Question N° 1

Correct Answer – C
ICAO Annex 18
8.4 Inspection for damage or leakage
8.4.1 Packages and overpacks containing dangerous goods and freight
containers containing radioactive materials shall be inspected for evidence of
leakage or damage before loading on an aircraft or into a unit load device.
Leaking or damaged packages, overpacks or freight containers shall not be
loaded on an aircraft.
8.4.2 A unit load service shall not be loaded aboard an aircraft unless the device
has been inspected and found free from any evidence of leakage from, or
damage to, any dangerous goods contained therein.
8.4.3 Where any package of dangerous goods loaded on an aircraft appears to
be damaged or leaking, the operator shall remove such package from the
aircraft, or arrange for its removal by an appropriate authority or organization ,
and thereafter shall ensure that the remainder of the consignment is in a proper
condition for transport by air and that no other package has been contaminated.

Question N° 2
Correct Answer – A
WINDSHEAR ESCAPE PROCEDURE - Recovery Technique for Windshear
Encounter during Take-off
If windshear is encountered during take-off roll, apply the following recovery
techniques without delay:

 Before V1:

− Reject the take-off only if unacceptable airspeed variations occur and the
pilot assesses there is sufficient runway remaining to stop the aircraft.

 After V1:

− Maintain or set the thrust levers to the maximum take -off thrust (TOGA)
− Rotate normally at VR
− Follow the Flight Director pitch orders, or set the required pitch attitude if
FD is not available (as recommended in the applicable FCOM).
Note: If a windshear occurs during take-off roll, V1 may be reached later (or
sooner) than expected. In this case, the pilot may have to rely on his/her own
judgment to assess if there is sufficient runway remaining to stop the aircraft, if
necessary.
Question N° 3
Correct Answer – C
EXTINGUISHING AGENTS USED FOR DIFFERENT FIRE CLASSES:
FIRE CLASS COMBUSTIBLE EXAMPLES EXTINGUISHING
AGENT

A Solid Substances Wood, paper, Water, Foam, Dry

textiles, Powder, Halon
Carbonaceous (limited)
materials

B Flammable Oil, gasoline, fats Foam, Dry

Liquids Powder,
Halon/CO 2

C Flammable gases Butane, Propane, Dry Powder,

Naturel gas Halon/CO 2

D Combustible Metal Magnesium, Dry Powder

Aluminium,
sodium

E Electrical Halon/CO 2 , Dry

Powder

F Oils and fats Cooking oil, frying Specific

fat extinguishing
agent – Wet
Chemical

FIRE HALON DRY FOAM WATER WET

CLASS POWDER CHEMICAL

A X X X X

B X X X

C X X

D X

E X X

F X

Note: Carbonaceous materials belong to the Fire class A.

Question N° 4
Correct Answer – C
Manual on Low-level Wind Shear
Doc 9817
RECOGNITION OF WIND SHEAR
External MET clues
4.3.3 Recognition of external MET clues to the possible presence of low-level
wind shear near an airport permits the pilot to make an early decision to avoid
an encounter by going around or by delaying the approach or take -off until
conditions improve. Even if the decision is made to continue, the recognition of
external wind shear signs should alert the pilot to pay close attention to the
progress of the landing or takeoff by reference to the flight deck instruments.
External clues that may be directly visible to the pilot include the following :
a) strong, gusty surface winds, especially where the aerodrome is located near
hills or where there are comparatively large buildings near the runway,
indicating the possibility of local wind shear and turbulence;
b) lenticular cloud (smooth lens-shaped altocumulus) indicating the presence of
standing waves, usually downwind from a mountain;
c) virga, i.e. precipitation falling from the base of a cloud but evaporating before
reaching the ground (especially under convective cloud) because downdrafts
may still exist and reach the ground even though the precipitation itself has
evaporated;
d) roll cloud girding the base of a thunderstorm and advancing ahead of the rain
belt, indicating the presence of a gust front (see 3.5.10);
e) areas of dust raised by wind, particularly when in the form of a ring below
convective clouds, indicating the presence of a downburst (see 5.1.2 and Figure
3-16);
f) wind socks responding to different winds;
g) smoke plumes sheared, with upper and lower sections moving in different
directions; and
h) thunderstorms, which should always be assumed to have the capability of
producing hazardous wind shear.

Question N° 5
Correct Answer – A
An aircraft can only depart if free from ice and other contaminants. No aircraft is
certified for take-off with existing ice as take-off performance is not tested in
these conditions, even if it is equipped with de -icing equipment.
EASA AIR OPS
CAT.OP.MPA.250 Ice and other contaminants — ground procedures
(a) The operator shall establish procedures to be followed when ground de-icing
and anti-icing and related inspections of the aircraft are necessary to allow the
safe operation of the aircraft.
(b) The commander shall only commence take-off if the aircraft is clear of any
deposit that might adversely affect the performance or controllability of the
aircraft, except as permitted under (a) and in accordance with the AFM.

Question N° 6
Correct Answer – A
ICAO Doc 9640
Chapter 5. Holdover Times
5.1 Holdover time (HOT) is the estimated time the anti-icing fluid will prevent the
formation of ice and frost and the accumulation of snow on the protected
(treated) surfaces of an aeroplane. (…)
5.6 The holdover time begins with the start of the final de -icing/anti-icing
application and ends after an elapsed time equal to the appropriate holdover
time chosen by the pilot-in-command.
Note: Two-step de-icing/anti-icing. This process contains two distinct steps. The
first step, de-icing, is followed by the second step, anti-icing, as a separate fluid
application. After de-icing, a separate overspray of anti-icing fluid is applied to
protect the aeroplane's critical surfaces, thus providing maximum anti -icing
protection.

Question N° 7
Correct Answer – B
PRESSURIZATION SYSTEMS
The cabin altitude is the maintained atmospheric pressure inside an
aircraft cabin, corresponding to a certain altitude. For optimal flying
conditions, cabin altitude ranges between 6 000 feet (1 800 metres) for new
generation aircraft and 8 000 ft (2 400 metres) for older aircraft .

Cabin Rate of Climb Indicator. Similar to VSI, the cabin rate of climb is
sensitive to rates of change of pressure and indicate the rate of change of cabin
(apparent) altitude in an aircraft’s pressurized cabin.
  When it shows a rate of climb: it means that the cabin altitude is
increasing => at a higher altitude, pressure decreases. Therefore, the
pressure inside the cabin is reducing. Consequently, the differential
pressure (difference between cabin pressure and atmospheric
pressure) decreases.
 Conversely, when it indicates a rate of descent: it means that the cabin
altitude is decreasing => at a lower altitude, pressure increases.
Therefore, the pressure inside the cabin is increasing. Consequently, the
differential pressure increases.

