Ans&Sol Neet 2021 (Code p2)

DATE : 12/09/2021 Test Booklet Code
P2
AHJAGA
Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Ph.: 011-47623456
Time : 3 hrs.
Answers & Solutions Max. Marks : 720
for
NEET (UG) - 2021
Important Instructions :
1. The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 200 multiple choice questions (Four options
with a single correct answer). There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You
have to attempt all 35 questions from Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
(Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section-B before they start
attempting the question paper. In the event of a candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first
ten questions answered by the candidate shall be evaluated.)
2. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For every
wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from the total score. Unanswered / unattempted questions
will be given no marks. The maximum marks are 720.
3. Use Blue / Black Ball point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses.
4. Rough work is to be done in the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
5. On completion of the test, the candidate must handover the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator before leaving
the Room / Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
6. The CODE for this Booklet is P2.
7. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the
Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test
Booklet/Answer Sheet. Use of whiste fluid for correction is NOT permissible on the Answer Sheet.
8. Each candidate must show on demand his/her Admission Card to the Invigilator.
9. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave his/her seat.
10. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
11. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to their conduct
in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of this
examination.
12. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.
13. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet / Answer Sheet in
the Attendance Sheet.
NEET (UG)-2021 (Code-P2)
PHYSICS
Sol. VL = 40 volt
SECTION - A
VR = 40 volt
1. If E and G respectively denote energy and VC = 10 volt
E
gravitational constant, then has the dimensions
Now, VRMS  VR2  VL  VC 
2
G
of
(1) [M2] [L–2] [T–1] (2) [M2] [L–1] [T0]  (40)2  (40  10)2  50 V
(3) [M] [L–1] [T–1] (4) [M] [L0] [T0]
I0 10 2
Answer (2) IRMS    10 A
2 2
Sol. Dimensional formula of energy
[E] = [M1 L2 T–2] ...(I) Θ VRMS  IRMS  Z
Dimensional formula of gravitational constant

VRMS 50
 Z  5
[G] = [M–1 L3 T–2] ...(II) IRMS 10
From (I) & (II)
3. A body is executing simple harmonic motion with
frequency 'n', the frequency of its potential energy is
[E ] [M1 L2 T 2 ]

[G ] [M1 L3 T 2 ] (1) 4n
(2) n
= [M2 L–1 T0]
(3) 2n
E  (4) 3n
Hence, dimensions of    [M2 L–1 T 0 ]
G 
Answer (3)
So, correct option is (2) Sol. Equation of displacement of particle executing
2. An inductor of inductance L, a capacitor of SHM is given by x = Asin(t + ) ...(I)
capacitance C and a resistor of resistance 'R' are
Potential energy of particle executing SHM is given
connected in series to an ac source of potential
by
difference 'V' volts as shown in figure.
Potential difference across L, C and R is 40 V, 10 1 2
U kx
V and 40 V, respectively. The amplitude of current 2
flowing through LCR series circuit is 10 2 A . The
1 2
impedance of the circuit is  kA sin2  t    ...(II)
2
From I and II, it is clear that
Time period of x = Asin(t + ) is
40 V 10 V 40 V
2 
~ T1   frequency n1 
 2
V
(1) 5  (2) 4 2  while time period of x2 = A2sin2(t + ) is
5  
(3)  (4) 4  T2   frequency n2 
2  
Answer (1) Hence n2 = 2n1
2
4. A thick current carrying cable of radius 'R' carries BE per nucleon of product = 8.5 MeV
current 'I' uniformly distributed across its cross-
Total gain in BE = (BE) of products – (BE) of
section. The variation of magnetic field B(r) due to
the cable with the distance 'r' from the axis of the reactants.
cable is represented by
= [120 + 120] × 8.5 – [240] × 7.6
= (240) × 8.5 – 240 × 7.6
B = (2040 – 1824) MeV

B
(1) (2)
Gain in BE = 216 MeV
r r
6. A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform electric field

' E ' in the space between the plates. If the distance
between the plates is 'd' and the area of each plate
B B is 'A', the energy stored in the capacitor is
(3) (4)
r
(0 = permittivity of free space)
r
Answer (4) E 2 Ad 1
(1) (2) 0 E 2
Sol. From Ampere's circuital law 0 2
0I 1
B r if r < R  Binside  r (3) 0EAd (4) 0 E 2 Ad
2R 2 2
Answer (4)
 I 1
B 0 if r  R  Boutside 
2r r
Sol.
Hence the correct plot of magnetic field B with
distance r from axis of cable is given as
B
in e E
tl d
ai gh
r
St
Hyperbola
Plate Area = A
O R r
Energy density associated with electric field is given
5. A nucleus with mass number 240 breaks into two
by
fragments each of mass number 120, the binding
energy per nucleon of unfragmented nuclei is 7.6 dU 1
u  0 E 2
MeV while that of fragments is 8.5 MeV. The total dV 2
gain in the Binding Energy in the process is
1
(1) 216 MeV  dU  0 E 2dV
2
(2) 0.9 MeV Total energy stored in the space between the
(3) 9.4 MeV capacitor will be
(4) 804 MeV 1 2

U   dU   2 0 E dV
Answer (1)
1
Sol. Mass number of reactant = 240  0 E 2  dV [E is constant]
2
BE per nucleon = 7.6 MeV
1 1
Mass number of products = 120   0 E 2V   0 E 2 Ad [V  Ad ]
2 2
3
7. The number of photons per second on an average 150
A  1 100
emitted by the source of monochromatic light of   
wavelength 600 nm, when it delivers the power of A0  2 
3.3 × 10–3 watt will be (h = 6.6 × 10–34 J s) 3
A  1 2
(1) 1015 (2) 1018   
A0  2 
(3) 1017 (4) 1016
A 1
Answer (4)
 
A0 2 2
Sol. The power of a source is given as
10. A capacitor of capacitance 'C', is connected across
E n  hc 
P    an ac source of voltage V, given by
t t  
V = V0sint
n P
  The displacement current between the plates of the
t  hc 
  capacitor, would then be given by
  
(1) Id = V0Csint
n
(Here is number of photons emitted per second) (2) Id = V0Ccost
t
n 3.3  103  6  107 V0
  (3) Id  cos t
t 6.6  1034  3  108 C
= 1016 photons per second V0
(4) Id  sin t
8. Polar molecules are the molecules C
(1) Having a permanent electric dipole moment Answer (2)
(2) Having zero dipole moment Sol. Given V = V0sint (1)
(3) Acquire a dipole moment only in the presence of Now displacement current Id is given by
electric field due to displacement of charges dV
Id  C
(4) Acquire a dipole moment only when magnetic dt
field is absent d
C (V0 sin t ) (using equation 1)
Answer (1) dt
Sol. In polar molecules, the centre of positive charges = C(V0)cost
does not coincide with the centre of negative Id = V0Ccost
charges.
11. A screw gauge gives the following readings when
Hence, these molecules have a permanent electric used to measure the diameter of a wire
dipole moment of their own.
Main scale reading : 0 mm
9. The half-life of a radioactive nuclide is 100 hours. The
Circular scale reading : 52 divisions
fraction of original activity that will remain after 150
hours would be Given that 1 mm on main scale corresponds to 100
divisions on the circular scale. The diameter of the
2 1 wire from the above data is
(1) (2)
3 2 2
(1) 0.052 cm (2) 0.52 cm
1 2
(3) (4) (3) 0.026 cm (4) 0.26 cm
2 2 3
Answer (1)
Answer (3)
Sol. The activity of a radioactive substance is given as Sol. Here, pitch of the screw gauge, P = 1 mm
t Number of circular division, n = 100
 1 T
A  A0   1/2
2 P 1
t
Thus least count LC    0.01 mm
n 100
A  1 T1/2
Now,  
A0  2  = 0.001 cm
4
So, diameter of the wire = MSR + (CSR × LC) Sol. From the application of potentiometer to compare two
cells of emfs E1 and E2 by balancing lengths 1 and
= 0 + (52 × 0.001 cm)
2
= 0.052 cm
E1 1

12. Find the value of the angle of emergence from the E2 2
prism. Refractive index of the glass is 3.  E2   2.5 V 
 2  1  E   (36 cm)  1.5 V 
 1  
= 60 cm
14. A particle is released from height S from the surface
of the Earth. At a certain height its kinetic energy is
three times its potential energy. The height from the
60° surface of earth and the speed of the particle at that
instant are respectively
(1) 90° (2) 60°
S 3gS S 3gS
(3) 30° (4) 45° (1) , (2) ,
4 2 4 2
Answer (2)
S 3gS S 3gS
Sol. From the ray diagram shown in the figure. (3) , (4) ,
4 2 2 2
At point P, from Snell's law Answer (1)
n t Sol. Let required height of body is y.
i de
In c a y
r When body from rest falls through height (S – y)
30°
Then under constant acceleration
P 30°
e
v S
y
y nt
ra rge
60° EARTH
e
m
E
sin i  v2 = 02 + 2g(S – y)
 air
sin r Prism
v  2g (S  y ) ...(1)
sin30 1
  (r = e emergent angle) When body is at height y above ground. Potential
sin e 3
energy of body of mass m
1
 sin e  3  U = mgy
2
As per given condition kinetic energy, K = 3U
 e = 60°
13. In a potentiometer circuit a cell of EMF 1.5 V gives 1
m(v )2  3  mg ( y )
balance point at 36 cm length of wire. If another cell 2
of EMF 2.5 V replaces the first cell, then at what
1
length of the wire, the balance point occurs?  m  2g (S  y )  3  mgy (using (1))
2
(1) 62 cm S – y = 3y
(2) 60 cm S
 y ...(2)
(3) 21.6 cm 4
(4) 64 cm
 S 3gS
 v  2  g S    ...(3)
Answer (2)  4 2
5
15. The effective resistance of a parallel connection that Now, losses are 10%
consists of four wires of equal length, equal area of
 10 
cross-section and same material is 0.25 . What  power generated =  1    9000
 100 
will be the effective resistance if they are connected
in series? = 8100 W
(1) 4  (2) 0.25  = 8.1 kW
(3) 0.5  (4) 1  17. An infinitely long straight conductor carries a current
of 5 A as shown. An electron is moving with a speed
Answer (1)
of 10 5 m/s parallel to the conductor. The
Sol. All the wires are identical and of same material so perpendicular distance between the electron and the
they will have same value of resistance. Let it be R. conductor is 20 cm at an instant. Calculate the
When these are (four) connected in parallel. magnitude of the force experienced by the electron
at that instant.
R
5
Electron v = 10 m/s
R
A B
R
20 cm
R
R  1 1 1 1 1 
RP  R  R  R  R  R  P Q
4 5A
 P 1 2 3 4 
Given RP = 0.25  (1) 8 × 10–20 N
R (2) 4 × 10–20 N
 0.25 
4 (3) 8 × 10–20 N
 R=1 (4) 4 × 10–20 N
Now these four resistances are arranged in series Answer (1)
R R R R Sol. Magnetic field produced due to current carrying wire
A B at point 'A'
RS = R + R + R + R = 4R e 5
A v = 10 m/s
 RS = 4 × 1 = 4 
16. Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate of 15 r = 20 cm
kg/s to operate a turbine. The losses due to
frictional force are 10% of the input energy. How
much power is generated by the turbine? P 5A Q
0 2I
(g = 10 m/s2) B
4 r
(1) 7.0 kW (2) 10.2 kW
10 7  2  5 1
(3) 8.1 kW (4) 12.3 kW B 2
  10 5 (Tesla), upward to the
20  10 2
Answer (3) plane of paper
d  mgh  Now, force acting on electron due to this field

Sol. Incident power on turbine =
dt F  q v  B 
dm 1
 gh F  1.6  1019  105   105
dt 2
= 0.8 × 10–19 N
= 10 × 60 × 15

= 9000 W F  8  10 20 N
6
18. Consider the following statements (A) and (B) and 20. The electron concentration in an n-type
identify the correct answer. semiconductor is the same as hole concentration in
a p-type semiconductor. An external field (electric) is
(A) A zener diode is connected in reverse bias, when applied across each of them. Compare the currents
used as a voltage regulator. in them.
(B) The potential barrier of p-n junction lies between (1) No current will flow in p-type, current will only
flow in n-type
0.1 V to 0.3 V.
(2) Current in n-type = current in p-type
(1) (A) is incorrect but (B) is correct.
(3) Current in p-type > current in n-type
(2) (A) and (B) both are correct.
(4) Current in n-type > current in p-type.
(3) (A) and (B) both are incorrect Answer (4)
(4) (A) is correct and (B) is incorrect. Sol. The current through a semiconductor is
Answer (4) I = neAvd
Sol. • In reverse biased, after breakdown, voltage across I = neAE

the zener diode becomes constant. Therefore
In ne eAe E
zener diode is connected in reverse biased when 
Ip nheA h E
used as voltage regulator.
• Potential barrier of silicon diode is nearly 0.7 V In e

statement A is correct and statement B is 
Ip h
incorrect.
19. A spring is stretched by 5 cm by a force 10 N. The ∵ e   h

time period of the oscillations when a mass of 2 kg
 In > Ip
is suspended by it is
21. A dipole is placed in an electric field as shown. In
(1) 0.628 s which direction will it move?
(2) 0.0628 s
(3) 6.28 s
(4) 3.14 s
Answer (1) E
+q –q
Sol. For a spring, kx = F
given x = 5 cm, F = 10 N
 k(5 × 10–2) = 10
(1) Towards the right as its potential energy will
1000 increase.
k   200 N/m
5 (2) Towards the left as its potential energy will
increase.
Now, for spring-mass system undergoing SHM
(3) Towards the right as its potential energy will
decrease.
m
T  2 (4) Towards the left as its potential energy will
k
decrease.
given, m = 2 kg Answer (3)
Sol. Potential energy of electric dipole in external electric
2 2
 T  2   0.628 s field U  P  E
200 10
7
Sol. Escape velocity from the Earth's surface
2GM
ve 
R
P
E 4
+q –q 2G R 3
 3
R
8G 2
 R
3
Angle between electric field and electric dipole is
180° ve  R (For same density)
U = –PEcos
v R
U = –PEcos180° 
v1 4R
U = +PE
On moving towards right electric field strength v1 = 4v
decrease therefore potential energy decrease. 24. An electromagnetic wave of wavelength '' is incident
Net force on electric dipole is towards right and net on a photosensitive surface of negligible work
torque acting on it is zero. function. If 'm' mass is of photoelectron emitted from
So, it will more towards right. the surface has de-Broglie wavelength d , then
22. A convex lens 'A' of focal length 20 cm and a  2h  2  2m  2

concave lens 'B' of focal length 5 cm are kept along (1)     d (2)     d
 mc   hc 
the same axis with a distance 'd' between them. If
a parallel beam of light falling on 'A' leaves 'B' as a
parallel beam, then the distance 'd' in cm will be  2mc  2  2mc  2
(3) d    (4)     d
(1) 30 (2) 25  h   h 
(3) 15 (4) 50 Answer (4)

Answer (3) Sol. As per Einstein's photoelectric equation
hc
 0  k

Sol.
0: work function
A d B fB k = maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons
fA As per question,   0
Parallel beam of light after refraction from convex lens
converge at the focus of convex lens. In question it hc P2 2mhc
is given light after refraction pass through concave  k  P 
 2m 
lens becomes parallel. Therefore light refracted from
convex lens virtually meet at focus of concave lens. Now De-broglie wavelength,
According to above ray diagram d = fA – fB
h h
= 20 – 5 = 15 cm d  
P 2mhc 
23. The escape velocity from the Earth's surface is v.
The escape velocity from the surface of another
planet having a radius, four times that of Earth and 2 mc
   d
same mass density is h
(1) 4v (2) v
 2mc  2
(3) 2v (4) 3v   d
 h 
Answer (1)
8
25. A lens of large focal length and large aperture is best 1R1 2R2
 
suited as an objective of an astronomical telescope 0 0
since
1 R2
(1) A large aperture contributes to the quality and  
2 R1
visibility of the images.
27. For a plane electromagnetic wave propagating in
(2) A large area of the objective ensures better light
x-direction, which one of the following combination
gathering power.
gives the correct possible directions for electric field
(3) A large aperture provides a better resolution. (E) and magnetic field (B) respectively?
(4) All of the above
(1)  j  k,  j  k (2) j  k, j  k
Answer (4)
Sol. With larger aperture of objective lens, the light (3)  j  k ,  j  k (4) j  k,  j  k
gathering power in telescope is high.
Answer (3)
Also, the resolving power or the ability to observe two
objects distinctly also depends on the diameter of Sol. Direction of propagation of electromagnetic waves
the objective. Thus objective of large diameter is
is along E  B
preferred.
Given that direction of propagation is along x-axis
Also, with large diameters fainter objects can be
  j  k     j  k   0
observed. Hence it also contributes to the better
quality and visibility of images. (1)
Hence, all options are correct.

