SURGERY AND SURGICAL NURSING

1. The body responds to situations or factors in a way known as inflammation.

Inflammation can result from any of the following factors except
A. allergies
B. cancers
C. necrosis
ANSWER:
2. The clinical staging of breast cancer in which the tumour is less than 2 cm and
confined to the breast and the surrounding lymph node is said to be at stage …
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3

ANSWER:

3. The site for metastatic spread of malignant cancers usually depends on (i. arterial
supply of the organ, ii. lymphatic drainage through the organ, iii. nervous supply to
the organ, iv. Venous return from the organ)

A. i and ii
B. ii and iii
C. iii and iv
ANSWER:

4. A 30-year-old lady went through a routine assessment of the cervical epithelium. The
histology report revealed changes in cell size, shape and organization. This indicates
cellular:

A. Atrophy
B. Dysplasia
C. Hyperplasia
ANSWER:

5. A patient is being prepared for diagnosis and staging of suspected cancer in the
stomach. The student nurse understands that the most reliable diagnostic test is;

A. biopsy
B. computerized tomographic Scan
C. gastroscopy

ANSWER:

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6. A patient who has had right mastectomy performed and has returned from theater
should be assessed for hemorrhage by:
A. asking her if her back feels wet
B. testing her stool for occult blood
C. placing a gloved hand beneath the shoulder’s blades

ANSWER:

7. In order to prevent infection during surgical operation, the scalpel blade is changed
after cutting the …
A. muscle
B. peritoneum
C. skin
ANSWER:

8. In dealing with a terminally ill cancer patient who is in the denial stage of grief, the
best nursing approach is to …….

A. agree with and encourage the client’s denial

B. allow the denial but be available to discuss death
C. reassure the client that everything will be okay

ANSWER:

9. Maria refuses to acknowledge that her breast was removed. She believes that her
breast is intact under the dressing. The nurse should ……
A. recognize that Maria is experiencing denial, a normal stage of the grieving
process
B. reinforce Maria’s belief for several days until her body can adjust to stress of
surgery.
C. remind Maria that she needs to accept her diagnosis so that she can begin
rehabilitation exercises
ANSWER:
10. Surgical instruments are made up of metals mostly stainless steel to help the surgeon
to perform any maneuver. These surgical instruments are classified according to their
A. functions
B. purposes
C. sizes

ANSWER:

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11. The following statements are true about retractors except:

A. They can be used to press on organs to occlude their lumen
B. They have curved blades and a handle
C. Some may be used in pairs
ANSWER:
12. Factors that influence the dosage of radiotherapy include the following except:
A. critical structures adjacent to the tumor target
B. sensitivity of the targeted tissue to radiation
C. whether the tumor has metastasized
ANSWER:
13. A patient with cervical cancer complains of irregular vaginal bleeding in between her
periods. This type of bleeding can be referred to as
A. amenorrhea
B. menorrhagia
C. metrorrhagia

ANSWER:
14. Theater techniques are practiced before any surgical procedure. Which of the
following is the correct order in which theater technique is practiced?
A. Gowning, Scrubbing and Gloving
B. Scrubbing, Gloving and Gowning
C. Scrubbing, Gowning and Gloving
ANSWER:
15. A nurse is dressing an abdominal wound and the wound drain has to be removed. The
nurse understands that the decision to remove the drain mostly depends on …….
A. absence of infection
B. amount of drainage
C. extent of the incision
ANSWER:
16. The nurse is assessing patient who reported with chronic pain in the leg. The nurse
understands that a type of pain that results from abnormality in the pain transmission
process is termed ….
A. neuropathic pain
B. nociceptive pain
C. somatic pain

ANSWER:

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17. A patient with cancer of the colon is to undergo bowel preparation before the surgical
intervention. The student nurse knows that the following could be the benefits of
bowel preparation except:
A. facilitate the surgery
B. increase visualization of the site
C. prevent accidental injury to the bowel
ANSWER:
18. Pharyngeal pouch usually develops in the …..
A. anterior wall
B. pharyngeal junction
C. posterior wall
ANSWER:
19. During the feeding of an infant with cleft lip, which of the following should the
mother pay attention to?
A. Abdominal distension
B. Gag reflex
C. Respiratory pattern
ANSWER:
20. A pregnant woman who uses antibiotic such as erythromycin during the first trimester
of the pregnancy is at risk of delivering a baby with the following except:
A. Intussusception
B. Pyloric stenosis
C. Umbilical Hernia
ANSWER:
21. A patient who had abdominal surgery with naso- gastric tube in situ is vomiting.
The nurse action should be:
A. administer antiemetic
B. check the patency of the tube
C. elevate head of the bed
D. encourage the patient to breathe deeply
ANSWER:
22. Which of the following is most important vital sign for a patient with ruptured ectopic
gestation?
A. Blood pressure
B. Pulse
C. Respiration

ANSWER:

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23. A patient who has had lobectomy is brought back to the ward with chest tube
drainage system in place. The nurse action include the following except:
A. add 5 mls of sterile saline to the water seal chamber
B. mark the time and fluid level on the side of the drainage system
C. raise the drainage system to bed level to check its patency
ANSWER:
24. In the immediate postoperative period following a splenectomy, the nurse should
specifically observe the patient for
A. hemorrhage and abdominal distension
B. intestinal obstruction and bleeding
C. peritonitis and pulmonary complications
ANSWER:

