FAWZIA

PHYSIOLOGY SOME Answers aren’t

100% Correct, So be
ATTENTION
 Single BEST Answer (SBAs / BEST of FIVE) :-
1. The speed of transmission of an impulse along an axon is faster when:
a. the axon is myelinated
b. the diameter of the axon is larger but un myelinated
c. the number of Na+ channels is doubled
d. the number of K+ channels is reduced
e. the number of mitochondria is increased
2. Red muscle fibers :
a. are suitable for quick movements
b. fatigue easily
c. can store oxygen
d. are rich in creatinine
e. have no troponin
3. Transmitters of the autonomic nervous system include:
a. acetylcholine at all post ganglionic parasympathetic terminals
b. acetylcholine in all autonomic ganglia
c. adrenalin in most sympathetic postganglionic neurons to the adrenal medulla
d. adrenalin and nor-adrenalin in sympathetic postganglionic neurons
e. dopamine in pre-ganglionic neurons to the adrenal medulla
4. Sympathetic B1 receptors are found in:
a. the sino-atrial node
b. smooth muscle of the constrictor pupillae
c. smooth muscle of the bronchioles
d. muscle of the upper eye lid
e. smooth muscle of skin vessels
5. A drug that increases the heart rate from 70 to 100 beats per minute could be:
a. a B1 adrenergic receptor antagonist
b. a cholinergic receptor antagonist
c. a cholinergic receptor agonist
d. a B2 adrenergic receptor agonist
e. a non-cholinergic, non-adrenergic agonist
6. Body water :
a. is about 60 liters
b. can be measured by inulin dilution
c. is found mainly intra-cellularly
d. has solutes osmotic pressure of about 400 mosm/l
 e. loss of 5% causes symptoms & signs of dehydration
7. The main extra-cellular cation is:
a. Chloride
b. Potassium
c. sodium
d. protein
e. calcium
8. Extra-cellular fluid volume in a 70 Kg male is about:
a. 10 liters
b. 12 liters
c. 15 liters
d. 25 liters
e. 40 liters
9. Localized edema in a limb is mainly due to:
a. increased capillary permeability
b. low plasma albumin
c. low interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure
d. high capillary hydrostatic pressure
e. blockage of lymph flow
10. Generalized edema can be caused by:
a. Hypothyroidism
b. hypoalbuminaemia
c. lymphadenopathy
d. cancer
e. deep venous thrombosis
11. The effects of parasympathetic stimulation on the GIT include:
a. constriction of the pylorus
b. contraction of the internal anal sphincter
c. contraction of the external anal sphincter
d. contraction of the gall bladder
e. decreased mucus secretion
12. Stroke volume :
a. increases as a result of increased after load
b. equals end-diastolic volume minus end-systolic volume
c. increases as heart rate is increased by electrical pacing
d. is increased by parasympathetic stimulation
e. is increased by Ca channel blockers
13. Which of the following results in an increase in systolic blood pressure ?
a. increased vasomotor tone
b. decreased sympathetic activity to the ventricles
c. an increased rate of the sinoatrial node pacemaker potential
d. increased sympathetic activity to arterioles of skeletal muscle & skin
e. increased parasympathetic stimulation to the ventricles
14. The most sensitive regulatory mechanism of ADH secretion is dependent on:
a. The volume receptors
b. Rennin- angiotensin system
c. Hypothalamic osmoreceptors
d. Renal glomerulotubular feedback
e. Renal principal cells
15. The actions of ACTH include
a. Stimulation of release of lymphocytes
b. Increased secretion of aldosterone
c. Induction of growth of the adrenal gland
d. Induction of secretion of adrenomedullins
e. Feedback inhibition of TSH
16. The following are actions of insulin, except:
a. stimulation of protein synthesis
b. inhibition of gluconeogenesis
c. inhibition of ketogenesis
d. reduction of extracellular K+
e. increased lipolysis
17. Which of the following is true of cortisol excess:
a. a significant increase in BMR
b. marked peripheral vasoconstriction
c. anxiety neurosis
d. it stops the circadian rhythm of melatonin
e. loss of bone matrix
18. A major regulator of bone growth is:
a. parathyroid hormone
b. Calcitonin
c. growth hormone
d. Prolactin
e. active vitamin D
19. If a patient dies of hypocalcaemia, the most likely cause would be:
a. excessive bleeding
 b. loss of normal smooth muscles contractility
c. uncontrolled contraction of skeletal muscles
d. failure of the SA node to generate impulses
e. hypo-osmolality
20. Which of the following is true about the glomerular filtration (GFR):
a. the rate of filtration is about 180 liters /day
b. GFR= about 250 ml/min
c. its composition is similar to that of plasma
d. water, electrolytes pass by diffusion
e. organic molecules up to 80 D can pass in the glomerular filtrate
21. the functions of the renal proximal convoluted tubules include:
a. Reabsorption of all bicarbonate filtered at glomerulus
b. Production of ammonium (NH4)
c. reabsorption of about 70% of filtered bicarbonate
d. reabsorbed bicarbonate results in fixed acid secretion
e. Hydrogen ion secretion is facilitated by ammonium
22. Fine touch sensation is transmitted through:
a. spino-thalamic tracts only
b. gracile & cuneate tracts only
c. dorsal column &spinothalamic tracts
d. olivospinal tracts
e. corticospinal tracts
23. The spinal cord has the center/s for:
a. abdominal reflexes
b. Stretch reflex
c. touch & pressure discrimination
d. visceral reflexes
e. plantar reflexes
24. The dorsal column tracts of the spinal cord serve the following modalities
a. Pain
b. crude touch
c. ticle & itch
d. sexual sensations
e. proprioception
25. The stretch reflex is exaggerated in
a. lower motor neuron lesions
b. immediately after injury to spinal cord
c. medullary reticular formation
 d. lesions of primary motor cortex
e. pontine reticular formation
26. Peripheral neuropathy :
a. causes dissociated sensory loss
b. affects distal cutanous sensation
c. is caused by cerebrovascular thrombosis
d. causes muscle weakness of limb girdles
e. can cause a form of upper motor neuron lesion
27. Hemiplegia is caused by :
a. transection of the spinal cord
b. abnormalities of the utricle & sacule
c. upper motor neuron disease
d. polio myelitis
e. a lesion in the internal capsule
28. Brown-Seqard syndrome is charachterised by:
a. transaction of the spinal cord
b. loss of all sensations below the level of the lesion
c. lower motor neuron lesion below the level of the lesion
d. dissociated loss of proprioception
e. loss of pain sensation on the opposite side below the lesion
29. The concentration of the following is higher in the extracellular fluid than in the intracellular fluid:
a. Ca++
b. H+
c. K+
d. Mg++
e. Protein
30. Extracellular fluid volume is measured by the following:
a. Inulin
b. Mannitol
c. Albumin
d. Tritium oxide
e. C1-51
31. Regarding the role of the kidney in regulation of acid-base balance. The following is true:
a. The kidney maintains the urine pH at constant levels
b. Increased titrable acidity increases sodium re-absorption
c. Increased excretion of NH4+ increases Hco3- loss in urine
d. Increased urine pH increases secretion of NH3
e. Titrable acidity increases five folds in metabolic acidosis
32. One of the following does not cause metabolic alkalosis :
a. Dehydration
b. Vomiting
c. Increased glomerular filtration
d. Increased aldosterone secretion
e. Ingestion of ammonium chloride
33. One of the following statements is not true about platelets :
a. Are derived from the megakaryocytes
b. Secrete thromboxane A2
c. Count is increased by splenectomy
d. Aggregation is inhibited by aspirin
e. Has α dense granules
34. Dorsal column tracts : One statement is false:
a. Carry fine touch sensation
b. Carry vibration sensation
c. Are ascending tracts
d. Go directly to the thalamus without decussating
e. Relay on gracile and cunate nuclei before going to the thalamus
35. Regarding pain : Only one statement is true:
a. Fast pain is carried by type C fibers
b. Visceral pain is associated with sweating
c. Referred pain is only felt on the skin
d. Pain fibers ascend on the dorsal column tracts
e. Pain fibers relay on the midline nuclei of the thalamus convey sharp pain
36. What is the chief factor in producing sensation of heat on palpation of an
acute abscess ?
