HEMALEC12

World Citi Colleges - QC
960 Aurora Boulevard Quezon City, Philippines

HEMATOLOGY2 PRELIM PART 1
Assessment
(Instructor's Copy)
Duration : Feb 26, 2022 05:04 PM - Feb 26, 2022 06:02 PM Shuffled Question : No
Time Limit : 50.00 View Score After : Yes
Passing Score : 30.00 View Result After : No
Teacher : Rafael John Alconaba
Objective: To familiarize yourself in hematology
Direction: Choose the best answer
Multiple Choice
1) Anticoagulant of choice for coagulation studies (1.00 pt/s.)
A. EDTA
B. Citrate
C. Oxaloacetate
D. Heparin
Answer: B
Correct answer explanation : N/A
2) A physiological process that stops bleeding at the site of injury while maintaining normal blood flow elsewhere in the
circulation (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Hematopoiesis
B. Hematemesis
C. Hemostasis
D. Hemoptysis
Answer: C
3) Which of the following mechanism is not involved in normal hemostasis? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Vascular constriction
B. Clot formation
C. Platelet plug formation
D. Vascular dilation
Answer: D
4) All are major cellular elements involved in hemostasis except: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Platelet
B. Vascular intima
C. Smooth muscle cells
D. RBC
Answer: D
5) Refers to the role of blood vessels and platelet in the initial formation of platelet plug (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Primary hemostasis
B. Coagulation cascade
C. Secondary hemostasis
D. Fibrinolysis
Answer: A
6) What is the main goal of secondary hemostasis? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Formation of platelet plug

B. Eventual growth of fibrous tissue
C. Formation of fibrin clot
D. Disintegration of stable clot
Answer: C
7) Which of the following does not contribute to hemostasis? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Endothelial cells
B. Platelet
C. Liver
D. NOTA
Answer: D
8) The type of nuclear reproduction seen in megakaryocytes (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Mitosis
B. Endomitosis
C. Meiosis
D. Binary fission
Answer: B
9) Average lifespan of thrombocytes (1.00 pt/s.)
A. 5 days
B. 10 days
C. 20 days
D. 30 days
Answer: B
10) What portion of the total number of platelets is sequestered in the spleen? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. 1/3
B. 2/3
C. 1/4
D. 1/2
Answer: A
11) What portion of the total number of platelets is found in the circulation? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. 1/3
B. 2/3
C. 1/4
D. 1/2
Answer: B
12) What is the normal range of platelets found in the circulation? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. 100 - 300 x10^9

B. 150 - 400 x10^9
C. 200 - 400 x10^8
D. 150 - 400 x10^8
Answer: B
13) Maturation time of megakaryocytic cells in the bone marrow in days (1.00 pt/s.)
A. 2
B. 4
C. 5
D. 7
Answer: C
14) What is the average size of platelet? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. 2.5 um
B. 3.5 um
C. 4.5 um
D. 5.5 um
Answer: A
15) What is the mean platelet volume (MPV) of platelet (1.00 pt/s.)
A. 5-7 fL
B. 8-10 fL
C. 7-9 fL
D. 6-8 fL
Answer: B
16) How many platelets should be observed under oil immersion field to evaluate adequate
number of platelets? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. 1-4
B. 4-10
C. 8-20
D. 20-30
Answer: C
17) Thrombocytopenia may be associated with which of the following?

1. Post-splenectomy 2. DIC 3. Hypersplenism 4. Splenomegaly (1.00 pt/s.)
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 2, 3
C. 2, 3, 4
D. AOTA
Answer: C
18) Megakaryocyte maturation that lacks telophase and cytokinesis (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Mitosis
B. Endomitosis
C. Meiosis
D. Binary fission
Answer: B
19) Which of the following is not true about your megakaryocytes? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Polyploid
B. Multilobulated
C. Granular cytoplasm
D. NOTA
Answer: D
20) A 332 amino acid glycoprotein primarily made in the liver that stimulates formation of megakaryocytes from
Megakaryocyte progenitor (1.00 pt/s.)
A. LPO
B. TPO
C. EPO
D. HPO
Answer: B
21) Which of the following megakaryocyte progenitors loses its ability to divide and undergo a partially characterized form
of mitosis unique to megakaryocyte? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. BFU-Meg
B. LD-CFU Meg
C. CFU-Meg
D. CFU-GEMM
Answer: B
22) Which of the following cytokines contribute to normal megakaryocytopoiesis? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. IL-6
B. IL-11
C. Either
D. Neither
Answer: C
23) Intermediate structure that pierce through sinusoidal lining of the endothelial cells extending
to the venous blood (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Proplatelet process
B. DMS
C. Cytoplasmic blebs
D. Cytoskeleton
Answer: A
24) Von Willebrand disease and Bernard Soulier syndrome are qualitative platelet disorders that have abnormalities of:
(1.00 pt/s.)
A. Granule release
B. Adhesion
C. Aggregation
D. None of the above
Answer: B
25) This receptor is essential for normal platelet aggregation (1.00 pt/s.)
A. GP Ib/IX/V
B. GP VI
C. VWF
D. GP IIb/IIIa
Answer: D
26) This receptor is essential for normal platelet adhesion in areas of high shear stress (1.00 pt/s.)
A. GP Ib/IX/V
B. GP VI
C. VWF
D. GP IIb/IIIa
Answer: A
27) This receptor is essential for normal platelet adhesion which aids platelet to directly bind to exposed subendothelial
collagen (1.00 pt/s.)
A. GPIb/IX/V
B. GP VI
C. VWF
D. GP IIb/IIIa
Answer: B
28) Which of the following is stored in the platelet dense granules? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. VWF
B. Fibrinogen
C. ADP
D. Heparin inhibitor
Answer: C
29) Qualitative platelet disorder characterized by abnormal platelet aggregation (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Gray platelet syndrome

B. Glanzmann thrombasthenia
C. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
D. Bernard Soulier syndrome
Answer: B
30) Absence of platelet membrane receptor GP IIb/IIIa would cause which of the following? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Bernard Soulier syndrome

B. Chediak Higashi
C. Hermansky-Pudlak
D. Glanzmann thrombasthenia
Answer: D
31) Thrombocytosis may be associated with which of the following?

1. Post-splenectomy 2. DIC 3. Polycythemia vera 4. Splenomegaly (1.00 pt/s.)
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 1, 3
C. 2, 4
D. 1, 2
Answer: B
32) Platelet dense granules contain

1. Serotonin 2. ADP/ATP 3. Calcium 4. Platelet factor 4 (1.00 pt/s.)
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 2, 3
C. 1, 3
D. AOTA
Answer: A
33) Platelet receptor GP IIb/IIIa attaches to which of the following? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. VWF
B. Fibrinogen
C. Subendothelial collagen
D. Platelet
Answer: B
34) Platelet receptor GP Ib/IX/V attaches to which of the following? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. VWF
B. Fibrinogen
D. Platelet
Answer: A
35) Platelet receptor GP VI attaches to which of the following? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. VWF
B. Fibrinogen
D. Platelet
Answer: C
36) Deficiency in fibrinogen as seen in patients with afibrinogenemia and hypofibrinogenemia

would have an effect in which of the following platelet function? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Aggregation
B. Adhesion
C. Secretion
D. Both a and b
Answer: A
37) A plasma protein that binds platelets to exposed subendothelial collagen in areas of high
shear stress (1.00 pt/s.)
A. TPO
B. EPO
C. PGF
D. VWF
Answer: D
38) The number of platelets a single megakaryocyte sheds is approximately: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. 2000 - 4000
B. 200 - 400
C. 20,000 - 40,000
D. 150 - 400
Answer: A
39) Referred to as the binding of platelet to non platelet surfaces such as subendothelial collagen (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Secretion
B. Activation
C. Adhesion
D. Aggregation
Answer: C
40) Referred to as the attachment of platelets to one another (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Secretion
B. Activation
C. Adhesion
D. Aggregation
Answer: D
41) Referred to as the conformational change in platelets (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Secretion
B. Activation
C. Adhesion
D. Aggregation
Answer: B
42) A potent platelet inhibitor released by the endothelial cells (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Heparan sulfate
B. Prostacyclin
C. Thrombomodulin
D. Fibrinogen
Answer: B
43) The platelet parameter PDW refers to: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Average platelet volume

B. Variation in platelet size
C. Ability of platelet to secrete granules
D. Average cell weight
Answer: B
44) Which of the following is not a normal maturation stage in platelets (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Megakaryoblast
B. Megakaryocyte
C. Micromegakaryocyte
D. Promegakaryocyte
Answer: C
45) Blood platelet is also termed as (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Thrombin
B. Thrombomodulin
C. Thromboplastin
D. Thrombocyte
Answer: D
46) Which of the following is the largest of all hematopoietic cells? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Lymphocyte
B. Monocyte
C. Macrophage
D. Megakaryocyte
Answer: D
47) Which of the following is the most common inhibitor of platelet function? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Aspirin
B. Warfarin
C. Coumarin
D. Heparan sulfate
Answer: A
48) All are anticoagulant properties of vascular intima, except: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Physical barrier between blood and coagulation substance

B. Secretes prostacyclin
C. Secretes nitric oxide
D. Exposed subendothelial collagen
Answer: D
49) All are procoagulant properties of vascular intima, except: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Vasoconstriction in arteries
B. Exposed Tissue factor
C. Secretion of VWF
D. Secretion of thrombomodulin
Answer: D
50) All are fibrinolytic properties of vascular intima, except: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Secretion of heparan sulfate

B. Secretion of PAI-1
C. Secretion of TPA
D. Secretion of TAFI
Answer: A
Powered by TCPDF (www.tcpdf.org)

HEMATOLOGY2 PRELIM PART 2
Assessment
(Instructor's Copy)
Duration : Feb 26, 2022 05:30 PM - Feb 26, 2022 06:30 PM Shuffled Question : No
Objective: To familiarize yourself in hematology
Direction: Choose best answer
Multiple Choice
1) Which of the following is inhibited by aspirin? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Arachidonic acid
B. Phospholipids
C. Cyclooxygenase
D. Prostaglandin endoperoxides
Answer: C
2) Coagulation factor known as Christmas factor (1.00 pt/s.)
A. X
B. IX
C. XI
D. III
Answer: B
3) Coagulation factor known as Tissue thromboplastin (1.00 pt/s.)
A. X
B. IX
C. XI
D. III
Answer: D
4) If the patient is constantly taking aspirin for back pain, which of the following tests will be
abnormal? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Bleeding time
B. Prothrombin time
C. APTT
D. Platelet count
Answer: A
5) Vitamin K dependent coagulation factors:

1. Prothrombin 2. Stable factor 3. Anti-hemophilic factor B 4. Stuart Prower (1.00 pt/s.)
A. 1, 2
B. 1, 3
C. 1, 2, 3
D. AOTA
Answer: D
6) Coagulation factors affected by Coumadin: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. VI, VIII
B. II, VII
C. I, V
D. XI, XII
Answer: B
7) Which of the following laboratory result is suggestive of Hemophilia A? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Low platelet count

B. Prolonged PT
C. Prolonged PTT
D. Normal PT
Answer: C
8) Major fibrinolytic enzyme (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Plasmin
B. Thrombin
C. Plasminogen
D. ?2 antiplasmin
Answer: A
9) Extrinsic factor/s include:
1. III 2. VII 3. VIII 4. IX (1.00 pt/s.)
A. 1, 2
B. 2
C. 1,3
D. 3,4
Answer: A
10) Intrinsic factor/s include:

1. III 2. VII 3. VIII 4. IX (1.00 pt/s.)
A. 1,2
B. 2
C. 1,3
D. 3,4
Answer: D
11) Which of the following is a test for primary hemostasis? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Clotting time
B. Bleeding time
C. PT
D. APTT
Answer: B
12) Which of the following is not a test for secondary hemostasis? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Thromboplastin Time
B. Bleeding time
C. PT
D. APTT
Answer: B
13) Heparin inhibits the clotting of blood by neutralizing the effect of: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Thrombin
B. Calcium
C. Fibrin
D. Factor VII
Answer: A
14) An enzyme that converts fibrinogen to fibrin (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Thrombin
B. Thrombomodulin
C. Thromboplastin
D. Thrombocyte
Answer: A
15) Vitamin K is necessary for the synthesis of all of the following except: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. XI
B. X
C. VII
D. IX
Answer: A
16) Administration of warfarin interferes with the synthesis of factors: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. X, XI, XII
B. II, VII, IX, X
C. II, VII, X, XI
D. VIII, IX, XI
Answer: B
17) Which of the following is not present in the serum? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Fibrinogen
B. Albumin
C. Globulin
D. Alpha globulin
Answer: A
18) In patients with hemophilia A, which of the following laboratory tests are unaffected?
1. Bleeding time 2. Prothrombin time 3. APTT (1.00 pt/s.)
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 1, 2
C. 2, 3
D. 3 only
Answer: B
19) Which of the following substances activates the extrinsic coagulation pathway? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Tissue factor
B. Calcium
C. Fibrinogen
D. Siliconized glass
Answer: A
20) Which of the following coagulation screening tests measure the extrinsic and common
coagulation pathway? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Prothrombin time
B. Bleeding time
C. APTT
D. Clotting time
Answer: A
21) Also known as Plasma Thromboplastin Antecedent (1.00 pt/s.)
A. II
B. V
C. XI
D. VI
Answer: C
22) Also known as labile factor (1.00 pt/s.)
A. II
B. V
C. XI
D. VI
Answer: B
23) Also known as prothrombin (1.00 pt/s.)
A. II
B. V
C. XI
D. VI
Answer: A
24) All are cofactors, except: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. TF
B. V
C. VIII
D. Pre-K
Answer: D
25) Coagulation cascade complex that cleaves factors IX and X (1.00 pt/s.)
A. First complex
B. Second complex
C. Third complex
D. Fourth complex
Answer: A
26) Coagulation cascade complex that cleaves prothrombin, aka prothrombinase (1.00 pt/s.)
A. First complex
B. Second complex
C. Third complex
D. Fourth complex
Answer: C
27) Which of the following is not a contact factor (1.00 pt/s.)
A. XIIa
B. Xa
C. HMWK
D. pre-K
Answer: B
28) Deficiency in factor XI is also known as: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Bernard-Soulier syndrome
B. Hemophilia B
C. Rosenthal syndrome
Answer: C
29) Factors involved in the common pathway (1.00 pt/s.)
A. X, V, II, I
B. III, VII, X, I
C. XII, XI, VIII, IX
D. XII, XI, IX, X
Answer: A
30) This factor catalyzes the covalent cross-linking of D domains forming stable fibrin clot (1.00 pt/s.)
A. XII
B. X
C. XIII
D. XI
Answer: C
31) Which is not true about Tissue Factor Pathway Inhibitor (TFPI) (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Synthesized by endothelial cells

B. Activates factor Xa
C. Binds to TF:VIIa to prevent activating additional Xa
D. Serves as a coagulation regulatory mechanism
Answer: B
32) A serine protease inhibitor that binds and neutralizes all serine proteases except VII (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Antithrombin
B. Heparin cofactor II
C. ZPI
D. Protein C inhibitor
Answer: A
33) A serpin that is a potent inhibitor of factor Xa (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Antithrombin
B. Heparin cofactor II
C. ZPI
D. Protein C inhibitor
Answer: C
34) Protein C inhibitor inhibits all, except: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. APC
B. Xa
C. Thrombin
D. Urokinase
Answer: B
35) Serine protease that digests fibrin (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Plasmin
B. Thrombin
C. Plasminogen
D. ?2 antiplasmin
Answer: A
36) A substance that is synthesized in the liver and the primary inhibitor of plasmin (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Urokinase
B. Thrombin
C. TPA
D. ?2 antiplasmin
Answer: D
37) Plasminogen activator secreted by urinary tract epithelial cells, monocytes and macrophages (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Urokinase
B. Thrombin
C. TPA
D. ?2 antiplasmin
Answer: A
38) Hydrolyzes fibrin-bound plasminogen and initiates fibrinolysis (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Urokinase
B. Thrombin
C. TPA
D. ?2 antiplasmin
Answer: C
39) Fibrinolysis inhibitor that inhibits fibrinolysis by preventing the binding of TPA and plasminogen blocking the formation
of plasmin (1.00 pt/s.)
A. TPA
B. Urokinase
C. PAI
D. TAFI
Answer: D
40) All are secreted by the endothelial cells, except: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Thromboglobulin
B. Heparan sulfate
C. Nitric oxide
D. Prostacyclin
Answer: A
41) A substance exposed on cell membranes after injury or trauma which activates the coagulation system through factor
VII (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Von Willebrand Factor

B. Labile factor
C. Tissue factor
D. Prothrombin
Answer: C
42) All are serine proteases, except which of the following: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. VIIIa, Va
B. XIa, XIIa
C. IXa, Xa
D. IIa, VIIa
Answer: A
43) Which is not true about factor VIII (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Deficiency is called hemophilia A

B. It circulates bound to VWF
C. Free form is stable in plasma
D. Inactivated by protein C
Answer: C
44) Which of the following is not true about VWF

1. Transports procoagulant factor VIII
2. Primary platelet receptor is GP IIb/IIIa
3. Stored in Weibel-Palade bodies in endothelial cells
4. Stored in alpha granules of platelets (1.00 pt/s.)
A. 1, 3
B. 2, 4
C. 2 only
D. 4 only
Answer: C
45) Which of the following is activated by factor II? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. V, VIII, IX
B. V, VIII, XIII
C. V, IX, XIII
D. V, VIII, X
Answer: B
46) All statements regarding fibrin degradation products are true, except: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Fragment X is central E domain with two D domains

B. Fragment Y is E domain after cleavage of one D domain
C. D-dimer is composed of one D domain and one E domain from separate fibrin molecules
D. D-dimer is a specific product of digestion of cross-linked fibrin only
Answer: C
47) All statements regarding fibrinogen are true, except:

1. Primary substrate of thrombin
2. Links activated platelet through GP Ib/IX/V
3. Primarily synthesized in the kidneys
4. An acute phase reactant
5. Least concentrated of all plasma procoagulants (1.00 pt/s.)
A. 1 only
B. 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 2, 3, and 5 only
Answer: D
48) Patient’s result are as follow:
Bleeding time = normal
PT = normal
APTT = prolonged
Which of the following coagulation factor is deficient? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. II
B. V
C. VII
D. VIII
Answer: D
49) Aspirin ingestion has the following effects on coagulation:

1. Prolonged APTT
2. Prolonged bleeding time
3. Decreased fibrinogen level
4. Interference with platelet aggregation (1.00 pt/s.)
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 1, 3
C. 2, 4
D. 1, 4
Answer: C
50) In APTT procedure, the time taken for clot formation is measured after addition of: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Calcium Chloride
B. Tissue thromboplastin
C. Phospholipid
D. Platelet factor 4
Answer: A

[MIDTERM] HEMATOLOGY 2 LECTURE EXAM Part 1
Assessment
(Instructor's Copy)
Duration : Apr 09, 2022 04:00 PM - Apr 09, 2022 06:30 PM Shuffled Question : No Time Limit : 50.00 View Score
After : Yes Passing Score : 25.00 View Result After : No Teacher : Rafael John Alconaba
Objective: FAMILIARIZE WITH THE FUNDAMENTALS OF HEMATOLOGY
Direction: CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER
Multiple Choice
1) Thrombocytopenia may be associated with: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Postsplenectomy
B. Hypersplenism
C. Acute blood loss
D. Increased proliferation of pluripotential stem cells
Answer: B
2) Normal platelet adhesion depends upon: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Fibrinogen
B. Glycoprotein Ib complex
C. Glycoprotein IIb, IIIa complex
D. Calcium
Answer: B
3) Which of the following test results is normal in a patient with classic von Willebrand’s disease? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Bleeding time
B. Activated partial thromboplastin time
C. Platelet count
D. Factor VIII:C and von Willebrand’s factor (VWF) levels
Answer: C
4) Bernard–Soulier syndrome is associated with: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Decreased bleeding time

B. Decreased factor VIII assay
C. Thrombocytopenia and giant platelets
D. Abnormal platelet aggregation to ADP
Answer: C
5) When performing platelet aggregation studies, which set of platelet aggregation results would most likely be associated
with Bernard–Soulier syndrome? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Normal platelet aggregation to collagen, ADP, and ristocetin

B. Normal platelet aggregation to collagen, ADP, and epinephrine; decreased aggregation to ristocetin C.
Normal platelet aggregation to epinephrine and ristocetin; decreased aggregation to collagen and ADP D.
Normal platelet aggregation to epinephrine, ristocetin, and collagen; decreased aggregation to ADP
Answer: B
6) Which set of platelet responses would be most likely associated with Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Normal platelet aggregation to ADP and ristocetin; decreased aggregation to collagen

B. Normal platelet aggregation to collagen; decreased aggregation to ADP and ristocetin
C. Normal platelet aggregation to ristocetin; decreased aggregation to collagen, ADP, and epinephrine
D. Normal platelet aggregation to ADP; decreased aggregation to collagen and ristocetin
Answer: C
7) Which of the following is a characteristic of acute immune thrombocytopenic purpura? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Spontaneous remission within a few weeks

