PTS 2023 L1 Test 1 Solutions

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PTS 2023 | B1 | L1 Test 1 - Solutions |

Q.1)
Ans) b
Exp) option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect. In western model of secularism which is inspired mainly by the American
model, separation of religion and state is understood as mutual exclusion. The state will not intervene
in the affairs of religion and, in the same manner, religion will not interfere in the affairs of the state. Each
has a separate sphere of its own with independent jurisdiction. No policy of the state can have an
exclusively religious rationale. No religious classification can be the basis of any public policy.
Statement 2 is correct. In western model of secularism, the state cannot aid any religious institution. It
cannot give financial support to educational institutions run by religious communities. It also cannot
hinder the activities of religious communities, for example, if a particular religion forbids the entry of
some of its members in the sanctum of its temple, then the state has no option but to let the matter rest
exactly where it is.
Statement 3 is correct. There is little scope for community-based rights or minority rights. There is no
scope for the idea that a community has the liberty to follow practices of its own choosing. When strict
separation of the state from the church is emphasized the issues of inter-religious and minority rights got
neglected.
Source: Class 11 -Political Theory NCERT. Chapter 8. Page 7
Q.2)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct. Citizenship unites the people with different culture, religion and ethnicity and
does not segregate the people. In the contemporary world, states provide a collective political identity to
their members as well as certain rights.
Statement 2 is correct. Citizenship is about not only the relationship between states and their members
but also about citizen-citizen relations and involves certain obligations of citizens to each other and to
the society. These would include not just the legal obligations imposed by states but also a moral
obligation to participate in, and contribute to, the shared life of the community.
Statement 3 is correct. Citizenship refers to full and equal membership of nation state. Citizens expect
certain rights from their state as well as help and protection wherever they may travel. Equal rights for
citizens need not mean that uniform policies have to be applied to all people since different groups of
people may have different needs.
Source: Class 11 -Political Theory ncert. Chapter 6 page 6
Q.3)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct. Structural violence refers to a form of violence wherein a social structure or
social institution may harm people by preventing them from meeting their basic needs. This concept
was introduced by Johan Galtung in 1969. It refers to a form of violence wherein some social structure or
social institution may harm people by preventing them from meeting their basic needs; according to
Galtung, rather than conveying a physical image, structural violence is an “avoidable impairment of
fundamental human needs.”. Structural violence is the violence inflicted when oppressed classes make
any challenge to established hierarchies. Social institutions and practices reinforce entrenched
inequalities of caste, class and gender in society, which can cause injury in subtle and invisible ways.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Guerrilla warfare (not structural violence), is a type of warfare fought by
irregulars in fast-moving, small-scale actions against orthodox military and police forces and, on
occasion, against rival insurgent forces, either independently or in conjunction with a larger political-
military strategy.
Source: Class 11 -Political Theory NCERT. Chapter 9. Page 4
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC5561688/
https://www.unicef.org/rosa/sites/unicef.org.rosa/files/2018-
08/SVACS%20report%28web%29August%202.pdf
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Q.4)
Ans) d
Exp) option d is the correct answer.
It is commonly believed that nations are constituted by a group who share certain features such as
descent, or language, or religion or ethnicity. But there is in fact no common set of characteristics
which is present in all nations. Some of the assumptions which people make about the nation are –
Statement 1 is correct. A nation can be formed on shared beliefs. People as a nation refer to the
collective identity and vision for the future which aspires to have an independent political existence.
Statement 2 is correct. A nation can be formed when people embody a sense of continuing historical
identity. Nations perceive themselves as stretching back into the past as well as reaching into the future.
They articulate for themselves a sense of their own history by drawing on collective memories, legends,
historical records, to outline the continuing identity of the nation.
Statement 3 is correct. A nation can be formed when members of a nation share a vision of the kind of
state they want to build. They affirm among other things a set of values and principles such as
democracy, secularism and liberalism. These ideals represent the terms under which they come
together and are willing to live together. It represents, their political identity as a nation.
Source: Class 11 -Political Theory ncert. Chapter 7 page 4
Q.5)
Ans) c 
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The right to vote has been recognised under the Article-326 of the Indian Constitution and thus it is a
Constitutional Right. India is a democratic country and right to vote and to be elected is granted to every
citizen of India under the Constitution of India. Under Article 326 of the Constitution of India it is
provided that “The elections to the House of the People and to the Legislative Assembly of every State
shall be on the basic of adult suffrage; that is to say every person who is a citizen of India and who is not
less than eighteen years of age and is not disqualified on the ground of non-residence, unsoundness of
mind, crime or corrupt or illegal practice shall be entitled to be registered as a voter”.
Under Section 62 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 it is provided that “Every person who is,
for the time being entered in the electoral roll of any constituency shall be entitled to vote in that
constituency”.
In simple words “every Citizen of India who is not less than eighteen years of age is entitled to get
enrolled into electoral roll and is entitled to vote in the constituency in which his name is entered in the
electoral roll irrespective of caste, creed, religion or gender unless he is disqualified under the
Constitution or any other law on the ground of non-residence, unsoundness of mind, crime or corrupt or
illegal practice.
Source) http://www.helplinelaw.com/business-law/RTOR/right-to-vote-and-right-to-reject-all-
candidates-in-elections.html
UPSC 2017
Q.6)
Ans) d
Exp) option d is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect. Theocratic state does lacks separation between religious and political
institutions. On the other hand, it is secular state that state allows separation between religious and
political institutions. Theocratic states, such as the Papal states of Europe in medieval times or in recent
times the Taliban-controlled state, lacking separation between religious and political institutions.
Statement 2 is correct. Theocratic states are known for their hierarchies, and oppressions. They are
reluctance to allow freedom of religion to members of other religious groups. If we value peace,
freedom and equality, religious institutions and state institutions must be separated.
Statement 3 is correct. A state governed directly by a priestly order is called theocratic state. It is
government by divine guidance or by officials who are regarded as divinely guided.
Statement 4 is correct. In many theocracies, government leaders are members of the clergy, and the
state’s legal system is based on religious law.
