(A) Choose one answer ONLY for the following questions:

1- Postpartum amenorrhea may be the result of:

a- Lactation
b- Sheehan syndrome
C- Hysterectomy
D- All above

2- Sure signs of pregnancy:

a- Inspection of fetal movement

b- Palpation of fetal movement
c- Auscultation of FHS
d- All of above

3- A primigravida, presented at 32 weeks gestation with blood pressure 150/100

with no proteinuria, is considered to have:
a) Pre-eclampsia
b) Eclampsia
c) Gestational hypertension
d) Chronic hypertension superimposed by pre-eclampsia

4- The following are risk factors for pre-eclampsia :

a) Obesity
b) Vesicular mole
c) Multiple pregnancy
d) all of above

5- The following can be considered as normal labour:

a. Spontaneous, single, living, vertex, within the birth canal
b. Induced, single, living, vertex, within the birth canal
c. Spontaneous, single, dead, vertex, within the birth canal
d. Spontaneous, single, living, breech, within the birth canal without no
complications

1
6- The engaging diameter of vertex presentation is:
a. Suboccipto-bregmatic; 9.5 cm
b. Submento- bregmatic; 9.5 cm
c. Mento- vertical; 13.5 cm
d. Bitrochanteric diameter, 9 cm

7- If a pregnant woman’s last menstrual period is 20/08/2018, the expected date

of delivery should be:
a- 27/04/2019
b- 20/05/2019
c- 27/05/2019
d- 20/04/2019

8- The most frequent type of urinary fistula is:

A) Vesico-cervical
B) Uretero-vaginal
C) Vesico-uterine
D) None of the above

9- The presence of red spots on the cervix suggests the diagnosis of:

A) Candidal vaginitis
B) Trichomonal vaginitis
C) Bacterial cervicitis
D) Tuberculous cervicits

10- In threatened abortion:

A) The cervix is closed

B) The cervix is dilated
C) The products of conception protrude through the external os
D) Bleeding is severe

2
11- The most effective contraceptive known is:

a- Condom
b- Intrauterine device
c- Safe Period
d- Combined contraceptive pills

12- The absolute contraindications of combined oral contraceptives include:

e- History of previous thrombosis
f- History of cholecystectomy
g- History of fibroid
h- History of Cesarean section

13- Good antenatal care may result in reduced incidence of:

a- Prematurity
b- Stillbirth
c- Maternal death
d- All of the above

14- The antenatal care visits of high-risk pregnancy in the 7th month is:
a- Every 4 weeks
b- Every 3 weeks
c- Every 2 weeks
d- Every 1 week

15- The most accurate test for estimation of protenuria is :

a) Boiling test
b) Dipstick test
c) 24 hours quantitative assay in urine
d) Urine analysis

16- Classical symptoms of severe pre-eclampsia include all of the following except:
a) Polyuria
b) Headache
c) Epigastric pain
d) Blurring of vision

3
17- Complications of pre-eclampsia include:
a) HELLP syndrome
b) Acute renal failure
c) Pulmonary edema
d) All of above

18- The second stage of labour is defined by:

a- Starting from onset of labour to full cervical dilatation.
b- Starting from the full cervical dilatation to delivery of the placenta
c- Starting from delivery of the fetus to full expulsion of the afterbirth
d- Starting from full cervical dilatation to full expulsion of the fetus.

19- The most common presentation at term is:

a- Vertex
b- Breech
c- Shoulder
d- Brow

20- The most common cause for breech presentation is:

a- Prematurity
b- Multiparity
c- Nulliparty
d- Twins

21- Bacterial vaginosis is treated by:

a- Miconazole
b- Fluconazole
c- Metronidazole
d- Itraconazole

22- Postcoital itching in the male may be produced by:

a- Candidal vaginitis
b- Trichomonal vaginitis
c- Bacterial vaginosis
d- All of the above

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23- Cervical dilatation characterizes which of the following:

a- Inevitable abortion

b- Missed abortion
c- Complete abortion
d- Threatened abortion

24- the followings are physiologic changes during pregnancy except

a- Linea nigra
b- Stria gravidarum
c- Breast tenderness
d- Face odema

25- The following is true regarding oral contraceptive pills except

a- Inhibition of ovulation is the main mechanism of action

b- Can be used safely in patients with DVT
c- Can be used to regulate the menstrual cycle
d- Should be avoided in patients with migraine headaches

