CHAPTER-3

EVOLUTION
EXERCISE LEVEL-1
1. The spark-discharge apparatus to test chemical evolution of life was designed by
(a) Oparin and Haldane (b) Mailer and Urey
(c) Jacob and Monad (d) Dixon and Jolley
2. The ultimate source of organic evolution is
(a) Natural selection (b) Sexual reproduction (c) Hormonal action (d) Mutations
3. Replica plating experiment was performed by
(a) Haeckel (b) Lederberg (c) Lamarck (d) Darwin
4. The term evolution in biology means that
(a) Fossils are old (b) Life began in sea
(c) Living things constantly change (d) Man descended from apes
5. Mutation theory explaining organic evolution was proposed by Hugo de Vries. He worked on
(a) Pisum sativum (b) Drosophila melanogaster
(c) Oenothera lamarckiana (d) Althea rosea
6. In nature, the occurrences of mutations are
(a) Mostly harmful (b) Mostly useful
(c) Mostly neutral (d) Mostly neutral or harmful
7. Which one of the following was the contribution of de Vries?
(a) Theory of Natural Selection (b) Law of Segregation
(c) Theory of Mutation (d) Law of Dominance
8. Abiogenetic theory of origin states
(a) Spontaneous generation (b) Organic evolution due to chemical
(c) Origin of life due to pre-existing organism (d) Origin of life from blue green algae
9. Which of the following is the unit of evolution?
(a) Cell (b) Individual (c) Population (d) Species
10. Universe is about
(a) 20 million year old (b) 20 billion year old (c) 10 million year old (d) 10 billion year old
11. The correct sequence of the substances appeared during the course of origin of life on earth was
(a) Glucose, amino acids, nucleic acids and proteins
(b) Ammonia, amino acids, proteins and nucleic acids
(c) Nucleotids, amino acids, nucleic acids and enzymes
(d) Amino acids, ammonia, phosphates and nucleic acids

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12. Coacervates belong to the category of
(a) Protozoans
(b) Cyanobacteria
(c) Molecular aggregates
(d) Molecular aggregates surrounded by lipid membrane
13. Select the wrong pair.
(a) Oparin — Protobiont (b) Spallanzani — Abiogenesis
(c) Fox — Coacervates (d) Haldane — Hot dilute soup
14. Which one of the following is incorrect about the characteristic of protobionts (coacervates and
microspheres) as envisaged in abiogenic origin of life?
(a) They were able to reproduce
(b) They could maintain an internal environment
(c) They were partially isolated from the surroundings
(d) They could separate combinations of molecules from the surroundings
15. Which of the following statements are false?
(A) The rules of embryonic development were given by Von Baer
(B) Recapitulation theory was proposed by Haeckel
(C) Haeckel’s theory of recapitulation states that ontogeny repeats phylogeny
(D) Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny is the brief defining of Biogenetic law
(a) (A) and (B) b) (C) and (D) (c) All of these (d) None of these
16. Weismann cut off tails of mice generation after generation but tails neither disappeared nor
shortened showing that
(a) Darwin was correct
(b) Mutation theory is wrong
(c) Tail is an essential organ
(d) Lamarckism was wrong in inheritance of acquired characters
17. According to Lamarckism, long-necked giraffes evolved because
(a) Nature selected only long-necked ones
(b) Humans preferred only-necked ones
(c) Short necks suddenly changed into long necks
(d) Of stretching of necks over many generations by short necked ones
18. Blood precipitation tests were conducted by
(a) H.F. Nuttall (b) Lamarck (c) Darwin (d) Cuvier
19. Which of the following was not a part of Darwin’s explanation of natural selection?
(a) Organisms commonly produce more offspring than can possibly survive
(b) Variations exist within each species
(c) Members of a species compete with each other for food and space
(d) The offspring that are most fit possess traits which are best suited to the environment
20. One of the several objections to natural selection theory of Darwin is
(a) Struggle for existence (b) Continuity of germplasm
(c) Inheritance of acquired characters (d) Saltation

