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ALL INDIA LAW ENTRANCE TEST 2023

MOCK AILET #02

ANSWER KEY & EXPLANATIONS

SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE
1. (d) The first blank is followed by the word ‘with’. The
phrase “tamper with something” means to make
changes to something without permission,
especially in order to damage it. The first part of the
sentence contains a reference “inevitably worries
bioethicists”. Tampering would worry bioethicists.
Therefore the most suitable word for the first blank
is choice (D) tampering. The second part of the
sentence contains the words “least affective control
systems”. Least affective control systems would
bring about vulnerable situation. Therefore the most
suitable word for he second blank is “vulnerable”.
Answer is choice (D) tampering, vulnerable.
2. (c) Kathakali is a dance form of art and dances are
always ‘performed’. Kathakali artists have to wear
elaborate costumes and masks. These masks are of
different colors like, green, white and black and
quite ‘colorful’. Hence choice C is the right answer.
3. (b) All the first words in choices A, B, and C are
suitable for the first blank in the sentence. The
second words in choices B and D are suitable for the
second blank but the first word in choice D is not
suitable for the first blank. The common choice with
both the correct words is choice B which is the right
answer.
4. (b) The passage begins stating that acid attack is a form
of gender-based human rights violation. It continues
with CEDAW’s stand in the matter and then quotes
Mrs. Merry’s views. Notwithstanding the public
opinion, rules and laws, violence against women
continues unabated as a daily normal problem rather
than a violation of human rights. This points to
option (B) as the correct answer, Option (A) lacks
continuity. Since the legal aspects of violence
against women are not discussed in the passage,
option (C) is inappropriate. Option (D) is a general
statement that doesn’t fit the blank.
5. (d) The passage is about the viability of reducing solar
power tariffs. The fall in tariffs is not without its
disadvantages. A price crash of the said nature
without concomitant advances in basic technology
may prove exceedingly harmful. Two reasons are
attributed to the fall in tariffs. One is the increased
efficiency in converting solar radiation into
electricity. The other is the dropping cost of solar
equipment thanks to improvements in the
manufacturing technology. This is suggested by
option (D). The passage focuses on the tariffs.
Option (A), no doubt is related to the topic, but
cannot fit the blank. Option (B) expresses a different
line of thought. Option (C) appears to be factually
correct, but does not fit the blank.
6. (d) The mystery in the passage is that “The radioactive
decay of some elements” are “influenced by
activities inside the sun” and another mystery is that
“this unexpected effect is brought about by a
previously unknown particle emitted by the sun”
and the passage proceeds to refer to the “crucial
clue” which is that “a solar flare sent a stream of
particles and radiation towards Earth”. This points

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 to an “apparent relationship between flares and
decay rates”, making choice (D) an apt answer.
While choice (A) is not correct, choices (B) and (C)
only provide partial answers to the question.
7. (c) Para 7 states that ‘A lump of radioactive cesium - 14.
137” may “decay at a steady rate”, but “individual
atoms within the lump will decay in” a “random
pattern.” Hence, choice (C) is the correct answer
Choice (A) does not give the complete picture.
8. (b) According to the passage the “more surprising”
observation was that the “decay rate (of silicon - 32
and radium - 226) was” faster “in winter than in
summer” (para 9) Thus, choice (B) is the correct
answer, and choices (A), (C) and (D) are rendered
redundant.
9. (c) The passage speculates that the decrease in decay
rate of manganese - 54 that started “before the flare”
was due to “something produced by the sun” (para 15.
12) that had “traveled all the way through the Earth
to affect the isotope” (para 14) Hence, choice (C) is
the best answer.
10. (c) The penultimate para states that the decay rates
“oscillate” as the Earth came closer to the sun,
which means to “swing” back and forth, hence
choice (C) is the best answer.
11. (a) Choice B has the article ‘a’ before ‘autumn’ which
begins with a vowel and hence making the sentence
incorrect. Choice C talks about a ‘emigrant’ bird
which is wrong as we have ‘migratory birds’ and not
‘emigrant birds’. Thus choice C is a wrong sentence.
The sentence is about a rare species of bird which
was viewed by an expedition. Hence the verb ‘see’
should be used in its past participle form ‘seen’ and
not the past tense ‘saw’. Thus choice D can be
ignored. Choice A, with no error, is the right answer. 16.
12. (c) Choice A uses the comparative degree — older - of
‘old’ though the Panda is not compared with any
other animal. Hence it should be either ‘old’ or
‘oldest’. A simple ‘old’ Panda need not have
celebrity status. Hence it has to be ‘oldest’ making
choice A a wrong sentence. Choice B uses the word
‘between’ which is incorrect as the Panda is equated
with the entire species and not another single
animal. Hence the right word would be ‘among’ 17.
making choice B a wrong sentence. Choice D uses
the homophone ‘ears’ instead of ‘years’ making it a
wrong sentence. Choice C is free of errors and is the
right answer.
13. (d) The sentence talks about the cutest falcon seen for
the first time in central India with photographic
evidence. Choice A uses the article ‘an’ before
‘small’ which begins with a consonant hence
making the choice a wrong sentence. The second
choice incorrectly uses the word ‘spot’ in the present
tense, Hence ‘spotted’ is the right form of word to 18.
be used making choice B a wrong sentence. Choice
C ends with the word ‘authenticity’ — meaning-
validity or legality.
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But what is needed is to establish the authenticity
of the photograph -meaning- authentication. Hence
choice C is a wrong sentence. Choice D is free
from error and is the right answer.
(d) Option D would be the correct answer because when
both the words are used in the blanks, it makes the
sentence a meaningful one. The words “lively” and
“active” and “depositing” its eggs in May and June”
would give the reader a hint about the characteristics
of the dace fish.
Words such as “solitary” which means “alone,
without companions”, “unfruitful” which means
“unproductive” and “sterile” which means not
being able to produce the young cannot be used
because they would not make the sentence a
meaningful one. Hence options A, B and C are
incorrect.
(c) Option C would be the correct answer because when
both the words are used in the blanks, it make the
sentence a meaningful one. The sentence tells the
reader what punishment would be imposed upon a
person who defiled the Host. Hence, words
“sacrilege” and “ignominious” which mean “the
violation or profanation of anything sacred or held
sacred” and “discreditable humiliating,
contemptible” respectively would fit in the blanks.
Words such as “worthy” which means “having
character or deserving” and “piety” which means
“reverence for God or devout fulfillment of
religious obligations” and “respectable” which
means worthy of respect, or worthy” cannot be
used because they would not make the sentence a
meaningful one. Hence options A, B and D are
incorrect.
(b) The 1st sentence is c and makes an assertion. It is
followed by B, which corroborates it. The 3rd
sentence is D It ties back to B, as the word, ‘it’,
mentioned in it refers to the survey mentioned in B
and it gives us the findings of the survey, A is the
concluding sentence and contains within it, a
summary of the 1st three sentences.
The sequence is CBDA.
The answer option is, hence, (b).
(c) B is the 1st sentence. It introduces us to the topic,
telling us that Umea has become a much-sought-
after destination. D tells us why this is so and thus,
we identity it as the 2nd sentence. A is the 3rd
sentence and tells us that Umea, compared with
Riga, is an unusual choice for next year’s European
Capital of Culture. C, the 4th sentence, tells us that
despite being so, Umea has its own unique
attractions and so, is as captivating as Riga. The
sequence is BDAC.