26- If the woman delivered by CS and she is lactating, and has amenorrhea you
counsel her to start COCs:

a- After 3 weeks of delivery

b- After 6 weeks of delivery
c- After 6 months of delivery
d- After stop of lactation

27- Iron deficiency anemia in pregnancy predispose to the following except:

a- preterm labour
b- IUGR
c- Postpartum heamorrhage
d- Neural tube defects

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28- The most common cause of anemia in pregnancy is:

a- Iron deficiency
b- Folic acid deficiency
c- Antepartum haemorrhage
d- Thalassemia

29- Criteria of severity of pre-eclampsia include all of the following except :

a) Protenuria 500 mg/day
b) Presence of symptoms
c) HELLP syndrome
d) Blood pressure 170/110

30- The following are safe antihypertensive drugs used in pregnancy except :
a) Calcium channel blockers
b) Alpha methyl dopa
c) Labetalol
d) ACE inhibitors

31- The first sign of toxicity of MgSo4 is:

a) Respiratory depression
b) Cardiac depression
c) Lost patellar reflex
d) Decreased urine output

32- At the time of calculated full term delivery, the gestational age of the fetus is:
a- 40 weeks
b- 38 weeks
c- 42 weeks
d- 250 days

33- Which one is the most common type of twins pregnancy:

a- Monozygotic twins
b- Dizygotic twins
c- Monochrionic twins
d- Monoamniotic twins
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34- Treatment of obstructed labour is:
a- Continue trial of labour to achieve vaginal birth
b- Correction of general condition and follow up on partogram
c- Cesarean section
d- Forceps delivery

35- Preterm labour occurring after the age of viability and before completing:
a- 37 weeks
b- 38 weeks
c- 39 weeks
d- 40 weeks

36- 23 year-old woman complains of vaginal discharge that she states has a
fishy odor. You examine her and found the pH is 5.5. The most likely
diagnosis is
A- Candida albicans
B- Gardenerella vaginalis

C- Trichomonas vaginalis

D- Chlamydia trichomatis

37- In case of severe attack of hemorrhage in patient with placenta previa:

a- Ultrasound performed firstly
b- Antishock measures started firstly

c- Cesarean section is rapidly done

d- Vaginal delivery is allowed

38- The most common risk factor for accidental hemorrhage is:

a- DM
b- Thrombophilia

c- Preeclampsia

d- Anemia

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39- Placental abruption can be diagnosed by all of the following except:

a- Laparoscopy
b- Ultrasonography
c- Clinical examination

d- Non-stress test

40- If a pregnant woman's last menstrual period is 25/9/2018, the expected date
of delivery will be:

a- 2 July 2019
b- 2 June 2019
c- 25 June 2019
d- 18 July 2019

41- The use of oral contraceptives has been associated with:

a- Inhibition of ovulation
b- Weight loss
c- Menorrhagia
d- Increase tubal peristalsis

42- The term " Puerperium " describes:

a- The first tow postpartum weeks

b- The first four postpartum weeks
c- The first six postpartum weeks
d- The period of lactation

43- The definite sure sign of ovulation is:

a- A biphasic basal body temperature curve
b- The presence of secretory changes in the endometrium
c- Pregnancy
d- All of the above

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44- The following are risk factors for development of diabetes mellitus:
a) Maternal obesity
b) Family history of diabetes
c) Multiparity
d) All of above

45- The pathognomonic fetal anomaly related to D.M is :

a) VSD
b) Renal agenesis
c) Caudal regression syndrome
d) Bowel atresia

46- The most common and the safest type of breech is:
a- Complete breech
b- Frank breech
c- Footling presentation
d- Incomplete breech

47- The weight of the uterus at term is:

a- 100 gm
b- 500 gm
c- 1000 gm
d- 1500 gm

48- The most common malpresentation at term is:

a- Vertex
b- Breech
c- Shoulder
d- Brow

49- The most frequent type of urinary fistula is:

A) Vesico-cervical
B) Uretero-vaginal
C) Vesico-uterine
D) Vesico-vaginal

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50- The following drugs can be used after delivery of patients with pre-
eclampsia except:
a) oxytocin
b) ergometrine
c) nifidipine
d) labetalol

51- The engaging diameter of face presentation is:

a. Suboccipto-bregmatic; 9.5 cm
b. Submento- bregmatic; 9.5 cm
c. Mento- vertical; 13.5 cm
d. Bitrochanteric diameter, 9 cm

52- The first stage of labour is defined by:

a- Starting from onset of labour to full cervical dilatation.
b- Starting from the full cervical dilatation to delivery of the placenta.
c- Starting from delivery of the fetus to full expulsion of the afterbirth
d- Starting from full cervical dilatation to full expulsion of the fetus.

