3.

0 Hour Review Test – 4 | Four Year Course – 2026

Date: 14th October, 2022 Timing: 04:00 PM to 07:00 PM Maximum Marks: 320

General Instructions

1. The test is of 3 hours duration.

2. The test consists of 80 questions. The maximum marks are 320.

3. This paper consists of two sections, Section - A (NCERT) and Section – B (Foundation). There are four
subjects in each section, Subject I, II, III and IV consisting of Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics and
Biology respectively.

4. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for correct response.

5. Candidate will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction No. 4 for correct response of each
question. 1 4 (one-fourth) marks of the total marks allotted to the questions (i.e. 1 mark) will be

deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score will be
made if no response is indicated.

6. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in any question
will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as per
instruction 5 above.

SYLLABUS:
Physics: Motion, Force and Laws of Motion, Gravitation & Fluids
Chemistry: Matter in Our Surroundings, Is Matter Around Us Pure, Atoms & Molecules
Biology: Cell- The Fundamental Unit of Life, Tissues, Diversity
Maths: Number System, Polynomials, Coordinate & Euclid’s Geometry, Lines and Angles, Triangles, Heron’s Formula,
Linear Equations in Two Variables
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SECTION -A (NCERT)
SUBJECT I : PHYSICS 32 MARKS
This Subject contains 8 Multiple Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices 1, 2, 3 & 4, out of which Only
One is Correct:
1. The ratio of the heights from which two bodies are dropped is 3 : 5 respectively. The ratio of their final
velocities is:
(1) 5: 3 (2) 3: 5 (3) 9 : 25 (4) 5:3
2. The figure given below shows the position-time curve of
the particle P and Q. Which of the following statements
is correct?
(1) Both P and Q move with uniform equal speed
(2) P is accelerated and Q is retarded
(3) Both P and Q move with uniform speed, but the speed of P is more than the speed of Q
(4) P is moving with uniform speed while Q is at rest
3. Which law defined the property of Inertia of body?
(1) Newton’s first law (2) Newton’s second law
(3) Newton’s third law (4) Newton’s Law of gravitation

4. What is the acceleration of a body of mass 3 kg if a force of 12 N is applied on it?

(1) 2 m / s2 (2) 4 m / s2 (3) 6 m / s2 (4) 5 m / s2

5. Relative density of silver is 10.8. The density of water is 103 kg m 3 . What is the density of silver in SI
unit?
(1) 108 103 kgm3 (2) 10.8 kg m3
(3) 108 kg m3 (4) 10.8 103 kg m3

6. Two bodies of mass 1 kg and 2 kg are at a distance of 3 m from each other. Find the magnitude of
gravitational force they apply on each other.
(1) 1.482 1011 N (2) 4.44 1011 N
(3) 0.7 1011 N (4) 6.67  1011 N
7. Which of the following is not a unit of pressure?
(1) N / m2 (2) dynes/ cm 2 (3) Pascal (4) Dynes

8. The density of a solid is 500 kg / m3 . What is the relative density of this solid. {density of water is
1000 kg / m3 }
1 1
(1) (2) 2 (3) (4) 4
2 4
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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SUBJECT II : CHEMISTRY 32 MARKS

This Subject contains 8 Multiple Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices 1, 2, 3 & 4, out of which Only
One is Correct:
9. Which of the following contains maximum number of molecules? [N = 14, C = 12, H = 1, O = 16]
(1) 1g of N2 (2) 1g of CO2 (3) 1g of H2 (4) 1g of O2
10. The number of atoms in 0.1 mole of a triatomic gas is:
(1) 6.026 1022 (2) 1.806 1023 (3) 3.6  1023 (4) 1.8  1022
11. How many moles are present in 34 g of hydrogen peroxide (H2O2)? [H = 1, O = 16]
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 0.5 (4) 1
12. What is the mass of 0.2 mole of hydrogen chloride ? [H = 1, Cl = 35.5]
(1) 14.6 g (2) 7.3 g (3) 21.9 g (4) 3.65 g

13. Which of the following will not undergo sublimation?

(1) Camphor (2) Sodium chloride
(3) Bromine (4) Both (2) and (3)

14. What sublimate will be obtained when a mixture of sand, sulphur, Common salt and iodine is sublimed?
(1) Sand (2) Iodine (3) Sulphur (4) Common salt
15. Which of the following molecule has an atomicity of four ?
(1) H 2O (2) NH3 (3) CH 4 (4) CO 2

