[Answers are at the end of the file] A.

Joule/m2
1. What is the standard unit of mass? B. kg/m2
A. Kilogram C. N/m2
B. Pound D. watt/m2
C. Gram
D. Newton 12. What is the unit of potential difference?
A. Watt
2. What is defined as the distance the light travels in a B. Coulomb
vacuum in 1/299,792,458 second? C. Volt
A. Yard D. Weber
B. Feet
C. Meter 13. Which of the following is equivalent to a volt?
D. Inch A. watt/coulomb
B. joule/coulomb
3. What is the SI unit of work? C. joule/watt
A. Newton D. watt/joule
B. Watt
C. Newton-Second 14. One election volt is equivalent to _______ joules.
D. Joule A. 1.6 x 10^-17
B. 1.6 x 10^-18
4. What is the SI unit of power? C. 1.6 x 10 ^-19
A. Newton D. 1.6 x 10^-20
B. Watt
C. Newton-Second 15. What is the unit of capacitance?
D. Joule A. Farad
B. Weber
5. What is the SI unit of temperature? C. Coulomb
A. Fahrenheit D. Gauss
B. Kelvin
C. Celsius 16. Which of the following is equivalent to the unit "farad"?
D. Rankine A. coulomb/volt
B. joule/volt
6. What is the SI unit of luminous intensity? C. joule/coulomb
A. Candela D. coulomb/joule
B. Lumens
C. Lux 17. What is the unit of electric current?
D. Candlepower A. Volt
B. Watt
7. What is the unit of relative intensity? C. Ampere
A. Pa D. Coulomb
B. N-m
C. C.N-m/s 18. Which of the following is equivalent to the unit
D. Unitless "ampere"?
A. joule/second
8. What is the SI unit of pressure? B. volt/second
A. Pa C. coulomb/second
B. N-m D. watt/second
C. N/m
D. N-m/s
19. What is the unit of resistance?
9. Which one is equivalent of the unit "Pascal'? A. Ohm
A. N/nm2 B. Watt
B. N/m2 C. Volt
C. N/m D. Ampere
D. D.N/nm
20. Ohm is equivalent to which of the following?
10. The pressure of 1 bar is equivalent to how many pascals? A. coulomb/ampere
A. 1,000,000 B. watt/ampere
B. 100,000 C. volt/ampere
C. 10,000 D. joule/ampere
D. 1000
21. What is the unit of luminous intensity?
11. What is the SI unit of intensity? A. Footcandle
B. Lumen A. centimetre
C. Candela B. millimetre
D. Lux C. nanometer
D. Micrometer
22. What is the unit of luminous flux?
A. Candela 32. The size of the largest atom is in the order of ________.
B. Lumen A. centimeter
C. Lux B. millimeter
D. Footcandle C. nanometer
D. Micrometer
23. Which of the following is equivalent to the unit
"candela"? 33. The mass of a grain of salt is in the order of _______.
A. lumen/m2 A. milligram
B. footcandle/steradian B. gram
C. lux/steradian C. microgram
D. lumen/steradian D. nanogram

24. What is the unit of luminous efficiency? 34. Which one is equivalent to the unit ‘joule'?
A. lumen/watt A. Newton-second
B. lumen/volt B. Newton-meter
C. lumen/ampere C. Newton-meter per second
D. lumen/coulomb D. Newton-meter per second squared

25. What is the unit of illumination? 35. Which one is equivalent to the unit "watt"?
A. Lux A. Newton-second
B. Lumen B. Newton-meter
C. Candela C. Newton-meter per second
D. Lumen/watt D. Newton-meter per second squared

26. Lux is equivalent to which combination of units? 36. One horsepower is equivalent to how many watts?
A. lumen/cm2
B. lumen/ft2 A. 550
C. lumen/m2 B. 746
D. lumen/in2 C. 33,000
D. 250
27. Footcandle is equivalent to which combination of units?
A. lumen/cm2 37. The "kilowatt-hour" is a unit of _______.
B. lumen/ft2 A. work
C. lumen/m2 B. energy
D. lumen/in2 C. power
D. work or energy
28. How many dynes are there in one newton?
A. 10,000 38. The "kilowatt-hour" is a unit of _______.
B. 100,000 A. work
C. 1,000,000 B. energy
D. 1000 C. power
D. work or energy
29. What is an elemental unit of energy?
A. Quartz 39. The English unit "slug" is a unit of _______.
B. Quark A. mass
C. Photon B. weight
D. Quantum C. force
D. energy
30. What refers to the mass which is accelerated at the rate
of one foot per second when acted on by a force of one 40. How is sound intensity measured?
pound? A. In beats
A. Slug B. In decibels
B. Erg C. In phons
C. Dyne D. In sones
D. BTU
41. An electron volt is the energy required by an electron that
31. The size of some bacteria and living cells is in the order of has been accelerated by a potential difference of how many
_______. volts?
A. 1 volt D. Vector quantities
B. 0.1 volts
C. 10 volts 51. Which is NOT a vector quantity?
D. 0.01 volts A. Displacement
B. Velocity
42. What is a vector with a magnitude of one and with no C. Acceleration
unit? D. Time
A. Single vector
B. Unit vector 52. Which is NOT a fundamental physical quantity of
C. Dot vector mechanics?
D. Scalar vector A. Length
B. Mass
43. What is the purpose of a unit vector? C. Volume
A. To describe the direction in space D. Time
B. To indicate a magnitude without reference to direction
C. To serve as comparison with other vectors 53. What is an arrowed line whose length is proportional to
D. To set a standard among vectors the magnitude of some vector quantity and whose direction
is that of the quantity?
44. What is another term for a scalar product of two vectors? A. Vector diagram
A. Cross product B. Vector
B. Vector product C. Component
C. Dot product D. Resultant
D. Plus product
54. What is scaled drawing of the various forces, velocities or
45. What is another term for vector product of two vectors? other vector quantities involved in the motion of a body?
A. Cross product A. Vector diagram
B. Vector product B. Vector
C. Dot product C. Component
D. Plus product D. Resultant

46. The scalar product of two perpendicular vectors is always 55. The _______ of a moving object is the distance it covers
_______. in a time interval divided by the time interval.
A. equal to 1 A. acceleration
B. greater than 1 B. instantaneous speed
C. less than 1 C. average speed
D. equal to 0 D. instantaneous velocity

47. The vector product of two parallel or antiparallel vectors 56. The rate at which velocity changes with time is known as
is always ______. ________.
A. equal 1 A. acceleration
B. greater than 1 B. instantaneous speed
C. less than 1 C. average speed
D. equal to 0 D. instantaneous velocity

48. The vector product of any vector with itself is ______. 57. "The work done by the net force on a particle equals the
A. equal to 1 change in the particle's kinetic energy." This statement is
B. greater than 1 known as _________.
C. less than 1 A. Law of conservation of energy
D. equal to 0 B. Work-energy theorem
C. Law of conservation of work
49. What refers to physical quantities that are completely D. Total work theorem
specified by just a number and a unit or physical quantities
that have magnitudes only? 58. The ________ of a particle is equal to the total work that
A. Scalar quantities particle can do in the process of being brought to rest.
B. Vector product A. kinetic energy
C. Dot product B. potential energy
D. Vector quantities C. total energy
D. mechanical energy
50. What refers to physical quantities that have a magnitude
and a direction? 59. Work is defined as the product of:
A. Scalar quantities A. Force and displacement
B. Vector quantities B. Force and time
C. Dot product C. Displacement and time
D. Power and time A. 11.9
B. 12.5
60. What is defined as the time rate at which work is done? C. 13.2
A. impulse D. 14.6
B. Momentum
C. Power 69. What refers to an actual force that arises to oppose
D. Energy relative motion between contracting surfaces?
A. Action force
61. What is defined as any influence that can change the B. Reaction force
velocity of an object? C. Friction
A. Impulse D. Drag
B. Force
C. Energy 70. What refers to the force between two stationary surfaces
D. Work in contact that prevents motion between them?
A. kinetic friction
62. What is a measure of the inertia of an object? B. sliding friction
A. Density C. starting friction
B. Weight D. static friction
C. Mass
D. Force 71. What is the maximum value of the static friction?
A. Starting friction
63. What is the property of matter which is the reluctance to B. Sliding friction
change its state of rest or of uniform motion? C. Kinetic friction
A. Impulse D. Dynamic friction
B. Momentum
C. Inertia 72. What is TRUE between kinetic friction and static friction?
D. Equilibrium A. Kinetic friction is always to static friction
B. Kinetic friction is always less than static friction
64. "If no net force acts on it, an object at rest will remain at C. Kinetic friction is always greater than static friction
rest and an object in motion will remain in motion at D. Kinetic friction is equal to or greater than static friction
constant velocity". This statement is the _______.
A. first law of motion 73. What is another term for kinetic friction?
B. second law of motion A. Dynamic friction
C. third law of motion B. Starting friction
D. d'Alembert's principle C. Sliding friction
D. All of the above
65. "The net force acting on an object equals the product of
the mass and the acceleration of the object. The direction of 74. For the same materials in contact, what is TRUE between
the force is the same as that of the acceleration". This coefficient of static friction and coefficient of kinetic friction?
statement is the _______. A. Coefficient of static friction is always less than the
A. first law of motion coefficient of kinetic friction
B. second law of motion B. Coefficient of static friction is always equal to the
C. third law of motion coefficient of kinetic friction
D. d' Alembert's principle C. Coefficient of static friction is always greater than the
coefficient of kinetic friction.
66. "When an object exerts a force on another object, the D. Coefficient of static friction may be greater than or less
second object exerts on the first a force of the same than the coefficient of kinetic friction.
magnitude but in the opposite direction". This statement is
the _____. 75. Efficiency of a machine is the ratio of:
A. first law of motion A. power output to power input
B. second law of motion B. power input to power output
C. third law of motion C. total work done to total energy
D. d'Alembert's principle D. total energy to total power

67. What refers to the force with which the earth attracts an 76. What is the energy something possesses by virtue of its
object? motion?
A. Gravitational pull A. Kinetic energy
B. Mass B. Potential energy
C. Weight C. Rest energy
D. All of the above D. Mechanical energy

68. How many kilograms are there in 1 slug? 77. What is the energy something possesses by virtue of its
mass?
A. Kinetic energy 86. What is the coefficient of restitution for a perfectly
B. Potential energy inelastic collision?
C. Rest energy A. 0
D. Mechanical energy B. 1
C. Less than 1
78. What is the energy something possesses by virtue of its D. Greater than 1
position?
A. Kinetic energy 87. The coefficient of restitution always applies _______.
B. Potential energy A. to only one of the colliding objects
C. Rest energy B. to neither of the colliding objects
D. Mechanical energy C. jointly to the colliding objects
D. to the bigger colliding object
79. When the vector sum of the external forces acting on the
system of particles equals zero, the total linear momentum of 88. "When the vector sum of the external forces acting on a
the system __________. system of particles equals zero, the total linear momentum of
A. becomes zero the system remaining constant." This statement is known as:
B. maximizes A. Law of universal gravitation
C. changes abruptly B. Law of conservation of impulse
D. remains constant C. Law of conservation of momentum
D. Law of conservation of energy
80. What is conserved in an elastic collision?
A. Kinetic energy 89. What refers to the product of the force and the time
B. Potential energy during which a force acts?
C. Rest energy A. Impulse
D. Mechanical energy B. Momentum
C. Power
81. In elastic collision, kinetic energy is conserved. This D. Energy
statement is:
A. true 90. Momentum is the product of:
B. false A. mass and time
C. is either true or false, depending upon the colliding bodies B. velocity and mass
D. is either true or false, depending on the impact of two C. force and time
colliding bodies D. force and mass

82. When can we say that a collision is a completely inelastic
collision?
A. When the kinetic energy lost is minimum.
B. When the kinetic energy is conserved.
C. When the two colliding objects stick together after impact.
D. When the two colliding objects will separate after impact.
83. What will happen to the kinetic energy if it is a
completely inelastic collision?
A. It is conserved.
B. It is lost to maximum value.
C. It is gained from the loss of potential energy.
D. It is lost to minimum value.
84. Coefficient of restitution is the ratio of:
A. relative speed after collision to relative speed before
collision
B. relative speed before collision to relative speed after
collision
C. relative speed to absolute speed
D. absolute speed to relative speed
85. What is the coefficient of restitution for a perfectly elastic
collision?
A. 0
B. 1
C. Less than 1
D. Greater than 1
91. The coefficient of restitution always applies _________.
A. to only one of the colliding objects
B. to neither of the colliding
C. jointly to the colliding objects
D. to the bigger colliding object
92. What refers to the force perpendicular to the velocity of
an object moving along a curve path?
A. Centrifugal force
B. Centripetal force
C. Reverse-effective force
D. Gravitational force
93. The centripetal force is:
A. directed away from the center of the curvature of the path
B. directed toward the center of curvature of the path
C. tangent to the curvature of the path
D. either directed away or toward the center of curvature of
the path
94. What refers to the time needed by an object in uniform
circular motion to complete an orbit?
A. path time
B. orbit time
C. revolution
D. Period
95. The centripetal acceleration of a particle in uniform
motion is _______ to the radius of its path.
A. directly proportional
B. inversely proportional
C. equal
D. not related in any way

96. Gravitation occurs between all objects in the universe by

virtue of their ________.
A. mass
B. density
C. weight
D. Volume

97. "Every object in the universe attracts every other object

with a force directly proportional to the product of their
masses and inversely proportional to the square of the
distance separating them". This statement is known as:
A. Law of conservation of energy
B. Law of universal gravitation
C. Law of conservation of momentum
D. Law of conservation of impulse

98. The gravitational force of the earth on an object varies of

the ______ the distance of the object from the center of the
earth.
A. inversely as
B. inversely as the square of
C. directly as
D. directly as the square of

99. A rotating body has kinetic energy. This statement is

________.
A. sometimes true
B. sometimes false
C. always true
D. always false

100. What type of energy is usually transmitted by rotary

motion?

