OPSC OMAS 2021: 6000 Questions

1. With respect to the Writ jurisdiction, consider the following

statements:

1. The writ of habeas corpus cannot be issued against the private individuals.

2. The writ of prohibition is available only against the judicial bodies.

3. The writ of quo-warranto can be sought even by a non-aggrieved person.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 2 only

1. (c) Habeas Corpus
Habeas Corpus literally means ‘to have the body of’. Via this writ, the court can cause any person who has been detained
or imprisoned to be physically brought before the court. The court then examines the reason of his detention and if there
is no legal justification of his detention, he can be set free. Such a writ can be issued in following example cases: When
the person is detained and not produced before the magistrate within 24 hours. When the person is arrested without any
violation of a law. When a person is arrested under a law which is unconstitutional. When detention is done to harm the
person or is malafide. Thus, Habeas corpus writ is called bulwark of individual liberty against arbitrary detention. A
general rule of filing the petition is that a person whose right has been infringed must file a petition. But Habeas corpus
is an exception and anybody on behalf of the detainee can file a petition. Habeas corpus writ is applicable to preventive
detention also. Statement 1 is incorrect: This writ can be issued against both public authorities as well as individuals.
Prohibition
The writ of prohibition means that the Supreme Court and High Courts may prohibit the lower courts such as special
tribunals, magistrates, commissions, and other judiciary officers who are doing something which exceeds to their
jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rule of natural justice. For example if a judicial officer has personal interest in a
case, it may hamper the decision and the course of natural justice. Statement 2 is correct: While Mandamus can be
issued against any public official, public body, corporation, inferior court, tribunal or government; prohibition can be
issued only against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities and not against administrative authorities, legislative bodies
Certiorari
Certiorari means to “certify”. It’s a writ that orders to move a suit from an inferior court to superior court. It is issued by
a higher court to a lower court or tribunal either to transfer a case pending with that to itself or squash its order. This is
generally done because superior court believes that either the inferior court had no jurisdiction or committed an error of
law. Thus, certiorari is a kind of curative writ.
Quo Warranto
Quo warranto means “by what warrant”? This writ is issued to enquire into legality of the claim of a person or public
office. It restrains the person or authority to act in an office which he / she is not entitled to; and thus stops usurpation of
public office by anyone. This writ is applicable to the public offices only and not to private offices. Statement 3 is
correct: This writ can be sought even by the non-aggrieved person.
OPSC OMAS 2021: 6000 Questions
2. Which of the following statements is incorrect with respect to the
Government of India Act of 1919?

(a) It divided the provincial subjects into reserved and transferred.

(b) It introduced bicameral legislature at centre with upper and Lower

Houses.

(c) This act authorized states to enact their own budget.

(d) It provided for separate electorate for Muslims, Sikhs and Anglo Indians
for the first time.
2. Correct Option: (d)

➢ Option (a) is correct: This act divided the Provincial subjects into two parts transferred
and reserved. Transferred subjects were to be administered by governor with the help of
ministers while reserved list was to administered by governor and his executive council. This
was termed dual system of governance or Diarchy.

➢ Option (b) is correct: It replaced Indian Legislative Council with Bicameral legislature
consisting of two houses. The elections to both the houses were largely by direct elections.

➢ Option (c) is correct: It separated, for the first time, provincial budgets from the Central
budget and authorised the provincial legislatures to enact their budgets.

➢ Option (d) is incorrect: The separate electorate for Muslims was introduced in the act of
1909 itself. This provision was extended to Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo Indians and
Europeans.
OPSC OMAS 2021: 6000 Questions
3. With reference to the Constitution Amendment Bill, consider the
following statements:

1. It can be introduced in either house of the Parliament.

2. There is no provision for joint sitting in case of deadlock.

3. The president can withhold his assent to such a bill.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Correct Option: (a)

➢ Statement 1 is correct: An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the

introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament. The bill can be introduced
either by a minister or by a private member and does not require prior permission of the president.

➢ Statement 2 is correct: In case of a disagreement between the two Houses, there is no provision
for holding a joint sitting of the two Houses for the purpose of deliberation and passage of the bill.

