1. Where are allelic genes located?

A) at different loci of the X and Y chromosomes

B) at the same locus of non-homologous chromosomes
C) at different loci of non-homologous chromosomes
D) at the same locus of homologous chromosomes
E) at different loci of homologous chromosomes
2. Which of the following is a form of interaction of allele genes?
A) dominant epistasis
B) complementarity
C) recessive epistasis
D) polymery
E) allelic exclusion
3. What is co-dominance?
A) the development of a new trait from the interaction of two dominant alleles of different genes
B) the development of a new trait from the interaction of two recessive alleles of different genes
C) the development of a new trait from the interaction of dominant and recessive alleles of the
same gene
D) the development of a new trait from the interaction two recessive alleles of the same gene
E) the development of a new trait from the interaction of two dominant alleles of the same gene
4. What happens in sex-linked dominance?
A) the same allele has a recessive effect in males
B) the same allele has a recessive effect in females
C) the same allele has a dominant effect only in females
D) the same allele has a dominant effect in males and a recessive effect in females
E) the same allele has a dominant effect only in males
5. Specify the properties of non-allelic genes:
A) non-allelic genes are located in the same locus of homologous chromosomes
B) non-allelic genes encode same proteins
C) there is no inter-allelic interaction between non-allelic genes
D) non-allelic genes cannot interact with each other
E) non-allelic genes encode different proteins
6. In human normal hearing control by two dominant non-allelic genes, D and E. Specify
the type of interaction between these genes:
A) allelic exclusion
B) complementarity
C) dominant epistasis
D) co-dominance
E) overdominance
7. Determine the ratio of hybrids in the complementary interaction of genes:
A) 1:2:1
B) 15:1
C) 13:3
D) 9:7
E) 12:2:2
8. What process controls the androgen receptor?
A) the penetration of prolactin into testes cells
B) block the penetration of estrogen into testes cells
C) the penetration of estrogen into testes cells
D) block the penetration of testosterone into testes cells
E) the penetration of testosterone into testes cells
9. To which type of gene interaction belong interaction between the dominant genes AR of
the X chromosome and SRY of the Y chromosome?
A) polymery
B) dominant epistasis
C) dominance
D) co-dominance
E) complementarity
10. What is a polymery?
A) the interaction of multiple allelic and non-allelic genes, ensuring the development of several
traits
B) the interaction of multiple allelic genes, ensuring the development of several traits
C) the interaction of multiple non-allelic genes, ensuring the development of several traits
D) the interaction of multiple allelic genes, ensuring the development of one trait
E) the interaction of multiple non-allelic genes, ensuring the development of one trait
11. Which of the following is mulatto genotype?
A) D1d1d2d2d3d3
B) D1d1D2D2D3D3
C) D1D1D2D2D3D3
D) D1d1D2d2D3d3
E) d1d1d2d2d3d3
12. What is the function of modifier genes?
A) only weaken the expression of the main gene
B) define one trait
C) identify several traits
D) only enhance the expression of a non-allelic gene
E) they either enhance or weaken the expression of other genes
13. With a negative Rh-group of human blood, which antigen is absent in their blood?
A) e antigen
B) E antigen
C) c antigen
D) D antigen
E) C antigen
14. Cytogenetic maps are:
A) the sequence of only light bands of interphase chromosomes
B) the sequence of points where the restriction enzymes cut RNA
C) the sequence of points where the restriction enzymes cut DNA
D) stability of theoretical indicators of crossing over between genes
E) the sequence of stripes formed after differential staining of areas of metaphase chromosomes
15. What type of map of chromosome is shown in the figure?
 .
A) physical
B) gene
C) restriction
D) cytogenetic
E) chromosomal
16. In the human genome, 1 Mb is equal to:
A) 1.22 hundred base pairs
B) 1.22 tens of base pairs
C) 1.22 base pairs
D) 1.22 million base pairs
E) 1.22 thousand base pairs
17. Single crossing over occurs:
A) at the end of bivalents
B) at the telomere
C) there is no single crossover
D) in the region of the centromere
E) satellite
18. What is the number of linked groups in female?
A) 46
B) 44
C) 24
D) 2
E) 23
19. When does the facultative heterochromatin of the Y chromosome temporarily
converted into euchromatin?
A) in amitosis
B) in chromosome division
C) in mitosis
D) in formation of a secondary constriction
E) in gene recombination
20. What genotype does the second child have in X-dominant linked inheritance?

.
A) ХаУ
B) ХаХа
C) ХАХА
D) ХАУ
E) ХАХа
21. Specify the euchromatic region of the Y chromosome?
 .
A) 2
B) 5
C) 4
D) 3
E) 1
22. What disease is shown in the picture?