16. The dyes of an ink can be separated by:

(1) Filtration (2) Sublimation
(3) Fractional distillation (4) Chromatography

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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SUBJECT III : BIOLOGY 32 MARKS

This Subject contains 8 Multiple Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices 1, 2, 3 & 4, out of which
Only One is Correct:
17. Cell wall of bacteria is chiefly composed of:
(1) Suberin (2) Peptidoglycan (3) Cellulose (4) Chitin

18. Which cellular organelle is known as ‘suicidal bags’?

(1) Peroxisomes (2) Lysosomes (3) Ribosomes (4) Vacuoles

19. Girth of stem increases due to:

(1) Apical meristem (2) Lateral meristem
(3) Intercalary meristem (4) Vertical meristem

20. Two chambered heart occurs in:

(1) Reptiles (2) Amphibians (3) Aves (4) Pisces
21. Binomial nomenclature was given by:
(1) R.H. Whittaker (2) Linnaeus
(3) Aristotle (4) Theophrastus
22. The cell organelle found only in Plant is:
(1) Golgi apparatus (2) Mitochondria
(3) Plastids (4) Ribosomes
23. Binomial nomenclature consists of two words:
(1) Genus and species (2) Order and family
(3) Family and genus (4) Species and variety

24. Match the following column I with Column II.

Column I Column II
(A) Epithelial tissue (i) Transport
(B) Connective tissue (ii) Calcium and Phosphorus
(C) Blood (iii) Protection
(D) Collenchyma (iv) Strength
(E) Bone (v) Flexibility
Select the correct option:
(1) (A)-(ii), (B)-(i), (C)-(v), (D) - (iii), (E)-(iv)
(2) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D) - (iv), (E)-(v)
(3) (A)-(v), (B)-(iv), (C)-(iii), (D) - (ii), (E)-(i)
(4) (A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D) - (v), (E)-(ii)

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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SUBJECT IV : MATHEMATICS 64 MARKS

This Subject contains 16 Multiple Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices 1, 2, 3 & 4, out of which
Only One is Correct:

25. The number of sides of a regular polygon which has an interior angle equal to 150 is:
(1) 12 (2) 15 (3) 18 (4) 10

26. Two sides of an isosceles triangle are 12 and 27 then perimeter of triangle is equal to:
(1) 66 (2) 51 (3) 72 (4) 78

27. John is of the same age as Mohan. Ram is also of the same age as Mohan. State the Euclid’s axiom that
illustrates the relative ages of John and Ram.
(1) First Axiom (2) Second Axiom (3) Third Axiom (4) Fourth Axion

28. Euclid stated that all right angles are equal to each other in the form of a/an __________.
(1) Axiom (2) Definition (3) Postulate (4) Proof

29. Alternate exterior angles for two parallel lines and a transversal are:
(1) Equal (2) Supplementary
(3) Complimentary (4) Not related to each other

30. Which of the following line will pass through the origin?
(1) 2x  3 y  7  0 (2) 3x  7 y  2  0
(3) 3x  2  2  2 y  1 (4) x2  y2

31. x  5  0 and y  7  0 are:

(1) Always parallel (2) Always perpendicular to each other
(3) Neither parallel nor perpendicular (4) Coincident

32. Which of the following is parallel to x-axis?

(1) x5 (2) y 5 (3) x y (4) x y 5

5
33. The rationalizing factor of a 2b3c 4 is :
5
(1) a 3b 2 c (2) 4
a 3b 2 c (3) 3
a 3b 2 c (4) a 3b 2 c

34. A boat covers 100 m downstream and 36 m upstream in 19 seconds , also it covers 25m downstream
and 10m upstream in 5 seconds. Then the speed of stream is equal to
(1) 5m / s (2) 3m/s (3) 4m / s (4) 7m / s

35. " s " in Heron’s formula is ____________.

(1) Area of a triangle (2) Perimeter of a triangle
(3) Semi-perimeter of triangle (4) Angle sum of triangle

36. It is not possible to construct a triangle when its sides are:

(1) 6 cm, 7 cm, 7 cm (2) 5.4 cm, 2.3 cm,3 cm
(3) 8.3 cm, 3.4 cm, 6.1cm (4) 3 cm,5 cm, 5 cm

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37. The value of x is:

(1) 50 (2) 52 (3) 54 (4) 56

38. In a ABC , ABC  25 and ACB  50. Which is the longest side in this triangle?

(1) AB (2) BC (3) CA (4) All are of same length

s  a s b s c
39. If symbols have usual meaning and    k then area of triangle is equal to:
2 4 5
(1) 6k 2 (2) 6 10k 2 (3) 3 6k 2 (4) 2 110k 2