Question N° 8
Correct Answer – A
Refer to figure.
ICAO Annex 15
Appendix 2. Snowtam Format
9. Item H - Estimated surface friction on each third of the runway (single digit) in
the order from the threshold having the lower runway designation number.
Friction measurement devices can be used as part of the overall runway surface
assessment. Some States may have developed procedures for runway surface
assessment which may include the use of information obtained from friction
measuring devices and the reporting of quantitive values. In such cases, these
procedures should be published in the AIP and the reporting made in Item (T) of
the SNOWTAM format.
The values for each third of the runway are separated by an oblique stroke (/),
without space between the values and the obliqu e stroke-, for example: 5/5/5.
Question N° 9
Correct Answer – A
Refer to figure.
WAKE TURBULENCE
Whenever an airplane generates lift, air spills over the wing tips from the high
pressure areas below the wings to the low pressure areas above them. This flow
causes rapidly rotating whirlpools of air called wingtip vortices. An aircraft
generates vortices from the moment it rotates on take-off to touchdown.
The intensity depends on aircraft weight, speed and configuration. The greatest
wake turbulence danger is produced by large, heavy airplanes operating at
low speeds, high angles of attack and in a clea n configuration.
Although wake turbulence settles, it persists in the air for several minutes,
depending on wind conditions. In light winds of 3 to 7 knots, the vortices can
stay in the touchdown area, sink into your take -off or landing path, or drift over a
parallel runway.
General Guides:

 To avoid turbulence when landing behind a large aircraft, stay above the
large airplane’s glide path and land beyond its touchdown point.
 If a large airplane has just taken-off as you approach, touch down well
before the large aircraft’s lift-off point.
 When departing after a large aircraft has landed, lift-off beyond its
touchdown location.
 When taking-off behind a large aircraft, lift-off before the large aircraft’s
rotation point and climb out above or upwind of its fl ight path.
Question N° 10
Correct Answer – C
Many airlines use an emergency acronym to brief flight-deck, cabin crews and
pax which helps simplify the communication exchange. One example is the use
of a NITS brief which includes –

 Nature of the problem;

 Intention;
  Time needed – to sort out the problem;
 Special instructions if required.

Question N° 11
Correct Answer – C
ICAO Annex 18
Chapter 5. Packing
5.1 General requirements
Dangerous goods shall be packed in accordance with the provisions of this
chapter and as provided for in the Technical Instructions.

Question N° 12
Correct Answer – A
TYPES OF EMERGENCY LANDINGS
The different types of emergency landings are defined as follows:

 Forced landing—an immediate landing, on or off an airport, necessitated

by the inability to continue further flight.
A typical example of which is an airplane forced down by engine
failure.
 Precautionary landing—a premeditated landing, on or off an airport, when
further flight is possible but inadvisable. A precautionary landing differs
from the forced landing in the availability of power and aircraft systems. It
is, generally, less hazardous than a forced landing because the pilot has
more time for terrain selection and the planning of the approach. In
addition, the pilot can use power to compensate for errors in judgment or
technique. The landing site will be at the earliest opportunity.
 Examples of conditions that may call for a precautionary landing include
deteriorating weather, being lost, fuel shortage, and gradually developing
engine trouble.
 Ditching—a forced or precautionary landing on water.

Question N° 13
Correct Answer – B
Cold-soak Effect
The wings of aircraft are said to be “cold-soaked” when they contain very
cold fuel as a result of having just landed after a flight at high altitude or from
having been re-fuelled with very cold fuel. Whenever precipitation falls on a
cold-soaked aircraft when on the ground, clear icing may occur. Even in
ambient temperatures between -2°C and +15°C, ice or frost can form in the
presence of visible moisture or high humidity if the aircraft structure remains at
0°C or below. Clear ice is very difficult to be detected visually and may break
loose during or after takeoff. The following factors contribute to cold -soaking:
temperature and quantity of fuel in fuel cells, type and location of fuel cells,
length of time at high altitude flights, temperature of re -fuelled fuel and time
since re-fuelling.
Source: aircrafticing.grc.nasa.gov

Question N° 14
Correct Answer – A
Refer to figure.
WAKE TURBULENCE
Whenever an airplane generates lift, air spills over the wing tips from the high
pressure areas below the wings to the low pressure areas above them. This flow
causes rapidly rotating whirlpools of air called wingtip vortices. An aircraft
generates vortices from the moment it rotates on take -off to touchdown.
The intensity depends on aircraft weight, speed and configuration. The
greatest wake turbulence danger is produced by large, heavy airplanes
operating at low speeds, high angles of attack and in a clean configuration.
Although wake turbulence settles, it persists in the air for several minutes,
depending on wind conditions. Without wind the vortices arrive on the parallel
runway at a speed of 5 kts, endangering the operations on this runway. In light
winds of 3 to 7 knots crosswind, the vortices can stay in the touchdown area,
the wind will tend to keep the upwind side of the wake in the runway area and
may cause the downwind side to drift toward another run way.
General Guides:
 To avoid turbulence when landing behind a large aircraft, stay above the
large airplane’s glide path and land beyond its touchdown point.
 If a large airplane has just taken-off as you approach, touch down well
before the large aircraft’s lift-off point.
 When departing after a large aircraft has landed, lift-off beyond its
touchdown location.
 When taking-off behind a large aircraft, lift-off before the large aircraft’s
rotation point and climb out above or upwind of its flight pa th.
Question N° 15
Correct Answer – D
Refer to figure.
WAKE TURBULENCE
Whenever an airplane generates lift, air spills over the wing tips from the high
pressure areas below the wings to the low pressure areas above them. This flow
causes rapidly rotating whirlpools of air called wingtip vortices. An aircraft
generates vortices from the moment it rotates on take -off to touchdown.
The intensity depends on aircraft weight, speed and configuration. The greatest
wake turbulence danger is produced by large, heavy airplanes operating at low
speeds, high angles of attack and in a clean configuration.
Although wake turbulence settles, it persists in the air for several minutes,
depending on wind conditions. In calm winds, wing tip vortices separate
outwards on each side of the runway. In light winds of 3 to 7 knots, the vortices
can stay in the touchdown area, sink into your take -off or landing path, or drift
over a parallel runway.
General Guides:

 To avoid turbulence when landing behind a large aircraft, stay above

the large airplane’s glide path and land beyond its touchdown point.
 If a large airplane has just taken-off as you approach, touch down well
before the large aircraft’s lift-off point.
 When departing after a large aircraft has landed, lift-off beyond its
touchdown location.
 When taking-off behind a large aircraft, lift-off before the large aircraft’s
rotation point and climb out above or upwind of its flight path.