B. Predominantly seen in adults
C. Nonimmune platelet destruction
D. Insidious onset
Answer: A
8) Storage pool deficiencies are defects of: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Platelet adhesion
B. Platelet aggregation
C. Platelet granules
D. Platelet production
Answer: C
9) Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia is a disorder of: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Platelets
B. Clotting proteins
C. Fibrinolysis
D. Connective tissue
Answer: D
10) Which of the following prevents platelet aggregation? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Thromboxane A2
B. Thromboxane B2
C. Prostacyclin
D. Antithrombin
Answer: C
11) Which defect characterizes Gray platelet syndrome? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Platelet adhesion defect

B. Dense granule defect
C. Alpha granule defect
D. Coagulation defect
Answer: C
12) Which test result would be normal in a patient with dysfibrinogenemia? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Thrombin time
B. APTT
C. PT
D. Fibrinogen level
Answer: D
13) Which of the following is a characteristic of classic hemophilia A? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Prolonged thrombin time

B. Autosomal recessive inheritance
C. Anatomic soft tissue bleeding
D. Prolonged PT
Answer: C
14) The following results were obtained on a patient: normal platelet count and function, normal PT, and prolonged APTT.
Which of the following disorders is most consistent with these results? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Hemophilia A
B. Bernard–Soulier syndrome
C. von Willebrand’s disease
D. Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia
Answer: A
15) PT= normal

APTT= prolonged
Bleeding time= increased
Platelet count = normal Platelet aggregation= abnormal
Which of the following disorders may be indicated? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Hemophilia A
B. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
C. VWD
D. Hemophilia B
Answer: C
16) Which results are associated with hemophilia A? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Prolonged APTT, normal PT

B. Prolonged PT and APTT
C. Prolonged PT, normal APTT
D. Normal PT and APTT
Answer: A
17) The most common subtype of classic von Willebrand’s disease: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Type 1
B. Type 2A
C. Type 2B
D. Type 3
Answer: A
18) Aspirin prevents platelet aggregation by inhibiting the action of which enzyme (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Phospholipase
B. Cyclo-oxygenase
C. Thromboxane A2 synthetase
D. Prostacyclin synthetase
Answer: B
19) The following laboratory results were obtained: PT, PTT and Thrombin time =prolonged. What is the most probable
diagnosis? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Factor VII deficiency

B. Factor VIII deficiency
C. Factor X deficiency
D. Hypofibrinogenemia
Answer: D
20) A term used to describe bleeding from a single location indicating injury/infection (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Localized
B. Generalized
C. Systemic
D. Anatomic
Answer: A
21) A systemic hemorrhage that is characterizad by purple lesions of the skin greater than 3mm due to seeping RBCs
(1.00 pt/s.)
A. Purpuraa
B. Petechiae
C. Ecchymoses
D. NOTA
Answer: A
22) Which of the following is the first coagulation factor to exhibit decreased activity in liver disease? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Factor II
B. Factor V
C. Factor VII
D. Factor X
Answer: C
23) Which of the following assays is used to distinguish vitamin K deficiency from liver disease? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. PT
B. Protein C assay
C. Factor V assay
D. Factor VII assay
Answer: C
24) Anatomic hemorrhage is associated with disorders of: (1.00 pt/s.)
B. Secondary hemostasis
C. Fibrinolysis
D. NOTA
Answer: B
25) Mucocutaneous hemorrhage is associated with disorders of: (1.00 pt/s.)
B. Secondary homeostasis
C. Fibrinolysis
D. NOTA
Answer: A
26) All are true regarding congenital VWD, EXCEPT (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Characterized by reduced platelet adhesion to injured vessel wall

B. Sex-linked recessive inheritance pattern
C. Affects both sexes
D. Is a mucocutaneous bleeding disorder
Answer: B
27) VWD subtype characterized by impaired Factor VIII binding site (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Type 1
B. Type 2A
C. Type 2N
D. Type 3
Answer: C
28) VWD subtype wherein VWF is absent or nearly absent in the plasma (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Type 1
B. Type 2A
C. Type 2N
D. Type 3
Answer: D
29) Platelet dense granules contain

1. Serotonn
2. ADP/ATP
3. Calcium
4. Platelet factor 4 (1.00 pt/s.)
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 2, 3
C. 1, 3
D. AOTA
Answer: A
30) Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura is characterized by: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Increased platelet destruction

B. Increased megakaryocytes
C. Normal platelet count
D. Marrow infiltration
Answer: A
31) Which of the following are disorders of platelet aggregation?

Glanzmann thrombasthenia
VWD
BSS
Hereditary afibrinogenemia (1.00 pt/s.)
A. 1 anad 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 1 and 4
D. 2 and 3
Answer: C
32) Which of the following are disorders of platelet adhesion?

Glanzmann thrombasthenia
VWD
BSS
Hereditary afibrinogenemia (1.00 pt/s.)
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 1 and 4
D. 2 and 3
Answer: D
33) Refer to the following results: Bleeding time =normal

PT = normal APTT = prolonged Which disorder may be indicated? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Factor VIII deficiency

B. von Willebrand’s disease
C. DIC
Answer: A
34) Which of the following conditions is characterized by irregular inclusions in PMNs, giant platelets and
thrombocytopenia (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Chediak Higasahi
B. BSS
C. Wiskot Aldrich syndrome
D. May Hegglin anomaly
Answer: D
35) Which of the following is not characterized by giant platelets? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Glanzmann thrombasthenia
B. May-Heggline anomaly
C. BSS
D. Sebastian syndrome
Answer: A
36) In platelet aggregation studies, result showed normal aggregation with collagen, epinephrine and ADP, but abnormal
with ristocetin. Results is suggestive of: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. VWD and BSS
B. VWD and Glanzmann thrombasthenia
C. Gray platelet syndrome and Glanzmann thrombasthenia
D. Gray platelet syndrom and BSS
Answer: A
37) Which of the following platelet aggregation response is suggestive of VWD? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Decreased aggregation to collagen and ADP

B. Decreased aggregation to ristocetin
C. Decreased aggregation to epinephrine
D. Normal aggregation to ristocetin
Answer: B
38) Given the laboratory results

Bleeding time >12mins (2-4mins)
PT=12.0 (10-15 sec)
PTT=50 (23-35 sec)
Platelet aggregation: Normal response to ADP, collagen and epinephrine, abnormal response with ristocetin
Result is suggestive of: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Hemophilia A
B. Hemophila B
C. VWD
Answer: C
39) The word “idiopathic” means: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Acquired abnormality
B. Hereditary abnormality
C. Of unknown cause
D. Caused by medical interventions
Answer: C
40) Which of the following laboratory results is decreased in patient with Type 2A VWD (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Factor VIII activity

B. PTT
C. Platelet count
D. RIPA
Answer: D
41) Acute ITP may be associated with which of the following? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Bacterial infection
B. Viral infection
C. Allergic reaction
D. Parasitic infections
Answer: B
42) BSS is a defect of ____ and caused by deficiency of _____. (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Aggregation; GP1b
B. Aggregation; GPIIb
C. Adhesion; GPIb
D. Adhesion; GPIIb
Answer: C
43) A condition characterized by a defect on clot retraction test is due to: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Deficiency of GPIb
B. Deficiency of GPIIb/IIIa
C. Decreased ADP in dense granules
D. Decreased VWF
Answer: B
44) If the patient is suspected to have qualitative defect on platelet function, the most useful test to order is: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Platelet count
B. Bleeding time
C. PT
D. Thrombin time
Answer: B
45) Which of the following condition is characterized by thrombocytosis? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. DIC
B. Polycythemia vera
C. Splenomegaly
D. ITP
Answer: B
46) A specimen for PT and PTT was received. A 5 mL blue top tube has 2.5 mL of blood. What should be done next?
(1.00 pt/s.)
A. Test immediately to prevent deterioration of coagulation factors

B. Refrigerate the sample to preserve coagulation factors
C. Reject the sample
D. Recollect another 2.5mL and add to the previously collected blood
Answer: C
47) What is the expected coaulation result in the underfilled blood collection tube for coagulation screen. (1.00 pt/s.)
A. PT and PTT =falsely decreased

B. PT and PTT =falsely prolonged
C. PT and PTT =unaffected
D. PT =unaffected, PTT=prolonged
Answer: B
48) A 6 y.o. child was sent to ER. Patient history revealed previous infection with chicken pox. Clinical manifestation
showed petechiae and epistaxis with decreased platelet count. What is the most likely condition? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. TAR
B. ITP
C. HUS
D. VWD
Answer: B
49) Which of the following screening tests assesses anemia that is associated with chronic bleeding? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. CBC
B. Platelet count
C. PT
D. PTT
Answer: A
50) Which of the following is not an indication of a congenital hemorrhagic disorder? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Onset of bleeding in infancy

B. Repeated hemorrhages in childhood
C. Relatives with similar bleeding symptoms
D. Disorders secondary to trauma and drug exposure
Answer: D

[MIDTERM] HEMATOLOGY 2 LECTURE EXAM Part 2
Assessment
(Instructor's Copy)
Duration : Apr 09, 2022 04:00 PM - Apr 09, 2022 06:30 PM Shuffled Question : No
Objective: FAMILIARIZE WITH THE FUNDAMENTALS IN HEMATOLOGY
Multiple Choice
1) The coagulation factor that is first to exhibit decreased activity in liver disease is due to: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Alteration of Vit. K production

B. Short plasma half-life
C. Alcohol toxicity in alcoholism-related cirrhosis
D. Production of antithrombin
Answer: B
2) Prolongation of deficiency of Vit. K dependent factors in normal newborns is due to: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Increased gut flora

B. Breastfeeding
C. Low maternal immunoglobulins passively acquired
D. Intravenous Vit. K administration
Answer: B
3) All are true regarding acquired VWD, EXCEPT (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Associated with hyperthyroidism

B. Involves decreased production of VWF
C. Autoantibody is present
D. NOTA
Answer: A
4) Subtype of VWD wherein all forms of VWF multimers are of normal pattern (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Type 1
B. Type 2A
C. Type 2B
D. Type 3
Answer: A
5) Given the following laboratory results

PT and PTT =prolonged
TT=normal
What is the most likely condition? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Afibrinogenemia
B. Prothrombin deficiency
C. Factor XIII deficiency
D. Factor VIII deficiency
Answer: B

PT =normal
PTT =prolonged
TT=normal
A. Afibrinogenemia
Answer: D

PT =normal
PTT =normal
TT=normal
A. Afibrinogenemia
Answer: C

PT, PTT, TT =prolonged
What factor is deficient? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Afibrinogenemia
Answer: A
9) The abnormal size of platelets in MHA is due to: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Presence of Dohle bodies

B. Mutations in MYH9 gene
C. Extreme hypoplasia of the radial bones
D. Deletions of RBM8 gene
Answer: B
10) All are disorders involving mutations of the MYH9 gene, EXCEPT (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Sebastian syndrome
B. Fecthner syndrome
C. Epstein syndrome
D. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
Answer: D
11) All are true regarding TAR syndrome, EXCEPT: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Rare autosomal dominant disorder

B. Characterized by severe neonatal thrombocytopenia
C. Congenital hypoplasia of the radial bones of forearms
D. Associated with mutations of RBM8 gene
Answer: A
12) What disorder is characterized by thrombocytopenia at birth (platelet count <20,000/uL) and is caused by mutations in
the MPL gene? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Congenital hypoplasia
B. Congenital amegakaryocytic thrombocytopenia
C. Autosomal dominant thrombocytopenia
D. X linked thrombocytopenia
Answer: B
13) Most common infectious agent causing congenital thrombocytopenia (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Toxoplasma
B. Rubella
C. Cytomegalovirus
D. Herpes
Answer: C
14) Thrombocytopenia as a result of megaloblastic anemia (Ineffective thrombopoiesis) is characterized by: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Increased megakaryocytes, increased platelets

B. Increased megakaryocytes, decreased platelets
C. Decreased megakaryocytes, decreased platelets
D. Decreased megakrayocytes, increased platelets
Answer: B
15) Platelet destruction in chronic ITP is due to: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Antibodies attached to platelets

B. Impaired DNA synthesis
C. Mechanical damage
D. Nonspecific upper respiratory tract infection
Answer: A
16) Which of the following inherited giant platelet disorders has the most severe thrombocytopenia? (1.00 pt/s.)

