NCM 109 IMCI 7.

In what part of the IMCI guidelines will the health

care provider identify or develop an integrated
MIDTERMS treatment plan? 
a. Counsel
1. Given a yellow classification, the nurse would do
b. Provide Follow-up Care
the following except: 
c. Treat
a. Advice the caregiver how to treat local
d. Classify
infections at home
b. Give oral drugs  Correct answer: Treat
c. Follow up – give specific date 8. Nurse Yahosh is managing a 2-week-old sick
d. Treat the local infection in the health infant with pus on the umbilicus and as part of
center routine assessment, he documents a rectal
temperature of 37.5 C. The nurse would then
 Correct answer: b. Give oral
document this as what classification on his case
drugs
recording form?
2. When assessing all sick infants and children,
a. Very Severe Disease
which of the following are being assessed?
b. Local Bacterial Infection
a. Signs of serious illness and common
c. Severe Disease
health conditions
d. Local Infection Unlikely
b. Signs of Nutritional status and
immunization status  Correct answer: a. Very
c. All except A. Severe Disease
d. Both A and B. 9. In what part of the IMCI guidelines will the health
care provider re-examine conditions to see if the
 Correct answer: Both A and
issues are improving, the same or worsening?
B.
a. Counsel
3. The meaning of IMCI is:
b. Provide Follow-up Care
a. Integrated Management of Childhood
c. Treat
Illness
d. Classify
b. International Management of Childhood
Illnesses  Correct answer: Provide
c. Integrated Management for Childhood Follow-up Care
Illness 10. In the management of childhood illness, the
d. International Management for Childhood usage of good communication skills is essential.
Illness The student nurse is learning these skills
because of the following reasons, except:
 Correct answer: Integrated
a. Helps you get important information or
Management of Childhood
assessment
Illness
b. Helps to reassure the caregiver that
4. The rectal temperature is at 37.5 C and there is
their child will receive good care
a draining pus in the umbilicus of the infant.
c. Helps you counsel and teach a
Upon identifying the classification, what will be
caregiver on care
the first step of management will the nurse follow
d. Helps you support the traditional way of
according to IMCI guidelines?
treating an illness
a. Give first dose of intramuscular
antibiotics.  Correct answer: d. Helps you
b. Give an oral antibiotic. support the traditional way of
c. Advise the mother to give home care. treating an illness
d. Refer the patient to the hospital urgently. 11. Three-year-old Alora was brought by her mother
to the health center for consultation due to
 Correct answer: a. Give first
coughing for 7 days. Upon arrival, the nurse
dose of intramuscular
further assessed the child for fast breathing,
antibiotics.
chest indrawing and abnormal breath sounds.
5. Which of the following signs and symptoms will
Which of the following assessment findings will
not signify a yellow or green classification of the
help the nurse choose a management that
illness?
includes oral antibiotics, safe remedy to soothe
a. Jaundice appearing after 24 hours of
throat, and relieve cough? *
age
a. Coughing for 7 days
b. Restless and irritable
b. Respiratory rate of 36 breaths per
c. Positive serological HIV test in the
minute
young infant
c. Lethargy
d. Skin pinch goes back very slowly
d. Chest indrawing in a calm child
 Correct answer: Skin pinch
 Correct answer: d.
goes back very slowly
12. The APAC process is a reminder of important
6. In caring for a sick child with convulsions at the
communication skills that a nurse should use
time of the initial visit, what is the initial nursing
every time they see a patient and caregiver.
management to be done according to IMCI
Which part of the process will the nurse say,
guidelines?
“How often should you breastfeed your child?”
a. Quickly complete the assessment
a. Ask and Listen
b. Keep the child warm
b. Check understanding
c. Give diazepam injection solution via
c. Praise
rectum through a needleless syringe
d. Advise
d. Urgently refer the patient to a hospital
 Correct answer: Check
 Correct answer: Give
understanding
diazepam injection solution
13. The following cases are part of the limitations of
via rectum through a
using IMCI, except:
needleless syringe
a. Chronic heart diseases
b. Severe Malnutrition
 c. Pneumonia
d. Leukemia
 Correct answer: Pneumonia
14. A nurse will be giving the initial dose of
Ampicillin via intramuscular route to a sick young
infant that has been classified to have a “Very
Severe Disease”. If the Ampicillin preparation is
250 mg/1.5 ml, dosage is 50 mg per kilogram
and the patient’s weight is 3.5 kgs. How many
milliliters of medication will the nurse administer
if the infant needs 183 mg of Ampicillin?
a. 1.0 ml
b. 1.1 ml
c. 1.2 ml
d. 1.5 ml
 Correct answer: b. 1.1 ml
15. Nurse Bie has identified “Pneumonia” as a
classification for a 1-year-old patient who came
to the health center due to coughing and fast
breathing. After giving appropriate nursing
interventions, the nurse would counsel the
mother to come back for a follow up visit. When
will the patient and caregiver comeback if the
initial visit was yesterday, March 23rd?
a. March 29, 2021
b. March 24, 2021
c. March 26, 2021
d. March 25, 2021
 Correct answer: March 26,
2021
16. What is the interval of the administration of
inhaled salbutamol after every 2 puffs?
a. Every 3 minutes
b. Every 10 minutes
c. Every 15 minutes
d. Every 30 minutes
 Correct answer: Every 15
minutes
17. After 6 weeks, the infant will be given
Pentavalent Vaccine 1, all but one are included
in this immunization?
a. Polio immunization
b. Hepatitis B immunization
c. Diphtheria-Pertussis-Tetanus
immunizations
d. Haemophilus influenzae type B
immunization
 Correct answer: Polio
immunization
18. The nurse found out that the mother gives
“Bearbrand” with boiled rice water and
sometimes, coffee as an alternative food aside
from breastmilk to her one-week-old infant. What
would be the best approach of the nurse to the
caregiver?
a. Praise the mother genuinely and
encourage the caregiver to give more
breast milk than rice water with milk
formula.
b. Correct the practice and emphasize that
exclusive breastfeeding should be done
until 6 months from birth.
c. Praise the caregiver and teach the
caregiver proper feeding through a cup.
d. Ask the caregiver good checking
questions on proper breastfeeding.
 Correct answer: Correct the
practice and emphasize that
exclusive breastfeeding
should be done until 6
months from birth.
19. Which of the following assessment findings in a
sick child will the nurse identify being under the
pink classification?
a. Stridor in a calm child
b. Fast breathing
c. Severe chest indrawing
d. Coughing for more than 14 days
 Correct answer: a. Stridor in a
calm child
20. Integrated management on IMCI include:
a. Assessment of signs and symptoms for
patients 6 years old below.
b. Treatment of serious and urgent
conditions with the use of advanced
technology.
c. Provide advice on counseling/follow up
of the patient with severe classifications.
d. Instructions on how to classify the
severity of the condition.
 Correct answer: Instructions
on how to classify the
severity of the condition.
21. The following are main symptoms of the IMCI
case management process for a sick child,
except?
a. Cough and difficulty breathing
b. Immunization Status
c. HIV Status
d. Jaundice
 Correct answer: Jaundice
22. Which part of the IMCI Case management
process will the nurse advise the caregiver to
return to a specific date for a follow up?
a. Provide Follow Up Care
b. Counsel
c. Treat
d. Classify
 Correct answer: Counsel
23. For a 2-year-old patient that needs to be
administered with an ampicillin, which among
the following dosage and frequency is true?
a. 3 ml via IM, once prior to referral
b. 5 ml via IM, once prior to referral
c. 2 ml vial IM, every 6 hours
d. 5 ml via IM, every 6 hours
 Correct answer: 3 ml via IM,
once prior to referral
24. When teaching a mother about cup feeding,
which of the following are true?
i. Put a cloth on the infant’s front to protect his
clothes from spillage.
ii. Hold the infant straight on the lap.
iii. Put a very small amount of milk in the cup.
iv. Hold the cup so that it rests lightly on the
infant’s upper lip.
v. Tip the cup so that the milk just reaches the
infant’s lips.
vi. Allow the infant to take the milk himself.
vii. Try to pour the milk in the infant’s mouth.
a. i, iii, v, vi,
b. i, ii, iv, v, vi
c. i, ii, iii, iv, v, vi, vii
d. i, v, vi
 Correct answer: i, v, vi
25. If the gentamicin ampule contains 40 mg/ml and
it has 2 ml per ampule, how many milligrams of
gentamicin will the nurse administer to the child
if she will inject 1.0ml? *
a. 80 mg
b. 60 mg
c. 40 mg
d. 20 mg
 Correct answer: 40 mg
26. The benefit of using integrated management in
treating childhood illness is a guidance to the
health care provider through comprehensive
 care. The following the key points about the d. “How many teaspoons of cough syrup
guidelines of IMCI, except: will you administer to your child?”
a. The charts helps classify a problem  Correct answer: d. “How
b. The charts identify treatment and tells many teaspoons of cough
where to treat the child syrup will you administer to
c. It helps us assess all children only. your child?”
d. It helps us manage all common causes 32. Which of the following data supports a
of illness and death. classification of “Confirmed HIV Infection”
 Correct answer: It helps us among sick young infants?
assess all children only. a. Mother HIV positive, young infant is not
27. On the other hand, Nurse Kay identified a yet tested
different patient with “Cough and Cold”. After b. Positive serological test in the young
giving home instructions, when will the nurse infant
counsel the caregiver for a follow up visit if the c. Negative HIV test in mother and young
initial visit was Monday, March 22nd? infant
a. March 24, 2021 d. Positive virological test in the young
b. March 25, 2021 infant
c. March 26, 2021  Correct answer: Positive
d. March 29, 2021 virological test in the young
 Correct answer: March 25, infant
2021 33. The following are main symptoms included in the
28. Which of the following instructions to the management of a sick young infant, except for
caregiver about treating umbilical infection is one?
correct? a. Cough and difficulty of breathing
i. Wash hands before and after treatment b. Jaundice
ii. Treatment should be done three times daily c. Diarrhea
for 3 days d. Feeding problem or low weight for age
iii. Gently wash off pus and crusts with soap and  Correct answer: Cough and
water difficulty of breathing
iv. Dry the area after cleaning 34. Which of the following is not included in the pink
v. Treatment should be done twice daily for 5 classification for IMCI?
days a. Advice the caregiver
vi. Apply 70% alcohol to the umbilicus b. Give pre referral treatment
vii. Apply Mupirocin cream BID to the c. Follow up care
umbilicus/cord until dry d. Refer to a patient to a higher level health
a. i, ii, iii, iv, v, vii facility
b. i, ii, iii, iv, v, vi  Correct answer: Follow up
c. i, iii, iv, v, vii care
d. i, iii, iv, v, vi 35. In giving oral Amoxicillin via suspension to a 3-
 Correct answer: i, iii, iv, v, year-old patient with “Pneumonia”, the nurse will
vii administer the following correctly.
29. After greeting the caregiver upon arrival, the a. Amoxicillin Suspension 15 ml BID for 5
following are the true in the next steps of the days
health care provider, except for one: b. Amoxicillin Suspension 10 ml BID for 5
a. Ask the infant/child’s age days
b. Ask for the weight and temperature. c. Amoxicillin Suspension 20 ml BID for 3
c. Ask the child’s problems days
d. Ask if it is initial or a follow up visit d. Amoxicillin Suspension 10 ml BID for 7
 Correct answer: Ask for the days
weight and temperature.  Correct answer: Amoxicillin
30. Which statement is true when giving inhaled Suspension 15 ml BID for 5
salbutamol to a sick child that has wheezing? days
a. Give salbutamol through a metered 36. Mortality is higher in children living in the poorest
dose inhaler. households, in rural areas or with mother that
b. There are 200 micrograms of salbutamol have little education. Which among the following
per puff. factors is not included? *
c. The child must breathe in and out a. Poor access to health facilities
through the nose. b. Continued application of the
d. Wait for three to four breaths before traditional medicine
administering another puff. c. Not enough food from farming
 Correct answer: a. Give d. Lack of proper waste disposal
salbutamol through a  Correct answer: b. Continued
metered dose inhaler. application of the traditional
31. After giving health instructions on a safe remedy medicine (?)
to soothe the throat and relieve cough, which 37. When a caregiver’s concern is on what container
among the phrases indicate the use of good will she be using to measure 1 liter of water for
checking questions? mixing ORS, which statement of the nurse is
a. “Do you remember how to make correct? *
Lagundi syrup/concoction?” a. “Thank you for telling me that but you
b. “Can you tell me the different ways on should only use a one liter container.”
how to safely relieve the cough of your b. “I see your concern. What containers do
child?” you have at home?”
c. “Why is it important for you to wash your c. “Do you have any more concerns?”
hands?”
 d. “I see. Do you understand my
instructions?”
 Correct answer: “I see your
concern. What containers
do you have at home?”
38. After identifying that the sick child has a “Very
Severe Disease”, the nurse would then
administer appropriate antibiotics prior to referral
to a hospital. What is the second line or
alternate drug for this classification?
a. Ampicillin and Gentamicin
b. Amoxicillin
c. Benzyl Penicillin
d. Cotrimoxazole
 Correct answer: a. Ampicillin
and Gentamicin
39. Which of the following is not a reason why IMCI
was created? *
a. Health care providers use state of the
art facilities including radiology
equipment to diagnose multiple
conditions
b. First level health facilities do not have
many diagnostic tools.
c. Health centers have limited medical
supplies and human resources.
d. IMCI integrates case management of
the most common childhood problems
 Correct answer: Health care
providers use state of the
art facilities including
radiology equipment to
diagnose multiple
conditions
40. For this alternate or second line medication for a
"Very Severe Disease" for a sick child, what is
the correct amount of diluent?
a. No diluent needed
b. 2.1 ml of sterile water
c. 5 ml of sterile water
d. 8 ml of sterile water
 Correct answer: 8 ml of sterile
water
41. Among the three basic teaching steps on
teaching a caregiver how to treat a child, which
step is the most important since the nurse will
know what the caregiver understands about the
home instructions?
a. Give information
b. Let caregiver practice
c. Show an example
d. All of the above
 Correct answer: Let caregiver
practice
42. A mother has had problems breastfeeding her
newborn infant, had only 7 breast feedings for
the past 24 hours and thus bringing her infant to
the nearest health center. The nurse then
classifies this as “Feeding Problem”. In teaching
correct positioning and attachment, which of the
following statements from the caregiver will
signify correct teaching from the nurse?
a. “My baby should have slow, deep
sucks and sometimes pausing.”
b. “My baby’s chin should be touching the
areola of my breast.”
c. “My baby’s upper lip should be turned
outwards when sucking.”
d. “My baby’s mouth should be partially
open during sucking.”
 Correct answer: a. “My baby
should have slow, deep
sucks and sometimes
pausing.” (?)
43. Nurse Keon is teaching the mother in preventing
low blood sugar in a conscious young infant with
“Severe Jaundice”. The best way to prevent low
blood sugar is through breastfeeding but the
mother has never produced breast milk even
with an OB doctor’s help. What would be the
nurse’s correct option?
a. Give 20-50 ml of sugar water (four
tablespoons of sugar: 200 ml of clean
water) orally
b. Give 20-40 ml of sugar water (four
teaspoons of sugar: 100 ml of clean
water) via NGT
c. Give 20-50 ml of sugar water (four
teaspoons of sugar: 200 ml of clean
water) orally
d. Give 20-40 ml of sugar water (four
tablespoons: 100 ml of clean water) via
NGT
 Correct answer: Give 20-50 ml
of sugar water (four
teaspoons of sugar: 200 ml
of clean water) orally
44. The following are major preventable causes of
child mortality worldwide, except:
a. Malnutrition
b. Pneumonia
c. Congenital abnormalities
d. Diarrhea
 Correct answer: Congenital
abnormalities
45. Which statement will cause the clinical instructor
to correct the nursing student when it comes to
the overall goal of IMCI?
a. “One of the goals of IMCI is to increase
childhood mortality.”
b. “One of the goals of IMCI is to reduce
how often children are sick.”
c. “One of the goals of IMCI is to decrease
the severity of the illness.”
d. “One of the goals of IMCI is to improve
the growth and development among
children.”
 Correct answer: “One of the
goals of IMCI is to increase
childhood mortality.”
46. Nurse Doc has given oral Amoxicillin to the sick
child with Pneumonia in the RHU and instructed
the mother about its succeeding doses to be
continued at home. He also counseled the
mother to soothe the throat and relieve the
coughing with a safe remedy. Which IMCI
classification did the nurse follow?
a. Red
b. Pink
c. Yellow
d. Green
 Correct answer: Yellow
47. Lola is a mother of a 1-year-old child who is
suffering from difficulty of breathing and
malnutrition. She had finished her high school
degree and is currently living in an urban area.
Her husband works as a construction worker
that makes 350php per day for a family of five
(ages 1, 2 and 3). The father goes to work
walking for how many miles or sometimes, rides
a jeepney, if able. Given the situation above,
which factors affect the health of their 1-year-old
sick child?
i. Below-poverty line household
ii. Educational attainment
iii. Residence
iv. Mother’s education
v. Mode of transportation
 vi. Food insecurity
vii. Lack of basic resources
a. i,ii,iii,iv
b. vii,ii,iii
c. i,iv,vi
d. i, vi, vii
 Correct answer: i, vi, vii
48. All phrases from the caregiver indicates
understanding of the counsel given by the nurse
in giving home care for the young infant, except
for one:
a. “Since my child has low weight for age,
we will come back after 30 days for
follow up.”
b. “I will breastfeed my baby as frequently,
as often as possible and as long as the
infant wants.”
c. “I will make sure that my baby’s head,
feet and body are covered with extra
clothing during cool weather.”
d. “We will come back to the health center
immediately if my baby is breastfeeding
poorly and has a reduced activity.”
 Correct answer: “Since my
child has low weight for
age, we will come back after
30 days for follow up.”
49. A patient has been rushed to the Rural Health
Center due to difficulty of breathing and severe
chest indrawing. The patient has just turned 2
months of age today. The infant suddenly loses
his consciousness. What case recording form
and IMCI chart booklet section will the nurse
use?
a. Management of a Sick Child: Very
Severe Disease
b. Management of a Sick Young Infant:
Very Severe Disease
c. Management of a Sick Child:
Pneumonia
d. Management of a Sick Young Infant:
Local Bacterial Infection
 Correct answer: a.
Management of a Sick
Child: Very Severe Disease
50. Which of the identified cases will the nurse
consider as a general danger sign?
a. A newborn infant 12 hours ago, who
developed jaundice.
b. A 1-month old infant with 50 breaths per
minute.
c. A 3-year-old girl who vomited her last
meal.
d. A 4-year-old boy who refuses to drink
water but would like to eat.
 Correct answer: A newborn
infant 12 hours ago, who
developed jaundice.
FINALS
Scenario #1: Raya is at the rural health unit today
due to diarrhea for 15 days according to her mother.
She is a one year old girl. She weighs 10 kilograms
and her temperature is at 37.7 C at the time of visit.
But according to the mother, her fever has been
going on and off for a week now. The family has no
travel history for the past 3 weeks. Raya does not
have any general danger signs. She does not have
any cough or difficulty breathing. After asking
several questions, the nurse proceeds to assess
Raya for dehydration and finds out that she is
restless and irritable but her eyes are not sunken.
When offered a drink, Raya eagerly drinks it and
consumes it immediately.
 
1. Prior to the assessment of diarrhea, what has been
assessed from the patient according to IMCI
guidelines?
 Fever
 Cough and difficulty of breathing
 General danger signs
 Dysentery
Correct answer: cough and diff
2. What is the classification that the nurse has to write
on her patient’s care recording form according to her
assessments regarding diarrhea?
 Severe Dehydration with severe persistent
diarrhea
 Some Dehydration with persistent diarrhea
 Some Dehydration with severe persistent
diarrhea
 No Dehydration
Correct answer: Some Dehydration with severe
persistent diarrhea
3. What is persistent diarrhea in Raya’s case?
 When a child has several episodes of diarrhea
accompanied by high temperature a day
 When a child frequently has bouts of loose
bowel movements for more than a week with
signs of dehydration
 When a child has an episode of diarrhea
lasting more than two weeks, which may lead
to dehydration and malnutrition
 When a child frequently has diarrhea over a
period of one month, and is ill as a result.
 Correct answer: When a child has an episode of
diarrhea lasting more than two weeks, which may
lead to dehydration and malnutrition
4. When the nurse starts to pinch the skin of the
abdomen for further assessment, the skin goes back
within 1 second. However, if the skin pinch goes
back more than 2 seconds, how will the nurse
interpret these findings?
 Child is not dehydrated.
 Child has Kwashiorkor.
 Child has severe dehydration.
 Child has some dehydration.
Correct answer: Child has severe dehydration.
 
5. In planning for the treatment and management,
which is the nurse’s priority?
 Refer the child immediately for hospital
management.
 Give a measured amount of ORS, monitored
for 4 hours at the health center.
 Start IV fluids immediately in the health center.
 Give zinc supplements and antibiotics as
prescribed.
Correct answer: Give a measured amount of ORS,
monitored for 4 hours at the health center.
 
6. What is the purpose of giving zinc supplements to a
patient with dehydration and diarrhea?
 To reduce the duration and severity of the
diarrhea.
 To treat dehydration and malnutrition.
 To strengthen the child’s immune system
against bacteria.
 To increase the stool output and decrease the
need for hospitalization.
 
Correct answer: To reduce the duration and severity
of the diarrhea
7. As part of the treatment plan, the nurse has to
compute the approximate amount of ORS. What
is the needed amount to be consumed given the
data above?
 200 ml
 500 ml
 750 ml
 960 ml
Correct answer: 750ml
8. When giving health instructions on follow up care,
when would the nurse schedule the follow up
checkup for the child and caregiver when the date of
the initial visit is today, May 20, 2021?
 May 21, 2021
 May 24, 2021
 May 25, 2021
 No follow up checkup at the health center.
Correct answer: May 25, 2021
9. After giving health instructions to the caregiver,
the patient came back the next day saying that
blood in the stool had developed. What is the
drug of choice and the right frequency of this
classification according to the IMCI guidelines?
 Give cotrimoxazole for 5 days.
 Give oral amoxicillin for 5 days.
 Give ciprofloxacin for 3 days.
 No medications required since this is normal for
patients with diarrhea.
Correct answer: Give ciprofloxacin for 3 days.
10. The following are correct statements from the nurse
when instructing caregiver on treating diarrhea at
home, except:
 “Give your child frequent sips of water, ORS or
breastfeed your baby as much as she would
take.”
 “If your child vomits, wait for 5 minutes then
continue giving ORS but this time, more
slowly.”
 “Please give your child 50 to 100 ml of fluids
after each loose stool.”
 “Dissolve one packet of ORS to 250ml of clean
water or according to package instructions”
Correct answer: “If your child vomits, wait for 5
minutes then continue giving ORS but this time,
more slowly.”
Scenario #2: A mother came to the clinic with her 2
years old daughter, Rabiya. The mother said that her
child has been feeling feverish for the past two days.
She cannot get the exact temperature since they did
not have any thermometer at home. Along with the
fever, the nurse noticed the child’s red eyes and
generalized rash. The nurse then assesses the child
for possible malaria, dengue and ear problems.
 
11. In a different scenario, supposing there is no
generalized rash or red eyes on the assessment
findings. When the nurse asks about travel
history or living situation, the mother confidently
says that they did not have any travel history for
the past 3 weeks and there are no cases of
malaria in their area. What would the nurse write
as a classification on the case recording form?
 Malaria
 Measles with eye or mouth complications
 Fever: No Malaria
 Fever
 
Correct answer: Fever
 
12. After several assessments of the nurse, Rabiya’s
temperature via axillary is 39 C. There is no stiff
neck and any form of bleeding. What is the nurse’s
next step upon identifying the classification
according to IMCI guidelines?
 Apply a tepid sponge bath to the child.
 Give one dose of paracetamol in the health
center.
 Give Vitamin A treatment.
 Give appropriate antibiotics.
Correct answer: Give one dose of paracetamol in the
health center.
13. Given the situation above, what classification will
the nurse write on the initial visit case recording
form for patient Rabiya?
 Fever
 Measles
 Measles with eye or mouth complications
 Very severe febrile disease
Correct answer: Very severe febrile disease
 
14. During the treatment plan, the nurse will be giving a
dose of Vitamin A for the child. What is a correct
statement from the nurse?
 “I will not give another dose of Vitamin A to the
patient since she had her recent dosage 4
weeks ago.” 
 “I will give 100,000 IU of Vitamin A since she is
more than 3 years old.”
 “I will not give another dose of Vitamin A to the
patient since she does not have any measles.”
 “I will give 200,000 IU of Vitamin A as part of
the treatment plan.”
Correct answer: “I will give 200,000 IU of Vitamin A
as part of the treatment plan.”
15. With a positive malaria test for Plasmodium
falciparum, the nurse would consider giving anti-
malarial medications as part of the treatment
plan. What is the correct drug combination for
this type of malaria?
 Chloroquine (Day 1 to 3) and primaquine (Day 4)
 Chloroquine (Day 1 to 3) and primaquine (Day 4-
17)
 Artemether-lumefantrine (Day 1 to 3) and
primaquine (Day 4)
 Artemether-lumefantrine (Day 1 to 3) and
chloroquine (Day 4)
Correct answer: Artemether-lumefantrine (Day 1 to 3)
and primaquine (Day 4)
16. On the other hand, if the patient is tested
positive for Plasmodium vivax, the correct drug
combination for this type of malaria?
 Chloroquine (Day 1 to 3) and primaquine (Day 4)
 Chloroquine (Day 1 to 3) and primaquine
(Day 4-17)
 Artemether-lumefantrine (Day 1 to 3) and
primaquine (Day 4)
 Artemether-lumefantrine (Day 1 to 3) and
chloroquine (Day 4)
medical complication present. His palms are paler
than that of the nurse’s palms.
21. With the given situation above, what is the
classification of Georgia’s problem that the nurse
should write on the case recording form?
 Moderate acute malnutrition
 Uncomplicated severe acute malnutrition
 No acute malnutrition
 Complicated severe acute malnutrition
 
Correct answer: Uncomplicated severe acute
malnutrition

Correct answer: Chloroquine (Day 1 to 3) and

primaquine (Day 4-17) 22. Which of the following are part of the nurse’s
  treatment plan?
17. The following are indications that the patient has i. Give the first dose of appropriate antibiotics.
severe dengue hemorrhagic fever, except: ii. Give oral amoxicillin for 5 days 
 Bleeding from the nose or gums iii. Give RUTF if available. 
 Skin petechiae of more than 15 on the iv. Assess for possible TB infection. 
antecubital fossa after a Rumpel-Leede’s test v. Keep the child warm. 
 Capillary refill of more than 3 seconds vi. Treat the child to prevent low blood sugar.  
 Persistent vomiting vii. Follow up in 30 days. 
viii. Give feeding recommendations.  
Correct answer: Skin petechiae of more than 15 on ix. Give micronutrient powder supplement.
the antecubital fossa after a Rumpel-Leede’s test x. Refer urgently to the hospital
   ii, iii, iv, vii
18. The following statements from the caregiver  i, v, vi, x
need correction from the nurse regarding health  ii, iii, iv
teachings on dengue hemorrhagic fever,  ii, iv, viii, ix, vi
except?
 “I will follow up in 5 days if my child’s fever Correct answer: ii, iii, iv
persists or there are signs of bleeding.”
 “When my child’s temperature is 38. 5 C or
above, I could give aspirin to reduce pain and 23. Which criterion belongs to the classification of
fever.” “No acute malnutrition”?
 “I will give an oral rehydration solution to  WFL between -3 and -2 z-scores
prevent dehydration.”  MUAC of 130mm 
 “It is okay to give chocolate prevent  MUAC of 120 and was able to finish RUTF
hypoglycemia and green leafy vegetables to portion
strengthen the immune system.”  WFH of less than -3 z-score
 
Correct answer: “I will give an oral rehydration Correct answer: MUAC of 130mm 
solution to prevent dehydration.”
 
19. When assessing the patient for ear problems,
24. Georgia shows clinical signs of marasmus,
the nurse knows that an ear infection reported
which of the following is not a sign of this
for less than two weeks is called?
condition?
 Acute ear infection
 Extremely thin body
 Mastoiditis
 Distented belly
 Chronic ear infection
 Swelling of ankles and feet
 Middle ear infection
 Lack of fat on buttocks and arms
 
Correct answer: Acute ear infection
Correct answer: Swelling of ankles and feet

20. What is the appropriate antibiotic for this type of

25. If the mid-upper arm circumference is 110cm,
ear infection on a 2-year-old child?
what does this finding tell the nurse?
 Cotrimoxazole 2.5ml BID for 3 days
 Georgia has severe acute malnutrition.
 Ciprofloxacin 500mg BID for 3 days
 Georgia is healthy.
 Amoxicillin 10ml BID for 5 days
 Georgia has moderate acute malnutrition and
 Ampicillin Sodium 3ml and Gentamicin 2.0 ml via
needs advice on feeding recommendations.
IM route, one dose each
 Georgia should be referred urgently to a
hospital.
Correct answer: Amoxicillin 10ml BID for 5 days
 
Correct answer: Georgia has severe acute
Scenario #3: Georgia is a 10-month-old child with a
malnutrition.
weight of 8 kilograms and a length of 85 cm. His
temperature via axillary is 37 C. There is no bipedal
edema, WFL z-score is -3, the mid upper arm
circumference is 110cm. During the appetite test, he
was able to finish ¾ of the RUTF. There is no
 26. With Georgia’s findings on the palmar pallor, her
additional classification to be written in the case
recording form is identified as:
 No anemia
 Anemia
 Severe anemia
 None of the above
Correct answer: Anemia
27. Upon identifying the classification of palmar
pallor, what should be part of the treatment plan
of the nurse?
 Refer the patient urgently to the hospital.
 Give iron and anti-helminthic medication.
 Advise the caregiver on feeding
recommendations.
 No treatment plan needed.
 
Correct answer: Give iron and anti-helminthic
medication.
28. One of the causes of anemia is the presence
parasites including hookworms or whipworms.
As part of the treatment plan, health care
providers give specific medications for these
cases. Which statement is true when giving this
medication?
 Give oral quinine 300 mg as a single dose.
 Give mebendazole 500mg as a single dose.
 Give tetracycline ointment four times daily.
 Give ferrous fumarate 100mg once daily.
 
Correct answer: Give mebendazole 500mg as a
single dose.
29. How many days will the nurse instruct the
caregiver in giving iron supplements to a patient
with uncomplicated severe acute malnutrition?
 14 days
 30 days
 7 days
 Not anymore since the patient is receiving
RUTF.
Correct answer: Not anymore since the patient is
receiving RUTF.
30. Which is true in the following health instructions
from a nurse about micronutrient powder?
 MNP is given before meals to enhance
absorption.
 Add MNP to food before and during cooking.
 MNP is given to children 3 months and up.
 Mix MNP into complementary food before
feeding.
Correct answer: Mix MNP into complementary food
before feeding.
Scenario #4: Alex was born a month ago from an HIV
positive mother. A serological test has been done to
the baby with a positive result. Since the mother has
been on antiretroviral treatment medications for
months, she chose to exclusively breastfeed Alex.
31. On the initial follow up at the health center, what
diagnosis will the nurse write on the case
recording form for baby Alex?
 Confirmed HIV infection
 HIV exposed
 HIV infection
 HIV infection unlikely
Correct answer: HIV exposed
32. With the knowledge of mother-to-child-
transmission (MTCT), what is the overall risk of
a mother transmitting HIV to her child during
breastfeeding if nothing has been done to
prevent HIV transmission including ART
prophylaxis?
 35%
 20%
 15%
 7%
 
Correct answer: 15%
33. To ensure that Alex is either a confirmed HIV
infected or an HIV negative, what would the
nurse do if there are no available HIV PCR
tests?
 Instruct the mother to stop breastfeeding for 6
weeks before a repeat serological test.
 Instruct the mother to continue breastfeeding
and repeat serological test after 18 weeks.
 Repeat serological test immediately.
 Give ART treatment regardless of the result.

Correct answer:
34. The following prophylaxis will be part of the
management plan for Alex, except?
 Ciprofloxacin 
 Nevirapine and Zidovudine
 Isoniazid
 Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
 
Correct answer: Ciprofloxacin 
35. Which of the following classification and age
qualifies for antibiotic prophylaxis to start as
soon as possible?
 6 years of age
 a 1 month old, confirmed HIV infection
 2 years old, HIV Exposed
 3 years old , confirmed HIV infection
 
Correct answer: 2 years old, HIV Exposed
36. If Alex had been confirmed infected with HIV,
how will she take an anti-tuberculosis
prophylaxis if her weight is 5 kilograms?
 300mg for 12 months
 100mg for 6 months
 50 mg for 6 months
 30 mg for 12 months
Correct answer: 50 mg for 6 months

37. According to WHO Pediatric Staging for HIV
Infection, when a patient develops enlarged liver
or spleen and recurrent sinusitis, ear infection
and tonsillitis, what stage will we consider these
clinical signs?
 Asymptomatic
 Mild Disease
 Moderate Disease
 Severe Disease/AIDS
Correct answer: Mild Disease
38. How would the nurse counsel Alex’s mother with
regards to recommended feeding practice if the
child has not yet been confirmed with HIV
infection?
 Exclusive breastfeeding until 12 months of life
 Breastfeeding and also formula feeding, in order
to provide additional nutrition
 Commercial infant formula only to avoid HIV
transmission
 Exclusive breastfeeding for a 6 weeks
Correct answer:   At 10 weeks
39. Which of the following statements regarding HIV
is true?
 HIV attacks CD5 cells and uses it to replicate.
 HIV can usually weaken or destroy the immune
system much for rapidly in adults than in
children.
 Exclusive breastfeeding increases the risk of
HIV transmission.
 HIV is considered to have progressed to
AIDS when serious sicknesses occur.
Correct answer: HIV is considered to have
progressed to AIDS when serious sicknesses occur.
40. When does a child eligible for ART treatment?
 Positive serological test in a 3-year-old child.
 Negative virological test in a 2-year-old child.
 Negative HIV tests in a 4-year-old child.
 No tests available yet for the child.
Correct answer: Positive serological test in a 3-year-
old child.
Care of a Well-Child
41. How often should infants/children below 6
months old breastfeed?
 At least 10 times in 48 hours
 At least 6 times in 24 hours
 At least 12 times in 48 hours
 At least 8 times in 24 hours
 
Correct answer: At least 8 times in 24 hours
 
42. Which of the following situations need
counseling from a health care provider to
address feeding problems?
 Mother feeds 2-month-old child breastmilk
from a cup.
 Mother feeds mashed potatoes with
breastmilk to her 5-month-old child.
 Mother gives 18 months old child his own
serving of food during dinner time.
 Mother hears slow, deep sucks from her child
who is breastfeeding.
Correct answer: Mother feeds mashed potatoes with
breastmilk to her 5-month-old child.
 