Question N° 16
Correct Answer – A
ICAO Annex 15 - Appendix 2 - SNOWTAM:
Measured or Estimated Surface

Calculated Coeff Friction

Good
0.40 and above
(brakes 5)

Medium / Good
0.39 - 0.36
(brakes 4)

Medium
0.35 - 0.30
(brakes 3)

Medium / Poor
0.29 - 0.26
(brakes 2)

Poor
0.25 and below
(brakes 1)

Unreliable
9 - unreliable
(brakes 9)

ICAO Annex 15 - Appendix 2 - SNOWTAM - Item H:

Friction measurements on each third of the runway and friction measuring
device.

Question N° 17
Correct Answer – B
ICAO Annex 17
Chapter 13. Secutiry
13.3 Aeroplane search procedure checklist
The operator shall ensure that there is on board a checklist of the procedures to
be followed in searching for a bomb in case of suspected sabotage and for
inspecting aeroplanes for concealed weapons, explosives or other dangerous
devices when a well-founded suspicion exists that the aeroplane may be the
object of an act of unlawful interference. The checklist shall be supported
by guidance on the appropriate course of action to be taken should a bomb or
suspicious object be found and information on the least-risk bomb
location specific to the aeroplane.

Question N° 18
Correct Answer – B
DITCHING
Ditching an aircraft into the sea, a river, or a lake, is a manoeuvre that, by
definition, cannot be practiced and may be extremely hazardous. It is only
contemplated when no other realistic option remains in an emergency. It may be
because there is a growing fire onboard and/or it is not possible to reach a
runway, or succeed with an approach to those runways within reach and the
situation does not favour or even allow an attempt at an off-airport forced
landing.

The following is a list of generally accepted considerations and techniques for

ditching:

 Power On. If there is a choice in the matter, power on is preferable to

power off for ditching. Use of power allows more control of both the rate
of descent and point at which touchdown is made.
 Reduce Aircraft Weight. A lighter aircraft allows a lower approach speed
and will probably remain afloat higher in the water and for longer thus
facilitating occupant evacuation. Burning off or dumping fuel also has the
advantage of increasing buoyancy in some aircraft types by creating a
larger air mass held within the fuel tanks.
 Configuration. Gear up is the optimum configuration for ditching. Most
manufacturers recommend the maximum deployment of available
slats/flaps is desirable to minimise approach speed.
 In ideal conditions (smooth water or very long swells) land into the wind.
This will ensure the minimum possible touchdown speed and help
minimise impact damage. Where the swell is more marked, it may be
advisable to ditch along the swell accepting a crosswind
component and the higher touchdown speed, thus minimising the
potential for nosing into the face of the rising swell. The best touchdown
point is on the top of the swell with the second best on the back of the
swell. Aim to remain well clear of the advancing face of the swell.

Question N° 19
Correct Answer – C
EASA AIR OPS
Regulation (EU) 2015/140
CAT.OP.MPA.130 Noise abatement procedures — aeroplanes
(a) Except for VFR operations of other-than complex motor-powered aeroplanes,
the operator shall establish appropriate operating departure and
arrival/approach procedures for each aeroplane type taking into account the
need to minimise the effect of aircraft noise.
(b) The procedures shall:
(1) ensure that safety has priority over noise abatement; and
(2) be simple and safe to operate with no significant increase in crew workload
during critical phases of flight.

Question N° 20
Correct Answer – B
CARGO COMPARTMENT FIRE
When smoke is detected in a cargo compartment, visual and aural warning
indications are provided at the flight deck, which also has controls for the cargo
compartment fire suppression system. The first step in controlling and
suppressing a fire (after turning off the aural warning) is shutting down the
airflow to the cargo compartment. All ventilated cargo compartments have a
means for shutting off the airflow from the flight deck. Following airflow
shutdown, fire extinguishers must be discharged.

Question N° 21
Correct Answer – B
BRAKE SYSTEM OVERHEAT CONDITION
A braking system works by converting the kinetic energy of a moving aircraft
into heat. To prevent damage to the tyres and undercarriage structure, the heat
energy must be dissipated rapidly into the surrounding air. If this does not
happen and the amount of heat generated becomes excessive, as can be the
case after an aborted take off or following a landing at an excessive mass
and/or speed, the tyres can overheat and burst . Consequently, brake and/or
wheel fires are likely to occur.

The usual strategies for cooling “hot” brakes include:

 Giving consideration to an appropriate parking area (i.e. use a remote

location, away from other aircraft, buildings), parking into the wind;
 Chocking the nose wheel and releasing the parking brake (the brake
temperatures may be so high that the brakes may weld together and,
consequently, do not release even after the brakes cool down); and
 Using brake fans when available.

 In this case, any further taxiing and brake use will worsen the situation.
Therefore, the aircraft should be stopped and the parking brakes should
not be applied.
Question N° 22
Correct Answer – B
Refer to figures.
ICAO Doc 4444
5.8.3 Departing aircraft
5.8.3.2 A separation minimum of 3 minutes shall be applied between a LIGHT
or MEDIUM aircraft when taking off behind a HEAVY aircraft or a LIGHT aircraft
when taking off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from:
a) an intermediate part of the same runway; or
b) an intermediate part of a parallel runway separated by less than 760 m (2 500
ft).
Question N° 23
Correct Answer – B
DITCHING
Ditching an aircraft into the sea, a river, or a lake, is a manoeuvre that, by
definition, cannot be practiced and may be extremely hazardous. It is only
contemplated when no other realistic option remains in an emergency. It may be
because there is a growing fire onboard and/or it is not possible to reach a
runway, or succeed with an approach to those runways within reach and the
situation does not favour or even allow an attempt at an off-airport forced
landing.