25. Kwame was admitted to the hospital with a possible diagnosis of appendicitis. On
physical examination, the nurse should be looking for tenderness on palpation at
McBurney’s point, which is located in the ………..
A. left lower quadrant
B. left upper quadrant
C. right lower quadrant
ANSWER:

26. Valvular stenosis is a heart disease which occurs when the valves narrow due to the
following except:
A. prolapse
B. stiffening
C. thickening,
ANSWER:
27. Before a patient sign a consent form for abdominoperineal resection, the nurse should
explain to him that the surgery will probably result in a ……
A. permanent colostomy and impotence
B. permanent ileostomy in the jejunum
C. temporary colostomy in the descending colon
ANSWER:
28. Following an amputation, the nurse can help a patient prepare the residual limb for a
prosthesis by encouraging him to…
A. Abduct the residue limb when ambulating
B. Change the residual limb off the bed frequently
C. Periodically press the end of the residual limb against a pillow
ANSWER:

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29. Following subtotal gastrectomy for cancer of the stomach the patient develops
dumping syndrome. The nurse would explain this to the junior nurse as…..
A. Build-up of feces and gas within the large intestine
B. Rapid passage of osmotic fluid into the jejunum
C. Reflex of the intestinal contents into the oesophagus
ANSWER:
30. Before cholecystectomy the surgeon orders vitamin K, this is administered because it
is used in the formation of ……
A. Cholecystokinin
B. Prothrombin
C. Thromboplastin
ANSWER:
31. Following a traumatic amputation of a limb the nursing diagnosis that should receive
the lowest priority in the first 24 hours is……
A. Activity intolerance
B. Deficient knowledge related to stump care
C. Ineffective tissue perfusion(potential)
ANSWER:
32. After cataract extraction the nurse should
A. Advise the patient to refrain from vigorous brushing of the teeth and hair
B. Encourage eye exercises to strengthen the ocular muscles
C. Instruct the patient to avoid driving for 2 weeks
ANSWER:
33. The immediate postoperative complication of thyroidectomy includes (I. Laryngeal
oedema, II. Keloid, III. Respiration distress, IV. Surgical emphysema)
A. I, II and III
B. I, II and IV
C. I, III and IV
ANSWER:

34. An effective first aid treatment for acid burns on the skin is to flush it by apply a
solution of sodium
A. bicarbonate
B. chloride
C. hydroxide
ANSWER:
35. To prevent the development of contractures in a patient with spinal injury, the nurse
should give a careful consideration to
A. Deep massage of the limbs
B. Proper positioning
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C. Proper use of fracture board

ANSWER:
36. Clinical features of breast cancer include (I. Dimpling of the breast, II. Fixation of the
lump, III. Hard non tender irregular lump, IV. Palpable axillary lymph nodes)
A. I, II and III
B. I, II and IV
C. II, III and IV
ANSWER:

37. Conservative management of hemorrhoids include the following except:

A. ice compresses for discomfort
B. laxatives and stool softeners
C. ligation of the hemorrhoids
ANSWER:
38. As general rule after abdominal operation oral intake should be present before…
A. Ambulation is begun
B. IV fluids are discontinued
C. Pain medication is administered
ANSWER:
39. The unique problems to the patient with ileostomy is that
A. Regular bowel habits cannot be established
B. Sexual activity is restricted
C. Skin excoriation can occur
ANSWER:

40. A patient returns to the ward fully awake following a bronchoscopy and biopsy. The
nurse should….
A. Advise the patient to cough frequently
B. Advise the patient to lie flat for 2 hours
C. Evaluate the presence of gag reflex
ANSWER:

41. A patient involved in a RTA has compound fracture of the left. It means that..
A. bone is broken inside but skin is intact
B. skin integrity is impaired as well as bone
C. there is risk for impaired skin integrity
ANSWER:

42. When giving enema the patient should be placed in a..

A. knee chest position
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B. left sim’s position

C. prone position
ANSWER:
43. On the 3rd day after laparotomy a patient complains of severe pains in the right calf
muscle. The nurse should first…..
A. elevate the leg above the heart
B. notify the surgeon
C. record the symptom in the nurses’ notes
ANSWER:
44. The main purpose of under- water sealed drainage system is to…..
A. drain air and blood from the pleural cavity
B. drain air fluid and blood from the pleural cavity
C. prevent air and fluid from entering the lung
ANSWER:
45. What would be your immediate intervention when a patient’s tracheostomy tube
dislodges
A. go and get a new tube
B. inform the doctor to give you directions
C. insert the tube and give oxygen
ANSWER:
46. The nurse will do all the following in case a patient has dehiscence with evisceration
(burst abdomen) except:
A. call the surgeon
B. instruct patient to stay calm
C. try and push back contents of abdomen
ANSWER:
47. Gilbert, 12 years old boy had incision and drainage for injection abscess of the gluteal
muscle. Which position would be appropriate after surgery?
A. Dorsal
B. Prone
C. Recumbent
ANSWER:
48. A patient has a fracture of the right femur and is in a skeletal traction. Which
appropriate bed accessory would help relieve pressure on the buttocks?
A. Sand bag
B. Side rails
C. Trapeze
ANSWER:
49. The first steps to take whilst shortening a drainage tube is to…
A. Clean the area around the drain
B. Draw drain about 2.5cm
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C. Rotate the drainage tube

