC; surface wind variable at 8 knots; visibility 10 nm or more; with a cloud
base of 2 500 ft above mean sea level
b. Observed at 0615 UTC; the surface wind was variable In direction and speed; averaging 8 knots; with a
visibility of 10 km or more, and a cloud base of 2 500 ft above aerodrome level
c. Valid from 0600 UTC to 1500 UTC; surface wind will be variable at 8 knots, with a visibility 10 km or more;
3-4 oktas of cloud with a base of 2 500 ft above aerodrome level
d. Observed at 0600 UTC; the surface wind was variable in direction and speed; with a visibility of 10 km and
a cloud base of 2 500 ft above ground level
7. The correct decode for a TAF 0615 14025G40KT 1200 BR would be

a. The forecast is for a nine hour period from 0615 UTC with a surface wind of 140° M at 25 knots gusting 40
knots, visibility 1 200 metres in mist
b. The forecast is for a nine hour period from 0615 UTC with a surface wind of 140° T at 25 knots, visibility 1
200 metres in fog
c. The forecast is for a nine hour period from 0600 to 1500 UTC with a surface wind of 140° M at 25 knots
gusting 40 kts, visibility 1 200 metres in broken patches
d. The forecast is for a nine hour period from 0600 to 1500 UTC with a surface wind of 140° T at 25 knots
gusting 40 kts, visibility 1 200 metres in mist
18 - THE SPOT WIND CHART
1. Referring to the diagram below, estimate the wind velocity and temperature at 10 000 ft over position 50° N,
0° E.
a. 240/10 -6°C
b. 230/17 -4°C
c. 220/25 -3°C
d. 120/25 +11°C
2 In the United Kingdom, how many times is the Spot Wind Chart (F214) issued in a 24 hour period?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
Up to what altitude does the Spot Wind Chart give wind and temperature forecasts?
a. 10 000 ft
b. 15 000 ft
c. 24 000 ft
d. 18 000 ft
4. Referring to the diagram below, find the wind velocity and temperature at 2 000 ft at position 52° 30’N. 0°E.
a. 240/15 kts +10°C
b. 360/20 kts +9°C
c. 140/30 kts +9°C
d. VRB/5 kts +10°C
5. Referring to Diagram 2, estimate the forecast wind velocity at 5 000 ft at position 50°N, 0°E.
a. 180/20 kts
b. 250/15 kts
c. 070/15 kts
d. 230/10 kts
6. Referring to Diagram 2, estimate the 0° C altitude at 52° 30’ N, 2° 30' W.

a. 6 000 ft
b. 9 000 ft
c. 8 000 ft
d. 8 500 ft
19 - LOW LEVEL FORECAST CHARTS
1. Referring to the Form 215 at Chart 1 on Page 257, what is the height of the freezing level over South West
England?
a. 3 000 feet
b. 5 000 feet
c. Between 6 000 feet and 9 000 feet
d. Between 4 000 feet and 5 000 feet
2. Referring to Chart 1 on Page 257, what is the lowest forecast cloud base in weather Area A?
a. 3 000 feet
b. 7 000 feet
c. >10 000 feet
d. 1 500 feet
3. Referring to Chart 1 on Page 257, what is the worst turbulence and icing hazard associated with clouds that
is forecast to occur in Area A?
a. Severe icing and severe turbulence
b. Widespread severe turbulence and moderate icing
c. Moderate icing and moderate turbulence
d. Moderate icing
4. Referring to Chart 1 on Page 257 in Area A, to what height above mean sea level are the cumulonimbus
cloud tops forecast?
a. 10 000 feet
b. 15 000 feet
c. >10 000 feet
d. 8 000 feet
5. Referring to Chart 1 on Page 257, what will be the general weather situation in Area B?
a. Broken or overcast stratocumulus
b. Nil weather with 30 kilometres visibility
c. Nil weather but occasional hill fog
d. Generally either nil weather or light rain with widespread outbursts of rain with isolated heavy showers in
the far North
6. Referring to Chart 2 on Page 258, what is the lowest forecast surface visibility over central France?
a. 7 km
b. 2 000 m
c. 300 m
d. <200 m on the hills
7. Referring to Chart 1 on Page 257, in Area D what would be the surface visibility and weather for a flight
over the English Channel?
a. 15 km visibility with nil weather
b. Widespread 7 km visibility in haze
c. Occasional 3 000 m visibility in fog
d. Isolated 200 m visibility in fog
8. Referring to Chart 2 on Page 258, what are the general weather and visibility conditions expected in the
Southern part of the North Sea, just off the German and Danish coast?
a. Showers
b. Nil weather, 20 kilometres visibility
c. Widespread rain and drizzle
d. Isolated hill fog
20 - WORLD AREA FORECAST SIGWX CHARTS
1. On WAF significant weather charts, jet streams are given flight levels. To what does this flight level refer?
a. The flight level of the mean wind in the jet stream
b. The flight level of the maximum wind in the jet stream
c. The highest flight level where the winds are more than 60 knots
d. The average height of the jet stream
2. At what times are WAF significant weather charts produced?

a. At 0000, 0600, 1200, 1800 UTC
b. At 0000, 0600, 1200, 1800 LMT
c. At 0000 and 1200Z
d. At midnight and midday only
3. What is the validity time for a WAF significant weather chart?

a. 6 hours
b. 3 hours
c. 30 minutes
d. For a fixed single time only
4. When are WAF significant weather charts produced?

a. Every 3 hours
b. Every 6 hours
c. Every 12 hours
d. At midnight and midday only
5. On WAF significant weather charts what do the letters CB imply?
a. Moderate icing and turbulence
b. Moderate to severe icing and turbulence
c. Moderate to severe icing and turbulence and hail
d. Severe icing and turbulence and hail
21 - THE SIGMET
1. What do the first four letters of the SIGMET message identify?

a. The issue number
b. The ICAO identifier for the relevant airport
c. The name of the Air Traffic Services Unit
d. The validity time
2. EGTT SIGMET 1 VALID 310730/311130 EGRR LONDON FIR ISOLCBFCST TOPS FL370 ROUTES W OF
W00400 NC= In the above SIGMET, what is the nature of the forecast significant weather?
a. Hail
b. Cumulonimbus with tops approximately at the Tropopause
c. Trans-Atlantic routes at Flight Level 370 closed
d. No change
3. EGTT SIGMET 1 VALID 310730/311130 EGRR LONDON FIR ISOL CB FCST TOPS FL370 ROUTES W
OF W00400 NC= What is the expected change in the weather intensity indicated by this SIGMET?
a. Weakening
b. Strengthening
c. Dissipating
d. No change
4. How would a severe mountain wave be coded in a SIGMET message?

a. + MTW
b. SEV MTW
c. SEV MNTW
d. SEVERE MNTW
5. LFFF SIGMET 1 VALID 310600/311100 LFPW- UIR FRANCE MOD TURB FCST BLW FL420 W of 04W
MOVE E 30KT NC= In the SIGMET message shown above, what is the hazard forecast?
a. Moderate turbulence at 42 000 ft West of 4 degrees West and moving Eastwards
b. Moderate turbulence below 42 000 ft West of 4 degrees West and moving from the East
c. Turbulence at 42 000 ft West of 4 degrees West and moving at 30 kts
d. Moderate turbulence below 42 000 ft West of 4 degrees West and moving Eastwards
22 - THE AIRMET
1. An AIRMET service:
a. can only be obtained in textual form by fax
b. can be obtained by telephone, telex or fax
c. is a discrete telephone service for the sole use of private pilots from small aerodromes or private strips who
do not have access to forecast charts
d. aims to provide private pilots with simple meteorological forecast information in a graphical format
2. A Regional AIRMET is issued … and is valid for … with an outlook period of … .

a. 6 times a day, 8 hours, 4 hours
b. 4 times a day, 6 hours, 4 hours
c. 4 times a day, 8 hours, 6 hours
d. 6 times a day, 4 hours, 4 hours
3. A regional AIRMET is a forecast of the weather up to:
a. FL100
b. FL180
c. FL010
d. FL240
4. In an AIRMET, when are strong winds forecast?

a. When the wind is expected to exceed 10 kts
b. When the wind is expected to exceed 20 kts
c. When the wind is expected to exceed 15 kts
d. When the maximum wind is expected to exceed 25 kts
5. The usual method of weather briefing for general aviation pilots is:
a. an individual briefing by a forecaster face to face or by phone
b. individual briefing by a forecaster to assistant staff at weather centres and aerodromes for dissemination to
individual pilots, and available every 30 minutes
c. self briefing using facilities, information and documentation routinely available in aerodrome briefing areas,
by telephone, or via the internet
d. during flight by use of VOLMET and ATIS
23 - THE VOLMET
1. An aerodrome VOLMET report for 0450 UTC during the autumn in the United Kingdom is given as follows:
Surface wind 150/05 kts, Visibility 2000 m, Weather Nil, Temperature 9°C, Dew point 8°C, QNH 1029 mb, Trend
NOSIG. From the information above, what type of pressure system, do you deduce, is dominating the region?
a. An anti-cyclone
b. A cyclone
c. A low pressure
d. A trough
2. A VOLMET is defined as:

a. A radio broadcast of selected aerodrome forecasts
b. A continuous telephone message of selected aerodrome METARs
c. A continuous radio broadcast of selected aerodrome actual weather observations and forecasts
d. A teleprinter message of selected aerodrome TAFs and METARs
3. VOLMETs are updated:

a. Every hour
b. 4 times a day
c. 2 times a day
d. Every half hour
4. VOLMETs are:
a. Air to ground radio transmissions in the HF and VHF bands
b. Air to ground radio transmissions in the HF and SVHF bands
c. Ground to air radio transmissions in the LF and VHF bands
d. Ground to air radio transmissions in the HF and VHF bands
5. An aerodrome VOLMET report for 0450 UTC during the autumn n the United Kingdom is given as: Surface
wind 150/05 kts, Visibility 2000 m, Weather Nil, Temperature 9°C, Dew point 8°C, QNH 1029 mb, Trend NOSIG
Given that sunrise is at 0600 UTC, what might you expect during the 2 hours following this report?
a. CAVOK
b. Radiation Fog
c. Low Stratus
d. Advection Fog
24 - THE AUTOMATIC TERMINAL INFORMATION SERVICE (ATIS)
1. When are ATIS broadcasts updated?

a. Any time the aerodrome or weather information changes
b. Only when the aerodrome information changes
c. Every 30 minutes
d. Every hour
2. To minimize VHF frequency use the ATIS can be broadcast on the voice frequency of which navigation aid?
a. ILS
b. NDB
c. VOR
d. GPS
3. In an ATIS broadcast, what is used to identify the current report?

a. An alphabetical code
b. A number
c. A validity number
d. An issue time
4. What is the ATIS?

a. A chart of current aerodrome and weather information
b. A continuous broadcast of current aerodrome and weather information
c. A continuous broadcast of weather information
d. A printed text report of current aerodrome and weather information
5. In what frequency band is the ATIS normally broadcast?

a. LF
b. HF
c. ADF
d. VHF
The ambient air pressure is caused by the mass of air, and effects coincidently on every surface
The ambient air pressure is caused by the mass of air, and always directed toward the center of the Earth
According to ISA, the ambient pressure on sea level

1013.25 hPa, 29.92 InHg
1025.13 hPa, 29.92 InHg
1025.13 hPa, 29.29 InHg
1013.25 hPa, 29.29 InHg
In the troposphere the temperature gradient is
6.5°C/1000m
6.5°C/100m
6.5°C/10km
What is the temperature at 9000 meters according to ISA

-43.5 °C
-4.5°C
-11°C
-37°C
Density is the weight of a unit of air
False
True

The density of dry air is higher than that of humid air
The density of dry air is less than that of humid air
The density of air is not affected by humidity
According to ISA, the pressure at 5500 m…

approx. 500 hPa
approx. 600 hPa
approx. 800 hPa
Cannot be calculated without knowing the humidity
According to ISA, the density changes by changing altitude, rising altitude makes the density to…
decrease exponentially
increase
decrease, the higher the altitude, the bigger the rate of decrease
Cannot be established, as it is affected by temperature as well
How do air masses move in a cold front?
Cold air slides under warm air
Warm air slides over cold air
Warm air slides under cold air
Cold air slides over warm air
What conditions to be expected on a squall line?
Thunderstorms
fog
heavy rain
tornadoes
The ….. is one or more closed isobar, which has a low pressure in the center.
Cyclone
anticyclone
spine
saddle
In summer, icing can not occur.
False
True
Which statement is not true for clear icing?

Easy to remove with anti-ice system
clear, transparent, a sort of shield from ice
Spoils the streams around wing
Located around huge meteorological phenomenons
What does embedded thunderstorm mean?
Thunderstorms can be observed between another clouds.
Strong Cb is embedded into the squall line
Thunderstorm is reported in a stable air
Which are the triggering phenomenons for Cb-s to build up?

Enough humidity+convection+unstable air
Cu clouds+convection
Enough humidity+convection
Cu clouds+inversion
Scattered means…
3-4 octa
1-2 octa
5-7 octa
8 octa
What is the main ingredient of high level clouds?
Ice crystal
water droplets
steam
water-air aerosol
What will be the experience on an area, where the isobars are so close to each other?
The surface wind will be strong and coincident to the isobars.
The surface wind will be strong and paralell to the isobars.
The temperature will be high.
QNH willl be high.
What cloud type is expected, when a warm mass of air slides up on a cold mass of air.
Nimbostratus
Cumulonimbus
Altostratus
Cirrus
Which is true for tropopause?
It is the limit between troposphere and stratosphere.
Is a constant temperature layer of air
Is a layer in the troposphere
Which makes radiation fog to disappear?

Mean change of surface wind speed.
Mean decreasement in Temperature.
Mean change of ambient pressure.
Mean increasement in Temperature.
What meteorological phenomenas are expected on a squall line?
thunderstorms
Fog
Low visibility
Stratus clouds
What is the definition of QFE?
The pressure measured at the airport reference point.
The pressure measured at mean sea level.
The pressure of 1013.25 hPa.
What is the temperature gradient in the ISA until 11 km high?

6.5°C per 1000m
6°C per 1000m
4.5°C per 1000m
7.5°C per 1000m
500 meter over the MSL the temperature is +15 C. Considering standard temp gradient, what should be the
tempereature at 2500m AMSL?
2°C
3°C
4.34°C
5.6°C
How much is 25 kts wind in km/h ?
45 km/h
12.5 km/h
60 km/h
25 km/h
Dew point is equal, or less to the ambient temperature.
True
False
What does SCT mean?

Scattered, 3-4 octa
Few, 1-2 octa
Broken, 5-7 octa
Overcast, 8 octa
Which of the following is not a base gas of the atmosphere
Steam
Nitrogen
Oxygen
CO2
The atmosphere is absorbing the shortwave radiation from the sun.
False
True
The ambient pressure is caused by the ……. of the air coloumn over the point
weight
density
movement
convection
If the adiabatic gradient is higher then the vertical temperature gradient, the the air mass is
stable.
Unstable
Indifferent
If the visibility is between …………. And ………………….. There is steaminess, if below …………. Then there is fog.
1km, 10km, 1km
2km, 15km, 1km
1km, 15km, 1km
3km, 20km, 2km
The ambient pressure in a lower tract of atmosphere
is rising more steeply for a given altitude loss.
is rising linearly for a given altitude loss.
is decreasing more steeply for a given altitude loss.
is decreasing linearly for a given altitude loss.
The atmosphere containts the following:
78 % Nitrogen, 21% oxigen, <0.03% carbon-dioxide, other gases
The volume-percentage of Oxygen in the atmosphere is 21%, what is constant at the available altitudes for
civil aviation
True
False
The thickness of the troposphere varies with:

latitude
rotation of earth
the wind
the moon phase
After landing at an aerodrome it is noticed, that the altimeter is still set to 1013 hPa that reads 1200 feet.
What is airport elevation if QNH is 993 hPa? ( 1 hPa means 30 feet)
600 feet
2280 feet
1200 feet
1740 feet
Why are there no or very few clouds, when high pressure area is present?
Because of subsiding dry air
Because of wet, rising air
Because there is no air movement
Because the heavy wind
Temperature is +12°C and dew point is +5°C. How should temperature change, to induce saturation?
-7°C
+7°C
+5°C
Should not change.
The airfield pressure is marked as:
QFE
QNH
QDR
QNO
In METAR messages, the pressure group is:
QNH rounded up to the nearest hPa
QNH rounded down to the nearest hPa
QNE rounded up to the nearest hPa
QNE rounded down to the nearest hPa
Which cloud type may extend from low to high level?
CB
NS
CI
AC
Which statement is correct regarding to the ISA?
At MSL, the temperature is 15°C
Barometric pressure is measured on ___ and recorded on ___.
Aneroid barometer; barograph
Barograph; Aneroid barometer
An anemograph; an anemometer
Metronome; Metrograph
Fair weather cumulus clouds often indicate:
Turbulence at or below the cloud level
Smooth flight at or below cloud level
Poor visibility near the surface
Severe icing conditions
Which gas is present in the homosphere in the highest volume percent?
Nitrogen.
Helium.
Oxygen.
Carbon-dioxide.
Which of the following gases is present in the homosphere in the lowest volume percent?
Oxygen.
Argon.
Neon.
Nitrogen.
Air composition in the homosphere is as follows: ...
percent other gases.
Average carbon-monoxide content of the air is ...
0.03 volume percent.
0.1 volume percent.
3 volume percent.
1 volume percent.
Average water vapour content of the air is ...
changes between 0 and 4 volume percent.
changes between 0.1 and 0.4 volume percent.
0.4 volume percent.
4 volume percent.
International Standard Atmosphere (ISA) does not take air humidity into consideration.
True.
False.

ρ X V =m
ρ=G/V
ρ=V/G
V x m=ρ
A good approximation is that 1% change of density ...
is caused by 2°C temperature change or 10 hPa air pressure change.
Which layer hosts the vast majority of water vapour in the atmosphere?
Stratosphere
Tropopause
Troposphere
Stratopause
Which of the following gases is not elementary gas?
Water vapour.
Oxygen.
Nitrogen.

QNH can equal QFE.
QNH always equals QFE.
QNH is always lower than QFE.
QNH is always higher than QFE.
Which forces maintain an equilibrium in geostrophic wind?
Pressure gradient force, Coriolis force.
Pressure gradient force, frictional force, centrifugal force.
Pressure gradient force, Coriolis force, cenrifugal force.
Pressure gradient force, Coriolis force, frictional force.
The higher the pressure gradient is ...
the closer isobar lines are and the stronger the wind is.
the closer isobar lines are, the lower the temperature is.
the farther isobar lines are, the weaker the wind is.
the farther isobar lines are, the higher the temperature is.
Along medium latitudes on the Northern hemisphere the wind ...
blows counter-clockwise in cyclones while it blows clockwise in anticyclones.
blows from high pressure towards low pressure.
blows clockwise in anticyclones and cyclones.
blows clockwise in cyclones while it blows counter-clockwise in anticyclones.
What are the major components of high level clouds?
Ice crystals.
Water droplets.
Water vapour.
Over-cooled water droplets.
Clouds, fog or dew are always generated if ...
water vapour condenses.
water vapour is present.
relative humidity reaches 98%.
dew point and temperature values are nearly identical.
What flying conditions would you encounter in cirrus clouds?
Average horizontal visibility is less than 500 m, and no icing.
Average horizontal visibility is more than 1000 m, and low to moderate icing.
Average horizontal visibility is more than 1000 m, and no icing.
Average horizontal visibility more than 500 m, and low-to-moderate icing.
How do air masses move in a cold occluded front?
Cold air wedge of the cold front pushes under the less colder warm front cold air wedge.
surface of the warm front.
Warm air wedge of the cold front moves underneath the less warmer air wedge of the cold front.
surface separates from the Earth's surface and moves upward along the warm front surface.
How do you recognise frosted ice?
White crystal deposit.
Transparent, thick ice cover.
Thin, transparent layer.
Frosty deposit develops on the aeroplane if ...

it flies from sub-zero cloudless air into warmer, more humid air.
it suddenly flies into a cloud whose temperature is below 0.
it flies from sub-zero cloudless air into colder air.
it flies into a cloud the temperature of which is higher than that of the surrounding air.
Which statement is true for frost deposits?
No clouds or precipitation is required for its generation.
Rough, matte, crystal type icing.
Danger is significant and prolonged.
Hard to remove with de-icer.
Turbulence generated during convection is called ...
thermal turbulence.
friction turbulence.
mountain turbulence.
dynamic turbulence.
Which statement can be applied to Cu phase of thunderstorms?
Only updraft can be witnessed in clouds.
Precipitation starts falling on the ground.
It can reach the lower part of the stratosphere.
Frequent lightning inside the cloud.
In which storm development phase do you expect only downdraft?
Dissipating stage.
Cu phase.
Developed stage.
What direction does the air flow in a down burst on the ground?
Winds in a downburst are directed outwards from the point where it hits land or water.
Upward suction effect.
Winds in a downburst are directed inwards from the point where it hits land or water.
Which of the following descriptions fit microbursts?