The answer option is, therefore, (c).
(b) C is the 1st sentence as it introduces the Kyrgyz
Republic to us by giving us a brief description of its
geographical location. B is the 2nd sentence. It gives
a more detailed description of the geography of the
country, telling us about the pastures and valleys
Page 2 of 16
 responsible for the verdure of the countryside
mentioned in C. The 3rd point, D, tells us that there
is very little cultivable land in the Kyrgyz Republic. 25.
A, the 4th point, draws upon the 2nd and 3rd points
to come to its conclusion that the country has always
been home to nomads. The sequence is CBDA.
19. (c) D is the opening sentence and tells us why tiger
conservation is sometimes sidelined. It is followed
by A, the 2nd sentence, which tells us what will 26.
happen the sidelining of tiger conservation persists.
C, the 3rd sentence, stresses us that tiger
conservation is not something complex and only
requires the determined implementation of extant
strategies. B is the 4th sentence and tells us that, 27.
nevertheless, some lateral thinking is required in
tiger conservation considering the precarious
situation that tigers are in. The sequence is DACB.
The answer option is, therefore, (c).
20. (c) In (A), there is an error. The correction is ‘to
contemplate’. In (D), ‘part’ must be preceded by the
article ‘a’ — ‘a part’ of something. In (E) ‘study of
ethics’ must be preceded by the article ‘the’. Parts
(B) and (C) are correct.
21. (b) In (B) it should be “... even greater strength ……‘ In
C, evidence is an uncountable noun, hence, the
correction must be ‘to more damning evidence’. In 28.
(D), to disclose is incorrect, the correction is ‘to be
disclosed’.
In (E) ‘moments’ must take an apostrophe
‘moment’s notice’ Only (A) is right.
22. (a) In (B), ‘sharply is modifying ‘reducing’, hence the
correction is ‘sharply reducing’. In (C), ‘also’ is
erroneous. The correction is ‘so also’ which means
‘therefore’ or ‘as a result’. In (D), ‘showed’ is 29.
incorrect. The correction is ‘shown’.
23. (b) (A) is erroneous because the past tense of the word
‘spring’ (to appear 15 sprung, so the correction is
‘spring has sprung’. (B) is incorrect because the
word ‘waiving’ is incorrect here. The word ‘waive’
which means to restrain from insisting on or
applying (a right or claim) does not make sense here.
The word ‘wave’ (move one’s hand to and fro in
greeting) is apt. In d the usage of the word mobs is 30.
erroneous. The word mobs which means groups of
angry people is a misfit because the context does not
imply that the people are angry or unruly. The
correct word which should be used here is ‘throngs’.
Only C and E are correct in terms of grammar and
usage. 31.
24. (a) (B) is erroneous because the expression ‘of line’ is
incorrect. The correction is ‘with nuclear reactors
going off line.....’ (C) is incorrect because the word
‘rise’ is incorrect here. The correct word to be used
here is ‘raise’ meaning increase. (D) is incorrect
because the preposition ‘among’ is incorrect in this
context. The correct preposition to be used here is
‘on’ because restrictions are imposed on people. (E)
is incorrect because ‘three-month’ should be 32.
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hyphenated since it refers to a period and qualifies
‘spells’. Only A is free of errors.
(d) The word ‘nature’ means the phenomena of the
physical world collectively, including plants,
animals, the landscape, as used in 2. Another
meaning of the word is the basic or inherent
features, character, or qualities of something, as
used in 1 and 3. E is the right answer.
(d) The word ‘critical’ means sensitive, as used in 1.
Another meaning of the word is having crucial
importance, as used in 2. A third meaning of the
word is to express disapproval, as used in 3. E is the
right answer.
(c) We need adjectives to fill the blank which will
eliminate both C & D, on the account of them being
verb and noun, respectively. “Spectacular” =
beautiful in a dramatic and eye –catching way.
“Picturesque” = (of a place or building) visually
attractive, especially in a quaint or charming way.
“Dazzle” = amaze or overwhelm (someone) with a
particular impressive quality.
“Sensation” = a physical feeling or perception
resulting from something that happens to or comes
into contact with the body. Option C will be the
correct answer.
(d) We need an adverb here so ‘’distinct’’ (recognizably
different in nature from something else of a similar
type) which is an adjective, will be eliminated.
“Surely” can also be ruled out as it does not provide
an appropriate sense to the sentence. Both A & C
will be the correct words to fit in here, them being
synonyms- fluent or persuasive in speaking or
writing. Option D will be the correct answer.
(a) The highlighted phrase is incorrect as the adverb
‘so’ should have been used in place of the adjective
‘such’, as it is being used to modify the adjective
‘slowly’. B and C provide grammatically and
contextually correct replacements. A is incorrect as
the determiner ‘that’ has been used, which means
that ‘such’ or ‘so’ should be used for the first clause,
in order to indicate the extent of the slow speed. A
is the right answer.
(d) The highlighted phrase is incorrect as the base form
of the verb ‘learn’ should be used with the infinitive
construction ‘to learn’. All of the four options can
replace the highlighted phrase and make the
sentence grammatically and contextually correct,
which makes E the right answer.
(b) The highlighted phrase is incorrect as the participle
‘given’ should have been used here, as it means
‘giving consideration to’. B cannot replace the
highlighted phrase as the relative pronoun ‘what’
should be replaced with ‘how’, as the sentence is
talking about quantity of time. A, C and D can
replace the highlighted phrase as they fit in with the
sentence, making it coherent and meaningful. B is
the right answer.
(d) Option A is eliminated as the word ‘ensnared’
means deceived. This does not make sense in the
Page 3 of 16
 passage. Option B is eliminated as the word
‘reclaimed’ means to retrieve something, which
does not fit in the passage. Option C is eliminated as
the word ‘defiled’ means to make something
impure, which sounds absurd in the context. Option
D is the right answer, as the word ‘proclaimed’ 40.
means to announce something officially, which
makes sense in the given context.
33. (a) Option B is eliminated as the word ‘thinking’ is a
verb, while we need a noun. Option C is eliminated
as the word ‘position’ means the physical placement
of something, which does not make sense here.
Option D is eliminated as the word ‘angle’ sounds
absurd in the context. In option A, the word
‘opinion’ meaning perspective, which makes more 41.
sense in the given context.
34. (b) With respect to the given passage, we need a word
with a negative connotation here as the context
indicates to people dying/being harmed during
World War I. Option A is eliminated as the word
‘replenished’ means to renew something. Option C
is eliminated as the word ‘relished’ means to enjoy
the taste of something. Option D is eliminated as the
word’ cherished’ means to enjoy, which has a 42.
positive meaning, while the context suggests
otherwise. Option B is the right answer, as the word
‘perished’ means to die, which makes sense here.
35. (c) Option A is eliminated as the word ‘amalgamation’
means combining, which does not make sense here.
Option B is eliminated as the word ‘associate’
means a co-worker or partner, which does not fit
contextually. This does not hold the exact meaning
the passage seeks to convey. Option D is eliminated 43.
as the word ‘link’ means a connection; once again
this does not fit in the context. Option C is the right
answer, as the word ‘alliance’ means agreement,
which makes sense in given context of the passage.
36. (d) Option A is eliminated as the word ‘edict’ means an
official order issued by someone, which does not fit
in the passage. Option B and C are eliminated as
both these words are verbs. While we need a noun.
