CENTRO ESCOLAR UNIVERSITY

DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACY

INTEGRATED PHARMACEUTICAL SCIENCES

1st SEMESTER S.Y. 2020-2023

MODULE 2: MEDICAL BIOCHEMISTRY

INTRODUCTION TO BIOCHEMISTRY
1. It is the structural unit of life.
A. A. Tissue B. Cell C. Organ D. Organ system
2. This region in the nucleus is the site of ribosome assembly.
A. nuclear membrane B. nucleolus C. chromatin D. chromosome
3. These organelles consist of membranous sacs containing powerful oxidase enzymes, and they
use molecular oxygen (O2) to detoxify harmful substances
A. Lysosomes B. golgi apparatus C. peroxisomes D. mitochondria
4. _______ are small, extrachromosomal circular DNA molecules found in prokaryotes.
A. nucleoli B. genes C. plasmids D. histones
5. The diversity of the different cell types among various organisms lies in their chemical nature.
Which of the following pairs is/are accurate?
A. bacterial cell membrane-peptidoglycan B. plant cell wall-cellulose
C. animal cell membrane-nucleic acid D. none of the above
6. Which of the following statements is/are true of prions?
A. prion is an infectious agent that contains both proteins and nucleic acid.
B. The disease “bovine spongiform encephalopathy”, or “mad cow disease” is one of the best
known diseases attributed to prions.
C. Both statements are correct D. Both statements are false
7. Which of the following statements differentiates simple passive diffusion from facilitated
diffusion?
D. Facilitated diffusion is an active process.
E. Facilitated diffusion is saturable, simple passive diffusion is not.
F. Both statements are correct. D. None of the above.
8. Which of the following is affected by digitalis glycosides and ouabain?
A. sodium-glucose co-transport system C. Ca-Na exchanger
B. Na-K pump D. All of the above
9. Which of the following ions is co-transported with glucose in the small intestine?
A. Potassium B. sodium C. calcium D. magnesium
10. The nature of the cell wall of the bacteria is used in their classification. Which of the following is
across-linked, multi-layered polysaccharide-peptide complex used as the basis of Gram
staining?
A. Peptidoglycan B. teichoic acids C. ergosterol D. phospholipid
11. Which of the following is not a biopolymer?
A. nucleic acids B. carbohydrates C. amino acids D. lipids
12. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
A. Adenine is a nucleoside. C. Adenosine is a nucleotide.
B. Nucleotides are also known as nucleoside phosphates D. All of the above.
13. Which of the following is a nucleoside?
A. Guanine B. guanosine C. guanosine monophosphate D. Any of the above
14. Which carbon in the sugars is responsible for the difference between the two nucleic acids? C
A. carbon-1 B. carbon-2 C. carbon-3 D. none of the above