43. The nurse assesses the vaccination status of a
7-week-old child who visited the health center.
She then asks for the child health book from the
mother. As she compares the child’s vaccination
record and the recommended schedule, she
notices that there are vaccinations not yet given
except for the initial vaccination given at birth.
What will the nurse administer at this time?
 Measles Vaccine
 BCG and Hepatitis B vaccines
 Pentavalent 1, PCV 1, Rotavirus 1 and OPV 1
 Pentavalent 2, PCV 2, Rotavirus 2 and OPV 2
Correct answer: Pentavalent 1, PCV 1, Rotavirus 1
and OPV 1
 
44. When will the nurse administer measles vaccine
to a child?
 At birth
 At 9 months
 At 14 weeks
Correct answer: At 9 months
45. The following children are not qualified to
receive routine/specific immunizations, except:
 A child who is known to have AIDS scheduled
for BCG
 A child with uncomplicated severe acute
malnutrition.
 A child who had convulsions a day after the first
dose of Pentavalent vaccine.
 A child who has active neurological disease like
epilepsy
Correct answer:
46. Which of the following nurse’s action should be
corrected?
 The nurse gives Vitamin A supplementation
to a 4-month-old child.
 The nurse administers 200,000 IU Vitamin A to a
2-year-old sick child.
 The nurse gives another dose of Vitamin A to a
child with measles who was given 6 weeks ago.
 The nurse administers 100,000 IU Vitamin A to a
9-month-old with dysentery.
Correct answer: The nurse gives Vitamin A
supplementation to a 4-month-old child.
 
47. As part of the care of well children, health care
providers should give counseling regarding
prevention of childhood accidents. The following
statements of the caregiver indicate
understanding, except for one?
“I will not let my 4-year-old child caretaking my 1-year-
old child when I am away for a while.”
“I will watch my children closely whenever they swim in
their inflatable pool.”
“I can hold my infant while I am cooking.”
“I will not let my children get medications for their
grandmother’s use.”
Correct answer: “I can hold my infant while I am
cooking.”
 
48. Another aspect that we asses on a well-child is
their growth and development. Which defines
child growth?
 Gradual unfolding of capacities including
learning how to walk and talk.
 Increase in physical size, composition and
distribution of tissue.
 The capacity to explore things around them
 Learning how to communicate interests and
needs
Correct answer: Increase in physical size,
composition and distribution of tissue.
 
49. The following are used to measure child growth,
except:
 Weight-for-age
 Length/height-for-age
 Weight-for-length/height
 Mid-upper arm circumference
 
Correct answer: Mid-upper arm circumference
 
50. What situation will the nurse use “length” as a
measurement to a child being assessed for
growth?
 A 3-year-old child with some dehydration.
 A 5-year-old child with pneumonia
 A 4-year-old child with severe muscle
wasting and cannot stand alone.
 A 2-year-old child who can stand by himself
independently.
Correct answer: A 4-year-old child with severe
muscle wasting and cannot stand alone.
 
NCM 109 Lab (Myrtle and Leahbonds)
1. The nurse explains to new parents that infants
are at greater risk for fluid and electrolyte
imbalance than older children. Which parent
comment would indicate that further education is
needed?
a. "Compared to an adult, an infant has
little body water for reserve."
b. "Infants maintain their temperature by
losing heat through their heads."
c. "Infants have a higher metabolic rate
than older children do."
d. "Infants lose water through their skin,
and they have a larger proportion of skin
surface area than older children do."
 Correct answer: b. "Infants
maintain their temperature
by losing heat through their
heads."
2. A parent asks the nurse why her children get
fewer ear infections as they grow older. The
nurse bases on her answer on which aspects of
the infant's Eustachian tube?
a. It is shorter, wider, and more horizontal
than an older child's Eustachian tube.
b. It is shorter, wider, and more diagonal
than an older child's Eustachian tube.
c. It is shorter, narrower, and more
diagonal than an older child's
Eustachian tube.
d. It is shorter, narrower, and more
horizontal than an older child's
Eustachian tube.
 Correct answer: a. It is
shorter, wider, and more
horizontal than an older
child's Eustachian tube.
3. An infant has acute otitis media. Which would be
the most important instruction for the nurse to
teach the parents?
a. Administer acetaminophen to relieve
discomfort.
b. Keep the baby in a flat position during
sleep.
c. Administer a decongestant.
d. Place the baby to sleep with a pacifier.
 Correct answer: a. Administer
acetaminophen to relieve
discomfort.
4. An 8-year-old child is diagnosed with viral
pneumonia and sent home from the clinic with
no antibiotic prescription. The symptoms
worsen, and the child returns to the clinic a week
later with signs of a higher fever, listlessness,
and a harsh, productive cough. The child's
mother states, "I knew a prescription for
antibiotics was needed." Which response by the
nurse is the most appropriate?
a. "It is better to wait to make sure so we
don't use antibiotics unnecessarily. This
approach also saves healthcare dollars.”
b. "Antibiotics are not effective for viral
pneumonia. Bacteria can grow later in
the course of the illness, requiring the
need for antibiotics at that time."
c. "You do not want to expose your child to
medication unnecessarily. Now it is
necessary, because it is bacterial
pneumonia."
d. "Sometimes we just do not know. I'm
glad you came back in."
 Correct answer: b.
"Antibiotics are not
effective for viral
pneumonia. Bacteria can
grow later in the course of
the illness, requiring the
need for antibiotics at that
time."
5. A child is diagnosed with severe combined
immunodeficiency deficiency syndrome. The
nurse's priority interventions are directed toward
which objective?
a. Prevention of infection
b. Maintenance of skin integrity
c. Management of body image concerns
d. Maintenance of cardiac function
 Correct answer: a. Prevention
of infection
6. A patient at 36 weeks gestation is admitted to
the labor and birth unit. Her chief complaint is
abdominal cramping with a sudden gush of clear
fluid. What is the priority nursing diagnosis for
this prenatal patient?
a. Risk for ineffective coping related to
unknown outcome of pregnancy.
b. Knowledge deficit related to unfamiliarity
with loss of vaginal fluids.
c. Risk for infection related to premature
rupture of membranes.
d. Impaired physical mobility related to
strict bed rest.
 Correct answer: c. Risk for
infection related to
 premature rupture of
membranes.
7. A prenatal patient at 16 weeks gestation
presents to the clinic with unexplained, bright red
bleeding, cramping, and backache for the past
two days. A pelvic exam reveals a closed cervix.
What type of abortion does this indicate?
a. Imminent
b. Missed
c. Threatened
d. Incomplete
 Correct answer: c. Threatened
8. The patient asks for information about ectopic
pregnancy. The nurse correctly responds by
saying ectopic pregnancy is caused by: (Select
all that apply.)
a. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
b. Endometriosis
c. Presence of an IUD
d. History of previous ectopic pregnancy
 Correct answer:
 Pelvic inflammatory disease
(PID)
 Endometriosis
 Presence of an IUD
 History of previous ectopic
pregnancy
9. The nurse is caring for a laboring patient with
Type I diabetes. What signs and symptoms
would the nurse assess if hypoglycemia was
suspected?
a. Headache and anorexia
b. Dry skin and blurred vision
c. Frequent urination and headache
d. Diaphoresis and disorientation
 Correct answer: d.
Diaphoresis and
disorientation
10. The nurse is providing prenatal care to an
asymptomatic HIV-infected patient. Which
nursing intervention should take priority?
a. Taking her temperature
b. Performing a hearing test
c. Performing a vision test
d. Assessing reflexes
 Correct answer: a. Taking her
temperature
11. During delivery of a first twin, a very tight nuchal
cord is reduced from the baby’s neck by
clamping and dividing it. After this, the second
twin (as yet unborn) develops several fetal
distress. Of the following, what is the most likely
mechanism for the distress in the second twin?
a. A twin-to-twin transfusion before birth
b. The second twin may no longer be
connected to its placenta
c. Placenta previa in the second twin
d. Amniotic fluid embolism
e. Uterine rupture
 Correct answer: b. The
second twin may no longer
be connected to its placenta
12. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) occurs in
women because of which of the following   disease
characteristics of the fallopian tube?
a. It is a conduit from the peritoneal space
to the uterine cavity
b. It is found in the utero-ovarian ligament
c. It has five separate parts
d. It is attached to the ipsilateral ovary by
the mesosalpinx
e. It is entirely extraperitoneal
 Correct answer: a. It is a
conduit from the peritoneal
space to the uterine cavity
13. A 47-year-old G0P0 patient presents with history
of irregular menses, infertility, and currently
increasingly heavy bleeding when it occurs. Her
examination is remarkable for obesity, mild
hypertension, and a clinical finding consistent
with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS). An
endometrial biopsy is done and shows
endometrial hyperplasia. Which of the following
is its best histological description?
a. Endometrial glands scattered throughout
an atrophic-appearing uterine muscle
b. Increased number of glands with a piling
up of their cells and decreased
intervening stroma
c. Tightly spiraled endometrial glands with
eosinophilic cytoplasm surrounding the
arterioles
d. Tortuous glands with a loose,
edematous stroma
e. Endometrial glands surrounding a
fibrovascular stroma, often with a
characteristic central blood vessel
 Correct answer: b. Increased
number of glands with a
piling up of their cells and
decreased intervening
stroma
14. Which of the following pathologic features is
most helpful in distinguishing complete
hydatidiform mole from normal placenta?
a. Trophoblastic proliferation
b. Absence of blood vessels
c. Hydropic degeneration of villi
d. Cellular atypia
e. Sex chromatin positivity
 Correct answer: b. Absence
of blood vessels
15. During a pelvic examination on a patient that is
approximately 8 weeks’ gestation by dates and
pelvic examination, one adnexa is found to be
slightly enlarged. This is most commonly due to
which of the following?
a. Corpus luteum cyst
b. Ectopic pregnancy
c. Follicular cyst
d. Ovarian neoplasm
e. Parovarian cyst
 Correct answer: a. Corpus
luteum cyst
16. What is a child’s classification if he is 10 months
old, has had a cough that lasted two days, has a
breathing rate of 46 breaths per minute and
chest indrawing?
a. No pneumonia: cough or cold
b. Pneumonia
c. Severe pneumonia or very severe
disease
d. Cough, diarrhea, fever, ear problem
 Correct answer: c. Severe
pneumonia or very severe
17. A 3-year-old child has fever and diarrhea. He
has no danger signs and he does not have a
cough or difficult breathing. The child has had
diarrhea for 2 weeks and there is no blood in
stool. The child is restless and irritable, but is not
drinking eagerly. His eyes are not sunken. A skin
pinch goes back slowly. He does not have an
ear problem. The child’s diarrhea should be
classified as (select all that apply)
a. No dehydration
 b. Some dehydration
c. Severe dehydration
d. Severe persistent diarrhea
 Correct answer:
 b. Some dehydration
 d. Severe persistent diarrhea
18. Feeding should be assessed in a child who
(select all that apply):
a. Need urgent referral
b. Is less than 2 years old
c. Is classified as having anemia, very low
weight and or growth faltering
d. Is classified as having persistent
diarrhea
 Correct answer:
 b. Is less than 2 years old
 c. Is classified as having
anemia, very low weight and
or growth faltering
19. When a mother is advised to return to a health
worker for her child, it is necessary to tell her
when to return for a follow-up visit and when to
return immediately. When to return for a follow-
up visit depends on the child’s classification; for
example, in case of acute ear infection child
needs to return in 5 days. The mother needs to
return to the clinic immediately if her child (select
all that apply):
a. Is drinking eagerly
b. Is not able to drink or breastfeed
c. Develops fever
d. Is coughing often
e. Becomes sicker
 Correct answer:
 b. Is not able to drink or
breastfeed
 c. Develops fever
 e. Becomes sicker
20. If a child has had ear pain and pus draining from
the ear for 10 days, and no tender swelling
behind the ear, you will classify this child as
having:
a. Acute ear infection
b. Chronic ear infection
c. Mastoiditis
d. Not enough signs to classify this child
 Correct answer: a. Acute ear
infection
21. Early detection of an ectopic pregnancy is
paramount in preventing a life- threatening
rupture.  Which symptoms should alert the nurse
to the possibility of an ectopic pregnancy?
a. abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding ad
positive pregnancy test
b. hyperemesis and weight loss
c. amenorrhea and negative pregnancy
test
d. copious discharge of clear mucus and
prolonged epigastric pain
 Correct answer: a. abdominal
pain, vaginal bleeding ad
positive pregnancy test
22. All are the possible causes of ectopic
pregnancy, except?
a. history of surgery
b. history of PID
c. light vaginal bleeding
d. congenital abnormality of fallopian tube
 Correct answer: c. light
vaginal bleeding
23. You are taking care of a client who is 35 weeks
pregnant experiencing bleedinf caused by
placenta previa. You monitored the fetal heart
sound, and it is normal, the client is not in labor.
Which nursing intervention should the nurse
perform?
a. Monitor the amount of vaginal blood
loss.
b. Allow the client to ambulate with
assistance.
c. Perform a vaginal examination to check
for cervical dilation.
d. Notify the physician.
 Correct answer: a. Monitor
the amount of vaginal blood
loss.
24. A nurse is caring for a client whose membranes
ruptured prematurely 12 hours ago. When
assessing this client, the nurse’s highest priority
is to evaluate?
a. Cervical effacement and dilation.
b. White blood cell count.
c. Maternal vital signs and fetal heart rate.
d. Frequency and duration of contraction.
 Correct answer: c. Maternal
vital signs and fetal heart
rate.
25. A nurse is providing care for a client who is
diagnosed with a marginal abruptio placentae.
The nurse is aware that which of the following
findings are the risk factors for developing the
condition? Select all that apply.
a. Fetal position
b. Cocaine use
c. Blunt abdominal trauma
d. cigarette smoking
 Correct answer:
 b. Cocaine use
 c. Blunt abdominal trauma
 d. cigarette smoking
26. A nurse is caring for a client that is at 36 weeks
of gestation with suspected placenta previa.
Which of the following manifestation should the
nurse expect?
a. abdominal pain with scanty red vaginal
bleeding
b. increasing abdominal pain with a non-
relaxed uterus.
c. painless red vaginal bleeding
d. intermittent abdominal pain following
passage of bloody mucus.
 Correct answer: c. painless
red vaginal bleeding
27. The nurse is assessing a multigravida, 36 weeks
gestation for symptoms of pregnancy- induced
hypertension and preeclampsia. The nurse
should give priority to assessing the client for?
a. facial swelling
b. pulse deficits
c. ankle edema
d. diminished reflexes
 Correct answer: a. facial
swelling
28. The nurse is caring for a client receiving
intravenous magnesium sulfate must closely
observe for side effects associated with drug
therapy. An expected side effect of magnesium
sulfate is:
a. decreased urinary output.
b. hot flashes and episode of sleepiness
c. absence of knee jerk reflex
d. decreased respiratory rate.
 Correct answer: b. hot flashes
and episode of sleepiness
29. The client with preeclampsia is admitted to your
unit with an order for magnesium sulfate. Which
action by the nurse indicates understanding of
the possible side effects of magnesium sulfate.
 a. the nurse places a sign over the bed not
to check blood pressure in the right arm.
b. the nurse places a padded tongue blade
at the bedside.
c. the nurse inserts a foley catheter.
d. the nurse darkens the room.
 Correct answer: c. the nurse
inserts a foley catheter.
30. A woman, who is 22 weeks pregnant, has a
routine ultrasound performed. The ultrasound
shows that the placenta is located at the edge of
the cervical opening. As the nurse you know that
which statements is False about the finding.
a. this is known as the marginal placenta
previa.
b. the placenta may move upward as the
pregnancy progresses and needs to be
re-evaluated with another ultrasound at
about 32 weeks gestation.
c. the patient will need to have a c-section
and cannot deliver vaginally.
d. the woman should report any bleeding
immediately to the doctor.
 Correct answer: c. the patient
will need to have a c-section
and cannot deliver
vaginally.
31. Which of the following would the nurse have
readily available for a client who is receiving
magnesium sulfate to treat severe
preeclampsia?
a. Potassium chloride
b. Calcium gluconate
c. Ferrous sulfate
d. Calcium carbonate
e. None of the above
 Correct answer: b. Calcium
gluconate
32. Your patient just gave birth to a baby. She was
diagnosed with gestational diabetes throughout
her pregnancy. She has now normal blood
glucose levels. When should the patient first
follow-up with her physician for blood glucose
testing?
a. 1-3 years
b. 6-12 weeks postpartum
c. 1 year postpartum
d. Not applicable since this condition has
resolved and only occurs during
pregnancy
e. None of the above
 Correct answer: b. 6-12 weeks
postpartum
33. A client with preeclampsia is being treated with
bed rest and intravenous magnesium sulfate.
The drug classification of this medication is a:
a. diuretic
b. tocolytic
c. anticonvulsant
d. antihypertensive
e. None of the above
 Correct answer: c.
anticonvulsant
34. A woman with severe preeclampsia is receiving
a magnesium sulfate infusion. The nurse
becomes concerned after assessment when the
woman exhibits:
a. a sleepy, sedated affect.
b. a respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min.
c. deep tendon reflexes of 2+
d. absent ankle clonus.
 Correct answer: b. a
respiratory rate of 10
breaths/min.
35. You are doing your patient education with your
clinical instructor in the OB ward about
Gestational diabetes. You discuss the role of
insulin in the body. Select all the CORRECT
statements that you are going to tell the patients
about the role of insulin in the body.
a. “Insulin is a type of cell that provides
glucose to the body from the blood.”
b. “Insulin is a hormone secreted by the
beta cells of the pancreas.”
c. “Insulin influences cells by causing them
to uptake glucose from the blood.”
d. "Insulin is a protein that helps carry
glucose into the cell for energy."
 Correct answer: c. “Insulin
influences cells by causing
them to uptake glucose
from the blood.”
36. The physician is considering HIV to patient X.
You are aware that the screening test for HIV?
a. Viral load
b. Viral culture
c. ELISA
d. CD4/CD8 count
 Correct answer: c. ELISA
37. Your client diagnosed with AIDS understands
her illness when she tells you:
a. I need to eat yogurt every day to provide
needed calcium for my bones.
b. I should peel and cook fruits before
eating them.
c. I can enjoy foods from the salad bar at
my local restaurant.
d. I might have to floss my teeth more
often to prevent gum disease.
 Correct answer: b. I should
peel and cook fruits before
eating them.
38. Which of the following movements of the lower
chest describes chest indrawing?
a. Inward movement during inspiration
b. Inward movement during expiration
c. Outward movement during inspiration
d. Outward movement during expiration
 Correct answer: a. Inward
movement during
inspiration
39. What is "fast breathing" in a 3-month-old child?
a. 20 breaths per minute or more
b. 30 breaths per minute or more
c. 40 breaths per minute or more
d. 50 breaths per minute or more
 Correct answer: d. 50 breaths
per minute or more
40. Which of the following signs are "general danger
signs" in a sick child who is 11 months old?
a. Axillary temperature ≥ 39.0°C
b. Lethargy
c. Blood in the stool
d. 10 loose, watery stools in a single day
 Correct answer: b. Lethargy
41. This essential vitamin during pregnancy is
critical in the absorption, distribution and storage
of Calcium.
a. Vitamin C
b. Vitamin D
c. Ferrous Sulfate
d. Iron
 Correct answer: b. Vitamin D
42. Excessive nutrition during pregnancy can result
in:
a. Fetal Macrosomia and Post-partum
Weight Retention
b. Fetal Defects
 c. Fetal Microsomia minerals are needed and responsible for fetal
d. Fetal Death bone and teeth formation?
 Correct answer: a. Fetal a. Iron and Folic Acid
Macrosomia and Post- b. Calcium and Phosphorous
partum Weight Retention c. Vitamin D and E
43. You can classify that a child aged 2 years has d. Sodium and Potassium
fast breathing if he has a respiratory rate of  Correct answer: b. Calcium
a. 60 bpm or more and Phosphorous
b. 50 bpm or more 50. Which of the following statements best describes
c. 40 bpm or more hyperemesis gravidarum?
d. Any of the above a. Severe anemia leading to electrolyte,
 Correct answer: c. 40 bpm or metabolic and nutritional imbalances in
more the absence of other medical problems
44. What is a child’s classification if he is 10 months b. Severe nausea and vomiting leading to
old, has had a cough that lasted two days, has a electrolyte, metabolic and nutritional
breathing rate of 46 breaths per minute and imbalances in the absence of other
chest indrawing? medical problems
a. no pneumonia: cough or cold c. Loss of appetite and continuous
b. pneumonia vomiting that commonly results in
c. severe pneumonia or very severe dehydration and ultimately decreasing
disease maternal nutrients
d. very severe febrile disease d. Severe nausea and diarrhea that can
 Correct answer: c. severe cause gastrointestinal irritation and
pneumonia or very severe possibly internal bleeding
disease  Correct answer: b. Severe
45. Where can the IMCI case management nausea and vomiting
guidelines be used? leading to electrolyte,
a. in the inpatient ward of a hospital metabolic and nutritional
b. in a neonatal ward imbalances in the absence
c. in the outpatient ward of a hospital and of other medical problems
first-level health facilities 51. To ensure efficient workflow of the clinic and
d. at the household level maximize available expertise, which task should
 Correct answer: c. in the be assigned to the experienced Licensed
outpatient ward of a Practical Nurse (LPN)?
hospital and first-level a. Perform triage for walk-in clients.
health facilities b. Perform physical assessment of walk-in
46. If a child has measles now or has had it within clients.
the last three months, and has fever and any c. Give routine immunizations.
general danger sign, he or she will be classified d. Obtain weight and height
as having: measurements.
a. Uncomplicated malaria  Correct answer: c. Give
b. severe complicated measles; very routine immunizations.
severe febrile disease or severe malaria 52. A mother brings her 12-month-old child to the
c. measles with eye or mouth complication clinic for an influenza vaccination. The RN tells
d. measles the mother that the child is also due for doses of
 Correct answer: b. severe measles-mumps-rubella, varicella, and hepatitis
complicated measles; very A vaccines. The mother declines the nurse's
severe febrile disease or advice because “he has already had enough of
severe malaria those.” What is the priority action?
47. A child with fever plus any general danger sign a. Encourage a follow-up appointment and
should be classified as: notify Child Protective Services.
a. uncomplicated malaria b. Assess the mother's concerns and
b. acute ear infection current level of knowledge about
c. measles immunization.
d. very severe febrile disease or severe c. Emphasize the benefits of immunization;
malaria explain the purpose and schedule.
e. mastoiditis d. Respect the mother's decision and alert
 Correct answer: d. very the pediatrician to the situation.
severe febrile disease or  Correct answer: Assess the
severe malaria mother's concerns and
48. Your patient with a preeclampsia (severe) is current level of knowledge
admitted with BP 170/100, with proteinuria, with about immunization.
severe pitting edema Grade III. Which of the 53. A 9-month-old child arrives at the health center
following you would include in making your with his mother for immunizations. The child is
patient’s plan of care? fussy with rhinorrhea and has an axillary
a. Daily weights temperature of 100.4°F (38°C). The pediatrician
b. Right lateral positioning has determined that the child has
c. Seizure precautions nasopharyngitis. What is the priority action?
d. Stress reduction a. Administer half of the immunizations and
 Correct answer: c. Seizure reschedule a subsequent appointment
precautions for the other half.
49. For the nutritional needs of a pregnant woman b. Advise the mother that fever is a
for her growing fetus, which of the following contraindication for immunization and
reschedule the appointment.
 c. Administer acetaminophen to reduce
fever and apply an anesthetic cream to
the injection site.
d. Advise the mother that the child will
likely need an antibiotic and reschedule
the appointment.
 Correct answer: Administer
acetaminophen to reduce
fever and apply an
anesthetic cream to the
injection site.
54. A parent calls in for advice because her 18-
month-old toddler has stumbled and bumped his
head on the coffee table. Which symptom is
cause for the greatest concern?
a. A swelling the size of a golf ball that is
tender to the touch
b. Two episodes of vomiting a small
amount of undigested food
c. Continuous crying for 2 hours,
unrelieved by familiar comfort measures
d. Gaping 1.5-inch (4-cm) laceration on the
forehead, with bleeding controlled by
pressure
 Correct answer: Continuous
crying for 2 hours,
unrelieved by familiar
comfort measures
55. A parent calls in for advice because “Missy is 5
years old, and she just won’t sleep in her own
bed. For the past 4 months, she wakes and
comes to sleep with me and my husband. She
cries and cries if we take her back to her own
room.” What is the priority action?
a. Send the mother a brochure of things
she can try to assist the child to sleep
independently.
b. Advise the mother that this is a normal
behavior that will eventually pass with
time.
c. Suggest that the child be put back into
her own bed and allowed to cry herself
to sleep.
d. Schedule an appointment with the APN
student for assessment and
management.
 Correct answer: Advise the
mother that this is a normal
behavior that will eventually
pass with time.
56. Six-year-old Billy woke last night with dyspnea,
restlessness, wheezing, and cough. Mother and
child spent the night in a reclining chair. His
mother declares, “He is having an asthma
attack. We are both exhausted. I’m tired of
waiting forever to see the doctor!” What is the
priority nursing concern?
a. Billy's poor sleep quality and
restlessness
b. Billy's ongoing shortness of breath
c. Mother's report of feeling exhausted
d. Mother's frustration with health care
system
 Correct answer: Billy's
ongoing shortness of
breath
57. As the nurse approaches Billy, which
presentation would be of most concern and
require immediate intervention?
a. Alert and irritable, lying recumbent on
the examination table
b. Awake and nervous, sitting upright and
crying, skin pale and dry
c. Agitated, sweating, and sitting upright
with shoulders hunched forward
d. Asleep in a side-lying position breathing
through open mouth
 Correct answer: Agitated,
sweating, and sitting
upright with shoulders
hunched forward
58. Which assessment finding for Billy is the most
urgent and requires immediate intervention and
notification of the pediatrician?
a. Sudden increase in respiratory rate and
decreased breath sounds
b. Rattling cough productive of frothy,
clear, gelatinous sputum
c. Crackles auscultated on inspiration in
the lower lung fields
d. Restlessness and wheezing auscultated
at the end of expiration
 Correct answer: Sudden
increase in respiratory rate
and decreased breath
sounds
59. As the nurse cares for Billy and addresses his
asthmatic condition, in what sequence should
the following prescribed actions be
implemented?
1. Give nebulized albuterol now and
every 30 minutes.
2. Administer humidified oxygen to
maintain saturation above 90%.
3. Administer IV methylprednisolone.
4. Obtain a chest radiograph and a
complete blood count (CBC).
5. Contact the hospital about
admission.
6. Teach about measuring peak
expiratory flow rate to determine
personal best.
7. Schedule a radioallergosorbent test.
Correct answer:
 Give nebulized albuterol now
and every 30 minutes.
 Administer humidified oxygen
to maintain saturation above
90%.
 Administer IV
methylprednisolone.
 Obtain a chest radiograph
and a complete blood count
(CBC).
 Contact the hospital about
admission.
 Teach about measuring peak
expiratory flow rate to
determine personal best.
 Schedule a
radioallergosorbent test.
60. Billy is to be transferred from the clinic to the
hospital for his asthmatic condition. Which tasks
are RN responsibilities and should not be
delegated or performed by another member of
the health care team? Select all that apply.
a. Give a report to the attending
pediatrician at the receiving hospital.
b. Give a report to the charge nurse at the
receiving hospital.
c. Help the parent and child to collect and
bag up personal items.
d. Determine that the client's condition is
stable enough for transport to the
hospital.
e. Assess the response to treatment and
document the client's condition.
 f. Assist the client to transfer to the
ambulance stretcher.
 Correct answer:
 Give a report to the charge
nurse at the receiving
hospital.
 Assess the response to
treatment and document the
client's condition.
61. In the afternoon, several clients come to the
clinic for walk-in care. Prioritize the following
clients in the order in which they should be seen
to ensure safe care and efficiently manage client
load.
1. James is 3 years old. He awakened
last night with a sore throat, difficulty
668 swallowing, and a fever. He is
flushed, anxious, and drooling. The
nurse observes a thick, muffled
quality to his voice and slow, quiet
breathing. The nurse notes that
James looks sick.
2. Daisy is 4 years old; she is alert and
irritable with pale, sweaty skin. An
older neighbor who was temporarily
watching Daisy reports that she was
running around and playing, and
then she got “grumpy.” Daisy has
diabetes, but the neighbor “was not
sure how to give her the insulin.”
3. Sarah is 11 months old; she is dirty
and crying, and her right arm is
swollen and red. Sam is Sarah's 2-
year-old brother; he is dirty and
hungry and reaches out to be picked
up. Ms. A, their mother, is 19 years
old and single. She is thin and
disheveled and seems somewhat
confused. She is having trouble
answering the nurse's questions.
Ms. A says, “Those kids play too
rough! The older one is always
pushing the baby off the bed.”
4. Terry is 7 months old; he rubs at
both of his ears, acts fussy, refuses
to suck, and has a temperature of
101.2°F (38.4°C). He has had three
episodes of otitis media in the past.
Social history includes being bottle-
fed and having parents who are both
smokers.
Correct answer:
 James is 3 years old. He
awakened last night with a sore
throat, difficulty 668 swallowing,
and a fever. He is flushed,
anxious, and drooling. The
nurse observes a thick, muffled
quality to his voice and slow,
quiet breathing. The nurse notes
that James looks sick.
 Daisy is 4 years old; she is alert
and irritable with pale, sweaty
skin. An older neighbor who was
temporarily watching Daisy
reports that she was running
around and playing, and then
she got “grumpy.” Daisy has
diabetes, but the neighbor “was
not sure how to give her the
insulin.”
 Sarah is 11 months old; she is
dirty and crying, and her right
arm is swollen and red. Sam is
Sarah's 2-year-old brother; he is
dirty and hungry and reaches
out to be picked up. Ms. A, their
mother, is 19 years old and
single. She is thin and
disheveled and seems
somewhat confused. She is
having trouble answering the
nurse's questions. Ms. A says,
“Those kids play too rough! The
older one is always pushing the
baby off the bed.”
 Terry is 7 months old; he rubs at
both of his ears, acts fussy,
refuses to suck, and has a
temperature of 101.2°F
(38.4°C). He has had three
episodes of otitis media in the
past. Social history includes
being bottle-fed and having
parents who are both smokers.
62. The pediatrician examines James and
determines that he should be taken immediately
to the Children's Hospital emergency
department (ED). The child is breathing slowly
and quietly; humidified oxygen is being
administered. What is the priority action?
a. Instruct the parents to drive the child to
the hospital immediately and call the
ED.
b. Contact a private ambulance service
and prepare the client for transport.
c. Call 911, ask for advanced emergency
medical services (EMS), and monitor the
child.
d. Assist the pediatrician to intubate the
child and then arrange for transport.
 Correct answer: Call 911, ask
for advanced emergency
medical services (EMS), and
monitor the child.
63. Daisy's mother arrives at the clinic, and she is
relieved to find Daisy happy and smiling, but the
mother bursts into tears and begins to yell at her
neighbor and the nursing staff for “not taking
care of her!” What is the best way to handle her
anger and tears?
a. Remind the mother that the child is okay
and that the neighbor was doing what
she thought was best based on the
information that she had.
b. Allow the mother to express her feelings
and then take the neighbor aside and
explain that the mother is just
temporarily upset.
c. Teach the mother about ways to
communicate the child's needs to all
caregivers and help her make a list of
specific instructions.
d. Direct the mother to a private area and
encourage her to ventilate feelings; then
gently assess how she typically
manages Daisy's diabetes.
 Correct answer: Direct the
mother to a private area and
encourage her to ventilate
feelings; then gently assess
how she typically manages
Daisy's diabetes.
64. What is the priority nursing concern for Terry,
who is rubbing at his ears, acting fussy, refusing
to suck, and has a temperature of 101.2°F
(38.4°C)?
a. Pain
 b. Poor nutrition
c. Recurrent ear infections
d. Elevated temperature
 Correct answer: Pain
65. The pediatric social worker has just informed
Ms. A that Child Protective Services has been
notified and that a representative will arrive
shortly to speak with her about the family's
situation. Ms. A starts to cry and threatens to
leave. What is the priority action?
a. Obtain an “against medical advice”
(AMA) form and have her sign it.
b. Notify the pediatrician of the mother's
intent to leave.
c. Inform the mother that the police will be
notified if she leaves.
d. Encourage Ms. A to remain and to
express feelings and fears.
 Correct answer: Encourage
Ms. A to remain and to
express feelings and fears.
Rebecca is a 6-year-old girl with cystic fibrosis. She
arrives at the pediatric cystic fibrosis clinic for her routine
3-month appointment. The nurse obtains and calculates
the following growth parameters: Weight, 33 lbs (15 kg)
(< 5%); height, 42 in. (106 cm) (5%); and body mass
index (BMI), 13 (< 5%). Her parents report specks of
blood in her sputum after chest physiotherapy. Her
forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) has
decreased 25% from her last visit 3 months ago.
Rebecca has clubbing of both her finger and toe nails.
66. How would the nurse best interpret Rebecca's
decreased FEV1?
a. Decreased oxygenation
b. Increased obstruction
c. Presence of infection
d. Pulmonary remodeling
 Correct answer: Increased
obstruction
67. What is the most likely cause of the specks of
blood in Rebecca's sputum?
a. A sign of pulmonary infection
b. A sign of bronchial remodeling
c. A sign of gastric irritation
d. A sign of gastrointestinal bleeding
 Correct answer: A sign of
pulmonary infection
68. The nurse establishes that Rebecca has poor
airway clearance. Which intervention is most
important for the nurse to implement for this
problem?
a. Increased fluid requirements
b. Inhaled corticosteroids
c. Oxygen therapy
d. Flutter valve with huffing
 Correct answer: Flutter valve
with huffing
69. The nurse reviews Rebecca's growth chart and
determines her weight and BMI have
consistently remained below the 5th percentile.
Which collaborative intervention is the nurse
most likely to anticipate when planning
teaching?
a. Preparing the child and family for
potential gastrostomy tube placement
b. Focusing on increasing the child's intake
of protein and calories
c. Suggesting an increased dosage of
pancreatic enzymes
d. Preparing the child and family for
potential total parenteral nutrition
 Correct answer: Preparing the
child and family for
potential gastrostomy tube
placement
70. Which laboratory value is consistent with
clubbing of Rebecca's finger and toe nails?
a. Elevated white blood cell (WBC) count
b. Elevated red blood cell (RBC) count
c. Decreased hematocrit
d. Decreased mean corpuscular volume
 Correct answer: Elevated red
blood cell (RBC) count
71. Which nursing assessment is a priority?
a. Obtain a rectal temperature.
b. Auscultate the lungs.
c. Obtain a blood pressure.
d. Auscultate the heart.
 Correct answer: Auscultate
the heart.
72. Which pharmacologic intervention should the
nurse anticipate at this time?
a. IV methylprednisolone
b. IV immunoglobulin
c. IV ibuprofen
d. IV infliximab 
 Correct answer: IV
immunoglobulin
73. After a 14-day hospitalization, Bobby is
discharged home on a regimen of long-term
aspirin therapy. What advice should the nurse
provide regarding influenza vaccination?
a. Influenza vaccine is indicated for
children 4 months to 18 years of age.
b. Influenza vaccine should be postponed
for 11 months after treatment.
c. Influenza vaccine is indicated for
children receiving long-term aspirin
therapy.
d. Influenza vaccine should be postponed
in children receiving long-term aspirin
therapy.
 Correct answer: Influenza
vaccine is indicated for
children receiving long-term
aspirin therapy.
Eight-year-old Charlie had a laparoscopic
appendectomy. During surgery, the appendix perforated.
Charlie arrives on the pediatric unit from the operating
room. His weight on admission was 46 lbs (21 kg). He
has a peripheral IV line in the left basilic vein with D5W
and 20 mEq/L (20 mmol/L) of KCl running at 70 mL/hr. A
nasogastric tube (NG) is attached to low suction.
74. Which assessment should be most concerning
to the nurse?
a. Oral temperature of 100.4°F (38°C)
b. Decreased bowel sounds in all
quadrants
c. Urine output of 160 mL over 4 hours
d. Respiratory rate of 15 breaths per
minute
 Correct answer: Respiratory
rate of 15 breaths per
minute
75. Charlie's parents ask the nurse if the NG tube
can be removed because it is irritating Charlie's
nose. What is the nurse's best response?
 a. “The NG tube is necessary to prevent
aspiration of the stomach contents into
the lungs.”
b. “The NG tube is necessary because
Charlie will need to have feedings
through it.”
c. “The NG tube is necessary to keep
Charlie's stomach empty, allowing the
intestines to rest.”
d. “The NG tube is necessary to prevent
swallowed air from building up in the
stomach.”
 Correct answer: “The NG tube
is necessary to keep
Charlie's stomach empty,
allowing the intestines to
rest.”
76. A 30-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes
mellitus comes to the clinic for preconception
care. What is the priority education for her at this
time?
a. Her insulin requirements will likely
increase during the second and third
trimesters of pregnancy.
b. Infants of mothers with diabetes can be
macrosomic, which can result in more
difficult delivery and higher likelihood of
cesarean section
c. Breast feeding is highly recommended,
and insulin use is not a contraindication.
d. Achievement of optimal glycemic control
at this time is of utmost importance in
preventing congenital anomalies.
 Correct answer: Achievement
of optimal glycemic control
at this time is of utmost
importance in preventing
congenital anomalies.
77. Which task could be appropriately delegated to
the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)
working with the nurse at the obstetric clinic?
a. Checking the blood pressure of a patient
who is 36 weeks’ pregnant and reports a
headache
b. Removing the adhesive skin closure
strips of a patient who had a cesarean
section 2 weeks ago
c. Giving community resource information
and emergency numbers to a prenatal
patient who may be experiencing
domestic violence
d. Dispensing a breast pump with
instruction to a lactating patient having
trouble with milk supply 4 weeks
postpartum
 Correct answer: Checking the
blood pressure of a patient
who is 36 weeks’ pregnant
and reports a headache
78. Several patients have just come into the
obstetric triage unit. Which patient should the
nurse assess first?
a. A 17-year-old gravida 1, para 0 (G1P0)
woman at 40 weeks’ gestation with
contractions every 6 minutes who is
crying loudly and is surrounded by
anxious family members
b. A 22-year-old G3P2 woman at 38
weeks’ gestation with contractions every
3 minutes who is requesting to go to the
bathroom to have a bowel movement
c. A 32-year-old G4P3 woman at 27
weeks’ gestation who noted vaginal
bleeding today after intercourse
d. A 27-year-old G2P1 woman at 37
weeks’ gestation who experienced
spontaneous rupture of membranes 30
minutes ago but feels no contractions
 Correct answer: A 22-year-old
G3P2 woman at 38 weeks’
gestation with contractions
every 3 minutes who is
requesting to go to the
bathroom to have a bowel
movement
79. A 19-year-old gravida 1, para 0 patient at 40
weeks’ gestation who is in labor is being treated
with magnesium sulfate for seizure prophylaxis
in preeclampsia. Which are priority assessments
with this medication? Select all that apply.
a. Check deep tendon reflexes.
b. Observe for vaginal bleeding
c. Check the respiratory rate.
d. Note the urine output.
e. Monitor for calf pain.
 Correct answer:
 Check deep tendon reflexes.
 Check the respiratory rate.
 Note the urine output.
80. Which action would best demonstrate evidence-
based nursing practice in the care of a patient
who is 1 day postpartum and reporting nipple
soreness while breast feeding?
a. Assess the mother–baby couplet for
nursing position and latch and correct as
indicated.
b. Advise the use of a breast pump until
nipple soreness resolves.
c. Advise alternating breast and bottle
feedings to avoid excess sucking at the
nipple
 Correct answer: Assess the
mother–baby couplet for
nursing position and latch
and correct as indicated.
81. A 24-year-old gravida 2, para 1 woman is being
admitted in active labor at 39 weeks’ gestation.
What prenatal data would be most important for
the nurse to address at this time?
a. Hemoglobin level of 11 g/dL (110 g/L) at
28 weeks’ gestation
b. Positive result on test for group B
streptococci at 36 weeks’ gestation
c. Urinary tract infection with Escherichia
coli treated at 20 weeks’ gestation
d. Elevated level on glucose screening test
at 28 weeks’ gestation followed by
normal 3-hour glucose tolerance test
results at 29 weeks’ gestation
 Correct answer: Positive
result on test for group B
streptococci at 36 weeks’
gestation
82. The telephone triage nurse in the prenatal clinic
receives the following calls. Which telephone call
would require immediate notification of the
health care provider?
a. Patient reports leaking vaginal fluid at 34
weeks’ gestation
b. Patient reports nausea and vomiting at 8
weeks’ gestation.
c. Patient reports pedal edema at 39
weeks’ gestation.
d. Patient reports vaginal itching at 20
weeks’ gestation
 Correct answer: Patient
reports leaking vaginal fluid
at 34 weeks’ gestation
83. The nurse in the labor and delivery unit is caring
for a 25-year-old gravida 3, para 2 patient in
active labor. The nurse has identified late fetal
heart decelerations and decreased variability in
the fetal heart rate and notified the health care
provider (HCP) on call, who thinks that the
pattern is acceptable. What would be the priority
action at this time?
a. Advise the patient that a different HCP
will be called because the first HCP's
response was not adequate
b. Discuss the concerns with another labor
and delivery nurse
c. Document the conversation with the
HCP accurately, including the HCP's
interpretation and recommendation, and
continue close observation of the fetal
heart rate.
d. Document the conversation with the
HCP accurately, including the HCP's
interpretation and recommendation, and
continue close observation of the fetal
heart rate.  a. Applying fundal pressure
 Correct answer: Document
the conversation with the
HCP accurately, including
the HCP's interpretation and
recommendation, and
continue close observation
of the fetal heart rate.
84. What would be the appropriate first nursing
action when caring for a 20- year-old gravida 1,
para 0 woman at 39 weeks’ gestation who is in
active labor and for whom an assessment
reveals mild variable fetal heart rate
decelerations?
a. Change the maternal position.
b. Notify the provider.
c. Prepare for delivery.
d. Readjust the fetal monitor.
 Correct answer: Change the
maternal position.
85. A 24-year-old gravida 1, para 0 patient, who is
receiving oxytocin, is in labor at 41 weeks
gestation. Which are appropriate nursing actions
in the presence of late fetal heart rate
decelerations? Select all that apply.
a. Discontinue the oxytocin.
b. Decrease the maintenance IV fluid rate.
c. Administer oxygen to the mother by
mask.
d. Place the woman in high Fowler
position.
e. Notify the health care provider.
 Correct answer:
 Discontinue the oxytocin.
 Administer oxygen to the
mother by mask.
 Notify the health care
provider.
86. A pregnant woman at 12 weeks’ gestation tells
the nurse that she is a vegetarian. What would
be the first appropriate nursing action?
a. Recommend vitamin B12 and iron
supplementation.
b. Recommend consumption of protein
drinks daily.
c. Obtain a 24-hour diet recall history.
d. Determine the reason for her vegetarian
diet.
 Correct answer: Obtain a 24-
hour diet recall history.
87. A 26-year-old gravida 1, para 1 patient who
underwent cesarean section 24 hours ago tells
the nurse that she is having some trouble breast
feeding. Which tasks could be appropriately
delegated to the unlicensed assistive personnel
(UAP) on the postpartum floor? Select all that
apply.
a. Providing the mother with an ordered
abdominal binder
b. Assisting the mother with breast feeding
c. Taking the mother's vital signs
d. Checking the amount of lochia present
e. Assisting the mother with ambulation
 Correct answer:
 Providing the mother with an
ordered abdominal binder
 Taking the mother's vital
signs
 Assisting the mother with
ambulation
88. Which action by a newly graduated RN during a
delivery complicated by shoulder dystocia would
require immediate correction by the nurse who is
orienting her?
b. Applying suprapubic pressure
c. Requesting immediate presence of the
neonatologist
d. Flexing the maternal legs back across
the maternal abdomen
 Correct answer: Applying
fundal pressure
89. Which statements by a new father indicate that
additional discharge teaching is needed for this
family, who had their first baby 24 hours ago?
Select all that apply.
a. “We have a crib ready for our baby with
lots of stuffed animals and two quilts that
my mother made.”
b. “My wife wants to receive the flu shot
before she goes home.”
c. “We will bring our baby to the
pediatrician in 3 weeks.”
d. “I will give the baby formula at night so
my wife can rest. She will breast feed in
the daytime.”
e. “We will always put our baby to sleep in
a face-up position.”
 Correct answer:
 “We have a crib ready for our
baby with lots of stuffed
animals and two quilts that
my mother made.”
 “We will bring our baby to the
pediatrician in 3 weeks.”
 “I will give the baby formula
at night so my wife can rest.
She will breast feed in the
daytime.”
90. The charge nurse in the labor and delivery unit
needs to assign two patients to one of the RNs
because of a staffing shortage. Normally the unit
has nurse-patient ratio of 1:1. Which two
patients should the charge nurse assign to the
RN?
a. A 30-year-old gravida 1, para 0 (G1P0)
woman, 40 weeks, 2 cm/90% effaced/–1
station
b. A 25-year-old G3P2 woman, 38 weeks,
8 cm/100% effaced/0 station
c. A 26-year-old G1P1 woman who
delivered via normal vaginal delivery 15
minutes ago
d. A 17-year-old G1P0 woman with
premature rupture of membranes, no
labor at 35 weeks
 e. A 40-year-old G6P5 woman with
contractions at 28 weeks who has not
yet been evaluated by the health care
provider
 Correct answer:
 A 30-year-old gravida 1, para
0 (G1P0) woman, 40 weeks,
2 cm/90% effaced/–1 station
 A 17-year-old G1P0 woman
with premature rupture of
membranes, no labor at 35
weeks
91. While assessing a 29-year-old gravida 2, para 2
patient who had a normal spontaneous vaginal
delivery 30 minutes ago, the nurse notes a large
amount of red vaginal bleeding. What would be
the first priority nursing action?
a. Check vital signs.
b. Notify the health care provider.
c. Firmly massage the uterine fundus.
d. Put the baby to breast.
 Correct answer: Firmly
massage the uterine
fundus.
92. A 30-year-old gravida 1, para 0 woman at 39
weeks’ gestation experienced a fetal demise and
has just delivered a female infant. Her husband
is at the bedside. Which are appropriate nursing
actions at this time? Select all that apply.
a. Offer the option of autopsy to the
parents
b. Stay with the parents and offer
supportive care.
c. Place the infant on the maternal
abdomen.
d. Clean and wrap the baby and offer the
infant to the parents to view or hold
when desired.
e. Ask the parents if there are any special
rituals in their religion or culture for a
baby who has died that they would like
to have done.
 Correct answer:
 Stay with the parents and
offer supportive care.
 Clean and wrap the baby and
offer the infant to the
parents to view or hold
when desired.
 Ask the parents if there are
any special rituals in their
religion or culture for a
baby who has died that they
would like to have done.
93. A 27-year-old patient underwent a primary
cesarean section because of breech
presentation 24 hours ago. Which assessment
finding would be of the most concern?
a. Small amount of lochia rubra
b. Temperature of 99°F (37.2°C)
c. Slight redness of the left calf
d. Pain rated as 3 of 10 in the incisional
area
 Correct answer: Slight
redness of the left calf
94. A 22-year-old gravida 1, para 0 woman is being
given an epidural anesthetic for pain control
during labor and birth. Which are appropriate
nursing actions when epidural anesthesia is
used during labor? Select all that apply
a. Request the anesthesiologist to
discontinue the epidural anesthetic
when the patient's cervix is completely
dilated to allow the patient to sense the
urge to push
b. Insert an indwelling catheter because
the woman is likely to be unable to void.
c. Encourage pushing efforts when the
cervix is completely dilated in the
absence of an urge to push.
d. Encourage the patient to turn from side
to side during the course of labor.
e. Teach the patient that pain relief can be
expected to last 1 to 2 hours.
 Correct answer:
 Insert an indwelling catheter
because the woman is likely
to be unable to void.
 Encourage the patient to turn
from side to side during the
course of labor.
95. A 36-year-old gravida 1, para 0 patient has
received an epidural anesthetic. Her cervix is 6
cm dilated. Her blood pressure is currently 60/38
mm Hg. Which would be appropriate priority
nursing actions? Select all that apply
a. Place the patient in high Fowler position.
b. Turn the patient to a lateral position.
c. Notify the anesthesiologist.
d. Prepare for emergency cesarean
section.
e. Decrease the IV fluid rate.
 Correct answer:
 Turn the patient to a lateral
position.
 Notify the anesthesiologist.
96. A 17-year-old gravida 1, para 0 woman at 40
weeks’ gestation is in labor. She has chosen
natural childbirth with assistance from a doula.
Her mother and her boyfriend are at the bedside.
What nursing action can help the patient achieve
her goal of an unmedicated labor and birth?
a. Encourage the patient to stay in bed.
b. Allow the patient's support people to
provide labor support and minimize
nursing presence.
c. Assess the effectiveness of the labor
support team and offer suggestions as
indicated.
d. Offer pain medication on a regular basis
so the patient knows it is available if
desired
 Correct answer: Assess the
effectiveness of the labor
support team and offer
suggestions as indicated.
97. A 25-year-old gravida 2, para 1 patient has
come to the obstetric triage room at 32 weeks’
gestation reporting painless vaginal bleeding.
The nurse is providing orientation for a new RN
on the unit. Which statement by the new RN to
the patient would require the nurse to promptly
intervene?
a. “I’m going to check your vital signs.”
b. “I’m going to apply a fetal monitor to
check the baby's heart rate and to see if
you are having contractions.”
c. “I’m going to perform a vaginal
examination to see if your cervix is
dilated.”
d. “I’m going to feel your abdomen to
check the position of the baby.”
 Correct answer: “I’m going to
perform a vaginal
examination to see if your
cervix is dilated.”  
 98. A 30-year-old gravida 6, para 5 woman at 12
weeks’ gestation has just begun prenatal care,
and her initial laboratory work reveals that she
has tested positive for human immunodeficiency
virus (HIV) infection. What would be priority
evidence-based nursing education for this
patient today?
a. Medication for HIV infection is safe and
can greatly reduce transmission of HIV
to the infant.
b. Breast feeding is still recommended due
to the great benefits to the infant.
c. Pregnancy is known to accelerate the
course of HIV disease in the mother
d. Cesarean section is not recommended
because of the increased risk of HIV
transmission with the bleeding at
surgery.
 Correct answer: Medication
for HIV infection is safe and
can greatly reduce
transmission of HIV to the
infant.
99. A 22-year-old woman is 6 weeks postpartum. In
the clinic, she admits to crying every day, feeling
overwhelmed, and sometimes thinking that she
may hurt the baby. What would be the priority
nursing action at this time?
a. Advise the patient of community
resources, parent groups, and
depression hotlines
b. Counsel the mother that the “baby
blues” are common at this time and
assess her nutrition, rest, and availability
of help at home.
c. Contact the health care provider to
evaluate the patient before allowing her
to leave the clinic.
d. Advise the woman that she cannot use
medication for depression because she
is breast feeding.
 Correct answer: Contact the
health care provider to
evaluate the patient before
allowing her to leave the
clinic.
100. A 23-year-old gravida 1, para 0 patient
at 10 weeks’ gestation states that she exercises
5 days a week. The nurse has discussed
exercise in pregnancy with her. Which statement
by the patient indicates that more teaching of
evidence- based principles is needed?
a. “I will continue to exercise 5 days a
week.”
b. “I will reduce my exercise at this time in
my pregnancy to reduce the risk of
miscarriage but will increase it in the
second trimester.”
c. “I will drink more fluid before and after
exercising.”
d. “I will stop playing football while I am
pregnant.”
 Correct answer: “I will reduce
my exercise at this time in
my pregnancy to reduce the
risk of miscarriage but will
increase it in the second
trimester.”
NCM 109 Maternal Lec
MIDTERMS
1. A nurse is teaching a group of first-trimester
prenatal patients about the discomforts of
pregnancy. A patient asks the nurse, "What
causes my nausea and vomiting?" The nurse
knows the primary contributing factor to first-
trimester emesis is:
a. Human chorionic gonadotropin.
b. Estrogen
c. Progesterone
d. Prostaglandins
 Correct answers: a. Human
chorionic gonadotropin. 
2. The nurse is taking an initial history of a prenatal
patient. Which sign would first indicate a
positive, or diagnostic, sign of pregnancy?
a. Fetal movement at 20 weeks gestation
b. Visualization of fetal heart movement at
21 weeks gestation
c. Fetal heartbeat with Doppler at 19
weeks gestation
d. Fetal heartbeat with fetoscope at 18
weeks gestation
 Correct answers: d. Fetal
heartbeat with fetoscope at
18 weeks gestation 
3. The nurse in the prenatal clinic assesses a 26-
year-old patient at 13 weeks gestation. Which
presumptive (subjective) signs and symptoms of
pregnancy should the nurse anticipate?
a. Hegar's sign and quickening
b. Ballottement and positive pregnancy test
c. Chadwick's sign and uterine souffle
d. Excessive fatigue and urinary frequency
 Correct answers: d.
Excessive fatigue and
urinary frequency 
4. The nurse is taking a history from a prenatal
patient at seven weeks gestation. The patient
states, "I don't know if I want this baby. How will
I know if I'll be a good mother?" What is the most
appropriate response by the nurse?
a. "This is a normal reaction to parenthood
in the first trimester."
b. "This would be the best time to consider
an abortion or adoption."
c. "This is a sign of depression and I'd like
you to see a mental health specialist."
d. "This is an abnormal reaction, and I'd
like you to speak with Family Services."
 Correct answers: a. "This is a
normal reaction to
parenthood in the first
trimester." 
5. The nurse is teaching a parenting class to
prospective fathers. The nurse correctly teaches
that couvade refers to the:
a. Expectant father's fear of hurting the
unborn baby during intercourse.
b. Expectant father's transition from
nonparent to parent.
c. Development of the physical symptoms
of pregnancy in the father of the baby.
d. Development of attachment and bonding
behaviors in the father of the baby.
 Correct answers: c.
Development of the
physical symptoms of
pregnancy in the father of
the baby. 
6. A 20-year-old woman arrives at a family
planning clinic seeking emergency contraception
48 hours after she had unprotected sexual
intercourse. The nurse correctly responds by
saying:
 a. “Come right in so we can get you
started.”
b. “You must wait 72 hours before the pill
will work.”
c. “You need to wait until you have missed
your period.”
d. “The pills must be started the morning
after intercourse.”
 Correct answers: a. “Come
right in so we can get you
started.”  10, 2021
7. A newborn is born at 38 weeks gestation
weighing 2250 grams. Which is the most
appropriate nursing diagnosis?
a. Ineffective airway clearance.
b. Risk for altered body temperature.
c. Acute pain.
d. Altered nutrition: More than body
requirements.
 Correct answers: b. Risk for
altered body temperature  2017
8. Which response by the school nurse to a 16-
year-old would be appropriate when the boy tells
the nurse he smokes?
a. "If you continue to smoke, you will get
lung cancer and die."
b. "We need to discuss how smoking can
affect your health."
c. "You are hurting your family with your
secondhand smoke."
d. "Did you know that smoking can stunt
your growth?"
 Correct answers: b. "We need
to discuss how smoking
can affect your health."  menstrual period was January 30, 2016. Based
9. The nurse teaches parents about pediatric
immunizations. What is considered an absolute
contraindication to pediatric immunizations?
a. Respiratory illness with low-grade fever  b. October 6, 2016
b. Soreness, redness, and swelling at the
previous injection site.
c. Febrile seizure 1 month after the
previous injection of vaccine.
d. Anaphylactic reaction to previous
immunization.
 Correct answers: d.
Anaphylactic reaction to
previous immunization  a. Do you think your child eats enough?
10. A 6-year-old child is to receive regularly
scheduled immunizations. The parent states that
the child is not feeling well and asks the nurse to
defer the immunizations until next week. What is
the best response by the nurse?
a. Ask if the child has missed school.
b. Give the parent an immunization
appointment for next week.
c. Check the child's temperature.
d. Ask if the child has ever had a reaction
to immunizations.
 Correct answers: c. Check the
child's temperature.  b. Vitamin b6
11. A 35-year-old female is currently pregnant with
twins. She has 10-year-old triplets who were
born at 32 weeks gestation, and a 16-year-old
who was born at 41-week gestation. Twelve
years ago, she had a miscarriage at 19 weeks
gestation. What is her GTPAL?
a. G=4, T=1, P=1, A=1, L=4
b. G=3, T=2, P=1, A=1, L=4
c. G=4, T=1, P=1, A=1, L=3
d. G=4, T=1, P=2, A=1, L=4
 Correct answers: a. G=4, T=1,
P=1, A=1, L=4  months
12. During a prenatal visit a patient tells you her last
menstrual period was November 3, 2020. She
told you that her menstruation is a 28 days
cycle, when is the estimated due date of her
baby?
a. August 10, 2020
b. August 11, 2021
c. August 10, 2021
d. August 11, 2021
 Correct answers: c. August
 