Option D is the right answer as the word ‘conflict’
means fight and this fits in perfectly in the passage.
37. (a) Following parallelism, the continuous tense of the
verb should be used for both clauses of the verb stem
(got talking, being satisfied, not taking). (a) is the
right answer, as the rest of the sentence is free of
error.
38. (d) The error is contained in E. The adjective ‘good’
should be used in place of the adverb ‘well’, as it is
being used to describe a noun (health). (d) is the
right answer, as the correct combination is not given
in the options (ABCD).
39. (d) An adjective would fit in the blank because 44.
adjectives describe characteristics of a noun and in
this case the noun is 'assumptions.' 'Disrupt' is
eliminated. 'Beneficial' and 'sustainable' are
adjectives but are contextually unfit because the
sentence clearly talks about people undermining
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others with negative assumptions that can logically
never do good to anybody. ‘Destabilising’ is an
adjective which means ‘causing unrest’ and is apt
for the blank.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
(b) An adverb would fit in the blank to qualify the verb
'performed'. ‘Impartial’ (adjectives) is eliminated.
'Erratically' and 'occasionally' are adverbs but are
contextually unfit because the sentence is about
weight loss and logically one needs to be regular
with the chosen method only then it would be
effective. ‘Consistently’ is an adverb and is apt for
the blank.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
(d) A noun would fit in the blank because the article 'the'
precedes the given blank and usually articles are
followed by nouns. ‘Responsible’ (adjectives) is
eliminated. 'Assistance' and 'blessing' are nouns but
are contextually unfit because the sentence conveys
that talent makes our world an easy place by
removing unpleasant stuff. ‘Burden’ is a noun and is
apt for the blank.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
(d) A verb would fit in the blank to create uniformity
with the verb 'raided' as per the rule of parallelism
which says that same part of speech should come
before and after the conjunction 'and'. Since 'raided'
is the past participle of 'raid ' another past participle
would be apt for the given blank of all the given
options, only ‘discovered’ is available in the past
tense.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
(d) The correct answer is option (d) because the
statements in A, B and C draw parallelism with the
excerpt from the second paragraph. It tells us that
unlike a prayer, which directs a faith toward some
imagined institution worthy of interceding in that
hope's favour and has only the psychological self-
clarification that comes from honing our hopes in
language as a side benefit, a mantra is entirely
focused on distilling the object of hope to its most
basic essence. This, in and of itself, converts hope
into an aim, making it more practical. While there is
a sense of magic in how such distillation seems to
modify the circumstance by its sheer utterance, it is
a completely practical sort of magic, for a mantra
simply simplifies, focuses, and consecrates intent,
and all significant transformation stems from
deliberate, devoted intent. Thus, the correct answer
is option (d).
The rest of the options don’t align themselves with
the correct statements and thus, they are the
incorrect options.
(a) The correct answer is option (a) as the statement in
it draws parallelism with the excerpt from the third
paragraph which states that Hanh gently reminds us
that the best resource of our own heart — our largest
source of strength, our mightiest remedy for fear —
is the degree of love we send through the quality of
Page 4 of 16
 our participation, a century after Tolstoy argued that
love is a present activity alone. Thus, option (a) is
correct.
The statement in option (b) is incorrect as it is
nowhere mentioned in the passage.
The statement in option (c) is mentioned in the
third paragraph but it is not in context to this
question and thus, it is an incorrect option.
45. (c) The correct answer is option (c) as the statement in
it is nowhere mentioned in the passage and thus, it
is false and hence, the correct option.
The statements in options (a), (b) and (d) are true
because the statement in them is mentioned in the
excerpt from the fourth paragraph and hence, they
are the incorrect options. The excerpt states that
Hanh reminds us that these mantras can be
performed across distance, across wires, cables,
and screens, without requiring the physical
presence of the beloved — however they are
verbalised, they are at their core meditations
comprising all four elements of true love as
explained by the Buddha: love, compassion, joy,
and freedom. While the microscopic rewards of
Thich Nhat Hanh's "hugging meditation" can
magnify and deepen the third mantra, "Mantra for
Relieving Suffering," it, too, can be extended
across the digital distance.
46. (c) The correct answer is option (c) as the statement in
it draws parallelism with the excerpt from the first
paragraph which states that the overall Buddhist
method to embrace complexity is through
simplicity, and Buddhists have a special ability for
weaving together simple words into a garland of
tremendous wisdom radiating enormous kindness.
Thus, the correct answer is option (c).
The statements in options (a) and (b) are mentioned
nowhere in the passage and thus, they are the
incorrect options.
47. (d) The correct answer is option (d) as the statement in
it draws parallelism with the excerpt from the third
paragraph which states that despite how simple this
mantra may appear, Hanh reminds us that fostering
the potential for mantra — the ability for
involvement, which is where our capacity for love
resides — is extremely difficult in the face of the
massive wave of demand and diversion that
envelops everyday life and sweeps us along with it.
Thus, option (d) is the correct answer.
The statement in option (a) is mentioned in the first
paragraph but it is not in context to this question
and hence, it is an incorrect option.
The statement in option (b) is mentioned in the
second paragraph but it is not in context to this
question and hence, it is an incorrect option.
48. (d) Let’s first see the meanings of the given words:
Inimical = unfriendly.
e.g. Excessive managerial control is inimical to
creative expression.
Comparable = that can be compared.
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Deliberate = planned or intentional.
Influential = powerful.
Hostile = unfriendly.
e.g. The president had a hostile reception in Ohio
this morning.
Hence, option D is the correct answer.
49. (a) Let’s understand the meaning of the given words:
Preclude: to prevent something or make it
impossible, or prevent someone from doing
something
E.g.: His contract precludes him from discussing
his work with anyone outside the company.
Assist: give assistance; be of service
E.g.: he gave me an assist with the housework
Deter: try to prevent; show opposition to
Froward: habitually disposed to disobedience and
opposition
Fervent: characterized by intense emotion
Hence, option A is the correct answer.
50. (b) The sentence talks about the increasing demand of
resources in countries and how those demands
cannot be fulfilled by traditional farming methods;
the blank requires to be filled up by an adjective that
can qualify the noun 'demand' appropriately. So, the
word 'insatiable' which means '(of an appetite or
desire) impossible to satisfy' correctly describes the
current demand. The words 'placid' (peaceable) and
'squeamish' (easily made to feel sick or disgusted)
do not make the sentence meaningful, going by the
meanings they have; as, an adjective is required, the
noun/verb 'quest' cannot fit in the sentence; hence,
option a), c) and d) are eliminated. The answer
therefore is option b).
SECTION B: CURRENT AFFAIRS & GENERAL
KNOWLEDGE
51. (a) First Stretch: A 34-km line between Bihar’s Jainagar
and Nepal’s Kurtha, with the Hindu pilgrimage city
of Janakpur Dham (in Nepal) in between.
Second Stretch: A 17 km of railway line from
Kurtha to Bijalpura is also getting the finishing
touches.
52. (c) It is an international non -governmental organisation
founded in 1993 based in Berlin, Germany. Its non-
profit purpose is to take action to combat global
Corruption with civil societal anti-corruption
measures and to prevent criminal activities arising
from corruption. Its most notable publications
include the Global Corruption Barometer and the
Corruption Perception Index.
53. (a) The government approved the highest price bid of
Talace Pvt Ltd, a wholly owned subsidiary of Tata
Sons Pvt. Ltd for sale (Disinvesting) of 100% equity
shareholding of Government of India in Air India
(AI).