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Source: Class 11 -Political Theory NCERT. Chapter 8, page 4
https://www.britannica.com/topic/theocracy
Q.7)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Assam movement mainly led by students of Assam was started in 1979
under the leadership of All Assam Students Union (AASU) and the All Assam Gana Sangram Parishad
(AAGSP). This was a movement against undocumented immigrants in Assam. It officially ended on 15
August, 1985 after coming of an understanding with the Government of India which found official
expression in the memorandum of understanding popularly known as the Assam Accord 1985.
Statement 2 is incorrect. In May 1977, the central government appointed a Commission of Inquiry
headed by Justice J.C. Shah (not Mohammad Hidayatullah), to inquire “into several aspects of allegations
of abuse of authority, excesses and malpractices committed and action taken in the wake of the
Emergency proclaimed on the 25th June, 1975”.
Statement 3 is incorrect. National emergency under Article 352 in India during 1962 war (China war), 1971
war (Pakistan war), and in 1975.
Source: NCERT class12_Politics-in-India-since-Independence, chapter-6
Q.8)
Ans) a
The positive liberty are concerned with explaining the idea of ‘freedom to’. It is concerned with looking at
the conditions and nature of the relationship between the individual and society and of improving these
conditions such that there are fewer constraints to the development of the individual personality.
Positive liberty recognises that one can be free only in society (not outside it) and hence tries to make
that society such that it enables the development of the individual.
Knowledge Base)
Negative liberty seeks to define and defend an area in which the individual would be inviolable, in
which he or she could ‘do, be or become’ whatever he or she wished to ‘do, be or become’.
Negative liberty is the absence of obstacles, barriers or constraints. One has negative liberty to the extent
that actions are available to one in this negative sense. Positive liberty is the possibility of acting — or the
fact of acting — in such a way as to take control of one's life and realize one's fundamental purposes.
While negative liberty is usually attributed to individual agents, positive liberty is sometimes
attributed to collectivities, or to individuals considered primarily as members of given collectivities.
Negative liberty is an area in which no external authority can interfere. Thus, there is an absence of
restraints on the activities of the individuals. It is a minimum area that is sacred and in which whatever
the individual does, is not to be interfered with.
Source: Political Theory, NCERT XI, Chapter-2, Pg. 26-28
Q.9)
Ans) a
Option 1 and 2 are correct. The concept of equality implies that all people, as human beings, are entitled
to the same rights and opportunities to develop their skills and talents, and to pursue their goals and
ambitions. This means that in a society people may differ with regard to their choices and preferences.
They may also have different talents and skills which results in some being more successful in their
chosen careers than others.
Option 3 is incorrect. It is not the lack of equality of status or wealth or privilege that is significant but
the inequalities in people’s access to such basic goods, as education, health care, safe housing, that make
for an unequal and unjust society.
Source: Political Theory, NCERT XI, Chapter-3, Pg. 36
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Q.10)
Ans) c 
The Right against Exploitation under articles 23 and 24 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the dignity
of the individual.  
Article 23 prohibits traffic in human beings, begar (forced labour) and other similar forms of forced
labour. Any contravention of this provision shall be an offence punishable in accordance with law. This
right is available to both citizens and non-citizens. It protects the individual not only against the State but
also against private persons
Article 24 prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 years in any factory, mine or other
hazardous activities like construction work or railway. But it does not prohibit their employment in any
harmless or innocent work.
Source) M Laxmikanth, UPSC 2017
Q.11)
Ans) d
Statement 1 is correct: Defining Development with limited economic growth and by modernising the
society was considered as a part of development. However, this aspect is considered in narrow sense.
The concept of development has Undergone many changes over the years. In the Initial years focus was
on catching up on the West in terms of economic growth and modernisation of societies.
Statement 2 is correct: Later, development has unfortunately often come to be identified with achieving
pre-set targets, or completing projects like dams, factories, hospitals, rather than with realizing the
broader vision of development which the society upholds.
Statement 3 is correct: In recent times, Development is considered as a process of Improvement and
changes required for better living an existence. It is measured by the scale of achievements in human
perspective pertaining to the quantum of qualitative fulfilment of needs of Knowledge and sustenance of
life.
Source: Political Theory by NCERT
Q.12)
Ans) d
Statement 1 is correct. Marxism argues that the root cause of entrenched inequality was private
ownership of important economic resources such as oil, or land, or forests, as well as other forms of
property. He pointed out that such private ownership did not only make the class of owners wealthy, it
also gave them political power. Thus, there should be public ownership of important resources and
property.
Statement 2 is correct. Marxists and socialists feel that economic inequality provides support to other
forms of social inequality such as differences of rank or privilege. Unlike socialists, liberals do not believe
that political, economic and social inequalities are necessarily linked.
Statement 3 is correct. Marxism had the final goal of stateless and classless society, whereas means to
achieve these final goals differ. For Marx, the State is an instrument of oppression and an organ of the
bourgeoisie that only works for maintaining class dominance.
Q.13)
Ans) b
Pair 1 is correctly matched. Affirmative actions are taken to eliminate deep rooted social inequalities.
Sometimes it is necessary to treat people differently in order to ensure that they can enjoy equal rights.
For instance, disabled people may justifiably demand special ramps in public spaces so that they get an
equal chance to enter public buildings. These should not be seen as infringements of equality but as
enhancement of equality. Thus, providing free primary healthcare services to all is not affirmative
action.
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Pair 2 is incorrectly matched. Social, economic and political inequalities all over the world have been
protected by customs and legal systems that prohibited some sections of society from enjoying certain
kinds of opportunities and rewards. Formal equality requires that the government and the law of the
land should stop protecting these systems of inequality. The Constitution prohibits discrimination on
grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth. Thus, providing special ramps for disabled people
forms part of affirmative action and does not come under formal equality.
Pair 3 is correctly matched. In India, many face lack of equal opportunities from both lack of facilities and
prevailing customs in the society. Women, for instance, may not enjoy equal rights of inheritance in
some groups, or there may be social prohibitions regarding their taking part in certain kinds of activities,
or they may even be discouraged from obtaining higher education. The state should make policies to
prevent discrimination or harassment of women in public places or employment, to provide incentives to
open up education or certain professions to women, and other such measures. Thus, providing equal
inheritance rights to women is providing equality of opportunities.
Source: Political Theory, NCERT XI, Chapter-3, Pg. 39, 45-46
Q.14)
Ans) b
Statement 1 is incorrect. Feminism is a political doctrine of equal rights for women and men. Feminism
is only trying to provide a level playing field to women, not give them extra privileges. Feminists are
those men and women who believe that many of the inequalities we see in society between men and
women are neither natural nor necessary and can be altered so that both women and men can lead free
and equal lives.
