Resonance Revision DPP Physics 1 To 8 Sets JEE MAINS & ADVANCED 2022

PHYSICS
TARGET : JEE (MAIN)

 

INFORM ATI O
E E ST
DPP DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEMS
CLASS : XII NO. 1
DPP Syllabus : Kinematics, Newton's Laws of Motion, Friction, WPE.
Revision DPP No. # 1

Total Marks : 300 Max. Time: 180 min.
Single correct Objective ('–1' negative marking) Q.1 to Q.60 (4 marks) [240]
Integer type Questions (‘0’ negative marking) Q.61 to Q.75 (4 marks) [60]
SECTION - I
Straight Objective Type
This section contains 60 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4)
for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. The vertical height of the projectile at time t is given by y = 4t – t2 and the horizontal distance covered is
given by x = 3t. What is the angle of projection with the horizontal?
(1) tan–1 3/5 (2) tan–1 4/5 (3) tan–1 4/3 (4) tan–1 3/4
2. A particle is projected from a horizontal floor with speed 10 m/s at an angle 30º with the floor and
striking the floor after sometime. State which is correct.
(1) Velocity of particle will be perpendicular to initial direction two seconds after projection.
(2) Minimum speed of particle will be 5 m/sec.
(3) Displacement of particle after half second will be 35/4 m.
(4) None of these
3. There are two inclined planes AO and OB inclined at 45° and 60° respectively with the horizontal as
shown in figure. When a man moves on the inclined plane AO, he observes that the rain drops are
falling at 45° with the vertical. When the man moves on the inclined plane OB, he observes that the rain
drops are falling vertically downward. Then actual speed of rain w.r.t. ground is :
(1) 5 2m / s (2) 20 3m / s (3) 10 2m / s (4) None of these
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PAGE NO.-1
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4. A car starts from rest & again comes to rest after travelling 200 m in a straight line. If its acceleration
and deacceleration are limited to 10 m/s2 & 20 m/s2 respectively then minimum time the car will take to
travel the distance is -
20
(1) 20 s (2) 10 s (3) 2 15 s (4) s
3
5. One car moving on a straight road covers one third of the distance with 20 km/h and the rest with
60 km/h. The average speed of the car is
2
(1) 40 km/h (2) 80 km/h (3) 46 km / h (4) 36 km/h
3
6. The system starts from rest and A attains a velocity of 5 m/s after it has moved 5 m towards right.
Assuming the arrangement to be frictionless every where and pulley & strings to be light, if the constant
force F applied on A then find the value of F.
(1) 75 (2) 85 (3) 95 (4) 100
7. A sphere of mass m is held between two smooth inclined walls AB and

AC. The normal reaction between wall AB and sphere is :
15mg 30mg
(1) (2)
7 7
10mg 20mg
(3) (4)
7 7
8. A constant force F = m1g / 2 is applied on the block of mass m2 as shown in figure. The string and the
pulley are light and the surface of the table is smooth. Find the acceleration of m2.
m1g m2 g m1 m2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2(m1  m2 ) 2(m1  m2 ) 2(m1  m2 ) 2(m1  m2 )
  
9. When forces F1 ,F2 ,F3 are acting on a particle of mass m, the particle remains in equilibrium. If the force

F1 is now removed then the acceleration of the particle is :
    
(1) F1 / m (2) –F1 / m (3) F2  F3 / m (4) F2 / m
PAGE NO.-2
10. A combination of three blocks is shown in figure is pushed by a
horizontal force of 30 N on a frictionless surface. Force exerted by A
on B is
(1) 20 N (2) 40 N (3) 80 N (4) 60 N
11. A uniform rope of length  lies on a table. If the coefficient of friction is , then the maximum length 1 of
the part of this rope which can overhang from the edge of the table without sliding down is
  μ μ
(1) (2) (3) (4)
μ μ 1 μ μ 1
12. A mass of 1 kg is suspended by a string A. Another string C is

connected to its lower end (see figure). If a sudden jerk is given to C,
then :
(1) the portion AB of the string will break
(2) the portion BC of the string will break
(3) none of the strings will break
(4) the mass will start rotating
13. The kinetic energy acquired by a body of mass m is travelling some distance s, starting from rest under
the actions of a constant force, is directly proportional to :
(1) m0 (2) m (3) m2 (4) 3
14. The upper half of an inclined plane of inclination  is perfectly smooth while the lower half is rough. A
body starting from the rest at top comes back to rest at the bottom if the coefficient of friction for the
lower half is given by
(1) = sin (2) = cot  (3) = 2 cos   (4) = 2 tan
15. A 20 kg body is pushed with just enough force to start it moving across a floor and the same force
continues to act afterwards. The coefficient of static and kinetic friction are 0.6 & 0.2 respectively. The
acceleration of the body is:
(1) 6 m/s2 (2) 1 m/s2 (3) 2 m/s2 (4) 4 m/s2
16. A man places a vertical chain (of mass ‘m’ and length ‘’) on a table slowly. Initially the lower end of the
chain just touches the table. The man drops the chain when half of the chain is in vertical position. Then
work done by the man in this process is :
 mg 3mg mg 
(1) – mg (2) – (3) – (4) –
2 4 8 8
17. Pulling force making an angle  to the horizontal is applied on a block of weight W placed ona
horizontal table. If the angle of friction is , then the magnitude of force required to move the body is
equal to :
W sin α W cos α W sin α W tan α
(1) (2) (3) (4)
g tan(θ α) cos(θ α ) cos(θ α ) sin(θ α)
18. A body is moved along a straight line by a machine delivering constant power. The distance moved by
the body in time t is proportional to :
(1) t1/2 (2) t3/4 (3) t3/2 (4) t2
PAGE NO.-3
a b
19. The potential energy between two atoms in a molecule is given by U(x) = ; where a and b
12
–
x x6
are positive constants and x is the distance between the atoms. The atoms is in stable equilibrium when
11a a 2a
(1) x  6 (2) x  6 (3) x = 0 (4) x  6
5b 2b b
20. An engine pump is used to pump a liquid of density  continuously through a pipe of cross-sectional
area A. If the speed of flow of the liquid in the pipe is v, then the rate at which kinetic energy is being
imparted to the liquid is:
1 1 1
(1) Av 3 (2) Av2 (3) Av (4) Av
2 2 2
21. The component of vector 2 î  3 ˆj along vector  ˆj  5 î is :

7 7 13
(1) (2) (3) (4) none of these
13 26 13

22. The potential energy function associated with the force F  4xy î  2x2 ˆj is :
(1) U = – 2x2 y (2) U = – 2x2 y + constant
(3) U = 2x2 y + constant (4) not defined
b
23. The velocity v of a particel at time t is given by v = at + , where a, b and c are constants. The
tc
dimensions of a, b and c are respectively :-
(1) LT–2, L and T (2) L2, L and LT2 (3) LT2, LT and L (4) L, LT and L2
24. A roller coaster car travels down the helical path at constant speed such that it's parametric coordinates
varies as x = c sin (kt), y = c cos (kt), z = h – bt where c, h, k and b are constants, then the magnitude
of it's acceleration is:
c 2k 2
(1) 0 (2) ck2 (3) (4) bk2
h
dv
25. The deceleration experienced by a moving motor boat after its engine is cut–off is given by = –kv3
dt
(v is velocity) where k is position constant. If v0 is the magnitude of the velocity at cut–off, the magnitude
of the velocity at a time t after the cut–off is :
v v0 v0
(1) 0 (2) v0e–kt (3) (4)
2 2
2v 0 kt  1 2v 02kt  2
26. A particle moving with uniform acceleration along x-axis has speed v m/s at a position x metre given by
180
v  180  16 x (0 < x < ). The acceleration of the particle in m/s2 is
16
8
(1) –16 (2) – 8 (3) 164 (4) 
160  16 x
PAGE NO.-4
27. A particle starts from rest with uniform acceleration and its velocity after n seconds is v. The
displacement of the body in last two seconds is
v(n  1) 2v(n  1) 2v(n  1) v(n  1)
(1) (2) (3) (4)
n n n n
28. A particle moves along x-axis in positive direction. Its acceleration 'a'
is given as a = cx + d, where x denotes the x-coordinate of particle, c
and d are positive constants. For velocity-position graph of particle to
be of type as shown in figure, the value of speed of particle at x = 0
should be.
4d2 d2 2d2 8d2

(1) (2) (3) (4)
c c c c
29. A particle is moving in a straight line whose acceleration versus time

graph is given. Assume that initial velocity is in the direction of
acceleration. Then which of the statement is correct between time t =
0 to t = t0.
(1) Velocity first increases then decreases, displacement always increases
(2) Velocity and displacement both, first increases and then decreases
(3) Displacement increases and velocity decreases
(4) Displacement and velocity both always increases
30. 1
The graph shows the variation of (where V is the velocity
V
of the particle) with respect to time. Then find the value of
acceleration at t = 3 sec.
(1) 3 m/s2
(2) 5 m/s2
(3) 1 m/s2
(4) None of these
31. Velocity versus displacement graph of a particle moving in a straight

line is as shown in figure :
The acceleration of the particle is :
(1) constant (2) increases linearly with x
(3) increases parabolically with x (4) None of the above
32. A particle is projected from ground level under gravity. It's range v/s projection angle graph is drawn
keeping fixed projection speed. Then time of flight of particle corresponding to maximum height attained
by particle is:
(1) 2 5 sec. (2) 2 10 sec. (3) 3 5 sec. (4) 3 10 sec.
PAGE NO.-5
33. For ground to ground projectile, time taken by a particle to go from point O to point C is T1 and during
the same motion time taken by the particle to go from A to B is T2, then height 'h' is :
1 1 1 1
(1) gT12 (2) g(T12 – T22) (3) g (T12 – T22) (4) g(T2– T1)2
2 4 8 8
34. A particle is projected from ground from O with speed 20 m/s making an angle 45º with ground. Two
high smooth and vertical walls are present, one 10m ahead and other 15m behind the point of
projection. If collision of the particle with the walls are perfectly elastic then where will the particle land
from the point of projection ?
(1) 5m ahead (2) 5m behind (3) 10m ahead (4) 10m behind
35. If the angle of projection of a particle from the horizontal is doubled keeping the speed of projection
same the particle strikes the same target on the ground then the ratio of maximum height in the two
cases will be :
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 1 : 3 (4) 1 : 4
36. A platform is pulled with a constant acceleration a. A particle is

projected from the platform at angle  with the horizontal with
respect to the platform as shown in the figure. The value of tan
such that particle again come to the starting point on the platform
is (a = 5 m/s2): use g = 10 m/s2
(1) 4 (2) 6 (3) 2 (4) 3
37. A man standing on a truck moving with a constant acceleration 'a', throws a ball in vertically upward
direction with speed 'v' relative to truck. The minimum speed of the ball observed by the man during the
flight will be :
va vg
(1) (2) (3) zero (4) None of these
2 2
a g a  g2
2
38. A projectile has same range R for two angles of projection. If t1 & t2 be the time of flight for the two
cases then :
gt1t 2 g(t1  t 2 )2 t1t 2
(1) R = (2) R = (3) R = g t1t 2 (4) R = 2g
2 2 t1  t 2
39. Two smooth spheres each of radius 5 cm and weight W rest one
on the other inside a fixed smooth cylinder of radius 8 cm. The
reactions between the spheres and the vertical side of the
cylinder are:
(1) W/4 & 3W/4 (2) W/4 & W/4
(3) 3W/4 & 3W/4 (4) W & W
PAGE NO.-6
40. A block starts from rest at the top of frictionless slide at a height, h1 above the ground. The block leaves
the slide moving perfectly horizontally at a height h2 above the ground. The block eventually hits the
ground traveling at an angle  = 30° below the horizontal. The ratio of h1 and h2 is

4 2 4 3
(1) (2) (3) (4)
1 5 3 1
41. The acceleration of 8 kg block just after system is released is : (All surfaces are smooth, ideal pulleys,
massless strings) (g = 10 m/s2)
10 kg
7 kg
8 kg 5 kg
(1) 1 m/s2 (2) 2 m/s2
(3) 1.5 m/s2 (4) None of these
42. A motor is fixed inside a box which is moving upwards with

velocity 5 m/s. String is winding at the rate 3 m/s. Then the
velocity of block A will be:
(1) 2.5 m/s downwards
(2) 5 m/s downwards
(3) 1 m/s downwards
(4) 2 m/s downwards
43. A particle with total mechanical energy, which is small and negative, is under the influence of a one
dimensional potential U(x) = x4/4 – x2/2 J where x is in meters. At time t = 0 s, it is at x = – 0.5 m. Then
at a later time it can be found.
(1) anywhere on the x axis (2) between x = – 1.0 m to x = 1.0 m
(3) between x = – 1.0 m to x = 0.0 m (4) between x = 0.0 m to x = 1.0 m.
PAGE NO.-7
44. In the pulley system shown in figure, block C is going up at 2 m/s and block B is going up at 4 m/s, then
the velocity of block A on the string shown in figure, is equal to :
(1) 2 m/s  (2) 4 m/s  (3) 6 m/s  (4) 8 m/s 
45. Two rods are moving with constant velocity v in perpendicular direction to their length as shown in
figure. The velocity of point of intersection of two rods will be :
(1) v cosec (2) v cos (3) v sin (4) 2vsin
46. In the figure mA = mB = mC = 60 kg. The co-efficient of

friction between C and ground is 0.5, B and ground is 0.3,
A & B is 0.4. C is pulling the string with the maximum
possible force without moving. Then tension in the string
connected to A will be:
(1) 120 N (2) 60 N (3) 100 N (4) zero
47. A body of mass m was slowly hauled up the hill as shown

in figure by a force F which at each point was directed
along a tangent to the trajectory. Find the work performed
by this force, if the height of the hill is h, the length of its
base , and the coefficient of friction k.
(1) mg h (2) mg (h + k) (3) mg (h – k) (4) None of these
48. A block of mass 4 kg is pressed against the wall by a force

of 80N as shown in figure. The value of friction force is
(take s = 0.2)
(1) 32 N (upward) 4kg
80N
(2) 8 N (downward)
(3) 8 N (upward) 37°
(3) 32 N (downward)
PAGE NO.-8
49. Starting from rest a body slides down a 45º inclined plane in twice the time it takes to slide down the same
distance in the absence of friction. The co-efficient of friction between the body and the inclined plane is:
(1) 0.75 (2) 0.33 (3) 0.25 (4) 0.80
50. A small mass slides down an inclined plane of inclination  with the horizontal. The co-efficient of
friction is  = 0 x where x is the distance through which the mass slides down and 0, a constant. Then
the speed is maximum after the mass covers a distance of
cos  sin tan 2 tan
(1) (2) (3) (4)
0 0 0 0
51. Power of the only force acting on a particle of mass m = 1 kg moving in straight line depends on its
velocity as P = v2 where v is in m/s and P is in watt. If initial velocity of the particle is 1 m/s, then the
displacement of the particle in ln2 second will be :
(1) (n2 – 1)m (2) (n2)2 m (3) 1 m (4) 2 m
52. The components of a force acting on a particle are varying according to the graphs shown. When the
particle moves from (0, 5, 12) to (4, 20, 0) then the work done by this force is :
(1) 192 J (2) 400/3 J (3) 0 (4) None of these


53 A force F =  k  y î  x ˆj  , where k is a positive constant, acts on a particle moving in the xy plane.
Starting from the origin, the particle is taken along the positive xaxis to the point (a, 0) and then
parallel to the yaxis to the point (a, a). The total work done by the force on the particle is
(1)  2 ka2 (2) 2 ka2 (3)  ka2 (4) ka2
54. The system as shown in the figure is released from rest. The
pulley, spring and string are ideal & friction is absent everywhere.
The speed of 5 kg block when 2 kg block leaves the contact with
ground is : (spring constant k = 40 N/m & g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 2m / s (2) 2 2 m / s
(3) 2 m/s (4) 4 2m / s
55. Block A in the figure is released from rest when the extension in
the spring is x0. (x0 < Mg/k). The maximum downwards
displacement of the block is (ther is no friction) :
2Mg Mg 2Mg 2Mg
(1)  2x 0 (2)  x0 (3)  x0 (4)  x0
K 2K K K
56. The ratio of work done by the internal forces of a car in order to change its speed from 0 to V to, from V
to 2V is (Assume that the car moves on a horizontal road) -
(1) 1 (2) 1/2 (3) 1/3 (4) 1/4
PAGE NO.-9
57. A plane is flying with an air speed 10 m/s toward north but suddenly encounters a wind of 10 m/s at 30º
north of east. If angle made by new direction of velocity of plane with respect to ground from north

direction is then value of n is :
n
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6
58. A particle of mass 2 kg is moving in a conservative field of force in which potential energy of particle
10
varies with coordinate x as U(x) = where x is in meters and U is in joules. The particle is
4  (x  1)2
initially at x = 3 and it is projected towards origin with a velocity u. What is the minimum value of u, so
that the particle can reach the origin.
3 5 7 3 3
(1) m/s (2) m/s (3) m/s (4) m/s
2 2 2 2
59. The minimum work done by external agent in moving a particle from a point (1,1) to (2,3) in a plane and
in a force field with potential energy U =  ( x + y ) is :
(1) 3 (2) – 3 (3)  (4) 0
A B
60. If the potential energy of two molecules is given by U  , where A and B are constants and r is
6

r r12
the distance between molecules. At equilibrium position, its potential energy is equal to
A2 B2 2B B2
(1) (2) (3) (4) 
4B 4A A 4A
SECTION-II : (INTEGER TYPE QUESTIONS)

 This section contains Fifteen (15) questions. The answer to each question is NUMERICAL VALUE with
two digit integer and decimal upto two digit.
61. Figure shows a 5 kg ladder hanging from a string that is

connected with a ceiling and is having a spring balance
connected in between. A boy of mass 25 kg is climbing up the
ladder at acceleration 1 m/s2. Assuming the spring balance and
the string to be massless and the spring to show a constant
reading, the reading (in kg) of the spring balance is :
(Take g = 10 m/s2)
62. A force F  (5iˆ  3ˆj) newton is applied over a particle which displaces it from its origin to the point
r  (2iˆ  1j)
ˆ metres. The work done (in Jule) on the particle is :
63. A 1 kg block is being pushed against a wall by a force F = 75 N as

shown in the Figure. The coefficient of friction is 0.25. The
magnitude of acceleration (in m/s2) of the block is:
PAGE NO.-10
64. A system is shown in the figure. Block A moves with velocity
10 m/s. The speed (in m/s) of the mass B will be:
65. The potential energy of a certain spring when stretched through a distance 'S' is 10 joule. The amount
of work (in joule) that must be done on this spring to stretch in through an additional distance 'S' will be :
66. Two block A and B placed on a plane surface as shown in the

figure. The mass of block A is 100 kg and that of block B is A
200 kg. Block A is tied to a stand and block B is pulled by a force F
F. If the coefficient of friction between the surfaces of A and B is B
0.2 and the coefficient of friction between B and the plane is 0.3.
If for the motion of B the minimum value of F is 100x Newton then
the valule of x is -
67. A block of mass 10 kg is released on a fixed wedge inside a cart

which is moved with constant velocity 10 m/s towards right. Take
initial velocity of block with respect to cart zero. If work done by
normal reaction (with respect to ground )on block in two seconds
is 10x Jule then the value of x is: (g = 10 m/s2).
68. The engine of a futuristic nuclear powered car for which power and speed can have fantastic values
(say 600 kph) can produce a maximum acceleration of 5 m/s2 and its brakes can produce a maximum
retardation of 10 m/s2. The minimum time (in sec) in which a person can reach his workplace, located
1.5 km away from his home using this car is
69. The acceleration–time graph of a particle moving on a straight

line is as shown in figure. The velocity of the particle at time t = 0
is 2m/s. If velocity after 2 seconds x/4.2 then the value of x is.
70. A perfect smooth sphere A of mass 2kg is in contact with a

rectangular block B of mass 4kg and vertical wall as shown in the
figure. All surfaces are smooth. Find normal reaction (in N) by
vertcial wall on sphere A.
71. A sphere of radius R is in contact with a wedge. The point of

contact is R/5 from the ground as shown in the figure. Wedge is
moving with velocity 20 m/s, then the velocity (in m/s) of the
sphere at this instant will be:
PAGE NO.-11
72. A system is as shown in the figure. All speeds shown are with respect to ground. Then the speed
(in m /s) of Block B with respect to ground is :
73. The rear side of a truck is open and a box of mass 20kg is placed on the truck 4 meters away from the
open end  = 0.15 and g = 10m/sec2. The truck starts from rest with an acceleration of 2m/sec2 on a
straight road. The box will fall off the truck when it is at a distance (in meter) from the starting point
equal to:
74. Find the maximum horizontal force F (in newton) which can A
µ = 0.5
be applied such that sliding does not occur between A and B. 1kg
F
2kg
B
µ = 0.1
75. Block A has a mass of 2 kg and block B 20 kg. If the

coefficient of kinetic friction between block B and the
horizontal surface is 0.1 & B is accelerating towards the right
with a = 2 m/s2, then the mass ¼in kga½ of the block C (see the
figure) will be:
ANSWER KEY OF REVISION DPP No. # 1

1. (3) 2. (4) 3. (3) 4. (3) 5. (4) 6. (1) 7. (1)
8. (1) 9. (2) 10. (1) 11. (3) 12. (2) 13. (1) 14. (4)
15. (4) 16. (3) 17. (3) 18. (3) 19. (4) 20. (1) 21. (2)
22. (2) 23. (1) 24. (2) 25. (3) 26. (2) 27. (3) 28. (2)
29. (4) 30. (1) 31. (2) 32. (2) 33. (3) 34. (4) 35. (3)
36. (3) 37. (1) 38. (1) 39. (3) 40. (1) 41. (3) 42. (3)
43. (3) 44. (2) 45. (1) 46. (4) 47. (2) 48. (2) 49. (1)
50. (3) 51. (3) 52. (1) 53 (3) 54. (2) 55. (1) 56. (3)
57. (4) 58. (2) 59. (1) 60. (1) 61. 32.50 62. 13.00 63. 20.00
64. 11.70 65. 30.00 66. 11.00 67. 96.00 68. 30.00 69. 25.20 70. 34.60
71. 15.00 72. 10.00 73. 16.00 74. 24.00 75. 10.50
PAGE NO.-12
PHYSICS
 
TARGET : JEE (MAIN) 
INF ORMA TIO

E EST
CLASS : XII
NO. 2
DPP Syllabus : Circular Motion, Centre of Mass, Rigid Body Dynamics.
REVISION DPP No. # 2