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21. Which one of the following groups of structure/organs have similar functions?
(a) Typhlosole in earthworm, intestinal villi in rat and contractile vacuole in Amoeba
(b) Nephridia in earthworm, Malpighain tubules in cockroach and urinary tubules in rat
(c) Antennae and cockroach, tympanum of frog and clitellum of earthworm
(d) Incisors of rat, gizzard (proventriculus) of cockroach and tube feet of starfish
22. Which of the following sets includes only the vestigial structures in man?
(a) Coccyx, body hair, ear ossicles and vermiform appendix
(b) Body hair, olecranon process, coccyx and patella
(c) Wisdom teeth, mammary glands, coccyx and patella
(d) Coccyx, nictitating membrane, vermiform appendix and ear pinnae muscles
23. Presence of gills in the tadpole of frog indicates that
(a) Fishes were amphibious in the past (b) Fishes evolved from frog-like ancestors
(c) Frogs will have gills in future (d) Frogs evolved from gilled ancestors
24. Wings of mosquito and bat show
(a) Atavism (b) Mutation
(c) Divergent evolution (d) Convergent evolution
25. Which of the following is not vestigial in human?
(a) Coccyx (b) Nail (c) Third molar (d) Ear muscles
26. A baby has been born with a small tail. It is a case exhibiting
(a) Retrogressive evolution (b) Mutation
(c) Atavism (d) Metamorphosis
27. The chance of elimination of genes from a small population is an examples of
(a) Selection pressure (b) Speciation (c) Adaptation (d) Genetic drift
28. The greatest evolutionary change enabling the land vertebrates to be completely free from water,
was the development of
(a) Four legs (b) Lungs
(c) Shelled eggs and internal fertilization (d) Four cambered heart
29. The early stage human embryo distinctly possesses
(a) Gills (b) Gills slits (c) External ear (d) Eye brows
30. Fossils are preserved in
(a) Sedimentary rocks (b) Lava rocks (c) Metamorphic rocks (d) Any kind of rocks
31. Appearance of antibiotic resistant bacteria is an example
(a) Adaptive radiation (b) Transduction
(c) Preexisting variation in the population (d) Divergent evolution
32. If mouse; marsupial mouse, then Lemur :__________
(a) Tasmanian tiger cat (b) Spotted cuscus
(c) Tasmanian wolf (d) Bobcat
33. Evolution of different species in a given area starting from a point and spreading to other
geographical areas is knows as
(a) Natural selection (b) Migration
(c) Divergent evolution (d) Adaptive radiation
34. Convergent evolution is illustrated by
(a) Rat and dog (b) Bacterium and protozoa
(c) Starfish and cuttlefish (d) Dogfish and whale

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35. The classical example of adaptive radiation is
(a) Birds and insects (b) Darwin’s finches
(c) Aquatic mammals (d) None of these
36. Darwin’s finches are related to which of the following evidences?
(a) Fossil (b) Embryology (c) Anatomy (d) Adaptive radiation
37. Some of the marsupials of Australia resemble equivalent placental mammals that live in similar
habitats of other continents. This is an example of
(a) Convergent evolution (b) Divergent evolution
(c) Saltatory evolution (d) Adaptive radiation
38. Occurrence of endemic species in South America and Australia is due to
(a) Progressive evolution (b) Continental separation
(c) Absence of terrestrial route to these places (d) Extinction of these species in other regions
39. Directional selection
(a) Works against adaptive traits
(b) Favours intermediate forms of a trait
(c) Eliminates uncommon forms of alleles
(d) Shifts allele frequencies in a steady, consistent direction
40. Disruptive selection
(a) Eliminates uncommon forms of alleles
(b) Does not favour intermediate forms of a trait
(c) Shifts allele frequencies in a steady, consistent direction
(d) All of these
41. The Hardy-Weinberg principle cannot operate if
(a) The population is very large
(b) Frequent mutations occur in the population
(c) Free interbreeding occurs among all members of the population
(d) Both (a) and (c)
42. In which condition, the gene ration remains constant for any species?
(a) Sexual selection (b) Random mating (c) Mutation (d) Gene flow
43. The sum total of all genes and their alleles is referred to as
(a) Gene pool (b) Gene flow (c) Genetic drift (d) Gene migration
44. Equation of Hardy-Weinberg is depicted as
(a) p2  2pq  q 2  0 (b) p2  2pq  q 2  1 (c) p  2pq  q  0 (d) p  2pq  q  1
45. How do the changes in gene frequencies of a population reflect?
(a) As mutations (b) As evolution
(c) As genetic equilibrium (d) Founder’s effect
46. Which of the following condition would help in maintaining Hardy-Weinberg’s equilibrium?
(a) Mutations (b) No selection (c) Migration (d) Isolation
47. Mutations are mainly responsible for
(a) Increasing population rate (b) Maintaining genetic continuity
(c) Variation in organisms (d) Extinction of organisms
48. Changes in gene frequencies within a population are called
(a) Gene flow (b) Microevolution (c) Macroevolution (d) Polymorphism