The following is a list of generally accepted considerations and techniques for

ditching:

 Power On. If there is a choice in the matter, power on is preferable to power

off for ditching. Use of power allows more control of both the rate of descent
and point at which touchdown is made.
 Reduce Aircraft Weight. A lighter aircraft allows a lower approach speed
and will probably remain afloat higher in the water and for longer thu s
facilitating occupant evacuation. Burning off or dumping fuel also has the
 advantage of increasing buoyancy in some aircraft types by creating a
larger air mass held within the fuel tanks.
 Configuration. Gear up is the optimum configuration for ditching. Most
manufacturers recommend the maximum deployment of available
slats/flaps is desirable to minimise approach speed. The expected attitude
of the aircraft in the water is always "nose up".
 In ideal conditions (smooth water or very long swells) land into the wind.
This will ensure the minimum possible touchdown speed and help minimise
impact damage. Where the swell is more marked, it may be advisable to
ditch along the swell accepting a crosswind component and the higher
touchdown speed, thus minimising the potential for nosing into the face of
the rising swell. The best touchdown point is on the top of the swell with
the second best on the back of the swell. Aim to remain well clear of the
advancing face of the swell.

Question N° 24
Correct Answer – D
EASA AIR OPS (Regulation (E U) 2019/1384)
CAT.GEN.MPA.105 Responsibilities of the commander
(d) Bird hazards and strikes:
(1) Whenever a potential bird hazard is observed, the commander shall
inform the air traffic service (ATS) unit as s oon as flight crew workload
allows.
(2) Whenever an aircraft for which the commander is responsible suffers a
bird strike that results in significant damage to the aircraft or the loss or
malfunction of any essential service, the commander shall submit a written
bird strike report after landing to the competent authority.

Question N° 25
Correct Answer – B
Refer to figure.
WAKE TURBULENCE
Whenever an airplane generates lift, air spills over the wing tips from the high
pressure areas below the wings to the low pressure areas above them. This flow
causes rapidly rotating whirlpools of air called wingtip vortices. An aircraft
generates vortices from the moment it rotates on take -off to touchdown.
Pilots should be particularly alert in calm wind or light winds of 3 to 7 knots
conditions and where the vortices could stay in the touchdown area, sink into
your take-off or landing path, or drift over a parallel runway. Calm wind
conditions are most dangerous as wake turbulence stagnates on the runway
and is not blown to one side.
In a slow hover taxi or stationary hover near the surface, helicopter main rotor(s)
generate downwash producing high velocity outwash vortices to a distance
approximately three times the diameter of the rotor. When rotor downwash hits
the surface, the resulting outwash vortices have behavioral characteristics
similar to wing tip vortices produced by fixed wing aircraft. However, the vortex
circulation is outward, upward, around, and away from the main rotor(s) in all
directions. Pilots of small aircraft should avoid operating within three rotor
diameters of any helicopter in a slow hover taxi or stationary hover . In
forward flight, departing or landing helicopters produce a pair of strong, high -
speed trailing vortices similar to wing tip v ortices of larger fixed wing aircraft.
Pilots of small aircraft should use caution when operating behind or crossing
behind landing and departing helicopters.
Question N° 26
Correct Answer – C
Refer to figures.
ICAO Doc 4444
5.8.2 Arriving aircraft
5.8.2.1 Except as provided for in 5.8.1.1 a) and b), the following separation
minima shall be applied.
5.8.2.1.1 The following minima shall be applied to aircraft landing behind a
HEAVY or a MEDIUM aircraft:
a) MEDIUM aircraft behind HEAVY aircraft — 2 minutes;
b) LIGHT aircraft behind a HEAVY or MEDIUM aircraft — 3 minutes.
Question N° 27
Correct Answer – D
ICAO Annex 17
5.2 Response
5.2.5 Each Contracting State in which an aircraft subjected to an act of unlawful
interference has landed shall notify by the most expeditious means the State of
Registry of the aircraft and the State of the Operator of the landing and shall
similarly transmit by the most expeditious means all other relevant information
to:
a) the two above-mentioned States;
b) each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries;
c) each State whose citizens were detained as hostages;
d) each Contracting State whose citizens are known to be on board the aircraft;
and
e) the International Civil Aviation Organization .

Question N° 28
Correct Answer – B
Any deposit of ice, snow or frost on the external surfaces of an aeroplane may
drastically affect its performance due to reduced aerodynamic lift and increased
drag resulting from the disturbed airflow. Furthermore, slush, freezing snow or
ice may cause moving parts, such as control surfaces and flap -actuating
mechanisms, to jam, thus creating a hazardous situation. A flight to be planned
or expected to operate in suspected or known ground icing conditions shall not
take off unless the aeroplane has been inspected for icing and, if necessary,
has been given appropriate de-icing/anti-icing treatment. Accumulation of ice or
other naturally occurring contaminants shall be removed so that the aeroplane is
kept in an airworthy condition prior to take-off.
If any doubt exists as to whether a deposit may adversely affect the aircraft’s
performance and/or controllability characteristics, the commander should
arrange for a pre-take-off contamination check to be performed in order to verify
that the aircraft’s surfaces are free of contamination, even if this results in a
delay.

Question N° 29
Correct Answer – D
ICAO Doc 8168 - Section 7 (Noise Abatement)
2.1.1 Preferred runway directions for take-off and landing, appropriate to the
operation, are nominated for noise abatement purposes, the objective being to
utilize whenever possible those runways that permit aeroplanes to avoid noise -
sensitive areas during the initial departure and final approach phases of flight.
2.1.2 Runways should not normally be selected for preferential use for landing
unless they are equipped with suitable glide path guidance, e.g. ILS, or a visual
approach slope indicator system for operations in visual meteorological
conditions.
2.1.3 Noise abatement should not be the determining factor in runway
nomination under the following circumstances:
a) if the runway surface conditions are adversely affected (e.g. by snow,
slush, ice or water, mud, rubber, oil or other substances);
b) for landing in conditions when the ceiling is lo wer than 150 m (500 ft)
above aerodrome elevation, or for takeoff and landing when the horizontal
visibility is less than 1.9 km (1 NM);
c) when the crosswind component, including gusts, exceeds 28 km/h (15
kt);
d) when the tailwind component, including gu sts, exceeds 9 km/h (5 kt);
and
e) when wind shear has been reported or forecast or when adverse
weather conditions, e.g. thunderstorms, are expected to affect the
approach or departure.
Question N° 30
Correct Answer – A
EASA CS
‘Contaminated runway’ means a runway of which a significant portion of the
runway surface area (whether in isolated areas or not) within the length and
width being used is covered by one or more of the substances listed under the
runway surface condition descriptors. More than 25 % of the runway surface
area within the required length and width being used is covered by the following:
(a) surface water more than 3 mm (0.125 in) deep, or by slush, or loose
snow, equivalent to more than 3 mm (0.125 in) of water;
(b) snow which has been compressed into a solid mass which resists
further compression and will hold together or break into lumps if picked up
(compacted snow); or
(c) ice, including wet ice

.............................................................................................................................................................