26. Two charged spherical conductors of radius R1 and (2)  j  k    j  k   0
R2 are connected by a wire. Then the ratio of surface
charge densities of the spheres (1/2) is
(3)   j  k     j  k   2i
R12 R1
 j  k     j  k   0
(1) (2) R
R22 2 (4)
R2  R1 
(3) R (4) R   Option (3) is correct.
1  2
28. A cup of coffee cools from 90°C to 80°C in t minutes,
Answer (3) when the room temperature is 20°C. The time taken
by a similar cup of coffee to cool from 80°C to 60°C
Conducting at a room temperature same at 20°C is
wire
Sol. 5 13
R1 R2 (1) t (2) t
13 10
When two conductors are connected by a conducting 13 10

(3) t (4) t
wire, then the two conductors should have same 5 13
potential. Answer (3)
so, V1 = V2 Sol. From Average form of Newton's law of cooling
1 Q1 1 Q2  T  T2  T  T2
   1  Ts  K  1
40 R1 40 R2  2  t
1 Q1 R1 1 Q2 R2 T1 and T2 are initial and final temperature and Ts is
    surrounding temperature.
40 R1 R1 40 R2 R2
Q1R1 Q2 R2   90  80   90  80
   K   20  
4R12 0 4R22 0  2  t
9
10 30. If force [F], acceleration [A] and time [T] are chosen
 K  65  
t as the fundamental physical quantities. Find the
dimensions of energy.
2
 K  (1) [F][A–1][T]
13 t
In second case, (2) [F][A][T]
 80  60   80  60  (3) [F][A][T2]
K   20  
 2  t1 (4) [F][A][T–1]
20 Answer (3)
 K  50  
t1 Sol. Energy, EFaAbTc
2 20 [E] = [Fa][Ab][Tc]
  50  
13t t1  [ML2T–2] = [MLT–2]a [LT–2]b [T]c
13t [ML2T–2] = [MaLa + b T–2a – 2b + c]
 t1 
5
Comparing dimensions on both sides.
29. The equivalent capacitance of the combination shown
 a = 1; a + b = 2 and –2 = – 2a – 2b + c
in the figure is
C
b=1  –2 = – 2 – 2 + c
c=2
C
[E] = [FAT2]
C 31. A small block slides down on a smooth inclined
3C plane, starting from rest at time t = 0. Let Sn be the
(1) distance travelled by the block in the interval
2
(2) 3C Sn
t = n – 1 to t = n. Then, the ratio is
(3) 2C Sn 1
C 2n
(4) (1)
2 2n  1
Answer (3) 2n  1
(2)
Sol. Given circuit is 2n
C 2n  1
1 (3)
2n  1
C 2n  1
A 2 B (4)
2n  1
C 3
Answer (3)
Points 1, 2, 3 are at same potential (as they are
connected by conducting wire) Sol. Suppose  is inclination of inclined plane
acceleration along inclined plane a = gsin
So the capacitor is short circuited. It does not store
any charge. Sn = distance travelled by object during nth second.
The circuit can be redrawn as Initial speed u = 0
C By equation of uniformly accelerated motion
a
A 1, 2, 3 B Sn  u  (2n  1)
2
C
g sin  g sin 
CAB = C + C = 2C (Parallel combination) Sn  0  (2n  1)  (2n  1) ...(i)
2 2
10
Distance travelled during (n + 1)th second. Column-I Column-II
g sin  g sin  m
Sn 1  0  [2(n  1)  1]  (2n  1) ...(ii) (A) Drift Velocity (P)
ne 2 
2 2
(B) Electrical Resistivity (Q) nevd
Dividing equations (i) and (ii)
Sn (2n  1) eE
 (C) Relaxation Period (R) 
Sn 1 (2n  1) m
32. The velocity of a small ball of mass M and density
d, when dropped in a container filled with glycerine E
(D) Current Density (S)
becomes constant after some time. If the density of J
d (1) (A) - (R), (B) - (Q), (C) - (S), (D) - (P)

glycerine is , then the viscous force acting on the
2
(2) (A) - (R), (B) - (S), (C) - (P), (D) - (Q)
ball will be
(3) (A) - (R), (B) - (S), (C) - (Q), (D) - (P)
(1) 2Mg
(4) (A) - (R), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (Q)
Mg
(2) Answer (2)
2
eE 
(3) Mg Sol. Drift velocity, v d 
m
3 1 E
(4) Mg Electrical resistivity,   
2  J
Answer (2) m
Relaxation period,  
Sol. Let Fv be the viscous force and FB be the Bouyant ne 2
force acting on the ball. I
Current density, J   nev d
A
Fv FB
(A) - (R), (B) - (S), (C) - (P), (D) - (Q)
v = constant A
34. A radioactive nucleus ZX undergoes spontaneous
decay in the sequence
Mg A
X Z 1 B Z 3 C Z 2 D , where Z is the atomic
Z
Then, when body moves with constant velocity number of element X. The possible decay particles
in the sequence are
Mg = FB + Fv [a = 0]
(1) –, , +
Fv = Mg – FB
(2) , –, +
d
 dVg   Vg (M = dVg) V = volume of ball. (3) , +, –
2
d (4) +, , –
 Vg
2 Answer (4)
M Sol. On + decay atomic number decreases by 1
Fv  g
2
On –1 decay atomic number increases by 1
33. Column-I gives certain physical terms associated
On  decay atomic number decreases by 2
with flow of current through a metallic conductor.
 
A  decay  decay  decay
Column-II gives some mathematical relations Z X   Z 1 B   Z 3 C   D
Z 2
involving electrical quantities. Match Column-I and
Column-II with appropriate relations. Hence correct order of decay are +, , –
11
35. Match Column - I and Column - II and choose the SECTION - B

correct match from the given choices.
Column - I Column - II 36. In the product

(A) Root mean square
1
(P) nmv
2 F  q v B 
3

speed of gas 
 qv  Biˆ  Bjˆ  B0 kˆ 
molecules
For q  1 and v  2iˆ  4 ˆj  6kˆ and
3 RT
(B) Pressure exerted (Q)
M F  4iˆ – 20 jˆ  12kˆ
by ideal gas
What will be the complete expression for B ?
5
(C) Average kinetic (R) RT (1) 6iˆ  6 ˆj  8kˆ
2
energy of a (2) –8iˆ – 8 jˆ  6kˆ
molecule
(3) –6iˆ – 6 jˆ  8kˆ
3
(D) Total internal (S) kBT
2 (4) 8iˆ  8 ˆj  6kˆ
energy of 1 mole Answer (3)
of a diatomic gas
Sol. F  q(v  B )
(1) (A) - (R), (B) - (Q), (C) - (P), (D) - (S)

(2) (A) - (R), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (Q) 
 qv  Biˆ  Bjˆ  B0 kˆ 

(3) (A) - (Q), (B) - (R), (C) - (S), (D) - (P) Given, q  1 v  2iˆ  4 jˆ  6kˆ and

(4) (A) - (Q), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (R) F  4iˆ – 20 ˆj  12kˆ
Answer (4)       
 4iˆ – 20 jˆ  12kˆ  1  2iˆ  4 jˆ  6kˆ  Biˆ  Bjˆ  B0 kˆ 

Sol. Root mean square speed of gas molecule
Thus, calculating values of RHS,
3 RT
 iˆ jˆ kˆ
M
2 4 6
1 B B B0
Pressure exerted by ideal gas  nmv 2
3
3  i (4B0  6B ) – j (2B 0 – 6B )  kˆ(2B – 4B )

Average kinetic energy of a molecule  kBT
2
Comparing L.H.S and R.H.S,
1
Total internal energy of a gas is (U )  nfRT 4B0 – 6B = 4  2B0 –3B = 2 ...(1)
2
–(2B0 – 6B)= –20 B0 – 3B = 10 ...(2)
Here, n = 1
2B – 4B = 12 B = –6 ...(3)
f=5
From (2) and (3)
5
U  RT B = –6 and B0 = –8
2

Hence, (A) - (Q), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (R) Hence, B  –6iˆ  6 jˆ  8kˆ
12
37. From a circular ring of mass 'M' and radius 'R' an arc i2 r2
corresponding to a 90° sector is removed. The r1
moment of inertia of the remaining part of the ring Sol.
i1
about an axis passing through the centre of the ring
i3 r3
and perpendicular to the plane of the ring is 'K' times
In parallel combination of resistances r2 and r3,
'MR2'. Then the value of 'K' is
potential difference will be equal across both
1 3 resistance.
(1) (2)
8 4 i3 r3
So, i 2 r2  i3 r3  i 2  ...(1)
r2
7 1
(3) (4) As per Kirchhoff's first law
8 4
 i1 = i2 + i3
Answer (2)
Sol. Given that, r 
 i1   3  1 i3 (from equation 1)
r 
Mass of Ring = M; Radius of Ring = R  2 
Now 90° arc is removed from circular ring, then i3 r2
 
M i1 r2  r3
mass removed =
4 39. A ball of mass 0.15 kg is dropped from a height 10 m,
strikes the ground and rebounds to the same height.
The magnitude of impulse imparted to the ball is (g
O O
 = 10 m/s2) nearly
90°
(1) 1.4 kg m/s (2) 0 kg m/s
3M (3) 4.2 kg m/s (4) 2.1 kg m/s

Mass of remaining portion =
4 Answer (3)
2
Moment of inertia of remaining part   dmr Sol. Given that :
Mass of ball = 0.15 kg
2
 I  R  dm (∵ r  R )
Height from which ball is dropped = 10 m

3MR 2 3
Impulse, I = Change in linear momentum = P
 I . So the value of K is
4 4
38. Three resistors having resistances r1, r2 and r3 are  Pf  Pi
connected as shown in the given circuit. The ratio
Velocity of ball at ground v   2gh
i3
 2  10  10  10 2 m/s
i1 of currents in terms of resistances used in the

circuit is  
I  0.15  10 2  ˆj  0.15  10 2 ˆj 
i 2 r2
r1
 
I  2  0.15  10 2  ˆj  4.2  ˆj  
A i1 B  magnitude of impulse = 4.2 kg m/s
i3 r3 40. A step down transformer connected to an ac mains

supply of 220 V is made to operate at 11 V, 44 W
r2 r1
(1) r  r (2) r  r lamp. Ignoring power losses in the transformer, what
1 3 2 3 is the current in the primary circuit?
r2 r1 (1) 4 A (2) 0.2 A
(3) r  r (4) r  r
2 3 1 2 (3) 0.4 A (4) 2 A
Answer (3) Answer (2)
13
Sol. In ideal transformer: Sol. given v = kVe

Input power = Output power where, k < 1
 VPIP = VSIS = Given power Thus, v < Ve
 220 × IP = 44 From conservation of mechanical energy,
 IP = 0.2 A
1 GmM GmM
mv 2 – 
41. A uniform conducting wire of length 12a and 2 R (R  h )
resistance 'R' is wound up as a current carrying coil
v 2 GM (GM ) h
in the shape of,     GM
2 R (R  h ) R (R  h )
(i) an equilateral triangle of side 'a'.
1 2 2 GMh
(ii) a square of side 'a'.  k Ve 
2 R (R  h )
The magnetic dipole moments of the coil in each
case respectively are 2GM
We know, Ve 
(1) 4 Ia2 and 3 Ia2 R
(2) 3 Ia2 and 3 Ia2 1 2  2GM  GMh

 k   
2  R  R (R  h )
(3) 3 Ia2 and Ia2
(4) 3 Ia2 and 4 Ia2 h
k2 
(R  h )
Answer (2)
Rk2 + hk2 = h
V
Sol. Current in the loop will be  I which is same for Rk2 = h(1 – k2)
R
both loops. Rk 2
 h
Now magnetic moment of Triangle loop = NIA (1  k 2 )
43. A series LCR circuit containing 5.0 H inductor, 80

 12a  3 2
M1    I  a = 3Ia 2 F capacitor and 40  resistor is connected to 230
 3a  4
V variable frequency ac source. The angular
and magnetic moment of square loop = NIA frequencies of the source at which power transferred
to the circuit is half the power at the resonant
 12a  2 angular frequency are likely to be
  I a
 4a  (1) 42 rad/s and 58 rad/s
(2) 25 rad/s and 75 rad/s
M2  3Ia2
(3) 50 rad/s and 25 rad/s
42. A particle of mass 'm' is projected with a velocity
v = kVe (k < 1) from the surface of the earth. (4) 46 rad/s and 54 rad/s
(Ve = escape velocity) Answer (4)

The maximum height above the surface reached by Sol. The resonance frequency of LCR series circuit is
the particle is
1 1
2 given as 0   = 50 rad/s
Rk 2
LC 5  80  10 –6
(1) (2) R  k 
1 k 2  1 k 
 
2
Now half power frequencies are given as
 k  R 2k
(3) R   (4)
 1 k  1 k R
  0 
Answer (1) 2L
14
40 R22 R1
i.e. L  50   46 rad/s (1) (2) R
25 R1 2
40 R2 R12
H  50   54 rad/s
25 (3) R (4)
R2
1
44. A particle moving in a circle of radius R with a

Answer (1)
uniform speed takes a time T to complete one
Sol. Two concentric coils are of radius R1 and R2 as
revolution. If this particle were projected with the
shown
same speed at an angle '' to the horizontal, the
maximum height attained by it equals 4R. The angle
of projection, , is then given by :
R1
1 1
 2gT 2
 2  gT 2
 2 O
(1)   sin1  2  (2)   cos1  2  R2
  R   R
i
1 1
2 2
1   R  2 1   R  2
(3)   cos  2  (4)   sin  2  Let current in outer loop be i
 gT   gT 
Answer (1) 0 i
Magnetic field at centre  B 
2R1
Sol. To complete a circular path of radius R, time period
is T.
Magnetic flux through inner coil  B  R22
2R
so speed of particle (U) = ......(1) 0 i
T   R22
2R1
Now the particle is projected with same speed at
angle to horizontal. 0 i R22
 
2 R1
U 2 sin2 
So Maximum Height  H   as per definition,  = Mi
2g
2
Given that : H = 4R  R
 M  0  2
 2  R1
U 2 sin2 
  4R R22
2g M
R1
8gR 46. Twenty seven drops of same size are charged at

 sin2   ...(2)
U2 200 V each. They combine to form a bigger drop.
Calculate the potential of the bigger drop.
8gRT 2 2gT 2 (1) 1980 V (2) 660 V

 sin2    2 (using equation 1)
4 2 R 2 R (3) 1320 V (4) 1520 V
Answer (1)
1
2gT 2  kQ
1 
2
   sin  2  Sol. Electric potential due to a charged sphere 
R
  R 
k = 9 × 109 N–m2/C2
45. Two conducting circular loops of radii R1 and R2 are Q : charge on sphere
placed in the same plane with their centres R : Radius of sphere
coinciding. If R1 > > R2, the mutual inductance M Let charge and radius of smaller drop is q and r
between them will be directly proportional to respectively
15
kq
For smaller drop, V   220 V   r  F  rF sin   nˆ 
r
Let R be radius of bigger drop,
As volume remains the same