.
A) Morris syndrome
B) Marfan syndrome
C) hypertrichosis
D) Duchenne syndrome
E) Becker syndrome
23. Specify the type of inheritance of Duchenne-Becker syndrome:
A) autosomal recessive type
B) autosomal dominant type
C) Y-linked type
D) X-linked dominant type
E) X-linked recessive type
24. Specify the genotype of the third member of family of the second generation with
autosomal dominant inheritance:

.
A) ХАУ
B) ХАХа
C) АА
D) аа
E) Аа
25. Specify the proband on the pedigree below:

.
A) the first member of the family of the first generation
B) the fourth member of the family of the third generation
C) the second member of the family of the second generation
D) the second member of the family of the first generation
E) the second member of the family of the third generation
26. At what week of pregnancy amniocentesis is performed?
A) 23-24
B) 25-26
C) 36-37
D) 20-21
E) 15-16
27. What process is shown in the figure?

.
A) fetoscopy
B) transcervical amniocentesis
C) biopsy of fetal tissues
D) cordocentesis
E) transabdominal amniocentesis
28. At what staining of chromosome preparations do dark bands correspond to
heterochromatin regions, and light-stained bands correspond to euchromatin regions?
A) T staining
B) NOR staining
C) FISH staining
D) R staining
E) G staining
29. What staining reveals the nucleolus organizer regions of acrocentric chromosomes?
A) T staining
B) G staining
C) R staining
D) FISH staining
E) NOR staining
30. What staining method is shown in the picture?

.
A) G staining
B) NOR staining
C) R staining
D) T staining
E) FISH staining
31. What does the term concordance mean?
A) difference
B) a symptom
C) transplant
D) identification
E) similarity
32. What pattern is shown in the picture?
 .
A) double whorl
B) ulnar loop
C) whorl
D) arch
E) radial loop
33. How many triradii are shown in the figure?

.
A) 4
B) 5
C) 2
D) 1
E) 3
34. Indicate the hypothenar in the figure:
 .
A) 5
B) 4
C) 3
D) 1
E) 2
35. On what day of embryonic development does one of the two X chromosomes become
inactive?
A) on the 10th day
B) on the 11th day
C) on the 12th day
D) on the 15th day
E) on the 16th day
36. How many sex chromatin do normal women have?
A) 3
B) 4
C) 0
D) 1
E) 2
37. Which group includes the three largest pairs of autosomal chromosomes?
A) E group
B) D group
C) C group
D) A group
E) B group
38. Which group includes the smallest pairs of metacentric chromosomes?
A) E group
B) D group
C) G group
D) B group
E) F group
39. Specify the symptoms of the disease, the karyotype of which is shown in the figure:

.
A) patients do not exceed the height of 150 cm
B) mental retardation
C) webbed neck
D) in general, patients are mentally well developed
E) increased concentration of female hormones in the blood
40. Specify the symptoms of the disease, the karyotype of which is shown in the figure:
 .
A) two sex chromatins were revealed
B) webbed neck
C) patients do not exceed the height of 150 cm
D) sex chromatin is not detected
E) concentration of female hormones in blood is high
41. In what organelle does the outer membrane of the nucleus pass?
A) into the centrosome
B) into the ribosome
C) into the lysosome
D) into the Golgi apparatus
E) into the Endoplasmic reticulum
42. Accumulation of microtubules from tubulins occurs only in the presence of:
A) ATP and magnesium ions
B) ATP and calcium ions
C) GTP and magnesium ions
D) NADP and sodium ions
E) GTP and calcium ions
43. What enzyme breaks hydrogen bonds between two strands of DNA?
A) SSBP
B) DNA ligase
C) RNA polymerase
D) DNA polymerase
E) helicase
44. In what phase of interphase do one-chromatid chromosomes turn into two-chromatid
chromosomes?
A) M phase
B) G2 phase
C) Go phase
D) G1 phase
E) S phase
45. What level of compact coiling of chromatin is shown in the figure?