B. May Hegglin anomaly
C. Montreal platelet syndrome
D. Fecthner syndrome
Answer: C
17) Which of the following is the most common inherited giant platelet disorders? (1.00 pt/s.)

B. May Hegglin anomaly
C. Montreal platelet syndrome
D. Fecthner syndrome
Answer: B
18) All are hereditary vascular disorders, EXCEPT: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Rendu-Osler-Weber syndrome
B. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
C. Henoch-Schonlein Purpura
D. Kasabach-Merritt syndrome
Answer: C
19) Vascular defect manifested by hyperextensible skin, hypermobile joints, fragile tissues, and a bleeding tendency (1.00
pt/s.)
Answer: B
20) Allergic condition accompanied by transient arthralgia, nephritis, abdominal pain, and purpuric skin lesions (1.00 pt/s.)
Answer: C
21) Henoch-Schonlein Purpura is characterized by the following, EXCEPT: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Primarily a disease of children

B. Onset is insidious
C. Followed by respiratory tract infectionx
D. An acquired vascular disorder characterized by dark blotches (age spots) and occurs more commonly in elder men
than in women
Answer: B
22) An acquired vascular disorder characterized by dark blotches (age spots) and occurs more commonly in elder men
than in women (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Senile purpura
B. Paraproteinemia
C. Amyloidosis
D. Henoch-Schonlein Purpura
Answer: A
23) All of the following characterizes platelet defects in myeloproliferative neoplasms, EXCEPT: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Abnormally shaped platelets

B. Shortened platelet survival
C. Decreased procoagulant activity
D. Increased numbers of secretory granules
Answer: D
24) The platelet defect associated with increased paraproteins is: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Impaired membrane activation owing to protein coating

B. Hypercoagulability owing to antibody binding and membrane activation
C. Impaired aggregation because the hyperviscous plasma prevents platelet-endothelium interaction
D. Hypercoagulability due to increased proteins which leads to inappropriate aggregation
Answer: A
25) Which of the following is associated with multiple factor deficiencies? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. An inherited disorder of coagulation

B. Severe liver disease
C. Dysfibrinogenemia
D. Lupus anticoagulant
Answer: B
26) Which of the following types of Hemophilia is more prevalent in the US (85%) (1.00 pt/s.)

B. Factor IX deficiency
C. Factor X deficiency
D. Factor XI deficiency
Answer: A
27) All are true regarding Hemophilia C, EXCEPT (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance

B. Causes mild to moderate bleeding symptoms
C. AKA Rosenthal syndrome
D. Laboratory results show prolonged both PT and PTT
Answer: D
28) The mutation in hemophilia is located in which chromosome? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Chromosome 7
B. Chromosome 19
C. Chromosome 21
D. Chromosome X
Answer: D
29) All are true regarding Hemophilia A, EXCEPT (1.00 pt/s.)
A. All sons of men with hemophilia A and noncarrier women are normal
B. All daughters of men with hemophilia A and noncarrier women are obligate carriers
C. Severe hemophilia may not become apparent until a triggering event (i.e. trauma) occurs in late childhood
D. Male hemizygotes with FVIII gene muttaion experience anatomic bleeding
Answer: C
30) Which of the following inherited giant platelet syndromes presents a Dohle-body like neutrophil inclusions? (1.00
pt/s.)
A. Fechtner syndrome
B. Epstein syndrome
C. May-Hegglin anomaly
D. Montreal platelet syndrome
Answer: C
31) Which of the following inherited giant platelet syndromes has severe thrombocytopenia (5 - 40 x10^9/L) (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Fechtner syndrome
B. Epstein syndrome
C. May-Hegglin anomaly
D. Montreal platelet syndrome
Answer: D
32) Mucocutaneous hemorrhage greater than 1 cm typically seen after trauma (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Petechiae
B. Purpura
C. Ecchymosis
D. Epistaxis
Answer: C
33) All are true about mucocutaneous bleeding, EXCEPT (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Associated with disorders of the secondary hemostasis

B. A qualitative platelet disorder
C. Associated with thrombocytopenia
D. Associated with vascular disorders such as scurvy
Answer: A
34) Laboratory tests for detection and classification of VWD (1.00 pt/s.)
A. VWF:Ag assay
B. VWF:RCo assay
C. Factor VIII activity assay
D. AOTA
Answer: D
35) First coagulation factor to exhibit decreased activity in liver disease (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Factor II
B. Factor VII
C. Factor IX
D. Factor X
Answer: B
36) Refer to the following results: PT = prolonged APTT = prolonged Platelet count = decreased Which disorder may be
indicated? (1.00 pt/s.)

B. von Willebrand’s disease
C. DIC
D. Factor IX deficiency
Answer: C
37) Fibrin degradation products are increased in which of the following conditions? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Hemophilia A
B. Hemophilia B
C. Hemophilia C
D. DIC
Answer: D
38) The test/s that is/are elevated in chronic, compensated DIC (1.00 pt/s.)
A. PT
B. PTT
C. D-dimer
D. AOTA
Answer: C
39) Which of the following is an indication of marked liver disease? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Increased fibrinogen level

B. Fibrinogen level falls below 100 mg/dL
C. Decreased Factor VII
D. Decreased Factor V
Answer: B
40) In nephrotic syndrome, Factors II, VII, IX and X are detected in the urine due to: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. High molecular weight of the coagulation factors

B. Vit. K production is increased
C. Increased glomerular permeability
D. NOTA
Answer: C

HEMATOLOGY 1 MIDTERM EXAM (Part 2)
Assessment
(Instructor's Copy)
Duration : Not yet assigned Shuffled Question : Not yet assigned
Time Limit : 50.00 View Score After : Not yet assigned
Passing Score : 30.00 View Result After : Not yet assigned
Multiple Choice
1) What causes the hemolytic process in glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency following oxidant exposure?
(1.00 pt/s.)
A. Coating of red cells by antibody

B. Osmotic pressure changes
C. Complement attachment
D. Precipitation of denatured hemoglobin
Answer: D
2) Which of the following laboratory results is not consistent with accelerated red cell destruction? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Increased serum bilirubin

B. Increased plasma hemoglobin
C. Increased serum lactate dehydrogenase
D. Increased serum haptoglobin
Answer: D
3) Acquired hemolytic anemias are usually due to (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Extracorpuscular factors
B. Defects within the bone marrow
C. Intracellular factors
D. Changes in hemoglobin stability
Answer: A
4) Hemoglobinopathies are characterized by (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Absent or reduced rate of globin-chain synthesis

B. Inability to transport and release oxygen to the tissues
C. Inhibition of iron chelation needed for heme synthesis
D. Production of structurally abnormal hemoglobin variants
Answer: D
5) Thalassemias are the result of a (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Structural defect in the heme portion of hemoglobin

B. Quantitative defect in globin-chain synthesis
C. Qualitative defect in globin-chain structure
D. Change in hemoglobin solubility properties
Answer: B
6) Which of the following characterizes iron-deficiency anemia? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Decreased serum iron, decreased transferrin saturation, normal ferritin

B. Decreased serum transferrin, decreased transferrin saturation, decreased ferritin
C. Increased serum transferrin, decreased transferrin saturation, decreased ferritin
D. Increased serum transferrin, increased transferrin saturation, decreased serum iron
Answer: C
7) The major mechanism responsible for the anemia of chronic disease is (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Impaired release of storage iron because of increased hepcidin levels

B. Damaged bone marrow stem cells
C. Immune destruction caused by red cell autoantibodies
D. Increased erythropoietin response by committed red cell progenitor cells
Answer: A
8) Which of the following is considered normal hemoglobin? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Carboxyhemoglobin
B. Methemoglobin
C. Sulfhemoglobin
D. Deoxyhemoglobin
Answer: D
9) Which of the following Hgb configuration is characteristic of Hgb H? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. ?4
B. ?2-?2
C. ?4
D. ?2-?2
Answer: C
10) The anemia seen in sickle cell disease is usually: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Microcytic, normochromic
B. Microcytic, hypochromic
C. Normocytic, normochromic
D. Normocytic, hypochromic
Answer: C
11) Which is the major Hgb found in the RBCs of patients with sickle cell trait? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Hgb S
B. Hgb F
C. Hgb A2
D. Hgb A
Answer: D
12) Select the amino acid substitution that is responsible for sickle cell anemia (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Lysine is substituted for glutamic acid at the sixth position of the alpha chain
B. Valine is substituted for glutamic acid at the sixth position of the beta chain
C. Valine substituted for glutamic acid at the sixth position of the alpha chain
D. Glutamine is substituted for glutamic acid at the sixth position of the beta chain
Answer: B
13) All of the following are usually found in Hgb C disease EXCEPT: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Hgb C crystals
B. Target cells
C. Lysine substituted for glutamic acid at the sixth position of the beta-chain
D. Fast mobility of Hgb C at pH 8.6
Answer: D
14) Which of the following hemoglobin migrates to the same position as Hgb A2 at pH 8.6? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Hgb H
B. Hgb F
C. Hgb C
D. Hgb S
Answer: C
15) Which of the following electrophoretic results is consistent with a diagnosis of sickle cell trait? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Hgb A: 40%; Hgb S: 35%; Hgb F: 5%