AMINO ACIDS: ENZYMES & PROTEINS

15. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding nucleic acid primary structure? D
A. DNA contains thymine, while RNA contains uracil.
B. Adenine and guanine are pyrimidines.
C. Uracil is a purine. D. All of the above. E. Only A and B.
16. The ribose in RNA is converted to deoxyribose in DNA by replacing the___ in RNA with ____. B
A. hydroxyl group, hydrogen C. hydrogen, hydroxyl group
B. oxygen, hydroxyl group D. hydroxyl group, oxygen
17. What is wobble?
A)The ability of certain anticodons to pair with codons that differ at the third base.
B)an error in translation induced by streptomycin
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 C)a mechanism that allows for a peptide extension in the 50s subunit of the ribosome
D)thermal motions leading to local denaturation of the DNA double helix
18. What type of bond connects successive monomer units through a phosphate residue attached
to hydroxyl on the 5’ carbon of one unit with the 3’hydroxyl of the next?
A. hydrogen bond B. covalent bond C. phosphodiester bond D. None of the above
19. Which of the following groups is responsible for the acidic character of nucleic acids?
A. Phosphate group B. Nucleotides C. Both A and B
D. None of the above, Nucleic acid is a misnomer. Nucleic Acids are not acidic
20. Which of the following are purine bases?
A. Adenine and Thymine B. Adenine and Guanine
C. Cytosine and Thymine D. Cytosine and Uracil
21. Which of the following base pairs is bonded by a double bond?
A. adenine and thymine B. cytosine and guanine
C. adenine and guanine D. cytosine and thymine
22. How many hydrogen bonds are formed between cytosine and guanine?
A. One B. two C. three D. no hydrogen bonds are formed between them
23. The DNA structure is a double helix containing chains which are complementary. Which of the
following statements best describes complementarity?
A. In the chains, each end of the helix contains the 5’ and of one strand and the 3’ end of the
other.
B. Adenine binds to thymine, and cytosine binds to guanine
C. several codons may code for the same amino acid.
D. All of the above
24. Each end of the DNA double helix contains the 5’ end of one strand and the 3’ end of the other
strand----this statement describes what characteristic of the DNA structure?
A. complementary B. antiparallel C. semiconservative replication D. base pairing
25. What do you call the bond between the 1’ carbon of the sugar and the base nitrogen?
A. hydrogen bond B. covalent bond C. phosphodiester bond D. glycosidic bond
26. Which of the following best describes the degeneracy of the genetic code?
A. 1 codon=1 amino acid B. 1 codon=6 amino acids
C. 6 codons=1 amino acid D. none of the above
27. Deoxyribonucleic acid is a double stranded polynucleotide. The base content of DNA displays
three sets of equivalent pairs. Which of the following are equivalent base pairs?
1. A=T 2. C=G 3. A+G=T+C 4. A+G is not always equal to T+C
A. 3 only B. 1 and 2 C. 1,2, and 3 D. 1,2, and 4
28. Which of the following is the most common form of DNA?
A. A-DNA B. B-DNA C. Z-DNA D. All of the choices
D. All of the following occur in the same frequency in nature.
29. When the two strands of the DNA double helix are separated, each strand can serve as a
template for the replication of a new complementary strand. This describes describes _______.
A. DNA replication B. transcription
C. complementarity of base pairing D. semiconservative replication
30. Which of the following is correct according to Watson-Crick model for DNA?
1. DNA consists of a two-strand double helix.
2. Pairing is A-T and G-C
3. The primary structure of nucleic acids is composed of a double helix stabilized by H-bonds.
4. The chains were complementary and antiparallel.
A. 3 only B. 1 and 2 C. 1,2, and 3 D. 1, 2 and 4
31. The following base pairs form a minor groove.
A. cytosine-guanine B. adenine-thymine C. adenine-uracil D. A and B only
32. These are discontinuous stretches in which the lagging strand is initially synthesized during
DNA replication.
A. Enhancer B. operon C. Okazaki fragments D. Primer
33. A short piece of nucleic acid (DNA or RNA), base-paired with a DNA template strand and
provides a free 3’-OH end from which DNA polymerase can extend a DNA strand.
A. Enhancer B. operon C. Okazaki fragments D. primer
34. DNA polymerase type _____has a 5’ to 3’ polymerase activity and 3’ to 5’ proofreading
exonuclease activity. D
A. I B. II C. III D. IV
35. This DNA polymerase is primarily involved in repairing DNA.
A. DNA poymerase I B. DNA polymerase II
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 C. DNA polymerase III D. DNA polymerase IV
36. What is the sequence of the major events in DNA replication?
1. DNA ligase joins DNA fragments of the lagging strand, creating a single DNA molecule.
2. DNA polymerase at the replication fork synthesize DNA in 5’ to 3’ direction. There are two
strands, the leading and lagging strands.
3. DNA double helix is opened by helicases.
4. Primase creates a temporary RNA primer for each DNA strand.
5. DNA polymerase removes RNA primer and fills the gaps between the Okazaki fragments.
A. 1-3-5-4-2 B. 3-4-2-5-1 C. 1-2-5-4-3 D. 4-3-2-5-1
37. This is a rare human disorder, which progresses to photosensitivity, caused by an inherited
excinuclease deficiency.
A. Xeroderma pigmentosa B. Bloom’s syndrome
C. Fanconi’s anemia D. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
38. Alkylating agents are used in the treatment of Hodgkin’s diseases and leukemias. Their main
mechanism of action is to alkylate this nitrogenous base.
A. adenine B. cytosine C. guanine D. thymine
39. This chemotherapeutic agent binds to bacterial RNA polymerase.
A. Pyrazinamide B. Actinomycin D C. Bleomycin D. Rifampicin
40. Which of the following statements is/are true?
A. RNA polymerase, unlike DNA polymerase does not require a primer.
B. DNA polymerase is a nuclease C. RNA polymerase is a nuclease.
D. All of the above. E. Only A and B are correct
41. Which of the following is a codon for methionine?
A. UAG B. AUG C. UGA D. UAA
42. This DNA mutation occurs when a purine replaces a pyrimidine, or vice versa.
A. transitional B. tranversional C. insertion D. frame-shift
43. A purine replaces another purine in ________ mutations.
A. transitional B. tranversional C. insertion D. frame-shift
44. Which of the following is/are point mutations?
A. insertion B. deletion C. transition D. All of the above E. Only A and B
45. This mutagenic substance is obtained from smoking cigarettes. It intercalates with DNA and
causes frameshifts.
A. tar B. nicotine C. coal D. benzopyrene
46. This refers to the noncoding regions that alternate with coding regions in the polypeptide
sequence
A. exons B. promoters C. introns D. repressor
47. This DNA duplex has a special left-handed helical structure
A. A-DNA B. B-DNA C. Z-DNA D. F-DNA
48. Which of the following statements best describes the mechanism of action of Dactinomycin
(Actinomycin D)?
A. binds to the bacterial RNA polymerase B. binds to 30s subunit
C. binds to 50s subunit D. intercalate with the minor groove of the double helix
49. 2-Aminopyrine is no longer used clinically. It has been found to replace adenine (6-aminopurine)
or guanine in DNA resulting to bone marrow toxicity. 2-Aminopyrine exhibits what type of mutation?
A. transitional B. tranversional C. frameshift D. deletion
50. Actinomycin D, an antineoplastic drug, intercalates between two GC pairs in DNA. Which of the
following processes does it inhibit?
A. Translation B. Transcription C. DNA Repair D. Replication
51. Tumor-producing RNA viruses synthesize DNA from RNA in the process called _________.
A. Transcription B. reverse transcription C. translation D. reverse translation
52. This enzyme is responsible for removing the RNA primer on DNA.
A. Excinuclease B. DNA ligase C. RNA polymerase D. DNA polymerase
53. Which of the following pairs is an accurate pairing of the organism and its start codon?
A. eukaryote-formylmethionine B. prokaryote-methionine
C. eukaryote-methionine D. none of the above
54. Humans catabolize purines to ________
A. Urea B. uric acid C. allantoin D. Both B and C
55. This refers to the set of prokaryotic structural genes, which are transcribed as a unit, along with
regulatory elements controlling their expression.
A. operon B. operator C. inducer D. repressor