Statement 2 is correct. According to feminists, inequality between men and women in society is the
result of patriarchy. This term refers to a social, economic and cultural system that values men more
than women and gives men power over women. Feminists show us that much of the inequality between
men and women is produced by society and not by nature.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Patriarchy is based on the assumption that men and women are different by
nature and that this difference justifies their unequal positions in society. Feminists questions this way of
thinking by making a distinction between “sex” i.e. biological difference between men and women, and
“gender” which determines the different roles that men and women play in society. For instance, the
biological fact that only women can become pregnant and bear children does not require that only
women should look after children after they are born.
Source: Political Theory, NCERT XI, Chapter-3, Pg. 42
Q.15)
Ans) c
Rights are legal and moral entitlements or claims of a person over other fellow beings, over society and
over the government.  Fundamental rights guaranteed by the Constitution are, in the absence of specific
constitutional provisions, mainly enforceable against the State. The definition of 'the State' in article 12
being an „inclusive‟ one, courts have ruled that where there is pervasive or predominant governmental
control or significant involvement in its activity, such bodies, entities and organizations fall within the
definition of the State. Rights are claimed by the citizens against the state has to protect the citizens from
oppression by society. The state cannot claim or demand against the citizens, because it takes away the
rights of individuals and restraint them.
Source) https://legalaffairs.gov.in/sites/default/files/chapter%203.pdf, UPSC 2017
Q.16)
Ans) a
The three principles of social justice are:
Statement 1 is correct. Principle of treating equals equally: It is considered that all individuals share
certain characteristics as human beings. Therefore, they deserve equal rights and equal treatment.
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Statement 2 is incorrect. Proportionality: Provided everybody starts from the same base line of equal
rights, justice in such cases would mean rewarding people in proportion to the scale and quality of their
effort (not status). For justice in society, the principle of equal treatment needs to be balanced with the
principle of proportionality.
Statement 3 is correct. Recognition of special needs: A society needs to take into account special needs
of people while distributing rewards or duties. It does not necessarily contradict the principle of equal
treatment so much as extend it because the principle of treating equals equally could imply that people
who are not equal in certain important respects could be treated differently.
Q.17)
Ans) a
Only option 1 is correct. The phrase ‘reasonable restriction connotes that the limitation imposed upon a
person in enjoyment of the right should not be arbitrary or of an excessive nature, beyond what is
required in the interest of the public. Legislation which arbitrarily or excessively invades the right cannot
be said to contain the quality of reasonableness unless it strikes a proper balance between the freedom
guaranteed in Art.19 (1)(2) and the social control permitted by cl. (6) of Art. 19, it must be held to be
wanting in that quality.
Source: Political Theory by NCERT, Chapter 2
Q.18)
Ans) a
Statement 1 is correct. Fundamental duties promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood
amongst all the people of India and ensures renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women.
Statement 2 is correct. Directive principles under Article 39(a) secures equally the right to an adequate
means of livelihood for both men and women.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Article 42 under DPSP and not fundamental rights, directs the State to make
provision for securing justice and humane conditions of work and for maternity relief.
Statement 4 is incorrect. Article 243D (3) under Part IX provides not less than one-third (including the
number of seats reserved for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes) of the
total number of seats to be filled by direct election in every Panchayat to be reserved for women.
Source: Laxmikanth Indian polity 6th edition page 1096 (Pdf)
http://mospi.nic.in/sites/default/files/reports_and_publication/cso_social_statices_division/Consti
tutional&Legal_Rights.pdf
Q.19)
Ans) c
Fundamental rights available to both citizens and foreigners (except enemy aliens) –
Article 14 – Equality before the law and equal protection of laws.
Article 20 – Protection in respect of conviction for offences.
Article 21 – Protection of life and personal liberty.
Article 21A – Right to elementary education.
Article 22 – Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases.
Article 23 – Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour.
Article 24 – Prohibition of employment of children in factories etc.
Article 25 – Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion.
Article 26 – Freedom to manage religious affairs.
Article 27 – Freedom from payment of taxes for promotion of any religion.
Article 28 – Freedom from attending religious instruction or worship in certain educational institutions.
Knowledge Base: Fundamental rights available only to citizens and not to foreigners -
Article 15 – Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.
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Article 16 – Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
Article 19 – Protection of six rights related to freedom – (a) of speech and expression; (b) to assemble
peaceably and without arms; (c) to form associations or unions; (d) to move freely throughout the
territory of India; (e) to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India; and (f) to practice any
profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business.
Article 29 – Protection of language, script and culture of minorities.
Article 30 – Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions.
Source: M Laxmikanth, Indian polity, 6th edition, page no. 7.4
Q.20)
Ans) c 
In Justice K. S. Puttaswamy (Retd) and others vs Union of India, the Supreme Court observed that 'Right to
Privacy' is an integral part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty guaranteed in Article 21 of the
Constitution.  A nine-judge bench of the Supreme Court declared that the right to privacy is a
fundamental right protected under Part III of the Constitution of India. While primarily focused on the
individual's right against the State for violations of their privacy, this landmark judgement had
repercussions across both State and non-State actors and is likely to result in the enactment of a
comprehensive law on privacy.
Source) https://www.mondaq.com/india/privacy-protection/625192/supreme-court-declares-right-
to-privacy-a-fundamental-right , UPSC 2018
Q.21)
Ans) b
Statement 1 is incorrect. By the early 1970s in India, the first-generation Dalit graduates,
especially those living in city slums began to assert themselves from various platforms. Dalit Panthers,
was such a militant organisation of Dalit youths. It was formed in Maharashtra (and not in Uttar
Pradesh) in 1972.
Statement 2 is correct. The larger ideological agenda of the Panthers was to destroy the caste system.
It also aimed to build an organisation of all oppressed sections like the landless poor peasants and urban
industrial workers along with Dalits.
KB: During the 1970s, Dalit Panthers resorted to mass action for assertion of Dalits’ rights. It was
mainly because the political parties supported by the Dalits, like the Republican Party of India, were not
successful in electoral politics. These parties always remained marginal; had to ally with some other party
in order to win elections and faced constant splits.