➢ Statement 3 is incorrect: The President must give his assent to a constitution amendment bill.
He can neither reject nor return the bill for the reconsideration of the parliament.
OPSC OMAS 2021: 6000 Questions
4. Which of the following is/are the sources from which the Speaker of
the Lok Sabha derives his powers and duties?

1. The Constitution of India

2. The Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business of Lok Sabha

3. Parliamentary Conventions

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3
4. Correct Option: (d)

The Speaker of the Lok Sabha derives his powers and duties from three sources, that is, the
Constitution of India, the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business of Lok Sabha, and
Parliamentary Conventions (residuary powers that are unwritten or unspecified in the Rules).
OPSC OMAS 2021: 6000 Questions
5. Consider the following statements about Central Vigilance Commission
(CVC):
1. It is neither constitutional nor statutory body.
2. It was established on the recommendations of the Santhanam Committee on
Prevention of Corruption.
3. It presents an annual report on its performance to the President.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
5. Correct Option: (c)

Statement 1 is incorrect: Originally the CVC was neither a constitutional body nor a statutory
body. In September 2003, the Parliament conferred statutory status on the CVC through the
Central Vigilance Commission Act,2003.

Statement 2 is correct: It was established in 1964 by an executive resolution of the Central

government. Its establishment was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of
Corruption(1962-64).

Statement 3 is correct: The CVC has to present annually to the President a report on its
performance. The President places this report before each House of Parliament.
OPSC OMAS 2021: 6000 Questions
6. Which of the following events took place during the tenure of Lord
William Bentick:

1. Abolition of Sati

2. Suppression of Pindaris

3. Abolish the Provincial Courts of Appeal and Circuit Courts altogether.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3
6. Correct Option: (d)

Events took place during the tenure of Lord William Bentick:

• Abolition of Sati

• Suppression of Thugs

• Abolish the Provincial Courts of Appeal and Circuit Courts altogether.

OPSC OMAS 2021: 6000 Questions
7. At the beginning of the 20th Century, who among the following
published “The Economic History of India”?

