Science UT 1

Important Questions for Class 9
Science
Chapter 15-Improvement in Food Resources
Very Short Answer Type Questions 2 Marks
1. What do we get from cereals, pulses, fruits and vegetables?

Ans: Cereals provide carbohydrates, pulses provide proteins, while fruits and
vegetables provide vitamins and minerals.
2. What factors may be responsible for losses of grains during storage?

Ans: Both biotic and abiotic factors may be responsible for losses of grains during
storage are:
 Humidity and temperature of the environment and moisture content of grains

are the abiotic factors.
 Biotic factors include organisms such as rodents, bacteria, fungi, and some
insects that feed on grains.
3. What are weeds? Give two examples.

Ans: Weeds are undesired plants that grow in fields. Common weeds include
Amaranthus and Chenopodium.
4. What is crop rotation?

Ans: Crop rotation is the technique of alternately cultivating various crops in the
same land in a pre-planned succession.
Class IX Science www.vedantu.com 1

5. What are drones?
Ans: Drones are airborne devices that are used in agriculture to improve crop
output and to track crop growth.
They assist farmers in developing agricultural field systems for using water,
fertilisers, herbicides, and seeds. These tools have revolutionised agriculture by
allowing farmers to save significant amounts of money while also increasing
efficiency and profitability.
6. What is pasturage and how is it important?

Ans: Crop rotation is the practise of farming a variety of crops in a pre- determined
order on the same piece of land.
7. What is a layer and a broiler? What are the differences between the two?
Ans: The egg-laying poultry bird is known as an egg layer, whereas the meat-
producing poultry bird is known as a chicken or broiler.
Housing (shelter), food, and environmental requirements differ from layer
requirements. Broiler feed is protein- and vitamin-rich, with an acceptable fat
content.
8. Arrange the following statements in correct sequence of preparation of

green manure
(a) Green plants are decomposed in soil
(b) Green plants are cultivated for preparing manure or crop plant parts are
used
(c) Plants are ploughed and mixed into soil

(d) After decomposition it becomes green manure.
Ans:

(b) Green plants are cultivated for preparing manure or crop plant parts are used
(c) Plants are ploughed and mixed into soil
(a) Green plants are decomposed in soil
(d) After decomposition it becomes green manure.
9. What are the benefits of poultry farming over cattle farming?

Ans: The advantages of chicken farming over cattle rearing include the following:
a) The amount of money required is little.
b) The amount of space required is minimal.

c) It is simple to maintain.
d) Returns are processed quickly.
10. Define inter – cropping Mention its advantages.

Ans:Intercropping is the practise of cultivating two or more crops on the same field
in rows at the same time.
Added benefits –
1) Productivity is higher.
2) It saves space and time by farming two or more crops at the same time.
3) It aids in the preservation of soil fertility.
11. What are the advantages of organic farming?

Ans: Organic farming has the following advantages:
a) It does not disrupt the natural environment.

b) It preserves soil fertility.
c) Chemicals have no harmful impact on living organisms; d) Pollution of the air,
water, and soil does not occur.
12. Differentiate between mixed cropping and Intercropping.
Ans: The difference between mixed cropping and intercropping are as follows:
Mixed Cropping Inter-Cropping
Goal is to reduce the crop failure Goal to boost productivity per square
foot
Before sowing , component crop seeds Before sowing , component crop seeds
are blended together. are blended together.
Sowing do not take place in rows Sowing is done in precise arrangement

in rows
13. Give a difference between Rabi and kharif crops?

Ans: The difference between Rabi and Kharif crop are as follows:
Rabi Crop Kharif crop
This crop is sown during the winter The summer (kharif) season is when it is
season. sown.
It necessitates a chilly, dry climate. It necessitates a hot, humid atmosphere.

14. What is hybridization?
Ans: The crossing of genetically distinct plants is referred to as hybridization. In
this strategy, two crop varieties are chosen, each with at least one desirable trait,
such as high yield or disease resistance.
15. List the various methods of weed control.

Ans: Weed control methods include:
a) Mechanical means - Weeds are pulled out by hand or with the use of a khurpa
(trowel) or a hoe.
b) Cultural approaches — cultural methods include seed bed preparation, timely
seed sowing, intercropping, and appropriate rotation.
c) Chemical techniques — compounds such as 2,4,-D can be used to manage
weeds.
16. What are the characteristic features of ideal shelters for cattle?
Ans: The following are characteristics of a shelter:
1) The animals are protected from rain, heat, and cold by a suitably roofed shed.
2) The shed's floor is slanted to make cleaning easier and to keep their sitting area
dry.
3) A plan for safe drinking water is put in place.
4) Excreta disposal is properly arranged in the sheds.
17. What are the hazards of using fertilizers?

Ans: Effects of fertiliser application –
a) Impact on soil quality - fertiliser application leads to a loss of organic matter and
a deterioration of soil structure.

b) Eutrophication - Excessive fertiliser application causes nitrate buildup in the
soil.
Rain washes nitrates and phosphates into lakes, ponds, and rivers, where they
encourage algae to develop excessively.
18. How do insect,pest damage crop plants?

Ans: Insect – pests cause damage to plants in the following ways:
a) They hacked away at the root, stem, and leaf.
b) They drink the sap from the cells of diverse plant components.
c) They eat the stems and fruits of plants.
d) They produce galls.
e) They devour grains that have been preserved.
Short Answer Type Questions 3 Marks
1. How do biotic and abiotic factors affect crop production?

Ans: Living organisms such as honey bees and earthworms aid improve crop
output, whereas pests (insects and rodents) and bacteria have a negative impact on
crop production.
Climate conditions and nonliving natural resources such as soil, water, and air are
examples of abiotic factors.They also have an impact on crop productivity, as
favourable temperature, humidity, and mineral nutrition boost crop yield.
2. What are the desirable agronomic characteristics for crop improvements?

Ans: The following are desired agronomic traits for crop improvement:
(i) For cereal crops, dwarfness is a beneficial trait since it allows the plants to use
fewer nutrients.

(ii) Tallness and profuse branching are ideal traits for fodder crops so that we can
get more leaves to feed our animals.
3. What are macronutrients and why are they called macronutrients?

Ans: There are sixteen nutrients that are required for plant growth. Six of these
thirteen nutrients are considered macronutrients since they are required in high
amounts.
Nitrogen, phosphorus, potassium, calcium, magnesium, and sulphur are all

macronutrients.
4. How do plants get nutrients?

Ans: Plants get their nutrients from the air, water, and soil.Nutrients supplied as a
source Carbon in the air, oxygen in the air Hydrogen and oxygen are found in
water.
Soil nitrogen, phosphorus, potassium, calcium, magnesium, sulphur, iron,

manganese, boron, zinc, copper, molybdenum, chlorine, zinc, manganese,
5. Compare the use of manure and fertilizers in maintaining soil fertility.

Ans: The comparison between use of manure and fertilizers are as follows:
Manure Fertilizers
It is made through the breakdown of animal They are manufactured

excreta and plant waste commercially in factories
It contains a lot of organic matter while also Provides components like nitrogen,
providing tiny amounts of nutrients to the phosphorous, and potassium
soil

Helps to increase soil fertility Assures soil fertility in terms of
dose and timing.
6. Why should preventive measures and biological control methods be

preferred for protecting crops?
Ans: It is likewise true for plants that prevention is preferable to treatment.
Herbicides, weedicides, insecticides, pesticides, fungicides, and other chemicals
are sprayed on the crop.
Because their excessive usage can injure crop plants and pollute the environment,
careful seed bed preparation, timely crop sowing, intercropping, and crop rotation
are also recommended.
7. Which method is commonly used for improving cattle breeds and why?
Ans: Cross breeding is a typical technique for developing cow breeds.
For instance, in dairy animals Exotic or foreign breeds (such as Jersey and Brown
Swiss) are bred for lengthy lactation durations, whilst native breeds (such as
RedSindhi and Sahiwal) are bred for disease resistance. The two can be crossed to
produce animals with both desirable traits.
8. Discuss the implications of the following statement:

“It is interesting to note that poultry is India’s most efficient converter of low
fibre food stuff(which is unfit for human consumption) into highly nutritious
animal protein food.”
Ans: Under poultry the birds kept are fed on agricultural waste material and
broken grains etc which are not useful for humans but those birds consuming such
waste provide us with eggs and meat. It is highly nutritious animal protein food
hence the statement made is quite appropriate.

9. What management practices are common in dairy and poultry farming?
Ans: Food requirements Proper cleaning and shelter facilities Protection from
unfavourable climatic conditions and diseases are frequent management strategies
in dairy and poultry farms. Protection against pests
10. What are the differences between broilers and layers and in their
management?
Ans: Differences between broilers and layers are represented in the following
table:
Broilers Layers
Broiler chickens require vitamin-rich Broilers require different

supplements, particularly vitamin A and K, nutritional, environmental, and
for optimal development. housing requirements than egg
layers.
They consume a sufficient amount of protein In comparison to broilers, they

and fat in their diet. They also require don't consume a sufficient
additional care and maintenance to enhance amount of protein and fat in their
their survival probability. diet.
Broilers are bred to provide poultry meat. Layers are bred to produce eggs.
11. How are fish obtained?

Ans: Fishes can be obtained in two ways.
1. Capture fishing: This is a method of collecting fish from natural sources

(rivers, lakes, oceans).

2. Cultural fishery: This is also known as fish farming and involves the rearing
and breeding of selected fish.
12. What are the advantages of composite fish culture?

Ans: The following are some of the benefits of composite fish culture:
In such systems, both indigenous and imported fish species can be utilised.
Food accessible in all regions of the water reservoir is exploited due to the non-
competitive nature of selected species.
Increases the amount of fish in the water reservoir (intensive fish farming).
13. What are the desirable characters of bee varieties suitable for honey
production?
Ans: Characteristics of bee types appropriate for honey production include:
Honey harvesting capacity is high. They have to be less stingy.
They should stay in a beehive for a long time and breed prolifically.
14. What is pasturage and how is it related to honey production?

Ans: Pasturage refers to the blooms that bees can collect nectar and pollen from.
The pasturage determines the value or quality of honey. In addition, the type of
flowers present will influence the honey's flavour.
15. For increasing production, what is common in poultry, fisheries and bee-
keeping?
Ans: The following are steps that are commonly used in poultry, fisheries, and
beekeeping to increase production:

 The best types and breeds are used. Food is supplied that is both nutritional
and tasty.
 Cleanliness and hygienic conditions are maintained.
16. What are the benefits of cattle farming?

Ans: Cattle farming provides two advantages:
(i) Draught animals for farm labour (males), i.e. tilling, irrigation, and carting.
(ii) Milch animals (dairy animals) are females who produce milk.
17. How do storage grain losses occur?