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49. Using the Hardy-Weinberg principle, which expression represents the frequency of the
heterozygous genotype?
(a) p 2 (b) 2pq (c) q 2 (d) q

50. Organisms whose ranges are closely adjacent but do not overlap, being separated by a natural
barrier where these organisms do not occur, for examples of wide river or a mountain range are
termed as
(a) Allopatric (b) Parapatric (c) Peipatric (d) Sympatric
51. The rate of anthropogenic selection in comparison to the rate of natural selection is
(a) Faster (b) Slower
(c) Equal rate (d) Sometime fast, sometimes slow
52. Phylogenetic systems of classification includes
(a) Evolutionary trends only (b) Genetic trends only
(c) Evolutionary trends as well as morphology (d) Behavioural trends in environment
53. Which of the following is related with reproductive isolation?
(a) Genetic isolation (b) Time isolation
(c) Behavioural isolation (d) All of these
54. Which of the following is called as age of reptiles?
(a) Coenozoic era (b) Azoic era (c) Mesozoic era (d) Precambrian era
55. The unit of natural selection is the
(a) Species (b) Individual (c) Population (d) Tribe
56. Louis Pasteur’s view on the origin of life is that
(a) Life origin within six days
(b) Life originated spontaneously from the living organisms only
(c) Life originated spontaneously from the non-living substances
(d) Life came from other planet
57. Consider the following statements:
(A) Fitness in evolutionary theory describes the capability of an individual of certain genotype to
reproduce.
(B) An individual’s fitness is manifested through its phenotype.
(C) The fitness of different individuals with the same genotype are not necessarily equal.
The correct statements are
(a) (A), (B) and (C) (b) (A) and (B) (c) (A) and (C) (d) (B) and (C)
58. Mutations are important evolutionary agents as they
(a) Always occur in germ line cells
(b) Are not important unless the environment changes
(c) Are always selected by the nature
(d) Result in variations among organisms
59. Which of the following is a post-mating mechanism of reproductive isolation?
(a) Ecological barriers (b) Behavioural barriers (c) Mechanical barriers (d) Hybrid sterility
60. hybrids between Asian tigers (Panthera tigris) and African lioness (Panthera leo), called tigons,
occur in
(a) Wild and are sterile (b) Wild and are fertile
(c) Captivity and are fertile (d) Captivity and are sterile

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61. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(A) The best test of the relatedness (I) HMS. Beagle of 2 species
(B) Darwin (II) Similarity in DNA and protein
(C) Genetic drift in a new colony (III) Non-inherited
(D) Mutation in somatic cells (IV) Founder effect
(a) (A) — (III); (B) — (IV); (C) — (II); (D) — (I) (b) (A) — (II); (B) — (I); (C) — (IV); (D) — (III)
(c) (A) — (IV); (B) — (I); (C) — (II); (D) — (III) (d) (A) — (IV); (B) — (I); (C) — (III); (D) — (II)
62. Match the Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(A) Human embryos (I) Chemical evolution have gill
(B) Oparin and Haldane (II) Stimulation experiment
(C) Miller and Urey (III) Wings of bird and butterfly
(D) Analogous organs (IV) Ontogeny repeats phylogeny
(a) (A) — (III); (B) — (IV); (C) — (II); (D) — (I) (b) (A) — (II); (B) — (I); (C) — (IV); (D) — (III)
(c) (A) — (IV); (B) — (I); (C) — (II); (D) — (III) (d) (A) — (IV); (B) — (I); (C) — (III); (D) — (II)
63. Given below are four statements (A) – (D) each with one or two blanks. Select the option which
correctly fills up the blanks in the statements.
(A) Wings of butterfly and birds look alike and are the results of (i) evolution.