1  20  20  102  sin90º kˆ  4 N m kˆ
4 3 4 3 Torque due to mass of rod :
 3 r   27  3 R
 
   
2  5  60  102  sin90º –kˆ  3 N m kˆ
 R  3 27 r  3r
Now, using charge conservation, Torque due to mass m
 Q = 27q
 
3  mg  120  102  sin90º – kˆ  12m N m – kˆ 
kQ k (27q )  kq 
Vbig drop    9  Net torque about point O will be zero
R 3r  r 
= 9 × 220 = 1980 V
So 1  2  3  0
47. A uniform rod of length 200 cm and mass 500 g is
balanced on a wedge placed at 40 cm mark. A mass 4 – 3 – 12m = 0
of 2 kg is suspended from the rod at 20 cm and 12m = 1
another unknown mass 'm' is suspended from the
1
rod at 160 cm mark as shown in the figure. Find the m kg
value of 'm' such that the rod is in equilibrium. (g = 12
10 m/s2) 48. A point object is placed at a distance of 60 cm from
a convex lens of focal length 30 cm. If a plane mirror
0 20 cm 40 cm 160 cm were put perpendicular to the principal axis of the
lens and at a distance of 40 cm from it, the final
image would be formed at a distance of
2 kg m
1 1
(1) kg (2) kg
12 2
1 1 60 cm 40 cm
(3) kg (4) kg
3 6
(1) 20 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a virtual
Answer (1) image
Sol. Given that (2) 20 cm from the lens, it would be a real image
(3) 30 cm from the lens, it would be a real image
Mass of rod = 500 g; Length of rod = 200 cm
(4) 30 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a virtual
0 20 40 100 160 cm image
Answer (1)
Sol. Using lens formula for first refraction from convex
CM lens
O
1 1 1
2 kg m  
v1 u f
Rod will be in equilibrium, when net torque about v1 = ?, u = –60 cm, f = 30 cm

point O will be zero. 1 1 1
    v1  60 cm
Torque at point O due to 2 kg mass v1 60 30
16
40 cm 20 cm 50. For the given circuit, the input digital signals are
applied at the terminals A, B and C. What would be
the output at the terminal y?
I1
t1 t2 t3 t4 t5 t6
5
60 cm 60 cm A
0
I1 here is first image by lens
The plane mirror will produce an image at distance 5
20 cm to left of it. B
0
For second refraction from convex lens,
u = –20 cm, v = ? , f = 30 cm
5
1 1 1 1 1 1 C
     0
v u f v 20 30
1 1 1 A
  –  v  60 cm
v 30 20
Thus the final image is virtual and at a distance,
60 – 40 = 20 cm from plane mirror.
B
49. A car starts from rest and accelerates at 5 m/s2. At y
t = 4 s, a ball is dropped out of a window by a
person sitting in the car. What is the velocity and
acceleration of the ball at t = 6 s? C
(Take g = 10 m/s2)
t1 t2 t3 t4 t5 t6
(1) 20 2 m/s, 10 m/s2 y
(1)
(2) 20 m/s, 5 m/s2 0V
(3) 20 m/s, 0 5V
(2)
0V
(4) 20 2 m/s, 0
(3) 5V
Answer (1)
5V
Sol. Initial velocity of car = 0 (4)
0V
Acceleration of car = 5 m/s2 Answer (3)
Velocity of car at t = 4 s; v = u + at Sol. Output of combination of logic gates is given as
 v = 0 + 5 × 4 = 20 ms–1
y  A  B  B C
At t = 4 s, A ball is dropped out of a window so
velocity of ball at this instant is 20 ms –1 along Input Output
horizontal. Signals Signal
Time A B C AB B. C y = A . B + B .C
After 2 seconds of motion : duration
Horizontal velocity of ball = 20 ms–1 (∵ ax = 0) 0 - t1 0 0 1 0 1 1
Vertical velocity of ball (vy) = uy + ayt t1 - t2 1 0 1 0 1 1
vy = 0 + 10 × 2 = 20 ms–1 (∵ ay = g = 10 m/s2) t2 - t3 0 1 0 0 1 1
So magnitude of velocity of ball t3 - t4 1 1 0 1 1 1

t4 - t5 0 0 1 0 1 1
(v) = v x2  v y2  20 2 m/s
t5 - t6 1 0 1 0 1 1
Acceleration of ball at t = 6 s is g = 10 m/s2 t6 - t7 0 0 1 0 1 1
As ball is under free fall. So the output y is high (1) that is v0 = 5 V
17
CHEMISTRY
In the light of the above statements, choose the

SECTION - A
correct answer from the options given below.
51. The incorrect statement among the following is :
(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
(1) Actinoids are highly reactive metals, especially
(2) Both statement I and Statement II are true
when finely divided.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(2) Actinoid contraction is greater for element to
element than lanthanoid contraction (4) Statement I is correct but statement II is false
(3) Most of the trivalent Lanthanoid ions are Answer (2)
colorless in the solid state Sol. In the modern periodic table, moving down the group
(4) Lanthanoids are good conductors of heat and as the size of halogen atom increases, the H – X
electricity bond length also increases as a result the bond
enthalpy decreases. Hence, The acidic strength also
Answer (3) increases.
Sol. Actinoids are highly reactive metals, especially So, the correct order of acidic strength is
when finely divided
HI > HBr > HCl > HF
Actinoid contraction is greater from element to
element than lanthanoid contraction resulting 54. Which one among the following is the correct option
from poor shielding by 5f electrons for right relationship between CP and CV for one mole
of ideal gas?
Many trivalent lanthanoids ions are coloured both
in the solid state and in aqueous solutions. (1) CV = RCP
Lanthanoids have typical metallic structure and (2) CP + CV = R

are good conductors of heat and electricity (3) CP – CV = R
52. Given below are two statements : (4) CP = RCV
Statement I : Answer (3)
Aspirin and Paracetamol belong to the class of Sol. At constant volume, qV = CVΔT = ΔU
narcotic analgesics. At constant pressure, qP = CPΔT = ΔH
Statement II : For a mole of an ideal gas,
Morphine and Heroin are non-narcotic analgesics. In ΔH = ΔU + Δ(PV)
the light of the above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below. = ΔU + Δ(RT)
(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is = ΔU + RΔT

true. On putting the values of ΔH and ΔU, we have
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true CPΔT = CVΔT + RΔT
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false CP = CV + R
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false CP – CV = R
Answer (3) 55. The correct option for the number of body centred
unit cells in all 14 types of Bravais lattice unit cells
Sol. Aspirin and paracetamol belong to the class of
is :
non-narcotic analgesics
(1) 3 (2) 7
Morphine and Heroin are Narcotic analgesics
(3) 5 (4) 2
∴ Both statement I and statement II are false
Answer (1)
53. Statement I : Acid strength increases in the order
given as HF << HCl << HBr << HI. Sol. In 14 types of Bravais lattices, body centred
unit cell is present in cubic, tetragonal and
Statement II : As the size of the elements F, Cl, Br, orthorhombic crystal systems.
I increases down the group, the bond strength of HF,
HCl, HBr and HI decreases and so the acid strength Hence, body centred possible variation is present
increases. in three crystal systems.
18
56. Among the following alkaline earth metal halides, one Number of electrons around boron atom is 6.
which is covalent and soluble in organic solvents
Hybridization of B is sp2.
is :
Shape is trigonal planar.
(1) Beryllium chloride
60. The major product of the following chemical reaction
(2) Calcium chloride is :
(3) Strontium chloride
CH3 (C 6 H 5CO) 2O2
(4) Magnesium chloride CH CH CH2 + HBr ?
CH3
Answer (1)
CH3
Sol. Except for beryllium chloride all other chloride of (1) CBr CH2 – CH3
alkaline earth metals are ionic in nature. CH3
Due to small size of Be, Beryllium chloride is CH3

essentially covalent and soluble in organic (2) CH CH2 CH2 Br
solvents. CH3
57. Tritium, a radioactive isotope of hydrogen, emits

which of the following particles? (3)
(1) Neutron (n)
CH 3
(2) Beta (β–) CH 3
(4) CH CH CH
3
(3) Alpha (α) Br
(4) Gamma (γ) Answer (2)
Answer (2)
CH 3
1 Sol. CH CH CH 2 + HBr
Sol. Hydrogen has three isotopes : protium, 1H CH 3 (C 6H 5 CO)2O 2
2 3
deuterium, 1H
or D and tritium 1H
or T . Of these
CH 3
isotopes, only tritium is radioactive and emits low
CH CH2 – CH2 Br
energy β– particles (t1/2, 12.33 years). CH 3
58. The maximum temperature that can be achieved in
Mechanism : Peroxide effect proceeds via free
blast furnace is :
radical chain mechanism.
(1) Upto 5000 K
O O O
Homolysis
(2) Upto 1200 K C O O C C 6H5
•
(i) C6H 5 2C 6H 5 C O
••
••
(3) Upto 2200 K •
(4) Upto 1900 K 2C 6H 5 + CO 2

Answer (3) (ii) C6H5 + H Br Homolysis
•
C6H6 + Br
Sol. Maximum temperature that can be achieved in blast CH 3
furnace is upto 2200 K.
•
(iii) CH CH CH 2 + Br
CH 3
(As per NCERT text: 2170 K maximum temperature
is given in the figure of blast furnace)
CH 3
•
59. BF3 is planar and electron deficient compound. CH CH CH 2 Br

Hybridization and number of electrons around the CH 3
More Stable secondary
central atom, respectively are : free radical
(1) sp2 and 8 (2) sp3 and 4 CH3
•
(3) sp3 and 6 (4) sp2 and 6 (iv) CH CH CH2 Br + H Br

CH3 Homolysis
Answer (4)
CH3
Sol. F CH CH2 CH2 Br
CH3
B
F F Major product
19
61. The molar conductance of NaCl, HCl and CH3COONa 64. The right option for the statement "Tyndall effect is
at infinite dilution are 126.45, 426.16 and exhibited by", is :
91.0 S cm 2 mol –1 respectively. The molar
(1) Urea solution
conductance of CH3COOH at infinite dilution is.
Choose the right option for your answer. (2) NaCl solution
(1) 540.48 S cm2 mol–1 (3) Glucose solution
(2) 201.28 S cm2 mol–1 (4) Starch solution
(3) 390.71 S cm2 mol–1 Answer (4)
(4) 698.28 S cm2 mol–1 Sol. Tyndall effect is exhibited by colloidal solution
only.
Answer (3)
Among the given options, Urea, NaCl and
Sol. According to Kohlrausch law of independent
Glucose solutions are true solutions, so cannot
migration of ions. show Tyndall effect.
o
Λm (CH3COOH) Starch solution is a colloidal solution therefore
o o o can show Tyndall effect.
= Λm (CH3COONa) + Λm (HCl) − Λm (NaCl)
65. The compound which shows metamerism is :
= 91.0 S cm2 mol–1 + 426.16 S cm2 mol–1
(1) C4H10O
– 126.45 S cm2 mol–1
(2) C5H12
= 390.71 S cm2 mol–1
(3) C3H8O
62. A particular station of All India Radio, New Delhi
broadcasts on a frequency of 1,368 kHz (kilohertz). (4) C3H6O
The wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation Answer (1)
emitted by the transmitter is : [speed of light
c = 3.0 × 108 ms–1] Sol. Compounds with formula C4H10O can be ethers
which may exhibit metamerism. For example
(1) 21.92 cm (2) 219.3 m
CH3 – CH 2 O CH2 CH3 , CH 3 O CH CH3
(3) 219.2 m (4) 2192 m
CH 3
Answer (2)
Sol. Energy of electromagnetic radiation (E) and CH3—O—CH2—CH2—CH3 are metamers as
structure of alkyl chains are different around the
hc functional group.
= = hγ
λ
66. Match List-I with List-II.
c c List-I List-II
So, =γ ⇒ λ=
λ γ (a) PCl5 (i) Square pyramidal
3 × 108 (b) SF6 (ii) Trigonal planar
λ= 3
= 219.3 m
1368 × 10 (c) BrF5 (iii) Octahedral
63. Which of the following reactions is the metal (d) BF3 (iv) Trigonal bipyramidal
displacement reaction? Choose the right option. Choose the correct answer from the options given
(1) 2Pb(NO3)2 → 2PbO + 4NO2 + O2↑ below.
Δ
(2) 2KClO3 ⎯⎯ → 2KCl + 3O2 (1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
Δ (2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(3) Cr2O3 + 2Al ⎯⎯ → Al2O3 + 2Cr
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(4) Fe + 2HCl → FeCl2 + H2↑
(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
Answer (3)
Answer (2)
Sol. Both reactions (1) and (2) are examples of Cl
decomposition reactions. Sol. Cl
Reactions (3) and (4), both are examples of (a) Cl P sp3d hybridised and
displacement reactions, while reaction (3) is an Cl trigonal bipyramidal in
example of metal displacement reaction. Cl shape
20
F Sol. Benzenesulphonyl chloride (C6H5SO2Cl) is also
F F known as Hinsberg's reagent.
(b) S sp3d2 hybridised and The reaction of Hinsberg's reagent (C6H5SO2Cl)
F F octahedral in shape with primary amine (CH 3 CH 2 NH 2 ) yields
F N-ethylbenzene sulphonamide.
F F O
(c) Br sp3d2 hybridised and S – Cl + H – N – C 2H 5
F F square pyramidal in shape O H
F O
F S – N – C2H5 + HCl
O H
(d) F B sp2 hybridised and trigonal
N-Ethylbenzene sulphonamide
F planar in shape (Soluble in alkali)
67. Which one of the following polymers is prepared by The reaction of Hinsberg's reagent (C6H5SO2Cl)
addition polymerisation? with secondary amine (C 2H 5NHCH 3) gives,
(1) Dacron (2) Teflon N-Ethyl-N-Methyl benzene sulphonamide
(3) Nylon-66 (4) Novolac O

S – Cl + H – N – CH 3
Answer (2)
O C2H5
Sol. Dacron, Nylon-66 and Novolac are prepared by
O CH3
condensation polymerisation.
S – N – CH
2 5
+ HCl
Teflon is an addition polymer. Monomer of teflon is
O
tetrafluoroethene.
Insoluble in alkali due to
absence of H-atom
Catalyst [CF2 – CF 2] n
nCF2 = CF 2 3° amine do not react with Hinsberg reagent
High pressure Teflon
Tetrafluoroethene 70. Zr (Z = 40) and Hf (Z = 72) have similar atomic and
ionic radii because of :
68. The RBC deficiency is deficiency disease of :
(1) Vitamin B2 (2) Vitamin B12 (1) Having similar chemical properties
(3) Vitamin B6 (4) Vitamin B1 (2) Belonging to same group
Answer (2) (3) Diagonal relationship
Sol. Deficiency of vitamin B2 (Riboflavin) causes (4) Lanthanoid contraction

cheilosis, digestive disorders and burning Answer (4)
sensation of the skin.
Sol. The cumulative effect of the contraction of the
Deficiency of vitamin B12 causes Pernicious lanthanoid series, known as lanthanoid
anaemia which is RBC deficiency in contraction, causes the radii of the members of
haemoglobin. the third transition series to be very similar to
Deficiency of vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine) causes those of the corresponding members of the
Convulsions. second series.
Deficiency of vitamin B 1 (Thiamine) causes The almost identical radii of Zr (160 pm) and
Beri-Beri (loss of appetite and retarded growth). Hf (159 pm) is a consequence of the lanthanoid
contraction.
69. Identify the compound that will react with Hinsberg's
reagent to give a solid which dissolves in alkali. 71. Ethylene diaminetetraacetate (EDTA) ion is :
CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 (1) Tridentate ligand with three "N" donor atoms