.
A) chromosome
B) chromonema
C) nucleosome
D) chromomere
E) nucleomere
46. Which stage of the cell cycle corresponds to the growth stage of gametogenesis?
A) prophase 2
B) telophase 2
C) meiosis
D) mitosis
E) interphase
47. Which of following is “day-to-day survival” characteristic of living organisms?
A) Development
B) Adaptation
C) Genes
D) Evolution
E) Reproduction
48. What does deletion mean?
A) Attachment of chromosome portion to homologous chromosome
B) Attachment of chromosome portion to a non homologous chromosome
C) Turning of chromosome portion around 1800
D) Repeating of chromosome portion
E) Losing of chromosome portion
49. Which disease is a result of deletion?
A) Edward syndrome
B) Patau syndrome
C) Turner syndrome
D) Down syndrome
E) Cri-du-chat syndrome
50. Which of them is property of chromosome mutation?
A) Substitution one nucleotide for another
B) Changes in the number of chromosomes
C) Removing of one nitrogen base
D) Adding of one nitrogen base
E) Adding or removing of few base pairs of DNA
51. Which of them is not example of genome mutation?
A) Trisomy
B) Nullisomy
C) Monosomy
D) Polyploidy
E) Inversion
52. What is the genotype of Turner syndrome?
A) 44+XX
B) 44+ XXY
C) 44+XYY
D) 44+XXX
E) 44+XO
53. How many sex chromosomes in Klinefelter syndrome?
A) Only 2
B) Only 1
C) 1 or 2
D) 0
E) 3 or 4
54. Symptoms of Huntington disease is:
A) webbed neck
B) lacking of melanin pigment
C) neurofibromas under the skin
D) head and torso develop normally, arms and legs are short
E) uncontrollable movements in all parts of body
55. Determine the type of gene mutation:

.
A) Inversion
B) Substitution
C) Insertion
D) Duplication
E) Deletion
56. What is the codon of the nonsense mutation?
A) UCC
B) UAA
C) GUA
D) AUG
E) GCG
57. Determine type of mutation:
 .
A) Robertson translocation
B) Reciprocal translocation
C) Insertions
D) Transposition
E) Isochromosomal aberrations
58. In which disease blood doesn't clot well?
A) Daltonism
B) Wilson's disease
C) Alkaptonuria
D) Galactosemia
E) Von Willebrand disease
59. Determine type of inheritance of Noonan syndrome:
A) Y-linked
B) X-liked recessive
C) X-linked dominante
D) autosomal-recessive
E) autosomal-dominant
60. Which of them is non hereditary variability?
A) mutation
B) combinative
C) genotypical
D) cytoplasmic
E) ontogenetic
61. Schizophrenia is:
A) Mitochondrial disorders
B) X-linkage disorders
C) Imprinting disorders
D) Autosomal-dominant disorders
E) Multifactorial disorders
62. Which of them is Werner syndrome?

.
A) 1
B) 4
C) 2
D) 5
E) 3
63. Which of the following is X-linked recessive disease of human?
A) Polydactyly
B) Progeria
C) Cystic fibrosis
D) Albinizm
E) Daltonism
64. Symptom of which disease is shown on the figure?
 .
A) Alkaptonuria
B) Galactosemia
C) Achondroplasia
D) Marfan syndrome
E) Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia
65. Which organism has limited regenerative abilities?
A) Mexican salamander
B) Axolotl
C) planarian
D) mammal
E) hydra
66. Which of them is natural focal non-transmissible diseases?
A) plague
B) spring-summer tick-borne encephalitis
C) leishmaniasis
D) trypanosomiasis
E) toxoplasmosis
67. Which disease is shown in the figure?
 .
A) Plague
B) Trypanosomiasis
C) Leishmaniasis
D) Tularemia
E) kala-azar
68. What disease is shown in the figure?

.
A) tularemia
B) mucocutaneous leishmaniasis
C) Trypanosomiasis
D) cutaneous leishmaniasis
E) kala-azar
69. Albinism is caused:
A) by absence of hemosiderin
B) by absence of bilirubin
C) by absence of carotine
D) by absence of lipofuscin
E) by absence of melanin
70. What does xenograft mean?
A) tissue transferred between parents and children
B) tissue transferred between monozygotic twins
C) tissue transferred between genetically non-identical members of the same species individual
D) tissue transferred from one body site to another in the same individual
E) tissue transferred between different species
71. Which types of stem cell are shown in the figure?

.
A) 1 - multipotent, 2 – totipotent, 3 – pluripotent
B) 1 – oligopotent, 2 – unipotent, 3 – multipotent
C) 1 – totipotent, 2 – pluripotent, 3 – multipotent
D) 1 – totipotent, 2 – pluripotent, 3 – oligopotent
E) 1 – unipotetnt, 2 – multipotent, 3 – pluripotent
72. What is an exon?
A) inclusion
B) organelle
C) noncoding region
D) coding region
E) enzymes
73. Phenylketonuria is:
A) sex-linked diseases
B) epigenetic diseases
C) triplet repeat diseases
D) chromosome diseases
E) diseases of amino acid metabolism
74. Which of the following correctly ranks the structure in order of size, from largest to
smallest?
A) gene-chromosome-codon-nucleotide
B) chromosome-nucleotide-gene-codon
C) nucleotid-chromosome-gene-codon
D) gene-chromosome-nucleotide-codon
E) chromosome-gene-codon-nucleotide
75. Which disease is shown in figure?