53- Missed abortion means:

a- Fetus is dead and cervix closed

b- Fetus is dead and cervix is open

c- Fetus is small and cervix closed

d- Fetus is aborted and cervix is closing

54- Vaginal bleeding in the newborn is due to:

a- Trauma
b- Neoplasms
c- Estrogen withdrawal
d- Hemorrhagic diseases

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55- Menorrhagia means:
a- Frequent menses
b- Excessive menses
c- Irregular menses
d- Hidden menses

56- The effect of D.M on neonates include all of the following except:
a) hyperbilirubinemia
b) hypoglycemia
c) polycythemia
d) hypercalcemia

57- Diagnostic test for detection of D.M is :

a) 100 gm oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT)
b) 50 gm glucose challenge test
c) random blood glucose 150 mg/dl
d) fasting blood glucose 115 mg/dl

58- Uterine artery arises from:

a) internal iliac artery
b) external iliac artery
c) abdominal aorta
d) renal artery

59- Cryptomenorrhea means:

a- Frequent menses
b- Excessive menses
c- Irregular menses
d- Hidden menses

60- vulvovaginal candidiasis is associated with

a- Strawberry cervix
b- Frothy vaginal discharge c-
Vaginal Ph more than 4.5 d-
Pruritus vulvae

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61- The most common cause of early abortion is:
a- Syphilis
b- Chronic nephritis
c- Fetal chromosomal anomalies
d- None of the above

62- A thick white scanty vaginal discharge is diagnostic of:

a- Candidal vaginitis
b- Trichomonal vaginitis
c- Bacterial vaginosis
d- None of the above

63- The widest part of fallopian tube is :

a) isthmus
b) ampulla
c) infundibilium (fimbria)
d) interstitial part

64- Increased frequency of menstruation is known as :

a) metrorrhagia
b) oligomenorrhea
c) hypomenorrhea
d) polymenorrhea

65- The following phase of endometrial cycle is of fixed duration:

a) proliferative phase
b) secretory phase
c) menstrual phase
d) all of above

66- The normal amount of blood loss during menstrual cycle is :

a) 200 - 800 ml
b) 500 - 1000 ml
c) 100 - 200 ml
d) 20 - 80 ml

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67- The following are true regarding the vagina except :
a) Its anterior wall is 10 cm
b) Its posterior wall is 10 cm
c) It is a fibromascular tube
d) It connects the uterus to the vulva

68- Regarding breech presentation:

a- Frank breech is common in multigravida.
b- Footling breech is delivered vaginally.
c- Complete breech is the most common type.
d- Frank breech is the most safe type.

69- Indications of CS in breech babies:

a- Fetus with weight 3000 gm
b- Fetus with age 32 weeks
c- Fetus with feet besides the head
d- Fetus with normal non-stress test

70- Fetal macrosomia is NOT caused by:

a- Primiparity
b- Postdate
c- Maternal obesity
d- Hydrops fetalis

71- Cervical dilatation is complete when the diameter of external os measures:

a- 6 cm
b- 8 cm
c- 10 cm
d- 12 cm

72- After menarche, an imperforate hymen may be associated with:

A) abdominal pain
B) retention of urine
C) well-developed secondary sexual characters
D) All the above

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 73- Preterm baby is liable to:

A) Hypercalcemia
B) Hyperbilirubinemia

C) Hyperuricemia

D) Hyponatremia

74- As regards monozygotic twins, which is correct:

A) It is the most common type of twins

B) If the zygote divided at day 5, there will be 2 sacs and one placenta

C) If the zygote divided at day 11, they will be conjoined

D) It is common in white race

75- Cervical dilatation characterizes which of the following:

e- Inevitable abortion

f- Missed abortion

g- Complete abortion

h- Threatened abortion

76- The first stage of labor ends when:

A- Engagement of fetal head occurs

B- Delivery of the baby occurs C-

Cervix dilates completely

D- Membranes ruptures

77- If a pregnant woman's last menstrual period is 12/12/2014, the expected date
of delivery will be:
A- 19 September 2015

B- 2 June 2015

C- 25 June 2015

D- 18 July 2015

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78- The first line in the management of gestational diabetes mellitus is

A- diet control
B- oral hypoglycemic

C- insulin therapy

D- termination of pregnancy

79- The mode of action of Depo-provera includes:

A- Thinning of cervical mucous
B- Increase ciliary movement
C- Inhibition of ovulation
D- Endometrial hyperplasia

80- Implanon is valid as a contraceptive method for:

A- 1 year
B- 3 years
C- 5 years
D- 7 years

81- Menstrual bleeding is due to:

A- Endotoxin
B- Fibrinolysin
C- Vasopressin
D- Estrogen

82- Fallopian tube adhesions causing infertility may follow:

A) Appendicitis
B) Puerperal sepsis
C) Post abortive infection
D) All the above

83- The following factors influence the incidence of preeclampsia:

A) Age
B) Parity
C) Race
D) All the above
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84- The following conditions are associated with a high frequency of
preeclampsia except:
A) Vesicular mole
B) Twins
C) Placenta previa
D) Family history positive

85- The pain in ectopic pregnancy may take the form of:
A) Shoulder pain
B) Dysuria
C) Dyschezia
D) Any of above

86- Sure signs of pregnancy:

A) Amenorrhea
B) Hegar’s sign
C) Auscultation of FHS
D) Abdominal distension

87- Fetal complication of preclampsia include :

A) Retareded growth
B) Intrautrine death
C) Prematurity
D) All above

88- In the third stage of labor:

A) Fetus is not yet delivered
B) Oxytocin is given
C) Placenta is delivered physiologically
D) Uterine massage is stopped

89- In a normal cycle of 30 days duration, ovulation occurs:

A) At mid cycle
B) About two weeks after onset of menstruation
C) About two weeks before onset of menstruation
D) At time of maximum progesterone production

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90- The uterine artery supplies:

A) Ovary
B) Fallopian tube
C) Vagina
D) All of the above

91- The average duration of the first stage of labour in multigravidas is about:

A) 4 hours
B) 6 hours
C) 10 hours
D) 12 hours

92- Ectopic pregnancies occur when a fertilized ovum implants in:

A) The abdomen
B) The fallopian tube
C) A rudimentary horn of uterus
D) All of the above

93- Disturbed tubal pregnancy is associated with the following EXCEPT:

A) Shock
B) Adnexal tenderness
C) Cullen's sign
D) Excessive uterine enlargement

94- Incontinence of urine in case of Uretero-vaginal fistula is:

A) Complete
B) Partial
C) Stress
D) Urge

95- Blood Pressure of 190/120 in a patient who is 12 weeks pregnant is due to:
A) chronic hypertension

B) Preeclampsia

C) Chronic renal disease

D) Gestational hypertension

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96- The least common cause of abortion is:

A) Congenital fetal malformation

B) Progesterone deficiency
C) Uterine fibroids
D) Retroverted uterus

97- Complications of preeclampsia include:

A) High uric acid and creatinine

B) Low white blood cells count

C) Elevated blood sugar

D) Low liver enzymes

98- The following are considered in the differential diagnosis of eclampsia:

A) Epilepsy

B) Hysteria

C) Brain tumor

D) All of the above

99- Chronic hypertension with pregnancy is defined as:

A) Hypertension appears after 20 weeks gestation

B) Hypertension persists more than 12 weeks postpartum

C) Hypertension with proteniuria before 20 weeks gestation

D) Hypertension with proteinuria persists after delivery

100- Oligospermia means:

a- Complete absence of spermatozoa

b- Marked diminution in the numbers of spermatozoa
c- All spermatozoa are dead

d- All sperms are immotile

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101- Regarding breech presentation:

a- Complete breech is common in primigravida

b- Frank breech is common with preterm babies
c- Hydrocephalic baby is not presented with breech

d- Footling breech is delivered by ventouse

102- The two main anatomical divisions of the uterus are:

a- Corpus and fundus

b- Corpus and cervix

c- Cervix and isthmus

d- Corpus and isthmus

103- Perforation of the uterus is associated with which step in abortion:

a- Sounding of the uterus

b- Dilatation

c- Curettage

d- All of the above

104- Flat pelvis can lead to:

a- Shoulder presentation
b- Face presentation
c- Breech presentation
d- Cord presentation