13. During a prenatal visit a patient tells you her last
menstrual period was August 28, 2016. Based
on the Naegele's Rule, when is the estimated
due date of her baby?
a. May 4, 2018
b. June 5, 2017
c. May 4, 2017
d. June 4, 2017
 Correct answers: d. June 4,
 
14. A 35-year-old female is currently pregnant with
twins. She has 10-year-old triplets who were
born at 32 weeks gestation, and a 16-year-old
who was born at 41-week gestation. Twelve
years ago, she had a miscarriage at 19 weeks
gestation. What is her GTPAL?
a. G=3, T=2, P=1, A=1, L=4
b. G=4, T=1, P=1, A=1, L=4
c. G=4, T=1, P=1, A=1, L=3
d. G=4, T=1, P=2, A=1, L=4
 Correct answers: b. G=4, T=1,
P=1, A=1, L=4 
15. During a prenatal visit a patient tells you her last
on the Naegele's Rule, when is the estimated
due date of her baby?
a. November 6, 2016
c. October 7, 2016
d. November 6, 2017
 Correct answers: a.
November 6, 2016
16. Nurse Sunshine suspects that a child, age 4, is
being neglected physically. To best assess the
child’s nutritional status, the nurse should ask
the parents which question?
b. Is your child picky eater?
c. What did your child eat for breakfast?
d. d. Has your child always been so thin?
 Correct answers: c. What did
your child eat for
breakfast? 
17. A four-year-old patient, whose family follows a
strict vegetarian diet, undergoes a
prekindergarten physical examination. The
pediatric nurse is alert to the patient's potential
deficiency of:
a. Vitamin B12 
c. Thiamin
d. Niacin
 Correct answers: a. Vitamin
B12 
18. Around what age should a child be able to build
a tower of three building blocks?
a. 12 months
b. 6 months
c. 3 months
d. 18 months
 Correct answers: d. 18
 
19. When administering an I.M. injection to an infant,
the nurse in charge should use which site?
a. Vastus lateralis
b. Deltoid
c. Dorsogluteal
d. Ventrogluteal
 Correct answers: a. Vastus
lateralis  fetal movement that is felt
20. To meet the emotional needs of a 10-year-old
patient who is dying, the most appropriate
nursing action is to:
a. encourage the patient to write in a
journal
b. answer questions honestly and frankly
c. avoid interruptions by coordinating
nursing actions
d. provide opportunities for the patient to
interact with children of the same age
 Correct answers: b. answer
questions honestly and
frankly  said to be protected to tetanus by around?
21. A woman spontaneously delivers a baby girl who
is immediately handed to the nurse. Which
action is of highest priority for the nurse?
a. Do an Apgar assessment.
b. Check neonatal heart rate.
c. Apply identification bracelets.
d. Clear the nasopharynx.
 Correct answers: d. Clear the
nasopharynx.
22. Which area of health teaching will a new mother
be most responsive to during the taking in phase
of the postpartum period?
a. Family planning
b. Newborn care
c. Community support group
d. Perineal care
 Correct answers: d. Perineal
care  between two clamps using sterile scissors or
23. A nurse is collecting data during an admission
assessment on a client who is pregnant with
twins. The client also has a 5-year-old child. The
nurse would document which gravida and para
status on this client?
a. Gravida III, Para II
b. Gravida II, Para II
c. Gravida I, Para I
d. Gravida II, Para I
 Correct answers: d. Gravida
II, Para I  and one of your clients asks you what example
24. A pregnant client is seen in the health care clinic
for a regular prenatal visit. The client tells the
nurse that she is experiencing irregular
contractions. The nurse determines that the
client is experiencing Braxton hicks contractions.
Based on the finding, which nursing action is
appropriate?
a. Instruct the client to maintain bed rest
for the remainder of the pregnancy.
b. Instruct the client that these are
common and may occur throughout the
pregnancy.
c. Contact the physician.
d. Call the maternity clinic.
 Correct answers: b. Instruct
the client that these are
common and may occur
throughout the pregnancy.  of the uterus.
25. A nursing instructor asks a student nurse to
describe the process of quickening. Which of the
following statements, if made by the student
indicates an understanding of this term?
a. “It is the irregular, painless contractions
that occur throughout pregnancy.”
b. “It is the soft blowing sound that can be
heard when the uterus is auscultated.”
c. “It is the fetal movement that is felt by
the mother.”
d. “It is the thinning of the lower uterine
segment.”
 Correct answers: c. “It is the
by the mother.” 
26. A pregnant client asks the nurse in the clinic
when she will be able to start feeling the fetus to
move. The nurse responds by telling the client
that the fetal movement will be noted between:
a. 6 to 8 weeks of gestation
b. 8 to 10 weeks of gestation
c. 10 to 12 weeks of gestation
d. 14 to 16 weeks of gestation
 Correct answers: d. 14 to 16
weeks of gestation 
27. After Tetanus toxoid 3 vaccination a mother is
a. 80%
b. 99%
c. 85%
d. 90%
 Correct answers: d. 90% 
28. A 12-month-old received immunization at his
well-child visit. Fourteen days later, the mother
reports that the child has a red maculopapular
rash on the trunk and extremities. This rash is
most likely due to which of the following
vaccines?
a. DPT
b. OPV
c. MMR
d. Hib
 Correct answers: c. MMR 
29. After the baby is delivered, the cord was cut
blade, then the baby is placed at the?
a. Mother’s breast for the baby to feed and
bonding.
b. Mother’s side.
c. Give it to the grandmother.
d. Baby’s own mat or bed.
 Correct answers: a. Mother’s
breast for the baby to feed
and bonding. 
30. You are assigned in an outpatient department
of methods used in natural family planning.
a. Calendar method and billings method
b. Calendar method and Condom
c. Contraceptive pills and cervical mucus
d. Tubal ligation and vasectomy
 Correct answers: a. Calendar
method and billings
method 
31. Fundal height of a pregnant woman is measured
from?
a. The top of the pubic bone to the top of
the uterus.
b. The middle of the pubic bone to the
bottom of the uterus.
c. The bottom of the pubic bone to the top
of the uterus.
d. The top of the pubic bone to the middle
 Correct answers: a. The top of
the pubic bone to the top of
the uterus. 
32. Which of the following statement is/are true?
There is increasing concern about the
importance of adequate nutrition in the pre-
 conception period to support a successful
pregnancy. This is because:
a. In the embryonic period the fetus is
vulnerable to external factors in its
environment.
b. The embryonic period often occurs
before woman knows she is pregnant.
c. Interventions in late pregnancy may too
late to be effective.
d. All of the options are correct.
 Correct answers: b. The
embryonic period often
occurs before woman
knows she is pregnant.  to withdraw from the study.
33. Which of the following nutrients supplements
should a woman consume during pregnancy?
a. Folic acid and Vitamin D
b. Iron
c. Vitamin A
d. Vitamin C
 Correct answers: a. Folic acid
and Vitamin D  withdraw from the study.
34. Which of these exercises do doctors recommend
during pregnancy?
a. Yoga
b. Brisk walking
c. Running
d. All of the above
 Correct answers: d. All of the
above  41.
35. Gender of external genitalia of fetus becomes
clearly distinguished at what weeks of gestation?
a. 10 weeks
b. 16 weeks
c. 12 weeks
d. 20 weeks
 Correct answers: d. 20 weeks  d. Decreased fluid intake
36. After receiving an immunization for diphtheria,
tetanus and pertussis, a patient develops
swelling and tenderness at the injection site, a
low-grade fever, and malaise. The nurse informs
the patient’s parents that:
a. The reaction is severe enough that they
should bring the patient to an
emergency department.
b. They should delay future immunizations
until the patient sees a doctor.
c. This is a mild reaction, and teaches
them how to manage it.
d. This is an appropriate reaction, and
instructs them to do nothing.
 Correct answers: c. This is a
mild reaction, and teaches
them how to manage it.  bone and teeth formation?
37. A nurse instructs parents who are concerned
about the spread of illness at their children’s
daycare centers to inquire about the facilities:
a. CPR training for staff.
b. Infection control practices.
c. Reported cases of diarrhea during the
previous year.
d. Staff to child ratios.
 Correct answers: b. Infection
control practices.  a. 4 months
38. In preparing a preschool-age patient for an
injection, the most appropriate nursing
intervention is to:
a. Allow the patient to administer an
injection to a doll.
b. Coordinate the patient watching a peer
receive an injection.
c. Have the parents explain the process to
the patient.
d. Suggest diversionary activities like
singing.
 Correct answers: b.
Coordinate the patient
watching a peer receive an
injection. 
39. When a 12-year-old child participates in a
research study, the nurse’s primary concern is to
ensure that the:
a. Parent or guardian has given verbal
consent for the patient’s participation.
b. Quality of care that the patient receives
will not be affected if the patient chooses
c. Research meets the developmental
needs of the patient
d. Research will directly benefit the patient.
 Correct answers: b. Quality of
care that the patient
receives will not be affected
if the patient chooses to
 
40. 40.What is the normal heart rate at birth?
a. 120-160/min
b. 100-120/min
c. 160-180/min
d. Less than 100
 Correct answers: a.
120-160/min 
Patient Sue is in her last trimester now and tells
the nurse “I’m most of the time having
constipation.” Which of the following should the
nurse recommend to the patient?
a. Laxatives
b. Daily Enemas
c. Increased fiber intake
 Correct answers: C. Increased
fiber intake 
42. Your patient with a preeclampsia (severe) is
admitted with BP 170/100, with proteinuria, with
severe pitting edema Grade III. Which of the
following you would include in making your
patient’s plan of care?
a. Daily weights
b. Right lateral positioning
c. Seizure precautions
d. Stress reduction
 Correct answers: C. Seizure
precautions 
43. For the nutritional needs of a pregnant woman
for her growing fetus, which of the following
minerals are needed and responsible for fetal
a. Iron and Folic Acid 
b. Calcium and Phosphorous 
c. Vitamin D and E 
d. Sodium and Potassium 
 Correct answers: B. Calcium
and Phosphorous 
44. By the end of which of the following would the
nurse most commonly expect a child’s birth
weight to triple? 
 