SECTION - I
This section contains 60 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its
answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1. A particle moves along a circle of radius R with a constant angular speed  .Its displacement
(only magnitude) in time t will be
ωt
(1) t (2) 2 R cos t (3) 2 R sin t (4) 2R sin
2
2. A conical pendulum of length L makes an angle  with the vertical as

shown in the figure. The time period will be
L cos  L
(1) 2 (2) 2
g g cos 
L tan  L
(3) 2 (4) 2
g g tan 
3. A particle O of mass m is attached to a vertical rod with two inextensible

strings AO and BO of equal lengths . If  be the distance between the
points of suspension on the vertical rod. if the set up rotation with angular
velocity , than
(1) Tension is thread AO is greater
(2) Tension is thread BO is greater
(3) Tension in the two threads are equal.
(4) Tension in AO or BO is greater according as  is anticlockwise or clockwise.
PAGE NO.-1
4. A weightless rod of length 2 carries two equal masses 'm', one secured at
lower end A and the other at the middle of the rod at B. The rod can rotate
in vertical plane about a fixed horizontal axis passing through C. What
horizontal velocity must be imparted to the mass at A so that it just
completes the vertical circle.
48 45
(1) g (2) g
5 5
40 35
(3) g (4) g
5 5
5. A ball suspended by a thread swings in a vertical plane so that its acceleration in the extreme position
and lowest position are equal in magnitude. Angle  of thread deflection in the extreme position will be:
1 1
(1) 2 tan1 (2) tan1 (3) tan1 2 (4) tan1 2
2 2
6. A body of mass m moving with velocity V makes a head-on elastic collision with another body of mass
2m which is initially at rest. The ratio of kinetic energies of colliding body before and after collision will
be -
(1) 9 : 1 (2) 1 : 1 (3) 4 : 1 (4) 2 : 1
7. In the figure shown find out the distance of centre of mass of a system
of a uniform circular plate of radius 3 R from O in which a hole of
radius R is cut whose centre is at 2R distance from centre of large
circular plate.
(1) R/4 (2) R/5
(3) R/2 (4) none of these
8. A particle A of mass m is situated at highest point of wedge B of mass 2 m is released from rest. Then
distance travelled by wedge B (with respect to ground) when particle A reaches at lowest position.
Assume all surfaces are smooth.
(1) 4/3 cm (2) 8/3 cm (3) 2/3 cm (4) none of these
9. A solid sphere is placed on a horizontal surface. An horizontal impulse  is applied as shown in the
figure. If soon after the impact sphere starts rolling (without slipping) the ratio of h/r is :
(1) 1/2 (2) 1/5 (3) 2/5 (4) 1/4
PAGE NO.-2
10. A ring of radius R rolls without slipping on a rough horizontal surface
with a constant velocity. The radius of curvature of the path followed
by any particle of the ring at the highest point of its path will be :
(1) 1 R (2) 2 R
(3) 4 R (4) none of these
11. Two blocks of mass m and 2m are fixed to the ends of a spring. The spring is initially compressed &
then the system is released in air. Neglecting the air resistance after time t
(1) the momentum of the system will be zero
(2) the momentum of the system will be 3 m g t
(3) the momentum of the system will be m g t
(4) will depend on the value of spring constant.
12. Two masses ‘ m ’ and ‘ 2 m ’ are placed in a fixed horizontal circular

hollow tube as shown. The mass ‘ m ’ is moving with speed ‘u’ and the
mass ‘ 2 m ’ is stationary. After their first collision, the time elapsed for
next collision is : (coefficient of restitution e = 1/2)
2 πr 4 πr 3 πr 12 π r
(1) (2) (3)   (4)
u u u u
13. A solid homogeneous cylinder of height h and base radius r is kept vertically on a conveyer belt moving
horizontally with an increasing velocity v = a + bt2. If the cylinder is not allowed to slip then the time
when the cylinder is about to topple, will be equal to
rg 2rg 2bg rg
(1) (2) (3) (4)
bh bh rh 2 bh
14. A uniform ball of mass ‘m’ rolls without sliding on a fixed horizontal surface. The velocity of the lowest
point of the ball with respect to the centre of the ball is V. The total kinetic energy of the ball is :
7 1 4
(1) mv2 (2) mv2 (3) mv2 (4) mv2
10 5 3
15. A solid sphere, a hollow sphere and a disc, all having same mass and radius, are placed at the top of
an incline and released. The friction coefficients between the objects and the incline are same and not
sufficient to allow pure rolling. Least time will be taken in reaching the bottom by
(1) the solid sphere (2) the hollow sphere
(3) the disc (4) all will take same time.
16. Suppose in gravity free space a disc of mass m0 rotates freely about a fixed horizontal axis through its
centre. A thin cotton pad is fixed to its rim, which can absorb water. The mass of water dripping onto the
pad is  kg per second. After what time will the angular velocity of the disc get reduced to half of its
initial value?
(1) 2m0/ (2) 3m0/ (3) m0/ (4) m0/2
PAGE NO.-3
17. A particle performs uniform circualar motion with an angular momentum L. If the frequency of particle's
motion is doubled and its kinetic energy halved, the angular momentum becomes-
L L
(1) 2L (2) 4L (3) (4)
2 4
3000
18. A flywheel is making revolutions per minute about its axis. If the moment of inertia of the

flywheel about that axis is 400 kgm2, its rotational kinetic energy is-
(1) 2 × 106 J (2) 3 × 103 J (3) 5002 J (4) 12 × 103 J
19. Three thin uniform rods each of mass M and length L are placed along the three axis of a cartesian
coordinate system with one end of each rod at the origin. The M.I. of the system about z-axis is-
ML2 2ML2 2ML2
(1) (2) (3) (4) ML2
3 3 6
20.  represents the moment of inertia of the solid sphere about an axis parallel to the diameter of the solid
sphere and at a distance X from it. Which one of the following represents the variations of I with X ?
I I I I
(1) (2) (3) (4)
X X X R
21. A particle is revolving in a circle of radius R with initial speed u. It starts retarding with constant
u2 8 R
retardation . The number of revolutions it makes in time is :
4 R u
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) none of these
22. From a uniform disc of radius 2R, a semi circular disc of radius R is
cut and removed. Find out the distance of centre of mass of this part
from the point ‘O’ as shown in the figure is:
3R 3R 4R
(1) (2) (3) (4) none of these
28 4 21
23. In the fig. shown a cart moves on a smooth horizontal surface due to
an external constant force of magnitude F. The initial mass of the cart
is M0 and velocity is zero. Sand falls on to the cart with negligible
velocity at constant rate  kg/s and sticks to the cart. The velocity of
the cart at time t is:
Ft F m  t Ft Ft
(1) (2) n 0 (3) (4) et
M0  t  m 0 M0 M0  t
24. A thin, uniform square plate ABCD of side 'a' and mass m is E F
suspended in vertical plane as shown in the figure. AE and BF are
two massless inextensible strings. The line AB is horizontal. The
A B
tension in the string AE just after BF is cut, will be
a
2mg
(1) (2) mg
5 D a C
(3) 0 (4) None of these
PAGE NO.-4
25. Two identical uniform rectangular blocks (with longest side L) and a solid sphere of radius R are to be
balanced at the edge of a heavy table such that the centre of the sphere remains at the maximum
possible horizontal distance from the vertical edge of the table without toppling as indicated in the
figure.
If the mass of each block is M and of the sphere is M/2, then the maximum distance x that can be
achieved is
(1) 8L/15 (2) 5L/6 (3) (3L/4 + R) (4) (7L/15 + R)
26. A horizontal force F is applied to the lower end of a uniform thin rod
of mass 4kg and length L = 50 cm as shown in the figure. The rod
undergoes only translational motion along the smooth horizontal
surface. If F = 60 N determine the angle  for translation motion of
the rod. (g = 10 m/s2)
2  1  1  1
(1) tan1   (2) tan1   (3) sin1   (4) sin1  
3 2 5 4
27. A particle is moving in a circular path. The acceleration and momentum vectors at an instant of time are

= 2 î + 3 ĵ m/s2 and P = 6 î – 4 ĵ kgm/s. Then the motion of the particle is
(1) uniform circular motion (2) circular motion with tangential acceleration
 
(3) circular motion with tangential retardation (4) we cannot say anything from a and P given here.
28. A force of constant magnitude F acts on a particle moving in a plane such that it is perpendicular to the
 
velocity v ( | v | = v) of the body, and the force is always directed towards a fixed point. Then the angle
turned by the velocity vector of the particle as it covers a distance S is :(take mass of the particle as m)
FS 2FS FS2 FS
(1) 2
(2) 2
(3) (4)
2mv mv mv mv 2
29. A body moves along an uneven surface with constant speed at all
points. The normal reaction of the road on the body is :
(1) maximum at A
(2) maximum at B
(3) minimum at C
(4) the same at A, B & C
y
30. A particle is moving along an elliptical path with a constant speed. As
it moves from A to B, magnitude of its acceleration : B
(1) continuously increases

(2) continuously decreases x
A
(3) Remains constant
(4) first increases and then decreases
PAGE NO.-5
31. A smooth and vertical cone-shaped funnel is rotated with an angular
velocity  in such a way that an object on the inner wall of the funnel
is at rest w.r.t. the funnel. If the object is slightly displaced along the
slope from this position and released :
(1) it will be in equilibrium at its new position.
(2) it will execute SHM
(3) it will oscillate but the motion is not SHM
(4) none of these
32. Six nails are driven through a smooth plank placed in a horizontal plane. The positions of the nails are
the vertices of a hexagon of side length L/6 each. A bob attached to a light inextensible string of length
L is held straight as shown in the figure in the same plane and is projected with with constant velocity V.
Then the time taken by the bob to hit the nail A is :
L
L/6
A
L 2L 3L
(1) (2) (3) (4) None of these
V 3V 2V
33. Construction workers don'ts always follow the blueprints precisely. After one "hard night", they read the
plan incorrectly and built a road curve tilted to the other side that it is usually done. What is the
minimum speed, with which a car may cross the curve without slipping? The radius of the curve is r, the
angle by which it's tilted is  and the static friction coefficient between a tyre and the road surface is .
 cos   sin  sin    cos 
(1) v  gr (2) v  gr
cos    sin  cos    sin 
sin    cos   cos   sin 
(3) v  gr (4) v  gr
cos    sin  cos    sin 
34. A small toy car moves along a circle in horizontal surface. The coeficient of friction between the toy car
 r 
and the horizontal surface is  = 0  1   where 0 & R are constant & r is radius of circle. Then
 R
radius of circle at which the toy car can move with maximum constant speed :
R R R
(1) r = (2) r = (3) r = (4) r = R
4 2 3
35. Two cars A and B start racing at the same time on a flat race
track which consists of two straight sections each of length
100  and one circular section as in fig. The rule of the race is
that each car must travel at constant speed at all times without
ever skidding
(1) car A completes its journey before car B
(2) both cars complete their journey in same time
(3) velocity of car A is greater than that of car B
(4) car B completes its journey before car A.
PAGE NO.-6
36. A small block slides with velocity 0.5 gr on the horizontal frictionless
surface as shown in the Figure. The block leaves the surface at point C.
The angle  in the Figure is :
(1) cos1 (4/9) (2) cos1(3/4)
(3) cos1(1/2) (4) none of the above
37. A particle of mass m oscillates between P1 and P2 inside a fixed smooth

spherical shell of radius R. At any instant the kinetic energy of the
particle is E. Then the force exerted by the particle on the shell at this
instant is :
E E
(1) (2)
R 2R
2E 3E
(3) (4)
R R
38. The ‘ y ’ co-ordinate of the centre of mass of the system of three rods of
length ‘2a‘ and two rods of length ‘a’ as shown in figure is : (Assume all
rods to be of uniform density)
9a 9a
(1) (2)
8 3 16 3
8a
(3) zero (4)
3
y
39. In the figure shown a semicircular area is removed from a uniform
square plate of side ‘’ and mass (before removing) ‘m’. The
x-coordinate of centre of mass of remaining portion is (The origin is at
x
the centre of square)
 (  2)  (  2)
(1) – (2)
2 (8  ) 2 (8  )
 (  2)
(3) – (4) None of these
8
40. A uniform solid right circular cone of base radius R is joined to a

unifrom solid hemisphere of radius R and of the same density , so as
to have a common face. The centre of mass of the composite solid
lies on the common face. The height of the cone is :
(1) 1.5 R (2) 3 R
(3) 3 R (4) 2 3 R
41. A shell of mass 2 m projected with a speed ' u ' at an angle  to the horizontal explodes at the highest
point of its motion into two pieces of mass ' m ' each. If one piece whose initial speed is zero, falls
vertically, the distance at which the other piece will fall from the gun is given by:
3 u2 sin 2  3 u2 sin 2  u2 sin 2 
(1) (2) (3) (4) none of these
g 2 g g
PAGE NO.-7
 
42. Two particles of masses m and 2m has initial velocity u1  2iˆ  3ˆj m/s and u2  4iˆ  3ˆj m/s
 
respectively. These particles have constant acceleration a1  4iˆ  3ˆj (m/s2) and a2  4iˆ  2ˆj (m/s2).
Path of the centre of mass of this two particle system will be :
(1) Straight line (2) Circular (3) Parabolic (4) Helical
43. A train of mass M is moving on a circular track of radius ' R ' with constant speed V. The length of the
train is half of the perimeter of the track. The linear momentum of the train will be
2MV
(1) zero (2) (3) MVR (4) MV

x
44. The centre of mass of two masses m & mmoves by distance when mass m is moved by distance x
5
m
and m is kept fixed. The ratio is
m
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 1/4 (4) None of these
45. A man of mass ‘m’ is standing in a lift of the same mass ‘m’ which is
balanced on a pulley by a block of mass 2m. If the man jumps
suddenly with a velocity V0 upwards with respect to ground, then the
speed of the man relative to lift the just after it jumps would be :
V
(1) Vo (2) o
3
2Vo 4Vo
(3) (4)
3 3
46. AB is a long friction less horizontal surface. One end of an ideal

spring of spring constant K is attached to a block of mass m, which
is being moved left with constant velocity v, and the another end is
free. Another block of mass 2m is given a velocity 3v towards the
spring. Work done by external agent in moving m with constant
velocity v in long time will be :
(1) –5 mv2 (2) –8mv2 (3) –4mv2 (4) None of these
47. Particle A makes a perfectly elastic collision with another stationary particle B. They fly apart in opposite
directions with equal speeds. The mass ratio will be:
1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 2 4 3
48. Which one of the following four graphs best depict the variation with x of the moment of inertia I of a
uniform triangular lamina about an axis parallel to its base at a distance x from it :
h
x
I I I I
(1) (2) (3) (4)
x x x x
h h h h
PAGE NO.-8
49. Consider two masses with m1 > m2 connected by a light inextensible string that passes over a pulley of
radius R and moment of inertia  about its axis of rotation. The string does not slip on the pulley and the
pulley turns without friction. The two masses are released from rest separated by a vertical distance 2h.
When the two masses pass each other, the speed of the masses is proportional to.
 
m1  m2  2
m1  m2 (m1  m2 )(m1  m2 ) R R2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
  m1  m2 m1  m2
m1  m2  2 m1  m2  2
R R
50. A hollow tilted cylindrical vessel of negligible mass rests on a horizontal plane as known. The diameter
of the base is a and the side of the cylinder makes an angle  with the horizontal. Water is then slowly
poured into the cylinder. The cylinder topples over when the water reaches a certain height h, given by.

a
a
(1) h = 2a tan  (2) h = a tan2  (3) h = a tan  (4) h = tan
2
51. A solid cube of wood of side 2a and mass M is resting on a horizontal surface as shown in the figure.
The cube is free to rotate about a fixed axis AB. A bullet of mass m (<< M) and speed v is shot
horizontally at the face opposite to ABCD at a height of 4a/3 from the surface to impart the cube and
angular speed . It strikes the face and embeds in the cube. Then  is close to (note : the moment of
inertia of the cube about an axis perpendicular to the face and passing through the center of mass is
2Ma 2
3
C
D
Mv Mv mv mv
(1) (2) (3) (4)
ma 2m a Ma 2Ma
52. The moments of inertia of a non-uniform circular disc (of mass M and radius R) about four mutually
perpendicular tangents AB,BC CD, DA are I1, I2, I3 and I3 respectively (the square ABCD circumscribes
the circle.) The distance of the center of mass of the disc from its geometrical center is given by.
1 1
(1) ( I 3  I 3 )2  ( I 2  I 4 ) 2 (2) ( I 3  I 3 )2  ( I 2  I 4 ) 2
4MR 12MR
1 1
(3) ( I1  I 2 )2  ( I 3  I 4 ) 2 (4) ( I1  I 3 )2  ( I 2  I 4 ) 2
3MR 2MR
PAGE NO.-9
53. A block of mass m slides on a frictionless table. It is constrained to move inside a ring of radius  which
is fixed to the table. At t = 0, the block is moving along the inside of the ring (i.e., in the tangential
direction) with velocity v0. The coefficient of friction between the block and the ring is . The velocity of
the block at time t.

v0
v0 v0 v0 v0
(1) 2
 (2) (3 ) (4)
  v 0 t     t     v t    v 0 t  
1     1      1   0   1   
                
54. A particle is moving on a circular path such that at any instant its position vector, linear velocity, angular
   
velocity, angular acceleration with respect to centre are r , v ,  ,  respectively. Net acceleration of
the particle is
               
(1) (  × v ) – ( r ×  ) (2) (  × v ) + ( r ×  ) (3) ( v ×  ) + ( r ×  ) (4) ( v ×  ) – ( r ×  )
55. A roller coaster car travels down the helical path at constant speed such that it's parametric coordinates
varies as x = c sin (kt), y = c cos (kt), z = h – bt where c, h, k and b are constants, then the magnitude
of it's acceleration is:
c 2k 2
(1) 0 (2) ck2 (3) (4) bk2
h
56. A sphere of radius R made up of Styrofoam (light polystyrene material) has a cavity of radius R/2. The
centre of the cavity is situated at a distance of R/2 from the centre of the Styrofoam sphere. The cavity
is filled with a solid material of density five times that of Styrofoam. Now, the centre of mass is seen to
be located at a distance x from the centre of Styrofoam sphere, therefore x is.
(1) R/2 (2) R/3 (3) R/4 (4) R/6
57. Two identical particles move towards each other with velocity 2v and v respectively. This velocity of
centre of mass is –
(1) v (2) v/3 (3) v/2 (4) zero
58. Consider the following two statements :

A. Linear momentum of a system of particles is zero
B. Kinetic energy of a system of particles is zero,
Then,
(1) A does not imply B and B does not imply A (2) A implies B but B does not imply A
(3) A does not imply B but B implies A (4) A implies B and B implies A
59. A body A of mass M while falling vertically downwards under gravity breaks into two parts; a body B of
1 2
mass M and, a body C of mass M. The centre of mass of bodies B and C taken together shifts
3 3
compared to that of body A towards:
(1) Depends on height of breaking (2) does not shift
(3) Shift towards body C (4) shift towards body B
PAGE NO.-10
60. The block of mass M moving on the frictionless horizontal surface collides with the spring of spring
constant k and compresses it by length L. The maximum momentum of the block after collision is :
kL2 ML2
(1) Mk L (2) (3) zero (4)
2M k

61. A flywheel rotates with a uniform angular acceleration. Its angular velocity increases from 20  rad/s to
40  rad/s in 10 seconds. If Number of rotations did it make in this period are 10 x then the value of x is ?
62. A particle is moving with constant angular acceleration = /25.4 in a circular path of radius 3 m . At
t = 0, it was at rest and at t = 1 sec, the magnitude of its acceleration becomes 6 m/s2, then  is :
63. A body of mass 1kg strikes elastically with another body at rest and continues to move in the same
direction with one fourth the in initial velocity. If the mass of the other body is m/100 then the value of m
is -
64. A ring of mass 2 kg and of radius 0.25 m is making 300 rpm about an axis through its centre
perpendicular to its plane. The tension (in newton's) developed in the ring is 10x then the value of x is
(take 2 = 10)
65. A peg is placed directly below the pendulum’s point of support at a

distance  = 0.5m from the lowest point of the pendulum swing as
shown in the fig. If minimum height h from which the pendulum can
be released such that the string remains taut for at least one full
revolution around the peg. the value of 10h is
66. A plate, of uniform thickness and uniform density, has shape in the x-y plane defined by the lines
1
x = 0, y = 2, and curve y = x2. The plate lies in first quadrant of x-y plane. If the x-coordinate of centre
2
of mass of this plate is n/100 then the value of n is
67. A solid cylinder P and hollow sphere Q are of equal masses and
same radii. There is no slipping at any surface. If ratio of rotational
kinetic energy of P and Q is x/100 then the value of x is :
68. A truncated cone is rolling without slipping on a table in such a way, that a point on the perimeter of its
smaller base moves at a speed v 1 = 1.0 ms–1 with respect to the base's centre and a point on the
perimeter of its greater base moves at a speed v 2 = 1.5 ms–1 (again, with respect to the base's centre).
The slant height is  = 0.1 m. If x/10 sec. will it take the cone to return to the point from which it started
rolling. Then the value of x is ?
PAGE NO.-11
69. A mass ‘m’ moves with a velocity v= 10 3 m/s and collides inelastically with another identical mass at
v
rest. After collision the 1st mass moves with velocity in a direction perpendicular to the initial
3
direction of motion. If the speed (in m/s) of the 2nd mass after collision is
70. An insect of mass m = 3 kg is inside a vertical drum of radius 2 m that

is rotating with an angular velocity of 5 rad/sec. The insect does not
fall off, If the minimum co-efficient of friction required is x/100 then the
value of x is :
71. A car is moving on circular path of radius 100m such that its speed is increasing at the rate of 5m/s2. At
t=0 it starts from rest, what is the radial acceleration (in m/s2) of car at the instant it completed one
round trip?
72. A bomb of mass 16 kg at rest explodes into two pieces of masses of 4 kg and 12 kg. The velocity of the
12 kg mass is 4 ms–1. The kinetic energy of the other mass is 10x Jule then the value of x is:
73. A shell of mass 4 kg moving with a velocity 10 m/s vertically upward explodes into three parts at a
height 50 m from ground. After three seconds, one part of mass 2 kg reaches ground and another part
of mass 1 kg is at height 40 m from ground. The height of the third part from the ground is 10x then the
value of x is [ g = 10 m/s2]
74. A small ring of mass m is connected with a particle of same mass by an ideal string & the whole system
is released as shown in figure. Coefficient of friction between ring A and wire is 3/5, ring A will starts
sliding when connecting string will make an angle  with the vertical, then  (in degree) will be : (particle
is free to move and ring can slide only)
75. A rocket with a lift-off mass 3.5 × 104 kg is blasted upwards with an intial acceleration of 10 m/s2. If the
initial thrust of the blast is 2n × 104 then the valueo of n is.