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56. When the serum urate levels exceed the solubility limit, the crystals of sodium urate accumulate
in soft tissues and joints and causes an inflammatory reaction known as
A. Lesch Nyhan syndrome B. osteomalacia C. gouty arthritis D. Von Gierke’s disease
57. This type of mutation occurs when the codon containing the changed base may become a
termination codon.
A. nonsense mutation B. missense mutation C. silent mutation D. transitional mutation
58. The result of a point mutation that occurs when UCA(coding for serine) is converted to
UCU(also coding for serine) is called
A. nonsense mutation B. missense mutation C. silent mutation D. any of the above
59. Glutamine and asparagine amino acids are _______.
A. Acidic B. Basic C. Neutral D. Nonpolar
60. Which statement is true?
A. Cystine is a dimer of cysteine B. Cysteine is more stable than cysteine
B. Both statements are correct C. Both statements are false.
61. Which of the following amino acids contain(s) basic side chains?
A. Histidine B. Arginine C. Leucine D. All of the above E. Only A and B
62. Which of the following amino acids contain(s) side chains with sulfur atom?
A. Methionine B. Cysteine C. Both A and B D. Neither A nor B
63. Which of the following amino acids is responsible for disrupting the -helix because its imino
group is not geometrically compatible with the right –handed spiral of the -helix?
A. proline B. valine C. leucine D. glycine
64. Which of the following amino acids has an imino group?
A. Phenylalanine B. Proline C. Tyrosine D. Threonine
65. Which of the following amino acids possess(es) a hydroxyl group, which renders it/them polar?
A. Serine B. Threonine C. Tyrosine D. only A and B E. All of the above
66. What stabilizes the primary structure of proteins?
A. salt bridges C. hydrophobic bonds E. disulfide bonds
B. peptide bonds D. All of the above
67. Which of the following amino acids possess a phenolic hydroxyl group?
A. serine B. threonine C. tyrosine D. only A and B E. All of the above
68. Thyroxine, which is chemically 3,5,3’5’-tetraidothyronine, is used as a precursor of thyroid
hormones. What type of biopolymer is thyroxine?
A. carbohydrate B. lipid C. protein D. nucleic acid
69. Peptide bond, a type of amide bond, binds the amino terminal of one amino acid to the carboxyl
end of another. What type of process is involved in the formation of peptide bonds:
A. Oxidation B. hydration C. reduction D. dehydration
70. What do you call the principal method for determining the primary structure of polypeptides? For
its initial step, it utilizes phenylisocyanate, which combines with the terminal amino acid of the
polypeptide.
A. Grignard B. Edman C. Molisch D. Zollinger
71. Which of the following bonds are found in the quaternary structure of polypeptides?
1.hydrogen bonds 2.electrostatic bonds 3.hydrophobic bonds 4.covalent bonds
A. 1 only B. 3 only C. 1-3 D. all of the above
72. Denaturation is a randomization of the conformation of a polypeptide chain. Chemical agents
like strong acids or bases, heat, ionic detergents , etc. are involved in this process. Which of
the following structures remain unaffected with denaturation?
1.Primary 2.Secondary 3.Tertiary 4.Quartenary
A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 C. 1-3 only D. 1-4
73. Dopamine, norepinephrine and epinephrine are collectively called catecholamines. Which of the
following amino acids serves as a precursor in the synthesis of these catecholamines?
A. Tryptophan B. Threonine C. Tyrosine D. Alanine
74. Serotonin is synthesized from this amino acid.
A. Tryptophan B. threonine C. tyrosine D. alanine
75. Histamine, a chemical messenger, mediates allergic and inflammatory reactions, gastric acid
secretion and neurotransmission of the brain. Which of the following amino acids, which when
decarboxylated, yields histamine?
A. Tyrosine B. histidine C. tryptophan D. any of the above
76. Polar and ionized side chains in globular proteins tend to move to the _______surface to form
bonds with water.
A. inner B. outer C. entire D. regional
77. Fibrous proteins are elongated, water–soluble, generally in either alpha-helical, pleated sheet,
or triple helical forms. Which of the following is an example of fibrous protein?
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 A. hemoglobin B. actin C. myosin D. elastin
78. Among the fibrous proteins listed below, which are the major proteins of skin and hair?
A. keratin B. collagen C. elastin D. fibronectin
79. This fibrous protein is the most abundant single protein in vertebrates.
A. keratin B. collagen C. elastin D. fibronectin
80. Which of the following statements below gives an accurate description of collagen?
A. It is a fibrous protein.
B. The basic unit of collagen is tropocollagen, a triple helix of three polypeptide chain.
C. Vitamin A is important in catalyzing the hydroxylation of proline
D. All of the above E. Only A and B
81. Which fibrous protein is an important structural component of arterial blood vessels and
ligaments?
A. keratin B. collagen C. elastin D. fibronectin
82. One way of classifying proteins is through their physical properties. Which of the following is
soluble in water and salt solutions, and has no distinctive amino acids.
A. prolamine B. globulin C. albumin D. histones
83. What enzyme is responsible for converting phenylalanine to tyrosine?
A. phenylalanine hydroxylase C. phenylalanine dehydrogenase
B. phenylalanine ligase D. phenylalanine kinase
84. The absence of this enzyme results to phenylketonuria.
A. phenylalanine dehydrogenase C. phenylalanine hydroxylase
B. homogentisate oxidase D. either A or B
85. Which of the following is true regarding phenylketonuria?
A. The enzyme homogentisate oxidase results to phenylketonuria
B. There is overproduction of tyrosine
C. There is always an abnormal development of the child’s brain
D. An artificial protein that lacks phenylalanine is given to children with PKU
86. What diet would you advice the child’s mother with PKU to give to her baby?
A. rich in tyrosine, lacks phenylalanine C. equal quantities of tyrosine and phenylalanine
B. rich in phenylalanine, lacks tyrosine D. regular infant formula
87. What enzyme is deficient in alkaptonuria?
A. phenylalanine dehydrogenase C. phenylalanine hydroxylase
B. Homogentisate oxidase D. Any of the above
88. What essential amino acid is used in the synthesis of niacin?
A. Tyrosine B. Methionine C. Tryptophan D. Phenylalanine
89. What important neurotransmitter uses tryptophan as its precursor?
A. Histamine B. Acetylcholine C. Norepinephrine D. Serotonin
90. Which of the following are the branched-chain amino acids responsible for the characteristic
“sweet smell” of the urine of patients with “Maple Syrup Urine disease”
A. leucine, isoleucine, and valine C. leucine, alanine, and valine
B. lysine, alanine and valine D. lysine, isoleucine and valine
91. This results from the oxidation of heme protein in hemoglobin resulting to increased oxygen
affinity, and therefore failure to adequately deliver oxygen to tissues.
A. thalassemia B. methemoglobinemia C. sulfhemoglobinemia D. sickle-cell anemia
92. The coenzyme FMN and FAD is responsible for the oxidative deamination of amino acids.
Which of the following vitamins is related to these coenzymes?
A. B1 B. B2 C. B3 D. B5
93. Myoglobin and hemoglobin possess a cyclic tetrapyrole, heme, as a prosthetic group. Which of
the following ions is found centrally located in the heme?
A. Mg B. Al C. Fe D. P
94. Some serum enzymes are used in clinical diagnosis. Which of the following enzyme/s may be
used to diagnose myocardial infarction?
1. gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase 3. AST or SGOT
2. creatine phosphokinase 4. lactate dehydrogenase
A. 2 only B. 3 and 4 only C. 1-3 D. 2-4
95. Acute pancreatitis may be diagnosed using which serum enzyme/s?
1. acid phosphatase 3. alkaline phosphatase
2. lipase 4. amylase
A. 2 only B. 4 only C. 1 and 3 D. 2 and 4
96. Which of the following enzymes adds an inorganic phosphate to break a bond.?
A. kinase B. phosphorylase C. phosphatase D. ligase

