UBND HUYỆN THANH SƠN ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 CẤP HUYỆN

PHÒNG GD&ĐT NĂM HỌC 200 - 2021

Môn: Tiếng Anh 9
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề.
(Đề thi có 08 trang)

Điểm bài thi Họ tên chữ ký Số phách

Bằng số: …………............ Giám khảo 1 Giám khảo 2
Bằng chữ: ………………. ……………… ………………...

SECTION 1: LISTENING (2.0 POINTS)

I. You will hear an interview with a singer called Nick Parker who plays in a band called Krispy with
his sister Mel. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B or C. (1.0 point)
1. When Nick and Mel were younger___________.
A. they studied music at school.
B. their father took them to live concerts.
C. their mother encouraged them to play music.
2. When Nick and Mel started writing music together, they ___________.
A. disagreed about the style they should have.
B. didn't want to be the same as other bands.
C. were influenced by different kinds of music.
3. The band Krispy was started after___________.
A. Nick began studying at music school.
B. two other musicians heard Nick and Mel playing.
C. Nick and Mel advertised for the band members.
4. In the band’s first year together___________.
A. concert audiences liked their music.
B. they signed a recording contract.
C. their national tour was very successful.
5. What does Nick say about life in the band today?
A. The older members look after him and Mel.
B. He’s pleased to have the chance to travel.
C. There’s no opportunity for them to relax together.

Write your answers here:

1. __________ 2.__________ 3.__________ 4. __________ 5.__________

1
II. You will hear a man called Ben from a young people’s organization telling a youth group about a
course they can do on Saturdays. For each question, fill in the missing information in the numbered
space. (1.0 point)
SATURDAY COURSE
Name of Ben’s organization: Nature
Aim of course: Discovering (6) ___________.
Closest course location for this group: (7) ___________.
Length of course: (8) ___________weeks
Examples of activities we will do:
• Learn how to climb
• Cut up wood
• Make a (9) ___________.
• Design a (10) ___________to take home.

Write your answers here:

6. ____________________________________
7. ____________________________________
8. ____________________________________
9. ____________________________________
10. ___________________________________

SECTION 2: PHONETICS (1.0 POINT)

III. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently. (0.6 point)
1. A. bracelet B. facility C. addictive D. traditional
2. A. architect B. parachute C. choir D. psychology
3. A. statue B. essential C. partial D. impatient

Write your answers here:

1. __________ 2.__________ 3.__________

IV. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others. (0.4 point)
1. A. entertain B. locality C. cigarette D. economic
2. A. prediction B. compulsory C. judgment D. intelligent

Write your answers here:

1. __________ 2.__________

2
SECTION 3: LEXICO - GRAMMAR (8.0 POINTS)
V. Choose the word, phrase or sentence (A, B, C or D) that best completes each sentence. (7.0 points)

1. Let’s pay a visit to Ha Long Bay this weekend, ___________?

A shall we B. do we C. don’t we D. will we
2. We wish they___________ that second hand car.
A. doesn’t buy B. didn’t buy C. hasn’t bought D. hadn’t bought
3. Everyone burst out laughing. There was a lot of ___________.
A. laughs B. laughter C. slaughter D. laugh
4. I had a good ___________ of the exam result when I saw his daughter’s face.
A. report B. thought C. idea D. news
5. She is objecting to ___________ money on the project.
A. me invest B. my investing C. invest D. me invested
6. If we hurry, we might get there ___________ to catch the early train.
A. right B. in time C. on time D. before time
7. In Viet Nam, children start ___________ school at the age of six.
A. kindergarten B. secondary C. high D. primary
8. Drinking water ___________ excessive amounts of fluorides may leave a stained or mottled effect on
the enamel of teeth.
A. containing B. including C. making of D. consisting
9. After dinner, the President got up to ___________a short speech.
A. make B. provide C. hold D. tell
10. People in Central Viet Nam suffer from___________ floods from September to November.
A. continuous B. continual C. continued D. continuing
11. I’ve got so much spare time now. I’m thinking of taking _________ a new hobby like stamp collecting.
A. in B. off C. up D. over
12. ___________, all animals need oxygen, water, food and proper range of weather.
A. Being survive B. To survive C. When surviving D. Surviving
13. Noone on the plane was alive in the accident last night,___________?
A. wasn’t he B. weren’t they C. were they D. was he
14. I hate him. I have ___________ of meeting him again.
A. no intentions B. no intention C. not intended D. intended
15. After he had broken his leg, Henry could only go up and down stairs ___________.
A. hardly B. in difficulties C. with difficulty D. hard
16. In most ___________developed countries, up to 50% of ___________ population enters higher
education at some time in their lives.
A. the/  B. /  C. the/ a D.  /the
17. You can___________ on David to help you if you are ever in need.
A. return B. pick C. trust D. rely
18. Local people often sell ___________ like bracelets, scarves and hats to tourists.
A. lacquerware B. artisans C. handicrafts D. sculptures
19. ___________, women are responsible for the chores in the house and taking care of the children.
A. Naturally B. Traditionally C. Suddenly D. Accidentally
20. ___________, William Shakespeare is the most widely known.
A. Of all the writers in English B. All writers in English
C. All of the writers in English D. With all, writers in English