(1) CH N CH 3 (2) CH3 NO2
3 (2) Hexadentate ligand with four "O" and two "N"
CH3 donor atoms
(3) Unidentate ligand
CH 2 CH2
CH3
(3) CH3 NH (4) CH3 NH2 (4) Bidentate ligand with two "N" donor atoms
21
Sol. Ethylene diaminetetraacetate (EDTA) ion is a 74. The pKb of dimethylamine and pKa of acetic acid are
hexadented ligand having four donor oxygen atoms 3.27 and 4.77 respectively at T (K). The correct
and two donor nitrogen atoms option for the pH of dimethylammonium acetate
solution is :
O
–
– – O
– (1) 6.25 (2) 8.50
O O
O=C C= O C= O (3) 5.50 (4) 7.75
M
O=C Answer (4)
CH 2 CH2
CH 2 – N N CH2 Sol. Dimethylammonium acetate is a salt of weak acid
CH2 – CH2 and weak base whose pH can be calculated as
1
72. The major product formed in dehydrohalogenation pH = 7 + (pK a – pK b )
reaction of 2-Bromo pentane is Pent-2-ene. This 2
product formation is based on?
1
(1) Huckel's Rule
=7+ ( 4.77 – 3.27 )
2
(2) Saytzeff's Rule = 7.75
(3) Hund's Rule 75. The structures of beryllium chloride in solid state and
vapour phase, are :
(4) Hofmann Rule
(1) Chain in both
Answer (2)
(2) Chain and dimer, respectively
Sol. Major product formed in dehydrohalogenation reaction
(3) Linear in both
of 2-bromopentane is pent-2-ene because according
to Saytzeff's rule, in dehydrohalogenation reactions, (4) Dimer and Linear, respectively
the preferred product is that alkene which has greater Answer (2)
number of alkyl group(s) attached to the doubly
Sol. Beryllium chloride has a chain structure in the solid
bonded carbon atoms.
state as shown below
Br
OH– Cl Cl Cl
CH3 – CH2 – CH 2 – CH – CH 3
Be Be Be
CH 3 – CH2 – CH = CH – CH 3 Cl
Cl Cl
Pent-2-ene (81%)
+ In vapour phase Beryllium chloride tends to form a
CH3 – CH 2 – CH 2 – CH = CH2 chloro-bridged dimer.
Pent-1-ene (19%)
Cl
73. An organic compound contains 78% (by wt.) carbon
Cl Be Be Cl
and remaining percentage of hydrogen. The right
option for the empirical formula of this compound Cl
is : [Atomic wt. of C is 12, H is 1] 76. Which one of the following methods can be used to
obtain highly pure metal which is liquid at room
(1) CH4 (2) CH
temperature?
(3) CH2 (4) CH3 (1) Zone refining
Answer (4) (2) Electrolysis
Sol. Element Mass percentage No. of mole Mole ratio (3) Chromatography
78 6.5 (4) Distillation
C 78% = 6.5 =1
12 6.5
22 22 Answer (4)
H 22% = 22 = 3.38 3
1 6.5 Sol. Distillation method is generally used for the
Based on above calculation, possible empirical purification of metals having low boiling point such
formula is CH3. as Hg, Zn etc.
22
77. Right option for the number of tetrahedral and
octahedral voids in hexagonal primitive unit cell are :
(1) 12, 6 (2) 8, 4
Pressure (P)
(200 K, 400 K, 600 K)
(3) 6, 12 (4) 2, 1
(bar)
Answer (1) (3)
Sol. Number of octahedral and tetrahedral voids
formed by N closed packed atoms are N and
2N respectively. Volume (V)
3
Each hexagonal unit cell contains 6 atoms (dm )
therefore, number of tetrahedral and octahedral
voids are 12 and 6 respectively.
K
0
K
20
78. The correct structure of 2, 6-Dimethyl-dec-4-ene is 0
40
0K
Pressure (P)
60
(bar)
(4)
(1) (2)
Volume (V)
3
(dm )
(3) (4) Answer (1)
Sol. According to Boyle's law
Answer (2)
1 k
Sol. P∝  P=  PV = k
4 V V
5 2 1
3 where k is proportionality constant and equal to nRT.
6 10
8 ∴ Graph between P vs. V should be rectangular
7 9 hyperbola and product of PV increases with
2, 6-Dimethyldec-4-ene increase in temperature.
79. Choose the correct option for graphical representation 80. The following solutions were prepared by dissolving
of Boyle's law, which shows a graph of pressure vs. 10 g of glucose (C6H12O6) in 250 ml of water (P1),
volume of a gas at different temperatures : 10 g of urea (CH4N2O) in 250 ml of water (P2) and
10 g of sucrose (C12H22O11) in 250 ml of water (P3).
The right option for the decreasing order of osmotic
pressure of these solutions is :
Pressure (P)
(1) P3 > P1 > P2 (2) P2 > P1 > P3

(bar)
600 K (3) P1 > P2 > P3 (4) P2 > P3 > P1

(1)
400 K Answer (2)
200 K
Sol. Osmotic pressure (π) = iCRT
Volume (V) where C is molar concentration of the solution
3
(dm )
With increase in molar concentration of solution
osmotic pressure increases.
Since, weight of all solutes and its solution
volume are equal, so higher will be the molar
Pressure (P)
mass of solute, smaller will be molar

(bar)
concentration and smaller will be the osmotic

(2) 200 K pressure.
400 K
Order of molar mass of solute decreases as
600 K
Sucrose > Glucose > Urea
Volume (V) So, correct order of osmotic pressure of solution
3
(dm ) is P3 < P1 < P2
23
81. The correct sequence of bond enthalpy of 'C—X' bond Answer (3)
is : Sol. Noble gases have weak dispersion forces hence
(1) CH3 – Cl > CH3 – F > CH3 – Br > CH3 –I they have low melting and boiling points.
84. What is the IUPAC name of the organic compound
(2) CH3 – F < CH3 – Cl < CH3 – Br < CH3 –I
formed in the following chemical reaction?
(3) CH3 – F > CH3 – Cl > CH3 – Br > CH3 – I (i) C H MgBr, dry Ether
Acetone ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
2 5
+ → Product
(ii) H2O, H
(4) CH3 – F < CH3 – Cl > CH3 – Br > CH3 – I
(1) 2-methylbutan-2-ol
Answer (3)
(2) 2-methylpropan-2-ol
Sol. The size of halogen atom increases from F to I
(3) pentan-2-ol
hence bond length from C – F to C – I increases
(4) pentan-3-ol
∴ Bond enthalpy from CH 3 – F to CH 3 – I
decreases Answer (1)
δ–
Bond dissociation O OMgBr
C – X Bond (i) C2H5 MgBr
enthalpies/kJ mol–1 Sol. CH3 –δ+C – CH 3 CH3 – C – CH 3
Dry ether
C2H5
CH3 — F 452
(i) H2O/H+
CH3 — Cl 351
OH
CH3 — Br 293
CH3 – C – CH 2 – CH 3
CH3 — I 234 CH3
Product
82. Dihedral angle of least stable conformer of ethane (2-methylbutan-2-ol)
is : 85. For a reaction A → B, enthalpy of reaction is
(1) 0° (2) 120° –4.2 kJ mol –1 and enthalpy of activation is
9.6 kJ mol–1. The correct potential energy profile for
(3) 180° (4) 60°
the reaction is shown in option.
Answer (1)
Sol. Ethane has two conformers (i) Eclipsed
(ii) Staggered B
Eclipsed conformer is least stable while staggered PE A
(1)
conformer is most stable. In eclipsed conformer the
dihedral angle is 0° Reaction Progress
(2) PE B
A
Reaction Progress
83. Noble gases are named because of their inertness

PE A
towards reactivity. Identify an incorrect statement (3)
B
about them.
(1) Noble gases have large positive values of Reaction Progress
electron gain enthalpy
(2) Noble gases are sparingly soluble in water
(3) Noble gases have very high melting and boiling
points (4)
(4) Noble gases have weak dispersion forces
24
Answer (3) NaOH, +?
87. CH3CH2COO– Na+ Heat
CH3CH3 + Na2CO3.
Sol. ΔHrxn = (Ea)f – (Ea)b
Consider the above reaction and identify the missing
–4.2 = (Ea)f – (Ea)b
reagent/chemical.
–4.2 = 9.6 – (Ea)b
(1) DIBAL-H (2) B2H6
(Ea)b = 9.6 + 4.2 = 13.8 kJ mol–1
(3) Red Phosphorus (4) CaO
Since reaction is exothermic, so possible graph
is (3) only. Answer (4)
Also (Ea)f < (Ea)b, so answer is option (3). Sol. Alkane is produced by heating sodium salt of
carboxylic acid with sodalime (NaOH and CaO in the
ratio of 3 : 1)
SECTION - B
NaOH+CaO
86. Match List-I with List-II. CH3CH2COO −Na + ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
Heat → CH3CH3 + Na 2CO3
List-I List-II 88. The correct option for the value of vapour pressure of
(a) 2SO2(g) + O2(g) → (i) Acid rain a solution at 45°C with benzene to octane in molar
2SO3(g) ratio 3 : 2 is :
(b) HOCl(g) ⎯⎯
hν (ii) Smog [At 45°C vapour pressure of benzene is 280 mm Hg
⎯→
• • and that of octane is 420 mm Hg. Assume Ideal gas]
OH + Cl (1) 350 mm of Hg (2) 160 mm of Hg
(c) CaCO3 + H2SO4 → (iii) Ozone
(3) 168 mm of Hg (4) 336 mm of Hg
CaSO4 + H2O + CO2 depletion
Answer (4)
(d) NO2 (g) ⎯⎯
hν
⎯→ (iv) Tropospheric
Sol. Given : nC6H6 : nC8H18 = 3 : 2
NO(g) + O(g) pollution
Choose the correct answer from the options given 3 2
below. So, χ C6H6 = , χ C8H18 =
5 5
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
o
(2) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) ps = pC 6 H6
χ C 6H6 + p oC8H18 χ C8H18
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
3 2
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii) = 280 × + 420 ×
5 5
Answer (4)
Sol. Tropospheric pollution: In the presence of = 168 + 168
pollutant, SO2 cunverts into SO3.
= 336 mm of Hg
2SO2 + O2 → 2SO3
89. Match List-I with List-II
In spring season, sunlight breaks HOCl and Cl2
List-I List-II
to give chlorine radicals.
• •
hν
HOCl ⎯⎯ ⎯→OH( g) + Cl ( g) (a)
CO, HCI
(i) Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky
Anhyd. AlCl3/
These chlorine radicals deplete ozone layer CuCl reaction
High level of sulphur causes acid rain which O
reacts with marble and causes discolouring and (b) R — C — CH 3 + (ii) Gattermann-Koch
disfiguring reaction
NaOX
CaCO3 + H2SO4 → CaSO4 + H2O + CO2
(c) R — CH2 — OH (iii) Haloform reaction
A chain reaction occurs from interaction of NO +R′ COOH
with sunlight in which NO is converted to NO2 Conc. H2SO 4
which absorb energy from sunlight and breaks
into NO and O, which causes photochemical
smong. (d) R — CH 2COOH (iv) Esterification
(I ) X2/Red P
I
NO2 ( g ) ⎯⎯
hν
⎯→ NO ( g ) + O ( g ) (ii) H 2O
25
Choose the correct answer from the options given 91. The product formed in the following chemical
below. reaction is:
(1) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
O O
(2) (a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii) NaBH4
CH2–C–OCH3 C2H5OH
?
(3) (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
(4) (a) - (i), (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii) CH3
Answer (1)
OH O
Sol. • Gattermann-Koch reaction:
CHO CH 2 –C–OCH3
(1)
CO, HCl CH 3
Anhyd. AlCl 3/CuCl
• Haloform reaction: OH H
CH 2 –C–OCH3
(2)
OH
CH 3
• Esterification:
O O O
Conc.
R CH2 OH + R′ C OH H2SO4
R′ C OCH2 R CH 2 –CH 2–OH
(3)
• Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky reaction: CH 3
X
(i) X2/Red P
R CH2COOH R CH COOH OH H
(ii) H2O
90. The intermediate compound 'X' in the following CH 2 –C–CH3
chemical reaction is: (4) OH
O CH 3
CH3 C
CS2 H 3O
+
H Answer (1)
+ CrO 2Cl2 X
Sol. NaBH4 is a reducing agent. If reduces carbonyl
Cl group into alcohols but does not reduce esters.
CH
H O
O
(1) O
OH
CH2 OCH3
CH2 OCH3
NaBH4
CH(OCrOHCl 2)2 C2H5OH
CH3
(2) CH3
CH(OCOCH 3 )2  1
(3) 92. The slope of Arrhenius plot  ln k v/s  of first
 T
order reaction is –5 × 103K. The value of Ea of the
Cl
CH reaction is. Choose the correct option for your
Cl
(4) answer.
[Given R = 8.314 JK–1mol–1]
Answer (2)
Sol. Etard's reaction (1) –83 kJ mol–1
O
(OCrOHCl 2) (2) 41.5 kJ mol–1
CH 3 HC C—H
(OCrOHCl 2) (3) 83.0 kJ mol–1
+
CS2 H 3O
+ CrO 2Cl 2 (4) 166 kJ mol–1
(X) Answer (2)
26
Sol. Arrhenius equation 95. From the following pairs of ions which one is not an
iso-electronic pair?
k = Ae–Ea /RT
(1) Fe2+, Mn2+
–Ea /RT
ln k = ln A + ln e
(2) O2–, F–
E  1
lnk = ln A – a   ⎯⎯→ (1) (3) Na+, Mg2+
R T
(4) Mn2+, Fe3+
1 Answer (1)
Slope of ln k vs curve,
T Sol. • Isoelectronic species have some number
ofelectrons.
Ea
m=–
R • Species Number of electrons
Ea
–5 × 103 = – Fe2+ 26 – 2 = 24
R
Ea = 5 × 103 × 8.314 J/mol Mn2+ 25 – 2 = 23
= 41.57 × 103 J/mol O2– 8 + 2 = 10

41.5 kJ/mol
F– 9 + 1 = 10
93. The reagent 'R' in the given sequence of chemical Na+ 11 – 1 = 10

reaction is:
–
Mg2+ 12 – 2 = 10
NH2 N2 Cl –
–
Br Br Br Br Br Br Fe3+ 26 – 3 = 23
NaNO2, HCl R
0.5°C
96. The molar conductivity of 0.007 M acetic acid is 20
Br Br Br
S cm2 mol–1. What is the dissociation constant of
(1) CuCN/KCN (2) H2O acetic acid? Choose the correct option.
(3) CH3CH2OH (4) HI
 Λ ° + = 350 S cm2 mol−1 
Answer (3)  H 
Λ° − = 50 S cm
2
mol −1 
–  CH3COO 
NH 2 N2 Cl–
–
Br Br Br Br Br Br
Sol. NaNO2, HCl CH 3CH 2OH
(1) 2.50 × 10−5 mol L−1
0 - 5°C
Br Br Br (2) 1.75 × 10−4 mol L−1