.
A) Duchenne dystrophy
B) Klinefelter
C) Achondroplasia
D) Turner
E) Progeria
76. Which of them is not a single membrane organelle?
A) peroxisome
B) lysosome
C) Golgi complex
D) endoplasmic reticulum
E) mitochondria
77. Which of them is not part of Golgi apparatus?
A) cisternae
B) ampoule
C) cis face
D) crystae
E) trans face
78. Lysosomes are arises from:
A) ribosome
B) lysosome
C) mitochondria
D) Endoplasmic reticulum
E) Golgi apparatus
79. The eukaryotic ribosome is known as:
A) 35S
B) 70S
C) 65S
D) 80S
E) 50S
80. Where are located enzymes of Krebs cycle?
A) ribosome
B) Golgi apparatus
C) lysosome
D) Endoplasmic reticulum
E) mitochondria
81. Replication of DNA is completed:
A) in the middle of cell division
B) after prophase
C) in G1 of interphase
D) before cell division
E) immediately after cell division
82. What is the feature of mitosis?
A) crossing over occur
B) take place in two division
C) there is synapsis
D) homologous chromosomes do not pair up during prophase
E) take place in sex cell
83. Which of them is secondary spermatocyte?

.
A) 1
B) 5
C) 3
D) 4
E) 2
84. A nucleoside is made up of:
A) 5-carbon sugar and one phosphate group
B) nitrogenous base and one phosphate group
C) nitrogenous base, 5-carbon sugar and one phosphate group
D) nitrogenous base and two phosphate group
E) nitrogenous base and a 5-carbon sugar
85. Healthy parents may have deaf and dumb children (complementary). What is the
possible genotype of parents?
A) DDee x ddEE
B) DDee x DDee
C) ddEe x Ddee
D) Ddee x Ddee
E) DdEe x DdEe
86. Which of them is cholesterol?

.
A) 9
B) 2
C) 8
D) 5
E) 1
87. Which of them is intermediate filament?
 .
A) 5
B) 4
C) 2
D) 1
E) 3
88. Where is the microtubule organizing center located?
A) nucleus
B) Golgi apparatus
C) ribosome
D) Endoplasmic reticulum
E) centrosome
89. What RNA is the predecessor of rRNA?
A) 28SRNA
B) 18SRNA
C) 45SRNA
D) miRNA
E) 5.8SRNA
90. Constitutive heterochromatin is located:
A) on the q arm of the chromosome
B) on the p arm of the chromosome
C) on the long arm of the chromosome
D) in the centromere region of chromosome
E) on the short arm of the chromosome
91. Where does the axoneme of the sperm extend from?
A) from the end of the tail
B) from the middle part
C) distal centriole
D) proximal centriole
E) from the nucleus
92. Which of them is wrong for alternative splicing?
A) selective inclusion of exons of the primary transcript into the mature mRNA
B) several mature mRNA is formed during gene expression based on the same pre-mRNA
C) synthesis of several proteins
D) individual exons of the transcript can be skipped
E) precise sequences of intron provide the synthesis of several proteins
93. What group does the human Y chromosome belong to?
A) E group
B) B group
C) F group
D) D group
E) G group
94. Specify the symptom of the disease, the karyotype of which is shown in the figure,

which does not correspond to this disease: .

A) webbed neck
B) patients do not exceed 150 cm in height
C) sex chromatin is not detected
D) have normal intelligence
E) mental retardation
95. What enzyme joins Okazaki fragments?
A) RNA polymerase
B) DNA ligase
C) DNA polymerase
D) SSBP
E) helicase
96. What does mutation mean?
A) Movement of individuals from one population into another
B) Nonrandom differential reproduction of genotypes
C) Change in the proportions of alleles
D) Mating between relatives
E) Inheritable change of genetic material
97. Which of them is correct for Patau syndrome?
A) 47, XY, (21+)
B) 45, XX, (18- )
C) 47, XX, (18+)
D) 47, XX, (13+)
E) 47, XX, (21+)
98. Symptoms of which disease is shown on figure?

.
A) Hereditary spherocytosis
B) Osteogenesis imperfecta
C) Noonan syndrome
D) Marfan syndrome
E) Huntington's disease
99. In which disease erythrocytes change shape as is shown in figure?

.
A) Hemorrhagic telangiectasia
B) Spherocytosis
C) Sickle cell anemia
D) Hemophilia
E) Phenylketonuria
100. Which of them is imprinting disorder?
A) Warkany syndrome
B) Cri du chat syndrome
C) Wolf–Hirschhorn syndrome
D) Turner syndrome
E) Angelman syndrome
101. Hutchinson-Gilford progeria is result of mutation:
A) helicase protein
B) collagen protein
C) proteins in the lining of the blood vessels
D) fibrillin I protein
E) lamin protein