B. Hgb A: 60%; Hgb S: 40%; Hgb A2: 2%
C. Hgb A: 0%; Hgb A2: 5%; Hgb F: 95%
D. Hgb A: 80%; Hgb S: 10%; Hgb A2: 10%
Answer: B
16) Bite cells are usually seen in patients with: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Rh null trait
B. Chronic granulomatous disaese
C. G6PD deficiency
D. PK defieciency
Answer: C
17) Sickle cell disorders are: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Hereditary, intracorpuscular RBC defects

B. Hereditary, extracorpuscular RBC defects
C. Acquired, intracorpuscular RBC defects
D. Acquired, extracorpuscular RBC defects
Answer: A
18) What red cell inclusion may be seen in the peripheral blood smear of a patient postsplenectomy? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Toxic granulation
B. Howell-Jolly bodies
C. Malarial parasites
D. Siderotic granules
Answer: B
19) All of the following are characteristic findings in a patient with iron deficiency anemia EXCEPT: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Microcytic, hypochromic red cell morphology

B. Decreased serum iron and ferritin levels
C. Decreased TIBC
D. Increased RBC protophorphyrin
Answer: C
20) Iron deficiency anemia may be distinguished from anemia of chronic infection by: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Serum iron level

B. Red cell morphology
C. Red cell indices
D. TIBC
Answer: D
21) Which anemia has red cell morphology similar to that seen in iron deficiency anemia? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Sickle cell anemia
B. Thalassemia syndrome
C. Pernicious anemia
D. Hereditary spherocytosis
Answer: B
22) What is the basic hematological defect seen in patients with thalassemia major? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. DNA synthetic defect

B. Hgb structure
C. Beta-chain synthesis
D. Hgb phosphorylation
Answer: C
23) Which of the following is the primary Hgb in patients with thalassemia major? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Hgb D
B. Hgb A
C. Hgb C
D. Hgb F
Answer: D
24) In which of the following conditions is Hgb A2 elevated? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Hgb H
B. Hgb SC disease
C. Beta-thalassemia minor
D. Hgb S trait
Answer: C
25) All of the following are cells found in the storage (maturation) pool EXCEPT (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Metamyelocyte
B. Promyelocyte
C. Band form
D. Segmenters
Answer: B
26) The final stage in neutrophil development in which cell division occurs (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Myeloblast
B. Promyelocyte
C. Myelocyte
D. Metamyelocyte
Answer: C
27) Neutrophil development in which tertiary (gelatinase) granules production may begin (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Myeloblast
B. Promyelocyte
C. Myelocyte
D. Metamyelocyte
Answer: D
28) Half-life of neutrophil in the blood (1.00 pt/s.)
A. 2 hours
B. 7 hours
C. 18 hours
D. 60 hours
Answer: B
29) All of the following cytokines are involved in the development of eosinophils EXCEPT (1.00 pt/s.)
A. IL-3
B. IL-5
C. IL-10
D. GM-CSF
Answer: C
30) Considered as the hallmark of allergic disorders (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Neutrophilia
B. Basophilia
C. Eosinophilia
D. Neutropenia
Answer: C
31) Resident macrophage present in the skin (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Kupffer cells
B. Alveolar macrophages
C. Langerhans cells
D. Type A cell
Answer: C
32) Which of the following glycolysis diversion pathways detoxifies H2O2 thus extending functional lifespan of RBCs (1.00
pt/s.)
A. Embden-Meyerhof
B. Hexose Monophosphate
C. Methemoglobin Reductase
D. Rapaport-Leubering
Answer: B
33) Number of amino acids in the beta globin-chain (1.00 pt/s.)
A. 136
B. 141
C. 146
D. 148
Answer: C
34) Fetal hemoglobin is composed of which of the following (1.00 pt/s.)
A. ?2?2
B. ?2?2
C. ?2?2
D. ?2?2
Answer: B
35) Which of the following conditions would create a left shift in the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Acidosis
B. Decreased pCO2
C. Increased body temperature
D. Increased 2,3-BPG
Answer: B
36) What is the characteristic color of blood in relation to high levels of methemoglobin? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Cherry red
B. Mauve
C. Chocolate brown
D. Red
Answer: C
37) The presence of carboxyhemoglobin would create what effect to the oxygen hemoglobin dissociation curve? (1.00
pt/s.)
A. Normal curve
B. Shift to the left
C. Shift to the right
D. No change to sigmoidal curve
Answer: B
38) Sideroblastic anemia is characterized by ineffective erythropoiesis due to (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Deficient DNA synthesis due to folate deficiency

B. Deficient globin chain synthesis
C. Deficient protophorphyrin synthesis
D. Loes of erythroid precursor due to autoimmune reaction
Answer: C
39) What type of RBC morphological abnormality is commonly associated with uremia and PKD? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Dacryocyte
B. Acanthocyte
C. Echinocyte
D. Keratocyte
Answer: C
40) Howell-Jolly body, an inclusion commonly associated with megaloblastic anemia as well as thalassemia is composed
of which of the following? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. RNA
B. Precipitated RNA
C. DNA
D. Denatured hemoglobin
Answer: C
41) Which of the following would characterize frank anemia? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Normal hemoglobin; Decreased serum iron; Increased TIBC

B. Normal hemoglobin; Decreased serum iron; Decreased TIBC
C. Decreased hemoglobin; Decreased serum iron; Decreased TIBC
D. Decreased hemoglobin; Decreased serum iron; Increased TIBC
Answer: D
42) The affected gene in Congenital Erythropoietic Porphyria (CEP) is (1.00 pt/s.)
A. ALAs1
B. ALAS2
C. FECH
D. UROS
Answer: D
43) The pattern of inheritance of Erythropoietic Protoporphyria (EPP) (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Autosomal dominant
B. Autosomal recessive
C. X-linked dominant
D. X-linked recessive
Answer: A
44) Which of the following hemoglobin polymorphisms shows no anemia (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Hb S
B. Hb C
C. Hb D-Punjab
D. Hb E
Answer: C
45) Sickle cell disease is characterized by what type of anemia (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Normocytic, normochromic
C. Macrocytic, hypochromic
D. Macrocytic, hyperchromic
Answer: A
46) Which of the following hemoglobinopathies would occur when lysine replaces glutamic acid at position 26 on the beta
chain (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Hb E
B. Hb D
C. Hb O-Arab
D. Hb S
Answer: A
47) Thalassemias is a group of inherited disorders characterized by what type of anemia? (1.00 pt/s.)
D. Macrocytic, hyperchromic
Answer: B
48) Characterized by a decreased rate of synthesis of one of the beta chains; other beta chain is normal (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Cooley anemia
B. Minor beta thalassemia
C. Hydrops fetalis
D. Hb H
Answer: B
49) Hgb H is characterized by (1.00 pt/s.)
A. ?4
B. ?4
C. ?4
D. ?3?1
Answer: B
50) Type of thalassemia where two alpha genes are deleted (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Major alpha thalassemia

B. Hb H
C. Minor alpha thalassemia
D. Silent carrier
Answer: C

HEMATOLOGY 1 MIDTERM EXAM (Part 1)
Assessment
(Instructor's Copy)
Objective: TO BE FAMILIAR WITH THE FUNDAMENTALS OF HEMATOPOIESIS
Direction: CHOOSE THE BEST ANSWER.
Multiple Choice
1) Which of the following depicts the structure of the hemoglobin molecule? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Two heme groups, two globin chains

B. Four heme groups, two globin chains
C. Two heme groups, four globin chains
D. Four heme groups, four globin chains
Answer: D
2) Which of the following describes the process known as culling? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Release of red cells from the bone marrow

B. Binding of free hemoglobin by transport proteins
C. Incorporation of iron into protophorphyrin IX
D. Removal of abnormal red cells by the spleen
Answer: D
3) Hemoglobin forms that are incapable of oxygen transport include (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Deoxyhemoglobin and oxyhemoglobin

B. Oxyhemoglobin and carboxyhemoglobin
C. Carboxyhemoglobin and methemoglobin
D. Methemoglobin and deoxyhemoglobin
Answer: C
4) The majority of iron found in an adult is a constituent of (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Ferritin
B. Hemoglobin
C. Myoglobin
D. Peroxidase
Answer: B
5) A senescent red blood cell is one that has (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Been hemolyzed
B. Lived its life span
C. Become deformed
D. Lost its mitochondria
Answer: B
6) What red blood cells morphological abnormality is described by the term “poikilocytosis”? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Variation in size
B. Deviations from normal shape
C. Presence of inclusions
D. Alterations in hemoglobin concentration
Answer: B
7) Howell-Jolly bodies are composed of (1.00 pt/s.)
A. DNA
B. Iron
C. Reticulum
D. RNA
Answer: A
8) When spherocytes are reported, what is observed on the peripheral blood smear? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Red cells without a central pallor

B. Red cells with blunt projections
C. Red cells with sharp projections
D. Red cells with intracellular rod-shaped crystals
Answer: A
9) The red blood cells found in lead poisoning characteristically exhibit coarse granules composed of (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Precipitated hemoglobin
B. Precipitated RNA
C. Nuclear fragments
D. Remnant of mitotic spindles
Answer: B
10) The answer in number 9 is reported as: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Pappenheimer bodies
B. Basophilic stippling
C. Howell-Jolly bodies
D. Cabot rings
Answer: B
11) Rouleaux of red blood cells when seen in monolayer of a blood smear is characteristic of (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Hypersplenism
B. Hypogammaglobulinemia
C. Cold hemagglutinin disease
D. Multiple myeloma
Answer: D
12) Which of the following statements about iron absorption is true? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Absorption occurs in the ileum

B. The mucosal cell always absorbs the correct amount of iron to meet needs
C. Absorption increases when erythropoietic activity increases
D. Alkaline pH favors absorption
Answer: C
13) What term describes a mature red blood cell that contains iron granules or deposits? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Siderosome
B. Sideroblast
C. Ringed sideroblast
D. Siderocyte
Answer: D
14) Which of the following is associated with a “shift to the left” in the oxygen dissociation curve of hemoglobin? (1.00
pt/s.)
A. Decreased pH and elevated temperature

B. Decreased oxygen affinity
C. Decreased oxygen release
D. Presence of 2,3-BPG
Answer: C
15) Which of the following statements does not characterize erythropoietin (EPO)? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Transforms the CFU-E into the earliest recognizable RBC precursor

B. Increase the rate of RBC production by the bone marrow
C. Shortens the maturation time of developing erythroid precursors
D. Decreases stimulation of erythropoiesis when cellular hypoxia increases
Answer: D
16) Which of the following factors will result in an immediate increase in oxygen delivery to the tissues? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Increased pH
B. High altitudes
C. Increased hemoglobin binding of 2,3-BPG
D. Increased renal release of EPO
Answer: C
17) Periods of intense erythropoietin activity cause premature release of marrow reticulocytes into the blood. Which of the
following is NOT true of these early reticulocytes? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Loss of residual RNA occurs immediately upon marrow release