a. Increased metabolism in the tissues around the abscess
b. Increased rate of destruction of micro-organisms
c. Increased blood flow through the skin
d. Increased metabolism of the epidermis
e. Increased body temperature
37. In a polymorph white blood cell what is the cytoplasmic organelle that destroys the bacterium:
a. Lysosome
b. Mitochondrion
c. Phagocytic vacuole
d. Phagosome
e. Pinocytic vacuole
38. Which one of the following cells is not a tissue macrophage ?
a. Osteoclasts
b. Microglial cells
c. Kupffer cells
d. Mesangial cells
e. Endothelial cells
39. The determinants of the mean arterial pressure MAP include:
a. cardiac output and peripheral resistance.
b. arterial and venous volume.
c. cardiac output and arterial volume.
d. peripheral resistance and blood volume.
e. cardiac output and venous volume.
40. A prolonged decrease in arterial pressure observed in an elderly person is produced mainly by:
a. decreased stroke volume.
b. decreased heart rate.
c. a decreased sympathetic activity.
d. an increase in vagal tone.
e. decreased arterial elasticity.
41. Vitamin B12 :
a. is a fat soluble vitamin
b. is found only in vegetables
c. is needed for DNA formation
d. deficiency causes microcytic anemia
e. deficiency causes a defect in sensation
42. The distal ileum is the main site for absorption of:
a. Glucose
b. vitamin C
c. fat soluble vitamins
d. bile salts } +
e. iron
43. The secretion of saliva :
a. shows circadian rhythm
b. is due to adrenergic stimulation
c. is modified by aldosterone
d. is stimulated by VIP
e. stimulated before vomiting
44. Which receptors are most effective in mediation of secretion of HC L in the stomach?
a. PG2 receptors
 b. H2 receptors
c. adrenergic B2 receptors
d. cholinergic muscarinic receptors
e. gastrin receptors
45. Micelle formation is facilitated by:
a. glycerol
b. galactose
c. phospholipids
d. bile salts
e. cholesterol
46. Sodium re-absorption in the proximal renal tubules:
+
a. is the largest fraction of Na reabsorbed in the tubules
b. is dependent on aldosterone
c. is increased on inhibition of Na+ - K+ ATPase activity
d. is utilized for potassium reabsorption
e. has a transport maximum of 375 mg/minute
47. On measuring the osmolarity of urine in a normal subject, it was found to be 1000 mosm/L.
In this subject we expect the following:
a. ADH is secreted
b. 30% of water is reabsorbed in the proximal tubules
c. 20% of filtered fluid is reabsorbed in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle
d. the thick part of the loop of Henle became permeable to water
e. glucose reabsorption is inhibited
48. The renal blood flow RPF:
a. about 15% of cardiac output
b. measured by PAH (para-aminohipurate)
c. is sensitive to changes in systemic blood pressure
d. increases on increasing the activity of the sympathetic nerves to the kidney
e. mainly distributed to renal medulla
49. Depletion of body potassium:
a. is best detected by chemical analysis of plasma
b. is associated with metabolic alkalosis
c. leads to increased intestinal motility
d. is seen in uncontrolled diabetes mellitus
e. is a feature of Cushing's syndrome
50. The movement of fluid from the capillaries to the interstitial space is increased by all of the
following EXCEPT:
a. lymphatic obstruction
 b. arteriolar constriction
c. blockage of veins
d. increased proteins in the interstitial fluid
e. histamine
51. The osmolality of plasma is:
a. lower than the osmolality of the interstitial proteins
b. determined mainly by plasma proteins
c. determined mainly by Na+
d. do not affected by the level of blood glucose
e. normally between 300-310 mosm/L
52. Active transport is responsible for the:
a. initiation of the action potential
b. movement of fatty acids across the cell membrane
c. movement of Na+ to the outside of the cell
d. movement of Na+ to the inside of the cell
e. movement of the water due to ADH
53. Pulmonary edema may result from the following:
a. expansion of the extracellular fluid volume
b. mitral stenosis
c. decreased capillary permeability
d. decreased pulmonary venous pressure
e. raised systolic arterial pressure
54. In chronic compensated metabolic acidosis :
a. the plasma bicarbonate concentration is above normal
b. the pH of the plasma is increased
c. the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the blood is decreased
d. ammonia production by the kidney is decreased
e. potassium secretion by the kidney is increased
55. Growth hormone :
a. increases somatomedin formation in the liver
b. stimulates glucose entry into cells
c. inhibits protein synthesis in muscles
d. decreases the level of ketone bodies in the blood
e. decreases mobilization of FFAs
56. Signs of hypothyroidism include:
a. loss of weight
b. good appetite
c. coarse tremors
 d. decreased reflex time
e. bradycardia
57. A patient with D.U is treated successfully with the drug omeprazol, the basis for cimetidine
inhibition of gastric H+ secretion is that it:
a. blocks muscarinic receptors on parietal cells
b. blocks H2 receptors at parietal cells
c. increases intracellular cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) levels
d. blocks H+, K+ adenosine triphosphate (ATPase)
e. enhances the action of acetylecholine (ACh) on parietal cells
58. When parietal cells are stimulated, they secrete:
a. HCL and intrinsic factor
b. HCL and pepsinogen
c. HCL and HCo3
d. HCo3 and intrinsic factor
e. mucous and pepsinogen
59. Which of the following is the site of gastrin secretion?
a. gastric antrum
b. gastric fundus
c. duodenum
d. ileum
e. colon
60. Which of the following inhibits the secretion of growth hormone by the anterior pituitary?
a. Hypoglycemia
b. Starvation
c. Sleep
d. Stress
e. Somatostatins
61. Which of the following causes increased aldosterone secretion?
a. decreased blood volume
b. hypokalaemia
c. hyperosmolerity
d. hypernatraemia
e. administration of an inhibitor of angiotensin converter enzyme (ACE)