b. 7 months 
c. 9 months 
d. 12 months 
 Correct answers: D. 12
months 
45. In Leopold’s Maneuver step #1, you palpated a
soft broad mass that moves with the rest of the
mass. The correct interpretation of this finding is:
a. The mass palpated at the fundal part is
the head part.
 b. The presentation is breech. 53. Moments of hand hygiene are the following
c. The mass palpated is the back. except.
d. The mass palpated is the buttocks. a. Before and after touching the patient.
 Correct answers: D. The mass b. After body fluid exposure risk.
palpated is the buttocks.  c. After touching patient surroundings.
46. Which of the following should the nurse do when d. Before any clean or aseptic procedure.
a primipara who is lactating tells the nurse that e. After wearing a pair of gloves.
she has sore nipples?  Correct answers: After
a. Tell her to breast feed more frequently. wearing a pair of gloves 
b. Administer a narcotic before breast 54. Personal Protective Equipment are strictly and
feeding. routinely worn in the Labor and Delivery Rooms
c. Encourage her to wear a brassiere. during this Pandemic. True or false. The correct
d. Use soap and water to clean the sequence for Donning PPE is the following:
nipples. gloves, mask/N95respirator, goggles/face shield,
 Correct answers: A. Tell her gown.
to breast feed more  Correct answers: False 
frequently 55. Referring back to no. 54 question, in what order
47. To differentiate as a female, the hormonal would you doff (remove) the PP?
stimulation of the embryo that must occur a. Gloves then mask
involves which of the following? b. Goggles then mask
a. Increase in maternal estrogen secretion. c. Gloves, gown, goggles/faceshield, mask
b. Decrease in maternal androgen d. Gloves, mask, goggles then gown
secretion.  Correct answers: Gloves,
c. Secretion of androgen by the fetal gown, goggles/faceshield,
gonad. mask 
d. Secretion of estrogen by the fetal gonad. 56. A 3-year-old male child in Pediatric ward is
 Correct answers: D. Secretion noted with rapid shallow breathing, RR – 56
of estrogen by the fetal breaths/min, with on and off non-productive
gonad  cough. Upon Auscultation, coarse crackles are
48. When teaching a client about contraception. heard on both lungs more on lower lobes. Which
Which of the following would the nurse include of the following nursing diagnosis a priority?
as the most effective method for preventing a. Ineffective Breathing Pattern
sexually transmitted infections? b. Impaired Gas Exchange
a. Spermicides  c. Ineffective Airway Clearance
b. Diaphragm  d. Risk for Infection
c. Condoms   Correct answers: Ineffective
d. Vasectomy Airway Clearance 
 Correct answers: C. 57. The age range for pediatric patients.
Condoms  a. Birth to puberty
49. Heartburn and flatulence, common in the second b. Birth to 18 years
trimester, are most likely the result of which of c. Infancy to 18 years
the following? d. One month to puberty
a. Increased plasma HCG levels  Correct answers: Birth to 18
b. Decreased intestinal motility years 
c. Decreased gastric acidity 58. The Nurses’ general approaches to Pediatric
d. Elevated estrogen levels physical assessment includes:
 Correct answers: C. I. Application of knowledge of growth
Decreased gastric acidity  and development.
50. On which of the following areas would the nurse II. Involve parents in the examination of
expect to observe chloasma? the child.
a. Breast, areola and nipples III. Allow child to handle safe and clean
b. Chest, neck, arms and legs instruments.
c. Abdomen, breast and thighs IV. Establish trust.
d. Cheeks, forehead and nose V. Provide a quiet, private and safe
 Correct answers: D. Cheeks, environment.
forehead and nose  VI. Be sensitive to the cultural needs of
51. A newborn infant born prior to which of the and differences among children.
following gestational ages are considered VII. Head to toe assessment.
premature.  Correct answers: All of the
a. 37 weeks above 
b. 39 Weeks 59. Understanding Erickson’s stages of
c. 40 weeks  psychosocial development can help Pediatric
d. 42 weeks nurses to:
 Correct answers: 37 weeks  I. Analyze patient’s symptomatic
52. Patency of the nares must be determined at birth behavior in the context of traumatic past
because. experiences and struggles with current
a. Mouth breathing will exhaust the developmental task.
newborn. II. Avoid conflict.
b. The baby will have nasal flaring if not III. Communicate with a pediatric
patent. patient, when you can anticipate the
c. Newborns are nose breathers. child’s reaction, it becomes easier to
d. Of the possibility of the polyps. modify your response to improve
 Correct answers: Newborns communication.
are nose breathers. IV. Be strict with pediatric patients. 
  Correct answers: I, II, III  Correct answers: All of the
only  above 
60. Pediatric drug dosage is calculated according to: 67. The following are the therapeutic dependent
a. Age in weeks nursing interventions the nurse should include to
b. Height in centimeters a patient with Bacterial Pneumonia except for
c. Body weight in kilograms one:
d. All of the above a. Bronchodilators 
 Correct answers: Body weight b. Tepid Sponge Bath 
in kilograms  c. Antipyretics 
61. The nurse is caring for a client in labor. Which d. Antibiotics 
assessment finding indicates to the nurse that  Correct answers: Tepid
the client is beginning the second stage of Sponge Bath 
labor? 68. Nurse Nica is assessing a patient with Viral
a. The contractions are regular. Pneumonia who has a Hypersensitivity type 1
b. The membranes have ruptured. immune response. Which of the following factors
c. The cervix is completely dilated. immediate triggers to develop it except for one:
d. The client starts to expel clear vaginal a. Exposure may be by ingestion 
fluid. b. Exposure may be by inhalation 
 Correct answers: The cervix c. Exposure may be by direct contact 
is completely dilated. d. Exposure may be blood borne 
62. A client arrives at the birthing center in active  Correct answers: Exposure
labor. Her membranes are still intact, and the may be blood borne 
health care provider prepares to perform an 69. Which of the following is a way to protect
amniotomy. What will the nurse relay to the yourself from Dengue Hemorrhagic fever
client as the most likely outcome of the except? 
amniotomy?  a. Wear long sleeve shirts and long pants 
a. Less pressure on her cervix  b. Use mosquito repellent lotions 
b. Decreased number of contractions  c. Get rid of water containers 
c. Increased efficiency of contractions  d. Put off mosquito net in an area with
d. Increased maternal blood pressure  mosquitoes 
 Correct answers: Increased  Correct answers: Put off
efficiency of contractions  mosquito net in an area with
63. A postpartum nurse is taking the vital signs of a mosquitoes 
client who delivered a healthy infant 4 hours 70. A nurse develops a plan of care for a woman
ago. The nurse notes that the client’s with HIV and her newborn. The nurse includes
temperature is 38 degrees Celsius. Which of the which intervention in the plan of care?
following action would be appropriate? a. Monitor the newborn’s vital signs
a. Notify the physician  routinely 
b. Retake the temperature  b. Maintain standard precautions at all
c. Refer to the Infection control link nurse  times while caring for the newborn 
d. Increase hydration by encouraging oral c. Initiate referral to evaluate the infection 
fluids  d. Advise mother to have her infant’s
 Correct answers: Increase antiviral infections yearly 
hydration by encouraging  Correct answers: Maintain
oral fluids  standard precautions at all
64. The ward nurse is providing instructions to a times while caring for the
client after Caesarian section delivery. The newborn 
nurse instructs the client that she should expect 71. A client who is in labor and delivery has the
normal bowel elimination to return which of the following assessment findings: Gravida 2 para 1,
following?  estimated 40nweeks gestation, contractions 2
a. 3 days postpartum  minutes apart, lasting 45 seconds, vertex + 4
b. 7 days postpartum  station. Which of the following would be the
c. On the day of delivery  priority at this time?
d. 2 weeks postpartum  a. Placing the client in bed to begin fetal
 Correct answers: 3 days monitoring 
postpartum  b. Preparing for immediate delivery 
65. A nurse is planning care for a postpartum client c. Checking for ruptured membrane 
who had a vaginal delivery 1 hour ago. The d. Providing comfort measures 
client had a midline Episiotomy. What is the  Correct answers: Preparing
priority nursing diagnosis for this client? for immediate delivery 
a. Disturbed body image  72. Nurse Jenny Kim is caring for a client in labor.
b. Acute pain  The external fetal monitor shows a pattern of
c. Impaired bowel elimination  variable deceleration in fetal heart rate. What
d. Risk for imbalanced fluid volume  should the nurse do first?
 Correct answers: Acute pain  a. Prepare for emergency delivery 
66. A newborn’s weight is important to help b. Check for placenta previa
determine maturity and establish baseline data c. Administer oxygen
but it varies depending on which of the d. Change the client's position 
following?  Correct answers: Change the
a. Race and genetic  client's position 
b. Intrauterine  73. The nurse in charge is caring for a postpartum
c. Nutritional  vaginal delivery with a midline episiotomy. Which
d. All of the above  nursing diagnosis takes priority for this client?
 a. Risk for deficient fluid volume related to every time that I go home, I get sick again!" The
hemorrhage  pediatric nurse's best response is:
b. Risk for infection related to the type of a. "I think that you should consider
delivery  participating on a swim team to improve
c. Pain related to the type of incision  your pulmonary function." 
d. Urinary retention related to peri urethral b. "Let's talk about preventing and
edema  managing your asthma on a daily basis
 Correct answers: Risk for at home." 
deficient fluid volume c. "Why don't I speak with your parents
related to hemorrhage  about what they are doing at home to
74. Which changes would the nurse identify as a help control your asthma?" 
progressive physiological change in postpartum d. "Your insurance company does not pay
period. for any additional days of hospitalization
a. Lactation  that are not medically necessary." 
b. Lochia   Correct answers: "Let's talk
c. Urine evolution  about preventing and
d. Diuresis  managing your asthma on a
 Correct answers: Lochia  daily basis at home." 
75. A patient is in second stage of labor, during this 80. Which of the following is not a sign of severe
stage, how frequently should the nurse in charge dehydration in children? 
assess her uterine contraction. a. Lethargic or unconscious 
a. Every 5 minutes  b. Skin pinch goes back readily 
b. Every 15 minutes  c. Unable to drink or drinking poorly 
c. Every 30 minutes  d. Sunken eyes 
d. Every 60 minutes   Correct answers: Skin pinch
 Correct answers: Every 15 goes back readily 
minutes  81. You are observing a 5-month-old for
76. While caring for a patient who is hospitalized for developmental skills. Which of the following
acute gastroenteritis and dehydration, a pediatric skills would concern you if the infant was not
nurse notes the parent keeping packets of herbs demonstrating? 
by the patient's bedside. Suspecting that the a. Follows objects with the eyes 
parent may be administering the herbs to the b. Crawling 
patient, the nurse's first action is to. c. Sitting with support 
a. Ask the parent in a nonjudgmental d. Grasps object 
manner about the herbs   Correct answers: Follows
b. Coordinate a nursing care conference to objects with the eyes 
discuss the patient's plan of care  82. When administering magnesium sulfate to a
c. Discuss the risks of using alternative client with preeclampsia, the nurse understands
therapies with the parent  that this drug is given to:
d. Refer the family to a social worker for a. Slow the progress of labor 
possible nonadherence with the b. Facilitate diuresis 
healthcare regimen  c. Reduce blood pressure 
 Correct answers: Ask the d. Prevent seizure 
parent in a nonjudgmental  Correct answers: Prevent
manner about the herbs  seizure 
77. During the first two years of life, patients with 83. A newborn has small, whitish, pinpoint spots
bronchopulmonary dysplasia requiring over the nose, which the nurse knows are
rehospitalization are most likely to be diagnosed caused by retained sebaceous secretions. When
with: charting this observation, the nurse identifies it
a. Electrolyte disturbances  as: Single choice. 
b. Immune deficiencies  a. Dandruff 
c. Pulmonary hypertension  b. Lanugo 
d. Respiratory tract infections  c. Milia 
 Correct answers: Respiratory d. Mongolian Spots 
tract infections   Correct answers: Milia 
78. When a patient participates in a research study, 84. You’re assessing the one-minute APGAR score
the pediatric nurse's primary concern is to of a newborn baby. On assessment, you note
ensure that the: the following about your newborn patient: heart
a. Parent or guardian has given verbal rate 130 bpm, pink body and hands with
consent for the patient's participation  cyanotic feet, weak cry, flexion of the arms and
b. Quality of care that the patient receives legs, active movement and crying when
will not be affected if the patient chooses stimulated. What is your patient’s APGAR
to withdraw from the study  score? 
c. Research meets the developmental a. APGAR 9 
needs of the patient  b. APGAR 10 
d. Research will directly benefit the patient  c. APGAR 8 
 Correct answers: Parent or d. APGAR 5 
guardian has given verbal  Correct answers: APGAR 8 
consent for the patient's 85. A nurse in delivery room is assisting in the
participation  delivery of a newborn infant. After the delivery,
79. A 14-year-old boy with chronic asthma, who has the nurse prepares to prevent heat loss in the
been hospitalized several times during the winter newborn resulting from evaporation by: 
with severe asthmatic exacerbations, confides, "I a. Warming the crib pad 
wish I could stay here in the hospital because
 b. Turning on the overhead radiant short sentences. She had difficulty in copying a
warmer  square. The age of this child is most likely.
c. Closing the doors  a. 1 year 
d. Drying the infant in a warm blanket  b. 2 years 
 Correct answers: Drying the c. 3 years 
infant in a warm blanket  d. 4 years 
86. Vitamin K is prescribed for a neonate. A nurse  Correct answers: 3 years 
prepares to administer the medication in which 93. A mother brings an 18-month-old to the
muscle site? emergency center with the concern that the child
a. Triceps  may have ingested a substance. Which of the
b. Deltoid  following is a contraindication to the use of
c. Gluteal  ipecac in this child.
d. Vastus Lateralis  a. Age less than 5 years 
 Correct answers: Vastus b. Breast-feeding 
Lateralis  c. Ingestion of alkali 
87. The nurse has assessed four newborns RR d. Ingestion of iron 
immediately following birth. which RR would  Correct answers: Ingestion of
require further assessment by the nurse? alkali 
a. 60 bpm  94. During the health interview, the mother of a 4-
b. 70 bpm  month-old says, “I’m not sure my baby is doing
c. 64 bpm  what he should be.” What is the nurse’s best
d. 20 bpm  response?
 Correct answers: 20 bpm  a. “I’ll be able to tell you more after I do his
88. Nurse Pia is assessing infantile reflexes in a 9- physical." 
month-old baby, which of the following would b. “Fill out this developmental screening
she identify as normal?  questionnaire and then I can let you
a. Bilateral parachute  know.” 
b. Persistent rooting  c. “Tell me more about your concerns.” 
c. Absent moro reflex  d. “All mothers worry about their babies.
d. Unilateral grasp  I’m sure he’s doing well.” 
 Correct answers: Bilateral  Correct answers: “Tell me
parachute  more about your
89. An appropriate teaching was carried out by the concerns.” 
nurse if the parent of a 3 year old patient with 95. A 15-month-old girl is having her first health
acute gastroenteritis are aware of avoiding supervision visit at your facility. Her mother has
which of the following? not brought a copy of the child’s immunization
a. Banana  record but believes she is fully immunized: “She
b. Apple juice  had immunizations 3 months ago at the local
c. Ice cream  health department.” Which would be the best
d. Plain rice  action by the nurse? 
 Correct answers: Ice cream  a. Ask the mother to bring the records to
90. You're assessing a 10-month-old infant. You the 18-month health supervision visit.
note on examination the anterior fontanelle is b. Start the “catch-up” schedule because
open. The nurse will:  there are no immunization records.
a. Document this as an abnormal finding c. Keep the child at the facility while the
because this fontanelle should close at 2 mother returns home for the records.
months. d. Call the local health department and
b. Document this as a normal finding verify the child’s immunization status.
because this fontanelle closes at about  Correct answers: Ask the
18 months. mother to bring the records
c. Document this as a normal finding to the 18-month health
because this fontanelle closes at about supervision visit.
12 months. 96. The newborn should be prepared for
d. Document this as an abnormal finding breastfeeding by giving.
because this fontanelle should close at 6 a. Sterile Water 
months. b. Glucose 
 Correct answers: Document c. Cow's Milk 
this as a normal finding d. None of the above 
because this fontanelle  Correct answers: None of the
closes at about 18 months. above 
91. An infant can move his head from side to side 97. Which of the following vaccinations should be
while following a moving object, can lift his head given in the newborn period?
from a prone position 45° off the examining a. Anti-measles 
table, smiles when encouraged, and makes b. Anti-hepatitis B 
cooing sounds. He cannot maintain a seated c. Anti-hepatitis A 
position. The most likely age of the infant is. d. Anti-diphtheria 
a. 1 month  Correct answers: Anti-
b. 3 months hepatitis B 
c. 6 months 98. You are called to attend to a newborn about to
d. 9 months be delivered in a taxi outside the health facility.
 Correct answers: 3 months Your first appropriate action should be. 
92. A child is brought to the clinic for a routine a. Milk the cord towards the newborn 
examine. She can dress with help, can ride a b. Do skin-to-skin contact 
tricycle, knows her own age, and can speak in c. Clamp the cord immediately 
 d. Dry the baby thoroughly  C. Folic acid supplement
 Correct answers: Dry the
baby thoroughly   
99. You are called to attend a baby born by
cesarean section. The mother requests that her
newborn receives Essential Newborn Care
(ENC). Which of the following is an appropriate
statement about ENC for cesarean- delivered
babies?
a. ENC follows the same sequence of
steps as in vaginally born babies.
b. ENC is not doable for babies born by
caesarian section.  
c. ENC steps of skin-to-skin contact
properly timed cord clamping/cutting
maybe interchanged in cesarian section
babies.
d. None of the above
 Correct answers: ENC steps
of skin-to-skin contact
properly timed cord
clamping/cutting maybe
interchanged in cesarian
section babies.
100. You are attending to a mother and
newborn being moved from the delivery table to
the stretcher, what is the best position for her  
baby to be in.
a. Supine on the mother’s abdomen.
b. Supine beside the mother’s trunk.
c. Prone on the mother’s abdomen.
d. Prone on the mother’s chest.
 Correct answers: Prone on  
the mother’s chest.
FINALS
1. Gaile delivers an 8-lb boy after a 14-hour labor.
In the post partal period, assessing for which of
the following is the priority?
A. Postpartal hemorrhage  
B. Endometritis
C. Thrombophlebitis
D. Amniotic embolus
2. Christine has reached 8cm dilatation, you
noticed that her fetal heart rate suddenly slows.
On perineal inspection, you observe the fetal
cord has prolapsed. Your first action would be
to:
A. Turn her to left side.
B. Place her in knee-chest position.
C. Replace the cord in gentle pressure.
D. Cover the exposed cord with a dry
and sterile gauze.
 
3. After an hour of oxytocin therapy, a woman in
labor states she feels dizzy and nauseated. Your
best action would be to:  
 
A. Assess the rate of flow of the
oxytocin infusion.
B. Administer oral orange juice for
added potassium.
C. Assess her vaginally for full dilatation.
D. Instruct her to breathe in and out
rapidly.
 
4. Which of the following is recommended for all
women during the childbearing age?
 
A. Additional B vitamins
B. Additional vitamin A
D. Vitamin C supplement
5. Hanna has developed dystocia. You would
explain that this term means:
 
A. High blood pressure related to difficult
labor.
B. Difficult or abnormal labor.
C. Potential for placental detachment.
D. Muscle weakness related to
prolonged labor.
6. The assessment findings for a client with an
incompetent cervix should contain which of the
following?
 
A. Anxiety and fear R/T situational self-
esteem.
B. History of one of his sisters in law
with the same diagnosis.
C. History of repeated, spontaneous
second trimester termination of
pregnancy.
D. The need to discuss the
importance of cervical test.
7. Ann, a gravida 8, para 7 is in Ramos General
Hospital only 15 minutes when she begins to
deliver precipitously. The fetal head begins to
deliver as you walk into the labor room. Your
best action would be to:
A. Place a hand gently on the fetal
head to guide delivery.
B. Ask her to push with next contraction
so delivery is rapid.
C. Assess BP and PR to detect
placental bleeding.
D. Attach a fetal monitor to determine
fetal status.
8. Faith, a pregnant mother with cardiac problem.
When teaching the pregnant woman with Class
II heart disease, the nurse should advise her to:
A. Gain at least 30 lbs.
B. Increase calcium in the diet.
C. Refrain strenuous activity.
D. Inform her of the need t to limit fluid
intake to one liter.
9. You assess that a fetus is in breech
presentation. Where will you auscultate for fetal
heart sounds? 
 
A. High in the abdomen
B. Left lateral abdomen.
C. Low in the abdomen
D. Right lateral abdomen
10. Which of the following is safe step to take during
an induction of labor? 
 
A. Avoid the continuous use of both
uterine and fetal heart rate monitoring.
B. Observe the contractions are less
than 5 minutes apart and less than 70
seconds in duration.
C. Prepare oxytocin as piggyback
solution as prescribed, being
extremely careful of the dose used.
D. Urge the woman to remain on her
back during labor to offer a good blood
supply to the uterine muscle.
 
11. Which of the following is the most frequent
reason for post partal hemorrhage?  C. Frequent partial voiding never
 
A. Endometritis
B. Uterine atony
C. Perineal laceration
D. Deciminated intravascular
coagulation
 
12. A postpartal woman has a fourth-degree
laceration. Which of the following physician’s
order would you question? 
 
A. Urging her to drink all the milk on
her tray.
B. Administration of acetaminophen for
pain.
C. Administration of sitz bath
D. Administration of enema.
13. The nurse assesses the postpartum vaginal
discharge (lochia) on four clients. Which of the
following assessments would warrant notification
of the physician? 
 
A. A dark red discharge on a 2-day
postpartum client
B. A pink to brownish discharge on a
client who is 5 days postpartum
C. Almost colorless to creamy discharge
on a client 2 weeks after delivery  
D. A bright red discharge 5 days after
delivery
 
14. The Santos couple will undergo testing for
infertility. Infertility is said to be exist when:
 
A. A woman has no uterus.
B. A woman has no children.
C. A couple has been trying to
conceive for one year.  
D. A couple has wanted a child for six
months.
 
15. Kaye’s cousin on the other hand, knowing
Marshal’s specialization asks what artificial
insemination by donor entails. Which would be
your best answer if you were Nurse Marshal?  B. Her uterus is 3 fingerwidth under the
 
A. Donor sperm are introduced
vaginally into the uterus or cervix
B. Donor sperm are injected intra-
abdominally into each ovary.
C. Artificial sperm are injected vaginally  
to test tubal patency.
D. The husband’s sperm is administered
intravenously weekly.
 
16. Karla, a postpartal client calls you into her room
because she is having a heavy lochia flow
containing large clots. Your first action would be
to:
 
A. Assess her BP.
B. Palpate her fundus.  
C. Turn to her left side
D. Assess her perineum.
 
17. Why are postpartal women prone to urinary  
retention?  A. IVF
 
A. Catheterization at the time of
delivery reduces bladder tonicity.
B. Decreased bladder sensation results
from edema due to pressure of birth.
relieves the bladder pressure.
D. Mild dehydration causes a
concentrated urine volume in the urine.
 
18. You administer methylergometrine (Methergine),
0.2 mg, to a postpartal woman with uterine
subinvolution. Which of the following
assessment should you make before
administering medication? 
 
A. Her urine output is more than 50
ml/hour.
B. Her BP is below 140/90mmHg.
C. She can walk without experiencing
dizziness.
D. Her hematocrit level is higher than
45%.
19. You are caring for Irene who has had a baby by
cesarean birth. Which of the following would be
the most important assessment to make? 
 
A. Whether her abdomen is soft or
not.
B. Whether her perineum is edematous.
C. If her breast fill with milk by the third
day.
D. If she wants to breastfeed or not.
20. On the second day postpartum following a
cesarean birth, at which of the following
locations would you expect to palpate the
woman’s fundus? 
 
A. Two fingers above the umbilicus.
B. At the umbilicus.
C. Two fingers below the umbilicus.
D. Four fingers below the umbilicus.
21. Which assessment on the third postpartal day
would make you evaluate Preggy as having
uterine subinvolution? 
 
A. Her uterus is 2 cm above the
symphysis pubis.
umbilicus.
C. Her uterus is at the level of the
umbilicus.
D. She experiences “pulling” pain while
breastfeeding.
22. A postpartal woman with thrombophlebitis tells
you that her legs are very painful. Which of the
following actions would be most appropriate to
relieve this pain? 
 
A. Massage the calf of the legs.
B. Keep covers off the legs.
C. Apply ice to her leg above the knee.
D. Urge her to walk to relieve muscle
spasm.
23. The type of assisted reproductive method.
Which is done by instilling ova and sperm into
the fallopian tube for fertilization is 
B. GIFT
C. ZIFT
D. Cloning
 24. Beah is scheduled to have epidural anesthesia
for a cesarean birth. Which of the following
would you anticipate including in the  
preoperative plan of care while she waits for the
anesthetic?  avoided during the last month of
 
A. Encourage her to ambulate.
B. Administering an oral antacid.
C. Administering morphine sulfate IM.
D. Keeping her turned on her side.
 
25. Beah asks you if she will have any difficulty
breastfeeding following a cesarean birth. Your
best response would be that:
A. You do not recommend she try to
breastfeed following a cesarean birth.
B. Although she can try, it is hard to find
a comfortable position to hold a newborn
to breastfeed.  
C. She will need too much analgesia
postoperatively to make breastfeeding
safe.
D. You will help her find a
comfortable position for  
breastfeeding her infant.
 
26. Which of the following drugs does the nurse
expect to be ordered if preterm delivery is
inevitable?  A. Tell her to breast feed more
 
A. Yutopar (Ritodrine)
B. Pitocin (Oxytocin)
C. Bricanyl (Terbutaline)
D. Betamethasone
 
27. Following a cesarean birth, Beah has 3,000 ml
of IVF ordered. You anticipate in your plan of  
care that she will be kept NPO except for
minimal ice chips until which time?  hours’ postpartum that are as follows: BP 90/60;
 
A. Until 24-hr post procedure.
B. Until 48-hr post procedure.
C. Until bowel sounds have returned.
D. Until her bladder tone has returned.
 
28. To prevent thrombophlebitis following a
cesarean birth, which of the following would be
most important to implement?  C. Assess the uterus for firmness and
 
A. Urge the client to cough and take
breaths.  
B. Encourage to ambulate.
C. Urge the client not to dislodge the IVF
line.
D. Instruct the client to press inward on
her abdomen periodically.
29. Which of the following women will most likely not
be a candidate to attempt a vaginal birth a after
having had a previous cesarean section?  C. Incision
 
A. Woman who had a cesarean section  
because of placenta previa.
B. Woman who had a cesarean section
because of cephalopelvic disproportion.
C. Woman who has a gynecoid-shaped
pelvis.
D. Woman who had a cesarean section
because of a breech presentation.
 
30. Dinah expresses concern about sexual activity  
during pregnancy. She has heard that
intercourse is harmful to a fetus and that,
besides, it is uncomfortable for pregnant women.
An appropriate reply by Dinah’s nurse would be
to:
A. tell her that intercourse should be
pregnancy.
B. reassure her that intercourse during
pregnancy is neither harmful nor
uncomfortable.
C. ask whether she and her partner are
having sexual problems.
D. state that her fears are normal and
suggest she and her partner try various
positions for intercourse.
31. Before assessing the postpartum client’s uterus
for firmness and position in relation to the
umbilicus and midline, which of the following
should the nurse do first? 
A. Assess the vital signs.
B. Administer analgesia.
C. Ambulate her in the hall.
D. Assist her to urinate.
32. Which of the following should the nurse do when
a primipara who is lactating tells the nurse that
she has sore nipples? 
 
frequently.
B. Administer a narcotic before breast
feeding.
C. Encourage her to wear a nursing
brassiere.
D. Use soap and water to clean the
nipples.
33. The nurse assesses the vital signs of a client, 4
temperature 38.5ºC; pulse 100 weak, thready;
RR- 20 per minute. Which of the following
should the nurse do first? 
 
A. Report the temperature to the
physician
B. Recheck the blood pressure with
another cuff.
position.
D. Determine the amount of lochia.
34. A postpartum client has a temperature of 38ºC,
with a uterus that is tender when palpated
remains unusually large, and not descending as
normally expected. Which of the following should
the nurse assess next? 
A. Lochia
B. Breasts
D. Urine
35. The nurse would anticipate a cesarean birth for
a client who has its infection at the onset of
labor? 
 
A. Toxoplasmosis
B. Herpes-simplex virus
C. Human papilloma virus
D. Hepatitis
36. The rationale for using a prostaglandin gel for a
client prior to the induction of labor is to: 
 
  
A. Soften and efface the cervix.
B. Numb cervical pain receptors
C. Prevent cervical lacerations.
D. Stimulate uterine contractions.
 
37. Another client named Kaye is diagnosed as  
having endometriosis. This condition interferes
with fertility because:  infertility. Which of the following factors prevent
 
A. Endometrial implants can block the
fallopian tubes.
B. The uterine cervix becomes inflamed
and swollen.
C. The ovaries stop producing adequate
estrogen.
D. Pressure in the pituitary leads to  
decreased FSH levels.
 
38. Kaye’s cousin on the other hand, knowing
Marshal’s specialization asks what artificial
insemination by donor entails. Which would be
your best answer if you were Nurse Marshal?
 
A. Donor sperm are introduced vaginally  
into the uterus or cervix.
B. Donor sperm are injected intra-
abdominally into each ovary.
C. Artificial sperm are injected vaginally
to test tubal patency.
D. The husband’s sperm is administered
intravenously weekly.
 
39. Which of the following findings on a newly  
delivered woman’s chart would indicate she is at
risk for developing postpartum hemorrhage?  repeated after 2-3 months is:
A. Post term delivery
B. Epidural anesthesia
C. Grand multiparity
D. PROM
40. Mrs. Lovely. A 37-year-old post-partum client is
at risk of thrombophlebitis. Which of the
following nursing intervention decreases her
chance of developing thrombophlebitis?  A. imminent onset of labor
 
A. Breastfeeding the newborn
B. Early ambulation
C. Administration of anticoagulant.  
D. Immobilization and elevation of legs
 
41. The medical record of a client reveals a
condition in which the fetus cannot pass through
the maternal pelvis. The nurse interprets this as:  resumed:
A. Contracted pelvis
B. Cephalopelvic pelvic disproportion
C. Cervical insufficiency
D. Maternal disproportion
42. A positive Homan’s sign indicates which of the
following?
 
A. Possible mastitis
B. Probable UTI
C. Possible post-partum hemorrhage
D. Probable deep vein thrombosis
 
43. Mrs. Makerot has been diagnosed with
puerperal (postpartum) infection. Which of the
following events most likely contributes to the  
development of puerperal infection?  51. Following are steps in in vitro fertilization 1.
 
A. Prolonged 1st stage of labor more
than 12 hours
B. Prolonged rupture of membranes
more than 24 hours
C. Midline episiotomy
D. Multiparity
44. There are number of factors that lead to male
sperm motility or movements? 
 
A. Spermatogenesis
B. Changes in the seminal fluid
C. Ejaculation problems
D. Obstruction of the seminiferous
tubules
45. Which of the following is the most common
cause of Syphilis?
 
A. Escherichia coli
B. Neisseria gonorrheae
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Treponema pallidium
46. Which drug would the nurse expect to administer
to a woman with infertility secondary to
anovulation to suppress the hypothalamus? 
 
A. Clomipine (Clomid)
B. Bromocriptine (Parlodel)
C. Levothyroxine (Synthroid)
D. Testosterone Cypionate
47. Collection of semen for analysis, and must be
A. After 2-4 days of sexual abstinence.
B. After 1 month of sexual abstinence.
C. After sexual contact.
D. After sexual arousal
48. Which of the following is unlikely to happen
when the fetal membranes rupture? 
 
B. risk of infection
C. risk of cord prolapsed.
D. maternal hypovolemia
49. When Mrs. Dimatantu is receiving discharge
instructions from the nurse, she asks the nurse
when she can resume sexual intercourse. The
nurse states that sexual intercourse can be
 
A. 8 weeks after giving birth.
B. With doctor approval
C. When the lochia has stopped.
D. At the man’s discretion
50. When Mrs. Dimatantu is receiving discharge
instructions from the nurse, she asks the nurse
when she can resume sexual intercourse. The
nurse states that sexual intercourse can be
resumed: 
 
A. 8 weeks after giving birth.
B. With doctor approval
C. When the lochia has stopped.
D. At the man’s discretion
Capture of ova 2. Ovulation 3. Fertilization of
ova and growth 4. Insertion of fertilized ova 
   59. Mrs. Dimagiba has continued to breast-feed her
A. 2,1,3,4 infant every 3-4 hours except night. About 8
B. 3,4,1,2 hours after delivery, she complains that her
C. 4,3,2,1 breast has become larger, firmer and tender.
D. 1,2,3,4 Nurse Dee recognizes that Mrs. Dimagiba is
  probably experiencing: 
52. Which of the following symptoms is least  
important in characterizing postpartum “blues”?  A. Mastitis
  B. Engorgement
A. Crying easily and feeling despondent. C. Let-down reflex
B. Loss of appetite and anxiety D. Involution
C. Altered body image.  
D. Difficulty sleeping and poor 60. A feeling of ambivalence about the pregnancy
concentration. is: 
   
53. The most susceptible veins for thrombophlebitis A. a sign of unwanted pregnancy
are the following except:  B. normal in early pregnancy
  C. rare at any stage of pregnancy
A. pelvic D. typical in late pregnancy
B. hip  
C. upper extremities 61. The risk of postpartum thromboembolism occurs
D. lower leg because of physiologic increase in: 
   
54. In reviewing discharge instructions with Mrs. A. Coagulation factors
Dimatantu, Nurse Veah is aware that the higher B. Heart rate
incidence of postpartum “blues” can result from:  C. Diuresis
  D. Blood pressure
A. Fatigue  
B. Subinvolution 62. What should the nurse expect as a possible
C. Neonatal jaundice cause of bleeding after 30 minutes after birth
D. Pregnancy-induced hypertension wherein the fundus is firm and increasing
  amount of lochia rubra and a few large clots? 
55. Methods used to initiate induction of labor.  
1. Oxytocin A. Prolonged 2nd stage of labor
2. Amniotomy B. Primiparous status
3. Cesarean section C. Inadequate amount of oxytocin
4. Terbutaline D. Retained placental fragments.
5. Internal Examination  
6. Prostaglandin gel suppository form  63. Which option below is considered a positive
  Homan's Sign for the assessment of a deep vein
A. 1, 2, 6 thrombosis (DVT)? 
B. 3 & 5  
C. 4 & 6 A. The patient reports pain when the
D. All of the above foot is manually plantarflexed.
  B. The patient experiences pain when
56. Beta-adrenergic drugs that decrease effect of the leg is extended.
calcium on muscle activation to slow or stop C. the patient experiences pain when
uterine contractions.  the leg is flexed.
  D. The patient reports pain when the
A. Terbutaline and Ritodrine foot is manually dorsiflexed.
B. Nifedipine  
C. Magnesium sulfate 64. The lower leg of a client with thrombophlebitis
D. Indomethacin looks different than that of the unaffected leg
  with the 3 symptoms. 
57. Which of the following clients are at risk of post- 1. Cool extremity 
partum hemorrhage? 2. Redness 
1. Mothers with macrosomia baby 3. Warm extremity 
2. Polyhydramnios 4. Swelling
3. Precipitous labor 5. Cyanosis 
4. Obese 6. Pain 
5. Multiparity   
  A. 2,3,4
A. 1,2 B. 1,2,3
B. 3,4 C. 4,5,6
C. 4,5 D. All of the above
D. All of the above  
  65. Which of the factors below regarding a deep
58. Which of the following is not a common cause of vein thrombosis is not included in Virchow's
early postpartum bleeding?  Triad? 
   
A. Atony A. Hypercoagulability
B. Laceration B. Increased venous blood flow.
C. Subinvolution C. Stasis of venous blood
D. Hematoma D. Endothelial damage
   
 66. Which assessment relates most directly to
rupture membranes and release of amniotic
fluid?  C. Rh incompatibility
 
A. Bloody show  
B. Fluid with a pH of 7.0 to 7.5 with
nitrazine test
C. Fluid with a pH of 5.0 with nitrazine
test
D. Woman complains of urge to push.
 
67. In evaluating the effects if oxytocin after delivery,
the nurse should monitor for:  uterus.
 
A. effective breastfeeding.
B. engorged breasts.
C. relief of pain.
D. firmness of the uterus.
 
68. Which of the following contraceptive methods
also offers protection against sexually  
transmitted infections?  75. A patient in labor would require a cesarean
 
A. Abstinence
B. Coitus interruptus
C. Fertility awareness methods
D. Oral contraceptives
 
69. Which assessment most closely relates to a  
diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy?  76. Based on Mrs. Aniametten twin delivery, the
 
A. Brownish red, tapioca-like vesicles
B. Elevated temperature
C. Spotting or bleeding 2 to 3 weeks
after a missed menstrual period
D. Sudden absence of fetal movement
 
70. Which nursing intervention would be appropriate
for a client who has a diastolic blood pressure of  
more than 20 mmHg on the “roll-over” test? S
 
A. Increase intake of oral fluids
B. Rest on left side as much as possible
C. Schedule follow-up care every 2
weeks.
D. Use the stairs to increase activity
level.
 
 
71. A mother receiving medications for pregnancy
induced hypertension should have her diastolic
blood pressure maintained in the range of 90 to  
100 mmHg to:  78. When taking an obstetrical history on a pregnant
 
A. avoid causing fetal anoxia.
B. ensure progression of labor.
C. prevent premature contractions.
D. present sudden elevations in pulse.
72. Which of the following would be a priority
intervention for a client with the prolapsed cord?  B. G4 T1 P1 A1 L2
 
A. Cover the cord with a dry sterile
tower.  
B. Monitor the mother’s vital signs.
C. Place the woman in the
Trendelenburg position
D. Start medication as ordered.
 
73. A gravida 3 para 3 patient delivers a term
newborn. The patient is blood group O and her
infant is blood group A. the baby begins to
develop jaundice at 12 hours of age. This
newborn’s jaundice is most likely caused by:  D. Frequency
A. Sepsis neonatorum
B. Physiologic jaundice
D. ABO blood group incompatibility
74. Which of the following is true about Intra
Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection? 
 
A. Sperm is directly introduced into
ovum in a culture medium in the
laboratory and then the zygote/embryo
is transferred in the fallopian tube or
B. Transfer of ovum collected from
donor into fallopian tube of another
female.
C. Semen either collected from the
husband or a donor is artificially
introduced either into a vagina or into
the uterus of the female.
delivery if she had: 
 
A. Syphilis
B. Toxoplasmosis
C. Cytomegalovirus
D. Genital herpes
most important intervention the nurse should
implement is to: 
 
A. Assess fundal tone and lochia.
B. Apply cold pack to the perineal area.
C. Administer analgesic as ordered.
D. Encourage voiding by offering
bedpan.
77. Turucan reads a Doctor’s Order of Cefazolin1g
IVP q 120 ANST. The nurse is correct if he
interprets that:
 
A. The patient needs to be skin tested
first before giving the medication
intravenously.
B. The medication will be given through
Intravenous Push.
C. The medication will be given every 12
hours following the initial administration.
D. The patient has negative skin testing.
client who estates, “I had a son born at 38
weeks’ gestation, a daughter born at 30 weeks’
gestation, and I lost a baby at about 8 weeks’,”
the nurse should record her obstetrical history as
which of the following? 
A. G2 T2 P0 A0 L2
C. G3 T1 P1 A0 L2
D. G3 T2 P0 A0 L2
79. The nurse records the progress of labor of jail.
One contraction started at 8:40 and ended 8:41.
The next contraction started at 8:45 and ended
8:46. Which of the following refers to the period
between 8:41 to 8:45? 
 
A. Intensity
B. Duration
C. Interval
 80. A public health nurse would instruct a pregnant
woman to notify physician immediately if which
of the following symptoms occur during
pregnancy?  86. Zesa is being admitted to TGH for severe
 
A. Presence of dark color of the neck.
B. Increased vaginal discharge.
C. Swelling of the face.
D. Breast tenderness.
 
81. Paula asks her nurse about the use of vitamin
and mineral supplements during the second and
third trimesters of pregnancy. Which of the
following recommendations would be most
appropriate for the nurse to make?  quiet, private room.
A. Pregnant women with an adequate
diet do not need vitamin or mineral
supplements.
B. All pregnant women should take a
multivitamin capsule daily.
C. Pregnant women should supplement
their diet with a minimum of 30 mg of
iron and 100 mg of vitamin C daily.
D. Pregnant women should supplement
their diet with a minimum of 30 mg of
iron and 0.2 mg of folate daily.
 