Q.22)
Ans) d
Statement 1 is correct. The ‘new’ farmers’ movements that had attracted much media and political
attention, especially in the 1980s, focused mainly on demanding remunerative prices for agricultural
produce. They also protested for lowering or elimination of government dues such as canal water
charges, electricity charges, interest rates and principal of loans, etc.
Statement 2 is correct. Very few peasants' organizations went beyond what can be described as
landowning peasants’ issues. These organizations showed little concern for the landless rural poor or
rural women. It was, however, true that they were broad based among the peasantry and not confined to
the upper sections, as alleged by some critics.
Statement 3 is correct. The basic understanding on which the movements rested is that the government
maintains agricultural prices at an artificially low level in order to provide cheap food and raw materials
to urban areas, and the consequent disparity in prices results in farmers paying high prices for industrial
goods needed as inputs into agriculture and receiving low returns for their produce. As a result, farmers
are exploited by urban interests, and are victims of internal colonialism.
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India since independence:ch-34: Agrarian Struggles Since Independence
Q.23)
Ans) a
Option 1 is correct. Liberals uphold the principle of competition as the most efficient and fair way of
distributing resources and rewards in society. They believe that while states may have to intervene to try
and ensure a minimum standard of living and equal opportunities for all, this cannot by itself bring
equality and justice to society. Competition between people in free and fair conditions is the most just
and efficient way of distributing rewards in a society.
Option 2 is incorrect. Socialism (not liberals) advocates that some kind of government regulation,
planning and control over certain areas such as education and healthcare.
Option 3 is incorrect. Unlike Socialists, liberals do not believe that political, economic and social
inequalities are necessarily linked. They maintain that inequalities in each of these spheres should be
tackled appropriately.
Source: Chapter 3, Political Theory Class XI NCERT
Q.24)
Ans) c
Lessons can we draw from the process of National integration in post-independent India:
First and the most elementary lesson is that regional aspirations are very much a part of democratic
politics. Expression of regional issues is not an aberration or an abnormal phenomenon. A large and
diverse democracy like India must deal with regional aspirations on a regular basis. Nation building is
an ongoing process. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
The second lesson is that the best way to respond to regional aspirations are through democratic
negotiations rather than through suppression. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.
The third lesson is about the significance of power-sharing. It is not sufficient to have a formal
democratic structure. Besides that, groups and parties from the region need to be given share in power
at the State level. Thus, regions should be given a share in decision-making. Similarly, it is not sufficient
to say that the states or the regions have autonomy in their matters. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
Source: https://www.indiatoday.in/news-analysis/story/what-is-assam-accord-of-1985-and-how-
amended-citizenship-law-challenges-it-1627965-2019-12-13
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1600717
NCERT class12_Politics-in-India-since-Independence, chapter-8
Q.25)
Ans) b 
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.   
John Locke said “Where there is no law, there is no freedom…” 
Liberty is protected by law, 'liberty' means absence of restraints on the activities of individuals, and at the
same time, providing opportunities for the development of individuals.  Law promotes liberty. The more
law there is the, more liberty there is. And as soon as law ends, liberty also ceases to exist. Where there
are no laws to protect or provide freedom and liberty, violations of the same take place.
Law protects liberty is in several ways. Firstly, the law helps in establishing a civilized society, thereby
easing the way of life for individuals. This is done by the creation of a provision for punishment to the
criminals. Secondly, it guarantees rights and duties to the citizens and individuals. The state intervenes
whenever the rights of an individual are violated by another. Thirdly, the constitution acts as the
custodian of liberty. It is the constitution that provides the authority of the state and protects the
fundamental rights of the people.
Source) https://legodesk.com/legopedia/law-and-liberty/ , UPSC 2018
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Q.26)
Ans) d
Option 1. The second backward class committee was appointed in 1979 by the government of India. It was
established by the Janata Party government under Prime Minister Morarji Desai with a mandate to
identify the socially or educationally backward classes of India.
Option 4. National Front government with V. P. Singh as Prime Minister was formed in 1989. It lasted till
1990. It was second non-Congress government in post-independence India to form government at
centre.
Option 3. Economic reforms in India often referred as LPG reforms was introduced by the Narsimha-Rao
government in 1991 when India faced a severe economic crisis.
Option 2. Demolition of the disputed structure at Ayodhya (known as Babri Masjid) in December 1992.
This event symbolised and triggered various changes in the politics of the country and intensified debates
about the nature of Indian nationalism and secularism.
Q.27)
Ans) a
Statement 1 is correct. Socialism refers to a set of political ideas that emerged as a response to the
inequalities present in, and reproduced by, the industrial capitalist economy. The main concern of
Socialism is how to minimise existing inequality and distribute resources justly. Although advocates of
socialism are not entirely opposed to the market, they favour some kind of government regulation,
planning and control over certain key areas such as education and health care.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Historically, liberalism favoured free market and minimal role to the state (not
total absesnce). However, present day liberalism acknowledges a role for welfare state and accepts the
need for measures to reduce both social and economic inequalities.
Source: Political Theory, Class XI, Chapter-2, Pg. 23, Chapter-3, Pg. 44
Q.28)
Ans) b
Restrictions on the freedom of individuals may come from domination and external controls.
Article 19 (2) of Indian Constitution empowers the State to instill reasonable restrictions on the following
grounds: sovereignty and integrity of India, security of the state, friendly relations with foreign states,
public order, decency or morality, contempt of court, defamation, and incitement to an offence. Hence,
Statements 1, 2, 4 and 5 are correct.
Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code defines sedition as words, either spoken or written, or by signs, or
by visible representation, or otherwise, brings or attempts to bring into hatred or contempt, or excites or
attempts to excite disaffection towards the Government established by law. It is not a reasonable
restriction under Article 19 (2). Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect.
Source: Political Theory, Class XI, Chapter-2, Pg. 28-29
Indian Polity, M.Laxmikanth, Chapter-7
Q.29)
Ans) b
Statement 1 is correct. Rights place an obligation upon the state to act in certain kinds of ways. Each
right indicates what the state must do as well as what it must not do. For instance, my right to life obliges
the state to make laws that protect me from injury by others. It calls upon the state to punish those who
hurt me or harm me.