62. Which of the following will be expected in a patient with hypothyroidism ?
a. increased oxygen consumption
b. decreased TSH
c. heat sensitivity
d. weight loss
 e. decreased triiodothyronine T3 level
63. Which of the following results from the action of parathyroid hormone (PTH) on the renal tubule?
a. inhibition of 1 alpha hydroxylase
b. stimulation of Ca+2reabsorption in the distal tubule
c. decreased urinary excretion of cyclic adenosine monophosphate (AMP)
d. stimulation of phosphate reabsorption in the proximal tubules
e. interaction with receptors on the luminal membrane of the proximal tubular cells
64. Which of the following causes hyperkalemia ?
a. insulin injection
b. decreased serum osmolarity
c. alkalosis
d. treatment with β-agonists
e. metabolic acidosis
65. Which of the following is a cause of metabolic alkalosis :
a. chronic renal failure
b. ethyl glycol injection
c. treatment with acetazolamide
d. diarrhea
e. hyperaldosteronism
66. Which of the following is the highest airway resistance ?
a. trachea
b. largest bronchi
c. medium sized bronchi
d. smallest bronchi
e. alveoli
67. Which vascular bed does hypoxia cause vasoconstriction?
a. skin
b. muscle
c. cerebral
d. pulmonary
e. coronary
68. Which of the following responses is mediated by parasympathetic muscarinic receptors ?
a. dilatation of bronchiolar smooth muscle
b. erection
c. ejaculation
d. constriction of gastro-intestinal sphincters
e. increased cardiac contractility
69. A lesion of the chorda tympani nerve would most likely result in:
a. impaired olfactory function
b. impaired vestibular function
c. impaired auditory function
d. impaired taste function }------------- Ant. 2/3 of the Tongue
e. nerve deafness
70. Which autonomic receptor is activated by low concentration of epinephrine released from
adrenal medulla and causes vasodilatation?
a. adrenergic alpha receptors
b. adrenergic β1 receptors
c. cholinergic muscurinic receptors
d. adrenergic β2 receptors
e. cholinergic nicotinic receptors
71. At which site is systolic blood pressure the highest?
a. aorta
b. central vein
c. pulmonary artery
d. right atrium
e. renal artery
72. A patient experienced orthostatic hypotension after sympathectomy.
The explanation for this occurrence:
a. an exaggerated response of the rennin-angiotensin-aldosterone system
b. a suppressed response of the rennin-angiotensin-aldosterone system
c. an exaggerated response of baroreceptors
d. a suppressed response to baroreceptors
e. an increase in parasympathetic outflow
73. In which of the following is pulmonary blood flow greater than aortic blood flow ?
a. normal adult
b. fetus
c. left-to-right ventricular shunt
d. right-to-left ventricular shunt
e. right ventricular failure
74. Carbon dioxide (CO2) regulates blood to which of the following organs?
a. heart
b. skin
c. brain
d. skeletal muscle at rest
e. skeletal muscle during exercise
75. Propanolol has which of the following effects?
a. decreases heart rate
b. increases heart ventricular ejection fracture
c. increases stroke volume
d. decreases splanchnic vascular resistance
e. decreases cutaneous vascular resistance
76. Cardiac output of the right side of the heart is what percentage of the cardiac output of the left
heart?
a. 25%
b. 50%
c. 75%
d. 100%
e. 125%
77. A shift of oxygen dissociation curve to the right:
a. indicates higher affinity of haemoglobin to oxygen
b. facilitates the release of oxygen to active tissues
c. indicates increase oxygen content at a given PO2
d. is normal in fetal haemoglobin
e. is found in stored blood
78. Characteristics of restrictive lung disease include:
a. TLC is increased
b. FEV1 is reduced
c. FVC is reduced
d. FEV1/FVC ratio is increased
e. Both C & D are correct
79. In a normal standing person:
a. ventilation/perfusion ratio (V/Q) is greater at the lung bases
b. V/Q in the apex is less than 1
c. pulmonary blood flow is equal in the different parts of the lung
d. bronchial blood flow is equal to the cardiac output of the left ventricle
e. wasted perfusion represents arteriovenous shunt and decreases arterial Po2.
80. Which of the following is correct:
a. hypoxia causes pulmonary vasoconstriction
b. anemic hypoxia is associated with cyanosis
c. hypoxic hypoxia results from heart failure
d. stagnant hypoxia is corrected by oxygen therapy
e. hypoxic hypoxia may results from morphine poisoning
81. Complete transection of the spinal cord at T1 would most likely result in:
a. loss of stretch reflexes below the lesion
b. temporary loss of coordination proprioception below the lesion
c. permanent loss of voluntary control micturition
d. permanent loss of consciousness above the lesion
e. non of the above
82. Repolarization :
a. is due to active transport of K+ out of the cell
b. is partly due to influx of Cl-
c. is usually much quicker than depolarization
d. coincides with the relaxation phase of the muscle twitch in skeletal muscles
e. is due to Ca2+ influx in cardiac muscle
83. The excitatory postsynaptic potential :
-
a. may be due to efflux of Cl
b. can be summated to generate an action potential in the dendrites
c. is usually due to Na+ influx
d. necessarily leads to generation of an action potential
e. is also known as the prepotential
84. A skeletal muscle cell requires ATP for the following except:
a. to provide energy for the power stroke of myosin
b. the release of myosin head from actin
c. the reuptake of Ca2+ by the sarcoplasmic reticulum
d. the transport of Na+ to the ECF
e. the release of Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
85. The interaction of the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems
in the control of heart rate:
a. is an example of reciprocal innervations }--- in Withdrawal / reverse-stretch Reflex
b. determines the range of control of the heart rate
c. works predominantly through muscarinic receptors
d. enables dual control of ventricular muscle contraction
e. all of the above are correct
86. postganglionic parasympathetic and postganglionic sympathetic neurons are different in that:
a. They can be excited by dopamine
b. Postganglionic parasympathetic nerve bodies are located in ganglia close to the spinal cord
c. Most postganglionic parasympathetic nerves release the neurotransmitter acetylcholine.
d. Some postganglionic parasympathetic nerves release the neurotransmitter norepinephrine.
e. They are most active under conditions of stress, such as the fight/flight
87. Acetylcholine :
a. Is blocked by propanolol.
b. Is blocked by curare in the autonomic ganglion.
c. Is the neurotransmitter at all sites that are blocked by atropine.
d. Is secreted by postganglionic sympathetic to sweat glands.
e. Is degraded by the enzyme COMT.
88. Measurement of intravascular fluid :
a. is measured by the indirect dilution method
b. can be done using thiosulphate
c. depends on ability of the substance to pass through the capillary membrane
d. can be achieved by using labeled albumin
e. gives a good indication of water balance
89. Atrophy of the gastric mucosal glands is likely to result in:
a. diminished digestion of starch
b. failure of digestion and absorption of proteins
c. high gastrin levels in the blood
d. high secretin levels in the blood
e. normochromic normocytic anaemia
90. The brush border enzymes of the small intestine digest:
a. Starch
b. cholesterol esters
c. albumin
d. galactose
e. lactose } Glucose + Galactose
91. The average daily amount of fluid that passes through the pylorus in a healthy adult is about:
a. 2 -3litres
b. 9-10 litres
c. 5-6 litres
d. 8-10 litres
e. 10-12 litres
92. The stomach has the ability to absorb:
a. Ca2+
b. Alcohol
c. Glucose
d. aromatic aminoacids
e. Fe2+
93. Stimulation of parasympathetic nerves to the heart:
a. Causes tachycardia.
 b. Makes the prepotential more horizontal.
c. Decreases the rate of potassium efflux in the sinu-atrial node.
d. Prolongs the refractory period.
e. Shortens the duration of the cardiac cycle.