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97. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, which can cause acute confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia,
can be treated with which of the following?
A. riboflavin B. ascorbic acid C. thiamine D. pantothenic acid
98. What type of anemia is the deficiency state of folic acid?
A. aplastic B. microcytic C. megaloblastic D. macrocytic
99. Bone disorders and obstructive liver disease may be diagnosed using which of the following
serum enzymes?
A. aminotransferases B. alkaline phosphatase
C. acid phosphatase D. lactate dehydrogenase
100. Which of the following vitamins is present in coenzymes required in the transfer of amino
groups and decarboxylation of amino acids? Its deficiency state is manifested by glossitis,
peripheral neuropathy and niacin deficiency.
A. pyridoxine B. niacin C. thiamine D. riboflavin
101. The signs of pellagra include dermatitis, diarrhea, dementia (three D’s) and loss of tongue
papillae. Which of the following is/are deficient in pellagra?
A. niacin B. tryptophan C. Both A and B
D. Pellagra is not a deficiency state. It is an autoimmune disorder.
102. Trimethoprim and Methotrexate are folate reductase inhibitors. The use of the
aforementioned drugs predisposes a person to develop:
A. nausea and vomiting B. dermatitis C. normocytic anemia D. megaloblastic anemia
103. Cheilosis, glossitis, seborrhea and photophobia are manifestations of what deficiency state?
A. thiamine B. riboflavin C. niacin D. pyridoxine
104. Certain metals and trace elements are important as enzyme cofactors. What metal is present
in the enzyme glutathione peroxidase that replaces S in one cysteine in active site?
A. Fe B. Co C. Se D. Zn
105. Ninhydrin is widely used for detecting amino acids. What is the visible result for ninhydrin
test in the presence of proline and hydroxyproline?
A. violet B. green C. yellow D. old rose
106. Which of the following tests is specific for amino acids and free amino group?
A. Biuret test B. Hopkin’s Cole Test C. Ninhydrin D. Xanthoproteic Test
107. Xanthoproteic test is a test for
A. free amino groups B. arginine C. cysteine D. tyrosine
108. What is the positive visible result for xanthoproteic test?
A. yellow color deepening into orange B. violet color C. bluish green D. old rose
109. This test is used to identify the presence of peptide linkages
A. Ninhydrin B. Biuret C. Hopkin’s Cole D. Sakaguchi
110. Hopkin’s Cole is used to identify which of the following amino acids?
A. Threonine B. tryptophan C. lysine D. leucine
111. Which of the following give(s) a positive result to basic lead acetate test?
A. Tryptophan B. cysteine C. cysteine D. all of the above E. both B and C
112. Pauly diazo test indicates the presence of
A. Histidine B. tyrosine C. tryptophan D. both A and B E. both B and C
113. Specific test for arginine
A. Biuret test B. basic leas acetate test C. ninhydrin D. Sakaguchi test
114. This test is used to confirm the presence of the phenolic ring of tyrosine.
A. ninhydrin test B. anthrone test C. Schiff’s test D. Millon-Nasse
115. This test is also known as glyoxylic acid reaction.
A. Millon-Nasse B. Ninhydrin C. Hopkin’s Cole D. Schiff’s test
116. This is also known as protein-calorie malnutrition. It is a state resulting from the chronic
deficiency of calories, which can occur even in the presence of adequate intake of protein
A. Marasmus B. obesity C. hemochromatosis D. kwashiorkor
117. The digestion of proteins begins in the ___________.
A. mouth B. stomach C. small intestine D. pancreas
118. Pepsinogen is an example of
A. apoenzyme B. holoenzyme C. cofactor D. zymogen
119. Racemase and Mutase are examples of what type of enzymes?
A. lyases B. isomerases C. oxidoreductases D. ligases
120. This is caused by the inadequate intake of protein in the presence of adequate intake of
calories.
A. Marasmus B. obesity C. hemochromatosis D. kwashiorkor
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121. This enzyme adds hydrogen atoms to a molecule.
A. reductase B. oxidase C. ligase D. synthase
122. Which of the following enzymes is an example of hydrolases?
A. esterase B. racemase C. aminotransferase D. decarboxylase
123. This type of enzyme cleaves a carbon to carbon bond to create an aldehyde group.
A. esterase B. transferase C. aldolase D. protease
124. The enzyme decarboxylase is an example of a _______ enzyme.
A. hydrolase B. ligase C. racemase D. lyase