54. (d) The idea was first floated by Modi in 2018 at the
first meeting of International Solar Alliance, which
will also take a lead on this venture. The climate
Page 5 of 16
 secretariat will put a road map in place at COP26, 64.
on how to achieve this vision.
55. (a) The Centre told Parliament on Tuesday that a group
of multiple agencies was investigating Indians 65.
alleged to have stashed wealth offshore as disclosed
in the Pandora Papers leak in October this year. On
October 3, the International Consortium of
Investigative Journalists (ICIJ) leaked 11.9 million 66.
files which included names of politicians,
businessmen and celebrities from more than 200
countries and territories.
56. (b) The Union Cabinet approved the setting up of seven
Mega Integrated Textile Region and Apparel (PM 67.
MITRA) Parks at an outlay of Rs. 4,445 crores.
57. (c) PFC has become the 11th public sector enterprise to
get the ‘Maharatna’ status in the country and joins
the ranks of other such companies like ONGC,
Indian Oil Corporation, Steel Authority of India
Limited (SAIL) and BHEL among others.
58. (a) Water Day is observed on 22 nd March. Earlier, on 68.
water day, in a report released by the United Nations
Children’s Fund (UNICEF), one in five children
worldwide reside in areas of high or extremely high
water vulnerability. 69.
59. (a) The origins of the HDI are found in the annual
Human Development Reports produced by the
Human Development Report Office of the United
Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
60. (d) Objectives of AMRUT Mission:
It will build upon the progress of AMRUT to
address water needs, rejuvenate water bodies, better 70.
manage aquifers, reuse treated wastewater, thereby
promoting a circular economy of water.
It will provide 100% coverage of sewerage and
septage in 500 AMRUT cities.
Recycling and reuse of treated wastewater is
expected to cater to 20% of total water needs of the 71.
cities and 40% of industrial demand. Under the
Mission, fresh water bodies will be protected from
getting polluted to make natural resources
sustainable. 72.
61. (a) It was set up in 1988 by the World Meteorological
Organization (WMO) and United Nations
Environment Programme (UNEP) to provide
policymakers with regular assessments of the
scientific basis of climate change, its impacts and
future risks, and options for adaptation and
mitigation.
62. (c) The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is the
premier investigating agency of India. It operates
under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Personnel,
Public Grievances and Pensions, Government of
India.
63. (b) Shri Piyush Goyal, Union Minister for Commerce & 73.
Industry, Consumer Affairs, Food & Public
Distribution, and Textiles, has been appointed as
India's Sherpa for the G20.
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(a) The current Permanent Representative of India to
UN is T. S. Tirumurti, who was appointed in April
2020.
(d) Dame Sandra Prunella Mason FB GCMG DA SC
(born 17 January 1949) is a Barbadian politician,
lawyer, and diplomat who is the first and current
president of Barbados.
(d) This project is a key component of the strategic
partnership between India and France as stated by
President Emmanuel Macron and Prime Minister
Narendra Modi on several occasions. Jaitapur would
be the world's most powerful nuclear power plant.
(a) The Uighurs are a predominantly Muslim minority
Turkic ethnic group, whose origins can be traced to
Central and East Asia. The Uyghurs speak their own
language, which is similar to Turkish, and see
themselves as culturally and ethnically close to
Central Asian nations. They make up less than half
of the Xinjiang population.
(c) The convention provides Nine freedoms of air, but
only the first five freedoms have been officially
recognized by the International Civil Aviation
Organisation (ICAO).
(b) As per the report, Japan and Singapore top the list of
being the most powerful passports in the world for
the year 2022. The Indian passport now ranks at
83rd position on the Henley Passport Index,
climbing seven places from the 90th rank last year,
the London-based global citizenship and residence
advisory firm, said.
(c) Shri S. Somanath assumed the charge of Secretary,
Department of Space and Chairman, Space
Commission on 14 January 2022. In his previous
assignment he was Director, Vikram Sarabhai Space
Centre (VSSC), the lead Centre responsible for
Launch vehicle technology development.
(a) Amongst the 10 surveyed sites of the central Indian
states, Kuno Palpur National Park (KNP) in Madhya
Pradesh has been rated the highest. This is because
of its suitable habitat and adequate prey base.
(c) It will facilitate grid integration and power
evacuation of approximately 20 GW of Renewable
Energy (RE) power projects in seven States namely,
Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala,
Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu and Uttar Pradesh. The
transmission systems will be created over a period
of five year from Financial Year 2021-22 to 2025-
26. It is targeted to be set up with a total estimated
cost of Rs. 12, 031 crores, and the Central Finance
Assistance (CFA) will be 33% of the project cost.
The CFA will help in offsetting the Intra-State
transmission charges and thus keep the power costs
down.
(b) The bill provides for modifying Part-XVIII of the
Schedule to the Constitution (Scheduled Tribes)
Order, 1950, relating to the state of Arunachal
Pradesh. It seeks to amend the constitutional list of
Scheduled Tribes as recommended by Arunachal
Pradesh. This amendment in the list of Scheduled
Page 6 of 16
 Tribes, relating to the state of Arunachal Pradesh,
will entail no additional recurring expenditure from
the Consolidated Fund of India, on account of
benefits likely to be provided to persons belonging
to the communities proposed in the Bill.
74. (c) The National Green Tribunal (NGT), on a petition
filed by Yuva Mandal Sansthan Mithdiya, a non-
profit in Rajasthan, has directed Punjab and
Rajasthan governments to submit quarterly
compliance reports to Jal Shakti ministry about
remedial action being taken to curb the inflow of
effluent discharge into the Satluj and Beas. The
Indira Gandhi Canal is the longest canal in the
country. The petitioner requested the NGT to issue
directions against the two states to curb the inflow
of industrial waste and sewage water into the Sutlej
and Beas river and Rajasthan Feeder Canal, as well
as take appropriate steps to check, manage and
control the effluents being thrown into the rivers.
75. (b) A Supreme Court-appointed committee has
questioned relaxations given for the upgrade of a
4.7-km road (Laldhang-Chillarkhal road) in the
buffer zone of Rajaji Tiger Reserve and sought
replies from the Centre and Uttarakhand
government. The relaxation for measurement of
roads was approved by the National Board for
Wildlife (NBWL). NBWL is the apex agency to
clear projects in and around protected areas.
76. (a) Judima, a home-made rice wine of Assam’s Dimasa
tribe has become the first traditional brew in all of
northeast to bag a Geographical Indication (GI) tag.
It is the first beverage from the north-east to get a GI
tag. Judima is a rice wine made from sticky rice
(glutinous rice called Bora), which is steamed and
mixed with traditional herbs called Thembra
(Acacia pennata). This is the second product from
the hill districts of Karbi Anglong and Dima Hasao
to get GI tag.
77. (d) The Election Commission of India (ECI) has
decided to freeze the election symbol of the Lok
Janshakti Party (LJP). The decision came amid the
tussle between the two factions. Both factions have
been barred from using the name of the party or its
symbol ‘Bunglow’ till the dispute between the rivals
groups is settled by the poll panel. The Election
Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968
empowers the Election Commission to recognise
political parties and allot symbols.
78. (c) Transgenders to appear in Kolkata Police
Recruitment Exam, as per the Calcutta HC. Online
application form to be filled in for the recruitment
examination to the post of Sub-Inspector/Sub-
Inspectors and Sergeant in the Kolkata Police for the
year 2021 had no column allowing transgenders to
apply for the post. State government responded to
the same and added transgender column in online
application form.