ANSWER:
50. When there is a burst abdomen post operatively the nurse chronological action would
be: (I. cover the abdominal content with towel soaked in saline, II. inform the surgeon
at once, III. push the abdominal content back gently)
A. I & II
B. I & III
C. II & III
ANSWER:

51. Which of the following symptoms would be exhibited by a female patient with
thyrotoxicosis?
A. Dysmenorrhea
B. Metrorrhagia
C. Oligomenorrhoea
ANSWER:

52. According to Wallace’s ``rule of Nine’’ the percentage of the burns area involving the
anterior trunk, one arm and perineum is
A. 27
B. 28
C. 38
ANSWER:

53. When irrigating the indwelling urinary catheter, the nurse should
A. aspirate immediately to ensure return flow
B. obtain and use sterile equipment
C. instils the fluid under high pressure
ANSWER:

54. Nurse Mensah will go through the following in sequential order to prepare a patient
skin for surgery. (I. cover skin with sterile towel, II. clean skin with antiseptic lotion,
III. shave skin according to institution protocol, IV. wash skin with soap and water)
A. II, III, IV and I
B. III, IV, I and II
C. IV, III, II and I
ANSWER:
55. The nurse would explain a suprapubic prostatectomy to a patient that it differs from
other surgical procedures of the prostrate in that
A. a major complication of impotence may occur
B. an incision is made directly into the urinary bladder
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C. an indwelling catheter is not required after surgery

ANSWER:

56. The best position for a postoperative thyroidectomy patient to assume is…..
A. head of the bed raised with small pillows behind the neck
B. semi-fowler’s position with the head and neck supported
C. semi-prone with small pillows under the neck
ANSWER:
57. Benign prostate hypertrophy causing urinary problems usually ….
A. causes an elevated acid phosphatase
B. is a congenital abnormality
C. predisposes to hydronephrosis
ANSWER:
58. A patient who has sustained inhalational burns is likely to show the following signs
except:
A. difficulty in swallowing
B. respiratory distress,
C. burnt nasal hair
ANSWER:
59. Following head injury, the patient experience post-concussion syndrome. The
following are part of post-concussion syndrome except:
A. headache,
B. irritability
C. coma
ANSWER:
60. Urethral stricture can be caused by the following except:
A. congenital abnormalities.
B. genetic predisposition
C. radiation exposure
ANSWER:
61. A serious gastrointestinal disturbance that frequently occur to a seriously burnt
patients is:
A. paralytic ileus
B. peritonitis
C. ulcerative colitis
ANSWER:

62. One of the methods used in managing pain is adjuvant analgesic agents. Which of the
following examples best demonstrates adjuvant analgesic agent?
A. xylocaine, phenelzine, and Tofranil
B. xylocaine, Tegretol and Tofranil

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C. xylocaine, valium, and Tegretol

ANSWER:

63. The objectives for managing burns are: (I. Prevention of deformity, II. Prevention of
infection, III. Provision of adequate diet, IV. Replacement of lost fluids and
electrolytes)
A. I, II & IV
B. I, III & IV
C. II, III & IV
ANSWER:

64. Patient who has had colostomy should follow a diet that is
A. so close to normal as possible
B. high in carbohydrate
C. low in fiber content
ANSWER:
65. The symptoms to be observed in a patient after radium inserted for cancer of cervix
that are indicative of a radium reaction are
A. Nausea and vomiting
B. Pain and elevation of temperature
C. Vaginal discharge and excoriation
ANSWER:
66. Following spinal cord injury, a patient should encourage to drink fluid primarily to
prevent….
A. dehydration
B. fluid and electrolyte imbalance
C. urinary tract infection
ANSWER:
67. The chief clinical manifestation that the nurse would expect to note in the early stage
of cataract is:
A. blurred vision
B. eye pain
C. diplopia
ANSWER:

68. When assessing a patient with cancer of the tongue the specific sign the nurse should
expect to find is
A. bleeding gums
B. halitosis
C. leukoplakia

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ANSWER:
69. Fluid replacement for a patient with severe burn during the immediate resuscitation
period is considered adequate if the urinary output is
A. Equal to the intake
B. Half of the intake
C. One third of intake
ANSWER:
70. Benign prostate hyperplasia
A. is a congenital abnormality
B. predisposes to hydronephrosis
C. usually becomes malignant
ANSWER:
71. A patient is finding it difficult to void after an indwelling catheter has been removed.
This may be due to
A. An interruption in the normal voiding habits
B. Fluid imbalance
C. Nervous tension following the procedure
ANSWER:
72. When assessing the urine of a patient with urinary tract infection the nurse should
assess each specimen for
A. clarity
B. sugar and acetone
C. viscosity
ANSWER:
73. Varicose veins are usually the result of ..
A. atherosclerotic plaque along the vein
B. defective valves within the vein
C. external compression of the muscles of the legs
ANSWER:
74. To prevent bleeding after prostatectomy the patient should be advised to avoid
straining on defecation. The nurse should therefore advise him to increase his intake
of
A. green leafy vegetables
B. meat and fish
C. ripe plantain and yams
ANSWER:

75. Which of these is assessed to determine the course of prostate cancer?

A. Blood urea estimation
B. Prostate fluid for WBC
C. Prostatic specific antigen
ANSWER:

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76. Predisposing factors to the cancer of the larynx include; (I. air pollution, II. chronic
respiratory infection, III. heavy alcohol ingestion, IV. poor dental hygiene)
A. I, II & III
B. I, II & IV
C. I, II, III & IV
ANSWER:
77. During the immediate postoperative period the nurse should give the highest priority
to;
A. Checking the vital signs every 15 minutes
B. Maintain a patent airway
C. Observing for hemorrhage
ANSWER:
78. When suctioning a patient with a tracheostomy the nurse must remember to
A. Initiate suction as the catheter is being withdrawn
B. Insert the catheter until the cough reflex is stimulated
C. Remove the inner cannula before inserting the suction catheter
ANSWER:

79. Following extensive and prolonged surgery, it is important that the nurse observe the
patient for depletion of which electrolyte?
A. Calcium
B. Chloride
C. Potassium
ANSWER:
80. When irrigating an indwelling urinary catheter, the nurse should…
A. Aspirate immediately to ensure return flow
B. Instill the fluid under high pressure
C. Obtain and use sterile equipment
ANSWER:
81. As a result of fracture rib, the patient may develop…
A. herniation of the diaphragm
B. obstructive lung disease
C. pneumothorax
ANSWER:

82. The nurse would expect a patient in an early stage of severe hypovolemic shock to
exhibit
A. A blood pressure of 150/90
B. A distension of the neck vein
C. An apical heart rate of 142bpm
ANSWER:

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83. Post operatively the patient who has had eye operation should be placed
A. flat on his back with pillows supporting the head
B. in high fowlers position with the neck supported with collar
C. place patient on the unaffected side
ANSWER:
84. The definitive diagnosis of benign prostatic hyperplasia is arrived at by
A. biopsy of prostatic tissue
B. pap smear of prostatic fluid
C. rectal examination
ANSWER:
85. The most common encountered breast condition of the male is
A. breast cancer
B. cystic breast disease
C. gynecomastia
ANSWER:
86. A tumor removed from the ovary of a lady was found to contain a tooth. The tumor is
most likely to be
A. abnormal foetal development
B. abnormal bone formation
C. dermoid tumor
ANSWER:
87. A manifestation of cancer of the cervix that would bring the patient to the
gynecologist is..
A. bloody spotting after intercourse
B. foul-smelling discharge
C. heaviness in the abdomen
ANSWER:
88. The nurse who assesses bone complete fracture pain would expect the patient to
describe the pain as
A. a dull, deep. Boring pain
B. Sharp and piercing
C. Similar to muscle cramps
ANSWER:

89. Which of the following is not included in nursing assessment of a patient in traction?
A. Circulation, sensation and motion of extremities
B. Level of anxiety and apprehension
C. Turning the patient frequently in bed
ANSWER:
90. The best time to perform mammograms in women in their forties is

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A. during the early half of their menstrual cycle

B. during the last half of their cycle
C. just before menstruation
ANSWER:
91. The most common complication after a huge inguino-scrotal herniorrhaphy is
A. Failure of ejaculation
B. Scrotal haematoma
C. Urinary retention
ANSWER:
92. The most effective treatment for fissure-in-an is
A. fistulectomy
B. lateral sphincterctomy
C. warm sitz bath
ANSWER:
93. After cataract extraction the patient is encouraged to
A. Avoid bending his head below the waist
B. Lie on his abdomen while sleeping
C. lift weights to increase muscle strength
ANSWER:
94. Pre-operative intestinal antibiotics are given for colon surgery to
A. decrease the bulk of the colon contents
B. reduce the bacteria content of the colon
C. prevent voiding during surgery
ANSWER:
95. Which of the following position would be ideal for a patient in early postoperative
period after haemorrhoidectomy?
A. High fowlers
B. Lateral
C. Supine
ANSWER:
96. In the conservative management of haemorrhoids the most important aspect is to give
A. broad spectrum antibiotics
B. topical application of xylocaine jelly
C. warm sitz bath
ANSWER:

97. The following are true of intussuception except:

A. may present with a chronic recurrent
B. it is disease of infants
C. the treatment of choice in adults is resection
ANSWER:
98. Clinical manifestations of renal calculi include

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A. dribbling at the end of urination