40. Find the area of triangle enclosed by line 2x  3 y  12, x  axis and y  axis.
(1) 24 sq unit (2) 18 sq unit (3) 8 sq uint (4) 12 sq unit

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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SECTION - B (FOUNDATION)

SUBJECT I : PHYSICS 32 MARKS

This Subject contains 8 Multiple Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices 1, 2, 3 & 4, out of which
Only One is Correct:
41. Find the buoyant force on the cube of edge length 10 m
if it is floating in water as shown in figure.
(density of water  1000 kg / m3 , g  10m / s 2 )
(1) 106 N (2) 10  106 N
(3) 6 106 N (4) 2 106 N
42. Liquid is filled in the container as shown. Let PA , PB and PC denote pressure at points A, B and C
respectively. Choose the correct option.

(1) PA  PB  PC (2) PA  PB  PC (3) PA  PB  PC (4) PC  PA  PB

43. Two planets have radius of their orbits as R and 4 R. If the time period of revolution of first planet is T ,
find the time period of second planet.
(1) 4T (2) 8T (3) 64T (4) T
44. A planet has mass twice the mass of earth and radius half of radius of earth. What is acceleration due to
gravity at the surface of the planet. { g at surface of Earth  10m / s 2 }
(1) 8m / s 2 (2) 1.25m / s 2 (3) 80m / s 2 (4) 10m / s 2
45. The mass of a body is increased by 10% and its velocity is decreased by 10% . The percentage change
in its linear momentum is :
(1) Remains same (2) 1% decrease (3) 1% increase (4) 2.0 % increase

46. From a rifle of mass 5kg , a bullet of mass 50g is fired with an initial velocity of 30 m / s. The initial
velocity of recoil of the rifle is:
(1) 0.3 m / s (2) 0.6 m / s (3) 0.9 m / s (4) 1.0 m / s

47. A stone is dropped from the top of a tower and travels 24.5 m in last second of its journey. The height
of the tower is: (Take g  9.8 m / s 2 )
(1) 44.1m (2) 49 m (3) 78.4m (4) 72 m

48. A bus travelling the first one-third distance at a speed of 10 km / h, the next one fourth at 20 km / h and
the remaining at 40 km / h. The average speed of the bus is nearly:
(1) 9 km / h (2) 15 km / h (3) 18 km / h (4) 48 km / h

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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SUBJECT II : CHEMISTRY 32 MARKS

This Subject contains 8 Multiple Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices 1, 2, 3 & 4, out of which Only
One is Correct:
49. The anion present in the calcium hydroxide is:
(1) H (2) H 3O  (3) H (4) OH 

50. Molarity and strength of salt solution at 323 K temperature and one atm pressure are 0.1 M and 2gm/litre.
Molar mass of the salt will be :
(1) 2 gm (2) 20 gm (3) 5 gm (4) 200 gm
51. The molarity of the 1l of solution containing 40 g of sodium hydroxide will be: [Na = 23, O = 16, H = 1]
(1) 0.1 M (2) 0.01 M (3) 1.1 M (4) 1M

52. If formula of metal chloride is MCl3 then formula of metal hydride will be :
(1) M 2H 3 (2) MH (3) MH 3 (4) M2H4

53. The path of light gets illuminate when passed through the mixture?
(1) Blood (2) Sodium chloride water mixture
(3) Lemon water mixture (4) Acetic acid aqueous solution
54. Which of the following is a suitable method to separate two miscible liquids whose difference in boiling
point is 36°C?
(1) Evaporation (2) Simple distillation
(3) Fractional distillation (4) Sublimation
55. Which of the following statement is true for amorphous solids?
(1) Isotropic in nature (2) Super cooled liquids
(3) Pseudo solids (4) All are true

56. Overall charge of plasma particle is:

(1) Positively charge (2) Negatively charge
(3) Neutral (4) Either positively charge or negatively charge

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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SUBJECT III : BIOLOGY 32 MARKS

This Subject contains 8 Multiple Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices 1, 2, 3 & 4, out of which
Only One is Correct:
57. _________ serve as osmoregulatory organelles in an organism.
(1) Gas vacuole (2) Food vacuole (3) Sap vacuole (4) Contractile vacuole

58. Root hair absorbs water from soil though:

(1) Osmosis (2) Phagocytosis (3) Diffusion (4) Ephagy
59. The tapeworm is a member of phylum:
(1) Annelida (2) Porifera (3) Nematoda (4) Platyhelminthes

