Mock By ABVP

(+4 for correct, -1 for incorrect)

Q1. Which of the following is/are correct

A. Rajkumari Amrit Kaur was the first and only woman cabinet minister in our
first cabinet
B. MN Roy was the constitutional advisor of our constituent assembly
C. Both
D. None
Q2. A judge of High court can be removed by
A. Governor
B. President on advice of chief justice of India
C. According to the process prescribed for removal of judge of supreme court
D. President on consultation with governor and chief justice of India
Q3. Who was recently appointed as the new chief election commissioner of India
A. Ashok Lavasa
B. Sushil Chandra
C. Rajiv Kumar
D. Anup Chandra Pandey
Q4. Where is the headquarters of UNHRC are located
A. Geneva
B. Newyork
C. Washington DC
D. Hague
Q5. Who is the author of the book "The India way: Strategies for an uncertain world"
A. Fali S Nariman
B. J Sai Deepak
C. S Jaishankar
D. Geetanjali Shree
Q6. Who among the following was not "appointed and removed" by president
A. Chairman of UPSC
B. Speaker
C. Governor
D. Chairman of NHRC
Q7. IPR protects the rights which are of
A. Moral value
B. Commercial value
C. None
D. Both
Q8. Which of the following is not a DPSP
A. Protection of monuments and places of national Heritage
B. Equal pay for equal work
C. Uniform civil code
 D. To nurture scientific temper among citizens
Q9. The process for impeachment of president can be
A. Started in either house of parliament and must be passed by both houses
B. Can be originated only in loksabha and must be passed by both
C. Can be originated in either house but rajya sabha has lesser power regarding
this
D. Can be originated in loksabha only and loksabha has upper hand in this matter
Q10. Which of the following is not official language of UNO
A. German
B. Arabic
C. French
D. Russian
Q11. Federalism of India is inspired from
A. USA
B. Australia
C. Canada
D. France
Q12. Choose the incorrect statement
1. The quorum for house of parliament is 15% of of total number of members of
that house
2. Total number of ministers including prime minister shall not exceed 15% of the
total numbers of members of parliament
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both
D. None
Q13. Which of the following is correct about amendment
1. Amendment is provided in part 18 of Indian constitution
2. In Shankari Prasad case, SC held that the constitution amendment act comes
under the definition of law provided in art 13.
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both
D. None
Q14. What can be reasonable ground for restricting freedom "to assemble peacefully
without arms" according to 19(3)
1. Sovereignty and integrity of nation
2. Security of state
3. Public Order
4. Defamation
A. 1,2
B. 3,4
C. 1,3
D. 1,2,3
Q15. Nepali was added to the 8th schedule via the ______ Amendment
A. 100th
B. 21st
C. 92nd
D. 71st
Q16. You can appeal against an award by the Lok Adalat before
A. Supreme Court
B. High Court
C. it cannot be appealed in any court of law
D. Lok Adalat division bench
Q17. The first Woman Chief Justice of High Court of India was
A. Laila Mukherjee
B. Leila Seth
C. Fatima Bibi
D. Ruma Pal
Q18. The Commission which enquired into and submitted report regarding the Godhra
train carnage is -
A. Chelliah Commission
B. Wanchoo Committee
C. Rangarajan Committee
D. Nanavati-Shah Commission
Q19. As per provisions contained in Article 243 D of the Constitution, _____ of the
Seats of Panchayati Raj Institutions and ____ offices of the Chairperson at all level of
Panchayati Raj Institutions covered by Part IX of the Constitution are reserved for
women.