B. frequency of urination and polyuria
C. severe flank pain and hematuria
ANSWER:
99. It is important for the burn’s patient and family to
A. allow the nurse to give total care to prevent infection
B. avoid discussion of the patient’s progress to minimize false hope
C. talk frequently with the nurse about the patient’s progress
ANSWER:
100. A urine output averaging 20mls per hour the first postoperative day
A. is a normal expected finding
B. is normal if the patient had genitourinary surgery
C. requires an evaluation of the patient’s fluid status
ANSWER:
101. Which of the following patients is at greatest risk for postoperative nausea and
Vomiting?
A. 14-year-old, 40kg boy following an orchidopexy under general anesthesia
B. 22-year-old, 125kg boy following diagnostic laparoscopy under general anesthesia
C. 40-year-old, 70kg man following an arthroscopy under epidural
ANSWER:
102. Which of the following nursing actions is not desirable during recovery from
anesthesia?
A. Auscultation the patient chest bilaterally
B. Encourage deep breathing and coughing exercises
C. Suctioning to remove excess respiratory secretions
ANSWER:
103. A patient reports having an allergy to penicillin. Which of the following questions
would elicit the most useful information for the nurse?
A. Did you notify your physician of the allergy?
B. What infection did you have that required penicillin?
C. What type of allergic reaction did you have?
ANSWER:

104. Which patient is at the greatest risk for surgical and anaesthesia complication?
A. forty-two-year-old scheduled for a breast cancer
B. eighty-year-old scheduled for exploratory laparotomy
C. eighteen-year-old scheduled for emergency appendectomy
ANSWER:

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105. Which of the following characteristics of the coping with the fear of pain would the
nurse express to?
A. describe the degree of pain expected
B. explain the availability of pain medication
C. inform the patient of the frequency of pain medication
ANSWER:
106. Which of the following characteristics of the operating room environment facilitates
the prevention of infection in the surgical patient?
A. Adjustable lighting
B. Explosion proof electrical plugs
C. Filters in the ventilating system
ANSWER:
107. When scrubbing at the scrub sink in preparation for surgery, team members should?
A. holding hands higher than the elbows
B. scrub for a minimum of 10 minutes
C. Scrub without mechanical friction
ANSWER:
108. The following are cytotoxic drugs for the treatment of malignant tumors except
A. cyclophosphamide
B. methotrexate
C. scopolamine
ANSWER:

109. A patient was brought to the OPD with the complaint of severe pain in the right lower
quadrant of the abdomen. On assessment, Rovsing’s sign was positive. Which of the
following inflammatory processes is indicated?
A. Appendicitis
B. Diverticulitis
C. Pancreatitis
ANSWER:

110. Mr. James Mayfair 55 years old had been booked for Billroth type 1 anastomosis. in this
type of operation, the ………….
A. duodenum is sutured to the jejunum
B. duodenum is sutured to the stomach
C. ilium is sutured to the jejunum
ANSWER:

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111. The following activities may be employed to confirm the placement of nasogastric tube into
the stomach except:
A. administering medications through the tube
B. measurement of the tube length
C. pH measurement of aspiration
ANSWER:
112. Which of the following medications is administered to a peptic ulcer patient to decrease the
amount of HCL produced by blocking the action of histamine?
A. cimetidine
B. clarithromycin
C. omeprasol
ANSWER:
113. Mr. Tatale Kule was admitted to your ward after undergoing gastrectomy. The nurse would
monitor Mr. Kule for complications which may arise after the surgery. (I. constipation, II.
gastrointestinal bleeding, III. premature removal of the tube, IV. wound infection
A. I, II, III & IV
B. I, III& IV
C. I, II & IV
ANSWER:
114. Mr. Nyame has been admitted to the chest clinic and you have been asked to prepare him
for Thoracentesis. Which of the following is not the reason for performing thoracentesis?
A. aspiration of the pleura fluid and air from the pleura cavity
B. instillation of medications into the pleura space
C. measuring the pressure of air in the pleura cavity
ANSWER:
115. Mr. Mahama has suffered left hemiplegia as a result of haematoma on the right cerebrum.
Why is it necessary to administer phenytion before he undergoes craniotomy to evacuate the
haematoma? To reduce rick of …
A. brain damage
B. postoperative infection
C. postoperative seizures
ANSWER:

116. In selecting the donor site for skin grafting, the following criteria are taking into
consideration, (I. achieving the closest possible colour match, II. considering the cosmetic
effects of the donor site after healing, III. matching the texture, IV. obtaining the thickest
possible skin graft without disturbing healing of the donor site
A. I, II &III

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B. I, II & IV
C. I, II, III & IV
ANSWER:
117. Testing for crepitus in patient with fracture of the humerus should be avoided because it…
A. can lead to shorting of the limb
B. can produce further tissue damage
C. will lead to gangrene formation
ANSWER:

118. Mr. Jaro was involved in a road traffic accident and sustained a simple fracture of the right
humerus. He is most likely to undergo which of this method of reduction?
A. closed reduction without metal pins
B. closed reduction with metal pins
C. open reduction with bone plate
ANSWER:
119. Sara, 30 years old seamstress is admitted to your ward for laminectomy pending lumber
puncture procedure. What will be your role as a nurse to prevent her from experiencing
post-lumber puncture headache? Instruct her….
A. not to eat immediately after lumber puncture
B. to reduce fluid intake after lumber puncture
C. to lie supine after the lumber puncture
ANSWER:
120. In performing a surgical operation the scrub nurse is responsible for the following: (I.
assisting the surgeon, II. counting all needles/ sponge, III. preparing sutures and ligatures, IV.
setting up the sterile table
A. I, II & III
B. I, II, III & IV
C. II, III & IV
ANSWER:
121. Spinal anesthesia is an extensive conduction nerve block that is produced when a local
anesthesia is introduced into the subarachnoid space of the Lumbar level, usually between
A. L1 & L2
B. L2 & L3
C. L4 & L5
ANSWER:

122. Maman Yayra aged 65 years is scheduled to undergo a laparotomy. Maman Yayre will go
through the following stages of general anesthesia: (I. excitement, II. Induction, III.
depression/ danger, IV. surgical anesthesia)
A. II, III, IV & I
B. II, I, IV & III

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C. I, III IV & IV
ANSWER:

123. There have been reported cases of post -operative wound infections on your ward over the
past few weeks. Which of the following pathogens is likely to be the cause?
A. aerobacter aerogens
B. pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Staphylococcus aureus.
ANSWER:
124. Kwesi Akroma has the impression that he is developing cancer. Which of the following
warning signs would prompt him to seek medical care? (I. A sore that does not heal, II.
Frequent diarrhoea, III. Indigestion or difficulty in swallowing, IV. Unusual bleeding or
discharge.)
A. I, II & IV
B. I, II & III
C. I, III & IV
ANSWER:
125. A patient with the diagnosis of malignant cancer is undergoing radiation therapy through
internal implants, such a therapy can be described as….
A. brachytherapy
B. pharcotherapy
C. teletherapy
ANSWER:
126. Papa Kojo, 41- years-old reported to the hospital with the swelling on the head. The doctor
assessed and suspected meningioma. Which of the following is not a feature of meningioma?
A. cells grow very fast
B. responds to surgery only
C. respond to radiotherapy
ANSWER:
127. A woman reported to the health facility with the obstetrical history of having prolonged and
excessive bleeding at the time of regular menstrual flow. What is the likely disorder this woman
may be experiencing?
A. dysmenorrhea
B. menorrhagia
C. metrorrhagia
ANSWER:
128. In managing pain, the most important person to consider is the ………….
A. doctor
B. nurse
C. patient
ANSWER:

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129. Alhaji Baba, 47 years reported to the hospital with the complaints of pain at the joints,
muscle and skin. He described the pain as aching, throbbing and well localized. What type of
pain is Baba likely to be complaining of?
A. Centrally generalized pain
B. Somatic pain
C. Visceral pain
ANSWER:
130. The nursing management of a client with post-operative wound complications includes the
following: (I. assess vital signs especially temperature, II. change dressing 4 hourly, III. maintain
client’s hydration and nutritional status, IV. observe aseptic technique during dressing
A. I, II &III
B. II, III & IV
C. I, III & IV
ANSWER:
131. During a major surgery on patient, which of the following wound drainage devices could be
used? (I. Haemovac wound suction device, II. Jackson-pratt wound suction device, III. Penrose
drain, IV. Rosepen drain
A. I & II,
B. I, III & IV
C. I, II & III
ANSWER:
132. Ms. Zuma was admitted to the gynecological ward with severe dysmenorrhea. What would
be your focus of care for Ms. Zuma? (I. alleviation of pain, II. identification of underlying cause
III. reestablishment of functional capacity
A. I & II
B. I & III
C. I, II & III
ANSWER:
133. The absence of ineffective paristalsis of the distal esophagus accompanied by the failure of
the oesophageal sphincter to relax in response to swallowing is known as…..
A. achalesia
B. dysphagia
C. odynophagia
ANSWER:
134. Which of the following best described the role of the circulation nurse?
A. In charge of scrubbing and assisting in cleaning of the theatre the theatre after surgery
B. in charge of setting up the sterile field or table
C. manages the operating room and monitors activities of the surgical team
ANSWER:

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135. Madam Dorsea developed complications after a vaginal surgery. Patient reported of faecal
incontinence and flatus discharging through her vagina. Patient is likely to have developed
……….. fistula.
A. rectovaginal
B. urethrovaginal
C. vagino perianal
ANSWER:
136. Ama sustained a fractured femur and was brought to your unit. Patient was observed to be
in severe pain and had insomnia. The following are all stress responses to patient’s pain except.
A. decreased retention of fluid
B. high metabolic rate
C. impaired insulin response
ANSWER:
137. Mr. Odoom had an artificial cardiac pace maker permanently placed in his chest. The main
function of this pace maker is to….
A. prevent congestion in the heart chambers
B. promote increased in blood circulation
C. provide electrical stimuli to the heart muscle
ANSWER:
138. Madam Adwubi had a plaque in her coronary artery surgically removed. This type of
surgery is termed…
A. angiography
B. atherectomy
C. plaquetomy
ANSWER:
139. After undergoing cardiac surgery, Mr Anum had fluid and blood clots accumulating in the
pericardial sac resulting in compression of the heart. Which of the following complication
has the patient developed?
A. cardiac embolism
B. cardiac tamponade
C. fluid overload
ANSWER:

140. A 16-year-old boy has been booked for laparotomy following a diagnosis of intestinal
obstruction. Describe the measures for allaying his anxiety prior to surgery? (I. allow patient to
express his fears and anxiety, II. encourage patient to start grieving before the surgery, III. ensure
relative stay with patient 24 hours)