94. AV nodal cells :
a. exhibit action potentials characterized by rapid depolarization (phase 0)
b. conduct impulses more slowly than either atrial or ventricular cells
c. are capable of pacemaker activity at an intrinsic rate of 100 beats per min.
d. exhibit increased permeability to Na during the pre-potential
e. show a steep pre-potential when exposed to acetylcholine
95. Starlings Law of the Heart (heterometric autoregulation):
a. states that, at a given end-diastolic pressure, norepinephrine increases volume
b. states that increased end-systolic volume leads to increased stroke volume (up to a point)
c. is primarily the result of changes in the firing rate of sympathetic nerves to the ventricles
d. is the mechanism that keeps left and right cardiac output equal in the steady state
e. describes the myocardial response to an increased heart rate
96. Which of the following is most likely to cause postural hypotension ?
a. a drug that blocks muscarinic cholinergic receptors
b. decreased firing rate of baroreceptors while standing
c. exposure to cold environment
d. a drug that blocks cholinergic receptors in skeletal muscle vessels
e. a drug that blocks cholinergic receptors in autonomic ganglia } Hexamethonium
97. Coronary blood flow to the right ventricle:
a. is mainly regulated by sympathetic supply to the coronary anterioles
b. increases when sympathetic nerves to the heart are blocked
c. occurs mainly during diasystole
d. increases when myocardial metabolism increases
e. depends on myogenic autoregulation
98. Concerning the heart sounds:
a. The first heart sound is due to closure of the semilunar valves.[ Aortic & Pulmonary ]
b. The second heart sound is due to opening of the aortic and pulmonary valves.
c. The third heart sound is due rapid ejection phase of systole.
d. The first heart sound occurs at the beginning of the isovolumic contraction phase
e. The second heart sound follows the isovolumic relaxation phase.
99. Tripling the resting heart rate of a healthy young adult during heavy exercise:
a. is achieved by activation of the sympathetic nerves
b. a decrease in cholinergic discharge at the sinoatrial node
c. occurs as a result of withdrawal of normal parasympathetic activity
 d. occurs as a result of the Bainbridge reflex
e. is primarily due to an increase in venous returns
100. Correct sequences of steps in the short-term compensation for hemorrhage include:
a. decreased arterial pressure → increased baroreceptor firing rate
b. increased formation of angiotensin II → increased renin release from kidneys
c. decreased excretion of Na+ and water → increased aldosterone formation
d. decreased firing of baroreceptors → increased sympathetic activity
e. decreased atrial volume → ANP release
101. All the following is true about control of secretion of TSH, except:
a. It is inhibited by T4
b. It is increased in cold weather
c. It is increased in Grave’s disease
d. It is increased by TRH
e. Has no marked diurnal rhythm
102. A most effective method of treating type I diabetes mellitus is:
a. To stop consuming carbohydrates
b. Regular muscular exercise
c. Reduction of body weight
d. Drugs to stimulate the B cells of the pancreas
e. Daily injections of insulin
103. Which of the following factors directly stimulates the secretion of aldosterone from adrenal
corex:
a. angiotensin I
b. hypotension
c. hyperkalemia
d. hyponatraemia
e. ACTH
104. The onset of puberty in females :
a. depends on regular menstrual cycles
b. is triggered by Melatonin
c. is a not related hypothalamic functions
d. results in regular ovulation
e. is associated with an increased release of adrenal androgen
105. The duration of the menstrual cycle :
a. is determined by LH
b. is longer in young women
c. is dependent on the duration of the proliferative phase
d. depends on the life span of the corpus luteum
 e. decreases with age
106. Hormonal changes during pregnancy include :
a. an increase in oestradiol more than oestrone
b. an increase in progesterone which continues throughout pregnancy
c. inhibition of pituitary growth hormone
d. a late increase in HCG
e. a surge of placental lactogen just before term
107. The actions of estrogens include :
a. growth of duct system of breast
b. decreased motility of uterine tubes
c. increased secreations of the endometrium
d. decreased excitability of myometrium during pregnancy
e. decreased sodium retention
108. Which of the following is true about renal blood flow :
a. The kidneys receive 10- 15% of cardiac output
b. Is markedly decreased during muscular exercise
c. Measured by renal clearance of inulin
d. The dilution method is used for its measurement
e. Most of it goes to renal cortex
109. The forces responsible for increasing glomerular filtration include :
a. Capillary Colloid Osmotic Pessure
b. hydrostatic pressure in glomerular capsule
c. hydrostatic pressure in glomerular capillaries
d. Increased intracapsular hydrostatic pressure
e. increased blood volume
110. GFR is measured by clearance of a substance which:
a. is not metabolized
b. must be secreted by renal tubules
c. Rapidly metabolized
d. Has molecular size less than 12 nm
e. Is filtered & not secreted or reabsorbed }=->>> Inulin
111. Facilitated diffusion :
a. requires energy expenditure
b. is a form of active transport
c. transport by a protein carrier down concentration gradient
d. diffusion down concentration gradient
e. faster than primary active transport
112. Active reabsorption of Na in proximal tubules results in
a. paracellular diffusion of potassium ions
b. removal of most of the filtered Na
c. passive trans-cellular diffusion of water
d. secondary active transport of potassium
e. lower concentration of CL in lumen than interstitial fluid
113. the characteristics of the loop of Henle include:
a. Descending limb is impermeable to water
b. Urine becomes more dilute as it reaches the tip of loop
c. Ascending limb is permeable to water
d. Thin descending limb is permeable to urea which diffuses to ISF
e. Na Cl diffuses passively out of thin part of ascending limb
114. The following is true about the vasa recta
a. Descending vasa recta reabsorb water from ISF
b. the ascending capillaries gain Na & urea
c. plasma becomes hyperosmotic as it descends in vasa recta
d. ascending capillaries reabsorb & remove excess sodium
e. they are responsible for countercurrent multiplier system
115. About Bicarbonate reabsorption:
a. represents the high capacity high gradient system
b. filtered bicarbonate/day = 2000 – 3000 mmol/day
c. more HCO3 is absorbed in distal than proximal tubules
d. Proximal tubules apical membrane impermeable to HCO ³¯
e. H2CO3 in pCT lumen is catalyzed at brush border by carbonic anhydrase to give CO2 & HCO ³¯
116. Ammonium production:
a. is mainly a function of PCT
b. source is mainly glycine
c. represents the least important mechanism in renal excretion of H+
d. is a high capacity low gradient system
e. is increased when the urine pH is high
117. The following is true about the generator potential of a sensory receptor:
a. it is immediately propagated
b. cannot be summated
c. is a form of local potential
d. obeys the all or non law
e. is transmitted to the axon
118. The dorsal column tracts are also called:
a. lemniscal tracts
 b. anterolateralpathway
c. spino-olivary tracts
d. reticulospinal tracts
e. cerebellospinal tracts
119. Adaptation to sensory modalities :
a. can be explained by fatigue
b. occurs at the same rate in different receptors
c. is due to inactivation of Na channels
d. causes release of inhibitory transmitter
e. is defined as decreased firing of receptors when a stimulus is increased
120. The localization of sensation is a function of:
a. adequate stimulus
b. specific receptors
c. medullary centres
d. primary sensory cortex
e. hypothalamus
121. The intensity (strength) of a stimulus is coded by:
a. the type of receptor
b. the voltage of the generator potentials
c. the amplitude if the action potential
d. columns of cells in sensory cortex where it arrives
e. the frequency of impulses
122. The static stretch reflex :
a. can be elicited by by tapping the muscle tendon
b. is stimulated by gravity
c. is mainly due to vestibular stimuli
d. causes muscle contraction
e. causes a form of isotonic contraction
123. Lower motor neuron lesions LMN :
a. result in exaggerated superficial reflexes
b. are not accompanied by sensory loss
c. are associated with minimal muscle wasting
d. are complications of diabetes mellitus
e. of the facial nerve lead to exaggerated labial fold on the affected side
124. Apraxia (loss of skilled movement) may be caused by :
a. hemisection of the spinal cord
b. lesion of sensory cortex
c. upper motor neuron disease
 d. a lesion of primary motor cortex
e. disease of the inner ear
125. One of the following does not result from diarrhea:
a. Metabolic alkalosis
b. Increased [H+] in arterial plasma
c. Increased re-absorption of HCO3
d. Increased titrable acidity
e. Decreased PCO2 in arterial plasma
126. Regarding erythropoiesis : One of the following is incorrect:
a. Is formation of red blood cells
b. Is stimulated by erythropoiten
c. Is stimulated by hypoxia
d. Occurs outside the bone narrow
e. Is enhanced by haemolysis
127. Alveolar air : One of the following statements is true:
a. Is rich in O2 compared with atmospheric air
b. Is similar in all alveoli
c. Exchange with atmospheric air is more with shallow breathing
d. O2 decrease leads to hypoxic hypoxia
e. PCO2 is increased by progesterone
128. In the physiology of the heart : One of the following is not true:
a. Total de-enervation of the heart result in heart rate of 105 beats/min.