B. Circulate longer than usual before reaching maturity
C. May be termed shift or stress reticulocytes
D. Show diffuse basophilia with Wright’s stain
Answer: A
18) Which of the following inclusion is only visible with supravital staining? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Basophilic stippling
B. Cabot rings
C. Heinz bodies
D. Pappenheimer bodies
Answer: C
19) The presence of schistocytes on the peripheral blood smear is commonly associated with (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Increased iron mobilization

B. Increased red cell destruction
C. Decreased erythropoietin activity
D. Decreased red cell proliferation
Answer: B
20) Which of the following may be a sign of accelerated bone marrow erythropoiesis? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Hypercellular marrow with a decreased number of RBC precursors

B. Bone marrow M:E ratio of 6:1
C. Nucleated RBCs in the peripheral circulation
D. Low erythrocyte, hemoglobin, and hematocrit levels
Answer: C
21) Microcytic, hypochromic red cells are most often associated with impaired (1.00 pt/s.)
A. DNA synthesis
B. RNA metabolism
C. Hemoglobin synthesis
D. Enzyme metabolism
Answer: C
22) When acanthocytes are found on the blood smear, it is usually the result of (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Abnormal membrane permeability

B. Altered membrane lipids
C. Mechanical trauma
D. Polymerization of hemoglobin molecules
Answer: B
23) Which erythrocyte metabolic pathway generates adenosine triphosphate (ATP) via glycolysis? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Embden-Meyerhof
B. Hexose monophosphate
C. Rapoport-Leubering
D. Methemoglobin reductase
Answer: A
24) The major adult hemoglobin requires the synthesis of alpha-globin chains and (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Beta-globin chains
B. Delta-globin chains
C. Epsilon-globin chains
D. Gamma-globin chains
Answer: A
25) Defective nuclear maturation commonly results in the production of red cells that are (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Normocytic
B. Hypochromic
C. Macrocytic
D. Microcytic
Answer: C
26) The major storage form of iron is (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Ferritin
B. Transferrin
C. Hemosiderin
D. Hemachromatin
Answer: A
27) The red cells observed on a peripheral blood smear show extreme anisocytosis with an equal number of macrocytes
and microcytes. Which of the following values correlate with this finding? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. MCV 108 fL, RDW 14%

B. MCV 90 fL, RDW 25%
C. MCV 75 fL, RDW 16%
D. MCV 88 fL, RDW 12%
Answer: B
28) Excessive extravascular red cell destruction is associated with (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Hemoglobinemia
B. Bilirubinemia
C. Hemoglobinuria
D. Hemosiderinuria
Answer: B
29) Which protein is primarily responsible for transport of hemoglobin dimers resulting from intravascular hemolysis?
(1.00 pt/s.)
A. Hemopexin
B. Albumin
C. Hemosiderin
D. Haptoglobin
Answer: D
30) The morphologic abnormality characteristically found in hemoglobinopathy is (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Elliptocytes
B. Dacryocytes
C. Codocytes
D. Discocytes
Answer: C
31) Where do early and late stages of heme synthesis occur? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. On ribosomes
B. In mitochondria
C. In cytoplasm
D. In nucleoli
Answer: B
32) What is the function of reduced glutathione (GSH) in the red blood cell? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Promotes Kreb’s cycle activity

B. Maintains anion balance during chloride shift
C. Neutralizes intracellular oxidants that accumulate
D. Prevents oxygen uptake by hemoglobin
Answer: C
33) What does measuring the total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) represent? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Amount of free iron in serum

B. Circulating protein-bound iron
C. Amount of iron that transferrin can bind
D. Indirect measurement of iron stores
Answer: C
34) Fetal hemoglobin differs from adult hemoglobin in that hemoglobin F (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Has a lower oxygen affinity

B. Resists elution from red cells with acid solution
C. Is no longer synthesized after birth in a normal individual
D. Has four gamma-globulin chains
Answer: B
35) Impaired DNA metabolism is characteristic of (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Hemoglobin C disease
B. Iron deficiency anemia
C. Sideroblastic anemia
D. Megaloblastic anemia
Answer: D
36) In regard to variant hemoglobin E, ?2?2 26Glu —>Lys, which of the following statements is NOT TRUE? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. There are two normal alpha chains

B. Glutamic acid replaces lysine on position 26 of beta chains
C. Hemoglobin E is the second most common hemoglobin variant known
D. Glutamic acid is normally found at position 26 of the beta chain
Answer: B
37) A 9-month old male patient was sent to the Emergency Department with a femur fracture. Upon physical examination,
the physician noted splenomegaly, extreme pallor, and a slight arrhythmia. A complete blood count revealed the
following:
WBC: 12.2 x10^9/L
RBC: 3.05 x10^12/L
Hemoglobin: 61 g/L
Hematocrit: 0.20 L/L
MCV: 65.5 fL
MCH: 20 pg
MCHC: 305 g/L
RDW: 25%
Hemoglobin electrophoresis showed:

Hgb A = 0%
Hgb A2 = 3%
Hgb F = 97%
Which condition is most likely causing the hematologic abnormalities? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Alpha-thalassemia major
B. Cooley beta-thalassemia major
C. Hemoglobin H disease
D. Hereditary persistence of hemoglobin F
Answer: B
38) Pica is most commonly associated with which of the following conditions? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Pyridoxine deficiency
B. Lack of erythrocyte folate
C. Iron deficiency
D. Porphyrins
Answer: C
39) Which of the following blood findings DOES NOT correlate with the presence of ringed sideroblasts in the bone
marrow? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Pappenheimer bodies
B. Basophilic stippling
C. Increased TIBC
D. Increased percent transferrin saturation
Answer: C
40) A cellulose acetate hemoglobin electrophoresis (alkaline pH), performed on the blood of a stillborn infant, revealed a
single band that migrated farther toward the anode than did the Hgb A control. What is the most likely composition of the
stillborn infant’s hemoglobin? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Four beta chains

B. Four gamma chains
C. Two alpha and two beta chains
D. Two alpha and two gamma chains
Answer: B
41) The most likely cause of the stillborn infant’s condition in question 40 is (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Erythroblastosis fetalis
B. Rh HDN
C. Hydrops fetalis
D. ABO HDN
Answer: C
42) An excessive accumulation of iron in body tissues is called (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Hemochromatosis
B. Erythroblastosis
C. Megaloblastosis
D. Acryocyanosis
Answer: A
43) Abetalipoproteinemia is characterized by mild anemia and numerous __________ on the peripheral blood smear
(1.00 pt/s.)
A. Acanthocytes
B. Elliptocytes
C. Echinocytes
D. Stomatocytes
Answer: A
44) What is the most common cause of iron deficiency? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Bleeding
B. Gastrectomy
C. Inadequate diet
D. Intestinal malabsorption
Answer: A
45) Which of the following does not characterize beta-thalassemia major? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Transfusion-dependent anemia
B. Decreased alpha chains result in excess beta chains
C. Iron chelation therapy is necessary
D. Common in persons of Mediterranean ancestry
Answer: B
46) In the anemia of chronic disease, what are the usual serum iron and transferrin levels? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Serum iron decreased, transferrin decreased

B. Serum iron decreased, transferrin increased
C. Serum iron normal, transferrin normal
D. Serum iron increased, transferrin increased
Answer: A
47) In children, the most important effect of lead poisoning is on the (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Liver
B. Kidney
C. Neurologic system
D. Development of erythrocytes
Answer: C
48) On what is the classification of sickle cell trait versus sickle cell disease based? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Severity of the clinical symptoms

B. Number of irreversibly sickled cells
C. Level of compensatory hemoglobin F
D. Percentage of hemoglobin S on electrophoresis
Answer: D
49) Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for sickle cell anemia? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Hydroxyurea
B. Supportive therapy
C. Hyperbaric oxygen
D. Iron
Answer: B
50) Which of the following values can be used to indicate the presence of a hemolytic anemia? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Hemoglobin level
B. Hematocrit level
C. Erythrocyte level
D. Reticulocyte count
Answer: D

HEMATOLOGY 1 PRELIM EXAM (Part 2)
Assessment
(Instructor's Copy)
Multiple Choice
1) The sequence of hematopoiesis from prenatal life to adulthood is: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Yolk sac, red bone marrow, spleen

B. Yolk sac, liver and spleen, red bone marrow
C. Liver and spleen, yolk sac, red bone marrow
D. Red bone marrow, liver and spleen, yolk sac
Answer: B
2) The correct maturation order of erythrocyte morphologic stages is: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Prorubricyte, rubricyte, rubriblast, metarubricyte

B. Rubriblast, metarubricyte, rubricyte, prorubricyte
C. Rubriblast, prorubricyte, rubricyte, metarubricyte
D. Rubriblast, rubricyte, prorubricyte, metarubricyted. Rubriblast, rubricyte, prorubricyte, metarubricyte
Answer: C
3) The largest hematopoietic cells in normal bone marrow are: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Osteoblast
B. Osteoclast
C. Megakaryocyte
D. Plasma cells
Answer: C
4) The major site of removal of normal, aged erythrocytes is the: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Bone marrow
B. Kidney
C. Liver
D. Spleen
Answer: D
5) The central pallor of red blood cells does not normally exceed ___ of cell diameter (1.00 pt/s.)
A. 1/3
B. 1/2
C. 2/3
D. 3/4
Answer: A
6) Which of the following serves as index of erythropoiesis? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. MCH
B. RDW
C. Reticulocyte count
D. Platelet count
Answer: C
7) What is the anticoagulant of choice for coagulation studies? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. EDTA
B. Sodium fluoride
C. Sodium citrate
D. Acid citrate dextrose
Answer: C
8) Which of the following factors can stimulate proliferation of all cells in myeloid lineage? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. IL-2
B. IL-3
C. IL-4
D. IL-7
Answer: B
9) Primary stimulant for erythropoietin production: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Stress
B. Exercise
C. Hypoxia
D. Acute blood loss
Answer: C
10) Heparin is used as anticoagulant because it inhibits clotting by: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Chelating calcium
B. Preventing activation of prothrombin
C. Causing liver synthesis of nonfunctional factors
D. Neutralizing the action of thrombin
Answer: D
11) The number of inversion/s of non additive red top tube is: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. 3-4
B. 5
C. 8
D. None
Answer: D
12) Select which is the proper order of draw using the evacuated tube method (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Red, blue, yellow, green, lavender. gray