1. (4) 2. (1) 3. (1) 4. (1) 5. (1) 6. (1) 7. (1)
8. (1) 9. (3) 10. (3) 11. (2) 12. (2) 13. (1) 14. (1)
15. (4) 16. (4) 17. (4) 18. (1) 19. (2) 20. (4) 21. (3)
22. (3) 23. (1) 24. (1) 25. (1) 26. (1) 27. (4) 28. (4)
29. (1) 30. (2) 31. (4) 32. (1) 33. (4) 34. (2) 35. (4)
36. (2) 37. (4) 38. (2) 39. (4) 40. (2) 41. (2) 42. (3)
43. (2) 44. (2) 45. (4) 46. (2) 47. (1) 48. (1) 49. (1)
50. (3) 51. (4) 52. (1) 53. (4) 54. (1) 55. (2) 56. (4)
57. (3) 58. (3) 59. (2) 60. (1) 61. 15.00 62. 25.40 63. 60.00
64. 25.00 65. 12.50 66. 75.00 67. 18.80 68. 12.60 69. 20.00 70. 20.00
71. 62.80 72. 28.80 73. 10.00 74. 45.00 75. 35.00
PAGE NO.-12
PHYSICS
TARGET : JEE (MAIN)

 

INF ORMA TIO

E EST
DPP
DAILY PRACTICE PROBLEMS
CLASS : XII
NO. 3
DPP Syllabus : SHM, Fluid Mechanics, Elasticity & Viscosity and Surface Tension.

SECTION - I
1. Equation of two S.H.M. x1 = 5 sin (2t + /4), x2 = 5. 2 (sin2t + cos2t) ratio of amplitude & phase
difference will be :
(1) 2 : 1, 0 (2) 1 : 2, 0 (3) 1 : 2, π / 2 (4) 2 : 1, /2
d2 x
2. The equation of motion of a particle of mass 1 gm is + 2x = 0 where x is displacement (in m) from
dt 2
mean position. The frequency of oscillation is (in Hz):
1 1
(1) (2) 2 (3) 5 10 (4)
2 5 10
3. A particle performs SHM with a time period T and amplitude a. The magnitude of average velocity of
a
the particle over the time interval during which it travels a distance from the extreme position is
2
a 2a 3a a
(1) (2) (3) (4)
T T T 2T
4. One mass m is suspended from a spring. Time period of oscillation is T. Now if spring is divided into n
pieces & these are joined in parallel order then time period of oscillation if same mass is suspended.
n2m n2k m k
(1) 2π (2) 2π (3) 2π 2
(4) 2π 2
k m n k n m
PAGE NO.-1
5. One body of mass m is suspended from three springs as shown in figure
each spring has spring constant k. If mass m is displaced slightly then time
period of oscillation is :
m 3m
(1) 2π (2) 2π
3k 2k
2m 3k
(3) 2π (4) 2π
3k m
6. A particle executes SHM with amplitude 5 m and time period 2s. If it is at Positive extreme point at t = 0,
the equation of motion of the particle may be (x is in meters and t is in seconds).
(1) x = 5 sin t (2) x =s – 5 sin t (3) x = 5 cos t (4) x = – 5 cos t
7. The oscillations represented by curve 1 in the graph are expressed by equation x = A sint. The
equation for the oscillations represented by curve 2 is expressed as :
x
2
A1
t
-2A
(1) x = 2A sin(t – /2) (2) x = 2A sin(t + /2)
(3) x = – 2A sin(t – /2) (4) x = A sin(t – /2)
8. A particle is executing simple harmonic motion of amplitude A, At a distance x from the centre, particle
moving towards the extreme position receives a blow in the direction of motion which instantaneously
doubles the velocity. Its new amplitude will be
(1) A (2) A2 – x2 (3) 2A 2 – 3x2 (4) 4A 2 – 3x 2
9. A water container is kept on a weighing balance. Water from a tap is falling vertically into the container
with a volume rate of Q. The velocity of water when it hits the water surface is v and comes to rest after
hitting. At a particular instant of time, the mass of container and water is m. The force registered by the
weighing balance at this instant of time is : [assume no splash]
Qv Qv 2
(1) mg + Qv (2) mg + (3) mg + (4) mg
2 2
10. A metre stick swinging in vertical plane about an fixed horizontal axis
passing through its one end undergoes small oscillation of frequency f0. If
the bottom half of the stick were cut off, then its new frequency of small
oscillation would become:
(1) f 0 (2) 2 f0
(3) 2f 0 (4) 2 2 f0
11. A pendulum with time period of 1 s is losing energy due to damping. At certain time its energy is 45J.
If after completing 15 oscillations, its energy has become 15 J, its damping constant (in s–1) is
1 1 1
(1) 2 (2) n3 (3) (4) n3
15 2 30
PAGE NO.-2
12. A man of mass 60 kg standing on a platform executing S.H.M. in the vertical plane. The displacement
from the mean position varies as y = 0.5 sin (2 ft). The value of f, for which the man will feel
weightlessness at the highest point is: (y is in metres)
g 2g
(1) (2) 4 g (3) (4) 2 2 g
4 2
13. A mass M, attached to a horizontal spring, executes SHM with a amplitude A1. When the mass M
passes through its mean position then a smaller mass m is placed over it and both of them move
A 
together with amplitude A2. The ratio of  1  is :
 A2 
1/ 2 1/ 2
M Mm  M   M  m
(1) (2) (3)  (4) 
Mm M  M  m   M 
14. A particle is performing SHM along x-axis such that its acceleration along x-axis is :
a = 2 – x where a is in m/s2 and x is in meter. If speed of the particle at x = 1 is zero then
INCORRECT statement is :
(1) time period of oscillation is  second (2) amplitude of oscillation is 1 m
3
(3) Speed of the particle at x = 1.5 m is m/s (4) speed of particle at x = 3 m is zero
2
15. Which of the following is greatest in SHM (assuming potential energy = 0 at mean position)
(1) Average kinetic energy with respect to space
(2) Average potential energy with respect to space
(3) Average kinetic energy with respect to time
(4) Average potential energy with respect to time
16. One end of a spring is tied to a wall and the other end moves at a speed v. If the mass of the spring is
m then the kinetic energy of the spring is:
1 1 1 1
(1) mv2 (2) mv2 (3) mv2 (4) mv2
2 4 6 3
17. The pulley shown in the figure is rough and its mass is ‘M’. A block of
same mass ‘M’ is attached to the spring of spring constant ‘K’ as
shown in the figure. The time period of SHM performed by the block for
small vertical disturbance is. (Assume string does not slip on pulley)
3M 3M M
(1)  (2) 2
2K 2K K
M M
(3) 2 (4) 2
K 2K
18. A spring of stiffness k is cut into two parts A and B of length A : B = 2 : 3. The stiffness of the spring A
is :
3k 2k 5k
(1) (2) (3) k (4)
5 5 2
19. Four types of oscillatory systems; a simple pendulum; a physical pendulum; a torsional pendulum and a
spring–mass system, each of same time period are taken to the Moon. If time periods are measured on
the moon, which system or systems will have it unchanged?
(1) Only spring–mass system.
(2) spring–mass system and torsional pendulum.
(3) spring–mass system and physical pendulum.
(4) None of these
PAGE NO.-3
20. Which of the following option correctly describes the variation of the speed v and acceleration 'a' of a
point mass falling vertically in a viscous medium that applies a force F = –kv, where 'k' is constant, on
the body? (Graphs are schematic and not drawn to scale)
v a
v v
(1) (2) (3) (4)

a
a
v a
t t t t
21. A particle is forced to oscillates by external force F = F0 cost in addition to restoring force and
1
damping force. If the amplitude of velocity of the particle acting is V0  1
, where
 a 2
 b  c  2
b2 > 4ac. The frequency of Resonance is

b b a a
(1)   (2)   (3)   (4)  
a 2a b 2b
22. An oscillation is superposition of three harmonic oscillations and decribed by the equation x = A sin2
1t where A changes with time according to A = A0 (1 + cos22t) with A0 to be constant. The
frequencies of pure harmonic oscillations forming this oscillation are:
(1) 1, 2 , | 1  2 | (2) 1, | 1  2 | , 1 + 2
(3) 1,2, | 1  2 | (4) 1 , 2, 1 + 2
23. Equation F = –bv – kx represents equation of a damped oscillations for a particle of 2kg mass where
N.S.
b = n2 and k = 100 N/m then time after which energy of oscillations will be reduced to half of
m
initial is:
(1) n2 sec (2) 2 sec. (3) 2n2 sec (4) 1 sec
24. If two bubble of radii 0.03 cm and 0.04 cm come in contact with each other then the radius of curvature
of the common surface 'r' is given by.
(1) 0.03 (2) 0.06 (3) 0.12 (4) 0.24
25. Work done in forming a soap bubble of radius R is W. Then workdone is forming a soap bubble of
radius '2R' will be:
(1) 2W (2) 4W (3) W/2 (4) W/4
26. On dipping a capillary of radius 'r' in water, water rises upto a height H and potential energy of water is
u
u1. If a capillary of radius 2r is dipped in water, then the potential energy is u2. The ratio 1 is
u2
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 1
27. If a capillary of radius r is dipped in water, the height of water that rises in it is h and its mass is M. If the
radius of the capillary is doubled the mass of water that rises in the capillary will be
M
(1) 4M (2) 2M (3) M (4)
2
28. A container is partially filled with a liquid of density 2. A capillary
tube of radius r is vertically inserted in this liquid. Now another liquid
of density 1 (1 < 2) is slowly poured in the container to a height h
as shown. There is only denser liquid in the capillary tube. The rise
of denser liquid in the capillary tube is also h. Assuming zero
contact angle, the surface tension of heavier liquid is
(1) r 2 g h (2) 2 r 2 g h
r
(3) ( – 1) g h (4) 2r (2 – 1) g h
2 2
PAGE NO.-4
29. Surface tension of a liquid is S = 0.01N/m. Density of the liquid is
1g/cm3. A capillary tube contain 12cm the liquid column. If R1 and
R  R2
R2 are radii of curvature of two surfaces then 1 is :
R1R2 h
(1) 3 × 104 m–1 (2) 4 × 104 m–1
3 –1
(3) 12 × 10 m (4) 6 × 104 m–1
30. In a cylinder-piston arrangement, air is under a pressure P1. A soap

bubble of radius r lies inside the cylinder,soap bubble has surface
tension T. The radius of soap bubble is to be reduced to half, The
new pressure P2 to which air should be compressed isothermally.
(Assume r is very small as compared to height of cylinder)
4T 12T 24T 2T
(1) P1 + (2) 4P1 + (3) 8P1 + (4) P1 +
r r r r
31. A Soap bubble of radius R is surrourded by another soap bubble of Atmosphere
radius 2R, as shown. Take surface tension = S. Then, the pressure
2R
inside the smaller soap bubble, in excess of the atmospheric R
pressure will be : Air
4S 6S 8S 3S
(1) (2) (3) (4)
R R R R
32. Assume that a drop of liquid evaporates by decrease in its surface energy, so that its temperature
remains unchanged. What should be the minimum radius of the drop for this to be possible ? The
surface tension is T, density of liquid is  and L is its latent heat of vaporization.
(1) L/T (2) T / L   (3) T/L (4) 2T/L
33. If two glass plates have water between them and are separated by very small distance (see figure), it is
very difficult to pull them apart. It is because the water in between forms cylindrical surface on the side
that gives rise to lower pressure in the water in comparison to atmosphere. If the radius of the
cylindrical surface is R and surface tension of water is T then the pressure in water between the plates
is lower by :
2T T T 4T
(1) (2) (3) (4)
R R 4R R
34. Consider a spherical drop of radius R. Surface tension of the liquid

is S. Force of surface tension on shaded sub hemisphere due to
SR
remaining drop is . The value of angle  (angle subtended by
2 R
the sub hemisphere at centre of drop) is: 
(1) 60° (2) 120°
(3) 30° (4) 90°
PAGE NO.-5
35. The spring balance A read 2kg with a block m suspended from it. A
balance B reads 5 kg. When a beaker with liquid is put on the pan
A
of the balance. The two balances are now so arranged that the
hanging mass is inside the liquid in the beaker as shown in fig. In
this situation -
(1) The balance A will read more than 2 kg m
(2) The balance B will read ore than 5 kg B
(3) The balance A will read less than 2 kg. and B will read more
than 5 kg
(4) The balance A and B will read 2 kg. and 5 kg.respectively.
36. Two vessels A and B have the same base area and contain water to the same height, but the mass of
water in A is four times that in B. The ratio of the liquid thrust at the base of A to that at the base of B is
A B
 
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 2 : 1 (3) 1 : 1 (4) 16 : 1
37. There is a small hole in the bottom of a fixed container containing a liquid upto height ‘h’. The top of the
liquid as well as the hole at the bottom are exposed to atmosphere. As the liquid comes out of the hole.
(Area of the hole is ‘a’ and that of the top surface is ‘A’) :
(1) The top surface of the liquid accelerates with acceleration = g
a2
(2) The top surface of the liquid accelerates with acceleration = g
A2
a
(3) The top surface of the liquid retards with retardation = g
A
2
ga
(4) The top surface of the liquid retards with retardation = 2
A
38. Water (density ) is flowing through the uniform tube of cross-

sectional area A with a constant speed v as shown in the figure.
The magnitude of force exerted by the water on the curved corner
of the tube is (neglect viscous forces)
Av 2
(1) 3Av 2 (2) 2Av 2 (3) 2Av 2 (4)
2
39. A sealed tank containing a liquid of density  moves with a horizontal acceleration a, as shown in the
figure. The difference in pressure between the points A and B is:
(1) h  g (2)   a (3) h  g   al (4) h  g +  al
PAGE NO.-6
40. A U-tube of uniform cross-section as shown in figure is partially
filled with a liquid . Another liquid  which does not mix with liquid 
is poured into one side. It is found that the liquid levels of the two
sides of the tube are the same, while the level of liquid  has risen
by 2 cm. If the specific gravity of liquid  is 1.1, the specific gravity of
liquid  must be
(1) 1.12 (2) 1.1 (3) 1.05 (4) 1.0
41. The height of liquid in the tube below the air and above the liquid
level in the container is h. The temperature of the air is now slightly
increased. After the equilirbium state is achieved, the height h will
(assume no change in the temperature of the liquid in the container.)
(1) remain same.
(2) decrease
(3) increase
(4) decrease or increase, depending on the density of liquid above
air.
42. Initially tension in string is non-zero and water at 0ºC. Now

temperature of water is increased slowly at constant
rate(consider vaporisation of water also). Then tension in
string with time will be best represented as : (neglect change
in volume of ball)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
43. A sphere of radius R and relative density 4 is hanging with the help of a string such that it remains just
inside water. The ratio of force exerted by the liquid on upper and lower half of the sphere is
(1) 1 : 5 (2) 1 : 4 (3) 2 : 5 (4) 1 : 3

PAGE NO.-7
44. A non-uniform small sphere having average density same as that of the
liquid It is released from rest in the position as shown in figure C being the
centre of mass and O being the centre of sphere. Just after it is released
(1) O moves up (2) O moves down
(3) C moves left (4) C moves right
45. Figure shows a capillary tube C dipped in a liquid that wets it. The liquid
rises to a point A. If we blow air through the horizontal tube H, what will
happen to the liquid column in the capillary tube?
(1) Level will rise above A (2) Level will fall below A
(3) Level will remain at A (4) can not say
46. 32 g of O2 is contained in a cubical container of side 1m and maintained at a temperature of 127°C. The
isothermal bulk modulus of elasticity of the gas in terms of universal gas constant R is
(1) 127 R (2) 400 R (3) 200 R (4) 560 R
47. One end of light inelastic string is tied to a helium filled balloon and
its other end is tied to bottom of a water filled container at point O.
The container lies on a fixed horizontal surface and is pulled
horizontally towards right with constant horizontal acceleration of
magnitude a. Assuming no relative motion of balloon and water with
respect to container, the string will be inclined with vertical line
passing through O by an angle. (g is acceleration due to gravity)
a
(1)  = tan–1 and string will be on right of vertical line passing through O.
g
g
(2)  = tan–1 and string will be on right of vertical line passing through O.
a
a
(3)  = tan–1 and string will be on left of vertical line passing through O.
g
g
(4)  = tan–1 and string will be on left of vertical line passing through O.
a
48. A container of a large uniform cross-sectional area A resting on a

horizontal surface holds two immiscible, non-viscous and
incompressible liquids of densities ' d ' and ' 2 d ' each of height
(1/2)H as shown. The smaller density liquid is open to atmosphere.
A homogeneous solid cylinder of length L  1  2 
H cross-sectional
area (1/5) A is immersed such that it floats with its axis vertical to
the liquid-liquid interface with length (1/4) L in denser liquid. If D is
the density of the solid cylinder then :
3d d 2d 5d
(1) D = (2) D = (3) D = (4) D =
2 2 3 4
49. The ratio of the adiabatic to isothermal elasticities of a triatomic gas is -

3 4 5
(1) (2) (3) 1 (4)
4 3 3
50. A wire of length L and radius r is rigidly fixed at one end. On stretching the other end of the wire with a
force F, the increase in its length is . If another wire of same material but of length 2L and radius 2r is
stretched with a force of 2F, then increase in its length will be-
 
(1)  (2) 2  (3) (4)
2 4
PAGE NO.-8
51. A uniform disc of mass m is attached to a spring of spring constant k and friction is sufficient to prevent
slipping of disc. Time period of small oscillations :
m 2m 3m 2m
(1) 2 (2) 2 (3)  (4) 
k 3k 2k 3k
52. A thin uniform elastic rod of natural length L, density  and Young's modulus Y is just completely
immersed in vertical position in fluid of density 2 by applying a vertically downward force at its top end.
The rod is in equilibrium, then pick up the correct option.(g is acceleration due to gravity)
L2g
(1) There is net compression in rod of magnitude
4Y
3L2g
2Y
L2g
2Y
L2g
Y
53. A spherical ball of mass 4m, density and radius r is attached to a pulley-mass system as shown in

figure. The ball is released in a liquid of coefficient of viscosity and density (< ). If the length of the
2
liquid column is sufficiently long, the terminal velocity attained by the ball is given by (assume all pulleys
to be massless and string as massless and inextensible) :
2 r 2 (2  )g 1 r 2 (  2)g 2 r 2 (  4)g 2 r 2 (  3)g

(1) (2) (3) (4)
9  9  9  9 
54. A uniform rod is kept at smooth horizontal surface, a constant force is applied on the rod in horizontal
direction at end ‘A’. Find the ratio of energy stored per unit volume at end A to the energy stored per
unit volume in the middle of rod.
B A
F
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 8

PAGE NO.-9
2
55. If it takes 5 minutes to fill a 15 litre bucket from a water tap of diameter cm then the Reynolds

number for the flow is (density of water = 103 kg/m3 and viscosity of water = 10–3Pa.s) close to
(1) 11,000 (2) 550 (3) 1100 (4) 5500
56. A uniform elastic rod of cross-section area A, natural length L and Young's modulus Y is placed on a
smooth horizontal surface. Now two horizontal forces (of magnitude F and 3F) directed along the length
of rod and in opposite direction act at two of its ends as shown. After the rod has acquired steady state,
the extension of the rod will be
2F 4F F 3F
(1) L (2) L (3) L (4) L
YA YA YA 2YA
57. A bar is subjected to an axial forces as shown in figure. Find the total elongation in the bar.
(E is the modulus of elasticity of the bar and A is its area of cross-section)
3F F
2F
l l
Fl 2Fl 3Fl 4Fl
(1) (2) (3) (4)
AE AE AE AE
58. A thin ring has a radius R, density  and Young’s modulus Y. The ring is rotated in its own plane about
an axis passing through its centre with angular velocity . Then the small increase in its radius is :
2R3 32R3 62R3 2R3
(1) dR  (2) dR  (3) dR  (4) dR 
Y Y Y 2Y
59. A ball rise with constant velocity, to the surface of a liquid whose density is four times that of the ball.
The ratio of the v force to weight of the ball is
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
60. A space 2.5 cm wide between two large plane surfaces is filled with oil. Force required to drag a very
thin plate of area 0.5 m2 just midway the surfaces at a speed of 0.5 m/sec is 1N. The coefficient of
viscosity in kg–sec/m2 is:
(1) 5 × 10–2 (2) 2.5 × 10–2 (3) 1 × 10–2 (4) 7.5 × 10–2

61. A particle executes simple harmonic motion with an amplitude of 4 cm. At the mean position the velocity
of the particle is 10 cm/s. The distance (in mm) of the particle from the mean position when its speed
becomes 5 cm/s is -
62. A particle is performing simple harmonic motion of period 2 sec. If the greatest speed is 4 m/s, the
3
speed of particle when it is m from equilibrium position is v then the value of v4 is

PAGE NO.-10
63. A particle is moving on x-axis has potential energy U = 2 – 20x + 5x2 Joules along x-axis. The particle is
released at x = –3. The maximum value of 'x2' will be: [x is in meters and U is in joules]
64. Two particles execute SHM on same straight line with same mean position, same time period 6 second
and same amplitude 5 cm. Both the particles start SHM from their mean position (in same direction)
with a time gap of 1 second. Find the maximum separation (in mm) between the two particles during
their motion:
65. Kinetic energy versus time graph of a particle of mass m executing SHM under the effect of a net force
F is shown. Then maximum value of F2/2m is 10x then the value of x is :
66. A disc of mass m and radius R is fastened with two rods of torsional constant 6C and 3C as shown.
Time period of small oscillation of disc about it's axis in case-I and case-II respectively T1 and T2. Value
T14
of is:
T24
6C 6C
3C
3C
67. A thin uniform rod is suspended in vertical plane as a physical pendulum about point A. The time period
of oscillation is To. Not counting the point A, the number 'n' of other points of suspension on rod such
that the time period of oscillation (in vertical plane) is again To. Then the value of n3 is: (Since the rod is
thin, consider one point for each transverse cross section of rod)
A
68. On dipping a capillary of length 20 cm. in a liquid, the liquid rises in it upto a height of 8 cm. If the whole
arrangement is placed in a lift falling freely, then the height of liquid column in capillary will be (in cm):
69. The excess pressure inside a soap bubble A is twice that in another soap bubble B. The square of ratio
of volumes of B and A is
70. Work done in increasing the size of a soap bubble from a radius of 3 m to 5 m is x then the value of x
(in J) is (surface tension of soap solution = 0.3/ Nm–1) :
PAGE NO.-11
71. Diameter of two limbs of a U-tube are 2 mm and 5mm, and surface tension is 70 dyne/cm, if water
density is 1000 kg/m2 and g = 10 m/s2, then water level difference in both the tubes is x cm then the
value of 100x is:
72. The diagram (fig.) shows a venturimeter, through which water is flowing. The speed of water at X is
2 cm/sec. The speed of water at Y (in cm/sec)(taking g = 1000 cm/sec2) is -
5.1mm
x
y
73. A U tube filled with a liquid is accelerating horizontally with an acceleration a.The acceleration of the
tube is x then the value of 3.5 x is :
74. A jet of water issues from a nozzle with a velocity of 20 m/s and it impinges normally on a flat plate
moving away from it at 10 m/s. If the cross-sectional area of the jet is 0.02 m2 and the density of water
is taken as 1000 kg/m3, then the force developed on the plate is F the value of F/100 is
75. The pressure gauge reading in metre of water column shown in the given figure is x then the value of
10x is:
Guage
Air
1m
water
Mercury