CARBOHYDRATES
125. These are defined as polyhydroxylated compounds with at least three carbon atoms that
may or may not possess a carbonyl group.
A. proteins B. carbohydrates C. lipids D. nucleic acids
126. This is a sugar alcohol derived from glucose, which often accumulates in the lenses of
diabetics and produces cataracts.
A. mannitol B. sorbitol C. glucitol D. glycerol
127. Glucose, fructose and galactose all have the same chemical formula-C6H12O6, through this
information, we can conclude that these substances are
A. anomers B. epimers C. enantiomers D. isomers
128. These stereoisomers are nonsuperimposable mirror images of each other. They are also
called optical isomers because they rotate polarized light in opposite directions.
A. enantiomers B. diastereomers C. anomers D. Both A and B
129. D-threose and L-threose are examples of
A. anomers B. enantiomers C. diastereomers D. conformational isomers
130. Which of the following has the most number of carbon atoms?
A. erythrose B. sedoheptulose C. galactose D. ribose
131. ____________ are stereoisomers of cyclized monossacharide molecules differing only in
the configuration of the substituents on the carbonyl carbon.
A. diastereomers B. enantiomers C. epimers D. anomers
132. Maltose, a dissacharide is composed of
A. glucose + galactose B. glucose + fructose
C. glucose + glucose D. glucose + mannose
133. Which of the following carbohydrates contains the most number of carbon atoms?
A. sedoheptulose B. sialic acid C. ribose D. glycerose
134. Mutarotation is a process of interconversion between the alpha and beta forms, using the
open-chain structure as an intermediate. Which of the following undergoes mutarotation?
A. monosaccharides B. disaccharides C. polysaccharides D. amino acids
135. Which of the following presents a cyclic sugar structure?
A. Fischer projection B. Haworth projection
C. chair conformation D. boat conformation
136. Glucose and galactose differ only in the configuration of their hydroxyl group at carbon 4.
Glucose and galactose are
A. diastereomers B. enantiomers C. epimers D. anomers
137. Glycogen is an example of a
A. disaccharide B. monosaccharide C. polysaccharide D. none of the above
138. The glycosidic bond formed in glycosides is an example of
A. ester bond B. ether bond C. ketone bond D. noncovalent bond
139. Insulin promotes the storage of fat and glucose in specialized target cells. Which pancreatic
cell type is responsible for secreting this hormone?
A.  cell or alpha B.  cell or beta C. δ cell or delta D. F cell or PP cell
140. This hormone may sometimes be useful in the reversal of cardiac effects of Beta-Blocker
overdose because of its ability to increase cAMP production in the heart.
A. insulin B. somatostatin C. somatomedin D. glucagon
141. The deficiency of which of the following enzymes predisposes persons taking some
therapeutic agents (e.g.4-aminoquinoline, sulfonamides, and propantheline) to hemolytic
anemia?
A. glucose-1-phosphate B. glucose-6-phosphate
C. pyruvate dehydrogenase D. thymidylate synthase
142. The digestion of carbohydrates begins in the _________.
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 A. mouth B. stomach C. small intestine D. duodenum
143. The nonsugar portion of glycosides is known as
A. aglycone B. genin C. glycone D. both A and B E. both B and C
144. What type of glycosidic bond joins the dimer of glucose to form maltose?
A. -1,4 B. -1,4 C. -1,2 D. -1,2
145. The cell markers, which serve as basis for the ABO blood types , are classified as what type
of biopolymers?
A. proteins B. carbohydrates C. lipids D. nucleic acids
146. Which of the following blood types is considered as the universal donor?
A. A B. B C. AB D. O
147. The enzyme -amylase cleaves ________ to maltose and maltotriose.
A. chondroitin sulfate B. cellulose C. heparin D. amylopectin E. amylase
148. Which of the following is a homopolymer of N-acetyl--D-glucosamine whose best known
function is in invertebrate animals?
A. xylan B. peptidoglycan C. hyaluronic acid D. chitin
149. Which of the following is/are examples of glycosaminoglycans?
A. hyaluronic acids B. mucopolysaccharides C. chondroitin sulfate
D. All of the above E. only A and C
150. Which of the following is/are examples of trisaccharides?
A. raffinose B. gentianose C. melezitose D. All of the above E. A and B only
151. Raffinose, a trisaccharide is also known as ____________.
A. melitose B. melitriose C. melezitose D. Both A and B E. Both B and C
152. -naphthol reaction is also known as
A. Molisch test B. Ninhydrin test C. Phenylhydrazine test D. Fehling’s test
153. What is the visible result for Molisch test?
A. green or blue green B. brick red precipitate
C. cherry red color D. purple ring at the junction
154. This is the other name of Tauber’s test for ketoses.
A. Anthrone test B. Seliwanoff’s test C. Aminoguanidine reaction D. Mucic Acid Test
155. What is the visible result for Aminoguanidine reaction?
A. purple ring at the junction B. green color
C. brownish black precipitate D. bright reddish purple
156. Which of the following accurately describes Barfoed’s test?
A. general test for carbohydrates B. test for ketoses
C. specific test for galactose D. test to differentiate monosaccharides and disaccharides
157. The addition of a few drops of iodine to a solution produces blue color. This indicates the
presence of
A. starch B. dextrin C. glycogen D. All of the above E. A and B only
158. A reddish solution results after the addition of iodine TS to an unknown solution.
Subsequent addition of ammoniacal basic lead acetate to a portion of the unknown solution
results to the formation of a precipitate. The results of the tests confirm the presence of
A. glycogen B. dextrin C. starch D. lactose
159. This gives a negative result to Benedict’s test.
A. glucose B. sucrose C. lactose D. maltose
160. What test can be used to differentiate galactose from lactose?
A. Benedict’s test B. Iodine test C. Barfoed’s test D. Mucic Acid Test
161. What is the positive result for Fehling’s test?
A. violet precipitate B. brick red precipitate C. green precipitate D. amorphous crystals
162. This is a general test for carbohydrates.
A.  naphtol rxn B. Molisch test C. Phenylhydrazine rxn D. Both A & B E. Both B & C
163. Which of the following sugars forms an insoluble white phenylhydrazone readily?
A. sucrose B. galactose C. arabinose D. mannose
164. Which hydrolysis product of starch is responsible for forming a dark blue complex with
iodine?
A. amylopectin B. amylase C. maltose D. all of the above
165. This is a differentiating test for aldose and ketose sugars.
A. Seliwanoff’s test B. Mucic Acid test C. Barfoed’s test D. any of the above
166. This is also known as the Embden-Meyerhof pathway

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 A. glycolysis B. gluconeogenesis C. glycogenesis D. glycogenolysis
167. Which of the following enzymes is responsible for catalyzing the reaction of glucose to
glucose-6-phosphate?
A. hexokinase B. pyruvate kinase C. PFK D. glyceraldehyde PO4 dehydrogenase
168. This enzyme catalyzes the conversion fructose-6-P to fructose-1,6-bis-P
A. hexokinase B. pyruvate kinase C. PFK D. glyceraldehyde phosphate dehydrogenase
169. The enzymes for glycolysis are found in the
A. mitochondrion B. cytosol C. ribosomes D. nucleus
170. Which of the following enzymes is most important in controlling glycolysis?
A. hexokinase B. pyruvate kinase C. PFK D. none of the above
171. This enzyme is the key enzyme that links glycolysis, TCA cyce, amino acid metabolism, and
fatty acid oxidation.
A. hexokinase B. pyruvate kinase C. PFK D. none of the above
172. In all phosphorylation reactions, this metal is an essential cofactor.
A. Cu B. Fe C. Mg D. Al
173. This is the main pathway for carbohydrate catabolisim in all human tissues.
A. glycolysis B. glycogenolysis C. fructose catabolism D. galactose catabolism
174. Which of the following enzymes catalyze irreversible steps in glycolysis?
1.PFK 2.hexokinase 3.pyruvate kinase 4.pyruvate dehydrogenase
A. 3 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1,2 and 3 D. 2 and 4
175. Which of the following statements is/are TRUE regarding anaerobic glycolysis?
A. The formation of lactate and 2 ATP is the net yield.
B. There is a net of 2 NADH produced in the process.
C. The anaerobic glycolysis is slower than the aerobic glycolysis.
D. All of the above E. Both A and B
176. The total net ATP produced in aerobic glycolysis is ______ ATPs per mole of hexose,
depending on which shuttle predominates in the transport NAD/NADH.
A. 4 to 6 B. 6 to 8 C. 4 to 8 D. 8 to 10
177. The site of citric acid cycle
A. cytosol B. mitochondria C. ribosomes D. any of the above
178. Among the different cells in the body, only these lack mitochondria, which renders them
incapable of TCA.
A. platelets B. leukocytes C. erythrocytes D. brain cells
179. Which of the following is the central hub in the metabolism of carbohydrates, lipids and
amino acids?
A. glycolysis B. Pentose Phosphate Pathway C. -oxidation D. citric acid cycle
180. This is the product of the complete reduction of oxygen
A. water B. superoxide anions C. hydrogen peroxide D. hydroxyl radicals
181. Which of the following enzymes converts hydrogen peroxide to water.
A. superoxide dismutase B. catalase
C. cytochrome reductase D. cytochrome oxidase
182. Gluconeogenesis is the formation of new glucose. The enzymes responsible for this are only
confined to some organs, which include
A. muscles B. liver C. kidneys D. both A and B E. Both B and C
183. What enzyme in gluconeogenesis is employed to bypass the hexokinase reaction, which is
the conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate?
A. pyruvate carboxylase B. PEP carboxykinase
C. fructose biphosphatase D. glucose-6-phosphatase
184. Which of the following enzymes in gluconeogenesis is used to bypass the PFK reaction?
A. pyruvate carboxylase B. PEP carboxykinase
C. fructose biphosphatase D. glucose-6-phosphatase
185. What two enzymes are used to bypass the pyruvate kinase reaction of glycolysis?
1.pyruvate carboxylase 2.PEP carboxykinase
3.fructose biphosphatase 4.glucose-6-phosphatase
A. 1 and 2 B. 1 and 3 C. 2 and 4 D. 3 and 4
186. The pentose phosphate pathway occur in the _______ of liver, muscle and kidney.
A. inner mitochondria B. outer mitochondria C. cytosol D. ribosomes
187. Which of the following enzymes is present only in the liver and kidney and not in the