79. (b) The gestational limit for termination of a pregnancy
has been increased from 20 to 24 weeks for certain
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categories of women. Further, a state-level medical
board will be set up to decide if a pregnancy may be
terminated after 24 weeks in cases of foetal
malformation.
80. (c) The Supreme Court (SC) has appointed an expert
committee, which is to be overseen by a retired apex
court judge Justice Raveendran Committee, in the
Pegasus case. Under the case, the Union
Government is alleged to have used Israeli spyware
“Pegasus” for surveillance on private citizens. The
court rejected the government’s plea to set up its
own probe. The court asserted that the government
appointment of probe would violate the settled
judicial principle against bias, i.e., that ‘justice must
not only be done, but also be seen to be done’.
SECTION C: LOGICAL REASONING
81. (b) United Nations is an organisation that tries to solve
the international conflicts among the countries with
discussion and negotiations. As it is evident in the
given statement that Russia invaded Ukraine just
after its representatives returned from a negotiation
meeting, it means the meeting had failed.
So, it can be concluded that both the parties did not
agree with each other. But it is not clear whether
Russia was given some offer or not. It will become
an assumption and not a conclusion based on the
facts. Statement 1 does not follow.
However, it is confirmed that the meeting did not
achieve its objective. Hence, option B is the correct
answer.
82. (a) The distance and speed are very important here. As
most of the accidents occur near the home and also
at speeds below 50 KMPH, it can be concluded that
there is a lack of concentration in eagerness or haste
to reach the home early. One might also feel relaxed
as he is nearing his home.
Hence, statement 1 is relevant in the discussion.
However, the link of traffic density with the number
of accidents cannot be established. So, statement 2
is not a conclusion that can be drawn from the
question statement.
Option A is the correct answer.
83. (c) Statement 1 is a notion and a fanciful statement. It is
not a fact or an inference based on the fact. It can
best be described as judgement.
The facts are open to discovery and verification.
Here, we find that hangovers with Rum can be
verified or observed in its consumers. Statement 2 is
a fact.
Statement 3 is also a fact it can be verified from the
heath of eyes of computer operators.
Therefore, the correct sequence is JFF.
84. (b) We shall look into both statements one by one.
Statement 1 looks to be a piece of information that
makes us aware that there is widespread cruelty
against the animals but only a few cases are
reported. It is a true assertion.
Page 7 of 16
 But the information given in statement 2 is not a 90.
correct reason to explain it. It is absurd to think that
animals will report the abuse against a human being
in court, only the animal lovers or general people
observing can do that. So, the reason is not relatable.
But it is true in its content.
Hence, option B is the most appropriate answer.
85. (a) Statement A is correct as it is based on the results of
scientific studies.
Statement R is also correct. The human digestive is
not capable of digesting everything. It is true.
R gives the correct explanation of A. The infection
can be rooted in the incapability of the human 91.
digestion system to digest everything and anything.
Option A is correct.
86. (c) First of all, eliminate the incorrect choices.
Statement II is incorrect in using ‘never’. This
cannot be concluded from the given statement.
Statement I is not the correct assumption based on
the question statement. It is explicitly mentioned in
the given statement that ‘all aspects of collective
endeavour require the intervention of the
government. So, it can be concluded that humans are
capable of collective behaviour under the 92.
intervention of the government.
Statement III is a correct assumption. It can be
assumed that outside help is required for all aspects
of human endeavour.
So, only III follows. Mark C as the answer.
87. (c) It is expected in the statement that multinationals
will impact the country’s manufacturing sector. It is 93.
a positive statement. So, the statement I is the
obvious assumption based on this expectation.
Statement II is not a clear statement. It is not a
correct assumption.
Statement III is the correct assumption to reflect the
positive sense expressed in the statement given in
the question. I
Hence, C is the correct answer.
88. (b) Ours is a well-connected world. The movement of
people across the borders is frequent. It can be
assumed that an infectious disease can travel
lightning-fast from one corner of the world to
another. So, it is a prudent action to check all the 94.
people coming from the other countries but it is not
justified to ban all the flights from European
countries. Hence, Statement 2 stands but Statement
1 fails.
Option B is the correct answer.
89. (b) Statement I does not give a logical course of action.
It is an extreme action that can deteriorate the
situation.
Statement II connects the problem of indigestion
with obesity. It looks relevant. The problem of 95.
acidic reflux is related to low metabolism and this is
expected in an overweight person. So, statement II
looks the correct course of action.
Therefore, option B is the correct alternative.
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(a) India and Russia are old allies in trade and defence
systems. It means these countries have a high level
of understanding and trust with each other. So, it is
not very prudent to vote against the old ally in an
international organisation without understanding the
problem. Option I is a strong argument.
Statement II is a weak argument even if other
countries are voting against Russia in the UN
council, India shall abstain from the following them.
It is not evident what type of relations other
democracies have with Russia.
So, option A is the correct answer.
(a) If the students are taking the online exams for last
two years. Then the exams shall also be in online
mode. The students must have become accustomed
to this mode. This argument is a strong argument in
favour of online exams and against offline exams.
Statement I is a strong argument.
Students do not prepare for a mode of exam. They
prepare a syllabus. The anxiety is present in both
offline and online modes. The argument given in
Statement II is not strong. It is weak in its reasoning.
Hence, option A is the correct answer.
(a) It is correct to assume that Indian students go abroad
to study medicine as medical education in India is
not available or costly and beyond their reach.
So, we that cause-and-effect relationship is
established in these two statements. Statement I
gives the cause and statement II gives the effect.
Mark option A as the answer.
(b) The sentence is about the art of medicine. It is not
about any medicine. So, option A is not correct.
Option B is the correct answer. The given part of the
sentence explains how the art of medicine is not
limited to treating but healing as well, it ends with
introducing the ‘curing’ aspect of this art, the
missing part shall elaborate on the art of medicine as
art of curing.
Option C does not complete the sentence logically.
Option D looks logical but it does not discuss
anything about curing. Hence, it becomes
incoherent and breaks the flow of the statement.
Hence, option B is the most appropriate answer.
(d) We have to find a situation which proves that
restricting the number of employees recruited from
other stales to 20% of the total work force is not
possible, None of the choices (1), (2) and (3) shows
that kind of situation. Choice (4) states that there are
not many skilled workers among the local people
and hiring unskilled workers causes loss to the
directors/producers. Hence, (4) renders the
instructions inoperable.
Choice (4)
(b) We have to find a possible cause for the banks
attempt to recruit young people. Choices (1) and (3)
are talking about the qualification but not age.
Hence, neither (1) nor (3) is a probable cause.
Choice (2) states that there is a dearth of young
people among its existing workforce. This can be a
Page 8 of 16
 probable cause for the recruitment drive. Choice (4)
does not a give a specific reason for recruiting young
people. It gives reason for recruitment generally.
∴ Choice (2) is a probable cause.
Choice (2)
96. (c) We have to find possible reasons behind the increase
in number of mobile phone users. Though cost may
play a role, it is necessity that ultimately makes one
buy it. Hence, neither (A) nor (B) is a probable
cause. (C) talks about the increasing importance of
mobile phones in daily life. This can be a probable
cause for increase in the number of mobile phone
users. Hence, only (C) is a probable cause. Choice
(3)
97. (c) By imposing higher load factor, which would affect
the profitability, the state cannot expect to attract
developers unless it is compensated in a different
way. If there is no need of additional power, then Ihe
developers will not be asked to set up projects for
the sake of higher revenue. Hence (1) cannot be a
possible cause. Infrastructure is not in the context.