High speed downdraft whose temperature is lower than that of the surrounding air.
Small area low pressure with strong winds.
High speed downdraft whose temperature is higher than that of the surrounding air.
Extremely strong gust, connected to tropical whirlwinds.
Which part of the cumulonimbus cloud is the most dangerous in terms of Cb related wind shear?
Before the cell, near the gust front.
SW side of the cell.
Directly under the cell.
Which temperature gradient is 1°C/100 m?

dry adiabatic
wet adiabatic
dry and wet adiabatic
local
If ... in relation to dry air particles, the air column is stable.
γd > γ
γd < γ
γd = γ
If ... in relation to wet air particles, the air column is unstable.

γw < γ
γw > γ
γw = γ
NAVIGATION
1 - THE FORM OF THE EARTH
1. What is the angle of inclination of the Earth's orbit to its orbital plane?
a. 23 1/2°
b. 66 1/2°
c. 90°
d. 33 1/2°
2. The meridian passing through Greenwich is known as?

a. Main meridian
b. Equator
c. Prime meridian
d. Great meridian
3. A Rhumb line is?

a. A regularly curved line on the Earth's surfers which represents the shortest distance between two points
b. A line showing True North
c. A line on the surface of the Earth whose centre end rerlius ere those of the Earth
d. A regularly curved line on the Earth's surfers which cute ell meridians at the same angle
4. What type of line will always be the shortest distance between two points on the Earth?
a. A Rhumb line
b. A Great Circle
c. A Small Circle
d. A parallel of latitude
5. What item identifies the difference between True North end Magnetic North?
a. A Rhumb line
b. A meridian of Longitude
c. Degrees magnetic
d. Magnetic variation
2 - TIME
1. What is the ICAO definition of night?

a. From half an hour after sunset to half an hour before sunrise
b. The period between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight, or such other
period between sunset and sunrise as may be described by the appropriate authority
c. From sunset to sunrise
d. Any period decided upon by a national aviation authority
2. What is the United Kingdom Civil Aviation Authority’s definition of night?

a. From half an hour after sunset to half an hour before sunrise
b. The period between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight, or such other
period between sunset and sunrise as may be described by the appropriate authority
c. From sunset to sunrise
d. Any period decided upon by a national aviation authority
3. Which of the following statements is correct?

a. Flight at night in accordance with the Visual Flight Rules is not permitted in the United Kingdom
b. Flight at night in accordance with the Visual Flight Rules is permitted in the United Kingdom, but only in
VMC
c. Flight at night in accordance with the Visual Flight Rules is permitted in the United Kingdom, but only if the
pilot holds a valid Instrument Rating
d. Flight at night in accordance with the Visual Flight Rules is permitted in the United Kingdom, but only if the
pilot holds a valid Instrument Rating or IMC Rating
4. What is the cause of annual seasonal change on the Earth and the changing lengths of the periods of
daylight and darkness throughout the year?
a. The fact that the Earth completes one rotation on its axis in 24 hours
b. The tilt of the Earths axis at 23%° to its orbital plane and the fact that the Earth spins on its own axis
c. The fact that the Earth completes one orbit of the Sun every 365.2422 days
d. The tilt of the Earths axis at 66/4° to its orbital plane, the fact that the Earth completes one rotation on its
axis in 24 hours, and one orbit of the sun every 365.2422 days
5. What determines the local mean time of sunrise and sunset at any location on Earth?
a. The time of year and the longitude and elevation of the location
b. The time of year only
c. The time of year, the location’s latitude and the elevation of the location
d. The latitude only

a. At any given spot on Earth, the Sun will sink below the horizon earlier at sea-level than at altitude
b. Sunrise and sunset will occur at the same local mean time at all locations of the same elevation along a
given meridian of longitude
c. At any given spot on Earth, the Sun will sink below the horizon later at sea-level than at altitude
d. The local mean time of sunrise and sunset at any location along a parallel of latitude is independent of
elevation
3 - DIRECTION
1. The angle between the horizontal and vertical components of the Earth's magnetic field is known as:
a. Angle of Inclination
b. Magnetic angle
c. Angle of Dip
d. Angle of Incidence
2. Magnetic Variation is the angle between:

a. True North and the nearest line of Longitude
b. True North and Magnetic North
c. Magnetic North and the aircraft’s magnetic heading
d. Magnetic North and the aircraft’s true heading
3. Which of these statements is correct?

a. Variation best - magnetic west: variation least - magnetic east
b. Variation west - magnetic best: variation east - magnetic least
c. Variation west - magnetic least: variation east - magnetic best
d. Variation least - magnetic west: variation best - magnetic east
4. An Isogonal is a line joining points of:

a. Equal magnetic deviation
b. Zero magnetic variation
c. Equal magnetic variation
d. Zero magnetic deviation
5. An Agonic line joins points of:

a. Equal magnetic deviation
b. Zero magnetic deviation
c Equal magnetic variation
d. Zero magnetic variation
6. Compass Deviation is the angle between:

a. True North and the heading indicated by the compass needle
b. Magnetic heading and the heading indicated by the compass needle
c. The heading indicated by the compass needle and the Earth’s magnetic field
d. The indications of the aircraft’s main and standby compasses
7. Which of these statements is correct?

a. Deviation west - compass best: deviation east - compass least
b. Deviation west - compass least: deviation east - compass best
c. Deviation west - true heading best: deviation east - true heading least
d. Deviation best - compass west: deviation least - compass east
8. With a calculated heading of 246° True, a local magnetic variation of 5°W and a compass deviation of 1°E,
the compass heading is:
a. 252°
b. 242°
c. 241°
d. 250°
9. With a compass heading of 110°, a compass deviation of -3° and magnetic variation of 6°W, what is the
True heading?
a. 107°
b. 113°
c. 101°
d. 119°
10. Which of the following statements is not correct?

a. Turning errors are maximum when turning through North and South
b. Acceleration errors are maximum on East/West headings
c. Turning errors are maximum when turning through East and West
d. Acceleration errors are minimum on North/South headings

a. During a turn through the pole which is physically nearer the aircraft the compass will be sluggish. It is
therefore necessary to roll out late on the indication given by the direct reading compass
b. During a turn through the pole which is physically further from the aircraft the compass will be sluggish. It is
therefore necessary to roll out early on the indication given by the direct reading compass
c. During a turn through the pole which is physically further from the aircraft the compass will be lively. It is
d. During a turn through the pole which is physically nearer the aircraft the compass will be sluggish. It is
12. A direct-reading compass in an aircraft executing a level turn, at a constant rate, in the Northern
Hemisphere, will be subject to the largest turning error as the aircraft turns through:
a. East and West
b. North and South
c. Northeast and Northwest
d. Southeast and Southwest
13. When turning nnti-dockwise onto a southerly heading in the Northern Hemisphere the turn should be
stopped:
a. Before the required heading is indicated
b. When the compass slows down
c. After the required heading is indicated
d. Exactly on the required heading is indicated
4 - SPEED, DISTANCE, TIME

1. Which of the following is the correct practical definition of a kilometre?
a. It is 1/15 000th of the average distance on the Earth between the equator and either pole
b. It is 1/20 000th of the average distance on the Earth between the equator and either pole
c. It is 1/10 000th of the average distance on the Earth between the equator and either pole
d. It is 1/000th of the average distance on the Earth between the equator and either pole
2. Approximately how long would an aircraft whose groundspeed was 100 knots take to fly 100 kilometres?
a. Approximately 1 hour
b. Approximately 33minutes
c. Approximately 45minutes
d. Approximately 100 minutes
3. If the groundspeed of an aircraft is 90 knots, how far will it fly in 20 minutes?

b. 4Vz nautical miles
4. What is the definition of a nautical mile?

a. The nautical mile is the length on the Earth’s surface, measured along a great circle, of an arc subtended
by an angle of one degree at the centre of the Earth
b. The nautical mile is the length on the Earth’s surface, measured along a great circle, of an arc subtended
by an angle of one minute at the centre of the Earth
c. The nautical mile is the length on the Earth’s surface, measured along any line of latitude, of an arc
subtended by an angle of one minute at the centre of the Earth
d. The nautical mile is the length on the Earth’s surface, measured along a great circle, of an arc subtended
by an angle of one second at the centre of the Earth
5. What is the groundspeed of an aircraft which has taken 10 minutes to cover 20 nautical miles?
a. 200 nautical miles per hour
b. 200 kilometres per hour
c. 180 knots
d. 120 knots
6. How long would it take for an aircraft whose groundspeed was 80 knots to cover 20 nautical miles?
a. 4 minutes
b. 15 minutes
c. 20 minutes
d. 4 hours
7. What distance would an aircraft travelling at a groundspeed of 116 knots cover in 45 minutes?
b. Approximately 214 nautical miles
8. The distance of the first leg of a cross country flight is 40 nautical miles. Your calculated groundspeed is
100 knots. How long should it take you to complete the leg?
a. About 2 1/2 hours
b. About 15 minutes
c. 24 minutes
d. About 40 minutes
5 - AERONAUTICAL CHARTS AND CHART MAKING
1. One inch on a 1:500 000 scale map represents:

a. Approximately 10 nautical miles
c. Approximately 8 nautical miles
d. Approximately 7 nautical miles
2. Three centimetres on a 1:250 000 scale chart represents:

a. Approximately 2.5 nautical miles
c. Approximately 2.5 kilometres
d. Approximately 7.5 nautical miles
3. On a chart with a scale of 1:1 000 000, 20 cm represents:

a. 116 nm
b. 86 nm
c. 40 nm
d. 108 nm
4. Given a chart scale of 1:1 000 000 what is represented by a chart distance of 8 inches?
a. 103 nm
b. 110 nm
c. 115 nm
d. 153 nm
6 - FEATURES ON AERONAUTICAL CHARTS
1. On the UK 1:500 000 aeronautical chart what does the symbol refer to?
a. The direction of approach to the primary runway of a civil aerodrome
b. The climb-out lane for IFR traffic departing the primary runway of a civil aerodrome
c. The localiser of an Instrument Landing System
d. A civil aerodrome, outside regulated airspace, which has one or more instrument approach procedures
2 . On the 1:500 000 aeronautical chart, in each quadrangle bounded by lines of latitude and longitude, at half
degree intervals, there is a two-digit figure, the first digit being twice as large as the first. What does this two-digit
figure denote?
a. The minimum separation distance to be maintained from the highest obstacle in the quadrangle concerned,
the first digit indicating thousands of feet and the second digit indicating hundreds of feet
b. The safety altitude for the quadrangle concerned, the first digit indicating thousands of feet and the second
digit indicating hundreds of feet
c. The Maximum Elevation Figure for the quadrangle; but this is not a safety altitude; the first digit indicates
thousands of feet and the second digit indicates hundreds of feet
d. The safety height for the quadrangle concerned, the first digit indicating thousands of feet and the second
digit indicating hundreds of feet
3. If the highest obstacle in a quadrangle on the 1/2 million chart is a TV mast of elevation 1 130 feet what
would you expect the MEF to be?
a. 12
b. 13
c. 14
d. 15
4 . A vertical obstruction symbol on a 1:500 000 aeronautical chart of the United Kingdom has the following
figures printed next to it: 656 (263). What is the meaning of these figures?
a. The obstacle rises to 263 feet above mean sea level, and should be overflown at a minimum altitude of 650
feet
b. The obstacle rises to 656 feet above mean sea level and 263 feet above ground level
c. The obstacle rises to 656 metres above mean sea level and 263 metres above ground level
d. The obstacle rises to 263 metres above mean sea level and should be cleared by a minimum separation
distance of 656
7 - MEASURING TRACK ANGLE AND TRACK DISTANCE
1. This question requires you to refer to the 1 500 000 ICAO chart of Southern England and Wales.
With respect to the Air Navigation Obstacle at position N5033 W00400, which of the following statements is
correct?
a. It is a single obstacle (unlighted)
b. The top of the obstacle is 2 317 feet Above Mean Sea Level and 643 feet above the ground
c. It is a multiple obstacle (lighted)
d. The top of the obstacle is 709 feet Above Mean Sea Level
2. Identify the location at N5056 W00359.

a. Taunton
b. Eaglescott airfield
c. Okehampton
d. Belle Vue airfield
3. Identify the location at N5130 W00102

a. White Waltham aerodrome
b. Goring
c. Draycott airfield
d. Whittles airfield
4. What is the true track angle of the direct track from Halton, EGWN, (N5147 W00044) to Leicester EGBG
(N5236 W00102)?
a. 165°(T)
b. 348°(T)
c. 258°(T)
d. 075°(T)
5. What is the true track angle of the direct track from Shobdon, EGBS (N5215 W00253) to Gloucester EGBJ
(N5153 W00210)?
a. 211° (T)
b. 207° (T)
c. 127° (T)
d. 121° (T)
6. Give the latitude and longitude of EGDJ Upavon.

a. N0145 W05115
b. N5252 E00145
c. N1551 E00200
d. N5117 W00146
1. What is the symbol for an unlighted obstacle?

a. 9
b. 10
c. 11
d. 8
2. Which of the following is the symbol for an exceptionally high (over 1000 feet AGL) lighted obstruction?
a. 6
b. 9
c. 11
d. 7
3. What symbol is used to show an NDB on a map/chart?

a. 5
b. 7
c. 6
d. 10
4. Which is the symbol for a VOR?
a. 4
b. 6
c. 11
d. 3
5. What does symbol 3 represent?

a. Lit obstacle
b. Lighthouse
c. VRP
d. Aeronautical Light Beacon
6. The area you see on the chart, delineated by a rectangle of blue diamonds, is:
a. Yeovilton Aircraft Information Advisory Area
b. Yeovilton Area of Intense Aerial Activity
c. Yeovilton Air Interdiction Activity Area
d. Yeovilton Air Intelligence Advisory Area
7. Where on the chart will you find a glider launching site co-located government heliport?
a. Yeovilton
b. Bournemouth
c. Bovington
d. Merryfield
9 - PRINCIPLES OF DEAD RECKONING AIR NAVIGATION
1. You plan to fly a cross-country flight at 2 500 feet at a true airspeed of 90 knots. The forecast wind is
165°(T) / 30 knots. What will he the maximum drift your aircraft will experience?
a. 30°
b. 20°
c. 45°
d. 25°
2. You plan to fly a cross-country flight at 3 000 feet at a true airspeed of 120 knots. The forecast wind is
280°(T) / 20 knots. What will he the maximum drift your aircraft will experience?
a. 10°
b. 40°
c. 20°
d. 30°
3. You plan to fly a cross country flight at 2 000 feet at a true airspeed of 120 knots. Your track is 270° (True)
and the wind is from 225“ (True) at 24 knots. Using the Mental Dead Reckoning Clock Code, what true heading
would you steer, and what would be your magnetic heading if the local magnetic variation is 4° West?
a. 258° (True) 262° (Magnetic)
b. 261° (True) 265° (Magnetic)
c. 261° (True) 257° (Magnetic)
d. 279° (True) 283° (Magnetic)
4. You plan a flight to another airfield, for which the true track angle is 050“ (T), at a true airspeed of 120
knots, and at a cruising altitude for which the wind forecast is 020° (True) / 20 knots. Use the Mental Dead
Reckoning Clock Code to estimate the required true heading and groundspeod.
a. 045° (True) 100 kts
b. 055° (True) 100 kts
c. 045° (True) 80 kts
d. 040° (True) 110 kts
5. You plan to fly a cross country flight at 2 500 feet at a true airspeed of 90 knots. Your track is 160° (True)
and the wind is from 010" (True) at 15 knots. Using the Mental Dead Reckoning Clock Code, estimate your
magnetic heading and groundspeed. Assume that Magnetic Variation is 3“ West.
a. 168° (Magnetic) 105 kts
b. 162° (Magnetic) 98 kts
c. 152° (Magnetic) 98 kts
d. 158° (Magnetic) 105 kts
10 - ALTIMETER SETTINGS
1. You are flying above the Transition Altitude with 1013 mb (hPa) set on the altimeter which is reading 6 000
feet. What is your Flight Level (FL)?
a. FL6
b. FL006
c. FL60
d. FL600
2. You are on the apron of an aerodrome and ask ATC for the aerodrome QFE which you then set on the
altimeter. Would your altimeter then read zero feet?
a. Yes
b. Not necessarily, since QFE is measured from a standard pressure setting
c. Not necessarily, since QFE is measured from the Aerodrome Reference Point which may not be coincident
with the apron
d. There is no location on the aerodrome, where the altimeter would read zero
3. You are on the apron of an aerodrome and ask ATC for the aerodrome QNH which you then set on the
altimeter. Which of the following should your altimeter reading indicate?
a. Height
b. Vertical distance above the SPS
c. Zero feet
d. The apron elevation
4. What is the Standard Pressure Setting?

a. QNH
b. QFE
c. Zero feet
d. 1013.2 millibars or 1013.2 hectopascals
5. You fly from an aerodrome of a given atmospheric pressure to a destination aerodrome where the
atmospheric pressure is significantly lower than at your point of departure. If you fly the route at a constant
altimeter reading, what would be the path of your aircraft in terms of its vertical separation from the ground?
a. It would climb as you approach your destination
b. It would descend as you approach your destination
c. It would remain at the same height above the ground
d. It would remain at the same vertical distance above mean sea-level
6. What is QFE?
a. The pressure setting at the aerodrome reference point, normally the highest point on the landing area
b. The pressure setting at the aerodrome reference point, reduced to sea level
c. The pressure setting of the altimeter in the ATC Tower
d. The pressure setting at the lowest point on the aerodrome
7. What is the Transition Altitude at most aerodromes in the United Kingdom?

a. 2 000 feet
b. 3 000 feet
c. 5 000 feet
d. 18 000 feet
8. If a pilot is to carry out circuit practice at an aerodrome, what is the most practical and appropriate pressure
setting for the altimeter?
a. QFE
b. 1013 mb (hPa)
c. The Standard Pressure Setting
d. The Regional Pressure Setting
9. If you are to fly a cross-country route below the transition altitude, what is the most appropriate pressure
setting for your altimeter when you have left the immediate vicinity of your departure aerodrome?
a. QFE
b. Regional Pressure Setting provided you are not still beneath a CTA or TMA
c. Standard Pressure Setting
d. 1013 mb (hPa)
10. You are flying en-route below the Transition Altitude. How must you report your aircraft’s vertical position to
an Air Traffic Service Unit?
a. As a Flight Level
b. As a height
c. As an altitude
d. As an elevation
11. What is defined as the “first available Flight Level above the Transition Altitude”?
a. Transition Layer
b. Transition Elevation
c. Transition Level
d. Transition Height
12. What is the Transition Layer?