1. (2) 2. (1) 3. (3) 4. (3) 5. (2) 6. (3) 7. (1)
8. (4) 9. (1) 10. (2) 11. (2) 12. (3) 13. (4) 14. (1)
15. (1) 16. (3) 17. (2) 18. (4) 19. (2) 20. (4) 21. (2)
22. (2) 23. (2) 24. (3) 25. (2) 26. (4) 27. (2) 28. (3)
29. (4) 30. (3) 31. (2) 32. (4) 33. (2) 34. (1) 35. (3)
36. (3) 37. (4) 38. (1) 39. (4) 40. (2) 41. (1) 42. (1)
43. (1) 44. (1) 45. (1) 46. (2) 47. (1) 48. (4) 49. (2)
50. (1) 51. (2) 52. (2) 53. (2) 54. (2) 55. (4) 56. (1)
57. (4) 58. (1) 59. (3) 60. (2) 61. 34.60 62. 49.00 63. 49.00
64. 50.00 65. 98.60 66. 20.20 67. 27.00 68. 20.00 69. 64.00 70. 38.40
71. 84.00 72. 32.00 73. 17.50 74. 20.00 75. 15.20
PAGE NO.-12
PHYSICS
TARGET : JEE (MAIN)

 

INF ORMA TIO

E EST
CLASS : XII
NO. 4
DPP Syllabus : String Waves, Sound Waves & KTG & Thermodynamics, Calorimetry and Thermal
Expansion.
SECTION - I
1. The waves in which the particles of the medium vibrated in a direction perpendicular to the direction of
wave motion is known as -
(1) Transverse wave (2) Longitude waves
(3) Propagated waves (4) None of these
2. A transverse wave passes through a string with the equation y = 10 sin (0.02 x – 2.00t) where x is in
meters and t in seconds. The maximum velocity of the particles in wave motion is -
(1) 63 (2) 78 (3) 100 (4) 121
 t x 
3. The equation of a progressive wave is y = 0.02 sin 2    , where x and y are in meters and t
 0.01 0.3 
is in second. The velocity of propagation of the wave is -
(1) 400 (2) 40 (3) 300 (4) 30
4. In a sinusoidal wave, the time required for a particular point to move from maximum displacement to
zero displacement is 0.17 sec. The frequency of the wave is -
(1) 1.47 Hz (2) 0.36 Hz (3) 0.73 Hz (4) 2.94 Hz
5. The equation of waves y = 10–4 sin (60 t + 2x) where x and y in meter and t in second then what
statement is wrong -
 30 
(1)  =  meter (2) Frequency   Hz
  
(3) Wave in negative x direction (4) All are correct
6. If the distance between two consecutive crests is 5 cm and 2 waves passes from a point in one second
the wave velocity is-
(1) 2 cm/sec (2) 2.5 cm/sec (3) 5 cm/sec (4) 10 cm/sec
PAGE NO.-1
7. The equation of displacement of two waves are given as
y1 = 10 sin (3t + /3)
y2 = 5 (sin 3t + 3 cos 3t), then what is the ratio of their amplitude -
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1 (3) 1 : 1 (4) None of these
8. If two waves of same frequency and amplitude superpose to produce resultant of the amplitude of
either wave, then their phase difference is-
(1)  (2) 2/3 (3) /3 (4) Zero
9. Four wires of identical lengths, diameters and of the same material are stretched on a sonometer wire.
The ratio of their tension is 1 : 4 : 9 : 16. The ratio of their fundamental frequencies is -
(1) 1 : 4 : 9 : 16 (2) 4 : 3 : 2 : 1 (3) 1 : 2 : 3 : 4 (4) 16 : 9 : 4 : 1
10. When the length of the vibrating segment of a sonometer wire is increased by 1%, the percentage
change in its frequency is -
100 99
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) (4)
101 100
11. The wire of a sonometer has a length of 1 m and mass 5 × 10–4 kg. It has a tension of 20N. IF the wire
is pulled at a point 25 cm away from one end and released, the frequency of its vibrations will be -
(1) 200 Hz (2) 150 Hz (3) 250 Hz (4) 100 Hz
12. A standing wave having 3 nodes and 2 antinodes is formed between two atoms having a distance of
1.21 Å between them. The wavelength of the standing wave is -
(1) 1.21 Å (2) 2.42 Å (3) 3.63 Å (4) 6.05 Å
13. A wave represented by the given equation y = a cos (kx – t) is superposed with another wave to form
a stationary wave such that the point x = 0 is a node. The equation for the other wave is -
(1) y = a sin (kx + t) (2) y = – a cos (kx +t)
(3) y = – a cos (kx – t) (4) y = – a sin (kx – t)
14. A transverse progressive wave on a stretched string has a velocity of 10 ms–1 and a frequency of 100
Hz. The phase difference between two particles of the string which are 2.5 cm apart will be -
  3 
(1) (2) (3) (4)
8 4 8 2
15. Two wire of length 1m and 2m respectively and mass 150 gm. and 300 gm. respectively. If the
tensions are same on both the wires, the ratio of velocities of transverse waves will be -
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 2:1
16. For a wave displacement amplitude is 10–8 m, density of air 1.3 kg m–3, velocity in air 340 ms–1 and
frequency is 2000 Hz. The average intensity of wave is
(1) 5.3 × 10–4 Wm–2 (2) 5.3 × 10–6 Wm–2 (3) 3.5 × 10–8 Wm–2 (4) 3.5 × 10–6 Wm–2
17. Two strings A and B have lengths A and B and carry pendulum of masses MA and MB at their lower
ends the upper ends being supported by rigid supports. If nA and nB are their frequencies of their
oscilations and nA = 2nB, then :
(1) A = 4B, regardless of masses (2) B = 4A, regardless of masses
(3) MA = 2MB, A = 2B (4) MB = 2MA, B = 2A .
PAGE NO.-2
18. A wave in a string has an amplitude of 2 cm. The wave travels in the +ve direction of x axis with a
speed of 128 ms–1 and it is noted that 5 complete waves fit in 4m length of the string. The equation
describing the wave is :
(1) y = (0.02)m sin (7.85 x + 100 5t) (2) y = (0.02)m sin (15.7 x – 2010t)
(3) y = (0.02)m sin (15.7 x + 2010t) (4) y = (0.02)m sin (7.85 x – 100 5t)
19. The temperature in ºC at which the velocity of sound in air is half its value at 0ºC is -
(1) + 204.75 (2) 0.5 (3) –204.75 (4) – 273
20. A sound absorber attenuates the sound level by 20 dB. The intensity decreases by a factor of :
(1) 1000 (2) 10000 (3) 10 (4) 100
21. The lengths of two closed organ pipes are 0.750 m and 0.770 m. If they are sounded together, 3 beats
per second are produced. The velocity of sound will be :
(1) 330.5 m/sec (2) 340.5 m/sec (3) 346.5 m/sec (4) more than these
22. The frequency of a fork A is 3% more than the frequency of a standard fork whereas the frequency of
fork B is 3% less. The forks A and B produce 6 beats per second. The frequency of stadard fork will be
(1) 100 Hz (2) 106 Hz (3) 103 Hz (4) 112 Hz
23. A closed organ pipe and an open pipe of same length produce 4 beats when they are set into vibrations
simultaneously. If the length of each of them were twice their initial lengths, the number of beats
produced will be [Assume same mode of vibration in both cases]
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 1 (4) 8
24. A closed organ pipe and an open organ pipe are turned to the same fundamental frequency. What is
the ratio of their lengths ?
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1 (3) 2 : 3 (4) 4 : 3
25. A traveller is running with velocity v0 towards a stationary train. If the train sounds a horn of frequency n
then the apparent frequency heard by the traveller will be :
 v  v0   v – v0 
(1) n’ = n   (2) n’ = n  
 v   v  vs 
 v – v0 
(3) n’ = n   (4) none of these
 v 
th
 1
26. A source is approaching a stationary observer with velocity   that of sound. Ratio of observed
 10 
and real frequencies will be :
9 11 10 10
(1) (2) (3) (4)
10 10 11 9
27. Two identical flutes produce fundamental notes of frequency 300 Hz at 27°C. If the temperature of air in
one flute is increased to 31°C, the number of the beats heard per second will be
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
28. A man is watching two trains, one leaving and the other coming in with equal speeds of 4 m/sec.. If they
sound their whistles, each of frequency 240 Hz, the number of beats heard by the man (velocity of
sound in air = 320 m/sec) will be equal to
(1) 6 (2) 3 (3) 0 (4) 12
PAGE NO.-3
29. A whistle revolves in a circle with angular speed  = 20 rad/sec using a string of length 50 cm. If the
frequency of sound from the whistle is 385 Hz, then what is the minimum frequency head by an
observer which is far away from the centre :- (velocity of sound Vsound= 340m/s)
(1) 385 Hz (2) 374 Hz (3) 394 Hz (4) 333 Hz
30. An organ pipe open at both ends contains

(1) longitudinal stationary waves (2) longitudinal progressive waves
(3) transverse stationary waves (4) transverse progressive waves
31. If we study the vibration of a pipe open at both ends, then the following statement is not true :
(1) Odd harmonics of the fundamental frequency will be generated
(2) All harmonics of the fundamental frequency will be generated
(3) Pressure change will be maximum at both ends
(4) Open end will be antinode
32. A source of sound S emitting waves of frequency 100 Hz and an observor O are located at some
distance from each other. The source is moving with a speed of 19.4 ms–1 at an angle of 60° with the
source observer line as shown in the figure. The observor is at rest. The apparent frequency observod
by the observer (velocity of sound in air 330 ms–1) is:
(1) 103 Hz (2) 106 Hz (3) 97 Hz (4) 100 Hz
33. A Carnot working between 300K and 600K has work output of 800 J per cycle. What is amount of heat
energy supplied to the engine form source per cycle
(1) 1800 J/cycle (2) 1000 J/cycle (3) 2000 J/cycle (4) 1600 J/cycle
34. The coefficient of performance of a carnot refrigertor working between 30° C and 0° C is
(1) 10 (2) 1 (3) 9 (4) 0
35. An ideal gas heat engine exhausting heat at 77° C. Its efficiency is 30%. It must take heat at
(1) 127° C (2) 227° (3) 327° C (4) 673°C
36. Efficiency of carnot engine is 100% if

(1) T2 = 273 K (2) T2 = 0 K (3) T1 = 273 K (4) T1 = 0 K
37. A 25 × 10–3 m3 volume cylinder is filled with 1 mol of O2 gas at room temperature (300K). The molecular
diameter of O2, and its root mean square speed, are found to be 0.3 nm and 200 m/s, respectively.
What is the average collision rate (per second) for an O2 molecule?
(1)  1013 (2)  1010 (3)  1012 (4)  1011
38. The work done by a gas in an adiabatic process depends on -

(1) change in temperature (2) change in volume
(3) change in pressure (4) change is heat
39. The volume of a gas is reduced to 1/4 of its initial volume adiabatically at 27ºC. The final temperature of
gas will be, if  = 1.4 -
(1) 300 × (4)0.4 K (2) 100 × (4)0.4 K (3) 27 × (4)0.4 K (4) 300 × (1/4)0.4 K
PAGE NO.-4
40. 1 m3 of a gas is compressed suddenly at atmospheric pressure and temperature 27ºC such that its
temperature becomes 627ºC. The final pressure of gas will be ( = 1.5)-
(1) 27 × 106 N/m2 (2) 7.2 × 105 N/m2 (3) 2.7 × 105 N/m2 (4) 27 × 105 N/m2
41. If temperature of the gas is increased to three times, then its root mean square velocity becomes :
1
(1) 3 times (2) 9 times (3) times (4) 3 times
2
42. The temperature of an ideal gas at atmospheric pressure is 300 K and volume 1 m 3. If temperature and
volume become double, then pressure will be :
(1) 105 N/m2 (2) 2 × 105 N/m2 (3) 0.5 × 105 N/m2 (4) 4 × 105 N/m2
43. On increasing the temperature of gas contained in closed vessel by 1°C, the pressure increases by
0.4%. The initial temperature of gas is :
(1) 25 K (2) 250 K (3) 2500° K (4) 250° C
44. When temperature of a gas is increased then which of the following statements is always true ?
(1) Work is done on the gas (2) Heat is supplied to gas
(3) Internal energy of gas is increased (4) pressure of gas remains unchanged.
45. If 2g of helium is enclosed in a vessel at NTP, how much heat should be added to it to double the
pressure? (Specific heat of helium = 3 J/gm K)
(1) 1638 J (2) 1019 J (3) 1568 J (4) 836 J
46. Two containers of equal volume contain the same gas at pressure p1 and p2 and absolute temperature
T1 and T2 repectively. On joining the vessels the gas reaches a common pressure p and common
temperature T. The ratio p/T is equal to
p p p T  p2 T2 p T  p2 T1 p p2
(1) 1 + 2 (2) 1 1 2
(3) 1 2 2
(4) 1 +
T1 T2 (T1  T2 ) (T1  T2 ) 2T1 2T2
Q
47. If a diatomic gas is supplied heat Q in a process, it performs work . What is molar heat capacity of
4
the gas in this process.
2 5 10 6
(1) R (2) R (3) R (4) R
5 2 3 7
48. Some students find values of CV and CP for a gas in calorie/gm–mol K. Which pair is most correct ?
(1) CV = 3, CP = 5 (2) CV = 4, CP = 6 (3) CV = 3, CP = 2 (4) CV = 3, CP = 4.2
49. Hydrogen gas is filled in a container of volume 20 litre. Average translational kinetic energy of all its
molecules is 1.5 × 105 J. Pressure of hydrogen in cylinder is :
(1) 2 × 106 N/m2 (2) 3 × 106 N/m2 (3) 4 × 106 N/m2 (4) 5 × 106 N/m2
50. 100g ice at 0°C is put in water in bucket at 50°C. On complete melting change in entropy will be
(Assuming no change in temperature of water)
(1) –4.5 cal/K (2) +4.5 cal/K (3) +5.4 cal/K (4) –5.4 cal/K
51. Root mean square speed of ideal hydrogen gas in closed chamber at 0°C is 3180 m/s. Its pressure will
be (density of hydrogen gas is 8.99 × 10–2 kg/m3, 1 atm. = 1.01 × 105 N/m2)
(1) 1.0 atm. (2) 1.5 atm. (3) 2.0 atm. (4) 3.0 atm.
PAGE NO.-5
52. One mole of an ideal gas goes from an initial state A to final state B via two processes : It first
undergoes isothermal expansion from volume V to 3V and then its volume is reduced from 3V to V at
constant pressure. The correct P-V diagram representing the two processes is :
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
53. An ideal gas goes from state A to state B via three different processes as indicated in the P-V diagram :
If Q1, Q2, Q3 indicate the heat a absorbed by the gas along the three processes and U1, U2, U3
indicate the change in internal energy along the three processes respectively , then
(1) Q1> Q2> Q3 and U1= U2= U3 (2) Q3> Q2> Q1 and U1= U2= U3
(3) Q1= Q2= Q3 and U1> U2> U3 (4) Q3> Q2> Q1 and U1> U2> U3
54. A gas is taken through the cycle A B  C A, as shown. What is the net work done by the gas ?
(1) 1000 J (2) zero (3) –2000 J (4) 2000 J
55. Steam at 100ºC is passed into 2.0 kg of water contained in a calorimeter of water equivalent 0.02 kg at
15ºC till the temperature of the calorimeter and its contents rise to 90ºC. The mass of steam condensed
in kg is
(1) 0.301 (2) 0.280 (3) 0.60 (4) 0.02
56. A small quantity, mass m, of water at a temperature (inºC) is poured on to a large mass M of ice
which is at its melting point. f s is the specific heat capacity of water and L the latent heat of fusion of
ice, then the mass of ice melted is given by :
ML mc Mc mc
(1) (2) (3) (4)
mc ML L L
PAGE NO.-6
57. The weight of person is 60 kg. If he gets 105 calories heat through food and the efficiency of his body is
28%, then upto how much height he can climb when he user entire energy gained in climbing
(1) 100 m (2) 200 m (3) 400 m (4) 1000 m
58. The value of coefficient of volume expansion of glycerin is 5 × 10–4 K–1. The fractional chage in the
density of glycerin for a rise of 40°C in its temperature, is:
(1) 0.020 (2) 0.025 (3) 0.010 (4) 0.015
59. a piece of ice falls from a height h so that it melts completely. Only one-quarter of the heat produced is
absorbed by the ice and all energy of ice gets converted in to heat during its fall. The value of h is :
[Latent heat of ice is 3.4 × 105 J/Kg and g = 10 N/kg]
(1) 68 km (2) 34 km (3) 544 km (4) 136 km
60. Liquid oxygen at 50K is heated to 300 K at constant pressure of 1 atm. The rate of heating is constant.
Which one of the following graphs represents the variation of temperature with time ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)

two digit integer and decimal upto Two digit.
61. A string a musical instrument is 50 cm long and its fundamental frequency is 270 Hz. If a fundamental
frequency of 1000 Hz is to be produced, then required length (in cm) of string is -
62. A wave of frequency 100 Hz travels along a string towards its fixed end. When this wave travels back,
after reflection, a node is formed at a distance of 10 cm from the fixed end. The speed (in m/s) of the
wave (incident and reflected) is-
x
63. The equation of a stationary wave is Y = 10 sin cos 20t. The sqare of distance between two
4
consecutive nodes in meters2 is -
64. Linear density of a string is 1.3 × 10–4 kg/m and wave equation is y = 0.021 sin (x + 30t). If the tension in
the string is T Newton then the value of 100T is. where x in metre and t in second :
65. When a source of sound crosses an observer then change in appearent frequency observed by the
observer is 2% of its initial frequency. If the speed of sound in 350 m/s then the 10 multiple of velocity
(in m/s) of source will be –
66. Two sound sources S1 and S2 of frequencies 324 Hz and 320 Hz are placed at certain separation. An
observer is moving away from S1 and towards S2 on line joining them. If he hears no beats then
10 multple of speed (in m/s) of observer is ( v = 344 m/sec) :
PAGE NO.-7
67. An observer moves towards a stationary source of sound, with a velocity one-fifth of the velocity of
sound. What is the percentage increase in the apparent frequency ?
68. As the train crosses a stationary observer, the apparent change in frequency of sound is in the ratio
5 : 3. If velocity of sound in air is 332 m/s, the velocity (in m/s) of train is
69. A policemen buzz a whistle of frequency 400 Hz. A car driver is approaching the policemen. The speed
of car is 72 kmh-1. Find out the change in frequency (in Hz) experienced by the driver, when driver
approaches the policemen and after he crosses the policemen.[Velocity of sound is 350 ms-1].
70. If the amount of work done to increase the temperature of one mole of ideal gas by 30ºC is 10W then
the value of W is . if it is expanding under the condition V  T2/3 (R = 8.31 J/mol - K) :
71. The coefficient of performance of a refrigerator is 5 if the temperature inside freezer is –20°C, is
temperature (in °C) of the surroundings to which it rejects heat is
72. A thermally isolated vessel contains 100 g of water at 0ºC. When air above the water is pumped out,
some of the water freezes and some evaporates at 0ºC itself. then the mass (in gm) of the ice formed if
no water is left in the vessel. Latent heat of vaporization of water at 0ºC = 2.10 × 106 J/kg and latent
heat of fusion of ice = 3.36 × 105 J/kg.
73. A steel scale measures the length of a copper wire as 80.0 cm, when both are at 20ºC, the calibration
temperature for the scale. What would the scale read (in cm) for the length of the wire when both are at
40ºC ?
Given :  for steel = 11 × 10–10 /ºC and  for Cu = 17 × 10–6 /ºC :
74. A hot wire of copper is stretched at a temperature of 150ºC between two fixed walls. At what
temperature (in °C) will the wire break when it is cooled ? The breaking stress of copper is
2.45 × 108 N/m2 Young's modulus of copper = 11.8 × 1010 N/m2, coefficient of linear expansion of
copper = 1.6 × 10–5/ºC.
75. An electric kettle takes 4A current at 220V. the time will it take to boil 1 kg of water from temperature
20°C is x mimute then the value of 10x is. The temperature of boiling water is 100°C :

1. (1) 2. (1) 3. (4) 4. (1) 5. (4) 6. (4) 7. (3)
8. (2) 9. (3) 10. (1) 11. (1) 12. (1) 13. (2) 14. (4)
15. (1) 16. (4) 17. (2) 18. (4) 19. (3) 20. (4) 21. (3)
22. (1) 23. (1) 24. (1) 25. (1) 26. (4) 27. (2) 28. (1)
29. (2) 30. (1) 31. (3) 32. (1) 33. (4) 34. (3) 35. (2)
36. (2) 37. (1) 38. (1) 39. (1) 40. (4) 41. (4) 42. (1)
43. (2) 44. (3) 45. (1) 46. (4) 47. (3) 48. (1) 49. (4)
50. (1) 51. (4) 52. (4) 53. (1) 54. (1) 55. (2) 56. (4)
57. (2) 58. (1) 59. (4) 60. (1) 61. 13.50 62. 20.00 63. 16.00
64. 11.70 65. 35.00 66. 21.36 67. 20.00 68. 83.00 69. 45.70 70. 16.60
71. 31.00 72. 86.20 73. 80.00 74. 20.20 75. 63.60
PAGE NO.-8
PHYSICS
 
INF ORMA TIO

E EST
CLASS : XII
NO. 5
DPP Syllabus : Geometrical Optics, Electrostatics, Gravitiation