82. Mrs. Nagdurugo is at risk for abruption placenta.
Which of the following assessment would most
likely lead you to suspect that this has  
happened?  88. Which of the following is the most common sign
 
A. Sharp fundal pain and discomfort
between contraction.
B. Painless vaginal bleeding and a fall in
blood pressure.
C. Pain in the lower quadrant and
increase pulse rate.  
D. An increase blood pressure and
oliguria.
 
83. What helpful strategies will help you as a nurse
and the patient in condition like Mrs. Matulungin
with a diagnosis of placenta previa?  B.
 
A. Therapeutic counseling and your
presence.
B. Listening to the fetal heart sounds  
and emphatic caring words.
C. Reassurance your presence and
conversation.
D. Attend to her, diet and hygiene
needs.
 
84. Day with preterm rupture of membranes has
blood work ordered daily. The results of which of
the following would be most important to  
assess?  91. In performing a routine fundal assessment, the
 
A. Hemoglobin and hematocrit
B. Sodium and potassium level
C. Serum creatinine
D. White blood count
 
85. Which of the following nursing diagnosis would
be most appropriate for a woman diagnosed with  
PIH?  92. Which of the following situations is more likely to
 
A. Deficient fluid volume related to
vasospasm of arteries.
B. Ineffective tissue perfusion related to
poor heart contraction.
C. Risk for injury related to fetal distress.
D. Imbalanced nutrition related to
decreased sodium levels.
 
preeclampsia. When deciding on where to place
her, the most appropriate area for Zesa is?
 
A. Near the nursery so she can maintain
hope she will have a child.
B. Near the elevator so she can be
transported easily.
C. Near the nurse’s station so she can
be observed closely.
D. In the back hallway where there is a
87. Mrs. Reyal was admitted to the OB ward in
active labor. During contraction, the nurse
observes a 15 beats per minute deceleration of
the FHR below the baseline rate. What would be
the most appropriate action? 
 
A. Prepare for immediate delivery
because the fetus is in distress.
B. Call the physician immediately and
await the orders.
C. Turn the client on her left side to
increase venous return.
D. Record this normal fetal response to
contraction on the chart
of preeclampsia?
 
A. Proteinuria and hypertension
B. Hypertension and hyporeflexia
C. Glucosuria and proteinuria
D. Angle edema and glucosuria
89. Mars is admitted with a diagnosis of Ectopic
pregnancy. For which of the following would you
anticipate beginning preparation? 
 
A. Bed rest for the next 4 weeks.
Intravenous administration of
tocolytic.
C. Immediate surgery.
D. Internal uterine monitoring
90. Which of the following would alert the nurse that
the client maybe about to experience seizure in
PIH client? 
 
A. Decreased contraction intensity.
B. Decreased temperature.
C. Epigastric pain
D. Hyporeflexia
nurse finds Mrs. Dimawari’s fundus to be boggy.
The nurse should first: 
 
A. Call the doctor
B. Massage the fundus
C. Assess lochia flow.
D. Start giving oxytocin.
predispose a patient to postpartum
hemorrhage? 
 
A. Birth of 3,175 grams
B. Birth of twins
C. Prolonged 1st stage of labor
D. PIH
  D. Treponema pallidum
93. How the nurse determines the frequency of  
uterine contractions?  100. Which of the following signs and
  symptoms indicated postpartum client is
A. Time from the beginning of one experiencing cystitis? 
contraction to the beginning of the next  
contraction. A. Urinary retention
B. Time from the beginning of one B. Burning sensation on urination.
contraction to the end of the next C. Dribbling of urine
contraction. D. Difficulty in starting urinary stream.
C. Time from the peak of one
contraction to the peak of the next
contraction. NCM 109 Pedia Lec
D. Time from the end of one contraction
Midterms
to the beginning of the next contraction.
 
1.SITUATION: Demy a 3 year old patient brought in TPH
94. In the event of precipitous labor, which of the
emergency room with cystic fibrosis. Lynn was assigned
following is the most important action? 
in pediatric ward. 1. A sputum specimen is collected from
 
Demy for culture purposes, the primary reason being to
A. Call the doctor
learn. Single choice.
B. Remain with the patient and coach
a. whether the child's cystic fibrosis is under
her.
control.
C. Push the fetal back until equipment
b. what organism is responsible for the child's
are assembled.
disease.
D. Ask the patient to do shallow, rapid
c. if there is blood present in the child's lungs
breathing.
tracheobronchial tree
 
d. which portion of the child's lungs is affected.
95. Which of the following characteristics is most
commonly associated with LGA? 
Correct answers: what organism is responsible for the
 
child's disease.
A. Weight under 4000 grams
B. Hypothermia
2. Which of the following statements best defines cystic
C. Risk for birth injury
fibrosis? Single choice.
D. Dysmorphic features
a. an acquired lung condition that occurs at birth
 
due to oxygen deficiency 1
96. Which of the following factors is not typically
b. a congenital anomaly occurring during fetal
lead to male subfertility? 
development as a result of dietary deficiencies of
 
the mother
A. Disturbance in spermatogenesis
c. an autosomal recessive disorder that mainly
(production of sperm cells)
affects the exocrine glands and does multiple
B. Obstruction in the seminiferous
system damage
tubules, ducts, or vessels preventing
d. a respiratory condition affecting people of
movement of spermatozoa.
Mediterranean descent, involving mainly
C. problems of ova transport through the
exchange at a microscopic level in the lungs
fallopian tubes to the uterus.
D. ejaculation problems
Correct answers: an autosomal recessive disorder that
 
mainly affects the exocrine glands and does multiple
97. The client is on her 12th week of pregnancy.
system damage
She has been diagnosed to have ruptured
ectopic pregnancy. Which of the following signs
3. Which of the following represents the life expectancy
and symptoms are characteristics of the
of a child with cystic fibrosis?. Single choice.
condition? 
a. 21 year old
 
b. 30 year old
A. Profuse bright red vaginal bleeding.
c. 12 year old
B. Spotting, abdominal pain that radiates
d. 7 year old
to the shoulder.
C. Elevated hemoglobin and hematocrit
Correct answers: 30 year old
levels.
D. Leukopenia decreased body
4. Lynn can expect Demy's to have stools that are
temperature.
typically. Single choice.
 
a. bulky and foul odor
98. Which finding is most characteristic of perineal
b. dry and have the odor of ammonia
hematoma? 
c. watery and sweet in odor
 
d. dark in color and have almost no odor
A. Fever
B. Lethargy
Correct answers: bulky and foul odor
C. Positive homan’s sign
D. Severe vulvar pain
5.During the warm weather, the nurse will assess
 
children with cystic fibrosis to see if they need which of
99. Which of the following is the most common
the following supplements added to their diet?. Single
cause of mastitis? 
choice.
 
a. zinc
A. Escherichia coli
b. magnesium
B. Neisseria gonorrheae
c. salt
C. Staphylococcus aureus
 d. potassium
Correct answers: salt
6.Demy is to have postural (bronchial) drainage. The
times in the day when it is best for Lynn to plan to carry
out postural drainage is shortly. Single choice.
a. after meals
b. before meals
c. before rest periods
d. after rest periods
Correct answers: before meals
7.In working with children with cystic fibrosis, the nurse
expects to carry out and provide teaching on which of
the following treatments?. Single choice.
a. dietary modification involving a low protein, high
fat, low carbohydrate diet
b. range of motion and a highly regimented
exercise program
c. preparation for renal dialysis and strict intake
and output
d. eto answer
Correct answers:
8.Lynn should understand prior to evaluating the effects
of postural drainage that the primary reason for Demy's
having this type of therapy is ton help to. Single choice.
a. dilate the bronchioles.
b. promote better use of diaphragm.
c. improve circulation in the chest cavity.
d. clean the lungs of mucopurulent material.
Correct answers: clean the lungs of mucopurulent
material.
9.SITUATION: Mr. John a new staff nurse was assigned
in the pediatric ward that is caring for 18 months old with
celiac disease. Matt is admitted to the pediatric unit with
a diagnosis of celiac disease. John who was assigned to
this child realizes that the typical stool of a child with this
disease will be:. Single choice.
a. black and tarry
b. normal colored and pencil thin or ribbonlike in
appearance
c. bulky, putty colored, foul smelling, greasy, and
likely to float
d. white and loose
Correct answers: bulky, putty colored, foul smelling,
greasy, and likely to float
10.The nurse should expect that, because Matt has
celiac disease, his stools are most likely to be. Single
choice.
a. especially dark in color
b. abnormally small in amount
c. unusually hard in consistency
d. particularly offensive in odor
Correct answers: particularly offensive in odor
11.During assessment, a physical finding John is most
likely to observe is that Matt has. Single choice.
a. an enlarged liver
b. a protuberant abdomen
c. a tender inguinal lymph nodes
d. edema in the lower extremities
Correct answers: a protuberant abdomen
12.The family of a child with celiac’s disease is receiving
discharge teaching in regard to diet. The nurse will teach
the family to modify the diet in which of the following
ways?. Single choice.
a. Eliminate wheat, barley, rye, and oats and
substitute corn, rice, and millet.
b. Increase bulk including raw vegetables, fruit, and
a variety of cereals and nuts.
c. Eliminate fats but increase natural fish oils and
olive oils.
d. Eliminate lactose products such as milk, cheese,
ice cream, and butter.
Correct answers: Eliminate wheat, barley, rye, and oats
and substitute corn, rice, and millet.
13.For how long is it likely that Matt will need to remain
on a special diet. Single choice.
a. For the rest of his life.
b. Until the disease is well controlled.
c. Until approximately the age of puberty.
d. For the period required to desensitize him to
offending foods.
Correct answers: For the rest of his life.
14.Matt's wears reusable diapers at night. His mother
asks what safety precautions she should take his wet,
soiled diapers. Which of the following statements should
guide the nurse when she responds to Matt's mother? ..
Single choice.
a. The diaper should be boiled after they are
washed.
b. The diapers should be soaked in an antiseptic
solution before they are washed
c. It would be best to use disposable diapers until
the diarrhea is under control.
d. There are no special precautions necessary in
the care of this infant's diaper.
Correct answers: There are no special precautions
necessary in the care of this infant's diaper.
15.Which of the following makes children prone to
tonsillitis and pharyngitis?. Single choice.
a. not brushing their teeth and flossing after meals
and at bedtime
b. frequent upper respiratory tract infections and
being around other children who may be infected
c. eating large amounts of sugar and drinking high
sugar content drinks that encourage growth of
pathogens
d. not bathing properly or frequently
Correct answers: frequent upper respiratory tract
infections and being around other children who may be
infected
16.The school nurse encourages the parents of a
student who has a severe sore throat to take the child to
the pediatrician. The nurse is especially concerned about
the possibility of a streptococcal tonsillitis mainly
because of which of the following?. Single choice.
a. If streptococcal tonsillitis is not treated
adequately it may lead to scarlet fever, otitis
media, or more serious complications.
b. The student will miss a lot of school and fall
behind in schoolwork and homework
assignments and may even possibly fail a grade.
c. Other children may also get sore throats if this
student is not aggressively treated.
d. If untreated, streptococcal tonsillitis may cause
anemia, weight loss, and lethargy.
Correct answers: If streptococcal tonsillitis is not
treated adequately it may lead to scarlet fever, otitis
media, or more serious complications.
17.The mother of a two-and-a-half-year old child who
has had tonsillitis asks about the possibility of a
tonsillectomy for the child. The nurse informs the mother
that tonsillectomies are usually performed when the child
is over three years old. The mother wants to know why
children younger than three have to wait for a
tonsillectomy. Which of the following is the nurse’s best
answer?. Single choice.
a. “Surgery is too difficult on a younger child
because their mouths are so small, making it
difficult to get to the tonsils.”
b. “It is too scary for a younger child and they don’t
understand what is happening.”
c. “Younger children are more prone to excessive
blood loss and/or the tonsils growing back.”
d. “Separation from the parents or caregivers is
much more difficult in the child under three.”
Correct answers: “Younger children are more prone to
excessive blood loss and/or the tonsils growing back.”
18.The nurse explains to parents why an adenoidectomy
is sometimes indicated with the tonsillectomy. Which of
the following is the nurse’s best explanation?. Single
choice.
a. An adenoidectomy is justified when a child’s
enlarged adenoids block the flow of air through
the nasal passages.”
b. “Some surgeons prefer to take out the adenoids
at the same time as the tonsillectomy because it
saves the child from a second surgery.”
c. Without the tonsils to screen out foreign
proteins, the adenoids are more easily infected.”
d. “It is hard to take out the tonsils without
removing the adenoids because they often are
adhered to each other.”
Correct answers: An adenoidectomy is justified when a
child’s enlarged adenoids block the flow of air through
the nasal passages.”
19.Which of the following positions does the nurse use
for the child who has just returned to the room from
surgery?. Single choice.
a. elevated head and legs
b. on the abdomen or side
c. on the back and flat
d. on the back or sitting up
Correct answers: on the abdomen or side
20.A child who is in the first postoperative day after
tonsillectomy starts to cough and wants to blow his nose.
Which of the following actions by the nurse would be
best?. Single choice.
a. Offer the child some tissue and give instructions
on its disposal.
b. Remind the child not to cough or blow his nose.
c. Tell him he can cough but not to blow his nose.
d. Inform the child that he can blow his nose but
not cough.
Correct answers: Tell him he can cough but not to blow
his nose.
21.The nurse is assigned to care for a child who had a
tonsillectomy yesterday. The child complains of a sore
throat and wants something cool. Which of the following
cool drinks or food would be acceptable to offer the
child?. Single choice.
a. lime sherbet
b. chilled tomato juice
c. cold cola
d. cherry Jell-O
Correct answers: lime sherbet
22.Which of the following signs or symptoms is the
earliest manifestation of bleeding in a child who has had
a tonsillectomy?. Single choice.
a. frequent swallowing
b. spitting up blood
c. coffee ground emesis
d. complaint of thirst
Correct answers:
23.Which of the following outcomes is the most
important for a child who has had a tonsillectomy?.
Single choice.
a. no postoperative bleeding
b. bonding with the nursing staff
c. absence of pain
d. drinking sufficient water
Correct answers: no postoperative bleeding
24.The nurse assessing a child with a respiratory
problem finds stridor, which is best described by which of
the following?. Single choice.
a. excursion of the chest wall beyond that normally
seen in the healthy child
b. a high-pitched sound produced by an obstruction
of the trachea or larynx
c. Message for respondents who select this answer
d. a triad of respiratory symptoms
e. substernal retractions and nasal flaring
Correct answers: a high-pitched sound produced by an
obstruction of the trachea or larynx
25.Examination of the throat of a child with acute
epiglottis by depressing the tongue is. Single choice.
a. a good idea because there is a characteristic
patchy redness that aids in diagnosis
b. contraindicated due to the possibility of causing
complete airway obstruction
c. impossible because the tongue is too swollen
and tender to allow it
d. to be done carefully because of the possibility of
causing additional pain
Correct answers: contraindicated due to the possibility
of causing complete airway obstruction
26.The nurse is assessing a child with croup. Which of
the following signs and/or symptoms would the nurse
associate with croup and most expect to find?. Single
choice.
a. barklike cough, hoarseness, inspiratory stridor
b. expiratory stridor, irregular breathing, and weak
cough
c. Cheyne-Stokes respirations and substernal
retraction
d. almost continual cough and complete laryngitis
Correct answers: barklike cough, hoarseness,
inspiratory stridor
27.Which of the following statements best describes
croup?. Single choice.
a. a common childhood disease
b. an autoimmune-initiated infection
c. a life-threatening bacterial infection
d. a respiratory condition similar to a cold
Correct answers: an autoimmune-initiated infection
28.The nurse is assessing the skin moisture of a child
with laryngotracheobronchitis. Which of the following
explains why the nurse assessed the skin moisture in
this case?. Single choice.
a. diaphoresis is associated with increased
respiratory effort
b. skin moisture is a relatively good measure of the
degree of infection
c. increased skin moisture will signal danger of
ketoacidosis
d. to get some measure of how dehydrated the
child might become
Correct answers: diaphoresis is associated with
increased respiratory effort
29.The nurse working with a child with
laryngotracheobronchitis is offering the child tiny
medicine cups of fluid and giving stickers and prizes for
meeting goals related to intake of fluid. All this effort on
the part of the nurse to get the child to drink more fluid is
because the fluid is needed to:. Single choice.
a. prevent diarrhea
b. loosen secretions
c. maintain electrolyte balance
d. keep kidneys functioning
Correct answers: loosen secretions
30.The nurse assessing a child with respiratory syncytial
virus (RSV) bronchiolitis looks up the disorder as a
review and is most likely to find which of the following
classic symptoms associated with this disorder? a. b. c.
d.. Single choice.
a. clubbing of the fingers, poor circulation of
extremities, bluish color
b. barklike cough, thick yellow nasal discharge
c. patchy rash on the body, rapid respirations, and
exhaustion
d. respiratory distress, drooling, fever, agitation,
and lethargy
Correct answers: respiratory distress, drooling, fever,
agitation, and lethargy
31.Which of the following therapies is the only specific
therapy for respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
bronchiolitis?. Single choice.
a. ribavirin (Virazole)
b. chest percussion
c. an oxygen tent
d. Antibiotics
Correct answers: ribavirin (Virazole)
32.The nurse is caring for a child with a diagnosis of
bronchiolitis who is being managed at home. Which of
the following strategies to foster adequate ventilation
would be best for the nurse to suggest to the family?.
Single choice.
(1/1 Point)
a. raising the head of the child’s bed
b. administering oxygen therapy
c. having the child take a walk twice a day
d. installing an attic fan
Correct answers: raising the head of the child’s bed
33.Pneumonia in children appears:. Single choice.
a. in a more primitive form which is easier to cure
than that found in adults
b. as a secondary disease
c. as a tertiary disease
d. as a primary disease or a complication of
another disease
Correct answers: as a primary disease or a
complication of another disease
34.Which of the following types of pneumonia would be
treated with antibiotics?. Single choice.
a. viral
b. Bacterial
c. Aspiration
d. adenoviral
Correct answers: Bacterial
35.The nurse is assessing a child with a diagnosis of
pneumonia. The child is taking shallow respirations.
Which of the following is the most likely explanation?.
Single choice.
a. a deficiency of carbon dioxide
b. an attempt to minimize pain
c. exhaustion and lack of energy
d. the chest muscles are strained
Correct answers: a deficiency of carbon dioxide
36.For several days, the nurse has been working with
the parents of a baby with cleft lip and cleft palate. The
parents seem to have a lot of fears related to the care of
their child and the child’s future. How could the nurse
best help these parents? 
a. Talk to them about how their fears are
unnecessary and encourage them to stop being
afraid. 
b. Tell the parents about any personal family
experiences with cleft lip and or cleft palate or
about experiences with other parents having a
baby with similar problems. 
c. Show some before and after photographs of
successful surgical repairs and offer to arrange
for them to talk with other parents of children
with a cleft lip and/or palate. 
d. Take over more of the care of the infant to give
the parents time to adjust to having a baby with
deformities.
Correct answers: c
37.The mother of a newborn with a cleft lip says to the
nurse: “Well, I guess I will have to give up the idea of
breastfeeding and do bottle feeding.” Which of the
following is the nurse’s best response? 
a. “How do you feel about giving up breastfeeding
and going to bottle feeding?” 
b. “The breast will mold to the shape of the baby’s
lips, will fill the opening in the lip, and your baby
will probably have no more difficulty
breastfeeding than any other baby.” 
c. “It will help to not dwell on having to give up
breastfeeding and perhaps you can breastfeed
your next baby.” 
d. “Let’s talk about all the advantages of bottle
feeding such as having someone else get up
and give the baby the night bottle so you can
catch up on needed rest and sleep.”
Correct answers: b
38.A mother wants to breastfeed her baby born with a
cleft lip and a cleft palate and asks the nurse if this will
be possible. Which of the following is the nurse’s best
response? 
a. “It will be easier on you and the baby will get
better nutrition if you bottle feed.” 
b. “I wish you could breastfeed, but in this case it is
going to be impossible.” 
c. “It may be possible to breastfeed your baby. I
will help you. If it does not work out, you can use
 a breast pump and feed breast milk using a
bottle and special nipples.”  45.In assessing a newborn, the nurse notices a large
d. “It is done in rare cases where a mother is amount of fine frothy bubbles of mucus in the mouth.
determined to breastfeed and willing to keep Even when the nurse suctions the bubbles, they soon
offering the breast for several days even when return. The baby has a rattling sound to the respirations
the baby is not nursing well.” and has a choking episode and becomes a little
cyanotic. Which of the following conditions will the nurse
Correct answers: c suspect? 
a. cleft lip 
39.When the caregiver uses standard nipples and bottles b. cleft palate 
for a baby with cleft lip and cleft palate, the nurse will c. esophageal atresia 
teach the ESSR method. This method involves:  d. Intussusception. 
a. enter, swish, swallow, and recover 
b. engage, start, swallow, and restart  Correct answers: c
c. entertain, stimulate, swallow, and retry 
d. enlarge, stimulate, swallow, and rest.  46.The nurse is with a newborn who is having
radiographic studies to determine if the newborn has
Correct answers: d esophageal atresia and if the newborn also has
tracheoesophageal fistula. When the radiopaque
40.When infants with a cleft lip and/or palate are nursing nasogastric tube is passed through the nose to the
from a bottle, they will signal a need for a rest before stomach, it stops at 10 cm and the radiographic studies
they choke or gag. Which of the following is a signal from show air in the stomach. The nurse is aware that these
the infant to take a break?  finding indicate which of the following conditions? 
a. elevating eyebrows and wrinkling the forehead  a. normal esophagus and stomach 
b. a slight lifting of the ears  b. abnormal esophagus and normal stomach 
c. puckering the lips tightly and blinking the eyes  c. esophageal atresia without tracheosesophageal
d. clenching the fists and a jerking of the arms.  fistula 
d. esophageal atresia with tracheoesophageal
Correct answers: a fistula.
 
41.When a caregiver has tried standard nipples, preemie Correct answers: d
nipples, and all kinds of special nipples without much 47.Prior to the surgical repair of an esophageal atresia
success, the best plan is to teach feeding with which of with tracheoesophageal fistula, the nursing interventions
the following types of equipment?  are mainly focused on which of the following things? 
a. spoon  a. getting as much weight gain as possible 
b. “sippy” cup  b. family education regarding care 
c. Asepto syringe with a rubber tip c. preventing aspiration pneumonia 
d. special straw for drawing fluid up. d. discharge planning. 
 
Correct answers: c Correct answers: c

42.Which of the following is the first question the nurse 48.The nurse is caring for a baby who has just had a
asks on accepting her assignment to care for a mother surgical repair of an esophageal atresia with
and a baby who has a cleft lip and a cleft palate?  tracheoesophageal fistula. It is most important for the
a. “Is my care affected by the child’s appearance?”  nurse to position the gastrostomy tube in which of the
b. “How does the mother feel about this baby?”  following ways? 
c. “Is the father going to help with this baby’s a. pinned to the bed sheet 
care?”  b. elevated 
d. “How bad are the cleft lip and the cleft palate?”.  c. even with the bed 
  d. Lowered. 
Correct answers: a
Correct answers: b
43.In the period immediately after a baby has had
surgery for cleft lip repair, the nurse will do which of the 49.Which of the following conditions is the most frequent
following things?  cause of intestinal obstruction in infants and young
a. Place the baby in a prone position lying flat.  children? 
b. Remove the elbow restraints.  a. cancer 
c. Hold the pain medication.  b. Hirschsprung’s disease 
d. Apply a Logan bow or a butterfly adhesive. c. benign tumors
  d. Intussusception. 
Correct answers: d
Correct answers: d
44.The nurse will teach the family of an infant who has
had a cleft lip repair how to clean the suture line after 50.A newborn has been diagnosed as having
feeding. The nurse will instruct the family to: intussusception. The mother is worried that she caused
a. use a damp, soft washcloth to gently wash the this by something she did or did not do during
suture line pregnancy. The nurse will tell the mother that in most
b. clean the suture line with cotton-tipped cases the cause of intussusception is due to: 
applicators dipped in diluted hydrogen peroxide a. unknown causes 
c. gently clean with cotton balls saturated with b. polyps 
sterile normal saline solution or sterile water  c. Viruses
d. use an Asepto syringe or a bulb syringe to flush d. drug use in pregnancy. 
water thoroughly over the surgical site. 
  Correct answers: a
Correct answers: d  
51.Which of the following statements best describes c. the laparoscopic-assisted pull-through procedure
intussusception?  with anal entry thus eliminating major abdominal
a. a hernia of the small intestine into the abdominal surgery 
cavity  d. a laser surgery that is done on an outpatient
b. an outpouching of the bowel anywhere along the basis and requires no incision at all. 
entire bowel 
c. a condition in which one segment of the bowel Correct answers: c
telescopes into the lumen of an adjacent  
segment 58.The nurse caring for the child who is going to have
d. a segment of the bowel is not innervated to any surgery related to Hirschsprung’s disease knows that
extent and it becomes inactive and for all assessment of the infant’s fluid and electrolyte status is
purposes is dead.  necessary because of which of the following reasons? 
a. There will be extensive bowel cleansing with
Correct answers: c repeated saline enemas. 
b. The child’s extreme constipation will throw the
52.The treatment of choice and the safest treatment for electrolytes off. 
intussusception is which of the following treatments?  c. The child will be NPO for a very long period of
a. a three-stage surgery involving a temporary time. 
colostomy opening  d. Vomiting and diarrhea are not unusual in these
b. hydrostatic reduction with barium  cases.
c. hydrostatic reduction with an air or a water-
soluble contrast agent  Correct answers: a
d. external massage and rotation.   
59.Which of the following anorectal malformations do not
Correct answers: c require surgery? 
  a. imperforate anus 
53.Discharge instructions to the parents of an infant who b. anal stenosis 
was treated for intussusception most need to include c. rectal atresia
information on observing for signs of: d. anal agenesis. 
a. intestinal obstruction and reoccurrence 
b. vitamin and mineral deficiencies  Correct answers: b
c. adjustment to being at home 
d. abnormal vital signs.  60.On assessment of a newborn, the nurse finds
meconium in the urine. The nurse realizes that this is
Correct answers: a indicative of which of the following conditions? 
a. a bladder that is wrapped around the intestine 
54.The nurse assessing newborn babies and infants b. imperforate anus 
during their hospital stay after birth will notice which of c. anal agenesis 
the following symptoms as a primary manifestation of d. a fistula between the bowel and the urinary
Hirschsprung’s disease?  tract. 
a. failure to pass meconium during the first 24 to 48
hours after birth  Correct answers: d
b. high grade fever 
c. the skin turns yellow then brown over the first 48 61.Which of the following interventions is most important
hours of life  when the baby has surgery to correct a low anorectal
d. a fine rash over the trunk.  malformation? 
a. meticulous skin care 
Correct answers: a b. push fluids 
  c. keep anal area covered
55.Which of the following is the major cause of death in d. high fiber diet. 
Hirschsprung’s disease? 
a. widespread infection in the body  Correct answers: a
b. failure to take in enough nourishment 
c. bacterial endocarditis and heart failure  62.The nurse is providing some teaching to the parents
d. enterocolitis, sepsis, or bowel perforation.  of a two-year-old child who has had surgery to correct an
anorectal malformation. The nurse will advise the
Correct answers: d parents or caregivers that toilet training will: 
a. likely be delayed 
56.The nurse assessing an older infant or child will b. require help from an expert 
suspect Hirschsprung’s disease when the child has a c. be no different than for other toddlers 
history of which of the following symptoms?  d. be easier. 
a. chronic constipation 
b. blood in the stools  Correct answers: a
c. chronic vomiting  
d. clay-colored stools. 63.Which of the following conditions is the most common
esophageal disorder found in infants and the esophageal
Correct answers: a disorder most frequently referred to a pediatric
gastroenterologist? 
57.Which of the following is the most current treatment a. hypertrophic pyloric stenosis 
for Hirschsprung’s disease?  b. esophageal stricture 
a. a two-stage surgery using first a temporary c. gastroesophageal reflux (GER)
colostomy to provide bowel rest and secondly a d. intestinal malrotation.
pull-through procedure 
b. a one-stage pull-through without a temporary Correct answers: c
colostomy 
64.A nurse is working with a caregiver of an infant with findings by the nurse would be typical of those seen in
gastroesophageal reflux. The infant has poor weight appendicitis? 
gain, cries when awake, and is vomiting or regurgitating a. anorexia, nausea, and vomiting preceded the
with feedings. Given these symptoms, which of the pain according to history provided by the
following interventions would be best for the nurse to caregivers 
recommend to the caregiver?  b. a subnormal temperature for the last two days 
a. Give small, frequent feedings. c. pain that was vague and somewhat localized to
b. Feed the infant with the infant’s body in a the periumbilical area and gradually migrated to
straight position.  the right lower quadrant 
c. Hold the baby in an upright position for an hour d. night time chills for one week. 
after feedings. 
d. Thicken the formula with a little rice cereal. Correct answers: c
 
Correct answers: d 69.The nurse is working with a parent whose child had a
  perforation of the appendix. The nurse shares with the
65.The parents of an infant with gastroesophageal reflux parents why appendicitis frequently progresses to
(GER) ask the nurse about the advisability of the side- perforation in children by saying: 
lying or supine position for prevention of sudden infant a. “The appendix is usually near the perforation
death syndrome for their infant. The nurse’s best state by the time children will say anything for
response would be:  fear they have done something wrong.” 
a. “Yes, prevention of SIDS is extremely important b. “Young children have a thinner appendiceal wall
and side-lying or supine is currently than adults so they progress to perforation much
recommended.”  quicker than adults.” 
b. “Currently prone or head elevated prone is c. “Children tolerate pain much better than adults
recommended for GER and with elimination of so they are in a lot of pain by the time they tell
puffy bedding from the crib you can decrease caregivers.” 
chances of SIDS.”  d. “The appendix in children is smaller and
c. “Side-lying or supine will work just fine as long therefore much easier to rupture”.
as you elevate the head of the bed so that the
infant is sleeping nearly sitting up.”  Correct answers: b
d. “SIDS is something you cannot really protect  
against for certain so get some baby monitors 70.The nurse is planning interventions for a child who
and let your baby seek whatever position is most has inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) and a nursing
comfortable”. diagnosis of nutrition less than body requirements.
Which of the following interventions will be most helpful
Correct answers: b in resolving this nursing problem? 
  a. special IBD diet (diet that has been proven
66.The nurse on the pediatric unit is assigned to an effective for treating IBD) 
infant with gastroesophageal reflux. The infant has had b. diet as tolerated with lactose hydrolyzed milk
episodes of pneumonia and is not gaining weight. The instead of milk products, and omission of highly
infant has not responded well to six weeks of medical seasoned foods, and reduction of fiber 
management and is being considered for surgery. At the c. salt free diet high in potassium, vitamins, and
beginning of the shift, after receiving report on this infant, minerals 
the nurse will first:  d. two large meals a day instead of several mini
a. read the infant’s chart or computer record  meals and snacks. 
b. weigh the infant   
c. assess respiratory status  Correct answers: b
d. check the medication administration record and
set up medications.  NCM 110 Nursing Informatics Lec