60. Match the following column I with Column II.

Column I Column II
(A) Algae (i) 4 Chambered heart
(B) Annelida (ii) Angiosperm
(C) Crocodile (iii) Thallophytes
(D) Ferns (iv) Pteridophyte
(E) Monocot (v) Nephridia
Select the correct option:
(1) (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i), (D) - (v), (E)-(ii)
(2) (A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(v), (D) - (i), (E)-(ii)
(3) (A)-(iii), (B)-(v), (C)-(i), (D) - (iv), (E)-(ii)
(4) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i), (D) - (v), (E)-(iv)

61. The husk of coconut is made up of:

(1) Aerenchyma (2) Parencyma (3) Collenchyma (4) Sclerenchyma

62. Which one of the following lines the trachea or wind pipe?
(1) Glandular epithelium (2) Ciliated epithelium
(3) Columnar epithelium (4) Cuboidal epithelium
63. In which of the following organism well defined nucleus is absent:
(1) Amoeba (2) Algae (3) Yeast (4) Blue-green algae
64. The characteristics features of Fungi are:
(i) Presence of photosynthetic pigments (ii) The cell wall is made of chitin
(iii) The cell wall is made of cellulose (iv) Absence of photosynthetic pigments
Select the correct option:
(1) Only (i) and (ii) (2) Only (ii) and (iv)
(3) Only (i) and (iv) (4) Only (iii) and (iv)

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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SUBJECT IV : MATHEMATICS 64 MARKS

This Subject contains 16 Multiple Choice Questions. Each Question has 4 choices 1, 2, 3 & 4, out of which
Only One is Correct:
65. The value of a  b  c  d  e  f is equal to:

(1) 180 (2) 450 (3) 360 (4) 225

66. AB is parallel to DE. ABC  120, CDE  60. Then value of BCD is equal to :

(1) 60 (2) 120 (3) 150 (4) 105

0.25 0.25

67. The value of

 5  125 
is:
0.10 0.15
 256   256 
5 1
(1) 1 (2) (3) 2 (4)
4 2

x1/2 4 1
68. 3
x4 y  3  7 is equal to :
y x
3/ 2
1 1   1  8 
2 1/ 2
(1)
x1/2
(2)
x2
(3) 3   
 x 
(4) x 
 

a  a 2  b2 a  a2  b2
69. The numerator of  is: (if denominator is b2)
2 2 2 2
a  a b a  a b
2 2
(1) a (2) b (3) a 2  b2 (4) 4a2  2b2

3 1 1
70. If x  , then x3  3 
2 x
28 3  15 27 3  35 28 3  15 27 3  35
(1) (2) (3) (4)
8 4 8 4
2 2
71. If a  2  3  5 and b  3  3  5, then a  b  4a  6b  3 is equal to:
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 1 (4) 2

y3
72. Find the value of l , so that y  2 p is a factor of  2 y  lp ;( p  0)
4 p2
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3

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73. Number of zeroes of the zero polynomial is :
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) Infinite
4 3 2
74. Factorize : x  5x  5x  5x  6
3
(1) x 2
 1 x 2  6  (2)  x  1 x  2 
(3) x 2
 1  x  3  x  2  (4)  x  1 x  2   x 2  3
75. The points, whose abscissa and ordinate have different signs, lie in ___________quadrants.
(1) I and II (2) II and III (3) I and III (4) II and IV
76. The graph of line y  6 is a line.
(1) Parallel to x-axis at a distance of 6 units from the origin
(2) Parallel to y-axis at a distance of 6 units from the origin.
(3) Making an intercept of 6 units on the x-axis
(4) Making an intercept of 6 units on both the axes
77. The graph of the linear equation y  x passes through the point.
 3 3  3  1 1
(1)  ,  (2)  0,  (3) 1,1 (4)  , 
 2 1  2  2 2
78. In the given figure (not drawn to scale), LMNO is a parallelogram and OPQR is a rhombus. Find
NMH given that LMH is a straight line.

(1) 80 (2) 60 (3) 70 (4) 50

79. Find the ratio of the shaded area to the area of the quadrilateral ABCD.

(1) 2 6 : 6 (2) 3:2  6 (3) 6 :2 6 (4) 6 :4 6

80. Find a fraction which becomes 1/2 when 1 is subtracted from the numerator and 2 is added to the
denominator and the fraction becomes 1/3 when 7 is subtracted from the numerator and 2 from
denominator.
5 15 5 26
(1) (2) (3) (4)
26 26 6 15
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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