a. The vertical distance between a given Flight Level and the Transition Level
b. The vertical distance between the Transition Altitude) and the Transition Level
c. The vertical distance from the ground to the Transition Altitude
d. The vertical distance from the Aerodrome Reference Point (ARP) to the Transition Altitude
13. An altimeter reading from an aircraft in the air, based on aerodrome QFE is reported as:
a. Elevation
b. Altitude
c. Height
d. Flight Level
14. The reading of an altimeter, in flight, with QNH set on its subscale is known as:
a. Flight Level
b. Altitude
c. Height
d. Elevation
15. Which of the four options below gives the most accurate definition of “transition altitude”?
a. The altitude at or above which the vertical position of an aircraft is monitored by reference to altitude
b. The altitude at or below which the vertical position of an aircraft is monitored by reference to altitude
c. The altitude at or above which the vertical position of an aircraft is monitored by reference to height
d. The altitude at or below which the vertical position of an aircraft is monitored by reference to height
16. What pressure setting should be entered on the altimeter subscale of an aircraft which is descending to
below the transition level prior to commencing a visual approach to a non-military aerodrome?
a. The Regional Pressure Setting
b. The Standard Pressure Setting
c. The Aerodrome QFE
d. The Aerodrome QNH
17. Complete the following sentence While passing through the transition layer, vertical separation from the
appropriate pressure datum level should be expressed as … when climbing and ... when descending
a. Flight Level , Altitude
b. Height, Altitude
c. Flight Level ,Height
d. Height, Flight Level
18. A VFR pilot is cruising, en-route, in level flight, above the transition level of FL35. His magnetic heading is
355°, and he sees that by having allowed for 8° of starboard drift he is exactly on track. What would be an
appropriate Flight Level for the pilot to choose in accordance with the Quadrantal Rule?
a. FL40
b. FL45
c. FL50
d. FL55
19. A pilot setting off on a cross-country route in a cruise climb over a part of the country where the transition
altitude is 3000 feet, has just been given a Regional Pressure Setting of 970 mb (hPa), from a local ATSU. His
magnetic track is 260°. What will be the transition level and what will be lowest available Flight Level that the pilot
can use, in accordance with the Quadrantal Rule? (Note: assume that pressure falls with increasing height by 1
mb every 30 feet)
a. FL 45, FL 60
b. FL 40, FL 55
c. FL 30, FL 30
d. FL 45, FL 55
20. A pilot, who has just left the ATZ of the departure aerodrome and has set off on a cross-country route, is
flying beneath a Terminal Control Area (TMA). What pressure setting should he have on his altimeter subscale?
a. The destination aerodromes QFE
b. The Regional Pressure Setting
c. The departure aerodrome’s QFE
d. The QNH of an aerodrome beneath the TMA
21. You are flying above the transition level, on a VFR cross-country flight in a light aircraft, following a
magnetic track of 180°. You refer to the Quadrantal Rule to decide what Flight Level to cruise at. With your
altimeter subscale set at 1013 mb (hPa), you should choose:
a. Odd thousands of feet
b. Even thousands of feet
c. Even thousands of feet plus 500
d. Odd thousands of feet plus 500
22. The transition altitude for civil aerodromes in the United Kingdom is
a. 5 000 feet amsl
b. 3 000 feet amsl unless otherwise notified, for exampie for the Scottish, Manchester and London TMAs
c. 4 500 feet amsl
d, 3 000 feet amsl
11 - THE NAVIGATION COMPUTER
1. If magnetic variation in a certain part of the world is given as so many degrees East, then:
a. True North is East of Magnetic North
b. Compass North is West of Magnetic North
c. True North is West of Magnetic North
d. Magnetic North is West of Compass North
2. Select the correct option to fill out the blanks of the table below:
TRUE VARN MAG DEVN COMP
270° ? 274° -3° ?
a. 4°E, 277°
b. 4°W, 271°
c. 4°W, 277°
d. 4°E, 271°
3. Using the wind face of your flight computer, complete the table shown below:
HDG°(T) W/V TRACK°(T) TAS GS
? 040/20 005 110 ?
a. 011, 90
b. 011, 93
c. 015, 90
d. 015, 97
HDG°(T) W/V TRACK°(T) TAS GS
? 125/35 045 196 ?
a. 057, 195
b. 035, 187
c. 057, 190
d. 055, 188
HDG°(T) W/V TRACK°(T) TAS Groundspeed (knots)
? 170/23 113 105 ?
a. 129°, 90 knots
b. 123°, 120 knots
c. 102°, 90 knots
d. 124°, 92 knots
HDG"(T) W/V TRACK°(T) TAS GS
? 145/20 021 80 ?
a. 033, 89
b. 033, 93
c. 030, 85
d. 030, 87
HDG°(T) W/V TRACK°(T) TAS GS (knots)
? 170/15 287 100 ?
a. 285°, 100 knots
b. 275°, 100 knots
c. 270°, 95 knots
d. 279°, 105 knots
8. Using the circular slide rule on your flight computer for distance, speed, time and conversion calculations,
complete the table shown below:
Fuel Flow Flying Time Fuel Consumed
9 US gallons/hr 1h20min ?
a. 18 gallons
b. 10 gallons
c. 12 gallons
d. 12 litres
9. Using the circular slide rule on your flight computer for true airspeed (TAS) and altitude conversions
complete the table shown below. Assume that indicated airspeed (IAS) is the same as rectified airspeed.
IAS (kt) Pressure Altitude (ft) Temp (°C) TAS (kt)
115 5 000 -10 ?
a. 115
b. 150
c. 193
d. 120
10. You are planning a cross-country flight on which your desired track is 340° True. Your planned TAS is 89
knots and the forecast wind speed is 130/14. What true heading must be flown to maintain this track, and what
will be your groundspeed?
a. 335° True, 101 knots
b. 345° True, 76 knots
c. 335° True, 76 knots
d. 345° True, 101 knots
11. Using the circular slide rule on your flight computer for tme airspeed (TAS) and altitude conversions
complete the table shown below. Assume that indicated airspeed (IAS) is the same as rectified airspeed,
IAS (kt) Pressure Altitude (ft) Temp (°C) TAS (kt)
100 3 000 +10 ?
a. 105
b. 101
c. 124
d. 81
Ground Speed (kt) Distance (nm) Time (min)
130 ? 23
a. 50
b. 116
c. 55
d. 48
? 41 26
a. 100
b. 95
c. 65
d. 158
110 24 ?
a. 22
b. 44
c. 13
d. 26.5
15. What is the weight in lb of your fuel load if your aircraft’s tanks hold 25 US gallons (0.72)?
a. 149 lb
b. 68 lb
c. 25 lb
d. 180 lb
16. What quantity of fuel can you carry in US gallons if you calculate that your aircraft may carry 230 lb of fuel
(0.72)?
a. 69 gallons
b. 41.5 gallons
c. 32 gallons
d. 38 gallons
17. What is the weight in lb of your fuel load if your aircraft’s tanks hold 75 litres (0.72)?
a. 54 lb
b. 68 lb
c. 25 lb
d. 118 lb
18. What quantity of fuel can you carry in litres if you calculate that your aircraft may carry 150 lb fuel (0.72)?
a. 69 litres
b. 21 litres
c. 95 litres
d. 63 litres
15 - VHF DIRECTION FINDING
1. The accuracy of VHF Direction Finding (VDF) could be affected by:

a. Propagation and alto errors
b. Night effect
c. Airframe quadrantal errors
d. Coaatal refraction
2. Having received a request for a QDM, the controller responds 'QDM 080 Class Bravo’, This means the
controller has passed:
a. The magnetic bearing of the aircraft from the VDF station, accurate to within +/-10°
b. The true bearing of the aircraft from the VDF station, accurate to within +/-10°
c. The magnetic bearing of the VDF station from the aircraft, accurate to within +/- 5°
d. The true bearing of the VDF station from the aircraft, accurate to within +/- 5°
3. On which frequency would you request an emergency VDF positioning service from a D&D Cell?
a. 112.5 MHz
b. 112.5 KHz
c. 121.5 KHz
d. 121.5 MHz
4. Which of the following statements is wrong?

a. QDM - magnetic heading TO the station
b. QDR - magnetic bearing FROM the station
c. QTE - true bearing FROM the station
d. QDR - true bearing TO the station
5. Requesting a training fix takes priority over:

a. A Mayday call
b. A pan pan call
c. a practice pan call
d. a distress call
16 - AUTOMATIC DIRECTION FINDING
1. Which of the following statements concerning an ADF display fitted with an RBI is true?
a. The display comprises a course deviation indicator and receiver
b. The RBI needle indicates the selected NDB radial
c. The head of the RBI needle indicates the bearing of an NDB relative to the nose of the aircraft
d. The tail of the RBI needle measures the bearing of an NDB relative to the lateral axis of the aircraft
2. Which of the following statements best describes a Non-Directional Beacon (NDB)?

a. A combination of aerials which provides a VOR display with information concerning NDB signals
b. A relative bearing indicator and ADF needle
c. A surface based transmitter which transmits radio signals in all directions
d. A special aerial providing a controller with VDF information
3. Which of the following are items of airborne ADF equipment?

1. Cockpit display
2. Receiver
3. NDB
4. Sense aerial
5. Loop aerial
The correct combination of statements is:

a. 1,2,4,5
b. All of the above
c. 1,2,3,4
d. 1,2,3,5
4. Which of the following phenomena does not affect the accuracy of the ADF?
a. Thunderstorms
b. Precipitation
c. High ground
d. Extensive cloud cover
5. How would a pilot positively identify an NDB to which his ADF equipment is tuned?
a. By the NDB’s morse code indication
b. By the direction in which the ADF needle swings
c. By the movement of the Radio Magnetic Indicator
d. By the accuracy of the QDM
6. An ADF display equipped with a Relative Bearing Indicator indicates 120° when tuned to an NDB located at
the pilot’s destination aerodrome. If the aircraft’s Direction Indicator gives the aircraft’s magnetic heading as 090°,
what is the QDM to the destination aerodrome?
a. 030° (M)
b. 120° (M)
c. 210° (M)
d. 090° (M)
7. An aircraft is heading 150° (M) and wishes to approach its destination aerodrome by flying a QDM of 100°
(M) towards an NDB situated on the aerodrome. The aerodrome lies ahead of aircraft and to port, so the pilot is
on a reasonably satisfactory heading to intercept the required NDB radial. The pilot, therefore, elects to hold his
heading. What will be the indication on his RBI when he intercepts 100° (M) QDM radial?
a. 310° (R)
b. 050° (R)
c. 250° (R)
d. 100° (R)
8. If a pilot’s magnetic heading is 170° and his RBI indicates 330° as the relative bearing of an NDB to which
his ADF equipment is tuned, what is the QDM to the NDB, and which way must the pilot turn to fly towards the
NDB?
a. 160° (M) / port
b. 140° (M) / port
c. 330° (M) / starboard
d. 140° (M) / starboard
9. If an ADF display consists of a basic (non-rotatable) RBI, how is the QDM (magnetic bearing) to an NDB
determined?
a. Magnetic Heading + QDR
b. Magnetic Heading + Relative Bearing
c. Relative Bearing + True Heading
d. QDM + QDR
10. What is the difference between a basic (non-rotatable) Relative Bearing Indicator (RBI) and a Radio
Magnetic Indicator (RMI) in an ADF display?
a. The basic RBI indicates a relative bearing to the NDB, whereas the RMI allows a desired NDB radial to be
set with its Omni Bearing Selector
b. The needle of a basic RBI always indicates the QDM to an NDB directly, whereas an RMI requires the
indications of the needle to be added to the Magnetic Heading to obtain the QDM
c. The basic RBI indicates a relative bearing which shows the magnetic heading to steer to an NDB, whereas
an RMI only indicates the QDR
d. A basic RBI has a compass rose which is fixed in the ADF instrument, with 000° at the 12 o’clock position,
while the RMI always indicates the aircraft’s magnetic heading. In both RBI and RMI, the ADF needle always
points towards the NDB.
11. What is the difference in the needle indications of an ADF incorporating a basic (non-rotatable) Relative
Bearing Indicator (RBI) and an ADF which incorporates a Radio Magnetic Indicator (RMI)?
a. The RBI needle indicates only the relative bearing of the NDB with respect to the nose of the aircraft,
whereas the RMI needle gives the QDM directly
b. The RBI needle gives the QDM directly, whereas the RMI indicates the relative bearing of the NDB with
respect to the nose of the aircraft
c. The RBI needle gives the magnetic bearing to the NDB directly, whereas the RMI needle indicates the
relative bearing of the NDB with respect to the nose of the aircraft
d. The RBI needle always indicates the magnetic heading, whereas the RMI needle is fixed
12. An aircraft is heading 005°(M), as indicated on its Dl. The ADF’s RBI indicates a relative bearing of 030° to
an NDB to which the pilot has tuned his ADF receiver. What are the QDM and QDR, respectively?
a. 030° (M) 210° (M)
b. 025° (M) 205° (M)
c. 205° (M) 025° (M)
d. 035° (M) 215° (M)
an NDB to which the pilot has tuned his ADF receiver. What are the QDM and QDR, respectively?
a. 075° (M) 255° (M)
b. 285° (M) 105° (M)
c. 255° (M) 075° (M)
d. 115° (M) 295° (M)
14. An aircraft is heading 085°(M), as indicated on its Dl The ADF s RBI indicates a relative bearing of 040* to
an NDB to which the pilot has tuned his ADF receiver If the local magnetic variation is 3* West, what are the QDM
and QTE, respectively?
a. 125° (M) 302° (T)
b. 045° (M) 228° (T)
c. 040° (M) 217° (T)
d. 125° (M) 308° (T)
an NDB to which the pilot has tuned his ADF receiver If the local magnetic variation is 4° West, what are the
QDM and QTE, respectively?
a. 075°(M) 258°(T)
b. 265° (M) 081° (T)
c. 075° (M) 251° (T)
d. 350° (M) 166° (T)
17 - VHF OMNIDIRECTIONAL RANGE (VOR)
1. A VOR radial is most accurately defined as:

a. A magnetic bearing from the VOR station
b. A true bearing from the VOR station
c. A magnetic bearing to the VOR station
d. A true bearing to the VOR station
2. What is the approximate theoretical maximum range that a pilot would obtain from a VOR situated at 400
feet above mean sea level, in an aircraft flying at 2 500 feet?
a. 3750 feet
b. 100 nm
c. 88 nm
d. 70 nm
3. In which of the radio frequency bands does VOR operate?

a. Ultra High Frequency
b. Very High Frequency
c. Low Frequency
d. Micro Frequency
4. In what frequency range does VOR operate?

a. 118 MHzto137 MHz
b. 190 to 1750 kHz
c. 1000 to 2000 MHz
d. 108 MHz to 117.95 MHz
5. Which of the following phenomena does not affect VOR reception?

a. The terrain surrounding the VOR beacon
b. Transmitter elevation and receiver altitude
c. The cone of ambiguity overhead a VOR beacon
d. Coastal Refraction
6. For which of the following purposes may VOR be used?

a. To fly certain approach procedures
b. Identification of aircraft track by ATC controllers
c. Identification of individual aircraft by ATC controllers
d. The interpretation of heading guidance from radar controllers
7. What is the normal maximum aggregate error of a VOR system ignoring pilot error?
a. +/- 2°
b. +/- 5°
c. +/- 1°
d. +/- 3°
8. Which of the following instruments cannot incorporate VOR indications?

a. Horizontal Situation Indicator
b. Radio Magnetic Indicator
c. Direction Indicator
d. Omni Bearing Indicator
9. What is the function of the Course Deviation Indicator in a VOR OBI?

a. To point in the direction of the VOR beacon
b. To select the desired VOR radial on the OBI
c. To indicate an aircraft’s angular deviation from a selected VOR radial
d. To align itself with Magnetic North when synchronized with the compass
10. When the OBI is correctly set up under certain circumstances, the CDI acts as a ‘demand indicator.’ What
does this mean, and what are the circumstances?
a. When the aircraft is heading in approximately the direction of the track selected on the OBI, if the CDI is to
the left of centre it is indicating to the pilot to turn right to intercept the selected track, and if it is to the right of
centre it indicates to the pilot that he should turn left to regain the selected track
b. When the aircraft is heading in approximately the reciprocal direction of the track selected on the OBI, if the
CDI is to the left of centre it is indicating to the pilot to turn left to intercept the selected track, and if it is to the
right of centre it indicates to the pilot that he should turn right to regain the selected track
c. When the aircraft is heading at approximately 90° to the direction of the track selected on the OBI, if the
CDI is to the left of centre it is indicating to the pilot to turn right to intercept the selected track, and if it is to the
right of centre it indicates to the pilot that he should turn left to regain the selected track
d. When the aircraft is heading in approximately the direction of the track selected on the OBI, if the CDI is to
the left of centre it is indicating to the pilot to turn left to intercept the selected track, and if it is to the right of
centre it indicates to the pilot that he should turn right to regain the selected track
11. When will an OBI indicate FROM?
a. When the radial selected on the OBI is equal to. or approximately equal to, the aircraft’s heading, and that
heading will take the aircraft away from the VOR beacon
b. When the radial selected on the OBI is equal to. or approximately equal to, the reciprocal of the aircraft’s
heading, and that heading will take the aircraft away from the VOR beacon
c. When the radial selected on the OBI is equal to, or approximately equal to, the aircraft’s heading, and that
heading will take the aircraft towards the VOR beacon
d. When the radial selected on the OBI is equal to, or approximately equal to, the reciprocal of the aircraft's
heading, and that heading will take the aircraft towards the VOR beacon
12. When will an OBI indicate TO?

a. When the radial selected on the OBI is equal to, or approximately equal to, the aircraft’s heading, and that
heading will take the aircraft away from the VOR beacon
b. When the radial selected on the OBI is equal to, or approximately equal to, the reciprocal of the aircraft's
heading, and that heading will take the aircraft away from the VOR beacon
c. When the radial selected on the OBI is equal to, or approximately equal to, the aircraft’s heading, and that
heading will take the aircraft towards the VOR beacon
d. When the radial selected on the OBI is equal to, or approximately equal to, the reciprocal of the aircraft’s
heading, and that heading will take the aircraft towards the VOR beacon
13. A pilot is instructed to track inbound to a VOR beacon on the 120c Radial. What track will he select on the
OBI in order that he can use the OBI to intercept that radial, with the TO flag showing, and what heading will he
fly along the radial, assuming no wind?
a. 120° and 120° Magnetic
b. 120° and 300° Magnetic
c. 300° and 300° Magnetic
d. 300° and 120° Magnetic
14. A pilot is instructed to track outbound from a VOR beacon on the 270° Radial. What track will he select on
the OBI in order that he can use the OBI to intercept that radial, with the FROM flag showing, and what heading
will he fly along the radial, assuming no wind?
a. 270° and 270° Magnetic
b. 090° and 270° Magnetic
c. 270° and 090° Magnetic
d. 090° and 090° Magnetic
18 - DISTANCE MEASURING EQUIPMENT (DME)
1. The accuracy of DME equipment fitted to a modern aircraft is:

a. ± 3% of range or 0.5 nm whichever is the greater
b. ± 1.25% of range
c. ± 3% of range
d. ± 0.2 nm
2. What condition must prevail for DME equipment on an aircraft’s instrument panel to give a usable
groundspeed reading?
a. The aircraft must have the DME ground station on its port beam
b. The aircraft must have the DME ground station on its starboard beam
c. The aircraft must be heading directly towards the ground station
d. The aircraft must be heading directly towards or away from the ground station
3. Ina time interval of one minute, your DME instrument shows that your aircraft has travelled 1.7 nautical
miles directly towards a VOR/DME beacon, what is the groundspeed of the aircraft?
a. 102 knots
b. 110 knots
c. 96 knots
d. 100 knots
4. On which of the following principles does Distance Measuring Equipment function?
a. The principle of VHF direction finding
b. The principle of primary radar
c. The principle of secondary radar
d. The principle of VHF omni-directional ranging
5. The DME instrument in the aircraft gives the … distance read out from the beacon.
a. Horizontal
b. Slant
c. Oblique
d. Return
6. What is the nature of a DME “position line"?

a. It is the circumference of a circle, centred on the ground beacon whose radius is the distance of the aircraft
from the beacon
b. It is a radial emanating from the ground beacon whose length is the distance of the aircraft from the beacon
c. It is a straight position line measured in degrees magnetic
d. It is a straight line from the ground beacon, which is identified by a Course Deviation Indicator and whose
length is the distance of the aircraft from the beacon
7. Give an approximate value for the theoretical maximum range of a DME beacon in respect of an aircraft
flying at 3000 feet?
b. 60 nautical miles
19 - GROUND RADAR
1. En Route Surveillance Radars are:

a. Long range radars with typical ranges of 200 - 300 nms.
b. Radars providing positional information above 25 nms.
c. Radars with a range of 75 nms used for controlling traffic in a Terminal Area.
d. Radars providing surveillance below FL 245.
2. Consider the following statements concerning air traffic control primary surveillance radar, and then choose
the combination of correct statements from the options given.
1. ATC primary surveillance radar (PSR) can provide radar vectoring to pilots to fit aircraft into a safe
and effective landing sequence.
2. ATC PSR provides information to pilots about significant weather.
3. ATC PSR range depends on the elevation of the radar head and the altitude of the aircraft.
4. ATC PSR enables controllers to ensure safe separation between aircraft under their control.
5. ATC PSR enables radar controllers to provide basic information to pilots about the position and
heading of other potentially conflicting traffic.
6. ATC PSR is a pilot-interpreted aid which enables aircraft to determine their position and heading with
respect to radar beacons.
a. 1, 3, 5 & 6
b. 1, 3, 4 & 5
c. 1, 2, 4 & 5
d. 2, 3, 4 & 6
3. The issuing of instructions to pilots by radar controllers in order that aircraft may avoid conflicting traffic or
be led into an instrument landing system is known as:
a. Primary Radar Surveillance
b. Secondary Radar Surveillance
c. Radar Vectoring
d. Radar Information Service
4. In the absence of a radar service, the process used by air traffic control units to maintain separation
between aircraft, based on the reported position and altitude of participating aircraft, is known as:
a. radio separation
b. procedural separation
c. altitude separation
d. position separation
5. A radar approach service whereby the radar controller passes advice to the pilot on his position relative to
centreline and glideslope is called:
a. Surveillance Radar Approach
b. Instrument Landing System
c. Procedural Approach
d. VOR approach
6. If an aircraft’s groundspeed is 100 knots, what rate of descent must a pilot fly in order to obtain a glideslope
approach of approximately 3 degrees?
a. 500 feet per minute
b. 100 feet per minute
c. 450 feet per minute
d. 600 feet per minute
7. The approximate maximum range of a primary radar transmitter situated at mean sea level to detect aircraft
flying at an altitude of 5000 feet is:
b. 70 nautical miles
20 - SECONDARY SURVEILLANCE RADAR (SSR)
1. A transponder fitted to an aircraft is essential equipment to provide a controller with what type of
information?
a. Primary radar returns
b. Secondary Surveillance Radar returns
c. Precision Approach Radar returns
d. Area Radar returns
2. The special code to set on a transponder to indicate an emergency condition is:

a. 7600
b. 7500
c. 7700
d. 2000
3. What is the significance of the expression of ‘Mode Charlie’ when applied to the capability of an aircraft-
mounted transponder?
a. The transponder provides positional information only
b. The transponder provides information on both position and altitude
c. The transponder provides QDM information only
d. The transponder provides QDM and QDR information only
4. What is the result of a pilot pressing a transponder’s IDENT button?

a. It causes a special symbol to appear briefly on the controller’s radar screen, around the aircraft’s
transponder return, allowing positive identification of the aircraft.
b. It confirms to the controller that the pilot has the correct transponder code selected
c. It selects the transponder’s Mode Alpha capability
d. It selects the transponder’s Mode Charlie capability
5. SSR information is:

a. presented in analogue form on the controller’s strip
b. displayed digitally on the secondary radar screen via a computer
c. displayed by a system of lights on the controller’s console
d. displayed on the same screen as primary radar information
6. What is the significance of the Mode S transponder?