A. Kinetic energy
B. Potential energy
C. Mechanical energy
D. Rest energy
101. Angular momentum is the product of ________. D. wedge
110. If a cone is balanced on its apex, it illustrates what type
A. moment of inertia and linear speed of equilibrium?
B. moment of area and angular speed
C. moment of inertia and angular speed A. stable equilibrium
D. moment of area and angular speed B. neutral equilibrium
102. “When the sum of the external torques acting on a C. unstable equilibrium
system of particles is zero, the total angular momentum of D. translational equilibrium
the system remains constant “. This statement is known as: 111. When the net torque acting on an object is zero, the
object is in _______.
A. Conservation of energy
B. Conservation of impulse A. unstable equilibrium
C. Conservation of linear momentum B. stable equilibrium
D. Conservation of angular momentum C. rotational equilibrium
103. What particles will experience tangential acceleration? D. translational equilibrium
112. Which of the following is NOT a basic machine?
A. Those particles whose angular speed changes
B. Those particles whose angular speed remains constant A. lever
C. All particles B. incline plane
D. Those particles whose angular speed is zero. C. hydraulic press
104. The _________ of a body about a given axis is the D. wedge
rotational analog of mass of the body is distributed about the 113. Where is the center of gravity of an object located?
axis.
A. It is always inside the object.
A. moment of mass B. It is always outside the object.
B. moment of area C. It is always at its geometric center.
C. moment of inertia D. It may sometimes be inside the object and sometimes
D. torque outside the object.
105. The _______ of a force about a particular axis is the 114. What is defined as the mass per unit volume?
product of the magnitude of the force and the perpendicular
distance from the line of action of the force to the axis. A. Density
B. Weight density
A. inertia C. Relative density
B. mass moment D. Specific density
C. torque 115. What is defined as the weight per unit volume?
D. moment
106. When the forces that act on an object have a vector sum A. Density
of zero, the object is said to be in _______. B. Weight density
C. Relative density
A. unstable equilibrium D. Specific density
B. stable equilibrium 116. All are values of the density of water except one. Which
C. rotational equilibrium one?
D. translational equilibrium
107. Which of the following is an example of a neutral A. 1000 kg/m3
equilibrium? B. 62.4 lb/ft3
C. 10 g/cm3
A. A cone balanced on its apex. D. 9.81 kN/m3
B. A cone balanced on its base. 117. The __________ of a substance is its density relative to
C. A cone on its side. that of water?
D. A cone balanced on the circumference of its base.
108. Which of the following is an example of a stable A. density
equilibrium? B. weight density
C. viscosity
A. A cone balanced on its apex. D. specific gravity
B. A cone balanced on its base. 118. What is another term for specific gravity?
C. A cone on its side.
D. A cone balanced on the circumference of its base. A. Density
109. A device that transmits force or torque is called B. Weight density
_______. C. Relative density
D. Viscosity
A. mechanical tool 119. What is the average pressure of the earth’s atmosphere
B. machine at sea level?
C. axle
A. 1.042 bar C. Simple harmonic motion
B. 1.021 bar D. Damped harmonic oscillation
C. 1.013 bar 128. In a damped harmonic oscillator, what reduces the
D. 1.037 bar amplitude of the vibrations?
120. “An external pressure exerted on a fluid is transmitted
uniformly throughout the volume of the fluid”. This A. Force
statement is known as ________. B. Period
C. Frequency
A. Bernoulli’s energy theorem D. Friction
B. Pascal’s principle 129. The _________ of a pivotal object is that point at which
C. Archimedes principle it can be struck without producing a reaction force on its
D. Torricelli’s theorem pivot.
121. The hydraulic press is an instrument which uses one of
the following theorems. Which one? A. center of gravity
B. center of oscillation
A. Bernoulli’s energy theorem C. axis of oscillation
B. Pascal’s principle D. center of mass
C. Archimedes principle 130. What is a longitudinal wave phenomenon that results in
D. Reynold’s principle periodic pressure variations?
122. The hydrometer is an instrument which uses one of the
following theorems. Which one? A. Sound
B. Resonance
A. Bernoulli’s energy theorem C. Wave
B. Pascal’s principle D. Beat
C. Archimedes principle 131. What occurs when periodic impulses are applied to a
D. Reynold’s principle system and frequency equal to one of its natural frequencies
123. The hydrometer is an instrument used to measure of oscillation?
__________.
A. Beat
A. pressure of a liquid B. Resonance
B. density of a liquid C. Doppler effect
C. Reynold’s number D. Shock wave
D. viscosity of liquid 132. What refers to a shell of high pressure produced by the
124. The maximum displacement of an object undergoing motion of an object whose speed exceeds that of sound?
harmonic motion on either side of its equilibrium position is
called the _________ of the motion. A. Shock wave
B. Mach wave
A. frequency C. Beat wave
B. oscillation D. Sonic wave
C. period 133. What refers to the change in frequency of a wave when
D. amplitude there is relative motion between its source and an observer?
125. What quantity is often used in describing harmonic
motion? A. Superposition principle
B. Shock effect
A. Amplitude C. Doppler effect
B. Frequency D. Wave motion
C. Period 134. What occur when the individual particles of a medium
D. Oscillation vibrate back and forth in the direction in which the waves
126. The period of the simple harmonic motion is _______ its travel?
amplitude.
A. Longitudinal waves
A. directly proportional to B. Transverse waves
B. inversely proportional to C. Wave motions
C. equal to D. Shock waves
D. independent of 135. Infrasound refers to sounds whose frequencies are
127. What refers to an oscillatory motion that occurs below _________.
whenever a restoring force acts on a body in the opposite
direction to its displacement from its equilibrium position, A. 20 Hz
with the magnitude of the restoring force proportional to the B. 30 Hz
magnitude of the displacement? C. 40 Hz
D. 50 Hz
A. Damped harmonic motion 136. Ultrasound refers to sounds whose frequencies are
B. Pendulum above __________.
 145. The ratio of a speed of an object and the speed of sound
A. 10,000 Hz is called the _________.
B. 20,000 Hz
C. 30,000 Hz A. Wave factor
D. 40,000 Hz B. Supersonic number
137. What occur when the individual particles of a medium C. Sonic number
vibrate from side to side perpendicular to the direction in D. Mach number
which the waves travel? 146. “The net electric charge in an isolated system remains
constant”. This statement is known as ________.
A. Longitudinal waves
B. Transverse waves A. Principle of conservation of attraction
C. Wave motions B. Principle of conservation of charge
D. Shock waves C. Coulomb’s law
138. “When two or more waves of the same mature travel D. Principle of superconductivity
just a given point at the same time, the amplitude at the 147. “The force one charge exerts on another is directly
point is the sum of the amplitude of the individual waves”. proportional to the magnitudes of the charges and inversely
This statement is known as ________. proportional to the square of the distance between them”.
This statement is known as ________.
A. Mach principle
B. Doppler principle A. Coulomb’s law
C. Principle of superposition B. Kirchhoff’s law
D. Wave motion principle C. Lenz’s law
139. What occurs when the resulting composite wave has D. Faraday’s law
amplitude greater than that of either of the original waves? 148. What refers to a region of space at every point of which
an appropriate test object would experience a force?
A. Local interference
B. Ordinary interference A. Energy field
C. Constructive interference B. Electric field
D. Destructive interference C. magnetic field
140. What occurs when the resulting composite wave has D. Force field
amplitude less than that of either of the original waves? 149. The _________ of an electric field is the electric
potential energy per unit volume associated with it.
A. Local interference
B. Ordinary interference A. capacitance
C. Constructive interference B. polar energy
D. Destructive interference C. energy density
141. The rate at which a wave of any kind carries energy per D. dielectric distance
unit cross-sectional area is called ________. 150. What is the ratio between the charge on either plates of
a capacitor and the potential difference between the plates?
A. beats
B. frequency A. Resistance
C. gain B. Inductance
D. intensity C. Capacitance
142. At what intensity will sound wave starts to damage the D. Potential difference
ear of humans.
151. What refers to the measure of how effective a material
A. 10 W/m2 is in reducing an electric field set up across a sample of it?
B. 0.1 W/m2
C. 1 W/m2 A. Electronegativity
D. 0.01 W/m2 B. Potential difference
143. For a 1kHz sound wave to be audible, it must have a C. Dielectric constant
minimum intensity of ______ W/m2? D. Energy density
152. The potential difference across a battery, a generator or
A. 10^-10 other source of electric energy when it is not connected to
B. 10^-11 any external circuit is called its ________.
C. 10^-12
D. 10^-13 A. electromechanical force
144. How many decibels should a sound to be barely audible? B. electrostatic force
C. electromotive force
A. 0 D. internal resistance
B. 1 153. What is defined as the luminous flux per unit area?
C. 0.1
D. 1.5 A. Luminous intensity
B. Luminous efficiency A. Index of refection
C. Illumination B. Total internal reflection
D. Lumen C. Index of dispersion
154. What refers to the brightness of a light source? D. Index of refraction
163. “The ratio of the sines of the angles of incidence and
A. Luminous intensity refraction is equal to the ratio of the speeds of light in the
B. Illumination two media”. This statement is known as ________.
C. Luminous flux
D. Luminous efficiency A. Huygen’s principle
155. What is the approximate luminous intensity of a candle? B. Snell’s law
C. Maxwell’s hypothesis
A. 1 candela D. Doppler’s effect
B. 1 flux 164. Light ray that passes at an angle from one medium to
C. 1 lumen another is deflected at the surface between the two media.
D. All of the above What is this phenomenon called?
156. What unit is defined in terms of the light emitted by a
small pool of platinum at its melting point? A. Dispersion
B. Reflection
A. Footcandle C. Refraction
B. Candela D. Incidence
C. Lux 165. “Every point on the wavefront can be considered as a
D. Lumen source of secondary wavelets that spread out in all directions
157. What refers to the total amount of visible light given off with the wave speed of the medium. The wavefront at any
by a light source? time is the envelope of these wavelets”. This statement is
known as ________.
A. Luminous intensity
B. Luminous flux A. Huygen’s principle
C. Luminous efficiency B. Snell’s law
D. Illumination C. Maxwell’s hypothesis
158. Lumen is defined as the luminous flux that falls on each D. Doppler’s effect
square meter of a sphere 1 meter in radius at whose center is 166. What is an imaginary surface the joins points where all
a ________ light source that radiates equally well in all the waves from a source are in the same phase of oscillation?
directions.
A. Gamma ray
A. 0.1 candela B. Wavefront
B. 1.0 candela C. Electromagnetic wave
C. 10 candela D. Microwave
D. 100 candela 167. What refers to the effect when a beam containing more
159. What is the total luminous flux radiated by a 1 candela than one frequency is split into a corresponding number of
source? different beams when it is refracted?

