Dispensing and Adverse Drug Reactions

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Drugs bound to plasma proteins are considered:
A. Pharmacologically active
B. Pharmacologically inactive B. Pharmacologically inactive
C. Free drugs
B. Bioavailable drugs
Alkaline salts like Potassium penicillin when placed in an acidic
solution can result in:
A. conversion into free acid
D. all of the above
B. precipitation of penicillin
C. insolubility
D. all of the above
In metabolizing a standard dose of INH, Filipinos are considered:
A. fast acetylators
B. slow acetylators A. fast acetylators
C. neither slow or fast
D. same as the Caucasians
The following are true regarding incompatibilities except:
A. problems arising during compounding, dispensing and drug
administration
B. easier to correct than to prevent
B. easier to correct than to prevent
C. maybe intentional or unintentional
D. must be recognized by pharmacist
The following are guidelines for reducing drug interactions except:
A. employ combination therapy
B. identify patient risk factors A. employ combination therapy
C. educate the patient
D. know properties of drugs
Enzyme inhibition of coumarin can lead to:
A. hypoglycemia
B. profuse bleeding B. profuse bleeding
C. blood clotting
D. convulsion
Anaphylaxis is a:
A. type A ADR
B. type B ADR B. type B ADR
C. type E ADR
D. type F ADR
Oxidizing agents are incompatible with reducing agents. This is a:
A. physical incompatibility
B. therapeutic incompatibility C. chemical incompatibility
C. chemical incompatibility
D. both a and b
The following are manifestations of chemical incompatibilities,
except:
A. immiscibility
A. immiscibility
B. photolysis
C. gel formation
D. evolution of gas
Teratogenicity is a/an:
A. type A ADR
B. type B ADR D. type D ADR
C. type C ADR
D. type D ADR
Any drug reaction which does not necessarily have casual rela-
tionship with the treatment is called an:
C. adverse drug event
A. adverse drug reaction
B. therapeutic incompatibility

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C. adverse drug event
D. none of the above
The precipitation of organic substance from a saturated solution
when highly soluble salts are added is known as:
A. Polymorphism
B. salting dash out
B. salting dash out
C. racemization
D. eutexia
Acacia in the presence of Bismuth salts can form a "cake" at the
bottom of the container. This manifestation is known as:
A. gelatinization
D. cementation
B. hydrolysis
C. emulsification
D. cementation
Sudden withdrawal of steroids can result in:
A. anemia
B. hypertension D. Addison's disease
C. Parkinson's disease
D. Addison's disease
A mathematical model for potentiating drug effect:
A. 1+1=2
B. 1+1=3 C. 0+1=2
C. 0+1=2
D. 1+1=0
A remedy for tablet granulations containing vitamin C:
A. prepare by dry granulation
B. used pre-coated ascorbic acid granules C. both a&b
C. both a&b
D. none
Chloramphenicol palmitate exist in 3 different polymorphs, each
differ in the following properties except:
A. solubility
D. none of the above
B. free energy
C. melting point
D. none of the above
The following are the physiologic effects of food on drug action
except:
A. reduces gastric emptying rate
D. vegetables potentiate anticoagulants
B. milk reduces absorption of tetracycline
C. tea increases absorption of paracetamol
D. vegetables potentiate anticoagulants
Important characteristics of idiosyncratic drug reactions, except:
A. congenital hypersensitivities
B. genetic or hereditary in origin D. none of the above
C. metabolic abnormality
D. none of the above
Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOI) and foods rich in tyramine
like cheese will lead to:
A. accumulation of pressor amines
D. all of the above
B. increase in blood pressure
C. non-metabolism of tyramine
D. all of the above
The following condition/s will amplify the activity of cardiac glyco-
sides:
A. hypercalcemia
C. both a&b
B. hypokalemia
C. both a&b
D. none of the above

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Drug-drug interactions that occur when one drug alters the ab-
sorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of the other drug:
A. pharmacokinetic interactions
A. pharmacokinetic interactions
B. pharmacologic interactions
C. pharmacodynamic interactions
D. all of the above
Displacement of plasma-protein bound drug such as in Warfarin
phenylbutazone interactions results in:
A. hemorrhage
D. all
B. increased concentration of Warfarin
C. decreased activity of Warfarin
D. all
Tobacco and cigarettes are potent enzyme inducers. As a conse-
quence:
A. one needs to increase dose of drug
D. all
B. this leads to drug tolerance
C. this is an ADR
D. all
A drug-induced hypersensitivity reaction caused by sulfon-
amides:
A. Parkinson's disease
B. Steven-Johnson's syndrome
B. Steven-Johnson's syndrome
C. hypertension
D. contact dermatitis
The following are true regarding excretion of acidic drugs except:
A. exist in the ionized state in alkaline urine
B. exist in the non-ionized form in acidic urine D. none of the above
C. acidic urine increases drug action
D. none of the above
Phenobarbital and griseofulvine are ___________ of coumarin:
A. enzyme inducers
B. enzyme inhibitor A. enzyme inducers
C. antagonists
D. agonists
Type F ADRs can occur as a result of the following except:
A. antimicrobial drug resistance
B. patient compliance B. patient compliance
C. counterfeit drugs
D. drug instability
Chloramphenicol can lead to this untoward drug reaction:
A. agranulocytosis
B. Gray syndrome C. both a&b
C. both a&b
D. none of the above
A fever response to antibiotic therapy caused by the sudden
release of endotoxins from various killed microorganism is called:
A. Herxheimer reaction
A. Herxheimer reaction
B. Lyell's syndrome
C. skin reactions
D. anaphylactic reaction
Camphor , menthol, acetophenetidine, phenol will form:
A. eutectic combination
B. liquefaction A. eutectic combination
C. explosive combination
D. both a&b
The most important protein to which drugs can bind in the plasma:
A. lipoprotein B. albumin
B. albumin