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muscles?
A. pyruvate carboxylase B. PEP carboxykinase
C. fructose biphosphatase D. glucose-6-phosphatase
188. This is the only reaction coupled with substrate level phosphorylation in the TCA.
A. citrate to isocitrate B. isocitrate to alpha-ketoglutarate
C. succinyl CoA to succinate D. succinate to fumarate
189. This is the only reaction in TCA that involves FAD/FADH2?
A. citrate to isocitrate B. isocitrate to alpha-ketoglutarate
C. succinyl CoA to succinate D. succinate to fumarate
190. How many ATPs are produced for every acetyl CoA oxidized?
A. 10 B. 12 C. 14 D. 8
191. How many ATPs are produced in the reduction of one mole of NAD to NADH?
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 12
192. Which of the following occur(s) in the cytosol?
A. TCA B. glycolysis C. PPP D. Both A and B E. Both B and C
193. The site of acylglycerol synthesis.
A. ribosomes B. endoplasmic reticulum C. cytosol D. mitochondrion
194. This refers to the totality of the chemical reactions that occur in an organism.
A. metabolism B. anabolism C. catabolism D. amphibolism
195. The citric acid cycle is an example of a/an _____________ metabolism
A. anabolic B. catabolic C. amphibolic D. none of the above
196. Which of the following is/are example(s) of catabolism?
A. glycogenesis B. glycolysis C. beta oxidation of fatty acids
D. both A and B E. both B and C

LIPIDS
197. This refers to a class of a heterogenous group of compounds, which are more related by
their physical than by their chemical properties.
A. proteins B. nucleic acids C. carbohydrates D. lipids
198. These are esters of fatty acids and glycerol
A. fixed oils and fats B. waxes C. sterols D. phospholipids
199. These are esters of high molecular weight, monohydric alcohols and high molecular weight
fatty acids
A. fixed oils and fats B. waxes C. sterols D. phospholipids
200. These are alcohols containing the CPPP nucleus
A. fixed oils and fats B. waxes C. sterols D. phospholipids
201. These are esters of glycerol in combination with fatty acid, phosphoric acid, and certain
nitrogenous compounds.
A. fixed oils and fats B. waxes C. sterols D. phospholipids
202. Lard is an example of what chemical class of lipids?
A. fixed oils and fats B. waxes C. sterols D. phospholipids
203. Which of the following is an example of waxes?
A. cholesterol B. ergosterol C. spermaceti D. lecithin
204. Lecithin is an example of
A. fixed oils and fats B. waxes C. sterols D. phospholipids
205. What phospholipids are associated with the process of blood clotting?
A. lecithin B. cephalin C. sphingomyelin D. none of the above
206. Which of the following statements is/are true?
A. Unsaturated fatty acids have lower melting points than saturated fatty acids.
B. Vegetable oils are generally liquid C. Vegetable oils are generally solid
D. Both A and B E. Both B and C
207. Which of the following statements is true when fats and fixed oils are heated strongly?
A. fats liquefy B. oils become less viscous C. saponification occurs
D. decomposition occurs accompanied by the production of acrid flammable vapors
208. Which of the following are properties of fats and fixed oils?
1.greasy to touch 2.leave a permanent oily stain upon the filter paper
3.a few of them are soluble in alcohol 4.they undergo saponification
A. 3 only B. 1 and 2 C. 3 and 4 D. 1-4
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209. These are lipids that contain carbohydrate (galactose or glucose), one fatty acid and
sphingosine, but no phosphoric acid or glycerol.
A. cerebrosides B. gangliosides C. cytolipins D. any of the above
210. These are compounds related to cerebrosides that contain sphingosine, long-chain fatty
acids, hexoses (usually galactose or glucose), and neuraminic acid.
A. cephalins B. gangliosides C. cytolipins D. lecithins
211. Gangliosides, cerebrosides and cytolipins are collectively called _______.
A. phospholipids or phosphatide B. glycolipids C. sulfolipids D. lipoproteins
212. This is the deposition of lipid plaques on the lining of the arteries.
A. Atherosclerosis B. Gaucher’s diseas C. Tay Sach’s disease D. hyperlipoproteinemia
213. Which of the following is/are true regarding lipolysis?
A. It is triglyceride hydrolysis.
B. It liberates free fatty acids from their main storage depots in the triglycerides.
C. It begins in the intestinal hydrolysis of dietary triglycerides by pancreatic lipase.
D. All of the above
214. -oxidation of fatty acids occurs in the ________.
A. cytosol B. mitochondria C. endoplasmic reticulum D. ribosomes
215. Fatty acid elongation occurs in the ___________.
A. cystosol B. mitochondria C. endoplasmic reticulum D. microsomes
216. This 3-carbon fatty acid derivative arises form the catabolism of fatty acids containing odd-
numbered carbons.
A. acetyl CoA B. acyl CoA C. propionyl CoA D. butyryl CoA
217. Which of the following are ketone bodies?
1. acetone 2. acetic acid 3. acetoacetic acid 4. -hydroxybutyric acid
A. 1 and 2 B. 1,2 and 3 C. 1,2 and 4 D. 1,3 and 4
218. The state of high serum levels of acetoacetic acid and -hydroxybutyric acid is called
A. ketonemia B. ketonuria C. ketosis D. ketoacidosis
219. The Salkowski test for cholesterol utilizes what strong acid?
A. nitric acid B. sulfuric acid C. hydrochloric acid D. perchloric acid
220. The Acetic acid-Sulfuric Acid test for cholesterol is more commonly known as
A. microscopic examination for cholesterol B. Salkowski test
C. Liebermann-Burchard test D. Formaldehyde Test
221. What is the positive visible result for Liebermann-Burchard test?
A. yellow crystal B. black ppt. C. white amorphous ppt. D. bluish-green color
222. Which vitamin can be used in the management of hyperlipidemia?
A. thiamine B. riboflavin C. niacin D. pantothenic acid
223. Which of the following drugs is a structural analog of HMG-CoA?
A. Clofibrate B. Colestipol C. Cholestyramine D. Lovastatin
224. Which of the following enzymes utilizes FAD as a coenzyme?
A. Malate dehydrogenase B. Aconitase C. Lactate dehydrogenase
D. Isocitrate dehydrogenase E. Succinate dehydrogenase
225. The tricarboxylic acid cycle is initiated by the condensation of acetyl-CoA and:
A. malate. B. citrate. C. pyruvate. D. oxaloacetate E. HCO3-.
226. Gluconeogenesis:
A. is favored when insulin concentrations are high. B. occurs in the liver.
C. allows skeletal muscle to produce free glucose.
D. is stimulated by high levels of fructose 2,6-bisphosphate E. uses acetyl CoA as a substrate.
227. Your have just admitted a male infant with a congenital deficiency for pyruvate
dehydrogenase.
Which of the following pathways in his brain will be accelerated after he is fed?
A. Electron transport B. Tricarboxylic acid cycle C. Gluconeogenesis
D. Glycolysis E. Oxidative phosphorylation
228. The activity of which enzyme would be expected to increase as the level of insulin increases?
A. Pyruvate dehydrogenase B. Hexokinase C. Glucose 6-phosphatase
D. Fructose 1,6-bisphosphatase E. PEP carboxykinase
229. Your patient has muscular weakness and degeneration of the optic nerve. Your tentative
diagnosis is Leber's hereditary optic neuropathy. If this is the correct diagnosis, which of the
following pathways will contain the defect?
A. Tricarboxylic acid cycle B. Electron transport C. Glycolysis