Release date: 2022.12.11.

Question N° 31
Correct Answer – B
Refer to figure.
WAKE TURBULENCE
Whenever an airplane generates lift, air spills over the wing tips from the high
pressure areas below the wings to the low pressure areas above them. This flow
causes rapidly rotating whirlpools of air called wingtip vortices. An aircraft
generates vortices from the moment it rotates on take -off to touchdown.
Pilots should be particularly alert in calm wind or light winds of 3 to 7 knots
conditions and where the vortices could stay in the touchdown area, sink into
your take-off or landing path, or drift over a parallel runway. Calm wind
conditions are most dangerous as wake turbulence stagnates on the runway
and is not blown to one side.
In a slow hover taxi or stationary hover near the surface, helicopter main rotor(s)
generate downwash producing high velocity outwash vortices to a distance
approximately three times the diameter of the rotor. When rotor downwash hits
the surface, the resulting outwash vortices have behavioral characteristics
similar to wing tip vortices produced by fixed wing aircraft. However, the vortex
circulation is outward, upward, around, and away from the main rotor(s) in all
directions. Pilots of small aircraft should avoid operating within three rotor
diameters of any helicopter in a slow hover taxi or stationary hove r. In
forward flight, departing or landing helicopters produce a pair of strong, high -
speed trailing vortices similar to wing tip vortices of larger fixed wing aircraft.
Pilots of small aircraft should use caution when operating behind or crossing
behind landing and departing helicopters.

Question N° 32
Correct Answer – A
Refer to figures.
ICAO Doc 9640
Chapter 3
Aeroplane Ground
De-Icing/Anti-Icing Fluids
3.4 The fluid standards are widely recognized and are set by an international
group of stakeholder experts under SAE, and, as per these standards, fluids are
classed as Type I, II, III or IV.
Question N° 33
Correct Answer – D
071.01.01.03.02: State the condition(s) required for the establishment of a flight
data analysis programme, and state what this programme is part of.
Source: ICAO Annex 6, Part I, Chapter 3.3

ICAO Annex 6
1.3 SAFETY MANAGEMENT
1.3.2 A flight data analysis programme shall contain adequate safeguards to
protect the source(s) of the data in accordance with Appendix 3 to Annex 19.

Question N° 34
Correct Answer – A
ICAO Doc. 10066
SNOWTAM - A special series NOTAM given in a standard format providing a
surface condition report notifying the presence or cessation of hazardous
conditions due to snow, ice, slush, frost, standing water or water associated
with snow, slush, ice or frost on the movement area.

Question N° 35
Correct Answer – B
NAT Doc 007
HF Voice Communications
6.1.3 Even with the growing use of data link communications a significant
volume of NAT air/ground communications are conducted using voice on SSB
HF frequencies and GP VHF frequencies. To support air/ground ATC
communications in the North Atlantic region, twenty -four HF frequencies have
been allocated, in bands ranging from 2.8 to 18 MHz. Additionally, Shanwick
Radio, Santa Maria Radio, and Iceland Radio operate a number of Regional and
Domestic Air Route Area (RDARA) frequencies in accordance with operating
requirements and agreements between the stations.
The integrity of the ATC service remains wholly dependent on establishing and
maintaining HF or VHF voice communications with each ATS unit along the
route of flight.
Prior to or upon entering each NAT oceanic CTA, the flight crew should contact
the appropriate aeronautical radio station.
Question N° 36
Correct Answer – C
ICAO Annex 17
Chapter 2. General Principles
2.1 Objectives
2.1.1 Each Contracting State shall have its primary objective the safety
of passengers, crew, ground personnel and the general public in all matters
related to safeguarding against acts of unlawful interference with civil aviation.
2.1.2 Each Contracting State shall establish an organization and develop and
implement regulations, practices and procedures to safeguard civil aviation
against acts of unlawful interference taking into account the safety, regularity
and efficiency of flights.
2.1.3 Each Contracting State shall ensure that such an organization and such
regulations, practices and procedures:
a) protect the safety of passengers, crew, ground personnel and the general
public in all matter related to safeguarding against acts of unlawful interference
with civil aviation; and
b) are capable of responding rapidly to meet any increased security threat.
2.1.4 Each Contracting State shall ensure appropriate protection of sens itive
aviation security information.
2.1.5 Recommendation.- Each Contracting State should employ security
equipment, where appropriate, to the extent operationally, technically and
financially practicable, to achieve civil aviation security objectives.

Question N° 37
Correct Answer – B
ICAO Doc 8168
Chapter 3 AEROPLANE OPERATING PROCEDURES
3.5 AEROPLANE OPERATING PROCEDURES — LANDING
Noise abatement procedures shall not contain a prohibition of use of reverse
thrust during landing.

Question N° 38
Correct Answer – C
Refer to figure.
The figure depicts the effect of mountain waves.
Mountain waves are oscillations to the lee side (downwind) of high ground
resulting from the disturbance in the horizontal air flow caused by the high
ground. This results in significant pitching oscillations.
Note: We have received contradicting feedback on the correct option for this
question. Initially, the reported correct option was "Impact on the mass and
balance of the aeroplane since the upward and downward componen ts of the
airflow may cause significant pitching of the aeroplane." which has been
confirmed by another student only. Several students have since reported that
was wrong in their official exam. Therefore, we have now updated the correct
option, however it has not been verified yet. Please, let us know if you come
across this question in your official exam.

Question N° 39
Correct Answer – C
EASA AIR OPS
Regulation (EU) 2019/1384
CAT.IDE.A.285 Flight over water
(a) The following aeroplanes shall be equipped with a life-jacket for each person
on board or equivalent flotation device for each person on board younger than
24 months, stowed in a position that is readily accessible from the seat or berth
of the person for whose use it is provided:
(1) landplanes operated over water at a distance of more than 50 NM from
the shore or taking off or landing at an aerodrome where the take -off or
approach path is so disposed over water that there would be a likelihood of
a ditching; and
(2) seaplanes operated over water.