SECTION - I
1. Assuming the earth to be a homogeneous sphere of radius R, its density in terms of G (constant of
gravitation) and g (acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the earth)
(1) 3g/(4RG) (2) 4g/(3RG) (3) 4Rg/(3G) (4) 4RG/(3g)
2. Two particles of combined mass M, placed in space with certain separation, are released. Interaction
between the particles is only of gravitational nature and there is no external force present. Acceleration
of one particle with respect to the other when separation between them is R, has a magnitude:
GM GM
(1) 2
(2) 2
2R R
2GM
(3) (4) not possible to calculate due to lack of information
R2
3. An isolated triple star system consists of two identical stars, each of mass m and a fixed star of mass
M. They revolve around the central star in the same circular orbit of radius r. The two orbiting stars are
always at opposite ends of a diameter of the orbit. The time period of revolution of each star around the
fixed star is equal to :
m
r
M
m
4 r 3 / 2 2 r3 / 2 2 r3 / 2 4 r3 / 2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
G(4M  m) GM G(M  m) G(M  m)
PAGE NO.-1
R
4. Gravitation field intensity at a distance from centre of the earth is E0. Here R is the radius of the
2
earth. The earth expands up to radius 2R such that total mass of the earth remains unchanged.
R
Assume earth of uniform density in both cases. What will be the field intensity at a distance from
2
the centre in final situation.
E E E
(1) 0 (2) 0 (3) 0 (4) E0
2 4 8
5. Figure shows variation of acceleration due to gravity with distance g

from centre of a uniform spherical planet of radius R. What is value
of (r2 – r1). g0
R 7R
(1) (2) g0/4
4 4
4R r1 r2 r
(3) (4) 2R
3
6. An infinite number of masses, each of one kg are placed on the +ve X axis at 1m, 2m, 4m,.................
from the origin. The magnitude of the gravitational field at origin due to this distribution of masses is:
4G 3G
(1) 2G (2) (3) (4) 
3 4
7. Two masses, 800 kg and 450 kg are at a distance 25 m apart. The magnitude of gravitational field
intensity at a point 20 m distant from the 800 kg mass and 15 m distant from the 450 kg mass will be
(in N/kg) – (G is universal gravitational constant) :
(1) 2G (2) 2 2 G (3) 4G (4) zero
8. A uniform thin rod of mass m and length R is placed normally on

surface of earth as shown. The mass of earth is M and its radius is
R. Then the magnitude of gravitational force exerted by earth on the
rod is
GMm GMm 4GMm GMm
(1) 2
(2) 2
(3) 2
(4)
2R 4R 9R 8R2
9. If Gravitational field due to uniform thin hemispherical shell at point P P

is , then the magnitude of gravitational field at Q is (Mass of
hemisphere is M, radius R) -
2R
GM GM
(1) 2
– (2) + 
2R 2R2
C
GM GM
(3) – (4) 2 –
4R 2R2
2R
10. Energy needed for moving a mass of 2kg from the centre of the earth to its surface will be (in joule)
(R is radius of earth in m, g is in m/sec2)
3 gR
(1) gR (2) gR (3) (4) 2gR
2 2
PAGE NO.-2
11. Knowing the fact that potential energy increases with height, to obtain maximum energy from eating a
guavava which is the most suitable place.
(I) On the everest (II) Inside Resonance
(III) In the valleys of DehraDun (IV) At the earth's centre
(1) (I) & (II) (2) (II) & (III)
(3) (III) & (IV) (4) (I), (II), (III) & (IV)
12. STATEMENT-1 : In free space a uniform spherical planet of mass M has a smooth narrow tunnel along
the its diameter. This planet and another superdense small particle of mass M start approaching
towards each other from rest under action of their gravitational forces . When the particle passes
through the centre of the planet, sum of kinetic energies of both the bodies is maximum.
STATEMENT-2 : When the resultant of all forces acting on a particle or a particle like object (initially
at rest) is constant in direction, the kinetic energy of the particle keeps on increasing.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
13. The earth is moving around the sun in an elliptical orbit. Point A is
Earth
the closest and point B is the farthest point in the orbit , as shown. In B
A
comparison to the situation when the earth passes through point B: Sun
(1) total energy of the earth-sun system is greater when the earth passes through point A.
(2) gravitational potential energy of the earth-sun system is greater when the earth passes through point A.
(3) kinetic energy of the earth due to the motion around the sun is greater when it passes through the point A.
(4) magnitude of angular momentum of the earth about the sun is greater when the earth passes
through point A.
14. A diverging lens of focal length –10 cm is moving towards right with a velocity 5 m/s.An object placed
on Principal axis is moving towards left with a velocity 3 m/s. The veocity of image at the instant when
the lateral magification produced is 1/2 is : (All velocities are with respect to ground)
(1) 3 m/s towards right (2) 3 m/s towards left (3) 7 m/s towards right (4) 7 m/s towards left
15. If the earth did not rotate on its axis, the change in the weight of a body at the equator would be about
(Take radius of earth = 6400 km)
(1) 0.003% larger (2) 0.3% larger (3) 0.3% smaller (4) 0.003% smaller
16. An unnumbered wall clock shows time 04: 25: 37, where 1st term represents hours, 2nd represents
minutes & the last term represents seconds. What time will its image in a plane mirror show.
(1) 08: 35: 23 (2) 07: 35: 23 (3) 07: 34: 23 (4) none of these
17. A linear object AB is placed along the axis of a concave mirror.
The object is moving towards the mirror with speed V. The speed
of the image of the point A is 4 V and the speed of the image of B
is also 4V. If centre of the line AB is at a distance L from the A B
mirror then length of the object AB will be
3L 5L 4L
(1) (2) (3) L (4)
2 3 3
PAGE NO.-3
18. A point object ' O ' is at the centre of curvature of a concave mirror. The mirror starts to move at a speed
u, in a direction perpendicular to the principal axis. Then the initial velocity of the image is:
(1) 2 u, in the direction opposite to that of mirror's velocity
(2) 2 u, in the direction same as that of mirror's velocity
(3) zero
(4) u, in the direction same as that of mirror's velocity.
19. Which of the following relations is correct for a spherical mirror if a point object is kept on the principal
axis. [‘P’ is pole, ‘C’ is centre object is at point ‘O’, image is at point ‘’]
OP P OP P PC P O P
(1) = (2)  (3)  (4) 
OC C C OC PO PC CP CO
20. A composite of three slabs (of refractive index n1 = 1.2, n2 = 1.4 and n3 = 1.6) of identical thickness is
made in three different ways as shown in figure 1, figure 2 and figure 3. A ray of light is incident on
lower surface of all three arrangements at same angle of incidence. Let D1, D2 and D3 be the net lateral
displacement of emergent ray due to arrangement 1 (figure-1) arrangement 2 (figure-2) and
arrangement 3(figure-3) respectively. Then pick the correct choice(s).
emergent ray emergent ray emergent ray
n3 = 1.6 n2 = 1.4 n1 = 1.2

n2 = 1.4 n3 = 1.6 n2 = 1.4
n1 = 1.2 n1 = 1.2 n3 = 1.6
i i i
incident ray incident ray incident ray
(Fig. 1) (Fig. 2) (Fig. 3)
(1) D1 > D2 (2) D2 > D3 (3) D3 > D1 (4) D1 = D2 = D3
21. A prism of refractive index g deviates the incident ray towards its base. If it is immersed in a
transparent liquid of refractive index l such that l > g then prism would
(1) deviate the ray towards its base (2) deviate the ray away from its base
(3) bot deviate the ray at all (4) nothing can be said
22. A ray of light incident on one of the face of a prism as shown.

After refraction through this surface ray is incident on base of the
prism. The refractive index of the prism is 3 .The net deviation
of the ray due to prism is- 30°
(1) 60° clockwise
(2) 166° clockwise
(3) 104° clockwise 67° 67°
(4)104° anticlockwise
23. A concave spherical surface of radius of curvature 10 cm separates two mediums X and Y of refractive
indices 4/3 and 3/2 respectively. Centre of curvature of the surface lies in the medium X. An object is
placed in medium X.
(1) Image is always real
(2) Image is real if the object distance is greater than 90 cm.
(3) Image is always virtual
(4) Image is virtual only if the object distance is less than 90 cm.
PAGE NO.-4
24. Select the correct characteristics of the image of a real object formed by a lens of focal length f from the
choices given below :
Nature of lens and Position Characteristics of the image observed :
Lens is converging and 2f away from the
(i) (A) virtual, erect, diminished
object
Lens is converging and between f and 2f
(ii) (B) virtual, erect, magnified.
from the object
Lens is diverging and distant f from the
(iii) (C) real, inverted, diminished
object.
Lens is converging and less than f from
(iv) (D) real, inverted, magnified
the object.
(E) real, inverted, same size.
(1) (ii) – C (2) (iii) – B (3) (i) – E (4) (iv) – A

25. A stationary point object (O) is at a distance h from water surface in which a plane mirror is placed at a
depth d. An observer sees the image of object in mirror (as shown). If the mirror starts movsing upward
with constant speed 'v' then speed of image formed by plane mirror as observed by observer will be :
Observer
n=1 h
n=4/3 d
3
(1) v upwards (2) v upwards (3) 2v upwards (4) v downwards
2
26. A convex lens forms inverted image of a real object on a fixed screen. The size of image is 12 cm.
When lens is displaced 20 cm along principle axis it again forms a real image of size 3 cm on the
screen. Focal length of the lens is. (Assume image formation only by paraxial rays)
40 80 50
(1) cm (2) cm (3) 20 cm (4) cm
3 3 3
27. The following data are given for a crown glass prism ;
refractive index for blue light nb = 1.521
refractive index for red light nr = 1.510
refractive index for yellow light ny = 1.550
Dispersive power of a parallel glass slab made of the same material is :
(1) 0.01 (2) 0.02 (3) 0.03 (4) 0
28. You are provided four converging lenses with following specifications.
L1 L2 L3 L4
Focal length 100 cm 100 cm 5 cm 5 cm
Diameter of aperture 2 cm 30 cm 20 cm 1 cm
Which of the following pair will be preferred to construct telescope.

(1) L1 and L2 (2) L1 and L3 (3) L2 and L4 (4) L3 and L4
PAGE NO.-5
29. Which of the following is incorrect?
(1) Far-sightedness can be corrected using convex lens
(2) Near sightedness can be corrected using convexo-concave lens
(3) Cassegrain telescope is free from chromatic aberration
(4) In case of compound microscope, if final image is formed at infinity then, magnifying power and
magnification will be equal.
30. An astronomical telescope has an eyepiece of focal-length 5 cm. If the angular magnification in normal
adjustment is 10, when final image is at least distance of distinct vision (25cm) from eye piece, then
angular magnification will be:
(1) 10 (2) 12 (3) 50 (4) 60
31. In a compound microscope the focal length of objective lens is 1.2 cm and focal length of eye piece is
3.0 cm. When object is kept at 1.25 cm in front of objective, final image is formed at infinity. Magnifying
power of the compound microscope should be:
(1) 400 (2) 200 (3) 100 (4) 150
32. An astronomical telescope has an objective of focal length 200 cm and an eye piece of focal length
4 cm. The telescope is focused to see an object 10 km from the objective. The final image is formed at
infinity. The length of the tube and angular magnification produced by it is
(1) 204 cm, –50 (2) 200 cm, –50 (3) 204 cm, –100 (4) 200 cm, –100
33. The far point of a short sighted eye is 400 cm. The power of the lens is:
(1) - 2 D (2) - 1D (3) - 0.5 D (4) - 0.25 D
 4
34. A driver at a depth of 12 cm in water     seens the sky in a cone of semi vertical angle:
 3
3 4 4
(1) 90o (2) sin1 (3) tan1 (4) sin1
4 3 3
35. The figure shows a charge q placed inside a cavity in an uncharged

conductor. Now if an external electric field is switched on:
(1) Only induced charge on outer surface will redistribute.
(2) Only induced charge on inner surface will redistribute.
(3) Both induced charge on outer and inner surface will redistribute.
(4) Force on charge q placed inside the cavity will change.
36. In the figure two concentric conducting shells of radius R & 2 R

are shown. The inner shell is charged with Q and the outer shell
is uncharged. The amount of energy dissipated when the shells
are connected by a conducting wire is:
k Q2 k Q2 k Q2 3kQ2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4R 2R 8R 4
37. Two large parallel conducting plates of net charge 2Q and –Q are Q
Q E
placed in a uniform external electric field perpendicular to 2A0
2A0
plates as shown. The surface area of each plates is A. The
charge on the left surface of the left plate and right surface of the
right plate are respectively-
(1) Q/2 and -3Q/2
(2) Q and 0
(3) 0 and Q
(4) Q/2 and Q/2
2Q –Q
PAGE NO.-6
38. Two infinitely large charged planes having uniform surface charge density + and – are placed along
x-y plane and yz plane respectively as shown in the figure. Then the nature of electric lines of forces in
x-z plane is given by:
z –
+ x
z z z z
x x x x
(1) (2) (3) (4)
39. Two equipotential spherical surfaces having potential 20 V and 0 V are as shown in figure. There is no
charge anywhere in space except on the surface of both the spheres. Then which of the following figure
represents the nature of electric field in region between the spherical surfaces by electric lines of forces.
0V
20V
(1) (2) (3) (4)
40. Eight point charges (can be assumed as small spheres uniformly

charged and their centres at the corner of the cube) having values
q each are fixed at vertices of a cube. The electric flux through
square surface ABCD of the cube is
q q q q
(1) (2) (3) (4)
24 0 12 0 6 0 8 0
41. Figure above shows a closed Gaussian surface in the shape of a
cube of edge length 3.0 m. There exists an electric field given by
= [(2.0x + 4.0)i + 8.0 j + 3.0 k] N/C, where x is in metres, in the
region in which it lies. The net charge in coulombs enclosed by
the cube is equal to
(1) – 54 0 (2) 6 0
(3) –6 0 (4) 54 0
42. Charge density () in a solid sphere varies with radial distance
from centre (r) as shown in the graph:
Electric field intensity at a point r = r0 is:
0 r0 0 r0
(1) (2)
0 20
20r0 0 r0
(3) (4)
0 40
PAGE NO.-7
43. A dipole is kept at origin along x - axis. An another dipole is placed at point A(a, a) as shown. If
potential energy of system of dipoles p and p1 is minimum at angle  then value of tan is:
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

44.  C
A dipole of dipole moment p  p î is kept at the centre of a circle
of radius r as shown in the figure. The radius of the circle is very
large in comparison to the distance between the two charges of
the dipole. A & B are two points on the axis and C & D are two B  A
p
points on the equitorial line of the dipole. If VA, VB, VC and VD are
potentials at A, B, C and D respectively then, which of the
following is correct?
D
2kp kp
(1) VA - VB=0, VA - VD = (2) VA - VB=0, VA - VD =
r2 r2
2kp kp 2kp 2kp
(3) VA - VB= 2
, VA - VD = 2
(4) VA - VB= 2
, VA - VD =
r r r r2
45. In the arrangement shown in figure-1, force on point charge at origin due to short dipole is F î. If the
dipole is now rotated anticlockwise by 90º (as shown in figure 2), force acting on point charge will be
F F
(1) ĵ (2)  ĵ (3) 2 F ĵ (4) – 2 F ĵ
2 2

46. A dipole of dipole moment P = 2 î – 3 ĵ + 4 k̂ (C-m) is kept at point A whose coordinates are

(1, –1, 3). If an external electric field E = 5 î + 2 ĵ – 3 k̂ (V/m) is applied. The potential energy of the
dipole will be.
(1) 2.8 J (2) 4 J (3) 5.4 J (4) 8 J
47. A charge ' q ' is carried from a point A (r, 135º) to point B (r, 45º)
following a path which is a quadrant of circle of radius ' r '. If the

dipole moment is P , the work done by external agent is:
qP
(1) zero (2)
40r 2
2 qP qP
(3) (4)
40r 2 40r
PAGE NO.-8
1 1 1
48. Electrical potential ' v ' in space as a function of co-ordinates is given by, v = + + . Then the
x y z
electric field intensity at (1, 1, 1) is given by:
1

(1)  î  ˆj  kˆ  (2) î  ˆj  kˆ (3) zero (4)
3
 î  ˆj  kˆ 
49. A graph of the x component of the electric field as a function of x in a region of space is shown. The
Y and Z components of the electric field are zero in this region. If the electric potential is 10 V at the
origin, then potential at x = 2.0 m is :
(1) 10 V (2) 40 V (3) – 10 V (4) 30 V
50. A sphere of radius R is having charge Q uniformly distributed over it. The energy density of the electric
field in the air, at a distance r (r > R) is given by (in J/m3) :
Q2 Q2 Q2 Q2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
32 2 0 R2 r 2 32 2 0 r 4 32 2 0 R4 16 2 0 r 4
51. Two smooth spherical non conducting shells each of radius R having uniformly distributed charge
Q & Q on their surfaces are released on a smooth non-conducting surface when the distance between
their centres is 5 R. The mass of A is m and that of B is 2 m. The speed of A just before A and B collide
1
is: [Neglect gravitational interaction] (take K = )
4 0
2kQ2 4k Q2 8k Q2 16k Q2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
5mR 5mR 5mR 5mR
52. Figure shows a hemisphere of charge Q and radius R and a sphere of charge 2Q and radius R. The
total potential energy of hemisphere is UH and that the sphere is US. Then.
(1) 2UH = US (2) 2UH < US (3) 2UH > US (4) UH = US
PAGE NO.-9
53. A point charge ' Q ' is placed at the centre of a spherical cavity
of radius ' b ' carved inside a solid conducting sphere of radius '
1
a '. Then total energy of the system is:[k = ]
4 0
kQ2 kQ2 kQ2 kQ2 kQ2 kQ2 kQ2 kQ2

(1)  (2) + (3) + (4) –
2a 2b 2a 2b a b a b
54. A charged particle q is shot towards another charged particle Q which is fixed, with a speed v. It
approaches Q upto a closest distance r and then returns. If q was given a speed 2v, the closest
distance of approach would be:
(1) r (2) 2r (3) r/2 (4) r/4
55. An  - particle moves towards a nucleus always at rest. The kinetic energy of the  -particle at a large
distance is 10 M ev. If the atomic number of the nucleus is 50 then the minimum distance of approach is
(1) 1.44 x 10 –14 m (2) 2.88 x 10–14 m (3) 1.44 x 10–10 m (4) 2.88 x 10–10 m
56. The three point charges shown in the figure lie along a straight line. The energy needed to exchange
the position of the central + ve charge with one of the negative charges is
q2 3q2 q2 q2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
8 0 a 8 0 a 4 0 a 8 0 a
57. The side of the cube is '' and point charges are kept at each
corner as shown in diagram. Interaction electrostatic potential
energy of all the charges is :
4kq2 3kq2
(1) (2)
3  
2kq2 kq2
(3) (4)
3 3 
58. If the electric potential of the inner shell is 10 volt & that of the
outer shell is 5 volt, then the potential at the centre will be: (the
shells are uniformly charged)
(1) 10 volt
(2) 5 volt
(3) 15 volt
(4) 0
59. Potential difference between centre and the surface of sphere of radius R and having uniform volume
charge density  within it will be :
 R2  R2  R2
(1) (2) (3) 0 (4)
6 0 4 0 2 0

60. If uniform electric field E = E0 î  2 E0 ˆj , where E0 is a constant, exists in a region of space and
at (0, 0) the electric potential V is zero, then the potential at (x 0, 0) will be:
(1) zero (2)  E0 x0 (3)  2 E0 x0 (4)  5 E0 x0
PAGE NO.-10

61. The gravitational field in a region is given by E = 5 N/kg î + 12 N/kg ĵ . If the origin is taken as 72 J
potential energy, then the potential energy at (0, 5) is: (for 1 kg mass)
62. A comet is in elliptical orbit around the sun. In this orbit the comet's smallest distance from the sun is
72 × 106 m and its largest distance from the sun is 144 × 106 m. The ratio of comet's maximum speed
to the minimum speed in the orbit is x then the value of 12x is: (Neglect the presence of all bodies other
than the sun and comet).
63. Two planets A and B travel counter clockwise in circular orbits

around a fixed star. The radii of their orbits are in the ratio 1 : 4.
At some time, they are aligned as shown in the figure, making a
straight line with the star. After a certain time, planet A comes A B
back to its initial position, completing one full circle about the
star. In the same time, angular displacement (in degree)of the
planet B is :
64. The escape velocity of the body from the earth is 11 km/sec. If the radius of the planet be half the
radius of earth and its mass is eight times that of earth. The escape velocity (in km/s) of the planet is :
65. A satellite is seen after each 8 hours over equator at a place on the earth when its sense of rotation is
opposite to the earth. The time interval after which it can be seen at the same place when the sense of
rotation of earth & satellite is same will be (in hour):
66. The reflecting surface of a plane mirror is vertical. A particle is projected in a vertical plane which is also
perpendicular to the mirror. The initial speed of the particle is 10 m/s and the angle of projection is 60°
from the normal of the mirror. The point of projection is at a distance 5m from the mirror. The particle
moves towards the mirror. Just before the particle touches the mirror, the velocity (in m/s) of approach
of the particle and the image is ;
67. A convex mirror of radius of curvature 18 cm forms image of the sun. The diameter of the sun subtends
an angle 1º on the earth. If the diameter of the image is x then the value of 100x is (in cm):
68. Two point objects are placed on principal axis of a thin converging lens. One is 20 cm from the lens and
other is on the other side of lens at a distance of 40 cm from the lens. The images of both objects
coincide. The magnitude of focal length (in cm) of lens is
69. A mango tree is at the bank of a river and one of the branch of tree extends over the river. A tortoise
lives in river. A mango falls just above the tortoise. The acceleration (in m/s2) of the mango falling from
tree appearing to the tortoise is (Refractive index of water is 4/3 and the tortoise is stationary)
70. Refractive indices of 2 different media with separating

boundary at the diagonal of rectangular glass slab are shown.
Then angle of deviation (in degree) of the ray as shown in the
figure, as shown in figure is:
PAGE NO.-11
71. Two parallel rays are incident on the prism as shown in the
5 250
figure. If ()prism = , the angle (in degree) between the
3
3
emerging rays is (given sin 250 = )
5 2 0
25
72. A thin Plano-convex lens is placed on a plane mirror as shown

in the figure. The radius of curvature of curved surface is 40cm. O
The refractive index of material of lens n1 = 1.5. The refractive n0
index surrounding is n0=1.2. An object O starts moving parallel
to plane mirror. If final image of object moves with same speed
as that of the object initially then distance of object O from the n1
plane mirror is 10x cm then the value of x is.
73. Radii of curvature of a concavo-convex lens (refractive index = 1.5) are 40 cm (concave side) and
20 cm (convex side) as shown. The convex side is silvered. The distance x on the principal axis where
an object is placed so that its image is created on the object itself, is equal to (in cm):
///
/
/////
O
/////////////
x // ///
R = 40 cm R = 20 cm
74. The focal length of a lens of refractive index 3/2 is 10 cm in air. The focal length (in cm) of that lens in a
medium of refractive index 7/5 is:
75. For a prism kept in air it is found that for an angle of incidence 60°, the angle of refraction 'A', angle of
deviation '' and angle of emergence 'e' become equal. If the refractive index of the prism is x then the
value of 10x is

1. (1) 2. (2) 3. (1) 4. (3) 5. (2) 6. (2) 7. (2)
8. (1) 9. (1) 10. (1) 11. (4) 12. (1) 13. (3) 14. (1)
15. (2) 16. (3) 17. (3) 18. (2) 19. (1) 20. (4) 21. (2)
22. (2) 23. (3) 24. (3) 25. (2) 26. (1) 27. (2) 28. (3)
29. (4) 30. (2) 31. (2) 32. (1) 33. (4) 34. (2) 35. (1)
36. (1) 37. (3) 38. (3) 39. (4) 40. (3) 41. (4) 42. (4)
43. (3) 44. (3) 45. (2) 46. (4) 47. (3) 48. (2) 49. (4)
50. (2) 51. (1) 52. (2) 53. (1) 54. (4) 55. (1) 56. (3)
57. (1) 58. (1) 59. (1) 60. (2) 61. 12.00 62. 24.00 63. 45.00
64. 44.00 65. 24.00 66. 10.00 67. 15.70 68. 26.70 69. 13.30 70. 30.00
71. 40.00 72. 16.00 73. 16.00 74. 70.00 75. 17.30
PAGE NO.-12
PHYSICS
TARGET : JEE (MAIN)

 

INF ORMA TIO

E EST
CLASS : XII
NO. 6
DPP Syllabus : Current Electricity, Heat Transfer, Measurement Error & Experiments & Capacitance.