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A. I & II
B. I & III
C. I & IV
ANSWER:
141. In addition to the complications to which all post-operative patients are subject, the patient
undergoing surgery is at increased risk for ……
A. anorexia nausea and vomiting
B. dietary deficiencies and dumping syndrome
C. vomiting and aspiration of gastric content
ANSWER:
142. Obaa YAA aged 25, has been diagnosed of peritonitis. The main objective for the surgical
intervention includes:
A. remove the infected content and correct the cause
B. resection and anastomosis of the intestine
C. resection of the intestine and correct the cause
ANSWER:
143. Which of the following measures will be appropriate for preventing post- operative
pulmonary complication after thoracic surgery? (I. Assess capillary refilling and patient skin, II.
Auscultate lung sounds and assess for the rate, rhythm of respiration, III. Encourage patients
relative to visit regularly)
A. I & II
B. I & IV
C. I, II & III
ANSWER:
144. Mrs. Esi is to undergo laryngectomy. In patient teaching what will be your priority?
A. Ability to sing and laugh would be lost
B. Ensure adequate intake of soft foods
C. Milk and milk products may be restricted
ANSWER:
145. A patient who had RTA sustained fracture of the nose. What would be the immediate
nursing intervention?
A. Apply direct pressure to the nose
B. Apply ice and keep the head elevated
C. Splint the nose with gauze
ANSWER:

146. Madam Yaa 66 years old had undergone cataract surgery. Which of the following structure
was affected
A. cornea
B. lens
C. retina

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ANSWER:
147. An 18-year-old girl has been admitted with severe ear ache and discharge. Which of the
following is an indication of mastoidectomy?
A. Chronic otitis media
B. Meniere’s disease
C. Perforated ear drum
ANSWER:
148. Mr. Amu is admitted into the ICU following transurethral resection of the prostate. What
would be the nurse’s post-operative management? (I. Assess the three ways urethral catheter at
regular intervals, II. Instruct patient to avoid straining to void, III. Monitor for hemorrhage)
A. I & II
B. I, II & III
C. I, & III
ANSWER:
149. Kumar was rushed to the accident and emergency unit with the history of sudden collapse
during a football match. Which of the following clinical assessment would indicate a head
injury? (I. A bruise on the skull, Ecchymosis noted on the mastoid process, III. Loss of
consciousness no longer than 10 minutes)
A. I & II
B. II & III
C. I, II & III
ANSWER:
150. Ama was admitted to the ICU after craniotomy. Patient is at risk of increased intracranial
pressure. Which of the following will indicate the nurse’s post-operative management? (I. Assess
for vomiting, II. Monitor intake and output, III. Monitor vital signs for bradycardia, IV. Monitor
vital signs for tachycardia)
A. I, II & III
B. I, II & IV
C. I, III & IV
ANSWER:
151. In a suspected spinal cord injury following a road traffic accident. What would be the nurse
appropriate emergency care?
A. Monitor vital signs
B. Put in lateral position
C. Put in supine position
ANSWER:
152. Amina is admitted to the burns unit with burns involving the face, truck, upper and lower
limbs. The following are nurse’s intervention for the diagnosis of “impaired skin integrity”
except:
A. apply Mafenide acetate

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B. gently debride the wound

C. take wound swab for culture
ANSWER:
153. A patient has reported severely at the OPD with the diagnosis of primary
hyperparathyroidism. Which of these indicators would require surgical intervention?
A. Serum calcium level greater than 2.5mmol/l
B. Urinary calcium of 10mmol/l
C. Urinary calcium of 8mmmol/l
ANSWER:
154. A patient had undergone an abdominal surgery and is been managed on the ward, in order
to prevent wound dehiscence, the nurse would
A. encourage patient to only put on light cloths
B. serve food rich in vitamins and proteins
C. teach patient how to splint the incision when coughing
ANSWER:
155. Ama had amputation of the left limb. Which of the following is appropriate in the
management of Ama’s limb?
A. avoid excess hip abduction, flexion of external rotation
B. avoid pillows under the stump or bend the knee off the bed
C. change position every 4 hours in chair or bed
ANSWER:
156. In which of the following conditions can paracentesis be done as therapeutic and diagnostic
procedure?
A. ascitis
B. ectopc gestation
C. level laceration
ANSWER:

157. Aisha Tanko, 80 years was diagnosed of pathological fracture of the left femur. Her
condition could have been caused by the following except:
A. Irradiation fracture
B. neoplasms
C. poor flexibility
ANSWER:

158. BOB Atta has been admitted with acute abdomen. A Murphy’s test was performed to
confirmed the diagnosis;
A. appendicitis
B. cholecystitis

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C. pancreatitis
ANSWER:

159. When caring for road traffic accident victims the nurse would priorities care and provide
treatment first for a patient with…
A. a fractured femur
B. a penetrating abdominal wound
C. head injury
ANSWER:
160. The condition of an adult patient with burns of 36% of the body according to Wallace Rule
of Nine would be considered to be..
A. critical
B. fair
C. good
ANSWER:
161. A patient complains of severe pains of 2 days following surgery. The nurse should first;
A. administer the p.r.n analgesic
B. ensure the patient is having enough rest
C. find out when the last analgesic was given
ANSWER:
162. When a patient is semi-conscious, the nurse should expect the patient to be unable to;
A. control elimination
B. hear voices
C. react to painful stimuli
ANSWER:

163. A patient who has sustained head injury regains consciousness and is able to move the
extremities. This suggests non-involvement of the..
A. basal ganglia
B. post central gyrus
C. pre central gyrus
ANSWER:
164. To check for subcutaneous emphysema after the insertion of the chest tubes the nurse
should
A. auscultate the breath sounds for crackles
B. compare the length of inspiration with that of expiration
C. palpate around the chest tube insertion sites for crepitus
ANSWER:
165. Soon after being admitted for head injuries a patient’s temperature risen up to 39.4OC. This
suggests injury to the
A. hypothalamus

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B. medulla oblongata
C. thalamus
ANSWER:

166. When caring for a patient who has a possible skull fracture. The nurse should
A. elevate the foot end of the bed if patient develops symptoms of shock
B. observe the patient for signs of increased intracranial pressure
C. observe the patient for symptoms of decrease intracranial pressure and pyrexia
ANSWER:
167. To prevent the development of contractures in a patient with spinal injury, the nurse should
give careful consideration to..
A. deep massage of the limbs
B. proper positioning
C. proper use of fracture board
ANSWER:
168. Which of the following diets would be appropriate for the patient with ulcerative colitis?
A. High fibre, low fat
B. Low protein, high calorie
C. Low residue, high protein
ANSWER:
169. A priority nursing diagnosis for a patient with ulcerative colitis is..
A. diarrhoea related to hypermotility.
B. high risk for infection
C. ineffective coping
ANSWER:
170. Which of the following is not a precipitating cause of haemorrhoids?
A. Occlusion of the arterial blood supply to the rectum
B. Prolong sitting or standing
C. Pregnancy
ANSWER:
171. Predisposing factors of appendicitis include (I. Inadequate food intake, II. Kinking of the
appendix, III. Presence of faecalith, IV. Repeated throat infection)
A. II and III
B. I, II and III
C. II, III and IV
ANSWER:

172. As general rule after abdominal operation oral intake should be adequate before.
A. ambulation is begun
B. deep breathing is encouraged

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C. IV fluids are discontinued

ANSWER:
173. After closure of duodenal ulcer, which of these analgesics would you not administer;
A. paracetamol tablets
B. pethidine injection
C. suppository diclofenac
ANSWER:
174.Emergency equipment that should be at the bed side of a patient after thyroidectomy
includes;
A. an air way and ambubag
B. a tracheostomy set and oxygen
C. two ampules of sodium bicarbonate
ANSWER:

175. When a patient returns from theatre after thyroidectomy the nurse should assess injury to
the laryngeal nerve by;
A. asking the patient to speak
B. checking the patient for neck oedema
C. observing the patient for signs of tetany
ANSWER:
176. The most serious complication associated with chronic inflammatory of the bowel is
A. bleeding
B. obstruction
C. perforation
ANSWER:
177. The nurse should protect the patient’s skin surrounding a colostomy opening by using
A. barrier cream
B. mineral oil
C. tincture benzoin
ANSWER:
178. A patient being prepared for a major abdominal surgery is instructed to take nothing by
mouth by a period of ……… hours before surgery
A. 2 to 4
B. 6 to 8
C. 8 to 12
ANSWER:

179. Cheatle forceps is an instrument used to pick items from a

A. Disinfectant
B. Non sterile field
C. Sterile field
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ANSWER:

180. Which of the following is used to prepare the skin before surgery?
A. Antisepsis
B. Antiseptic
C. Decontaminant
ANSWER:

1C 21B 41B 61A 81C 101B 121C 141C 161C

2B 22B 42A 62C 82C 102A 122B 142A 162A

3A 23C 43A 63A 83C 103C 123C 143A 163A

4B 24A 44B 64A 84C 104B 124C 144A `64C

5A 25C 45A 65A 85A 105C 125A 145C 165A

6C 26A 46C 66C 86C 106C 126A 146B 166B

7C 27A 47B 67A 87A 107A 127B 147A 167B

8B 28C 48C 68C 88B 108C 128C 148B 168C

9A 29B 49A 69C 89C 109A 129B 149C 169A

10A 30B 50A 70B 90A 110B 130C 150A 170A

11A 31A 51C 71A 91B 110A 131C 151C 171C

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SURGERY AND SURGICAL NURSING

12C 32A 52B 72A 92B 112A 132C 152C 172C

13C 33C 53B 73B 93A 113C 133A 153A 173C

14C 34A 54C 74A 94B 114C 134C 154C 174B

15B 35B 55B 75C 95B 115CB 135A 155B 175A

16A 36A 56B 76D 96C 116B 136C 156A 176C

17A 37C 57C 77B 97B 117B 137C 157C 177C

18C 38B 58A 78B 98C 118A 138B 158B 178B

19C 39A 59C 79C 99A 119C 139B 159B 179C

20B 40C 60B 80C 100C 120C 140B 160A 180B

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