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C. glycoprotein
D. none of the above
Side effect of streptomycin:
A. headache
B. dryness of the mouth C. ototoxicity
C. ototoxicity
D. none of the above
The following is/are true regarding absorption of salicylic acid:
A. non-ionized form is more lipid-soluble and absorbable
B. ionized form is more lipid-soluble and absorbable A. non-ionized form is more lipid-soluble and absorbable
C. polar form is more readily absorbed
D. absorption is increased when taken with an antacid
UV light-sensitive substances are best protected using:
A. amber bottle
B. plastic container A. amber bottle
C. flint glass
D. carbon box
Oxidation is a:
A. lost of electron
B. dehydrogenation D. all of the above
C. cause of drug instability
D. all of the above
The transport of a substance from one part of the body to another
by means of blood:
A. absorption
B. distribution
B. distribution
C. metabolism
D. excretion
The following are possible remedies for liquefication of solid sub-
stances, except:
A. triturate separately and mix by tumbling
D. incorporate cotton in packaging
B. add adsorbents to liquid combination
C. dispense powder separately
D. incorporate cotton in packaging
The following type/s of incompatibility may be dispensed:
A. intentional incompatibility
B. unintentional incompatibility
D. both a&c
C. delayed chemical incompatibility but within shelf-life of the
product
D. both a&c
The conversion of an optically active form to an optically inactive
form is called:
A. polymorphism
B. racemization
B. racemization
C. polymerization
D. enantiomorphism
Precipitation can be:
A. physical incompatibility
B. chemical incompatibility D. a/b
C. adverse drug reaction
D. a/b
Examples of co-solvents:
A. water, buthanol
B. alcohol, mineral oil C. glycols, sorbitol, glycerol
C. glycols, sorbitol, glycerol
D. acetone, water, alcohol
Characterized the first exposure of the fraction of the drug metab-
olized in the liver:

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A. first pass effect
B. drug-receptor interaction
A. first pass effect
C. biotransformation
D. pharmacokinetics
Enzyme induction of Phenobarbital with oral contraceptives can
lead to:
A. decreased Phenobarbital actions
C. unreliable contraception
B. increased oral contraceptives action
C. unreliable contraception
D. none of the above
These are functions of a pharmacist,except:
A. drug information
B. diagnosis B. diagnosis
C. counseling on medications
D. monitor drug response
A physiological or a psychological state resulting from drug ad-
ministration:
A. drug dependence
A. drug dependence
B. drug habituation
C. drug addiction
D. drug tolerance
An ADR experienced as a consequence of receiving an inappro-
priately high dose of the drug due to patient characteristics:
A. idiosyncracy
B. extension effect
B. extension effect
C. side effect
D. type B
The following is/are characteristic/s of side effects:
A. dose dependent
B. predictable D. all of the above
C. associated pharmacological effect
D. all of the above
Oral antihistamines exhibit the following side effect:
A. drowsiness
B. sleepiness C. both a&b
C. both a&b
D. anemia
Prescriber of a prescription:
A. pharmacist
B. veterinarian B. veterinarian
C. nurse
D. medical technologist
Compounding is concerned with:
A. supply of a medicine
B. preparation and distribution of drugs D. preparation of medicine
C. order of medicine
D. preparation of medicine
The supply of medicine to an individual patient in accordance to
the prescription given by the physician:
A. compounding
C. dispensing
B. formulation
C. dispensing
D. none of the above
A prescription should be refused when:
A. patient is terribly sick
B. there is no available delivery service C. essential information is missing
C. essential information is missing
D. it is not signed by the pharmacist

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An example of subscription:
A. M.ft.sol
B. 1 tab q 6 hrs A. M.ft.sol
C. shake well before using
D. 250 mg capsule
A filled prescription for ethical drugs must be:
A. returned to the patient
B. filed for future reference B. filed for future reference
C. discarded after recording
D. forwarded to BFAD
Which of these drug products require a physician's prescription:
A. aspirin 325 mg tab
B. paracetamol 500 mg tab C. nubain 10mg/vial
C. nubain 10mg/vial
D. both b&c
Which of the following correctly applies to this group of drug
products? Paracetamol 325mg tab, Cortal 325mg tab, Alvedon
325mg tablet:
A. all are generically equivalent C. all are non-prescription drug
B. all are in brand names
C. all are non-prescription drug
D. all are prescription drug
Because it is the language of medical science throughout the
world, this language is used in Rx writing:
A. English
C. Latin
B. German
C. Latin
D. Spanish
The prescription should be read and check:
A. in front of the patient/customer
B. in the privacy of the pharmacy B. in the privacy of the pharmacy
C. in the counter of the botica
D. none of the above
For dispensing thick viscous liquids, the container should be:
A. standard prescription bottles
B. wide-mouthed bottles B. wide-mouthed bottles
C. collapsible tubes
D. dropper bottles
When the generic name is preceded by the brand name, the
prescription is:
A. erroneous prescription
A. erroneous prescription
B. violative prescription
C. impossible prescription
D. none
Generic dispensing means:
A. dispensing drugs with generic names only
B. dispensing with correct prescription
C. dispensing customer's choice from generically equivalent drugs
C. dispensing customer's choice from generically equivalent
drugs
D. dispensing drugs in proper container
When dispensing a compounded prescription, these information
must be written on the label except:
A. indications
D. name of physician
B. name and strength of actives
C. name of the manufacturer
D. name of physician
In a prescription, the dispensing directions to the pharmacist is
the:
A. superscription
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B. subscription
C. inscription B. subscription
D. signa
How many mL will you dispense for a prescription calling for a
100g of a liquid substance with a sp.Gr. of 1.25?
A. 75mL
B. 80mL
B. 80mL
C. 85mL
D. 90mL
Providing the correct medicines at the right time at the right dose
and using the right route of administration to the right patient is:
A. primary care
B. rational drug therapy
B. rational drug therapy
C. osteopathy
D. homeopathy
The following are true about dimercaprol except:
A. British anti-Lewisite
B. indicated for Fe poisoning B. indicated for Fe poisoning
C. indicated for As poisoning
D. chemical antagonist
Identify the odd-man-out:
A. complex formation
B. insolubility A. complex formation
C. liquefaction of solid ingredients
D. polymorphism
Group of drugs commonly abused by athletes:
A. anabolic steroids
B. dexamethasone A. anabolic steroids
C. antibiotics
D. vitamins
Immediate remedy for anaphylaxis:
A. epinephrine injection
B. aspirin A. epinephrine injection
C. antihistamine
D. antibiotic
A drug whose action is affected in a drug interaction:
A. precipitant
B. object drug B. object drug
C. interactant
D. none of the above
The following are remedies for oxidation except:
A. acid pH
B. change dosage form B. change dosage form
C. addition of antioxidant
D. protect from light
A suspension with the following ingredients (FeCl3,FE(OH)3,
acacia, FD&C#5(orange color) and methyl paraben will reveal this
manifestation:
A. polymerization B. gelatinization
B. gelatinization
C. cementation
D. precipitation
The following are patient-related predisposing factors to ADRs
except:
A. age
B. formulation
B. formulation
C. genetic disposition
D. history of allergy