SECTION - I
1. Three copper wires of length and cross–sectional area (L, A), (2L, A/2) and (L/2, 2A). Resistance is
minimum in
(1) wire of cross–sectional area A (2) wire of area A/2
(3) wire of cross–sectional area 2A (4) same in all three cases
2. For the network of resistance shown in the figure the equivalent resistance of the network between the
points A and B is 18 ohm. The value of unknown resistance R is:
R
10 10
10
B A
10 10 10
(1) 8 (2) 10 (3) 16 (4) 24
3. A 50 W bulb is in series with a room heater and the combination is connected across the mains. To get
max. heater output, the 50 W bulb should be replaced by
(1) 25 W (2) 10 W (3) 100 W (4) 200 W
PAGE NO.-1
4. The wire used in the arrangement shown in figure has a resistance of r ohm per meter. The equivalent
resistance between points A and B is
 6 2r 6r 3r

(1)   r (2) (3) (4)
 11     1 16  3   10  3  
5. A bridge circuit is shown in figure.The equivalent resistance between A and B will be :
252 14
(1) 21 (2) 7 (3)  (4) 
85 3
6. When a cell is balanced on potentiometer wire, then balancing length is 125 cm. If resistance of 2 ohm
is connected across the ends of cell, then balancing length is 100 cm, then internal resistance of cell is
(1) 0.5  (2) 0.25  (3) 0.05  (4) 5 
7. The measurement (approx) of ideal voltmeter in the following circuit is

6V
+ –
60
V
40
(1) 2.4 V (2) 3.4 V (3) 4.0 V (4) 6.0 V
8. For which of the following meters, converted from identical galvanometers, the resistance of the
converted meter is largest
(1) voltmeter of range 0.5 V (2) ammeter of range 1 A
(3) Voltmeter of range 1.0 V (4) ammeter of range 10 A
9. Resistivity of potentiometer wire is 10–7 ohm-metre and its area of cross-section is 10–6m2. When a
current i = 0.1A flows through the wire, its potential gradient is :
(1) 10–2 V/m (2) 10–4 V/m (3) 0.1 V/m (4) 10V/m
PAGE NO.-2
10. The potential difference across the 100 ohm resistance in the following circuit is measured by a
voltmeter of 900 ohm resistance. The percentage error made in reading the potential difference is
900
V
10
100
(1) 10/9 (2) 0.1 (3) 1.0 (4) 10.0
11. n equal cell having e.m.f. E and internal resistance r, are connected in circuit of a resistance R. Same
current flows in circuit either they connected in series or parallel, if :
r
(1) R = nr (2) R = (3) R = n2r (4) R = r
n
12. The potential difference across BC in the following figure will be :
(1) 1.2 v (2) 2 v (3) 0.8 v (4) 1 v
13. A galvanometer has resistance of 400 and deflects full scale for current of 0.2 mA through it. The
shunt resistance required to convert it into 3 A ammeter is
(1) 0.027  (2) 0.054  (3) 0.0135  (4) none of these
14. Two metal wired having conductivities 1 and 2 respectively have same dimensions. If they are
connected in series the effective conductivity of the combination is
  2   2   2 212
(1) 1 (2) 1 (3) 1 (4)
2 2 12 1  2
15. The figure shows a graph of current (I) flowing throught a cell against its terminal voltage (V). The emf
and internal resistance of this cell are
(1) 1 V ; 0.25   (2) 1 V ; 4   (3) 1 V ; 1   (4) 0.25 V ; 0.25 
PAGE NO.-3
16. A ‘Wheatstone Bridge’ circuit has been set up as shown. The resistor R4 is an ideal carbon. The resistor
R4 is an ideal carbon resistance (tolerance = 0%) having bands of colours black, yellow and brown
marked on it. The galvanometer, in this circuit, would show a ‘null point’ when another ideal carbon
resistance X is connected across R4, having bands of colours
(1) black, brown, black, is put in parallel with R4

(2) black, brown, brown, is put in parallel with R4
(3) brown, black, brown, is put in parallel with R4
(4) black, brown, black, is put in parallel with R4
17. Two cells, having the same e.m. f., are connected in series through an external resistance R. Cells
have internal resistances r1 and r2 (r1 > r2) respectively. When the circuit is closed, the potential
difference across the first cell is zero. The value of R is :-
r r r –r
(1) r1 – r2 (2) 1 2 (3) 1 2 (4) r1 + r2
2 2
18. See the electrical circuit shown in this figure. Which of the following equations is a correct equation for it ?
(1) 1– (i1 + i2)R – i1r1 = 0 (2) 2– i2r2–1– i1r1 = 0

(3) –2– (i1 + i2)R + i2r2 = 0 (4) 1– (i1 + i2)R + i1r1 = 0
19. If voltage across a bulb rated 220 Volt - 100 Watt drops by 2.5 % of its rated value, the percentage of
the rated value by which the power would decrease is :
(1) 20 % (2) 2.5 % (3) 5 % (4) 10 %
20. In an ammeter 0.2% of main current passes through the galvanometer. If resistance of galvanometer is
G, the resistance of ammeter will be :
1 499 1 500
(1) G (2) G (3) G (4) G
499 500 500 499
21. A circuit contains an ammeter, a batter of 30 V and a resistance 40.8 ohm all connected in series. If the
ammeter has a coil of resistance 480 ohm and a shunt of 20 ohm, the reading in the ammeter will be:
(1) 0.25 A (2) 2A (3) 1 A (4) 0.5 A
PAGE NO.-4
22. A potentiometer wire of length L and a resistance r are connected in series with a battery of e.m.f.
E0 and a resistance r1. An unknown e.m.f. E is balanced at a length l of the potentiometer wire. The
e.m.f. E will be given by :
E0 r l E l LE0r LE0r
(1) . (2) 0 (3) (4)
(r  r1 ) L L (r  r1 )l lr1
23. The charge flowing through a resistance R varies with time t as Q = at – bt2, where a and b are positive
constants. The total heat produced in R is :
a 3R a 3R a 3R a 3R
(1) (2) (3) (4)
b 6b 3b 2b
24. The potential difference (VA – VB) between the points A and B in the given figure is :
2 3V 1
VA + – VB
A  = 2A B
(1) + 9 V (2) – 3V (3) + 3 V (4) + 6 V
25. Consider a compound slab consisting of two different materials having equal thicknesses and thermal
conductivities k and 2k respectively. The equivalent thermal conductivity of the slab is–
4 2
(1) 2 (2) 3k (3) k (4) k
3 3
26. Assuming the sun to have a spherical outer surface of radius r, radiating like a black body at
temperature t°C, the power received by a unit surface, (normal to the incident rays) at a distance R
from the center of the sun is
4 2 t 4  r 2 (t  273)2 16 2r 2 t 4 r 2 (t  273)2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
R2 R2 R2 R2
27. A square is made of four rods of same material one of the diagonal of a square is at temperature
difference 100°C, then the temperature difference of second diagonal:
100 100
(1) 0°C (2) (3) (4) 100°C
 2
28. The formation of ice is started in a lake with water at 0°C. When the atmospheric temperature is –10°C.
If time taken for 1 cm of ice to be formed is 7 hours, the time taken for the thickness of ice to increase
from 1cm to 2 cm is:
(1) Less than 7 hours (2) 7 hours
(3) More than 14 hours (4) more than 7 hours but less than 14 hours
29. If the error in the measurement of radius of a sphere is 2%, then the error in the determination of
volume of the sphere will be
(1) 4% (2) 6% (3) 8% (4) 2%
30. A student measures the distance traversed in free fall of a body, initially at rest, in a given time. He uses
this data to estimate g, the acceleration due to gravity. If the maximum percentage errors in
measurement of the distance and the time are e1 and e2 respectively, the percentage error in the
estimation of g is
(1) e2 – e1 (2) e1 + 2e2 (3) e1 + e2 (4) e1 – 2e2
PAGE NO.-5
31. A student measured the diameter of a small steel ball using a screw gauge of least count 0.001 cm.
The main scale reading is 5 mm and zero of circular scale division coincides with 25 divisions above the
reference level. If screw gauge has a zero error of –0.004 cm, the correct diameter of the ball is
(1) 0.521 cm (2) 0.529 cm (3) 0.053 cm (4) 0.525 cm
32. If % error in length, diameter, current and voltage are same than which of the following affects %error in
measurement of resistivity, the most:
(1) Length measurement (2) voltage measurement
(3) Current measurement (4) diameter measurement
33. In Searle's apparatus we have two wires. During experiment we study the extension in one wire. The
use of second wire is -
(1) to support the apparatus because it is heavy and may not break single wire
(2) to compensate the changes in length caused by changes in temperature of atmosphere during
experimentation
(3) to keep the apparatus in level so that extension is measured accurately
(4) all the three above
(5) Their is no second wire in Searel's apparatus
34. The amount of heat produced in an electric circuit depends upon the current (), resistance (R) and time
(t). If the error made in the measurements of the above quantities are 2%, 1% and 1% respectively then
the maximum possible error in the total heat produced will be
(1) 3% (2) 6% (3) 2% (4) 1%
35. The main scale of a vernier callipers reads 10 mm in 10 divisions. 10 divisions of Vernier scale coincide
with 9 divisions of the main scale. When a cylinder is tightly placed between the two jaws, the zero of
vernier scale lies slightly behind 3.2 cm and the fourth vernier division coincides with a main scale
division. The diameter of the cylinder is:
(1) 3.09 cm (2) 3.14 cm (3) 3.04 cm (4) 3.03 cm
36. The vernier of a circular scale is divided into 50 divisions which coincides with 49 main scale division.
Each main scale division is 0.5°. The least count of the instrument is
(1) 0.6' (2) 1' (3) 6' (4) 30'
37. A micrometer screw gauge with pitch of 0.5 mm and 50 divisions on circular scale is used to measure
the diameter of a thin wire. Initially when the gap is closed, the main scale reading is zero and the line
of fourth circular division coincides with the reference line. When the wire is placed between the jaws,
the main scale reading is always 0.5 mm, but the circular scale readings in three observations are
respectily 46 , 48 and 44. The reported value of the diameter of the wire is:
(1) 0.46 mm (2) 0.94 mm (3) 0.92 mm (4) 1.00 mm
A2 B
38. A physical quantity R is given by R = . The physical quantity among A, B, C, D and E which
C 4 D3 / 2E2
causes the maximum percentage error in R if fractional error in each of these physical quantities
(A,B,C,D,E) is same is :
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
PAGE NO.-6
39. The length and breadth of a rectangle are (6.0  0.3) cm and (4.0  0.2) cm. Then the area of the
rectangle with error limits is :
(1) 26 cm2 (2) (24 ± 2) cm2 (3) (24.0 ± 4.8) cm2 (4) (24.0  2.4) cm2
40. Four metallic plates of each with a surface area of one side (A) , are placed at a distance (d) from each
other. The alternate plate are connected to point (A) and (B) as shown in the fig. The capacitance of the
system is
A
B
0 A 2 0 A 3 0 A 4 0 A
(1) (2) (3) (4)
d d d d
41. Initial charges (with proper sign) on the plates of two identical capacitors, each of 1 F, are as shown.
When both S1 and S2 are closed, the potential difference between A and B will finally become :
(1) 2V (2) 4V (3) 6V (4) 0 V
42. A parallel plate capacitor (without dielectric) is charged and disconnected from a battery. Now a
dielectric is inserted between the plates. The electric force on a plate of the capacitor will:
(1) decrease (2) increase
(3) remain same (4) depends on the width of the dielectric.
43. N identical capacitors are connected in parallel to a potential difference V. These capacitors are then
reconnected in series such that positively charged plate of one capacitor is connected to negatively
charged plate of the other, their charges being left undisturbed. The potential difference obtained is :
(1) zero (2) (N - 1) V (3) N V (4) N2V
44. Capacitance of a system of capacitors between points A and B shown in the given figure.
C 2C B
A 3C
C 2C
(1) (2) 6 C (3) 3C (4)
3 3
45. A charged capacitor of capacitance C and having charge Q is to be

/
connected with another uncharged capacitor of capacitance C' as C C
shown till the steady state is reached, find the value of C' for heat
liberated through the wires to be minimum.
(1) zero (2) C
(3) C/2 (4) 2C
PAGE NO.-7
46. A parallel combination of 0.1 M  resistor and a 10 F capacitor is connected across a 1.5 volt source
of negligible resistance. The time required for the capacitor to set charged upto 0.75 volt is
approximately (in seconds):
(1)  (2) loge 2 (3) log10 2 (4) zero
47. A capacitor is charged and battery is disconnected. Now the distance between the plates is increased
slightly
(1) Force between the plates will decrease
(2) The potential energy of the capacitor will decrease
(3) Potential difference between the plates will decrease
(4) Potential difference between the plates will increase
48. A parallel plate capacitor has an electric field of 105 V/m between the plates. If the charge on one of the
capacitor plate is 1C, then the magnitude of force on each capacitor plate is:
(1) 0.1 N (2) 0.05 N (3) 0.5 N (4) 0.01 N
49. A parallel plate capacitor is charged to a potential difference of 100 V and disconnected from the source
of emf. A slab of dielectric is then inserted between the plates. Which of the following three quantities
change?
(i) The potential difference (ii) The capacitance (iii) The charge on the plates
(1) Only (i) and (ii) (2) only (i) and (iii) (3) only (ii) and (iii) (4) All (i), (ii) and (iii)
50. The equivalent capacitance between point A and B is:
(1) 1 F (2) 2F (3) 3F (4) 4F
51. The equivalent capacitance between x and y is:
5  7  8 
(1) F (2) F (3) F (4) 4 F
6 6 3
52. In the arrangement shown in figure, dielectric constant K1 = 2 and K2 = 3. If the capacitance are C1 and
C
C2 respectively, then 1 will be: (The gaps shown are negligible)
C2
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 3 (3) 9 : 5 (4) 25 : 24

PAGE NO.-8
53. A circuit has a section AB shown in the figure. The emf of the source equals  = 10V, the capacitor
capacitances are equal to C1 = 1.0 F and C2 = 2.0 F, the potential difference A  B = 5.0V. The
voltage across each capacitor are
5V 10V 10V 10V

(1) V1 = , V2 = (2) V1 = , V2 =
3 3 3 3
10V 5V 5V 5V
(3) V1 = , V2 = (4) V1 = , V2 =
3 3 3 3
54. In the circuit here, the steady state voltage across capacitor C is a fraction of the battery e.m.f. The
fraction is decided by
(1) R1 only (2) R1 and R2 only (3) R1 and R3 only (4) R1, R2 and R3
55. Equivalent capacitance between A and B is
(1) 8µF (2) 6µF (3) 26 µF (4) 10/3 µ F
56. Two capacitors C1 and C2 = 2C1 are connected in a circuit with a switch between them as shown in the
figure. Initially the switch is open and C1 holds charge Q. The switch is closed. At steady state, the
charge on each capacitor will be
(1) Q, 2Q (2) Q/3, 2Q/3 (3) 3Q/ 2, 3Q (4) 2Q/3, 4Q/3
PAGE NO.-9
57. Figure given below shows two identical parallel plate capacitors connected to a battery with switch S
closed. The switch is now opened and the free space between the plate of capacitors is filled with a
dielectric of dielectric constant 3. What will be the ratio of total electrostatic energy stored in both
capacitors before and after the introduction of the dielectric.
(1) 3 : 1 (2) 5 : 1 (3) 3 : 5 (4) 5 : 3
58. In the circuit as shown in the figure the effective capacitance between A and B is
(1) 3µF (2) 2µF (3) 4µF (4) 8µF
59. Calculate the reading of voltmeter between X and Y then (VX – VY ) is equal to -
1F
2F X
1F
A V B
3F Y
6F
20V
(1) 10 V (2) 13.33V (3) 3.33 V (4) 10.33 V
60. The capacitance of two capacitors was compared with the aid of an electrometer. The capacitors were
charged to potential of V1 = 300V and V2 = 100V and were connected in parallel. The potential
difference between the plates measured by the electrometer was 250V. The capacitance ratio is -
(1) 3 : 1 (2) 1 : 3 (3) 1 : 2.5 (4) 2.5 : 1
PAGE NO.-10
61. Two batteries, one of emf 18V and internal resistance 2 and the other of emf 12 V and internal
resistance 1, are connected as shown. The voltmeter V will record a reading (in volt) of :
62. For the circuit of figure the equivalent resistance between points A and B is R then the value of R2 is
63. In the given figure, the equivalent resistance between the points A and B is R then the value of R2 is
64. A cell is balanced at 100 cm of a potentiometer wire when the total length of the wire is 400 cm. If the
length of the potentiometer wire is increased by 100 cm, If the new balancing length for the cell is P
meter then the value of 10P is . (Assume pd across potentiometer wire is constant)
65. One filament takes 10 min to heat a kettle and another takes 15 min. If connected in parallel they
combindly take T min to heat the same kettle then the Value of 7.2 T is:
66. A potentiometer wire has length 4m and resistance 8. The resistance (in ) that must be connected in
series with the wire and an accumulator of e.m.f 2V, so as to get a potential gradient 1mV per cm on
the wire is :
67. A filament bulb (500 W, 100 V) is to be used in a 230 V main suply. When a resistance R is connected
in series, it works perfectly and the bulb consumes 500 W. The value of R (in )is :
68. Two rods having thermal conductivities in the ratio of 5 : 3 and having equal length and equal cross-
section are joined by face to face. If the temperature of free end of first rod is 100ºC and the free end of
second rod is 20ºC, then temperature (in °C) of the junction, is–
69. Two cylindrical conductors A and B of same metallic material have their diameters in the raito 1 : 2 and
lengths in the ratio 2 : 1. If the temperature difference between their ends is same, the square of ratio of
heats conducted respectively by B and A per second is,
PAGE NO.-11
70. At T = 200K a black body emits maximum energy at wavelength of 14 m. Then at T = 1000K the body
will emit maximum energy at wavelength of P × 10–7 m then the value of P is.
71. If temperature of body increases by 10%, then % increase in radiated energy of the body is :
72. A body takes 10 minutes to cool down from 62°C to 50°C. If the temperature of surrounding is 26°C
then in the next 10 minutes temperature (in °C) of the body will be :
73. Three rods made of the same material and having the same cross-section are joined as shown in the
fig. Each rod is of same length. The left and right ends are kept at 0°C and 90°C respectively. The
temperature (in °C) of the junction of the three rods will be :
74. An uncharged parallel plate capacitor is connected to a battery. The electric field between the plates is
10V/m. Now a dielectric of dielectric constant 2 is inserted between the plates filling the entire space.
The electric field (in V/m) between the plates now is
75. In the circuit shown capacitors are initially uncharged. The switch S1 is kept closed for a long time and
S2 is open. S1 is then opened and just after that S2 is closed. What is the charge (in C) finally on
capacitor C2 :

1. (3) 2. (3) 3. (4) 4. (3) 5. (4) 6. (1) 7. (4)
8. (3) 9. (1) 10. (3) 11. (4) 12. (3) 13. (1) 14. (4)
15. (1) 16. (2) 17. (1) 18. (1) 19. (3) 20. (3) 21. (4)
22. (1) 23. (2) 24. (1) 25. (3) 26. (2) 27. (1) 28. (3)
29. (2) 30. (2) 31. (2) 32. (4) 33. (2) 34. (2) 35. (2)
36. (1) 37. (3) 38. (3) 39. (4) 40. (3) 41. (2) 42. (3)
43. (3) 44. (2) 45. (1) 46. (4) 47. (4) 48. (2) 49. (1)
50. (4) 51. (4) 52. (4) 53. (3) 54. (2) 55. (1) 56. (2)
57. (3) 58. (3) 59. (3) 60. (1) 61. 14.00 62. 16.00 63. 36.00
64. 12.50 65. 43.20 66. 32.00 67. 26.00 68. 70.00 69. 64.00 70. 28.00
71. 46.41 72. 42.00 73. 60.00 74. 10.00 75. 40.00
PAGE NO.-12
PHYSICS
 
INF ORMA TIO

E EST
CLASS : XII
NO. 7
DPP Syllabus : EMF, EMI, Alternating current, Wave Optics.

SECTION - I
1. Two infinitely long linear conductors are arranged perpendicular to

each other and are in mutually perpendicular planes as shown in
figure. If 1 = 2A along the y-axis and 2 = 3A along –ve z-axis and

AP = AB = 1 cm. The value of magnetic field strength B at P is
(1) (3 × 10–5 T) ĵ + (– 4 × 10–5 T) k̂
(2) (3 × 10–5 T) ĵ + (4 × 10–5 T) k̂
(3) (4 × 10–5 T) ĵ + (3 × 10–5 T) k̂
(4) (– 3 × 10–5 T) ĵ + (4 × 10–5 T) k̂
2. The arrangements of wires in which there exists atleast one point at finite distance from wires, at which
magnetic field is zero.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
PAGE NO.-1
3. Wire frames having a shape of equilateral triangles are made as shown (resistivities are shown in
figure). All the wire frames have uniform and same cross section then magnetic field intensity at
geometrical centre is zero in:
(1) ‘’ only (2) ‘’, ‘’ and ‘V’ situations.