3
21. ___________global solidarity, the world would not be better prepared for the Covid pandemic.
A. On account of B. Thanks to C. If not D. But for
22. ___________ the victory that even Smith’s fans could believe it.
A. Such surprising was B. So surprising is
C. So surprising was D. Surprising as
23. Martin has quite a good ___________ of foreign languages such as English, French... .
A. result B. command C. understanding D. knowledge
24. She has just bought ___________ painting from a private collector.
A. a French old interesting B. an old interesting French
C. an interesting old French D. a French interesting old
25. It took the director two hours ___________.
A. explaining us the new plan B. to explain us the new plan
C. explaining the new plan to us D. to explain the new plan to us
26. ___________ you don’t study harder, you won’t pass the examination.
A. Unless B. Although C. Despite D. If
27. It’s not worth ___________ her to change her mind. She will never listen to anybody.
A. to persuade B. persuading C. making D. to make
28. Tom wakes his parents up ___________ playing the guitar very softly.
A. because B. in spite of C. because of D. although
29. It is usually better not to___________ things, in case they are not returned.
A. lose B. offer C. borrow D. lend
30. Mr. Black: “What a lovely house you have!” ~ Mr. John: “___________.”
A. No problem B. Thank you. Hope you will drop in
C. Of course not, it’s not costly D. I think so
31. “Thank you for your help, Marry.” – “___________”
A. Wish you B. Never remind me
C. It’s my pleasure D. It’s very kind of you to say so
Choose the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
32. Because much collective behavior is dramatic and unpredictable, theories of such behavior are more
evaluative than analytic.
A. hazardous B. unexpected C. terrifying D. emotional
33. The students got high marks in the test but Mary stood out.
A. got very good marks B. got a lot of marks
C. got higher marks than others D. got the most marks of all
Choose the letter A, B C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
34. The police tried in vain to break up the protest crowds in front of the government building, so further
measures needed to be employed.
A. unskillfully B. violently C. effectively D. eventually
35. Based on the cues found, the police managed to apprehend the suspect a few days after the bank
robbery.
A. question B. release C. capture D. sentence

4
Write your answers here:

1. __________ 2.__________ 3.__________ 4. __________ 5.__________

6. __________ 7.__________ 8.__________ 9. __________ 10.__________

11. __________ 12.__________ 13.__________ 14. __________ 15.__________

16. __________ 17.__________ 18.__________ 19. __________ 20.__________

21. __________ 22.__________ 23.__________ 24. __________ 25.__________

26. __________ 27.__________ 28.__________ 29. __________ 30.__________

31. __________ 32.__________ 33.__________ 34. __________ 35.__________

VI. There is one mistake in each sentence. Identify the mistake and write your answer in the space
provided. (1,0 point)
1. Jenifer found hard to concentrate on her work because of the noise.
A B C D
2. Because of the light, the city seemed differently from the way I had remembered it.
A B C D
3. Remember that the more loud you shout, the less attention you’ll get.
A B C D
4. I tried to do everything to contact Peter two weeks ago, but so far I don’t receive his reply.
A B C D
5. Found in the 12 century, Oxford University ranks among the world’s oldest universities.
th