Statement 2 is correct. Rights not only indicate what the state must do, they also suggest what the state
must refrain from doing. Rights ensure that the authority of the state is exercised without violating the
sanctity of individual life and liberty. 
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Statement 3 is incorrect. Fulfillment of rights is not dependent on fulfillment of duties. Rights are
essential for well-being, respect and dignity of individuals. Rights such as the right to a livelihood, or
freedom of expression, would be important for all human beings, who live in society and they are
described as universal in nature.
Statement 4 is correct. A right is essentially an entitlement or a justified claim. It denotes what we are
entitled to as citizens, as individuals and as human beings. It is something that we consider to be due to
us; something that the rest of society must recognise as being a legitimate claim that must be upheld.
Q.30)
Ans) d 
The term ‘liberty’ means the absence of restraints on the activities of individuals, and at the same time,
providing opportunities for the development of individual personalities. The Preamble of Constitution of
India provides for liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship. Thus, in context of polity,
liberty provides for an opportunity to develop oneself fully. 
Source) UPSC 2019
Q.31)
Ans) d
Statement 1 is incorrect. In India secularism does not mean separation of religion from state. India
does not have an official state religion. It is positive Concept. It gives equal freedom to all religion. It is
neither irreligious nor anti-religious. Western secularism is conceived as separation of state and
religion.
Statement 2 is Incorrect. Indian secularism is compatible with the idea of state-supported religious
reform. Thus, the Indian constitution bans untouchability. The Indian state has enacted several laws
abolishing child marriage and lifting the taboo on inter-caste marriage sanctioned by Hinduism.
Source: Class 11 -Political Theory NCERT. Chapter 8
Q.32)
Ans) d
Statement 1 is correct. Economic inequality exists in a society if there are significant differences in
wealth, property or income between individuals or classes. One way of measuring the degree of economic
inequality in a society would be to measure the relative difference between the richest and poorest
groups. Another way could be to estimate the number of people who live below the poverty line.
Statement 2 is correct. A World Bank study by Gaurav Datt and others, showed that poverty declined by
1.36 percentage points per annum after 1991, compared to that of 0.44 percentage points per annum
prior to 1991. Their study shows that among other things, urban growth is the most important
contributor to the rapid reduction in poverty even though rural areas showed growth in the post-reform
period.
Statement 3 is correct. A second conclusion is that in the post-reform period, poverty declined faster in
the 2000s than in the 1990s. The official estimates based on Tendulkar committee’s poverty lines shows
that poverty declined only 0.74 percentage points per annum during 1993-94 to 2004-05. But poverty
declined by 2.2 percentage points per annum during 2004-05 to 2011-12. Around 138 million people were
lifted above the poverty line during this period. This indicates the success of 1991 reforms in reducing
poverty.
KB: The government announced a New Economic Policy on July 24, 1991. This new model of economic
reforms is commonly known as the LPG or Liberalisation, Privatisation, and Globalisation model. These
reforms were also known as 'structural adjustments'.
Page 11 of 18

Q.33)
Ans) c
Statement 1 is incorrect. If we understand natural resources (not private property) as common to
humanity, then humanity would include future generations as well, which would make it sustainable and
equitable. If resources are viewed as belonging to state alone then communities which are dependent on
it may get alienated as these communities have a specific way of community life and relationship to the
environment.
Statement 2 is correct. For development to be equitable, the right of people to participate in decision-
making is emphasized. One of the ways which has been suggested to ensure participation is to allow
local decision-making bodies to take decisions about development projects in the local area. Increasing
the powers and resources of local bodies is thus being advocated.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Strategies of development adopted in most countries have been ‘top-down’,
that is, the selection of development priorities and strategies and the actual implementation of projects
were all generally decided by the higher levels of the political leadership and bureaucracy. Development
thus became a process designed and implemented by the ruling sections in the country who have also
often been the major beneficiaries of development projects. This kind of development is inequitable and
unsustainable.
Source: Class 11 -Political Theory NCERT. Chapter 10, page 4
Q.34)
Ans) b
Statement 1 is incorrect. Political autonomy (not autocracy) for example Kashmir Issue is not just a
dispute between India and Pakistan. It has external and internal dimensions. It involves the issue of
kashmiri identity known as kashmiriyat and the aspirations of the people of J&K for Political Economy
which could be achieved through political autonomy.
Statement 2 is correct. Religious identity for example Khalistan movement (In 1980, the Akali Dal
launched a movement on the question of distribution of water between Punjab and its neighbouring
states. A section of religious leaders raised the question of autonomous sikh identity. The more extreme
elements started advocating secession from India and the creation of Khalistan.
Statement 3 is correct. Cultural aspirations for example movements among tribals of North-east. The
isolation of the NE region, its complex social character and its backwardness compared to other parts of
the country have all resulted in the complicated set of demands from the states of North East region.
KB: Autonomy is self-government; freedom to act or function independently while autocracy is a form of
government in which unlimited power is held by a single individual.
Source: Politics in India since Independence (Class 12 NCERT) Chapter 8 Regional aspirations
Q.35)
Ans) b 
In 2014, the Supreme Court took suo-motu cognizance of newspaper reports of the gang rape of a 20-
year-old Indian woman on the orders of a village court. In this case, Supreme Court held that “an inherent
aspect of Article 21 of the Constitution would be the freedom of choice in marriage”. This was reiterated
by Supreme court in 2017.  The choice of a partner whether within or outside marriage lies within the
exclusive domain of each individual. Intimacies of marriage lie within a core zone of privacy, which is
inviolable. The absolute right of an individual to choose a life partner is not in the least affected by
matters of faith. The Constitution guarantees to each individual the right freely to practise, profess and
propagate religion.
Source) https://indianexpress.com/article/india/right-to-marry-supreme-court-hadiya-case-
5131055/ UPSC 2019
Page 12 of 18

Q.36)
Ans) a
Statement 1 is correct. The Chipko movement began in Uttarakhand when the forest department
refused permission to the villagers to fell ash trees for making agricultural tools. Later, the movement also
took up economic issues of landless forest workers and asked for guarantees of minimum wage. Women
held sustained agitations against the habit of alcoholism and broadened the agenda of the movement to
cover other social issues.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Save Silent Valley Movement started in Kerala (not in Andhra Pradesh) to
protect the moist evergreen forest from being destroyed by a hydroelectric project across Kunthipuzha
River that runs through Silent Valley. Several NGOs strongly opposed the project and urged the
government to abandon it.