b. Vagal stimulation decreases the heart rate
c. The A.V. node is innervated by the Rt.vagus nerve
d. Stimulation of B-adrenergic receptors has a positive inotropic effect.
e. The resting membrane potential of the S.A node is –50 nv
129. Regarding the ADH : One of the following is not true:
a. Is stored in the anterior pituitary
b. Action is on the distal and collecting tubules
c. Deficiency causes diabetes insipidus
d. Is produced by the posterior pituitary
e. Has a vasopressor effect
130. In isotonic muscle contraction a muscle:
a. does not shorten but develops tension
b. shortens and performs work
c. lengthens as it contacts under load
d. does not shorten perform no work
e. lengthens and spends energy
131. The following hormones are secreted by the adenohypophysis except:
a. prolactin
b. leutenizing releasing hormone
c. gonadotrophin releasing hormone
d. thyroid stimulating hormone
e. growth hormone
132. Prolactin :
a. is a glycoprotein
b. causes milk ejection
c. is mainly controlled by inhibitory hormone from hypothalamus
d. causes milk formation during pregnancy
e. estimulate secretion of oestrogen from the ovaries
133. Growth hormone :
a. secretion is increased after meals
b. effects on bone is brought about by somatomedins
c. deficiency in adults results in obesity
d. blood level is decreased during exercise
e. secretion is stimulated during REM sleep
134. The increased excitability of nerve and muscle associated with plasma calcium is due to:
a. increased entry of calcium into synaptic knob at neuromuscular junction
b. increased release of acetylcholine into synaptic junction
c. decreased potassium efflux
d. increased entry of sodium through voltage gated sodium channels
e. opening of chemically gated channels for sodium
135. Parathyroid hormone :
a. is secreted by para-follicular cells of thyroid gland
b. is controlled by a hypothalamic hormone
c. secretion is stimulated by 1.25 dihydroxycholecalciferol
d. increases activity of osteoclasts
e. stimulates calcium reabsorption in proximal convoluted tubule of the kidney
136. The most important function of 1,25 dihydroxycholecalciferol is:
a. inhibition of parathyroid hormone secretion
b. absorption of calcium from small intestine
c. bone resorption
d. reabsorption of phosphate in renal tubule
e. inhibition of calcitonin secretion
137. The hypoglycemic action of insulin is mainly due to:
a. inhibition of gluconeogenesis
 b. inhibition of glycogenolysis
c. inhibition of growth hormone secretion
d. stimulation of glucose transporters
e. inhibition of cortisol secretion
138. Insulin stimulates:
a. hormone sensitive lipase
b. lipoprotein lipase
c. gluconeogenesis
d. potassium exit from cells
e. erythropoiesis
139. In the absence of insulin patients suffer from:
a. hypoglycemia
b. hypertension
c. hypokalaemia
d. metabolic acidosis
e. respiratory alkalosis
140. The myenteric plexus of the enteric nervous system includes:
a. Somatic sensory neurons
b. Inhibitory interneurons
c. Presynaptic motor neurons
d. excitatory sympathetic neurons
e. sympathetic postganglionic neurons
141. The pharyngeal phase of swallowing :
a. is partially voluntary
b. includes opening of the upper esophageal sphincter
c. includes the peristaltic activity of the upper third of the oesophagus
d. is associated with opening of the glottis
e. is preceded by deep inspiration
142. The secretion of enzyme by the exocrine pancreas is increased by:
a. inhibitors of gastrin hormone
b. sympathetic stimulation
c. secretin
d. CCK
e. noradrenaline
143. Contraction of the gallbladder is mainly mediated by:
a. secretin
b. VIP
c. bile salts
 d. atropine
e. CCK
144. The jejunum is the main site for absorption of the following except:
a. glucose
b. amino acids
c. fatty acids
d. bile salts
e. water
145. The movements of the colon include:
a. migrating motor complex slow wave movement
b. pendular movement
c. enterocolic reflux
d. segmentation
146. Central stimuli to vomiting include:
a. irritation of the colon
b. diseases of the inner ear
c. microbial toxins in the blood
d. severe exercise
e. cerebellar lesions
147. The functions of human stomach include:
a. absorption of iron
b. absorption of vitamin B12
c. absorption of 50% of water intake
d. storage of food for 4 hours
e. limited digestion of proteins
148. Pancreatic proenzymes activation is stimulated by:
a. CCK
b. secretin
c. trypsinogen
d. gastrin
e. enteropeptidase
149. Micelles :
a. are emulsified fat globules in the duodenum
b. are packets of pro-enzymes found in pancreatic acinar cells.
c. are dead enterocytes leaving the tips of villi.
d. are micro structures of cholesterol and fatty acids coated with bile salts
e. are the triglyceride particles formed by enterocytes and transported in the lymphatic system.