A B C D
Write your answers here:

1. __________ 2.__________ 3.__________ 4. __________ 5.__________

SECTION 4. READING (5.0 POINTS)

VII. Choose the best option (A, B, C or D) that fits the blank in the following passage. (2.0 points)
The quality of the air we (1) ___________ is important because it affects our health and the length
of our lives. Air pollution is a big problem in many of our cities and a lot of this is caused by motor
vehicles. There are six main pollutants in the (2)___________ and four of these are produced in large
quantities by motor engines. The gases that are (3)___________ into the air are affected by sunlight and
turned into ozone at ground level. Unlike the ozone that is high in the atmosphere and protects us from
radiation. The ozone on the ground is a health (4)___________.
Many countries have (5)___________the level of lead pollution by banning the use of metal in
(6)___________. In other countries, its use is very strictly controlled. We have to (7)___________or get
rid of the three other harmful gases produced by the 630 million vehicles worldwide- a(n)
(8)___________that is likely to double in the next twenty to thirty years.
Concern about the environment has led to the invention of a device known as “the three way
catalytic converter”, so-called because of the three poisonous gases it (9)___________ to produce. More
efficient engines reduce the formation of these gases and the converter reduces them still further. Harmful
gases in engine exhausts are burned up by passing them over a metal catalyst which (10)___________ up
the reaction. The catalyst is rather expensive, but what price do we put on good health?
1. A. inhale B. breathe C. breath D. respire
2. A. environment B. surroundings C. ozone D. atmosphere
3. A. unconfined B. delivered C. liberated D. released
5
4. A. peril B. risk C. exposure D. danger
5. A. hacked B. chopped C. cut D. sliced
6. A. petrol B. coal C. grease D. energy
7. A. reduce B. shrink C. condense D. ease
8. A. form B. shape C. figure D. amount
9. A. assists B. facilitates C. aids D. helps
10. A. speeds B. rates C. paces D. accelerates
Write your answers here:

1. __________ 2.__________ 3.__________ 4. __________ 5.__________

6. __________ 7.__________ 8.__________ 9. __________ 10.__________

VIII. Read the following passage and choose the item (A, B, C or D) that best answers each of the
questions about it. (1.0 point)
British teenagers sit up to 70 exams and tests before they reach their GCSEs (The General
Certificate of Secondary Education). But there are ways to ease the stress at exam time.
What a student eats and drinks in the run-up to exams can influence how clearly they think and
how happy they feel. A balanced diet with lots of fruit and vegetables, fish and complex carbohydrates
will help them concentrate and think clearly. Too much high-fat, high-sugar and high-caffeine food and
drink can make studying harder.
Sleeping well and for long enough to feel rested, around six to eight hours for most people, will
help thinking and concentration. Students should allow half an hour or so to wind down between
studying, watching TV or using a computer and going to bed to help them get a good night’s sleep.
Regular exercise also helps them sleep better. Cramming all night before an exam is usually a bad idea.
Parents should be flexible around exam time. When a child is revising all day, don’t worry about
household jobs that are left undone or untidy bedrooms. If they’re a bit moody they should stay calm.
They can help a child to revise by making sure they have somewhere comfortable to study.
Students should remind themselves that feeling nervous is normal. Nervousness is a typical
reaction to exams. All students will feel it. The key is to put these nerves to positive use. Being reminded
of what they do know and the time they have put into study can help them feel confident that they can
reach their potential.
1. What is the main idea of the passage?
A. How to be well-prepared for exams B. A balanced diet for examinees
C. What teenagers should do to feel restedD. Nervousness: good reaction to exams
2. The underlined word “Cramming” in the passage probably means___________.
A. Sleeping for a long time B. Having a nightmare
C. Reading things aloud D. Memorising a lot of things
3. What does the word “it” in the last paragraph refer to?
A. reaction B. nervousness C. exam D. key
4. Before exams, it is not unusual to___________.
A. eat well B. stay calm C. feel nervous D. reacttypically
5. Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. It is impossible for teenagers to ease their stress before exams.
B. Eating and drinking properly can help students study better.
C. Regular exercise and relaxation are necessary for a good sleep.
D. Parents play an important role in raising their children’s exam results.
Write your answers here:

1. __________ 2.__________ 3.__________ 4. __________ 5.__________

6
IX. Fill in each of the numbered blanks passages below with ONE suitable word. (2.0 points)
The number of deaths caused by flooding and landslides in (1) _________ Vietnam rose to 102,
with 26 still missing.
The Central Steering Committee for Natural Disaster Prevention and Control says the three
(2)_________ with the highest loss of lives are Quang Tri with 48 people, Thua Thien-Hue with 27 and
Quang Nam with 11.
As of 4 p.m. Monday, Ha Tinh, Quang Binh and Quang Tri provinces had 166,780
(3)__________ submerged in floodwaters, and 28,900 households with 90,900 residents had been
evacuated.
Water levels were rising fast in rivers (4)_________ through Ha Tinh. At 3 p.m., the water level
had gone past the highest danger Level 3 by 0.5 m at Ngan Sau River near Chu Le Train Station. Water
levels at the Ngan Pho and La rivers had (5)________ danger Level 1.
Ha Tinh Province has 28,418 households inundated, mainly in Ha Tinh Town and Cam Xuyen, Thach Ha,
Huong Khe and Loc Ha (6)_________.
Mai Van Minh, director of Quang Binh Province's Department of Agriculture and Rural
Development, said flood water was receding quite slowly on Monday afternoon.
The National (7)__________ 1A section in Quang Binh Province and one part linking to Ho Chi Minh
Highway were heavily (8)__________.
In Quang Tri Province, 53,750 houses in the nine districts of Huong Hoa, Dak Rong, Cam Lo,
Dong Ha, Vinh Linh, Gio Linh, Quang Tri, Trieu Phong and Hai Lang are inundated. As many as11,083
households with more than 34,000 people have been (9)__________.
(10)__________ to the National Center for Meteorological and Hydrological Forecasting, the heavy
downpours are likely to continue.
Write your answers here:

1. __________ 2.__________ 3.__________ 4. __________ 5.__________

6. __________ 7.__________ 8.__________ 9. __________ 10.__________

SECTION 5: WRITING (4.0 POINTS)

X. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence
printed before it. (1.0 point)
1. It’s a long time since I last went to a football match.
→ I haven’t ____________________________________________________________
2. That man used to work with me when I lived in Phu Tho province.
→ That’s the man ________________________________________________________
3. Peter is poor, but he usually helps the handicapped.
→ Poor_______________________________________________________________________
4. John is sick because he doesn’t take his doctor’s advice.
→ Were_______________________________________________________________________
5. “What you have cooked is the best in the world!”, John said to his girlfriend.
→ John said____________________________________________________________________

7
XI. Complete the second sentence in such a way that it has the same meaning as the one before it,
using the word given in brackets. Do not change the word. (1.0 point)
1. I don’t think it’s likely that you’ll win the competition. (likelihood)
→ I think there is _______________________________________ the competition.
2. Nhat Tan is the longest bridge that I’ve ever seen in Viet Nam. (longer)
→ In Viet Nam, I _______________________________________ Nhat Tan bridge.
3. I almost always go out on Saturday nights. (ever)
→ I _________________________________________ home on Saturday nights.
4. The number of people out of work has fallen dramatically this year. (fall)
→There has _____________________________ the number of people out of work this year
5. I do like carrots, but I don’t want to eat them every day. (liking)
→ Though I________________________________, I don’t want to eat them every day

XII. People say that “Many people now like living in the city more than in the countryside”. Write a
paragraph (from 120 – 150 words) to express your ideas about this. (2.0 points)
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………

8
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………
_____The end_____

UBND HUYỆN THANH SƠN HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM

PHÒNG GD&ĐT ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 CẤP HUYỆN
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC NĂM HỌC 200 - 2021
MÔN: Tiếng Anh
(Hướng dẫn chấm có 02 trang)