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Probenecid and Penicillin exhibits this type of interaction:
A. enzyme induction
B. enzyme inhibition D. competition for tubular secretion
C. alteration in gastric emptying
D. competition for tubular secretion
Citric acid, atropine sulfate and ferrous sulfate are classified as:
A. eutectic mixtures
B. deliquescent substances C. efflorescent substances
C. efflorescent substances
D. polymorphs
A mathematical model for synergism:
A. 1+1=2
B. 1+1=3 B. 1+1=3
C. 0+1=2
D. 1+1=0
Term for migration of the drug into the container:
A. absorption
B. leaching A. absorption
C. permeation
D. vaporization
The conversion of optically active drug with one chiral center into
an optically inactive isomer:
A. polymorphism
D. racemization
B. enantiomers
C. epimerization
D. racemization
One of the violations committed by a dispensing pharmacist is:
A. informing the patient of the current list of available drugs
B. imposing a particular brand or product on the buyer B. imposing a particular brand or product on the buyer
C. recording of prescriptions filled
D. dispensing of the product according to the prescription
An impossible prescription is described by the following except:
A. only the generic name is written but not legible
B. both generic and brand names are not legible D. the generic name is not legible and the brand is written legibly
C. the generic name does not correspond to the brand name
D. the generic name is not legible and the brand is written legibly
The incorrect prescription that can be filled is the:
A. impossible prescription
B. erroneous prescription B. erroneous prescription
C. violative prescription
D. none of the above
The date after which the product is not intended to be used:
A. beyond-use date
B. expiry date B. expiry date
C. stop date
D. both a&b
The following are importance of recognizing potential incompati-
bilities except:
A. rewarding for the pharmacist
A. rewarding for the pharmacist
B. saving in time, money, effort
C. safety for the patient
D. quality medicines dispensed
HLB is a system used to distinguished between:
A. surfactants
B. glidants
A. surfactants
C. suspending agents
D. excipients
E. disintegrators

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Poor patient compliance with prescription instruction is usually
due to the following except:
A. patient understood pharmacist's instruction poorly
D. any of the above
B. pharmacist has poor communication skills
C. inadequate time of pharmacist for patient counseling
D. any of the above
The purpose of the prescription # is:
A. to identify the prescription for future reference
B. as a substitute for the name of the drug A. to identify the prescription for future reference
C. to guide the pharmacist in costing
D. to provide professional fee to medicine
In pricing the prescription, the pharmacist must consider:
A.cost of ingredients
B. professional fee D. all of the above
C. percentage mark-up
D. all of the above
If there's doubt in legibility of prescription, the pharmacist should:
A. decide based on patient's ailment
B. make an educated guess C. consult the prescriber
C. consult the prescriber
D. consult MIM
For the guidance of the patient, the prescription needs:
A. signa
B. subscription A. signa
C. superscription
D. inscription
Importance of a label:
A. for the sake of art
B. to establish identity B. to establish identity
C. to improve elegance
D. to give prominence
an auxillary label except:
A. do not repeat
B. for external use A. do not repeat
C. shake well before using
D. optalmic use
Refers to the schedule of dosing (e.g. QID,10days):
A. divided doses
B. dosage regimen B. dosage regimen
C. single dose
D. total dose
When dispensing prepared dosage forms, the pharmacist may
use which of the following dose equivalents?
A. exact equivalent
C. approximate dose
B. exact dose
C. approximate dose
D. a&b
Indicated the quantitative range or amounts of drug that may be
prescribe within the guidelines of usual medical practice:
A. divided dose
B. usual dosage range
B. usual dosage range
C. loading dose
D. total dose
Which of the following does not cause a therapeutic incompatibil-
ity?
A. errors in pricing
A. errors in pricing
B. dosage forms
C. prescription writing errors
D. errors of storage supply
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An associated pharmacological effect of Cholphenamine
maleate:
A. hypotension
B. sedation
B. sedation
C. headache
D. nausea
Extacy exhibits this type of ADR:
A. type A
B. type B C. type C
C. type C
D. type D
Idiosyncratic reactions are considered:
A. type A ADR
B. type B ADR B. type B ADR
C. type C ADR
D. type E ADR
An anionic exchange resin intended to bind acids, cholesterol
metabolites and co-administered drugs:
A. chloramphenicol
D. colestyramine
B. cholesterol precursor
C. tetracycline
D. colestyramine
Are added to drug formulations to prevent or reduce oxidation:
A. complexing agents
B. surfactants C. antioxidants
C. antioxidants
D. additives
This container is impervious to air and other gases under ordinary
conditions of handling storage and transport:
A. airtight container
C. hermetically sealed
B. security closed
C. hermetically sealed
D. child-resistant container
Diuretics tend to enhance lithium salt toxicity due to:
A. direct drug interaction
B. potassium depletion C. sodium depletion
C. sodium depletion
D. increased solubility of the lithium salts
All of the following untoward effects are commonly associated with
cancer chemotherapy except:
A. exfoliative dermatitis
A. exfoliative dermatitis
B. teratogenesis
C. nausea
D. alopecia and leukemia
Glass is a traditional packaging material which has been widely
used for both liquid and solid dose forms. All of the following are
types of glass containers, except:
A. closures A. closures
B. bottles
C. ear and nasal dropper bottles
D. containers for semi-solid preparation
Used as pharmaceutical packaging materials include aluminum,
tin and tin-coated lead:
A. glass
C. metals
B. plastics
C. metals
D. paperboards

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How many grains are there in 5.0 g of strychnine sulfate?
A. 10.4 gr
B. 20.4 gr C. 77.2 gr.
C. 77.2 gr.
D. 0.99 gr.
How many doses of teaspoonful each are there in a 4-fl. oz. bottle
of medication?
A. 10
C. 24
B. 20
C. 24
D. 30
To calculate a loading dose, one must first determine:
A. body clearance
B. fraction protein bound D. all of the above
C. volume of distribution
D. all of the above
Many diuretics tend to cause depletion of:
A. potassium
B. sodium A. potassium
C. carbonate ion
D. urea
Corticosteroids are frequently given with antacids to:
A. enhance absorption
B. slow absorption C. reduce ulceration and bleeding
C. reduce ulceration and bleeding
D. increase the rate of distribution
The functions of suspending agents include the following, except:
A. prevent oxidation-reduction reaction
B. increase the viscosity of the vehicle A. prevent oxidation-reduction reaction
C. slow down the rate of settling down
D. cause the preparation to remain in suspension
General corrections of incompatibilities include all of the following,
except:
A. separation of immiscible liquids
C. use of a different brand
B. change of vehicle
C. use of a different brand
D. substitution of ingredients
Route of administration where drugs are applied to the skin sur-
face to be absorbed slowly into the systemic circulation:
A. transdermal route
A. transdermal route
B. inhalation route
C. buccal route
D. rectal route
Involves the degradation of the drug or excipients through reaction
with the solvents present in the formulations:
A. solvolysis
A. solvolysis
B. oxidation
C. photolysis
D. polymerization
Degradation of drugs or excipient molecules can be brought about
by light, either room light or sunlight:
A. solvolysis
C. photolysis
B. oxidation
C. photolysis
D. polymerization
Remedy when a solid substance fails to dissolve in a liquid:
A. addition of an inert ingredients C. prepare a suspension
B. prepare an emulsion