A. 2π lm A. Flux
B. 4π lm B. Refraction
C. 8π lm C. Reflection
D. π lm D. Dispersion
160. What refers to the luminous flux emitted by a light
source per watt of power input? 168. What refers to the band of colors that emerges from the
prism?
A. Luminous factor
B. Luminous efficiency A. Spectrum
C. Luminous intensity B. Luminance
D. Illumination C. Facet
161. What coating material is used in the inside of the D. Reflection
fluorescent lamp which emits visible light when it is excited 169. What is the index of refraction of air?
by an ultraviolet radiation?
A. 1.3
A. Mercury B. 1.03
B. Inert gas C. 1.003
C. Phosphor D. 1.0003
D. Argon 170. What is the index of refraction of water?
162. What refers to the ratio between the speed of light in
free space and its speed in a particular medium? A. 1.33
B. 1.63
C. 1.43 180. What lens is commonly used to correct
D. 1.53 nearsightedness?
171. What type of lens deviates parallel light outward as
though it originated at a single virtual focal point? A. Magnifying lens
B. Convergent lens
A. Magnifying lens C. Divergent lens
B. Convergent lens D. Microscopic lens
C. Divergent lens 181. What lens is commonly used to correct farsightedness?
D. Microscopic lens
172. What type of lens bring parallel light to a single real A. Magnifying lens
focal point? B. Convergent lens
C. Divergent lens
A. Magnifying lens D. Microscopic lens
B. Convergent lens 182. What is a defect of vision caused by the cornea having
C. Divergent lens different curvatures in different planes?
D. Microscopic lens
173. Which one best describes the meniscus lens? A. Astigmatism
B. Myopia
A. It has only concave surfaces. C. Hyperopia
B. It has only convex surfaces. D. Presbyopia
C. it has no concave surface and no convex surface. 183. In telescopes, what refers to the ratio between the
D. It has one concave surface and one convex surface angles subtended at the eye by the image and the angle
174. What is the distance from a lens to its focal point called? subtended at the eye by the object seen directly?

A. Focal index A. Magnifying power

B. Focal factor B. Linear magnification
C. Focal length C. Angular magnification
D. All of the above D. Object magnification
175. In optical system, what refers to the ratio of the image 184. What type of mirror that curves inward its center and
height to the object height? converges parallel light to a single real focal point?

A. Linear magnification A. Convex mirror

B. Object magnification B. Concave mirror
C. Image magnification C. Spherical mirror
D. Height magnification D. Chromatic mirror
176. If the linear magnification of an optical system is less 185. What type of mirror that curves outward toward its
than one, it means that: center and diverges parallel light as though the reflected light
came from a single virtual focal point behind the mirror?
A. the image and the object are of the same size
B. the image is larger than the object A. Convex mirror
C. the image is smaller than the object B. Concave mirror
D. the image may be larger or smaller than the object C. Spherical mirror
177. A camera usually uses what type of lens to form an D. Chromatic mirror
image on a light-sensitive photographic film? 186. What refers to an artificially made polarizing material
that transmits light with only a single plane of polarization?
A. Magnifying lens
B. Convergent lens A. Quartz
C. Divergent lens B. Fiber optic
D. Microscopic lens C. Polaroid
178. One of the common defects of vision is _______ D. Tounnaline
commonly known as nearsightedness. 187. In optical system, what refers to its ability to produce
separate images of nearby objects?
A. hyporopia
B. hyperopia A. Coherent power
C. myopia B. Brewster’s power
D. minorpia C. Polarization power
179. One of the common defects of vision is ______ D. Resolving power
commonly known as farsightedness.
188. The resolving power of an equal system is _________
A. hyporopia the objective lens of the optical system?
B. hyperopia
C. myopia A. directly proportional
D. minorpia B. inversely proportional
C. equal A. spin
D. not related to B. shell
189. What refers to the ability of waves to bend around the C. state
edges of obstacles in their paths? D. quantum number
198. What is the distance from a lens to its focal point called?
A. Coherence
B. Reflection A. Focal index
C. Refraction B. Focal factor
D. Diffraction C. Focal length
190. What refers to a series of parallel slits that produces a D. All of the above
spectrum through the interference of light that is diffracted? 199. What does LASER stands for?

A. Diffraction grating A. Light amplification by spectral emission of radiation

B. Polarization B. Light amplification by state emission of radiation
C. Coherent waves C. Light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation
D. Reflection D. Light amplification by saturated emission of radiation
191. The emission of electrons from a metal surface when 200. A free falling object is acted upon by which of the
light shines on it is called _______. following?

A. Absorption effect A. Weight of the body

B. Spectrum emission B. Air resistance and gravitational pull
C. Quantum effect C. Gravitational pull
D. Photoelectric effect D. Air resistance

192. What are high-frequency electromagnetic waves

emitted when fast electrons impinge on matter?

A. Beta rays
B. Alpha rays
C. X-rays
D. De Broglie waves
193. What refers to the increase in the measured mass of an
object when it is moving relative to an observer?

A. Exclusion principle
B. Quantum theory of mass
C. State of mass
D. Relativity of mass

194. What device is used for producing a narrow,

monochromatic, coherent beam of light?

A. Spectral device
B. Prism
C. Fiber optic
D. Laser
195. What consists of various wavelengths of light emitted by
an excited substance?

A. Excited spectrum
B. Light spectrum
C. Absorption spectrum
D. Emission spectrum
196. What consists of various wavelengths of light absorbed
by a substance when white light is passed through it?

A. Excited spectrum
B. Light spectrum
C. Absorption spectrum
D. Emission spectrum
197. Every electron has a certain amount of angular
momentum called its _________.
201. If the forces acting on a falling body balance one A. 100 dB
another, the body continues to fall at a constant velocity. B. 110 dB
What is thus constant velocity called? C. 120 dB
D. 130 dB
A. Instantaneous velocity 211. What is the intensity in W/m2 of the threshold of pain?
B. Free-falling body
C. Gravitational velocity A. 1
D. Terminal velocity B. 10
202. The first law of motion is also known as ___________. C. 0.1
D. 0.01
A. Law of acceleration 212. What is the intensity of the threshold of hearing in
B. Law of inertia W/m2?
C. Law of interaction
D. Law of momentum A. 10^-12
203. The second law of motion is also known as _________. B. 10^-10
C. 10^-8
A. Law of acceleration D. 10^-6
B. Law of inertia 213. What refers to a measure of the energy of sound?
C. Law of interaction
D. Law of momentum A. Intensity
204. The third law of motion is also known as __________. B. Loudness
C. Pitch
A. Law of acceleration D. Sone
B. Law of inertia 214. What refers to the sensation in the ear which depends
C. Law of interaction on the energy in the sound wave?
D. Law of momentum
205. Air exerts force that is opposite to the car’s motion. A. Pitch
What is this force called? B. Intensity
C. Loudness
A. Reverse effective force D. Timbre
B. Terminal force 215. How can loudness of sound be increased?
C. Drag force
D. Aerodynamic force A. By increasing the energy of sound
206. What instrument is used to measure blood pressure of B. By preventing sound waves to spread in different
human beings? directions.
C. By collecting and focusing sound waves at the receiving
A. Stropomanometer end.
B. Pumpmanometer D. All of the choices.
C. Electromanometer 216. Which of the following is dependent upon the frequency
D. Sphygmomanometer of sound vibrations?
207. What do light, radiowaves, microwaves and X-rays have
in common? A. Timbre
B. Loudness
A. These waves were predicted by only one person, James C. Intensity
Maxwell. D. Pitch
B. These do not need a medium to travel in. 217. The “Doppler effect” is named after which scientist?
C. These waves are all mechanical waves.
D. These waves are all serendipitous discoveries. A. Christopher Jacques Doppler
208. Who predicted the existence of electromagnetic waves B. Christian Jacques Doppler
in 1865? C. Christopher Jason Doppler
D. Christian Johann Doppler
A. Roentgen 218. When a person tells you that the pitch of your voice is
B. Maxwell high, he is referring to _________.
C. Tesla
D. Doppler A. the intensity of your voice
209. What is the velocity of light in meters per second? B. the number of sound waves you are sending out per
second
A. 3 x 10^6 C. the loudness of your voice
B. 3 x 10^9 D. the equality of your voice
C. 3 x 10^7 219. At what intensity level will a noise be considered
D. 3 x 10^8 pollutant in the environment?
210. What is the sound level of the threshold of pain?
A. Above 50 dB
B. Above 100 dB B. Red
C. Above 120 dB C. Yellow
D. Above 150 dB D. Green
220. The velocity of sound in air increases by how many m/s 229. What color has the shortest wavelength?
for every 1ºC increase in temperature?
A. Indigo
A. 0.2 B. Violet
B. 0.4 C. Blue
C. 0.6 D. Green
D. 0.8 230. What is the wavelength band of orange?
221. Why is sound wave travel faster in water than in air?
A. 550 nm – 600 nm
A. Because water has greater density than air. B. 600 nm – 650 nm
B. Because water has greater bulk modulus than air. C. 650 nm – 700 nm
C. Because water has more in terms of number of molecules D. 500 nm – 550 nm
than air. 231. What is the wavelength band in nanometer of visible
D. Because water has more in volume than air. light?
222. What will happen to the wavelength if the velocity and
frequency of a wave are both reduced to one-half? A. 350 – 700
B. 350 – 800
A. It will double. C. 300 – 700
B. It will reduce in half. D. 300 – 800
C. It will quadruple. 232. What terms is used to describe the angular opening of a
D. It will remain the same. sphere that encloses the mirror?

223. Which of the following statements is TRUE? A. Angle of curvature

B. Focal point
A. A high-frequency sound has high pitch. C. Aperture
B. A high-frequency sound has low pitch. D. Vertex
C. A high-frequency sound has low energy. 233. What makes the sun visible even before it is in the line
D. A high-frequency sound has low pitch and low energy. with the horizon?
224. What part of the human ear where sound energy is
converted into electrical energy? A. Diffraction
B. Reflection
A. Ear drum C. Refraction
B. Cochlea D. Diffusion
C. Tympanum 234. When the white light is passed through a prism, the
D. Ear canal different lights are bent to varying degrees and are dispersed
225. In which medium do sound waves travel the faster? into different colors. Which of these colors bends the most?

A. Liquids A. Violet
B. Solids B. Red
C. Gases C. Orange
D. Vacuum D. Green
226. Who provide evidence that light and electromagnetic 235. When the white light is passed through a prism, the
waves have the same nature and that they travel at the same different lights are bent to varying degrees and are dispersed
speed and exhibit the same properties such as refraction, into different colors. Which of these colors bends the least?
reflection and interference?
A. Violet
A. Townes B. Red
B. Maxwell C. Orange
C. Hertz D. Green
D. Huygens 236. The formation of rainbow in the sky is due to _______.
227. Which of the following has the smallest wavelength
band? A. diffraction
B. reflection
A. Blue C. refraction
B. Indigo D. diffusion
C. Green 237. What refers to the defect in lenses which causes
D. Yellow unequal refraction of the different colors?
228. What color has the longest wavelength?
A. Chromatic diffraction
A. Orange B. Chromatic polarization
C. Chromatic aberration C. Alpha ray
D. Chromatic dispersion D. X-ray
238. What property of a light wave is determined by its 247. What refers to the part of the shadow from which all
wavelength? light is excluded?

A. Color A. Footprint
B. Shape B. Lumbra
C. Size C. Umbra
D. Density D. Sunspot
239. What is diffraction? 248. The range of the projectile is:

A. It is the scattering of white light behind an obstruction.
B. It is the separation of white light into its component colors.
C. It is the merging of component colors into white light.
D. It is the absorption of white light in the atmosphere.
240. What is dispersion?
A. directly proportional to the gravitational acceleration
B. directly proportional to the square of the velocity
C. directly proportional to the velocity
D. inversely proportional to the velocity
249. What instrument is used to measure humidity of air?

A. It is the scattering of white light behind an obstruction. A. Hydrometer

B. It is the separation of white light into its component colors. B. Hygrometer
C. It is the merging of component colors into white light. C. Lactometer
D. It is the absorption of white light in the atmosphere D. Radiometer
241. What are primary colors? 250. It explains combustion as a result of loss of a substance.