Hence (2) cannot be a possible cause. If the state can
offer lower toad factor, it would have offered the
same and it would have ensured That the developers
do not go away from the slate. Hence (3) is a
possible cause. (4) cannot be a possible cause as it is
said that the load factor is a reason that is driving the
developers away from the slate.
∴ Choice (3) is a possible cause.
Choice (3)
98. (b) The information gives the opinion that the works of
a celebrity writer may not be as popular as the writer
himself because of his 'star' status and that people
tend to get more interested to read about him or his
personal life man his works/books.
To substantiate the information, we need to identify
an answer choice that supports the opinion. Choice
(1) does not express support since the given
information does not imply that the personal life of
the celebrity writer is a distraction. Choice (2) is
relevant and supporting. Choice (3) is irrelevant
since we cannot make any inferences about writers
who are not celebrities. Choice (4) tends to imply
that there are not many readers of the works of
celebrity writers when in fact, the information
merely implies that readers are more interested in
reading about the writer. Hence choice (2)
strengthens the above argument. Choice (2)
99. (c) From the given information it can be inferred that
the number of road accidents recorded last year is
500. And we need to weaken the claim that the
number of accidents decreased as a result of the
increased awareness about traffic rules. Choices (1)
and (4) give examples which lend to strengthen the
argument. Choice (2) contradicts the argument.
Choice (3) weakens the argument as there is an
increase in the number of road accidents.
Choice (3)
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100. (d) We need to choose an answer choice that
supports the article that animal experimentation
is necessary.
Choice (1) does not address the issue that humans
tend to benefit from any successful results of animal
experimentation.
Choice (2) weakens the article since it gives an
alternative evidence where animal experimentation
has not been conducted.
Choice (3) is not complete information since there
is no clue to identify if polio vaccine was developed
based on animal experimentation or not. Hence,
irrelevant.
Choice (4) perfectly supports the article.
Choice (4)
101. (d) To weaken the argument that manufacture of
medicines from supora root extract leads to
extinction of supora. we have to show that supora
can be grown so that it would not become extinct
even if its roots are used to manufacture medicine.
Choice (1) talks about the place where supora can
be found. Hence, (1) does not weaken the argument.
Choice (2) talks about costs involved in
manufacturing such medicine. Hence, (2) does not
weaken the argument.
Choice (3) is about logistics of dispensing the
medicines. Hence, (3) does not weaken the
argument.
Choice (4) talks about how supora can be easily
propagated and grown under cultivation. This
weakens the conclusion that supora may become
extinct. Hence, (4) weakens the argument.
Choice (d)
102. (c) It is concluded that we have to continue with the
space flights That carry astronauts, by citing
importance of satellites and repairs to them. By
stating that repairs to satellites are not all that
necessary we can weaken the argument. None of the
choices (1), (2), and (4) are on these lines.
Choice (3), states that sending a new satellite is
more viable than repairing the existing one. Hence,
there is no necessity to send astronauts into space to
repair satellites and we can do away with such
flights. Thus choice (3) weakens the argument.
Choice (3)
103. (b) Choice (1) is referring to the other modes of
transport. When there is not going to be any increase
in other modes of transport, the pressure on metro
trains increases. This weakens the argument that 8%
increase in the number of daily trips will be
sufficient to avoid further delays.
Choice (2) states that the addition to the number of
commuters by rnetro trains is going to be during
non-peak hours. This may not cause any further
crowding and hence there would not be increase in
delays. Thus choice (2) provides strength to the
confidence of MRA.
Neither choice (3) nor (4) state anything relevant to
the question.
Page 9 of 16
 Choice (2) 109. (a) Broccoli is green coloured and similarly tomato is
104. (c) The Scandinavian Lutherans thought that red coloured.
individuals had some inherent rights, which opened 110. (a) If the 1st day of a month is on the third day after
them to the idea of rights for women and in many Monday, then the 1st day is on Thursday. Hence the
Scandinavian countries they have female priests. 17th day of the month will be on a Saturday.
What conclusion can logically be drawn from this'' 111. (c) APPROXIMATELY - the number of letters are 13.
They believed in the inherent rights of individuals -- (13 + 1)2 = 196.
and gave women rights. Therefore, it can be BAG - the number of letters are 3. -- (3 + 1)2 = 16.
concluded that they saw that females have the same IMAGES - the number of letters are 6. -- (6 + 1)2 =
rights as men. Hence option (3) is the right choice. 49.
There is no evidence to indicate that there is not Similarly,
much religion at all in these countries (option 1}. DELICATE - the number of letters are 8. -- (8 + 1)2
Similarly, nothing in the argument suggests (2). The = 81.
argument is about giving rights to women, so (4) is 112. (c) HEART – 151042832
irrelevant. 4 6 8 9 1 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 2
Choice (3) 0 2 4 5 6 8 0 1 2
105. (c) It is claimed that the nuclear deal between Iran and A B C D E F G H I J K L M
the US is evidence of Obama's commitment to a 2 2 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
nuclear weapons- free world. What point casts the 4 5 6 7 8 0 2 3 4 5 6 8 9
most serious doubt on this claim? We can consider N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
what points will show the hollowness of the claim. Hint [33-35]
The answer could be option (3) because option (3) Let us represent Alfa, Beta, Gamma, Delta and Zeta
says Israel is the only country in the Middle East to with α, β, γ. δ and z respectively.
possess nuclear weapons. All other options support For efficiency of doing the work:
the claim. Given β is more efficient than α. γ takes least time,
Choice (c) so he has highest efficiency.
106. (a) The basic diagram for the given statements is Also δ is more efficient than z. α is less efficient
than z and more efficient than δ
So, in term of efficiencies γ> β > z >α>δ or γ > z >
β>α>δ
For heights:
Given β is shorter than 𝛼 ⇒ 𝛽 < 𝛼
γ is the shortest.
δ is shorter than z ⇒ 𝛿 < z
Choice (1), negative, follows. Also is taller than β who is taller than δ.
As the negative conclusion follows, let us try to ⇒ 𝛼 > z > 𝛽 > 𝛿 > 𝛾 or z > 𝛼 > 𝛽 > 𝛿 > 𝛼
negate it by drawing an alternative diagram. 113. (d) 𝛿 is the lest efficient
The negation of (1) is ‘some gels are cars’, which 114. (d) Either α or z is the second tallest.
cannot be drawn as ‘no ball is a gel’. 115. (b) Under the given condition, the order of efficiencies
∴Choice (1) follows. is
107. (d) The basic diagram for the given statements is, γ >β> z >α>δ
The order of heights is
z / α > α / z > β > δ>γ
∴ β, z are the third tallest and the third efficient
respectively.
Hint [36-40]
Choice (1), negative, does not follow. From (ii) and (iv)
Choice (2), negative, does not follow. Evening Morning
Choice (3), negative, does not follow. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Choice (4), affirmative, follows. K J
108. (a) The basic diagram for the given statement is, From (v), Z was not the third to be delivered.
From (iii), X was delivered in the evening slot.
From (vi), M was delivered in the morning slot.