Ans: Storage grain losses are caused by a variety of biotic and abiotic factors:
biotic factors include insects, rodents, bacteria, fungi, and other organisms that
feed on grains. Unfavorable humidity and temperature conditions are abiotic
variables.
18. Why are manure and fertilizers used in fields?

Ans: Manure contributes to soil fertility by supplementing it with nutrients and
organic materials. The majority of organic matter in manure aids in soil structure
improvement.
Fertilizers are used to promote healthy vegetative growth (leaves, branches, and
flowers) by supplying specific nutrients such as nitrogen, phosphorus, and
potassium.
19. Define
(a) Pisciculture
Ans: Pisciculture is the large-scale rearing and management of fish.

(b) hatcheries
Ans: Hatcheries are nurseries where fish eggs or fish seed are placed in freshwater
fisheries.
(c) swarming
Ans: Swarming is the process by which the new queen leaves the old hives and
seeks out a new home for reproduction.
20. What is green manuring? Give examples of green manures.

Ans: Green manure is made from herbaceous plants that are cultivated, ploughed
beneath, and mixed with the soil while they are still green. Green manuring is the
process of ploughing green plants and combining them with the soil.
Sun hemp, cluster bean (guar), lentil (Masur), and cowpea are some of the plants
utilised as green manure (Lobia).
21. Discuss the preventive measures for the storage of grains.

Ans: The preventive measures for the storage of grains are:
a) Drying - For grain storage, the moisture content of the grains should be
decreased to less than 14 percent. This can be accomplished by drying in the sun
and then drying in the shade.
b) Hygiene should be maintained - Godowns and stores should be cleaned
regularly.
Remove any dirt, trash, webs, or debris from the previously kept grains.
Waterproofing and sealing cracks and gaps in the walls, floor, and ceiling are
essential. For storing food grains, new gunny bags should be used. The mouth of
the gunny bag should be tightly sewn once it has been filled.
22. Name three basic scientific approaches for increasing yield of a crop.
Ans: Three scientific approaches for increasing yields of a crop are –

(i) Crop production management, which involves correct irrigation and fertiliser
management, is one of three scientific methodologies for enhancing crop yields.
Manure and fertilisers can be used to accomplish this. Crop rotation, intercropping,
and mixed-cropping can all help with nutrient management.Plants require
protection from weeds, insects, pests, and pathogens.
(ii) Crop protection management It can be accomplished through biological,
chemical, or cultural methods.
(iii) Crop variety management: Crop variety can be enhanced by hybridization or

transgenic techniques. It is possible to do so in order to get desired plant traits
23. What are the advantages of bee-keeping?

Ans:The following are some of the benefits of beekeeping:
a) It takes minimal investment and offers the farmer additional income.
b) In addition to honey, beekeeping produces wax, royal jelly, and bee venom,
among other things.
c) Cross pollination is aided by bees.
24. Differentiate between capture fishing, aquaculture and mariculture.

Ans: The difference between capture fishing, aquaculture and mariculture is:
a) Capture fishing - Capture fishing is the process of obtaining fish from bodies of
water such as rivers, seas, and oceAns:
b) Aquaculture - Aquaculture is the cultivation of aquatic creatures in fresh or

saltwater.
c) Mariculture - Mariculture is the cultivation of marine fish.
25. List the steps to be taken to prevent and control diseases in animals.
Ans: The following steps should be followed to control diseases:

a) Providing adequate shelter.
b) Maintaining animal hygiene and disposing of dead animals and animal wastes
properly.
c) Disease screening of animals on a regular basis, with unhealthy animals being

isolated immediately.
d) Following the advice of a veterinary practitioner, providing a proper diet and
appropriate medications.
e) Handling of all animal products and by product in a sanitary manner.
26. Give the difference between manures and fertilizers.

Ans: The difference between manure and fertilizers are as follows:
Manure Fertilizers
Manure is an organic natural substance that is Fertilizers are inorganic

formed when living materials decompose. compounds that are produced in
factories.
Large amounts of organic materials can be There is no organic substance

found in manure. present in fertilizers.
Manures aren't nutrient-specific at all Fertilizers have nutrient-specific

properties
27. What are the components of cattle feed?

Ans: Roughage and concentrates are present in cattle feed in the form of hay and
grain, as well as a large amount of water.
a)Roughage — Roughage is made up of coarse and fibrous components with poor

nutrient content; animals acquire roughage from hay (cereal straw) and grain,
respectively, as well as a lot of water.

b)Cotton seeds, oilseeds, oilcakes, and cereal grains like gramme and bajra are
high in one or more nutrients (such as carbohydrate, lipids, proteins, minerals, and
vitamins) and low in fibres. Cattle are fed green fodder in the winter, primarily
Berseem and Lucerne, and maize, bajra, jowar, and dry fodder in the other seasons.
28. Define the following
(i) White revolution

Ans: The term "white revolution" refers to the increased production of milk. It
required the utilisation of upgraded high-milk-yielding mulch animal crossbreeds.
(ii) Silver revolution

Ans: The term "silver revolution" refers to a massive increase in egg output.
(iii) blue revolution.

Ans: The term "blue revolution" refers to an increase in fish production.
29. What is green manuring? Give an example of green manures?

Ans: Green manure is made from herbaceous plants that have been cultivated,
ploughed under, and mixed with the soil while they are still green. Green manuring
is the term for this process.
 Sun hemp, cluster bean (guar), lentil (maser), and cowpea are some of the
plants utilised as green manure (Berseem)
30. What are the main practices involved in keeping animals or animal
husbandry?
Ans: Animal husbandry day involves the following main practises.
a) Breeding - This is done to get animals with specific traits. Animals with high
milk yields and meat yields can be developed through breeding.

b) Feeding – This is the study of the right food (called feed), as well as the mode
and timing of feeding of various animals.
c) Weeding - This is the process of eliminating animals that are not economically
viable.
31. Name the abiotic and biotic factors which affect stored grains and how?
Ans: Insects, birds, rodents, mites, fungi, and bacteria are examples of biotic
forces.
a)Moisture, temperature, and the storage container's material are all abiotic
variables. As a result of the aforementioned conditions, cereal grains become
infested with insects and microorganisms.
b) Quality deterioration
c) Weight reduction.
b) Poor grain germination potential
e) Produce discoloration
32. What is the need for crop improvement? What are the desirable
agronomic characteristics for crop improvement?
Ans: Crop enhancement entails creating superior plants with the following
characteristics:
a) High-yielding
b) Varieties with higher-quality produce.

b) Disease-resistant cultivars
d) Plants have beneficial agronomic traits, such as
(i) Dwarfness is required in cereals, which consumes less nutrients.

(ii) Plants for fodder crops that are tall and have a lot of branching.

33. Define
(i) Draught breeds
Ans: Draught cattle, sometimes known as bullocks, are cattle that are employed for
labour.
(ii) Dual purpose breeds

Ans: Dual-purpose breeds are those that have females for milk and men for work.
(iii) Dairy breeds

Ans: Dairy animals are breeds that are solely used for milk production.
34. What are the symptoms of diseased animals?

Ans: The symptoms are as follows:
a) The animal stops eating and becomes lethargic, looks exhausted, and remains
isolated as a result of the condition.
b) The animal shivers as its body temperature rises.
b) The animal produces an excessive amount of saliva, which hangs from its mouth
at times.
d) The animal excretes a mixture of loose dung and colourful urine.

e) The animal's mouth and ears droop.
Long Answer Type Questions 5 Marks
1. Explain any one method of crop production which ensures high yield.
Ans: Various cropping patterns can be very effective in ensuring good output. The
following cropping patterns should be mentioned:
1. a combination of crops
2. cropping in between

3. Rotation of crops
Mixed cropping: is the practise of cultivating two or more crops on the same plot
of land at the same time, such as wheat + gramme, wheat + mustard, or groundnut
+ sunflower.
 This lowers the risk and provides some protection in the event that one of
the crops fails.
Intercropping: is the practise of planting two or more crops on the same field in a
certain arrangement (as shown below).
 The crops are chosen to have distinct nutrient requirements. This promotes
optimal nutrient use while also preventing pests and diseases from spreading
to all plants belonging to a single crop in a field, such as soya bean + maize
or finger millet.
Crop rotation: is the planting of various crops on a plot of land in a pre-

determined order succession.
 Crop rotation is done for various crop combinations depending on the

period.
 The crop to be planted after one harvest is determined by the availability of
moisture and irrigation infrastructure.
 Two or three crops can be planted in a year with good harvests if crop
rotation is done appropriately.
2. What are the advantages of intercropping and crop rotation?

Ans: Advantages of inter -cropping and crop rotation:
 This way,both crops can give better returns.Crop rotation, when done
correctly, allows for the replenishment of soil nutrients without the need of
fertilisers.
 For example, growing leguminous plants following a non-leguminous crop

in the same field ensures nitrogen enrichment.
 As a result, any decline in soil fertility is avoided.

 Intercropping makes the most use of the nutrients available. It also prevents
pests and illnesses from spreading to all plants of a single crop in a field.
3. What is genetic manipulation? How is it useful in agricultural practices?

Ans: Genetic manipulation is the introduction of a gene that confers a desired trait,
resulting in genetically engineered crops.
Agricultural methods benefit from genetic modification by creating varieties with

larger yields, better quality, shorter maturity periods, and more tolerance to
unfavourable environmental circumstances. Some of the other practices are:
 High yielding pest resistant.
 resistant to environmental stress don’t need fertilizers for good growth

 All these features help not only to improve quality and quantity of products
but also reduce chances of environmental pollution.
4. How do good animal husbandry practices benefit farmers?

Ans: Animal husbandry refers to the scientific management of livestock animals. It
covers a wide range of topics.Feeding, breeding, and disease control are all factors
to consider.
The demand for milk, eggs, and meat is increasing as the population grows and
living standards rise. In addition, the increased awareness of the importance of
adequate animal treatment has imposed new restrictions on livestock production
.As a result, cattle output must be improved. Good animal husbandry practises,
such as providing good food and controlling infections in cattle, can contribute to
this progress, allowing farmers to receive higher quality and quantity goods.
5. How do you differentiate between capture fishing, mariculture and

aquaculture?
Ans: The difference between capture fishing, mariculture and aquaculture is as
follows:

Capture fishing Mariculture Aquaculture
It's a technique for Marine culture fisheries are These cultural fisheries are
catching fish from culture fisheries that are kept in fresh or saltwater, and
natural sources. maintained in marine water they allow for the raising and
bodies only for the purpose production of a higher
of rearing and breeding number of aquatic creatures.
marine creatures such as fish
and prawns.
6. What is genetic manipulation? How is it useful in agricultural practices?

Ans: Genetic manipulation is a technique for improving the genetic make-up of
crop plants in order to achieve desired features.
Genetic manipulation's benefits
1) It creates high-yielding cultivars.
2) It creates disease-resistant strains.

3) It creates pest-resistant cultivars.
4) It creates cultivars with a quick maturation time and a consistent maturity.
5) creates higher-quality variations.