Correct answers: c
 
Midterms
67.The nurse is working with the parents of a child who
has chronic constipation. The nurse will teach the
1.SITUATION: Demy a 3 year old patient brought in TPH
parents how to establish a regular pattern of defecation.
emergency room with cystic fibrosis. Lynn was assigned
The nurse will evaluate that the parents understood the
in pediatric ward. 1. A sputum specimen is collected from
teaching when they report back to the nurse with which
Demy for culture purposes, the primary reason being to
of the following statements? 
learn. Single choice.
a. “Our child has not been given any dessert
a. whether the child's cystic fibrosis is under
unless he has had a bowel movement the
control.
previous day.” 
b. what organism is responsible for the child's
b. “We take turns making sure he sits on the toilet
disease.
until he has a bowel movement even if it is an
c. if there is blood present in the child's lungs
hour.” 
tracheobronchial tree
c. “He gets to flush the toilet himself and wave bye-
d. which portion of the child's lungs is affected.
bye to the stools in the toilet and we pat his head
and say good boy.” 
Correct answers: what organism is responsible for the
d. “He sits on the toilet after a meal for 5–10
child's disease.
minutes and usually has a bowel movement and
then we give him a star for the prize chart”.
2. Which of the following statements best defines cystic
fibrosis? Single choice.
Correct answers: d
a. an acquired lung condition that occurs at birth
 
due to oxygen deficiency 1
68.The nurse is assessing a child admitted to the
hospital for abdominal pain. Which of the following
 b. a congenital anomaly occurring during fetal
development as a result of dietary deficiencies of
the mother
c. an autosomal recessive disorder that mainly
affects the exocrine glands and does multiple
system damage
d. a respiratory condition affecting people of
Mediterranean descent, involving mainly
exchange at a microscopic level in the lungs
Correct answers: an autosomal recessive disorder that
mainly affects the exocrine glands and does multiple
system damage
3. Which of the following represents the life expectancy
of a child with cystic fibrosis?. Single choice.
a. 21 year old
b. 30 year old
c. 12 year old
d. 7 year old
Correct answers: 30 year old
4. Lynn can expect Demy's to have stools that are
typically. Single choice.
a. bulky and foul odor
b. dry and have the odor of ammonia
c. watery and sweet in odor
d. dark in color and have almost no odor
Correct answers: bulky and foul odor
5.During the warm weather, the nurse will assess
children with cystic fibrosis to see if they need which of
the following supplements added to their diet?. Single
choice.
a. zinc
b. magnesium
c. salt
d. potassium
Correct answers: salt
6.Demy is to have postural (bronchial) drainage. The
times in the day when it is best for Lynn to plan to carry
out postural drainage is shortly. Single choice.
a. after meals
b. before meals
c. before rest periods
d. after rest periods
Correct answers: before meals
7.In working with children with cystic fibrosis, the nurse
expects to carry out and provide teaching on which of
the following treatments?. Single choice.
a. dietary modification involving a low protein, high
fat, low carbohydrate diet
b. range of motion and a highly regimented
exercise program
c. preparation for renal dialysis and strict intake
and output
d. eto answer
Correct answers:
8.Lynn should understand prior to evaluating the effects
of postural drainage that the primary reason for Demy's
having this type of therapy is ton help to. Single choice.
a. dilate the bronchioles.
b. promote better use of diaphragm.
c. improve circulation in the chest cavity.
d. clean the lungs of mucopurulent material.
Correct answers: clean the lungs of mucopurulent
material.
9.SITUATION: Mr. John a new staff nurse was assigned
in the pediatric ward that is caring for 18 months old with
celiac disease. Matt is admitted to the pediatric unit with
a diagnosis of celiac disease. John who was assigned to
this child realizes that the typical stool of a child with this
disease will be:. Single choice.
a. black and tarry
b. normal colored and pencil thin or ribbonlike in
appearance
c. bulky, putty colored, foul smelling, greasy, and
likely to float
d. white and loose
Correct answers: bulky, putty colored, foul smelling,
greasy, and likely to float
10.The nurse should expect that, because Matt has
celiac disease, his stools are most likely to be. Single
choice.
a. especially dark in color
b. abnormally small in amount
c. unusually hard in consistency
d. particularly offensive in odor
Correct answers: particularly offensive in odor
11.During assessment, a physical finding John is most
likely to observe is that Matt has. Single choice.
a. an enlarged liver
b. a protuberant abdomen
c. a tender inguinal lymph nodes
d. edema in the lower extremities
Correct answers: a protuberant abdomen
12.The family of a child with celiac’s disease is receiving
discharge teaching in regard to diet. The nurse will teach
the family to modify the diet in which of the following
ways?. Single choice.
a. Eliminate wheat, barley, rye, and oats and
substitute corn, rice, and millet.
b. Increase bulk including raw vegetables, fruit, and
a variety of cereals and nuts.
c. Eliminate fats but increase natural fish oils and
olive oils.
d. Eliminate lactose products such as milk, cheese,
ice cream, and butter.
Correct answers: Eliminate wheat, barley, rye, and oats
and substitute corn, rice, and millet.
13.For how long is it likely that Matt will need to remain
on a special diet. Single choice.
a. For the rest of his life.
b. Until the disease is well controlled.
c. Until approximately the age of puberty.
d. For the period required to desensitize him to
offending foods.
Correct answers: For the rest of his life.
14.Matt's wears reusable diapers at night. His mother
asks what safety precautions she should take his wet,
soiled diapers. Which of the following statements should
guide the nurse when she responds to Matt's mother? ..
Single choice.
a. The diaper should be boiled after they are
washed.
b. The diapers should be soaked in an antiseptic
solution before they are washed
c. It would be best to use disposable diapers until
the diarrhea is under control.
 d. There are no special precautions necessary in
the care of this infant's diaper.
Correct answers: There are no special precautions
necessary in the care of this infant's diaper.
15.Which of the following makes children prone to
tonsillitis and pharyngitis?. Single choice.
a. not brushing their teeth and flossing after meals
and at bedtime
b. frequent upper respiratory tract infections and
being around other children who may be infected
c. eating large amounts of sugar and drinking high
sugar content drinks that encourage growth of
pathogens
d. not bathing properly or frequently
Correct answers: frequent upper respiratory tract
infections and being around other children who may be
infected
16.The school nurse encourages the parents of a
student who has a severe sore throat to take the child to
the pediatrician. The nurse is especially concerned about
the possibility of a streptococcal tonsillitis mainly
because of which of the following?. Single choice.
a. If streptococcal tonsillitis is not treated
adequately it may lead to scarlet fever, otitis
media, or more serious complications.
b. The student will miss a lot of school and fall
behind in schoolwork and homework
assignments and may even possibly fail a grade.
c. Other children may also get sore throats if this
student is not aggressively treated.
d. If untreated, streptococcal tonsillitis may cause
anemia, weight loss, and lethargy.
Correct answers: If streptococcal tonsillitis is not
treated adequately it may lead to scarlet fever, otitis
media, or more serious complications.
17.The mother of a two-and-a-half-year old child who
has had tonsillitis asks about the possibility of a
tonsillectomy for the child. The nurse informs the mother
that tonsillectomies are usually performed when the child
is over three years old. The mother wants to know why
children younger than three have to wait for a
tonsillectomy. Which of the following is the nurse’s best
answer?. Single choice.
a. “Surgery is too difficult on a younger child
because their mouths are so small, making it
difficult to get to the tonsils.”
b. “It is too scary for a younger child and they don’t
understand what is happening.”
c. “Younger children are more prone to excessive
blood loss and/or the tonsils growing back.”
d. “Separation from the parents or caregivers is
much more difficult in the child under three.”
Correct answers: “Younger children are more prone to
excessive blood loss and/or the tonsils growing back.”
18.The nurse explains to parents why an adenoidectomy
is sometimes indicated with the tonsillectomy. Which of
the following is the nurse’s best explanation?. Single
choice.
a. An adenoidectomy is justified when a child’s
enlarged adenoids block the flow of air through
the nasal passages.”
b. “Some surgeons prefer to take out the adenoids
at the same time as the tonsillectomy because it
saves the child from a second surgery.”
c. Without the tonsils to screen out foreign
proteins, the adenoids are more easily infected.”
d. “It is hard to take out the tonsils without
removing the adenoids because they often are
adhered to each other.”
Correct answers: An adenoidectomy is justified when a
child’s enlarged adenoids block the flow of air through
the nasal passages.”
19.Which of the following positions does the nurse use
for the child who has just returned to the room from
surgery?. Single choice.
a. elevated head and legs
b. on the abdomen or side
c. on the back and flat
d. on the back or sitting up
Correct answers: on the abdomen or side
20.A child who is in the first postoperative day after
tonsillectomy starts to cough and wants to blow his nose.
Which of the following actions by the nurse would be
best?. Single choice.
a. Offer the child some tissue and give instructions
on its disposal.
b. Remind the child not to cough or blow his nose.
c. Tell him he can cough but not to blow his nose.
d. Inform the child that he can blow his nose but
not cough.
Correct answers: Tell him he can cough but not to blow
his nose.
21.The nurse is assigned to care for a child who had a
tonsillectomy yesterday. The child complains of a sore
throat and wants something cool. Which of the following
cool drinks or food would be acceptable to offer the
child?. Single choice.
a. lime sherbet
b. chilled tomato juice
c. cold cola
d. cherry Jell-O
Correct answers: lime sherbet
22.Which of the following signs or symptoms is the
earliest manifestation of bleeding in a child who has had
a tonsillectomy?. Single choice.
a. frequent swallowing
b. spitting up blood
c. coffee ground emesis
d. complaint of thirst
Correct answers:
23.Which of the following outcomes is the most
important for a child who has had a tonsillectomy?.
Single choice.
a. no postoperative bleeding
b. bonding with the nursing staff
c. absence of pain
d. drinking sufficient water
Correct answers: no postoperative bleeding
24.The nurse assessing a child with a respiratory
problem finds stridor, which is best described by which of
the following?. Single choice.
a. excursion of the chest wall beyond that normally
seen in the healthy child
b. a high-pitched sound produced by an obstruction
of the trachea or larynx
c. Message for respondents who select this answer
d. a triad of respiratory symptoms
e. substernal retractions and nasal flaring
Correct answers: a high-pitched sound produced by an
obstruction of the trachea or larynx
25.Examination of the throat of a child with acute
epiglottis by depressing the tongue is. Single choice.
a. a good idea because there is a characteristic
patchy redness that aids in diagnosis
b. contraindicated due to the possibility of causing
complete airway obstruction
c. impossible because the tongue is too swollen
and tender to allow it
d. to be done carefully because of the possibility of
causing additional pain
Correct answers: contraindicated due to the possibility
of causing complete airway obstruction
26.The nurse is assessing a child with croup. Which of
the following signs and/or symptoms would the nurse
associate with croup and most expect to find?. Single
choice.
a. barklike cough, hoarseness, inspiratory stridor
b. expiratory stridor, irregular breathing, and weak
cough
c. Cheyne-Stokes respirations and substernal
retraction
d. almost continual cough and complete laryngitis
Correct answers: barklike cough, hoarseness,
inspiratory stridor
27.Which of the following statements best describes
croup?. Single choice.
a. a common childhood disease
b. an autoimmune-initiated infection
c. a life-threatening bacterial infection
d. a respiratory condition similar to a cold
Correct answers: an autoimmune-initiated infection
28.The nurse is assessing the skin moisture of a child
with laryngotracheobronchitis. Which of the following
explains why the nurse assessed the skin moisture in
this case?. Single choice.
a. diaphoresis is associated with increased
respiratory effort
b. skin moisture is a relatively good measure of the
degree of infection
c. increased skin moisture will signal danger of
ketoacidosis
d. to get some measure of how dehydrated the
child might become
Correct answers: diaphoresis is associated with
increased respiratory effort
29.The nurse working with a child with
laryngotracheobronchitis is offering the child tiny
medicine cups of fluid and giving stickers and prizes for
meeting goals related to intake of fluid. All this effort on
the part of the nurse to get the child to drink more fluid is
because the fluid is needed to:. Single choice.
a. prevent diarrhea
b. loosen secretions
c. maintain electrolyte balance
d. keep kidneys functioning
Correct answers: loosen secretions
30.The nurse assessing a child with respiratory syncytial
virus (RSV) bronchiolitis looks up the disorder as a
review and is most likely to find which of the following
classic symptoms associated with this disorder? a. b. c.
d.. Single choice.
a. clubbing of the fingers, poor circulation of
extremities, bluish color
b. barklike cough, thick yellow nasal discharge
c. patchy rash on the body, rapid respirations, and
exhaustion
d. respiratory distress, drooling, fever, agitation,
and lethargy
Correct answers: respiratory distress, drooling, fever,
agitation, and lethargy
31.Which of the following therapies is the only specific
therapy for respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
bronchiolitis?. Single choice.
a. ribavirin (Virazole)
b. chest percussion
c. an oxygen tent
d. Antibiotics
Correct answers: ribavirin (Virazole)
32.The nurse is caring for a child with a diagnosis of
bronchiolitis who is being managed at home. Which of
the following strategies to foster adequate ventilation
would be best for the nurse to suggest to the family?.
Single choice.
(1/1 Point)
a. raising the head of the child’s bed
b. administering oxygen therapy
c. having the child take a walk twice a day
d. installing an attic fan
Correct answers: raising the head of the child’s bed
33.Pneumonia in children appears:. Single choice.
a. in a more primitive form which is easier to cure
than that found in adults
b. as a secondary disease
c. as a tertiary disease
d. as a primary disease or a complication of
another disease
Correct answers: as a primary disease or a
complication of another disease
34.Which of the following types of pneumonia would be
treated with antibiotics?. Single choice.
a. viral
b. Bacterial
c. Aspiration
d. adenoviral
Correct answers: Bacterial
35.The nurse is assessing a child with a diagnosis of
pneumonia. The child is taking shallow respirations.
Which of the following is the most likely explanation?.
Single choice.
a. a deficiency of carbon dioxide
b. an attempt to minimize pain
c. exhaustion and lack of energy
d. the chest muscles are strained
Correct answers: a deficiency of carbon dioxide
36.For several days, the nurse has been working with
the parents of a baby with cleft lip and cleft palate. The
parents seem to have a lot of fears related to the care of
their child and the child’s future. How could the nurse
best help these parents? 
a. Talk to them about how their fears are
unnecessary and encourage them to stop being
afraid. 
b. Tell the parents about any personal family
experiences with cleft lip and or cleft palate or
 about experiences with other parents having a a. spoon 
baby with similar problems.  b. “sippy” cup 
c. Show some before and after photographs of c. Asepto syringe with a rubber tip
successful surgical repairs and offer to arrange d. special straw for drawing fluid up.
for them to talk with other parents of children
with a cleft lip and/or palate.  Correct answers: c
d. Take over more of the care of the infant to give
the parents time to adjust to having a baby with 42.Which of the following is the first question the nurse
deformities. asks on accepting her assignment to care for a mother
and a baby who has a cleft lip and a cleft palate? 
Correct answers: c a. “Is my care affected by the child’s appearance?” 
37.The mother of a newborn with a cleft lip says to the b. “How does the mother feel about this baby?” 
nurse: “Well, I guess I will have to give up the idea of c. “Is the father going to help with this baby’s
breastfeeding and do bottle feeding.” Which of the care?” 
following is the nurse’s best response?  d. “How bad are the cleft lip and the cleft palate?”. 
a. “How do you feel about giving up breastfeeding  
and going to bottle feeding?”  Correct answers: a
b. “The breast will mold to the shape of the baby’s
lips, will fill the opening in the lip, and your baby 43.In the period immediately after a baby has had
will probably have no more difficulty surgery for cleft lip repair, the nurse will do which of the
breastfeeding than any other baby.”  following things? 
c. “It will help to not dwell on having to give up a. Place the baby in a prone position lying flat. 
breastfeeding and perhaps you can breastfeed b. Remove the elbow restraints. 
your next baby.”  c. Hold the pain medication. 
d. “Let’s talk about all the advantages of bottle d. Apply a Logan bow or a butterfly adhesive.
feeding such as having someone else get up  
and give the baby the night bottle so you can Correct answers: d
catch up on needed rest and sleep.”
44.The nurse will teach the family of an infant who has
Correct answers: b had a cleft lip repair how to clean the suture line after
feeding. The nurse will instruct the family to:
38.A mother wants to breastfeed her baby born with a a. use a damp, soft washcloth to gently wash the
cleft lip and a cleft palate and asks the nurse if this will suture line
be possible. Which of the following is the nurse’s best b. clean the suture line with cotton-tipped
response?  applicators dipped in diluted hydrogen peroxide
a. “It will be easier on you and the baby will get c. gently clean with cotton balls saturated with
better nutrition if you bottle feed.”  sterile normal saline solution or sterile water 
b. “I wish you could breastfeed, but in this case it is d. use an Asepto syringe or a bulb syringe to flush
going to be impossible.”  water thoroughly over the surgical site. 
c. “It may be possible to breastfeed your baby. I  
will help you. If it does not work out, you can use Correct answers: d
a breast pump and feed breast milk using a
bottle and special nipples.”  45.In assessing a newborn, the nurse notices a large
d. “It is done in rare cases where a mother is amount of fine frothy bubbles of mucus in the mouth.
determined to breastfeed and willing to keep Even when the nurse suctions the bubbles, they soon
offering the breast for several days even when return. The baby has a rattling sound to the respirations
the baby is not nursing well.” and has a choking episode and becomes a little
cyanotic. Which of the following conditions will the nurse
Correct answers: c suspect? 
a. cleft lip 
39.When the caregiver uses standard nipples and bottles b. cleft palate 
for a baby with cleft lip and cleft palate, the nurse will c. esophageal atresia 
teach the ESSR method. This method involves:  d. Intussusception. 
a. enter, swish, swallow, and recover 
b. engage, start, swallow, and restart  Correct answers: c
c. entertain, stimulate, swallow, and retry 
d. enlarge, stimulate, swallow, and rest.  46.The nurse is with a newborn who is having
radiographic studies to determine if the newborn has
Correct answers: d esophageal atresia and if the newborn also has
tracheoesophageal fistula. When the radiopaque
40.When infants with a cleft lip and/or palate are nursing nasogastric tube is passed through the nose to the
from a bottle, they will signal a need for a rest before stomach, it stops at 10 cm and the radiographic studies
they choke or gag. Which of the following is a signal from show air in the stomach. The nurse is aware that these
the infant to take a break?  finding indicate which of the following conditions? 
a. elevating eyebrows and wrinkling the forehead  a. normal esophagus and stomach 
b. a slight lifting of the ears  b. abnormal esophagus and normal stomach 
c. puckering the lips tightly and blinking the eyes  c. esophageal atresia without tracheosesophageal
d. clenching the fists and a jerking of the arms.  fistula 
d. esophageal atresia with tracheoesophageal
Correct answers: a fistula.
 
41.When a caregiver has tried standard nipples, preemie Correct answers: d
nipples, and all kinds of special nipples without much 47.Prior to the surgical repair of an esophageal atresia
success, the best plan is to teach feeding with which of with tracheoesophageal fistula, the nursing interventions
the following types of equipment?  are mainly focused on which of the following things? 
 a. getting as much weight gain as possible  Correct answers: a
b. family education regarding care 
c. preventing aspiration pneumonia  54.The nurse assessing newborn babies and infants
d. discharge planning.  during their hospital stay after birth will notice which of
  the following symptoms as a primary manifestation of
Correct answers: c Hirschsprung’s disease? 
a. failure to pass meconium during the first 24 to 48
48.The nurse is caring for a baby who has just had a hours after birth 
surgical repair of an esophageal atresia with b. high grade fever 
tracheoesophageal fistula. It is most important for the c. the skin turns yellow then brown over the first 48
nurse to position the gastrostomy tube in which of the hours of life 
following ways?  d. a fine rash over the trunk. 
a. pinned to the bed sheet 
b. elevated  Correct answers: a
c. even with the bed   
d. Lowered.  55.Which of the following is the major cause of death in
Hirschsprung’s disease? 
Correct answers: b a. widespread infection in the body 
b. failure to take in enough nourishment 
49.Which of the following conditions is the most frequent c. bacterial endocarditis and heart failure 
cause of intestinal obstruction in infants and young d. enterocolitis, sepsis, or bowel perforation. 
children? 
a. cancer  Correct answers: d
b. Hirschsprung’s disease 
c. benign tumors 56.The nurse assessing an older infant or child will
d. Intussusception.  suspect Hirschsprung’s disease when the child has a
history of which of the following symptoms? 
Correct answers: d a. chronic constipation 
b. blood in the stools 
50.A newborn has been diagnosed as having c. chronic vomiting
intussusception. The mother is worried that she caused d. clay-colored stools.
this by something she did or did not do during
pregnancy. The nurse will tell the mother that in most Correct answers: a
cases the cause of intussusception is due to: 
a. unknown causes  57.Which of the following is the most current treatment
b. polyps  for Hirschsprung’s disease? 
c. Viruses a. a two-stage surgery using first a temporary
d. drug use in pregnancy.  colostomy to provide bowel rest and secondly a
pull-through procedure 
Correct answers: a b. a one-stage pull-through without a temporary
  colostomy 
51.Which of the following statements best describes c. the laparoscopic-assisted pull-through procedure
intussusception?  with anal entry thus eliminating major abdominal
a. a hernia of the small intestine into the abdominal surgery 
cavity  d. a laser surgery that is done on an outpatient
b. an outpouching of the bowel anywhere along the basis and requires no incision at all. 
entire bowel 
c. a condition in which one segment of the bowel Correct answers: c
telescopes into the lumen of an adjacent  
segment 58.The nurse caring for the child who is going to have
d. a segment of the bowel is not innervated to any surgery related to Hirschsprung’s disease knows that
extent and it becomes inactive and for all assessment of the infant’s fluid and electrolyte status is
purposes is dead.  necessary because of which of the following reasons? 
a. There will be extensive bowel cleansing with
Correct answers: c repeated saline enemas. 
b. The child’s extreme constipation will throw the
52.The treatment of choice and the safest treatment for electrolytes off. 
intussusception is which of the following treatments?  c. The child will be NPO for a very long period of
a. a three-stage surgery involving a temporary time. 
colostomy opening  d. Vomiting and diarrhea are not unusual in these
b. hydrostatic reduction with barium  cases.
c. hydrostatic reduction with an air or a water-
soluble contrast agent  Correct answers: a
d. external massage and rotation.   
59.Which of the following anorectal malformations do not
Correct answers: c require surgery? 
  a. imperforate anus 
53.Discharge instructions to the parents of an infant who b. anal stenosis 
was treated for intussusception most need to include c. rectal atresia
information on observing for signs of: d. anal agenesis. 
a. intestinal obstruction and reoccurrence 
b. vitamin and mineral deficiencies  Correct answers: b
c. adjustment to being at home 
d. abnormal vital signs. 
60.On assessment of a newborn, the nurse finds and let your baby seek whatever position is most
meconium in the urine. The nurse realizes that this is comfortable”.
indicative of which of the following conditions? 
a. a bladder that is wrapped around the intestine  Correct answers: b
b. imperforate anus   
c. anal agenesis  66.The nurse on the pediatric unit is assigned to an
d. a fistula between the bowel and the urinary infant with gastroesophageal reflux. The infant has had
tract.  episodes of pneumonia and is not gaining weight. The
infant has not responded well to six weeks of medical
Correct answers: d management and is being considered for surgery. At the
beginning of the shift, after receiving report on this infant,
61.Which of the following interventions is most important the nurse will first: 
when the baby has surgery to correct a low anorectal a. read the infant’s chart or computer record 
malformation?  b. weigh the infant 
a. meticulous skin care  c. assess respiratory status 
b. push fluids  d. check the medication administration record and
c. keep anal area covered set up medications. 
d. high fiber diet. 
Correct answers: c
Correct answers: a  
67.The nurse is working with the parents of a child who
62.The nurse is providing some teaching to the parents has chronic constipation. The nurse will teach the
of a two-year-old child who has had surgery to correct an parents how to establish a regular pattern of defecation.
anorectal malformation. The nurse will advise the The nurse will evaluate that the parents understood the
parents or caregivers that toilet training will:  teaching when they report back to the nurse with which
a. likely be delayed  of the following statements? 
b. require help from an expert  a. “Our child has not been given any dessert
c. be no different than for other toddlers  unless he has had a bowel movement the
d. be easier.  previous day.” 
b. “We take turns making sure he sits on the toilet
Correct answers: a until he has a bowel movement even if it is an
  hour.” 
63.Which of the following conditions is the most common c. “He gets to flush the toilet himself and wave bye-
esophageal disorder found in infants and the esophageal bye to the stools in the toilet and we pat his head
disorder most frequently referred to a pediatric and say good boy.” 
gastroenterologist?  d. “He sits on the toilet after a meal for 5–10
a. hypertrophic pyloric stenosis  minutes and usually has a bowel movement and
b. esophageal stricture  then we give him a star for the prize chart”.
c. gastroesophageal reflux (GER)
d. intestinal malrotation. Correct answers: d
 
Correct answers: c 68.The nurse is assessing a child admitted to the
hospital for abdominal pain. Which of the following
64.A nurse is working with a caregiver of an infant with findings by the nurse would be typical of those seen in
gastroesophageal reflux. The infant has poor weight appendicitis? 
gain, cries when awake, and is vomiting or regurgitating a. anorexia, nausea, and vomiting preceded the
with feedings. Given these symptoms, which of the pain according to history provided by the
following interventions would be best for the nurse to caregivers 
recommend to the caregiver?  b. a subnormal temperature for the last two days 
a. Give small, frequent feedings. c. pain that was vague and somewhat localized to
b. Feed the infant with the infant’s body in a the periumbilical area and gradually migrated to
straight position.  the right lower quadrant 
c. Hold the baby in an upright position for an hour d. night time chills for one week. 
after feedings. 
d. Thicken the formula with a little rice cereal. Correct answers: c
 