∴ One among H and T must be delivered in the
morning slot and as they are del
on two consecutive days
They must be on the 4th and 5th days and X must be
Choice (1), affirmative, follows. on the 7th day.

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 And as Z was not delivered on the third day, Z must So K is the cousin of E.
have been delivered < 127. (c) In every pair except option (3), the sum of the first
second day. number and it's cube is the second number.
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 7 + 343 = 350: 2 + 8 = 10 and 5 + 125 = 130.
K Z M H/T T/H J X 128. (a) The gap between the preceding letter and the
116. (c) X was delivered on the seventy day. succeeding letter increases by one.
117. (d) Either (2) or (3) is the correct order. F (G) H (I J) K (L M N) O (P Q R S) T (U V W X
118. (d) M was delivered on the third day. Y) Z (A B C D E F) G (H I J K L M N) O.
119. (d) The pack H was delivered on either fourth or fifth 129. (c) A + 5 = F
day. B-4=X
Therefore, cannot be determined. G+3=J
120. (a) M was delivered in the evening slot. J-2=H
Hint[41-43] T+1=U
From (i) and (iii), F, B and E are friends. F and B Similarly,
have no job. From (i), (iv), (vi) and the above, AC D+5=I
or BC or CE are colleagues and siblings. E has no U-4=Q
colleagues. From (ij), (v) and the above, E, A, B and R+3=U
C are classmates. B and C are neighbours as well as C-2=A
siblings. AC or AD or DC are colleagues. K+1=L
∴ The final possible cases are as shown below So, DURCK : IQUAL is the correct option.
Relation Persons 130. (b) An itinerary is a planned route or journey while
Colleagues AC/AD/DC traveling. Similarly, in school, a scheduled
Friends FBE timetable is followed for all the classes and events.
Neighbours BC Calendar is not a schedule for work, trains are not
Sibling BC scheduled on tickets and maps are not schedules for
Classmates EABC towns.
131. (a) Option (a) is Correct as according to the principle a
121. (a) B and C are siblings.
person is liable when which he can foresee that his
122. (d) is the correct answer.
act would injure his neighbour here Mr. R S Gupta
123. (a): is the correct answer.
has no idea about the content of the package so he
Hint[44-45]:
cannot be held liable for the act. Option B is wrong
From the given information, the possible
because it is less appropriate then option A as it does
arrangements are as shown below.
not correlate to the principles and further Mr. S can
carry anything if is approved by the railway
authorities. Option C is wrong because it was an
accident and he did not push Mr. S intentionally.
Option D is wrong as it is general or moral based
answer which is not the best option in any case.
132. (c) Option (c) is correct. Although S C Chand has taken
all the necessary step and even put a warning sign
about the electrified fencing but he is still liable
since he has used extra force near a field where
124. (c) P and R cannot be either immediately in front of or children play. He should have seen the possibility
immediately behind T. that children could get hurt because of the electrified
125. (d) Q cannot stand either at the front or at the rear. fencing. Both option A and B would have been
126. (d) C is the mother of E. E is the son of J. C is the sister correct if there would not have been a playground
of B who is married to A. nearby as the concept of excessive force is applied
here and based on this concept both of them are
wrong. Option D is also wrong as he should have
foreseen this possibility that children could get
injured by his electric fences as the playground is
K is the daughter in law of A. V is the son of L. L is nearby and further it is common for children to act
the husband of K. recklessly.
133. (a) Option (a) is correct as it can be seen from principle
2 that “nothing would be considered as offence if the
consent to that harm have been made”. The case of
public welfare is questionable since the drug was
experimental and there is no proof of its efficacy and
there’s nothing to indicate the patient’s disability to
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 consent, and option D seems practical, but is
unnecessary, since the patient’s consent sits above
his relatives therefore option D is incorrect. Option
B and C are wrong as allowing public welfare and
public interest as an excuse in such serious cases
would put matters in grave jeopardy.
134. (a) Option (a) is Correct as it is clear from the principle
that to constitute the offence of battery, it must be
done with the intention to cause harm to others and
in the current situation X had done the act to save
the teacher and others from the scorpion. Therefore
he is not liable and option A is correct answer.
Option B is incorrect as the student’s action was
instant in nature with sole purpose of protecting his
classmates and teachers. Options C & D is wrong as
it is general or moral based answer which is not best
options in any case.
135. (a) Option (a) is correct as it is clear to the principle that
it is not necessary that physical contact must be there
to constitute the offence of assault and it is a planned
attempt. So Mr. C’s actions were enough to cause a
reasonable apprehension in Miss P’s mind. Further,
the facts are based on the English case, R v.
Constanza and the first two arguments were
forwarded by the defence and they had failed.
Option B is wrong as physical action is not
prerequisite for assault. Option C is wrong as there
was no imminent threat upon Miss P so it cannot
constitute assault. Option D is wrong as it is mere
apprehension on the part of Miss P’s that Mr. C’s
mental health is not stable.
136. (d) Option (d) is correct as john started speaking with
an “if” and joins it with a “(then) I would” which
clearly indicates his intentions – he would not have
done the act. Coupled with the fact that there was a
fence and a considerable distance between the two,
there is little scope of immediate harm. The fact that
he is elderly bears no weight when we apply the
‘reasonability test’. Based on the above reasoning
option C is clearly wrong. Option A is wrong
because distance and fence does not matter if there
is imminent threat to a person’s safety. Option B is
incorrect because as it is general or moral based
answer which is not best options in any case.
137. (a) Option (a) is correct as the situation, as illustrated
by the answer, does not meet the requirements of
false imprisonment. Also, the facts are silent on how
did Mr. M Singh stall Mr. H Sharma. A single
carelessness should not make Mr. M Singh guilty as
it was a mistake of fact on his part and he believed
himself to be justified by law as it can been seen
from principle 1. Option B is wrong as Mr. M Singh
was completely reasonable as explained above.
Option D is wrong as option A is more appropriate
in this particular situation as it correlates with
principles and facts. Option C is wrong as it is
general or moral based answer which is not best
options in any case.
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138. (c) Option (c) is correct as Sam’s right into the airspace
above his property does not extend endlessly.
Further, the helicopter which was a several hundred
feet away shows that Sam cannot reasonably derive
any enjoyment from his airspace at such a distance.
Based on this reason option D is clearly incorrect.
Option A is wrong as the company was taking aerial
photographs for mapping purposes and there were
several hundred feet above his house and not taking
pictures of the inside of his house, so it does not
constitute trespass. Option B is wrong as there are
instances where without going to a land of property,
a person action can come under the ambit of
trespass. So this option is also wrong. Also the
passage is silent about trespass as an offense.
139. (d) Option (d) is correct as Fundamental Rights
provided by the Indian Constitution gives us the
right to carry on any occupation, trade or business,
but reasonable restrictions can be imposed by the
provisions of law, in the interest of general public.
In the present scenario, the notice is justified as the
right to business is not absolute, so reasonable
restrictions can be imposed in the interest of public.
Based on this reasoning both option A and B are
incorrect as reasonable restriction can be imposed
by the government. Option C is also wrong as state
is responsible for safety of its citizens and
environment and they are only told to close this
business till necessary measures to protect public
health.
140. (a) Option (a) is correct as it is clear from the principle
that acceptance must be communicated to the other
party clearly, here Mr. V K Singh did not
communicate his acceptance to Mr. R K Sharma
instead he did through his agent which will not
amount to communication. Option B is wrong based
on the above based reasoning and Option D is wrong
as it is only a correct statement without proper
reasoning therefore option A is more appropriate
answer. Option C is wrong as it is immaterial who is
the owner if a proper contract would have formed.