Reagent R is C2H5OH with diazonium salt.
(3) 2.50 × 10−4 mol L−1
94. For irreversible expansion of an ideal gas under
isothermal condition, the correct option is:
(4) 1.75 × 10−5 mol L−1
(1) ΔU ≠ 0, ΔStotal = 0
(2) ΔU = 0, ΔStotal = 0 Answer (4)
(3) ΔU ≠ 0, ΔStotal ≠ 0 Sol. Λm = 20 S cm2 mol−1
(4) ΔU = 0, ΔStotal ≠ 0
o o o
Answer (4) Λm CH3COOH = Λ CH COO− + Λm H+
3
Sol. For a spontaneous process, ΔStotal > 0 and since

irreversible process is always spontaneous = 50 + 350 = 400 S cm2 mol−1
therefore ΔStotal > 0.
Since ΔU = nCVΔT and ΔT = 0 for isothermal Λm 20 1
α= o
= =
process therefore ΔU = 0. Λm 400 20
27
Cα 2  1 
2 Sol. Magnetic moment, μ = n(n + 2) BM (where
Ka = Cα2 = 7 × 10−3 ×  
1− α  20  n = number of unpaired electrons)
Complex No. of unpaired μ(BM)
−3 1
= 7 × 10 × × 10−2 electron(s)
4
(a) [Fe(CN)6]3– 1 1.73
−5 −1
= 1.75 × 10 mol L (b) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ 5 5.92
97. Which of the following molecules is non-polar in (c) [Fe(CN)6]4– 0 0
nature? (d) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ 4 4.90
(1) NO2 99. Choose the correct option for the total pressure (in
(2) POCl3 atm.) in a mixture of 4 g O2 and 2 g H2 confined in
a total volume of one litre at 0°C is :
(3) CH2O
[Given R = 0.082 L atm mol–1K–1, T = 273 K]
(4) SbCl5
(1) 26.02 (2) 2.518
Answer (4)
(3) 2.602 (4) 25.18
Cl
Answer (4)
Cl
Sol. SbCl5 : Cl Sb 4 1
Cl Sol. nO2 = =
32 8
Cl
2
Net vector summation of bond moments will be zero nH2 = =1
2
so SbCl5 is a non-polar molecule.
1 9
nt = +1=
O 8 8
⋅ NO 2
: ⋅N  polar molecule.
Pt V = nt RT
O
O
⋅ POCl 3 : P
Cl  polar molecule. 9
× 0.082 × 273
Cl
Cl Pt = 8 = 25.18 atm
1
O
⋅ CH O :
2
H
C
H
 polar molecule. 100. In which one of the following arrangements the
given sequence is not strictly according to the
98. Match List-I with List-II. properties indicated against it?
(1) CO2 < SiO2 : Increasing
List-I List-II
< SnO2 < PbO2 oxidizing power
(a) [Fe(CN)6]3– (i) 5.92 BM
(2) HF < HCl : Increasing acidic
(b) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ (ii) 0 BM < HBr < HI strength
(c) [Fe(CN)6]4– (iii) 4.90 BM (3) H2O < H2S : Increasing pKa
(d) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (iv) 1.73 BM < H2Se < H2Te values
Choose the correct answer from the options given (4) NH3 < PH3 : Increasing
below. < AsH3 < SbH3 acidic character
(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii) Answer (3)

Sol. Stronger is the acid, lower is the value of pKa. On
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
moving down the group, bond dissociation enthalpy
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i) of hydrides of group 16 elements decreases hence
acidity increases and pKa value decreases. Correct
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) order of pKa value will be
Answer (1) H2O > H2S > H2Se > H2Te
28
BOTANY
Sol.  Xenogamy refers to the transfer to pollen grains

SECTION - A
from anthers of one plant to stigma of a different
101. Mutations in plant cells can be induced by: plant which during pollination, brings genetically
different types of pollen grains to stigma.
(1) Zeatin
 Cleistogamy is a condition is which flower does
(2) Kinetin
not open.
(3) Infrared rays
 Geitonogamy refers to the transfer of pollen grain
(4) Gamma rays from anther to stigma of another flower of the
Answer (4) same plant.
Sol. • Several kinds of radiation like gamma rays, X-  Chasmogamy is a condition in which flowers
rays, UV-rays cause mutation. remain open.
• These are physical mutagens. 104. The factor that leads to Founder effect in a
• Such induced mutation in plants is done to population is :
develop improved varieties. The first natural (1) Genetic drift
cytokinin was isolated from unripe maize grain (2) Natural selection
known as zeatin. The cytokinin that was
obtained from degraded product of autoclaved (3) Genetic recombination
herring sperm DNA was kinetin (N 6-furfuryl (4) Mutation
aminopurine). Infrared rays cause heating effect. Answer (1)
102. Which of the following is an incorrect statement? Sol.  Change in gene frequency in a small population
(1) Nuclear pores act as passages for proteins and by chance is known as genetic drift. Genetic
RNA molecules in both directions between drift has two ramifications, one is bottle neck
nucleus and cytoplasm effect and another is founder's effect.
(2) Mature sieve tube elements possess a  When accidentally a few individuals are
conspicuous nucleus and usual cytoplasmic dispersed and act as founders of a new isolated
organelles population, founder's effect is said to be
(3) Microbodies are present both in plant and animal observed.
cells  Crossing over which occurs during gamete
(4) The perinuclear space forms a barrier between formation results in genetic recombination.
the materials present inside the nucleus and that  Mutations are random and directionless.
of the cytoplasm 105. Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produce two
Answer (2) kinds of spores. Such plants are known as:
Sol. A mature sieve tube elements possess a peripheral (1) Heterosporous
cytoplasm and a large central vacuole but lacks a (2) Homosorus
nucleus.
(3) Heterosorus
Rest of other statements are correct.
(4) Homosporous
103. The term used for transfer of pollen grains from
anthers of one plant to stigma of a different plant Answer (1)
which, during pollination, brings genetically different Sol. Plants like Selaginella and Salvinia produce two
types of pollen grains to stigma, is : kinds of spore i.e., microspores and macrospores.
(1) Cleistogamy They are known as heterosporous.
(2) Xenogamy Most of the pteridophytes produce single type of

spores and are called homosporous
(3) Geitonogamy
Sorus are brownish or yellowish cluster of spore-
(4) Chasmogamy
producing structures located on the lower surface of
Answer (2) fern leaves.
30
106. The production of gametes by the parents, formation (d) Guttation is loss of water is liquid form from the
of zygotes, the F1 and F2 plants, can be understood leaf margins.
from a diagram called : 109. Gemmae are present in
(1) Net square (2) Bullet square (1) Some Liverworts
(3) Punch square (4) Punnett square (2) Mosses
Answer (4)
(3) Pteridophytes
Sol. The production of gametes (n) by the parents (2n),
(4) Some Gymnosperms
the formation of the zygote (2n), the F1 and F2 plants
can be understood from a diagram called Punnett Answer (1)
square. Sol.  Gemmae are green, multicellular asexual buds
107. Diadelphous stamens are found in that are produced by some liverworts like
Marchantia.
(1) China rose and citrus
 Mosses reproduce vegetatively by fragmentation
(2) China rose
and budding of protonema.
(3) Citrus
 Pteridophytes and Gymnosperms normally do
(4) Pea not reproduce asexually
Answer (4) 110. A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is:
Sol.  Stamens are said to be diadelphous when these
(1) 8-nucleate and 8-celled
are united in two bundles e.g. Pea.
(2) 8-nucleate and 7-celled
 China rose has monoadelphous stamens while,
Citrus has polyadelphous stamens. (3) 7-nucleate and 8-celled
Monoadelphous stamens are grouped in single (4) 7-nucleate and 7-celled
bundle whereas polyadelphous stamens occur in
Answer (2)
more than two bundles.
Sol. A typical angiospermic embryo sac has seven cells
that are three antipodals, one central cell, one egg
cell and two synergids.
The central cell has two polar nuclei, hence the
embryo sac is eight nucleated.
111. Inspite of interspecific competition in nature, which
mechanism the competing species might have
evolved for their survival?
(1) Predation
(2) Resource partitioning
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below. (3) Competitive release
(a) (b) (c) (d) (4) Mutualism
(1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) Answer (2)

(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) Sol. • Inspite of interspecific competition the competing
species may co-exist by doing resource
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
partitioning.
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
• In mutualism two organisms are equally
Answer (2) benefitted.
Sol. (a) Cohesion is mutual attraction among water • In predation one organism (Predator) eats the
molecules. another one (Prey).
(b) Adhesion is attraction towards polar surfaces. • In competition release there occurs dramatical
(c) Surface tension explains water molecules are increase in population of a less distributed
more attracted in liquid phase than gaseous species when its superior competitor is
phase. removed.
31
112. During the purification process for recombinant DNA 116. Which of the following plants is monoecious?
technology, addition of chilled ethanol precipitates (1) Cycas circinalis
out :
(2) Carica papaya
(1) Polysaccharides (2) RNA
(3) Chara
(3) DNA (4) Histones
(4) Marchantia polymorpha
Answer (3)
Answer (3)
Sol. Various enzymes like protease, RNase, etc. are
added to break down substances like proteins, RNA, Sol.  When male and female sex organs are present
etc. Once all these substances are broken down, on same plant body, such plants are said to be
DNA is left which is precipitated out by adding monoecious.
chilled ethanol.  Most of the species of Chara are monoecious.
Histones are basic proteins that help condense DNA  Cycas circinalis, Carica papaya and Marchantia
in a cell. polymorpha are dioecious.
113. DNA strands on a gel stained with ethidium bromide 117. The site of perception of light in plants during
when viewed under UV radiation, appear as photoperiodism is
(1) Bright blue bands (1) Leaf
(2) Yellow bands (2) Shoot apex
(3) Bright orange bands (3) Stem
(4) Dark red bands
(4) Axillary bud
Answer (3)
Answer (1)
Sol. After the bands are stained, they are viewed in UV
Sol.  The site of perception of light in plants during
light. The bands appear bright orange in colour.
photoperiodism is leaf.
Ethidium bromide is the intercalating agent that
stacks in between the nitrogenous bases.  The site of perception of low temperature
stimulus during vernalisation is shoot apex and
114. Which of the following algae produce Carrageen?
embryo.
(1) Blue-green algae
 Axillary bud are not sites of perception of
(2) Green algae photoperiod.
(3) Brown algae 118. The amount of nutrients, such as carbon, nitrogen,
(4) Red algae phosphorus and calcium present in the soil at any
Answer (4) given time, is referred as :
Sol. • The cell wall of red algae is composed of agar, (1) Standing crop
carrageen and funori along with cellulose. (2) Climax
• In brown algae cell wall contains algin while in (3) Climax community
green algae it is composed of cellulose and
(4) Standing state
pectin.
Answer (4)
• In blue green algae cell wall is composed of
mucopeptides. Sol.  Amount of all the inorganic substances or
nutrients, such as carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus
115. Plants follow different pathways in response to
and calcium present in soil at any given time, is
environment or phases of life to form different kinds
referred as standing state.
of structures. This ability is called
(1) Maturity (2) Elasticity  Amount of living material present in different
trophic levels at a given time, is referred as
(3) Flexibility (4) Plasticity standing crop.
Answer (4)  Climax community is the last community in
Sol. Plants show plasticity which means the ability of biotic succession which is relatively stable and
plant to follow different pathways and produce is in near equilibrium with the environment of
different structures in response to environment. that area.
32
119. Match List-I with List-II. Sol.  Sorghum is a C4 plant. The first stable product
of CO2 fixation in Sorghum is oxaloacetic acid.
List-I List-II  The first stable product in C 3 cycle is
(a) Lenticels (i) Phellogen 3-phosphoglyceric acid.
 Pyruvic acid is the end product of glycolysis.
(b) Cork cambium (ii) Suberin deposition
 Succinic acid is an intermediate product in krebs
(c) Secondary cortex (iii) Exchange of gases cycle.
(d) Cork (iv) Phelloderm 122. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(1) Pyramid of numbers in a grassland ecosystem
Choose the correct answer from the options given is upright.
below. (2) Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (3) Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally upright.
(1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) (4) Pyramid of energy is always upright.
(2) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) Answer (3)
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) Sol. Pyramid of biomass in sea is inverted. For example,
biomass of zooplanktons is higher than that of
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) phytoplanktons as life span of former is longer and
Answer (3) the latter multiply much faster though having shorter
life span.
Sol.  Lenticels are meant for exchange of gases.
 Phellogen is also known as cork cambium. PC 21
 Phelloderm is also called secondary cortex PP 04

because it is the cortex that develops during
Small standing crop of phytoplanktons supports
secondary growth.
large standing crop of zooplankton
 Cork has deposition of suberin in their cell walls 123. Which of the following algae contains mannitol as
when they get mature. reserve food material?
120. Which of the following stages of meiosis involves (1) Ulothrix (2) Ectocarpus
division of centromere?
(3) Gracilaria (4) Volvox
(1) Telophase II (2) Metaphase I
Answer (2)
(3) Metaphase II (4) Anaphase II Sol. Ectocarpus is a brown alga belongs to the class
Answer (4) Phaeophyceae. Members of this class have mannitol
and laminarin as stored food material.
Sol.  Division of centromere occurs in anaphase II.
Ulothrix and Volvox belong to Chlorophyceae (green
 Telophase II is the last stage of meiosis II. algae). Members of this class have starch as reserve
During this phase, the chromatids reach the food material. Gracilaria is a member of red algae
poles and start uncoiling. (Rhodophyceae). This class is characterised by
 Chromosomes form two parallel plates in having floridean starch as stored food material.
metaphase I and one plate in metaphase II. 124. When gene targetting involving gene amplification is
121. The first stable product of CO2 fixation in Sorghum is attempted in an individual's tissue to treat disease,
it is known as :
(1) Phosphoglyceric acid
(1) Safety testing
(2) Pyruvic acid (2) Biopiracy
(3) Oxaloacetic acid (3) Gene therapy
(4) Succinic acid (4) Molecular diagnosis
33
Sol. The correct option is (3) Choose the correct answer from the options given
 Gene therapy is a collection of methods that below.
allows correction of a gene defect that has been (a) (b) (c) (d)
diagnosed in a child/embryo.
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
 Biopiracy is the term used to refer to the use of
(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
bio-resources by multinational companies and
other organisations without proper authorisation (3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
from the countries and people concerned without (4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
compensatory payment. Answer (3)
 Molecular diagnosis refers to the act or process
Sol. • Pomato is obtained as a result of protoplast
of determining the nature and cause of a
fusion.
disease.
• Totipotency is a property of explant to develop
into whole plant body during plant tissue culture.
• Virus free plants can be obtained through
meristem culture.
• Somaclones are obtained by the process of
micropropagation.
127. Complete the flow chart on central dogma.
(1) (a)-Transduction; (b)-Translation; (c)-Replication;