A. Blue, Red and White a. Phlogiston

B. Light colors b. Roasting
C. Colors which when combined produce white light c. Reduction
D. Blue, Red and Green d. Fission
242. What device used to measure atmospheric pressure and
is consists of a glass tube sealed at one end filled with 251. The volume of a definite quantity of dry gas is inversely
mercury and a slide with a vernier scale? proportional to the pressure provided the temperature
remains constant.
A. Bourdon gage
B. Aneroid barometer a. Charles’ Law
C. Mercury barometer b. Boyle’s Law
D. Manometer c. Gay-Lussac’s Law
243. A wave that needs a material medium through which it d. Dalton’s Law
can travel as it transfers energy? 252. It refers to matter that do not have definite form or
structure.
A. Electromagnetic wave
B. Radiowave a. Amorphous
C. Microwave b. Morphous
D. Mechanical wave c. Transient
244. What refers to the band of colors produced when d. Extrinsic
sunlight passes through a prism? 253. Three grams of sulphur dissolved in 200 g of
naphthalene C10H8, was found decreasing the freezing point
A. Light spectrum of the solvent to 0.72 ⁰C. Find the molecular weight of the
B. Solar spectrum solute. (Kf C10H8 = 6.9 ⁰C/molar)
C. White spectrum
D. Visible spectrum a. 351.16 g/mole
245. What refers to the property of some media to transmit b. 115.32 g/mole
light wave in a diffused matter to make objects behind them c. 135.61 g/mole
undistinguishable? d. 151.23 g/mole
254. Substance having a pH level less than 7
A. Lucidity
B. Limpidity a. acid
C. Transparent b. base
D. Translucent c. salt
246. What refers to the invisible electromagnetic waves d. hydrate
shorter than the visible violet wave but longer than the 255. It is the enthalpy change associated with the
Roentgen ray? condensation of gaseous positive and negative ion into a
crystal.
A. Beta ray
B. Ultraviolet light a Raoult’s Law
b. Lattice Energy C. luminous intensity
c. Enthalpy Of Solution D. illumination
d. Partition Coefficient 265. Brightness is the same as __________.
256. It is a product of the weathering of complex silicates,
particularly of feldspars which are abundant minerals. A. luminous emittance
B. luminous efficiency
a. clay C. luminous intensity
b. chalk D. illumination
c. pyrite 266. What is a monochromatic light?
d.diamond
257. Electrons occupy all the orbitals of a given subshell A. Light with only one color
singly before pairing begins. These unpaired electrons have B. Light with only one wavelength
parallel spins. This is known as: C. Light with only one color and one wavelength
D. Light with many colors
a. Building Up Principle 267. What is a three-dimensional image of an object
b. Aufbau Principle illuminated by a broad band of coherent light?
c. Hund’s rule
d.David’s rule A. Hologram
258. This law states that at constant temperature the volume B. Polygram
of a sample of gas varies inversely with the pressure. C. Opaque image
D. Translucent image
a. Avogadro’s Law 268. In opaque material,
b. Boyle’s Law
c. Charle’s Law A. light is able to pass through
d. Gay-Lussac’s Law B. the reflected energy is absorbed within a very thin layer
259. It is the scattering of light by colloidal particles and converted to heat
C. light is partially absorbed
a. Mott Scaterring D. the refracted energy is absorbed within a thick layer and
b. Tyndall Effect converted to heat
c. Rayleigh Scattering 269. In translucent material,
d. Wolf Effect
260. Consider H3AsO3, Arsenic acid A. light is able to pass through
(H=1.01,As=74.9,O=16.0).How many mole is 1kg of H3AsO3? B. the refracted energy is absorbed within a very thin layer
and converted to heat
a. 7.94 moles C. light is partially absorbed
b. 6.94 moles D. the reflected energy is absorbed within a thick layer and
c. 5.94 moles converted to heat
d. 8.94 moles 270. In transparent material,
261. It is customary to indicate accuracy by using a certain
numbers of figures or digits. A. light is able to pass through
B. the refracted energy is absorbed within a very thin layer
a. atomic mass unit and converted to heat
b. International system C. light is partially absorbed
c. significant figures D. the refracted energy is absorbed within a thick layer and
d. supplementary units converted to heat
262. It is required for organic compounds. 271. The ratio of the speeds of light in two different media is
known as ________.
a. hydrogen
b. oxygen A. index of refraction
c. boron B. index of diffraction
d. carbon C. relative index of refraction
263. At what temperature reading do the Celsius scale and D. index of diffusion
the Fahrenheit scale have the same temperature? 272. What occurs when two waves combine so that one
subtracts from the other?
A. – 40
B. – 30 A. Interference
C. – 20 B. Superposition
D. – 25 C. Reinforcement
264. The _______ of the source is the luminous flux per unit D. Polarization
area of the source. 273. What type of waves is produced in the stem when
tuning fork?
A. luminous emittance
B. luminous efficiency A. Transverse wave
B. Longitudinal wave
C. Neither transverse wave nor longitudinal wave called ________.
D. Both transverse wave and longitudinal wave
274. The moment of inertia of an object is dependent on A. visible spectrum
which of the following? B. continuous spectrum
C. emission spectrum
A. The object’s size and shape D. discontinuous spectrum
B. The object’s mass 283. What is the type of force which binds the protons and
C. The location of the axis of rotation neutrons together in the nucleus of an atom?
D. All of the above
A. Drag force
275. Which of the following statements about center of B. Bind force
gravity is TRUE? C. Exchange force
D. Intact force
A. It may be outside the object 284. The “f” number of the lens is the ration of the:
B. It is always at its geometrical center
C. It is always in the interior of the object A. focal length of the lens to the effective aperture
D. It is sometimes arbitrary B. effective aperture to the focal length of the lens
276. A diatomic scale is a musical scale build up of how many C. magnifying power of lens to effective aperture
major chords? D. effective aperture to magnifying power of the lens
285. What refers to the length of time during which half of a
A. 2 given number of radioactive nuclei will disintegrate?
B. 3
C. 4 A. active life
D. 5 B. half cycle
277. A chromatic scale is a diatomic scale with how many C. half life
added half tones? D. half period
286. What refers to the lowest pitch produced by a musical
A. 2 tone source?
B. 3
C. 4 A. Treble
D. 5 B. Bass
278. What refers to two colors which combine to form white C. Octave
light? D. Fundamental
287. What is an electromagnetic radiation of very short
A. Complementary colors wavelength emitted from the nucleus of a radioactive atom?
B. Secondary colors
C. Primary colors A. Beta ray
D. Elementary colors B. Alpha ray
279. A spectrum consisting of a wide range of unseparated C. Gamma ray
wavelength is called ________. D. X-ray
288. What is an instrumental used to detect and measure
A. visible spectrum radioactivity?
B. continuous spectrum
C. emission spectrum A. Edison counter
D. discontinuous spectrum B. Radioactive counter
280. What refers to the emission of electrons from a heated C. Fraunhofer counter
metal in a vacuum? D. Geiger effect
289. What refers to the fundamentals and the tones whose
A. Geiger effect frequencies are whole number multiples of the
B. Edison effect fundamentals?
C. Eddy current
D. Fraunhofer effect A. Harmony
281. The six colors of which sunlight is composed are called B. Beats
__________. C. Treble and bass
D. Harmonics
A. secondary colors 290. A spectrum consisting of monochromatic slit images
B. primary colors having wavelengths characteristic of the atoms parent is
C. complementary colors called __________.
D. elementary colors
A. line spectrum
282. A spectrum formed by the dispersion of light from an B. continuous spectrum
incandescent solid, liquid and gas is C. slit spectrum
D. image spectrum B. 10
291. What is an instrument used to determine the mass of C. 11
atomic particles? D. 1
300. What is unifying theory applicable to the divergent
A. Mass indicator phenomena of light which assumes that the transfer of
B. Mass spectrograph energy between light and matter occurs only in discrete
C. Mass counter quantities proportional to the frequency of the energy
D. Mass technograph transferred?
292. What is a nucleon?
A. Quantum theory
A. A proton in the nucleus of an atom. B. Radioactive theory
B. An electron in the nucleus of an atom. C. Nuclear energy
C. A neutron in the nucleus of an atom. D. Quark energy
D. A proton or a neutron of an atom.
293. What is a glass bottle used to determine the specific
gravity of liquids?

A. Beaker
B. Flask
C. Pycnometer
D. Graduated cylinder
294. What is an instrument used to determine the angle of
rotation of the plane of polarized light?

A. Polariscope
B. Polarimeter
C. Polargraph
D. Polagraph
295. What refers to the property of sound waves which
depends on the number of harmonics present and on their
prominence?

A. Pitch
B. Quality
C. Harmonic
D. Fundamental
296. What refers to the failure of one set of color receptors in
the eye to be stimulated?

A. Retinal failure
B. Retinal fatigue
C. Pupil imperfection
D. Astigmatism
297. The theory that the retina of the eye is provided with
three sets of receptors, each of which is sensitive to one of
the three primary colors is known as ___________.

A. True color vision theory

B. Young – Helmholtz color vision theory
C. Primary vision theory
D. Young – Huygen primary vision theory
298. What is a probable explanation for observe phenomena
which is supported by abundant data?

A. Theory
B. Hypothesis
C. Axiom
D. Conclusion
299. A tempered scale is a musical scale with _______ equal
frequency ratio intervals between the successive notes of an
octave.