A. 1/3rd & 1/3rd
B. 1/3rd & 1/5th
C. 1/4th & 1/8th
D. 1/2 & 1/4th
Q20. A judgment passed by the Supreme Court of India can be reviewed only by the
________ under article ______
A. President, 137
B. President, 142
C. International Court of Justice, UN Charter
D. Supreme Court itself, art 137
Q21. Which of the following is correct order of components of crime
1. Attempt
2. Mens Rea
3. Final outcome
4. Preparation
A. 2-1-4-3
B. 2-4-1-3
C. 4-2-1-3
D. 4-1-2-3
Q22. Which of the following is not required for liability in case of conspiracy
A. Prior meeting of minds
B. Illegal object
C. Illegal ways to achieve illegal objects
D. The object of conspiracy should be achieved successfully
Q23. Which of the following come under abetment
1. Aiding intentionally
2. Instigation
3. Engaging
A. 1 only
B. 2,3 only
C. 1,2 only
D. All the above
Q24. Soviet Union was disintegrated in the year
A. 1922
B. 1917
C. 1991
D. 1999
Q25. In a case if the accused was trying to take the absolute defence of doli incapax, then
the age of accused must be in range
A. 6-14 years
B. Below 6 years
C. Below seven years
D. 7-12 years
Q26. A person who finds goods belonging to another, is subject to the same
responsibility as
A. Bailor
B. Bailee
C. Bail
D. Approver
Q27. Suppose if Mr A was disqualified as MP under schedule X he can challenge it to
A. Election commission
B. High court
C. Supreme court
D. None of the above
Q28. A seat state of legislature is considered vacant if the member is absent for a period
of ______ without informing the house
A. 30 days
B. 45 days
C. 60 days
D. 90 days
Q29. Novation is
A. Creation of quasi contract
B. Substitution of new contract in place of an old one
 C. Remedy for frustration of a contract
D. Existence of contractual and tortious liability together from same facts
Q30. A meets a bullock carrying a box of treasure. He drives the bullock in a certain
direction, in order that he may dishonestly take the treasure. A has
A. committed theft of the treasure as soon as the bullock begins to move.
B. Committed theft when he had sat on cart with intention to take away the
treasure dishonestly
C. Have not committed theft
D. None of above
Q31. Money bill has been defined in
A. Article 109
B. Article 110
C. Article 111
D. Article 112
Q32. A general offer open for world at large can be accepted by
A. Sending a communication of acceptance
B. Complying with the conditions of offer
C. Tendering himself to comply with the conditions to the offer
D. Sending a communication in the same way as it is expressed
Q33. Which of the following is an inchoate crime?
A. Public nuisance
B. Criminal attempt
C. Theft
D. Extortion
Q34. Article 227 contains
A. Doctrine of stare decisis
B. Power of HC to issue writs for protection of fundamental rights
C. Power and superintendence over all courts by the HC
D. Appointment of acting chief justice of HC
Q35. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
A. President – violation of constitution
B. Judge of SC – proved misbehaviour or incapacity
C. Member of UPSC – misbehaviour
D. Chief election commissioner – violation of the constitution
Q36. Frustration of contract implies
A. Commercial hardship
B. Impossibility due to the consideration and the promise being affected and no
longer possible to execute
C. A tort has been committed
D. Both B and C
Q.37 A sane man, who is so drunk that he cannot understand the terms of a contract, or
form a rational judgment as to its effect on his interests
A. Can not contract whilst such delirium or drunkenness lasts.
B. Can contract
 C. Can contract if he is with other person
D. None
Q38. Consent can be said to be free if it is not caused by
1. Mistake of law in force in India
2. Coercion
3. Undue influence
4. Misrepresentation
A. 2,3 only
B. 2,3,4 only
C. 1,2,3 only
D. All the above
Q39. A having advanced money to his son, B, during his minority, upon B's coming of
age obtains, by misuse of parental influence, a bond from B for a greater amount than
the sum due in respect of the advance
A. A has caused coercion
B. A has caused fraud
C. A has caused misrepresentation
D. A has caused undue influence
Q40. Which of the following is not covered in section 354 (A-D) of IPC
A. Stalking
B. Voyeurism
C. Voluntarily causing grievous hurt by use of acid
D. Assault or use of criminal force on a woman with intent to disrobe.
Q41. Section 361 of IPC deals with kidnapping from
A. Legal Guardian
B. Lawful guardian
C. Both
D. None
Q42. A places men with firearms at the outlets of a building, and tells Z (who is major)
that they will fire at Z if Z attempts to leave the building. A has committed
A. Wrongful confinement
B. Wrongful restraint
C. Kidnapping
D. Both B and C
Q43. A contract is said to be induced by undue influence if relation between the
sustaining parties are such that one of the parties is
A. In a fiduciary relationship with each other
B. In a position of authority over other
C. In a position to dominate the will of the other.
D. In a position to influence the other
Q44. The Constitution of India was enacted by a Constituent Assembly set up
A. Through a resolution of the provisional government
B. By the Indian National Congress
C. Under the Indian Independence Act, 1947
 D. Under the Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946
Q45. Who can be held liable for the offence of subjecting a married woman to cruelty
under Section 498A, Indian Penal Code?