a. It will transmit aircraft position, as in Mode A
b. It does not have a standby mode
c. It will transmit a signal always unique to the aircraft in which the transponder is fitted
d. It will transmit details of the aircraft s position, height and separation from other aircraft
7. How is a transponder s Mode Charlie position selected?

a. The pilot moves the transponder selector knob to the SBY position
b. The pilot moves the transponder selector knob to the TST position
c. The pilot presses the IDENT button
d. The pilot moves the transponder selector knob to the ALT position
8. If a controller asks you to "SQUAWK IDENT”, you should:

a. Confirm to him what code you have set on your transponder
b. Enter onto the transponder the code he has given to you
c. Press the IDENT button once, briefly
d. Enter 7600 on your transponder and press the IDENT button
Due to daylight saving time, the time in Hungary …. in summer and …. in Winter
UTC + 2 - UTC + 1
CET + 2 - CET + 1
CET + 1 - CET + 2
UTC + 1 - UTC + 2
On a map with scale of 1:500000 8cm equals what distance in nautical miles?
21,6
14,8
40
74
…. is used for VFR flights in Hungary
ICAO 1:500000 aeronautical chart
ICAO airway manual
ICAO small sized map
ICAO 1:1000000 aeronautical chart
QNH is 1020. What pressure altitude is 3000 feet by QNH?
3210 feet
2790 feet
3210 feet
3430 feet
On flight check, after 20 NM, the cross track error is 3 NM. What is the angle of deviation? (use 1:60 rule)
9°
2°
3°
5°
How many feet to be ascended to reach FL 75? Departure elevation 1500ft, QNH=1023, temperature is
standard, 1 hPa = 30 ft
6300 feet
7800 feet
5100 feet
5800 feet
What is wind velocity in knots if wind speed is 90 km / h?
50 kts
20 kts
180 kts
33 kts
There is a wind of 40 kts. How strong is the wind (m/s)?
20 m/s
35 m/s
13 m/s
10 m/s
On a map with scale of 1:500000, two villages are 14.5 cm apart. What is the real distance between them?
72,5 km
65 km
110 km
86 km
Departure airport elevation: 250 m, where altimeter is set to zero. Then you fly over a mountain, which is
600 m high. Over the mountain, altimeter reading is 1000 m. What is your actual height over the hilltop?
650m
400 m
600 m
800 m
Departure airport elevation: 250 m, where altimeter set to zero. A message says that airspace over 2000 m
AMSL is prohibited. What is the maximum allowed altitude by present altimeter setting?
1750 m
1250 m
1050 m
1900 m
Geological latitude is..
The arc between the equator and the point's latitude, expressed in degrees.
The arc between the equator and the point's latitude, expressed in minutes.
The arc between the equator and the point's latitude, expressed in radians.
The altitude measured from Mean Sea Level
A distance for 1 minute of longitude is…
1,852 km
1,605 km
1 km
2,65 km
True heading is 270°. Magnetic Variation is 10°East. What is magnetic heading?
260°
280°
270°
Cannot be calculated
On a map with the scale of 1:500000 12 cm means the distance of:
60 kilometres
55 kilometres
78 kilometres
120 kilometres
If variation is expressed as Westerly, then:
True North is East of magnetic North
True North is West of magnetic North
True North and magnetic North is equal
True North is West of compass North
You are flying from A to B. You are 120 Nm from B and you experience 4 Nm off-track error. The angle of
8°
4°
2°
12°
The value of magnetic variation changes with time.
True
False
Given: GS=120 kts Distance to be flown: 84 Nm. The flight will take:
42 min
46 min
56 min
31 min
How long will it take to travel 284 Nm at a speed of 526 km/h ?
1 hour
1,565 hour
2,101 hour
1,5 hour
1 nautical mile equals
1852 meters
5280 feet
0,87 statute mile
3000 yards
What is mach number? (IAS=indicated Airspeed, TAS=true air speed, CAS=Calibrated air speed , LSS=Local
speed of sound)
TAS/LSS
IAS/LSS
CAS/IAS
TAS/(LSS+CAS)
Calculate the wind speed and direction, if given : True heading 035°, TAS=245 kts, Track 046°, GS=220 kts
340/50 kts
330/20 kts
355/34 kts
310/ 11 kts
Fuel flow is 24 l/h, the usable fuel is 120 l. What is your endurance?
5h
3h
6h
11 h
The time it takes for the Earth to complete one orbit around the Sun is:
360 days
400 days
362 days 45 hours 45 minutes
365 days 5 hours 48 minutes 45 seconds
When it is Summer in London, which season is to be experienced in Sydney?
Winter
Summer
Fall
Spring
The deviation is the error of:
Magnetic compass
Directional Gyro
Artifical Horizon
Turn coordinator
It is 1200 UTC. What is the Local time at Budapest at Summer? (Budapest is in UTC+1 andHungary uses DST)
1400 UTC
1300 UTC
1100 UTC
1000 UTC
The shortest distance between 2 points on the surface of the Earth is:
a curved line
a straight line
an S-shaped line
always goes through one of the poles
The shape of the Earth commonly referred to as:
Geoid
Elliptical
Round
flat
The planets move around the Sun:
in elliptical orbits
in circular orbits
at constant speed
at constant angle
What is the scale of the maps for General VFR flights according to ICAO standards?
1:500000
1:200000
1:1000000
1:15000
One purpose of a compass calibration is to reduce the difference, if any, between:
True North and Magnetic North
Compass North and magnetic North
Compass North and the lubber line
True North and meridian angle
From the point of practical navigation the Earth is a
sphere.
a rotating ellipsoid.
a geoid.
A ... also known as an orthodrome or Riemannian circle, of a sphere is the intersection of the sphere and a
plane which passes through the center point of the sphere.
great circle
circle of latitude
circle of longitude
small circle
Cross plane of ... runs parallel with the Equator, hence, it is perpendicular to the Earth's axis.
circles of latitudes
circles of longitude
great circles
small circles
The spot from where the Earth's seems to be rotating counter-clockwise is called ...
the North Pole
the South Pole
magnetic North
magnetic South
Numbering of the … starts from the first meridian, in easterly and westerly directions …
longitude - to 180°
longitude - to 90°
latitude - to 180°
latitude - to 90°
In terms of aerial navigation, it is critical that maps used for navigation are ...
conformal
equidistant
conformal and equidistant
conformal, equidistant and equal-area
When you fly on your gyrocompass course, you fly an
orthodromic route
loxodromic route
When you fly having aimed at an object on the horizon, you follow an
orthodromic route
loxodromic route
Theoretically, which aeroplane flies the longest distance?

If the pilot aims the destination with the magnetic compass.
If the pilot visually aims the destination.
If the pilot follows a radio heading to reach your destination
Distance covered is the same in all three cases.
The Lambert projection is ...
a conformal, conical map projection.
a conformal, cylindrical map projection.
conformal and equidistant cylindrical projection.
conformal and equidistant conical projection.
The Mercator projection is ...
a conformal, cylindrical map projection.
conformal and equidistant cylindrical projection.
a conformal, conical map projection.
conformal and equidistant conical projection.
The small-scale ICAO aeronautical chart is used for ...
long-distance flights.
approach procedures.
flying over oceans and scarcely populated areas,
short-distance flights.
What is the abbreviation of a message to invalidate NOTAMs?
NOTAMC
NOMAMN
NOTAMR
Which of the following denotes a replacement NOTAM?

NOTAMR
NOMAMN
NOTAMC
Data element B) of a NOTAM: 1001040700, data element C) is: 1001221500. Is this NOTAM valid on 1st
No.
Yes.
The angle between true North and aeroplane direction of movement is ...
true track angle.
magnetic track angle.
true heading.
magnetic heading.
The angle between the aeroplane direction of movement and the magnetic North is the ...
true track angle.
true heading.
magnetic heading.
The angle between aeroplane longitudinal axis and magnetic North is ...
magnetic heading.
true heading.
compass heading.
Discrepancy between magnetic heading and true heading is caused by ...
declination
deviation
inclination
Discrepancy between magnetic heading and compass heading is caused by ...

deviation
declination
inclination
A route leg track angle is 050°. Declination is 4° West. Deviation is 1° East. What is your compass heading?
53°
45 °
47°
55°
A route leg track angle is 310°. Declination is 3° East. Deviation is 2° West What is your compass heading?
309 °
305 °
311°
315°
As a rule of thumb, we can say that in ISA at 5,000 feet 100 kt CAS equals what TAS?
110 kt
102 kt
105 kt
115 kt
As a rule of thumb, we can say that in ISA at 7,500 feet 120 kt TAS equals what CAS?
104 kt
98 kt
116 kt
138 kt
A route leg track angle is 250°. Declination is 3° East. Wind is from 190°,, calculations show that it diverts the aeroplane with 4°. Deviation is 2°
West What is your compass heading?
245°
247°
255°
259°
A route leg track angle is 170°. Declination is 2° West. Wind is from 240°,, calculations show that it diverts the aeroplane with 7°. Deviation is 1°
East. What is your compass heading?
178°
162°
176°
180°
Total estimated flight time of a leg is 1 hour 27 minutes. We have 45 minutes navigational reserve. The
aeroplane's fuel consumption is 5 US gallon / hour. What is the total amount of fuel required for this flight?
11 US gallon
3.5 US gallon
10.6 US gallon
12.6 US gallon
An aeroplane is flying on a magnetic heading of 320° and having flown 40 NM it is 4 NM off course to the right. Using the 1:60 rule
what magnetic heading it should take to join the course after 20 NM?
302°
308°
332°
338°
A route leg is 80 NM. At 1/4 of the leg 2 NM off course distance is experienced, and we wish to join the
course at the end of the leg. Based on the 1:60 rule, how many degrees do we have to correct?
8 °
2°
4°
6°
The on-board element of the ... system determines the distance based on the time difference between sent
and received impulse signals.
DME
NDB
VDF
VOR
Operation of the ... system is based on measuring phase differences.
VOR
DME
VDF
NDB
The ... system uses signals received by a frame and six standalone antennae to determine directions.
NDB
VOR
VDF
DME
In the ... system the ground station measures the radio heading between the station and the aeroplane.
VDF
NDB
VOR
DME
VOR system accuracy is influenced by radio deviation, coastal, mountain and the night effect, as well as the
False.
True.
CDI (OBI) and HSI displays belong to the ... system.

VOR
NDB
VDF
DME
RMI ...
can be a shared indicator of NDB and VOR system.
exclusively operates in NDB system.
exclusively operates in VOR system.
is an indicator exclusive to DME system.
The magnetic radio heading leading to the radio station is ...
QDM
QDR
QTE
QUJ
The magnetic radio heading measured from the radio station is ...
QDR
QDM
QTE
QUJ
The connection between QUJ, QDM, QTE and QDR is ...
declination.
deviation.
inclination.
radio deviation.
RBI shows magnetic heading 040°, aeroplane magnetic heading is 330°. What is QDM?
010°
040°
220°
290°
RBI ADF needle shows magnetic heading 110°, aeroplane magnetic heading is 060°. What is QDR?
290°
050°
110°
230°
An aeroplane is on VOR radial 124, and it is flying at magnetic heading 300°. OBS setting is 300°. What does CDI indicate?
TO/FROM flag is positioned: TO, the needle moves two dots to the right.
TO/FROM flag is positioned: FROM, the needle moves two dots to the left.
TO/FROM flag is positioned: TO, the needle moves one dot to the right.
TO/FROM flag is positioned: FROM, the needle moves one dot to the left.
In what case can you use GPS devices as primary navigational instruments during VFR flights?
Never.
If the GPS device and the aeroplane are IFR approved.
Always.
If the GPS device is IFR approved.
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
AIR LAW BOOK QUESTIONS
1. Complete the following wording with one of the options at a, b, c or d below to give the most correct
statement. A pilot in command of a flight during which an aircraft enters the sovereign airspace of a foreign state
with the intention of landing:
a. must ensure before departure that his pilot’s licence has been validated by the foreign state
b. must be satisfied that the aircraft’s Certificate of Airworthiness is current and that he holds a type rating for
the aircraft
c. must have ensured that all necessary and relevant documentation is carried on board the aircraft, including
the Certificate of Airworthiness, that the aircraft is in an airworthy condition and that it is correctly registered
d. must be satisfied that the aircraft’s Certificate of Airworthiness is current, that he holds a type rating for the
aircraft, and that he has passed an Air Law examination set by the foreign state
2. In level flight at night, from your aircraft, you see an anti-collision beacon and a red navigation light. The
lights are at the same altitude as yourself and are steady at 2 o’ clock and closing. This indicates that there is:
a. an airship which should give way to you
b. a flying machine which should give way to you
c. a flying machine to which you should give way
d. no threat
3. In establishing noise preferential routes, turns during take-off and climb should not be required unless the
aircraft has reached:
a. 1 000 feet above terrain or the highest obstacles under the flight path
b. 500 feet above terrain or the highest obstacles under the flight path
c. 1 500 feet above terrain or the highest obstacles under the flight path
d. 2 000 feet above terrain or the highest obstacles under the flight path
4. The Air Navigation Order states that a person shall not recklessly or negligently act in a manner likely to
endanger an aircraft or any person therein. To whom does this apply?
a. Only to airline crew
b. Only to cabin staff
c. Only to the pilot in command
d. To every person
5. Which of the following documents is not required to be carried in an aircraft of an ICAO member state?
a. Certificate of Registration
b. Certificate of Airworthiness
c. Flight crew licences
d. Flight crew birth certificates
6. A light aircraft is hired from a flying club for a private flight; the person responsible for planning the flight and
ensuring that the weather is suitable is:
a. the CFI
b. the Operations Manager
c. the PIC
d. the duty instructor
7. In the UK, an aircraft accident must be reported without delay to;

a. the nearest ATCU and the local police
b. the CAA and the Air Investigation Branch
c. the flight safety officer at the base airfield
d. the Chief Inspector of the Air Investigation Branch and the local police
8. In establishing noise preferential routes, bank angles for turns after take-off should be limited:
a. to 20 degrees except where adequate provision is made for an acceleration phase permitting attainment of
safe speeds for bank angles greater than 20 degrees
b. to 10 degrees except where adequate provision is made for an acceleration phase permitting attainment of
safe speeds for bank angles greater than 10 degrees
c. to 15 degrees except where adequate provision is made for an acceleration phase permitting attainment of
sate speeds tor bank angles greater than 15 degrees
d. to 25 degrees except where adequate provision is made tor an acceleration phase permitting attainment ot
sate speeds tor bank angles greater than 25 degrees
9. Which of the following is not a Search & Rescue Alerting phase?

a. Urgency phase
b. Uncertainty phase
c. Alert phase
d. Distress phase
10. An Alerting Service is:

a. provided for all aircraft being given an air traffic control service and, insofar as is practicable, to all other
aircraft having filed a flight plan or otherwise known to the air traffic services, and also to any aircraft known to be
the subject of unlawful interference
b. the provision of navigation and weather warnings to pilots in flight
c. specifically for the provision of search and rescue services
d. only provided for aircraft on an IFR flight plan
11. Which of the following is not an SAR ground to air signal?

a. V
b. N
c. R
d. Y
12. At the scene of an aircraft accident, a survivor has made a ground signal showing a large cross with angles
of 90° between the arms of the cross. What does this mean?
a. Require medical assistance
b. Require assistance
c. This is our position
d. All survivors are uninjured
13. Before departure the commander of an aircraft must brief all passengers on the:
a. location of all exits and the procedure to be followed in the event of ditching or forced landing
b. the operation of the seat belts and life jackets
c. location of all exits and the operation of any safety equipment that is carried
d. the weather en-route and at the destination
14. Which of the following cases constitutes a reportable accident?

a. A lightning strike on an aircraft in flight
b. The injury of a person on the ground after being struck by any part of an aircraft which had detached from
the aircraft while it was airborne, but where the safety of the aircraft was not necessarily compromised
c. An engine failure in flight
d. A burst main gear or tailwheel tyre during the take off or landing roll
15. If an aircraft has an accident, involving injury to persons or damage to the aircraft, at a licensed airfield, who
is responsible for reporting the accident to the appropriate authority?
a. The ATC watch officer
b. The ATC supervisor
c. The pilot in command
d. The police
16. Which one of the following statements is false?

An accident must be reported if, between the time that anyone boards an aircraft to go flying and until everyone
has left it:
a. anyone is killed or seriously injured while in or on the aircraft
b. the aircraft incurs damage or structural failure
c. the aircraft is completely inaccessible or missing
d. a passenger dies from natural causes
17. Following an aviation accident in the United Kingdom, to which of the following must the accident be
reported as expeditiously as possible?
a. The home airfield of the aircraft involved in the accident
b. The Civil Aviation Authority and the local police
c. The Chief Inspector of the Air Accident Investigation Branch (AAIB) and to the local police
d. The nearest Air Traffic Control Unit
18. It is the pilot’s responsibility to ensure that the aircraft is properly equipped for the planned flight. If there is
any doubt the pilot should consult the:
a. Certificate of Airworthiness
b. Certificate of Maintenance Review
c. Minimum Equipment List
d. Pilot’s Operating Handbook
19. On any flight the minimum safety equipment that must be carried is:
a. first aid kit, fire axe, portable oxygen for all on board and a fire extinguisher
b. first aid kit, spare electrical fuses and a portable fire extinguisher
c. first aid kit, life jackets for all on board and a fire extinguisher
d. first aid kit, smoke hoods and a fire extinguisher
20. Which of the following is correct with reference to which aircraft require a noise certificate and which are
exempt?
a. All aeroplanes except certain STOL aircraft require a noise certificate
b. Non-public transport aircraft are exempt
c. All aircraft which can take off from a hard dry runway in less than 610 metres are exempt
d. Training aircraft are exempt
21. The definition of a forced landing on water is:

a. Hydroplaning
b. Ditching
c. Surfing
d. Skimming
22. A situation wherein uncertainty exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants is:
a. Distress phase
b. Alert phase
c. Uncertainty phase
d. Emergency phase
23. The definition of ‘Distress’ is:

a. the aircraft has an urgent message to transmit concerning the safety of persons on board or within sight
b. the aircraft has an immediate message to transmit concerning the safety of persons on board or within sight
c. the aircraft is in serious and/or imminent danger and requires immediate assistance
d. a crew member is distressed and requires medical assistance
24. If a pilot intercepts an RT distress message, he should, if no acknowledgement is heard, relay it and then:
a. standby to receive further instructions whilst holding in present position
b. endeavour to guide other aircraft to the location of the aircraft in distress
c. at his discretion, proceed to the location of the aircraft in distress
d. proceed on flight plan route
25. In a situation where concern for the safety of an aircraft and its occupants exists (alert phase), responsibility
for alerting the necessary search and rescue units lies with:
a. the ATCU which received the distress message on the international distress frequency
b. the appropriate responsible person
c. the rescue coordination centre
d. the pilot in command
26. To indicate that assistance is required, survivors would use which of the following signals from the Ground
to Air Emergency Code?
a. X
b. V
C. g
d. R
27. If a component becomes detached from an aircraft in flight, seriously injuring someone on the ground, but
not affecting the continuation of the aircraft's flight, how would ICAO define this occurrence?
a. An aircraft accident
b. An aircraft incident
c. An occurrence to be reported
d. A fortuitous occurrence
How do you stabilise the aeroplane when taxiing in left cross-tail wind?
Deflect the ailerons to the right and push on the elevator
Deflect the ailerons to the left and pull the elevator
Deflect the ailerons to the right and pull the elevator
Deflect the ailerons to the left and push on the elevator
Which climbing speed is higher?
Speed of the highest vertical climb.
Speed of the highest climb degree.
During normal descent, if you wish to decrease rate of descent, you need to ... power and ... the elevator to
readjust descending speed
increase - by pulling
decrease - by pulling
decrease - by pushing
increase - by pushing
During normal descent, if you wish to increase rate of descent, you need to ... power and ... the elevator to
readjust descending speed
decrease - by pushing
decrease - by pulling
increase - by pulling
increase - by pushing
What is the proper procedure to transit from normal descent to level flight?
the elevator.
adjust cruise power.
the carburettor heating.
cruise power.
For a given bank the .... the speed, the .... the turn radius.
higher - larger
higher - smaller
For a given speed the .... the bank, the .... the turn radius.
higher - smaller
higher - larger
If turn is tighter than it should be for a radius for a given speed and bank, the aeroplane starts slipping ....
outward
inward
In a normal bank turn, aerodynamic forces generated on the vertical fin ...
tend to turn the aeroplane's nose against the turn. This partially explains the need for rudder.
tend to turn the aeroplane's nose into the turn. This partially explains the need for rudder.
lift up the aeroplane's nose. This partially explains the need for elevators.
push down the aeroplane's nose. This partially explains the need for elevators.
In a normal bank turn, aerodynamic forces generated on the horizontal fin ...
push down the aeroplane's nose. This partially explains the need for elevators in a turn.
tend to turn the aeroplane's nose into the turn. This partially explains the need for rudder in a turn.
tend to turn the aeroplane's nose against the turn. This partially explains the need for rudder in a turn.
lift up the aeroplane's nose. This partially explains the need for elevators in a turn.
In level flight, the angle of attack is lower than in a turn made at the same speed.
In level flight, the angle of attack is higher than in a turn made at the same speed.
The angle of attack is the same in level flight and in turn, providing the speed remains the same.
As the load factor increases in a turn, the stall speed ...