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C. prepare a suspension
D. dispensing the ingredients separately
Occurs immediately upon compounding like presence of precip-
itate; effervescence of color changes:
A. minor incompatibility
C. immediate incompatibility
B. delayed incompatibility
C. immediate incompatibility
D. major incompatibility
Combinations liable to produce therapeutic incompatibilities when
administered at the same time, except:
A. sedatives and stimulants
D. aspirin and warfarin
B. tannins and aloins
C. caffeine and chloral hydrate
D. aspirin and warfarin
Water is most likely to cause instability on the following drugs,
except:
A. penicillins
C. alkaloids
B. cephalosphorins
C. alkaloids
D. benzodiazepines
Aspirin hydrolyzes in water giving acetic acid and:
A. salicylic acid
B. oxalic acid A. salicylic acid
C. formic acid
D. ticarboxylic acid
During drug interaction, the affected drug may become more
active resulting to the following, except:
A. increase drug activity
C. less effective
B. longer therapeutic action
C. less effective
D. toxicity
It occurs when drugs are mixed inappropriately in syringes or
infusion fluids prior to administration:
A. pharmacodynamic interaction
B. pharmaceutical interaction
B. pharmaceutical interaction
C. phamacokinetic interaction
D. all of the above
Which statement is not true regarding Lithium-NSAID combina-
tions?
A. NSAID impairs renal synthesis of broncho-dilator prostaglandin
B. NSAID antagonize the renal excretion of lithium A. NSAID impairs renal synthesis of broncho-dilator prostaglandin
C. NSAID may cause sodium and water retention
D. NSAID inhibit prostaglandin dependent renal excretion of lithi-
um
Delay in gastric emptying time for the drug to reach the duodenum
will_____, thereby prolonging the onset of time for the drug:
A. slow the rate and extent of drug distribution
B. slow the rate and extent of drug absorption
B. slow the rate and extent of drug absorption
C. increase the rate and extent of drug absorption
D. increase the rate and extent of drug metabolism
Factors that tend to reduce stomach contraction and gastric emp-
tying rate, except:
A. consumption of meals high in fat
D. hyperthyroidism
B. patient lying on left side
C. depression
D. hyperthyroidism
This drug inhibits the vitamin K dependent synthesis of clotting
factors II, VII, IX and X:
A. tetracycline
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B. diphenhydramine
C. warfarin C. warfarin
D. aspirin
Low potassium level in blood produced by diuretics:
A. hypokalemia
B. hyponatria A. hypokalemia
C. hypocalcemia
D. hyperuricemia
True types of incompatibilities:
A. unintentional or unexpected incompatibilities
B. intentional or expected incompatibilities A. unintentional or unexpected incompatibilities
C. immediate incompatibilities
D. delayed incompatibilities
Optimum absorption takes place in the:
A. gastrointestinal tract
B. receptor D. small intestine
C. stomach
D. small intestine
Type of drug strongly bound to albumin:
A. basic drugs
B. acidic drugs B. acidic drugs
C. alkaline drugs
D. all of the above
Pharmacokinetically, enzyme induction will result to the following
except:
A. peak level decreases
D. pharmacological responses are decreased
B. accelerated metabolism
C. increased overall elimination rate
D. pharmacological responses are decreased
Principal site of drug metabolism:
A. liver
B. kidney A. liver
C. stomach
D. small intestine
Major pathway of excretion are via the kidney into the urine and
via the liver into the:
A. bile
D. feces
B. urine
C. alveolar air
D. feces
In basic urine, acidic drugs are:
A. un-ionized, hence reabsorbed, decrease half life
B. more ionized, not reabsorbed, decrease half life B. more ionized, not reabsorbed, decrease half life
C. more un-ionized, not reabsorbed, increase half-life
D. un-ionized, not reabsorbed, increases elimination rate
Decreased urinary recycling, increases elimination rate constant
hence:
A. increases half life
C. shortens duration of pharmacologic response
B. longer duration of pharmacologic response
C. shortens duration of pharmacologic response
D. increases therapeutic concentration in the body
In acidic urine, acidic drugs are more un-ionized, hence:
A. reabsorbed, increase in half-life
B. not reabsorbed, increase ion half-life A. reabsorbed, increase in half-life
C. reabsorbed, decrease ion half-life
D. not reabsorbed, decrease in half-life
In acidic urine, basic drugs are:
A. more ionized, hence not reabsorbed, decrease in half-life