Class 9 Chemistry Chapter 4 - Structure of the Atom Important
Questions with Answers
Short Answer Type Questions

Q1: Is it possible for the atom of an element to have one electron, one proton and no neutron. If so,
name the element.
Answer:
Yes, this is true for hydrogen's common stable isotope (protium), which is denoted by the letter .
Q2: Write any two observations which support the fact that atoms are divisible.
Answer:
The discovery of electrons and protons serves to strengthen the idea that atoms are divisible. During a
chemical reaction, electrons are transferred or shared between distinct atoms, leading atoms to
rearrange.
Q3: Will 35Cl and 37Cl have different valencies? Justify your answer.
Answer:
The number of protons or electrons is equal to the valency. Since both chlorine 37 and chlorine 35 have
the same number of protons and electrons, they have the same valency.
Chlorine 37 and chlorine 35 are identical isotopes. As a result, they have the same atomic number but
have different masses. Their mass numbers differ due to the different amount of neutrons in each of
them.
Q4: Why did Rutherford select a gold foil in his α–ray scattering experiment?
Answer:
Rutherford wanted a metal sheet that could be as thin as possible for the scattering experiment. Gold is
the most malleable of all the metals known to man. It's simple to make thin sheets out of it. As a result,
for his alpha-ray scattering experiment, Rutherford used gold foil.
Q5: Find out the valency of the atoms represented by the Fig. 4.3 (a) and (b).
Answer:
Atom (a) has zero valency because it has established a stable configuration with 8 electrons in the
valence shell.
The valency of atom (b) is 1 since the valence shell contains 7 electrons. In order to obtain a stable
(octet) configuration, atom (b) can take one additional electron.
Q6: One electron is present in the outer most shell of the atom of an element X. What would be the
nature and value of charge on the ion formed if this electron is removed from the outer most shell?
Answer:
When an electron is removed from the outermost shell, a cation is formed, and the element's charge is
increased to +1.
When a single electron from the outermost shell of an element X is removed, the atom loses its
negative charge and becomes a positively charged ion with a charge of +1.
The net charge on the ion will be equal to the amount of charge present on one electron.
Q7: Write down the electron distribution of chlorine atom. How many electrons are there in the L shell?
(Atomic number of chlorine is 17).
Answer:
Chlorine has an atomic number of 17. As a result, the innermost shell contains 2 electrons, the second
shell has 8 electrons, and the outermost shell has 7 electrons.
K shell – 2 electrons
L shell – 8 electrons
M shell – 7 electrons
The electron configuration of chlorine can be written as 1s22s22p63s23p5 or as [Ne]3s23p5.
Q8: In the atom of an element X, 6 electrons are present in the outermost shell. If it acquires noble gas
configuration by accepting requisite number of electrons, then what would be the charge on the ion so
formed?
Answer:
The electronic configuration of a noble gas is 2,8. It possesses 8 electrons in its outermost orbitals.
Element X contains 6 electrons in its outermost shell. Two more electrons are required to obtain the
noble gas configuration. As a result, in order to achieve a noble gas configuration, the element should
take two electrons, resulting in a charge of -2.
Q9: What information do you get from the Fig. 4.4 about the atomic number, mass number and valency
of atoms X, Y and Z? Give your answer in a tabular form.
Answer:
Atomic number, mass number and valency of atoms X, Y and Z.
Atomic no Mass no Valency
X 5 11 3
Y 8 18 2
Z 15 31 3.5
Q10: In response to a question, a student stated that in an atom, the number of protons is greater than
the number of neutrons, which in turn is greater than the number of electrons. Do you agree with the
statement? Justify your answer.
Answer:
The provided statement is not correct.

According to this comment p > n > e.
The number of protons, on the other hand, is never greater than the number of neutrons.
Because mass number is equal to double the atomic number or greater than double the atomic number,
the number of neutrons might be equal to or greater than the number of protons.
Because the number of electrons equals the number of protons in the neutral atom, the number of
neutrons can be more than the number of electrons.
Q11: Calculate the number of neutrons present in the nucleus of an element X which is represented as
31
X15.
Answer:
Mass number (A) = No. of protons (Z) + No. of neutrons

Given, the mass number as 31 and the number of protons is 15.
No. of protons (Z) + No. of neutrons = 31
∴ Number of neutrons = 31 – number of protons
⇒ Number of neutrons = 31 – 15 = 16.
Q12: Match the names of the Scientists given in column A with their contributions towards the
understanding of the atomic structure as given in column B.
(A) (B)
(a) Ernest Rutherford (i) Indivisibility of atoms

(b) J.J.Thomson (ii) Stationary orbits
(c) Dalton (iii) Concept of the nucleus
(d) Neils Bohr (iv) Discovery of electrons

(e) James Chadwick (v) Atomic number
(f) E. Goldstein (vi) Neutron

(g) Mosley (vii) Canal rays
Answer:
(a) Ernest Rutherford – (iii) Concept of the nucleus

(b) J.J.Thomson – (iv) Discovery of electrons
(c) Dalton – (i) Indivisibility of atoms
(d) Neils Bohr – (ii) Stationary orbits
(e) James Chadwick – (vi) Neutron
(f) E. Goldstein – (vii) Canal rays
(g) Mosley – (v) Atomic number
Q13: The atomic number of calcium and argon are 20 and 18 respectively, but the mass number of
both these elements is 40. What is the name given to such a pair of elements?
Answer:
They are called isobars.

Isobars have different atomic numbers (or protons), but the same mass number.
Q14: Complete Table 4.1 on the basis of information available in the symbols given below.
(a) 3517Cl
(b) 126C
(c) 8135Br
Answer:
Element np nn
Cl 17 18
C 6 6
Br 35 46
Q15: Helium atom has 2 electrons in its valence shell but its valency is not 2, Explain.
Answer:
Electronic arrangement of a helium atom is 1s2 which contains two valence electrons, but because it
does not form a chemical bond, its duplet is complete. As a result, valency is zero.
Q16: Fill in the blanks in the following statements:
(a) Rutherford’s α-particle scattering experiment led to the discovery of the _______.
(b) Isotopes have same ________ but different________.
(c) Neon and chlorine have atomic numbers 10 and 17 respectively. Their valencies will be _______
and ________ respectively.
(d) The electronic configuration of silicon is _______ and that of sulphur is ________.
Answer:
a) Rutherford’s α-particle scattering experiment led to the discovery of the atomic nucleus.
b) Isotopes have same atomic number but different mass number.
c) Neon and chlorine have atomic numbers 10 and 17 respectively. Their valencies will be 0 and 1
respectively.
d) The electronic configuration of silicon is 2.8.4 and that of sulphur is 2.8.6
Q17: An element X has a mass number 4 and atomic number 2. Write the valency of this element.
Answer:
Mass number = 4
Atomic number = 2
X is Helium.
It has 0 valency and it would not react with any other atom because it has its outer shell filled.
Long Answer Type Questions

Q1: Why do Helium, Neon and Argon have a zero valency?
Answer:
An element's valency is its ability to combine. The valency of noble gases is zero since there are no
free electrons in the valence shell and the elements are already in a stable state.
● The outermost orbit of helium has two electrons, filling shell 1 and generating a duplet
arrangement in the valence shell.
● The valence orbit of neon has eight electrons, completing the duplet structure.
● The outermost layer of Argon and Neon has 8 electrons, completing the octet arrangement.
Because these elements have the most electrons in their valence shell, they have a stable electron
configuration and do not participate in chemical reactions.
Q2: The ratio of the radii of hydrogen atom and its nucleus is ~ 105. Assuming the atom and the
nucleus to be spherical,
(i) What will be the ratio of their sizes?
(ii) If atom is represented by planet earth ‘Re’ = 6.4 ×10 6m, estimate the size of the nucleus.
Answer:
Assuming the atom and the nucleus to be spherical,
(i) Atomic size is represented in terms of atomic radius
Volume of the sphere =
………………….. (1)
………………….... (2)
Ratio of volumes
⇒
(ii) If an atom is represented by planet earth ‘Re’ = 6.4×106m, then the radius of the nucleus would be
rn.
Q3: Enlist the conclusions drawn by Rutherford from his α-ray scattering experiment.
Answer:
The α-particle scattering experiment led Rutherford to the following conclusions:–
(i) Because most α-particles travelled through the gold foil with no deflection, most of the space inside
the atom was unoccupied.
(ii) The positive charge occupied very little space inside the atom, as just a few particles were deviated
from their route.
(iii) Only a small percentage of α-particles were deflected by 180°, implying that the positive charge and
mass of the gold atom are concentrated in a compact volume within the atom.
(iv) He also computed that the radius of the nucleus was approximately 105 times smaller than the
radius of the atom based on the data.
Q4: In what way is the Rutherford’s atomic model different from that of Thomson’s atomic model?
Answer:
Rutherford proposed a model in which the electrons moved in well-defined orbits around the nucleus.
An atom has a positively charged centre (later named the "nucleus"). He also proposed that the nucleus
is very small in comparison to the size of the atom, and that the nucleus contains nearly all of an atom's
mass.
Thomson recommended that the atom be modelled after a Christmas pudding. The electrons are
scattered about like currants in a positively charged pudding spherical, and the atom's mass was
expected to be evenly distributed.
Q5: What were the drawbacks of Rutherford’s model of an atom?
Answer:
Rutherford carried out an experiment in which he bombarded a thin sheet of gold with -particles and
then analysed the trajectory of the particles after they collided with the gold foil.
● Rutherford's atomic model could not explain how the moving electrons were able to maintain their
orbit.
● Any charged particle would give forth energy during acceleration, lose energy while revolving, and
eventually fall into the nucleus.
Q6: What are the postulates of Bohr’s model of an atom?
Answer:
The following are the postulates of Bohr's atom model:
1. Electrons circle the nucleus of an atom in a fixed path known as the orbit or stationary state of the
shell.
2. The shells have varying energy levels, represented by the letters K, L, M, and N.
3. The electron does not absorb or release energy as long as it is in an orbit.
4. The electron can only move in orbits where angular momentum is quantized, that is, where the
electron's angular momentum is an integral multiple of h/2𝜋.
Q7: Show diagrammatically the electron distributions in a sodium atom and a sodium ion and also give
their atomic number.
Answer:
The atomic number (Z) of an element is equal to the number of protons in its atom.
Atomic number of sodium (Z) = 11 and Mass number of sodium (A) = 23
Number of protons in the nucleus = 11
Number of neutrons in the nucleus = 23 − 11 = 12
Number of electrons = 11
Thus, electronic configuration of Na-atom = 2, 8, 1(K,L,M)
An electron is lost from the sodium atom(present in the outermost shell), resulting in the formation of
the Na+ ion.
Hence, the electronic configuration is 2, 8(K, L). However, the number of protons and neutrons remains
the same.
Q8: In the Gold foil experiment of Geiger and Marsden, that paved the way for Rutherford’s model of an
atom, ~ 1.00% of the α-particles were found to deflect at angles > 50°. If one mole of α-particles were
bombarded on the gold foil, compute the number of α-particles that would deflect at angles less than
50°.
Answer:
% of α-particles deflected more than 50° = 1% of α-particles.
∴ % of α-particles deflected less than 50° = 100 – 1 = 99%
Number of α-particles bombarded = 1 mole = 6.022 × 1023 particles
∴ Number of particles that deflected at an angle less than 50° = 99/100 × 6.022 × 1023
= 5.96 × 1023
CBSE Class 9 Science Chapter 4 MCQs

1. _______discovered the electron.
(a) Chadwick
(b) Rutherford
(c) Thomson
(d) Goldstein
Answer: (c) Thomson
2. What property of an element determines its chemical behaviour?
(a) Valency of an element

(b) Size of an element
(c) Molar mass of the element
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a) Valency of an element
3. _______ is the radioactive element used in the treatment of cancer.
(a) Iodine-131
(b) Uranium-234
(c) Plutonium-239
(d) Cobalt-60
Answer: (d) Cobalt-60

Important Questions for Class 9
Science
Chapter 4 – Structure of Atoms
Very Short Answer Questions 1 Mark

1. What are canal rays?
Ans: Positively charged rays discovered by E. Goldstein are called canal rays.
2. If an atom contains one electron and one proton, will it carry any charge or
not?
Ans: A single electron contains one negative charge and one single proton contains
one positive charge so they neutralized by each other. That atom will not contain any
charge.
3. Name the three sub-atomic particles of an atom.