In January 1981, bowing to unrelenting public pressure, Indira Gandhi declared that Silent Valley will be
protected. In November 1983 the Silent Valley Hydroelectric Project was called off.
https://www.patnauniversity.ac.in/e-content/social_sciences/history/MAHistory4.pdf
Q.37)
Ans) b
In 1925 the Indian Communist Conference at Kanpur was held and the Communist Party of India (CPI)
was formed in December 1925 in India by M.N. Roy. In 1951 the CPI, under the leadership of the new
general secretary Ajoy Ghosh adopted a new programme which signalled the change of line, allowing the
party’s entry in parliamentary politics in post-independence India.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Communist Party of India broke into two - Communist Party of India (Marxist)
and Communist Party of India (Marxist) in 1964 and not immediately after India’s independence. Sino-
Soviet tensions, anti-Congressism and communist doctrinal differences led to the CPI splitting in 1964.
Statement 2 is correct: In 1957, the India’s first democratically elected communist government came to
power in Kerala. The CPI government of EMS Namboodiripad focussed on building a welfare state. It
embarked on initiatives that addressed the rights and needs of peasants and industrial workers. It raised
minimum wages and protected employment. It showed an urgency to industrialise the state and invited
even private capital.
Statement 3 is correct: Fifty-three parties contested the first general elections, the Congress being the
biggest, for obvious reasons. Elections were held for 401 constituencies. The results were declared on
February 10, 1952. The Congress won 361 seats, securing 45% of votes. The CPI contested 49 seats and
won 16 seats, coming out as the second biggest party next to Congress.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Communist Party of India (CPI) was declared an illegal party for most of the
time under the British rule. It was only in 1937 when the Congress ministries came to power in several
states when the ban was lifted. But it had to go underground again in 1940, and could only start
functioning openly after it supported the anti-fascist allies in the World War II.
Source: NCERT Politics in India chapter-2 page-33, 37
How Communist Party of India Emerged as Largest Opposition to Congress in 1951-52 (thewire.in)
Q.38)
Ans) b
Statement 1 is correct: Planning commission of India was set up in to create, develop and execute 5-year
plans. It has been given the responsibility of making an assessment of the material capital and human
resources of the country and also of investigating the possibility of augmentation of such resources. It is
expected to suggest ways and means by which deficient resources in relation to nation’s requirements
can be met.
Statement 2 is correct: After independence, cooperatives became an integral part of Five-Year Plans.
In 1958, the National Development Council (NDC) had recommended a national policy on cooperatives
and also for training of personnel's and setting up of Co-operative Marketing Societies. In 1984,
Page 13 of 18

Parliament of India enacted the Multi-State Cooperative Societies Act to remove the plethora of
different laws governing the same types of societies.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Liberalization of economy was not a part of the early phase of India’s
development policy. It was adopted in 1991. Highly regulated industrial sector, bureaucratic control
before 1991 gave very limited space to private sector and thus threatening the growth of nation. The basic
aim of liberalization was to put an end to those restrictions which became hindrances in the development
and growth of the nation.
Statement 4 is correct: The Government adopted Green Revolution to achieve self-sufficiency. Instead
of giving support to areas and farmers, the government decided to put more resources in those areas
which already had irrigation and those farmers who were already well-off.
Statement 5 is correct: After independence in 1947, an inadequate agricultural output was prevailing. In
order to solve this, the Indian government took measures to alter existing regulations for a better
outcome. These acts formed agrarian and land reforms in India after independence. Land reforms
included abolition of intermediaries, tenancy reforms, fixing the ceiling etc.
Source: NCERT Politics in India chapter-3 page-49, 50, 61
https://blog.forumias.com/history-of-co-operatives-in-india/
Q.39)
Ans) d
Statement 1 is correct: Unlike its relationship with Pakistan, free India began its relationship with China
on a very friendly note. After the Chinese revolution in 1949, India was one of the first countries to
recognise the communist government. Nehru felt strongly for this neighbour that was coming out of the
shadow of western domination and helped the new government in international meetings.
Statement 2 is correct: After independence, the local police of a state were responsible for the
guardianship of international borders. However, this proved to be an inadequate provision during the
1962 and 1965 war. And paramilitary forces were raised to guard the borders. On October 24, 1962, the
Indo-Tibetan Boundary Police (ITBP)was established to reorganise the frontier intelligence and
security setup along the Indo-Tibetan border. To begin with, just four battalions were sanctioned. The
ITBP was first established under the CRPF Act. The ITBP Act was established by parliament in 1992.The
ITBP was given responsibility for the whole 3,488-kilometre stretch of the India-China border in 2004.
In Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh, the ITBP took over from the Assam Rifles in 2004.
Statement 3 is correct: A boundary dispute had surfaced between India and China. India claimed that
the boundary was a matter settled in colonial time, but China said that any colonial decision did not
apply. The main dispute was about the western and the eastern end of the long border. China claimed
two areas within the Indian territory: Aksai-chin area in the Ladakh region of Jammu and Kashmir and
much of the state of Arunachal Pradesh in what was then called NEFA (North Eastern Frontier Agency).
Between 1957 and 1959, the Chinese occupied the Aksai-chin area and built a strategic road there. Despite
a very long correspondence and discussion among top leaders, these differences could not be resolved.
China launched a swift and massive invasion in October 1962 on both the disputed regions.
Page 14 of 18
Source: politics in India since independence. Chapter name- India’s external relations. Chapter 4. Page
no.68 to 72.
https://www.indiatimes.com/explainers/news/which-indian-paramilitary-force-guards-which-
border-559848.html
Q.40)
Ans) d
Right to Equality (Article 14 -18) protects the citizens against any discrimination by the State on the basis
of religion, caste, race, sex, or place of birth.
Under Article 17 of the Constitution of India, Untouchability is abolished and its practice in any form is
forbidden. The enforcement of any disability arising out of untouchability shall be an offence punishable
in accordance with law.
In 1976, the Untouchability (Offences) Act, 1955 has been comprehensively amended and renamed as the
Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 to enlarge the scope and make penal provisions more stringent. The
act defines civil right as any right accruing to a person by reason of the abolition of untouchability by
Article 17 of the Constitution.