increases.
decreases.
It doesn't change.
While the altitude is increasing, stall speed assigned to a given bank will become ...
It doesn't change.
lower.
higher.
Should the aeroplane start to climb during a level turn, the bank should be ...
increased or pressure on the elevator should be relieved.
decreased or the elevator should be pulled stronger.
decreased or pressure on the elevator should be relieved.
increased or the elevator should be pulled stronger.
Pilots Operating Handbook defines stall speed for aircraft ...
maximum take-off weight.
empty weight.
operating weight.
dry operating weight.
When flying on a curved course in the vertical, the higher g-load is generated ...
the smaller radius the curve is and the higher the speed.
the smaller radius the curve is, speed is not relevant.
the larger radius the curve is and the lower the speed.
the larger radius the curve is, speed is not relevant.
When flying on a curved course in the vertical, as the g-load increases, the stall speed ...
increases.
decreases.
It doesn't change.
During take-off roll, when would you expect gyroscopic effect of the rotating propeller?
When the nose-wheel lifts off.
When opening the throttle.
When the aeroplane has picked up some speed during the take-off run.
All the way throughout the take-off roll.
During take-off, when would you expect reaction force of the rotating propeller?
This torque is mostly felt when the throttle is opened, but it is maintained as long as the engine is operating.
It prevails at low speed and high RPM, as the aeroplane picks up speed, the torque is gradually decreasing.
This torque can only be felt at a high angle of attack or when the aircraft is side-slipping.
When the nose-wheel lifts off , and in all situations when the propeller is moved from its plane of rotation.
When would you expect to experience the effect of the torque caused by slipstream?
It prevails at low speed and high RPM, as the aeroplane picks up speed, the torque is gradually decreasing.
This torque is mostly felt when the throttle is opened, but it is maintained as long as the engine is operating.
This torque can only be felt at a high angle of attack or when the aircraft is side-slipping.
When the nose-wheel lifts off , and in all situations when the propeller is moved from its plane of rotation.
When you lift off the nose wheel ...
direction, while the precession act in the opposite direction.
torque generated by the slipstream act in the opposite direction.
asymmetric blade effect acts in the opposite direction.
torque generated by all four blades acts in the same direction.
When lifting off the tail of a tail dragger aeroplane ...
torque generated by all three blades acts in the same direction.
in the opposite direction.
slipstream acts in the opposite direction.
torque acts in the opposite direction.
When would you accelerate the aircraft above the ground after getting airborne?
Always.
If flaps were deployed during take-off.
If flaps were not deployed during take-off.
In windy, gusty weather.
At a non-controlled airfield the wind is from 350°, 10 knots. There are two runways, 09 and 27. Which runway would you use for take-
off?
27
9
Either of them.
No take-off is allowed in this scenario.
During an approach you can decrease the angle of descent by ... the power setting. . In order to maintain the
selected approach speed the elevator should be as as necessary
increasing - pulling
increasing - pushed
decreasing - pushed
decreasing - pulling
Head wind on the final glide ...
increases track deviation.
decreases track deviation.
has no influence at all.
When would you brake the gliding angle in an arch of the smallest radius?
Strong head wind and large flap settings.
No-wind conditions and small flap settings.
Strong head wind and small flap settings.
No-wind conditions and large flap settings.
If flare is executed at the correct altitude but the stall warning sounds when the aeroplane touches the
ground the pilot made a mistake
False.
True.
In crosswind, at a given wind angle and wind speed, the higher the aircraft speed in relation to the air, the
larger the drift is
False.
True.
Increasing TAS ground speed always increases, regardless of wind directioin and speed.
True.
False.
A frontal wind gust causes higher g-load when aircraft velocity is ... and the wind gust is ...
lower - higher
higher - smaller
lower - lower
higher - higher
In the case of a ... the lift rapidly increases due to the increased angle of attack.
horizontal-back wind gust
flying into an intensive updraft
horizontal-head on wind gust
flying into an intensive downdraft
The effect of a frontal wind gust is smaller when the ... the aeroplane speed is and .... the aeroplane mass is.
higher - higher
lower - lower
higher - smaller
lower - higher
Flying into a vertical lift, the aeroplane maintains its earlier altitude and airspeed. In this case the aeroplane
is flying at lower angle of attack, with lower power setting.

is flying at lower angle of attack, with higher power setting.
is flying at higher angle of attack, with lower power setting.
is flying at higher angle of attack, with higher power setting.
Change in angle of attack caused by vertical gust is ..., and it results in ... lift increase and g-load.
lower - higher
lower - lower
higher - smaller
higher - higher
The ... the aeroplane and the ... the angle of attack is, the longer and stronger are wing-tip vortices.
higher - higher
lower - lower
higher - smaller
lower - higher
In order to avoid wake turbulence of a large landing aircraft during take-off ...
lift-off should be planned well beyond the touch down point of the large aeroplane.
take-off roll should be started from the end of the runway in order to lift off as soon as possible.
In order to avoid wake turbulence of a large departing aircraft during landing ...
touch down point should be planned well before the point where the other aircraft got airborne.
touch down point should be planned well beyond the point where the other aircraft got airborne.
Tail draggers can handle rough terrain better than nose wheel planes, however, their lateral and directional
stability are worse
True.
False.
Think about a normal take-off procedure.

Take-off roll is performed first on three then two wheels both with nose wheel and tail wheel aircraft.
wheel until rotation.
Think about a normal landing procedure.

performed on three wheels.
Landing is performed on two wheels both with nose wheel and tail wheel aircraft.
When retracting the undercarriage, the aeroplane s velocity ...., and longitudinal balance can also change as
torque may appear
increase - nose light
decrease - nose heavy
decrease - nose light
increase - nose heavy
What does VLO mean?
Maximum allowable speed during landing gear operation.
Maximum allowable speed with extended flaps.
Maximum allowable speed during flaps operation.
Maximum allowable speed with extended gears.
What does VLE mean?
Maximum allowable speed with extended gears.
Maximum allowable speed with extended flaps.
Maximum allowable speed during flaps operation.
Maximum allowable speed during landing gear operation.
If the engine is not running, the manifold pressure gauge indicates ... After engine start-up, at idle, the gauge
indicates
QFE - it drops below outside air pressure.
QNH - it drops below outside air pressure.
QFE - it increases above outside air pressure.
QNH - it increases above outside air pressure.
What does it imply if after engine start-up, at idle, the manifold pressure gauge indicates outside air
pressure?
It implies engine malfunction.
It is the normal operating value.
The engine is operating under load.
The engine is still cold, it needs to warm up.
What does it imply if after engine start-up, at idle, the manifold pressure gauge drops below outside air
pressure?
It is the normal operating value.
The engine is operating under load.
The engine is still cold, it needs to warm up.
It implies engine malfunction.
How is RPM controlled on a constant speed propeller aeroplane?
With the pitch control lever.
With the throttle lever.
With the manifold pressure lever.
There is no need to control the RPM.
How is RPM checked on a constant speed propeller aeroplane?
With an RPM gauge.
With a fuel pressure gauge.
With a manifold pressure gauge.
With a cylinder head temperature gauge.
How is power reduced on a constant speed propeller aeroplane?
By pulling back the manifold pressure lever before reducing the RPM.
By pulling back the RPM control lever.
By pulling back the manifold pressure lever and the RPM control lever in unison.
By pulling back the manifold pressure lever after reducing the RPM.
How is power increased on a constant speed propeller aeroplane?
By increasing the manifold pressure after increasing RPM.
By pushing home the RPM control lever.
By pushing forward the manifold pressure lever and the RPM control lever in unison.
By increasing the manifold pressure before increasing RPM.
If the mixture is rich, and the pilot starts to lean the fuel with the mixture control knob ...
the RPM and and EGT will both grow.
the RPM will grow and EGT will drop.
the RPM will drop and EGT will grow.
the RPM and and EGT will both drop.
Having leaned the mixture to the full, the pilot continues to lean the fuel ...
the RPM and and EGT will both drop.
the RPM will grow and EGT will drop.
the RPM will drop and EGT will grow.
the RPM and and EGT will both grow.
Performance mixture ...
is richer than mixture leaned to the full.
is mixture leaned to the full.
is leaner than mixture leaned to the full.
Performance mixture was set at cruising altitude. If the pilot fails to ... before descent , having reached a
certain altitude the mixture
richen - can become over-lean.
lean - can become over-rich.
In order to take advantage of the fuel s cooling effect, what kind of mixture should be used (in comparison
with ideal mixture)
richer.
leaner.
When making a force-landing onto a ploughed field in less than 20 kts wind, the pilot should land
parallel with the grooves
into the wind
Forced landing onto water, icy, snowy, soft or uneven ground (fields, grazing fields, plough fields) is always
made with
retracted gears.
extended gears.
If the engine quits in-flight, the most important thing to do first is to ...
maintain the best glide ratio speed.
report emergency over the radio.
search for a spot suitable for emergency landing.
to ask for help.
Which of the following is the most suitable for emergency landing?
Agriculturally maintained area with low grown plants.
Field agriculturally not maintained (pl. grazing field).
Agriculturally maintained area with tall grown plants.
Agriculturally maintained, ploughed area.
Should your engine quit during take-off ...
if you have gained enough altitude, you make a 180° degree turn and land back on the runway.
you have no other choice but to make an emergency landing on the area ahead of you.
When would you put on the life vests in the case of ditching?
When emergency situation has been established.
Vests must always be worn when flying over water.
After ditching and evacuating the aircraft.
If you managed to extinguish engine fire by cutting off fuel flow ...
the engine must not be restarted, you have to make an emergency landing.
you can attempt to restart the engine. If the engine restarts, you can resume flying.
you can attempt to restart the engine. If the engine restarts, you will have to land at an alternate aerodrome.
you can attempt to restart the engine. If the engine restarts, you will have to make a precautionary landing.
In case the engine quits ...
landing at an alternate aerodrome.
you can attempt to restart the engine. If the engine restarts, you can resume flying.
you can attempt to restart the engine. If the engine starts, you will land at the first possible aerodrome.
the engine must not be restarted, you have to make an emergency landing.
When executing an emergency descent in order to extinguish wing or engine fire ...
you must not exceed VNE speed.
you can exceptionally exceed the VNE speed due to the emergency.
you must not exceed VNO speed.
you must not exceed VA speed.
What kind of fire extinguisher is used to put out cabin fire?
Halon.
Powder.
Water.
Carbon-dioxide.
If a cable actuated system fails to operate in one way due to cable failure ...
the control will still work where the cable is intact.
the control will stop working in either way.
the aeroplane becomes uncontrollable.
Should your flaps get stuck in an asymmetric situation ...

you should not flare the aeroplane, you need to land at high speed instead.
you have to flare as long as you can so the aeroplane touches the ground at the lowest possible speed.
You notice that one of your main gears has a puncture ....
you will make the emergency landing on the side of the runway where the intact gear is.
you will make the emergency landing on the side of the runway where the flat gear is.
you need to land on a grass airfield.
If you encounter dynamic aquaplaning, you have to apply the brakes intensively.
False.
True.
What type of aquaplaning typically occurs in the touch down zone?

Viscous aquaplaning.
Dynamic aquaplaning.
Steam aquaplaning.
What decreases significantly the lift coefficient of a wing?

Icing on the leading edge.
Frosty blanketing the entire wing surface.
Should a pilot inadvertently enter IMC conditions and has to rely on his instruments to fly back to VMC
conditions
can easily fall victim to perceptual misinterpretation.
fails to do so, he can easily fall victim to perceptual misinterpretation.
PRINCIPLES OF FLIGHT
3 - LIFT
1. Dynamic pressure equals:

a. total pressure plus static pressure
b. static pressure minus total pressure
c. total pressure divided by static pressure
d. total pressure minus static pressure
2. Relative airflow is and the movement of the aircraft.

a. perpendicular to opposite to
b. parallel to opposite to
c. perpendicular to in the same direction as
d. parallel to in the same direction as
3. In straight and level flight, the free stream airflow pressure compared to the pressure of the air flowing under
the forward section of a wing is:
a. equal
b. higher
c. lower
d. of equal pressure but travelling faster
4. The velocity of air flowing over the upper surface of the wing of a typical training light-aircraft increases when
compared to the velocity of the free airflow. Which of the options below best describes the pressure
considerations of the air flowing over the wing:
a. its dynamic pressure will decrease and its static pressure increase
b. its dynamic pressure will remain constant and its static pressure will decrease
c. its dynamic pressure will increase and its static pressure decrease
d. its dynamic pressure will decrease and its static pressure remain constant
5. The air flow over the wing's upper surface in straight and level flight, when compared with the airflow that is
unaffected by the wing, will have:
a. a higher velocity
b. a higher density
c. a reduced velocity
d. the same velocity
6. Which of the four answer options most correctly completes the sentence? Increasing speed also increases lift
because …
a lift is directly proportional to velocity
b lift is directly proportional to the square of the airspeed
c. the increased velocity of the relative wind overcomes the increased drag
d. increasing speed decreases drag
7. 1 - Air has mass

2 - Air is not compressible
3 - Air is able to flow or change its shape when subject to even small pressures
4 - The viscosity of air is very high
5 - Moving air has kinetic energy
The correct combination of true statements, from the above options, is:
a. 1,2, 3 and 5
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1 and 4
d. 1,3, and 5
8. A moving mass of air possesses kinetic energy. An object placed in the path of such a moving mass of air
will be subject to:
a. static pressure and dynamic pressure
b. static pressure
c. dynamic pressure
d. dynamic pressure minus static pressure
9. The Principle of Continuity states that, in a Streamtube of decreasing cross-sectional area, the speed of a
subsonic and incompressible airflow will:
a. remain the same
b. decrease
c. increase
d. always become sonic
10. The angle of attack of an aerofoil is defined as:

a. the angle between the chord line of the aerofoil and the horizon
b. the angle between the chord line of the aerofoil and the relative airflow
c. the angle between the chord line of the aerofoil and the aircraft's longitudinal axis
d. the angle between the mean camber line of the aerofoil and the relative airflow
11. An aerofoil section is designed to produce lift resulting from a difference in the:
a. negative air pressure below and a vacuum above the surface
b. higher air pressure below the surface and lower air pressure above the surface
c. vacuum below the surface and greater air pressure above the surface
d. higher air pressure at the leading edge than at the trailing edge
12. Which of the sentences below makes the most correct statement about Lift?
a. Lift acts perpendicularly to the wing chord line
b. Lift acts parallel to the wing chord line
c. Lift acts perpendicularly to the wing mean camber line
d. Lift acts perpendicularly to the relative airflow
13. On an aerofoil section, the force of lift acts perpendicular to and the force of drag acts parallel to the:
a. relative airflow
b. longitudinal axis
c. chord line
d. aerofoil section upper surface
14. A positively cambered aerofoil starts to produce lift at an angle of attack of approximately:
a. 4 to 6 degrees
b. 0 degrees
c. minus 4 degrees
d. 16 degrees
15. If the Angle of Attack and other factors remain constant, and the airspeed is doubled, lift will be:
a. doubled
b. one quarter of what it was
c. the same
d. quadrupled
16. Which of the answer options most correctly completes the sentence? The amount of lift a wing produces is
directly proportional to:
a. the dynamic pressure minus the static pressure
b. the square root of the velocity of the air flowing over it
c. the air density
d. the air temperature
17. The centre of pressure is:

a. the force opposing gravity
b. the point through which the aircraft weight acts
c. the point through which total lift acts
d. the central point of the engine oil system
18 The total lift force is considered to act through which location in an aircraft’s wing?
a. The wing's upper surface
b. Always forward of the Centre of Gravity (C of G)
c. The wing's C of G
d. The Centre of Pressure
19. Static pressure acts:

a. parallel to airflow
b. parallel to dynamic pressure
c. in all directions
d. downwards

a. Lift acts perpendicular to the horizontal and drag parallel in a rearwards direction
b. Drag acts parallel to the chord and opposite to the direction of motion of the aircraft and lift acts
perpendicular to the chord
c. Lift acts at right angles to the top surface of the wing and drag acts at right angles to lift
d. Drag acts parallel to the relative airflow, opposing the motion of the aircraft, and Lift acts perpendicularly to
the relative airflow
21. In which of the conditions described below will the Coefficient of Lift of a wing be at its maximum?
a. At the aircraft's maximum rate of climb speed
b. At or just before the stall
c. In level flight at an angle of attack of between 4° and 6°
d. At the aircraft's maximum angle of climb speed
22. The formula for lift is:

a. L=W
b. L = 1/2 pV (C L )2 S
c L = C L 1/2 PV2 S
d. L = C L 1/2 P2V S
23. Which of the following statements best accounts for how a lift force can be generated by a wing of aerofoil
cross section whose upper surface is positively cambered and whose undersurface is uncambered?
a. The air flowing over the upper surface has a longer distance to travel than the air flowing under the wing
b. An upwards-acting reaction force is generated by the wing as it turns the airflow around it in a downwards
direction
c. There is an upwards acting reaction to the airflow which bounces off the under surface of the wing as the
airflow strikes the undersurface at a positive angle of attack
d. Awing of the aerofoil section described will naturally produce positive lift at any angle of attack
24. Which of the following statements best accounts for how the airflow around a wing of standard aerofoil cross
section contributes to the lift force produced by the wing?
a. A wing of standard aerofoil cross-section acts like an inverted venture tube
b. Because the total energy in the air passing above the wing is greater than the total energy in the air flowing
beneath the wing
c. Lift is produced by the wing "skipping" over the airflow in the same way as a flat stone might skip over water
d. The downwards turning of the airflow by the wing produces a rate of change of momentum in the airflow, the
reaction to which is a force acting on the wing in an upwards direction
4 - MORE ABOUT AIRFLOW AND AIRFOILS
1. Total pressure sensed by a Pitot Tube comprises:

a. pitot pressure plus dynamic pressure
b. pitot pressure minus dynamic pressure
c. static pressure plus dynamic pressure
d. dynamic pressure minus static pressure
2. Two identical aircraft of the same weight fly at two different altitudes (in straight and level flight and the same
angle of attack). Assuming that other factors remain constant, that the air is incompressible, and that ISA
conditions prevail, how do the true air speeds of the two aircraft compare?
a. They are the same
b. The True Air Speed (TAS) of the higher aircraft will be the greater
c. The TAS of the lower aircraft will be the greater
d. Altitude has no effect on the True Air Speed required to support a given aircraft weight at constant angle of
attack
3. In accordance with Bernoulli's Theorem, where PT = Total Pressure, PS = Static pressure and q = Dynamic
pressure:
a. PT + PS = Q
b. PT = PS - Q
c. PT - PS = Q
d. PS + PT = Q
4. When (normally at high angles of attack) the Boundary Layer separates from the surface of an aerofoil (at the
Separation Point), airflow characteristics aft of the Separation Point can best be described as:
a. unpredictable and haphazard, leading to an abrupt decrease in lift force
b. smooth and laminar, leading to an increase in lift
c. a turbulent Boundary Layer, leading to a slight reduction in lift
d. smooth and laminar, creating a favourable Pressure Gradient
5. The symbol for dynamic pressure is:

a. Q
b. P
c. R
d. D
6. As Indicated Air Speed (IAS) is reduced, in order to maintain altitude, the pilot must:
a. increase the angle of attack to maintain the correct lift force
b. decrease the angle of attack to reduce the drag
c. deploy the speed brakes to increase drag
d. reduce the thrust
7. Dynamic Pressure may be expressed by the formula:

a. Q = 1/2 p V2
b. Q = p V2
c. Q=pV
d. Q=2pV
8. The smooth flow of air, where each molecule follows the path of the preceding molecule, is a definition of:
a. wind
b. turbulent flow
c. free-stream flow
d. laminar flow
9. If the cross sectional area of an airflow is mechanically reduced:

a. the mass flow remains constant and the static pressure increases
b. the velocity of the airflow remains constant and the mass flow increases
c. the mass flow remains constant and the velocity of the airflow increases
d. the velocity of the airflow remains constant and the kinetic energy increases
10. Dynamic pressure is:

a. the pressure change caused by heating when a moving airflow is brought completely to rest
b. the pressure due to the mass of air pressing down on the air beneath
c. the amount by which the pressure rises at a point where a moving airflow is brought completely to rest
d. the total pressure at a point where a moving airflow is brought completely to rest
11. The dynamic pressure exerted by the air on an aircraft's frontal surface is equal to:
a. air density times speed squared
b. half the air density times the true airspeed squared
c. half the true airspeed times the air density squared
d. half the air density times the indicated airspeed squared
12. The term angle of attack is defined as:

a. the angle between the relative airflow and the horizontal axis
b. the angle between the wing chord line and the relative airflow
c. the angle that determines the magnitude of the lift force
d. the angle between the wing and tailplane incidence
13. In sub-sonic airflow, as air passes through a venturi, the mass flow … , the velocity … and the static pressure
…
a. decreases then increases, remains constant, increases then decreases
b. remains constant, increases then decreases, decreases then increases
c. remains constant, increases then decreases, increases then decreases
d. decreases then increases, increases then decreases, increases then decreases
14. An aircraft carries out a given journey, on two separate days. On both days, the pilot flies at an indicated
airspeed of 120 knots. On the first day, the air density is greater than on the subsequent day. How will the forces
of Lift and Drag acting on the aircraft compare on the two days?
a. On the first day both Lift and Drag will be less than on the subsequent day
b. On the first day the Lift will be greater and Drag will be less than on the subsequent day
c. On the first day the Lift will be less and Drag will be greater than on the subsequent day
d. The forces of Lift and Drag acting on the aircraft will remain unchanged
5 - DRAG
1. As airspeed increases, induced drag:

a. increases
b. decreases
c. is dependent on the weight of the aircraft
d. remains unchanged
2. As airspeed increases induced drag … , parasite drag … and total drag …

a. increases, increases, increases
b. increases, decreases, increases then decreases
c. decreases, decreases, decreases
d. decreases, increases, decreases then increases
3. By changing the Angle of Attack of a wing, the pilot can control the aeroplane's:
a. lift and airspeed, but not drag
b. lift, gross weight and drag
c. lift, airspeed and drag
d. lift and drag, but not airspeed
4. That portion of the aircraft's total drag created by the production of lift is called:
a. parasite drag, which is greatly affected by changes in airspeed
b. induced drag, which is not affected by changes in airspeed
c. induced drag, which is greatly affected by changes in airspeed
d. parasite drag, which is inversely proportional to the square of the airspeed
5. If the Indicated Air Speed of an aircraft is increased from 50 kt to 100 kt, parasite drag will be:
a. four times greater
b. six times greater
c. two times greater
d. one quarter as much
6. Resistance, or skin friction, due to the viscosity of the air as it passes along the surface of a wing, is a type
of:
a. induced drag
b. form drag
c. parasite drag
d. interference drag
7. How do Lift and Parasite Drag vary with airspeed?