(d)-Protein
(2) (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription;
Choose the correct answer from the options given (c)-Transduction; (d)-Protein
below. (3) (a)-Translation; (b)-Replication;
(a) (b) (c) (d) (c)-Transcription;(d)-Transduction
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (4) (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; (c)-Translation;
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (d)-Protein
(3) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii) Answer (4)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) Sol. • Formation of DNA from DNA is replication.
Answer (4) • Formation of mRNA from DNA is called
Sol.  The inner membrane of mitochondria forms Transcription.
infoldings called cristae. • Formation of protein from mRNA is called
 Thylakoids are flattened membranous sacs in Translation.
stroma of plastids. • So, (a) is Replication
 Cisternae are disc shaped sacs in Golgi (b) is Transcription
apparatus.
(c) is Translation
 Primary constriction in chromosome that holds
two chromatids together is called centromere. (d) is Protein
Hence correct option is (4)- a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) • Transduction is transfer of genetic material from
one bacterium to another with the help of virus
126. Match List-I with List-II
or a bacteriophage.
List-I List-II 128. In the equation GPP – R = NPP
R represents :
(a) Protoplast fusion (i) Totipotency
(1) Respiration losses
(b) Plant tissue culture (ii) Pomato
(2) Radiant energy
(c) Meristem culture (iii) Somaclones (3) Retardation factor
(4) Environmental factor
(d) Micropropagation (iv) Virus free plants
Answer (1)
34
Sol. In the equation, • Rubber, gums, morphine, codeine, vinblastin and
GPP – R = NPP curcumin are included under the category of
secondary metabolites as their role or functions
R refers to respiratory loss in host organisms is not known yet. However,
GPP is gross primary productivity many of them are useful to human welfare.
NPP is net primary productivity 132. Amensalism can be represented as:
129. When the centromere is situated in the middle of two (1) Species A (+); Species B (0)
equal arms of chromosomes, the chromosome is (2) Species A (–); Species B (0)
referred as :
(3) Species A (+); Species B (+)
(1) Acrocentric (2) Metacentric
(4) Species A (–); Species B (–)
(3) Telocentric (4) Sub-metacentric
Answer (2)
Answer (2)
Sol. • Amensalism is an interaction between two
Sol. When the centromere is situated in the middle of two organisms of different species in which one
equal arms of chromosomes, the chromosome is species inhibits the growth of other species by
referred as Metacentric. secreting certain chemicals. The first species is
When the centromere is present slightly away from neither get benefited nor harmed.
the middle, it is called sub-metacentric • (+) : (0) interaction is observed in commensalism
chromosome.
• (+) : (+) interaction is observed in mutualism.
When the centromere is present very close to one
end of the chromosome, it is called acrocentric • (–) : (–) interaction is seen in competition
chromosome. 133. Which of the following is not an application of PCR
When the centromere is present at terminal position, (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?
the chromosome is called telocentric. (1) Detection of gene mutation
130. The plant hormone used to destroy weeds in a field (2) Molecular diagnosis
(1) IBA (2) IAA (3) Gene amplification
(3) NAA (4) 2, 4-D (4) Purification of isolated protein
Sol. Some synthetic auxins are used as weedicides. Sol. PCR is Polymerase Chain Reaction.
2,4-D is widely used to remove broad leaved weeds
It is used for making multiple copies of the gene.
or dicotyledonous weeds in cereal crops or
monocotyledonous plants. Hence PCR is used for
IAA and IBA are natural auxins. • Gene amplification.
NAA is a synthetic auxin. • PCR-based assays have been developed that
detect the presence of gene sequences of the
131. Which of the following are not secondary
infectious agents.
metabolites in plants?
• It is also used in detecting mutations.
(1) Rubber, gums
(2) Morphine, codeine • Protein is not the target of PCR. Hence, plays
no role in its purification.
(3) Amino acids, glucose
134. Which of the following is a correct sequence of
(4) Vinblastin, curcumin steps in a PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction)?
Answer (3) (1) Annealing, Denaturation, Extension
Sol. The correct option is (3) (2) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
• Amino acids and glucose are included under the (3) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
category of primary metabolites as they have
identifiable functions and play known roles in (4) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
normal physiological processes. Answer (2)
35
Sol. The first step in the polymerase chain reaction is Sol. • In some blue-green algae specialised cells
denaturation during which strands of dsDNA called heterocyst fixes atmospheric nitrogen into
separate. This requires temperature around 94°C. ammonia.
This is followed by annealing in which primers anneal • Fusion of two nuclei is called Karyogamy.
to 3' end of template DNA strand.
• Organisms that depend on living plants are
Annealing is followed by extension in which Taq parasites, saprophytes grow on dead material.
polymerase adds nucleotides to 3'OH end of
• Fusion of protoplasts of two cells is called
primers.
plasmogamy.
137. In the exponential growth equation Nt = N0ert, e
represents
(1) The base of geometric logarithms
(2) The base of number logarithms
(3) The base of exponential logarithms
(4) The base of natural logarithms
Answer (4)
Sol. In the exponential growth equation Nt = N0ert,
Select the correct answer from the options given e represents the base of natural logarithms
below.
Nt = Population density after time t
(a) (b) (c) (d)
N0 = Population density at time zero
(1) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
r = Intrinsic rate of natural increase called biotic
(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
potential.
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
138. In some members of which of the following pairs of
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) families, pollen grains retain their viability for months
Answer (2) after release?
Sol. (a) Meristematic tissues are those tissues which (1) Rosaceae ; Leguminosae
have cells with active cell division capacity. (2) Poaceae ; Rosaceae
(b) Simple tissues are those tissues which have all (3) Poaceae ; Leguminosae
the cells similar in structure and function.
(4) Poaceae ; Solanaceae
(c) Vascular tissues are complex permanent tissues
hence they have different types of cells. Answer (1)
(d) Sclereids are sclerenchymatous cells which are Sol. • In members of some plant families like
dead with highly thickened walls and narrow Solanaceae, Rosaceae and Leguminosae the
lumen. pollen grains retain their viability for several
months.
SECTION - B • In cereals (Poaceae) pollen grains retain viability

for around 30 minutes.
136. Which of the following statements is correct ?
139. Match Column-I with Column-II.
(1) Some of the organisms can fix atmospheric
nitrogen in specialized cells called sheath cells Column-I Column-II
(2) Fusion of two cells is called Karyogamy (a) Nitrococcus (i) Denitrification
(3) Fusion of protoplasms between two motile on (b) Rhizobium (ii) Conversion of ammonia
non-motile gametes is called plasmogamy to nitrite
(4) Organisms that depend on living plants are (c) Thiobacillus (iii) Conversion of nitrite to nitrate
called saprophytes (iv) Conversion of atmospheric
(d) Nitrobacter
Answer (3) nitrogen to ammonia
36
Choose the correct answer from options given 141. Match List-I with List-II.
below.
List-I List-II
(a) (b) (c) (d) (a) Protein (i) C = C double bonds
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (b) Unsaturated (ii) Phosphodiester
fatty acid bonds
(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) (c) Nucleic acid (iii) Glycosidic bonds
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (d) Polysaccharide (iv) Peptide bonds
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) Choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
Answer (2)
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Sol. • Nitrogen fixation is conversion of atmospheric (1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
N2 to NH3 (ammonia). It is carried out by N2
(2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
fixers such as Rhizobium.
(3) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
• NH3 is converted to NO-2 (nitrite) by nitrifying (4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
bacteria such as Nitrococcus. Answer (2)

Sol. • In a polypeptide or a protein, amino acids are
• Then NO-2 is converted to NO3 (nitrate) by linked by a peptide bond which is formed when
the carboxyl (–COOH) group of one amino acid
nitrfying bacteria called Nitrobacter.
reacts with amino (–NH2) group of the next amino
• Thiobacillus carries out denitrification, a process acid with the elimination of a water moiety.
where NO2 / NO3 is converted to N2. • Unsaturated fatty acids are with one or more
C = C double bonds.
140. Match List-I with List-II. • In nucleic acids, a phosphate moiety links the
3-carbon of one sugar of one nucleotide to the
List-I List-II
5-carbon of the sugar of the succeeding
(a) S phase (i) Proteins are
synthesized nucleotide. The bond between the phosphate
(b) G2 phase (ii) Inactive phase and hydroxyl group is an ester bond. As there is
(c) Quiescent (iii) Interval between mitosis one such ester bond on either side, it is called
stage and initiation of phosphodiester bond.
DNA replication
(d) G1 phase (iv) DNA replication • In a polysaccharide, the individual
monosaccharides are linked by a glycosidic bond.
Choose the correct answer from the options given 142. Match Column-I with Column-II
below.
Column-I Column-II
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) % K(5) C1 + 2 + (2) A (9) + 1 G1 (i) Brassicaceae
(1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (b) K (5) C(5)A5 G(2) (ii) Liliaceae
(3) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) (c) P(3 + 3) A3 + 3 G(3) (iii) Fabaceae
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(d) K2 + 2 C4 A2 – 4 G (2) (iv) Solanaceae
Answer (4)
Select the correct answer from the options given
Sol. • In S phase DNA replication takes place.
below.
• In G2 phase there is synthesis of proteins, RNA
(a) (b) (c) (d)
etc.
(1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
• Quiescent stage is inactive stage of cell cycle
(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
but cells remain metabolically active in this
stage. (3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
• G1 phase is the interval between mitosis and (4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
initiation of DNA replication. Answer (2)
37
Sol. The floral formula of 145. Now a days it is possible to detect the mutated gene
causing cancer by allowing radioactive probe to
Brassicaceae family – K2 + 2 C4 A2+ 4 G (2) hybridise its complimentary DNA in a clone of cells,
followed by its detection using autoradiography
because :
Solanacae family – K(5) C(5) A5 G (2)
(1) mutated gene does not appear on photographic
film as the probe has complementarity with it
Fabaceae family –% K(5) C1 + 2 + (2) A (9) +1 G1
(2) mutated gene partially appears on a
photographic film
Liliaceae family – P(3 + 3) A3 + 3 G (3)
(3) mutated gene completely and clearly appears on
a photographic film
So a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) is correct matching.
(4) mutated gene does not appear on a
143. What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the photographic film as the probe has no
process of transcription in eukaryotes? complementarity with it
Answer (4)
(1) Transcribes only snRNAs
Sol. Autoradiography allows the detection/localisation of
(2) Transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.8S) radioactive isotope within a biological sample.
Probe is a radiolabelled ss DNA or ss RNA
(3) Transcribes tRNA, 5s rRNA and snRNA
depending on the technique. To identify the mutated
(4) Transcribes precursor of mRNA gene probe is allowed to hybridise to its
complementary DNA in a clone of cells followed by
Answer (3) detection using autoradiography. The mutated gene
will not appear on the photographic film, because the
Sol. • RNA polymerase III transcribes tRNA, ScRNA, probe does not have complementarity with the
5S rRNA and SnRNA. mutated gene.
• RNA polymerase I transcribes 5.8S, 18S and 146. DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in
28S rRNA. some specific regions in DNA sequence, called as
(1) Polymorphic DNA (2) Satellite DNA
• RNA polymerase II transcribes hnRNA which is
(3) Repetitive DNA (4) Single nucleotides
precursor of mRNA
Answer (3)
144. Which of the following statements is incorrect? Sol. • DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences
in some specific regions in DNA sequence
(1) Cyclic photophosphorylation involves both PS I
called as repetitive DNA.
and PS II
• The basis of DNA fingerprinting is VNTR (a
(2) Both ATP and NADPH + H+
are synthesized satellite DNA as probe that show very high
during non-cyclic photophosphorylation degree of polymorphism)
• Polymorphism is the variation at genetic level.
(3) Stroma lamellae have PS I only and lack NADP
Allelic sequence variation has traditionally been
reductase
described as a DNA polymorphism.
(4) Grana lamellae have both PS I and PS II 147. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
Answer (1) (1) Oxidation-reducation reactions produce proton

gradient in respiration
Sol. • Cyclic photophosphorylation involves only PS I. (2) During aerobic respiration, role of oxygen is
Both PS I and PS II are involved in non-cyclic limited to the terminal stage
photophosphorylation where both ATP and (3) In ETC (Electron Transport Chain), one molecule
NADPH + H+ are synthesized. of NADH + H+ gives rise to 2 ATP molecules,
• Both PS I and PS II are found on grana and one FADH2 gives rise to 3 ATP molecules
lamellae whereas stroma lamellae have PS I (4) ATP is synthesized through complex V
only and lack NADP reductase. Answer (3)
38
Sol.  During respiration, process of ATP synthesis is Sol. • Split gene arrangement is characterstic of
explained by chemiosmotic model. It says that
eukaryotes.
a proton gradient is required for ATP synthesis
that is established by oxidation-reduction
• In capping 5-methyl guanosine triphosphate is
reactions.
added at 5 end of hnRNA.
 In ETC, one NADH + H+ produces 3 ATP while
one FADH2 produces 2 ATP molecules.
• At 3 end poly-A tail is added.
 ATP is synthesised via complex V.
 In ETS, oxygen acts as terminal electron • The non coding or template strand is copied to
acceptor. an mRNA. RNA polymerase accociate with 
148. Plasmid pBR322 has Pstl restriction enzyme site factor (Rho factor) and it alters the specificity of
within gene ampR that confers ampicillin resistance. the RNA polymerase to terminate the processes.
If this enzyme is used for inserting a gene for
-galactoside production and the recombinant 150. Select the correct pair.
plasmid is inserted in an E.coli strain
(1) It will be able to produce a novel protein with (1) Loose parenchyma cells - Spongy
dual ability rupturing the epidermis parenchyma
(2) It will not be able to confer ampicillin resistance and forming a lens shaped
to the host cell
opening in bark
(3) The transformed cells will have the ability to
resist ampicillin as well as produce (2) Large colorless empty - Subsidiary cells
-galactoside
cells in the epidermis
(4) It will lead to lysis of host cell of grass leaves
Answer (2)
Sol. pBR322 is a commonly used cloning vector. When (3) In dicot leaves, vascular - Conjunctive
the gene for -galactoside is inserted in the bundles are surrounded tissue
ampicillin resistance gene by using Pst I, the by large thick-walled cells
recombinant E.coli will lose ampicillin resistance due
to insertional inactivation of the antibiotic resistance (4) Cells of medullary rays - Interfascicular
gene.
that form part of cambium
The host (recombinant) cell will produce
cambial ring
-galactoside which is not a novel protein nor does
it have dual ability.
Answer (4)
The transformed cells cannot resist ampicillin as they
have lost ampicillin resistance. Sol. • When the cells of medullary rays differentiated,
A recombinant E. coli is produced and the host cell they give rise to the new cambium called
will not undergo lysis due to insertion of
interfascicular cambium.
-galactoside gene.
149. Identify the correct statement. • Loose parenchyma cells rupturing the epidermis
(1) Split gene arrangement is characteristic of and forming a lens-shaped opening in bark are
prokaryotes called complementary cells.
(2) In capping, methyl guanosine triphosphate is
added to the 3' end of hnRNA • Large colourless empty cells in the epidermis of
(3) RNA polymerase binds with Rho factor to grass leaves are called bulliform cells.
terminate the process of transcription in bacteria
(4) The coding strand in a transcription unit is • In dicot leave, vascular bundles are surrounded
copied to an mRNA by large thick walled cells called bundle sheath
Answer (3) cells.
39
ZOOLOGY
153. Receptors for sperm binding in mammals are present

SECTION - A
on :
151. Match List-I with List-II (1) Zona pellucida (2) Corona radiata
(3) Vitelline membrane (4) Perivitelline space
List-I List-II
Aspergillus Answer (1)
(a) niger (i ) Acetic Acid
Sol.  Option (1) is correct because zona pellucida has
(b) Acetobacter (ii) Lactic Acid receptors for sperm binding (ZP3 receptors) in
aceti
mammals.
(c) Clostridium (iii) Citric Acid
butylicum
 Corona radiata is a layer of radially arranged
(d) Lactobacillus (iv) Butyric A cid cells of membrana granulosa.
Choose the correct answer from the options given  Perivitelline space is present in between vitelline
below membrane and zona pellucida.
(a) (b) (c) (d) 154. The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes (2n) in each cell.
During interphase of Mitosis if the number of
(1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
chromosomes at G1 phase is 8, what would be the
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) number of chromosomes after S phase?
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (1) 32 (2) 8
(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) (3) 16 (4) 4
Sol. Aspergilus niger is involved in production of citric Sol. In S phase there is duplication of DNA. So amount
acid. Acetobacter aceti is involved in production of of DNA increases but not the chromosome number.
acetic acid. Clostridium butylicum is involved in So, if the number of chromosomes at G1 phase is
production of butyric acid whereas Lactobacillus is 8 in fruit fly then the number of chromosomes will be
involved in the production of lactic acid. same in S phase that is 8 only.
So a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii) is correct matching. 155. Select the favourable conditions required for the
formation of oxyhaemoglobin at the alveoli.
152. Succus entericus is referred to as:
(1) Low pO2, low pCO2, more H+, higher temperature
(1) Chyme
(2) High pO2, low pCO2, less H+, lower temperature
(2) Pancreatic juice
(3) Low pO 2 , high pCO 2 , more H + , higher
(3) Intestinal juice temperature
(4) Gastric juice (4) High pO 2 , high pCO 2 , less H + , higher
temperature
Answer (3)
Answer (2)
Sol.  Option (3) is correct because succus entericus
is referred to as intestinal juice. Sol.  The factors favourable for the formation of
oxyhaemoglobin at the alveolar level are; high
 Chyme is name given to acidic food present in
pO2, low pCO2, less H+ concentration and lower
stomach.
temperature.
 Exocrine secretion of pancreatic acini is called  The conditions favourable for the dissociation of
pancreatic juice. oxygen from oxyhaemoglobin at the tissue level
 Secretion of gastric glands present in stomach are; low pO2, high pCO2, high H+ concentration
is called gastric juice. and high temperature.
40
156. Match the following: Sol. According to Chargaff's rule, for a double stranded
List-I List-II
DNA,
(a) Physalia (i ) Pearl oyster  A    T ,