Question N° 40
Correct Answer – A
EASA AIR OPS
Regulation (EU) No 83/2014
ORO.FTL.210 Flight times and duty periods
(a) The total duty periods to which a crew member may be assigned shall not
exceed:
(1) 60 duty hours in any 7 consecutive days ;
(2) 110 duty hours in any 14 consecutive days; and
(3) 190 duty hours in any 28 consecutive days, spread as evenly as
practicable throughout that period.
(b) The total flight time of the sectors on which an individual crew member is
assigned as an operating crew member shall not exceed:
(1) 100 hours of flight time in any 28 consecutive days;
(2) 900 hours of flight time in any calendar year; and
(3) 1 000 hours of flight time in any 12 consecutive calendar months.
(c) Post-flight duty shall count as duty period. The operator shall specify in its
operations manual the minimum time period for post-flight duties.

Question N° 41
Correct Answer – A
Hydroplaning is caused by a thin layer of standing water that separates the tires
from the runway. It causes substantial reduction in friction between the airplane
tires and the runway surface and results in poor or nil braking action at high
speeds. High aircraft speed, standing water, slush, and a smooth runway texture
are factors conductive to hydroplaning.

 Dynamic hydroplaning occurs when there is standing water or slush on

the runway deeper than the tread depth of the tyres. A wedge of water
builds up, lifting the tires away from the runway surface. The speed of the
 airplane, the depth of the water, and the air pressure in the tires are some
of the factors that affect dynamic hydroplaning.

HYDROPLANING SPEED CALCULATIONS:

 Rotating Tyres formula (applies to rejected take-offs): V = 9 √ P

 NON-Rotating Tyres formula (applies to touchdown): V = 7.7 √ P
Where V stands for velocity (kt) and P is tyre pressure (PSI)

In this case, the aircraft is landing: V = 7.7 √ 200 = approx. 109 kt

=> We must make sure that the reference landing speed (V R EF ) is below 109 kt.
Referring to the provided table, the flap setting is FLAP 30.

Question N° 42
Correct Answer – B
EASA AIR OPS
AMC1 ORO.FC.240 Operation on more than one type or variant
(a) Aeroplanes
(1) When a flight crew member operates more than one aeroplane class, type or
variant, as determined by the operational suitability data established in
accordance with Commission Regulation (EU) No 748/2012 for class -single pilot
or type-single pilot, but not within a single licence endorsement, the operator
should ensure that the flight crew member does not operate more than:
(i) three reciprocating engine aeroplane types or variants ;
(ii) three turbo-propeller aeroplane types or variants;
(iii) one turbo-propeller aeroplane type or variant and one reciprocating
engine aeroplane type or variant; or
(iv) one turbo-propeller aeroplane type or variant and any aeroplane within
a particular class.

Question N° 43
Correct Answer – D
EASA AIR OPS
Regulation (EU) No 965/2012
SPA.LVO.120 Flight crew training and qualifications
The operator shall ensure that, prior to conducting an LVO:
(a) each flight crew member:
 (1) complies with the training and checking requirements prescribed in the
operations manual, including flight simulation training device (FSTD)
training, in operating to the limiting values of RVR/VIS (visibility) and DH
specific to the operation and the aircraft type;
(2) is qualified in accordance with the standards prescribed in the
operations manual;
(b) the training and checking is conducted in accordance with a detailed
syllabus.

 According to the regulation above, both pilots must be qualified to

conduct an LVO and, in this case, one of the pilots isn't. Therefore,
the flight cannot be performed.

Question N° 44
Correct Answer – A
EASA AIR OPS
AMC1 SPO.OP.215 Commencement and continuation of approach –
aeroplanes and helicopters
VISUAL REFERENCES FOR INSTRUMENT APPROACH OPERATIONS
(a) NPA, APV and CAT I operations At DH or MDH, at least one of the visual
references specified below should be distinctly visible and identifiable to the
pilot:
(1) elements of the approach lighting system;
(2) the threshold;
(3) the threshold markings;
(4) the threshold lights;
(5) the threshold identification lights;
(6) the visual glide slope indicator;
(7) the touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings;
(8) the touchdown zone lights;
(9) FATO/runway edge lights; or
(10) other visual references specified in the operations manual.

Question N° 45
Correct Answer – B
EASA AIR OPS
CAT.IDE.A.250 Hand fire extinguishers
(a) Aeroplanes shall be equipped with at least one hand fire extinguisher in the
flight crew compartment.
(b) At least one hand fire extinguisher shall be located in, or readily accessible
for use in, each galley not located on the main passenger compartment.

Question N° 46
Correct Answer – B
Refer to figure.
WAKE TURBULENCE:
Whenever an airplane generates lift, air spills over the wing tips from the
high pressure areas below the wings to the low pressure areas above
them. This flow causes rapidly rotating whirlpools of air called wingtip vortices.
An aircraft generates vortices from the moment it rotates on take -off to
touchdown.
The intensity depends on aircraft weight, speed and configuration. The greatest
wake turbulence danger is produced by large, heavy airplanes operating at low
speeds, high angles of attack and in a clean configuration.
Although wake turbulence settles, it persists in the air for several minutes,
depending on wind conditions. In calm winds, win g tip vortices separate
outwards on each side of the runway. In light winds of 3 to 7 knots, the vortices
can stay in the touchdown area, sink into your take -off or landing path, or drift
over a parallel runway.
General Guides:

 To avoid turbulence when landing behind a large aircraft, stay above the
large airplane’s glide path and land beyond its touchdown point.
 If a large airplane has just taken-off as you approach, touch down well
before the large aircraft’s lift-off point.
 When departing after a large a ircraft has landed, lift-off beyond its
touchdown location.
 When taking-off behind a large aircraft, lift-off before the large aircraft’s
rotation point and climb out above or upwind of its flight path.
Question N° 47
Correct Answer – A

 If the aircraft remains within 60 minutes flight time, with one engine
inoperative, of an en-route alternate aerodrome, it is lega to fly in the NAT
HLA.

EASA AIR OPS

CAT.OP.MPA.140 Maximum distance from an adequate aerodrome for two -
engined aeroplanes without an ETOPS approval
(a) Unless approved by the competent authority in accordance with Subpart F of
Annex V (PartSPA), the operator shall not operate a two -engined aeroplane over
a route that contains a point further from an adequate aerodrome, under
standard conditions in still air, than the appropriate distance for the given type
of aeroplane among the following:
(1) for performance class A aeroplanes with a maximum operational
passenger seating configuration (MOPSC) of 20 or more, the distance
flown in 60 minutes at the one-engineinoperative (OEI) cruising speed
determined in accordance with point (b); (...)

