RESEARCH

1. The following are identified limitations of the study except:

A. The researcher is only given three months to finish the study
B. Data collection methods has some missing elements
C. The study has financial constraints
D. The researcher is given wide access to conduct literature review.
 
2. In the same study, COVID-19 is defined as an illness caused by a novel coronavirus now called severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus
2. Most infected people will develop mild to moderate illness and recover without hospitalization. This type of definition is termed as:
A. Operational definition
B. Conceptual definition
C. Theoretical definition
D. Constructive definition
3. Lemuel’s study mentioned that COVID- 19 lockdowns can significantly decrease students’ psychological well-being, this part of the study is
called?
A. Hypothesis 
B. Abstract
C. Research question
D. Significance of the study
4. In the same study, the independent variable is?
0/1
A. COVID-19
B. COVID- 19 lockdowns
C. Students
D. Psychological well-being

5. Based on the study, “Effects of COVID-19 lockdowns on students’ psychological well-being,” which of the following is the dependent
variable?
0/1
A. COVID-19
B. COVID- 19 lockdowns
C. Students 
D. Psychological well-being 
6. Random sampling is also called as:
A. Probability sampling 
B. Prospect sampling
C. Availability sampling
D. Probation sampling
7. Which one is called non-probability sampling?
0/1
A. Quota sampling
B. Cluster sampling
C. Systematic sampling
D. Stratified random sampling

8. Determining the sample interval (represented by k), randomly selecting a number between 1 and k, and including each kth element in your
sample are the steps for which form of sampling?
0/1
a. Cluster sampling
B. Stratified random sampling
C. Simple random sampling
D. Systematic sampling
 
9. A research problem is feasible only when*
0/1
A. It has utility and relevance
B. It is new and adds something to knowledge
C. It is researchable
D. All of the above
 
10. Why is it important to have well formulated research questions?
0/1
A. It gives greater clarity to the research process and what you wish to research.
B. It leads to more focused research.
C. It provides more structure to my work 
D. All of the above.
 11. Blue print of Research work is known as _______
A. Sampling design
B. Research design
C. Research hypotheses
D. Research approach
12. "Internal validity" refers to:
A. Whether or not there is really a causal relationship between two variables. 
B. Whether or not the findings are relevant to the researchers' everyday lives.
C. The extent to which the researcher believes that this was a worthwhile project.
D. How accurately the measurements represent underlying concepts.
 
13. The term 'external validity' is concerned with:
0/1
A. The question of whether the results of a study can be generalized beyond the specific research context.
B. Whether the research question is judged to be a good research question by those outside the study.
C. The question of whether or not social scientific findings are applicable to people's every day, natural social settings. 
D. An ambiguous concept whose meaning depends on how it is defined. 
14. If a study is "reliable", this means that:
0/1
A. The methods are outlined in the methods discussion clearly enough for the research to be replicated.
B. The measures devised for concepts are stable on different occasions.
C. The findings can be generalized to other social phenomena
D. It was conducted by a reputable researcher who can be trusted.
15. Thomas is exploring whether gender has an effect on spatial rotational skills. Because he cannot randomly assign his participant, Thomas is
pursuing:
A. An experiment
B. A priming experiment
C. A quasi-experiment
D. A confounding experiment
 
16. In an experimental study looking at classical music exposure and reading ability in children, which of the following is the independent
variable?
1/1
A. Classical music
B. Books
C. Classical music exposure
D. Reading ability of children
17. You design a study to test whether changes in exam room temperature have an effect on PNLE scores. Which is the dependent variable?
0/1
A. Exam room temperature
B. PNLE
C. Exam room
D. PNLE Scores
 18. In the following set of data, which of the following is the mean? 65 55 89 23 35  14 56  55
A. 49
B. 56
C. 65.33
D. 43.56
 19. In the following set of data, which of the following is the median? 65 55 89 23 35 14 56  55
A. 35
B. 14
C. 55
D. 29
 20. In the following set of data, which of the following is the mode? 65 55 89 23 35  14 56  55
A. 65
B. 55
C. 89 D. 56

POST-TEST
1. _______research is based on the measurement of quantity or amount.
A. Qualitative
B. Descriptive
C. Quantitative
 D. Numerical
 
2. _______ as a testable statement of a potential relationship between two or more variables.*
A. Research hypothesis
B. Research experience
C. Research problem
D. Research crisis
3. Blue print of Research work is known as _______*
A. Sampling design
B. Research design
C. Research hypotheses
D. Research approach
4. The longitudinal research approach mainly deal with _____*
0/1
A. Horizontal research
B. Vertical Research
C. Short-term research
D. Long-term research
 
5. What is a cross-sectional design?*
a) A comparison of two or more variables longitudinally
b) A design that is devised when the researcher is in a bad mood.
c) The collection of data from more than one case at one moment in time.
d) Research into one particular section of society, e.g. the middle classes.
Situation: Lemuel is a senior nursing student who is formulating a study on the Effects of COVID-19 lockdowns on students’ psychological well-
being.
6. The following are identified limitations of the study except:*
A. The researcher is only given three months to finish the study
B. Data collection methods has some missing elements
C. The study has financial constraints
D. The researcher is given wide access to conduct literature review.

7. In the same study, COVID-19 is defined as an illness caused by a novel coronavirus now called severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus
2. Most infected people will develop mild to moderate illness and recover without hospitalization. This type of definition is termed as:*
A. Operational definition
B. Conceptual definition 
C. Theoretical definition
D. Constructive definition
8. Lemuel’s study mentioned that COVID- 19 lockdowns can significantly decrease students’ psychological well-being, this part of the study is
called?*
A. Hypothesis
B. Abstract
C. Research question
D. Significance of the study
9. In the same study, the independent variable is?*
0/1
A. COVID-19
B. COVID- 19 lockdowns
C. Students
D. Psychological well-being
10. Based on the study, “Effects of COVID-19 lockdowns on students’ psychological well-being,” which of the following is the dependent
variable?*
A. COVID-19
B. COVID- 19 lockdowns
C. Students
D. Psychological well-being
 
11. "Internal validity" refers to:*
A. Whether or not there is really a causal relationship between two variables. 
B. Whether or not the findings are relevant to the researchers' everyday lives.
C. The extent to which the researcher believes that this was a worthwhile project.
D. How accurately the measurements represent underlying concepts. 
12. The term 'external validity' is concerned with:*
A. The question of whether the results of a study can be generalized beyond the specific research context.
B. Whether the research question is judged to be a good research question by those outside the study.
C. The question of whether or not social scientific findings are applicable to people's every day, natural social settings.
D. An ambiguous concept whose meaning depends on how it is defined.
13. If a study is "reliable", this means that:*
A. The methods are outlined in the methods discussion clearly enough for the research to be replicated.
B. The measures devised for concepts are stable on different occasions.
C. The findings can be generalized to other social phenomena
D. It was conducted by a reputable researcher who can be trusted.
14. Why is it important to have well formulated research questions?*
A. It gives greater clarity to the research process and what you wish to research.
B. It leads to more focused research.
C. It provides more structure to my work.
D. All of the above.
15. Random sampling is also called as:*
A. Probability sampling
B. Prospect sampling
C. Availability sampling
D. Probation sampling
16. A research problem is feasible only when*
A. It has utility and relevance
B. It is new and adds something to knowledge
C. It is researchable
D. All of the above
 
17. Which one is called non-probability sampling?*
0/1
A. Quota sampling
B. Cluster sampling
C. Systematic sampling
D. Stratified random sampling
18. Determining the sample interval (represented by k), randomly selecting a number between 1 and k, and including each kth element in your
sample are the steps for which form of sampling?*
0/1
a. Cluster sampling
B. Stratified random sampling
C. Simple random sampling
D. Systematic sampling
 
19. In which of the following non-random sampling techniques does the researcher ask the participants to identify other potential research
participants?*
A. Quota
B. Purposive
C. Snowball
D. Convenience
20. Interviewing customers as they exit the grocery store is what type of sampling?*
A. Quota
B. Purposive
C. Snowball
D. Convenience
21. In an experimental study looking at classical music exposure and reading ability in children, which of the following is the independent
variable?*
A. Classical music
B. Books
C. Classical music exposure
D. Reading ability of children
22. You design a study to test whether changes in exam room temperature have an effect on PNLE scores. Which is the dependent variable?*
A. Exam room temperature
B. PNLE
C. Exam room
D. PNLE Scores
 
23. In the following set of data, which of the following is the mean? 65 55 89 23 35  14 56  55 *
A. 49
B. 56
C. 65.33
D. 43.56
24. In the following set of data, which of the following is the median? 6555 89 23 35  14 56  55 *
A. 35
B. 14
C. 55 
D. 29
25. In the following set of data, which of the following is the mode? 65 55 89 23 35  1456  55 *
A. 65
B. 55
C. 89
D. 56
26. In the four levels of measurement, the sequence of variables is established except?*
A. Nominal
B. Ordinal
C. Interval
D. Ratio
27. Height and weight are examples of what level of measurement?*
A. Nominal
B. Ordinal
C. Interval
D. Ratio
28. ______ is a qualitative research approach that involves observing variables in their natural environments or habitats in order to arrive at
objective research outcomes*
A. Phenomenological research
B. Ethnographical research
C. Grounded theory
D. Pre-experimental research
29. Thomas is exploring whether gender has an effect on spatial rotational skills. Because he cannot randomly assign his participant, Thomas is
pursuing:*
A. An experiment
B. A priming experiment
C. A quasi-experiment
D. A confounding experiment
30. Sample selection bias is a threat to internal validity that occurs when:*
A. One group is exposed to a sudden change outside the scope of the study.
B. The groups in which individuals are assigned are not random.
C. The treatment and control groups influence each other in some way.
D. Participants are tested repeatedly on the same material

ERDN
1. If no written information regarding advanced directives is available for a client who requires emergency treatment after suffering motor vehicle
accident, ED personnel including must: (Select all that Applies) 
I. Stabilize the client
II. Resuscitate any client if necessary                                  
III. Follow appropriate standard treatment guidelines regardless of a family member’s expressed wish         
IV. Not to provide any treatment for the client
1. If no written information regarding advanced directives is available for a client who requires emergency treatment after suffering motor vehicle
accident, ED personnel including must: (Select all that Applies)                                                                                   
0/1
A. I, II only
B. I, II, III
C. II, III, IV
D. IV only
Correct answer
A. I, II only
2. Patient X needed blood transfusion due to severe hemorrhage. Due to time constraint, Nurse Nami knows that she should prepare which blood
type which can be infused before cross-matched blood is available.
0/1
a. O+
b. O-
c. AB+
d. AB-
Correct answer
b. O-
3. A patient had fractures of three ribs all in the right side of his chest. She documented this finding as:
0/1
a. Mediastinal shift
b. Paradoxical Motion
c. Open Pneumothorax
d. Flail Chest
Correct answer
d. Flail Chest
4. Nurse Marie had more patients that day. She knows that which of the following types of incidents seen in the ER must be reported to the local
authorities? (SATA) 
I. Motor vehicle accidents                                                 
II. Suspected domestic abuse                                          
III. A case of Polio                                                                     
IV. Suspected child abuse                                                   
V. Cardiovascular Accidents
 4. Nurse Marie had more patients that day. She knows that which of the following types of incidents seen in the ER must be reported to the local
authorities? (SATA)
0/1
A. I, II, IV
B. II, III, IV
C. I, II, III, IV
D. I, II, III, IV, V
Correct answer
C. I, II, III, IV
 5. ER had several admissions and discharges that day. Upon arrival in the ER of a patient with a major traumatic injury, primary assessment
includes:
A. Last meal taken
B. Overall Vital Signs assessment
C. Cervical spine evaluation for any potential injury
D. Location of relatives or significant others to contact
6. The treatment priority for a client with an altered level of consciousness is:
a. Protecting the cervical spine
b. Establishing and maintaining a airway
c. Determine the length of time since onset of manifestations
d. Obtaining a past medical history
7. Minors for whom consent of a parent or legal guardian dos does not need to be obtained to treat them include: (SATA)  
 i. Emancipated minors                                                        
ii. Minors seeking treatment for communicable diseases                                                                         
iii. Minor-aged females requesting treatment for pregnancy or pregnancy related concerns                             
iv. Children with sore throats and fever
7. Minors for whom consent of a parent or legal guardian dos does not need to be obtained to treat them include: (SATA)
0/1
A. I, IV
B. I, III
C. I, II, III
D. I, II, III. IV
Correct answer
C. I, II, III
8. The goal of emergency medical services include: (SATA)                   
I. Providing emergency care to a client as quickly as possible                                                                                   
II. Assuring that the “right client arrives at the right hospital”                                                                          
III. Maintaining professional relationships with the community                                                                               
IV.Assisting families in securing appropriate referral when needed
 8. The goal of emergency medical services include: (SATA)
A. I only
B. I and II 
C. I, II, III
D. I, II, III, IV
9. In keeping a nurse’s drug skill sharp, he ought to know that clients who have fibrinolytic medications in the ER must be continuously
monitored for:
a. Increased Intracranial pressure
b. Active bleeding
c. Visual disturbances
d. Beta-blocker corrections
10. The drug of choice for narcotic overdose is
A. Methylprednisolone
B. Narcan
C. Valium
D. Lithium 
11. Nurse Lynne is always prepared as ER nurse. She knows that during a mass casualty incident, the usual color used for triage categories are:
a. Red, Blue, Yellow, Black
b. Red, Green, Blue, Black
c. Green, Yellow, Pink, White
d. Green, Yellow, Red, Black
 
12. A nurse sorts out patients in the Accident and Emergency department. To determine the priority of their health care needs, and proper site of
treatment, she is utilizing the concept of:
a. Basic Survival /Shelter Resource Kit
b. Patient Tracking
c. Patient Triaging
d. Physical Health Assessment
13. Included in natural disasters are the following events: (SATA)  
i. Pandemic                                                                                          
ii. Flooding                                                                                                  
iii. Exposure to Heat/Cold                                                                     
iv. Earthquake                                                                                    
v. Bioterrorism
13. Included in natural disasters are the following events: (SATA)
A. I, II, IV, V
B. II and IV only
C. II, IV, V
D. I, II, III, IV
Correct answer
D. I, II, III, IV
 
14. In an event of a Blast Injury, Nurse Lynn should initially focus on the most frequent injury after subjection to a pressure wave, because this
involves the human body structure organ that is most sensitive to pressure.
A. Tympanic Membrane Rupture
B. Blast Lung
C. Blast Abdomen
D. Brain Concussion 
Correct answer
A. Tympanic Membrane Rupture
15. Which of the following statement is true regarding the biological weapon Anthrax?
a. This is recognized as he second weaponized agent available and highly debilitating agent for centuries after Smallpox
b. Bacillus anthracis is a naturally occurring gram-negative encapsulated spiral shaped bacteria living in soil
c. The three main methods of infection are skin contact, blood-borne and inhalation
d. More than 50% of the patients have hemorrhagic mediastinitis on radiography which is a hallmark sign
Correct answer
d. More than 50% of the patients have hemorrhagic mediastinitis on radiography which is a hallmark sign 
16. During an assessment of a patient suffering from hypothermia, which of the following assessment will you most likely see?
a. paradoxical undressing
b. arrythmia
c. palpable purpura
d. obvious motor impairment
17. Which temperature reflects mild hypothermia?
a. 36-37 degrees Celsius
b. 35-36 degrees Celsius
c. 32-36 degrees Celsius
d. 32-35 degree Celsius
Correct answer
d. 32-35 degree Celsius
 
18. A client is hospitalized for ingesting an overdose of acetaminophen (Tylenol). The nurse prepares to administer which specific antidote for
this medication overdose?
a. Protamine sulfate
b. Phytonadione (Vitamin K)
c. Acetylcysteine (Acetadote)
d. Naloxone hydrochloride (Narcan)
 
19. A client is admitted to the emergency department with complaints of severe, radiating chest pain. The client is extremely restless, frightened,
and dyspneic. Immediate admission prescriptions include oxygen by nasal cannula at 4 liters per minute; troponin, creatinine phosphokinase, and
isoenzymes blood levels; a chest x-ray; and a 12-lead ECG. Which action should the nurse take first?
a. Obtain the 12-lead ECG.
b. Draw the blood specimens.
c. Apply the oxygen to the client.
d. Call radiology to schedule the chest x-ray study.
 
20. A client with a flail chest caused by four fractured rib segments is experiencing severe pain when trying to breathe. Which characteristics of a
flail chest should the nurse observe the client for?
a. Cyanosis and slow respirations
b. Slight bradypnea with shallow breaths
c. Pallor and paradoxical chest movement
d. Severe dyspnea and paradoxical chest movement
POST- TEST
1. During a telephone triage, a client called who was stung by a honeybee. The client reports of pain and localized swelling but has no respiratory
distress or other symptoms of anaphylactic shock. What is the appropriate initial action that the nurse should direct the client to perform?
a. Removing the stinger by scraping it.
b. Applying a cold compress.
c. Taking an oral antihistamine.
d. Calling the 911.
 
2. Nurse Anna is an experienced travel nurse who was recently employed and is assigned in the emergency unit. In her first week of the job.
which of the following area is the most appropriate assignment for her?
a. triage
b. ambulatory section
c. trauma team
c. psychiatric care
 
3. A client arrives at the emergency department who suffered multiple injuries from a head-on car collision. Which of the following assessment
should take the highest priority to take?
a. irregular pulse
b. ecchymosis in the flank area
c. a deviated trachea
d. unequal pupils
 
4. Nurse Kelly. a triage nurse encountered a client who complaints of mid-sternal chest pain. dizziness. and diaphoresis. Which of the following
nursing action should take priority?
a. Complete history taking.
b. Put the client on ECG monitoring.
c. Notify the physician.
d. Administer oxygen therapy via nasal cannula
5. A group of people arrived at the emergency unit by a private car with complaints of periorbital swelling. cough. and tightness in the throat.
There is a strong odor emanating from their clothes. They report exposure to a "gas bomb" that was set off in the house. What is the priority
action?
a. Direct the clients to the decontamination area
b Direct the clients to the cold or clean zone for immediate treatment.
c. Assess vital signs and auscultate lung sounds.
d. Immediately remove other clients and visitors from the area.
e. Instruct personnel to don personal protective equipment
6. When an unexpected death occurs in the emergency department. which task is the most appropriate to delegate to a nursing assistant?
a. Help the family to collect belongings.
b. Assisting with postmortem care.
c. Facilitate meeting between the family and the organ donor specialist.
D. Escorting the family to a place of privacy
 
7. You are preparing a child for IV conscious sedation before the repair of a facial laceration. What information should you report immediately to
the physician?
a. The parent wants information about the IV conscious sedation.
b. The parent is not sure regarding the child’s tetanus immunization status.
c. The child suddenly pulls out the IV.
d. The parent’s refusal of the administration of the IV sedation

8. The emergency medical service has transported a client with severe chest pain. As the client is being transferred to the emergency stretcher.
you note unresponsiveness. cessation of breathing. and unpalpable pulse. Which of the following task is appropriate to delegate to the nursing
assistant?
a. Assisting with the intubation
b. Placing the defibrillator pads
c. Doing chest compressions.
d. Initiating bag valve mask ventilation.
9. The nursing manager decides to form a committee to address the issue of violence against ED personnel. Which combination of employees
would be best suited to fulfill this assignment?
a. RNs. LPNs. and nursing assistants.
b. At least one representative from each group of ED personnel.
c. Experienced RNs and experienced paramedics
d. ED physicians and charge nurses
10. A 56 yo patient presents in triage with left sided chest pain, diaphoresis, and dizziness. This patient should be prioritized into which category?
a. High urgent
b. Urgent
c. Non-urgent
d. Emergent
 
11. A client with a known history of panic disorder comes to the emergency department and states to the nurse, “Please help me. I think I’m
having a heart attack.” What is the priority nursing action?
A. Check the client’s vital signs. 
B. Encourage the client to use relaxation techniques.
C. Identify the manifestations related to the
panic disorder.
D. Determine what the client’s activity involved when the pain started.
12. All of the following are incorrect in management of snake bite except:
A. Corticosteroids administration is essential in the first 6-8 hr after bite and should be given
B. Bring the snake if non-venomous; and bring a snake that is venomuous if dead, for identification.
C. Position patient upright and use torniquet, appy ice and suction venom if possible
D. Tetanus toxoid administration
Correct answer
D. Tetanus toxoid administration
13. Emergency Nursing is demanding because of the diversity of conditions and situations presenting unique challenge. Which of the following
are issues in Emergency Nursing Care?  (SATA)                                                        
 I. Limiting exposure to health risk                                                              
II. Documentation of Consent and Privacy                                        
III. Violence                                                                                      
IV. Challenge in providing holistic care
A. I and III
B. I only
C. I, II, IV
D. I, II, III, IV
14. In case of sudden death, which of the following Nurse Irene actions occurs first?
A. Reassuring everything possible was done, and treatments are rendered 
B. Take the family to a private place
C. Encourage family members to support each other
D. Talk to the family together so they can grieve together
Correct answer
B. Take the family to a private place
15.Aside from using Glasgow Coma Scale, In determining neurologic disability of a patient, a quick neurologic assessment is by using AVPU
mnemonic. What does P stand for?
A. Planning
B. Pain 
C. Precipitating Factors
D. Predisposing Factors 
16. What is considered he universal distress sign for a person who is choking?
A. Having an apprehensive appearance, refuse to lie supine, stridor
B. Labored breathing, use of accessory muscle to breathe
C. Clutches the neck between thumb and fingers
D. Cannot speak, breath, or cough
17. In measuring an oropharyngeal airway before insertion, the nurse correctly measures the airway by doing which of the following?
A. Measuring the airway alongside the head, and should reach from lip to ear
B. Measuring the airway alongside the neck, and should reach from corner of lip to cricoid process
C. Measuring the airway alongside the head, and should reach from nose tip to ear 
D. Measuring the airway alongside the head, and should reach from eyes to earlobe
Correct answer
A. Measuring the airway alongside the head, and should reach from lip to ear
 
18. In case of hemorrhage, the most essential to the care and survival of patients in an emergency or disaster nursing?
A. Stopping the bleeding
B. Fluid replacement
C. Oxygenation
D. Prevention of Infection 
19. After a building explode, EMS delivers 33 critically injured patients to your hospital where you work as an ER nurse. Which type of
leadership would be the most effective in ER personnel?
A. Bureaucratic
B. Democratic
C. Autocratic
D. Laissez- Faire
 
20. In preserving evidence in Forensic Nursing in the Emergency Department, all are correct practices except:
A. Do not allow family members, significant others or friends to be alone with the patient
B. Photograph inflicted wounds or injuries
C. Place wet clothing in plastic bags
D. Place paper bag on hands, feet, and head of the deceased person
21. A decrease in circulating blood volume leads to decrease tissue perfusion. Therefore, any condition producing a profound volume deficit
necessitates immediate intervention. Treatment is directed at preventing further volume loss and Fluid volume replacement. Which is the fluid of
choice?
A. Crystalloids
B. Colloids
C. Hetastarch
D. Blood
22. If peripheral venous and central line access is not possible, which route of parenteral access can be used to infuse fluids, blood and
medication?
A. Intrathecal
B. Intraosseous in the sternum
C. Intraosseous in the iliac crest
D. Intraosseus in proximal anterior tibia
Correct answer
D. Intraosseus in proximal anterior tibia
 
23. The patient became agitated, tachypneic, tachycardic, diaphoretic, with crackles and distended jugular vein during flid resuscitation. The
initial action you as a nurse will do is
A. Give oxygenation
B. Place in high-fowlers position
C. Establish venous access
D. Call Radiology Department for a stat portable Chest Xray
24. If blood accumulates in a patient’s thoracic cavity, or abdominal cavity, percussing over this area elicits a dull sound. Which sign can you find
as a nurse during assessment in this type of case?
A. Kernig’s Sign - MENINGITIS
B. Kehr’s Sign
C. Ladin’s Sign – PROBABLE SIGN OF PREGNANCY
D. Cullen’s Sign – PERIUMBILICAL ECCHYMOSIS
Correct answer
B. Kehr’s Sign
25. Heat stroke is an acute medical emergency caused by failure of the heat regulating mechanisms of the body. Most common cause s non-
exertional prolonged exposure to an environmental temperature of
A. Greater than 38.8C
B. Greater than 39C
C. Greater than 39.2 C
D. Greater than 39.5C
26. A client was taken to the ER who was reportedly swimming in Siargao, survived 18 hrs after submersion that caused  respiratory arrest. The
patient suffered nonfatal drowning. As a nurse you recalled the most common places related to drowning which are the following except:
A. Pools
B. Lakes
C. Bathtubs
D. Rivers
Correct answer
D. River 
27. Rewarming is a management method for hypothermia. For mild hypothermia, passive or active external rewarming is used. Which of the
following is used for passive external rewarming?
A. Forced-air warming blankets
B. Over-the-bed heaters
C. Both
D. Neither
28. After rapid assessment, the nurse categorizes emergency patients by priority nursing diagnoses. Based on the following diagnoses, which
patient should be given priority attention?
a. High Risk for Trauma: Injury: a 14-year-old with a suspected fractured femur
b. High Risk for Suffocation: Injury: a 60- year-old with burns of the face and neck 
c. Impaired Skin Integrity: a 25-year-old with a lacerated finger
d. Anxiety: a 50-year-old complaining of “feelings of panic”
 

29. Which of the following is the first thing to do when you saw a victim being bitten by a snake?
a. ensure safety of the environment
b. Suck the venom out of the wound
c. apply cold compress
d. Lower the extremity
Correct answer
a. ensure safety of the environment
 
30.Airways obstruction is a life-threatening medical emergency. It can be a partial or complete where in a complete obstruction, interventions
have to be done or permanent brain injury or even death can occur within?
A. 10-15 minutes 
B. 5-8 minutes
C. 3-5 mins
D. 1-3 mins
Correct answer
C. 3-5 mins
PSYCHIATRIC
1.The nurse expects a client exhibiting flight of ideas to do which of the following?
0/1
a. make sudden stops in the flow of conversation
b. coin new words or combinations of several words
c. provide excessive detail that delays starting a point
d. talk excessively while frequently shifting from one idea to another
Correct answer
d. talk excessively while frequently shifting from one idea to another
 
2. A client tells the nurse that his body is made of wood and is quite heavy. The nurse interprets this as which of the following?
0/1
a. delusion
b. hallucination
c. depersonalization
d. obsession
Correct answer
a. delusion
 
3. The client states, “I’m not sure what to do. What do you think would be best?” The nurse refrains from giving advice for which of the
following reasons?
0/1
a. Advice is more appropriate if it comes from the physician.
b. The client is testing the nurse’s ability as a helping person.
c. The nurse may not be aware of the client’s options.
d. It is more useful to encourage the client’s own attempts at problem solving
Correct answer
d. It is more useful to encourage the client’s own attempts at problem solving
 
4. A therapist is working with a client and is experiencing anxiety and agitation comparable to the client. Which of the following best describes
the therapist’s reaction as:
0/1
a. transference
b. parataxis
c. psychoanalysis
d. countertransference
Correct answer
d. countertransference
 
5. When administering the neuroleptic haloperidol (Haldol) to a client, the nurse understands that it is decreasing the amounts of which
neurotransmitter?
0/1
a. acetylcholine
b. dopamine
c. serotonin
d. histamine
Correct answer
b. dopamine
 
6. For the client receiving the antipsychotic medication clozapine (Clozaril), which adverse side effect should the nurse be aware of?
0/1
a. decreased WBC
b. decreased liver enzyme activity
c. hypersecretion of the thyroid (hyperthyroidism)
d. renal insufficiency
Correct answer
a. decreased WBC

7. A client receiving the neuroleptic medication chlorpromazine (Thorazine) exhibits excessive drooling and fi ne hand tremors. Which
medication would the nurse expect the physician to order to alleviate the symptoms/side effects?
0/1
a. benztropine (anticholinergic)
b. acetaminophen (pain reliever)
c. lorazepam (CNS depressant)
d. naproxen (NSAID)
Correct answer
a. benztropine (anticholinergic)
 
8. The nurse assesses a client with excessive worry and concern and determines that the client is showing the signs of generalize anxiety disorder
for which clinical symptoms?
0/1
a. fear and avoidance of specific situations or places
b. persistent obsessive thoughts
c. reexperience of feelings associated with traumatic events
d. unrealistic concern for daily life activities
Correct answer
d. unrealistic concern for daily life activities
 9. The nurse understands that when a client with a compulsive disorder does give in to a compulsion, he or she experiences which of the
following?
0/1
a. attention from others
b. decrease in anxiety
c. disability payments
d. relief from responsibility
Correct answer
b. decrease in anxiety
 10. A client with the diagnosis of obsessive-compulsive disorder is admitted to the psychiatric inpatient unit for treatment when ritualistic
behaviors become incapacitating. During the initial phase of treatment, which intervention would be best?
0/1
a. accepting client rituals
b. challenging client rituals
c. limiting client rituals
d. teaching prevention of rituals
Correct answer
a. accepting client rituals
11. The technique of exposing a client to a fear- producing sensation in a gradual manner over time is called ____________.
a. biofeedback
b. positive imaging
c. relaxation techniques
d. systematic desensitization
 
12. A patient is experiencing auditory hallucinations in the form of the voice of his deceased mother. Which nursing response would be most
appropriate when a client talks about hearing voices?
0/1
a. “I do not hear the voices that you say you hear.”
b. “Those voices will disappear as soon as the medicine works.”
c. “Try to think about positive things instead of voices.”
d. “Voices are only in your imagination.”
Correct answer
a. “I do not hear the voices that you say you hear.”
 13.  Which personality characteristic would the nurse expect to find in a client with anorexia nervosa?
0/1
a. anger
b. compliance
c. rebellion
d. suspicion
Correct answer
c. rebellion
 14. A 14-year-old female client tells the nurse that she frequently feels compelled to eat a large amount of food in a small amount of time as fast
as she can. The nurse identifies this problem as characteristic of which eating disorder?
1/1
a. anorexia
b. bulimia
c. overeating
d. compulsiveness
 15. Parents of an adolescent female bring their daughter to your clinic. They suspect that she is anorexic. Which of the following questions
would be most appropriate for you as the nurse to ask a client who is suspected of having the eating disorder anorexia nervosa?
0/1
a. “Do you feel you have a problem controlling your weight?”
b. “Do you use diet pills, diuretics, laxatives, or purging to lose weight?”
c. “Do people tell you that you are too fat?”
d. “Do you eat only when you are hungry?”
Correct answer
b. “Do you use diet pills, diuretics, laxatives, or purging to lose weight?”

POST-TEST
1.What is the nurse’s most important role in caring for a client with a mental health disorder?
a. To offer advice on how a client should respond to challenges
b. To let client realized her wrong decisions in life
c. To offer solutions to a client’s problem
d. To establish trust and rapport
 
2.A psychiatric nurse should know that the primary or overall purpose of therapeutic communication in the nurse-client relationship is:
a. To facilitate a helping relationship
b. To provide emotional support
c. To analyze client’s problem
d. To elicit cooperation
Correct answer
a. To facilitate a helping relationship
 
3.Patient Maria says to the nurse during breakfast, “Oh no! I will wait for my husband. We will eat together.” The nurse knows that her husband
died 2 years ago from a vehicular accident. Her therapeutic response would be:
a. “Would you like me to accompany you to visit your husband in the cemetery?”
b. “I’ve told you several times that he is dead. It’s time to eat.”
c. “Your husband is dead. Let me serve you your breakfast.”
d. “You’re going to have to wait a long time.”
 
4.A client shows negativity and resistance to the nurse who facilitates the group therapy. The client has history of rebellion from his parents who
are both health workers. The nurse should know that the client’s behavior is known as:
a. Transference
b. Counter transference
c. Pathologic manifestation
d. Hostility
 
5.Instead of therapeutically responding to the client’s act of negativism and resistance, the nurse showed anger to the client. The nurse was the
youngest in the family and unconsciously showed anger because she felt nobody wanted to listen to her, ever her client. Which of the following
did the nurse show?
a. Transference
b. Counter transference
c. Pathologic manifestation
d. Negativism
6.Which of the following is a function of the superego?
a. Represents the mature behavior
b. Operate as a conscience
c. Allows the person to function successfully
d. It directs a person’s behavior
 
7.A client admitted to the mental health unit for treatment of psychotic behavior is at the locked exit door and is shouting, “There’s nothing
wrong with me. Let me go. I don’t belong here.” The nurse analyses this behaviour as:
a. Denial
b. Substitution
c. Regression
d. Undoing 
Correct answer
a. Denial
8.A client lost her husband due to a vehicular accident, a friend approaches her and tries to comfort her; she states, “I can’t think and I don’t want
to talk about his death right now”. The client is using which of the following defense mechanisms?
a. Sublimation
b. Compensation
c. Suppression 
d. Substitution
9.When an individual unconsciously attempts to identify with personality traits or actions of an influential person to preserve one’s self-esteem or
to reach a specific goal, she is probably using which defense mechanism?
a. Suppression
b. Imitation
c. Projection
d. Identification

10.A person released from prison for selling narcotics has been rehabilitated and now works as a volunteer for a youth drug prevention agency.
This person’s current behavior reflects which of the following defense mechanisms?
a. Denial
b. Displacement
c. Identification
d. Sublimation

11.A psychiatric client thinks that people are talking about him behind his back and he believes that one of her colleagues was the one who told
their supervisor to reprimand him because of unruly behavior. The nurse will document this defense mechanism as:
a. Projection
b. Displacement
c. Sublimation
d. Introjection
 
12. A client who has been too busy working leaving no time for his wife, comes home one night after work with a bouquet of flowers and 2
tickets for a movie. The defense mechanism used by Roland is:
a. Symbolization
b. Rationalization
c. Intellectualization
d. Undoing
Correct answer
d. Undoing
 
13.Nurse Pinky is about to start Nurse-Patient interaction to a newly admitted patient. To best render her therapeutic use of, she should be able to
accomplish which action first before initiating the nurse-patient relationship?
a. Determining if the patient’s problem result from stressors
b. Establishing boundaries for the patient and the nurse
c. Exploring personal feelings regarding the care of the mental health patient
d. Identifying goals and strategies
Correct answer
c. Exploring personal feelings regarding the care of the mental health patient
 
14. Nurse Pinky who is already in the orientation phase of the nurse-patient relationship is expected to do which of the following?
a. Patient perception on the reason of her hospitalization
b. Identification of more effective ways of coping
c. Exploration of inadequate coping skills
d. Establishment of regular meeting schedules
Correct answer
d. Establishment of regular meeting schedules
 
15.After an initial nurse-client interaction, the client asks for Nurse Pinky’s home phone number, indicating a desire to date the nurse. Which of
the responses is most appropriate?
a. “I may consider dating you once you are fully recovered.”
b. “I’m sorry but I already have a special relationship.”
c. “It’s against hospital policy for me to date clients.”
d. “This is a professional relationship, and we need to stay clear on that.”

16.When working with a client in crisis, which of the following is the MOST important?
a. Assisting the client in determining what is similar about this crisis to the previous crises in his life
b. Remaining focused on the client’s immediate problem
c. Obtaining a complete assessment of the client’s past history
d. Determining whether the client may have a part on the occurrence of this crisis
17.A patient is in a panic level of anxiety, plans for nursing intervention should include which of the following?
a. Darkening the room and offering warm blankets
b. Having the client describe how he usually copes with anxiety
c. Staying with the patient
d. Alerting the security guards on the situation
 
18.Mikel who has been hospitalized with schizophrenia tells Nurse Ron, “My heart has stopped, and my veins have turned to glass!” Nurse Ron
is aware that this is an example of:
a. Somatic delusions
b. Neologism
c. Illusion
d. Echolalia
 
19.Clients involved in a psychotherapy group identify negative conditions and work toward changing thoughts in order to influence behaviors.
Which theoretical framework is the focus of this group psychotherapy?
a. Cognitive-behavioral framework
b. Interpersonal framework
c. Psychoanalytic framework
d. Self-help framework
 
20.A nurse is assessing a client who has been diagnosed with bulimia nervosa. The nurse is aware that which of the following characteristics
accompanies binge eating?
a. Guilt, weight loss, dental caries, and compulsive exercising
b. Weight loss, dental caries, self-induced vomiting and self-restricted diet
c. Guilt, dental caries, self-induced vomiting, with normal weight
d. Introverted behaviour, normal weight, guilt
 
21.A client with chronic schizophrenia who takes neuroleptic medication is admitted to the psychiatric unit. Nursing assessment reveals muscle
spasms, fever and hypertension. These findings suggest which life-threatening reaction:
a. Tardive dyskinesia
b. Dystonia
c. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
d. Akathisia
22.A client’s states, “I am always late for everything because I can’t leave my house without checking every door and window to make sure it is
locked. If I don’t make sure everything is locked. I get so worried and I have to go back home. I can’t seem to stop my behavior.” The nurse
should encourage this client to:
a. adjust the personal schedule to allow time for the ritual
b. explore childhood experiences that led to the behavior
c. remain at home until the symptoms subside
d. stop worrying about the lock
Correct answer
a. adjust the personal schedule to allow time for the ritual
 
23.During, an assessment interview the client tells the nurse, “I can’t stop worrying about my make-up. I can’t go anywhere or do anything unless
my make-up is fresh and perfect. I wash my face and put on fresh make-up at least once and sometimes twice an hour.” This behavior is most
likely a sign of a (n):
a. Attention Deficit Hyperactive Disorder
b. Generalized Anxiety Disorder
c. Obsessive Compulsive Disorder
d. Panic Disorder
24.A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is speaking in a group by putting rhyming words that have no meaning together. This speech pattern
is known as:
a. Echopraxia
b. Echolalia
c. Clang association
d. Neologism
25.A male client diagnosed with schizophrenia is having negative symptoms associated with his illness. Which of the following is classified as a
negative symptom of schizophrenia?
a. Anhedonia
b. Illusion
c. Hallucination
d. Delusion
 
26.A 32-year-old woman is seen in an outpatient clinic for the chief complaint of a depressed mood for 4 months. During the interview, she gives
very long, complicated explanations and many unnecessary details before finally answering the original questions. This style of train of thought is
an example of which finding?
a. loose association
b. circumstantiality
c. neologism
d. perseveration
 
27.Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a potentially lethal complication of treatment with antipsychotics.  Which of the following
manifestations should the nurse recognize as an early sign of NMS?
a. restlessness
b. fine tremors
c. muscle stiffness 
d. teeth grinding
 
28.Despite knowing his husband’s indecent extramarital affairs, Mrs. Dela Cruz states never fails to prepare breakfast for him and says, “My
husband is such a good man. I love him.” What defense mechanism is the patient using?
a. Displacement
b. Reaction formation
c. Undoing
d. Rationalization
29.Madam Ming, a 34 year old working woman, cheated someone in a business transaction and reduced her guilt by saying that, “everyone does
it.” What kind of defense mechanism is she representing?
a. Repression
b. Displacement
c. Projection
d. Rationalization
Correct answer
d. Rationalization
30.A client who is unable to cope with the sudden loss of a job and who is feeling confused and unable to make decisions is said to be
experiencing which of the following?
a. Adventitious crisis
b. Maturational crisis
c. Situational crisis
d. Social crisis
 
31.Donna danced into the party and immediately became the center of attention. During a private conversation, a friend inquired about the rumors
that she was having some difficulties in her marriage. In an outburst of anger, she denied any problems and claimed that her marriage was “as
wonderful and charming as ever.” What kind of personality disorder does Donna most probably have?
a. Schizotypal personality disorder
b. Borderline personality disorder
c. Narcissistic personality disorder
d. Histrionic personality disorder
32.A client who had been living with her family after her boyfriend of 4 weeks broke up with her. Her arms are scarred from frequent self-
mutilation. The nurse interprets these findings as indicating which of the following personality disorder?
a. Antisocial personality disorder
b. Avoidant personality disorder
c. Borderline personality disorder
d. Compulsive personality disorder
33.A woman had a verbal altercation with her boss at work. She meekly accepts his harsh words. That night, she picks a fight with her husband.
Which of the following defense mechanism is being used by this woman?
a. displacement
b. acting out
c. reaction formation
d. projection
34.A client tells the nurse that he “sees sounds and hears colors” when he uses lysergic diethylamide (LSD). The nurse interprets this information
as indicating that the client has experienced which of the following?
a. Impaired judgment
b. Synesthesia
c. Flashback
d. Panic
 
35.Marvin is experiencing mild level of anxiety during their final examination day in one of their major subjects. He is expected to manifest
which of the following?
a. Neologism
b. Alertness and increase in energy
c. Startle reflex and circumstantiality
d. Poor eye contact and flight of idea
 
36.Which of the following brain imaging findings have been found to be directly related to the development of schizophrenia?
a. People with schizophrenia have a larger brain
b. People with schizophrenia have more brain tissues
c. People with schizophrenia have higher amount of cerebrospinal fluid
d. People with schizophrenia have less brain tissues
 
 
37.Anticholinergic side effects commonly occurs with the use of antipsychotic medications. This side effects includes which of the following?
a. Dry mouth and constipation
b. Increased salivation
c. Diarrhea
d. Diaphoresis
 
38.A client with OCD, who was admitted early yesterday morning, must make his bed 22 times before he can have breakfast. Because of his
behavior, the client missed having breakfast yesterday with other client’s. Which of the following actions would the nurse institute to help the
client be on time for breakfast?
a. Tell the client to make his bed one time only
b. Wake the client an hour earlier to perform his ritual
c. Insist that the client stop his activity when it’s time for breakfast
d. Advise the client to have breakfast first before making his bed
 
39.Ms. Mann talks about her son's death from cancer as being merciful and shows no signs of her sadness and anger while saying, “God needed
another angel in heaven. I know he’s in a better place now.” Ms. Mann is using which of the following ego defense mechanism?
a. Rationalization
b. Reaction formation
c. Denial
d. Intellectualization

40.Clients diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder commonly use which mechanism?

a. Suppression
b. Repression
c. Undoing
d. Denial
 
41.All of the following are extrapyramidal manifestations expected in clients taking antipsychotic medications except:
a. Dystonia
b. Akathisia
c. Psuedoparkinsonism
d. Heartburn

42.Which of the following medications is a 1st generation antipsychotic medication?

a. Thorazine
b. Olanzapine
c. Risperidone
d. Aripiprazole
43. A client diagnoses with schizophrenia is experiencing lack of motivation to finish tasks. She is also experiencing anhedonia. Which of the
following medications would the nurse expect to be most beneficial for the client’s symptoms?
a. Haloperidol (Haldol)
b. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine)
c. Olonzapine (Zyprexa)
d. Trihexyphenidyl (Artane)
44.You notice that a patient receiving chlorpromazine cannot sit still in his group activity. He continuously gets up and has to be reminded to sit
down. You realize:
a. That he is experiencing akathesia
b. That he is having a kinesthetic hallucination
c. That he is experiencing a parkinsonian effect
d. That he is trying to confrontation of his own feelings in group
 
45.  Which among the following is a positive sign of schizophrenia?
a. Anhedonia
b. Avolition
c. Asociality
d. Delusion
 
46. The two major neurotransmitters involved in the development of schizophrenia are:
a. Epinephrine and norepinephrine
b. Dopamine and serotonin
c. Gabba amino butyric acid and epinephrine
d. Acetylcholine and dopamine
 
47. The following are common side effects of antipsychotic medications EXCEPT:
a. Hypertension
b. Constipation
c. Hypotension
d. Photosensitivity
 
48.   Cluster A personality disorders include all the following EXCEPT:
a. Paranoid
b. Schizoid
c. Schizotypal
d. Borderline

49.Cluster B personality disorders include all the following EXCEPT:

a. Borderline
b. Antisocial
c. Histrionic
d. Avoidant

50. Cluster C personality disorders include all the following EXCEPT:

a. Avoidant
b. Antisocial
c. Dependent
d. Obsessive compulsive

LEADERSHIP AND MANAGEMENT

1. Leadership can occur between the leader and another individual; between the leader and a group; or between a leader and an organization, a
community, or a society. Leadership is defined as:
A. Being self-confident and democratic
B. Being in a leadership position with authority to exert control and power over subordinates
C. Managing complexity
D. Process of interaction in which the leader influences others toward goal achievement
 
2. Management as a process that is used today by nurses or nurse managers in health care organization is best described as:
A. Commanding and controlling others using hierarchical authority
B. Decision making
C. Planning, organizing, directing, and controlling 
D. Scientific management
 
3. Nurse Kelvin is newly appointed as the head nurse of their unit. He must be guided by all but one of the following key characteristics of formal
and informal leadership, except.
0/1
A. The formal leader cannot act as informal leader at the same time.
B. In formal leadership, decision-making responsibility, influence and authority come with position.
C. Formal leaders cannot benefit from informal leaders’ ability to challenge the status quo.
D. Informal leadership requires group courage and group risk taking.
Correct answer
B. In formal leadership, decision-making responsibility, influence and authority come with position.
4 .Nurse Grey is assigned as the acting leader in the unit. Because she was chosen by the head management, she is driven to rise up to the
challenge she is faced with. As the unit’s formal leader, Nurse Grey is very much aware that she has which of the following advantages?
0/1
A. Nurse Grey does not have the power to discipline errant behavior.
B. Nurse Grey will mostly rely on open communication and charisma to win over members.
C. Nurse Grey has greater commitment to the organization rather than the group.
D. Nurse Grey is not authorized to reward members for good behavior, only the top management.
 
Correct answer
C. Nurse Grey has greater commitment to the organization rather than the group.
 5. In the hospital organization, registered nurses have which of the following sources of power over nursing aides?
0/1
A. Expert and Authority
B. Authority and Coercive
C. Expert and Reward
D. Reward and Authority
Correct answer
A. Expert and Authority
 6. Joshua has a habit of coming to work late and has been observed to be very unprofessional when it comes to maintaining patients’ right to
confidentiality. Because of this, his head nurse decided to assign him to an undesirable shift to learn his lessons. The head nurse in this scenario
used which type of power?
0/1
A. Referent power
B. Expert power
C. Coercive power
D. Legitimate power
Correct answer
C. Coercive power
 7. Under the situational theory of leadership, there are five kinds of leader. This theory considers a person’s qualities and motivations, the role
expectations of the group, and the social forces at work. Having knowledge about the types of leaders, Ellie, a nursing student, identifies who
among the following as a charismatic leader?
0/1
A. Ariel who always pushes through what she thinks is right.
B. Mulan who inspires her team to sacrifice for the cause they represent.
C. Merida who just comes out as a leader wherever she goes
D. Nala who dominates decision-making among his team
 
Correct answer
B. Mulan who inspires her team to sacrifice for the cause they represent.
 
8. Mr. Panganiban notices that the Chief Nurse Executive has charismatic leadership style. Which of the following behaviors best describes this
style?
0/1
A. Matches his leadership style to the situation at hand.
B. Uses visioning as the core of his leadership
C. Acts as he does because he expects that his behavior will yield positive results
D. Possesses inspirational quality that makes followers gets attracted of him and regards him with reverence
Correct answer
D. Possesses inspirational quality that makes followers gets attracted of him and regards him with reverence

9. The nurse reads about Path Goal theory. Which of the following behaviors is manifested by the leader who uses this theory?
0/1
A. Reminds staff about the sanctions for non-performance.
B. Admonishes staff for being laggards.
C. Challenges the staff to take individual accountability for their own practice
D. Recognizes staff for going beyond expectations by giving them citations
Correct answer
D. Recognizes staff for going beyond expectations by giving them citations
10. Ms. Castro learns that some leaders are transactional leaders. Which of the following does NOT characterize a transactional leader?
0/1
A. Focuses on management task
B. Is a caretaker 
C. Uses trade-offs to meet goals
D. Inspires others with vision
Correct answer
D. Inspires others with vision
11. As an employee of the organization, you agree to follow rules and regulations support its mission and abide by its value. Which of the
following should you do to support the mission and values?
0/1
A. Learn by the heart the mission vision of the organization and take pride in being associated with it.
B. Get a copy of the administrative manual and use it as a reference when needed.
C. Learn everything about the organization and talk intelligently about it in public.
D. “Walk the talk” especially when performing the tasks as expected of a professional nurse.
Correct answer
D. “Walk the talk” especially when performing the tasks as expected of a professional nurse.
12. Nurse Rhiannon is heading the budgetary control program of their organization. She needs further teaching if she includes the following in
operating budget:
0/1
A. Medications for the shift
B. Salary of staff 
C. In-service education
D. Purchase of MRI
Correct answer
D. Purchase of MRI
 13.The hospital’s old ventilator often malfunctions and has inefficiencies resulting from the prolonged times it is out of service for repairs. The
hospital decided to purchase new equipment because the old one is too expensive to maintain. What type of budget is allotted for the purchase of
such equipment?
0/1
A. Operational budget
B. Capital budget
C. Construction budget
D. Wage budget
Correct answer
B. Capital budget
 
14. Hospitals use several types of budgets to help with future planning and management. In planning the budget, Nurse Cris is correct if he can
identify which hospital activity that denotes the operational account.
1/1
A. The purchase of minor and major equipment
B. Construction and renovation
C. Income and expenses associated with daily activity within an organization
 D. Application of new technology
 
15. You are the nurse manager of the medical-surgical unit of St. Joseph Tertiary Hospital. Mr. Benjie Bratt, one of your patients was admitted
due to motor vehicular accident. He is unconscious; attached to mechanical ventilator, has IV line and BT line, you checked his VS and obtained
the following data: BP= 90/80 mm Hg, PR= 95 bpm, RR= 20 cpm and T= 38 C. Based on the assessment, you conclude that he needs constant
monitoring and categorized under what level of care?
0/1
A. Minimal care
B. Moderate care
C. Maximum care
D. Intensive care
Correct answer
D. Intensive care
 
16. Which pattern of nursing care involves the care given by a group of paraprofessional workers led by a professional nurse who take care of
patients with the same disease conditions and are located geographically near each other?
0/1
A. Case Method
B. Modular Nursing
C. Global Nursing
D. Team Nursing
Correct answer
B. Modular Nursing
17. All of the following are advantages of using the primary nursing care modality, which one is not included?
A. There is higher RN skill mix.
 
B. There is defined accountability and responsibility for the nurse to develop a plan of care with the patient and family.
C. There is holistic care.
D. Nurses find this model professionally rewarding
 18. The director of Makati Medical Center is refurbishing the organizational structure. He is correct to use which line in order to depict the
relationship between the vice presidents of each department?
1/1
A. Broken horizontal lines 
B. Solid horizontal lines
C. Broken vertical lines
D. Solid vertical lines
 
19. For example in an Acute Care General Hospital, the organizational chart composed of Board of trustees who are giving orders to the
President, there are four Vice Presidents: finance, administration, medicine and nursing who reports to the president. There are middle managers
under each Vice President who are giving direct orders to first line managers, who are above the service providers. What type of organizational
structure is described?
1/1
A. Centralized structure
B. Matrix structure
C. Decentralized structure
D. Complex structure
20. A type of nursing care modality wherein one of its advantages is that patients and families are able to develop a trusting relationship with the
nurse.
0/1
A. Functional Nursing
B. Team Nursing
C. Case Method
D. Primary Nursing
Correct answer
D. Primary Nursing

POST-TEST
1. A nurse manager is conducting a discussion with the nursing staff regarding concerns and proposals for actions related to the improvement of
the nursing unit. The nurse manager discusses her own opinion, own analysis of the problem and proposals for action to team members and
invites each member to comment and provide input. The nurse manager is said to be employing which type of leadership?
A. Situational leadership
B. Path-Goal leadership
C. Participative leadership
D. Transformational leadership
 
2. Nurse May attends an educational conference on leadership styles. The nurse is sitting with a nurse employed at a large trauma center who
states that the leadership style at the trauma center is task-oriented. The nurse determines that the leadership style used at the trauma center is:
A. Autocratic
B. Laissez-faire
C. Democratic
D. Situational
3. Mr. San Diego is the nurse manager of the Intensive Care Department of a well-known tertiary hospital in Quezon City. You know that a
manager differs from a leader because the latter:
A. Does things right
B. Focuses on the here and now
C. Motivates people to change
D. Uses position-to-position influence
Correct answer
C. Motivates people to change
 
4. The hospital’s old ventilator often malfunctions and has inefficiencies resulting from the prolonged times it is out of service for repairs. The
hospital decided to purchase new equipment because the old one is too expensive to maintain. What type of budget is allotted for the purchase of
such equipment?
A. Operational budget
B. Capital budget
C. Construction budget
D. Wage budget
 
5. A type of nursing care modality wherein one of its advantages is that patients and families are able to develop a trusting relationship with the
nurse.
A. Functional Nursing
B. Team Nursing
C. Case Method
D. Primary Nursing
Correct answer
B. Team Nursing
6. Alvin, 9 years old is admitted due to anaphylactic shock. His condition is currently stable but needs periodic observations for danger signs. He
has an intravenous fluid and an on-going blood transfusion attached to him. The nurse on duty will classify Alvin under which category of patient
care classification system?
A. Critical care
B. Minimal care
C. Intermediate care
D. Total care
Correct answer
D. Total care
 
7. Nelson is a Unit Manager in the Pediatric Unit. He is not satisfied with the way things are going in his unit. Patient satisfaction rate is 40% for
two consecutive months and staff morale is at its lowest. He decides to plan and initiate changes that will push for a turnaround in the condition
of the unit. Which of the following actions is a priority for Nelson?
A. Call for a staff meeting and take this up in the agenda.
B. Seek help from her manager.
C. Develop a strategic action on how to deal with these concerns.
D. Ignore the issues since these will be resolved naturally.
Correct answer
C. Develop a strategic action on how to deal with these concerns.
 
8. As a nurse manager, Nelson raised the issue on giving priority to patient needs. Which of the following offers the best way for setting priority?
A. Assessing nursing needs and problems
B. Giving instructions on how nursing care needs are to be met
C. Controlling and evaluating the delivery of nursing care
D. Assigning safe nurse: patient ratio
 
9. For example in an Acute Care General Hospital, the organizational chart composed of Board of trustees who are giving orders to the President,
there are four Vice Presidents: finance, administration, medicine and nursing who reports to the president. There are middle managers under each
Vice President who are giving direct orders to first line managers, who are above the service providers. What type of organizational structure is
described?
A. Centralized structure
B. Matrix structure
C. Decentralized structure
D. Complex structure
 
10. Each nurse or other licensed or unlicensed health care provider is responsible for his or her own actions. Due to staffing shortage, the nurse on
duty decided to delegate some tasks to the nursing aides on duty. Which of the following should he/she delegate?
A. Suctioning of patient under chronic tracheostomy
B. Making a nursing diagnosis
C. Performing venipuncture
D. Formulating nursing care plan
 
11. The doctor has written an order for a vest restraint to be applied on a client from 9:00 pm to 6:00 am because the client becomes confused
during the night and is at risk for falls. At 11:00 pm, the charge nurse makes rounds on all of the clients in the unit. When assessing the client
with the vest restraint, which observation by the charge nurse would show that the nurse who cared for this client performed an unsafe practice in
the use of the restraint?
A. A safety knot was used to secure the restraint.
B. The client’s record indicates that the restraint will be released every 2 hours.
C. The restraint was applied tightly.
D. The call light was placed within reach of the client 
12. You are not new in your department, and you had been there for almost three years. Miss A, your previous nurse manager was considered
strict and authoritative in implementing the protocols in your area. She would make your schedule fixed unless you will inform her two weeks
before any change of shift. On the contrary, your new nurse manager, Miss B schedules a monthly staff meeting for any significant matters in
your department. She is not so lenient but makes it up to collect suggestions from all of you before making decision. If you are to choose which
one of your nurse managers described above reflects a democratic type of leadership, who is she?
A. Miss A
B. Miss B
C. Both of them
D. None of the above
 
13. Julius is a newly-appointed nurse manager of The Good Shepherd Medical Center, a tertiary hospital located within the heart of the
metropolis. He thinks of scheduling planning workshop with his staff in order to ensure an effective and efficient management of the department.
Should he decide to conduct a strategic planning workshop, which of the following is NOT a characteristic of this activity?
A. Long-term goal-setting
B. Extends to 3-5 years in the future
C. Focuses on routine tasks
D. Determines directions of the organization
Correct answer
C. Focuses on routine tasks
 
14. Which of the following statements refer to the vision of the hospital?
A. The Good Shepherd Medical Center is a trendsetter in tertiary health care in the Philippines in the next five years
B. The officers and staff of The Good Shepherd Medical Center believe in the unique nature of the human person
C. All the nurses shall undergo continuing competency training program.
D. The Good Shepherd Medical Center aims to provide a patient-centered care in a total healing environment.
 
15. The statement, “The Good Shepherd Medical Center aims to provide patient-centered care in a total healing environment” refers to which of
the following?
A. Vision
B. Goal
C. Philosophy
D. Mission
 
16. Julius plans to revisit the organizational chart of the department. He plans to create a new position of a Patient Educator who has a
coordinating relationship with the head nurse in the unit. Which of the following will likely depict this organizational relationship?
A. Box
B. Solid line
C. Broken line
D. Dotted line
 
17. He likewise stresses the need for all the employees to follow orders and instructions from him and not from anyone else. Which of the
following principles does he refer to?
A. Scalar chain
B. Discipline
C. Unity of command 
D. Order
 
18. Julius orients his staff on the patterns of reporting relationship throughout the organization. Which of the following principles refer to this?
A. Span of control
B. Hierarchy
C. Esprit d’ corps
D. Unity of direction
Correct answer
B. Hierarchy
 
19. He emphasizes to the team that they need to put their efforts together towards the attainment of the goals of the program. Which of the
following principles refers to this?
A. Span of control
B. Unity of direction
C. Unity of command
D. Command responsibility
 
20. Julius stresses the importance of promoting ‘esprit d corps among the members of the unit. Which of the following remarks of the staff
indicates that they understand what he pointed out?
A. “Let’s work together in harmony; we need to be supportive of one another”
B. “In order that we achieve the same results; we must all follow the directives of Julius and not from other managers.”
C. “We will ensure that all the resources we need are available when needed.”
D. “We need to put our efforts together in order to raise the bar of excellence in the care we provide to all our patients.”
 
21. Strategic planning is long range planning usually extending 3 to 5 years into the future.  Which of the following best illustrates Strategic
planning?
A. It is a long-term plan that consists of day-to-day operation of the hospital.
B. It is a long-term plan that determines the direction of the organization, allocates resources, assigns responsibilities and determines time frame
which includes analyzing SWOT, Vision, Mission, Policies, procedure and methods of evaluating the plan.
C. It is a short-term plan that is done in conjunction with budgeting usually a few months before the new fiscal year.
D. It is a short-term plan that involves short range planning that deals with day-to-day maintenance activities.
 
22. As an employee of the organization you agree to follow rules and regulations support its mission and abide by its value. Which of the
following should you do to support the mission and values?
A. Learn by the heart the mission vision of the organization and take pride in being associated with it.
B. Get a copy of the administrative manual and use it as a reference when needed.
C. Learn everything about the organization and talk intelligently about it in public.
D. “Walk the talk” especially when performing the tasks as expected of a professional nurse.
Correct answer
D. “Walk the talk” especially when performing the tasks as expected of a professional nurse.
 
23. Which of the following is the most important for a middle-of-the-road leader?
A. His authority
B. A balanced concern for both production and his employees
C. The satisfaction of his employees
D. He does not care about either the production process or his employees as long as revenue is high
Correct answer
B. A balanced concern for both production and his employees
24. She wants to ensure that every task is carried out as planned. Which of the following tasks is NOT included in the controlling process?
A. Instructing the members of the standards committee to prepare policies
B. Reviewing the existing policies of the hospital
C. Evaluating the credentials of all nursing staff
D. Checking if activities conform to schedule
 
25. The quality circle of a hospital engaged in a benchmarking study regarding medication administration in premiere tertiary hospitals. Which of
the following statements is an incorrect understanding of Benchmarking?
A. Benchmarking involves identifying the persons and the topic that will be benchmarked.
B. Gathering of up to date and information through search of literature is necessary in Benchmarking.
C. Benchmarking involves copying effective procedure and policies word by word and placing it in my institutions procedure manual.
D. Techniques for benchmarking involve interview, telephone surveys and plant visits.
Correct answer
C. Benchmarking involves copying effective procedure and policies word by word and placing it in my institutions procedure manual.
 
26. Quality assurance began in hospitals in the 1960’s with the voluntary implementation of nursing audits. Nursing Audit consists of
documentation of the quality of nursing care in relation to the standards established by the nursing department. A nurse manager is conducting
nursing audits. The following are true about nursing audits except:
A. Prioritizes nursing care by promoting optimum nursing care.
B. Identify deficiencies in the organization and administration of nursing care.
C. Retrospective audits are done on the patient’s records after discharge.
D. Concurrent audit are done at pre-admission of the patient.
 
27. Dr. Borromeo, the Vice President for Nursing Service of St. Luke’s Medical Center wants to implement a participative style on her
department. According
A. Are able to get the task done and are less mature.
B. Are able to contribute to decisions about getting the work done.
C. Are unable and unwilling to participate.
D. Need direction, structure, and authority.
 
28. He came across a theory which states that the leadership style is effective dependent on the situation. Gino was assigned to be the leader of
mature, self-directed professionals. Which of the following leadership styles should he use?
A. Bureaucratic
B. Laissez-faire
C. Participative
D. Democratic
 
29. According to Benner’s stages of nursing expertise, a nurse with 2 to 3 years of experience who can coordinate multiple complex nursing care
demands is at which stage?
A. Advanced beginner
B. Competent
C. Proficient
D. Expert
 
30. Which among the following leadership theories stresses that there are other factors in the environment which influence outcomes as much as
leadership styles?
A. Situational theory
B. Contingency theory
C. Path Goal theory
D. Behavioral theory

NORMAL PEDIATRIC
1. A nurse is preparing a plan of care for a newborn with fetal alcohol syndrome. The nurse should include which priority intervention in the plan
of care?
A. Allow the newborn to establish own sleep-rest pattern
B. Maintain the newborn in a brightly lighted area of the nursery
C. Encourage frequent handling of the newborn by staff and parents
D. Monitor the newborn’s response to feedings and weight gain pattern
2. A clinic nurse reads the results of a Mantoux test on a 3 year old child. The results indicate an area of induration measuring 10mm.  The nurse
would interpret these results as:
A. Positive 
B. Negative
C. Inconclusive
D. Definitive and requiring a repeat test
 3. A nurse is planning care for a child with acute bacterial meningitis. Based on the mode of transmission of this infection which of the following
should be included in the plan of care?
A. Maintain enteric precautions
B. Maintain neutropenic precautions
C. No precautions are required as long as antibiotics have been started
D. Maintain respiratory isolation precautions for at least 24 hours after the initiation of antibiotics
 4. After a tonsillectomy, a child begins to vomit bright red blood. The initial nursing action is to:*
A. Notify the physician
B. Maintain NPO status
C. Turn the child to the side
D. Administer the prescribed antiemetic
 5. A day care nurse is observing a 2 year old child and suspects that the child may have strabismus. Which observation made by the nurse might
indicate this condition?
A. The child has difficulty hearing
B. The child consistently tilts the head to see 
C. The child consistently turns the head to see
D. The child does not respond when spoken to 

6. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results for a child scheduled for tonsillectomy. The nurse determines that which laboratory value is most
significant to review.
A. Creatinine level
B. Prothrombin time
C. Sedimentation rate
D. Blood urea nitrogen level
 7. A nurse is preparing to care for a child after a tonsillectomy. The nurse documents on the plan of care to place the child in which appropriate
position?
A. Supine
B. Side-lying 
C. High Fowler’s
D. Tredelenburg’s
 8. After tonsillectomy, a nurse reviews the physician’s postoperative prescriptions. Which of the following physician’s prescriptions does the
nurse question?
A. Monitor for bleeding
B. Suction every 2 hours
C. Give no milk or milk products
D. Give clear, cool liquids when awake and alert
 9. A nurse is providing home care instructions to the mother of a 10 year old child with hemophilia. Which of the following activities should the
nurse suggest that the child could participate in safety with peers?
A. Soccer
B. Basketball
C. Swimming
D. Field hockery
10. A 10-year-old child with Hemophilia A has slipped on the ice and bumped his knees. The nurse should prepare to administer an:
A. Injection of factor X
B. Intravenous infusion of iron
C. Intravenous infusion of factor VII
D. Intramuscular injection of iron using the Z-tract method
 
11. An infant with congestive heart failure is receiving diuretic therapy and a nurse is closely monitoring the intake and output. The nurse uses
which most appropriate method to assess the urine output?
A. Weighing the diapers
B. Inserting a Foley Catheter
C. Comparing intake with output
D. Measuring the amount of water added to formula
 
12. A nurse has provided home care instructions to the mother of a child who is being discharged after cardiac surgery. Which statement made by
the mother indicates a need for further instructions?
A. ” A balance of rest and exercise is important”
B. “I can apply lotion or powder to the incision if it is itchy”
C. “Activities in which my child could fall need to be avoided for 2 to 4 weeks”
D. “Large crowds of people need to be avoided for at least 2 weeks after surgery
13. A nurse receives a telephone call from the admitting office and is told that a child with rheumatic fever will be arriving in the nursing unit for
admission. On admission, the nurse prepares to ask the mother which question to elicit assessment information specific to the development of
rheumatic fever?
A. “Has the child complained of back pain?”
B. “Has the child complained of headaches?”
C. “Has the child had any nausea or vomiting?”
D. “Did the child have a sore throat or fever within the last 2 months?”

14. A nurse is preparing to care for a child with a diagnosis of intussusception. The nurse reviews the child’s record and expects to note which
symptom of this disorder documented?
A. Watery diarrhea
B. Ribbon like stools
C. Profuse projectile vomiting
D. Bright red blood and mucus in the stools
 
15. A clinic nurse reviews the record of an infant and notes that the physician has documented a diagnosis of suspected Hirschsprung’s disease.
The nurse reviews the assessment findings documented in the record, knowing that which symptom most likely led the mother to seek health care
for the infant?
A. Diarrhea
B. Projectile vomiting
C. Regurgitation of feedings
D. Foul smelling ribbon like stools
POST-TEST

OBSTETRIC-GYNECOLOGY 1
1. Which is a primary power of labor?
a. uterine contractions
b. pushing of the mother
c. intrathoracic pressure
d. abdominal contraction
2. A negative 1 [-1] station means that
0/1
A. Fetus is crowning
B. Fetus is floating
C. Fetus is engaged
D. Fetus is at the ischial spine
Correct answer
B. Fetus is floating
 3. In what presentation is the head in extreme flexion?
0/1
a. sinciput
b. brow
c. vertexd. face
Correct answer
c. vertex
4. Ripening of the cervix occurs during the:
0/1
a. first stage
b. second stage
c. third stage
d. fourth stage
Correct answer
a. first stage
5. Which of the following is not true regarding the third stage of labor?
a. Care should be taken in the administration of bolus of oxytocin because it can cause hypertension
b. Signs of placental separation are lengthening of the cord, sudden gush of blood and sudden change in shape of the uterus
c. It ranges from the time of expulsion of the fetus to the delivery of the placenta
d. The placenta is delivered approximately 5-15 minutes after delivery of the baby
6. The baby’s mother is RH(-). Which of the following laboratory tests will probably be ordered for the newborn?
a. Direct Coomb’s
b. Indirect Coomb’s
c. Blood culture
d. Platelet count
 7. On clients first postpartal day, the nurse assessment reveals the following: vital signs within normal limits,a boggy uterus and perineal pad
saturation with lochia rubra. What should the nurse do?
a.reassess the patient after an hour
b.administer oxytocin
c.massage the uterus
d. notify the physician
 
8. Magnesium Sulfate is ordered per IV. Which of the following should prompt the nurse to refer to the obstetricians prior to administration of the
drug?
0/1
a. BP= 180/100
b. Urine output is 40 ml/hr
c. RR=12 bpm
d. (+) 2 deep tendon reflex
Correct answer
c. RR=12 bpm
SITUATION: DANICA is 24 y/o Filipina married to an American. She is pregnant for the second time and now at 8 weeks AOG. She is RH (-)
with blood type B
9. Which of the following findings in DANICA’s history would identify a need for her to receive RHo (d) immune globulin?
0/1
a. Rh -, coombs + 
b. Rh -, Coombs –
c. Rh +, Coombs –
d. Rh +, Coombs +
Correct answer
b. Rh -, Coombs –
 
10. A client who has missed two menstrual cycleperiod comes to the prenatal clinic complaining      of vaginal bleeding and one-sided lower-
quadrant   pain. The nurse suspects that this client has.
a. Abruptio placenta
b.An ectopic pregnancy 
c. An incomplete abortion
d. A rupture of a graffian follicle.
11. A couple with one child had been trying, without success for several years to have another child. Which of the following terms would
describe the situation?
0/1
a. Primary Infertility
b. Secondary Infertility
c. Irreversible infertility
d. Sterility
Correct answer
b. Secondary Infertility
12. When assessing the adequacy of sperm for conception to occur, which of the following is the most helpful criterion?
0/1
a. sperm count
b. sperm motility
c. Sperm maturity 
d. Semen volume
Correct answer
b. sperm motility
13. During labor a client who has been receiving epidural anesthesia has a sudden episode of severe nausea, and her skin becomes pale and
clammy the nurse immediate reaction is to:
0/1
a. Notify the physician
b. Check for vaginal bleeding
c. Elevate the clients legs
d. Monitor the FHR every 3 minutes 
Correct answer
c. Elevate the clients legs
14. At about 5 cm, a laboring client receives medication for pain. The nurse is aware that one of the medications is given to women in labor that
could cause respiratory depression of the new born is:
0/1
a. Scopalamine
b. Meperidine ( Demerol)
c. Promazine ( Sparine)
d. Promethazine ( Phenergan)
Correct answer
b. Meperidine ( Demerol)
 
15. A client is on Magnesium So4 therapy for severe pre-eclampsia. The nurse must be alert  for the first sign of an excessive blood magnesium
level which is:
0/1
a. Disturbance in sensorium
b. Increased in respiratory rate
c. Development of cardiac dysrythmia 
d. Disappearance of the knee-jerk reflex
Correct answer
d. Disappearance of the knee-jerk reflex
 
16. nurse would suspect an ectopic pregnancy if the client complained of:
a. An adherent painful ovarian mass
b. lower abdominal cramping for a long period of time.
c. Leukorrhea and dysuria a few days after the first missed period
d. Sharp lower right or left abdominal pain radiating to the shoulder.
17. A client who has missed two menstrual cycle period comes to the prenatal clinic complaining of vaginaL bleeding and one-sided lower-
quadrant pain. The nurse suspects that this client has.
a.Abruptio placenta
b. An ectopic pregnancy 
c. An incomplete abortion
d. A rupture of a graafian follicle.
Situation: Helen is arrived to the labor and delivery area in labor. She complains of regular uterine contractions with 8 to 10 minutes interval and
states that her bag of water has been ruptured. The fetus is in a left occiput anterior position (LOA). 
18. The nurse’s first action should be to:
0/1
a.check the FHR
b.start IV fluid as ordered
c.call the physician
d.place to lying positiona
Correct answer
a.check the FHR
19. Which procedure would best determine if Helen’s BOW has ruptured*
a. A complete blood count
b. Nitrazine Paper test
c. Urinalysis
d. Vaginal examination
 
20. Initial assessment done and revealed the following FH = 30cm, FHT 145bpm, BP =110/70 mmHg. IE done by Dr.  Zeus and revealed 4 cm
cervical dilatation. Helen asked for Demerol. The nurse’s best response is:
a. “Try to wait until you really need it.”
b. “It is too early in your labor; medication will retard progress of uterine contraction.”
c. “I know you are in pain. I’ll just prepare the medication.”
d. “Perhaps a change in position will make you more comfortable.”
 
21.  The pregnant woman ask “When does the heart and the brain of the baby form”. The best response made by the nurse is:
0/1
a. First month
b. Second month
c. Third month
d. Fourth month
Correct answer
a. First month
22. Fetal heart tone variability indicates:
0/1
a. cord compression
b. placental insufficiency
c. fetal head compression
d. hypoxia 
Correct answer
a. cord compression
23. Late deceleration indicates:
0/1
a. cord compression
b. placental insufficiency
c. fetal head compression
d. hypoxia
Correct answer
b. placental insufficiency
24. Early deceleration indicates:
0/1
a. cord compression
b .placental insufficiency
c .fetal head compression
d. hypoxia
Correct answer
C. fetal head compression
 
25. Blood therapeutic level of magnesium So4?
a. 0.5 – 1.5 meq/l
b..0.5 – 1 meq/
c. .0.5 – 5meq/
d. .0.5 – 2 meq/.

POST-TEST
1.What is the most common uterine site for implantation?
a.upper posterior wall
b.lower posterior wall
c. upper anterior wall
d . lower anterior wall
2. Which of the following is derived from mesoderm?
a. lining of the GI tract
b. liver
c. brain
d. skeletal system
 
3. Which of the following could be considered as a positive sign of pregnancy ?
A. Amenorrhea, nausea, vomiting
B. Frequency of urination
C. Braxton hicks contraction
D. Fetal outline by sonography

4. The nurse checks the perineum of Helen. Which of the following characteristic of the amniotic fluid would cause an alarm to the nurse?
A. Greenish
B. Scantly
C. Colorless
D. Blood tinged
Correct answer
A. Greenish
 
5. To determine the clients EDC, which day of the menstrual period will you ask?
a. first
b. last
c. third
d. second
 
6. In the immediate postpartum period the action of methergine is to:
a. cause sustained uterine contractions
b. causes intermittent uterine contractions
c. relaxes the uterus 
d. induces sleep so that the mother can rest after an exhausting labor
Correct answer
a. cause sustained uterine contractions
 
7. How many days and how much dosage will the IRON supplementation be taken?
A. 365 days / 300 mg
B. 210 days / 200 mg
C. 100 days/ 100mg
D. 50 days / 50 mg
Correct answer
B. 210 days / 200 mg 
8. A 40 year old mother  should avoid?
A. Traveling
B. Sex
C. Smoking
D. Exercising
Correct answer
C. Smoking
9.She complained of leg cramps, which usually occurs at night. To provide relief, the nurse tells Diane to:*
a.Dorsiflex the foot while extending the knee when the cramps occur
b. Dorsiflex the foot while flexing the knee when the cramps occurs
c. Plantar flex the foot while flexing the knee when the cramps occur
d. Plantar flex the foot while extending the knee when the cramp occur
 
10. Which of the following is characteristics of false labor*
1/1
A. Bloody show
B. Contraction that are regular and increase in frequency and duration
C. Contraction are felt in the back and radiates towards the abdomen
D. None of the above

COMMUNICABLE DISEASE

1. What is the term which means the entry and development/ multiplication of an infectious agent into the body of man or animal?
A. Incubation
B. infestation
C. infection 
D. Incidence
2. Arrange the sequence of the common stage of infection?      
1. Prodromal Period                    
2. Incubation Period              
3. Resolution Period                    
4. Acute Period                        
5. Convalescent Period            
2. Arrange the sequence of the common stage of infection?      
A. 2, 4, 1, 5, 3
B. 2, 1, 4, 5, 3 
C. 1, 2, 4, 5, 3
D. 1, 4, 2, 5, 3
3. Which of the following element in the chain of infection is the easiest link to break?  
A. Etiologic Agent
B. Reservoir
C. Mode of Transmission
D. Susceptible Host.
4. Which of the following disease is caused by protozoa?
A. Meningitis
B. Amoebiasis
C. Hookworm
D. Anthrax
5. Which of the following infection are transmitted by vectors EXCEPT?            0/1
A. Malaria
B. Poliomyelitis 
C. Tetanus
D. Leptospirosis
Correct answer
C. Tetanus
6. Antitoxin is given to
A. alleviate symptoms
B. immunize the patient
C. kill the bacilli
D. neutralize the circulating poison
7. What antibodies is transmitted through breastmilk?                
A. IgG
B. IgA
C. IgM
D. IgD
8. What type of immunity is attained if a patient received diphtheria toxoid?                              
0/1
A. Natural Passive Immunity
B. Natural Active Immunity
C. Artificial Passive Immunity
D. Artificial Active Immunity
Correct answer
D. Artificial Active Immunity
9. The most important and the most basic technique employed by the nurse in preventing the spread of communicable disease is:
A. frequent handwashing with liquid soap and running water for at least 10-25 seconds.
B. utilization of universal precautions frequently, but especially with infectious diseases
C. wearing gowns, gloves, and face masks during client contacts in the acute care setting
D. Alcohol or hand sanitizer usage most of the time
10. Which of the following procedures always requires surgical asepsis?
A. Vaginal Instillation of conjugated estrogen
B. Urinary Catheterization
C. Nasogastric tube insertion
D. Colostomy Irrigation
 
11. Which of the following constitutes a break in sterile technique while preparing a sterile field for a dressing change?
A. Using sterile forceps, rather than sterile gloves, to handle a sterile item,
B. Touching the outside wrapper of sterilized material without sterile gloves
C. Placing a sterile object on the edge of the sterile field
D. Pouring out a small amount of solution (15 to 30 ml) before pouring the solution into a sterile container
12. Which of the following nursing interventions would be most appropriate before touching the dressing of a patient with pressure ulcer?
A. Obtain a physician’s order to remove the bandage
B. Ensure that providone- iodine solution is available for cleaning the wound
C. Check the patient’s peripheral pulses
D. Put on sterile gloves
13. Several clients are admitted to an adult medical unit. The nurse would ensure airborne precautions for a client with which medical condition?
0/1
A. Autoimmune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) with cytomegalovirus (CMV)
B. A positive purified protein derivative with an abnormal chest x-ray
C. A tentative diagnosis of viral pneumonia with productive brown sputum
D. Advanced carcinoma of the lung with hemoptysis
Correct answer
C. A tentative diagnosis of viral pneumonia with productive brown sputum
14. Where should you put Mr. Alejar, with Category II TB?
0/1
A. In a room with positive air pressure and atleast 3 air exchanges an hour
B. In a room with positive air pressure and atleast 6 air exchanges an hour
C. In a room with negative air pressure and atleast 3 air exchanges an hour
D. In a room with negative air pressure and atleast 6 air exchanges an hour
Correct answer
D. In a room with negative air pressure and atleast 6 air exchanges an hour
15.  The nurse is to insert an NG Tube when suddenly, she accidentally dip the end of the tube in the client’s glass containing distilled drinking
water which is definitely not sterile. As a nurse, what should you do?
0/1
A. Don’t mind the incident, continue to insert the NG Tube
B. Obtain a new NG Tube for the client
C. Disinfect the NG Tube before reinserting it again
D. Ask your senior nurse what to do
Correct answer
A. Don’t mind the incident, continue to insert the NG Tube

16. In removing protective devices, which should be the exact sequence?

1. Eye wear or goggles
2. Cap
3. Mask
4. Gloves
5. Gown
 16. In removing protective devices, which should be the exact sequence?
A. 4,3,5,1,2
B. 2,3,1,5,4
C. 5,4,3,2,1
D. 1,2,3,4,5
17. A nurse caring for a patient with an infectious disease who requires isolation should refer to guidelines published by the:
A. National League of Government Nurses (NLGN)
B. Centers for Disease Control (CDC)
C. Philippine Medical Association (PMA)
D. Philippine Nurse’s Association (PNA)
18.  When a contagious disease suddenly increases in incidence it is said to be:
A. Pandemic
B. Epidemic
C. Endemic
D. Communicable
19. To institute appropriate isolation precautions, the nurse must first know the:
A. Organism’s mode of transmission
B. Organism’s Gram Staining characteristics
C. Organism’s Susceptibility to antibiotics
D. Patient’s susceptibility to the organism
 
20. Which of the following has a protozoal causative agent:                              
A. Diptheria
B. Pertussis
C. Malaria
D. Hookworm
POST-TEST
1. Which of the following CD is NOT thorugh the upper respiratory system?
A. Chicken Pox
B. Measles
C. Mumps
D. Malaria

2. Transmission occurs when an infected person sneezes, coughs or laugh that is usually projected at a distance of 3 feet.
A. Droplet transmission
B. Airborne transmission
C. Vehicle transmission
D. Vector borne transmission
 
3. Leukocytosis is characteristic of:
A. Infection 
B. Radiation Sickness
C. Iron Deficiency
D. Poor Resistance to infection
 
4. Contamination implies that which of the following is present?
A. Erythema
B. Desquamation
C. Pathogenic microorganisms
D. Mosquitoes 
5. What is the causative agent of Rabies?
A. Canine dog
B. Rhabdo virus
 C. Mosquitoes
D. Rabe bacteria
6. The term fomites refers to:
A. Insects, capable of transmitting an etiologic agent
B. Fresh bodily secretions of a contagious patient
C. Objects upon which pathogens may be found
D. Germs causing contagious disease
 
7. During the acute stage of meningitis, Letty, a 3-year-old child is restless and irritable. Which of the following would be most appropriate to
institute?
A. Limiting conversation with the child.
B. Keeping extraneous noise to a minimum.
C. Allowing the child to play in the bathtub.
D. Performing treatments quickly.
 
8. Which of the following would lead the nurse to suspect that a child with meningitis has developed dis¬seminated intravascular coagulation?
A. Hemorrhagic skin rash.
B. Edema.
C. Cyanosis.
D. Dyspnea on exertion.
9. When interviewing the parents of a 2-year-old  child, a history of which of the following illnesses would lead the nurse to suspect
pneumococcal meningitis?
A. Bladder infection.
B. Middle ear infection.
C. Fractured clavicle.
D. Septic arthritis.
10. A preschooler with pneumococci meningitis is receiving intravenous antibiotic therapy. When discontinuing the intravenous therapy, the
nurse allows the child to apply a dressing to the area where the needle is removed. The nurse’s rationale for doing so is based on the interpretation
that a child in this age group has a need to accomplish which of the following?
A. Trust those caring for her.
B. Find diversional activities.
C. Protect the image of an intact body.
D. Relieve the anxiety of separation from home.
11. Nurse Pamela is caring for a meningitis client who is to have a lumbar puncture (L-P). how should the client be positioned during the
procedure?
A. prone with head turned to the left
B. side-lying in a fetal position
C. sitting at the edge of the bed
D. trendelenburg position
12. A home care nurse begins caring for a 25-year-old female client who has just been diagnosed with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
infection. The client asks the nurse, “How could this have happened?” The nurse responds to the question based on the most fre¬quent mode of
HIV transmission, which is
A. hugging an HIV-positive sexual partner without using barrier precautions.
B. inhaling cocaine.
C. sharing food utensils with an HIV-positive per¬son without proper cleaning of the utensils.
D. having sexual intercourse with an HIV-positive person without using a condom.
 
13. A client with HIV is taking zidovudine (AZT). AZT is a drug that acts to
A. destroy the virus.
B. enhance the body’s antibody production.
C. slow replication of the virus.
D. neutralize toxins produced by the virus
14. Women who have human papillomavirus (HPV) are at risk for development of
A. sterility.
B. cervical cancer.
C. uterine fibroid tumors.
D. irregular menses.
15. Which of the following nursing diagnoses would most likely be a priority for a client with herpes genitalis:
A. Disturbed Sleep Pattern.
B. Imbalanced Nutrition: Less Than Body Require¬ments.
C. Pain.
D. Ineffective Breathing Pattern.
 
16. The primary reason that a herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection is a serious concern to a client with HIV lifection is that it
A. is an acquired immunodeficiency virus (AIDS)—defining illness.
B. is curable only after 1 year of antiviral therapy.
C. leads to cervical cancer.
D. causes severe electrolyte imbalances.
17. In educating a client about HIV the nurse should take into account the fact that the most effective method known to control the spread of HW
infection is
A. premarital serologic screening.
B. prophylactic treatment of exposed people.
C. laboratory screening of pregnant women.
D. ongoing sex education about preventive behaviors.

18. When educating a female client with gonorrhea, the nurse should emphasize that for women gonorrhea
A. is often marked by symptoms of dysuria or virginal bleeding.
B. does not lead to serious complications.
C. can be treated but not cured.
D. may not cause symptoms until serious complications occur.
 
19. Which of the following groups has experienced the greatest rise in the incidence of STDs over the past two decades?
A. Teenagers.
B. Divorced people.
C. Young married couples.
D. Older adults 
20. A female client with gonorrhea informs the nurse that she has had sexual intercourse with her boyfriend and asks the nurse, “Would he have
any symptoms?” The nurse responds that in men the symptoms of gonorrhea include
A. impotence.
B. scrotal swelling.
C. urinary retention.
D. dysuria.
 
21. What kind of infection occurs after patient has been admitted to or even after discharge from the hospital?
a. Transmission
b. Quarantine
c. Isolation
d. Nosocomial

22. Which of the following is the vector of typhoid fever?

a. Flies
b. Mosquitoes
c. Rodents
d. Ants
23. Which of the following is the MOST important instruction to be given to families to prevent spread of typhoid fever?
a. Eating nutritious fruits and vegetables
b. Killing flies and other insects
c. Avoid eating in fastfood stalls
d. Handwashing before eating and after toileting
 
24. Which of the following is the drug of choice for typhoid fever?
a. Amoxicillin
b. Chloramphenicol
c. Gentamycin sulfate
d. Cyclosporins
Situation: Nurse Gladys, is on duty when a mother came to the clinic asking for an injection for her son bitten by a dog.
25. Which of the following should be done by nurse Gladys?
a. Refer to the municipal health office
b. Ask about history of the incident
c. Wash the wound with soap and water
d. Immediately inject anti-rabies medicine
Correct answer
b. Ask about history of the incident
26. When assessment has been completed, and nurse Gladys saw the wound, she should:
a. Wash the wound with soup and water 
b. Ask for prescription from the doctor
c. Apply ointment and dress the wound
d. Ask for immunoglobulin
27. In the nurse health teaching, which of the following is included?
a. Observe the dog for 14 days
b. Report to authorities
c. Kill the dog immediately
d. Give the dog immunization immediately
28. Nursing care of clients diagnosed with rabies is provision of this comfortable environment which is:
a. Adequately supplied with food and water
b. Quiet and dark
c. Provided with soft music
d. Accessible to medication 
29. In doing a tourniquet test, how would petechiae be considered positive?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 5
 
30. Malaria can be prevented by the following EXCEPT:
A. Avoiding outdoor night time activities.
B. Use of mosquito repellants.
C. Planting herbal plants which can be mosquito repellants.
D. Spending leisure time in the forest.

ENDO/GIT
1. Which of the following statements best describe Cushing Syndrome?
A. A group of sign and symptoms which is caused by an increase in cortisol in the body.
B. A group of sign and symptoms which is caused by a decrease in cortisol in the body.
C. A group of sign and symptoms which is caused by a decrease in melanin in the body.
D. A group of sign and symptoms which is caused by an increase in melanin in the body.
2. Which of the following statements is true about syndrome of inappropriate anti-diuretic hormone secretion (SIADH)?
0/1
A. It is characterized by an excessive water retention in the renal tubules.
B. It is characterized by a decrease in water retention in the renal tubules.
C. It is characterized by a decrease in blood calcium levels.
D. It is characterized by an increase in blood calcium levels.
Correct answer
A. It is characterized by an excessive water retention in the renal tubules.
3. Which of the following signs and symptoms would you expect in a client with diabetes insipidus?
A. Polyuria
B. Concentrated urine
C. Fluid volume excess
D. Increase in body weight
4. Which of the following disorders where a client may experience exophthalmos?
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Hyperparathyroidism
D. Hypoparathyroidism
5. Which of the following medications is given to client with hypothyroidism?
A. Levothyroxine 
B. Propylthiouracil
C. Lugol’s solution
D. Saturated Solution of Potassium Iodide 
6. Which of the signs and symptoms would you expect to a client with hyperparathyroidism?
···/1
A. Tetany
B. Diarrhea
C. Bone pain
D. Hypotension
No correct answers
7. All the following symptoms may be experienced by a client who has Addison’s disease except:
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Hyponatremia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Weight loss
8. Which of the following disorders which is characterized by hyperglycemia due to a decreased in secretion of insulin by the pancreas?
A. Diabetes type 1
B. Diabetes type 2
C. Diabetes Insipidus
D. Gestational Diabetes
 
9. Which of the following would a client experience when there is an excessive glucose in the blood?
D. Evaluate the visit
A. Anuria
B. Oliguria
C. Polydipsia
D. Diaphoresis
10. Which of the following statements is true about oral hypoglycemic agents?
A. It is given to clients with DM1.
B. It is given to clients with DM2.
C. It is given to clients with GDM.
D. It is given to clients with diabetes insipidus.
11. Which of the following disorders is caused by an incompetent lower esophageal sphincter?
A. Gastroesophageal reflux disease
B. Pyloric stenosis
C. Hiatal Hernia
D. Peptic ulcer disease
12. Which of the following factors would not increase intra-abdominal pressure?
···/1
A. Obesity
B. Pregnancy
C. Heavy lifting
D. Wearing loose clothing
No correct answers

13. Which of the following microorganisms may cause gastric ulceration?

A. H.pylori 
B. E.coli
C. Streptococcus
D. E.hystolytica
14. Which of the following factors would not contribute to the development of peptic ulcer disease?
A. Stress
B. Smoking
C. Type B personality
D. Caffeine
15. Gastric ulcer is also known as:0/1
A. Executive ulcer
B. Curling’s ulcer
C. Poor man’s ulcer
D. Ulcerative colitis
Correct answer
C. Poor man’s ulcer
16. Which of the following procedures where the lower half of the stomach is removed?0/1
A. Vagotomy
B. Total gastrectomy
C. Antrectomy
D. Gastrojejunostomy
Correct answer
C. Antrectomy
17. Which of the following disorders would most likely trigger a right lower quadrant abdominal pain?
0/1
A. Ulcerative colitis
B. Crohn’s disease
C. Diverticulosis
D. Diverticulitis
Correct answer
B. Crohn’s disease
18. Which of the following disorders is characterized by an outpouching of the intestinal mucosa?
1/1
A. Ulcerative colitis
B. Crohn’s disease
C. Diverticulosis
D. Diverticulitis
19. Which of the following is a thick muscular ring surrounding the opening between the esophagus and the stomach?
0/1
A. Cardiac sphincter
B. Sphincter of Oddi
C. Pyloric sphincter
D. Urethral sphincter
Correct answer
A. Cardiac sphincter 
20. What part of the alimentary canal where digested food is absorbed?
A. Stomach
B. Small intestine
C. Large intestine
D. Sigmoid colon

POST-TEST
1.  What catego1. Which of these signs suggests that a male client with the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) secretion is
experiencing complications of health problem occurs when there is a gap between actual and achievable health status?
A. Tetanic contractions
B. Neck vein distention
C. Weight loss
D. Polyuria
2. A male client is admitted for treatment of the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which nursing intervention is
appropriate?
A. Infusing I.V. fluids rapidly as ordered
B. Encouraging increased oral intake
C. Restricting fluids
D. Administering glucose-containing I.V. fluids as ordered 
3. Which outcome indicates that treatment of a male client with diabetes insipidus has been effective?
A. Fluid intake is less than 2,500 ml/day.
B. Urine output measures more than 200 ml/hour.
C. Blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg.
D. The heart rate is 126 beats/minute.
 
4. The nurse is developing a teaching plan for a male client diagnosed with diabetes insipidus. The nurse should include information about which
hormone lacking in clients with diabetes insipidus?
A. antidiuretic hormone (ADH).
B. thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH).
C. follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).
D. luteinizing hormone (LH).
5. The client is diagnosed of having hyperthyroidism (Graves’ disease). Which of the following is a drug of choice for his condition?
A. Furosemide (Lasix)
B. Digoxin (Lanoxin)
C. Propranolol (Inderal)
D. Propylthiouracil (PTU)
7. The nurse is caring for a patient with a diagnosis of hypothyroidism. Which nursing diagnosis should the nurse most seriously consider when
analyzing the needs of the patient?
A. High risk for aspiration related to severe vomiting
B. Diarrhea related to increased peristalsis
C. Hypothermia related to slowed metabolic rate
D. Oral mucous membrane, altered related to disease process
8. The nurse should expect a client with hypothyroidism to report which health concerns?
A. Increased appetite and weight loss
B. Puffiness of the face and hands
C. Nervousness and tremors
D. Thyroid gland swelling 
9. A female adult client with a history of chronic hyperparathyroidism admits to being noncompliant. Based on initial assessment findings, the
nurse formulates the nursing diagnosis of Risk for injury. To complete the nursing diagnosis statement for this client, which “related-to” phrase
should the nurse add?
A. Related to bone demineralization resulting in pathologic fractures
B. Related to exhaustion secondary to an accelerated metabolic rate
C. Related to edema and dry skin secondary to fluid infiltration into the interstitial spaces
D. Related to tetany secondary to a decreased serum calcium level 
10. The nurse is assessing a client with possible Cushing’s syndrome. In a client with Cushing’s syndrome, the nurse would expect to find:
A. Hypotension.
B. Thick, coarse skin.
C. Deposits of adipose tissue in the trunk and dorsocervical area.
D. Weight gain in arms and legs.
11. In a 29-year-old female client who is being successfully treated for Cushing’s syndrome, the nurse would expect a decline in:
A. Serum glucose level.
B. Hair loss.
C. Bone mineralization.
D. Menstrual flow.
 
Correct answer
A. Serum glucose level.
12. The nurse evaluates no need for further instruction for self-care for patient with Cushing syndrome who states:
A. “ I know I should have salt to everything I eat.”
B. “ I make a point to avoid excessive exposure to sun.”
C. “ I avoid to being exposed to anyone with an infection.”
D. “I am careful to wear well-fitted shoes.”
13. A clinical instructor teaches a class for the public about diabetes mellitus. Which individual does the nurse assess as being at highest risk for
developing diabetes?
A. The 50-year-old client who does not get any physical exercise
B. The 56-year-old client who drinks three glasses of wine each evening
C. The 42-year-old client who is 50 pounds overweight
D. The 38-year-old client who smokes one pack of cigarettes per day
14. A patient has diabetes type 2. The  nurse has taught him about the illness and evaluates learning has occurred when the client makes which
statement?
A. “My cells have increased their receptors, but there is enough insulin.”
B. “My peripheral cells have increased sensitivity to insulin.”
C. “My beta cells cannot produce enough insulin for my cells.”
D. “My cells cannot use the insulin my pancreas makes.” 
15. A client with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is being treated in the ER. Which finding would a nurse expect to note as confirming
this diagnosis?
A. Elevated blood glucose level and a low plasma bicarbonate
B. Decreased urine output
C. Increased respirations and an increase in pH
D. Comatose state
16. A nurse is preparing a plan of care for a client with DM who has hyperglycemia. The priority nursing diagnosis would be:
A. High risk for deficient fluid volume
B. Deficient knowledge: disease process and treatment
C. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements
D. Disabled family coping: compromised.
17. A nurse is caring for a client admitted to the ER with DKA. In the acute phase the priority nursing action is to prepare to:
A. Administer regular insulin intravenously
B. Administer 5% dextrose intravenously
C. Correct the acidosis
D. Apply an electrocardiogram monitor.
 
18. A nurse performs a physical assessment on a client with type 2 DM. Findings include a fasting blood glucose of 120mg/dl, temperature of
101, pulse of 88, respirations of 22, and a bp of 140/84. Which finding would be of most concern of the nurse?
···/1
A. Pulse
B. BP
C. Respiration
D. Temperature
 
No correct answers
 
19. A client with type 1 DM calls the nurse to report recurrent episodes of hypoglycemia with exercise. Which statement by the client indicated
an inadequate understanding of exercise?
A.“The best time for me to exercise is every afternoon.”
B. “The best time for me to exercise is right after I eat.”
C. “The best time for me to exercise is after breakfast.”
D. “The best time for me to exercise is after my morning snack.
20. A client injects his insulin as prescribed, but then gets busy and forgets to eat. What will the nurse’s assessment reveal?  
A. The client will be very tasty.
B. The client will complain of nausea.
C. The client will need to urinate.
D. The client will have moist skin.
21. Which of the following is accurate pertaining to physical exercise and type 1 diabetes mellitus?
A. Physical exercise can slow the progression of diabetes mellitus.
B. Strenuous exercise is beneficial when the blood glucose is high.
C. Patients who take insulin and engage in strenuous physical exercise might experience hyperglycemia.
D. Adjusting insulin regimen allows for safe participation in all forms of exercise.
22. At the time the patient found out that the symptoms of diabetes were caused by high levels of blood glucose, she decided to break the habit of
eating carbohydrates. With this, the nurse would be aware that the client might develop what complication?
A. retinopathy
B. atherosclerosis
C. glycosuria
D. acidosis
Correct answer
D. acidosis
 
23. During a class on exercise for diabetic clients, a female client asks the nurse educator how often to exercise. The nurse educator advises the
clients to exercise how often to meet the goals of planned exercise?
A. At least once a week
B. At least three times a week
C. At least five times a week
D. Every day
 
24. Which nursing diagnosis takes highest priority for a female client with hyperthyroidism?
A. Risk for imbalanced nutrition: More than body requirements related to thyroid hormone excess
B. Risk for impaired skin integrity related to edema, skin fragility, and poor wound healing
C. Body image disturbance related to weight gain and edema
D. Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements related to thyroid hormone excess
25. A male client with a tentative diagnosis of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) has a history of type 2 diabetes that is
being controlled with an oral diabetic agent, tolazamide (Tolinase). Which of the following is the most important laboratory test for confirming
this disorder?
A. Serum potassium level
B. Serum sodium level
C. Arterial blood gas (ABG) values
D. Serum osmolarity
26. Vasopressin (Pitressin) is prescribed for a client with diabetes insipidus, and the client asks the nurse about the purpose of the medication. The
nurse responds, knowing that this medication promotes which action?
A. Vasodilation
B. Decrease in peristalsis
C. Decrease in urinary output
D. Inhibit smooth muscle contraction
 
27. A nurse went to a diabetic patient’s room to do routine vital signs monitoring and found out that the patient’s bedtime snack was not eaten.
This should alert the nurse to check and assess for:
A. Elevated serum bicarbonate and decreased blood pH.
B. Signs of Hypoglycemia
C. Symptoms of hyperglycemia
D. Sugar in the urine

28. What is the appropriate intervention for an unconscious client who is suffering from hypoglycemia?
A. Administer regular insulin.
B. Let the client drink a half cup of soda.
C. Administer glucagon IM.
D. Give 4 tsp. Of sugar.
Correct answer
C. Administer glucagon IM.
 
29. A client is receiving desmopressin (DDAVP) intranasally for management of diabetes insipidus. Which assessment parameters should the
nurse check to determine the effectiveness of this medication?
A. Daily weight
B. Temperature
C. Apical heart rate
D. Pupillary response
 
30. A client with a diagnosis of Addison’s disease is being admitted to the intensive care unit. Which findings will the health care team focus on?
A. Hypertension
B. Leukocytosis
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypernatremia
 
31. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease is complaining of chest pain after a meal. The nurse encourages the client to lie in which
position?
A. Prone position
B. Supine position
C. On the left side, with HOB elevated 30 degrees.
D. On the right side, with HOB elevated 30 degrees.
 
32. Which of the following is contraindicated to a client who has hiatal hernia?
A. Lying flat following meals
B. Taking small frequent meals
C. Raising the head of the bed
D. Taking H2-receptor antagonist medication
 
33. Medical management of the client with acute episodes of diverticulitis should include which of the following treatments?
A. Reduced fluid intake
B. Increased fiber in diet
C. Administration of antispasmodics
D. Exercises to increase intra-abdominal pressure
 
34. The nurse is providing instructions to a client with peptic ulcer disease about symptom management. Which statement by the client indicates
they are learning about the disease?
A. “I should eat a snack at bedtime.”
B. “I should drink more milk each meal.”
C. “I can take aspirin to relieve gastric pain.”
D. “It is important that I eat slowly and chew my food thoroughly.”
35. A client is resuming a diet after a Billroth II procedure. To minimize complications from eating, which actions should the nurse teach the
client to do?
A. Lay down after eating
B. Eat a diet high in carbohydrates
C. Drink liquids with meals
D. Eat concentrated sweets between meals only
Correct answer
A. Lay down after eating
36. A client who undergoes a gastric resection is at risk for developing dumping syndrome. Which manifestation should the nurse monitor the
client for?
A. Bradycardia
B. Constipation
C. Dizziness
D. Extreme thirst
37. A client who has a history of chronic ulcerative colitis is diagnosed with anemia. The nurse interprets that which factor is most likely
responsible for the anemia?
A. Blood loss
B. Intestinal hookworm
C. Intestinal malabsorption
D. Decreased intake of dietary iron
38. The nurse is reviewing the record of a client who has Crohn’s disease. Which of the following stool characteristics should the nurse expect to
note documented in the client’s record?
A. Diarrhea
B. Chronic constipation
C. Constipation alternating with diarrhea
D. Stool constantly oozing from the rectum

Correct answer
A. Diarrhea
 
39. The nurse is doing an admission assessment on a client with duodenal ulcer. To determine whether the problem is currently active, the nurse
should assess the client for which symptom of duodenal ulcer?
A. Weight loss
B. Nausea and vomiting
C. Pain relieved by food intake
D. Pain radiating down the right arm
40. A patient with a history of diverticulosis is admitted with abdominal pain. The physician suspects diverticulitis. What other findings would
correlate with diverticulitis?
A. Cramping type pain
B. Positive Cullen’s Sign
C. Pain found at McBurney’s Point
D. Abdominal pain that is mainly present in the upper right quadrant
 
41. Which of the following definitions best describes diverticulosis?
A. An inflamed outpouching of the intestine
B. A noninflamed outpouching of the intestine
C. The partial impairment of the forward flow of intestinal contents
D. An abnormal protrusion of an organ through the structure that usually holds it.
Correct answer
B. A noninflamed outpouching of the intestine
 
42. Crohn’s disease can be described as a chronic relapsing disease. Which of the following areas in the GI system may be involved with this
disease?
A. The entire length of the large colon
B. Only the sigmoid area
C. The entire large colon through the layers of mucosa and submucosa
D. The small intestine and colon; affecting the entire thickness of the bowel
Correct answer
D. The small intestine and colon; affecting the entire thickness of the bowel
 
43. Which of the following interventions should be included in the medical management of Crohn’s disease?
A. Increasing oral intake of fiber
B. Administering laxatives
C. Using long-term steroid therapy
D. Increasing physical activity
 
44. When obtaining a nursing history on a client with a suspected gastric ulcer, which signs and symptoms would the nurse expect to see?
A. Epigastric pain at night
B. Relief of epigastric pain after eating
C. Vomiting
D. Weight gain
 
45. The nurse provides medication instructions to a client with peptic ulcer disease. Which statement, if made by the client, indicates the best
understanding of the medication therapy?
A. “The cimetidine (Tagamet) will cause me to produce less stomach acid.”
B. “Sucralfate (Carafate) will change the fluid in my stomach.”
C. “Antacids will coat my stomach.”
D. “Omeprazole (Prilosec) will coat the ulcer and help it heal.”
 
46. A client with a peptic ulcer is scheduled for a vagotomy. The client asks the nurse about the purpose of this procedure. The nurse tells the
client that the procedure:
A. Decreases food absorption in the stomach
B. Heals the gastric mucosa
C. Halts stress reactions
D. Reduces the stimulus to acid secretions
 
47. The client with a duodenal ulcer may exhibit which of the following findings on assessment?
A. Hematemesis
B. Malnourishment
C. Melena
D. Pain with eating
48. The pain of a duodenal ulcer can be distinguished from that of a gastric ulcer by which of the following characteristics?
A. Hematemesis
B. Pain on eating
C. Dull upper epigastric pain
D. Pain on empty stomach
Correct answer
D. Pain on empty stomach
49. To prevent gastroesophageal reflux in a male client with hiatal hernia, the nurse should provide which discharge instruction?
A. “Lie down after meals to promote digestion.”
B. “Avoid coffee and alcoholic beverages.”
 C. “Take antacids with meals.”
D. “Limit fluid intake with meals.”
 
50. Your patient takes NSAIDS for her degenerative joint disease, has developed peptic ulcer disease. Which drug is useful in preventing
NSAID-induced peptic ulcer disease?
A. Calcium carbonate (Tums)
B. Famotidine (Pepcid)
C. Misoprostol (Cytotec)
D. Sucralfate (Carafate)

COMMUNITY HEALTH NURSING W/ IMCI P1

1. Aggregates are:
0/1
a. Group of people having common personal and environmental characteristics.
b. Collection of people who interact with one another and whose common interests or characteristics form the basis for a sense of unity or
belonging.
c. Subpopulations that have common characteristics and concerns.
d. Brotherhood formed around common goals and aspirations that make a commitment to each other for life.
Correct answer
c. Subpopulations that have common characteristics and concerns.
2. According to _______________ of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, “Everyone has the right to a standard of living adequate for the
health and wellbeing of himself and of his family…”
a. Article 2
b. Article 11
c. Article 25
d. Article 31
 3. What is the setting of community health nursing?
a. Natural environment of the people
b. School
c. Home
d. Workplace
4. C.E. Winslow defined public health as the science and art of preventing disease, prolonging life, and promoting health through:
a. Organized community effort
b. Government sponsored programs
c. Private sector assisted programs
d. Hospital improvement projects
5.The following are primary objectives of public health except:
a. Preventing disease
b. Prolonging life
c. Promoting health
d. Provision of livelihood to the poor
6. Core public health functions include all the following except:
0/1
a. Social Insurance
b. Assessment
c. Policy Development
d. Assurance
Correct answer
a. Social Insurance
7. Public health efforts focus on prevention and promotion of population health at the:
0/1
a. Provincial level
b. Barangay Level
 
c. National and Local level
d. School at workplace
Correct answer
c. National and Local level
8.The application of science in the context of politics to remove inequalities in health and deliver the best health for the greatest number is known
as the principle of:
0/1
a. Two-fold effect
b. Epikia
c. Utilitarianism
d. Res Ipsa Loquitor
Correct answer
c. Utilitarianism
9. The vision of the Department of Health is:
a. To be the leader, and staunch advocate and model in promoting health for all in the Philippines.
b. For Filipinos to be among the healthiest people in Southeast Asia by 2022, and Asia by 2040.
c. A global leader for attaining better health outcomes, competitive and responsive health care system, and equitable health financing.
d. The nation's leader in health, is committed to guarantee equitable, accessible and quality health services for all Filipinos.
10. The Department of Health’s mission statement is to:
a. Provide sustainable, equitable, and quality health for all, especially the POOR.
b. To lead the country in the development of a productive, resilient, equitable and people-centered health system.
c. Guarantee equitable, sustainable, and quality health for all Filipinos, especially the poor, and to lead the quest for excellence in health.
d. To strengthen the health care system by increasing opportunities and supporting the conditions wherein people will manage their own health
care.
11. With the aim of attaining the goals outlined in the Philippine Development Plan 2017-2022, and building on the concept ofF0URmula One for
Health 2005-2010 with pillars of health reforms, FOURmula One Plus for Health highlights greater focus on:*
0/1
a. Performance Accountability
b. Performance Evaluation
c. Standards of Performance
d. Standards of Evaluation
Correct answer
a. Performance Accountability
12.What is the tagline of FOURmula One Plus for Health?
a. “Boosting Universal Health Care” 
b. “Appropriate Pandemic Response”
c. “Safe Delivery and Newborn Care”
d. “Equitable Distribution of Resources”
13. The Medical City Pangasinan (formerly known as University of Pangasinan Medical Center) is a ______________General hospital and is
fully accredited by the Department of Health, Philippine Health Insurance Corporation and RHO.
a. Category 1
b. Category 2
c. Category 3
d. Specialty Hospital
14. The basic structural unit in the health care facility is exemplified by the:
a. District health unit
b. Municipal health unit
c. Rural health unit
d. Provincial health unit
15.  What is the recommended ratio of RHU to catchment populations?
a. 1 RHU:5,000 population
b. 1 RHU:10,000 population
c. 1 RHU:25,000 population
d. 1 RHU:20,000 population
16. Which of the following statements is true?
0/1
a. Volunteer Barangay Health Workers (BHW) are under the direct supervision of the Secretary of the Department of Health.
b. Volunteer Barangay Health Workers (BHW) are under the direct supervision of the Public Health Nurse (PHN)
c. Volunteer Barangay Health Workers (BHW) are under the direct supervision of the Rural Health Midwife (RHM)
d. Volunteer Barangay Health Workers (BHW) are under the direct supervision of the Municipal Health Officer (MHO)
Correct answer
c. Volunteer Barangay Health Workers (BHW) are under the direct supervision of the Rural Health Midwife (RHM)
17. R.A. 7305 is otherwise knowns as:
a. Magna Carta of Public Health Workers 
b. Local Government Code
c. Traditional and Alternative Medicine Act
d. Sanitation Code
18.R.A. 7305 stipulates that one of the roles of Public Health Nurses is to:
0/1
a. Manage the Barangay Health Station and supervises the Barangay Health Worker 
b. Provides health information, education, and communication activities
c. Facilitates barangay health planning and other health services
d. Supervises and guides all Rural Health Midwives in the municipality
Correct answer
d. Supervises and guides all Rural Health Midwives in the municipality
19.In preparing medicinal plants, infusion is best done by:
a. Boiling the recommended part of the plant material in water for 20 minutes
b. Soaking the plant in hot water, much like in making a tea for 10 - 15 minutes
c. Directly applying recommended plant material on the part affected, usually used on bruises, wounds, or rashes
d. Mixing the plant material with food
20.The art and science of the sense of smell whereby essential aromatic oils are combined and then applied to the body in some form of treatment
is an alternative health care modality termed as:
a. Acupressure
b. Acupuncture
c. Aromatherapy
d. Aversion therapy

POST-TEST
 
1.Community health nursing is defined as direct, goal-oriented, and adaptable to the needs of:
a. Both healthy and sick individuals.
b. The community during a health crisis.
c. The family when a member of the household becomes sick.
d. Individual, the family, and community during health and illness.
 
 
2.Which is NOT a principle of public health nursing?
a. Focus on the community as the unit of care
b. Give priority to the needs of the elderly members of the community
c. Activities should focus on primary prevention
d. Promote optimum use of resources
 
3.The 4A’s of PHC are:
a. Amicability, Affordability, Acceptability, and Availability
b. Accessibility, Affordability, Acceptability, and Anticipatory
c. Accessibility, Affordability, Acceptability, and Availability
d. Accessibility, Affordability, Acceptability, and Alleviation of Poverty
 
4.If the component of community health program has directly solved a particular problem in the community, which factor in the evaluation of
nursing care has been achieved?
a. Appropriateness 
b. Efficiency
c. Effectiveness
d. Adequacy

5.The two major elements of primary prevention are:

a. General health promotion and specific protection
b. Educational mass campaign and pamphlet distribution
c. Government assistance and public participation
d. Early detection and prompt interventions
 
6.  Secondary level of prevention shall be the focus in the provision of care for which of the following clients?
a. A 45-yearold female public school teacher whose mother passed away 3 years ago due to breast cancer
b. A 5-year old child who lives in a dumpsite with her parents
c. A 50-year old male public servant who have undergone prostatectomy
d. A promiscuous 18-year-old student of Balisawsaw College
 
7.The target population of tertiary prevention are:
a. Persons with high level of wellness
b. Persons at risk of acquiring hereditary disorders
c. Persons who have experienced disease or injury
d. Persons with low socioeconomic background
 
8. Which is NOT an activity directed at primary prevention?
a. Dietary teaching during pregnancy
b. Mother’s class on breast feeding
c. VDRL screening for marriage license applicants
d. Counselling on smoking and alcoholism during pregnancy
 
9.Which is NOT an activity directed at secondary prevention?
a. Diabetes screening for a family at risk
b. Mass sputum examination in a low-income neighborhood
c. Screening for cervical cancer
d. Free COVID-19 immunization
 
 
10.Which is NOT an activity directed at tertiary prevention?
a. Teaching new clients with diabetes how to administer insulin
b. Home care services for chronically ill
c. Community mental health services for chronically mentally ill
d. Environmental sanitation
 
 
11.According to the Wonca International Dictionary for General/Family Practice, Quaternary prevention is:
a. Action taken to prevent a problem before it occurs
b. Action taken to identify patients at risk of overmedicalization and protect him from new medical invasion
c. Action taken after a problem has begun but before signs and symptoms appear
d. Actions taken to reduce the effect of a disease

12.  In the pursuit of its vision and execution of its mission, the DOH has which of the following roles:
I. Leader in health
ii. Enabler and capacity builder
iii. Administrator of specific services
iv. Provider of technical assistance to LGUs
 
12. In the pursuit of its vision and execution of its mission, the DOH has which of the following roles:
a. All except i
b. All except ii
c. All except iii
d. All except iv
 
13. Collaboration with other members of the health team, government agencies, private businesses, NGO’s and people’s organization to address
community health problems is a function carries by the:
a. Municipal health officer (MHO)
b. Public Health Nurse (PHN)
c. Rural Health Midwife (RHM)
d. Barangay Health Worker (BHW)
 
14.Nurse Lea refers Inday, a public-school teacher who has cough for more than 2 weeks to the nearest DOTS center for management. Nurse lea
functions as:
a. Advocate
b. Health Educator
c. Treatment partner
d. Community organizer
 
15.The Alma Ata Declaration listed eight essential health services. Which one is not included in the list?
a. Education for all
b. Expanded program in immunization
c. Treatment of communicable and non-communicable diseases
d. Mental health and suicide prevention
 
 
16.A key to understanding the concept of primary health care puts emphasis to how health is achieved through:
a. Self-reliance and determination
b. Political will and public participation
c. Continuing Professional Development among the members of the health care team
d. Participation of both government and private sectors
 
17.  _____________ means that the health care offered is in consonance with the prevailing culture and traditions of the population:
a. Accessibility
b. Affordability
c. Acceptability
d. Availability
 
18.Resources for essential services must come from which of the following major entities based on Alma Ata Declaration?
a. The people
b. Government
c. Private Sectors
d. All of the above

19.  A pregnant woman who had prenatal check-ups in the Tapuac RHU who has been identified as high risk was referred immediately to
Pangasinan Provincial Hospital for higher level of care during childbirth. This is in accordance top which principle of primary health care?
a. Intersectoral linkages
b. Intersectoral linkages
c. Two-way referral system
d. Support mechanism

20.Rabies prevention and control program requires a collaborative effort among the
1.Department of Health
2.Department of Agriculture
3.Department of Education
4.Local Government Units
5.Department of Tourism
 
20.Rabies prevention and control program requires a collaborative effort among the:
a. All except 4
b. All except 5
c. All except 2
d. All except 1
 
21.The following are key principles of PHC except:
a. Multisectoral Approach
b. Community Participation
c. State-of-the-Art technology
d. Equitable distribution of health resources
Correct answer
c. State-of-the-Art technology
 
22. The use of oral rehydration solution for management of diarrhea at home is a simple technology that in accordance with which principle of
primary health care?
a. Equitable distribution of resources
b. Appropriate technology
c. Support mechanism
d. Multisectoral approach
 
23. This law created the Philippine Institute of Tradition and Alternative health care to promote and advocate the use of traditional and alternative
health care modalities through scientific research and product development:
1/1
a. Republic Act 8324
b. Republic Act 8234
c. Republic Act 8423
d. Republic Act 8342

24.Ulasimag bato is recommended for people who have:

a. Gouty arthritis
b. Thyphoid fever
c. Dysmenorrhea
d. Urolithiasis
 
25.Manong Pigar who accidentally had a cut on her foot while walking along the flooded streets of Galvan boiled some guava leaves until the
water becomes dark green colored. Then let them cool and poured the water into his wounds. What type of preparation did Manong Pigar used?
a. Infusion
b. Decoction
c. Poultice
d. Tincture
 
26.Primary health care should not be confused with primary care, where in the focus of care in Primary Health Care is:
a. Promotive and preventive through community participation
b. Curative, provided by health care professionals
c. Provision of total care from admission to discharge for small group of patients within a nursing unit of a hospital
d. Reliance on health professionals to restore or regain health
Correct answer
a. Promotive and preventive through community participation
 
27.   Which among the following offices is tasked to handle the selection and recruitment of qualified nurses for the Nurse Deployment Program?
a. Rural Health Units and City Health Office
b. Provincial Health Offices
c. Regional Offices and Provincial Health Offices
d. City and Provincial Health Offices
Correct answer
c. Regional Offices and Provincial Health Offices
 
28.Which of the DOH programs program seeks to send nurses to poor communities and Geographically Isolated and Disadvantaged Areas
(GIDA) in the Philippines?
a. Nurse Employment Program
b. Nurse Deployment Program
c. Nurses in the Barrios
d. Nurses Assigned in Rural Service (NARS)
Correct answer
b. Nurse Deployment Program
29.  The Nurse Deployment Program is under which program of the Department of Health?
a. HRH National Health Workforce Support System (NHWSS) 
b. Registered Nurses Health Enhancement and Local Service (RN HEALS)
c. Occupational Health Program
d. Rural Health System Development program
 
30. ____________ is an Act instituting Universal Health Care for all Filipinos
a. RA 12233
b. RA 11233
c. RA 11223
d. RA 11233

COMMUNITY HEALTH NURSING W/ IMCI P2

1. A home health nurse is made aware that a client and family are about to lose their home due to foreclosure. The nurse contacts the social
service department of the home health care agency for assistance in finding housing for the family. The actions taken by the nurse best exemplify
which of the following roles of the community health care nurse?
a. clinician
b. advocate
c. consultant
d. researcher
2. During home visits, Ruthie identified cases of severe dehydration among children and immediately referred them to the district hospital. Which
among the following roles is she performing?
a. Clinician
b. Researcher
c. Leader
d. Health educator
3. Mrs. Tadejo came to the health center and asked about ways on how to conceive a child. She has history of repeated miscarriages. This
condition falls under:
A. Heath deficit
B. Health threat
C. Foreseeable crisis
D. Stress point
4. It includes stressful occurrences such as death or illness of a family member:
A. Heath deficit
B. Health threat
C. Foreseeable future
D. Stress points

5. This refers to the tool which enables the nurse during her visit, to perform a procedure with ease and deftness, to save time and effort, with the
end view of rendering effective nursing care.
A. Bag technique
B. Public health bag
C. Home visit
D. Black bag
6. The basic unit of care in CHN is:
A. Community
B. Groups
C. Family
D. Individual client
 7. The most important role of a community health nurse is in the area of:
A. Change agent
B. Health education
C. Advocacy
D. Care provider
 
8. When you have already organized, follow-up visits are likewise needed. Which of the following should you do first?
A. Explain the purpose of the visit
B. Wash your hands and perform the necessary procedure
C. Do an environmental surveillance
D. Greet the patient/resident introduce self
9. During a home visit, socialization is important in order to:
A. Do procedures
B. Establish rapport and put the client ease
C. Identify the needs of the client
D. Evaluate the visit
Situation – While working in the community, nurses observe various situations that require attention. 
10.  Nurse Sussy was doing case finding in a barangay in the rural communities of Cuilon. Her target is to identify undocumented Hansens
Disease cases. Seeing her in uniform, a woman remark. “You’re not a nursing student, are you? I have may chores to do today, please!” and
ignores the nurse. Sussy’s IMMEDIATE course of action would be to:
a. Visit the next house so as not to waste the day’s activity and return to re-visit this home after a day or two.
b. Communicate the incident to the Barangay Captain and get him/her to join her in her next visit.
c. Ignore the woman’s behavior, turn around and simply leave her alone
d. The feelings and behavior manifested by the woman and get to the root causes of such a behavior.
 
11. The following are nursing interventions to address the problems on parasitism EXCEPT:
A. Treatment of patients with the broad spectrum anthelmintics
B. Stress that vegetables should be thoroughly washed especially if eaten raw
C. Teach proper disposal of stools and stress that is shouldn’t be use a fertilizer
D. Encouraging hand washing before and after eating
Situation – Carol is 15 months old, weighs 8.5 kgs, is not eating well and is unable to breast feed. She is not vomiting, has no convulsion and not
abnormally sleepy or difficult to awaken. Her temperature is 38.5 C. Use the Integrated Management of Childhood Illness or IMCI strategy.
12. If you were the nurse in charge of Carol, how will you classify her illness?
a. febrile with a general danger sign
b. very severe disease
 
c. severe pneumonia
d. severe malnutrition
 
13. Which of the following signs is considered to be a general danger sign in Carol’s case?
a. no vomiting
b. has no convulsion
c. temperature of 38.5 C
d. unable to breastfeed
14. Which of the following signs is NOT included in the general danger sign?
a. vomits everything
b. unable to drink or breast fed
c. has had convulsion
d. fast breathing
15. Which of the following steps is NOT included in the IMCI strategy?
a. identify treatment
b. counsel and follow up
c. referral 
d. assess and classify
16. Which of the following signs should NOT be included in deciding that “the child vomits everything”?
0/1
a. child experience occasional vomiting
b. when offered fluids, may not be able to drink
c. maybe too weak to drink and eat at all
d. child is not able to keep anything down at all (what goes down comes back)
Correct answer
a. child experience occasional vomiting
Situation: Applying IMCI as an approach to the management of childhood illnesses improves nursing care of the child under general conditions.
 
17. Vitamin A is given to a child with measles because it:
0/1
a. resists the viral infection in the eyes, cell layers in the lung’s gastrointestinal tract, mouth and throat
b. reinforces the body’s immune response
c. is needed for supplementation
d. helps the immune system prevent other infections
Correct answer
a. resists the viral infection in the eyes, cell layers in the lung’s gastrointestinal tract, mouth and throat
 
18. The child’s symptoms are under the classification of severe dengue hemorrhagic fever of the IMCI strategy. Which of the following
treatments should be done IMMEDIATELY?
0/1
a. observe the patient at the health center and refer urgently if the condition worsens
b. give fluids or ORS and refer urgently to the hospital
c. immunize the child before referral
d. give the first dose of appropriate antibiotics and refer urgently to the hospital
Correct answer
b. give fluids or ORS and refer urgently to the hospital
 
19. A child needs urgent referral for mastoiditis. The following is a list treatment for all ear problems in IMCI classification. Which among these
pre-referral treatments should NOT be included?
a. give the child the appropriate antibiotics for 5 days
b. do not give any medications
c. give the child the first dose of antibiotics
d. give first dose of paracetamol for pain

POST-TEST
SITUATION: The public health nurse analyzes the data collected in community health assessment in accordance with the nurse’s conception of
the source of the problems and needs that can be met through nursing interventions.
 
1.  What category of health problem occurs when there is a gap between actual and achievable health status?
A. Heath deficit
B. Health threat
C. Foreseeable crisis
D. Health need
 
2. These are conditions that promote disease or injury and prevent people from realizing their health potential.  
A. Heath deficits
B. Health threats
C. Foreseeable crisis
D. Stress point
 
3. In an epidemiological study conducted in Barangay C, it was noted that the children eligible for basic immunization are not adequately
immunized against Hepatitis B and Measles. This situation is considered:
A. Heath deficit
B. Health threat
C. Foreseeable crisis
D. Stress point
 
4. With the stated problems, the nurse and the community prioritize these using a set of criteria.  Which of the following criteria refers to the
probability of reducing, controlling, or eradicating the problem?
A. Modifiability of the problem
B. Preventive potential
C. Magnitude of the problem
D. Nature of the problem
Correct answer
B. Preventive potential
 
5.  When beginning a relationship with a family on home visit, the community health nurse:
a. is accepting and listens carefully to problem of all family members
b. allows the discussion to be open and non-directional
c. focuses on the problem of one of the family members
d. encourages others to speak for the main client to get an unbiased view
 
6. Ana has been caring for a child in the home. She has a tracheostomy tube and is oxygen dependent. Ana prefers to do the care early in the
morning due to a heavy caseload. The family requests that care be done when the child is awake by 10am. The BEST response by Ana would be:
a. “I will see if I can find another nurse who can meet your preferred schedule.”
b. “If I give the care at 10am, other children needing my care may not be attended to.”
c. “I’m sorry, I wish I could, but I cannot do so due to heavy workload.”
d. “Let’s look at what time is in the child’s best interest and then we can work out a better schedule.”
 
 
7. Which of the priority conditions will be determining factors on the frequency of home health visits?
A. Acceptance of the community of the said health practice interventions
B. the level of health need of the family
C. The result of the studies conducted and level of family understanding
D. Administration of medication and the schedules set
Situation – One of your responsibilities as a community health nurse is to conduct home visits to evaluate the health condition of families and
communities
 
8. In every home visit, you are not only concerned with the client, but you should also:
A. Pay particular attention to the economic status of the family
B. Observe the family and environment
C. Put emphasis on the children’s education
D. Observe the family’s spiritual practices.
 
9. In your community home visits, you have scheduled several cases. Who is your LAST priority?
A. Family planning defaulters
B. PTB case on D.O.T.S.
C. G4P3 3-day post-Partum
D. G3P2 36 weeks AOG

Situation – One of your responsibilities as a community health nurse is to conduct home visits to evaluate the health condition of families and
communities
 
10. In every home visit, you are not only concerned with the client, but you should also:
A. Pay particular attention to the economic status of the family
B. Observe the family and environment
C. Put emphasis on the children’s education
D. Observe the family’s spiritual practices.
 
11. In your community home visits, you have scheduled several cases. Who is your LAST priority?
A. Family planning defaulters
B. PTB case on D.O.T.S.
C. G4P3 3-day Post-Partum
D. G3P2 36 weeks AOG
Correct answer
B. PTB case on D.O.T.S.
 
12. To give clear and correct information to the client, the nurse should consider the following EXCEPT:
A. Give several Instructions at one time
B. Listen to what the patient is saying
C. Do not use medical terms
D. Repeat important information
Correct answer
A. Give several Instructions at one time
 
13. Health deficit is another component of a health problem. Which is an example of health deficit?
A. Father with active tuberculosis
B. No regular health supervision
C. a pregnant mother
D. untimely disability and death
Correct answer
A. Father with active tuberculosis
 
14. One family presents several problems. Which of the following criteria will you apply to determine the priority health problems?
A. Family involvement in identifying the problem
B. Modifiability of the problem
C. Expected consequence of the problem
D. Cooperation and support of the community
 
Correct answer
B. Modifiability of the problem

Situation– Management of resources and environment includes every potential and existing resources which the nurse can utilize to promote and
maintain health, prevent illness, and assist in the task of cure and rehabilitation. The IMCI chart prescribed by the World Health Organization is
one such resource. The following questions apply.
 
15. The Integrated Management of Childhood Illness (IMCI) chart provides the necessary procedure when identifying the appropriate
interventions to be done. However, the community health nurse should be aware that the following factor should be considered in utilizing the
case management chart:
a. age of the child
b. chief complaint
c. danger signs
d. problem of the child
 
16. In the IMCI classification tables, color yellow indicates that a:
a. child needs an appropriate antibiotic or other treatment 
b. child does not need specific medical treatment
c. referral or admission is needed
d. chief complaint that needs an urgent attention
Situation– Karina, 5 months old, weighs 5.2 kgs, temperature 38 C., is brought to the center. Her mother says she is not eating well, feels hot to
touch, able to drink, no vomiting, no convulsions and not lethargic, no cough. They live in a malaria risk area. Her fever started 2 days ago. She
has no signs of measles, no stiff neck or runny nose.
 
17. How will you classify Karina’s illness?
a. plain fever
b. malaria
c. severe febrile disease
d. fever: no malaria
 
Correct answer
b. malaria
 
18. The following treatments are appropriate for Karina EXCEPT:
a. follow up in 2 days
b. give oral anti malaria drugs
c. advise when to return immediately
d. give 1 dose of paracetamol for temp. 37.5 C
 
 
19.  After assessing Junjun, your nursing diagnosis is dehydration secondary to diarrhea. ORS was administered. Which health instruction
regarding ORS therapy will you give the mother once the diarrhea has stopped?
a. Increase the administration of ORS
b. Return to the clinic
c. Stop the administration of ORS
d. Decrease the administration of ORS

Situation  – the integrated Management of Childhoods illness of IMCI technology is a World health organization strategy which aims to curb the
growing infant/child mortality and morbidity concerns in many countries especially the 3rd world economies like the Philippines. This program
integrates many dependent health programs to singular approach. Safety and quality would be any nurse’s focus. The following questions apply.
 
20.James is an 18-month-old child who has cough for 7 days with no general danger signs with temperature 37.50 C and respiratory rate of 41
breaths/minute. How will you classify jame’s breathing?
A. Slow breathing
B. Fast breathing
C. Normal breathing
D. Very fast breathing
 
21. James’s illness can be classified as:
A. Pneumonia
B. Very service disease
C. Severe pneumonia
D. No pneumonia
 
22.After 3 days, the nurse notes that James has chest in drawing and stridor. His mother returned him to the health center immediately. The nurse
should:
A. Change the medicine to the second line antibiotics
B. Advice mother to observe the child and continue giving the antibiotics
C. Give first dose of antibiotics and refer urgently
D. Observe the child in the center
 
23. The nurse should consider the following assessing the child for chest in drawing EXCEPT:
A. Chest in drawing should be present at all time
B. The lower chest wall does not go in when the breaths in
C. The lower chest goes in when the child breaths in
D. The child should be calm
Correct answer
B. The lower chest wall does not go in when the breaths in
 
24. If a child is 2 months to 5 years. Which of the following steps is NOT appropriate in checking for general danger signs?
A. Ask if the child has fever
B. Ask if the child is feeding?
C. Look and see if the child is abnormally sleepy or difficult to awaken
D. Ask if the child has convulsion
Situation–Diarrhea in young children may be life-threatening and requires immediate attention.
 
25. Joel, 3 years old, has had diarrhea for 5 days and is irritable. He has sunken eyeballs but has no blood in his stools. He drinks eagerly when
offered liquid. Skin pinch at the abdomen shows slow return. Using Integrated Management of Childhood Illness (IMCI), Joel’s illness maybe
classified as:
A. No dehydration
B. Some dehydration
C. Severe dehydration
D. Persistent Diarrhea
 
26. Which of the following treatments should be immediately considered in Joel’s case?
A. Reassess the child after 4 hours and classify his dehydration
B. Give 900-1,400 ORS during the first four hours
C. Explain to the mother how to prepare ORS
D. Continue feeding
 
Correct answer
B. Give 900-1,400 ORS during the first four hours
 
27. The nurse should know that the examination of drinking water by the government or non-government personnel must be coordinated by the
municipality through the RHU.  Certification of potability of an existing water source is issued by the:
A. Sanitary Engineer
B. Municipality
C. Secretary of Health or his representative
D. DOH
 
Correct answer
C. Secretary of Health or his representative
 
28. Level 1 approved type of water facility is:
A. Communal faucet and system or individual house connections
B. Point source
C. Waterworks system or individual house connections
D. Unapproved type of water facility
 
29. Approved type of toilet facilities may need water or not depending on receiving space. What type of toilet is without need of water
A. Pit latrines
B. Water sealed
C. Flush toilet
D. Aqua prives
Correct answer
A. Pit latrines
 
30. The level of toilet facility commonly found in highly urbanize communities that have sewerage  systems and treatment plants are:
A. Level I
B. Level II
C. Level III
D. Level IV

PROF AD
1. When the BON issue certificate of registration or professional license without need of taking the NLE to nurses who have lost their certificates,
the BON is exercising its:
a. Enabling power
b. Ministerial power
c. Examining power
d. Corrective power
Correct answer
d. Corrective power
 
2. By force of law, therefore, the Board of Nursing specified the proper attire of examinees during the board exams. This power is called:
a. Quasi-Judicial Power
b. Executive/Promulgating Power
c. Regulatory Power
d. Quasi-Legislative Power
Correct answer
d. Quasi-Legislative Power
 
3.When the Board promulgates rules and regulations governing the practice of nursing, it is exercising its:
a. Judicial power
b. Legislative power
c. Ministerial power
d. Discretionary power
 
4. Which of the following situations shows ethical and responsible care of a nurse?
a. Joy assumes that the ethical decisions made throughout the care are accountable to the health team.
b. Carmen takes responsibility for her own actions.
c. Kathy acts only when he is told that such is an ethical one.
d. Janice is unbiased and neutral in making decisions.
 
5.She assessed a three-year-old boy for fever, but the boy would not want to go near her. Which of the following remarks of Nurse Pamela would
constitute an assault?
a. “You don’t want to have your temperature taken? I will call the guard to hold you and give you an injection instead!”
b. “Alright just tell me when you are ready to have your temperature taken.”
c. “This will not hurt you; just put it under your tongue.”
d. “If you will let me, take your temperature your fever will be gone.”
 
6. One of the midwives in the health center injected Cotrimoxazole to a five-year-old patient without the consent of the parents. Which of the
following cases can the nurse be possibly accused of?
a. Malpractice
b. Negligence
c. Battery
d. Assault
 
7. If Nurse Pamela divulges the information that she is caring for the child of a patient with sexually transmitted disease, she can be liable for
unprofessional conduct specifically:
a. Libel
b. Breach of Confidentially
c. Slander
d. Invasion of privacy
 

8.The most important responsibility where ethical situations emerge in patient care is to:
a. Act only when advised that the action is ethically sound
b. Not takes sides, remain neutral and fair
c. Assume that ethical questions are the responsibility of the health team
d. Be accountable for his or her own actions
 
9.You inform the patient about his rights which include the following EXCEPT:
a. Right to expect reasonable continuity of care
b. Right to consent to or decline to participate in research studies or experiments
c. Right to obtain information about another patient
d. Right to expect that the records about his care will be treated as confidential
 
10.An IV nurse-midwife will do which of the following before venipuncture to show respect for autonomy?
a. Ensure that there is no pain
b. Ask the client the preferred IV site
c. Follow the procedure in drug administration
d. Monitor the flow rate accurately
Correct answer
b. Ask the client the preferred IV site
 
11.The Philippine Board of Nursing came up with 2012 National Nursing Competency Standards or NNCCS which can be applied to the practice
of professional nurses and can serve as a guide for nursing practice. All but one is included in major roles of nurses:
a. Nurses’ Role in Client Care
b. Nurses’ Role in Leadership and Management
c. Nurses’ Role in Research
d. Nurses’ Role in Community Health and Epidemiology
 
12.This refers to the competencies of the nurses and the indicators of performance
a. Responsibility
b. Accountability
c. Standards of care
d. Indicators of performance

13.The Professional Nurses can:

a.Have a better understanding of their personal obligation
b.Use nursing standard as basis for enhancing their competence
c.Advocate for women, children, and community
d.Define and resolve practice issues and concerns
 
13. The Professional Nurses can:
A. A, C, & D
B. B & D
C. A & C
D. All are correct
 
14.Which of the following is an example of negligence by a nurse?
a. The nurse suctioned the baby's mouth and nose to prevent aspiration pneumonia
b. The nurse applied Terramycin ointment on the baby's eyes after delivery
c. The nurse pushed the fundus of the uterus to hasten the delivery of the baby and the uterus got inverted
d. The health center nurse gave tetanus immunization to a pregnant mother
 
15.When the injury caused is proof of someone's negligence, this is referred to as:
a. Res ut des
b. Force majeure
c. Unethical behavior
d. Res ipsa loquitor
 
 
16. When Nurse Trish is providing care to his patient, she must remember that her duty is bound not to do doing any action that will cause the
patient harm. This is the meaning of the bioethical principle:
a. non-maleficence 
b. Beneficence
c. Justice
d. Solidarity
 
17.When a nurse in-charge causes an injury to a female patient and the injury caused becomes the proof of the negligent act, the presence of the
injury is said to exemplify the principle of:
a. Force majeure
b. Respondeat superior
c. Res ipsa loquitor
d. Holdover doctrine
 
18. Which among the following activities is not within the scope of nursing practice?
a. Supervision and teaching of healthcare services-NCII students
b. Maintaining an open communication with patient and their families
c. Observation and care of clients
d. Verifying that the doctor has informed the patient of the risks of the operation to be performed
 
Correct answer
a. Supervision and teaching of healthcare services-NCII students
 
19.Anna, a 2nd year nursing student together with her group mates is having their clinical duty at the intensive care unit of Macario Medical
Center wherein they are assisting the nurses. Anna complained to her Clinical instructor that she is only doing basic nursing function and ask
permission to perform NGT insertion and ECG reading but was not allowed. This is because:
a. Because Anna is arrogant. He must give her CI gifts for her to perform those tasks
b. CI is very reluctant in supervising her class; besides, Anna is the only one who complains
c. CI has no trust. Besides in CMO 30, nursing students cannot do tasks in ICUs
d. Under RA 9173 and the Hospital Policies, Anna cannot perform professional nursing duties. CI was aware of that
 
 
20.The following are not acceptable in the nursing practice EXCEPT?
a. suturing a scalp laceration
b. assisting employment to a newly passed RN to be hired immediately
c. medical director and boards allocated a little for nurse’s wage
d. practicing with a special permit issued to a Cambodian nurse rendering free care
 
 
21.The Philippine Nursing Act of 2002 best defined professional nursing as:
a. giving an appropriate nursing diagnosis, the right health teachings, and proper treatment
b. an interpersonal process to promote health
c. an ipso facto obligation to uphold the noble traditions of nursing
d. care for people in any health care situation
Correct answer
d. care for people in any health care situation
 
22.In any health care institution, the person who is responsible in making decisions regarding patient’s care is:
a. Patient
b. Physician on duty
c. Family and relatives
d. Head nurse
 
23.What should the nurse initially do when she accidentally administered a larger dose of a prescribed medication to her client?
a. write an incident report
b. orally report immediately with the nurse supervisor
c. assess patient’s outcome
d. tell another nurse to witness the incident that occurred
Correct answer
a. write an incident report
 
24.Which of the following actions of the nurse will not be subjected for revocation of license?
a. fail to write the care done to patient in the duty but will complete the next duty
b. divulging data from patient to media
c. administering pre-op meds in advance to doctor’s orders
d. rendering tepid sponge bath without the approval of doctors
 
 
25.Nurses who are practicing in the Philippines are guided by the nursing law of 2002. Which among the following is not a stipulation of this
law?
a. requires the member of the BON to be a holder of MAN
b. recognition of the nursing specialty organizations in coordination with the accredited professional organization
c. requires those nurses who have been away from practice to undergo one-month didactic training and five months of practicum before returning
to the workplace
d. increases the composition of the Board from 5 to 7 representing nursing education, service, and community health nursing
 
Correct answer
c. requires those nurses who have been away from practice to undergo one-month didactic training and five months of practicum before returning
to the workplace
 
26.An appointee will be disqualified to be a member of the board of nursing when he/she:
a. holder of a master’s degree in Nursing Education
b. 10 years nursing practice in the rural health area
c. Natural born citizen of the Philippines who has a valid US tourist visa
d. has accepted nursing students for clinical follow-up in a government hospital
 
 
27.The charge nurse asked the newly hired staff nurse to insert an NGT to a client, but the staff nurse refused the task and explained to the charge
nurse that she have no prior experience to the task. What is the most appropriate action of the charge nurse?
a. Assign another nurse to perform the procedure
b. Do the procedure with the nurse
c. Tell the nurse to read the procedure manual
d. Ask the nurse to find a way to learn the procedure

28.Based on the Nursing law of 2002 which among the following are included in the scope of nursing practice?
1. minor surgery
2. health education
3. sanitation inspection
4. administration medication with Doctor’s order
5. restoration of health
6. performing diagnosis
 
28.Based on the Nursing law of 2002 which among the following are included in the scope of nursing practice?
a. 2, 3, 5
b. 1, 2, 3
c. 1, 3, 6
d. 2, 4, 5
 
 
29.Which among the following is the most vital behavior the nurses should manifest?
a. Supporting co-workers on the theoretical and practical knowledge of patient care
b. Demonstrating the ideals of the nursing profession
c. Upholding the service orientation of nursing
d. Operationalizing the scientific basis of nursing
 
Correct answer
c. Upholding the service orientation of nursing

 
30.In the practice of nursing, a nurse must be aware of the important values of nursing which includes:
a. Freedom to have commitment to patient
b. Strong sense of professional autonomy
c. Recognition of the nurse’s worth in patient care
d. Freedom from forced choice