(b) Limulus (ii)
Portuguese Man of ∵  A   30%,   T   30%
War
Since C  G
(c) Ancylostoma (iii) Living fossil
 100   A  T 
(d) Pinctada (iv) Hookworm
 100  30  30
Choose the correct answer from the options given  100  60  40%
below. and C= G = 20% each
(a) (b) (c) (d)
  A   30%
(1) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
T   30%
(2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
G  20%
(3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
C  20%
(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
159. The partial pressures (in mm Hg) of oxygen (O2) and
Answer (4)
carbon dioxide (CO2) at alveoli (the site of diffusion)
Sol.  Option 4 is correct because Physalia is are:
commonly known as Portuguese man of war.
(1) pO2 = 159 and pCO2 = 0.3
 Limulus is considered as a living fossil and
commonly known as king crab. (2) pO2 = 104 and pCO2 = 40
 Ancylostoma is a roundworm and commonly (3) pO2 = 40 and pCO2 = 45

known as hookworm. (4) pO2 = 95 and pCO2 = 40
 Pinctada is commonly known known as pearl Answer (2)
oyster, included in phylum Mollusca.
Sol.  Option (2) is correct because pO2 in alveoli is
157. Which stage of meiotic prophase shows
104 mm Hg and pCO2 in alveoli is 40 mmHg.
terminalisation of chiasmata as its distinctive feature?
 In atmosphere, pO2 is 159 mm Hg and pCO2 is
(1) Pachytene (2) Leptotene
0.3 mm Hg.
(3) Zygotene (4) Diakinesis
 In deoxygenated blood, pO2 is 40 mmHg and
Answer (4)
pCO2 is 45 mmHg.
Sol.  In meiosis I, chiasmata (X shaped structure) is
 In oxygenated blood, pO2 is 95 mmHg and pCO2
formed in diplotene stage while it terminalise in
is 40 mmHg.
diakinesis stage.
160. Read the following statements
 Bivalents are formed in zygotene stage and
crossing over takes place in pachytene stage. (a) Metagenesis is observed in Helminths.
 Compaction of chromosomal material occurs in (b) Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate
leptotene stage. animals.
158. If Adenine makes 30% of the DNA molecule, what (c) Round worms have organ-system level of body
will be the percentage of Thymine, Guanine and organization.
Cytosine in it?
(d) Comb plates present in ctenophores help in
(1) T : 20 ; G : 25 ; C : 25 digestion.
(2) T : 20 ; G : 30 ; C : 20
(e) Water vascular system is characteristic of
(3) T : 20 ; G : 20 ; C : 30 Echinoderms.
(4) T : 30 ; G : 20 ; C : 20 Choose the correct answer from the options given
Answer (4) below.
41
(1) (b), (c) and (e) are correct Sol.  Option (4) is incorrect because intercalated discs
are found only in cardiac muscle tissue.
(2) (c), (d) and (e) are correct
(3) (a), (b) and (c) are correct  Smooth muscle fibres are non-striated and
involuntary in nature and are present in the wall
(4) (a), (d) and (e) are correct of blood vessels, uterus, gall bladder, alimentary
Answer (1) canal etc.
Sol.  Metagenesis (alternation of generation) is 163. Which one of the following belongs to the family
observed in members of phylum Coelenterata Muscidae?
(Cnidaria). (1) House fly
 Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate (2) Fire fly
animals as true coelom is observed in them.
(3) Grasshopper
 Roundworms (Aschelminths) have organ system
level of organization. (4) Cockroach
 Comb plates present in ctenophores help in Answer (1)

locomotion. Sol.  Option (1) is correct because housefly belongs
 Water vascular system is seen in echinoderms, to the family Muscidae, class Insecta and
which helps in locomotion, capture and transport phylum Arthropoda.
of food and respiration.  Fire flies are placed in family Lampyridae of
161. In a cross between a male and female, both class insecta.
heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia gene, what  Grasshopper is also an insect placed in family
percentage of the progeny will be diseased? Acrididae.
(1) 100% (2) 50%  Cockroach is also an insect placed in family
(3) 75% (4) 25% Blattidae.
Answer (4) 164. During the process of gene amplification using PCR,
if very high temperature is not maintained in the
Sol. According to given question;
beginning, then which of the following steps of PCR
A S A S
Parents
will be affected first?
Hb Hb × Hb Hb
(1) Ligation
Progenies (2) Annealing

Hb Hb , Hb Hb , HbAHbS, HbAHbA
S S A S
(3) Extension
Total number of affected progenies = 1
(4) Denaturation
 Percentage of diseased/affected progenies
Answer (4)
1 Sol. 
  100 = 25% Option (4) is correct. High temperature about
4 94°C is required for the process of denaturation
162. Which of the following statements wrongly whic is the first step of PCR.
represents the nature of smooth muscle?  Ligation of DNA fragments is performed with the
(1) These muscles are present in the wall of blood help of an enzyme called DNA ligase.
vessels  Annealing is performed at 50°-60°C which is the
(2) These muscle have no striations second step that can get affected.
(3) They are involuntary muscles  Addition of nucleotides to the primer,

synthesizing a new DNA strand using only the
(4) Communication among the cells is performed by template sequences with the help of enzyme
intercalated discs DNA polymerase is called primer extension/
Answer (4) polymerisation.
42
165. Match List - I with List - II Sol. During S phase of cell cycle replication of DNA takes
place. In animal cells during S phase, centriole
duplicates in the cytoplasm.
In G2 phase there is duplication of mitochondria,
chloroplast and Golgi bodies. Tubulin portein is also
synthesized during this phase.
During prophase, condensation of chromatin starts.
During metaphase, chromosomes get aligned at
equator to form metaphasic plate.
below. 168. Which of the following characteristics is incorrect
with respect to cockroach?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) 10th abdominal segment in both sexes, bears a
(1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) pair of anal cerci
(2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (2) A ring of gastric caeca is present at the junction
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) of midgut and hind gut
(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (3) Hypopharynx lies within the cavity enclosed by
the mouth parts
Answer (4)
(4) In females, 7th-9th sterna together form a genital
Sol. Metamerism is commonly seen in the members of pouch
phylum Annelida where the body is externally and
Answer (2)
internally divided into segments with a serial
repetition of atleast some organs. Sol.  Option (2) is incorrect because a ring of gastric
caecae is present at the junction of foregut and
Water canal system is present in the members of
midgut. At the junction of midgut and hindgut,
phylum Porifera.
malpighian tubules are present.
The body of ctenophores bears 8 external rows of  Hypopharynx lies within the cavity enclosed by
ciliated comb plates which help in locomotion. mouthparts.
Cnidoblasts or cnidocytes are characteristic feature  In female cockroach, the 7th sternum is boat
of cnidarians (coelentrata). shaped and together with the 8th and 9th sterna
166. Which one of the following is an example of forms a genital pouch.
Hormone releasing IUD?  10th abdominal segment in both sexes, bears a
(1) Multiload 375 (2) CuT pair of anal cerci and 9th sternum only in male
cockroach, bears a pair of chitinous anal style.
(3) LNG 20 (4) Cu 7
169. Dobson units are used to measure thickness of:
Answer (3)
(1) Troposphere (2) CFCs
Sol.  LNG-20 is a hormone releasing IUD which
(3) Stratosphere (4) Ozone
makes the uterus unsuitable for implantation and
the cervix hostile to sperms. Answer (4)
 Multiload 375, CuT and Cu7 are copper Sol. The thickness of the ozone in a column of air from
releasing IUDs which suppress sperm motility the ground to the top of atmosphere is measured in
and the fertilizing capacity of sperms. term of Dobson unit (1 DU = 1ppb).
167. The centriole undergoes duplication during: The lowermost layer of atmosphere is called
troposphere.
(1) G2 phase (2) S-phase
CFCs are ozone depleting substances. Ozone found
(3) Prophase (4) Metaphase in upper part of atmosphere (the stratosphere) is
Answer (2) called good ozone.
43
170. Veneral diseases can spread through : Sol. Option (1) is correct because persons with 'AB'
(a) Using sterile needles blood group contain antigens 'A' and 'B' but lack
antibodies anti-A and anti-B in plasma. So, persons
(b) Transfusion of blood from infected person with 'AB' blood group can accept blood from persons
(c) Infected mother to foetus with AB as well as the other groups of blood due to
lack of antibodies in their blood. Therefore, such
(d) Kissing
persons are called "Universal recipients".
(e) Inheritance
173. The organelles that are included in the
Choose the correct answer from the option given endomembrane system are
below
(1) Golgi complex, Endoplasmic reticulum,
(1) (a) and (c) only (2) (a), (b) and (c) only Mitochondria and Lysosomes
(3) (b), (c) and (d) only (4) (b) and (c) only (2) Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria,
Answer (4) Ribosomes and Lysosomes
Sol.  Venereal diseases or sexually transmitted (3) Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex,
diseases or infections are transmitted by sharing Lysosomes and Vacuoles
of infected needles, surgical instruments with (4) Golgi complex, Mitochondria, Ribosomes and
infected person, transfusion of blood or from an Lysosomes
infected mother to foetus.
Answer (3)
 Venereal diseases are not transmitted through Sol.  Endomembrane system consist of endoplasmic
kissing or inheritance. reticulum, Golgi complex, vacuoles and
171. Which one of the following organisms bears hollow lysosomes.
and pneumatic long bones?  Mitochondria is semi-autonomous cell organelle.
(1) Ornithorhynchus  Ribosome is non-membranous cell organelle.
(2) Neophron 174. A specific recognition sequence identified by
(3) Hemidactylus endonucleases to make cuts at specific positions
within the DNA is:
(4) Macropus
(1) Poly(A) tail sequences
Answer (2)
(2) Degenerate primer sequence
Sol.  Hollow and pneumatic long bones are present in
animals that belong to class Aves e.g., (3) Okazaki sequences
Neophron (vulture). (4) Palindromic Nucleotide sequences
 Ornithorhynchus (Platypus) and Macropus Answer (4)
(Kangaroo) belong to class Mammalia.
Sol.  Each restriction endonuclease recognizes a
 Hemidactylus (Wall lizard) is a member of class specific palondromic nucleotide sequence in the
Reptilia. DNA. Once it finds its specific recognition
172. Persons with 'AB' blood group are called as sequence it bind to DNA and cuts each of the
"Universal recipients". This is due to : two strands of DNA.
(1) Absence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, in  During post transcriptional modification in
plasma eukaryotes, poly(A) tail (200–300 adenylate
residues) are added at 3' end of hnRNA.
(2) Absence of antigens A and B on the surface of
RBCs  During DNA replication Okazaki fragments are
synthesized discontinuously and joined by DNA
(3) Absence of antigens A and B in plasma
ligase.
(4) Presence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, on
 A PCR primer sequence is termed degenerate if
RBCs
some of its position have several possible
Answer (1) bases.
44
175. Identify the incorrect pair Sol.  Option (4) is correct because myasthenia gravis
is a chronic auto immune disorder affecting
(1) Drugs – Ricin
neuromuscular junction leading to fatigue,
(2) Alkaloids – Codeine weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle.
(3) Toxin – Abrin  Gout is caused due to deposition of uric acid
crystals in joints leading to its inflammation.
(4) Lectins – Concanavalin A
 Inflammation of joints is commonly known as
Answer (1)
arthritis.
Sol.  Option (1) is incorrect because ricin is a toxin  Muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder which
obtained from Ricinus plant. Vinblastin and results in progressive degeneration of skeletal
curcumin are drugs. muscle.
 Morphine and codeine are alkaloids. 178. Which of the following RNAs is not required for the
 Abrin is also a toxin obtained by plant Abrus. synthesis of protein?
(1) siRNA (2) mRNA
 Concanavalin A is a lectin.
(3) tRNA (4) rRNA
176. With regard to insulin choose correct options.
Answer (1)
(a) C-peptide is not present in mature insulin.
Sol. siRNA are small interfering RNA also called silencing
(b) The insulin produced by rDNA technology has C- RNA. It is a class of double-stranded RNA,
peptide. non-coding RNA molecules.
(c) The pro-insulin has C-peptide mRNA is messenger RNA that carries genetic
information provided by DNA.
(d) A-peptide and B-peptide of insulin are
interconnected by disulphide bridges. tRNA carries amino acids to the mRNA during
translation.
below rRNA is structural RNA that forms ribosomes which
are involved in translation.
(1) (a) and (d) only
179. Which of the following is not an objective of
(2) (b) and (d) only Biofortification in crops?
(3) (b) and (c) only (1) Improve micronutrient and mineral content
(4) (a), (c) and (d) only (2) Improve protein content
Answer (4) (3) Improve resistance to diseases
Sol.  Insulin is synthesized as a pro-hormone which (4) Improve vitamin content

contains A-chain, B-chain and an extra stretch Answer (3)
called the C-peptide.
Sol. Biofortification improves vitamin content, protein
 C-peptide is not present in mature insulin called content and micronutrient and mineral content.
humulin. It does not create resistance in plants against
 Chains A and B are connected by interchain diseases.
disulphide bridges. 180. Erythropoietin hormone which stimulates R.B.C.
177. Chronic auto immune disorder affecting neuro formation is produced by:
muscular junction leading to fatigue, weakening and (1) Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney
paralysis of skeletal muscle is called as:
(2) Alpha cells of pancreas
(1) Gout (2) Arthritis (3) The cells of rostral adenohypophysis
(3) Muscular dystrophy (4) Myasthenia gravis (4) The cells of bone marrow
45
Sol.  Option (1) is correct because Juxtaglomerular 183. Sphincter of oddi is present at:
cells of kidney secrete erythropoietin hormone
(1) Junction of jejunum and duodenum
which stimulates RBC formation.
 Alpha cells of pancreas produce hormone (2) Ileo-caecal junction
glucagon. (3) Junction of hepato-pancreatic duct and
 The cells of rostral adenohypophysis duodenum
synthesizes hormones of anterior lobe of
pituitary. (4) Gastro-oesophageal junction
 The cells of bone marrow are responsible for Answer (3)

formation of formed elements. Sol.  The bile duct and the pancreatic duct open
181. Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of together into the duodenum as the common
inactive fibrinogens to fibrins? hepato-pancreatic duct which is guarded by a
(1) Thrombokinase (2) Thrombin sphincter called the sphincter of Oddi.
(3) Renin (4) Epinephrine  Ileo-caecal valve is present at the junction of
Answer (2) ileum and caecum to prevent the backflow of
Sol. During coagulation of blood, an enzyme complex faecal matter into the ileum in humans.
thrombokinase helps in the conversion of  Gastro-oesphageal sphincter regulates the
prothrombin (present in plasma) into thrombin. opening of oesophagus into stomach.
Thrombin further helps in the conversion of inactive
fibrinogens into fibrins which form network of threads. 184. Which is the "Only enzyme" that has "Capability" to
catalyse Initiation, Elongation and Termination in the
Renin is secreted by JG cells in response to fall in
process of transcription in prokaryotes?
glomerular blood flow, which converts
angiotensinogen in blood to angiotensin-I (1) DNase
Epinephrine or adrenaline is secreted by adrenal (2) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
medulla in response to stress of any kind and
during emergency. (3) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
182. For effective treatment of the disease, early diagnosis (4) DNA Ligase
and understanding its pathophysiology is very
Answer (3)
important. Which of the following molecular diagnostic
techniques is very useful for early detection? Sol. In prokaryotes, the DNA dependent RNA
(1) Hybridization Technique polymerase is a holoenzyme that is made of
polypeptides (2') . It is responsible for
(2) Western Blotting Technique
initiation, elongation and termination during
(3) Southern Blotting Technique
transcription.
(4) ELISA Technique
DNase degrades DNA.
Answer (3/4*)
Sol.  ELISA can be used for early detection of an DNA dependent DNA polymerase is involved in
infection either by detecting the presence of replication of DNA.
pathogenic antigen or by detecting the antibodies DNA ligase joins the discontinuously sysnthesised
synthesized against the pathogen. fragments of DNA.
 Option (3) Southern blotting is used to detect a
specific DNA sequence in the given sample and
can be detected prior to antibody formation. One List-I List-II
can detect presence of pathogenic DNA/RNA.
 In hybridization technique a ssDNA/ssRNA (a) Vaults (i) Entry of sperm through
tagged with a radioactive molecule (probe) is Cervix is blocked
allowed to hybridize its complementary DNA in
(b) IUDs (ii) Removal of Vas
a clone of cells followed by detection using
autoradiography. It is used to find a mutated deferens
gene. (c) Vasectomy (iii) Phagocytosis of
 Western blotting technique is used to detect a sperms within the Uterus
specific protein molecule among a mixture of
proteins. (d) Tubectomy (iv) Removal of fallopian tube
46
Choose the correct answer from the option given Sol. The correct option is (1).
below
 Scapula is a large triangular flat bone situated in
(a) (b) (c) (d) the dorsal part of the thorax between the second
and the seventh ribs.
(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(2) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)  Fibrous joint is shown by the flat skull bones
which fuse end-to-end with the help of dense
(3) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) fibrous connective tissues in the form of sutures,
(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) to form the cranium.
Answer (3)  Sternum is a flat bone on the ventral midline of

thorax.
Sol.  Diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults are barrier
methods of contraception for female which works  Cartilaginous joints between the adjacent
by blocking the entry of sperms through the vertebrae in the vertebral column permits limited
cervix. movements.
 IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms within the 187. Following are the statements with reference to 'lipids'.
uterus.
(a) Lipids having only single bonds are called
 Vasectomy is a surgical method of contraception unsaturated fatty acids
in males in which a small part of the vas
deferens is removed or tied up through a small (b) Lecithin is a phospholipid.
incision on the scrotum. (c) Trihydroxy propane is glycerol.
 Tubectomy is a surgical method of contraception (d) Palmitic acid has 20 carbon atoms including
in females where a small part of the fallopian carboxyl carbon.
tube is removed or tied up through a small
incision in the abdomen or through vagina. (e) Arachidonic acid has 16 carbon atoms.