Correct answers: d 69.The nurse is working with a parent whose child had a
  perforation of the appendix. The nurse shares with the
65.The parents of an infant with gastroesophageal reflux parents why appendicitis frequently progresses to
(GER) ask the nurse about the advisability of the side- perforation in children by saying: 
lying or supine position for prevention of sudden infant a. “The appendix is usually near the perforation
death syndrome for their infant. The nurse’s best state by the time children will say anything for
response would be:  fear they have done something wrong.” 
a. “Yes, prevention of SIDS is extremely important b. “Young children have a thinner appendiceal wall
and side-lying or supine is currently than adults so they progress to perforation much
recommended.”  quicker than adults.” 
b. “Currently prone or head elevated prone is c. “Children tolerate pain much better than adults
recommended for GER and with elimination of so they are in a lot of pain by the time they tell
puffy bedding from the crib you can decrease caregivers.” 
chances of SIDS.”  d. “The appendix in children is smaller and
c. “Side-lying or supine will work just fine as long therefore much easier to rupture”.
as you elevate the head of the bed so that the
infant is sleeping nearly sitting up.”  Correct answers: b
d. “SIDS is something you cannot really protect  
against for certain so get some baby monitors
70.The nurse is planning interventions for a child who a. LIFESTYLE
has inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) and a nursing b. FAMILY HISTORY
diagnosis of nutrition less than body requirements. c. SOCIAL HISTORY
Which of the following interventions will be most helpful d. BIOGRAPHICAL
in resolving this nursing problem?   Correct answers: FAMILY
a. special IBD diet (diet that has been proven HISTORY
effective for treating IBD)  5. On your Home visit to assess the family, you
b. diet as tolerated with lactose hydrolyzed milk noticed a 90-year-old patient. During the health
instead of milk products, and omission of highly history, the patient is unable to respond to
seasoned foods, and reduction of fiber  questions in a logical manner. As a nurse
c. salt free diet high in potassium, vitamins, and assessing the patient, your best action is to?
minerals  a. Rephrase the questions slightly, and
d. two large meals a day instead of several mini slowly repeat them in a lower voice.
meals and snacks.  b. Ask the same questions in a louder and
  lower voice.
Correct answers: b c. Determine if the patient knows the name
of the current president.
d. Ask the family member to answer the
questions.
 Correct answers: Rephrase
the questions slightly, and
slowly repeat them in a
lower voice.
NCM 113 CHN2 Lab (Myrtle and Jomer) 6. Situation: Nurse Stephen is conducting home
visit to the Cruz family, while providing care to
MIDTERMS the family, he found out that Mr. Cruz lost his job
two months ago, and still jobless, he discovered
1. Which of the following is defined as a process
that the youngest child who is already one year
whereby existing and potential health conditions
and eight months old is still unimmunized, also,
or problems of the family are determined?
Mrs. Cruz verbalized presence of mass in her
a. Second Level Assessment
left breast, and found out that their 18-year-old
b. Third Level of Assessment
daughter Ofelia is suffering from an eating
c. Fourth Level of Assessment
disorder. Nurse identified which among the
d. First Level Assessment
problems of the Cruz family is/are classified as
 Correct answers: First Level
Stress Points/Foreseeable Crisis?
Assessment
a. Mr. Cruz lost his Job, and still Jobless
2. You have been assigned as a community health
for two months
nurse in barangay San Agustin, Victoria Tarlac
b. 18-year-old daughter with eating
providing primary health care services, you know
disorder
that one of the following characterized Primary
c. B and C
Health Care?
d. A and D
1. Essential health care accessible and
e. Presence of mass in the left breast of
acceptable to individuals and families in the
Mrs. Cruz
community.
f. Unimmunized one and eight months old
2. The cost of care is affordable to the
child
community and country.
 Correct answers: Mr. Cruz
3. The setting is in tertiary hospitals.
lost his Job, and still
4. Require health personnel and specialized
Jobless for two months
training.
7. In implementing family centered care, the nurse
a. 3 & 4
should perform which of the following?
b. 1, 2, 3 & 4
a. Assists family members to assume
c. 1 & 2
dependent roles
d. 3 & 4
b. Provides his or her own beliefs on how
 Correct answers: 1 & 2
to solve problems
3. A client with severe arthritis is returning home
c. Offers information about necessary self-
after having had a colostomy. The client is
care abilities
unable to perform the colostomy care. The nurse
d. Works with clients to help them accept
should first perform which of the following?
blame for their interactions
a. Inform the client that an alternate way of
 Correct answers: Offers
managing the colostomy must be
information about
learned
necessary self-care abilities
b. Investigate whether or not someone else
8. 8.Situation: Nurse Stephen is conducting home
in the family or neighborhood will be
visit to the Cruz family, while providing care to
able to do the colostomy care
the family, he found out that Mr. Cruz lost his job
c. Refer the client to a colostomy self-help
two months ago, and still jobless, he discovered
support group
that the youngest child who is already one year
d. Arrange for a private duty nurse to take
and eight months old is still unimmunized, also,
care of the client
Mrs. Cruz verbalized presence of mass in her
 Correct answers:  Investigate
left breast, and found out that their 18-year-old
whether or not someone
daughter Ofelia is suffering from an eating
else in the family or
disorder. In relation to the situation given above,
neighborhood will be able
Nurse Stephen identified the following health
to do the colostomy care
problems of the Cruz family, along with the
4. Collection of genetic history in relation to health
and illness is included in which of the following?
 identified health problem stated, which of these a. Fourth Level of Assessment
is classified as a Health threat? b. Second Level Assessment
a. 18-year-old daughter with eating c. First Level Assessment
disorder d. Third Level of Assessment
b. Mr. Cruz lost his Job, and still Jobless  Correct answers: Second
for two months Level Assessment
c. Unimmunized one and eight months old 15. The consumption of alcohol, tobacco, caffeine,
child or herbal products is important in health history,
d. Presence of mass in the left breast of these are included in which of the following?
Mrs. Cruz a. Sleep and Rest
e. A and D b. Illegal activity
f. B and C c. Developmental
 Correct answers: d. Bibliographical
Unimmunized one and eight e. Habits and lifestyle patterns
months old child f. Rest and recreation
9. Typology/Category of health problem wherein  Correct answers: Habits and
the clinical or nursing judgment about a client lifestyle patterns
transition form a specific level of wellness or 16. A phase of the nursing process that is
capability to a higher level? considered a critical step as it is used to
a. Wellness Condition determine the course of treatment?
b. Health Deficits a. Assessment
c. Health Threats b. Nursing Diagnosis
d. Stress Points/Foreseeable Crisis c. Implementation
 Correct answers: Wellness d. Evaluation
Condition e. Planning
10. This is the phase of the Nursing Process  Correct answers: Nursing
wherein putting the nursing care plan into action Diagnosis
to achieve goals and outcomes? 17. Typology/Category of health problem that
a. Nursing Diagnosis includes Anticipated periods of unusual demand
b. Implementation on the individual or family in terms of
c. Assessment adjustment/family resources?
d. Planning a. Stress Points/Foreseeable Crisis
e. Evaluation b. Wellness Condition
 Correct answers: c. Health Deficits
Implementation d. Health Threats
11. This is the phase of the Nursing Process  Correct answers: Stress
wherein you are Assessing the client’s response Points/Foreseeable Crisis
to nursing interventions and then comparing the 18. You have a patient who died due to pulmonary
response to the goals? tuberculosis, as a Nurse in the community, you
a. Implementation will be recording it to the list of?
b. Evaluation a. Morbidity
c. Nursing Diagnosis b. Death rate
d. Planning c. Mortality
e. Assessment d. Longevity
 Correct answers: Evaluation  Correct answers: Mortality
12. For the following examples, which assessment 19. This is the phase of the Nursing Process
views the “family as context?”.  wherein in this phase the nurse sort, clusters
a. The client’s ability to understand and and analyzes data?
manage his own dietary needs a. Nursing Diagnosis
b. The family’s ability to support the client’s b. Assessment
dietary and recreational needs c. Planning
c. The family’s demands on the client d. Implementation
based on his role performance e. Evaluation
d. The adjustment of the client and family  Correct answers: Nursing
to changes in diet and exercise Diagnosis
 Correct answers: The client’s 20. Intra-personal and inter-personal factors
ability to understand and affecting the family member are included in the
manage his own dietary collections of which data?
needs a. FAMILY HISTORY
13. This is the phase of the Nursing Process b. BIOGRAPHICAL
wherein the expected outcomes are designed to c. SOCIAL HISTORY
resolve or minimize the identified problems of d. LIFESTYLE
the client?  Correct answers: SOCIAL
a. Nursing Diagnosis HISTORY
b. Assessment 21. Once all nursing intervention actions have taken
c. Evaluation place, this phase of nursing process where in
d. Planning the nurse determine if the goals for patient
e. Implementation wellness have been met through re-
 Correct answers: Planning assessment?
14. It defines the nature or type of nursing problem a. Implementation
that a family encounters in performing health b. Nursing Diagnosis
tasks with respect to given health condition or c. Evaluation
problem and etiology or barriers to the family’s d. Assessment
assumption of the task? e. Planning
  Correct answers: Evaluation left breast, and found out that their 18-year-old
22. Cultural assessment is also a part of taking the daughter Ofelia is suffering from an eating
health history of your patient in formulating your disorder. He identified several health problems
family case study, you know that which of the of the Cruz family, which of the following is/are
following are true regarding cultural sensitivity? classified as Health deficit?.
a. Patient's response to signs and a. Unimmunized one and eight months old
symptoms are independent of their child
cultural values b. 18-year-old daughter with eating
b. All members of one cultural group disorder
behave in exactly the same manner c. Mr. Cruz lost his Job, and still Jobless
c. Cultural and ethnic diversity have no for two months
impact in health care d. Presence of mass in the left breast of
d. As a nurse, it is important to identify and Mrs. Cruz
examine our own cultural and ethnic e. A and D
beliefs f. B and C
 Correct answers: As a nurse,  Correct answers: B and C
it is important to identify 27. This is an element of a Community denoting or
and examine our own relating to human society or any of its
cultural and ethnic beliefs subdivisions?
23. Genogram is a traditional family tree by allowing a. Physical Entity
the user to analyze hereditary patterns and b. Psycho-cultural Entity
psychological factors that punctuate c. Geographical Entity
relationships, which includes the following rules, d. Social Entity
except?  Correct answers: Social
a. The oldest child is always at the left his Entity
family, the youngest child is always at 28. Which of the following resources that the Nurse
the right his family can use that is defined as physical, intellectual
b. Spouse must always be closer to his/her capabilities and finances from the clientele?
first partner, then the second partner (if a. Government resources
any), third partner, and so on. b. Natural resources
c. The female parent is always at the left of c. Nurse resources
the family and the male parent is always d. Family resources
at the right of the family. e. Community resources
d. In the case of ambiguity, assume a  Correct answers: Family
male-female or female-female resources
relationship. 29. This is an element of a Community wherein a
 Correct answers: The female feature that occupies a position in space about
parent is always at the left which data describing the attributes of the
of the family and the male entity?
parent is always at the right a. Physical Entity
of the family. b. Social Entity
24. Which of the following features should the nurse c. Psycho-cultural Entity
incorporate in her practice of community health d. Geographical Entity
nursing?  Correct answers:
1. CHN is oriented to population. Geographical Entity
2. CHN emphasizes health. 30. Which of the following nursing interventions
3. CHN involves inter disciplinary collaboration. wherein the nurse prepares some family
4. CHN promotes client participation in members to give similar care in her absence?
determining their own health. a. Supplemental
a. 3 & 4 b. Accumulative
b. 1, 2, 3 & 4 c. Developmental
c. 1 & 2 d. Facilitative
d. 3 & 4  Correct answers:
 Correct answers: • 1, 2, 3 & Developmental
4 31. The following statements about Community
25. Assessment of the healthy family should find Health Nursing (CHN) are correct, except?
which of the following? a. The goal of CHN is achieved through
a. Minimum influence is exerted on the Multi-Sectoral Efforts.
environment b. The Community is the patient in CHN
b. The structure is flexible enough to adapt c. The family is the unit of care
to crises d. In CHN, the client is considered as a
c. Change is viewed as detrimental to passive partner.
family processes  Correct answers: • In CHN,
d. There is a passive response to stressors the client is considered as a
 Correct answers: The passive partner.
structure is flexible enough 32. Base on the definition of Community Health
to adapt to crises Nursing, as a Nurse in the community, which
26. Situation: Nurse Stephen is conducting home among the following is your main goal?
visit to the Cruz family, while providing care to a. To provide care for every family in the
the family, he found out that Mr. Cruz lost his job community
two months ago, and still jobless, he discovered b. To raise the level of citizenry by helping
that the youngest child who is already one year communities and families to cope up
and eight months old is still unimmunized, also, with the discontinuities of threats to
Mrs. Cruz verbalized presence of mass in her
 health in such a way as to maximize
their potential for high-level of wellness
c. To enhance proper collaboration with
others to the promotion of the client’s
optimum level of functioning thru’ the
use of secondary health care services.
d. To eliminate health problems in the
community by helping the family to
become a passive recipient of care.
 Correct answers: To raise the
level of citizenry by helping
communities and families to
cope up with the
discontinuities of threats to
health in such a way as to
maximize their potential for
high-level of wellness
33. It is the blueprint of the care that the nurse
designs to systematically minimize or eliminate
the identified health and family nursing problems
through explicitly formulated outcomes of care
(goals and objectives) and deliberately chosen
of interventions, resources and evaluation
criteria, standards, methods and tools.
a. Family Care Plan
b. Daily Plan of Activities
c. Plan of Action
d. Patient Nursing Care Plan
 Correct answers: Family Care
Plan
34. As a nurse in the community, you are fully aware
that there are identified four clienteles of a
professional nurse in community health nursing,
these are?
a. Individual, Families, Organizations, and
Youth
b. Families, Individuals, Partners, and
Communities
c. Groups, Families, Civilizations, and
Individuals
d. Communities, Groups, Families, and
Individuals
 Correct answers: • c. Families felt need
Communities, Groups,
Families, and Individuals
35. Typology/Category of health problem wherein
their are conditions that are conducive to
disease and accident, or may result to failure to
maintain wellness or realize health potential?
a. Stress Points/Foreseeable Crisis
b. Health Threats
c. Wellness Condition
d. Health Deficits
 Correct answers: Health
Threats
36. The following, except for one are
Factors/conditions that may bring non-
compliance or non-acceptance of the family to
take actions on its each health problems?
a. The family has the necessary
information but fails to relate them to the
problem condition
b. There may be adherence to patterned
behavior
c. The family’s information may be
complete or accurate
d. The family is not willing to face the
reality of the situation
e. The members may not be willing to
oppose family, peer or social pressure
 Correct answers: The family’s
information may be
complete or accurate
37. Typology/Category of health problem wherein
instances of failure in health maintenance is
present?
a. Health Threats
b. Wellness Condition
c. Health Deficits
d. Stress Points/Foreseeable Crisis
 Correct answers: Health
Deficits
38. In performing the nursing process, you know that
the planning phase of the nursing process
includes which of the following activities?
a. Evaluating goal achievement
b. Setting goals and selecting interventions
c. Performing nursing actions and
documenting them
d. Assessing and diagnosing
 Correct answers: Setting
goals and selecting
interventions
39. The nurse has recently been employed in a
long-term care facility and must learn
gerontological principles related to families.
Which of the following is one of those principles?
a. Role reversal is usually expected and
well-accepted by the elderly client.
b. Social support systems are likely to
differ from those for clients in younger
age groups.
c. Members of later-life families do not
have to work on developmental tasks.
d. The care givers are often not members
of the family.
 Correct answers: • Social
support systems are likely
to differ from those for
clients in younger age
groups.
40. The following, except for one are Factors that
influence the goal formulation?
a. Interpersonal relationship
b. Families individualize care to clients
d. Families perception of the problem
 Correct answers: Families
individualize care to clients
41. This is an element of a Community relating to
the interaction of people in which individuals live
with their inner characteristics?
a. Geographical Entity
b. Social Entity
c. Psycho-cultural Entity
d. Physical Entity
 Correct answers: Psycho-
cultural Entity
42. The Nursing process is a scientific and
systematized approach to health to care for
individuals, families, and illness prevention. The
following are the characteristics of the Nursing
Process, except?
a. Open and Flexible
b. Intrapersonal and collaborative
c. Patient centered
d. Dynamic and cyclic
e. Problem Oriented
f. Goal directed
 Correct answers:
Intrapersonal and
collaborative
43. As a Nurse in the community, we have several
roles, and one of this role is defined as the one
"who speaks on behalf of the client".?
a. Health Educator
b. Facilitator
 c. Clinician b. Mortality
d. Health Advocate c. Longevity
e. Collaborator d. Morbidity
 Correct answers: Health  Correct answers: • Morbidity
Advocate (pero Longevity yata)
44. Which of the following nursing interventions 52. Which of the following resources that the Nurse
wherein the nurse improves family’s physical can use that includes RHU, clinics, Barangay
environment? Hall?
a. Supplemental a. Family resources
b. Developmental b. Natural resources
c. Facilitative c. Community resources
d. Accumulative d. Government resources
 Correct answers: Facilitative e. Nurse resources
45. This is a type of Nursing Diagnosis that focused  Correct answers: Community
on promoting or enhancing a patient’s level of resources
health? 53. This is a Graphic representation of a family tree
a. ACTUAL that displays detailed data on relationships
b. SUBSTANCIAL among individuals?
c. COLLABORATIVE a. Initial Data Base
d. POTENTIAL b. Family Assessment Guide
e. WELLNESS c. Ecomap
 Correct answers: WELLNESS d. Home and Environment
46. A goal that provides direct treatment to the e. Genogram
patient is?  Correct answers: Genogram
a. Administration focused goal 54. A type of Nursing Diagnosis that identifies an
b. Client focused goal occurring health problem?
c. Nurse focused goal a. SUBSTANCIAL
d. Hospital focused goal b. WELLNESS
 Correct answers: Client c. POTENTIAL
focused goal d. ACTUAL
47. Which of the following nursing interventions e. COLLABORATIVE
wherein the nurse provides direct nursing care f. Correct answers: ACTUAL
services to the sick? 55. Another type of Nursing Diagnosis that identifies
a. Developmental a high-risk health problem?
b. Facilitative a. POTENTIAL
c. Accumulative b. WELLNESS
d. Supplemental c. ACTUAL
 Correct answers: d. SUBSTANCIAL
Supplemental e. COLLABORATIVE
48. In completing a client’s family assessment, the  Correct answers: POTENTIAL
nurse should begin by: 56. You are the Nurse assigned to the RHU, you
a. Determining the family’s form and have observed individuals being sick due to
attitudes illnesses in a specified period of time, you know
b. Testing the family’s ability to cope that this will be recorded as?
c. Gathering the health data from all family a. Longevity
members b. Death rate
d. Evaluating communication patterns c. Mortality
 Correct answers: Determining d. Morbidity
the family’s form and  Correct answers: • Morbidity
attitudes 57. This is the phase of the Nursing Process
49. Which of the following resources that the Nurse wherein the process of collecting, validating and
can use that includes skills, knowledge, and time recording data about a client’s health status is
of the health provider? being done?
a. Community resources a. Evaluation
b. Family resources b. Nursing Diagnosis
c. Nurse resources c. Implementation
d. Natural resources d. Assessment
e. Government resources e. Planning
 Correct answers: Nurse  Correct answers: Assessment
resources 58. On this phase of the nursing process, the nurse
50. Nurse Theodore is a Nurse working in the considered each problem is assigned a clear,
community and reporting cases to the rural measurable goal for the expected beneficial
health unit of Victoria Tarlac city, he is aware outcome, as well as strategies of action if being
that according to the Department of Health, the developed?
care being provided in a health center is? a. Assessment
a. Secondary Health Care b. Evaluation
b. Tertiary Health Care c. Planning
c. Primary Health Care d. Nursing Diagnosis
d. First-Line Care e. Implementation
 Correct answers: • Primary  Correct answers: • Planning
Health Care 59. Which goal is being attained by teaching the
51. This term is defined as length of life a study, or client or member of the family to perform a
average lifespan? certain procedure?
a. Death rate a. Nurse focused goal
 b. Client focused goal
c. Administration focused goal
d. Hospital focused goal
 Correct answers: Nurse
focused goal
60. As a Nurse in the community, we have several
roles, and one of this role is defined as working
with other health team member?
a. Health Advocate
b. Collaborator
c. Health Educator
d. Clinician
e. Facilitator
 Correct answers:
Collaborator  3. Cultural factors
FINALS
1. Which criterion in priority setting of health
problems is used only in community health care?
a. Nature of the problem presented
b. Modifiability of the problem
c. Magnitude of the health problem
d. Preventive potential of the health
problem
 Correct answers: Magnitude
of the health problem
2. Community health nursing is a field of nursing in
which it utilizes which of the following?   Correct answers: Health
1. Knowledge about the history and
philosophy of public health practices.  organizing are necessary in
2. Concepts of epidemiology and bio-
statistics.  services.
3. Principles of leadership and
management  that there are identified four clientele of a
4. Principles of social change
 Correct answers: 1, 2, 3 & 4
3. An indicator of success in community organizing
is when people are able to?
a. Plan activities for the solution of the
community problem
b. Identify the health problem as a
common concern
c. Participate in community activities for
the solution of a community problem
d. Plan activities for the solution of the
community problem
 Correct answers: Participate
in community activities for
the solution of a community
problem
4. Is an official and periodic enumeration of the
population. Demographic, economic, and social
data are collected from a specified population
group.
a. Census
b. Sample survey
c. De Jure Method
d. De Facto Method
 Correct answers: Census
5. Which of the following is an epidemiologic
function of the nurse during an epidemic?
a. Monitoring the condition of the cases
affected by the communicable disease
b. Participating in the investigation to
determine the source of epidemic
c. Teaching the community on preventive
measures against the disease
d. Conducting assessment of suspected
cases to detect the communicable
diseases
 Correct answers:
Participating in the
investigation to determine
the source of epidemic
6. Nurse Elsa is assessing the SOCIO-ECONOMIC
AND CULTURAL VARIABLES of barangay San
Sebastian. In assessing the Socio-Economic
and Cultural Variables, she will include the
following, except?
1. Economic indicators
2. Environmental indicators
4. Leadership Factors
5. Social indicators
 Correct answers:
Leadership Factors
7. According to Freeman and Heinrich, community
health nursing is a developmental service.
Which of the following best illustrates this
statement?
a. Health education and community
organizing are necessary in providing
community health services.
b. Community health nursing is intended
primarily for health promotion and
prevention and treatment of disease.
c. The community health nurse
continuously develops himself
personally and professionally
d. The goal of community health nursing is
to provide nursing services to people in
their own places of residence.
education and community
providing community health
8. As a nurse in the community, you are fully aware
professional nurse in community health nursing,
these are?
a. Groups, Families, Civilizations, and
Individuals
b. Individual, Families, Organizations, and
Youth
c. Communities, Groups, Families, and
Individuals
d. Families, Individuals, Partners, and
Communities
 Correct answers:
Communities, Groups,
Families, and Individuals
9. As a rural health unit nurse, you also have an
active role in disease surveillance and
epidemiology of disease in the community.
Among others you also do the following. 
1. Immediately inform the rural health
physician of any unusual increases
cases in the community disease. 
2. Conduct epidemiological
investigation on all reported
outbreaks.
3. Request the midwife to graph
weekly disease incidence cases in
the municipality.
4. Assist in the planning and
implementing disease control
measures during outbreak
 Correct answers: 1, 2 & 4
10. You are assessing the family households in your
assigned community. 50% of the family you
 have assessed is made up of parents, their c. Face-to-face
children, and relatives of one or both the parent. d. Mission Phase
You know that this type of family is called?  e. Pre-entry Phase
a. Gay/lesbian f. Helping Phase
b. Single-parent Family g. Loading Phase
c. Communal h. Entry Phase
d. Reconstituted  Correct answers: Entry Phase
e. Compound 16. Which of the following features should the nurse
f. Nuclear Family incorporate in her practice of community health
g. Foster nursing? 
h. Extended Family 1. CHN is oriented to population. 
 Correct answers: Extended 2. CHN emphasizes health. 
Family 3. CHN involves inter disciplinary
11. This phase of the Community Organizing is collaboration 
considered crucial because the success of later 4. CHN promotes client participation in
activities depend largely on the community determining their own health.
organizer's extent of integration with the people, a. 3 & 4 only
her/his understanding of the events in the b. 1, 2, 3 & 4
community? c. 1 & 2 only
a. Entry Phase d. 2 & 4 only
b. Face-to-face e. 1, 2 & 3
c. Pre-entry Phase  Correct answers: 1, 2, 3 & 4
d. Loading Phase 17. While conducting a community diagnosis, you
e. Helping Phase have assessed several number of Dengue cases
f. Phase out in the area. Dengue Fever is a viral infection
g. Assigning Phase transmitted through bite of vector Aedes Aegypti,
h. Mission Phase this vector is characterized by?
 Correct answers: Entry Phase a. Day biting Male Mosquito
12. Criteria for Nature of the Problem Presented b. Day biting female Mosquito
Scale are the following but one? c. Male biting mosquito
a. Health Deficit d. Night biting female mosquito
b. Foreseeable Crisis e. Any mosquito
c. Environmental Health  Correct answers: Day biting
d. Health Threat female Mosquito
 Correct answers: 18. You are assessing the family households in your
Environmental Health assigned community. Majority of the family you
13. In a mothers’ class, you discuss proper have assessed is made up of parents and one or
breastfeeding technique. Which is of these is a more children living together. You know that this
sign that the baby has “latched on” to the breast type of family is called?
properly? a. Extended Family
a. The mother does not feel nipple pain. b. Single-parent Family
b. The baby takes shallow, rapid sucks. c. Nuclear Family
c. Only the mother’s nipple is inside the d. Gay/lesbian
baby’s mouth e. Compound
d. The baby’s mouth is only partly open. f. Communal
 Correct answers: The mother g. Reconstituted
does not feel nipple pain. h. Foster
14. As a nurse in the community, you also have an  Correct answers: Nuclear
active role in disease surveillance and Family
epidemiology of disease in the community. 19. On your home visit at Family Cassano, a 7
Among others you also do which of the month old infant has Koplik Spots. As the
following? community nurse, you are aware that this is a
1. Immediately inform the rural health pathognomonic sign of measles Upon
physician of any unusual increases assessment you may see Koplik’s spot by
cases in the community disease.  inspecting the?
2. Conduct epidemiological investigation a. Buccal mucosa
on all reported outbreaks.  b. Nasal Mucosa
3. Request the midwife to graph weekly c. Skin on the abdomen
disease incidence cases in the d. Skin on the antecubital surface
municipality.   Correct answers: Buccal
4. Assist in the planning and mucosa
implementing disease control measures 20. Batang-Batang is your chosen community for
during outbreak. CHN 2. The perception of the existing problem is
a. 1, 2, 3 & 4 important in the conduct of a Community
b. 2&4 Diagnosis. This refers to the perception of the
c. 1&4 population or the community as they are affected
d. 1, 2 & 4 by the problem and their readiness to act on the
e. 3&4 problem.
 Correct answers: 1, 2 & 4 a. Social Reform
15. Which of the following phases of the Community b. Social Norm
Organizing is also known as social preparation c. Socialization
of the community?  d. Social Concern
a. Phase out e. Social Agenda
b. Assigning Phase
  Correct answers: Social
Concern
21. Environmental sanitation is defined as?
a. Study the pattern of occurrence of
disease epidemiology.
b. None of the choices
c. A branch of public health that deals with
the study of preventing illnesses
managing the environment and
environmental hygiene.
d. Study all factors in man’s physical
environment which may exercise a
deleterious effect on his wellbeing and
survival.
e. All of the choices
 Correct answers: A branch of
public health that deals with
the study of preventing
illnesses managing the
environment and
environmental hygiene.
22. In conducting the community diagnosis, which
step are plans formulated for solving community
problems?
a. Core group Formation
b. Home Visits
c. Follow-up
d. Mobilization
e. Community Organization
 Correct answers: Community
Organization
23. Epidemiology is the study of occurrences and
distribution of diseases as well as distribution
and determinants of health states or events in
specified population, and the application of this
study to the control of health problems. Which of
the following is a function of epidemiology?
a. Evaluating the effectiveness of the
implementation of the Integrated
Management of Childhood Illness.
b. Determining the efficacy of the antibiotic
used in the treatment of the 3 year old
client with pneumonia.
c. Identifying the disease condition based
on manifestations presented by a client.
d. Determining factors that contributed to
the occurrence of pneumonia in a 3 year
old.
 Correct answers: Evaluating
the effectiveness of the
implementation of the
Integrated Management of
Childhood Illness
24. Which criterion in priority setting of health
problems is used only in community health care?
Single choice.
a. Preventive potential of the health
problem
b. Modifiability of the problem
c. Nature of the problem presented
d. Magnitude of the health problem
 Correct answers: Magnitude
of the health problem
25. Community is defined as a group of people living
in the same place or having a particular
characteristic in common. While _________
pertains to the size, composition, and
geographical distribution of the population
density?
a. Demographic Variables
b. Community
c. Urban-Rural Distribution
d. Population
e. Socio-Cultural Variables
 Correct answers:
Demographic Variables
26. You are assigned to Barangay Pokis as the
community nurse, you are aware of the different
roles and functions of each member of the
healthcare team assigned on the said barangay.
Being the Community Nurse on this area, you
are aware that all of the following are not
purposes of the home visit, except?
a. Team approach
b. Endorsement done by a midwife to
another midwife
c. Two-way referral system
d. Giving health teaching regarding the
prevention and control of diseases.
 Correct answers: Giving
health teaching regarding
the prevention and control
of diseases.
27. The following are the reasons of moving to
Phase out phase of the community organizing,
except?
a. When the impact of the project has
become visible or change has been
made
b. When a participatory and politically
responsive community starts to become
individualistic
c. When a viable community-based
organization has been established
d. When the objectives have been attained
e. When the community resources can
already be maximized by the people
f. When the members of the community
can take over the planning,
implementation, monitoring, and
evaluation of the project.
 Correct answers: When a
participatory and politically
responsive community
starts to become
individualistic
28. A community diagnosis is a hypothesis or
statement of the outcome of the analysis and
synthesis of the data and information acquired
during data collection about a community. All of
the following are sources of data: 
1. Population census 
2. Indices of the health 
3. Statistics 
4. Registration of vital data 
5. Health survey 
6. Studies and researches.
 Correct answers: 1, 4, 5 and
6
29. It measures the frequency of occurrence of the
phenomena during a given period of time
a. Incidence Rate
b. Incidence Death Rate
c. Crude Death Rate
d. Prevalence Rate
 Correct answers: Incidence
Rate
30. Assessment provides an estimate of the degree
to which a family or community achieve the level
of health, identifies specific deficiencies or
guidance needed and estimates the possible
effects of the nursing intervention. Arrange the
following into its proper sequence:
1-Initiate contact 
2-Mutual trust/ confidence 
3-Demonstrate caring attitude 
4-Analyze and interprets data 
 5-Identify health problem 6-Collect data
from all sources
7-Assess coping abilities.
 Correct answers: 1, 3, 2, 6,
5, 7, 4
31. Which of the following is an element of a
Comprehensive Community Diagnosis?
a. DEMOGRAPHIC VARIABLES
b. SOCIO-ECONOMIC AND CULTURAL
VARIABLES
c. HEALTH AND ILLNESS PATTERNS
d. HEALTH RESOURCES
e. POLITICAL/ LEADERSHIP PATTERNS
 Correct answers: All of the
following
32. A primigravida is instructed to offer her breast to
the baby for the first time within 30 minutes after
delivery. What is the purpose of offering the
breast this early?
a. To make sure that the baby is able to
get the colostrum
b. To allow the woman to practice
breastfeeding in the presence of the
health worker
c. To stimulate milk production by the
mammary acini
d. To initiate the occurrence of milk
letdown
 Correct answers: To stimulate
milk production by the
mammary acini
33. The Epidemiologic Triangle consists of three
components. The model implies that each must
be analyzed and understood for
comprehensions and prediction of patterns of a
disease. A change in any of the component will
alter an existing equilibrium to increase or
decrease the frequency of the disease. Label the
part of the Epidemiologic Triangle being asked:
C is
___________________?  are the main focus of public health
a. Host
b. Agent
c. Etiologic Factor
d. Environment
e. Nurse
 Correct answers:
Environment
34. The public health nurse is responsible for
presenting the municipal health statistics using
graphs and tables. To compare the frequency of
the leading causes of mortality in the
municipality, which graph will you prepare?
a. Pie
b. Rows and Columns
c. Scatter diagram
d. Bar
e. Line
 Correct answers: Bar
35. When the community health nurse visits a client
at home, the client states, “I haven’t slept at all
the last couple of nights.” Which response by the
nurse illustrates a therapeutic communication
response to this client?
a. “Sometimes, I have trouble sleeping
too.”
b. “You’re having difficulty sleeping?”
c. “I see.”
d. “Really?”
 Correct answers: “You’re
having difficulty sleeping?”
36. The Epidemiologic Triangle consists of three
components – the host, environment, and agent.
As a nurse, you are certain that the three
components of the environment are which of the
ff:
1. Host
2. Agent
3. Physical
4. Biological
5. Environment
6. Socio-economic
 Correct answers: 3, 4 and 6
37. Cultural factors influence community practice.
The variable that may break up People into
Groups within the community includes all of the
following except?
a. Ethnicity, Social Class, Language, Blood
Type
b. Ethnicity, Social Class, Language,
Religion, Race, Political Orientation
c. Race, Political Orientation
d. None of the choices
e. All of the choices
 Correct answers: Ethnicity,
Social Class, Language,
Blood Type
38. A patient asks Nurse Seo about the primary
focus of Community Health Nursing. Which
statement made by Nurse Seo is unacceptable?
a. It focuses on primary level of care
b. The primary focus is performing the
triage approach
c. The individual, family and community
nursing
d. Community Health Nursing focuses on
health promotion aspect
 Correct answers: The primary
focus is performing the
triage approach
39. Community Health Nursing is the utilization of
the nursing process in the different levels of
clientele-individuals, families, population groups
and communities, concerned with the promotion
of health, prevention of disease and disability
and rehabilitation.” (Maglaya, et al). Base on the
definition of CHN above, as a Nurse in the
community, your main goal is? 
a. To raise the level of citizenry by helping
communities and families to cope up
with the discontinuities of threats to
health in such a way as to maximize
their potential for high-level of wellness.
b. To enhance proper collaboration with
others to the promotion of the client’s
optimum level of functioning thru’ the
use of secondary health care services.
c. To eliminate health problems in the
community by helping the family to
become a passive recipient of care.
d. All of the choices
 Correct answers: To raise the
level of citizenry by helping
communities and families to
cope up with the
discontinuities of threats to
health in such a way as to
 maximize their potential for
high-level of wellness.
40. You are assessing the family households in your
assigned community. One of of the family you
have assessed is the family of Freddie who is a
Muslim Brother, and it is legal in his Religion to
have more than one wives. He has three wives,
Lily, Shelly, and Georgia who are living with
Freddie in harmony. What type of family do they
have?
a. Single-parent Family
b. Nuclear Family
c. Compound
d. Extended Family
e. Gay/lesbian
f. Reconstituted
g. Foster
h. Communal
 Correct answers: Compound
41. You will gather data for nutritional assessment of
Purok Cassano. You will gather information only
from families with members who belong to the
target population for PEM. What method of delta
gathering is best for this purpose?
a. Survey
b. Record Review
c. Census
d. Review of civil registry
 Correct answers: Survey
42. The midwife refers to you a family who fails to
take action regarding a sick member of the
family despite her suggestions. In helping the
family decide on what actions to take, you will?  wellness stated is graded as?
1. Explain the consequences of inaction  a. 4
2. Identify the courses of action open to
the family and resources needed for
each
3. Discuss the consequences of each
course of action available
4. Influence the family to act on what
you think is best for the situation.
 Correct answers: 2, 3 & 1
43. A mother brought her daughter, 4 years old, to
the RHU because of cough and colds. Following
the IMCI assessment guide, which of the
following is a danger sign that indicates the need
for urgent referral to a hospital?
a. Inability to drink
b. High grade fever
c. Signs of severe dehydration
d. Crying
 Correct answers: Inability to
drink
44. The Epidemiologic Triangle consists of three
components. The model implies that each must
be analyzed and understood for
comprehensions and prediction of patterns of a
disease. A change in any of the component will
alter an existing equilibrium to increase or
decrease the frequency of the disease. Label the
part of the Epidemiologic Triangle being asked:
A is ___________________?
a. Etiologic Factor
b. Agent
c. Environment
d. Nurse
e. Host
 Correct answers: Agent
45. Population-focused nursing practice requires
which of the following processes
a. Community diagnosis
b. Community organizing
c. Nursing process
d. Epidemiologic process
 Correct answers: Community
diagnosis
46. CHN is a community-based practice. Which best
explains this statement?
a. The nurse has to conduct community
diagnosis to determine nursing needs
and problems
b. The service is provided in the natural
environment of people
c. The services are based on the available
resources within the community
d. Priority setting is based on the
magnitude of the health problems
identified
 Correct answers: The nurse
has to conduct community
diagnosis to determine
nursing needs and
problems
47. On the computation for ranking of identifying
health conditions and problems according to
priorities there are four criteria. On the criteria
nature of the condition or problem presented,
b. 3
c. 5
d. 1
e. 2
f. 0
 Correct answers: 3
48. The DOH roles are categorized into three major
functions, namely: i. Leadership in Health ii.
Enabler and Capacity Builder iii. Community
Organizer iv. Administrator of specific Services.
a. i, iii, iv
b. All of the choices
c. i, ii, iv
d. ii, iii, iv
e. i, ii, iii
 Correct answers: i, ii, iv
49. The primary purpose of conducting an
epidemiologic investigation is to?
a. Identify geographical location of cases
of the disease in the community
b. Identify groups who are at risk of
contracting the disease
c. Delineate the etiology of the epidemic
d. Encourage cooperation and support of
the community
 Correct answers: Delineate
the etiology of the epidemic
50. The Epidemiologic Triangle consists of three
components. The model implies that each must
be analyzed and understood for
comprehensions and prediction of patterns of a
disease. A change in any of the component will
alter an existing equilibrium to increase or
decrease the frequency of the disease. Label the
part of the Epidemiologic Triangle being asked:
 B is ___________________? a. Get a specimen for blood smear.
b. Ask where the family resides.
c. Ask if the fever is present everyday.
d. Do a tourniquet test.
 Correct answers: Ask where
the family resides.
55. If nurses are busy, hilots can really be of help
says Mrs. Cruz of Barangay Papaac. Based on
your knowledge as a nurse, you will include on
your health teaching what specific case that
a. Agent could be assigned on hilots nowadays?
b. Host a. Immunization
c. Etiologic Factor b. None as hilots are not advisable to
d. Nurse attend deliveries nowadays
e. Environment c. Normal deliveries
 Correct answers: Host d. Would dressing
51. In Sitio De Pinagpala, a pregnant woman named  Correct answers: None as
Mrs. Kang seeks help from a hilot. She plans to hilots are not advisable to
give birth in her home and not on a health care attend deliveries nowadays
facility. As a nurse what will you tell Mrs. Kang 56. You are conducting pre-natal counseling on your
about her decision? home visit in the community and dealing with a
a. Facility Based Delivery is highly primigravida who is afraid of childbirth due to her
recommended nowadays as it prevents beliefs and misconceptions. The first thing that
the risk for postpartum related injuries the community nurses should do is?
and neonatal tetanus. a. Refer to midwife for regular follow-up
b. Hilots are way cheaper than hospital visit.
delivery b. Help woman recognize the sign of
c. Hilot and Facility Based Delivery are just abnormalities in pregnancy to enable
synonymous, so you can go to choose her to report to the midwife.
either one of it. c. Identify the beliefs and misconceptions
d. Hilots render holistic touch compared to and their source.
Rural Health Midwives d. Immediately correct the beliefs and
 Correct answers: Facility misconceptions.
Based Delivery is highly  Correct answers: Identify the
recommended nowadays as beliefs and misconceptions
it prevents the risk for and their source
postpartum related injuries 57. In preparing a primigravida for breastfeeding,
and neonatal tetanus. which of the following will you do?
52. In performing the bag technique while doing your a. Explain to her that putting the baby to
Community Diagnosis, it is very important to breast will lessen blood loss after
observe the correct sequence in doing it. All of delivery.
the following sequence are correct sequence, b. Instruct her to wash her nipples before
except? and after each breastfeeding.
1. Greet the client and introduce yourself c. Teach her nipple stretching exercises if
2. Upon arriving at client’s home place her nipples are everted.
the bag on a flat surface lined with paper d. Tell her that lactation begins within a
lining day after delivery.
3. Do handwashing technique and e. None of the choices
perform the procedure f. All of the choices
4. Ask for a basin of water if tap water is  Correct answers: Explain to
not available her that putting the baby to
5. Perform the needed care. breast will lessen blood
6. Put out all the specific paraphernalia loss after delivery.
needed for specific case. 58. Promotion of health is a major responsibility of
 Correct answers: a. 1, 2, 3, 4 the CHN, this refers to?
and 5 a. Activities that seek to protect clients
53. The rise of Dengue cases over the last 3 from potential or actual health threats
decades in the Philippines has seen an increase and their harmful consequences.
in the number of people who have Dengue is b. Activities aimed to prevent the spread of
higher than the previous cases recorded, This microorganisms to Individual.
Patterns of occurrence and distribution of c. Activities directed toward decreasing the
diseases is called? probability of specific illness or
a. ECONOMIC OCCURRENCE dysfunctions in individuals.
b. EPIDEMIC OCCURRENCE d. Activities directed toward developing the
c. SPORADIC OCCURRENCE resources of clients that maintain or
d. PANDEMIC OCCURRENCE enhance well-being.
e. ENDEMIC OCCURRENCE  Correct answers: Activities
 Correct answers: EPIDEMIC directed toward developing
OCCURRENCE the resources of clients that
54. A mother brought her 10 month old infant for maintain or enhance well-
consultation because of fever, which started 4 being
days prior to consultation. To determine malaria 59. This phase of the Community Organizing covers
risk as a epidemiological nurse, what will be your gathering data and encouraging people to
next action? identify and analyze their needs and problems?
 a. Face-to-face
b. Loading Phase
c. Mission Phase
d. Assigning Phase
e. Pre-entry Phase
f. Entry Phase
g. Helping Phase
h. Phase out
 Correct answers: Helping
Phase
60. In Barangay Nagibana, a rural community,
Clostridium tetani, the bacterium that causes
tetanus, is acquired in the soil environment, but
incidences of infection occur only rarely and in
scattered locations because most individuals are
vaccinated, This Patterns of occurrence and
distribution of diseases is called?
a. ECONOMIC OCCURRENCE
b. EPIDEMIC OCCURRENCE
c. SPORADIC OCCURRENCE
d. ENDEMIC OCCURRENCE
e. PANDEMIC OCCURRENCE
 Correct answers: SPORADIC
OCCURRENCE
61. Which statements made by a group of
community clients communicate to the nurse a
potential warning sign of cancer? Select all that
apply.
1. "For the past 2 years, I have had a
chronic productive cough for 3 months
out of the year."
2. "I seem to have heartburn an hour
after I eat eggs and sausage and drink
whole milk."
3. "Last month when I was doing my
self-breast examination, I noticed a lump
the size of a marble."
4. "My mole is itchy and the borders
have become uneven with a blackish to
bluish color."
5. "Recently I have noticed that my
bowel movements appear black."
 Correct answers: 3, 4, and 5
62. The following choices are the purposes of home
visit that a nurse must be utilize in performing
community diagnosis and family case study. All
of the following are true except?
1. To give health teachings regarding
the prevention and control of diseases.
2. To teach a responsible family
member to give the subsequent care.
3. To give care to the sick, to a
postpartum mother and her newborn
with the view to teach any family
member to give the subsequent care.
4. To make use of the inter-referral
system and to promote the utilization of
community services.
 Correct answers: 2, 3, 4
63. This can be describe in terms of urban-rural
distribution, population density, and crowding
index for proper allocation of resources based
on the concentration of population in a certain
place:Single choice.
a. Crowding Index
b. Population Distribution
c. Urban-Rural Distribution
d. Population Density
 Correct answers: Population
Distribution
64. This phase of the Community Organizing mean
that a program is already community-managed?
Single choice.
a. Face-to-face
b. Helping Phase
c. Assigning Phase
d. Entry Phase
e. Mission Phase
f. Pre-entry Phase
g. Loading Phase
h. Phase out
 Correct answers: Phase out
65. Which is CONTRARY to the principles in
planning a home visit?
a. Planning of continuing care should
involve a responsible family member
b. A home visit should be conducted in the
manner prescribed by the RHU.
c. The plan should revolve around family
health needs.
d. A home visit should have a purpose or
objective.
 Correct answers: A home visit
should be conducted in the
manner prescribed by the
RHU.
66. In the past year, Barangay A had an average
population of 1655. 46 babies were born in that
year, 2 of whom died less than 4 weeks after
they were born. They were 4 recorded stillbirths.
What is the neonatal mortality rate?
a. 86.9/1000
b. 130.4/1000
c. 27.8/1000
d. 43.5/1000
 Correct answers: 43.5/1000
67. You have been assigned as a community health
nurse in a poor community providing primary
health care services, which of the following
characterize Primary Health Care?
1. Essential health care accessible and
acceptable to individual and families in
the community.
2. The cost of care is affordable to
community and country.
3. The setting is in tertiary hospitals.
4. Require health personnel and
specialized training.
 Correct answers: 1 & 2
68. The following are uses of Epidemiology, except?
a. Estimate the risk of disease, accident,
and defects
b. Motivating, enhancing and seeking
wider community participation in
decision making and activities that have
the potential to impact positively on
community health
c. Complete the clinical picture of chronic
disease
d. Study the rise and fall of diseases and
changes in their character
e. Study the history of the health
population
f. Study the work of health services with a
view of improving them
g. Diagnose the health of the community
 Correct answers: Motivating,
enhancing and seeking
wider community
participation in decision
making and activities that
have the potential to impact
positively on community
health
69. Community Organizing (CO) is a social
development approach that aims to transform
the apathetic, individualistic and voiceless poor
into a dynamic, participatory and politically
 responsive community. Which step in community
organizing involves training of potential leaders
in the community?
a. Core group formation
b. Community organization
c. Community study
d. Integration
 Correct answers: Core group
formation
70. You are assigned to Barangay Bacsay for your
RLE experience, during your community
exposure your Clinical Instructor ask you about
the guidelines regarding the frequency of home
visit. You are correct if you answer all of the
following except?
1. The physical needs psychological
needs and educational needs of the
individual and family.
2. The frequency of home visit should
take into consideration the use of all
available information about the patient
and his family through family records.
3. The acceptance of the family for the
services to be rendered, their interest
and the willingness to cooperate.
4. The policy of a specific agency and
the emphasis given towards their health
programs.
5. Take into account the manner
prescribed by the RHU regarding home
visit and the number of health personnel
already involved in the care of a specific
family.
6. Careful evaluation of past services
given to the family and how the family
avails of the nursing services.
7. The ability of the nurse to recognize
the needs of the family, their knowledge
of available resources and their ability to
make use of their resources for their
benefits.
 Correct answers: 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
and 7
71. Which of the following phases of the Community
Organizing wherein the Nurse is conducting of
preliminary social analysis of the community is
needed to be able to plan the most effective way
of entering the community?
a. Face-to-face
b. Loading Phase
c. Mission Phase
d. Entry Phase
e. Phase out
f. Pre-entry Phase
g. Helping Phase
h. Assigning Phase
 Correct answers: Pre-entry
Phase
72. Community organizing is a continuous and
sustained process which develop the following,
except?
a. Organizing people to work collectively
and efficiently.
b. Guiding people to understand the
existing condition of their own
community.
c. Take action on their immediate and
long-term needs.
d. Mobilizing people to develop their
capacity and readiness.
e. Improving nursing services for the
individual, family and community.
 Correct answers: Improving
nursing services for the
individual, family and
community
73. You are assessing the family households in your
assigned community. One of of the family you
have assessed is the family of Mr. and Mrs.
Manio who has three sons, all of them are
married, and have their family of their own.
However, due to financial issue, all of their sons
with their families are still living inside the same
roof. What type of family do they have?
a. Gay/lesbian
b. Single-parent Family
c. Compound
d. Communal
e. Foster
f. Nuclear Family
g. Reconstituted
h. Extended Family
 Correct answers: Communal
74. This is also known as community involvement
phase of the Community Organizing?
a. Face-to-face
b. Loading Phase
c. Phase out
d. Helping Phase
e. Pre-entry Phase
f. Assigning Phase
g. Mission Phase
h. Entry Phase
 Correct answers: Helping
Phase
75. This phase of the Community Organizing is also
known as project site selection?
a. Assigning Phase
b. Loading Phase
c. Mission Phase
d. Face-to-face
e. Entry Phase
f. Pre-entry Phase
g. Helping Phase
h. Phase out
 Correct answers: Pre-entry
Phase
NCM 113 CHN2 Lec
MIDTERMS
1. The community health nurse chose Barangay
Sairo in the delivery of health programs and
services. Green’s Model was adopted in the
conduct of Community Health Nursing activities.
The following are the most common type of
instrument of data gathering in social diagnosis,
except:
a. Survey questionnaire
b. Nominal and Focus Groups
c. Structured Interview guide
d. Medical and Laboratory records
 Correct answers: Medical and
Laboratory records
2. One of the models used in CHN is Health Belief
Model. Which of the following are included in this
model as its focus?
a. Promoting and health risk behaviors,
sick role behaviors and attitudes
b. Enhancing functional ability, well- being
and better quality of life
c. Expanding health education through
policy, regulatory and related ecological
factors
 d. Challenging the main determinant for are entitled is which of the following CHN
unhealthy behavioral choice is lack of principles?
knowledge a. Collaborative work relationships with the
 Correct answers: Promoting co-workers and members of the health
and health risk behaviors, team facilities accomplishments of
sick role behaviors and goals.
attitudes b. CHN integrates health education and
3. One of the highlights of Millo’s model is: counseling as vital parts of functions.
a. Competence oriented model c. Utilization of indigenous and existing
b. Policy development community resources maximizing the
c. Health-related behaviors success of the efforts of the Community
d. Educational and ecological diagnosis Health Nurses.
 Correct answers: Policy d. Respect for the values, customs and
development beliefs of the clients contribute to the
4. It is a learned practice discipline with the effectiveness of care to the client.
ultimate goal of contributing as individuals and in  Correct answers: Utilization
collaboration with others to the promotion of the of indigenous and existing
client’s optimum level of functioning through community resources
teaching and delivery of care.: maximizing the success of
a. Occupational health nursing the efforts of the
b. School nursing Community Health Nurses.
c. Community mental health nursing 8. In CHN, the client is considered as a/an:
d. Community health nursing a. Active partner
 Correct answers: Community b. Passive partner
health nursing c. Dormant partner
5. Giving priority to the health problems presented d. Submissive partner
by the four levels of clientele is which of the  Correct answers: Active
following CHN principles applicable? partner
a. Active participation of the individual, 9. Which of the following statements is not true in
family and community in planning and the concept of CHN services?
making decisions for their health care a. CHN practice is affected by
needs, determine, to a large extent, the developments in health technology, in
success of the CHN programs. particular, changes in society.
b. The recognized need of individuals, b. The goal of CHN is achieved through
families and communities provides the multi-sectoral efforts.
basis for CHN practice. c. CHN is a part of health care system and
c. Respect for the values, customs and the larger human services system.
beliefs of the clients contribute to the d. CHN focuses on the recognized needs
effectiveness of care to the client. of the health workers for better follow up
d. CHN considers the family as the unit of services.
service. Its level of functioning is  Correct answers: CHN
influenced by the degree to which it can focuses on the recognized
deal with its own problems. needs of the health workers
 Correct answers: The for better follow up
recognized need of services.
individuals, families and 10. The community health nurse works with many
communities provides the people including clients, other nurses,
basis for CHN practice. physicians, social workers, and community
6. Working with the mission and vision of the leaders, therapists, nutritionists, occupational
agency the CHN represents is what CHN therapists, psychologists, epidemiologists,
principle? biostatisticians, legislators as a member of the
a. Knowledge and understanding of the health team:
objectives and policies of the agency a. Managerial role of the CH Nurse
facilities goal achievement. b. Collaborative role of the CH Nurse
b. Collaborative work relationships with the c. Advocate role of the CH Nurse
co-workers and members of the health d. Clinician role of the CH Nurse
team facilities accomplishments of  Correct answers:
goals. Collaborative role of the CH
c. Utilization of indigenous and existing Nurse
community resources maximizing the 11. It is a psychological health model that attempts
success of the efforts of the Community to explain behavior by focusing on the attitudes
Health Nurses. and behaviors of individuals.
d. Continuing staff education program a. Precede-Proceed model
quality services to client and are b. Health Promotion model
essential to upgrade and maintain sound c. Health Prevention model
nursing practices in their setting. d. Health Belief model
 Correct answers: Knowledge  Correct answers: Health
and understanding of the Belief model
objectives and policies of 12. The following are the characteristics of a
the agency facilities goal “healthy community”
achievement. 1. Awareness that “we are a family”
7. The use of local available health resources and 2. Settling of disputes through legitimate
linkages both public and private, increase the mechanisms
awareness of what care they need which they
 3. Decision-making is done by the learned and  Correct answers: The worth
the powerful and dignity of man
4. Conservation of natural resources. 19. The primary focus of community health nursing
a. 1, 2, 3 practice in terms of maintaining the people’s
b. All of the above OLOF is:
c. 2, 3, 4 a. Health promotion
d. 1, 2, 4 b. Disease prevention
e. Correct answers: 1, 2, 4 c. Prevention of communicable diseases
13. Among the characteristics of an unhealthy d. Reduction of lifestyle diseases
community are:  Correct answers: Health
1. Participation of subgroups in the affairs of the promotion
community 20. The philosophy of CHN practice is based on the
2. Very strong inclination towards the family’s belief that the family is the smallest unit in a
welfare democratic society. Which age group should be
3. Instead of the community’s interest the priority adults of the nurses in the
4. Decision-making is done by the learned and community?
the powerful a. Older persons and terminally ill
5. Absence of distributive justice b. Adolescents and
a. 1, 2, 3 c. Infants and children
b. All of the above d. All ages regardless of status
c. 2, 3, 4  Correct answers: All ages
d. None of the above regardless of status
 Correct answers: 2, 3, 4 21. These are used to measure the health status of
14. The primary focus of the community health the population.
nursing practice in terms of maintaining the a. Health Indicators
people’s optimum level of functioning is: b. Population Profile
a. Health promotion c. Community health
b. Prevention of communicable disease d. Demography
c. Reduction of lifestyle diseases  Correct answers: Health
d. Disease prevention Indicators
 Correct answers: Health 22. The study of vital events of the population is
promotion called:
15. In the communities, families from the lower a. Health Indicators
income groups are the ones mostly served by b. Population Profile
the public health services and by the community c. Community health
health nurses because: d. Demography
a. They have proportionally great number  Correct answers:
of illness and health problems Demography
b. Those from the higher income groups do 23. The theoretical framework of Millo consists of
not trust the government services which of the following:
c. The poor people have no choice but to a. Individual Perception, Modifying factors,
go to government public health services Likelihood of axtions
where services are free. b. Perception of susceptibility,severity,
d. Those from the higher income groups do severity, benefits, costs, motivation &
not get sick modifying factors
 Correct answers: They have c. Health public policy, policy holders &
proportionally great number influencer, public and media
of illness and health d. Educational & Ecological diagnosis
problems  Correct answers: Health
16. The diseases today are largely man-made like public policy, policy holders
poor sanitation, poor garbage disposal, air & influencer, public and
pollution, smoking and utilization of chemicals media
and pesticides. These are classified under: 24. Green’s framework consists of:
a. Political factors a. Individual Perception, Modifying factors,
b. Behavioral factors Likelihood of axtions
c. Environmental factors b. Perception of susceptibility,severity,
 Correct answers: Behavioral severity, benefits, costs, motivation &
factors modifying factors
17. Some of the factors in the eco-system which c. Health public policy, policy holders &
affect the level of functioning are oppression, influencer, public and media
crimes and lack of safety in streets and home d. Educational & Ecological diagnosis
which are classified sunder:  Correct answers: Educational
a. Socio-economic & Ecological diagnosis
b. Heredity 25. Pender’s theoretical framework consists of:
c. Environment a. Individual Perception, Modifying factors,
d. Political Likelihood of actions
 Correct answers: Political b. Perception of susceptibility, severity,
18. Margaret Shetland stated that the philosophy of severity, benefits, costs, motivation &
community health nursing is based on. modifying factors
a. The greatest good for the greatest c. Health public policy, policy holders &
number influencer, public and media
b. The worth and dignity of man d. Educational & Ecological diagnosis
c. The rule of the majority  Correct answers: Individual
d. The “fishing rod effect” Perception, Modifying
 factors, Likelihood of a. Impact Evaluation
actions b. Outcome evaluation
26. Health belief model’s theoretical framework c. Both
consists of: d. None of the above
a. Perception of susceptibility, severity,  Correct answers: Impact
severity, benefits, costs, motivation & Evaluation
modifying factors 34. It determines the effect the program had in the
b. Health public policy, policy holders & health and quality of life of the community.:
influencer, public and media a. Impact Evaluation
c. Educational & Ecological diagnosis b. Outcome evaluation
d. Individual Perception, Modifying factors, c. Both
Likelihood of actions d. None of the above
 Correct answers: Perception  Correct answers: Outcome
of susceptibility, severity, evaluation
severity, benefits, costs, 35. Premarital counselling. 
motivation & modifying a. Primary Prevention
factors b. Secondary Prevention
27. This is an action in the prevention of the c. Tertiary Prevention
emergence or development of risk factors in  Correct answers: Primary
population in which they have not yet appeared. Prevention
a. Primordial prevention 36. Splinting a fractured bone. 
b. Primary prevention a. Primary Prevention
c. Secondary prevention b. Secondary Prevention
d. Tertiary prevention c. Tertiary Prevention
 Correct answers: Primordial  Correct answers: Tertiary
prevention Prevention
28. Action directed toward health promotion 37. Case finding.
activities and specific protection from specific a. Primary Prevention
illness is what level of prevention? b. Secondary Prevention
a. Primordial prevention c. Tertiary Prevention
b. Primary prevention d. Primordial prevention
c. Secondary prevention  Correct answers: Secondary
d. Tertiary prevention Prevention
 Correct answers: Primary 38. Eating a well balanced diet.
prevention a. Primary Prevention
29. What level of prevention is toward disability b. Secondary Prevention
limitation and rehabilitation? c. Tertiary Prevention
a. Primordial prevention d. Primordial prevention
b. Primary prevention  Correct answers: Primary
c. Secondary prevention Prevention
d. Tertiary prevention 39. Immunization.
 Correct answers: Tertiary a. Primary Prevention
prevention b. Secondary Prevention
30. Action which is directed toward early diagnosis c. Tertiary Prevention
and treatment of diseases is called: d. Primordial prevention
a. Primordial prevention  Correct answers: Primary
b. Primary prevention Prevention
c. Secondary prevention 40. Self breast examination.
d. Tertiary prevention a. Primary Prevention
 Correct answers: Secondary b. Secondary Prevention
prevention c. Tertiary Prevention
31. In Green’s model these includes factors that d. Primordial prevention
reward the desired behavior change including  Correct answers: Secondary
social support, economic rewards and changing Prevention
social norms. 41. Bringing a patient to a specializes health care
a. Predisposing factors facility to further the management of his
b. Reinforcing factors problem.
c. Enabling factors a. Primary Prevention
 Correct answers: Reinforcing b. Secondary Prevention
factors c. Tertiary Prevention
32. It assesses the policies, resources, d. Primordial prevention
circumstances and prevailing organizational  Correct answers: Tertiary
situations that could hinder or facilitate the Prevention
development of the health program.: 42. Sleeping 6-8 hours daily.
a. Educational Diagnosing a. Primary Prevention
b. Administrative Diagnosis b. Secondary Prevention
c. Environmental Diagnosis c. Tertiary Prevention
d. Policy Diagnosis d. Primordial prevention
 Correct answers:  Correct answers: Primary
Administrative Diagnosis Prevention
33. It measures the effectiveness of the program 43. A nurse that delivers services and health and
based on selecting factors in educational safety programs to worker populations, workers
diagnosis and often used to evaluate the and community groups.
performance of educators.: a. School nurse
 b. Occupational health nurse  Correct answers: Perceived
c. Community mental health nurse severity
 Correct answers: 50. What component of the HBM is when Mr X
Occupational health nurse realized that there are existing hindrances to
44. A nurse who employs primary prevention by improved his health condition?
providing health education that promotes a. Perceived severity
physical and mental health and informs b. Perceived susceptibility
healthcare decisions, prevents disease, and c. Perceived barrier
enhances school performance. d. Perceived benefit
a. School nurse  Correct answers: Perceived
b. Occupational health nurse barrier
c. Community mental health nurse 51. Mr. X could not complete such recommended
 Correct answers: School treat regimen plan for such health problem
nurse manifested for it requires longer period of time in
45. A group of people with common characteristics its management, more rigid diagnostic
or interests, beliefs and culture living together examination needed and with financial
within a territory or geographical boundary is constraint. This is:
called: a. Perceived benefit
a. Demography b. Perceived cost
b. Community c. Perceived severity
c. both d. Perceived susceptibility
 Correct answers: Community  Correct answers: Perceived
46. CHN services must be available sustainable and cost
affordable to all regardless of race, creed, color 52. Mr. X find ways and with his significant others
or socio-economic status is what principle of worked out for the solution of his existing health
CHN applicable? problem. To further the management of his
a. CHN integrates health education and health condition will mean good prognosis. This
counseling as vital parts of functions. is:
b. Respect for the values, customs and a. Perceived severity
beliefs of the clients contribute to the b. Perceived susceptibility
effectiveness of care to the client. c. Perceived barrier
c. Periodic and continuing evaluation d. Perceived benefit
provides the means for assessing the  Correct answers: Perceived
degree to which CHN goals and benefit
objectives are being attained. 53. Mr. X complied with the treatment regimen plan
d. CHN considers the family as the unit of as per result of the diagnostic examination done
service. Its level of functioning is and toward modifying his existing unhealthy
influenced by the degree to which it can lifestyles. This is:
deal with its own problems. a. Modifying factors
 Correct answers: Respect for b. Cues to action
the values, customs and c. self-efficacy
beliefs of the clients d. Perceived cost
contribute to the  Correct answers: Cues to
effectiveness of care to the action
client. 54. Mr X has been compliant. He has personal belief
47. Proving health teachings to the four levels of in his own ability to do something about his
clientele is what role of the nurse? existing health problem is proven beneficial.This
a. Advocate role is:
b. Clinician Role a. Modifying factors
c. Educator role b. Perceived benefit
d. Leader role c. Self-efficacy
 Correct answers: Educator d. Perceived cost
role  Correct answers: Self-efficacy
48. Mr X is manifesting high fever, joint pains, loss 55. It is any activity which reduces the burden of
of appetite and headache for 2 days. He mortality or morbidity from diseases.
submitted himself for consultation that such a. Promotion
signs and symptoms being felt is indicative of an b. Belief
illness. What component of the Health Belief c. Prevention
Model (HBM) is this?  Correct answers: Prevention
a. Perceived Susceptibility 56. This is a framework for integrating nursing and
b. Perceived severity behavioral science perspectives on factors
c. perceived barrier influencing health behaviors.
d. Perceived benefit a. Health Belief Model
 Correct answers: Perceived b. PRECEDE-PROCEED Model
Susceptibility c. Health Prevention Model
49. The concept of Mr. X to submit himself for d. Health Promotion Model
checkup that what he manifested needs prompt  Correct answers: Health
attention so it will not predispose him to risk Promotion Model
conditions is what component of the HBM? 57. In educational diagnosis, this refers to selecting
a. Perceived cost factors which are skills, or personal factors such
b. Perceived severity as service and resources accessibility toward
c. Perceived susceptibility achievement of modifying behaviors.:
d. Perceived barrier a. Predisposing factors
b. Reinforcing factors
 c. Enabling factors 1. CHN is a community-based practice. Which best
 Correct answers: Enabling explains this statement?
factors a. The service is provided in the natural
58. This is the doing phase of Green's Model where environment of people
all planned strategies and action are now b. The nurse has to conduct community
mobilized.:. diagnosis to determine nursing needs
a. Evaluation and problems
b. Administrative and Policy diagnosis c. The services are based on the available
c. Educational diagnois resources within the community
d. Implementation d. Priority setting is based on the
 Correct answers: magnitude of the health problems
Implementation identified
59. This is a specialized practice of nursing that  Correct answers: The nurse
advances the well-being, academic success, has to conduct community
and lifelong achievement and health of students. diagnosis to determine
It is called: nursing needs and
a. School nursing problems.
b. Occupational health nursing 2. Population- focused nursing practice requires
c. Community mental health nursing which of the following processes?
 Correct answers: School a. Community organizing
nursing b. Nursing, process
60. It is also known as industrial nursing. This is: c. Community diagnosis
a. School nursing d. Epidemiologic process
b. Occupational health nursing  Correct answers: Community
c. Community mental health nursing diagnosis
 Correct answers: 3. Which step in community organizing involves
Occupational health nursing training of potential leaders in the community?
61. These determinants of community health that a. Integration
includes geography, community size, b. Community organization
environment and industrial development. This: c. Community study
a. Industrial behaviors d. Core group formation
b. Physical factors  Correct answers: Core group
c. Community organization formation
d. Sociocultural factors 4. As an epidemiologist, the nurse is responsible
 Correct answers: Physical for reporting cases or notifiable diseases. What
factors law mandates reporting cases of notifiable
62. These determinants affecting community health diseases?
refers to beliefs and traditions, social norms, a. Act 3573
economy, politics and religion.: b. RA 3753
a. Industrial behaviors c. RA 1054
b. physical factors d. RA 1082
c. Community organization  Correct answers: Act 3573
d. Sociocultural factors 5. Community health nursing is a developmental
 Correct answers: service. Which of the following best illustrates
Sociocultural factors this statement?
63. This special field of nursing is integration of a. The community health nurse
mental health care services and linkage with continuously develops himself
existing community health development personally and professionally
program.: b. Health education and community
a. School nursing organizing are necessary in providing
b. Occupational health nursing community health services
c. Community mental health nursing c. Community health nursing in intended
 Correct answers: Community primarily for health promotion and
mental health nursing prevention and treatment of disease.
64. These determinants of community health has to d. The goal of community health nursing is
do with concerted effort of many to make a to provide nursing services to people in
program work like herd immunity .: their own place of residence
a. physical factors  Correct answers: Health
b. sociocultural factors education and community
c. community organization organizing are necessary in
d. individual behaviors providing community health
 Correct answers: individual services
behaviors 6. In which step of community organizing where the
65. This health model is a participatory model for community health worker chose one health issue
creating successful community health promotion to work and formulated actions for solving
and other public health interventions.: community problems?
a. Health Belief model a. Mobilization
b. Health promotion model b. Community organization
c. Health prevention model c. Follow-up/extension
d. Precede-Proceed model d. Tentative Program planning
 Correct answers: Precede-  Correct answers: Tentative
Proceed model Program planning