However, the term ‘untouchability’ has not been defined either in the Constitution or in the Act.
Q.41)
Ans) c
‘Cold war’ was the ideological tussle between the two super powers, USA and USSR. After World War II,
the United States and its allies, and the Soviet Union and its satellite states began a decades-long struggle
for supremacy known as the Cold War. The two superpowers continually antagonized each other through
political manoeuvring, military coalitions, espionage, propaganda, economic aid, and proxy wars between
other nations.
Statement 1 is correct: By and large India did take an independent stand on various international issues
during cold war and was able to get aid and assistance from members of both the blocs. India benefited
considerably from Soviet aid for projects such as the steel plants at Bhilai and Bokaro. The US mainly
directed aid toward agriculture rather than heavy industry. Seeking assistance from both sides (and in
Page 15 of 18

different sectors) created a vital space of maneuver for the Indian state to implement its desired
industrial policy.
The Non-Aligned Movement was formed during the Cold War as an organization of States that did not
seek to formally align themselves with either the United States or the Soviet Union, but sought to remain
independent or neutral.
Statement 2 is incorrect: ‘Cold war’ was the ideological war between the two super powers. There were
many in India then who were deeply impressed by the Soviet model of development. While India was
trying to convince the other developing countries about the policy of non-alignment, Pakistan joined
the US-led military alliances.
Central Treaty Organization (CENTO) was a military alliance of the Cold War. It was formed in 1955 by
Iran, Iraq, Pakistan, Turkey and the United Kingdom and dissolved in 1979. India was not a member of
Central Treaty Organization (CENTO).
In September 1954, the United States, France, Great Britain, New Zealand, Australia, the Philippines,
Thailand and Pakistan formed the Southeast Asia Treaty Organization, or SEATO.
Statement 3 is correct: In early 1971, the Pakistani army arrested East Pakistan leader Sheikh Mujib and
unleashed a reign of terror on the people of East Pakistan. In response to this, the people started a
struggle to liberate ‘Bangladesh’ from Pakistan.
Support for Pakistan came from the US and China. The US-China rapprochement that began in the late
1960s resulted in a realignment of forces in Asia. India joined the war in December 1971. In order to
counter the US-Pakistan-China axis, India signed a 20-year Treaty of Peace and Friendship with the
Soviet Union in August 1971. This treaty assured India of Soviet support if the country faced any attack.
Source: politics in India since independence. Chapter name- India’s external relations. Chapter 4. page
no-66 to 76
Q.42)
Ans) b
A coalition is formed when multiple political parties cooperate, join forces and come together (which
can happen prior or post-elections) which reduces the dominance or power of any single political party.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The elections of 1967 resulted in a clear majority for the congress party (283
out of 523). However, the Congress party split in a couple of years and Prime Minister Indira Gandhi’s
faction was reduced to a minority in the Lok Sabha in December 1969. At the same time 1967 elections
brought into picture the phenomenon of coalitions in state governments.
Statement 2 is correct: A large number of political parties always contested elections in our country.
Our Parliament always had representatives from several political parties. What happened after 1989 was
the emergence of several parties in such a way that one or two parties did not get most of the votes or
seats. This also meant that no single party secured a clear majority of seats in any Lok Sabha election
held from 1989 till 2014. This development initiated an era of coalition governments at the Centre, in
which regional parties played a crucial role in forming ruling alliances.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Indira Gandhi (not A B Vajpayee) formed a minority-party government for the
first time at the Centre in 1969.
KB: The first coalition government was formed by Morarji Desai (Janta party) which lasted for 857 days
(between March 1977 and June 1979). In India, the first coalition government to complete its full-term
was the Atal Bihari Vajpayee-led National Democratic Alliance from 1999 to 2004.
Source: politics in India since independence. Chapter name-recent developments in Indian politics and
challenges to and restoration of congress system. Chapter 4. Page no. 177, 178 and 90.
Q.43)
Ans) c
The privy purses were guaranteed to these rulers under Article 291 of the Indian constitution. These
payments were tax-free and were to be paid from the Consolidated Fund of India. Privy purses were
intended to cover all the expenses of the rulers including those for religious and ceremonial purposes.
Page 16 of 18

Statement 1 is correct: The privy purse was a specific amount of money that was to be paid annually by
the Indian government to the rulers of princely states and their successors who had acceded to India.
The amount of Privy Purse was determined by many factors like state’s revenue, state’s status under
British rule. The amount was almost ¼ of what the rulers earned previously from their revenue. In 1970,
the total amount of the privy purses accounted for about 58 crore rupees.
Statement 2 is incorrect: In 1971, erstwhile Prime Minister Indira Gandhi passed the 26th Amendment
Act (and not 42nd constitutional amendment act) and abolished the privileges and privy purses of all the
princely rulers. As per the amendment, articles 291 and 362 were omitted from the Indian constitution
and the President of India no longer recognized any of the princes or chiefs as the ruler.
Statement 3 is correct: Privy purses were the privileges and recognition received by the princely rulers.
These rulers were bestowed some customary privileges and official recognition as titular rulers. This
was in accordance with Article 362 of the Indian Constitution. According to the article, the President of
Indian officially recognized the prince or chief of a state as the ruler. Even though no authority or power
was held by them. As per the privileges, the Ruler had official titles, could conduct their ceremonial
durbars, could have official vehicles, and could host dignitaries.
Source: https://www.indiatimes.com/explainers/news/privy-purses-the-forgotten-part-of-indian-
integration-553640.html
Q.44)
Ans) c
Statement 1 is correct: The anti-arrack movement started in Nellore district in 1992, and quickly spread
to other parts of the state of Andhra Pradesh. The poor rural women of the district initiated the
movement. The fight against liquor soon turned into a full-fledged women's movement. The anti-Arrack
Movement in Andhra Pradesh emerged from the literacy initiatives. Women in Andhra Pradesh were
not merely attending literacy classes but the literacy centers provided the space and opportunity for
them to come together and critically analyze their life situation as a collective.
1) The movement was started by a small incident that took place in Doobaguta village in Nellore
district where two men died after drinking. Women of this area got together and stopped the vending
of arrack. Even before the incident, men and women were discussing the acute social problems caused
by excessive drinking. Men drank away their earning while women bore the economic burden ofthe
family. There was both anger and awareness amongst the women, simmering beneath the surface. The
incident in Doobaguta provided the spark.