A. 9
301. The wavelength of a source wave in a certain material as 309. A train blowing its whistle at 750 Hz approaches a
measured is 18 cm. The frequency of the wave is 1900 Hz. station at the rate of 35mph. What frequency is heard by a
Compute the speed of sound wave? man standing at the station considering the velocity of sound
in air 1100 ft/s?
A. 342 m/s
B. 400 m/s A. 739.7 Hz
C. 542 m/s B. 857.4 Hz
D. 300 m/s C. 716.4 Hz
302. A horizontal cord 5 m long has a mass of 2.5 grams. D. 786.7 Hz
What must be the tension in the cord if the wavelength of a 310. Two cars A and B are traveling toward each other at
120 Hz wave on it is to be 50 cm? speeds of 45km/hr and 70 km/hr respectively. If A blowing its
horn, what is the relative pitch heard by a passenger in B,
A. 1.50 N considering that the velocity of sound is 344 m/s
B. 1.80 N
C. 2.50 N A. 1.043
D. 4.30 N B. 1.021
303. A 3-m string is driven by a 240 Hz vibrator at its end. C. 1.096
Determine the speed of transverse waves on the string if it D. 1.078
resonates four segments? 311. An explosion occurs at a distance of 5 km from the
observer. How long after the explosion does a person hear if
A. 340 m/s the temperature is 18°C? Note: the speed of sound at STP
B. 360 m/s (standard temperature and pressure) is 332 m/s and changes
C. 430 m/s by 0.6 m/s for every 1 °C change in temperature.
D. 420 m/s
304. A guitar string 30 cm long resonates in its fundamental A. 14.58 s
to a frequency of 250 Hz. What is the tension in the string if B. 12.45 s
80 cm of the string “weighs” 0.80 grams? C. 11.87 s
D. 17.54 s
A. 20 N 312. What is the speed of sound in neon gas at temperature
B. 30 N of 25°C considering that the molecular mass if this gas is
C. 10 N 20.18 kg/mol? Neon is monoatomic. Use k = 1.67
D. 40 N
305. A piano string with a length of 1.17 m and a mass of 21.0 A. 543.7 m/s
g in under tension of 6.4 x 103 N, what is the fundamental B. 478.6 m/s
frequency? C. 321.7 m/s
D. 447.5 m/s
A. 225 Hz 313. What is the wavelength of yellow light whose frequency
B. 187 Hz is 5 x 1014 Hz?
C. 255 Hz
D. 290 Hz A. 800 mm
306. A rope 4 ft long weighs 0.7 lb. A blow on the rope B. 200 mm
produces a transverse wave. Determine the velocity of the C. 600 mm
wave considering that the tension is 40 lb. D. 700 mm
314. What is the angle of refraction of light as a beam of
A. 75.8 ft/s parallel light enters a block of ice at angle of incidence of 30°?
B. 95.7 ft/s The index of refraction of ice is 1.31 and that of air is 1.0.
C. 78.5 ft/s
D. 85.8 ft/s A. 45°
307. What is the relative intensity level of sound in decibels it B. 30°
its intensity is 3 x 10-7 W/cm2? C. 22°
D. 26°
A. 94.8 315. A light ray is incident at an angle of 45° on one side of a
B. 78.7 glass plate of index of refraction 1.6. Find the angle at which
C. 80.5 the ray emerges from the other side of the plate.
D. 75.4
308. A wave has pressure amplitude of 5 dynes/cm^2 and a
velocity of 35.7 m/s, what is the absolute intensity A. 26°
considering that 0.001293gm/cm? B. 20°
C. 22°
A. 1.27 x 10^-8 W/cm2 D. 28°
B. 1.47 x 10^-8 W/cm2 316. It was found out that the speed of light in water is 75%
C. 3.27 x 10^-8 W/cm2 of its speed in vacuum. What is the index of refraction of
D. 2.71 x 10^-8 W/cm2 water?
 324. In what positions will a converging lens of focal length
A. 1.46 10 cm from an image of luminous object on a screen located
B. 1.33 50 cm from the object?
C. 1.26
D. 1.67 A. 11.52 cm and 38.48 cm from the object
317. A glass plate is 0.6 cm thick and has a refractive index of B. 10 cm and 40 cm from the object
1.55. Compute how long will it take for a pulse of light to pass C. 13.82 cm and 36.18 cm from the object
through the plate? D. 12.56 cm and 37.44 cm from the object
325. A lens has a convex surface of radius 17 cm and a
A. 4.41 x 10-12 s concave surface of radius 38 cm and is made of glass of
B. 3.11 x 10-11 s refractive index 1.55. Calculate the focal length of the lens
C. 1.34 x 10-12 s and classify the type of lens whether diverging or
D. 2.34 x 10-11 s converging?
318. A light passes from glass to water. If the index of
refraction for glass is 1.54 and for water is 1.33, compute the A. 55.93 cm converging lens
critical angle for this light to pass the glass. B. 57.45 cm diverging lens
C. 55.93 cm diverging lens
A. 59.7° D. 57.45 cm converging lens
B. 45.8° 326. A double convex lens has faces of radii 16 and 18 cm.
C. 67.4° When an object is 20 cm from the lens, a real image is
D. 50.9° formed 30 cm from the lens. What is the focal length of the
319. A light source emits a total luminous flux of 1000 lumens lens?
and distributed uniformly over 25% of a sphere. What is the
luminous intensity at 2.5-meter distance? A. 11 cm
B. 10 cm
A. 413 cd C. 12 cm
B. 243 cd D. 14 cm
C. 134 cd 327. A double convex lens has faces of radii 22 and 24 cm.
D. 318 cd When an object is 30 cm from the lens, a real image is
320. A light bulb emits a total luminous flux of 1700 lumens, formed 45 cm from the lens. Compute the refractive index of
distributed uniformly over a hemisphere. What is the the lens material
illuminance at a distance of 2 meters?
A. 1.64
A. 67.65 lm/m2 B. 1.32
B. 35.70 lm/m2 C. 1.21
C. 59.87 lm/m2 D. 1.76
D. 23.56 lm/m2 328. A 50 watt incandescent lamp has a mean spherical
321. A light bulb is used to light a bunker 10 ft below. A chair luminous intensity of 66.5 candelas. Compute the total
sits on the floor of the bunker 3 feet from a spot directly luminous flux radiated by the lamp?
below the bulb. What is the illumination on the floor around
the chair if the luminous intensity is 150 candles? A. 842 lm
B. 457 lm
A. 2.38 footcandles C. 786 lm
B. 2.43 footcandles D. 987 lm
C. 3.87 footcandles 329. A 250 W light source has a mean spherical luminous
D. 1.38 footcandles intensity of 87.5 candelas. Compute the luminous intensity of
322. A light ray passing through air and strikes a glass surface the lamp?
at an angle of 55° from the normal surface. What is the angle
between the reflected light and the surface? A. 4.7 lm/s
B. 4.4 lm/s
A. 55° C. 2.0 lm/s
B. 25° D. 1.7 lm/s
C. 35° 330. Compute the illumination on a surface 5 ft distance from
D. 45° a 100-cd source if the surface makes an angle of 18° with the
323. A converging lens of focal length 20 cm is placed 37 cm rays?
in front of a screen. At what distance that the object be
placed so that its image appears on the screen? A. 1.67 lm/ft2
B. 1.50 lm/ft2
A. 43.5 cm C. 1.24 lm/ft2
B. 35.7 cm D. 2.13 lm/ft2
C. 27.6 cm 331. Estimate the distance for which a 30-cd lamp provide
D. 50.7 cm the same illumination as a standard lamp of 80-cd placed 17
ft from the screen?
 D. 6.5 x 10 -28 kg m/s
A. 9.76 ft 339. The eye can detect as little as 1 x 10^-18 J of
B. 8.5 ft electromagnetic energy. How many photons of orange light
C. 12.7 ft whose wavelength is 600 nm present in the energy?
D. 10.41 ft
332. A Plano-convex lens has a focal length of 35 cm and an A. 5
index of refraction 1.53. Find the radius of the convex B. 4
surface. C. 3
D. 1
A. 18.55 cm 340. What is the speed of sound through compressed water
B. 15.78 cm (100 kPa) if its volume decreased by 0.005% of its original
C. 20.78 cm volume?
D. 17.55 cm
333. If a beam of polarized light has one-twelfth of its initial A. 1414 m/s
intensity after passing through an analyzer, what is the angle B. 1250 m/s
between the axis of the analyzer and the initial amplitude of C. 1130 m/s
the beam? D. 1200 m/s
341. What is the bulk modulus of steel if the sound waves
A. 65.73° traveled at approximately 5900 m/s? Note: the density of
B. 76.27° steel is 7900 kg/m3
C. 73.22°
D. 67.54° A. 2.75 x 1011 Pa
334. An observer sees a spaceship, measured 100 m long B. 1.25 x 1011 Pa
when at rest. He passed by in uniform motion with the speed C. 1.15 x 1011 Pa
of 0.5 c. While the observer is watching the spaceship, a time D. 2.45 x 1011 Pa
of 2 s elapses on a clock on board the ship, what is the length 342. A certain loud speaker has a circular opening with a
of the moving spaceship? diameter of 15 cm. Assume that the sound it emits is uniform
and outward through this entire opening. How much power
A. 82 m is being radiated by the loudspeaker if the sound intensity at
B. 85 m opening is 150µW/m^2?
C. 83 m
D. 87 m A. 1.77 µW
335. The captain of a spacecraft send a pulse of light towards B. 1.87 µW
earth and then exactly 1 min. later (as measured by the clock C. 2.65 µW
on the spacecraft), sends a second pulse. An observer on D. 3.41 µW
earth sees the second pulse arrive 4 minutes after the first. 343. Sound intensity that reaches 1.2 W/m2 is painful to
What is the velocity of the spacecraft relative to the earth? human ear. How many decibels is 1.2 W/m2?

A. 0.987c A. 240.5 dB
B. 0.968c B. 170.4 dB
C. 0.954c C. 120.8 dB
D. 0.953c D. 134.5 dB
336. What is the rest energy of electron equivalent to its rest 344. Compute the ratio of the intensities of sounds if one is
mass? 1Mev = 1.60 x 10^-13 J and mass of electron is 9.11 x 12 times louder than the other?
10^-31 kg.
A. 13.47 dB
A. 0.512 MeV B. 15.85 dB
B. 0.987 MeV C. 18.76 dB
C. 0.345 MeV D. 14.54 dB
D. 0.675 MeV 345. An automobile moving at 30 m/s is approaching a
337. What is the frequency of photon having energy of 2 eV? building whistle with a frequency of 500 Hz. If the speed of
sound in air is 340 m/s what is the apparent frequency of the
A. 560 THz whistle heard by the driver?
B. 300 THz
C. 250 THz A. 459 Hz
D. 480 THz B. 458 Hz
338. A red light passes an empty space. What is the C. 457 Hz
momentum of a single photon of red light whose frequency is D. 456 Hz
400 x 1012 HZ? 346. What is the mass of electron traveling at half the speed
of light?
A. 8.8 x 10 -28 kg m/s
B. 7.6 x 10 -28 kg m/s A. 1.05 x 10-30 kg
C. 5.4 x 10 -28 kg m/s B. 2.31 x 10-30 kg
C. 1.56 x 10-31 kg B. Newton’s Law
D. 1.61 x 10-31 kg C. Inverse Square Law
347. A medium unshaded lamp hangs 8 m directly above the D. Coulomb’s Law
table. To what distance should it be lowered to increase the 355. It describes the luminous flux incidence per unit area
illumination to 4.45 times its former value? and is expressed in lumens per square meter.

A. 4.02 m A. Illuminance
B. 3.86 m B. Luminance
C. 3.79 m C. Luminous Intensity
D. 4.21 m D. Radiance
348. A floodlight emitting 25,000 candelas in the center of its 356. The fluid pressure is the same in all directions. This is
beam is aimed at 50° to a point on the ground 20 meters known as
away. The illumination of the point in flux is:
A. Pascal’s Principle
A. 54.12 B. Bernoulli’s Theorem
B. 62.5 C. Ideal Fluid Principle
C. 31.25 D. Archimedes Principle
D. 625 357. The amount of heat needed to change solid to liquid is
349. Compute the speed of sound in neon gas at 27°C of
molecular mass 20.18 kg/kmol and k of 1.67. A. condensation
B. cold fusion
A. 454 m/s C. latent heat of fusion
B. 564 m/s D. solid fusion
C. 356 m/s 358. At the boiling point of liquid, the vapor pressure
D. 434 m/s
350. A magnifying glass has a lens with an index of refraction A. is equal to external pressure on the surface of the liquid
5.4 and radii of curvature of 2.95 feet and 4.27 feet for the B. is greater than the atmospheric pressure
two faces. What is the magnification of the lens when it is C. is less than the atmospheric pressure
held 2.36 inches from an object being viewed? D. can have any value
359. Which of the following thermometers is best suited for
A. 1.6 measuring a temperature of nearly 1500oC?
B. 2.78
C. 2.16 A. Gas thermometer
D. 1.98 B. Platinum resistance thermometer
C. Thermo couple thermometer
351. “At any point along a streamline in an ideal fluid in D. Mercury thermometer
steady flow, the sum of the pressure, the potential energy 360. The energy stored in a starched elastic material such as
per unit volume and the kinetic energy per unit volume have spring is
the same value.” The concept is known as
A. Mechanical energy
A. Bernoulli’s Energy Principles B. Elastic potential energy
B. Fluid theorem C. Internal energy
C. Pascal’s theorem D. Kinetic energy
D. Hydraulic theorem 361. In physics, if LF and LV are the latent heat of fusion and
352. The work done by all forces except the gravitational vaporization, respectively, which of the following equations
force is always equal to the one of the system. apply in determining the amount of energy needed to freeze
a liquid?
A. Total mechanical energy
B. Total potential energy A. Q = -mif
C. Total kinetic energy B. Q = -miv
D. Total momentum C. Q = mif
353. When the two waves of the same frequency, speed and D. Q = miv
amplitude traveling in opposite directions are superimposed, 362. Which of the following is true? The density of water