Question N° 48
Correct Answer – C
ICAO Doc 8168
Chapter 2 NOISE PREFERENTIAL RUNWAYS AND ROUTES
2.1.3 Noise abatement should not be the determining factor in runway
nomination under the following circumstances:
a) if the runway surface conditions are adversely affected (e.g. by snow, slush,
ice or water, mud, rubber, oil or other substances);
b) for landing in conditions when the ceiling is lower than 150 m (500 ft) above
aerodrome elevation, or for takeoff and landing when the horizontal visibility is
less than 1.9 km (1 NM);
c) when the crosswind component, including gusts, exceeds 28 km/h (15 kt);
d) when the tailwind component, including gusts, exceeds 9 km/h (5 kt); and
e) when wind shear has been reported or forecast or when adverse weather
conditions, e.g. thunderstorms, are expected to affect the approach or
departure.

Question N° 49
Correct Answer – B
EASA AIR OPS
Regulation (EU) No 965/2012
CAT.IDE.A.135 Additional equipment for single-pilot operation under IFR
Aeroplanes operated under IFR with a single-pilot shall be equipped with an
autopilot with at least altitude hold and heading mode.

Question N° 50
Correct Answer – A
Hydroplaning is caused by a thin layer of standing water that separates the tires
from the runway. It causes substantial reduction in friction between the airplane
tires and the runway surface and results in poor or nil braking action at high
speeds. High aircraft speed, standing water, slush, and a smooth runway texture
are factors conductive to hydroplaning.

 Dynamic hydroplaning occurs when there is standing water or slush on

the runway deeper than the tread depth of the tyres. A wedge of water
builds up, lifting the tires away from the runway surface. The speed of the
airplane, the depth of the water, and the air pressure in the tires are some
of the factors that affect dynamic hydroplaning.

HYDROPLANING SPEED CALCULATIONS:

 Rotating Tyres formula (applies to rejected take-offs): V = 9 √ P

 NON-Rotating Tyres formula (applies to touchdown): V = 7.7 √ P
Where V stands for velocity (kt) and P is tyre pressure (PSI)
In this case, the aircraft is taking off: V = 9 √ 200 = approx. 127 kt

=> Take-off must be aborted up to V 1 , consequently, we must make sure that

V 1 is lower than the speed for Dynamic Hydroplaning 127 kt. Referring to the
provided table, the lowest flap setting which can be used is FLAPS 10.

Question N° 51
Correct Answer – A
Don’t inflate your life jacket until you’ve left the plane.
The first reason is that every second counts in an emergency, and the first 90
seconds are the most important, so you don’t want hundreds of people trying to
inflate their life jackets before they get out the door. Inflated lif e jackets will also
take up more room making it harder for people to move in an emergency. The
second reason is that if the plane starts to fill with water and you’re wearing an
inflated lifejacket, you won’t be able to swim to safety.

 The hijacked Ethiopian Airlines Flight 961 is an example of why you

shouldn't inflate your life jacket inside the plane: After the plane crash-
landed in water, many passengers who had survived the impact died
when their inflated life jackets kept them trapped in the rising water.

Question N° 52
Correct Answer – C
ICAO ANNEX 15 Aeronautical Information Services
AIPs
AD 2. AERODROMES
AD 2.21 Noise abatement procedures
Detailed description of noise abatement procedures established at the
aerodrome.
AD 3. HELIPORTS
AD 3.20 Noise abatement procedures
Detailed description of noise abatement procedures established at the heliport.

Question N° 53
Correct Answer – A
Refer to figure.
EASA AIR OPS
ORO.FTL.205 Flight duty period (FDP)
(b) Basic maximum daily FDP.
(1) The maximum daily FDP without the use of extensions for acclimatised
crew members shall be in accordance with the following table: ( see
attached figure)

 Varies from 13 hours (1-2 sectors, start of FDP 0600 - 1329) to 9 hours
(10 sectors, start of FDP 0545 - 0559).

Question N° 54
Correct Answer – C
Although it may seem that a bird is substantially smaller and hence harmless to
a flying aircraft, several aircraft systems can be affected, potentially leading to
disaster. A bird strike is defined as being a collision be tween a bird and an
aircraft and is often expanded to include bats and other animals.
When a bird - even a small one - hits a plane, many systems can be
affected. Clogged probes and damaged sensors may lead to inconsistent speed,
altitude and attitude information or disagreement among instruments. Engine
damage may range from dented compressor blades to vibration and engine
failure. Windscreens may be shattered, impeding clear vision of the pilot, or in
the worst-case causing decompression. Other parts of the airframe also
commonly suffer from damage after a bird-strike, although it normally does not
result in any critical failure in flight. Jet engines are particularly vulnerable to
bird strikes, leading to a loss of thrust following the ingestion of the bi rd.

Question N° 55
Correct Answer – D
It is not sufficient to rely on oral contact between pilots and engineers when the
aircraft arrives. Every malfunction, unreliable operation or damage including bird
strikes observed by the crew must be reported in written and so does any work
performed by the technicians, should it be repair or regular maintenance.

ICAO Annex 6
8.8 Maintenance release
8.8.1 A maintenance release shall be completed and signed to certify that the
maintenance work performed has been completed satisfactorily and in
accordance with approved data and the procedures described in the
maintenance organization’s procedures manual.
8.8.2 A maintenance release shall contain a certification including:
a) basic details of the maintenance carried out including detailed reference
of the approved data used;
b) the date such maintenance was completed;
c) when applicable, the identity of the approved maintenance organization;
and
d) the identity of the person or persons signing the release.
IMPORTANT NOTE: The correct option has been recently reviewed and
updated according to recent feedback. The current correct option has been
confirmed by several students.

Question N° 56
Correct Answer – D
EASA PART FCL
GM1 FCL.135.A; FCL.135.H
DIFFERENCES AND FAMILIARISATION TRAINING
(a) Differences training requires the acquisition of additional knowledge and
training on an appropriate training device or the aircraft.
(b) Familiarisation training requires the acquisition of additional knowledge.

Question N° 57
Correct Answer – D
EASA AIR OPS
Regulation (EU) No 965/2012
CAT.GEN.100 Competent authority
The competent authority shall be the authority designated by the Member State
in which the operator has its principal place of business.