Ans: Three sub-atomic particles of an atom are Proton, Neutron and Electron.
4. Rutherford’s alpha-particle scattering experiment was responsible for the

discovery of
(a) Atomic Nucleus
(b) Electron
(c) Proton
(d) Neutron
Ans: (d) Proton
5. Isotopes of an element have

(a) The same physical properties
(b) Different chemical properties
(c) Different number of neutrons
(d) Different atomic numbers
Ans: (a) The same physical properties.
6. Number of valence electrons in Cl − ion are:

(a) 16
(b) 8

(c) 17
(d) 18
Ans: (b) 8
7. Which one of the following is a correct electronic configuration of sodium?

(a) 2,8
(b) 8,2,1
(c) 2,1,8
(d) 2,8,1
Ans: (b) 2,8
8. Atomic Number of an element is equal to:

(a) Number of Protons
(b) Number of electrons
(c) Number of neutrons
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans: (a) Number of Protons
9. The charge of proton (p + ) is:

(a) +1.6  10−19 C
(b) −1.6  10−19 C
(c) +1.6  1019 C
(d) −1.6  1019 C
Ans: (a) +1.6 10−19 C
10. 20 22
10 Ne and 10 Ne are
(a) Isotopes
(b) Isobars
(c) Isotones
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans: (a) Isotopes
11. Helium ( 4
2 He ) has:
(a) 2P + and 2n
(b) 2P + and 4n

(c) 4P + and 2n
(d) 2P + and 4n
Ans: (a) 2P + and 2n
12. In which form is oxygen available?

(a) O 2−
(b) O 2+
(c) O
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Ans: (a) O 2+
13. How many electrons does Na+ has in its outermost shell?
(a) 10
(b) 11
(c) 18
(d) 8
Ans: (d) 8
14. Atomic number of an element during a Chemical reaction.

(a) Increases
(b) Remain Constant
(c) Decreases
(d) May be (a) or (c)
Ans: (b) Remain constant
15. The molecular formula for Aluminum chloride is

(a) Al 3Cl
(b) AlCl 3
(c) AlCl 3
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Ans: (c) AlCl3
16. Atomicity of fluorine is:

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Ans: (b) 2
17. Molecular formula for calcium fluoride is-

(a) CaF2
(b) CaF
(c) Ca 2F
(d) 2CaF
Ans: (a) CaF2
18. Electronic configuration of calcium is

(a) 2,8,8,2
(b) 2,8,6,4
(c) 2,8,7,1
(d) 2,8,1,7
Ans: (a) 2,8,8,2
19. Nitrogen is:

(a) Monatomic
(b) Diatomic
(c) Triatomic
(d) Tetratomic
Ans: (b) Diatomic
Short Answer Question 2 Marks

20. On the basis of Thomson’s model of an atom, explain how the atomic neutral
as a whole.
Ans: As per Thomson’s model of an atom, the number of electrons and the number
of protons are equal in an atom. Electrons are positively charged and protons are
negatively charged, hence the + and – charges are neutralized by each other that
makes atom neutral as a whole.
21. On the basis of Rutherford’s model of an atom, which subatomic particle is

present in the nucleus of an atom?
Ans: The sub atomic particle proton is present in the nucleus of an atom according
to Rutherford’s model of an atom.

22. Draw a sketch of Bohr’s model of an atom with three shells.
Ans: Bohr’s model of an atom with three shells is as follows:
23. What do you think would be the observation if the  − particle scattering
experiment is carried out using a foil of a metal other than gold?
Ans: If the  − particle scattering experiment is carried out using a foil of a metal
other than gold we will get the different observation.
24. Helium atom has an atomic mass of 4 u and two protons in its nucleus. How
many neutrons does it have?
Ans: The atomic mass of an atom is the sum of masses of protons and neutrons
present in its nucleus.
Given that the mass of helium atom is 4 u and two protons present in its nucleus.
So the number of neutrons will be
Number of neutrons = atomic mass − number of protons
 Number of neutrons = 4 − 2
 Number of neutrons = 2
Therefore, helium atom has 2 neutrons.
25. Write the distribution of electrons in carbon and sodium atoms.

Ans: Atomic number of carbon is 6 and atomic number of sodium is 11.
So distribution of electrons in carbon atom is 6 = 2,4
Distribution of electrons in sodium atom is 11 = 2,8,1.
26. If K and L shells of an atom are full, then what would be the total number
of electrons in the atom?
Ans: K shell contains total 2 electrons and L shell contains maximum 8 electrons. If
K and L shells of an atom are full, then the total number of electron in the atom will
be 10.
27. If number of electrons in an atom is 8 and number of protons is also 8, then

(i) What is the atomic number of the atom?
Ans: The atomic number of an atom is equal to the number of protons or electrons
present in its nucleus. So the atomic number of an atom with 8 electrons and 8
protons is 8.
(ii) What is the charge on the atom?

Ans: A single electron contains one negative charge and one single proton contains
one positive charge. There are equal number of electrons and protons in an atom so
they neutralize each other. The atom will be neutral.
28. With the help of Table 4.1, find out the mass number of oxygen and Sulphur
atom.
Ans: The mass number of an atom is equal to the sum of protons and neutrons
Mass number of oxygen = 8 + 8
Mass number of oxygen = 16
Mass number of Sulpher = 16 + 16
Mass number of Sulpher = 32
29. What are the limitations of J.J. Thomson’s model of the atom?
Ans: The J.J. Thomson’s atomic model was failed to explain the organization of
electrons in an atom.
30. Na+ has completely filled K and L shells. Explain.

Ans: Sodium (Na) has atomic number 11, so the electronic configuration of Na is
2,8,1.

It has single electron in outermost shell, when it gives away that electron it becomes
Na + and has electronic configuration 2,8. Also K shell contains total 2 electrons and
L shell contains maximum 8 electrons. So Na + has completely filled K and L shells.
31. If z = 3 , what would be the valency of the element? Also, name the element.
Ans: z = 3 represents that element has 3 electrons in its shells. The electronic
configuration is 2,1. It means in outermost shell electron has 1 electron, so its
valency is 1. The element is Lithium.
32. Composition of the nuclei of two atomic species X and Y are given as under
X Y
Protons 6 6
Neutrons 6 8
Give the mass number of X and Y. What is the relation between the two species?
Ans: The mass number of an atom is equal to the sum of protons and neutrons
So the mass number of X is = 6 + 6 = 12
Mass number of Y is = 6 + 8 = 14
Number of protons is same in X and Y but the atomic numbers are different. X and
Y are isotopes.
33. For the following statements, write T for True and F for False.
(a) J.J. Thomson proposed that the nucleus of an atom contains only nucleons.
Ans: False
(b) A neutron is formed by an electron and a proton combining together.

Therefore, it is neutral.
Ans: True
(c) The mass of an electron is about 12000 times that of proton.

Ans: True
(d) An isotope of iodine is used for making tincture iodine, which is used as a

medicine.
Ans: False
34. The nucleus of an atom of Bi – 210 (atomic number = 83) emits  − particle
and becomes a polonium nuclide. Write as equation for the nuclear change
described.
Ans: Whenever  − particle emits from the nucleus of an atom, atomic number of
that atom is increased by 1 but the mass number remains same.
So when  − particle emits from Bi – 210 (atomic number = 83) it becomes polonium
nuclide. The equation for the nuclear change is as follows:
83 Bi → 84 Po + −1 e .
210 210 0
35. How can one conclude that electrons are fundamental particles?
e
Ans: The ratio of electron remains similar irrespective of the nature of gas and
m
electrodes inside the discharge tube. So we can conclude that electrons are
fundamental particles.
36. What happens to the nucleus of an atom when it emits a  − ray?

Ans: There is no change in mass or charge of nuclide when it emits  − ray. The
energy of nucleus decreases equal to the energy of photon emitted.
37. Write the electronic configuration of following ions:

(a) Cl−
Ans: Electronic configuration of Cl− ion is 2,8,8.
(b) Mg
Ans: Electronic configuration of Mg ion is 2,8,2.
(c) Al3+
Ans: Electronic configuration of Al3+ ion is 2,8.
(d) O
Ans: Electronic configuration of O is 2,6.

38. State Mendeleev’s periodic law?
Ans: Mendeleev’s Periodic law states that the properties of elements are periodic
function of their atomic mass. Properties of elements are depends on the atomic
mass.
39. Define ionization energy and electron affinity?

Ans: Ionization energy of a component is that the amount of energy that has got to
be supplied to at least one mole of the element within the gaseous state to get one
mole of caters within the gaseous state.
Electron affinity point is that the energy change that accompanies the formation of
1 mole of anions within the gaseous state from one mole of the atoms of the element
within the gaseous state.
40. Why is atomic number is more important than atomic weight in predicting
the chemical properties of elements?
Ans: Atomic number is that the number of protons in an atom and through a reaction
the number of protons remains unchanged. Atomic number also gives number of
electrons. Electrons are present in shell which participate in chemical reactions and
decides chemical properties. Whereas relative atomic mass is that the sum of number
of protons and number of neutrons so number is more important in predicting the
chemical properties of elements.
41. What are the advantages of the Periodic Table?