(3) ‘’ and ‘’ situations. (4) all the situations.
4. Three rings, each of equal radius R are placed in mutually y

perpendicular planes (to each other) and each having equal
current , the magnitude of the magnetic field at the common
centre O is :
30 
(1) (2) zero x
2R O
(3)  2 1  2R
0

(4) 2  3  2R
0
5. Magnetic field at p on the axis of two coplanar, concentric current

i2
carrying loop is zero if :
i1 5 5 i2 5 5
(1) = (2) = i1
P
i2 2 8 i1 2 8 a
i1 5 8 i2 5 8 2a
(3) = (4) =
i2 2 5 i1 2 5 2a
6. A point charge is moving in clockwise direction in a circle with constant speed. Consider the magnetic
field produced by the charge at a point P (not centre of the circle) on the axis of the circle.
(1) it is constant in magnitude only
(2) it is constant in direction only
(3) it is constant in direction and magnitude both
(4) it is not constant in magnitude and direction both.
PAGE NO.-2
7. A magnet of dipole moment M placed at origin as
shown in figure. Then select correct alternative
about Magnetic field produced by it:
 7M
(1) 0 , at angle  = 30º with x-axis
8 a3
0 7 M
(2) , at angle  = 60º with x-axis
8 a3
 5M 1
 3
(3) 0 , at angle  = tan   with x-axis
4 a3  2 
0 7 M  3
(4) , at angle  = tan1  with x-axis
8 a3  2 
 
8. If the earth’s field induction at a place is 0.36 gauss and the angle of dip is 600. Then the horizontal and
vertical component of the field is :
(1) 0.36 gauss, 0.36 3 gauss (2) 0.18 gauss, 0.18 3 gauss
(3) 0.09 gauss, 0.09 3 gauss (4) none of these
9. The magnetic induction and the intensity of magnetic field inside an iron pole of an electromagnetic are
10 Wb m–2 and 250 Am–1 respectively. What is the relative permeability of iron ? (0 = 4 × 10–7 Hm–1)
105 105 105 105
(1) (2) (3) (4)
6  3 5
10. Susceptibility of magnetic substance is found to depend on temperature and the strength of the
magnetising field the material is :
(1) super conductor (2) paramagnet (3) diamagnet (4) ferromagnet
11. The materials suitable for making electromagnets should have :

(1) high retentivity and high coercivity (2) low retentivity and low coercivity
(3) high retentivity and low coercivity (4) low retentivity and high coercivity
12. An insulating rod of length  carries a charge q distributed uniformly on it. The rod is pivoted at its mid
point and is rotated at a frequency f about a fixed axis perpendicular to rod and passing through the
pivot. The magnetic moment of the rod system is
1 1 1
(1) Zero (2) q f 2 (3) q f 2 (4) q f 2
12 6 3
13. A uniform magnetic field B = k t, where ' k ' is a constant. is applied perpendicular to the plane of a non-
conducting loop having a charge Q, mass ' m '. The angular velocity of the loop at time ' t ' is:
kQt k Q t2
(1) zero (2) (3) (4) cannot be found
2m 4m
14. Figure shows a square current carrying loop PQRSof side Y

10 cm and current  = 5A the magnetic moment M of the
loop is Q
 
(1) 0.01 3iˆ  4kˆ A – m2 R
i = 5A
(2) 0.01  3ˆj – 4kˆ  A – m 2
P
37° x
(3) 0.01  4iˆ – 3kˆ  A – m 2
S
Z
(4) 0.01  3iˆ – 4kˆ  A – m 2
PAGE NO.-3
15. A conducting wire is bent in the form of a parabola y2 = x carrying a y
a
current i = 1 A as shown in the Figure. This wire is placed in a
 
magnetic field B  –2k tesla. The unit vector in the direction of x=4
x=1 x
force (on the given portion a to b) is O
b
     
3 i 4 j i j i 2 j î  2ˆj
(1) (2) (3) (4)
5 2 5 5
16. An infinitely long, straight wire carrying current I1 passes through

the center of a circular loop of wire carrying current I2 as shown in
figure. I1
The infinite wire is perpendicular to the plane of the loop. Which of
the following describes the magnetic force on the loop due to the x
infinite wire.
(1) Force on the loop due to infinite wire is upward, along the axis I2
of the loop.
(2) Force on the loop due to infinite wire is downward, along the
axis of the loop.
(3) Although net force on the loop due to infinite wire is zero, but due to magnetic interaction between
infinite wire and loop, a tensile stress is developed in the loop.
(4) There is no magnetic force on the loop due to infinite wire.
17. A charged particle is kept at rest on a smooth horizontal

surface in uniform mangetic field ‘B’ which is directed
vertically downwards as shown in the figure.
An observer is moving with constant velocity v towards
right. Then with respect to the observer which of the
following statements is/are correct :
(1) Path of the charged particle will be straight line.
(2) Path of charged particle will be circular.
(3) Magnetic force on the charged particle is zero.
(4) Magnitude of magnetic force on charged particle is 2qVB.
 
18. A charged particle of charge ‘q’ and mass ‘m’ experiences a force F1  q(– ˆj  k)
ˆ N in a magnetic field B
 
when it has velocity v1  î m/s. This force becomes F1  q(iˆ – k)
ˆ N when the velocity is changed to
 
v 2  ˆj m/s the magnetic field B is :
(1) (iˆ  ˆj – k)
ˆ T (2) (– î – ˆj  k)
ˆ T (3) (iˆ – ˆj  k)
ˆ T (4) (iˆ  ˆj  k)
ˆ T
19. Which of the following particles will deviate (< /2) maximum when they enter magnetic filed region
perpendicularly with same velocity and travel same distance :
(1) Be+++ (2) Proton (3) -particle (4) Li++
20. A uniform field is exists in the region directed away from the page. A
charged particle, moving in the plane of the page follows a
anticlockwise spiral of increasing radius as shown. True explanation is:
(1) charge is positive and slowing down
(2) charge is negative and slowing down
(3) charge is positive and speeding up
(4) charge is negative and speeding up
PAGE NO.-4
q
21. If a charged particle of charge to mass ratio   is entering in a
m
magnetic field of strength B at a speed v = (2d)(B), then which of the
following is correct :
(1) angle subtended by charged particle at the centre of circular path is 2.
(2) the charge will move on a circular path and will come out from magnetic
field at a distance 4d from the point of insertion.
2
(3) the time for which particle will be in the magnetic field is .
B
(4) the charged particle will subtend an angle of 900 at the centre of circular
path
22. A solenoid 1.5 m long and 4.0 cm in diameter possesses 10 times/cm. A current of 5.0 amp is flowing
through it. Then the magnetic induction (i) inside and (ii) at one end on the axis of solenoid are
respectively :
(1) 2  103 tesla,   103 tesla (2) 3  103 tesla, 2  103 tesla
(3) 0.5  10 3 tesla, and 4   103 tesla (4) none of these
23. A long straight solid cylinder of radius r =1 mm carries uniformly distributed current  = 4 A. If the axis
of cylinder is perpendicular to uniform magnetic field B0 = 7 × 10–4 Tesla, then minimum magnitude
value of magnetic field at a finite distance from cylinder will be :
(1) 8 × 10–4 T (2)  × 10–4 T (3) 15 × 10–4 T (4) Zero
24. Two long cylinders (with axis parallel) are arranged as shown to
form overlapping cylinders, each of radius r, whose centers are
separated by a distance d. Current of density J (Current per unit
area) flows into the plane of page along the right shaded part of
one cylinder and an equal current flows out of the plane of the
page along the left shaded part of the other, as shown. The
magnitude and direction of magnetic field at point O (O is the
origin of shown x-y axes) are
  J
(1) 0  J d , in the + y-direction (2) 0 d2 , in the +y-direction
2 2 r
(3) zero (4) none of these
25. Three distinct current carrying wires intersect a finite rectangular

plane ABCD . The current in left wire and the loop is 1. The
direction of current in left most wire and right most loop is
downwards as shown in figure. The current I2 through middle wire
is adjusted so that the path integral of the total magnetic field

along the perimeter of the rectangle is zero, that is, B . d  0 .

ABCDA
Then the current I2 is –
(1) 2 I1 and upwards
(2) 2 I1 and downwards
(3) 4 I1 and upwards
(4) 3 I1 and downwards
26. A current wire of length  is bent is shape of circular are of radius R. Magnetic field at centre of circular
arc is proportional to.
 2 R 
(1) 2 (2) (3) 2 (4)
R R  R
PAGE NO.-5
27. In the given figure switch (1) is connected for long time, then at
t = 0, switch '1' is opened and switch '2' is connected. Then after
time t = 0, when inductor coil and capacitor both has same energy
first time will be :
5 3
(1) LC (2) LC
4 4
 
(3) LC (4) LC
4 6
28. Consider a L – C oscillation circuit. Circuit elements has zero
resistance. Initially at t = 0 all the energy is stored in the form of
electric field and plate-1 is having positive charge :
at time t = t1 plate-2 attains half of the maximum +ve change for the
first time. Value of t1 is :
2 
(1) LC (2) LC
3 3
4
(3) LC (4)  LC
3
29. Two concentric rings of radius r and R are in same plane such that R >> r. Current  is maintained in the
ring of radius r. Flux associated to the ring of radius R due to this current is (use proper approximation)
0 r 2 0 r 0 R2 0 R
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2R 2 2r 2
30. Two magnetically coupled coils have a mutual inductance of 32 mH. Calculate the inductance of each
coil if one coil has twice the number of turns and twice the length of the other with same cross section
(neglect any leakage)
(1) 16 2 mH, 32 2 mH (2) 16 2 mH each
(3) 12 2 mH, 24 2 mH (4) 32 2 mH each
31. A metal rod of length , moving with an angular velocity  and velocity
of its centre is v. Find potential difference between points A and B at
the instant shown in figure. A uniform magnetic field of strength B
exist perpendicular to plane of paper :
1
(1) Bv (2) Bv + B2
2
2
1 
(3) B – B2 (4) Bv + B  
2 2
32. In the circuit shown switch S is connected to position 2 for a long

time and then joined to position 1. The total heat produced in
resistance R1 is :
LE2 LE 2
(1) 2
(2) 2
2R2 2R1
LE2 LE2 (R1  R2 )2
(3) (4) 2 2
2R1R2 2R1 R2
33. In the circuit shown emf E = 10 V, resistance R =1 and coil

inductances L1 = 1 H and L2 = 2 H are known. The internal resistance of
the source and the coil are negligible. The steady state currents in the
coils L1 and L2 after switch S was closed.
10 20 10
(1) i1 = A , i2 = A (2) i1 = i2 = A
3 3 3
20 10 20
(3) i1 = A , i2 = A (4) i1 = i2 A
3 3 3
PAGE NO.-6
34. In the circuit shown steady state is already reached. Now the
inductance is suddenly doubled. The potential difference across 'R' just
after this is :
(1) 0 (2) v
v
(3) 2v (4)
2
35. The figure shows certain wire segments joined together to form a
coplanar loop. The loop is placed in a perpendicular magnetic field
in the direction going into the plane of the figure. The magnitude of
the field increases with time. 1 and 2 are the currents in the
segments ab and cd. Then,
(1) 1 > 2
(2) 1 < 2
(3) 1 is in the direction ba and 2 is in the direction cd
(4) 1 is in the direction ab and 2 is in the direction dc
36. A spy taps the series link between two computers by wrapping a small coil around the current-carrying
wire connecting the computer. The current versus time for the transmission between the two computers
is a signal as shown in figure. Then the sketch of the induced emf in the coil versus time as detected by
the spy will be :
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
37. The number of turns, cross-sectional area and length for four solenoids are given in the following table.
Solenoid Total Turns Area Length
1 2N 2A 
2 2N A 
3 3N 3A 2
4 2N 2A /2
The solenoid with maximum self inductance is :
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
38. A very long solenoid with its axis perpendicular to the page shorting
generates an inward magnetic field whose magnitude increases wire
with time. This induces an emf in a conducting wire loop around
the solenoid which lights two identical bulbs A and B connected in A B
series along the wire. Now two points diametrically opposite on the
wire loop are shorted with another conducting wire (having zero
resistance) lying to the right of bulb B in the plane of the page. solenoid
After the shorting wire is inserted:
(1) bulb A does not glow, and bulb B dims.
(2) bulb A does not glow, and bulb B gets brighter.
(3) bulb B does not glow, and bulb A dims.
(4) bulb B does not glow, and bulb A gets brighter.
PAGE NO.-7

39. A uniform magnetic field B exists in circular region of radius R as
shown which is decreasing with time at a constant rate. There is a
concentric wooden ring which have uniformly distributed charge Q and
R
radius 2R and another concentric uncharged copper ring of radius 3R,
then select incorrect alternative: (Assume rings are placed on 2R
frictionless surface)
(1) There is no induced current in wooden ring. 3R
(2) Induced electric field in wooden ring is more in magnitude then copper ring
(3) Induced electric field in copper ring is more in magnitude then wooden ring
(4) wooden ring will start rotating.
40. A neutral metal rod AB of length  rotates with a constant angular
velocity  about an axis passing through O and normal to its length as
shown in the figure.
The potential difference between A & B will be : (e is charge of electron)
1 m2 2 1 m 2 2
(1) VA – VB = (2) VA – VB =
2 e 4 e
1 m2 2 1 m 2  2
(3) VB – VA = (4) VB – VA =
2 e 4 e
41. Assume Earth's surface is a conductor with a uniform surface charge density . It rotates about its axis
with angular velocity . Suppose the magnetic field due to Sun at Earth at some instant is a uniform
field B pointing along earth’s axis. Then the emf developed between the pole and equator of earth due
to this field is. (Re = radius of earth)
1 3
(1) BR 2e (2) BR2e (3) BR 2e (4) zero
2 2
42. A wooden stick of length 3 is rotated about an end with constant
angular velocity  in a uniform magnetic field B perpendicular to the
plane of motion. If the upper one third of its length in coated with
copper, the potential difference across the whole length of the stick is
9B 2 4B 2
(1) (2)
2 2
2
5B B 2
(3) (4)
2 2
43. A uniform and constant magnetic field B is directed perpendicularly into
the plane of the page everywhere within a rectangular region as shown
in figure. A wire circuit in the shape of a semicircle is uniformly (that is
with uniform angular speed) rotated counter clockwise in the plane of
the page about an axis A. The axis A is perpendicular to the page at the
edge of the field and directed through the centre of the straight line
portion of the circuit. Which of the following graphs best approximates
the emf E induced in the circuit as a function of time t ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
PAGE NO.-8
44. A constant force F is being applied on a rod of length '' kept at rest on two
parallel conducting rails connected at ends by resistance R in uniform
magnetic field B as shown.
(1) the power delivered by force will be constant with time
(2) the power delivered by force will be increasing first and then will decrease
(3) the rate of power delivered by the external force will be increasing
continuously
(4) the rate of power delivered by external force will be decreasing continuously.
45. A current flows through a rectangular conductor in the presence

of uniform magnetic field B pointing out of the page as shown.
Then the potential difference VP – VQ is equal to. (assume
charge carriers in the conductor to be positively charged moving
with a drift velocity of v)
(1) Bvb
(2) –Bvb
(3) Bvc
(4) –Bvc
46. A and B are two metallic rings placed at opposite sides of an infinitely long straight conducting wire as
shown. If current in the wire is slowly decreased, the direction of induced current will be :
(1) clockwise in A and anticlockwise in B (2) anticlockwise in A and clockwise in B

(3) clockwise in both A and B (4) anticlockwise in both A & B

47. ˆ , is confined in a
A time varying magnetic field, (B  B0 tk)
cylindrical region and is cutting the xy plane on a circle
x2 + y2 = 4 where x and y are in meters. A wire frame A1
A2 A4 A3 A1 is placed in the magnetic field as shown.
Segment A1 A2 and A3 A4 are identical quarter circles
parallel to each other with axis along z-axis. The induced
current flowing in the wire frame is equal to : (The total
length of the loop of wire frame is 10m, radius of arc A3 A4
and arc A1 A2 is 1m each and resistance per unit length is
1/m)
B0  B0  B0 
(1) zero (2) (3) (4)
10 5 20
48. In the given arrangement, the loop is moved with constant velocity v
in a uniform magnetic field B in a restricted region of width a. The
time for which the emf is induced in the circuit is:
2b 2a
(1) (2)
 
(a  b) 2(a  b)
(3) (4)
 
PAGE NO.-9
49. In a series L, C circuit, which of the following represents variation of magnitude of reactance (X) with
frequency (f)
(1) (2) (3) (4)
50. In the given circuit, black box contains some unknown elements (R,
L, C or any combination of these elements). Voltage across the
inductor ‘L’ leads the applied voltage by 90° and the power factor of
circuit is not zero. Three students shared their view about the circuit
as given below :
Student A : power factor of the total circuit must be 1
Student B : If the black box contains R and C then A is correct otherwise power factor may be less
than one also.
Students C : power factor is 1 but it is also true that voltage across the black box must lag behind the
applied voltage.
Mark the correct option :
(1) student A and C are correct (2) student B and C are correct
(3) only A is correct (4) all the students are correct
51. In LCR circuit at resonance current in the circuit is 10 2 A. If now frequency of the source is changed
such that now current lags by 45° than applied voltage in the circuit. Which of the following is correct :
(1) Frequency must be increased and current after the change is 10 A
(2) Frequency must be decreased and current after the change is 10 A
(3) Frequency must be decreased and current is same as that of initial value
(4) The given information is insufficient to conclude anything
52. In series L C R circuit voltage drop across resistance is 8 volt, across inductor is 6 volt and across
capacitor is 12 volt. Then:
(1) voltage of the source will be leading current in the circuit
(2) voltage drop across each element will be less than the applied voltage
(3) power factor of circuit will be 4/3
(4) none of these
53. Current in an ac circuit is given by i = 3 sin t + 4 cos t then :
(1) rms value of current is 5 A.
(2) mean value of this current in one half period will be 6/
(3) if voltage applied is V = Vm sin t then the circuit must be containing resistance and capacitance.
(4) if voltage applied is V = Vm sin t, the circuit may contain only resistance and inductance.
54. When an AC source is connected across box, we get graphs of  verses t and i verses t as shown.
Box either contains only R–C or R–L elements in series. Choose possible value of elements in the box.
E/I
50 2 V
10 2 A
82A i
0.01s
O 0.005s t (s)
1 1
(1) C  F, R = 3 (2) L  H, R = 3
400 400
3 4
(3) C  F, R = 4 (4) C  F, R = 1
400 300
PAGE NO.-10
55. If an analog sinusoidal voltage in a circuit as a function of time is v = v 0 sin t for 0  t  /
v = –v0 sin t for /  t  2/Then the average value of the voltage in complete cycle is (where
symbols have their usual meanings)
(1) same as if v = v0 sin t for the interval 0 to /.
(2) same as if v = v0 sin t for the interval /2 to 3/2
(3) same as if v = v0 sin t for the interval 0 to 2/
(4) same as if v = v0 sin t for the interval /2 to 2/.
56. A single-slit diffraction pattern is obtained using a beam of red light. if the red light is replaced by blue
light which one of the following observations is true ?
(1) no change in diffraction pattern
(2) diffraction fringes become narrower and crowded together
(3) diffraction fringes become broader and further apart
(4) diffraction pattern disappears
(5) width of central maxima will increase
57. If the ratio of the intensity of two coherent sources is 4 then the visibility [(Imax- Imin)/(Imax+ Imin)] of the
fringes is -
(1) 4 (2) 4/5 (3) 3/5 (4) 9
58. Figure shows two coherent sources S1-S2 vibrating in same phase.
AB is an wire lying symmetrically at a far distance from the sources

S1 and S2. Let = 10–3.  BOA = 0.12°. How many bright spots will
d
be seen on the wire, including points A and B.
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) more than 4
59. A Young’s double slit experiment is conducted in water (1) as shown

in the figure, and a glass plate of thickness t and refractive index 2 is
placed in the path of S2. The magnitude of the phase difference at O
is: (Assume that ‘’ is the wavelength of light in air). O is symmetrical
w.r.t. S1 and S2 .
 2  2  1  2 2 2
(1)   1 t (2)   1 t (3) |((2 – 1) t| (4) |(2 – 1) t |
 1    2    
60. The path difference between two interfering waves at a point on the screen is /6. The ratio of intensity
at this point and that at the central bright fringe will be : (Assume that intensity due to each slit in same)
(1) 0.853 (2) 8.53 (3) 0.75 (4) 7.5

61. A particle having q = 1 C, m = 1 kg, v = 1 m/s enters a magnetic field of magnitude B = 1 T every where
at an angle  = 30º between velocity and magnetic field. The pitch of its helical path is p then the value
of 10p is (in meters)
62. A coil has an inductance of 0.03 H. Rate at which energy is being stored (in watt) in the coil when
current is 10A and rate of change of current is 100 A/s is :
63. A rectangular loop of sides of length and b is placed in xy plane. A uniform but time varying magnetic

field of strength B = 20t î + 10t2 ĵ + 50 k̂ where t is time elapsed. The magnitude of induced e.m.f. at
time t is x – 25.4, then the value of x is :
PAGE NO.-11

64. A uniform magnetic field exists in region given by B  3iˆ  4ˆj  5kˆ . A rod of length 5 m is placed along
y-axis is moved along x-axis with constant speed 2 m/sec. Then induced e.m.f. (in volt) in the rod will
be:
65. The magnetic flux  through a metal ring varies with time t according to :
 = 3(at3 – bt2)Tm2, with a = 2s–3 and b = 6 s–2.
The resistance of the ring is 3 . The square of maximum current induced in the ring during the interval
t = 0 to t = 2s, is
66. The primary winding of the transformer to power the radio receiver has 1200 turns with input voltage of
120 V. What should be the number of turns of the transformer in secondary winding to power the lamp
filament, if it requires 3.6 V voltage and current of 1A ? Secondary has a resistance of 0.4 ohms. The
loss in the primary winding may be neglected.
67. The secondary coil of an ideal step down transformer is delivering 500 watt power at 12.5 A current. If
the ratio of turns in the primary to the secondary is 5 : 1, if the current flowing in the primary coil is
x amp. then the value of 13x is :
68. A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac source of frequency f and a voltage V. At this frequency,
reactance of the capacitor is 350 ohm while the resistance of the circuit is 180 ohm current in the circuit
leads the voltage by 53° and power dissipated in the circuit is 140 watt. Therefore, V/10 (in volt) is
69. When a voltage vs = 200 2 sin ( t + 15º) is applied to an AC circuit the current in the circuit is found to
be i = 2 sin ( t + /4) if average power consumed in the circuit is 10p then the value of p is :
70. Mean square value of current i = 3 + 4 sin ( t + /3) is:
71. White light is incident normally on a glass plate (in air) of thickness 500 nm and refractive index of 1.5.
The wavelength p × 10–8m in the visible region (400 nm - 700nm) that is strongly reflected by the plate
then the value of p is :
72. Radiowaves of wavelength 3 m are incident on a rectangular hole of width 5 m and large length. A
screen is placed at a distance 200 m from the hole. The width of the central maxima is 10x meter then
the value of x is :
73. Light is incident on a glass plate of refractive index  = 1.732 at Brewster angle from air. Then the angle
(in degree) of refraction in glass plate is :
74. Plane of transmission of two polarids are perpendicular to each other. If one of them is rotated through
60º, then what percentage of the incident unpolarised light will be transmitted at final emergence by the
polaroids ?
75. The distance between two slits in a Young's double slit experiment is 3 mm. The distance of the screen
from the slits is 1 m. Microwaves of wavelength 1 mm are incident on the plane of the slits normally.
The distance (in cm) of the first maxima on the screen from the central maxima will be:

1. (2) 2. (3) 3. (3) 4. (1) 5. (1) 6. (1) 7. (4)
8. (2) 9. (2) 10. (4) 11. (3) 12. (2) 13. (2) 14. (4)
15. (2) 16. (4) 17. (1) 18. (4) 19. (2) 20. (4) 21. (2)
22. (1) 23. (4) 24. (1) 25. (3) 26. (1) 27. (3) 28. (1)
29. (1) 30. (1) 31. (1) 32. (1) 33. (3) 34. (4) 35. (4)
36. (3) 37. (4) 38. (4) 39. (3) 40. (2) 41. (1) 42. (3)
43. (1) 44. (4) 45. (3) 46. (2) 47. (1) 48. (2) 49. (1)
50. (1) 51. (1) 52. (4) 53. (3) 54. (1) 55. (1) 56. (2)
57. (2) 58. (2) 59. (3) 60. (3) 61. 53.70 62. 30.00 63. 25.40
64. 50.00 65. 36.00 66. 40.00 67. 32.50 68. 26.40 69. 24.50 70. 17.00
71. 60.00 72. 30.00 73. 30.00 74. 37.50 75. 35.40
PAGE NO.-12
PHYSICS
TARGET : JEE (MAIN)

 

INF ORMA TIO

E EST
DPPDAILY PRACTICE PROBLEMS
CLASS : XII
NO. 8
DPP Syllabus : Modern Physics-I, Nuclear Physics, Semiconductors, EMW, Principle of Communication.