B. Lavender, red, blue, yellow, green, gray
C. Yellow, blue, red, green, lavender, gray
D. Yellow, blue, lavender, red, green, gray
Answer: C
13) The length of the needle used in routine venipuncture procedure is: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. 1 inch
B. 2 inches
C. 2.5 inches
D. 3 inches
Answer: A
14) Hemoglobin is measured spectrophotometrically at what wavelength? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. 340 nm
B. 440 nm
C. 540 nm
D. 640 nm
Answer: C
15) In manual counting of RBC, a Neubauer chamber is used. This hemocytometer has a depth of: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. 1.0 mm
B. 2.0 mm
C. 0.1 mm
D. 0.2 mm
Answer: C
16) What is the proper angle of needle insertion of phlebotomy? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. 5 degress
B. 15 degrees
C. 35 degrees
D. 45 degrees
Answer: B
17) Compared to a rubricyte, metarubricyte looks different because of its: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Dark blue cytoplasm

B. Larger size
C. Pyknotic nucleus
D. Nucleoli
Answer: C
18) A hematocrit is a measure of: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. RBC sedimentation rate

B. Total RBC mass
C. Total RBC count
D. Packed red cell volume
Answer: D
19) Erythrocytes with a diameter of > 8 um are referred to as: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Normocytes
B. Macrocytes
C. Microcytes
D. Leptocytes
Answer: B
20) RNA remnants in RBCs are visualized when stained with: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Wright's stain
B. New methylene blue
C. Prussian blue
D. Eosin
Answer: B
21) The white blood cell least often seen on a normal peripheral smear is the: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Neutrophil
B. Eosinophil
C. Basophil
D. Monocyte
Answer: C
22) What type of fire extinguisher should be used in ordinary combustibles such as paper, cloth, plastic, and wood? (1.00
pt/s.)
A. Type A
B. Type B
C. Type C
D. Type D
Answer: A
23) When a fire is discovered, one should remember the acronym: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. RUN
B. RACE
C. PASS
D. EXIT
Answer: B
24) In the chemical hazard identification system, the red diamond fire hazard with number 3 in it would mean: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Will not burn

B. Will burn above 200F
C. Will burn below 100F
D. Will burn below 73F
Answer: C
25) In the chemical hazard identification system, the yellow diamond represents: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Health
B. Fire
C. Instability
D. Specific
Answer: C
26) All are physiologic factors that may contribute to variation of test results, EXCEPT (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Diet
B. Leukemia
C. Smoking
D. Stress
Answer: B
27) Some blood collection tubes contain additives to produce blood components needed for testing. Glass and silica
particles are example of what type of additives? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Antiglycolytic
B. Anticoagulant
C. Clot activators
D. Separator gel
Answer: C
28) How many inversions should be made when blood is collected in a light blue top with sodium citrate anticoagulant?
(1.00 pt/s.)
A. 0
B. 1-2
C. 3-4
D. 8
Answer: C
29) How many inversions should be made when blood is collected in a lavender top tube with EDTA anticoagulant? (1.00
pt/s.)
A. 0
B. 1-2
C. 3-4
D. 8
Answer: D
30) How many inversions should be made when blood is collected in a green top tube with sodium heparin anticoagulant?
(1.00 pt/s.)
A. 0
B. 1-2
C. 3-4
D. 8
Answer: D
31) What is the most common needle size for adult routine venipuncture? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. 21 gauge with a length of 1 inch

B. 21 gauge with a length of 2 inches
C. 23 gauge with length of 1 inch
D. 23 gauge with a length of 2 inches
Answer: A
32) Select the order of preference in selecting the vein for venipuncture (most to least) (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Basilic, cephalic, median cubital
B. Cephalic, median cubital, basilicb. Cephalic, median cubital, basilic
C. Median cubital, cephalic, basilicc. Median cubital, cephalic, basilic
D. Median cubital, basilic, cephalic
Answer: C
33) Which of the following is considered to be the most common complication in venipuncture. It involves leakage of small
amount of blood in tissue around puncture site. (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Ecchymosis
B. Hematoma
C. Hemoconcentration
D. Hemolysis
Answer: A
34) Which of the following is the site of choice for skin puncture in infants under 1 year (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Lateral or medial plantar surface of the heel

B. Palmar surface of the distal portion of third finger of nondominant hand
C. Either
D. Neither
Answer: A
35) All of the following are reasons for specimen rejection, however the phlebotomist may have no control over which
aspect? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Specimen contaminated with IV fluid

B. Specimen is lipemic
C. Specimen is hemolyzed
D. Specimen was collected at the wrong tube
Answer: B
36) Type of WBC with bright orange-red cytoplasmic granules (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Neutrophil
B. Basophil
C. Eosinophil
D. Lymphocyte
Answer: C
37) Type of WBC that is characterized by a thin rim of cytoplasm and a round nucleus (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Neutrophil
B. Basophil
C. Eosinophil
D. Lymphocyte
Answer: D
38) The primitive hematopoiesis in the yolk sac begins at: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. 19th day of embryonic development

B. 5 to 7 gestational weeks
C. 3 months age of gestation
D. 7 months of fetal life
Answer: A
39) The hepatic phase of hematopoiesis wherein there is a decline in primitive hematopoiesis begins at: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. 19th day of embryonic development

B. 5 to 7 gestational weeks
C. 3 months age of gestation3 months age of gestation
D. 7 months of fetal life
Answer: B
40) Which statement correctly describe monophyletic theory (1.00 pt/s.)
A. All blood cells derived from a single progenitor stem cell called a pluripotent stem cell
B. Each blood cell lineages is derived from its own unique stem cell
C. Either
D. Neither
Answer: A
41) CFU-GEMM, CFU-ME, and CFU-GM are examples of: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Stem cells
B. Progenitor cells
C. Precursor cells
D. Effector cells
Answer: B
42) Which of the following is the earliest visualized erythrocyte precursors in the bone marrow? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. BFU-E
B. Pronormoblast
C. Basophilic normoblast
D. Reticulocyte
Answer: B
43) Which of the following statements incorrectly describe erythrocyte maturation (1.00 pt/s.)
A. As the cell matures, the overall diameter of the cell decreases

B. As the cell matures, N:C ratio increases
C. Nuclear chromatin becomes more condensed as cell matures
D. Nucleoli disappears as cell matures
Answer: B
44) What is the N:C ratio of basophilic normoblast? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. 8:1
B. 6:1
C. 4:1
D. 1:2
Answer: B
45) Which of the following erythrocytic stage is said to be the last stage capable of undergoing mitotic division? (1.00
pt/s.)
A. Pronormoblast
B. Basophilic normoblast
C. Polychromatic normoblast
D. Orthochromic normoblasst
Answer: C
46) Which of the following erythrocyte precursor is said to be the last nucleated stage (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Pronormoblast
D. Orthochromic normoblasst
Answer: D
47) AKA nucleated RBC in the peripheral smear (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Pronormoblast
D. Orthochromic normoblast
Answer: D
48) Which of the following erythrocyte stage is said to be the last stage to synthesize hemoglobin? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Basophilic normoblast
B. Polychromatic normoblast
C. Orthochromic normoblast
D. Polychromatic erythrocyte
Answer: D
49) RBC central pallor greater than one third is seen in: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Spherocytic disorders
B. Microcytic anemias
C. Normal cells
D. AOTA
Answer: B
50) RBC central pallor less than 1/3 is seen in: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Spherocytic disorders
B. Microcytic anemias
C. Normal cells
D. AOTA
Answer: A

HEMATOLOGY1 PRELIM EXAM (Part 1)
Assessment
(Instructor's Copy)
Objective: FAMILIARIZE WITH FUNDAMENTALS OF HEMATOLOGY
Multiple Choice
1) Insufficient centrifugation will result in: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. A false increase in hematocrit value

B. A false decrease in hematocrit value
C. No effect on hematocrit value
D. AOTA, depending on the patient
Answer: A
2) Variation in red cell size observed on the peripheral smear is described as: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Anisocytosis
B. Hypochromia
C. Pleocytosis
D. Poikilocytosis
Answer: A
3) Mean cell volume. (MCV) is calculated using the following formula: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. (Hgb / RBC) x 10
B. (Hct / RBC) x 10
C. (Hct / Hgb) x 100
D. (Hgb / RBC) x 100
Answer: B
4) What term describes the change in shape of erythrocytes on a Wright’s-stained peripheral blood smear? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Anisocytosis
B. Hypochromia
C. Pleocytosis
D. Poikilocytosis
Answer: D
5) Calculate the mean cell hemoglobin concentration (MCHC) using the following values:
Hgb: 15g/dL
Hct: 47%
RBC: 4.50 x10^12/L (1.00 pt/s.)
A. 9.5%
B. 10.4%
C. 31.9%
D. 33.3%
Answer: C
6) A 7.0-mL EDTA tube is received in the laboratory containing only 2.0 mL of blood. If the laboratory is using manual
techniques, which of the following tests will most likely be erroneous? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Hematocrit
B. Hemoglobin
C. RBC count
D. WBC count
Answer: A
7) What phagocytic cells produce lysozymes that are bacteriocidal? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Eosinophils
B. Lymphocytes
C. Neutrophils
D. Platelets
Answer: C
8) What effect would using a buffer at pH 6.0 have on a Wright’s-stained smear? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Red cells would be stained too blue?

B. Red cells would be stained too pink?
C. Red cells would lyse on the slide
D. White cell cytoplasm would be stained too blue
Answer: B
9) A falsely increased hematocrit is obtained. Which of the following calculated values will NOT be affected? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. MCV
B. MCH
C. MCHC
D. RDW
Answer: B
10) Situation: RBC indices obtained on an anemic patient are as follows: MCV 88 fL; MCH 30 pg; MCHC 34%. The RBCs
on the peripheral smear would appear: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Microcytic, hypochromic
B. Microcytic, normochromic
Answer: C
11) What staining method is used most frequently to stain and manually count reticulocytes? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Cytochemical staining
B. Immunofluorescence
C. Romanowsky staining
D. Supravital staining
Answer: D
12) A correction is necessary for WBC counts when nucleated RBCs are seen on the peripheral smear because: (1.00
pt/s.)
A. The WBC count would be falsely lower