A. Husband
B. Relatives of Husband
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
Q46. For a marriage to be solemnized between any two Hindus under the Hindu
Marriage Act, which of the following conditions has been slated incorrectly?
A. Neither party has a spouse living at the time of the marriage
B. Neither party is incapable of giving a valid consent to it in consequence of
unsoundness of mind
C. Both the bridegroom and the bride have attained the age of majority.
D. The parties are not within the degrees of prohibited relationship unless the
custom or usage governing each of them permits of a marriage between the two
Q47. A defamation in some permanent form like a written or printed defamation is
called:
A. Libel
B. Slander
C. Allegation
D. None of these
Q48. Which of the following is incorrect ?
i. Preamble and dpsp are not Enforceable
ii. Preamble is not a part of constitution
iii. Preamble cannot be amended
iv. Socialist, Secular and unity were added by 42nd amendment ACT 1976
A. i & ii
B. i & iii & iv
C. ii & iii & iv
D. Only i
Q49. The breach of duty caused by the omission to do something which a reasonable
man, guided by those considerations which ordinarily regulate the conduct of human
affairs would do is called:
A. Arrogance
B. Ignorance
C. Prudence
D. Negligence
Q50. Which of the following agreements are not void?
A. Agreement in the restraint of marriage
B. Agreement in the restraint of trade
C. Agreement in restraint of legal proceeding
D. Agreement entered into under mistake as to law
Q51. Copyright does not provide any rights to the creators of:
A. Literary works
 B. Dramatic works
C. Artistic works
D. Inventions
Q52. Trade Mark is available for the period of:
A. 20 years
B. 10 years, non renewable
C. 10 years, renewable
D. Lifetime
Q53. Agreement made by minor is:
A. Void
B. Irregular
C. Voidable at the option of other party
D. Contingent upon age of minor
Q54. Which of these does not constitute a Federal form of Constitution?
A. Supremacy of the Constitution
B. Independent Judiciary
C. Bicameralism
D. Single citizenship.
Q55. Which of the following is correct?
A. All the members of the Rajya Sabha are elected by State Legislative Assemblies.
B. Only a member of the Rajya Sabha can contest for the office of the Vice-
President.
C. While a candidate to the Lok Sabha can contest from any state in India, a
candidate to the Rajya Sabha should ordinarily be a resident of the State from
where he is contesting.
D. The Constitution explicitly prohibits the appointment of a nominated member of
the Rajya Sabha to the post of a Minister.
Q56. What does "De Minimis Non Curat lex” refer to?
A. The law does not concern itself with trifles
B. To sell property at a very low price
C. Expecting minimal incentive
D. Punishment should be proportionate to crime
Q57. An irresistible and unsearchable providence nullifying all human effort is known
as:
A. Act of God
B. Inevitable accident
C. Either (a) or (b)
D. Both (a) and (b)
Q58. In an election, campaigning has to be stopped hours before the start of the poll.
A. 24
B. 48
C. 50
D. 72
Q59. Earth hour is global initiative of
 A. UN development program
B. Earth day organization
C. UN environment program
D. World Wide Fund for nature
Q60. Who was the first woman president of United nation general assembly
A. Sarojini Naidu
B. Vijaylakshmi pandit
C. Subbalakshmi
D. Annie Besant
Q61. Headquarters of UNESCO are located in
A. Washington DC
B. Paris
C. New York
D. Geneva
Q62. Headquarters of SCO are situated in
A. Shanghai
B. Kathmandu
C. Berlin
D. Beijing
Q63. Under which chapter of United Nations charter security council can take
enforcement actions
A. Chapter VI
B. Chapter VII
C. Chapter VIII
D. Chapter XII
Q64. Which of the following is not a non permanent member of UN security council at
present
A. India
B. Japan
C. Brazil
D. Albania
Q65. India's rank in world press freedom index
A. 146
B. 148
C. 149
D. 150
Q66. Match the correct
1. Mohiniyattam a. Tamilnadu

2. Kuchipudi b. Kerala

3. Sattriya c. Assam

4. Bharatnatyam d. Andhra Pradesh

 A. 1-b, 2- a, 3- d, 4- c
B. 1- b, 2- d, 3-c, 4- a
C. 1- b, 2-c , 3- d, 4- a
D. 1- b, 2-a , 3-c , 4-d
Q67. Unit of pressure is
A. Pascal
B. Curie
C. Angstrom
D. Newton/ meter
Q68. Who is awarded first Lata Dinanath Mangeshkar Award 2022
A. Narendra Modi
B. Shreya Ghoshal
C. Arijit Singh
D. Both B and C
Q69. Who among the following have not won Major Dhyanchand award 2021
A. Neeraj Chopra
B. Pramod Bhagat
C. Rani Rampal
D. Avni Lekhara
Q70. Who have not won Arjuna Award 2021
A. Bhavani Devi
B. Shikhar Dhawan
C. Sandeep Narwal
D. Rishabh Pant
Q71. Which of the options can replace the question mark in the following series?