Ans: In periodic table elements are arranged in a tabular form. So it is easy to
remember the properties of elements if the position is known. Also the compounds
formed by the elements are predictable if the position of element is known. Periodic
table made easy and systematic the study of chemistry.
42. Which of the following electronic configuration are wrong and why?
(a) 2,8,2
(b) 2,8,8,2
(c) 2,8,9,1.
Ans: From the given electronic configuration, 2,8,9,1 is wrong because in third shell
maximum number of electrons is 8. The correct electronic configuration is 2,8,8,2.
43. What are ions? What are its two types?

Ans: When one or more electrons are detached from a neural atom, a positively
charged particle is formed and called an ion. Ions may be cations and anions.
44. Show diagrammatically the formation of O 2− ion?
Ans: Atomic number of oxygen is 8 and its electronic configuration is 2,6. In
outermost shell oxygen has 6 electrons. To complete its octet and becomes stable it
needs 2 electrons. By gaining 2 electrons it becomes O 2− ion.
Diagrammatic representation of formation of O 2− ion is as follows:
45. Define isotopes and isobars?

Ans: Isotopes are atoms which have identical atomic number but different mass
number. Example of isotopes is 126 C, 146 C .
Isobars are atoms have different atomic number but same mass number. Example of
isobars is 40 40
18 Ar, 19 K .
Short Answer Questions 3 Marks

46. For the symbol H, D and T tabulate three sub-atomic particles found in each
of them.
Ans: H represents the hydrogen atom, D represents the deuterium atom and T
represents the tritium atom. Three sub-atomic particles present in each of them is
represented as follows:
Symbol Number of Number of protons Number of

electrons neutrons
H (hydrogen) 1 1 0
D (deuterium) 1 1 1
T (tritium) 1 1 2
47. Write the electronic configuration of any one pair of isotopes and isobars.
Ans: Electronic configuration of pair of isotopes of carbon is 126 C, 146 C . Isotopes have
same number of electrons and protons.
Electronic configuration of pair of isobars of argon and calcium is 40 40
18 Ar, 20 Ca .
48. Compare the properties of electrons, protons and neutrons.
Ans: Comparison of electrons, protons and neutrons is as follows:
Protons Neutrons Electrons

Protons are positively Neutrons are neutral (no Electrons are negatively
charged. charge). charged.
Mass of proton is equal to Mass of neutron is equal Mass of an electron is equal
one hydrogen atom i.e. 1 to a proton. 1
to of the mass of a
a.m.u. Neutron is present inside 1838
Protons are present in the the nucleus of an atom. proton.
nucleus of an atom. Electrons are present outside
the nucleus of an atom.
49. What are the limitations of Rutherford’s model of the atom?

Ans: Rutherford’s model of atom is failed to explain the stability of atom because
as per his model electrons revolve around the nucleus and while moving through
orbit should emit energy and this energy loss will shrink the orbit and finally the
electron would hit the nucleus and thus atom is unstable but it is not true.
50. Define valency by taking examples of silicon and oxygen.

Ans: The valency of electrons is determined by electrons present in the outermost
shell of an atom. Electrons present in the outermost shell of an atom are known as
the valence elctrons. Electrons gain or lose electrons to complete its octet. The
valency of silicon is 14 and electronic configuration is 2,8,4. So silicon can gain or
lose 4 electrons. So the valency of silicon is +4 or -4.
Atomic number of oxygen is 8 and electronic configuration is 2,6. To complete its
octet oxygen gain 2 electrons hence the valency of oxygen is 2.
51. If bromine atom is available in the form of, say, two isotopes 79
35 Br ( 49.7% )
81
& 35 Br ( 50.3% ) , Calculate the average atomic mass of bromine atom.
Ans: The average atomic mass of bromine is
79  49.7 + 81  50.3
=
100

3926.3 + 4074.3
=
100
8000.6
=
100
= 80u
Average atomic mass of bromine atom is 80 u.
52. The average atomic mass of a sample of an element X is 16.2 u. What are
the percentages of isotopes 168 X 188 X and in the sample?
Ans: Average atomic mass of sample is given as
16X + 18  (100 − X )
100
We get
16X + 18  (100 − X )
 16.2 =
100
 1620 = −2X + 1800
 2X = 1800 − 1620
 2X = 180
X = 90
16 18
The percentage of isotopes is 8 X(90%) and 8 X(10%) .
53. In a gold – foil experiment:

(a) Why did many  − particles pass through the gold foil undeflected?
Ans: Most of the space within the atom was empty so many  − particles pass
through the gold foil undeflected.
(b) Why did few  − particles deflect through small angles.

Ans: In a gold foil at center there is a positive charge so few  − particles deflect
through small angles.
(c) Why did few  − particles, after striking the gold foil, retrace their path.
Ans: In a gold foil there is a positively charged nucleus which is very tiny so few
 − particles, after striking the gold foil, retrace their path.
54. Compare the three major particles in atoms with respect to their mass and
charge?
Ans: Comparison of three major particles proton, neutron and electron with respect
to their mass and charge is as follows:
Particles Symbol Mass Charge
1. Proton P+ 1836 ( 9.1  10−31 ) Kg +1.6 10−19 C
2. Neutron N0 1836 ( 9.1  10−31 ) Kg 0
3. Electron e− 9.1  10−31 Kg −1.6 10−19 C
Inside an atom electron revolves around the nucleus in a circular path. Protons and
neutrons are present inside the nucleus.
55. Write an experiment to show cathode rays are deflected by magnetic fields?
Ans: Experiment to show that cathode rays were deflected by magnetic fields is as
follows:
● First take a discharge tube with fluorescent material inside it.
● Place a horse – shoe magnet in the center of the discharge tube.
● When cathodic rays are produced and travel through discharge tube, then
cathode rays get deflected by magnetic field of the magnets in the direction of
anode. Also they are negatively charged.
The diagram of experiment is as follows:

56. Write the postulates of Bohr theory?
Ans: The postulate of Bohr’s theory is as follows:
● An electron revolves around the nucleus in the orbit of an atom in a definite
path known as orbits or shells.
● Energy of each orbit is fixed.
● Energy increases from inner shell to the outer shells i.e. energy for orbit
nearest the nucleus is lowest.
● If energy is supplied then electron moves from lower orbit to the higher orbit.
57. Explain the variation of atomic radius along a period and down a group.
Ans: The atomic radius of an atom increases when we move down as extra shell is
added. The atomic radius decreases when we move from left to right as the nuclear
charge of an element increases.
58. Why metals are electropositive and non-metals are electronegative in

nature?
Ans: Metals are electropositive in nature because all metals give away electrons
from their outermost shell in order to complete the octet and become stable. So
metals become positively charged. Non-metals are electronegative in nature because
all non-metals gain electrons in order to complete the octet and become stable. So
non-metals become negatively charged.

59. Explain the formation of Al 3+ ion and why is it formed?
Ans: Aluminum has atomic number of 13. The electronic configuration of Al is
2,8,3. It has 3 electrons in the outermost shell and to become stable it needs to
complete its octet. In outermost shell maximum number of electrons must be 8. So
it is easy to lose 3 electrons and complete the octet. By giving away the 3 outermost
electrons it becomes Al3+ ion.
60. Find the percentage composition of sucrose ( C12 H 22O11 ) .

Ans: The molecular mass of sucrose ( C12 H 22O11 ) is
( C12H 22O11 ) = 12  12 + 22 + 11  16
( C12H 22O11 ) = 144 + 22 + 176
( C12H 22O11 ) = 342g / mol
342 g of sucrose contains 144g Carbon, 22 g Hydrogen and 176 g Oxygen.
So 100 g sucrose contains:
100  144
C= = 42.11g
342
100  22
H= = 6.43g
342
100  176
O= = 51.46g
342
So the percentage composition of sucrose is
C = 42.11%
H = 6.43%
O = 51.46% .
61. Complete the following table:
Ion Number of Z N A
electrons
(a) 86
Rb + 37
(b) 24
Mg 2+ 12
(c) 80
Br − 35
Ans: In the given table element is represented as AZ X .

Here, X is the symbol of element,
Z is the symbol of atomic number which is equal to number of protons,
A is the symbol of mass number which is equal to the sum of number of protons and
number of neutrons.
By using above information we get the complete table as:
Ion Number of Z N A
electrons
(a) 86
Rb + 37 36 37 49 86
(b) 24
Mg 2+12 10 12 12 24
(c) 80
Br − 35 36 35 45 80
62. Calculate the following:

(a) The number of gram – atoms of oxygen
Ans: Oxygen atom is represented as O 2 . In oxygen 2 gram atoms are present.

(b) The number of atom of oxygen
Ans: Gram atomic mass of oxygen is 6.023  1023 atoms .
16 g of oxygen has 6.023  1023 atoms .
6.023  1023  32
So 32 g of oxygen has = 1.205  1024 atoms .
16
(c) The number of molecules in 32 g of ozone O 3  .

Ans: We know that 48 g of ozone contains 6.023  1023 molecules .
6.023  1023
So 1 g of ozone contains molecules.
48
6.023  1023  32
Thus 32 g of ozone has = 4.015  1023 molecules.
48
(d) What mass of water will contain the same number of molecules as 8.0 g of
ferrous oxide [FeO]?
Ans: We know that the atomic mass of 18 g of water is 6.023  1023 atoms .
Ferrous oxide is 56 + 16 = 72g
So atomic mass of 72 g of FeO is 6.023  1023 atoms .
6.023  1023
Now, 1 g of FeO is =
72
6.023  1023  8
Also, 8 g of FeO is = .
72
8 g of FeO is = 0.669  1023 .
Now, 18 g of water is 6.023  1023 atoms .
So we get
18
gms = 1 atom
6.023  1023
18  0.669  1023
 gms = 0.669  1023 atoms
6.023  10 23
Therefore, 2g of water contains = 0.669  1023 .

So 2g of water will contain the same number of molecules as 8 g of ferrous oxide.

Long Answer Questions 5 Marks
63. How will you find the valency of chlorine, Sulphur and magnesium?
Ans: The valency of electrons is determined by electrons present in the outermost
shell of an atom. Electrons present in the outermost shell of an atom are known as
the valence elctrons. Those electrons determine the valency of that atom.
The atomic number of chlorine is 17 and the electronic configuration is 2,8,7.
Thus chlorine has 7 electrons in outermost shell and to complete its octet it needs 1
more electron. So the valency of chlorine is one.
The atomic number of Sulphur is 16 and the electronic configuration is 2,8,6.
Thus Sulphur has 6 electrons in outermost shell and to complete its octet it needs 2
more electron. So the valency of Sulphur is two.
The atomic number of Magnesium is 12 and the electronic configuration is 2,8,2.
Thus Magnesium has 2 electrons in outermost shell. It is easy to give away two
valence electrons. So the valency of Magnesium is two.
64. Describe Bohr’s model of the atom.