(Mỗi đáp án đúng được 0,2 điểm, trừ phần viết luận có thang điểm riêng)
Tổng toàn bài: 20 điểm

SECTION 1: LISTENING (2.0 POINTS)

I. You will hear an interview with a singer called Nick Parker who plays in a band called Krispy with
his sister Mel. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B or C. (1.0 point)
1. B 2. C 3. B 4. A 5. A
II. You will hear a man called Ben from a young people’s organization telling a youth group about a
course they can do on Saturdays. For each question, fill in the missing information in the numbered
space. (1.0 point)

6. wildlife
7. forest
8. 12/ twelve
9. fire
10. bird house

SECTION 2: PHONETICS (1.0 POINT)

III. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently. Write your answers
(A, B, C, or D) in the numbered box. (0.6 point)
1. A B. 3. A
9
IV. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others. Write your answer (A, B, C,
or D) in the numbered box. (0.4 point)
1. B 2. C

SECTION 3: LEXICO - GRAMMAR (8.0 POINTS)

V. Choose the word, phrase or sentence (A, B, C or D) that best completes each sentence (7.0 points).
1. A 2. D 3. B 4. C 5. B
6. B 7. D 8. A 9. A 10. B
11. C 12. B 13. C 14. B 15. C
16. D 17. D 18. C 19. B 20. A
21. D 22. C 23. B 24. C 25. D
26. D 27. B 28. B 29. D 30. B
31. C 32. B 33. C 34. C 35. B
VI. There is one mistake in each sentence. Identify the mistake and write your answer in the space
provided. (1,0 point)
1. A 2. B 3. B 4. D 5. A

SECTION 4. READING (5.0 POINTS)

VII. Choose the best option (A, B, C or D) that fits the blank in the following passage (2.0 points).
1. B 2. D 3. D 4. B 5. C
6. A 7. A 8. C 9. D 10. A
VIII. Read the following passage and choose the item (A, B, C or D) that best answers each of the
questions about it. (1.0 point)
1. D 2. D 3. B 4. C 5. A
IX. Fill in each of the numbered blanks passages below with ONE suitable word. (2.0 points)

1. Central 2. provinces 3. households 4. flowing 5. reached

6. district 7. Highway 8. flooded 9. evacuated 10. According

SECTION 5: WRITING (4.0 POINTS)

X. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence
printed before it. (1.0 point)
1. I haven’t gone to a football match for a long time.
2. That’s the man who used to work with me when I lived in Phu Tho province.
3. Poor as/ though Peter is, he usually help the handicapped.
4. Were John to take his doctor’s advice, he wouldn’t be sick.
5. John said to his girlfriend that what she had cooked was the best in the world.
XI. Complete the second sentence in such a way that it has the same meaning as the one before it,
using the word given in brackets. Do not change the word. (1.0 point)
1. I think there is little likelihood of your winning/ little likelihood that you’ll win the competition.
2. In Viet Nam, I have never seen a longer bridge than Nhat Tan bridge.
3. I hardly ever stay at home on Saturday nights.
4. There has been a dramatic fall in the number of people out of work this year
5. Though I have a liking for carrots, I don’t want to eat them every day
XII. People say that “Many people now like living in the city more than in the countryside”. Write a
paragraph (from 120 – 150 words) to express your ideas about this. (2.0 points)
10
 Marking criteria Point
1. Content 0,8
- Providing the writer’s point of view clearly 0,4
- Communicating intention sufficiently and effectively.
0,4
- Length 120-150 words.
2. Organization and presentation 0,4
- Ideas are well organized and presented with coherence, cohesion
0,2
and clarity.
- The essay is well-structured 0,2
3. Language 0,4
- Demonstration of a variety of vocabulary and structures
0,2
appropriate to the level of English language.
- Good use and control of grammatical structures 0,2
4. Punctuation and spelling and handwriting 0,4
- Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes 0,2
- Legible handwriting 2.0

_____The end_____

11