B. The RBC count is too low
C. Nucleated RBCs are counted as leukocytes
D. Nucleated RBCs are confused with giant platelets
Answer: C
13) Using an electronic cell counter analyzer, an increased RDW should correlate with: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Anisocytosis
B. Leukocytosis
C. Presence of nucleated RBCs
D. Spherocytosis
Answer: A
14) An increase in the hematocrit value will cause (1.00 pt/s.)
A. An increased MCV
B. An increased MCHC
C. No effect on MCH
D. AOTA
Answer: D
15) Which is the first stage of erythrocytic maturation in which the cytoplasm has combined blue and pink color (the pink
color due to the formation of hemoglobin)? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Basophilic normoblast
B. Polychromatic normoblast
C. Pronormoblast
D. Reticulocyte
Answer: B
16) Which of the following organs is responsible for the “pitting process” for RBCs? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Kidney
B. Liver
C. Lymph nodes
D. Spleen
Answer: D
17) The RBC morphology found in hemolytic anemia is usually: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Microcytic, normochromic
Answer: C
18) The morphological classification of anemias is based on which of the following? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Myeloid:erythroid ratio
B. Prussian blue stain
C. RBC indices
D. Reticulocyte count
Answer: C
19) A patient’s peripheral smear reveals numerous NRBCs, marked variation of red cell morphology and increased
reticulocytes. In addition to a decreased Hgb and Hct values, what other CBC parameters may be anticipated? (1.00
pt/s.)
A. Reduced platelets
B. Increased MCHC
C. Increased MCV
D. Decreased RDW
Answer: C
20) Which morphological classification is characteristic of megaloblastic anemia? (1.00 pt/s.)
B. Microcytic, normochromic
D. acrocytic, normochromic
Answer: D
21) Which of the following are most characteristic of the red cell indices associated with megaloblastic anemia? (1.00
pt/s.)
A. MCV 99 fL, MCH 28 pg, MCHC 31%

B. MCV 62 fL, MCH 27 pg, MCHC 30%
C. MCV 125 fL, MCH 36 pg, MCHC 34%
D. MCV 78 fL, MCH 23 pg, MCHC 30%
Answer: C
22) A decreased RBC count will cause _______ in the MCV value (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. No effect
D. Both a and b
Answer: A
23) What is the first type of cell produced by a developing embryo? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Erythrocyte
B. Granulocyte
C. Lymphocyte
D. Thrombocyte
Answer: A
24) During infancy, all bones contain primarily of red bone marrow. In adulthood, what percentage of tissue is fat? (1.00
pt/s.)
A. 10%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 75%
Answer: C
25) Which of the following parameters does NOT affect MCH value? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Hemoglobin
B. RBC count
C. Hematocrit
D. NOTA
Answer: C
26) An increase in hemoglobin causes (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Increased MCHC
B. Increased MCV
C. Decreased MCV
D. Decreased MCHC
Answer: A
27) Reddish protein present in RBC which transports oxygen and carbon dioxide (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Hemopexin
B. Hemoglobin
C. Transferrin
D. Ferritin
Answer: B
28) During hypoxic state, the body release a glycoprotein called erythropoietin which is synthesized in the: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Brain
B. Kidney
C. Liver
D. Spleen
Answer: B
29) Loss of O2 carrying capacity of the blood which is reflected in reduced RBC count (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Anemia
B. Polycythemia vera
C. Hypoxia
D. Apnea
Answer: A
30) Hematopoietic stem cells have three possible fates which include programmed cell death, otherwise known as: (1.00
pt/s.)
A. Necrosis
B. Apoptosis
C. Cellular senescence
D. Terminal differentiation
Answer: B
31) Bone marrow cellularity refers to the ratio of: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Red cell precursors to white cell precursors

B. Hematopoietic tissue to adipose tissue
C. Granulocytic cells to erythrocytic cells
D. Extravascular tissue to intravascular tissue
Answer: B
32) The myeloid progenitor cell can produce cells committed to: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Granulocytic, erythrocytic, monocytic, or megakaryocytic lineagesa. Granulocytic, erythrocytic, monocytic, or

megakaryocytic lineages
B. Granulocytic, monocytic, lymphocytic, or megakaryocytic lineagesb. Granulocytic, monocytic, lymphocytic, or
megakaryocytic lineages
C. Erythrocytic, granulocytic, monocytic, or lymphocytic lineagesc. Erythrocytic, granulocytic, monocytic, or lymphocytic
lineages
D. Erythrocytic, granulocytic, lymphocytic, or megakaryocytic lineages
Answer: A
33) As red blood cells mature, which of the following is characteristic? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Cell diameter increases

B. Nucleus to cytoplasm ratio (N:C) decreases
C. Nuclear chromatin becomes less condensed
D. Basophilia of the cytoplasm increases
Answer: B
34) The components of Wright's stain include: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Crystal violet and safranin

B. Brilliant green and neutral red
C. New methylene blue and carbolfuchsin
D. Methylene blue and eosin
Answer: D
35) What is the average lifespan of a normal red blood cell? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. 1 day
B. 10 days
C. 60 days
D. 120 days
Answer: D
36) What combination of reagents is used to measure hemoglobin? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. HCl and p-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde

B. Potassium ferricyanide and KCN
C. Sodium bisulfite and sodium metabisulfite
D. Sodium citrate and H2O2
Answer: B
37) White blood cells with bright red orange cytoplasmic granules (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Erythrocytes
B. Neutrophils
C. Eosinophils
D. Lymphocytes
Answer: C
38) What is the principle of automated impedance cell counters? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Angle of laser beam scatter by cells

B. Amplification of an electrical current by cells
C. Interruption of an electrical current by cells
D. Change in optical density of the solution containing cellshange in optical density of the solution containing cells
Answer: C
39) A fire extinguisher used in the event of an electrical fire should include which of the following classifications? (1.00
pt/s.)
A. Type A
B. Type B
C. Type C
D. Type D
Answer: C
40) In the National Fire Protection Association identification system, four color-coded, diamond-shaped symbols are
arranged to for a larger diamond shape. What type of hazard does the blue diamond identify? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Flammable
B. Health
C. Reactivity
D. Contact
Answer: B
41) Xylene, ethanol, methanol, and acetone would be in which hazard class? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Corrosive
B. Flammable
C. Oxidizer
D. Carcinogen
Answer: B
42) All are considered an occupational hazard, EXCEPT (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Electrical hazard
B. Chemical hazard
C. Needle puncture
D. NOTA
Answer: D
43) Gauge of the needle indicating the largest bore (1.00 pt/s.)
A. 16 gauge
B. 19 gauge
C. 21 gauge
D. 23 gauge
Answer: A
44) When performing routine venipuncture, the vein of choice is the: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Basilic
B. Median cubital
C. Femoral
D. Cephalic
Answer: B
45) The first most important step in phlebotomy is: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Patient identification
B. Cleansing venipuncture site
C. Selecting proper needle gauge
D. Using correct evacuated tube
Answer: A
46) The most frequent cause of needle puncture is: (1.00 pt/s.)
A. Patient movement during venipuncture

B. Improper disposal of phlebotomy equipment
C. Failure to attach needle firmly to syringe
D. NOTA
Answer: B
47) In venipuncture, the torniquet should be applied how far from the venipuncture site? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. 1-2 inches
B. 3-4 inches
C. 2-3 cm
D. 6 inches
Answer: B
48) For questions number 48 to 50
Given the following patient’s result of a 56 y.o. female experiencing weakness and fatigue, compute the following to
obtain the necessary data
RBC = 3.2 x10^12

HCT = 11%
HGB = 5.5 g/dL
What is the patient's MCV? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. 17 fL
B. 34 fL
C. 50 fL
D. 22 fL
Answer: B
49) What is the patient's MCH? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. 17 fL
B. 34 fL
C. 50 fL
D. 22 fL
Answer: A
50) What is the patient's MCHC? (1.00 pt/s.)
A. 17 fL
B. 34 fL
C. 50 fL
D. 22 fL
Answer: C

HEMALEC12

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

HEMALEC12

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

World Citi Colleges - QC

960 Aurora Boulevard Quezon City, Philippines

Time Limit : 50.00 View Score After : Yes

Passing Score : 30.00 View Result After : No

Teacher : Rafael John Alconaba

Objective: To familiarize yourself in hematology

Direction: Choose the best answer

1) Anticoagulant of choice for coagulation studies (1.00 pt/s.)

6) What is the main goal of secondary hemostasis? (1.00 pt/s.)

A. Formation of platelet plug

7) Which of the following does not contribute to hemostasis? (1.00 pt/s.)

8) The type of nuclear reproduction seen in megakaryocytes (1.00 pt/s.)

9) Average lifespan of thrombocytes (1.00 pt/s.)

A. 100 - 300 x10^9

14) What is the average size of platelet? (1.00 pt/s.)

17) Thrombocytopenia may be associated with which of the following?

A. Gray platelet syndrome

A. Bernard Soulier syndrome

31) Thrombocytosis may be associated with which of the following?

32) Platelet dense granules contain

35) Platelet receptor GP VI attaches to which of the following? (1.00 pt/s.)

36) Deficiency in fibrinogen as seen in patients with afibrinogenemia and hypofibrinogenemia

40) Referred to as the attachment of platelets to one another (1.00 pt/s.)

41) Referred to as the conformational change in platelets (1.00 pt/s.)

A. Average platelet volume

45) Blood platelet is also termed as (1.00 pt/s.)

A. Physical barrier between blood and coagulation substance

A. Secretion of heparan sulfate

Powered by TCPDF (www.tcpdf.org)

Time Limit : 50.00 View Score After : Yes

Passing Score : 30.00 View Result After : No

Teacher : Rafael John Alconaba

Objective: To familiarize yourself in hematology

Direction: Choose best answer

1) Which of the following is inhibited by aspirin? (1.00 pt/s.)

2) Coagulation factor known as Christmas factor (1.00 pt/s.)

3) Coagulation factor known as Tissue thromboplastin (1.00 pt/s.)

5) Vitamin K dependent coagulation factors:

6) Coagulation factors affected by Coumadin: (1.00 pt/s.)

7) Which of the following laboratory result is suggestive of Hemophilia A? (1.00 pt/s.)

A. Low platelet count

8) Major fibrinolytic enzyme (1.00 pt/s.)

9) Extrinsic factor/s include:

1. III 2. VII 3. VIII 4. IX (1.00 pt/s.)

10) Intrinsic factor/s include:

14) An enzyme that converts fibrinogen to fibrin (1.00 pt/s.)

21) Also known as Plasma Thromboplastin Antecedent (1.00 pt/s.)

22) Also known as labile factor (1.00 pt/s.)

23) Also known as prothrombin (1.00 pt/s.)

24) All are cofactors, except: (1.00 pt/s.)

27) Which of the following is not a contact factor (1.00 pt/s.)

28) Deficiency in factor XI is also known as: (1.00 pt/s.)

29) Factors involved in the common pathway (1.00 pt/s.)

A. Synthesized by endothelial cells

33) A serpin that is a potent inhibitor of factor Xa (1.00 pt/s.)

34) Protein C inhibitor inhibits all, except: (1.00 pt/s.)

35) Serine protease that digests fibrin (1.00 pt/s.)

38) Hydrolyzes fibrin-bound plasminogen and initiates fibrinolysis (1.00 pt/s.)

A. Von Willebrand Factor

A. Deficiency is called hemophilia A

44) Which of the following is not true about VWF

45) Which of the following is activated by factor II? (1.00 pt/s.)

A. Fragment X is central E domain with two D domains