Ans: There are some drawbacks in Rutherford’s atomic model. So to overcome this
and to explain structure of atom in detail Neil Bohr in 1912 proposed a model of
atom. The postulates of Bohr’s model are given below:
● An electron revolves around the nucleus in the orbit of an atom with fixed
energy.
● Energy of orbits increases from inner shell to the outer shells i.e. energy for
orbit nearest the nucleus is lowest.
● If energy is supplied then electron moves from lower orbit to the higher orbit
and if an electron jumps from higher orbit (energy level) to the lower orbit
(energy level) then energy is emitted as electromagnetic waves.
● Each orbit or shell represents an energy level by an integer number as
n=1,2,3,…. Such orbits are characterized as K,L,M,N……….. and titled from
nucleus side to outwards.
65. Compare all the proposed models of an atom given in this chapter.
Ans: There are three proposed models of an atom are discussed in detail i.e.
Thomson’s model, Rutherford’s model and Bohr’s model.
The comparison between the three is given below:

Thomson’s model Rutherford’s model Bohr’s model
According to the Thomson’s This model explains According to Bohr’s
model atom has negatively that there is a nucleus in model electrons are
charged electrons in the center of an atom revolves around the
positively charged sphere. and electrons revolves nucleus in a specific path
So the atom as a whole is around that nucleus. known as orbits or shells
neutral as negative and The arrangement of with a fixed energy.
positive charges are equal in electrons is not An electron has complete
magnitude. explained in this model atomic shells thus atom
This model fails to explain thus it seems to be becomes more stable.
the stability of an atom. incomplete.
66. Summarize the rules for writing of distribution of electrons in various shells
for the first eighteen elements.
Ans: The following rules are followed for writing the number of electrons in
different energy levels or shells:
● The maximum number of electrons existing in a shell is given by the formula
2n 2 , where ‘n’ is the orbit number or energy level and is equal to 1,2,3,…
● Hence the maximum number of electrons in different shells are as follows:
In first orbit or also known as K-shell will be 2  12 = 2 (n=1).
In second orbit or also known as L-shell will be 2  22 = 8 (n=2).
In third orbit or also known as M-shell will be 2  32 = 18 (n=3) and so on.
● In outermost shell the maximum number of electron can be 8.
● First inner shells are filled than outer shells are filled. Electrons are not put up
in a given shell, unless the inner shells are filled. That
67. Explain following with examples and Give any two uses of isotopes.
(i) Atomic number
Ans: Atomic number of an atom is equal to the number of protons present inside the
nucleus of that atom. It is represented by Z.
(ii) Mass number

Ans: The atomic mass of an atom is the sum of masses of protons and neutrons
present in its nucleus. It is represented by A. for example mass number of Carbon is
12 u because it has 6 protons and 6 neutrons in its nucleus.

(iii) Isotopes
Ans: Isotopes are atoms which have identical atomic number but different mass
number. Example of isotopes is 126 C, 146 C .
(iv) Isobars
Ans: Isobars are atoms have different atomic number but same mass number.
Example of isobars is 40 40
18 Ar, 19 K . Total number of neutrons is same in the atoms.
Two uses of isotopes are as follows:
● An isotope of uranium is used in nuclear reactor as a fuel.
● An isotope of cobalt is used in the treatment of cancer.
(v) Complete the following table.
Atomic Mass Number of Number of Number of Name of

number number neutrons protons electrons the atomic
species
9 - 10 - - -
16 32 - - - Sulphur
- 24 - 12 - -
- 2 - 1 - -
- 1 0 1 0 -
Ans: The complete table is as follows:

Atomic Mass Number of Number of Number of Name of the
number number neutrons protons electrons atomic species
9 19 10 9 9 Fluorine
16 32 16 16 16 Sulphur
12 24 12 12 12 Magnesium
1 2 1 1 1 Deuterium
1 1 0 1 0 Hydrogen ion

CBSE Class 9 Science
Important Questions
Chapter 10
Gravitaion
1 Marks Questions
1. What is the acceleration of free fall?
Ans. The acceleration of free fall is g = 9.8 m/s2(on earth).
2. What do we call the gravitational force between the earth and an object?
Ans. Weight.
3. In what direction does the buoyant force on an object immersed in a liquid act?
Ans. In the upward direction only.
4. Even though stone also attracts earth towards itself, earth does not move
(a) Because of greater mass of earth
(b) Because of lesser mass of stone
(c) Force exerted by stone is less
(d) Force exerted earth is large
Ans. (a) Because of greater mass of earth
5. The weight of an object is:
(a) Greater on earth and lesser on Moon
(b) Lesser on earth and Greater on earth
1
(c) Equal on both earth and Moon
(d) None of these
Ans. (a) Greater on earth and lesser on Moon
6. Weight of an object has S.I, unit of:
(a) Newton
(b) kg
(c) N/Kg
(d) Kg/N
Ans. (a) Newton
7. Which of the statements is correct?
(a) Mass is constant and weight is variable
(b) Mass is variable and weight is constant.
(c) Both Mass and weight are variable
(d) Both Mass and weight are constant.
Ans. (a) Mass is constant and weight is variable
8. If cross – sectional area of an object is more than the pressure applied by the
external force is:
(a) Less
(b) More
(c) Remains same
(d) None of the above.
2
Ans. (a) Less
9. If the acceleration due to gravity at a place is more, the weight of that object will:
(a) Decrease
(b) Increase
(c) Remains same
Ans. (b) Increase
10. Weight of the object is:
(a) More at the equator and less at poles
(b) More at poles and less at equator
(d) Same at poles and equator
(d) Depend on Mass of the object
Ans. (b) More at poles and less at equator
11. If the distance between the object increase, mass remaining same then the
gravitational forces between the object will :-
(a) Increase
(b) Decrease
(c) Remain same
(d) None of the above.
Ans. (a) Increase
3
12. The S. I. units of mass, force and weight are respectively:
(a) Kg, N, N
(b) N, Kg, N
(c) N, N, Kg
(d) Kg, N, Kg
Ans. (a) Kg, N, N
13. Units of ‘g’ are:
(a)
(b) N/Kg
(c)
(d)
Ans. (a)
14. The relation between the weight of an object on the moon ( ) and on the earth (
) is:
(a)
(b) Wm = We
(c)
(d) Wm = 6We
Ans. (a)
4
15. S. I. unite of Pressure:
(a)
(b)
(c) Nm
(d) N/m
Ans. (b)
16. Units of pressure are:
(a)
(b)
(c) Nm
(d) N/m
Ans. (b)
17. Units of Relative Density are:
(a)
(c) Depends on the density of the substance
(b) Unit less
(d) Depend on the density of water
Ans. (b) Unit less
18. Pressure at a point in the liquid is
5
(a) Same in all directions
(b) Greater in the upward direction
(c) Grater in the downward direction
(d) None of the Above
Ans. (a) Same in all directions
19. If the area of an object is less than the pressure acting on that object will be
(a) Less
(b) More
(c) Independent of area
Ans. (b) More
6
Important Questions
Chapter 10
Gravitaion
2 Marks Questions
1. What do you mean by free fall?
Ans. It is the object falling towards earth under the influence of attraction force of earth or
gravity.
2. What do you mean by acceleration due to gravity?
Ans. During free fall any object that has mass experiences force towards centre of earth and
hence an acceleration works as well. “acceleration experienced by an object in its freefall is
called acceleration due to gravity.” It is denoted by g.
3. Why is it difficult to hold a schoolbag having a strap made of a thin and strong
string?
Ans. It is difficult to hold a schoolbag having a strap made of a thin and strong string because
a bag of that kind will make its weight fall over a small area of the shoulder and produce a
greater pressure that makes holding the bag difficult and painful.
4. What do you mean by buoyancy?
Ans. It is the upward force experienced by an object when it is immersed into a fluid.
5. You find your mass to be 42 kg on a weighing machine. Is your mass more or less than
42 kg?
Ans. Mass will be slightly more than 42 kg.
7
6. You have a bag of cotton and anir on bar, each indicating a mass of 100 kg when
measured on a weighing machine. In reality, one is heavier than other. Can you say
which one is heavier and why?
Ans. The bag of cotton is heavier since volume of cotton bag is greater than iron bar, so the
up thrust is larger in case of cotton hence real mass of cotton bag is more and it is heavier.
7. How does the force of gravitation between two objects change when the distance
between them is reduced to half?
Ans. The force of gravitation between two objects is inversely proportional to the square of
the distance between them therefore the gravity will become four times if distance between
them is reduced to half.
8. Gravitational force acts on all objects in proportion to their masses. Why then, a
heavy object does not fall faster than alight object?
Ans. In free fall of objects the acceleration in velocity due to gravity is independent of mass
of those objects hence a heavy object does not fall faster than alight object.
9. What is the magnitude of the gravitational force between the earth and a 1 kg object
on its surface? (Mass of the earth is and radius of the earth is
.)
Ans. F = G
= 9.81 N
10. The earth and the moon are attracted to each other by gravitational force. Does the
8
earth attract the moon with a force that is greater or smaller or the same as the force
with which the moon attracts the earth? Why?
Ans. The earth and the moon are attracted to each other by same gravitational force because
for both of them formula to calculate force of attraction is the same
F = G
d is also same for both.
11. If the moon attracts the earth, why does the earth not move towards the moon?
Ans. Earth does not move towards moon because mass of moon is very small as compared to
that of earth.
12. Amit buys few grams of gold at the poles as per the instruction of one of his friends.
He hands over the same when he meets him at the equator. Will the friend agree with
the weight of gold bought? If not, why? [Hint: The value of g is greater at the poles than
at the equator.]
Ans. Since and given in the question that value of g is greater at the poles than
at the equator, hence weight of same amount of gold will be lesser at equator than it was on
the poles. Therefore, the friend will not agree with the weight of gold bought.
13. Why will a sheet of paper fall slower than one that is crumpled into a ball?
Ans. A greater surface area offers greater resistance and buoyancy same is true in the case of
a sheet of paper that has larger surface area as compared to paper crumpled into a ball. So
sheet of paper falls slower.
14. Gravitational force on the surface of the moon is only 1/6 as strong as gravitational
force on the earth. What is the weight in newton’s of a 10 kg object on the moon and on
the earth?
Ans. value of gravity on earth =
9
value of gravity on moon = 1/6th of earth = 9.8/6 =
weight of object on moon = 16.3 N
weight of object on earth = 98 N
15. A ball is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity of 49 m/s. Calculate
(i) the maximum height to which it rises,
(ii) the total time it takes to return to the surface of the earth.
Ans. (i) v = u + gt
9.8t = 49
t = 49/9.8 = 5 s
= 245 -122.5 = 122.5
(ii) total time taken to return = 5 + 5 = 10 s
16. A stone is released from the top of a tower of height 19.6 m. Calculate its final
velocity.
Ans.
t = 2
10
since v= u + at
= 19.6 m/s
17. Calculate the force of gravitation between the earth and the Sun, given that the
mass of the earth and of the Sun . The average distance
between the two is .
Ans.
18. Why does a block of plastic released under water come up to the surface of water?
Ans. Since of plastic has density very less as compared to water i.e. weight of plastic is less
than the buoyant force experienced by it therefore a block of plastic released under water
come up to the surface of water/floats.
19. The volume of 50 g of a substance is . If the density of water is , will
the substance float or sink?
Ans. Density of that substance (d) = mass/volume = 50/20 =
since the density of substance (2.5) is greater than the density of water (1) therefore it will
sink.
20. State the Universal law of Gravitation?
Ans. According to Universal law of Gravitation every particle in the universe attracts every
other particle with a force which is directly proportional to the product of their masses and
11
inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.
Let = Masses of two bodies
r = Distance of separation
f = force acting b/w them
So,
G = Universal Gravitational constant
21. If heavier bodies are attracted more strongly by the earth, why do they not fall
faster to the ground?
Ans. Heavier bodies do not fall fast on the ground even though they are attracted by the
earth strongly because of their larger mass, the acceleration produced in them by the force of
earth will be less as
F = m
m-mass, F=force, a = Acceleration
so if Mass is more, Acceleration will be less
22. State Archimedes Principle?
Ans. According to Archimedes Principle when a body is partially or completely immersed in