 Principal place of business in Italy => competent authority: Italy

Question N° 58
Correct Answer – A
EASA AIR OPS
Regulation (EU) No 965/2012
AMC1 CAT.OP.MPA.195 Refuelling/defuelling with passengers embarking,
on board or disembarking
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES — GENERAL
(a) When refuelling/defuelling with passengers on board, ground servicing
activities and work inside the aircraft, such as catering and cleaning, should be
conducted in such a manner that they do not create a hazard and allow
emergency evacuation to take place through those aisles and exits intended for
emergency evacuation.
(b) The deployment of integral aircraft stairs or the opening of emergency exits
as a prerequisite to refuelling is not necessarily required.
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES — AEROPLANES
(c) Operational procedures should specify that at least the following precautions
are taken:
(1) one qualified person should remain at a specified location during
fuelling operations with passengers on board. This qualified person should
 be capable of handling emergency procedures concerning fire protection
and firefighting, handling communications, and initiating and directing an
evacuation;
(2) two-way communication should be established and should remain
available by the aeroplane's inter-communication system or other suitable
means between the ground crew supervising the refuelling and the
qualified personnel on board the aeroplane; the involved personnel should
remain within easy reach of the system of communication;
(3) crew, personnel and passengers should be warned that re/defuelling
will take place;
(4) ‘Fasten Seat Belts’ signs should be off;
(5) ‘NO SMOKING’ signs should be on, together with interior lighting to
enable emergency exits to be identified;
(6) passengers should be instructed to unfasten th eir seat belts and refrain
from smoking;
(7) the minimum required number of cabin crew should be on board and be
prepared for an immediate emergency evacuation;
(8) if the presence of fuel vapour is detected inside the aeroplane, or any
other hazard arises during re/defuelling, fuelling should be stopped
immediately;
(9) the ground area beneath the exits intended for emergency evacuation
and slide deployment areas should be kept clear at doors where stairs are
not in position for use in the event of evacuation; and
(10) provision is made for a safe and rapid evacuation.

Question N° 59
Correct Answer – D
NAT Doc 007
HF Voice Communications
6.1.3 Even with the growing use of data link communications a significant
volume of NAT air/ground communications are conducted using voice on SSB
HF frequencies and GP VHF frequencies. To support air/ground ATC
communications in the North Atlantic region, twenty -four HF frequencies have
been allocated, in bands ranging from 2.8 to 18 MHz. Additionally, Shanwick
Radio, Santa Maria Radio, and Iceland Radio operate a number of Regional and
Domestic Air Route Area (RDARA) frequencies in accordance with operating
requirements and agreements between the stations.
The integrity of the ATC service remains wholly dependent on esta blishing and
maintaining HF or VHF voice communications with each ATS unit along the
route of flight.
Prior to or upon entering each NAT oceanic CTA, the flight crew should contact
the appropriate aeronautical radio station.

Question N° 60
Correct Answer – B
Refer to figure.
In the case of an in-flight contingency where the aircraft needs to remove itself
from the NAT HLA (North Atlantic High Level Airspace) routing system, it should
first turn at least 30 degrees off course (the direction depends on a multitude
of factors, nearest airspace, strategic lateral offset procedure, etc.), then when
at 5 NM offset, if possible, establish and maintain a 500 ft (altitude) offset from
the cleared altitude (1000 ft when above FL 410, which is outside RVSM
airspace). If possible/deemed necessary, the aircraft should descend below
FL290 to avoid traffic further.
More details on this procedure and the variation on this procedure for weather
deviations is given in document NAT 007, NORTH ATLANTIC OPERATIONS
AND AIRSPACE MANUAL — CHAPTER 13.
Question N° 61
Correct Answer – D
It is important to note that the aircraft does not have enough fuel to continue to
the destination or to return to the departure airfield, which could result in an
emergency landing in a remote area. The best choice would be to land at C
(even if the weather is below minimum) where there would be help within a short
time in case of an emergency landing. ATC would also be prepared to assist the
flight crew during the approach.

Question N° 62
Correct Answer – A
Refer to figure.
In Canada Airspace, Northern Domestic Airspace (NDA) is the area of compass
unreliability within which runways and NAVAIDs are oriented to True North.

Question N° 63
Correct Answer – B
EASA AIR OPS
CAT.IDE.A.350 Transponder
Aeroplanes shall be equipped with a pressure altitude reporting secondary
surveillance radar (SSR) transponder and any other SSR transponder capability
required for the route being flown.
AMC1 CAT.IDE.A.350 Transponder
SSR TRANSPONDER
(a) The secondary surveillance radar (SSR) transponders of aeroplanes being
operated under European air traffic control should comply with any applicable
Single European Sky legislation.
(b) If the Single European Sky legislation is not applicable, the SSR
transponders should operate in accordance with the relevant provisions of
Volume IV of ICAO Annex 10 .

Question N° 64
Correct Answer – D
NORTH ATLANTIC OPERATIONS AND AIRSPACE MANUAL — CHAPTER 3
Shannon Oceanic Transition Area (SOTA) and Northern Oceanic Transition
Area (NOTA)
3.3.6 Parts of the Shanwick OCA are designated as the Shannon Oceanic
Transition Area (SOTA) and the Northern Oceanic Transition Area (NOTA).
NOTA airspace is included in the NAT HLA and hence NAT HLA requirements
are still applicable from FL285 to FL420 in NOTA. However, SOTA is not
included in the NAT HLA. Therefore flights within SOTA routing such that they
are subject to an Oceanic Clearance, are required to be NAT HLA Approved.
3.3.9 Air Traffic Services are provided by Shannon ACC using the call sign
SHANNON CONTROL. Full details of the service provided and the procedures
used are contained in AIP Ireland.
NOTA Northern Oceanic Transition Area
SOTA Shannon Oceanic Transition Area

Question N° 65
Correct Answer – A
NORTH ATLANTIC OPERATIONS AND AIRSPACE MANUAL
NAT Doc 007
8.3 PRE-FLIGHT PROCEDURES
System Alignment
8.3.4 The alignment of inertial systems must be completed and the equipment
put into navigation mode prior to releasing the parking brake at the ramp. Some
systems will align in about 10 minutes, others can take 15 minutes or more;
expect alignment to take longer in extreme cold or at higher latitudes or when
the aircraft (and hence the inertial platform) is buffeted by winds or rocked
during cargo loading. A rapid realignment feature is sometimes provided but
should only be used if, during an intermediate stop, it becomes necessary to
increase the system accuracy. The aircraft must be stationary during rapid
realignment which typically will take about one minute.