150. The following cells produce antibodies :
a. helper T lymphocytes
b. cytotoxic T lymphocytes
c. monocytes
d. plasma cells
e. eosinophils
151. Platelets :
a. normal count is about 4000/mm3
b. have a life span of 30 days
c. contain clotting factors
d. secret prostacyclin
e. has receptors for protein C
152. Concerning plasma :
a. forms 40% of the blood volume
b. forms 8% of the body volume
c. has the same composition as serum
d. fibrinogen is the main plasma protein
e. 90% of the weight is water
153. Neutrophils :
a. contain heparin
b. have kidney shape nucleus
c. have the granules
d. are transformed into macrophages in the tissues
e. circulate in the blood for few hours
154. All the following are complications of blood transfusion EXCEPT:
a. sodium overload
b. potassium overload
c. iron overload
d. volume overload
e. allergic reactions
155. Iron is transported in the blood bound to:
a. transferrin
b. ferritin
c. hemosiderin
d. intrinsic factors
e. all of the above
156. reticulocyte count in normal blood is:
a. 10%
 b. 7%
c. 5%
d. 3%
e. 1%
157. The following cell produce heparin :
a. neutrophil
b. eosinophil
c. basophil } +
d. lymphocyte
e. monocyte
158. causes of hypochromic anemia include:
a. removal of the ileum
b. iron deficiency
c. folic acid deficiency
d. sickle cell anemia
e. B12 deficiency
159. Hemoglobin A1c :
a. has a half life of fewer days
b. has iron in the ferric form
c. is low in folic acid deficiency
d. is an indicator of diabetes mellitus control
e. is not found in normal subjects
160. Saltatory conduction in nerve fibers:
a. is fast in type B compared to type A fibers
b. occurs in non myelinated fibers
c. is inversely related to the diameter of the nerve fiber
d. is slow in demyelinating neuropathies
e. is a measure of axonal damage
161. Excitatory postsynaptic potential :
a. is a form of action potential
b. is all or none
c. is subject to summation
d. its value reaches – 80mV
e. is propagated
162. The sliding theory of skeletal muscle contraction :
a. myosin slides on actin
b. energy is only required for detachment of the head of the cross bridge
c. tropomyosin functions to relax the muscle
 d. myosin binds calcium ions
e. the cross bridge stems from the body of actin
163. All of the following are monosynaptic reflexes EXCEPT:
a. knee jerk
b. ankle jerk
c. biceps jerk
d. supinator jerk
e. abdominal reflex
164. Signs of cerebellar dysfunction include:
a. dysmeteria
b. clonus
c. hypertonia
d. shuffling gait
e. muscle weakness
165. Alpha waves in the EEG:
a. ranges between 8-14Hz
b. are best seen over the parietal cortex
c. decrease on opening the eyes
d. are epileptiform
e. arise from the hypothalamus
166. Homonymous hemianopia :
a. is caused by pituitary tumours
b. follows optic nerve lesion
c. might follow temporal lobe lesion
d. is caused by visual cortical damage
e. is best tested by confrontational method
167. Conductive deafness :
a. is caused by 8th cranial nerve lesion
b. results in a positive Rennie's test
c. follows otosclerosis
d. is caused by a lesion in the medulla
e. is diagnosed by brain stem evoked potential studies
168. Sharp pain :
a. is transmitted by type B fibers
b. usually occurs in visceral organs
c. is localized
d. is transmitted by the posterior column tract
e. does not respond to analgesic medications
169. Vibration sense :
a. is carried by the anterolateral spinothalamic tract
b. might be lost in vitamin B12 deficiency
c. its sensory perception occurs in the thalamus
d. is transmitted by type C fibers
e. its perception is not affected by age
170. Primary memory :
a. its recall last for minutes or hours
b. the neurophysiology behind it is explained on reverberation circuit
c. its loss is delayed in head injuries
d. its centre lies in the parietal lobe
e. is lost early in Parkinson's disease
171. Botulinum toxin :
a. is a competitive blocking agent at the neuromuscular junction
b. stimulates muscle contraction
c. prevents acetylcholine release from the presynaptic endings
d. is useful in treating myasthenia gravis
e. depress the respiratory centre
172. Stroke volume is decreased when:
a. the sympathetic nerves are stimulated
b. the arterial blood pressure falls
c. vagal centres are stimulated
d. the end diastolic volume is increased
e. a patient stands up
173. Stroke volume :
a. normal about 90 ml
b. depends on Bainbridge reflex
c. decreases when the heart rate increase
d. increases when the end diastolic volume increase
e. is mainly controlled by vagal fibers
174. Starlings law of the heart describes the relationship between:
a. the heart rate and stroke volume
b. the and diastolic volume and cardiac output
c. the blood pressure and heart rate
d. the initial length of cardiac muscle fibers and force of contraction
e. sympathetic stimulation and stroke volume
175. The first heart sound :
a. is due to vibration in the aortic on closure of semi lunar valves
 b. is caused by closure of tricuspid valve
c. occurs at the end of isometric contraction of the ventricles
d. is caused by closure of both AV valves
e. is short of high pitch
176. The chemoreceptors are found in:
a. the lungs
b. carotid sinus
c. aortic arch +
d. coronary sinus
e. medulla
177. During the cardiac cycle, closure of the aortic valve occurs at:
a. the end of the isovolumetric contraction
b. the beginning of rapid ejection phase
c. the beginning of isometric relaxation
d. the end of systole
e. the end of rapid filling phase
178. Cardiac muscle has a long refractory period because:
a. it has more concentration of protein
b. of CI- influx
c. of the delay in Na+ influx
d. of Ca+2influx
e. it is more permeable to K+
179. In the ECG the p wave denotes:
a. atrial contraction
b. atrial depolarization
c. ventricular repolarization
d. SA node depolarization
e. ventricular contraction
180. Regurgitation of the aortic valve leads to:
a. a decrease in diastolic pressure }>>>
b. a decrease in O2 consumption
c. a decrease in heart rate
d. a systolic murmur
e. decreased end-systolic volume
181. Cardiac output is affected by:
a. stroke volume only
b. heart rate and stroke volume
c. blood volume
 d. venous return
e. increased Na+ efflux
182. Barorceptors are located in:
a. coronary sinuses
b. carotid bodies
c. aortic arch
d. A and B
e. B and C
183. A patient in the A & E department with profuse hemorrhage from a severed limb artery
will have increased:
a. sodium excretion
b. sympathetic nerve activity
c. vagal activity
d. arteriolar diameter in skin
e. water excretion
184. Hemodynamic changes in response to obstruction of venous return to the right side of heart
include:
a. cardiac output will fall and systemic arterial blood pressure will fall +
b. cardiac output will rise and systemic arterial blood pressure will rise
c. cardiac output will fall and systemic arterial blood pressure will rise
d. cardiac output will rise and systemic arterial blood pressure will fall
e. cardiac output will remain unchanged and systemic arterial blood pressure will fall