a fluid, experiences an up thrust which is equal to the weight of fluid displaced.
23. A stone is dropped from the edge of the roof. It passes a window 2m high is 0.1 s.
12
How far is the roof above the window?
Ans. S = h = height
u = Initial velocity
t = Time
g = Acceleration due to gravity
Let, the time taken to fall through height ‘h’ is ‘t’ so,
equation – (1) (-h because fall is downward)
Let to fall (h = 2) m time taken is (t + 0.1) s.
Subtract equation (2) from (1)
13
Substitute t in equation (1)
The roof is 19.0 m above the window.
24. How does acceleration due to gravity change with the shape of earth?
Ans. Since earth is not a perfect sphere, it is flattened from the top and bulges at the centre
and acceleration due to gravity (g) is inversely proportional to the radius of earth so, g is
more at poles because of lesser radius and less at equator because of greater radius.
25. What do you understand by the gravitational force of earth and weight?
Ans. Gravitational force of earth is the force by which earth exerts on any object towards
itself.
Weight is the force which the object exerts on the earth.
26. A man of mass 60 Kg is standing on the floor holding a stone weighing 40 N. What is
the force with which the floor is pushing him up?
14
Ans. The gravitational pull on the man = Mg
The weight he is carrying = 40 N
The total downward force on the floor = 40 N + 600 N
= 640 N
The Gravitational force and upward force of the floor is an action – reaction pair.
The force with which the floor pushes the man = 640 N.
27. What is acceleration due to gravity and how is it different from acceleration?
Ans. Acceleration due to gravity is the acceleration produced in the object when it falls freely
under the effect of gravitational force of earth only. Acceleration is produced when any
external force applied on the body makes it to move.
28. If the mass of one object is doubled and mass of other remains the same and if
distance between them is halved then how does the gravitational force change?
Ans. Let = Mass of first object
= Mass of second object
R = Distance between the two objects
G = Universal Gravitational constant
F = Gravitational force.
15
Using equal 1)
29. Show that if mass of two bodies are equal their weights will be same in whichever
part of universe it may be measured?
Ans. Consider two bodies of masses and . Let them be taken to a planet whose mass is
and the radius to be . The gravitational force of attraction exerted by the planet on
the mass will be:
Force between planet and =
Force between planet and =
16
If two bodies have the same mass, that is if then
are the weights of the bodies on that planet. Therefore, if the mass of two bodies
are equal, their weights will be same.
30. The radius of the earth is about 6370 Km. An object of mass 30 Kg is taken to a height
of 230 Km above the surface of earth.
(a) What is the mass of the body
(b) What is the acceleration to gravity at this height
(c) What is the weight of the body at this height.
Ans. a) The mass of the body will be 30 Kg because mass is constant
b) The distance of the body form the centre of the earth = 6370 + 230 Km
= 6600 Km
Acceleration due to gravity = g =
c) Weight at that height = mg
= 274.8 N
31. What is the importance of the universal law of Gravitation?
Ans. The importance of universal law of gravitation:
17
1) The force that binds us to the earth.
2) The motion of the moon around the earth.
3) The motion of the planet around the sun
4) The tides due to the moon and the sun
32. Define Pressure? How is thrust different from Pressure?
Ans. The pressure due to a force is defined as the force acting or unit area.
Pressure (P) =
A unit of Pressure is .
Thrust is also the pressure but it is the force acting on a surface normal to its area.
33. What are fluids? What are the factors on which the upward pressure at a point on a
fluid depends?
Ans. Fluids are that which flow and it includes both liquids and gases.
Factors on which the upward pressure at a point of the fluid depends are:
1) the depth of the point from the surface of the liquid.
2) the density of the liquid
3) the acceleration due to gravity.
34. Define density and relative density?
Ans. Density of a substance is defined as the mass of the unit volume of the substance. Its
units are .
Relative Density of a substance is the ratio of the density of the substance to the density of
18
water.
Relative Density of substance =
It is unit less.
35. Calculate the pressure at a depth of 50 m below the surface of sea. The density of sea
water is .
Ans. Depth of the point where = 5 cm or 0.05 m pressure is to be calculated
Density of sea water =
Acceleration due to gravity =
Pressure = Depth Density of water Acceleration due of gravity
Pressure = or Pa
19
Important Questions
Chapter 10
Gravitaion
3 Marks Questions
1. State the universal law of gravitation.
Ans. According to Newton’s universal law of gravitation:
Every mass in this universe attracts every other mass with a force which is directly
proportional to the product of two masses and inversely proportional to the square of the
distance between them.
2. Write the formula to find the magnitude of the gravitational force between the earth
and an object on the surface of the earth.
Ans. The formula to find the magnitude of the gravitational force between the earth and an
object on the surface of the earth is given below:
F = magnitude of gravitational force
G = Universal gravitation constant
M = mass of earth
m = mass of object
d = distance of object from the centre of earth
3. What are the differences between the mass of an object and its weight?
Ans.
20
4. Why is the weight of an object on the moon 1/6th its weight on the earth?
Ans. since we know Mass of object remains the same whether on earth or
moon but the value of acceleration on moon is 1/6th of the value of acceleration on earth.
Because of this weight of an object on moon is 1/6th its weight on the earth.
5. Why does an object float or sink when placed on the surface of water?
Ans. As an object comes in contact with the surface of a fluid it experiences two types of
forces: gravitational force or gravity that pulls the object in downward direction and the
second force is the force of buoyancy that pushes the object in upward direction.
It is these two forces that are responsible for an object to float or sink
i.e. if gravity >buoyancy then object sinks
if gravity<buoyancy then object floats.
6. What happens to the force between two objects, if
(i) the mass of one object is doubled?
(ii) the distance between the objects is doubled and tripled?
(iii) the masses of both objects are doubled?
Ans. (i) the force between two objects will be doubled.
(ii) the force between two objects will become 1/4th and 1/9th of the present force.
21
(iii) the force between two objects will become four times the present force.
7. What is the importance of universal law of gravitation?
Ans. The universal law of gravitation is important due to the following:
i) this law explains well the force that binds us to earth.
ii) this law describes the motion of planets around the sun.
iii) this law justifies the tide formation on earth due to moon and sun.
iv) this law gives reason for movement of moon around earth.
8. A stone is thrown vertically upward with an initial velocity of40 m/s.
Taking , find the maximum height reached by the stone. What is the net
displacement and the total distance covered by the stone?
Ans. Initial velocity of stone (u) = 40 m/s
at maximum height stone will be at rest so v= 0
v = u + gt
10t = 40
t = 40/10 = 4 s
distance covered /maximum height
= 160 - 80 = 80 m
net displacement of stone = 0(thrown upwards then falls back to same place)
22
total distance covered by the stone = 80 + 80 = 160 m
9. The volume of a 500 g sealed packet is . Will the packet float or sink in water
if the density of water is ? What will be the mass of the water displaced by this
packet?
Ans. Density of the packet = mass/volume = 500/350 =
Since the density of packet is more than density of water so it will sink. And packet will
displace water equal to its volume:
volume of water displaced by packet (volume of packet)
mass of water displaced = volume of water displaced density of water
= 350 g
10. The radius of earth is 6370 Km and of mars is 3400 Km. If an object weighs 200 N or
earth, what will be its weight on mars. The mass of mars is 0.11 that of earth.
Ans. Let m = Mass of the body
Me = Mass of earth
Mm = Mass of Mars
re = Radius of earth
= Radius of Mars
G = Universal gravitational constant
Weight of body on earth = =
Weight of body on Mars = =
23
Divide one equal by another
As, M, = 0.11 Me
Fe = 200 N
re = 6370 Km
rm = 3400 Km
Fm = 77.22 N
Weight of the body on Mars = 77.22 N
11. Determine the value and units of universal Gravitational constant, G?
Ans. From Universal law of Gravitation,
= Mass of earth
= Mass of object
R = Radius of earth
24
F = Attractive force between earth and object
Units of G
Units of
25
12. What is the up thrust experienced by a cube of edge – length 5 cm made of iron
when completely immersed in ethanol of density
Ans. Volume of the cube
Volume of ethanol displaced
Density of ethanol
of ethanol has a mass of 0.8
(that is ) of ethanol will have a mass
= 800 Kg
The Density of ethanol
Mass of ethanol = 0.1 Kg
Weight of ethanol displaced = 0.98 N
By Archimedes’s principles
Up thrust = weight of fluid displaced = 0.98 N
13. A stone is dropped from a height of 50 m on earth. At the same time, another stone
is thrown vertically upwards from the ground with a velocity up wards from the
ground with a velocity of 50 m/s. At what height from the ground will the two stones
meet
Ans. Volume of the cube =
26
Volume of ethanol displaced
Density of ethanol
of ethanol has a mass of 0.8
(that is 106 cm3) of ethanol will have a mass
= 800 Kg
The Density of ethanol
Mass of ethanol = 0.1 Kg
Weight of ethanol displaced = = 0.98 N
By Archimedes’s principles
Up thrust = weight of fluid displaced = 0.98 N
14. What is acceleration due to gravity and calculate its value on earth?
Ans. Acceleration due to gravity (g) is the acceleration produced is the object when it falls
freely under the effect of gravitational force of earth.
Let M = Mass of earth
m = Mass of object
r = Radius of earth
f = force.
By Newton’s law of gravitation.
27
Now, F = Ma (from Newton’s law)
F = mg → ii) (for free fall)
Equating i) & ii)
15. A ball is thrown vertically upwards. The speed of the ball was 10 m/s when it had
reached one half of its maximum height.
(a) How high does the ball rise?
(b) Find the velocity and acceleration 1s after it is thrown.
Ans. a) Let the initial velocity = u
Let the maximum height reached = h m
When it reached , the velocity = 10 m/s
Now
28
When the ball reaches the highest point, v = o
100 = 20 h-10 h
100 = 10 h
10 m=h
Maximum height reached = 10 m
Initial velocity of the ball when it was thrown up = 14.14 m/s.
b) Velocity after 1s
29
Acceleration after
16. How does weight of a rocket change as it moves from earth to moon?
Ans. The acceleration due to gravity on earth and on the moon is different and for a body of
mass ‘m’ its weight on earth = mg earth and on Moon, weight = mg moon
Now,
Putting the values of G, M, R for earth & Moon it is found that i.e. the
weight of the object will be less on the earth than on the moon.
17. Give a mathematical proof of the Archimedes principle?
Ans. According to Archimedes’s Principle, for a fully or partially immersed object,
Up thrust = weight of fluid displaced
Let cross-section of solid =
Height of solid = hm
Density of liquid =
Top surface of the solid by at depth = xm
Downward pressure acting on the top surface = xdg Pa
Downward force acting on the top surface = ndg xA = Axdg Newton
30
Bottom surface of the solid is at a depth (h + x)m from the surface of liquid.
Upward pressure acting on bottom surface =(h + n) dg
Upward force = (h + m) dg A
Excess upward force = (h + n) dg A – ndg A = A hdg → (1)
Volume of solid =
Volume of fluid displaced =
Mass of fluid displaced = A hd kg
Weight of fluid displaced = A hdg Newton → (2)
From equation (1) & (2)
Upward force = weight of fluid displaced y
18. What is the magnitude of the gravitational force exerted by a 15 Kg mass on a 25 Kg