a. lift and Parasite Drag both decrease as the square of the airspeed
b. lift decreases as the square of the airspeed while Parasite Drag increases as the square of the airspeed
c. lift increases as the square of the airspeed while Parasite Drag decreases as the square of the airspeed
d. lift and Parasite Drag both increase as the square of the airspeed
8. Parasite drag varies with:

a. the square of the airspeed
b. C LMAX
c. the airspeed
d. the weight of the aircraft, only
9. Choose one of the four options below to make an accurate statement. As airspeed increases:
a. induced drag increases
b. induced drag is unaffected
c. form drag decreases
d. induced drag decreases
10. Which of the following is the cause of wing tip vortices?

a. air spilling from the top surface to the bottom surface at the wing tip
b. air spilling from the bottom surface to the top surface at the wing tip
c. the increased form drag at the wing tip
d. the increased parasite drag at the wing tip
11. Wing tip vortices are caused by unequal pressure distribution on the wing which results in airflow from:
a. bottom to top round the trailing edge
b. top to bottom round the trailing edge
c. bottom to top round the wingtip
d. top to bottom round the wingtip
12. Which of the following is the correct formula for drag?

a. 1/2 pV2 C L S
b. 1/2 prV (C D )2 S
c. 1/2 p2V C D S
d. C D 1/2 pV2 S
13. Choose the option below which best describes aircraft drag considerations as True Air Speed increases:
a. parasite drag decreases and induced drag increases
b. parasite drag increases and induced drag increases
c parasite drag decreases and induced drag decreases
d. parasite drag increases and induced drag decreases
14. An aircraft carries out a given journey, on two separate days. On both days, the pilot flies at an indicated
airspeed of 120 knots. On the first day, the air density is greater than on the subsequent day. How will the forces
of Lift and Drag acting on the aircraft compare on the two days?
a. on the first day the Lift will be greater and Drag will be less than on the subsequent day
b. the forces of Lift and Drag acting on the aircraft will remain unchanged
c. on the first day the Lift will be less and Drag will be greater than on the subsequent day
d. on the first day both Lift and Drag will be less than on the subsequent day
6 - LIFT DRAG RATIO

1. In straight and level flight which of the following is correct? (L/D = Lift/Drag ratio)
a. L/D is maximum at the speed for minimum total drag
b. L/D decreases with increasing lift
c. L/D is maximum when lift equals weight
d. L/D is maximum when lift equals zero
2. If, in level flight, the airspeed decreases below that for maximum Lift / Drag, the effect will be that:
a. drag decreases because of lower induced drag
b. drag increases because of increased induced drag
c. drag increases because of increased parasite drag
d. drag decreases because of lower parasite drag
3. How does an aircraft's all-up weight affect its best power-off glide angle, in still air?
a. The best glide angle will be shallower
b. The best glide angle will be steeper
c. The best glide angle will not be affected
d. It is advisable not to carry out a power-off glide at maximum all-up weight
4. An aircraft's glide angle is solely a function of:

a. Its lift/drag ratio
b. Its all-up weight
c. The aircraft's state of trim.
d. The position of the C of G
5. Which of the following light aircraft performance criteria are achieved at L/D MAX ?
a. Endurance will be at a maximum
b. Angle of climb will be at a maximum
c. Service ceiling will be highest
d. Best rate of climb and maximum cruising range will be achieved
7 - WEIGHT
1. Choose the correct statement option below:

a. Weight and mass are conceptually the same.
b. Weight and mass are both forces.
c. Weight and mass are two different concepts; weight is a force and mass is a quantity of matter.
d. The weight and mass of a given body will be equal only in deep space.
2. Choose the correct statement option below.

a. The scientific unit of mass is the Newton.
b. The scientific unit of force is the kilogram.
c. The scientific unit of force is the metre per second2
d. The scientific unit of mass is the kilogram.
3. The weight of an aircraft is:

a. The force acting on the aircraft's mass and directed towards the centre of the Earth.
b. The same as the aircraft's mass.
c. The mass of the aircraft when the aircraft is assumed to have zero weight.
d. The force acting on the aircraft to accelerate it in the horizontal plane.
4. Choose the correct statement option below.

a. A body always possesses the same mass and weight whatever the strength of the gravitational field.
b. The mass of a body is dependent on the strength of the gravitational field in which the body is situated.
c. A body always possesses the same mass but in zero gravity will have no weight.
d. The weight of a body is independent of the strength of the gravitational field in which the body is situated.
5. Choose the correct equation below.

a weight (Newtons) = mass (kg) * linear acceleration (m/s2)
b weight (Newtons) = mass(kg) * acceleration due to gravity (m/s2)
c. weight (kg) = force (Newtons) * acceleration (m/s2)
d. weight (Newtons) = mass (kg)
6. On Earth:
a. weight (Newtons) = mass(kg) * linear acceleration (m/s2)
b weight (Newtons) = mass (kg) * 32 m/s2
c. weight (Newtons) = mass (kg) * 9.81 m/s2
d. weight (Newtons) = mass (kg) * m/s
7. On the moon:
a. the weight of a body will be approximately 1/6 of its weight on the Earth.
b. the weight of a body will be approximately 6 times its weight on the Earth.
c. the weight of a body will be the same as its weight on the Earth.
d. the mass of a body will be approximately 1/6 of its mass on the Earth.
8. When considering the linear acceleration of a body under the action of a given force:
a. It is the body's weight that will determine the magnitude of the acceleration.
b. Neither the body's mass nor its weight affects the magnitude of the acceleration.
c. It is the body's mass that will determine the magnitude of the acceleration.
d. A force cannot cause a linear acceleration
9. When considering lifting a body in a gravitational field:

a. It is the body's mass which is crucial to the consideration.
b. Neither a body's mass nor its weight affects the consideration.
c. A body of finite weight cannot be lifted in a gravitational field
d. It is the body's weight which is crucial to the consideration.
10. Despite the difference in concepts between weight and mass, weight may be expressed in kilograms on
Earth because:
a. In a constant gravitational field mass is always equal to weight.
b. Given that the acceleration due to gravity is constant at 9.81 m/s2, mass is directly proportional to weight,
and, therefore, weighing devices may be calibrated to read mass in kilograms.
c. In a constant gravitational field there is no difference between mass and weight.
d. In a constant gravitational field mass and weight have no meaning.
8 - PROPELLER THRUST
1. A propeller blade is twisted along its length in order to:

a. give a progressively increasing blade angle from root to tip
b. give a progressively increasing angle of attack from root to tip when the propeller is rotating
c. compensate for the decreasing linear speed of the blade from root to tip
d. maintain the most efficient angle of attack along the whole length of the propeller blade when the propeller is
rotating
2. Blade angle … from the hub to the tip of a propeller blade in order to maintain an optimal … from hub to tip
during propeller rotation.
a. increases, angle of attack
b. decreases, geometric pitch
c. increases, effective pitch
d. decreases, angle of attack
3. As an aircraft with a variable-pitch, constant-speed propeller accelerates along the runway:

a. the angle of attack will decrease and the engine RPM remain constant
b. the blade pitch angle increases, maintaining a constant angle of attack and constant RPM
c. the angle of attack will remain constant and the engine RPM will increase
d. the linear velocity of the propeller tip will gradually decrease
4. In a dive, with the throttle setting constant, the engine RPM of an aircraft fitted with a fixed-pitch propeller will:
a. decrease as the airspeed increases
b. remain constant whatever the airspeed
c. increase if the airspeed is allowed to increase
d. decrease as long as the throttle setting is not changed
5. In a single-engine, propeller-driven aircraft, the torque reaction of a clockwise rotating propeller (as seen from
the pilot's seat) will tend to cause:
a. left roll and right yaw during take off
b. left roll and left yaw during take off
c right roll and right yaw during take off
d. left yaw and right roll during take off
6. Which of the following combinations will decrease the angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller blade?
7. Which of the following combinations will increase the angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller blade?
8. The advantage of a constant speed propeller over a fixed pitch propeller is that:
a. a greater maximum thrust is available
b. a higher maximum efficiency is attained
c. more blade surface area is made available
d. optimal efficiency is achieved over a wide speed range
9. The angle of attack of a fixed, coarse-pitch propeller on a touring light aircraft:

a. will be lower during the take-off run than in flight
b. will be optimal in all flight conditions
c. will be most efficient at the cruising speeds published in the pilot's operating manual
d. will decrease with decreasing airspeed at constant engine RPM
10. A propeller blade is twisted from root to tip:

a. to provide maximum thrust at the root
b. to provide maximum thrust at the tip
c. so that propeller efficiency remains high, at any engine RPM
d. so that thrust remains approximately constant along the whole length of the propeller blade, at any engine
RPM
11. The angle of attack of a fixed-pitch propeller designed for cruising flight is:
a. optimal for steady cruising flight only
b. increases with an increase in TAS
c. decreases with an increase in RPM
d. will always be positive in a power off glide
12. Propeller-blade angle of attack is the angle between the blade chord-line and the:
a. plane of rotation of the propeller
b. aeroplane's gradient of climb
c. the airflow relative to the propeller
d. helix angle
13. What is the purpose of increasing the number of propeller blades?

a. To reduce noise
b. To improve power absorption
c. To increase the efficiency of the variable pitch mechanism
d. To enable a longer undercarriage to be fitted
14. What would be the gyroscopic effect of a clockwise rotating propeller (viewed from the pilot's seat) on a
single-engine, tail-wheel aircraft as it raises its tail during the take off run?
a. The aircraft would yaw to the right
b. The aircraft would yaw to the left
c. The aircraft would roll to the right
d. The aircraft would roll to the left
15. During the take-off roll, what effect does torque have on an aircraft with an anti-clockwise rotating propeller,
as seen from the pilot's seat?
a. Weight on left wheel decreased, weight on right wheel increased
b. Weight on left wheel increased, weight on right wheel remains constant
c. Weight on left wheel increased, weight on right wheel decreased
d. Weight on right wheel increased, weight on left wheel remains constant
16. Which of the following definitions of propeller parameters is correct?

a. Blade Angle is the angle between chord line and the relative airflow
b. Critical tip speed is the propeller speed at which there is a risk of the flow separating at some part of the
propeller
c. Blade angle of attack is the angle between the blade chord line and propeller's plane of rotation
d. Geometric pitch is the theoretical distance that the propeller travels forward in one rotation
17. Which of the following gives the most correct explanation of why a propeller's blade angle decreases from
root to tip?
a. To compensate for the change in blade cross section from root to tip
b. To provide increased thrust at the root
c. To provide increased thrust at the tip
d. To compensate for the increase in rotational velocity from root to tip.
18. On take-off, why is it that a tail-wheel aircraft displays a greater tendency to swing than a nose-wheel
aircraft?
a. Because the propeller of a tail-wheel aircraft always rotates anticlockwise
b. Because torque effect in a tail-wheel aircraft counters slipstream
c. Because the tail-wheel aircraft is subject to asymmetric blade effect and gyroscopic effect, in addition to
slipstream and torque effect
d. Because the nose-wheel aircraft is not subject to torque effect and slipstream effect
19. When power is applied, why do aircraft in straight and level flight show a tendency to yaw?
a. Because of the gyroscopic effect of the propeller
b. Because of the slipstream effect and torque effect of the propeller
c. Because most aircraft are fitted with an off-set fin
d. Because the pilot always applies rudder when increasing power
20. On an aircraft fitted with a fixed pitch propeller, why does a change in airspeed always cause a
corresponding change in engine RPM, even though the pilot may not move the throttle lever?
a. Because a change in airspeed causes a change in inlet manifold pressure which affects engine power output
b. Because an increase in airspeed causes a decrease in propeller angle of attack, thus reducing propeller
torque, while a decrease in airspeed has the opposite effect
c. Because of the asymmetric blade effect
d. Because of the slipstream effect
21. Choose the most correct answer from the options below. As a coarse blade pitch is efficient at cruising
speeds, why should a pilot ever choose to select fine pitch?
a. In order to minimise fuel consumption
b. Because of noise limitations on climbing away from the airfield over built up areas
c. In order to increase engine RPM to the most fuel efficient level
d. In order to optimise the aircraft's performance on take-off
22 Which of the answers below is the most correct? What performance advantages does an aircraft possess if it
is fitted with a fine pitch propeller?
a. It will produce maximum thrust at higher cruising speeds
b. Its engine will be less likely to overheat in a climb, at high RPM and
c. The propeller will give optimal thrust for the take-off and initial climb
d. I will be able to fly at high speeds without exceeding the maximum permissible engine RPM
23. What are the advantages of a constant-speed propeller?

a. Cruise performance will be improved
b. Take off performance will be improved
c. The engine can never over-speed whatever the circumstances
d. It provides an efficient blade angle of attack over a wide range of airspeeds
24. What type of aircraft would most-likely be fitted with a fine, fixed-pitch propeller?
a. A touring aircraft
b. A glider tug
c. A high-performance, military, turbo-prop training aircraft
d. A turbo-prop passenger aircraft
9 - THE FOUR FORCES INCLUDING TURNING FLIGHT
1. If the throttle is moved to adjust the power in level flight, the resulting change in propeller slipstream will
primarily affect:
a. the aircraft’s trim in the pitching and yawing planes
b. the aircraft’s trim in the rolling plane
c. the longitudinal stability
d. the lateral stability
2. Which of the four options below most accurately describes the relationship between the forces acting on an
aircraft in flight for those forces to be in equilibrium?
a. Lift equals drag, and thrust equals weight
b. Lift equals weight, and thrust equals drag
c. Lift equals thrust plus drag
d. Lift equals thrust, and weight equals drag
3. An aircraft has a nose down pitching moment due to the lift / weight couple and a nose up pitching moment
due to the thrust / drag couple. When power is increased:
a. it will pitch nose up
b. it will pitch nose down
c. the couples both increase in magnitude but remain balanced
d. the couples both decrease in magnitude but remain balanced
4. In straight and level powered flight the following principal forces act on an aircraft:
a. thrust, lift, weight
b. thrust, lift, drag, weight
c. thrust, lift, drag
d. lift, drag, weight
5. Considering the forces acting upon an aeroplane, at constant airspeed, which statement is correct?
a. Weight always acts vertically downwards towards the centre of the
b. Lift acts perpendicular to the chord line and must always be greater
c Thrust acts parallel to the relative airflow and Is always greater than
d. The lift force generated by the wings always acts in the opposite direction to the aircraft's weight
6. The tailplane or horizontal stabilizer usually provides a downwards load in level flight because:
a the main-plane lift is always positive
b. the lift/weight and thrust/drag couples combine to give a nose down pitch
c. the lift produced is greater than required at high speed
d. this configuration gives less interference
7. Scientifically speaking, an aircraft's mass is a measure of:

a. its weight
b. how big it is
c. how much matter it contains
d. its volume
8. An aircraft rotates about:

a. its wings
b. its centre of gravity
c. its main undercarriage
d. its rudder
9. In a steady gliding descent, assuming zero thrust from the propeller, the three forces acting on the aeroplane
are weight, lift and drag. These three forces are in equilibrium, but:
a. weight and lift are the same
b. weight is greater than lift
c. weight is less than lift
d. weight and drag are the same
10. If an aircraft increases speed while maintaining a constant angle of attack with its wings:
a. the lift generated by its wings will remain constant but total drag will increase
b. the lift generated by its wings will decrease and total drag will increase
c. the lift generated by its wings will increase but total drag will remain constant
d. both the lift generated by its wings and total drag will increase
11. Complete the following sentence to make the most correct statement. In a steady, unaccelerated climb, the
four forces acting on the aeroplane (weight, lift, thrust and drag) are in equilibrium, but:
a. lift is greater than weight
b. lift is equal to weight
c. thrust is equal to aerodynamic drag
d. lift is less than weight
12. In this diagram, representing an aircraft in a banked attitude during turning flight which vector represents total
lift?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. W
13. Most light aircraft are designed so that, in flight, the centre of pressure is behind w the centre of gravity. This
means that in order to maintain straight and level flight:
a. the tailplane must produce a downwards force
b. the tailplane must produce an upwards force
c. the tailplane does not need to provide an upwards or a downwards force; it is only used to manoeuvre the
aircraft
d. the tailplane does not need to produce an upwards or downwards force, the thrust/drag couple balances the
forces
14. If the turn coordinator is indicating Rate 1, the aircraft is changing heading at:
a. 3° per second
b. 6° per second
c. 360° per minute
d. 90° per minute
15. An aircraft performs a steady level turn at 30° Angle of Bank at 80 knots IAS. If the level turn is maintained at
the same IAS, but the Angle of Bank is increased to 45°, what will be the effect on the radius and rate of the turn?
a. The radius and rate of the turn will be increased
b. The radius of the turn will remain unchanged
c. The radius of the turn will be smaller, and the rate of the turn will increase
d. For a given radius of turn, the aircraft can have only one airspeed
16. An aircraft's rate of turn is dependent on:

a. the angle of bank and power available
b. the angle of bank and thrust available
c the true airspeed and angle of bank
d. the indicated airspeed and the angle of attack
10 - LIFT AUGMENTATION
1. The leading-edge slot allows flight at higher angles of attack:

a. providing an extra lifting surface and hence increase the lift available
b. changing the shape and hence the lift characteristics of the wing
c. re-energising the airflow over the top of the wing, and delaying separation of the boundary layer
d. decreasing lift and hence induced drag
2. The maximum gliding distance from 6000 feet, in still air, for an aircraft in clean configuration, with a lift/drag
ratio of 8:1, is approximately 8 nautical miles. If flaps are deployed:
a. the maximum gliding distance will increase
b. the maximum gliding distance will be less
c. Lift / Drag ratio will be unaffected but will be achieved at a lower airspeed
d. the maximum gliding distance will be unaffected
3. The maximum speed at which the aircraft can be flown with flaps extended is called:
a. VYSE
b VFE
c. VNE
d. VNO
4. In which of the following approach scenarios would you normally select full flap?
a. When commencing the final approach
b. On going around
c. When landing into a strong headwind
d. In the latter stages of the approach, when satisfied that you can safely touch down in the designated landing
area
5. Which of the following four options describes the consequence of taking off with the manufacturer's
recommended take off flap setting selected?
a. An increase in the length of the take off run compared to a non-flap take off
b. A decrease in the length of the take off run compared to a non-flap take off
c. A greater angle of climb
d. Easier avoidance of obstacles at the end of a runway
g With the flaps lowered, the stalling speed will:

a. increase
b. decrease
c. increase, but occur at a higher angle of attack
d. remain the same
7. When flaps are lowered the stalling angle of attack of the wing:
a. remains the same, but CLmax increases
b. increases and C[_max increases
c. decreases, but Clmax increases
d. decreases, but Clmax remains the same
8. A pilot lowers the flaps while keeping the airspeed constant. In order to maintain level flight, the nose of the
aircraft:
a. must be lowered
b. must be raised
c. must be held at the same attitude but power must be increased
d. must be held at the same attitude and power required will be constant
9. If a landing is to be made without flaps the landing speed will be:

a. reduced
b. increased
c. the same as for a landing with flaps
d. the same as for a landing with flaps but with a steeper approach
10. Lowering the flaps during a landing approach:

a. permits approaches at a higher indicated airspeed
b. decreases the angle of descent without increasing power
c. eliminates floating
d. increases the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed
11 - STABILITY
1. With a forward Centre of Gravity, an aircraft will have:

a. reduced longitudinal stability
b. lighter forces for control movements
c. decreased elevator effectiveness when flaring
d. shorter take off distances
2. An aft Centre of Gravity will give:

a. increased longitudinal stability
b. heavy forces for control movements
c. increased elevator effectiveness when flaring
d. longer take off distances
3. An aircraft is disturbed from its flight path by a gust of wind. If, over a short period of time, it tends to return to
its original attitude without pilot intervention, the aircraft is said to possess:
a. instability
b. negative dynamic stability
c. neutral dynamic stability
d. positive dynamic stability
4. An aircraft is disturbed from its flight path by a gust of wind. The aircraft is neutrally stable if, with no
intervention from the pilot, it tends to:
a. return to its original attitude without further deviation from its original attitude
b. return to its original attitude following further deviation from its original attitude
c. maintain the new attitude
d. continue to deviate from its original attitude
5. Complete the following sentence in order to give the most satisfactory definition of stability. An aeroplane
which is inherently stable will:
a. require less effort to control
b. be difficult to stall
c. not spin
d. have a built-in tendency to return to its original state following the removal of any disturbing force
6. After a disturbance in pitch, an aircraft oscillates in pitch with increasing amplitude. It is:
a. statically and dynamically unstable
b. statically stable but dynamically unstable
c. statically unstable but dynamically stable
d. statically and dynamically stable
7. Longitudinal stability is provided by:
a. the fin
b. the wing dihedral
c. the tailplane
d. the ailerons
8. An aircraft wing is constructed with dihedral in order to give:

a. lateral stability about the longitudinal axis
b. longitudinal stability about the lateral axis
c. lateral stability about the normal axis
d. directional stability about the normal axis
9. If the wing Centre of Pressure is forward of the C of G:

a. changes in lift produce a wing pitching moment which acts to reduce the change of lift
b. changes in lift produce a wing pitching moment which acts to increase the change of lift
c. changes in lift give no change in wing pitching moment
d. when the aircraft sideslips, the C of G causes the nose to turn into the sideslip thus applying a restoring
moment
10. When the C of G is close to the forward limit:

a. small movements are required on the control column to manoeuvre the aircraft in pitch
b. longitudinal stability is reduced
c. larger control movements are required to manoeuvre the aircraft in pitch because the aircraft is very stable
d. control movements are the same as required for an aft C of G
11. If a disturbing force causes an aircraft to roll and slip towards its lower wing:
a. wing dihedral will cause a rolling moment which tends to correct the sideslip
b. the fin will cause a yawing moment which reduces the sideslip
c. wing dihedral will cause a yawing moment which tends to correct the sideslip
d. wing dihedral will cause a nose up pitching moment
12. Wing dihedral produces a stabilising rolling moment by causing an increase in lift:
a. on the up-going wing when the aircraft rolls
b. on the up-going wing when the aircraft is sideslipping
c. on the lower wing when the aircraft is sideslipping
d. on the lower wing whenever the aircraft is in a banked attitude
13. A high wing configuration with no dihedral, compared to a low wing configuration with no dihedral, will have:
a. greater longitudinal stability
b. the same degree of longitudinal stability as any other configuration because dihedral gives longitudinal
stability
c. less lateral stability
d. greater lateral stability
14. If an aircraft with strong lateral stability and weak directional stability suffers a lateral disturbance and enters
a sideslip, the aircraft will:
a. go into a spiral dive
b. develop simultaneous oscillations in roll and yaw, known as Dutch Roll
c. develop oscillations in pitch
d. develop an unchecked roll
15. A wing whose angle of incidence decreases from root to tip is said to have:
a. washout
b. taper
c. sweep
d. anhedral
16. The lateral axis of an aircraft is a line which:

a. passes through the wing tips
b. passes through the Centre of Pressure, at right angles to the direction of the airflow
c. passes through the quarter-chord point of the wing root, at right angles to the longitudinal axis
d. passes through the Centre of Gravity, parallel to a line through the wing tips
17. Loading an aircraft so that the C of G exceeds the aft limits could result in:
a. loss of longitudinal stability
b. excessive upward force on the tail, and the nose pitching down
c. excessive load factor in turns
d. high stick forces
18. Stability about the normal axis:

a. is increased if the keel surface behind the C of G is increased
b. is given by the lateral dihedral
c. depends on the longitudinal dihedral
d. is greater if the wing has no sweepback
19. If the Centre of Gravity (C of G) of an aircraft is found to be within limits for take-off
a. the C of G will always be within limits for landing
b. the C of G limits for landing must be checked, allowing for planned fuel consumption
c. the C of G will not change during the flight
d. the flight crew will always be certain of being able to adjust the C of G during flight in order to keep it within
acceptable limits for landing
20. An aeroplane is in straight and level flight and a gust causes one wing to drop. If the aeroplane tends to return
towards wings level without any intervention from the pilot:
a. the aircraft has neutral stability
b. the aircraft is stable
c. the aircraft is unstable
d. the aircraft cannot return to wings level unless the pilot intervenes
21. The surface that gives an aircraft directional stability is:

a. the rudder
b. tailplane
c. the rudder trim tab
d. the fin
22. Movement of the aircraft about its normal (vertical) axis is known as:
a. yawing
b. rolling
c. pitching
d. side slipping
23. When an aircraft is disturbed from its established flight path by, for example, turbulence, it is said to have
positive stability if it subsequently tends to:
a. remain on the new flight path
b. re-establish its original attitude without any input from the pilot
c. become further displaced from its original attitude
d. continue to pitch in the disturbed direction until the displacement is resisted by opposing control forces
24. When an aircraft is disturbed from its trimmed attitude by, for example, turbulence, it is said to have neutral
stability if it subsequently:
a. oscillates about its original attitude before settling back to that original attitude
b. immediately re-establishes its original attitude
c. remains in the new attitude
d. continues to move in the disturbed direction until the displacement is resisted by opposing control forces
25. By design, the Centre of Pressure on a particular aircraft remains behind the aircraft's C of G. If the aircraft is
longitudinally stable and is displaced in pitch, nose down, by turbulence:
a. the tailplane will generate an increased upward force
b. neither an upward nor a downward force will be generated by the tailplane, as the aircraft will already be in
equilibrium
c. the aircraft will maintain its nose-down attitude
d. the tailplane will generate an increased downward force
26. The tendency of an aircraft to develop forces which restore it to its original flight situation, when disturbed
from a condition of steady flight, is known as:
a. manoeuvrability
b. controllability
c. stability
d. instability
27. An aircraft has directional static stability. If it sideslips to the right:

a. the aircraft will initially tend to roll to the left
b. the aircraft will initially tend to yaw to the left
c. the aircraft will initially tend to yaw to the right
d. the nose will remain pointing forward
28. Which of the following components provides longitudinal stability?

a. Engines
b. Wing
c. Fuselage
d. Horizontal stabiliser (tailplane)
29. To improve lateral stability certain features may be built into an aircraft. Which of the following lists of
features would best contribute to an aircraft's overall lateral stability?
a. High wing, dihedral, high keel surface, sweep back
b. Dihedral, high keel surface, Frise ailerons
c. Wash-out, dihedral, Frise ailerons
d. Slats, dihedral, Fowler flaps
12 - FLIGHT CONTROLS AND TRIMMING
1. Which of the following provides aerodynamic balance?

a. A weight on an arm which protrudes forward of it
b. An area of control surface forward of its hinge line
c. A fixed trim tab
d. A simple, adjustable trim tab
2. Which flying control surface(s) give(s) control about the aircraft's normal axis?
a. The rudder
b. The ailerons
c. The elevator
d. The flaps
3. A control surface may have a mass balance fitted to it, in order to:
a. help prevent a rapid and uncontrolled oscillation which is called "flutter"
b. keep the control surface level
c. lighten the forces needed to control the surface
d. provide the pilot with "feel"
4. On an aircraft fitted with a stabilator incorporating an anti-balance tab, pulling back on the control column will
cause the:
a. stabilator to move up and the tab to move up
b. stabilator to move down and the tab to move down
c. stabilator to move down and the tab to move up
d. stabilator to move up and the tab to move down
5. The respective primary and secondary effects of the rudder control are:
a. yaw and pitch
b. pitch and yaw
c. roll and yaw
d. yaw and roll
6. Fixed trim tabs on ailerons:

a. can be adjusted during flight
b. should never be adjusted
c. can be adjusted on the ground after a test flight to make wings-level flight easier
d. can be adjusted on the ground after a test flight to make turning easier
7. The respective primary and secondary effects of the aileron control are:
a. roll and pitch
b. pitch and yaw
c. roll and yaw
d. yaw and roll
8. On an aircraft with a simple trim tab incorporated into a control surface, when the control surface is moved,
the tab remains in the same position relative to the:
a. relative airflow
b. control surface
c. boundary layer airflow
d. aircraft horizontal plane
9. The primary and secondary effects of applying the left rudder alone are:
a. left yaw and left roll
b. left yaw and right roll
c. right yaw and left roll
d. right yaw and right roll
10. Which flying control surface(s) give(s) longitudinal control?

a. The rudder
b. The ailerons
c. The elevator
d. The flaps
11. Ailerons give:

a. lateral control about the lateral axis
b. longitudinal control about the lateral axis
c. directional control about the normal axis
d. lateral control about the longitudinal axis
12. Yawing is a rotation about:

a. the normal axis controlled by the rudder
b. the lateral axis controlled by the rudder
c. the longitudinal axis controlled by the ailerons
d. the normal axis controlled by the elevator
13. If the control column is moved forward and to the left:

a. the left aileron moves up, right aileron moves down, elevator moves up
b. the left aileron moves down, right aileron moves up, elevator moves down
c. the left aileron moves up, right aileron moves down, elevator moves down
d. the left aileron moves down, right aileron moves up, elevator moves up
14. The purpose of differential ailerons is to:

a. increase the yawing moment which opposes a turn
b. reduce the adverse yawing moment when making a turn
c. induce a pitching moment to prevent the nose from dropping in the turn
d. improve the rate of roll
15. When displacing the ailerons from the neutral position:

a. the up-going aileron causes an increase in induced drag
b. induced drag remains the same, the up-going aileron causes a smaller increase in profile drag than the
down-going aileron
c. both cause an increase in induced drag
d. the down-going aileron causes an increase in induced drag
16. The purpose of aerodynamic balance on a flying control surface is:

a. to bring the aircraft into balance
b. to prevent flutter of the flying control surface
c. to reduce the control load to zero
d. to make it easier for the pilot to move the control surface in flight
17. An aileron could be balanced aerodynamically by:

a. making the up aileron move through a larger angle than the down aileron
b. attaching a weight to the control surface forward of the hinge
c. having the hinge set back behind the leading edge of the aileron
d. having springs in the control circuit to assist movement
18. A control surface may be mass balanced by:

a. fitting a balance tab
b. attaching a weight acting forward of the hinge line
c. fitting an anti-balance tab
d. attaching a weight acting aft of the hinge line
19. If the control column is moved to the right, a balance tab on the left aileron should
a. move up relative to the aileron
b. move down relative to the aileron
c. not move unless the aileron trim wheel is turned
d. move to the neutral position
20. The purpose of an anti-balance tab is to:

a. trim the aircraft
b. reduce the load required to move the controls at all speeds
c. reduce the load required to move the controls at high speeds only
d. ensure that the pilot's physical control load increases with increase of control surface deflection
21. When the control column is pushed forward, a balance tab on the elevator:
a. will move up relative to the control surface
b. will move down relative to the control surface
c. will only move if the trim wheel is operated
d. moves to the neutral position
22. A fixed trim tab on an aileron should:

a. be adjusted on the ground after a test flight to achieve laterally level flight
b. not be adjusted once it has been set by the manufacturer
c. be adjusted on the ground after a test flight to achieve longitudinally level flight
d. be adjusted from the cockpit to achieve laterally level flight
23. The purpose of a spring-bias trim system is:

a. to maintain a constant tension in the trim tab system
b. to increase the feel in the control system
c. to reduce to zero the effort required by the pilot to counter stick forceafter making a control movement
d. to compensate for temperature changes in cable tension
24. The purpose of a trim tab is:

c to provide feel to the controls at high speed
d. to increase the effectiveness of the controls
25. To trim an aircraft which tends to fly nose heavy with hands off, the top of the elevator trim wheel should be:
a. moved forward to alleviate the back-pressure needed to hold the attitude, and this would cause the elevator
trim tab to move down
b. moved backwards to alleviate the back-pressure needed to hold the attitude, and this would cause the
elevator trim tab to move down
c. moved backwards to alleviate the back-pressure needed to hold the attitude, and this would cause the
elevator trim tab to move up
d. moved backwards to alleviate the back-pressure needed to hold the attitude, and this would cause the
elevator trim tab to move up
26. Compared with an aircraft with a central or aft C of G, following re-trimming for straight and level flight, in an
aircraft with a C of G near its forward limit, and an elevator fitted with a conventional trim-tab:
a. nose-up pitch authority will be reduced
b. nose-down pitch authority will be reduced
c. longitudinal stability will be reduced
d. tailplane down-load will be reduced
27. An aircraft's rudder is fitted with a balance tab. Movement of the rudder bar to the right, to yaw the aircraft to
the right, will:
a. move the rudder to the left; the balance tab will move to the left
b. move the rudder to the right; the balance tab will move to the right
c. move the rudder to the left; the balance tab will move to the right
d. move the rudder to the right; the balance tab will move to the left.
28. Adverse yaw is partially counteracted by:

a. Fowler flaps
b. a fixed aileron trim tab
c. aileron anti-balance tabs
d. differential ailerons
29. 'Differential Ailerons' are a design feature that helps to counteract:

a. stability about the longitudinal axis
b. adverse yaw
c. positive aircraft stability
d. adverse roll
30. Controls are mass balanced in order to:

a. eliminate control flutter
b. aerodynamically assist the pilot in moving the controls
c. provide equal control forces on all three controls
d. return the control surface to neutral when the controls are released
31. Where are mass balance weights located relative to a control surface hinge line?
a. Always on the hinge line, irrespective of the type of aerodynamic balance
b. On the hinge line if the control surface does not have an inset hinge
c. On the hinge line if the control surface has an inset hinge
d. In front of the hinge line
32. Roll is:

a. a result of aileron deflection and is motion about the lateral axis
b. rotation about the normal axis
c. a pitching movement about the lateral axis
d. rotation about the longitudinal axis
33. If mass balance is used to eliminate flutter, it should be attached to a control surface:
a. on the hinge
b. behind the hinge
c. above the hinge
d. in front of the hinge
34. If the pilot moves the cockpit trim lever or wheel such that the trim tab on the elevator moves up relative to
the control surface, how has the aircraft's trim been altered?
a. It has not been altered
b. More nose up
c. More nose down
d. More nose left
13 - THE STALL AND SPIN
1. An aeroplane will stall at the same:

a. angle of attack and attitude with relation to the horizon
b. airspeed regardless of the attitude with relation to the horizon
c. angle of attack regardless of the attitude with relation to the horizon
d. indicated airspeed regardless of altitude, bank angle and load factor
2. A typical stalling angle of attack for a wing without sweepback is:

a. 4°
b. 16°
c. 30°
d. 45°
3. If the aircraft weight is increased, the stalling angle of attack will:

a. remain the same
b. decrease
c. increase
d. the position of the C of G does not affect the stall speed
4. If the angle of attack is increased above the stalling angle:

a. lift and drag will both decrease
b. lift will decrease and drag will increase
c. lift will increase and drag will decrease
d. lift and drag will both increase
5. The angle of attack at which an aeroplane stalls:

a. will occur at smaller angles of attack flying downwind than when flying upwind
b. is dependent upon the speed of the airflow over the wing
c. is a function of speed and density altitude
d. will remain constant regardless of gross weight
6. In a steady, level turn, at 60° angle of bank, the stalling speed of an aircraft which has a straight flight stalling
speed of 60 knots IAS, would be:
a. 43 kt
b. 60 kt
c. 84 kt
d. 120 kt
7. The stalling speed of an aircraft in a steady turn would be:

a. the same as in level flight
b. lower than in level flight
c. higher than in level flight, and a lower angle of attack
d. higher than in level flight and at the same angle of attack
8. A wing with washout would have:

a. the tip chord less than the root chord
b. the tip angle of incidence less than the root angle of incidence
c. the tip angle of incidence greater than the root angle of incidence
d. the tip camber less than the root camber
9. If aircraft weight is increased, stalling speed will:
a. remain the same
b. decrease
c. increase
d. weight does not affect the stalling speed
10. Stalling may be delayed until a higher angle of attack is reached by:
a. increasing the adverse pressure gradient
b. increasing the surface roughness of the wing top surface
c. distortion of the leading edge by ice build-up
d. increasing the kinetic energy of the boundary layer
11. Slots increase the stalling angle of attack by:

a. Increasing leading edge camber
b. Retarding the onset of turbulence and delaying separation of the boundary layer
c. Reducing the effective angle of attack
d. Reducing span-wise flow
12. An aeroplane wing stalls when:

a. The indicated airspeed is too low
b. The critical angle of attack is exceeded
c. The laminar airflow becomes turbulent
d. It is subjected to unusually high 'G' forces
13. The stalling speed of an aircraft is a function of the:

a. Inverse of the Load Factor
b. Indicated airspeed
c. Square of the weight
d. Square root of the Load Factor
14 If the Angle of Attack is increased beyond the Critical Angle of Attack, the wing will no longer produce
sufficient lift to support the weight of the aircraft:
a. Unless the airspeed is greater than the normal stall speed
b. Regardless of airspeed or pitch attitude
c. Unless the pitch attitude is on or below the natural horizon
d. In which case, the control column should be pulled-back immediately
15. With the flaps lowered, the stalling speed will:

a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Increase, but occur at a higher angle of attack
d. Remain the same
16. The reason for washout being designed into an aircraft wing is to:-
a. Increase the effectiveness of the flaps
b. Cause the outboard section of the wing to stall first
c. Decrease the effectiveness of the ailerons
d. Cause the inboard section of the wing to stall first
17. When the aircraft is in a spin, the direction of spin is most reliably found by reference to which of the following
indications?
a. Artificial horizon
b. Slip indicator
c. Direction indicator
d. Turn needle
18. At the stall, the Centre of Pressure moving backwards will cause the nose to, and the decreased lift will
cause the aircraft to
a. Yaw, reduce speed
b. Drop, lose height
c. Rise, sink
d. Drop, reduce speed
19. When flaps are lowered the stalling angle of attack of the wing:
a. Remains the same, but CLMAX increases
b. Increases and CLMAX increases
c. Decreases, but CLMAX increases
d. Decreases, but CLMAX remains the same
20. On a given type of aircraft, the C of G moves forward as fuel is used; therefore:
a. The stalling speed will increase
b. The stalling speed will decrease
c. The stalling speed will remain exactly the same
d. Any of the above could be true
21. If a wing drops at the stall:

a. The downgoing wing becomes more stalled while the upgoing wing becomes less stalled
b. The wings should be immediately levelled by use of aileron
c. The secondary effect of yaw should be utilised
d. The upgoing wing becomes more stalled than the downgoing wing
22. Following a stall from straight flight, which of the symptoms below best describes the fully developed stall?
a. The airspeed begins to decrease
b. The nose pitches down and the aircraft loses height
c. The nose pitches up and the aircraft controls become sloppy
d. A wing tends to drop
23. When is the coefficient of lift at a maximum?

a. At or just before the stall
b. With the elevator fully deflected upwards
c. When the lift/drag ratio is at its most favourable
d. At about 4° angle of attack
14 - FLIGHT AND GROUND LIMITATIONS
1. If an aircraft is flown at its design manoeuvring speed VA:

a. it is possible to subject the aircraft to a load greater than its limit load during high 'g' manoeuvres
b. it is not possible to exceed the limit load because the aircraft will stall before this is reached.
c. it is only possible to subject the aircraft to a load greater than its limit load during violent increases in
incidence, i.e. when using excessive stick force to pull-out of a dive
d. it must be immediately slowed down if turbulence is encountered
2. VNE is:
a. the airspeed which must not be exceeded except in a dive
b. the maximum airspeed at which manoeuvres approaching the stall may be carried out
c. the maximum airspeed at which the aircraft may be flown
d. the maximum speed above which flaps should not be extended
3. The maximum allowable airspeed with flaps extended ( VFE ) is lower than cruising speed because:
a. flaps are used only when preparing to land
b. too much drag is induced
c. flaps will stall if they are deployed at too high an airspeed
d. the additional lift and drag created would overload the wing and flap structure at higher speeds
4. What is the significance of the speed known as VNO?