105- Hyperextension of fetal head is found in:

a- Vertex presentation

b- Face presentation
c- Shoulder presentation

d- Breech presentation

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106- Unstable lie is related to the following except:

a- Prematurity
b- Grandmultipara

c- Placenta previa

d- Fundal fibroid

107- Therapeutic termination of early pregnancy is indicated in:

a- Uterine fibroid
b- Maternal pulmonary hypertension

c- Placenta previa

d- Triplet pregnancy

108- Uterine cervix

a- Is proportion of the uterus below ishmus

b- Laterally attached to the round ligament

c- External os cell lining is columnar epithelium

d- Can be dilated with dilator without need of anesthesia

109- The main support of the uterus is provided by:

a- The round ligament

b- The cardinal ligament
c- The broad ligament

d- The integrity of the pelvis

110- The most important muscle in pelvic floor is:

a- Bulbo cavernousus
b- Ischio cavernousus
c- Levator ani

d- Deep transverse perineal muscle

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111- The following statement are true about vomiting in pregnancy, except:

a- May be cured by admission to the hospital

b- Is commonest in the third trimester

c- Associated with multiple pregnancy

d- Associated with urinary tract infection

112- The following ultrasonic measurements may be used to confirm

gestational age:

a- Crown rump length

b- Nuchal pad thickening

c- Amniotic fluid volume

d- Biophysical profile

113- Antenatal booking investigations include all of the following, except:

a- Complete blood count

b- Blood sugar
c- Hepatic screening
d- Thyroid function

114- The ultrasound in the first trimester of pregnancy is done for:

a- Placental localization

b- Detection of fetal weight

c- Detection of fetal breathing

d- Dating of pregnancy

115- Incompetent cervix:

a- Is a cause of early pregnancy loss

b- Is best diagnosed by history
c- Is a cause of fetal congenital anomaly
d- Can be treated by tocolytics

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116- Antepartum hemorrhage may be caused by the following except:

a- Placenta previa
b- Cervical caner
c- Abruption placenta

d- Ectopic pregnancy

117- In placenta previa: which is true:

a- It is common in primigravida

b- May cause abnormal lie

c- Cause recuurent painful bleeding

d- Vaginal examination is mandatory to exclude local causes

22
State whether each sentence is True (T) or False (F):
1- The recommended timing to screen for gestational diabetes in low risk pregnancy is

20-24 weeks. (F)

2- Mirena intrauterine system has non-contraceptive benefits as treating anemia. (T )

3- The normal range of blood pressure in pregnancy is 160 over 90. ( F )

4- Recurrent vulvovaginal candidiasis is common in patients with uncontrolled
diabetes. ( T )

5- Uterine fibroids are more common in multiparous women. ( F ) 6-

The progestin only pill (POP) pack contains 28 pills. (T)

7- At the time of calculated full-term delivery, the gestational age of the fetus is 36

weeks. ( F ):

8- Treatment of the sexual partner is recommended in bacterial vaginosis.( F ) 9-

One of the risk factors of preterm labor is old age. ( F )

10- To provide protection against congenital anomalies folic acid should be taken
starting from the first trimester. ( T )
11- Subcutaneous implants protect against STIs. ( F )

12- Depo-provera can delay return of infertility. ( T)

13- Uterine fibroids are more common in nulipara women. ( T )

14- At the time of calculated full-term delivery, the gestational age of the fetus is 40

weeks. ( T )

15- Progestogen - only injectables can be used safely in epileptic women. ( T ) 16-

One of the risk factors of preterm labor is young age. ( T )

17- Cervical dilatation is complete when the diameter of external os measures 8 cm. ( F ) 18-

Uterine fibroids are more common in postmenopausal women. ( F )

19- The progestin only pill (POP) pack contains 21 pills. ( F )

20- Cervical dilatation is complete when the diameter of external os measures 10 cm. ( T )

With Best Wishes

Dr. AHMED ALAA YOUSSEF

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