mass separated by a distance of 25 cm. What is the acceleration produced on each
mass?
Ans. Mass of first Body =
Mass of second Body =
r = Distance between them = 25 cm = 0.25 m
F = Gravitational force =
Both the 15 Kg and 25 Kg mass attracts each other by a force equal to .
31
Since F = ma
a = Acceleration
Acceleration of the 15 Kg mass =
Acceleration of the 25 Kg mass =
19. A stone is dropped from a height of 100 m on earth. At the same time, another stone
is thrown vertically upwards from a ground with a velocity of 50 m/s. At what height
from the ground will the stone meat?
Ans. Let the two stones meet after t s. The distance travelled by a falling body is given by:
U =0
The height reached by the stone moving up in t s:
Total distance travelled by two stones 100 m
32
t = 2 sec
The stone meet after 2s they are dropped
The height through which the stone makes up in 1
= 100 – 20 = 80 m
They meet 80 m above the ground.
20. What id the up thrust experienced by a balloon of volume 120 filled with
hydrogen. The density of air and density of hydrogen
at room temperature. What is the maximum weight this balloon can
lift?
Ans. The up thrust = weight of the air displaced
Mass of air displaced
= 136.8 Kg
Weight of air displaced = (Mg)
= 1340.6 N
Downward force = weight of the balloon + weight of
Now, Mass of the balloon + Mass of
= 75+120 (0.081)
= 84.72 Kg
Weight of the balloon and filling it
33
= 830.3 N
Net up thrust = 1340.6 – 830.3
= 510.3 N
Maximum weight the balloon can lift = 510.3 N
21. A boy on a cliff 49 m high, drops a stone, one second later, he throws another stone
vertically downwards. The two stones hit the ground at the same time. What was the
velocity with which the second stone was thrown?
Ans. For the first stone, Initial velocity u = o
Let the stone take t s to reach the ground
For the second stone, the initial velocity =
Time of flight = 3.16 2-1s
= 2.162 s
34
The second stone was thrown downward with a velocity of 12.1 m/s
22. What makes a body to float or sink in a liquid?
Ans. When an object is immersed in a liquid, it exerts a weight in the downward direction
and the liquid exerts a force called up thrust in the upward direction on the object.
If the object sinks in the liquid, then the weight of the body is greater than the up thrust
acting on the object by the liquid.
If the object floats in the liquid, then the weight of the body is less than the up thrust acting
on the object by the liquid.
23. A block of wood tied to the bottom of water tank as shown. The wooden block exerts
tension, on the wire tied to it. The dimension of the block are .
The density of the wood is . What is the tension in the wire?
Ans. The volume of the block
Mass of the block = 0.016 × 600 = Density × Volume
= 9.6 Kg
Weight of the block (M = Mass, g = Acceleration due to gravity)
35
= 9.6 g
Up thrust on the block = Weight of water displaced
Mass of water displaced = volume of the block Density of water
= 16 Kg
Weight of the water displaced = Mass acceleration due to gravity
= 16 g
Up thrust = 16gN
Weight of the block = 9.6gN
Net up thrust = 16g – 9.6g
= 6.4gN
= 62.72N
The tension in the string = Net up thrust
= 62.72N
24. The weight of balloon and gas inside it is 12 KN. The volume of the balloon is
. The density of air is . Calculate
a) the weight it can lift
b) the acceleration as it rises.
Ans. The up thrust = the weight of air displaced.
36
Net upward force = the up thrust – the weight of the balloon
The weight of the balloon can carry is 2820N
b) Mass of the balloon =
Net up ward force = Mass × Acceleration
Up word Acceleration of the balloon
25. A cylindrical block of wood of height 4.2m and mass 100Kg floats vertically in water.
The relative density of wood is 0.8
1) What height of the block will be seen above the water ?
2) If block of lead of mass 10kg is placed, what height of the block will be seen above
water?
Ans. a)
37
b) Mass of the block of wood = 100Kg
Mass of water displaced = 100Kg
Mass of lead placed on the block of wood = 10Kg
Total mass of the block of wood + weight placed on it = 110 Kg
Mass of water now displaced = 110Kg
When 100 Kg of water was displaced, 3.36m was submerged
When 110 Kg of water is to be displaced,
m will be damaged.
= 3.696 m will be submerged.
Height seen above water = 4.2 - 3.696
= 0.504 m
38
Important Questions
Chapter 10
Gravitaion
5 Marks Questions
1. A stone is allowed to fall from the top of a tower 100 m high and at the same time
another stone is projected vertically upwards from the ground with a velocity of 25 m/s.
Calculate when and where the two stones will meet.
Ans. Suppose both the stones will meet after t seconds.
h + h’ = 100 m
= 100
25t = 100
t = 4 s
= 80 m
Therefore, the two stones will meet after 4 seconds when the falling stone would have
covered a height of 80 m.
2. A ball thrown up vertically returns to the thrower after 6 s. Find
(a) the velocity with which it was thrown up,

(b) the maximum height it reaches, and
39
(c) its position after 4 s.
Ans. (a) time taken by ball to reach maximum height(t) = 6/2 = 3 s

v = u + gt
u = 29.4 m/s (the velocity with which it was thrown up)
(b) the maximum height it reaches: therefore
= 88.2 - 44.1
= 44.1 m
(c) its position after 4 s will be:

Since in first 3 s it will reach the maximum height and in next 1 s it will start a free fall so, u =
0, t =1
= 4.9 m
Therefore, after 4s the position of ball = 44.1 - 4.9 = 39.2 m.
3.The Olympic high jump record is 2.45m held by Cuba let acceleration due to gravity
on earth was and not . Calculate the height to which the jumper
would have jumped?
Ans. Height = h = 2.45m

v = final velocity
u = Initial velocity
a)
At the highest point v = o

The velocity with which he jumps is u
40
= 24.5 s
The height will be 24.5m
4. State the factors on which acceleration due to gravity (g) depends?
Ans. Acceleration due to gravity depends upon:
1) Height above at a height ‘h’ above the earth → The acceleration due to gravity on going
above earth decreases as
So, will be less
2) Rotation of earth → Since the earth rotates about it polar axis;

The radius of the circle decreases as we move from the equator to the poles, acceleration due
to gravity increases as we move from equator to poles.
3) Shape of earth → The radius of the earth is more at the equator and less at poles so
acceleration due to gravity increases as we move from equator to poles.
41

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Important Questions for Class 9

Very Short Answer Type Questions 2 Marks

1. What do we get from cereals, pulses, fruits and vegetables?

2. What factors may be responsible for losses of grains during storage?

 Humidity and temperature of the environment and moisture content of grains

3. What are weeds? Give two examples.

4. What is crop rotation?

Class IX Science www.vedantu.com 1

6. What is pasturage and how is it important?

8. Arrange the following statements in correct sequence of preparation of

(a) Green plants are decomposed in soil

(c) Plants are ploughed and mixed into soil

Class IX Science www.vedantu.com 2

(a) Green plants are decomposed in soil

(d) After decomposition it becomes green manure.

9. What are the benefits of poultry farming over cattle farming?

a) The amount of money required is little.

b) The amount of space required is minimal.

d) Returns are processed quickly.

10. Define inter – cropping Mention its advantages.

11. What are the advantages of organic farming?

Class IX Science www.vedantu.com 3

12. Differentiate between mixed cropping and Intercropping.

Mixed Cropping Inter-Cropping

Sowing do not take place in rows Sowing is done in precise arrangement

13. Give a difference between Rabi and kharif crops?

Rabi Crop Kharif crop

It necessitates a chilly, dry climate. It necessitates a hot, humid atmosphere.

Class IX Science www.vedantu.com 4

15. List the various methods of weed control.

4) Excreta disposal is properly arranged in the sheds.

17. What are the hazards of using fertilizers?

Class IX Science www.vedantu.com 5

18. How do insect,pest damage crop plants?

a) They hacked away at the root, stem, and leaf.

d) They produce galls.

e) They devour grains that have been preserved.

Short Answer Type Questions 3 Marks

1. How do biotic and abiotic factors affect crop production?

2. What are the desirable agronomic characteristics for crop improvements?

Class IX Science www.vedantu.com 6

3. What are macronutrients and why are they called macronutrients?

Nitrogen, phosphorus, potassium, calcium, magnesium, and sulphur are all

4. How do plants get nutrients?

Soil nitrogen, phosphorus, potassium, calcium, magnesium, sulphur, iron,

5. Compare the use of manure and fertilizers in maintaining soil fertility.

It is made through the breakdown of animal They are manufactured

Class IX Science www.vedantu.com 7

6. Why should preventive measures and biological control methods be

8. Discuss the implications of the following statement:

Class IX Science www.vedantu.com 8

Broiler chickens require vitamin-rich Broilers require different

They consume a sufficient amount of protein In comparison to broilers, they

11. How are fish obtained?

1. Capture fishing: This is a method of collecting fish from natural sources

Class IX Science www.vedantu.com 9

12. What are the advantages of composite fish culture?

Honey harvesting capacity is high. They have to be less stingy.

14. What is pasturage and how is it related to honey production?

Class IX Science www.vedantu.com 10

 Cleanliness and hygienic conditions are maintained.

16. What are the benefits of cattle farming?

17. How do storage grain losses occur?