SECTION - I
1. The threshold frequency for a certain metal is 0. When light of frequency  = 20 is incident on it, the
maximum velocity of photo electrons is 4 x 106 m/s. If the frequency of incident radiation is increased to
5o, then the maximum velocity of photo-electrons in m/s will be
(1) (4/5) x 106 (2) 2 x 106 (3) 8 x 106 (4) 2 x 107
2. Light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold frequency is incident on photo-sensitive material. If the
frequency is halved and intensity is doubled, the photo-current becomes
(1) Quadrupled (2) Doubled (3) Halved (4) Zero
3. Which of the following figure, represents the variation of particle momentum and associated de-Broglie
wavelength
P P P P
(1) (2) (3) (4)
O  O  O  O 
4. An -particle moves along a circular path of radius 0.83 cm in a magnetic field of 0.25 Wb/m 2. The de-
Broglie wavelength associated with it will be
(1) 10 Å (2) 1 Å (3) 0.1 Å (4) 0.01 Å
PAGE NO.-1
5. The maximum velocity of an electron emitted by light of wavelength  incident on the surface of a metal
of work function  is
1/ 2 1/ 2
 2(hc  )   2(hc  )  2(hc  ) 2(hc  )
(1)   (2)   (3) (4)
 m   m  m m
6. Graph is plotted between maximum kinetic energy of electron with frequency of incident photon in
Photo electric effect. The slope of curve will be-
EK

(1) Charge of electron (2) Work function of metal
(3) Planck's constant (4) Ratio of Planck constant and charge of electron
7. Helium atom emits a photon of wavelength 0.1 A. The recoil energy of the atom due to the emission of
photon will be
(1) 2.04 eV (2) 4.91 eV (3) 1.67 eV (4) 9.10 eV
8. A photon of light enters a block of glass after travelling through vacuum. The energy of the photon on
entering the glass block
(1) increases because its associated wavelength decreases
(2) Decreases because the speed of the radiation decreases
(3) Stays the same because the speed of the radiation and the associated wavelength do not change
(4) Stays the same because the frequency of the radiation does not change
9. If the frequency of K X-ray emitted from element with atomic number 31 is f, then the frequency of
K X-ray emitted from the element with atomic number 51 would be (assume that screening constant for
K is 1) :
5 51 9 25
(1) f (2) f (3) f (4) f
3 31 25 9
10. The graph is showing the photocurrent with the applied voltage of a photoelectric effect experiment.
Then
(1) A & B will have same intensity and B & C have same frequency
(2) B & C have same intensity and A & B have same frequency
(3) A & B will have same frequency and B & C have same intensity
(4) A & C will have same intensity and B & C have same frequency
11. A proton and photon both have same energy of E = 100 K eV. The debroglie wavelength of proton and
photon be 1 and 2 then 1/2 is proportional to -
(1) E–1/2 (2) E1/2 (3) E–1 (4) E
12. A radio station is transmitting the waves of wavelength 300 m. Radiation capacity of the transmitter is
10 KW. Find out the number of photons which are emitting in per unit time :
(1) 1.5 × 1035 (2) 1.5 × 1031 (3) 1.5 × 1029 (4) 1.5 × 1033
PAGE NO.-2
13. The wavelength of radiation emitted is 0 When an electron jumps from the third to the second orbit of
hydrogen atom. For the electron jump from the fourth to the second orbit of the hydrogen atom, the
wavelength of radiation emitted will be
16 20 27 25
(1) 0 (2) 0 (3) 0 (4) 
25 27 20 16 0
14. According to Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom, relation between principal quantum number n and radius
of stable orbit :
1 1
(1) r   (2) r n (3) r  (4) r n2
n n2
15. The wavelength of light emitted due to transition of electron from second orbit to first orbit in hydrogen
atom is
(1) 6563 Å (2) 4102 Å (3) 4861 Å (4) 1215 Å
16. The slope of a graph drawn between stopping potential and frequency is :
h
(1) e (2) h (3) (4) he
e
17. An electron makes a transition from orbit n = 4 to the orbit n = 2 of a hydrogen atom. The wave number
of the emitted radiation (R = Rydberg’s constant) will be
(1) 16/3R (2) 2R/16 (3) 3R/16 (4) 4R/16
18. Bombardment of a neutron 0n1 + 5B10 2He4 + x on boron, forms a nucleus x with emission of  particle
Nuclear x is -
(1) 6C12 (2) 3Li6 (3) 3Li7 (4) 4Be9
19. Half-lives of two radioacitve substances A and B are respectively 20 min and 40 min. Initially the
samples of A and B have equal number of nuclei. After 80 min the ratio of remaining number of A and B
nuclei is :
(1) 1 : 16 (2) 4 : 1 (3) 1 : 4 (4) 1 : 1
20. A nucleus nXm emits one  and two  particles. The resulting nucleus is :
(1) nXm–4 (2) n –2 ym – 4 (3) n – 4 Z m – 4 (4) none of these
21. Complete the equation for the following fission process :

92
U235 + on1  Sr90 + .......
38
(1) 54Xe143 + 3 0n1 (2) 54Xe145 (3) 57Xe142 (4) 54Xe142 + 0n1
22. In one  and 2-emissions :

(1) mass number reduces by 2 (2) mass number reduces by 6
(3) atomic number reduces by 2 (4) atomic number remains unchanged
23. Which ray contain (+Ve) charge particle :-

(1) -rays (2) -rays (3) -rays (4) X-rays
24. X + n  + 3Li7 then X will be :-

10
(1) 5 B (2) 95 B (3) 11
4 B (4) 24 He
PAGE NO.-3
25. Half life of radioactive element is 12.5 Hour and its quantity is 256 gm. After how much time its \quantity
will remain 1 gm :-
(1) 50 Hrs (2) 100 Hrs (3) 150 Hrs (4) 200 Hrs
26. Mn and Mp represent the mass of neutron and proton respectively An element having mass M has N
neutron and Z-protons, then the correct relation will be :-
(1) M < {N.mn + Z.Mp} (2) M > {N.mn + Z.Mp} (3) M = {N.mn + Z.Mp} (4) M = N {.mn + Mp}
27. A heavy nucleus having mass number 200 gets disintegrated into two small fragments of mass number
80 and 120. If binding energy per nucleon for parent atom is 6.5 M eV and for daughter nuclei is 7 MeV
and 8 MeV respectively, then the energy released in the decay will be :
(1) 200 MeV (2)  220 MeV (3) 220 MeV (4) 180 MeV
28. Boron rods in nuclear reactor are used as a :

(1) moderator (2) control rods
(3) coolent (4) protective shield
29. Remaining quantity (in %) of radioactive element after 5 half lives :

(1) 4.125% (2) 3.125% (3) 31.1% (4) 42.125%
30. 200 Me V energy is obtained by fission of 1 nucleii of 92U235, to obtain 1 kW energy number of fission per
second will be :
(1) 3.215 × 1013 (2) 3.215 × 1014 (3) 3.215 × 1015 (4) 3.215 × 1016
31. In the nucleus of an atom, neutrons are in excess, then emitted particles are :
(1) neutron (2) electron (3) proton (4) positron
32. 1
H1 + 1H1 + 1H2 X + 1e0 + energy .The emitted particle is -
(1) Neutron (2) Proton (3) -particle (4) Neutrino
33. The rest mass of the deuteron, 12 H , is equivalent to an energy of 1876 MeV, the rest mass of a proton
is equivalent to 939 MeV and that of a neutron to 940 MeV. A deuteron may disintegrate to a proton
and a neutron if it:
(1) emits a - ray photon of energy 2 MeV (2) captures a - ray photon of energy 2 MeV
(3) emits a - ray photon of energy 3 MeV (4) captures a - ray photon of energy 3 MeV
34. The process of superimposing signal frequency (i.e., audio wave) on the carrier wave is known as
(1) Transmission (2) Reception (3) Modulation (4) Detection
35. The maximum distance upto which TV transmission from a TV tower of height h can be received is
proportional to
(1) h1/2 (2) h (3) h3/2 (4) h2
36. The electric field of a plane polarized electromagnetic wave in free space at time t = 0 is given by an
 
expression E (x, y) = 10 ĵ cos [(6x + 8z)]. The magnetic field B (x, z, t) is given by : (c is the velocity of
light)
1 1
(1) (6k̂  8 î ) cos [(6x + 8z + 10ct)] (2) (6k̂  8 î ) cos [(6x + 8z – 10ct)]
c c
1 1
(3) (6k̂  8 î ) cos [(6x – 8z + 10ct)] (4) (6k̂  8 î ) cos [(6x + 8z – 10ct)]
c c
PAGE NO.-4
37. An electromagnetic wave of intensity 50 Wm–2 enters in a medium of refractive index 'n' without any
loss. The ratio of the magnitudes of electric fields, and the ratio of the magnitudes of magnetic field of
the wave before and after entering into the medium are respectively, given by :
 1   1   1 1 

(1) n, n  (2) 
 n
, n

(3)  n,
 n


(4)  ,
 n n

38. Infrared spectrum lies between

(1) radio wave and microwave region. (2) microwave and visible region.
(3) visible and ultra-violet region. (4) ultra-violet and X-ray.
39. A man can take pictures of those objects which are not fully visible to the eye using camera films
acceptable to
(1) ultraviolet rays (2) sodium light (3) visible light (4) infra - red rays
40. Frequency of a wave is 6 × 1015 Hz. The wave is

(1) radioactive (2) microwave (3) X-rays (4) ultraviolet
41. If the wavelength of light is 4000 Å, then the number of waves in 1 mm length will be
(1) 25 (2) 0.25 (3) 0. 25 × 104 (4) 25 × 104
42. Which one of the following is not an electromagnetic waves?

(1) X-rays (2) gamma rays (3) cathode rays (4) infrared rays
43. In an apparatus, the electric field was found to oscillate with an amlitude of 18 V/m. The magnitude of
the oscillating magnetic field will be
(1) 4 × 10–6 T (2) 6 × 10–8 T (3) 9 × 10–9 T (4) 11 × 10–11 T
44. There are three wavelength 107 m, 10–10 m, 10–7 m. Find their respective names
(1) Radiowaves, X-rays, visible rays (2) X-rays, Visible rays, Radio waves
(3) X-rays, -rays, Visible rays (4) Visible rays, -rays, X-rays
45. Which of the following statement is true?

(1) Velocity of light is constant in all media
(2) Velocity of light in vacuum is maximum
(3) Velocity of light is same in all reference frames
(4) Laws of nature have identical form in all reference frames
 
46. In a certain region of space electric field E and magnetic field B are perpendicular to each other and

an electron enters in region perpendicular to the direction of and E both moves undeflected, then
velocity of electron is :
 
|E |   |B |  
(1)  (2) E  B (3)  (4) E . B
|B | |E |

47. The electric vector of an electromagnetic wave in vacuum is represented by E  6.3ˆjV / m . The
frequency of the wave is 20 MHz and it is propagating along the positive z-direction. At this point
magnetic vector is
(1) –2.1 × 10–8 î T (2) +2.1 × 10–8 î T (3) + 4.0 × 10–8 î T (4) –18.9 × 10–8 î T

48. The electric field associated with an e.m. wave in vacuum is given by E  40 cos (kz – 6 ×108 t) î ,
where E, z and t are in volt/m, meter and seconds respectively. The value of wave vector k is :
(1) 2 m–1 (2) 0.5 m–1 (3) 6 m–1 (4) 3 m–1
PAGE NO.-5

49. An em wave is propagating in a medium with a velocity V  Viˆ . The instantaneous oscillating electric
field of this em wave is along +y axis. Then the direction of oscillating magnetic field of the em wave will
be along
(1) – z direction (2) – x direction (3) – y direction (4) + z direction
50. The drift current in a p-n junction is

(1) from the n-side to the p-side
(2) from the p-side to the n-side
(3) from the n-side to the p-side if the junction is forward-baised and in the opposite direction if it is
reverse-biased
(4) from the p-side to the n-side if the junction is forward-biased and in the opposite direction if it is
reverse-baised
51. The diffusion current in a p-n junction is

(1) from the n-side to the p-side
(2) from the p-side to the n-side
(3) from the n-side to the p-side of the junction is forward-biased and in the opposit direction if it is
reverse-baised
(4) from the p-side to the n-side if the junction is forward-baised and in the opposite direction if it is
reverse-biased
52. A semiconducting device is connected in a series circuit with a battery and a resistance. A current is
found to pass through the circuit. If the polarity of the battery is reversed, the current drops to almost
zero. The device may be
(1) an intrinsic semiconductor (2) a p-type semiconductor
(3) an n-type semiconductor (4) a p-n junction
53. If the two ends P and N of a P-N of a P-N diode junction are joined by a wire
(1) There will not be a steady current in the circuit
(2) There will be a steady current from N side to P side
(3) There will be a steady current from P side to N side
(4) There may not be a current depending upon the resistance of the connecting wire
54. To make a PN junction conducting

(1) The value of forward bias should be more than the barrier potenital
(2) The value of forward bias should be less than the barrier potential
(3) The value of revers bias should be more than the barrier potential
(4) The value of revers bias should be less than the barrier potential
55. The following truth table corresponds to the logic gate

A 0 0 1 1
B 0 1 0 1
X 0 1 1 1
(1) NAND (2) OR (3) AND (4) XOR
56. Which of the following statements is true for an n-type semi-conductor ?

(1) th donor level lies closely below the bottom of the conduction band
(2) The donor level lies closely above the top of the valence band
(3) The donor level lies at the halfway mark of the forbidden energy gap
(4) None of the above
PAGE NO.-6
57. If the input is given between A and C, then the output at the ends of R will be
(1) fully rectified (2) half rectified

(3) AC (4) None of these
58. The following figure shows a logic gate circuit with tow inputs A and B and the output C. The voltage
wavefroms of A, B and C are as shown below -
The logic circuit gate is :-

(1) AND gate (2) NAND gate (3) NOR gate (4) OR gate
59. A common emitter amplifier has a voltage gain of 50 and current gain is 25.The power gain of the
amplifier is :
(1) 500 (2) 1000 (3) 1250 (4) 100
60. The circuit is equivalent to
(1) AND gate (2) NAND gate (3) NOR gate (4) OR gate

61. Yellow light of 500 nm wavelength is incident on a cesium surface. It is found that no photo electrons
flow in the circuit when the cathode-anode voltage drops below 0.25V. If the threshold wavelenth for
photo electric effect from cesium is  × 10–8 m then the value of  is (hc = 12400Å eV)
62. The energy of electron with de-Broglie wavelength of 10–10 meter is 10x ev then the value of x is -
63. Work function a metal is 5.26 × 10–18 V If its threshold wavelength is 10then the value of (Å) will be :
(h = 6.6 × 10–34Js)
64. Hydrogen atom is excited by means of a monochromatic radiations of wavelength 975 Å. In emission
spectrum the squre of number of possible lines are :
PAGE NO.-7
65. The radius of first Bohr orbit is 0.5 Ã, then the square of radius of fourth Bohr orbit will be :
66. If the binding energy of the ekectron in a hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV the energy requried (in eV) to
remove the electron from the first excited state of Li2 + is
67. The mass of proton is 1.0073 u and that of neutron is 1.0087 u (u = atomic mass unit). The binding
energy of 24 He is (in MeV) (Given:- helium nucleus mass  4.0015 u)
7
68. The half life of a certain radioactive substance is 12 days. The time (in days) taken for th of sample
8
to decay is
69. The half life of radioactive substance is 4 days. Its 100 g is kept for 16 days. After this period, the
amount of substance remained is m gram then the value of 10 m is:
70. A radioactive element has half life of 3.6 days. In what time will it be left 1/32nd undecayed (in days)?
71. In an electromagnetic wave, the electric and magnetic fields are 100 Vm–1 and 0.265 Am–1. The
maximum energy flow is (in W/m2)
72. If a source is transmitting electromagnetic wave of frequency 8.2 × 106 Hz, then wavelength of the
electro-magnetic waves transmitted from the source will be (in meter)
73. In an electromagnetic wave in free space the root mean square value of the electric field is Erms = 6V/m.
The peak value of the magnetic field is B × 10–9 T then the value of B is:
74. A sinusoidal voltage of peak to peak value of 310 V is connected in series with a diode and a load
resistance R so that Half-wave rectification occurs. If the diode has a negligble forwed resistance, the
root mean square voltage across the load resistance is (in volt)
75. In a common emitter amplifier using output resistance of 5000 ohm and input resistance of 2000 ohm, if
the peak value of input signal voltage is 10 mV and  = 50 If the power gain is 100x then the value of x
is will be :

1. (3) 2. (4) 3. (4) 4. (4) 5. (2) 6. (3) 7. (1)
8. (4) 9. (4) 10. (1) 11. (2) 12. (2) 13. (2) 14. (4)
15. (4) 16. (3) 17. (3) 18. (3) 19. (3) 20. (1) 21. (1)
22. (4) 23. (1) 24. (1) 25. (2) 26. (1) 27. (3) 28. (2)
29. (2) 30. (1) 31. (2) 32. (3) 33. (4) 34. (3) 35. (1)
36. (4) 37. (3) 38. (2) 39. (4) 40. (4) 41. (3) 42. (3)
43. (2) 44. (1) 45. (2) 46. (1) 47. (1) 48. (1) 49. (4)
50. (1) 51. (2) 52. (4) 53. (1) 54. (1) 55. (2) 56. (1)
57. (2) 58. (1) 59. (3) 60. (3) 61. 55.60 62. 15.60 63. 37.64
64. 36.00 65. 64.00 66. 30.60 67. 28.40 68. 36.00 69. 62.50 70. 18.00
71. 26.50 72. 36.60 73. 28.30 74. 77.50 75. 62.50
PAGE NO.-8

Resonance Revision DPP Physics 1 To 8 Sets JEE MAINS & ADVANCED 2022

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PHYSICS

TARGET : JEE (MAIN)

CLASS : XII NO. 1

DPP Syllabus : Kinematics, Newton's Laws of Motion, Friction, WPE.

Revision DPP No. # 1

(1) 5 2m / s (2) 20 3m / s (3) 10 2m / s (4) None of these

(1) 75 (2) 85 (3) 95 (4) 100

7. A sphere of mass m is held between two smooth inclined walls AB and

12. A mass of 1 kg is suspended by a string A. Another string C is

21. The component of vector 2 ˆi  3 ˆj along vector  ˆj  5 ˆi is :

4d2 d2 2d2 8d2

29. A particle is moving in a straight line whose acceleration versus time

31. Velocity versus displacement graph of a particle moving in a straight

(1) 2 5 sec. (2) 2 10 sec. (3) 3 5 sec. (4) 3 10 sec.

36. A platform is pulled with a constant acceleration a. A particle is

42. A motor is fixed inside a box which is moving upwards with

(1) 2 m/s  (2) 4 m/s  (3) 6 m/s  (4) 8 m/s 

(1) v cosec (2) v cos (3) v sin (4) 2vsin

46. In the figure mA = mB = mC = 60 kg. The co-efficient of

47. A body of mass m was slowly hauled up the hill as shown

48. A block of mass 4 kg is pressed against the wall by a force

(1) 192 J (2) 400/3 J (3) 0 (4) None of these

SECTION-II : (INTEGER TYPE QUESTIONS)

61. Figure shows a 5 kg ladder hanging from a string that is

63. A 1 kg block is being pushed against a wall by a force F = 75 N as

66. Two block A and B placed on a plane surface as shown in the

67. A block of mass 10 kg is released on a fixed wedge inside a cart

69. The acceleration–time graph of a particle moving on a straight

70. A perfect smooth sphere A of mass 2kg is in contact with a

71. A sphere of radius R is in contact with a wedge. The point of

75. Block A has a mass of 2 kg and block B 20 kg. If the

ANSWER KEY OF REVISION DPP No. # 1

INF ORMA TIO

DPP Syllabus : Circular Motion, Centre of Mass, Rigid Body Dynamics.

REVISION DPP No. # 2

Total Marks : 300 Max. Time: 180 min.

2. A conical pendulum of length L makes an angle  with the vertical as

3. A particle O of mass m is attached to a vertical rod with two inextensible

(1) 4/3 cm (2) 8/3 cm (3) 2/3 cm (4) none of these

(1) 1/2 (2) 1/5 (3) 2/5 (4) 1/4

12. Two masses ‘ m ’ and ‘ 2 m ’ are placed in a fixed horizontal circular

(1) 2m0/ (2) 3m0/ (3) m0/ (4) m0/2

(1) (2) (3) (4)

(1) continuously increases

37. A particle of mass m oscillates between P1 and P2 inside a fixed smooth

40. A uniform solid right circular cone of base radius R is joined to a

46. AB is a long friction less horizontal surface. One end of an ideal

(1) (2) (3) (4)

58. Consider the following two statements :

SECTION-II : (INTEGER TYPE QUESTIONS)

65. A peg is placed directly below the pendulum’s point of support at a

70. An insect of mass m = 3 kg is inside a vertical drum of radius 2 m that

ANSWER KEY OF REVISION DPP No. # 2

TARGET : JEE (MAIN)

INF ORMA TIO

REVISION DPP No. # 3

(1) (2) (3) (4)

b2 > 4ac. The frequency of Resonance is

30. In a cylinder-piston arrangement, air is under a pressure P1. A soap

34. Consider a spherical drop of radius R. Surface tension of the liquid

38. Water (density ) is flowing through the uniform tube of cross-

(1) h  g (2)   a (3) h  g   al (4) h  g +  al