185. Which of the following statements about stroke volume is true?
a. it is the difference between the ventricular end–systolic volume and ventricular end diastolic
volume
b. it is 120 ml in an adult weighting 70kg
c. it is decreased by sympathetic activation of the heart
d. it is increased by increased venous return
e. it is increased by systemic hypertension
186. In a resting healthy individual the ejection fraction is:
a. 20%
b. 30%
c. 45%
d. >60%
e. 90%
187. The venous return :
a. if increased will increase end systolic volume
b. activates Bainbridge reflex when venous return is increased
 c. decrease with deep inspiration
d. increase on standing
e. decrease by venoconstriction
188. Moderate exercise will decrease the following:
a. heart rate
b. cardiac output
c. pulse pressure
d. total peripheral resistance (TPR)
e. arterio venous O2 difference
189. Blood pressure is affected by:
a. heart rate and stroke volume
b. blood vessels
c. psychological state
d. venous return
e. all of the above
190. Inferior wall MI will be picked by which of the following ECG leads:
a. V1 – V3
b. II, III, avf
c. RV4, RV5
d. I, AVL, V4, V6
e. V1 – V6
191. The central venous pressure (CVP) increases:
a. in hypovolaemia
b. during hot climate
c. when total peripheral resistance increases
d. when cardiac output decreases
e. with increased sodium loss
192. Glomerular filtration rate is increased by:
a. Relaxation of mesangial cells
b. angiotensin II
c. vasopressin
d. sympathetic stimulation
e. decreased renal blood flow
193. Renin secretion by the kidney is increased by increasing:
a. tubular fluid flow rate
b. mean systemic blood pressure
c. atrial natriuretic peptide
d. renal sympathetic nerve activity
 e. discharge of baroreceptors
194. The transport of glucose across the luminal membrane in the PCT proximal part of the
renal tubules:
a. is through insulin dependent glucose transporters
b. cannot take place against concentration gradient
c. is not affected by Na+ -K+ pump inhibitors
d. is a co-transport with sodium
e. is decreased in diabetes mellitus
195. In the proximal tubules :
a. 20% of filtered amino acid is reabsorbed
b. sodium reabsorption is aldosterone dependant
c. equal percentage of sodium and water is reabsorbed
d. potassium is mainly secreted
e. calcium cannot be reabsorbed
196. Concerning acid-based balance :
a. the plasma proteins and hemoglobin represent the major extracellular buffer
b. the normal range for plasma pH is 7.26 – 7.74
c. the normal range for plasma bicarbonate is 30-34 mmol/L
d. most of the hydrogen secreted is buffered by bicarbonate
e. most of the hydrogen ions that are excreted in the urine are secreted by the proximal tubule
197. With regard to the glomerular capillaries :
a. they are more permeable to albumin in comparison with other capillaries in the body
b. the oncotic pressure of the plasma leaving them is lower than the general systemic oncotic
pressure
c. afferent arteriole constriction leads to a decrease in the capillary blood pressure
d. the plasma glucose concentration in them is more than in the glomerular filtrate
e. as blood flows through them the hydrostatic pressure drops sharply
198. Sodium re-absorption in renal tubules:
a. is a passive process in all parts of the tubule
b. is increased when angiotensin II is decreased
c. is stimulated by atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
d. depends on K+ level in tubular fluid
e. is coupled to glucose reabsorption in proximal tubule
199. Which of the following is true about micturition :
a. it is controlled by a spinal reflex
b. it is initiated by impulses from the motor cortex
c. parasympathetic stimulation to the bladder leads to relaxation of detrusor muscle
d. the external urethral sphincter is under sympathetic control
 e. the micturition reflex is inhibitied by increased sympathetic stimulation
200. The plasma concentration at which a particular substance begins to appear in the urine is
the:
a. transport maximum (Tm)
b. fractional excretion
c. filtered load
d. renal threshold
e. filtration point
201. The plasma glucose concentration in a fasting patient is found to be 400 mg/dl. If the GFR is 100
ml/min and the renal transport maximum for glucose in this patient is 300 mg/min, at what rate
is glucose being excreted in the urine ?
a. 0 mg/min
b. 100 mg/min
c. 200mg/min
d. 300 mg/min
e. 450 mg/min
202. When the kidney concentrates the urine :
a. the fluid leaving the proximal tubule is hypo-osmotic with plasma
b. the fluid leaving the loop of Henle is hyperosmotic
c. the fluid leaving the cortical portion of the collecting duct is hypo-osmotic
d. the osmolarity of the renal medulla is high
e. the urea concentration of the fluid increases as it passes through the cortical section of the
collecting duct
203. The principal cells of the collecting duct :
a. passively secretes ammonia
b. is the primary site for the re-absorption of water
c. becomes more permeable to water in the presence of ADH
d. passively reabsorbs potassium ions
e. the activity of the sodium/potassium pump in the epithelium is inhibited by aldosterone
204. Increased sympathetic discharge in the renal nerves will result in:
a. dilatation of the afferent and constriction of the efferent arterioles
b. decreased secretion of renin
c. decreased renal blood flow (RBF)
d. an increase in the GFR
e. renal excretion of sodium and water
205. The actions of angiotensin II include all the following except:
a. peripheral vasodilatation
b. stimulation of thirst
 c. inhibition of aldosterone secretion
d. stimulation of ADH secretion
e. stimulation of renin secretion
206. The effects of aldosterone on the kidney include:
a. renal retention of sodium
b. renal retention of potassium
c. decreased excretion of hydrogen ions in the urine
d. a decrease in the plasma bicarbonate concentration
e. an increase in the secretion of renin
207. Concerning the pituitary-hypothalamic relationship:
a. trophic hormones reach the pituitary through axons
b. antidiuretic hormone is synthesized in nerve ending of posterior pituitary
c. corticotrophin hormone reaches the pituitary through portal circulation
d. supraoptic nucleus of the hypothalamus forms mainly oxytocin
e. vasopressin is secreted by stimulating posterior pituitary
208. The following hormones bind to receptors on cell membrane:
a. glucagon
b. cortisol
c. 1.25 dihydroxycholecalciferol
d. T3
e. testosterone
209. The receptors for the following hormones are present in the cell membrane
except:
a. growth hormone
b. aldosterone
c. insulin
d. thyroid stimulating hormone
e. catecholamines
210. Acromegaly :
a. is due to excess growth hormone secretion in children
b. may result in diabetes mellitus
c. is characterized by hypertension
d. results in taller individuals
e. may result from increased number of growth hormone receptors
211. The most important function of ADH is:
a. vasoconstriction
b. decrease in renal medulla blood flow
c. reabsorption of urea in collecting ducts
 d. water reabsorption in collecting ducts
e. neurotransmission in the brain
212. Absorption of calcium from GIT:
a. occurs mainly in ileum
b. is significantly greater in adults than in children
c. is significantly decreased by calcitonin
d. is mainly controlled by 1.25 dihydroycholecalciferol
e. requires bile acids
213. Plasma calcium :
a. Varies directly with plasma phosphate
b. 50% of it is present in the ionized form
c. 40% of it is bound to plasma globulin
d. Is a major contributor to plasma osmolality
e. Increase results in Tetany
214. The physiological significance of amino acids stimulating both insulin and glucagon
secretion is:
a. entry of amino acids into cells
b. protein synthesis
c. avoiding hypokalaemia
d. avoiding hypoglycemia
e. gluconeogenesis in liver
215. Insulin secretion is best stimulated by:
a. gastric inhibitory peptide GIP
b. growth hormone
c. glucagon like peptide
d. glucagon
e. thyroid hormone
216. Insulin secretion is inhibited by:
a. alpha adrenergic receptor stimulation
b. vagal stimulation
c. amino acids
d. GIP
e. parathyroid hormone
217. Partial pressure of oxygen is less in alveoli compared to atmosphere due to:
a. high partial pressure of nitrogen.
b. low partial pressure of CO2.
c. presence of carbon monoxide.
d. the dead space.
 e. water vapor.