A. the phase difference is always zero A. Is maximum at 4oC

B. distractive waves are produced B. Decreases as the temperature is increased
C. standing waves are produced C. Is minimum at 4oC
D. constructive interference always results to zero D. Increases with temperature
354. According to this law, “The force between two charges 363. When the pitch of a note is raised then, its
varies directly as the magnitude of each charge and inversely
as the square of the distance between them.” A. frequency decreases
B. wavelength is increased
A. Law of Universal Gravitation C. frequency increases
D. None of the above is true A. Less than 20 Hz
364. Cohesion is the attraction between like B. More than 25,000 Hz
C. 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz
A. atom D. All of these
B. element 374. The loudness of sound depends upon its
C. compound
D. molecule A. Wavelength
365. The quality known as specific heat is based on: B. Frequency
C. Amplitude
A. the increase in temperature due to induction D. All of the above
B. the heat needed for one pound of water to boil 375. Sound above the frequency of 20,000 Hz is called
C. the heat needed to increase the temperature to one gram
of a substance one degree Celsius A. Supersonic sound
D. the amount of heat required to melt one kg of lead B. Intrasonic sound
366. On decreasing the pressure, the boiling point of water C. Hypersonic sound
will D. Ultrasonic sound
376. The surface of the thermos flask is silvered for
A. increase minimizing heat transfer by what process?
B. remain unaffected
C. decrease A. conduction
D. may increase/decrease depending on the pressure B. radiation
367. When sugar is added to water, its boiling point C. convection
D. vaporization
A. increases 377. Water starts boiling when
B. remains unaffected
C. decreases A. Its temperature reaches 100oC
D. Any of the above is possible B. Its vapor pressure equals 76cm of mercury
368. Which one of the following processes of heat transfer C. Its saturated vapor pressure equals the external pressure
requires the presence of a fluid? on its surface
D. Its saturated vapor pressure is less than the atmospheric
A. conduction pressure
B. convection 378. 500 gm of water at 4oC occupies a certain volume V.
C. radiation Which of the following statements is correct?
D. none of the above
369. When salt is added to water, its boiling point A. It will weigh less than one pound of water at 0oC
B. It will weigh more than 500 gm of water at 0oC
A. increases C. Its volume will decrease when its temperature is lowered
B. decreases D. Its volume will increase when its temperature is lowered
C. remains unaffected or raised
D. may increase/decrease depending on the pressure 379. Heat will flow from one body to another in thermal
370. Which one of the following propagates with the same contact with it, when they differ in
speed as speed of light?
A. mass
A. The sound waves B. specific mass
B. The heat waves C. density
C. The shock waves D. temperature
D. The Beta rays 380. The amount of heat which is absorbed during the
371. Which of the following is not true about sound waves? change of state of a substance without rise in its temperature
is called its
A. They transmit the energy
B. They are propagated as a series of compressions and the A. Specific heat
rare fractions B. Latent heat
C. They travel faster in air than in solids C. Thermal conductivity
D. They produce interference D. Water equivalent
372. Sound waves in air are 381. The scientist who systematically demonstrated the
equivalence of mechanical energy and heat was
A. longitudinal
B. neither longitudinal nor transverse A. Joule
C. transverse B. Boltzmann
D. stationary C. Faraday
373. Normal range of the frequency of sound, which the D. Kelvin
human beings can hear, is
382. On a sunny day at the beach, the sand gets so hot and 391. When a substance is heated, its
the water stays relatively cool is due to the difference in of
water and sand. A. molecules move more slowly
B. molecules move more rapidly
A. density C. there is no change in the speed of its molecules
B. specific heat D. its temperature always increases
C. depth 392. When common salt is sprinkled on ice the temperature
D. thermal conductivity of ice
383. The instrument, which measures temperature by
radiation, is called A. increases
B. decreases
A. thermopile C. remains unchanged
B. thermometer D. none of these
C. pyrometer 393. The minimum temperature which can be measured with
D. hydrometer a mercury thermometer is
384. When the temperature of an ideal gas is increased at
constant pressure, A. 0oC
B. -273oC
A. the potential energy of molecules increases C. -39oC
B. the potential energy of molecules decreases D. -143oC
C. the kinetic energy of molecules increases 394. A wave in which the particles of the material move up
D. the kinetic energy of molecules decreases and down as the waves goes from left is called a
385. The root mean square speed of the molecules of a gas is
A. Longitudinal wave
A. independent of its pressure P B. Transverse wave
B. directly proportional to square root of P C. Standing wave
C. directly proportional to the square of its temperature T D. None of these
D. proportional to T 395. When waves go from one place to another they
386. At what temperature do both the centigrade and transport
Fahrenheit thermometers show the same reading?
A. Energy and matter
A. -38oC B. Wavelength and matter
B. -40oC C. Frequency only
C. -42oC D. Energy only
D. -50oC 396. The phenomenon of damping results in decrease in
387. A mercury thermometer is constructed at
A. frequency
A. room temperature B. velocity
B. a temperature higher than the maximum range of the C. wavelength
thermometer D. amplitude
C. a temperature lower than the minimum range of the 397. Echo is formed as a result of
thermometer
D. atmospheric pressure A. refraction of sound
388. The boiling point of water on plains is 100oC. At hills it B. diffraction of sound
will be C. interference of sound
D. reflection of sound
A. 100oC 398. The characteristic of sound which enables us to
B. Less than 100oC distinguish two musical notes having the same frequency and
C. More than 100oC loudness is called
D. May be any of the above
389. It is hotter over the top of a fire than at the same A. pitch
distance on the sides because of: B. intensity
C. timber
A. convection of heat D. decibel
B. conduction of heat 399. Which of the following could be a longitudinal wave?
C. radiation of heat
D. convection, conduction and radiation of heat A. electromagnetic waves
390. The density of water is B. a sound wave in air
C. a water wave
A. same at all temperature D. waves on vibrating string
B. maximum at 4oC 400. A Decibel is a
C. minimum at 4oC
D. maximum at 0oC A. musical instrument
B. highest frequency emitted by a tuning fork
C. a measure of intensity level
D. a measure of clarity of sound
401. A ball is thrown vertically upward with an initial velocity what is the actual speed of the stone, in meters per second,
of 3 m/s from a window of a tall bldg. The ball strikes the 10.0 seconds later, in the direction it was thrown?
ground level 4 seconds later. Determine the height of
window above the ground. a) 57.77 m/s
b) 64.22 m/s
a) 66.331 m. c) 60.35 m/s
b) 66.450 m. d) 67.23 m/s
c) 67.239 m. 409. A projectile is launched at 45º to the horizontal on a
d) 67.492 m. level ground at a speed of 60 m/s. Neglecting air resistance,
402. A stone was dropped freely from a balloon at a height of what is the range of the projectile?
190 m. above the ground. The balloon is moving upward at a
speed of 30 m/s. Determine the velocity of the stone as it hits a) 366.86 m.
the ground. b) 355.29 m.
c) 663.24 m.
a) 69.03 m/s d) 386.66 m.
b) 68.03 m/s 410. A ball thrown at an angle of 30º with the horizontal from
c) 67.30 m/s a point60 m. from the edge of a vertical cliff 48 m. high. The
d) 69.23 m/s ball just misses the edge of the cliff. Determine the initial
403. A ball is thrown vertically at a speed of 20 m/s from a velocity of the ball and the distance beyond the cliff where
bldg. 100 m. above the ground. Find the velocity and position the ball strikes the ground.
of the stone above the ground after 5 seconds.
a) 28.4 m/sec; 32.6 m.
a) 4.67 m, 48.30 m/s b) 26.1 m/sec; 46.9 m.
b) 4.54 m, 47.68 m/s c) 27.5 m/sec; 56.5m
c) 5, 43 m, 47.69 m/s d) 31.1m/sec; 43.2m
d) 5.68 m, 48.20 m/s 411. A block passes a point 4 m from the edge of a table with
404. A ball is thrown vertically at a speed of 30 m/s from the a velocity of 5 m/sec. It slides off the edge of the table which
top of a tower 200 m. Determine the velocity of the stone is 5 m. high and strikes the floor 3 m from the edge of the
and the time that it strikes the ground. table. What was the coefficient of friction between the block
and the table?
a) 1 1.50 sec, 65.80 m/s
b) 1 1.45 sec, 66.59 m/s a) 0.65
c) 10.30 sec, 67.21 m/s b) 1.04.
d) 10.14 sec, 69.45 m/s c) 0.21.
405. A ball is thrown vertically with a velocity of 20 m/s. from d) 0.1 1
the top of a bldg. 100 m. high. Find the velocity of the stone 412. A ball is shot at a ground level at an angle of 60 degrees
at a height of 40 m. above the ground. with the horizontal with an initial velocity of 10 m/sec. Which
of the following most nearly gives the maximum height (h)
a) 39.71 m/s attained by the ball?
b) 40.23 m/s
c) 39.88 m/s a) 2.47 m
d) 39.68 m/s b) 3.29 m
406. A projectile is fired from the top of a cliff 92 m. high with c) 4.61 m
a velocity of 430 m/s directed 45º to the horizontal. Find the d) 3.82 m
range on the horizontal plane through the base of the cliff. 413. A stone is thrown upward at an angle of 30º with the
horizontal. It lands 60 m. measured horizontally and 2 m.
a) 18.959 km. below measured vertically from its point of release.
b) 23.408 km. Determine the initial velocity of the stone in m/s.
c) 15.273 km.
d) .20.365 km. a) 27.35
407. A stone is thrown outward, at an angle of 30º with the b) 28.35
horizontal as shown in the drawing, into the river from a cliff c) 25.35
that is 120 meters above the water level at a velocity of 36 d) 26.35
kilometers per hour . At what height above the water level 414. A projectile is fired with a muzzle velocity of 300 m/s
will the stone start to fall? from a gun aimed upward at an angle of 20º with the
horizontal, from the top of a building 30m. high above a level
a) 121.27 m. ground. With what velocity will it hit the ground in m/s?
b) 189.29m.
c) 1 1 1.38 m. a) 300.98
d) 152.22 m. b) 310.96
408. A stone was thrown upward at an angle of 60º with the c) 320.96
horizontal and a resultant vertical speed of 100.0 meters per d) 330.96
second. If gravity decelerates the speed at 9.8 meters/sec²,
415. A projectile leaves a velocity of 50 m/s at an angle of 30
with the horizontal. Find the maximum height that it could a) 890 m.
reach? b) 884 m.
c) 883 m.
a) 31.86 d) 875 m.
b) 41.26 23. A shot is fired at an angle of 45º with the horizontal and a
c) 28.46 velocity of 300 fps. Calculate, to the nearest, the range of the
d) 51.26 projectile.
416. A ball is shot at a ground level at angle of 60 degrees
with the horizontal with an initial velocity of 100 m/s. a) 3500 ft.
Determine the height of the ball after 2 sec. b) 1200 ft.
c) 4000 ft.
a) 162.46 m. d) 934 yds.
b) 153.59 m. 424. Three crates with masses A = 45.2 kg, B = 22.8 kg and C =
c) 175.48 m. 34.3 kg and are placed with B along a horizontal frictionless
d) 186.42 m. surface. Find the force exerted by B and C by pushing the
417. A ball is shot at an average speed of 200 m/sat an angle crates to the right with an acceleration of 1.32 m/sec².
of 20º with the horizontal. What would be the velocity of the
ball after 8 sec.? a) 45.3 kN
b) 54.2 KN
a) 188.21m/s c) 43.2kN
b) 154.34m/s d) 38.7kN
c) 215.53 m/s 425. Three blocks A, Band Care placed on a horizontal
d) 198.37 m/s frictionless surface and are connected by chords between A,
418. A projectile has a velocity of 200m/s acting at an angle Band C. determine the tension between block B and C when a
of 20º with the horizontal. How long will it take for the horizontal tensile force is applied at C equal to 6.5 N. Masses
projectile to hit the ground surface? of the blocks are A = 1.2 kg, B = 2.4 kg and C = 3.1 kg.