Statement 2 is correct: When the BKU was mobilizing the farmers of the north, an altogether different
kind of mobilization in the rural areas was taking shape in the southern State of Andhra Pradesh. It was a
spontaneous mobilization of women demanding a ban on the sale of alcohol in their neighborhoods.
Stories of this kind appeared in the Telugu press almost daily during the two months of September and
October 1992. The name of the village would change in each case but the story was the same. Rural
women in remote villages from the State of Andhra Pradesh fought a battle against alcoholism, against
mafias and against the government during this period. These agitations shaped what was known as the
anti-arrack movement in the State.
Source: https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/25694/1/Unit-4.pdf
Politics in India since independence. Chapter name-. Rise of popular movements Page no- 137 and 138.
Q.45)
Ans) b
Part IV of the Constitution of India (Article 36–51) contains the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP).
These principles aim at ensuring socio-economic justice to the people and establishing India as a
Welfare State. The Directive Principles constitute a very comprehensive economic, social and political
programme for a modern democratic State. They aim at realising the high ideals of justice, liberty,
equality and fraternity as outlined in the Preamble to the Constitution. They embody the concept of a
‘welfare state’ and not that of a ‘police state’, which existed during the colonial era3. In brief, they seek to
establish economic and social democracy in the country.
Page 17 of 18

Q.46)
Ans) c
Simultaneous national and state elections were prevailed in India from 1952 till 1967.
The Constitution was adopted on 26 November 1949 and signed on 24 January 1950 and it came into
effect on 26 January 1950. At that time the country was being ruled by an interim government. It was now
necessary to install the first democratically elected government of the country.
The Election Commission of India was set up in January 1950. Sukumar Sen became the first Chief
Election Commissioner.
Statements 1 and 3 are correct: Independent India’s first elections (including Lok Sabha and state
assemblies’ elections) were held from October 25, 1951 to February 21, 1952.
Statements 2, 4 and 5 are incorrect: All the other institutions/offices like that of the President of India,
the Vice President of India and Rajya Sabha came after the general and assembly elections. Elections were
held to the Rajya Sabha as well as Presidential and vice-presidential election was held in 1952. Those were
not a part of simultaneous elections.
Source: Chapter 2 Era of one-party dominance, class 12 politics in India
https://theprint.in/theprint-essential/70-yrs-ago-up-punjab-went-to-polls-in-free-indias-1st-
election-heres-what-it-was-like/824047/
Q.47)
Ans) a
The fifth general election to Lok Sabha was held in February 1971. The Grand Alliance of 1971 was a pre-
poll alliance formed against the ruling party.
Option a is correct. All the major non-communist, non-Congress opposition parties formed an
electoral alliance known as the Grand Alliance. The SSP, PSP, Bhartiya Jana Sangh, Swatantra Party and
the Bhartiya Kranti Dal came together under this umbrella. The ruling party had an alliance with the CPI.
Option b is incorrect: Unlike new Congress under Indira Gandhi, the Grand Alliance did not have a
coherent political programme.
Indira Gandhi said that the Grand alliance had only one common programme: Indira Hatao (Remove
Indira). In contrast to this, she put forward a positive programme captured in the famous slogan: Garibi
Hatao (Remove Poverty).
Option c is incorrect: K. Kamaraj (not Ram Manohar Lohia) was a main leader who led the Grand
Alliance. Whereas, Ram Manohar Lohia was a member of the Praja Socialist Party.
Option d is incorrect: The Grand Alliance of the opposition proved a big failure. Their combined tally of
seats was less than 40 against 352 seats won by the Congress led by Indira Gandhi.
Source: chapter 5 challenges to and restoration of the congress system, class 12 politics in India, page 96-
97
Q.48)
Ans) d
Political theory deals with the ideas and principles that shape Constitutions, governments and social life
in a systematic manner. The objective of political theory is to train citizens to think rationally about
political questions and assess the political events of our time.
Statement 1 is correct: Political theory clarifies the meaning of concepts such as freedom, equality,
justice, democracy, secularism. It probes the significance of principles such as rule of law, separation of
powers, judicial review, etc. This is done by examining the arguments advanced by different thinkers in
defence of these concepts.
Statement 2 is correct: Besides examining arguments, political theorists also reflect upon our current
political experiences and point out trends and possibilities for the future.
Page 18 of 18

Statement 3 is correct: Political theory also examines the extent to which freedom or equality are
actually present in the institutions that we participate in, everyday life such as schools, shops, buses or
trains or government offices. At an advanced level, it looks at whether existing definitions are adequate
and how existing institutions (government, bureaucracy) and policy practices must be modified to
become more democratic.
Source: NCERT 11 the political theory chapter 1 political theory introduction, Pages 4 and 6
Q.49)
Ans) a
Option a is correct: Defining peace in true sense would be to see it as absence of violent conflict of all
kinds including war, riot, massacre, assassination, or simply physical attack. Violence is often rooted in
the very structure of society.
Option b is incorrect: Maintenance of law and order by the state does not define peace in its true sense.
Law and order administration is one of the most important functions performed by the Government. The
executive arm of government maintains law and order through the paramilitary/police/army.
Option c is incorrect: Liberty is generally defined as not being subject to external controls or coercion.
Option d is incorrect: Democracy is a form of government in which the people have the authority to
deliberate and decide upon their matters through legislation.
Source: NCERT 11 the political theory - Chapter 9 Peace
Q.50)
Ans) b
Economic justice denotes the non-discrimination between people on the basis of economic factors. It
involves the elimination of glaring inequalities in wealth, income and property. A combination of social
justice and economic justice denotes what is known as ‘distributive justice’. 
The term ‘justice’ in the Preamble embraces three distinct forms—social, economic and political, secured
through various provisions of Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles.  
The concept of Economic Justice is also mentioned under the Directive Principles of State Policy. Article
39 says that the State shall, in particular, direct its policy towards securing— (a) that the citizens, men and
women equally, have the right to an adequate means of livelihood; (b) that the ownership and control of
the material resources of the community are so distributed as best to subserve the common good; (c) that
the operation of the economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth and means of
production to the common detriment; (d) that there is equal pay for equal work for both men and
women.
Source) M Laxmikanth, Chapter 4 and 8

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