17, 16, 14, 12, 8, 8,?
A. 4
B. 7
C. 3
D. 2
Q72. Pointing to a girl, Shaurya said, "Her mother's brother is the only son of my
mother's father." How is the girl's mother related to Shaurya?
A. Mother
B. Sister
C. Aunt
D. Grandmother
Q73. Bonnie has twice as many cousins as Robert. George has 5 cousins, which is 11 less
than Bonnie has. How many cousins does Robert have?
A. 17
B. 21
C. 4
D. 8
Q74. Which of the following statements is not correct?
 A. 42nd Amendment was done on recommendation of Sardar Swarn Singh
committee
B. The first Governor General of India was Lord Canning
C. The GOI Act 1935 abolished Dyarchy at province level
D. In Kesavananda Bharati v. state of Kerala Air 1973 Golaknath case was
overruled.
Q75. In which case has the Supreme Court of India decided that the total number of
reserved seats/places/positions cannot exceed 50% of what is available?
A. Champakam Dorairajan vs .state of madras
B. M.R.Balaji vs state of Mysore
C. Bachan Singh Vs State of Punjab
D. Indra Sawhney vs Union of India
Q76. G,H,J,M, _______
A. R
B. S
C. Q
D. P
Q77. 7,26,63,124,_____
A. 215
B. 154
C. 148
D. 982
Q78. If the price of a DU LLB mock is first decreased by 25% and then increased by
30% and then decreased by 10% , then the net change in the price will be:
A. +10%
B. -50%
C. -87.75%
D. -12.25%
Q79. Which of the following is not placed at Geneva?
A. WHO
B. WIPO
C. WTO
D. WEF
Q80. "Manhattan Project" was initiated :
A. to produce First Atomic Bomb
B. to develop antibiotic during Il World War
C. to develop contraceptives
D. to develop pesticide
Q81. When can Parliament legislate on a subject in the State List?
1. If the council of states passes a resolution by two-thirds majority that it is in national
interest to do so.
2. When the legislatures of two or more States request Parliament to legislate on a State
subject.
3. Under a proclamation of Emergency.
 A. I and III
B. II and III
C. I, II and III
D. I and II
Q82. Which one among the following pairs is not correctly matched?
A. Union List : Banking
B. State List : Agriculture
C. Concurrent List : Marriage
D. Residuary List : Education
Q83. The Comptroller and Auditor General can be removed from office:
A. in the same way as the President can be removed
B. in the same manner as that prescribed for the removal of a Supreme Court
Judge
C. by the President on a report by the Supreme Court
D. in none of the above ways
Q84. What does B3W stands for
A. Boom back better World Economy
B. Build back better World
C. Bold 3 Ways
D. Be back brighter World
Q85. Which is wrong regarding tortious liability
A. Presence of a duty
B. Duty may be legal duty or moral duty
C. Duty must be towards plaintiff
D. There must be legal injury
Q86. Which of the following is neither a tort nor a criminal offence
A. Assault
B. Battery
C. Defamation
D. None
Q87. Find correct statement,
1. Tort is species of violation of right in personam
2. Tort is species of civil injury or wrong
3. It's remedy is in form of unliquidated damages
A. 2,3 only
B. 1,2 only
C. 1,3 only
D. All the above
Q88. Mercy killing is known as
A. Living will
B. Sine die
C. Euthanasia
D. Death plea
Q89. Retired Supreme court judge Ranjana Prakash Desai who was recently appointed
as PCI chief, was also head of
A. Commission to review criminal justice system
B. Delimitation commission for state of Jammu and Kashmir
C. Commission enquiring Baburi Masjid demolition
D. Commission enquiring Bofors scandal
Q90. Which article of constitution of India says that Indian union can be sued and can
also sue
A. Article 299
B. Article 300
C. Article 300A
D. Article 280
Q91. The definition of state is provided in
A. Article 21
B. Article 12
C. Article 37
D. Both B and C
Q92. Which is not essential for the offence of kidnapping?