FINALS
7. The community health nurse takes an active role
to initiate community participation. What is the
primary goal of community organizing?
a. To educate the people regarding
community health problems
b. To mobilize the people to resolve
community health problems
c. To maximize the community’s resources
in dealing with health problems
 Correct answers: To mobilize
the people to resolve
community health problems
8. An indicator of success in community organizing
is when people are able to:
a. Participate in community activities for
the solution of a community problem
b. Implement activities for the solution of
the community problem
c. Plan activities for the solution of the
community problem
d. Identify the health problem as a
common concern
 Correct answers: Participate
in community activities for
the solution of a community
problem
9. Which of the following is a function of
epidemiology in the following situations?
a. Identifying the disease condition based
on manifestations presented by a client
b. Determining factors that contributed to
the occurrence of pneumonia in a 3-
year-old
c. Determining the efficacy of the antibiotic
used in the treatment of the 3-year-old
client with pneumonia
d. Evaluating the effectiveness of the
implementation of the Integrated
Management of Childhood Illness
 Correct answers: Evaluating
the effectiveness of the
implementation of the
Integrated Management of
Childhood Illness
10. Which of the following is an epidemiologic
function of the nurse during an epidemic?
a. Conducting assessment of suspected
cases to detect the communicable
diseases
b. Monitoring the condition of the cases
affected by the communicable disease
c. Participating in the investigation to
determine the source of epidemic
d. Teaching the community on preventive
measures against the disease
 Correct answers:
Participating in the
investigation to determine
the source of epidemic.
11. The primary purpose of conducting an
epidemiologic investigation is to;
a. Delineate the etiology of the epidemic
b. Encourage cooperation and support of
the community
c. Identify groups who are at risk of
contracting the disease
d. Identify geographical location of cases
of the disease in the community
 Correct answers: Delineate
the etiology of the epidemic
12. Which is a characteristic of person-to-person
propagated epidemic?
a. There are more cases of the disease
than expected.
b. The disease must necessarily be
transmitted through a vector.
c. The spread of the disease can be
attributed to a common vehicle.
d. There is gradual build up of cases
before we epidemic becomes easily
noticeable.
 Correct answers: There is
gradual build up of cases
before we epidemic
becomes easily noticeable.
13. The number of cases of Dengue fever usually
increases towards the end of the rainy season.
This pattern of occurrence of Dengue fever is
best described as;
a. Epidemic occurrence
b. Cyclical/seasonal variation
c. Sporadic occurrence
d. Secular occurrence
 Correct answers:
Cyclical/seasonal variation
14. One of the roles of a community health nurse in
epidemiology as a supervisor mean:
a. Referring cases or patients
b. Providing technical guidance
c. Proving nursing care to cases referred
d. Formulating and implementing training
programs
 Correct answers: Providing
technical guidance
15. Health education is a major activity of a
community health nurse. The purpose is to:
a. Find out people’s reaction to health
services they can avail.
b. Inform the public of the available
programs and services they can avail.
c. Provide information on health promotion.
d. Facilitate change in attitudes and
behaviors towards health.
 Correct answers: Facilitate
change in attitudes and
behaviors towards health.
16. Epidemiology is described with following terms:
1. Study of the occurrence of births and
deaths in a given period of time.
2. Concerned with the study of the
probable factors that influence the
development of altered health
conditions.
3. Deals with occurrence and distribution
of altered health conditions of the
population.
4. Concerned with the number of
mortality and morbidity related to age
and sex distribution.
 Correct answers: 2 and 3
17. Population composition is commonly described
in terms of:
a. Births and deaths
b. Age and sex
c. Age and births
d. Sex and population
 Correct answers: Births and
deaths
18. It refers to the probability reducing, controlling
and eradicating the identified CHN problem:
a. Modifiability of the problem
b. Preventive potential
c. Magnitude of the problem
d. Social concern
 Correct answers: Modifiability
of the problem
19. Removing the barrier to further the management
of the patient health problems is what functions
of the health worker?
a. care provider
b. health educator
c. facilitator
d. researcher
 Correct answers: facilitator
20. Occurrence of the disease implies the habitual
presence of disease in a given geographic
location accounting for the low number of both
immunes and susceptible:
a. Pandemic
b. Sporadic
c. Epidemic
d. Endemic
 Correct answers: Endemic
21. A situation that occurs when there is marked
upward fluctuation in disease incidence in a
relatively short period time:
a. Epidemic
b. Pandemic
c. Endemic
d. Sporadic
 Correct answers: Epidemic
22. Nurse A measured the severity of the problem
on poor drainage system in terms of proportion
of the problem on drainage system. What
criterion in the priority setting did Nurse A
utilize?
a. Nature of the problem
b. Modifiability of the problem
c. Magnitude of the problem
d. Preventive potential
 Correct answers: Magnitude
of the problem
23. The following are the most common type of
instruments of data gathering, except:
a. Survey questionnaire
b. Observation checklist
c. Interview guide
d. None of the above
 Correct answers: None of the
above
24. A method of COPAR that makes used of the
experimental learning as it emerges it from
concrete action and which encircle succeeding
action:
a. Consciousness raising
b. Group centered
c. Mass based
d. Progressive cycle of action-reflection-
action
 Correct answers:
Consciousness raising
25. A critical step in COPAR that involves actual
experiences of the people in confronting the
people in the powerful and the actual exercise of
the people power:
a. Integration
b. Groundwork
c. Social investigation
d. Mobilization of action
 Correct answers: Mobilization
of action
26. The major role of the nurse in CHN is:
a. Health Care Provider
b. Health Educator
c. Health Monitor
d. Change Agent
 Correct answers: Health
Educator
27. It is checking the results if objectives are
achieved:
a. Assessment
b. Implementation
c. Planning
d. Evaluation
 Correct answers: Evaluation
28. Nurse Bek is assigned in community Regta. In
planning a community health program in
community Regta to prevent diarrheal disease in
the community, what would be the important
strategy to consider to be taken by the
community health worker?
a. Campaign for the use of safe water and
hand washing.
b. Teach the community how to prepare
oresol solution.
c. Distribute anti-diarrheal drugs.
d. Conduct massive cholera and typhoid
immunization.
 Correct answers: Campaign
for the use of safe water
and hand washing.
29. The ultimate goal of the community health
services being provided by the people is to:
a. Help communities cope up with health
threats and discontinue life.
b. Remote reciprocally supportive
relationship between people and
environment.
c. Raise the level of health of the citizenry.
d. Increase the level of awareness of
illness
 Correct answers: Raise the
level of health of the
citizenry.
30. As a community health nurse, it is expected that
you will:
a. Utilize indigenous and existing
community resources.
b. Work with representatives of existing
health and health related agencies in the
community
c. Involves the community members in the
planning and implementation of health
programs.
d. All of the above.
 Correct answers: All of the
above.
31. A key concept of health promotion in working
with the community is that people in the
community are able to:
a. Access to medical insurance to cover
their expenses.
b. Recognize their health needs and help
develop strategies to improve their own
health care.
c. Stop activities such as smoking or
alcohol consumption that are harmful to
them.
d. None of the above
 Correct answers: Recognize
their health needs and help
develop strategies to
improve their own health
care.
32. Barangay C has a total number of deaths of 6,
has a total population of 2,000 and from these
there are 36 registered live births. There are 2
recorded children under 28 days & 3 under 1
year old who died. What will be the infant
mortality rate?
a. 833
b. 83.33
c. 33.38
d. 23.38
  Correct answers: 83.33
33. Compulsory registration of births and deaths in
the local civil registrar’s office:
a. RA# 9288
b. RA# 651
c. RA# 156
d. RA# 7305
 Correct answers: RA# 651
34. A big barrier to collaborative goal setting
between the health worker and the community
is:
a. Lack of financial resources.
b. Inability of the family to perceive the
problems.
c. Failure to develop a working relationship
between them
d. Lack of knowledge
 Correct answers: Failure to
develop a working
relationship between them
35. A mother once remarked that her son’s having
intestinal parasitism is nothing but a natural
condition for any other child. Such perception
could be categorically classified as.
a. Inability to cast assessment due to
unavailability of sufficient data.
b. A serious condition but not requiring
immediate action.
c. A problem with moderate social
concern.
d. A problem with low social concern.
 Correct answers: A problem
with low social concern.
36. To encourage community participation, which of
the following activities should be done?
a. Invite people from civic organization.
b. Refer to the doctor for prescription.
c. Encourage sponsorships to programs.
d. Listen when people relate their
problems.
 Correct answers: Listen when
people relate their
problems.
37. Consider the following statements:
1. In setting priority for the problems, as
with the nature of the problem, the least
weight is given to health status state.
2. Health resource and health related
have the same ranking because of
clinical urgency.
3. Health related is given the least
weight.
4. The weight of the nature of the
problem presented have the score of 1.
 Correct answers:
Statements 3 & 4 are true
38. To ensure effective and efficient data collection
in the conduct of community diagnosis, the
community health nurse is concerned about the
following important points except for one. Which
one is this?
a. The need to specify methods of data
gathering and tools.
b. Identification of the types or kinds of
data needed.
c. Identifying problem areas.
d. None of these.
 Correct answers: Identifying
problem areas
39. The following are methods of data gathering
except for one. Which one is this?
a. Observation
b. Record review
c. Diagnostic tests
d. Data analysis
 Correct answers: Data
analysis
40. There are three components of the environment
as part of the triads of disease causation. These
are:
1. Physical environment
2. Biological environment
3. Socio-economic environment
4. Cultural environment
 Correct answers: 1, 2 and 3
41. Nurse Beh was determining the occurrence and
distribution of selected environmental, socio-
economic and behavioral conditions important to
disease control and wellness promotion. What
specific stage/step is Nurse Beh in the
accomplishment of a community diagnosis?
a. Determining the data to be collected
b. Collecting data
c. Determining the objectives
d. Defining population
 Correct answers: Determining
the objectives
42. The community health nurse takes an active role
in community participation. What is the primary
goal of community organizing?
a. To educate the people regarding
community health problems
b. To mobilize the people to resolve
community health problems
c. To maximize the community’s resources
in dealing with health problems
d. All of the above
 Correct answers: To
maximize the community’s
resources in dealing with
health problems
43. In setting the priority of identified community
health, Nurse Oui assessed and gathered the
resident’s perception on the problem of poor
nutritional status of children in the. community as
they were affected by this problem. Oui is
actually using what criterion in the priority setting
of identified community health nursing problem?
a. Magnitude of the problem
b. Preventive potential
c. Modifiability of the problem
d. Social concern
 Correct answers: Social
concern
44. Which of the following reasons best explains
why the community is seen as the primary client
by the nurse in assessing the community health
needs?
a. The community has an indirect influence
on the health of the individuals, families
and sub populations.
b. It is in the community as the center of
society where services are rarely
rendered.
c. Cultures that abound in community may
or may not be changed as the needs
arise during health promotion.
d. The community consists of groups of
family with various health problems to
deal with as it affects the whole
community.
 Correct answers: The
community consists of
groups of family with
various health problems to
deal with as it affects the
whole community.
45. Determining mortality rate as to the percentage
of the deaths aged 50 years or older is:
a. Proportional mortality rate
b. Swaroop’s index
c. Specific death rate
d. Crude death rate
 Correct answers: Swaroop’s
index
46. In which step are plans formulated for solving
community problems?
a. Mobilization
b. Community organization
c. Follow-up/extension
d. Core group formation
 Correct answers: Community
organization
47. Which of the following is the most prominent
feature of community health nursing?
a. It involves providing home care to sick
people who are not confined in the
hospital.
b. Services are provided free of charge to
people within the catchment area.
c. The community health nurse functions
as part of a team providing a public
health nursing service.
d. Community health nursing focuses on
promotive, not curative services.
 Correct answers: Community
health nursing focuses on
promotive, not curative
services.
48. According to Margaret Shetland, the philosophy
of public health nursing is based on which of the
following?
a. Health and longevity as birthrights.
b. The mandate of the state to protect the
birthrights of its citizens.
c. Public health nursing as a specialized
field of nursing.
d. The worth and dignity of man.
 Correct answers: The worth
and dignity of man
49. Nurse Bang determines whether resources were
maximized in implementing Ligtas Tigdas, she is
evaluating:
a. Effectiveness
b. Efficiency
c. Adequacy
d. Appropriateness
 Correct answers: Efficiency
50. RA 7160 mandates devolution of basic services
from the national government to local
government units. Which of the following is the
major goal of devolution?
a. To strengthen local government units.
b. To allow greater autonomy to local
government units.
c. To empower the people and promote
their self-reliance.
d. To make basic services more accessible
to the people.
 Correct answers: To empower
the people and promote
their self-reliance.
51. Nurse bang decided to start data collection in
the conduct of community diagnosis. Which type
of approach of gathering data will provide her
with the best opportunity to observe family
dynamics in the community?
a. Telephone interview as most accessible
b. Group conferences
c. House to house visit
d. Survey with questionnaires
 Correct answers: House to
house visit
52. Data collection has been done by Nurse Bang.
The category of community health nursing
problems is used in the statement of nursing
problems in the care of community. The
youngest child of the delos Reyes family has
been diagnosed as mentally retarded. This is
classified as:
a. Health related
b. Health resource
c. Health status
d. All of the above
 Correct answers: Health
status
53. It is a quantitative and qualitative description of
the health stats of a given population and factors
that influence their health.:
a. Epidemiology
b. Demography
c. Community diagnosis
d. All of the above
 Correct answers: community
diagnosis
54. Which type of community diagnosis focuses in
working out a particular community health
problem?
a. Comprehensive
b. Problem-oriented
c. Both
 Correct answers: Problem-
oriented
55. In the investigation of an epidemic, you compare
the present frequency of the disease with the
usual frequency at this time of the year in the
community. This is done during which stage of
the investigation?
a. Establishing the epidemic
b. Testing the hypothesis
c. Formulation of the hypothesis
d. Appraisal of facts
 Correct answers: Establishing
the epidemic
56. To describe the sex composition of the
population, which demographic tool may be
used?
a. Sex ratio
b. Sex proportion
c. Population pyramid
d. Any of these maybe used.
 Correct answers: Any of
these maybe used.
57. Which of the following is a natality rate?
a. Crude birth rate
b. Neonatal mortality rate
c. Infant mortality rate
d. General fertility rate
 Correct answers: Crude birth
rate
58. You are computing the crude rate of your
municipality, with a total population of about
18,000 for last year. There were 52 deaths.
Among those who died, 20 died because of
diseases of the heart and 32 were aged 50
years or older. What is the crude death rate?
a. 2.9/1000
b. 9.2/1000
c. 2.3/1000
d. 5.1/1000
 Correct answers: 2.9/1000
59. In the past year, Barangay A had an average
population of 1655. 46 babies were born in that
year, 2 of whom died less than 4 weeks after
 they were born. They were 4 recorded stillbirths. diagnosis may break up the people into groups
What is the neonatal mortality rate? within the community. Which of the following are
a. 27.8/1000 these?
b. 43.5/1000 1. ethnic group, religious sect, race
c. 86.9/1000 2. political orientation, dialect or
d. 130.4/1000 language
 Correct answers: 43.5/1000 3. physical and topographical
60. Nurse Nah Gahget conducted community characteristics
assessment of Barangay A. Which statistic best 4. communication network, social class,
reflects the nutritional status of a population? employment status
a. 1–4-year-old age-specific mortality rate 5. morbidity and mortality rates.
b. Proportionate mortality rate  Correct answers: 1, & 2 only
c. Infant mortality rate 68. In health & illness patterns, these incudes:
d. Swaroop’s index a. ethnic group, religious sect, race
 Correct answers: 1–4-year-old b. communication network, social class,
age-specific mortality rate employment status
61. Which of the data be considered and being used c. physical and topographical
in computing general fertility rate? characteristics
a. Estimated midyear population d. morbidity and mortality rates
b. Number of registered live births  Correct answers: morbidity
c. Number of pregnancies in the year and mortality rates
d. Number of females of reproductive age 69. This reflects the action potential of the state and
 Correct answers: Number of its people to address the health needs and
registered live births problems of the community.:
62. You are assigned to gather data for nutritional a. Political & Leadership patterns
assessment of Purok 2 in Batangbatang, b. Health & Illness Patterns
Victoria, Tarlac. You will gather information only c. Demographic variables & Cultural
from families with members who belong to the variables
target population. What method of data d. Socioeconomic & health resources
gathering is best for this purpose?  Correct answers: Political &
a. Census Leadership patterns
b. Survey 70. It is the process of examining data to define
c. Record Review needs strengths, barriers, opportunities,
d. Review of civil registry readiness and resources.:
 Correct answers: Survey a. Planning
63. In the conduct of a census, the method of b. Implementation
population assignment based on the actual c. Community analysis
physical location of the people is termed; d. Priority setting
a. De jure  Correct answers: Community
b. De locus Analysis
c. De facto
d. De novo
 Correct answers: De facto
64. Which of the following professionals can sign the
birth certificate who attended actually the
delivery?
a. Public health nurse
b. Rural health midwife
c. Municipal health officer
d. Any of these health professionals
 Correct answers: Any of
these health professionals
65. You are now to rank identified community health
problems in your target community. Which
criterion in priority setting of health problems is
used only in community health care?
a. Modifiability of the problem
b. Nature of the problem presented
c. Magnitude of the health problem
d. Preventive potential of the health
problem
 Correct answers: Magnitude
of the health problem
66. Which of the following is not included as
demographic variables?
a. Population projection
b. Patterns of migration
c. Age and sex distribution
d. Educational level
 Correct answers: Educational
level
67. To consider data to be collected in the
community, there are variables to identify. These
variables in comprehensive community