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B. un-ionized, hence not reabsorbed, decrease in half-life
C. more ionized hence not reabsorbed, increase in half-life A. more ionized, hence not reabsorbed, decrease in half-life
D. more ionized, reabsorbed, increase half-life
Increased urinary recycling increases half life hence, except:
A. decreases elimination rate constant
B. blood level rise and persist longer D. increases elimination rate constant
C. danger of toxicity in multiple dosing
D. increases elimination rate constant
Which statement is incorrect regarding interaction involving tyra-
mine containing substance and MAO inhibitor?
A. inhibition of MAO result in the accumulation of large amounts
of norepinephrine
D. large amount of stored norepinephrine can cause hypotensive
B. decrease ion the rate of intracellular metabolism
crisis
C. large amount of norepinephrine can cause severe headache
and hypertension
D. large amount of stored norepinephrine can cause hypotensive
crisis
Acidic group of amino acids responsible for binding basic drugs,
except:
A. glutamic
C. lysine
B. aspartic
C. lysine
D. tyrosine
Interactions that arise with drug acting on the same receptors,
sites of action or physiological system:
A. pharmaceutical interactions
B. pharmacodynamic interactions
B. pharmacodynamic interactions
C. pharmacokinetic interactions
D. change in body fluid and electrolyte balances
Factors that reduced binding capacity to albumin, except:
A. liver impairment
B. smoking D. neonates patient
C. during pregnancy
D. neonates patient
Phenobarbital-antihistamine drug combinations will result to:
A. Phenobarbital metabolism is accelerated by antihistamine
B. Antihistamine metabolism is accelerated by Phenobarbital B. Antihistamine metabolism is accelerated by Phenobarbital
C. Phenobarbital peak level ,increases
D. Decreased Phenobarbital overall elimination rate
Petition for favor of healing and warning from great care and
precaution:
A. Rx
A. Rx
B. Signa
C. Magistral Pharmacy
D. Mark thou
The approved clinical use of the product based on substantial
evidence of the efficacy and safety of the drug:
A. warning
D. indication
B. formulation
C. pharmacologic category
D. indication
Instruction and special care to avoid undesired effects an to
ensure the safe and effective use of the product:
A. warnings
B. precautions
B. precautions
C. contraindications
D. indications
Generic equivalent drugs are finished pharmaceutical products
having the same ingredients, same dosage form and the same
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strength. They differ only in:
A. generic name
B. brand name B. brand name
C. international and non-proprietary name
D. active constituents
Drug products that are considered prohibited, except:
A. Heroin and morphine
B. coca leaf and its derivative cocaine D. secobarbital
C. mescaline and Indian hemp
D. secobarbital
Regulated drugs, except:
A. LSD
B. amphetamine A. LSD
C. methaqualone
D. Phenobarbital
Violation on the part of the pharmacist in generic dispensing,
except:
A. adequately inform the buyer about available products that meet
the prescription A. adequately inform the buyer about available products that meet
B. failure to record and file the prescription filed the prescription
C. imposing a particular branded or product to the buyer
D. failure to report to the nearest DOH office cases of incorrect
prescriptions within 3 months after receipt of such prescriptions
Exempt prohibited drugs, except:
A. Lomotil
B. Benzodiazepines B. Benzodiazepines
C. Robitussin AC syrup
D. Phenergon Expectorant with Codeine
Drugs requiring strict precautions in their use, except:
A. Methotrexate
B. Codeine B. Codeine
C. Nitrofurantoin
D. Phenytoin
Official name of drug products containing 2 or more active ingre-
dients with single INN:
A. INN of the combination products
B. Generic names of 2 or more active ingredients A. INN of the combination products
C. Based on the nomenclature used by the PNDF
D. Products with standards formulation included in the current
PNDF
Source/s of information regarding incompatibilities:
A. Remington
B. USP D. all of the above
C. Product inserts
D. all of the above
This parchment scroll found in Egypt mentioned 700 drugs with
formulas for more than 800 remedies:
A. Papyrus Ebers
A. Papyrus Ebers
B. De Materia Medica
C. Remington
D. USP NF
The chief active constituent:
A. base
B. vehicle A. base
C. corrective
D. adjuvant
Instruction for patient in taking the medication:
A. transcription A. transcription
B. inscription
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C. superscription
D. subscription
Part of a label that is most likely to be presented, shown or
examined under customary conditions for display for retail sale:
A. outer label
B. principal display panel
B. principal display panel
C. inner label
D. label
Patron saints of medicine and pharmacy:
A. Cosmas and Damian
B. St. Peter A. Cosmas and Damian
C. George Ebers
D. Don Leon Maria Guerrero
Combination of a salt substitute and potassium sparing drugs will
result to:
A. hyperkalemia
A. hyperkalemia
B. tacycardia
C. alkalosis
D. calcemia
A written order signed by a licensed medical practitioner for med-
icine to be compounded by a pharmacist to meet the needs of a
certain person at a particular time:
A. letter B. prescription
B. prescription
C. recommendation
D. receipt
It forms the beginning of a direct order from the prescriber to the
compounder:
A. inscription
B. superscription
B. superscription
C. subscription
D. errors in the written order
Dispensing directions to the pharmacist is:
A. inscription
B. subscription B. subscription
C. superscription
D. transcription
A prescription where the generic name is not written:
A. violative Rx
B. erroneous Rx A. violative Rx
C. impossible Rx
D. yellow DDB Rx
The part of the prescription which directs the patient on what to
do is:
A. signa
A. signa
B. inscription
C. subscription
D. superscription
A prescription where the generic name does not correspond to
the brand name:
A. violative Rx
C. impossible Rx
B. erroneous Rx
C. impossible Rx
D. yellow DDB RX
The meaning of the abbreviation p.c. in the signa of a prescription:
A. as necessary
B. after meal B. after meal
C. at bedtime
D. sufficient quantity
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Complimentary list is a list of _____ drugs when there is no
response to the core essential list:
A. alternative
A. alternative
B. substitute
C. Additional
D. supplementary
When suppositories containing phenol causes the vehicle to soft-
en the melting point may be raised by adding:
A. lanolin
B. petrolatum
B. petrolatum
C. fixed oil
D. vehicle
Which one of the following antacid products is a chemical combi-
nation of aluminum and magnesium hydroxides?
A. Maalox
C. Riopan
B. Mylanta
C. Riopan
D. Gelusil
Simethicone is most likely to be included in what type of OTC
product?
A. antacids
A. antacids
B. cough product
C. decongestant
D. laxative
Theophylline when taken with high fat breakfast will result to the
following:
A. combination reduces the amount of theophylline
B. action of theophylline is enhanced by the fat present
B. action of theophylline is enhanced by the fat present
C. combination increases the metabolism of theophylline
D. both have synergistic effects
The label text outside the principal display panel on the immediate
container of pharmaceutical products as specified by RA 3720
contains the following information, except:
A. formulation B. contraindication
B. contraindication
C. batch and/or lot number
D. mode of administration
Valium and Tagamet combination will not result to one from the
following:
A. Tagamet delay elimination of anti-anxiety agent
D. Valium increases the metabolism of theophylline
B. Increased sedation and dizziness
C. Blood levels of anti-anxiety drug increased
D. Valium increases the metabolism of theophylline
The "NO SUBSTITUTION" instruction is seen on:
A. erroneous prescription
B. impossible prescription C. violative prescription
C. violative prescription
D. any of the above
A STAT order means the drug has to be administered:
A. as needed by the patient
B. at the hour of sleep C. immediately
C. immediately
D. before surgery
Piroxicam is a/an:
A. prohibited drug
B. regulated drug C. OTC drug
C. OTC drug
D. any of these answers

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If the pharmacist doubts the correctness of the prescription, he
should:
A. consult the patient
B. consult the prescriber
B. consult the prescriber
C. consult other pharmacist
D. base decision on ailment of the patient
Providing the correct medicine at the correct time, in the correct
dose and the correct route of administration is called:
A. primary care
B. rational drug therapy
B. rational drug therapy
C. osteopathy
D. homeopathy
In pricing prescription, the pharmacist must consider:
A. cost of ingredients
B. professional fee D. all of the above
C. percentage mark-up
D. all of the above
When the word otic appears on the label of the drug, the patients
should be informed that the drug is applied on the:
A. mouth
B. ear
B. ear
C. eyes
D. nose
Salt of zinc that is valuable as an eyewash for the treatment of
conjunctivitis:
A. zinc sulfate
A. zinc sulfate
B. zinc chloride
C. zinc oxide
D. all of these answers
The antiseptic property of hydrogen peroxide is due to:
A. ozone
B. acetanilide D. oxygen
C. peroxidase
D. oxygen
Which of the following is most closely related to cefazolin?
A. erythromycin
B. moxalactam B. moxalactam
C. carbenicillin
D. gentamycin
Failure to mix or dissolve when two or more ingredients are
combined may be termed as:
A. adverse reactions
B. physical incompatibility
B. physical incompatibility
C. drug precipitation
D. complexation
The unusual result of triturating camphor and menthol is:
A. liquefaction
B. synergistic effect A. liquefaction
C. solidification
D. lowering of melting point
Mixtures of phenolic, aldehydes, ketonic compounds and alcohols
are examples of:
A. insoluble substances
D. eutectic mixtures
B. hydroscopic substances
C. delinquent substances
D. eutectic mixtures
Substances which absorb moisture from the air are called:
A. effervescent powders B. hygroscopic powders
B. hygroscopic powders
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C. anhydrous powders
D. efflorescent powders
Liquefaction of crystalline salt occurs on trituration is due to:
A. addition of water
B. addition of other liquid ingredient D. liberation of water of crystallization
C. absorption of moisture from the air
D. liberation of water of crystallization
Urinary alkalinizer administered with sulfonamides treatment to
prevent crystalluria:
A. Na2CO3
B. NaHCO3
B. NaHCO3
C. NaOH or KOH
D. Na2CO3-10H2O
NPO means:
A. patient should be given drugs after meals
B. patient should be given drugs before meals C. patient should not be given anything by mouth
C. patient should not be given anything by mouth
D. patient should be left undisturbed
Drugs that can be dispensed only through a yellow prescription
pad:
A. essential drugs
B. dangerous drugs
B. dangerous drugs
C. OTC products
D. prescription drugs
The objective of the Generic Law is to:
A. provide the patient the choice of drugs at the lowest cost
B. provide regulated drugs A. provide the patient the choice of drugs at the lowest cost
C. provide prohibited drugs
D. use habit forming drugs
Zephiran is used in ophthalmic solution as:
A. suspending agent
B. surfactant C. anti-microbial agent
C. anti-microbial agent
D. anti-microbial agent and surfactant
The lowering of melting point is called:
A. evolution
B. eutexia B. eutexia
C. hydrolysis
D. none of these
Combination of NaHCO3 with an organic acid (citric or tartaric
acid) will result in:
A. precipitation
D. effervescence
B. color changes
C. oxidation
D. effervescence
The reaction between sodium bicarbonate and aspirin would re-
sult to:
A. formation of precipitate
B. evolution of gas
B. evolution of gas
C. hydrolytic changes
D. invisible changes
Benzalkonium chloride is incompatible with:
A. Soap
B. Cationic agent A. Soap
C. a&b
D. NOTA
Chemical incompatibility includes all of the ff except:
A. Racemization

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B. Implosion
C. Cementation D. Liquefaction
D. Liquefaction
When the response of a patient to one or more drugs is different
in nature then that intended by the prescriber is called:
A. Antagonistic incompatibility
C. Therapeutic incompatibility
B. Chemical incompatibility
C. Therapeutic incompatibility
D. Physical incompatibilty
Adverse drug reaction characterize by exaggerated or inordinate
response to normal doses of a drug:
A. Idiosyncrasy
A. Idiosyncrasy
B. Allergy
C. Hypersensitivity
D. Potentiation
Occurs when one drug increases the action of another drug:
A. Potentiation
B. Antagonism A. Potentiation
C. Summation
D. Summation/Potentiation
Isotonic solution of this substance will cause hemolysis of RBC:
A. Benzoic acid
B. Boric acid B. Boric acid
C. Sodium bicarbonate
D. Sodium benzoate
Substance used as a test for, liver function by measuring the
amount of hippuric acid in urine:
A. Sodium borate
D. Sodium benzoate
B. Aspirin
C. Sodium salicylate
D. Sodium benzoate
Alcohol is a specific potentiating agent when used with:
A. Penicillin
B. Antihistamine B. Antihistamine
C. Aspirin
D. Sulfonamide
The risk of aspirin in children with fever due to viral infection:
A. Gray baby syndrome
B. Reye's syndrome B. Reye's syndrome
C. Bone fraction
D. AOTA
The combined action of two or more drugs which results in an
enhancement or intensifying effect is termed:
A. Metabolism
D. Synergism
B. Antagonism
C. Stimulation
D. Synergism
Sodium Benzoate is effective as a preservative if the pH of the
preparation is:
A. Above 4
C. Below 4
B. Above 7
C. Below 4
D. Below 7
Upon exposure to air, aminophylline solution may develop:
A. A gas
B. A precipitate of theophylline C. Crystals of theophylline
C. Crystals of theophylline
D. A straw color

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The degradation reaction for aspirin involves:
A. Hydrolysis
B. Racemization A. Hydrolysis
C. Oxidation
D. Photolysis
Reactions which are noxious, unintended and which occur at
doses normally use in man for prophylaxis, diagnosis or therapy:
A. Drug interactions
B. Adverse drug reaction
B. Adverse drug reaction
C. Pharmacodynamic interactions
D. Therapeutic incompatibilities
The ingestion of a alcoholic drinks while on analgesic or sedative
therapy represents a commonly encountered drug interaction that
may result in:
A. Tolerance D. Excessive CNS Depression
B. Antagonism
C. Excessive CNS stimulation
D. Excessive CNS Depression
Biological half-life of many drugs is often prolonged in new born
infants because of:
A. Incompletely developed enzyme system
A. Incompletely developed enzyme system
B. Microsomal enzyme inhibition
C. Higher protein binding
D. Well-developed renal function
To prevent errors, the Pharmacist uses:
A. His knowledge of Pharmacognosy
B. His knowledge of Chemistry D. His knowledge of diseases
C. His broad knowledge of drugs
D. His knowledge of diseases
The following are aminoglycosides, except:
A. quinidine
B. Kanamycin A. quinidine
C. Streptomycin
D. Neomycin
Theophylline is used for:
A. Asthmatic
B. Diabetic A. Asthmatic
C. Hypertensive patients
D. All of these answers
Drug that should not be given to children with chicken pox or flu
symptoms:
A. Acetaminophen
B. Aspirin
B. Aspirin
C. Ibuprofen
D. All of these answers
Drug that should not be given to patients who have undergone
surgery including dental surgery:
A. Aspirin
A. Aspirin
B. Acetaminophen
C. Ibuprofen
D. All of these answers
Aspirin with antacids will cause:
A. Alteration of pH
B. Complexation and adsorption A. Alteration of pH
C. Alteration of GIT flora
D. Alteration of motility
The most serious drug-induced blood disorder:
A. Aplastic anemia A. Aplastic anemia
B. Leukemia
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C. Agranulocuytosis
D. Thrombocytopenia
The most clinically significant adverse drug reaction affecting the
upper gastrointestinal tract results from the use of:
A. NSAIDs
A. NSAIDs
B. Corticosteroids
C. Enteric coated KCl tablets
D. All of these answers
Used in the treatment of alcoholism by inhibiting activity of alde-
hyde dehydrogenase:
A. Probenecid
B. Antabuse
B. Antabuse
C. Phenobarbital
D. Aspirin
A reaction that is noxious and unintended, which occurs in doses
used in man for prophylaxis, diagnosis and therapy?
A. Drug interaction
B. Adverse drug reaction
B. Adverse drug reaction
C. Adverse drug effects
D. Pharmacodynamic effects
A type of synergism in which the combined effect is equal to the
additive effect of the combined drugs is termed:
A. Potentiation
B. Summation
B. Summation
C. Metabolism
D. Hyperactivity
Allergic reactions that are due to a persons's immune response:
A. Hypersensitivity
B. Idiosyncracy A. Hypersensitivity
C. Synergy
D. Potentiation
Which of the following factors influence drug metabolism and
metabolic pathway?
A. Genetic variation
A. Genetic variation
B. Drug dosage
C. Physiologic or disease state
D. All of these answers
A metal catalyzed oxidation reaction pathway can be prevented
by:
A. Chelating agents
A. Chelating agents
B. Antioxidant
C. Surface active agents
D. None of these answers
Which of the following factors may make it necessary to give lower
doses of drugs to geriatric patients?
A. Reduced enzyme activity
D. AOTA
B. Reduced kidney function
C. Enhanced absorption
D. AOTA
The reaction is classified under Bizarre reactions (typeB):
A. Anaphylactic shock
B. Teratogenesis A. Anaphylactic shock
C. Adverse effect
D. Drug dependence
When an oxidizing agent is triturated in a mortar with a reducing
agent, this would likely result to:
C. violent explosion
A. formation of damp mass
B. discoloration of powders

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C. violent explosion
D. volatilization of some of the ingredients
A common adverse effect related to the use of aluminum
antacids:
A. Nausea
C. Constipations
B. Vomiting
C. Constipations
D. AOTA
Tetracycline tend to form complexes with:
A. Iron salts
B. Magnesium salts D. AOTA
C. Calcium Salts
D. AOTA
Alcohol is a specific potentiating agent when used with:
A. Sulfonamides
B. Antihistamines B. Antihistamines
C. Aspirin
D. Penicillin
Well known side effects of salicylate therapy?
A. tinnitus
B. vomiting A. tinnitus
C. headache
D. nausea
Most common side effects of erythromycin therapy?
A. Anaphylaxis
B. ototoxcicity D. abdominal cramps
C. bleeding
D. abdominal cramps
A drug that increases the anticoagulant action of warfarin because
of its metabolite competes with the anticoagulant for plasma
protein blinding sites:
A. Tolbutamide C. chloral hydrate
B. aspirin
C. chloral hydrate
D. diazepam
Allopurinol inhibits xanthine oxidase and thus increases the plas-
ma levels of:
A. Mercaptopurine
A. Mercaptopurine
B. chloral hydrate
C. disulfiram
D. aspirin
Aspirin combines with Phenylsalicylate resulting to:
A. Melting
B. non-homogenous mixture D. moist mass
C. turbid solution
D. moist mass
A formulation of FeSO4 suspension cannot use acacia as a
suspending agent, because the final product may exhibit:
A. Gelatinization
A. Gelatinization
B. precipitation
C. cementation
D. oxidation
Cold preparations when taken in large closes may interact with:
A. Sedatives
B. guaiafenisin D. a and c
C. MAOIs
D. a and c

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Which of the following properties would characterize a drug when
it is bound to plasma albumin?
A. It is biologically inactive
A. It is biologically inactive
B. it is promptly metabolized
C. It can pass through the glomerulus
D. a and b
Traditional classification of adverse drug reactions:
A. Side effect
B. extension effect D. all of the above
C. allergy
D. all of the above
These reactions belong to Augmented type (type A):
A. Extension effect
B. allergy D. all of the above
C. side effect
D. all of the above
The following drugs often precipitate an interaction when admin-
istered with a second drug, except:
A. Sedation
C. hemolytic anemia
B. headache
C. hemolytic anemia
D. hypokalemia
The following responses belong to type B adverse reactions,
except
A. Allergy of Cefotaxime
C. facial abnormalities in babies born to alcoholic mothers
B. A plastic anemia in patients taking chloramphenicol
C. facial abnormalities in babies born to alcoholic mothers
D. peripheral neuritis in a British missionary III with tuberculosis
An ointment is prepared by incorporating 10g of a drug into 100g
of white petrolatum. What is the percent w/w of active ingredient?
A. 10.0%
B. 9.1% B. 9.1%
C. 0.91%
D. 0.95%
E. none of the above
What is the proof strength of a 50% (v/v) solution of alcohol?
A. 25 proof
B. 50 proof
C. 100 proof
C. 100 proof
D. 75 proof
E. 150 proof
Certified dyes may not be used in the area of:
A. The eye
B. the scalp
A. The eye
C. the lips
D. the nose
E. all of the above
The principal use of magnesium stearate in pharmaceutics is
as/an:
A. Lubricant
B. antacid A. Lubricant
C. source of magnesium ion
D. disintegrant
E. binder
The use of titanium dioxide in pharmacy is in:
A. Sunscreens
A. Sunscreens
B. antacid capsules
C. capsules as diluent

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D. effervescent
E. emulsions
A synonym for vitamin C is:
A. Riboflavin
B. tocopherol
C. ascorbic acid
C. ascorbic acid
D. cyanocobalamin
E. thiamine
Activated charcoal is used in some antidotes because of which of
its properties?
A. Neutralizing
D. stabilizing
B. emetic
C. absorptive
D. stabilizing
The abbreviations SOS on prescriptions means:
A. At once
B. freely
C. if needed
C. if needed
D. do not repeat
E. on alternate days
Clindamycin is closely related to which if the following in effective
spectrum?
A. Chloramphenicol
B. Lincomycin D. methylprednisone
C. prednisolone
D. methylprednisone
E. dexamethasone
The dose of a drug is 5mg/kg of body weight. What dose should
be given to a 100-lb female patient?
A. 2500 mg
B. 250 mg C. 250 mg
C. 250 mg
D. 44 mg
E. 440 mg
How many grains of a drug is needed to make 4 fluid ounces of a
5% (w/v) solution?
A. 91 grains
B. 96 grains B. 96 grains
C. 48 grains
D. 100 grains
E. 24 grains
Which of the following is not used as a vehicle for injection?
A. Peanut oil
B. cottonseed oil A. Peanut oil
C. theobroma oil
D. sesame oil
Lidocaine HCl is not administered orally because it is:
A. Ineffective by this route
B. Too acidic
B. Too acidic
C. too toxic by this route
D. a cause of arrhythmias
E. unstable
The two major properties of drug that are usually modified by
complexation are:
A. Odor and taste
B. Taste and solubility C. chemical structure and solubility
C. chemical structure and solubility
D. chemical structure and stability
E. stability and solubility

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What will result if the distribution of drugs is slower than the
processes of biotransformation and elimination?
A. High blood levels of drugs
A. High blood levels of drugs
B. Low blood levels of drugs
C. synergism e. failure to attain diffusion equilibrium
D. potentiation
pH is:
A. not temperature
B. a measure of acidity
E. none of the above
C. the same as pOH
D. high of acids
E. none of the above
In radiopharmacy, the term "rem" means:
A. Radiations per millisecond
B. Radiations per minute
E. roentgen exposure per minute
C. Roentgen-equivalent-man
D. external roentgens per minute
E. roentgen exposure per minute
which of the following types of tissues frequently store drugs?
A. Fatty tissue
B. muscle tissue
C. protein tissue
C. protein tissue
D. a&b
E. a and c
Which of the following types drugs undergoes marked hydrolysis
in the GI tract?
A. Aspirin
B. Penicillin G B. Penicillin G
C. Acetaminophen
D. hydrocortisone
E. chlortetracycline
Surface active agents tend to enhance absorption due to:
A. Their effects on biological membrane
B. Their effects on the dissolution rate of drugs
E. A, b and c
C. Reduction of interfacial tension
D. B and c only
E. A, b and c
Emulsions made with tweens are usually:
A. Unstable
B. w/o
B. w/o
C. o/w
D. clear
E. reversible
A solution contains 3 gr of a drug per fluid ounce. What is the
percentage w/v of the solution?
A. 0.66%
B. 0.59% B. 0.59%
C. 10.0%
D. 1.0%
E. 6.5%
Cyanocobalamin is a/an:
A. Steroid
B. Choline estrerase inhibitor
C. Hallucinogen
C. Hallucinogen
D. vitamin
E. enzyme
Consequence of adverse drug reactions:
A. Increased mortality D. AOTA
B. Prolonged hospital stay

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C. Increased cost therapy
D. AOTA
The dose of a drug is 0.5 mg/kg. What dose should be given a
6-year old child who weighs 44 lbs?
A. 0.003g
B. 0.033g C. 0.010g
C. 0.010g
D. 0.100g
E. 0.05g
Salicylic acid is used primarily as :
A. Analgesic
B. Anti pyretic
E. Keratolytic agent
C. Cough supressant
D. Uricosuric agent
E. Keratolytic agent
The chemical substance used commonly in running a GI series
is:
A. Barium sulfate
B. Fluorescein dye A. Barium sulfate
C. Radioactive iodine
C. Sodium bicarbonate
D. Sodium carbonate
Which of the following may be used as plasma expander?
A. Sodium salts
B. Dextrans
B. Dextrans
C. Starches
D. Calcium salts
E. Prostaglandins
Denaturations of emulsions is characterized by:
A. Irreversible precipitation
B. Reversible precipitation
A. Irreversible precipitation
C. Creaming
D. Changing of external phase
E. C and D
Freeze drying is based on:
A. Pressure filtration
B. Sublimation
B. Sublimation
C. Polymerization
D. Pasteurization
E. Densification
Which of the following is not a naturally occurring emulsifier?
A. Acacia
B. Cholesterol
D. Veegum
C. Gelatin
D. Veegum
E. Tragacanth
The most prevalent commercial solid dosage forms are:
A. Hard capsules
B. Soft gelatin capsules
C. Tablets
C. Tablets
D. Bulk powders
E. Divided powders
The purpose of sorbitol in formulations of soft gelatin capsules:
A. Plasticizer
B. Disintegrating agent
A. Plasticizer
C. Lubricant
D. Thickener
E. Emulsifier

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 Dispensing and Adverse Drug Reactions
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Pharmacist should caution patients who are taking niacin that this
drug:
A. Stains the urine bright red
D. Should be taken with meals
B. Causes ringing in the ears
C. Causes muscular weakness
D. Should be taken with meals
Tetracycline tend to form complexes with:
A. Calcium ions
B. Magnesium ions
E. All of the above
C. Aluminum ions
D. Iron ions
E. All of the above
Most drugs are:
A. Strong electrolytes
B. Weak electrolytes
B. Weak electrolytes
C. Non-electrolytes
D. Highly ionic
E. None of the above
A humectant retards:
A. Bacterial growth
B. Degradation
C. Surface evaporation
C. Surface evaporation
D. Spreadability
E. All of the above
Transdermal scopolomine is a drug used to prevent:
A. Motion sickness
B. Hypertension
A. Motion sickness
C. Diabetes
D. Coronary insufficiency
E. Rabies
Reaction rate is increased most readily by:
A. humidity
B. High temperature
B. High temperature
C. Freezing
D. Photolysis
E. Hydrolysis
A primary disadvantage of ethylene glycol as a solvent in oral
preparation is its:
A. Potential toxicity
B. Lack of solvent action A. Potential toxicity
C. Very limited miscibility
D. High cost
E. High viscosity
Glucose is not subject to hydrolysis because it is:
A. a disaccharide
B. A monosaccharide
B. A monosaccharide
C. A polysaccharide
D. Insoluble
E. Both b and c
Purified water USP may not be used in:
A. Syrups
B. Topical preparations
C. Parenteral preparations
C. Parenteral preparations
D. Elixirs
E. Effervescent solutions
Solutions that contains bacteriostatic agents:
A. Cannot be tested for sterility
B. Must be cultured on agar plates for sterility test
B. Must be cultured on agar plates for sterility test
C. Must be diluted beyond the bacteriostatic level for sterility tests

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D. Do not require a sterility test
E. None of the above
Ferritin is a/an:
A. Vitamin
B. Micelle
B. Micelle
C. Emulsion
D. Amino acid
E. Protein
Gums are used in tableting primarily as:
A. Disintegrant
B. Glidants
D. Binding agents
C. Lubricants
D. Binding agents
E. Both b and c
Vanishing creams are classified as:
A. Oleaginous
B. Absorption bases
D. o/w bases
C. Water-soluble bases
D. o/w bases
E. w/o bases
Syrup NF is:
A. Self-preserving
B. A supersaturated solution
A. Self-preserving
C. A dilute solution
D. Highly unstable
E. Flavored and preserved

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