(B) Miller showed that CH4 , H2 , NH3 and (i) when exposed to electric discharge in a

flask resulted in formation of (ii) .

(C) Vermiform appendix is a (i) organ and (ii) evidence of evolution.
(D) According to Darwin, evolution took place due to (i) and (ii) of the fittest.
(a) (D) — (i) small variations, (ii) Survival; (A) — (i) convergent
(b) (A) — (i) convergent; (B) — (i) oxygen, (ii) nucleosides
(c) (B) — (i) water vapour, (ii) amino acids; (C) — (i) rudimentary, (ii) anatomical
(d) (C) — (i) vestigial, (i) anatomical; (D) — (i) mutations, (ii) multiplication
64. Which of the following has evolved mainly as a result of artificial selection.
(a) Darker colouring of the peppered moth near inducrial areas
(b) Increased production of antibiotics by the fungus Pencillium sp.
(c) Increased resistance of houseflies to the insecticide DDT.
(d) Increased tolerance of lichen of heavy metals on tree bark around mine workings
65. Mendel described the frequency of (A) for the offspring of a single (B) ; Hardy
and Weinberg described the frequency of (C) for an entire (D) .
(a) (A) — phenotypes; (B) — mated pair; (C) — alleles; (D) — population
(b) (A) — genotypes; (B) — mated pair; (C) — Alleles; (D) — population
(c) (A) — genomes; (B) — mated pair; (C) — alleles; (D) — community
(d) (A) — phenocopies; (B) — mated pair; (C) — alleles; (D) — genocopies
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66. Difference between the member of a population will most likely be passed to future generations if
they are
(a) Due to genetic changes and result in unfavourable variations
(b) Due to genetic changes and result in favourable variations
(c) Not due to genetic changes and result in unfavourable variations
(d) Not due to genetic changes and result in favourable variations
67. Choose the incorrect statement.
(a) Before emergence of industrialization in England, white winged moths were more in number
(b) Sickle-cell anemia in malaria endemic area is an example of directional selection
(c) Long neck of Giraffe in an example of progressive selection
(d) Plant tolerant to selenium is Astragalus
68. In plants, embryos arising from interspecific crosses abort due to
(a) Hybrid inviability (b) Hybrid sterility (c) Hybrid breakdown (d) Gametic isolation
69. According to Hugo de Vries, speciation due to mutation is also known as saltation which means
(a) Single-step variation (b) Variations at regular intervals
(c) Single-step large mutation (d) Huge change due to natural selection
70. Select the incorrect statement.
(a) Natural selection is a heritable variation and by reproduction leaves greater number of progeny
(b) During stabilization of natural selection, more individuals acquire value other than mean
character value.
(c) By the time of 500 million years ago, invertebrates were formed and were active
(d) Reptiles lay thick shelled eggs which do not up in sun unlike those of amphibians

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#ANSWER-KEY# LEVEL#1
1. b 10. b 19. d 28. c 37. a 46. b 55. b 64. d
2. d 11. b 20. d 29. b 38. b 47. c 56. b 65. b
3. b 12. c 21. b 30. a 39. d 48. b 57. b 66. b
4. c 13. b 22. d 31. c 40. b 49. b 58. d 67. b
5. c 14. a 23. d 32. b 41. b 50. a 59. d 68. a
6. a 15. d 24. d 33. d 42. b 51. a 60. c 69. c
7. c 16. d 25. b 34. d 43. a 52. a 61. b 70. b
8. a 17. d 26. c 35. b 44. b 53. d 62. c
9. c 18. a 27. d 36. d 45. b 54. c 63. a

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