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 D. Gluconeogenesis E. Pyruvate dehydrogenase multienzyme complex

For each of the following questions, one or more of the answers are correct. Choose answer:
A. If only 1, 2, and 3 are correct B. If only 1 and 3 are correct
C. If only 2 and 4 are correct D. If only 4 is correct E. If all are correct
230. Signal transduction cascades are produced by molecular assemblies of which of the following
components?
1. Enzymes
2. Regulatory proteins
3. Receptors
4. Transmembrane channels
231. In the immune response
1. IgE is an immunoglobulin most frequently associated with allergic reactions.
2. IgM is not always the first immunoglobulin made before any other immunoglobulin class.
3. IgA is the principal secretory immunoglobulin.
4. Immunoglobulin class switching normally changes the paratope without altering the effector
functions.
232. Antigen-antibody complexes
1. are most often going to contain protein or carbohydrate as the antigen.
2. are produced for the purpose of efficient recognition, clearance, processing and antigen
presentation by phagocytic cells of the body .
3. are the result of a molecular lattice formation.
4. can lead to complement fixation and subsequent target cell lysis.
233. DNA translocations in lymphocytes
1. mediate heavy chain class switching.
2. facilitate functional C-region domain formation.
3. provide the mechanism for the vast array of antigen recognition diversity displayed through
the production of virtually limitless antibody specificities.
4. operate on heavy chains and light chains.
234. The major salvage pathway for synthesis of purine nucleotides involves reaction of 5
phosphoribosylpyrophosphate with which compound or compounds listed below?
A. adenosine monophosphate, guanosine monophosphate
B. hypoxanthine, guanine
C. inosine monophosphate
D. glutamine
E. xanthine, uric acid

235. Facilitated diffusion:

A. requires energy in the form of ATP
B. can transport a solute against a concentration gradient
C. is not subject to competitive inhibition
D. displays no specificity
E. displays saturation kinetics

236. Pernicious anemia is caused by:

A. a deficiency of dietary vitamin B12
B. a deficiency of dietary folic acid
C. an excess production of HCl by the parietal cells of the stomach.
D. a deficiency of intrinsic factor.

237. Lead poisoning characteristically leads to inhibition of

A. iron uptake B. ALA dehydratase C. uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase
D. porphobilinogen deaminase E. bilirubin reductase

238. Which one of the following factors is NOT essential for the conversion of prothrombin to
thrombin in the clot cascade?
A. Ca ion B. Factor X C. Phospholipid D. Factor V E. Factor XIII

239. Oxidation of which of the following is coupled to the production of NADPH in the cytoplasm?
A. malic acid B. succinyl-CoA C. phosphatidic acid D. acetoacetic acid
E. malonyl-CoA

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240. The concentration of which of the following proteins would be significantly different in serum
versus plasma samples?
A. haptoglobin B. fibrin C. albumin D. fibrinogen E. immunoglobulin G
241. The intrinsic and extrinsic pathways of blood coagulation converge at the step involving the
conversion of
A. prothrombin to thrombin B. factor X to Factor Xa C. fibrinogen to fibrin
D. vitamin K to gamma-carboxyglutamic acid E. factor XIII to Factor XIIIa
242. The principal lung surfactant is
A. phosphatidylcholine B. phosphatidylinositol C. phosphatidic acid
D. cardiolipin E. sphingomyelin
243. The specific Ca2+ binding protein of the myofibril of skeletal muscle is:
A. actin B. tropomyosin C. troponin D. calmodulin E. myosin
244. The anticoagulant dicoumarol is an antagonist of
A. vitamin E B. ascorbic acid C. vitamin K D. vitamin D E. None of the above.
245. Aspirin exerts its effects on blood clotting by
A. binding to fibrinogen B. activating plasminogen
C. blocking the action of phospholipase D. inhibiting cyclooxygenase
E. stimulating the formation of thrombin
246. Tay-Sachs disease is associated with accumulation of which of the following?
A. cerebroside B. lecithin C. sphingomyelin D. ganglioside E. cephalin
247. Which of the following vitamins (or cofactors) is required for the conversion of serine to
glycine?
A. pyridoxal phosphate B. tetrahydrofolate C. thiamine pyrophosphate D. biotin E. CoA
248. Which enzyme is deficient in the most common form of phenylketonuria?
A. phenylalanine hydroxylase B. tyrosine hydroxylase C. dihydrofolate reductase
D. dihydrobiopterin reductase E. 7 -hydroxylase
249. The following amino acids are non-essential EXCEPT:
A. alanine B. arginine C. glutamic acid D. aspartic acid E. asparagine
250. The following statements about carnitine are true EXCEPT
A. Carnitine is synthesized from lysine B. Carnitine synthesis requires S-adenosyl methionine
C. Carnitine deficiency leads to ketosis D. Carnitine deficiency leads to fatty liver
E. Carnitine deficiency leads to fatty muscles