a) 13.95 sec. a) 3.50 N

b) 15.75 sec. b) 4.21 N
c) 10.1 1 sec c) 3.89 N
d) 24.23sec. d) 4.65 N
419. A stone is thrown upward at an angle of 20º with the 426. A constant force P = 750 N acts on the body shown
horizontal from the top of a tower 30 m. high and hits the during only the first 6 m. of its motion starting from rest. If u
ground at a distance of 5976.4 m. horizontally from the base = 0.20, find the velocity of the body after it has moved a total
of the tower. Find the time of flight of the stone until it hits distance of 9m.
the ground.
a) 3.93 m/sec²
a) 21.20 sec. b) 4.73 m/sec²
b) 22.20 sec c) 2.32 m/sec²
c) 19.39 sec. d) 3.1 1 m/sec²
d) 24.15 sec. 427. A weight of 9 kN is initially suspended on a 150 m. long
420. A projectile is fired upward at an angle of 20ºwith the cable. The cable weighs 0.002 kN/m. If the weight is then
horizontal from the top of a tower 30 m. high above a level raised 100 m. How much work is done in Joules?
ground. Find the range on the horizontal plane will the ball
hit the ground after 20.20 seconds. a) 915000
b) 938700
a) 5386.30 m. c) 951000
b) 5642.22 m. d) 905100
c) 5415.37 m. 428. What is the kinetic energy of a 4000 lb. automobile
d) 6329.33 m. which is moving at 44 fps.
421. A projectile leaves a velocity of 50 m/s at an angle of 30º
with the horizontal. Find the time it would take for the a.) 1.21 x 105 ft-lb.
projectile to reach the maximum height. b.) 2.1 x 105 ft-lb.
c) 1.8 x 105 ft-lb
a) 2.55 sec. d) 1.12 x 105 ft-lb.
b) 2.60 sec. 429. A box slides from rest from point Adown a plane inclined
c) 3.10 sec. 30º, to the horizontal. After reaching the bottom of the plane,
d) 2.89 sec. the box moves on horizontal floor at a distance 2 m before
422. A baseball is thrown from a horizontal plane following a coming to rest. If the coefficient of friction between the box
parabolic path with an initial velocity of 100 m/s at an angle and plane and between the box and floor is k = 0.40, what is
of 30º above the horizontal. How far from the throwing point the distance of point “A” from the intersection of plane and
will the ball attain its original level? the floor?
 c) 6.4 m/s
a) 7.24 m d) 7.1 m/s
b) 5.21 m 436. A 10 Kg block is raised vertically 3 meters. What is the
c) 4.75 m change in potential energy? Answer in SI units closest to:
d) 9.52 m
430. A 400 N block slides on a horizontal plane by applying a a) 350 kg-m2/sec
horizontal force of 200 N and reaches a velocity of 20 m/s in b) 320 J
a distance of 30 m. from rest. Compute the coefficient of c) 350 N-m
friction between the floor and the block. d) 294 J
437. A car weighing 40 tons is switched to a 2% upgrade with
a) 0.18 a velocity of 30 mph. if the car is then allowed to run back,
b) 0.24 what velocity will it have at the foot of the grade?
c) 0.31
d) 0.40 a) 37fps
431. A car weighing 40 tons is switched to a 2 percent b) 31fps
upgrade with a velocity of 30 mph. If the train resistance is 10 c) 43 fps
lb/ton, how far up the grade will it go? d) 34 fps
438. A 200 ton train is accelerated from rest to a velocity of
a) 1124 ft. on slope 30 mph on a level track. How much useful work was done?
b) 2014 ft. on slope
c) 1203 ft. on slope a) 12024845 ft-lbs
d) 1402 ft on slope b) 13827217 ft-lbs
432. A car weighing 10 KN is towed along a horizontal road c) 11038738 ft-lbs
surface at a uniform velocity of 80kph. The towing cable is d) 10287846 ft-lbs
parallel with the road surface. The road is straight and 439. A drop hammer weighing 40 KN is dropped freely and
smooth. When the car is at the foot of an incline as shown drives a concrete pile 150 mm into the ground. The velocity
having an elevation of 30 m, the towing cable was suddenly of the drop hammer at impact is6m/sec. what is the average
cut. At what elevation in the inclined road will the car stop in resistance of the soil in KN?
its upward motion?
a) 542.4
a) 55.16 m b) 489.3
b) 60.24 m c) 384.6
c) 51.43 m d) 248.7
d) 49.62 m 440. A force of 200 lbf acts on a block at an angle of 28º with
433. A wooden block starting from rest, slides 6 m down a respect to the horizontal. The block is pushed 2 feet
45º slope, then 3 m along a level surface and then up a 30º horizontally. What is the work done by this force?
incline until it comes to rest again. If the coefficient of friction
is 0.15 for all surfaces of contact, compute the total distance a) 320 J
traveled. b) 480 J
c) 540 J
a) 20m d) 215 J
b) 1 1m 441. A 50 Kg object strikes the unscratched spring attached
c) 14 m to a vertical wall having a spring constant of 20 KN/m. Find
d) 18m the maximum deflection of the spring. The velocity of the
434. A 1000 N block on a leveled surface is attached to250 N object before it strikes the spring is 40 m/s.
block hanging on the pulley. The pulley is 3 m away from the
first block. If the first block started at rest and moves towards a) 1 m
the right. What is the velocity of block B as it touches the b) 2 m
ground? How far will the block A travel along the horizontal c) 3 m
surface if the coefficient of friction between block A and the d) 4 m
surface is .20? Assume pulley to be frictionless. 442. To push a 25 Kg crate up a 27º incline plane, a worker
exerts a force of 120 N, parallel to the incline. As the crates
a) 1.44 m slides 3.6m, how much is the work done on the crate by the
b) 2.55 m worker and by the force of gravity.
c) 5.22 m
d) 3.25 m a) 400 J
435. A 500 N block on a n incline plane with an angle of 30º b) 420 J
has move 3 m up the incline plane due to 600 N force applied. c) 380 J
Find the velocity of the block when it returns to its initial d) 350 J
position. 443. A train weighing 12,000 KN is accelerated at a constant
rate up a 2% grade with a velocity increasing from 30 kph to
a) 8.6 m/s 50 kph in a distance of 500 meters. Determine the horse
b) 5.6 m/s power developed by the train.
 451. The time rate of change of velocity. Since velocity is a
a) 5.394 kW directed or vector quantity involving both magnitude and
b) 5.120 kW direction, a velocity may change by a change of magnitude
c) 4.486 kW (speed) or by a change of direction or both.
d) 4.591 kW
444. An elevator has an empty weight of 5160 N. It is design a. Gravitation
to carry a maximum load of 20 passengers from the ground b. invariant mass
floor to the 25th floor of the building in a time of 18 seconds. c. Acceleration
Assuming the average weight of a passenger to be 710 N and d. none of the above
the distance between floors to be 3.5 m, what is the 452. The closeness of an indication or reading of a
minimum constant power needed for the elevator motor? measurement device to the actual value of the quantity being
measured. Usually expressed as ± percent of full scale output
a) 94.3 kW or reading.
b) 85.5 kW
c) 97.4 kW a. Accuracy
d) 77.6 kW b. Compression
445. A piano string is 80 cm long and weighs 5 N. if the string c. Chemical Equilibrium
is stretched by a force of 500 N. what is the speed of the d. Distance
wave set up when the hammer strikes the string? 453. The rate of change of angular velocity with respect to
time.
a) 26m/s
b) 27m/s a. Angular Velocity
c) 28 m/s b. Acceleration
d) 30m/s c. Angular Acceleration
446. A 16-16 wire cable 100 ft. long is stretched between two d. none of the above
poles under tension of 500 lb. If the cable is struck at one end, 454. What is a physical quantity expressing the size of a part
how long will it take for the wave to travel to the far end and of a surface?
return?
a. Lever
a) 0.63 s b. Area
b) 0.64 s c. Measurement
c) 0.65 s d. Bend
d) 0.66 s 455. The rate of change of angular displacement with respect
447. Assume that young modulus for silver is 77.5 G N/m2. If to time.
it has density 10.5×103 kg/m3, how fast does sound travel
through the silver? a. Angular Velocity
b. Load
a) 2600m/s c. Instantaneous
b) 2700m/s d. Brittle
c) 1600 m/s 456. A rigid, usually horizontal, structural element
d) 1700m/s
448. The speed of a compressional wave in silver, specific a. Beam Bridge
gravity 10.5, is 2610 m/s. compute y for silver. b. Force
c. Core
a) 71.6 G N/m2 d. Beam
b) 76G N/m2 457. A simple type of bridge, composed of horizontal beams
c) 7.16 G N/m2 supported by vertical posts
d) 716 GN/m2
449. Two waves whose frequencies are 500 and 511 per a. Beam
second travel out from a common point. Find their difference b. Brace
in phase after 1.40 s. c. Beam Bridge
d. Buckle
a) 143° 458. To curve; bending occurs when a straight material
b) 144° becomes curved; one side squeezes together in compression,
c) 145° and the other side stretches apart in tension.
d) 146°
450. A copper has a density of 9 g/cm3 and a bulk modulus of a. Tension
120 G N/m2. What is the speed of a wave through it? b. Brace
c. Buckle
a) 3600 m/s d. none of the above
b) 6300 m/s 459. Is mechanics applied to biology (Fung). This includes
c) 6030 m/s research and analysis of the mechanics of living organisms
d) 1460 m/s
and the application of engineering principles to and from 468. To change shape
biological systems.
a. dimension
a. Biomechanics b. deform
b. engineering mechanics c. deformation
c. mechanics d. instantaneous
d. none of the above 469. Is a numerical description of how far apart objects are at
460. A structural support; any given moment in time. In physics or everyday discussion,
distance may refer to a physical length, a period of time, or
a. Brittle estimation based on other criteria. In mathematics, distance
b. Cable must meet more rigorous criteria.
c. Brace
d. Cantilever a. Force
461. Characteristic of a material that fails without warning; b. Distance
brittle materials do not stretch or shorten before failing. c. mass
d. deformation
a. Beam 470. Is the mathematical description of an object or
b. Brace substance’s tendency to be deformed elastically (i.e.
c. Beam Bridge non-permanently) when a force is applied to it.
d. Brittle
462. To bend under compression. a. modulus of elasticity
b. fluid power
a. Brittle c. Hydraulics
b. compression d. Gravitation
c. bend 471. A profession in which acknowledge of math and natural
d. Buckle science is applied to develop ways to utilize the materials and
463. A structural element formed from steel wire bound in forces of nature for the benefit of all human beings.
strands; the suspending element in abridge; the supporting
element in some dome roofs. a. Mechanics
b. Engineering Mechanics
a. Beam c. Engineering
b. Cable d. None of the above
c. Brace 472. A condition in which all acting influences are canceled by
d. Compression others, resulting in a stable, balanced, or unchanging system.
464. A projecting structure supported only at one end, like a
shelf bracket or a diving board. a. Chemical Equilibrium
b. Equilibrium
a. Cantilever c. invariant mass
b. Equilibrium d. Gravitation
c. Cable 473. The capacity to do work or cause physical change;
d. Irreversible energy, strength, or active power: the force of an explosion.
465. A condition in which a chemical reaction is occurring at
equal rates in its forward and reverse directions, so that the a. Inertia
concentrations of the reacting substances do not change with b. Quantity
time. c. Lever
d. Force
a. Chemical Equilibrium 474. Is a natural phenomenon by which all objects with mass
b. Equilibrium attract each other? In everyday life, gravitation is most
c. force commonly thought of as the agency that gives objects
d. Pile weight.
466. A pressing force that squeezes a material together.
a. gravitational attraction
a. force b. universal gravitation
b. Compression c. Gravitation
c. steel d. mass
d. modulus 475. Is a physical constant involved in the calculation of the
467. Central region of a skyscraper; usually houses elevator gravitational attraction between objects with mass? It
and stairwell. appears in Newton’s law of universal gravitation and in
Einstein’s theory of general relativity.
a. Core
b. physical constant a. gravitational attraction
c. gravitational attraction b. universal gravitation
d. dimension c. Gravitation
d. gravitational constant 484. Is the long dimension of any object? The length of a
476. Is the measurement of vertical distance, but has two thing is the distance between its ends, its linear extent as
meanings in common use. It can either indicate how "tall" measured from end to end.
something is, or how "high up" it is.
a. distance
a. magnitude b. rigid
b. Height c. free body
c. distance d. length
d. none of the above 485. A simple machine consisting of a rigid bar pivoted on a
477. Is a topic of science and engineering dealing with the fixed point and used to transmit force, as in raising or moving
mechanical properties of liquids. Hydraulics is part of the a weight at one end by pushing down on the other.
more general discipline of fluid power.
a. Inertia
a. Hydraulics b. Quantity
b. physical body c. Lever
c. fluid power d. Force
d. momentum 486. Weight distribution throughout a structure; loads
478. The tendency of a body to resist acceleration; the caused by wind, earthquakes, and gravity, for example, affect
tendency of a body at rest to remain at rest or of a body in how weight is distributed throughout a structure.
straight line motion to stay in motion in a straight line unless
acted on by an outside force. a. Angular Velocity
b. Load
a. Inertia c. Instantaneous
b. energy d. Brittle
c. force 487. A property by which it can be large or smaller than other
d. none of the above objects of the same kind; in technical terms, an ordering of
479. Occurring or completed without perceptible delay the class of objects.

a. volume a. magnitude
b. Shear b. Height
c. Instantaneous c. distance
d. none of the above d. none of the above
480. Is the same for all frames of reference? A mass for a 488. Is a fundamental concept in physics, roughly
particle is m in the equation corresponding to the intuitive idea of "how much matter
there is in an object". Mass is a central concept of classical
a. mass mechanics and related subjects, and there are several
b. invariant mass definitions of mass within the framework of relativistic
c. force kinematics.
d. all of the above
481. That cannot be revoked or undone. a. mass
b. measurement
a. measurement c. weight
b. Irreversible d. kilogram
c. base unit 489. Is commonly defined as the substance of which physical
d. none of the above objects are composed, not counting the contribution of
482. A device connecting two or more adjacent parts of a various energy or force-fields, which are not usually
structure; a roller joint allows adjacent parts to move considered to be matter per se.
controllably past one another; a rigid joint prevents adjacent
parts from moving or rotating past one another. a. mass
b. magnitude
a. energy c. matter
b. velocity d. none of the above
c. force-field 490. Science of the action of forces on material bodies. It
d. joint forms a central part of all physical science and engineering.
483. Is the base unit of mass in the International System of
Units (known also by its French-language initials “SI”). a. engineering mechanics
b. mechanics
a. mass c. mechanism
b. measurement d. none of the above
c. weight 491. Is the estimation of the magnitude of some attribute of
d. kilogram an object, such as its length or weight, relative to a unit of
measurement?
a. mass d. momentum
b. measurement 500. Is a stress state where the stress is parallel or tangential
c. weight to a face of the material, as opposed to normal stress when
d. kilogram the stress is perpendicular to the face.
492. Is the product of the mass and velocity of an object?
Motion – The act or process of changing position or place. a. shear stress
b. tensile stress
a. Hydraulics c. shear
b. physical body d. none of the above
c. fluid power
d. momentum
493. The three laws proposed by Sir Isaac Newton to define
the concept of a force and describe motion, used as the basis
of classical mechanics.

a. law of inertia
b. Newton’s Law of Motion
c. Newton’s Law
d. none of the above
494. A long, round pole of wood, concrete, or steel driven
into the soil by pile drivers

a. Chemical Equilibrium
b. Equilibrium
c. force
d. Pile
495. Is a collection of masses, taken to be one. For example, a
cricket ball can be considered an object but the ball also
consists of many particles.

a. Hydraulics
b. physical body
c. fluid power
d. momentum
496. Is a kind of property which exists as magnitude or
multitude?

a. magnitude
b. fluid power
c. quantity
d. none of the above
497. Ability to resist deformation when subjected to a load;
the measure of a structure’s ability not to change shape
when subjected to a load.

a. distance
b. rigid
c. free body
d. length
498. Is the effort to understand, or to understand better,
how nature works, with observable physical evidence as the
basis of that understanding.