218. In a patient with shortness of breath after a chest stab wound the following can be expected
a. FEV1 is high.
b. FVC is low.
c. PEFR is normal.
d. Total lung capacity is high.
e. Anatomical dead space is low.
219. Physiological dead space is
a. more than the anatomical one.
b. 150 ml in adults
c. involved in gas exchange
d. not related to lung perfusion
e. measured by the computerized spirometer.
220. Compliance of the lung is increased in
a. Hemothorax
b. pulmonary embolism.
c. pulmonary edema.
d. lung fibrosis
e. emphysema.
221. In high altitude
a. Alveolar PO2 is high.
b. Atmospheric O2% is low. >>>> alveolar + arterial
c. Arterial PCO2 is low.
d. Arterial PO2 is normal.
e. Alveolar PCO2 is high.
222. In a diabetic patient the pH was found to be 7.3, PaCO2 was found to be 46 mmHg and his
HCO3- normal, fasting blood sugernormal; he is suffering from
a. respiratory alkalosis.
b. metabolic alkalosis.
c. metabolic acidosis.
d. diabetic ketoacidosis.
e. respiratory acidosis
223. Pneumonectomy is expected to reduce the vital capacity by
a. 15%
b. 20%
c. 33%
d. 40%
e. 50%
224. Hb affinity to oxygen is decreased in
a. high pH
b. high PCO2
c. low temperature.
d. low 2,3 DPG
e. fetalHb.
225. The Dorsal Respiratory Group
a. has mainly expiratory cells.
b. Is the rythmicity center
c. Is located in the pons.
d. Produces inspiration
e. Is part of the vasomotor center.
226. Lung stretch receptors are involved in:
a. Proprioception.
b. Hering-Breuer reflex.
c. Cough reflex.
d. Stimulation of chemoreceptors.
e. Voluntary respiration.
227. In left sided pleural effusion the intrapleural pressure in that side will be:
a. -2.5 mmHg at quiet expiration.
b. More than that in the right side.
c. -6 mmHg in quiet inspiration.
d. Can reach -30 in forced inspiration.
e. More effective in lung expansion.
228. Respiratory muscles do not fatigue due to alternation of contraction between:
a. inspiratory and expiratory muscles.
b. diaphragm and internal intercostals.
c. internal and external intercostals.
d. diaphragm and external intercostals.
e. the fibers of inspiratory muscles.
229. Bronchodilation can be produced in response to:
a. leukotrienes.
b. VIP.
c. Cortisol.
d. Cool air.
e. Exercise.
230. The base of the lung compared to the apex:
a. has higher ventilation perfusion ratio
 b. has more perfusion but less ventilation.
c. has more ventilation but less perfusion.
d. has more perfusion and ventilation.
e. has similar ventilation and perfusion.
231. 2,3 DFG (diphosphglycerate ):
a. increases in high altitude.
b. increases in stored blood.
c. decreases in fetal Hb.
d. decreases in alkalosis.
e. decreases in exercise.
232. A patient showed the following findings in pulmonary function tests: FEV1=2L, FVC=4L,
FEV1 after salbutamol inhaler=2.2L, his diagnosis could be:
a. Chronic bronchitis.
b. Lung fibrosis.
c. Pulmonary embolism.
d. Asthma.
e. Restrictive lung disease.
233. Surfactant is decreased:
a. By cortisol.
b. in term babies.
c. during 24% oxygen therapy.
d. in smokers.
e. in heart failure.
234. In hypoxia the glomus cells of the carotid bodies are stimulated due to:
a. increased calcium.
b. increased dopamine.
c. closure of potassium channels
d. exocytosis of granules.
e. depolarization of nerve fibres.
235. In bone :
a. Osteoclasts are thought to be responsible for bone resorption.
b. A normal calcium content depends on mechanical stress being applied to the bone
c. The width of the epighyseal plate an indication of the rate of growth.
d. Strontium ions can replace some of the calcium ions
e. All of the above are true.
236. Non-myelinated fiber differ from myelinated in that :
a. Lack of node of Ranvier
b. Are more excitable
 c. Have higher conduction velocity
d. Are not capable of regeneration
e. Are not associated with Schwann cells
237. A skeletal muscle cell :
a. Obey all or none phenomenon
b. Becomes more excitable when its membrane becomes hypopolarised
c. Has a resting membrane potential which is negative inside compared to outside
d. Contain intracellular store of Ca+ +
e. All of the above are true.
238. Which of the following is formed by osteoblast prior to formation of bone osteoid:
a. Mineralization inducing enzymes
b. Mucopolysaccharides
c. Collagen
d. Alkaline phosphates
e. Non of the above
239. Growth maturation is dependent upon the balance between:
a. Thyroid and anterior pituitary hormones
b. Estrogen and testosterone
c. Corticotrophins and testosterone
d. Thyroid and posterior pituitary hormones
e. All of the above
240. During spinal shock :
a. All motor reflexes disappear
b. All motor and autonomic reflexes disappear
c. The motor reflexes disappear but the autonomic enhanced
d. The extensor reflexes disappear , flexors are enhanced
e. All reflexes are unchanged only BP fall
241. A patient shows involuntary athetoid movement, he probably has:
a. lesion in the cerebral cortex
b. Hypothalamic lesion
c. Cerebellar lesion
d. lesion in the basal ganglia >>>>>>>>> Globus Pallidus
e. Thalamic lesion
242. The most important factor regulating blood flow through exercising muscles is:
a. Systemic blood pressure
b. Venous tone
c. Vasodilator metabolites
d. Sympathetic over activity
 e. Parasympathetic control
243. The morphological layer of the articular cartilage most responsible for the resistance to
shear stress is:
a. Superficial zone
b. middle(transitional) zone
c. Radial zone
d. Tide mark
e. Zone of calcified cartilage
244. Muscle tone is:
a. Reduced by curare like drugs
b. Is increased in decerebrate man
c. Decreased in cerebellar lesion
d. Is redistributed when the function of semicircular canals on one side is disturbed by disease
e. All of the above
245. Folic acid :
a. is a fat soluble vitamin
b. is found only in meats
c. is needed for DNA formation
d. deficiency causes microcytic anaemia
e. deficiency causes defect in myelin formation
246. Micelle formation is necessary for the intestinal absorption of:
a. Glycerol
b. Galactose
c. Leucine
d. Bile acid
e. Vit. D
247. Which one of the following is the site of Na+-bile cotransport :
a. Gastric antrum
b. Gastric fundus
c. Duodenum
d. Ileum
e. Colon
248. Which one of the following substances inhibits gastric empting :
a. Secretin
b. Gastrin
c. CCK
d. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP)
e. Gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP)
249. Which one of the following substances is secreted in response to an oral glucose load :
a. Secretin
b. Gastrin
c. CCK
d. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP)
e. Gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP)
250. Elastic work of breathing :
a. Is due to airway resistance
b. Is less than the non-elastic work
c. Represents about 65% of the total work
d. Is dependent on the viscosity
e. Occurs due to the negative intra-pleural pressure

With my best Wishs

Mr.H
April - 2018