251. Each base is attached to a pentose via a

A. purine B. 3'- 5' phosphodiester bond C. glycosidic bond

D. deoxyribose E. pyrimidine
252. Which of the following diseases is associated with inactivated mismatch repair enzymes?
A. diphtheria B. thalassemia
C. hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer D. xeroderma pigmentosum
253. The base attached to the 5'-terminal nucleotide is

A. a purine B. thiamine C. niacin D. deoxyribose. E. a pyrimidine

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254. Which of the following is true for rifampicin?
A. interacts with the template
B. prevents initiation of RNA synthesis
C. intercalates into mRNA hairpins
D. prevents elongation only
E. prevents termination only
255. Topoisomerase enzymes are important in the replication of DNA because they
A. covalently join Okazaki fragments
B. relax supercoiled DNA created by helicase action
C. degrade nucleosomal histones
D. proofread newly synthesized DNA
E. synthesize the RNA primer
266. Pernicious anemia is caused by
A. a deficiency of vitamin B12 in the diet
B. a deficiency of folic acid in the diet
C. an excess production of HCl by the parietal cells of the stomach
D. a deficiency of intrinsic factor
E. low serum haptoglobin
267. Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
A. is secreted in response to above normal Ca++ levels in the plasma.
B. is secreted in response to below normal phosphate levels in the plasma.
C. acts on the liver to promote hydroxylation of vitamin D3.
D. acts to raise plasma Ca++ to normal by stimulating Ca++ reabsorption from the kidney tubule.
E. acts to lower plasma Ca++ and phosphate by stimulating absorption from the gut.

FOR EACH OF THE FOLLOWING ANSWER

A. if 1, 2, and 3 are correct
B. if 1 and 3 are correct
C. if 2 and 4 are correct.
D. if only 4 is correct
E. if all four are correct OR incorrect.

268. The oxidative deamination of lysyl residues in collagen

1. generates sites for covalent crosslinks of collagen chains.
2. generates attachment sites for the glycosylation of collagens.
3. occurs extra-cellularly on triple helical collagen chains.
4. requires vitamin C as cofactor.
269. Which of the following laboratory findings are compatible with severe beta-thalassemia major?
1. unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia
2. conjugated hyperbilirubinemia
3. increased urobilinogen in urine
4. bilirubinuria
270. Activation of contraction in smooth muscle by calcium ions requires the action of
1. calmodulin
2. cyclic AMP-dependent protein kinase
3. phosphorylated myosin light chains
4. troponin-tropomyosin complex
271. Bile can be lithogenic (form gall stones) as a result of which of the following?
1. excessive quantity of phospholipids
2. deficient quantity of bile acids
3. deficient quantity of unconjugated bilirubin
4. excessive quantity of cholesterol
272. Coagulation Factor XIIIa brings about
1. activation of Factor XII
2. attachment of prothrombin to platelet membranes
3. activation of Factor XI
4. covalent attachment of adjacent fibrin strands in a fibrin gel.
273. Jaundice associated with a gallstone blocking the bile duct would be expected to be
associated with
1. elevated total serum bilirubin
2. elevated serum bilirubin diglucuronide (direct reacting).
3. elevated alkaline phosphatase
4. elevated urobilinogen levels in the urine.
Page 14 of 15
274. Keratan sulfate
1. has alternating beta-1,3 and beta-1,4 glycosidic linkages
2. contains galactose sulfate.
3. may be attached to its core protein through an N-linkage
4. contains iduronic acid.
275. Which of the following is/are due to production of defective collagen?
1. Hunter’s syndrome
2. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
3. Hurler syndrome
4. Osteogenesis Imperfecta
276. Causes of edema include:
1. loss of albumin in urine resulting from renal disease
2. increased capillary pressure
3. blockage of lymphatics
4. increased plasma oncotic pressure
277. An antibody molecule
1. is a glycoprotein
2. is composed of light and heavy polypeptide chains
3. is synthesized by mature B-lymphocytes
4. possesses a distinctive feature called a paratope.
278. Complement fixation
1. is a consequence of antigen binding by IgD.
2. is an effector function of IgG and IgM, following antigen binding.
3. occurs when IgA binds antigen.
4. results in cell lysis from an enzyme cascade of 11 proteins interacting with the cell
membrane.
279. The humoral immune response is
1. mediated principally through the T-cell antigen receptor.
2. specific because of the paratope recognizing the epitope.
3. requires participation of either one of the class I or class II MHC proteins.
4. abnormal with production of an autoimmune antibody.
280. Plasma cells
1. are the terminal stage of B-cell differentiation.
2. synthesize H-chains, L-chains, J-chains and the secretory piece.
3. cannot divide to produce many more plasma cells.
4. are memory B-cells.
281. Accessory molecules necessary for signal transduction and for complete normal immune
function is/are
1. T3 in cooperation with the antigen receptor by T-cells.
2. class I for recognition of antigen by B-cells.
3. alpha and beta polypeptides in cooperation with the antibody by B-cells.
4. CD4 (or T4) for recognition of antigen by cytotoxic T-cells.

METABOLIC PROCESSES

GLYCOLYSIS
GLYCOGENESIS
GLYCOGENOLYSIS
B-OXIDATION
LIPOLYSIS
LIPOGENESIS
ESTERIFICATION
PENTOSE PHOSPHATE PATHWAY
GLUCONEOGENESIS
KREBS CYCLE
CORI CYCLE
Prepared by:

DR. MARIA DONNABELLE U. DEAN

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