a. physics
b. science
c. physical evidence
d. load
499. A force that causes parts of a material to slide past one
another in opposite directions.

a. force
b. stress
c. shear
Answer Key - Physics 63. Inertia
32. nanometer
1. Kilogram 64. first law of motion
33. milligram
2. Meter 65. second law of motion
34. Newton-meter
3. Joule 66. third law of motion
35. Newton-meter per second
4. Watt 67. Weight
36. 746
5. Kelvin 68. D.14.6
37. work or energy
6. Candela 69. Friction
38. work or energy
7. Unitless 70. static friction
39. mass
8. Pa 71. Starting friction
40. In decibels
9. N/m2 72. Kinetic friction is always less than
41. 1 volt static friction
10. 100,000
42. Unit vector 73. Sliding friction
11. watt/m2
43. To describe the direction in space 74. Coefficient of static friction is
12. Volt always greater than the coefficient of
44. Dot product kinetic friction.
13. joule/coulomb
45. Cross product 75. power output to power input
14. 1.6 x 10 ^-19
46. equal to 0 76. Kinetic energy
15. Farad
47. equal to 0 77. Rest energy
16. coulomb/volt
48. equal to 0 78. Potential energy
17. Ampere
49. Scalar quantities 79. remains constant
18. coulomb/second
50. Vector quantities 80. Kinetic energy
19. Ohm
51. Time 81. false
20. volt/ampere
52. Volume 82. When the two colliding objects
21. Candela stick together after impact.
53. Vector
22. Lumen 83. It is lost to maximum value.
54. Vector diagram
23. lumen/steradian 84. relative speed after collision to
55. average speed relative speed before collision
24. lumen/watt
56. acceleration 85. 1
25. Lux
57. Work-energy theorem 86. 0
26. lumen/m2
58. kinetic energy 87. jointly to the colliding objects
27. lumen/ft2
59. Force and displacement 88. Law of conservation of momentum
28. 100,000
60. Power 89. Impulse
29. Quantum
61. Force 90. velocity and mass
30. Slug
62. Mass 91. jointly to the colliding objects
31. micrometer
92. Centrifugal force
93. directed toward the center of
curvature of the path
94. period
95. inversely proportional
96. mass
97. Law of universal gravitation
98. inversely as the square of
99. always true
100. Mechanical energy
101. moment of inertia and angular
speed
102. Conservation of angular
momentum
103. Those particles whose angular
speed changes
104. moment of inertia
105. torque
106. translational equilibrium
107. A cone on its side.
108. A cone balanced on its base.
109. machine
110. unstable equilibrium
111. rotational equilibrium
112. hydraulic press
113. It may sometimes be inside the
object and sometimes outside the
object.
114. Density
115. Weight density
116. 10 g/cm3
117. specific gravity
118. Relative density
119. 1.013 bar
120. Pascal’s principle
101. moment of inertia and angular
121. Pascal’s principle speed
122. Archimedes principle 102. Conservation of angular
momentum
123. density of a liquid
103. Those particles whose angular
124. amplitude speed changes
125. Frequency 104. moment of inertia
126. independent of 105. torque
127. Simple harmonic motion 106. translational equilibrium
128. Friction 107. A cone on its side.
129. center of oscillation 108. A cone balanced on its base.
130. Sound 109. machine
131. Resonance 110. unstable equilibrium
132. Shock wave 111. rotational equilibrium
133. Doppler effect 112. hydraulic press
134. Longitudinal waves 113. It may sometimes be inside the
object and sometimes outside the
135. 20 Hz object.
136. 20,000 Hz 114. Density
137. Transverse waves 115. Weight density
138. Principle of superposition 116. 10 g/cm3
139. Constructive interference 117. specific gravity
140. Destructive interference 118. Relative density
141. intensity 119. 1.013 bar
142. 1 W/m2 120. Pascal’s principle
143. 10^-12 121. Pascal’s principle
144. 0 122. Archimedes principle
145. Mach number 123. density of a liquid
146. Principle of conservation of 124. amplitude
charge
125. Frequency
147. Coulomb’s law
126. independent of
148. Force field
127. Simple harmonic motion
149. energy density
128. Friction
150. Capacitance
129. center of oscillation
130. Sound 162. Index of refraction
193. Relativity of mass
131. Resonance 163. Snell’s law
194. Laser
132. Shock wave 164. Refraction
195. Emission spectrum
133. Doppler effect 165. Huygen’s principle
196. Absorption spectrum
134. Longitudinal waves 166. Wavefront
197. spin
135. 20 Hz 167. Dispersion
198. Focal length
136. 20,000 Hz 168. Spectrum
199. Light amplification by stimulated
137. Transverse waves 169. 1.0003 emission of radiation

138. Principle of superposition
139. Constructive interference
140. Destructive interference
170. 1.33
171. Divergent lens
172. Convergent lens
200. Air resistance and gravitational
pull
201. Terminal velocity

141. intensity 173. It has one concave surface and

one convex surface
142. 1 W/m2
174. Focal length 202. Law of inertia
143. 10^-12
175. Linear magnification 203. Law of acceleration
144. 0
176. the image is smaller than the 204. Law of interaction
145. Mach number object
205. Drag force
146. Principle of conservation of 177. Convergent lens
charge 206. Sphygmomanometer
178. myopia
147. Coulomb’s law 207. These do not need a medium to
179. hyperopia travel in.
148. Force field
180. Divergent lens 208. Maxwell
149. energy density
181. Convergent lens 209. 3 x 10^8
150. Capacitance
182. Astigmatism 210. 120 dB
152. electromotive force
183. Angular magnification 211.1
153. Illumination
184. Concave mirror 212. 10^-12
154. Luminous intensity
185. Convex mirror 213. Intensity
155. 1 candela
186. Polaroid 214. Loudness
156. Candela
187. Resolving power 215. All of the choices.
157. Luminous flux
188. directly proportional 216. Pitch
158. 1.0 candela
189. Diffraction 217. Christian Johann Doppler
159. 4π lm
190. Diffraction grating 218. the number of sound waves you
160. Luminous efficiency are sending out per second
191. Photoelectric effect
161. Phosphor 219. Above 120 dB
192. X-rays
220. 0.6
249. Hygrometer 280. Edison effect
221. Because water has greater bulk
modulus than air. 250. Phlogiston 281. elementary colors

222. It will remain the same. 252. Amorphous 282. emission spectrum

223. A high-frequency sound has high 253. 135.61 g/mole 283. Exchange force
pitch.
254. base 284. focal length of the lens to the
224. Cochlea effective aperture
255. Lattice Energy
225. Solids 285. half life
256. clay
226. Hertz 286. Fundamental
257. Hund’s rule
227. Indigo 287. Gamma ray
258. Boyle’s Law
228. Red 288. Geiger effect
259. Tyndall Effect
229. Violet 289. Harmonics
260. 7.94 moles
230. 600 nm – 650 nm 290. line spectrum
261. significant figures
231. 350 – 700 291. Mass spectrograph
262. carbon
232. Aperture 292. A proton or a neutron of an atom.
263. – 40
233. Refraction 293. Pyonometer
264. luminous emittance
234. Violet 294. Polariscope
265. luminous emittance
235. Red 295. Quality
266. Light with only one color and one
236. refraction wavelength 296. Retinal fatigue

237. Chromatic aberration 267. Hologram 297. Young – Helmholtz color vision
theory
238. Color 268. the reflected energy is absorbed
within a very thin layer and converted 298. Theory
239. It is the scattering of white light to heat
behind an obstruction. 299. 1
269. light is partially absorbed
240. It is the separation of white light 300. Quantum theory
into its component colors. 270. light is able to pass through
301. 342 m/s
241. Colors which when combined 271. relative index of refraction
produce white light
272. Interference
242. Mercury barometer
273. Longitudinal wave
243. Mechanical wave 302. 1.80 N
274. All of the above
244. Solar spectrum 303. 360 m/s
275. It may be outside the object
245. Translucent 304. 40 N
276. 3
246. Ultraviolet light 305. 255 Hz
277. 5
247. Umbra 306. 85.8 ft/s
278. Complementary colors
248. directly proportional to the 307. 94.8
square of the velocity 279. continuous spectrum
308. 2.71 x 10^-8 W/cm2 339. 3
368. convection
309. 786.7 Hz 340. 1414 m/s
369. increases
310. 1.096 341. 2.75 x 1011 Pa
370. The heat waves
311. 14.58 s 342. 2.65 µW
371. They travel faster in air than in
312. 447.5 m/s 343. 120.8 dB solids

313. 600 mm 344. 15.85 dB 372. longitudinal

314. 22° 345. 456 Hz 373. 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz

315. 26° 346. 1.05 x 10-30 kg 374. All of the above

316. 1.33 347. 3.79 m 375. Ultrasonic sound

317. .11 x 10-11 s 348. 31.25 376. radiation

318. 59.7° 349. 454 m/s 377. Its saturated vapor pressure is less
than the atmospheric pressure
319. 318 cd 350. 1.98
351. Bernoulli’s Energy Principles 378. Its volume will decrease when its
320. 67.65 lm/m2 temperature is lowered

321. 1.38 footcandles 379. temperature

322. 35° 380. Latent heat

352. Total kinetic energy
323. 43.5 cm 381. Joule
353. standing waves are produced
324. 13.82 cm and 36.18 cm from the 382. specific heat
object 354. Coulomb’s Law
383. pyrometer
325. 55.93 cm converging lens 355. Illuminance
384. the kinetic energy of molecules
326. 12 cm 356. Pascal’s Principle increases

327. 1.64 357. latent heat of fusion 385. directly proportional to the
square of its temperature T
328. 842 lm 358. is equal to external pressure on
the surface of the liquid 386. -40oC
329. 4.4 lm/s
359. Thermo couple thermometer 387. a temperature higher than the
330. 1.24 lm/ft2 maximum range of the thermometer
360. Elastic potential energy
331. 10.41 ft 388. Less than 100oC
361. Q = -mif
332. 18.55 cm 389. convection of heat
362. Is maximum at 4oC
333. 73.22° 390. same at all temperature
363. frequency increases
334. 87 m 391. molecules move more rapidly
364. molecule
335. 0.968c 392. decreases
365. the heat needed to increase the
336. 0.512 MeV temperature to one gram of a 393. -39oC
substance one degree Celsius
337. 480 THz 394. Transverse wave
366. remain unaffected
338. 8.8 x 10 -28 kg m/s 395. Energy only
367. decreases
396. amplitude 426. 3.93 m/sec²
456. Beam
397. reflection of sound 427. 915000
457. Beam Bridge
398. pitch 428. 1.21 x 105 ft-lb.
458. none of the above (bend)
399. a sound wave in air 429. 5.21 m
459. Biomechanics
400. a measure of intensity level 430. 0.18
401. 66.331 m. 460. Brace
431. 1203 ft. on slope
461. Brittle
432.
462. Buckle
433. 14 m
402. 68.03 m/s 463. Cable
434. 1.44 m
403. 4.54 m, 47.68 m/s 464. Cantilever
435. 6.4 m/s
404. 10.14 sec, 69.45 m/s 465. Chemical Equilibrium
436. 294 J
405. 39.71 m/s 466. Compression
437. 34 fps
406. 18.959 km. 467. Core
438. 12024845 ft-lbs
407. 121.27 m. 468. deform
439.
408. 57.77 m/s 469. Distance
440. 480 J
409. 366.86 m. 470. modulus of elasticity
441. 2 m
410. 26.1 m/sec; 46.9 m. 471. Engineering
442. 400 J
411. 0.21. 472. Equilibrium
443. 4.486 kW
412. 3.82 m 473. Force
444. 94.3 kW
413. 25.35 474. Gravitation
445. 28 m/s
414. 300.98 475. gravitational constant
446. 0.63 s
415. 31.86 476. Height
447. 2700m/s
416. 153.59 m. 477. Hydraulics
448. 71.6 G N/m2
417. 478. Inertia
449. 144°
418. 13.95 sec. 479. Instantaneous
450. 3600 m/s
419. 1.20 sec. 480. invariant mass
451. Acceleration
420. 5415.37 m. 481. Irreversible

421. 2.55 sec. 482. joint

422. 883 m. (R = 882.8 m.) 483. kilogram

452. Accuracy
423. 934 yds. 484. length
453. Angular Acceleration
424. 45.3 kN 485. Lever
454. Area
425. 3.50 N 486. Load
455. Angular Velocity
487. magnitude

488. mass

489. matter

490. mechanics

491. measurement

492. momentum

493. Newton’s Law of Motion

494. Pile

495. physical body

496. quantity

497. rigid

498. science

499. stress

500. shear stress