a. It is the maximum speed at which abrupt movements of the controls will result in a stall, before the aircraft's
positive load limit is exceeded
b. It is the speed beyond which structural failure of the airframe will occur
c It signifies the upper limit of the normal operating speed range
d. It signifies the airspeed which must never be exceeded
5. The stalling speed in a turn or in the pull-out from a dive is increased because:
a. the angle of attack must be increased
b. the load factor increases
c. the aircraft's speed increases
d. the pitch angle increases
6. Vs is:
a the velocity-never-to-exceed
b the maximum normal operating speed
c the stall speed when the aircraft is subject to a Load Factor of 1
d. the stall speed when the aircraft is subject to no Load Factor at all
7. The lower end of the white arc on the Airspeed Indicator marks:
a. the stall speed clean, in steady straight flight, at maximum all up weight, gear down and power off
b. the stall speed with flaps fully extended, in steady straight flight, at maximum all up weight, gear down and
power off
c. the stall speed with flaps fully extended, at maximum all up weight, gear down and in a 2g turn
d. the stall speed with flaps in the take-off position, in steady straight flight, at maximum all up weight, gear
down and power off
8. The lower end of the green arc on the Airspeed Indicator marks:
a. the stall speed clean, in steady straight flight, at maximum all up weight, gear down and power off
b. the stall speed with flaps fully extended, in steady straight flight, at maximum all up weight, gear down and
power off
c. the stall speed with flaps fully extended, at maximum all up weight, gear down and in a 2g turn
d. the stall speed with flaps in the take-off position, in steady straight flight, at maximum all up weight, gear
down and power off
9. The top end of the yellow arc on the Airspeed Indicator marks:
a. the maximum manoeuvring speed
b. the maximum normal operating speed
c. the design dive speed
d. the velocity never-to-exceed
10. Above VA
a. the aircraft may stall before the positive limit load factor has been reached
b. when the aircraft stalls, the positive limit load factor will have been exceeded
c. structural damage to the airframe is highly likely at any speed
d. the aircraft may be flown in smooth air only
11. The inertial forces acting on an aircraft is a function of:

a. The square of the aircraft's indicated airspeed, its mass and the manoeuvre radius
b. The aircraft's altitude
c. The square of the aircraft's true airspeed, its mass and the manoeuvre radius
d. The rate of turn only
12. An aircraft's stall speed during a positive g manoeuvre is equal to the product of its straight flight, 1g, stall
speed and:
a. The square root of the load factor
b. The cosine of the angle of bank
c. The sine of the bank angle
d. The number of g pulled in the manoeuvre
13. In a steady, level turn, the load factor acting on an aircraft is equal to:
a. The indicated airspeed divided by 10, plus 7
b. The Cosine of the bank angle
c. 1 divided by the Cosine of the bank angle.
d. The true airspeed multiplied by the square root of the straight flight stall speed
The law of continuity states, that the flow velocity is inversely proportional to the area of the streamtube.
According to the law of continuity, the sum of static and dynamic pressure is constant at any points of the
The law of continuity states, that the flow velocity is inversely proportional to the area of the streamtube.
According to the law of continuity, the sum of static and dynamic pressure is equal with total pressure.
According to Bernoulli’s law, in a stream the rise of flow velocity results decreasing dynamic pressure and
According to the Bernoulli’s law, the sum of static and dynamic pressure is constant at any points of the
Bernoulli’s law states, that with decreasing flow section the velocity of flow is increasing and vice versa
According to Bernoulli’s law, the product of static and dynamic pressure is equal with total pressure.
CD is increasing with increasing angle of attack.
Drag is proportional to the square of dynamic pressure.
The drag is the product of coefficient of lift, the dynamic pressure, the velocity and the surface of wing.
CD is proportional to the square of speed.
Profile drag is the sum of form and skin friction drag.
Form drag is the sum of profile and skin friction drags.
Profile drag is commonly known as form drag.
Skin friction drag is commonly known as form drag.
On an aerofoil, exposed to a stream, the static pressure is higher at the leading edge compared to the
pressure at the trailing edge.
A solid body placed into a stream results induced drag to appear.
Transition point is the point, where the available cross section for the flow is increasing.
In a flow with increasing cross section area the static pressure decreases, so the velocity increases.
The centre of pressure is tending to the aerodynamic centre by increasing angle of attack, regarding to
normal operations.
Cross sections of a wing maintains constant chord length and attitude related to the lateral axis.
The mean aerodynamical chord is situated at 25% of chord measured from the leading edge.
The cord of the aerodynamically equivalent wing is the aerodynamical axis.
The coefficient of lift …
is zero at simmetric foils at zero angle of attack.
is proportional to the square of airspeed.
reaches minimum value at the critical Angle of attack.
is constantly increasing with increasing AoA.
As lift is developping…
Static pressure decreases over and increases under the wing surface
Static pressure increases over and decreases under the wing surface.
Total pressure increases over and decreases under the wing surface.
Total pressure decreases over and increases under the wing surface.
A foil with high camber…
produces high amount of drag..
is able to produce high amount of lift, so it is utilised on high speed aircrafts.
is often used on tail units.
is the simmetrical foil.
In a level, non-accelerating, non-turning (air density and weight remains constant)flight...
With decreasing speed the Lift remains the same, if the AoA is increased.
With increasing speed the Lift remains the same, if the coefficient of lift is increased.
With decreasing AoA, the Lift remains the same, if the coefficient of lift is not changing.
With increasing AoA, the Lift remains the same, if the speed is increased.
Coefficient of induced drag is ...
proportional to the square of coefficient of lift.
proportional to the square of speed.
proportional to the speed.
proportional to the coefficient of lift.
Flying with high angles of attack, the induced drag can be 75-80% of total drag.
In high speed flight, the induced drag is significant.
In high speed flight, the form drag is negligible.
Flying with high angles of attack, the induced drag is only 1-2% of total drag.
In normal flight operations, the centre of pressure travels the most forward, when critical Angle of Attack is
the centre of pressure travels forward by increasing Angle of Attack in normal flight operations.
With CL=0 , the centre of pressure tends to aft position.
The position of pressure centre is not depending on angle of Attack.
In the state of constant climb…
Thrust balances with drag and horizontal component of weight.
The lift balances with horizontal component of weight.
Lift is greater than weight.
Drag balances with horizontal component of weight.
In constant descend …
drag balances with x component of weight.
Lift balances with x component of weight.
Gravity makes the move more difficult.
Lift is equal to weight.
How does aerodinamical goodness(CL/CD) change with increasing weight?
It does not change.
It is getting lower.
It is getting higher.
Aerodinamical goodness(CL/CD)...
is increasing With increasing AoA, until the most effective AoA is reached.
Increases with increasing AoA, at critical AoA reaches it’s maximum.
is maximum, when flight is commenced with the AoA for economy speed.
is maximum with 4° AoA.
It can be presumed, that the total drag of the aircraft is equal to the drag caused by the wings.
False.
True
Which drag component is not increasing with raising speed?

Induced drag.
Profile drag.
Shape drag.
Parasite drag.
When CG is in forward position, the trim tab moves downward to balance the aircraft.
When CG is in aft position, the trim tab moves upward to balance the aircraft.
When CG is in aft position, the trim tab moves downward to balance the aircraft.
When CG is in forward position, the trim tab moves upward to balance the aircraft.
The effectiveness of controls are increasing by trim tab deviation.
The elevator moves with the deviation of the trim.
The drag of the aircraft is increased with trim tab deviation.
As the trim tab is deviated, the reserve of controls are decreasing.
Longitudinal stability is the stability of the aircraft around the lateral axis, caused by the the horizontal
The sweep of the wings causes the stability of the aircraft around longitudinal axis.
Directional stability is the stability of the aircraft around the vertical axis, which caused by the angle of
A bottom winged aircraft, determined by the wing distribution, has a lower lateral stability than a high wing
True.
False.

The dynamical longitudinal stability of an aircraft to exists, it is essential, that statical longitudinal stability is
A statically stable aircraft shows stability in dynamical conditions, as well. (longitudinal stability)
The relative angle of angle of attack of an aircraft is increased. Without any control movement, the aircraft is
oscillating with constant amplitude and period time around the stable position, then the aircraft is…
Statically stable, dynamically neutral.
Statically unstable, dynamically stable.
Statically stable, dynamically unstable.
Statically unstable, dynamically neutral.
The travelling of CG on an aircraft is…
limited by the minimum stability in the aft.
limited by the neutral point.
limited by the neutral point in the front.
limited by the limit of controllability in the aft..
If the CG is behind the neutral point, and a disturbing effect forces out the aircraft from the longitudinal
balance, then...
The stabilising moment will be lower than the unstabilising moment.
The stabilising moment will be higher than the unstabilising moment.
The aircraft will be oscillating with constant amplitude and period time around the stable position.
The aircraft will be oscillating with damping amplitude and period time around the stable position.
Which point is reasonable, if the following can be experienced? The sensitivity of controls are increased,
control forces are decreased, and smaller control deflection is sufficient for the same movement.
Aft CG poisition.
Forward CG poisition.
Neutral state.
Unstable state.
On an aircraft, with full control deflection, the highest CL can’t be reached. Which statement is reasonable?
The stability of the aircraft is too high.
The aircraft is unstable.
CG is in the neutral point.
CG is on the designed position.
The higher the deflection of the flaps, the shorter the takeoff run is.
False.
True.
With flaps utilised, the ability of climb…

is decreasing.
is increasing.
remains constant.
With deflected flaps ...

The critical AoA and stall speed are decreasing.
The critical AoA and stall speed are increasing.
The critical AoA increases, and stall speed decreases.
The critical AoA decreases, and stall speed increases.
With deflected slats ...
The critical AoA increases, and stall speed decreases.
The critical AoA decreases, and stall speed increases.
As the weight of the aircraft is increasing, the stall speed…
increases.
remains the same.
decreases
With an engine developping thrust, the stall speed will be...

lower.
higher.
equal to the stall speed with idling engine.
On a constant pitch propeller, the critical angle of attack can be exceeded:

With low airspeed and high RPM.
With high airspeed and low RPM.
The critical AoA cannot be exceeded.
On a constant speed propeller with right settings, with high airspeed, the blades are on high angle of
True.
False.
When propeller pitch is lowered on a clockwise spinnig propeller, the precession makes the aircraft to
revolve around the vertical axis to the…
left.
right.
On a takeoff run with three points rolling, which effects of the propeller to be compensated with the rudder?
Slipstream effect, reaction torque.
Slipstream effect, precession and reaction torque
Slipstream effect, precession.
Precession and reaction torque
With the highest RPM, what situtation is needed for the highest thrust developped by a propeller?
The aircraft is stationary ont he ground..
Flying with the maximum horizontal speed.
Flying with the speed belongs to the highest propeller efficiency.
Flying with optimal speed (Vopt )
In a level flight with normal cruising speed, when the power setting is increased but the angle ot attack
hasn’t been changed, the aircraft will …
start to climb.
start to descend.
start to accelerate.
fly the same profile..
In a level flight with a higher speed than economic, if the aircraft slowed down by an outer effect, without
any reaction from the pilot…
the appearing power surplus will accelerate the aircraft back to the original speed
The aircraft will produce further decceleration until stall.
The aircraft will produce further acceleration.
Nothing will happen
t=s/v
t x s=v
s=v/t
s x v=t
1 m/s = 3.6 km/h
True.
False.

1 knot = 1 nautical mile/hour = 1.852 km/h
1 knot = 1 statute mile/hour = 1.609 km/h
1 mph = 1 statute mile/hour = 1.852 km/h
1 mph = 1 nautical mile/hour = 1.609 km/h
Gravitational acceleration ...
is the acceleration on an object caused by gravity.
is the force exerted by the Earth to pull the object.
is the object's resistance against the accelerating force.
has a unit of measure of kg ∙ m/s2
The weight of an object is ...
proportional to its mass and gravitational acceleration.
inversely proportional to its mass and inversely proportional to gravitational acceleration.
directly proportional to its mass and inversely proportional to gravitational acceleration.
inversely proportional to its mass and directly proportional to gravitational acceleration.
There is an inertial force with a direction opposite to acceleration invoked in the CoG of an object forced to
move. This inertia force equals the mass multiplied by the acceleration.
There is an inertial force with a direction identical to acceleration invoked in the CoG of an object forced to
move. This inertia force equals the mass multiplied by the acceleration.
There is an inertial force with a direction opposite to acceleration invoked in the CoG of an object forced to
move. This inertia force equals the mass divided by the acceleration.
There is an inertial force with a direction identical to acceleration invoked in the CoG of an object forced to
move. This inertia force equals the mass divided by the acceleration.
Aerodynamic forces generated on the wing are called spatially distributed forces.
False.
True.
The law of conservation of energy states that ...

during movement the sum of potential and kinetic energy is constant.
during movement potential energy multiplied by kinetic energy is constant.
every body persists in its state of being at rest or of moving uniformly straight forward, except insofar as it is
compelled to change its state by an external force.
The object's ability to exert an effort is ...

proportional to the square of the object's speed.
directly proportional to the object's speed.
inversely proportional to the object's mass.
inversely proportional to the object's speed.
Newton's 3rd law is the ...
action-reaction law.
law of inertia.
fundamental theory of dynamics.
The change of momentum of a body is proportional to the impulse impressed on the body, and happens
along the straight line on which that impulse is impressed.
This is Newton's 2nd Law.
This is Newton's 1st Law.
This is Newton's 3rd Law.
In a lever of the second kind the left side rotational torque is 40 Nm, while the right side has -16 Nm
rotational torque. How far from the fulcrum must you place a 4 N force to bring the lever into balance?
6 m.
4 m.
12 m.
24 m.
Circumferential speed equals radius multiplied by angular speed.
Angular speed is the ratio of radius and by angular rotation.
Circumferential speed equals radius multiplied by angular rotation.
Angular speed is the ratio of radius and circumferential speed.
Centripetal force is directly proportional to mass and to the square of circumferential speed, and inversely
proportional to the radius, and its direction points towards the centre of rotation.
Centripetal force is directly proportional to mass, to circumferential speed and to the radius, and its direction
points towards the centre of rotation.
Centripetal force is directly proportional to mass, inversely proportional to the square of circumferential
speed and radius, and its direction points towards the centre of rotation.
Centripetal force is directly proportional to mass and to the square of circumferential speed, it is inversely
proportional to the radius, and its direction points outward parallel with the radius.
Direction of centrifugal force opposes that of centripetal force.
Direction of centrifugal force opposes that of centripetal counter-force.
Centrifugal force points towards the rotational centre.
Direction of centrifugal force is identical to that of centripetal force.
A gyroscope which in addition to its main axis can rotate around two other axes, is called a gyroscope with
two degrees of freedom.
False.
True.
The wing's adjustment angle is 2° and its angle of attack is 4°. What is the aircraft's pitch angle in constant speed level flight?
2°
0°
4°
6°
The wing's adjustment angle is 4.5°, its AoA in constant speed climb is 8.5° and the aircraft's pitch angle is 7°. What is the track divergence
angle during climb?
3°
4°
8.5°
11.5°
How does lift-to-drag ratio (L/D) change by increasing aeroplane weight?
Weight increase leaves L/D unchanged.
Weight increase causes the L/D to decrease
Weight increase causes the L/D to increase
Lift-to-drag ratio (L/D) ...

is increasing to reach the most effective angle of attack.
is constantly increasing by increasing the angle of attack, and it reaches its maximum at the critical angle of
is at its maximum if the aeroplane is flying at the AoA of Veco speed.
is at its maximum if the AoA is 4°.
How far can an aircraft with a lift-to-drag ratio of 12 glide from 3,000 feet with its engine stopped (no wind
conditions, ISA)?
Approximately 6 kilometres.
A good approximation is that the aeroplane's resistance equals the resistance of the wing.
False.
True.
The wing's best L/D ratio ...

is higher than that of the aeroplane.
is lower than that of the aeroplane.
equals that of the aeroplane.
can be higher or lower than that of the aeroplane.
In order to establish dynamic aircraft longitudinal stability the aircraft should be statically longitudinal stable.
A statically longitudinal stable aircraft has dynamically stable characteristics.
When buffeting wind has increased the angle of attack, and the aeroplane starts swinging around its balance
position with a constant amplitude and phase time without pilot intervention, then the aeroplane is ...
statically stable and dynamically neutral.
statically unstable and dynamically stable.
statically stable and dynamically unstable.
statically unstable and dynamically neutral.
If the sum of the aircraft's longitudinal torque equals zero ...
the aircraft is trimmed.
the pilot has not deflected any control surface.
the aircraft stability is neutral.
the aircraft is flying at planned cruise speed.
If the sum of the aircraft's longitudinal torque is negative ...
the torque around the lateral axis is nose heavy.
the torque around the longitudinal axis is nose heavy.
the torque around the longitudinal axis is tail heavy.
the torque around the lateral axis is tail heavy.
If the aeroplane's centre of gravity is before the neutral point ...
the sum of the longitudinal torque figures can be positive or negative.
the sum of the longitudinal torque figures is negative.
the sum of the longitudinal torque figures is positive.
the sum of the longitudinal torque figures is zero.
If the centre of gravity is behind the neutral point, and a force acts to shift the aeroplane from its longitudinal
torque equilibrium ...
the aircraft stabilising torque is lower than the destabilising torque.
the aircraft starts swinging around its balance position with a decreasing amplitude and phase time.
the aircraft stabilising torque is higher than the destabilising torque.
the aircraft starts swinging around its balance position with a constant amplitude and phase time.
Propeller blade rotational speed ...
is the same for each blade section.
increases in direct relation to blade section distance from rotational centre.
increases in inverse relation to blade section distance from rotational centre.
When the angle of attack is high ...

line of action for traction force is identical to that of the propeller shaft.
line of action for traction force (viewed from the cockpit) is shifted to the right of the propeller shaft in the
case of a right-rotating propeller.
line of action for traction force (viewed from the cockpit) is shifted to the right of the propeller shaft in the
case of a left-rotating propeller.
line of action for traction force (viewed from the cockpit) is shifted upwards from the propeller shaft in the
case of a right-rotating propeller.
When is the propeller's useful power the lowest?
When the aeroplane is stationary.
At stall speed.
If power is set to the minimum in-flight.
At the highest available horizontal speed.
If you increase the angle of attack and leave power setting unchanged, when flying slower than Veco ....
the aeroplane starts descending.
the aeroplane starts climbing.
the aeroplane accelerates.
flight regime does not change.
When flying level at speed V1 > Veco, should the aircraft decelerate due to some effect and the pilot fails to intervene, ...
the resulting excess energy accelerates the aircraft to speed V1.
the aircraft continues to decelerate and finally stalls.
the aeroplane accelerates.
flight regime does not change.
What is the speed assigned to the most efficient angle of attack?
Vopt.
Veco.
Vmax.
Vcruise.
Should you wish to maximise vertical climb speed (w) ...
you choose VY.
you choose VX.
you choose Vopt.
you choose Veco.
An aircraft can climb at the same climbing angle at two different speeds.
True.
False.
How does aircraft Y/X ratio change (at a constant angle of attack) with altitude increasing?
It doesn't change.
It increases.
It decreases.

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AIR LAW

1 - INTERNATIONAL AIR LAW

9. The C of R must be:

18. What does ICAO Annex 2 concern itself with?

19. What ICAO Annex covers the Airworthiness of Aircraft?

21. The Chicago Convention recognises that:

1 - ICAO RULES OF THE AIR

3. What is the definition of Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC)?

4. What is the basic presumption about VFR flight?

9. Which SSR Code should be selected to indicate radio failure?

10. The definition “flying machine" may refer to:

24. When are navigation lights required to be shown?

25. If two aircraft are approaching head on:

2. Which of the following would be an illegal registration marking?

3. From which organisation does the Nationality Mark originate?

4. An aircraft’s markings on its wings must be at least:

5. Where must an aircraft's identification plate be located?

7. The identity plate must be made of:

2. Where is the validity of a C of A specified?

4. Information on aircraft placards is for:

5. Safety and survival equipment must be:

7. Which ICAO Annex concerns itself with Airworthiness?

8. What is the validity of the C of A?

9. Which of the following is included in the C of A?

5 - ICAO AIRSPACE DIVISION AND AIR TRAFFIC SERVICES

4. What airspace/s are considered “Controlled Airspace”?

5. What are the 3 types of Air Traffic Services?

6. What is the definition of 'Alerting Service’?

10. To which of the following is the Alerting Service available?

12. What is the standard width of an airway?

17. Where is a TMA most likely to be found?

21. What is the lowest level of a CTA permitted by international agreement?

24. What are the lateral dimensions of a Control Zone?

6 - ICAO FLIGHT PLANS AND CLEARANCES

2. Is the PIC of an aircraft obliged to accept an ATC clearance?

4. What event closes a flight plan?

13. What is one of the primary functions of an Air Traffic Clearance?

14. How is an abbreviated Flight Plan normally submitted?

7 - ICAO AERONAUTICAL INFORMATION SERVICES

2. What are the names of the 3 parts of an AIP?

3. What kind of information is contained in a NOTAM?

4. What information is contained in a Pre-Flight Information Bulletin (PIB)?

5. How is information of a purely explanatory or advisory nature published?

2. ICAO divides separation into three types. These are:

4. Which of the following statements is true?

7. In which of the following circumstances is wake turbulence separation applied?

1. What colour are the markings on runways?

2. What is the colour of the markings on taxiways?

3. What is the definition of a "damp" runway?

5. An aerodrome has no Signals Area. What does this imply?

6. What is the basic marking for a displaced threshold?

7. Which holding position is closest to the runway?

8. What colours indicate mandatory markings and signs?

9. An Aerodrome Beacon flashes in what colour(s)?

10. What colour are threshold lights?

11. What colour are taxiway side lights?

12. What colour are taxiway centreline lights?

13. How is a Location Sign depicted?

14. How is a closed runway indicated?

15. How is a non-load bearing surface to the side of a taxiway depicted?

16. What is the Response Time for Fire and Rescue?

18. An emergency vehicle responding to an emergency has priority over:

19. All aerodromes must have: