PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI CHỌN ĐỘI DỰ TUYỂN HSG CẤP TỈNH

THÀNH PHỐ THANH HOÁ NĂM HỌC 2022 - 2023

Môn: Tiếng Anh
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Ngày: 18/04/2022
(Đề này gồm 06 trang).
PART A: LISTENING (15 points)
HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU
* Bài nghe gồm 3 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, trước mỗi phần nghe thí sinh có 30 giây để đọc nội
dung bài nghe, mở đầu và kết thúc mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu.
* Sau khi kết thúc toàn bộ phần nghe, thí sinh có 3 phút để hoàn chỉnh bài trước khi chuyển sang phần
khác.
* Thí sinh đọc kỹ đề bài (bằng tiếng Anh) trước khi nghe.
Part I: Listen to Son and Peter talking about the most important inventions of the 21th century. Fill
each of the gaps with no more than THREE words and/ or a number. You will listen TWICE. (5 points)
  Facebook YouTube Google Driverless Car
Year of
(1) ______ (2) ______ 2012
invention
It (3) ______ World most popular
Change the way people (5)
Usage 1.6 billion people around (4) _____________
_________ the city.
the world. website.
Part II: Choose the correct answer A, B, or C that fits best according to what you hear. You will listen
TWICE. The history of moving pictures
6. Some photographs of a horse running showed .
A. all feet off the ground. B. at least one foot on the ground.
C. two feet off the ground
7. The Scotsman employed by Edison .
A. designed a system to use the technology Edison had invented.
B. used available technology to make a new system.
C. was already an expert in motion picture technology.
8. One major problem with the first system was that .
A. only one person could be filmed. B. people could only see very short films.
C. the camera was very heavy.
9. In 1895, a famous new system was developed by .
A. a French team working alone. B. a French and German team working together.
C. a German team who invented the word “cinema”.
10. Longer films were not made at the time because of problems involving .
A. the subject matter. B. the camera. C. the film projector
Part III: A flight attendant is making announcements. Are these statements true or false? Listen and
check ( ) the correct answer. You will listen TWICE. (5 points)
11. It will take twelve hours for the flight to get to New York T F
12. Passengers don't have their headphones yet. T F
13. The list of beverages and movies can both be found in the entertainment guide. T F
14. After dinner, people will receive customs forms. T F
15. The seatbelt sign is off right now. T F
PART B: PHONETICS (5 points)
Question I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the rest.
Write A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet. (3 points)
16. A. random B. canal C. abandon D. explanatory
17. A. government B. anchor C. jungle D. thank
18. A. ragged B. arrived C. invited D. wicked
Question II. Choose the letter (A, B, C or D) next to the word whose main stress is placed differently
from the others. (2 points)
19. A. aquatic B. cholera C. groundwater D. illustrate
20. A. archeology B. personality C. appreciative D. architectural
PART C: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (30 points)
Question I. Choose the best answer from the four options marked A, B, C, or D to complete each
sentence below. Write A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet. (10 points)
21. I only attacked the young man self-defence.
A. by B. in C. from D. with
22. The team won the championship four years .
A. running B. passing C. following D. rotating
23. As the drug took _________, the patient became quieter.
A. force B. influence C. action D. effect
24. I think he will join us to, ________ ?
A. don’t I B. won’t he C. will he D. do I
25. I am so _________under with assignments at the moment. Terrible!
A. snowed B. iced C. fogged D. tired
26. I read the contract again and again _________avoiding making spelling mistakes.
A. with a view to B. in view of C. by means of D. in terms of
27. It was a service _________I will be eternally grateful.
A. to which B. for which C. to whom D. for whom
28. The government is thinking of ________ law to make it compulsory for cyclists to wear helmet.
A. bringing in B. bringing up C. bringing down D. bringing forward
29. He got an excellent grade in his examination ______the fact that he had not worked particularly hard.
A. on account of B. because C. in spite of D. although
30. Ann: “Do you mind if I take a seat?”
Brian: “_____.”
A. Yes, I don’t mind B. No, do as you please C. No, I don’t mind D. Yes, do as you please
Question II. Give the correct tense or form of the verbs in the blanks (7 points)
31. When the university suggested tuition (raise) , the student union protested vigorously.
32. She (win) the last beauty contest, she would be much richer now.
33. I (not cook) dinner. Just as it was ready, Chris and Jane phoned to say that
they couldn’t come to eat.
34. Nowhere the effect more powerfully (feel) than in the suburbs in those days.
35. The new students hope (include) in many of the school’s social activities.
36. Hue is a first year student. By the end of the year, she (learn) English for two years.
37. I’d rather (not invite) to the party with my parents because there was nothing
interesting there.
Question III. Give the correct form of the word in CAPITAL to complete the following sentences.
Write the answer on your answer sheet. (8 points)
38. Because of a car (break) , she didn’t get to the airport in time for her flight.
39. Lack of fertilizers and water shortage have (poor) the soil.
40. Computers are now considered (dispense) in the business world.
41. Vietnam is notable in the world because of its (resist) wars against two powerful
countries in the world.
42. Smoking does (repair) harm to human lungs.
43. Chirstian Ronaldo always performs excellently in the football field. He is, (argue) , one of
the best players of Asia.
44. Ukrainian President Volodymyr Zelenskyyalso said there was a “(human) crisis” in the
city and that his soldiers were “blocked and wounded”.
45. They argue (persuade) in favor of a total ban on handguns.
Question IV. There is one mistake in each sentence. Find and correct it. Write the answer on your
answer sheet. (5 points)
Example: line 1: difficulty difficult
1
Parents complain that it is difficulty to live with teenagers. Then again, teenagers say exactly the same
thing about their parents! According to a recently survey, the most common arguments between parents
and teenagers are those regarded untidiness and household chores. On the one hand, parents go mad over
untidy rooms, clothes dropped on the floor and their children’s refuse to 5help in the housework. On the
other hand, teenagers lose their patience continually when parents tell them off for dropping the towel in
the bathroom, not cleaning up their room or refusing to do shopping at the supermarket.
Line Mistake Correction
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION
Part I. Fill in each gap with ONE suitable word to complete the following paragraph. Write the answer
on your answer sheet. (10 points)
Nowadays, the global (51) _________ is increasing and fossil fuel supplies are running out, we
must begin to put a greater priority on harnessing (52) energy sources. Fortunately, there are a
number of readily available, renewable resources that are both cost- effective and earth – friendly. Two
such resources are solar power and (53) power.
Solar energy, which reaches the earth through sunlight, is so abundant that it could (54) ___ the
needs of worldwide energy consumption 6,000 times over. And solar energy is easily harnessed through
the use of photovoltaic cells that convert sunlight to electricity. In the US alone, more than 100, 000 homes
are (55) with solar electric systems in the form of solar (56) _____ or solar roof tiles. And in
other parts of the world, including many developing countries, the use of solar system is growing steadily.
Another alternative energy source, which is abundant in specific geographical areas, is geothermal
power, which creates (57) by tapping heat from below the surface of the earth. Hot water and
steam that are trapped in underground pools are pumped to the surface and used to run a generator, which
produces electricity. Geothermal energy is 50,000 times more abundant than the entire known supply of
fossil fuel (58) and as with solar power, the technology needed to utilize geothermal energy is
fairly simple. A prime example of effective geothermal use
in Iceland, a region of high geothermal activity (59) there are over 80 percent of private homes,
are heated by geothermal power.
Solar and geothermal energy are just two of promising renewable alternatives to conventional energy
sources. The time is long overdue to invest in the (60) and use of alternative energy on global scale.
Question II. Choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D) to complete each of the gaps in the passage below.
Write A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet. (10 points)
On 15 October 1987, the southern counties of Britain were struck by the strongest winds they had
experienced in 200 years. Gusts of over 130 kilometers per hour slammed across the region and £1.5-
billion-worth of damage was (61) in just a few hours.
Extreme weather events like this are dramatic (62) of the power of the wind. It’s one
part of the weather we generally don't give a second thought to in Britain but it plays a vital role in
people’s lives across the world. Without the formation and circulation of winds there would quite
(63)_______ be no climate.
Some parts of the world seem to suffer more than others from the effects of ‘ill winds’, and links
between particular winds and psychological problems (64) back centuries. The Foehn, the hot dry
wind that slides off the slopes of the Alps, is capable of boosting temperatures quite suddenly by 10°C or
more. It affects as many as one in three people in its (65)_______, making them feel anxious, irritable and
generally ill. In California, many people (66)_______ the arrival of the Santa Ana, which rushes down
from the high Mojave desert. Lyall Watson, in his book Heaven’s Breath, claims that when the Santa Ana
blows, murder rates soar.
The wind may get into the headlines when it comes in the form of tornadoes and hurricanes, but for
the (67)________ part it goes about its job of shifting huge masses of air around the planet. Plants take
(68)_______ of this free ride to send their pollen grains far and wide. Trees (69)_______ on it to remove
old leaves and make way for new growth. Spiders have been caught (70)_______ a lift at altitudes of
almost 4.5 kilometers.
61. A. made B. caused C. destroyed D. completed
62. A. reminders B. recollections C. mementos D. memorial
63. A. easily B. simply C. rightly D. surely
64. A. last B. originate C. pass D. date
65. A. line B. road C. path D. bypass
66. A. despair B. dread C. respect D. warn
67. A. most B. maximum C. majority D. general
68. A. benefit B. chance C. advantage D. occasion
69. A. need B. trust C. hope D. rely
70. A. hitching B. traveling C. borrowing D. making
Question III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D) for each
question. Write A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet. (10 points)
An air pollutant is defined as a compound added directly or indirectly by human to the atmostphere
in such quantities as to affect humans, vegetation, or material adversely. Air pollution requires a very
flexible definition that permits continuous change. When the first air pollution laws were established in
England in the fourteenth century, air pollutants were limited to compounds that could be seen or smelled-
a far cry from the extensive list of harmful substances known today. As technology has developed and
knowledge of the health aspects of various chemicals has increased, the list of air pollutants has
lengthened. In the future, even water vapor might be considered an air pollutant under certain conditions.
Many of the more important air pollutants, such as sulfur oxides, carbon monoxide, and nitrogen oxides,
are found in nature. As the Earth developed, the concentration of these pollutants was altered by various
chemical reactions; they became components in biogeochemical cycles. These serve as an air purification
scheme by allowing the compounds to move from the air to the water or soil. On a global basis, nature’s
output of these compounds dwarfs that resulting from human activities.
However, human production usually occurs in a localized area, such as a city. In such a region,
human output maby be dominant and may temporarily overload the natural purification shemes of
the cycles. The result is an increased concentration of noxious chemicals in the air. The concentrations
at which the adverse effects appear will be greater than the concentrations that the pollutants would have in
the absence of human activities. The actual concentration need not be large for a substance to be a
pollutant; in fact, the numerical value tells us little until we know how much of an increase this represents
over the concentration that would occur naturally in the area. For example, sulfur dioxide has detectable
healhy effects at 0.08 parts per million (ppm), which is about 400 times its natural level of 0.1 ppm and is
not usually a pollutant until its level reaches about 15 ppm.
71. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The economic impact of air pollution. B. What constitutes an air pollutant
C. How much harm air pollutants can cause. D. The effects of compounds added to the atmosphere.
72. The word “adversely” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to __________.
A. negatively B. quickly C. admittedly D. considerably
73. It can inferred from the first paragraph that ______________.
A. water vapor is an air pollutant in localized areas.
B. most air pollutants today can be seen or smelled.
C. the definition of air pollution will continue to change
D. a substance becomes an air pollutant only in cities
74. The word “these” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ____________.
A. the various chemical reactions B. the pollutants from the developing Earth
C. the compouns moved to the water or soil D. the components in biogeochemical cycles
75. For which of the following reasons can natural pollutants play an important role in controlling
air pollution?
A. They function as part of a purification process.
B. They occur in greater quantities than other pollutants.
C. They are less harmful to living beings than other pollutants.
D. They have existed since the Earth developed.
76. According to the passage, human-generated air pollution in localized regions _______.
A. can be dwarfed by nature’s output of pollutants
B. can overwhelm the natural system that removes pollutants
C. will damage areas outside of the localized regions
D. will react harmfully with natural pollutants
77. The word “localized” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to __________.
A. specified B. circled C. surrounded D. encircled
78. According to the passage, the numerical value of the concentration level of a substance is only
useful if _____________.
A. the other substances in the area are known B. it is in a localized area
C. the natural level is also known D. it can be calculated quickly
79. The word “detectable” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to _________.
A. beneficial B. special C. measurable D. separable
80. Which of the following is best supported by the passage?
A. To effectively control pollution, local government should regularly review their air pollution laws.
B. One of the most important steps in preserving natural lands is to better enforce air pollution laws.
C. Scientists should be consulted in order to establish uniform limits for all air pollutants.
D. Human activities have been effective in reducing air pollution.
PART E: WRITING (20 points)
Question I. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using
the word given. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (5 points)
81. Immediately after his arrival, things went wrong.
No sooner .
82. I realized how much I loved my country only after I had left it.
Only .
83. She vaguely remembers that she was knocked down by a motorbike.
 She has vague .
84. We aren’t willing to support the strike, we don’t approve it.
Far from .
85. Something must be done quickly to solve the problem of homelessness.
Urgent .
Question II. Rewrite each of the following sentences using the given word in brackets so that it keeps
the same meaning. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (5 points)
86. Getting the chance to meet someone famous is rare. (OFTEN)
Not the chance to meet someone famous.
87. We were all shocked by his reaction. (CAME)
 His reaction all of us.
88. Local residents said they were against the new traffic scheme. (DISAPPROVAL)
 Local residents the new traffic scheme.
89. Charles cheated in his exams, and didn't get caught. (GOT)
Charles cheated in his exams, and it.
90. Andrew is said to be a very good cook. (REPUTATION)
Andrew a very good cook.
Question III. Writing a paragraph on the following topic. (10 points)
Many people think that the invention of the Internet has changed people’s life. Write a paragraph (120-150
words) about the ways you think the Internet has changed people’s life.

.............................THE END ...........................

ĐÁP ÁN CHÍNH THỨC ĐỀ THI CHỌN ĐỘI DỰ TUYỂN HSG CẤP TỈNH
PART A: LISTENING (15 points)
Part I: Listen to Son and Peter talking about the most important inventions of the 21th century.
Fill each of the gaps with no more than THREE words and/ or a number. You will listen
TWICE. (5 points)
1. 2000 2. 2005 3. connects 4. video-sharing 5. move around
Part II: Choose the correct answer A, B, or C that fits best according to what you hear. You will
listen TWICE.
6. A 7. B 8. C 9. A 10. C
Part III: A flight attendant is making announcements. Are these statements true or false? Listen
and check ( ) the correct answer. You will listen TWICE. (5 points)
11. T 12. F 13. T 14. F 15. F
PART B: PHONETICS (5 points)
Question I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the
rest. Write A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet. (3 points)
16. C. abandon 17. A. government 18. B. arrived
Question II. Choose the letter (A, B, C or D) next to the word whose main stress is placed
differently from the others. (2 points)
19. A. aquatic 20. C. appreciative
PART C: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (30 points)
Question I. Choose the best answer from the four options marked A, B, C, or D to complete each
sentence below. Write A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet. (10 points)
21. B. in 22. A. running 23. D. effect 24. B. won’t he
25. A. snowed 26. A. with a view to 27. B. for which 28. A. bringing in
29. C. in spite of 30. No, do as you please
Question II. Give the correct tense or form of the verbs in the blanks (7 points)
31. (should) be raised
32. Had she won
33. needn’t have cooked
34. was the effect more powerfully felt
35. to be included
36. will have learned (will have learnt/ will have been learning)
37. not have been invited
Question III. Give the correct form of the word in CAPITAL to complete the following sentences.
Write the answer on your answer sheet. (8 points)
38. breakdown 39. impoverished 40. indispensable
41. resistance 42. irreparable 43. unarguably
44. humanitarian 45. persuasively
Question IV. There is one mistake in each sentence. Find and correct it. Write the answer on
your answer sheet. (5 points)
Example: line 1: difficulty difficult
1
Parents complain that it is difficulty to live with teenagers. Then again, teenagers say exactly the
same thing about their parents! According to a recently survey, the most common arguments
between parents and teenagers are those regarded untidiness and household chores. On the one
hand, parents go mad over untidy rooms, clothes dropped on the floor and their children’s refuse
5
to help in the housework. On the other hand, teenagers lose their patience continually when
parents tell them off for dropping the towel in the bathroom, not cleaning up their room or refusing
to do shopping at the supermarket.

Line Mistake Correction

46. 2 recently recent
47. 3 regarded regarding
48. 4 refuse refusal
49. 5 in with
50. 7 shopping the shopping
SECTION D: READING COMPREHENSION
Part I. Fill in each gap with ONE suitable word to complete the following paragraph. Write the
answer on your answer sheet. (10 points)
51. warmth/ temperature 52. alternative/ renewable 53. geothermal
54. meet/ satisfy 55. equipped 56. panels
57. energy/ power 58. resources 59. where
60. development/ advancement
Question II. Choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D) to complete each of the gaps in the passage
below. Write A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet. (10 points)
61. B 62. A 63. B 64. D 65. C
66. B 67. A 68. C 69. D 70. A
Question III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C, or D) for each
question. Write A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet. (10 points)
71. B 72. A 73. C 74. D 75. A
76. B 77. A 78. C 79. C 80. D
PART E: WRITING (20 points)
Question I. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence,
using the word given. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (5 points)
81. No sooner had he arrived than things went wrong.
82. Only after I had left my country did I realize how much I loved it.
OR: Only after having left my country did I realize how much I loved it.
83. She vaguely remembers that she was knocked down by a motorbike.
 She has vague memories of being (having been) knocked down by a motorbike.
84. Far from being willing to support the strike, we don’t approve it.
85. Urgent action must be taken to solve the problem of homelessness.
Question II. Rewrite each of the following sentences using the given word in brackets so that it
keeps the same meaning. Write the answers on your answer sheet. (5 points)
86. Not often do we (you) get the chance to meet someone famous
87. His reaction came as a shock (surprise) to all of us.
88. Local residents displayed/ voiced/ expressed/ showed their disapproval of the new traffic scheme.
89. Charles cheated in his exams, and got away with it.
90. Andrew has a reputation for being a very good cook.
Question III. Paragraph writing (10 pts)
Marking scheme:
1. Format (2 pts)
The paragraph must include a topic sentence, supporting ideas, connectives and a concluding
sentence.
2. Content (5 pts)
Ideas are presented with coherence and cohesion, style and clarity.
3. Language (3 pts)
A provision of a variety of vocabulary, good use and control of grammatical structures, good
punctuation and no spelling mistakes.
B. HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM:
- Tổng điểm toàn bài: 100 điểm
- Thang điểm: 20
Tổng số điểm các câu làm đúng
Điểm bài thi =
5