SECTION - B below.
186. Match List-I with List-II (1) (b) and (e) only
List -I List -II (2) (a) and (b) only
Cartilaginous (3) (c) and (d) only

(a) Scapula (i)
joints
(4) (b) and (c) only
(b) Cranium (ii) Flat bone
Answer (4)
(c) Sternum (iii) Fibrous joints
Sol.  The correct option is (4) because lipids having
Vertebral Triangular flat only single bonds are called saturated fatty acids
(d) (iv)
column bone and lipids having one or more C = C double
Choose the correct answer from the options given bonds are called unsaturated fatty acids.
below  Palmitic acid has 16 carbon atoms including
(a) (b) (c) (d) carboxyl carbon.
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)  Arachidonic acid has 20 carbon atoms including
the carboxyl carbon.
(2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
 Lecithin is a phospholipid found in cell
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) membrane.
(4) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
 Glycerol has 3 carbons, each bearing a hydroxyl
Answer (1) (–OH) group.
47
188. Match List-I with List - II Sol. The correct option is (2) because the length of
A-band is retained. During muscle contraction, the
List - I List - II
following events occur:
(a) Allen’s Rule (i) Kangaroo rat
(1) The globular head of myosin acts as ATPase
(b) Physiological (ii) Desert lizard and hydrolyses ATP molecule and eventually
adaptation leads to the formation of cross bridge.
(c) Behavioural (iii) Marine fish
(2) This pulls the actin filament towards the centre
adaptation at depth
of 'A-band'.
(d) Biochemical (iv) Polar seal (3) The Z-line attached to these actins are also
adaptation pulled inwards thereby causing a shortening of
Choose the correct answer from the options given the sarcomere.
below. (4) The thin myofilaments move past the thick
(a) (b) (c) (d) myofilaments due to which the H-zone narrows.
This reduces the length of I-band but retains the
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
length of A-band.
(2) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(5) The myosin then releases ADP+Pi, and goes
(3) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) back to its relaxed state.
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) 190. Match List - I with List - II
Answer (4)
List - I List - II
Sol.  Polar seal generally has shorter ears and limbs
(a) Adaptive (i) Selection of
(extremities) to minimise heat loss. This is with
radiation resistant varieties
reference to Allen's rule.
due to excessive
 Kangaroo rat exhibits physiological adaptation. use of herbicides
 Desert lizard shows behavioural adaptation. and pesticides
They lack the physiological ability to cope-up (b) Convergent (ii) Bones of forelimbs
with extreme temperature but manage the body evolution in Man and Whale
temperature by behavioural means. (c) Divergent (iii) Wings of Butterfly
evolution and Bird
 Marine fishes at depth are adapted biochemically
to survive in great depths in ocean. (d) Evolution by (iv) Darwin Finches
anthropogenic
189. During muscular contraction which of the following action
events occur?
(a) 'H' zone disappears below.
(b) 'A' band widens (a) (b) (c) (d)
(c) 'I' band reduces in width (1) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(d) Myosine hydrolyzes ATP, releasing the ADP and (2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Pi.
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(e) Z-lines attached to actins are pulled inwards.
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
below: Answer (2)
(1) (b), (d), (e), (a) only Sol. The correct option is (2)
(2) (a), (c), (d), (e) only  Adaptive radiation is the process of evolution of
different species in a given geographical area
(3) (a), (b), (c), (d) only
starting from a point and literally radiating to
(4) (b), (c), (d), (e) only other areas of geography, for example : Darwin's
Answer (2) finches.
48
 Analogous organs which are not anatomically  Parturition is controlled by a complex

similar structures though they perform similar neuroendocrine mechanism.
functions, are a result of convergent evolution,  Estrogen and progesterone ratio increases as
for example: Wings of butterfly and of birds. estrogen levels rise significantly.
 Homologous organs which are anatomically  Prostaglandins, which stimulate uterine
similar structures but perform different functions contractions are also produced that act on
according to their needs, are a result of divergent myometrium.
evolution, for example : Bones of forelimbs in
 Oxytocin, the main hormone, also called as birth
man and whale.
hormone is released by maternal pituitary, which
 Evolution by anthropogenic action means brings about strong uterine contractions.
evolution due to human interference, for example:
 Prolactin is a lactation hormone that has no role
Antibiotic resistant microbes, herbicides
in initiation of parturition.
resistant varieties and pesticide resistant
varieties. 193. Which of the following secretes the hormone, relaxin,
during the later phase of pregnancy?
191. Assertion (A): A person goes to high altitude and
experiences 'altitude sickness' with symptoms like (1) Uterus (2) Graafian follicle
breathing difficulty and heart palpitations. (3) Corpus luteum (4) Foetus
Reason (R): Due to low atmospheric pressure at Answer (3)
high altitude, the body does not get sufficient
oxygen. Sol. The hormone relaxin is produced in the later phase
In the light of the above statements, choose the of pregnancy. It is produced by the ovary.
correct answer from the options given below  Graafian follicle is not formed when the woman
(1) (A) is false but (R) is true is pregnant.
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct  Uterus and foetus do not produce relaxin.
explanation of (A)  Relaxin is produced by the corpus luteum
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the present in the ovary. Ruptured Graafian follicle is
correct explanation of (A) called corpus luteum, which has endocrine
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false function.
Answer (2) 194. Match List-I with List-II
Sol. Altitude sickness can be experienced at high altitude List -I List -II
where body does not get enough oxygen due to low
Haemophilus
atmospheric pressure and causes nausea, fatigue (a) Filariasis (i)
influenzae
and heart palpitations.
Hence correct option is (2) as [R] is correct (b) Amoebiasis (ii) Trichophyton
explanation of [A]. Wuchereria
(c) Pneumonia (iii)
192. Which of these is not an important component of bancrofti
Entamoeba
initiation of parturition in humans ? (d) Ringworm (iv)
histolytica
(1) Release of Prolactin
(2) Increase in estrogen and progesterone ratio below
(3) Synthesis of prostaglandins (a) (b) (c) (d)
(4) Release of Oxytocin (1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
Answer (1) (2) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
Sol.  At the end of gestation, the completely (3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
developed foetus is expelled out. This process is (4) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
called parturition. Answer (3)
49
Sol. The correct option is (3). 197. Which one of the following statements about
Histones is wrong?
 Filariasis is the disease caused by Wuchereria
bancrofti, filarial worm. (1) Histones carry positive charge in the side chain
 Amoebiasis/Amoebic dysentery is caused by a (2) Histones are organized to form a unit of 8
protozoan parasite Entamoeba histolytica in the molecules
large intestine of human. (3) The pH of histones is slightly acidic
 Pneumonia is caused by bacteria like (4) Histones are rich in amino acids - Lysine and
Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus Arginine
influenzae.
Answer (3)
 Ringworm is caused by fungi belonging to
Sol.  Histones are rich in basic amino acids residue
genera Microsporum, Trichophyton and lysine and arginine with charged side chain.
Epidermophyton.
 There are five types of histone proteins i.e., H1,
195. Which of the following is not a step in Multiple H2A, H2B, H3 and H4. Four of them occur in
Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology (MOET)? pairs to produce a unit of 8 molecules (histone
(1) Fertilized eggs are transferred to surrogate octamer)
mothers at 8-32 cell stage  The pH of histones is basic.
(2) Cow is administered hormone having LH like 198. Statement I: The codon 'AUG' codes for methionine
activity for super ovulation and phenylalanine.
(3) Cow yields about 6-8 eggs at a time Statement II: 'AAA' and 'AAG' both codons code for
the amino acid lysine.
(4) Cow is fertilized by artificial insemination
In the light of the above statements, choose the
Answer (2) correct answer from the options given below.
Sol. Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology is (1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
used for herd improvement in short time. true
 Cows are administered hormones, with FSH-like (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
activity for superovulation.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
 8-32 celled embryos are transferred to surrogate
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
mothers.
false
 6-8 eggs are produced per cycle.
Answer (1)
 Cows can be fertilised by artificial insemination.
Sol.  AUG has dual functions, it codes for methionine.
196. The Adenosine deaminase deficiency results into It also acts as initiator codon.
(1) Addison's disease  AUG does not code for phenylalanine.
(2) Dysfunction of Immune system  Statement II is true.
(3) Parkinson's disease
199. Identify the types of cell junctions that help to stop
(4) Digestive disorder the leakage of the substances across a tissue and
Answer (2) facilitation of communication with neighbouring cells
via rapid transfer of ions and molecules.
Sol. Adenosine deaminase (ADA) enzyme is crucial for
the immune system to function. Hence, its (1) Adhering junctions and Gap junctions,
deficiency results in the dysfunction of immune respectively
system. (2) Gap junctions and Adhering junctions,
 Hyposecretion of hormones of the adrenal cortex respectively
causes Addison's disease.
(3) Tight junctions and Gap junctions, respectively
 Parkinson's disease is a long-term degenerative
disorder of the central nervous system. (4) Adhering junctions and Tight junctions,
respectively.
 Disorders which affect GIT & associated glands
are called digestive disorders. Answer (3)
50
Sol. Three types of junctions are found in tissues Choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
 Tight junctions stop leakage of substances from
leaking across a tissue. (1) (b) and (c) are correct
 Adhering junctions cement and keep (2) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
neighbouring cells together. (3) (a), (b) and (d) are correct
 Gap junctions or communication junctions (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct
facilitate communication between cells by
connecting the cytoplasm of adjoining cells. Answer (2)
200. Following are the statements about prostomium of Sol.  The anterior end of the earthworm has mouth
which has covering called prostomium.
earthworm.
 Prostomium acts as a wedge to force open
(a) It serves as a covering for mouth.
cracks in the soil.
(b) It helps to open cracks in the soil into which it
 Prostomium has receptors, so it is sensory in
can crawl.
function.
(c) It is one of the sensory structures.
 The first body segment of earthworm is the
(d) It is the first body segment. peristomium

51

Ans&amp;Sol Neet 2021 (Code p2)

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

You might also like

Ans&amp;Sol Neet 2021 (Code p2)

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Ans&amp;Sol Neet 2021 (Code p2)

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

DATE : 12/09/2021 Test Booklet Code

Dimensional formula of gravitational constant

= (240) × 8.5 – 240 × 7.6

B = (2040 – 1824) MeV

(4) 804 MeV 1 2

(1) Having a permanent electric dipole moment Answer (2)

(2) Having zero dipole moment Sol. Given V = V0sint (1)

(1) 4  (2) 0.25  = 8.1 kW

Given RP = 0.25  (1) 8 × 10–20 N

d  mgh  Now, force acting on electron due to this field

Sol. • In reverse biased, after breakdown, voltage across I = neAE

• Potential barrier of silicon diode is nearly 0.7 V In e

19. A spring is stretched by 5 cm by a force 10 N. The ∵ e   h

Sol. Escape velocity from the Earth's surface

22. A convex lens 'A' of focal length 20 cm and a  2h  2  2m  2

(3) 15 (4) 50 Answer (4)

Hence, all options are correct.

When two conductors are connected by a conducting 13 10

The circuit can be redrawn as Initial speed u = 0

C By equation of uniformly accelerated motion

Distance travelled during (n + 1)th second. Column-I Column-II

d (1) (A) - (R), (B) - (Q), (C) - (S), (D) - (P)

35. Match Column - I and Column - II and choose the SECTION - B

Column - I Column - II 36. In the product

3  i (4B0  6B ) – j (2B 0 – 6B )  kˆ(2B – 4B )

3M (3) 4.2 kg m/s (4) 2.1 kg m/s

i3 r3 40. A step down transformer connected to an ac mains

Sol. In ideal transformer: Sol. given v = kVe

(2) 3 Ia2 and 3 Ia2 1 2  2GM  GMh

43. A series LCR circuit containing 5.0 H inductor, 80

(Ve = escape velocity) Answer (4)

44. A particle moving in a circle of radius R with a

8gR 46. Twenty seven drops of same size are charged at

8gRT 2 2gT 2 (1) 1980 V (2) 660 V

Rod will be in equilibrium, when net torque about v1 = ?, u = –60 cm, f = 30 cm

So magnitude of velocity of ball t3 - t4 1 1 0 1 1 1

In the light of the above statements, choose the

Lanthanoids have typical metallic structure and (2) CP + CV = R

(1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is = ΔU + RΔT

Due to small size of Be, Beryllium chloride is CH3

57. Tritium, a radioactive isotope of hydrogen, emits

(4) Upto 1900 K 2C 6H 5 + CO 2

59. BF3 is planar and electron deficient compound. CH CH CH 2 Br

(3) sp3 and 6 (4) sp2 and 6 (iv) CH CH CH2 Br + H Br

(3) Nylon-66 (4) Novolac O

(3) Vitamin B6 (4) Vitamin B1 (2) Belonging to same group

Answer (2) (3) Diagonal relationship

Sol. Deficiency of vitamin B2 (Riboflavin) causes (4) Lanthanoid contraction

CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 (1) Tridentate ligand with three "N" donor atoms

(1) P3 > P1 > P2 (2) P2 > P1 > P3

600 K (3) P1 > P2 > P3 (4) P2 > P3 > P1

mass of solute, smaller will be molar

concentration and smaller will be the osmotic

83. Noble gases are named because of their inertness

= 41.57 × 103 J/mol O2– 8 + 2 = 10

93. The reagent 'R' in the given sequence of chemical Na+ 11 – 1 = 10

Br Br Br (2) 1.75 × 10−4 mol L−1

Sol. For a spontaneous process, ΔStotal > 0 and since

Ans&Sol Neet 2021 (Code p2)

Ans&Sol Neet 2021 (Code p2)

Ans&Sol Neet 2021 (Code p2)