A. Minor child
B. Intention of the accused
C. Without the permission of lawful guardian
D. All of the above.
Q93. Alphonso mangoes are GI tag of
A. Meghalaya
B. Madhya Pradesh
C. Uttar Pradesh
D. Ratnagiri
Q94. In which year the first Nobel prize was awarded?
A. 1864
B. 1983
C. 1901
D. 1980
Q95. The concept of "coparcenary" is in vogue in which of the following religions?
A. Parsi
B. Hindus
C. Muslims
D. Christians

PASSAGE
1. Kinds of Precedents
(i) Declaratory and Original Precedents: According to Salmon, a declaratory precedent
is one which is merely the application of an already existing rule of law. An original
precedent is one which creates and applies a new rule of law. In the case of a
declaratory precedent, the rule is applied because it is already a law. In case of an
original precedent, it is law for the future because it is now applied. In this case of
advanced countries, declaratory precedents are more numerous. The number of
the original precedents are small but their importance is very great. They alone develop
the law of the country. They serve as good evidence of law for the future. A declaratory
precedent is as good a source of law as an original precedent. The legal authority of both
are exactly the same.
(ii) Persuasive precedents: A persuasive precedent is one which the judges are not
obliged to follow but which they will take into consideration and to which they will
attach great weight as it seems to them to deserve. A persuasive precedent, therefore,
is not a legal source of law; but is regarded as a historical source of law. Thus, in India
the decisions of one High Court are only persuasive precedents in the other high
courts. The rulings of the English and American courts are also have only persuasive
value.
(iii) Absolutely authoritative precedents: an authoritative precedent is one which judges
must follow whether they approve of it or not. Its binding force is absolute and the
judge’s discretion is altogether excluded as he must follow it. Such a decision has a
legal claim to implicit obedience, even if the judge considers it wrong. Unlike a
persuasive precedent which is merely historical, an authoritative precedent is a legal
source of law. Absolutely authoritative precedents in India: ever court in India is
absolutely bound by the decisions of courts superior to itself. The subordinate courts
are bound to follow the decisions by the High Court to which they are subordinate. A
single judge of a high court is bound by the decision of a bench of two or more judges.
All courts are absolutely bound by the decisions of SC. In England decisions of the
House of Lords are absolutely binding not only upon all inferior courts but even upon
itself. Likewise, the decisions of Supreme Court of appeal are absolutely binding upon
itself.
(iv) Conditionally authoritative precedents: a conditionally authoritative precedents is
one which, though ordinarily binding on the court before which it is cited, is liable to
be disregarded in certain circumstances. The court is entitled to disregard a decision
if it is the wrong one, i.e., contrary to law and reason. In India, for instance, the decision
of a single judge of a HC is absolutely authoritative so far subordinate judiciary is
concerned, but it only conditionally authoritative when cited before a division bench of
the same high court.
Q96. Which of the following is not a legal source of law; but is regarded as a historical
source of law
A. Persuasive precedents
B. Absolutely authoritative precedents
C. Both
D. None
Q.97 Which of the following is the closest word in meaning to precedent?
A. Judge
B. Precarious
C. Yardstick
D. Pernicious
Q98. What is the statement "The legal authority of both is exactly the same." mean?
A. The judge giving the precedent is the same.
B. The Court giving the precedent is the same.
C. The effect of a Declaratory and Original Precedent is the same
D. A conditionally authoritative precedent is a good source of law
Q99. The decision of a single judge of a HC is
A. Conditionally authoritative for subordinate judiciary
B. Absolutely authoritative for division bench of that HC
C. Conditionally authoritative for division bench of that HC
D. Both A and C
Q100. An authoritative precedent is one which judges must follow whether they approve
of it or not. Its binding force is absolute and the judge’s discretion is altogether excluded
as he must follow it. In legal Parlance, This is also known as the doctrine of
A. Stare decisis
B. Eclipse
C. Colorable legislation
D. Territorial nexus