141. (d) Option (d) is correct as it was an accident and
misfortunate instance which was done without any
criminal intention as X was trying to save his own
life and he only intended to hit Y to stop him from
strangulating him. The same can be referred from
principle 1. Option A is wrong as there was no
intention present in the situation and he was acting
in self-defense. Option B is wrong as Y did not do
anything to cause F’s death so he cannot be included
with X. Option C is also wrong as it is general or
moral based answer which is not best options in any
case.
142. (b) Option (b) is correct as per the principle mentioned
here, generally an agreement without consideration
is not valid. In this case, Mr. W cannot cancel his
agreement with Mr. S because the sale of car to Mr.
S for Rs. 10000 was a voluntary act and this price or
consideration has some value in the eyes of law.
Page 12 of 16
 Option A is wrong as there must be some value in
the consideration, whether it is adequate or
inadequate that has to be decided at the time
formation of contract and now the contract is
binding. Both option C & D are wrong as Mr. W
voluntarily agreed upon selling the cars. Now he
cannot go back on his agreement despite the reasons
mentioned in the option.
143. (a) Option (a) is correct as direct discrimination occurs
when for a reason related to one or more prohibited
grounds a person or group of persons is treated less
favourably than another person and in this situation
it was made for certain group or certain age whether
it is on occasion of the women’s day as it can be
another initiatives also for women but these order is
totally direct discriminatory hence this option is
correct.
Option (b) is incorrect as the indirect
discrimination occurs on certain practice and
related things and in this situation, it was for
certain group of persons so it cannot be indirectly
discrimination and hence this option is incorrect.
Option (c) is incorrect as the order was totally
discriminatory as it is for the one group and not
reasonable so it is discriminatory and hence it is
incorrect.
Option (d) is incorrect as it is not justifiable as on
the women’s day another initiative can also be
taken but this is not justifiable so this option is
incorrect.
144. (a) Option (a) is correct as per the principle no suit can
be maintain against any registered trade union, the
immunity is available in related with the cases of
trade dispute not of personal nature and in this
situation the loan was for Toloman in relation to the
personal purpose and the bank will file a suit for
recovery of the loan amount and there will be no
immunity work and hence this option is correct.
Option (b) is incorrect as the bank cannot initiate
any action as it was clear from the principle that
the registered trade union cannot be liable but in
this situation the loan was for Toloman’s personal
use so the reasoning is not appropriate, hence this
option is incorrect.
Option (c) is incorrect as in this situation also bank
cannot initiate as it was personal use of Toloman
and hence this option is also incorrect.
Option (d) is incorrect as Toloman used the amount
for his daughter’s studies which will come under
his personal use, under his own name and hence it
is incorrect as personal matters has no such
immunity as can be seen in the given principles.
145. (b) Option (b) is correct as the principle says that “A
widow cannot claim the property of the deceased on
the date when the question of succession opens, she
has remarried” and in this situation, Vinita got
remarried, she is no more widow at the time of
asking the share and she has no children in this
condition and hence this option is correct.
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Option (a) is incorrect as Vinita belongs to the
family earlier and this cannot be the reason for
inheriting the property and hence this option is
incorrect.
Option (c) is incorrect as she was not asking on the
date of Rupesh’s death but she was asking when
she got remarried so she cannot inherit the property
and this option is incorrect.
Option (d) is incorrect as Vinita cannot inherit the
property whether she belongs to the family or not
as she remarried and as per the principle 3 it was
one of the condition, hence this option is also
incorrect.
146. (c) Option (c) is correct as per the principle whosoever
causes or leads to environment pollution shall be
liable for any loss caused by the pollution and it
shall be no defence or reason that all due diligence
and the reasonable care were taken and in this
situation, it was Hardeep’s duty and responsibility
to ensure and maintain that no harm should be
caused to the environment due to the factory activity
under any situation and hence this option is correct.
Option (a) is incorrect as the precautions were
taken but due to some reason it is affected from the
industry only so automatically that will make liable
to Hardeep and hence it is incorrect.
Option (b) is incorrect as whether it is sudden
problem or not Hardeep should maintain and
already taken precaution for as such accident by
the industry and hence this option is incorrect.
Option (d) is incorrect as the victims can succeed
but it can be only due to the mistake of Hardeep, so
the reasoning is not appropriate in this option and
hence this option is incorrect
147. (c) Option (c) is correct as this adoption fulfilled all the
conditions in respect with the principles so this
adoption of Tom by Shyam is valid and hence this
option is correct.
Option (a) is incorrect as Sachin was taking already
adopted child so it is not fulfilling all the
conditions of adoption and hence this option is
incorrect.
Option (b) is incorrect as the adoption by Radhe
cannot be valid as Radhe was the natural father of
Tom so it cannot be in adoption and the adoption
gave by him already to Shyam hence this option is
incorrect.
Option (d) is incorrect as there is correct option so
one of the adoption is valid and hence this is
incorrect.
148. (d) Option (a) cannot be the right answer because it’s
not about the motive whether he wanted to return or
not, it’s about intention and possession. Option (b)
is not the correct option because in criminal damage
there should be an intention of damaging the
property and Radhe’s intention was not to damage
the painting. Option (c) is also not the correct option
as the principle nowhere mentions about the lawful
owner rather it states ‘any person’ (principle 1).
Page 13 of 16
 Option (d) is the correct answer because Radhe is
guilty of theft as the Principle 1 talks about having
the intention to take property from the possession of
another without his consent. The person in question
need not necessarily be an owner. All other
requirements and essentials of Principle 1 is
established and hence it makes Radhe liable for theft
as per the principle.
149. (c) Option (a) cannot be the right answer because
though she used legal measures to redress her
grievance but due to this measure Umesh faced
many issues which is related to his reputation and
work profile. So, this cannot be the right answer.
Option (b) also cannot be the right answer because
this option is inappropriate in deciding about
something which is related to someone’s
reputation.
Option (c) is the right answer because there was
malicious intent on the part of Nisha as she
instituted the proceedings with the intent to injure
the reputation of Umesh and teach him a lesson and
according to Principle 4 malicious intention will be
existed if the prosecution is instituted with a wish
to injury the party and same happened in this
situation Nisha instituted the proceedings with the
malicious intent only. Option (d) is also not the
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right option, as even though the complaint made
was about the harassment but there was malicious
intention behind making such a complaint.
150. (c) Option (a) is not the right answer because the
company is not liable to pay the compensation on
the basis of that Raj Singh is a contracted production
worker with the company. Option (b) is not a correct
answer because it does not clearly provide us the
information that Raj Singh is the employee or not by
mentioning “even though Raj Singh is an employee
of the company”. As it is clear from the facts the he
was one of the production worker. Thus making
option (b) incorrect.
Option (c) is the correct answer because the
company is not liable to pay compensation as the
injury to Raj Singh was not caused by an accident
arising in the course of employment and according
to principle 4 an employer is required to provide
compensation to his or her employees for any
injury caused by an accident arising in the course
of employment and Raj Singh got injured out of the
course of employment so the company is not liable.
Thus option (c) has better explanation than option
(b).
With the same reasoning we can eliminate Option
(d) also as company is not liable.
Page 14 of 16
 Notes:-

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 Notes:-

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