(a) Dadabhai Naoroji

(b) Gopal Krishna Gokhale

(c) Mahadev Govind Ranade

(d) Romesh Chandra Dutt

7. Correct Option: (d)

Romesh Chandra Dutt was an Indian civil servant, economic historian, writer, and translator
of Ramayana and Mahabharata. He wrote the Economic History of India to bright plight of
British colonial exploitation of India. He was early Economist who made analysis of economic
conditions of British India and made important Contribution in formation of Drain theory.
OPSC OMAS 2021: 6000 Questions
8. Consider the following events:
1. Indigo Revolt
2. Santhal Rebellion
3. Deccan Riot
4. Mutiny of the Sepoys
The correct chronological sequence of these events is:
(a) 4, 2, 1, 3
(b) 4, 2, 3, 1
(c) 2, 4, 3, 1
(d) 2, 4, 1, 3
8. Correct Option: (d)
In Bengal, the indigo planters forced the peasants to take advance sums and enter into fraudulent
contracts which were then used against the peasants. The anger of the peasants exploded in 1859 when,
led by Digambar Biswas and Bishnu Biswas of Nadia district, they used the legal machinery and
initiated legal action supported by fund collection to fight against methods like evictions and enhanced
rents. The ryots replied by going on a rent strike by refusing to pay the enhanced rents and by
physically resisting the attempts to evict them. Gradually, The Bengali intelligentsia played a
significant role by supporting the peasants’ cause through newspaper campaigns, rganization of mass
meetings, preparing memoranda on peasants’ grievances and supporting them in legal battles. Other
than that, Peasant organization to some extent with Hindu Muslim Unity, support from Bengal
intelligentsia made the revolt more effective. The Government appointed an indigo commission to
inquire into the problem of indigo cultivation. Based on its recommendations, the Government issued a
notification in November 1860 that the ryots could not be compelled to grow indigo and that it would
ensure that all disputes were settled by legal means. But, the planters were already closing down
factories and indigo cultivation was virtually wiped out from Bengal by the end of 1860.
The ryots of Deccan region of western India suffered heavy taxation under the Ryotwari system. Here
again the peasants found themselves trapped in a vicious network with the money lender as the
exploiter and the main beneficiary. These moneylenders were mostly outsiders—Marwaris or Gujaratis.
The conditions had worsened due to a crash in cotton prices after the end of the American Civil War in
1864, the Government’s decision to raise the land revenue by 50% in1867, and a succession of bad
harvests.
In 1874, the growing tension between the money lenders and the peasants resulted in a social boycott
movement organised by the ryots against the “outsider” money lenders. The ryots refused to buy from
their shops. No peasant would cultivate their fields. The barbers washer men, shoemakers would not
serve them. Soon the social boycott was transformed into agrarian riots with systematic attacks on the
moneylenders’ houses and shops. The debt bonds and deeds were seized and publicly burnt.
The Government succeeded in repressing the movement. As a conciliatory measure, the Deccan
Agriculturists Relief Act was passed in 1879.
OPSC OMAS 2021: 6000 Questions
9. With reference to tribal uprisings during British Government in India,
consider the following statements:
1. Rampa rebellion was against new restrictive forest regulation of the British
Government.
2. Bankim Chandra Chatterjee’s Anand Math was based on the Sanyasi Rebellion.
3. During Munda rebellion, Birsa Munda declared himself as the representative of
God.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
9. Correct Option: (d)
➢ Statement 1 is correct: The Rampa Rebellion of 1922 was a tribal uprising, led by Alluri Sitarama Raju in Godavari
Agency of Madras Presidency, British India. It began in August 1922 and lasted until the capture and killing of Raju in
May 1924.
➢ The British Raj authorities had wanted to improve the economic usefulness of lands in Godavari Agency, as the
traditional cultivation methods were greatly hindered when the authorities took control of the forests, mostly for
commercial purposes such as produce for building railways and ships, without any regard for the needs of the tribal
people. The tribal people had long felt that the legal system favoured zamindars (estate landowners) and merchants,
which had also resulted in the earlier Rampa Rebellion of 1879. Now they objected to the Raj laws and continued
actions that hindered their economic position and meant they had to find alternate means of livelihood, such as
working as coolies.
➢ Statement 2 is correct: Sanyasi Revolt (1763-1800)happened due to the the disastrous famine of 1770 and the harsh
economic order of the British compelled a group of sanyasis in Eastern India to fight the British yoke. Originally
peasants, even some evicted from land, these sanyasis were joined by a large number of dispossessed small zamindars,
disbanded soldiers and rural poor.
➢ Anandamath, a semi-historical novel by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay, is based on the Sanyasi Revolt.
➢ Statement 3 is correct: In 1899- 1900,theMundas in the region south of Ranchi rose under Birsa Munda. The
Ulgulan was one of the most significant tribal uprisings in the period 1860-1920. The rebellion which began as a
religious movement gathered political force to fight against introduction of feudal, zamindari tenures, and exploitation
by money-lenders and forest contractors. The Mundas claimed Chhotanagpur as their area in 1879. British armed
forces were then deployed. Birsa was captured and imprisoned.
➢ Birsa Munda (1874-1900), the son of a sharecropper who had received some education from the missionaries came
under Vaishnava influence and in 1893-94 participated in a movement to prevent village wastelands from being taken
over by the Forest Department.
➢ In 1895 Birsa, claiming to have seen a vision of god, proclaimed himself a prophet with miraculous healing powers.
Thousands flocked to hear the ‘new word’ of Birsa with its prophecy of an imminent deluge.
OPSC OMAS 2021: 6000 Questions
10. Consider the following statements about Genetic Engineering
Approval Committee:

1. It is a statutory authority created under Biological Diversity Act 2002

2. It works under the aegis of Ministry of Environment and Forest.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

10. 75. Correct option: (b)

Legislations related to Biotechnologies promotion:

Statement 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct: The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee

(GEAC) is an apex nonstatutory body constituted and working under the Ministry of Environment
and Forests.

It is non-statutory because it was created under certain rules under the said act and not by the act
directly. The rule is “Rules for Manufacture, Use, Import, Export and Storage of Hazardous
Microorganisms/ Genetically Engineered Organisms or Cells 1989”, under the Environment
Protection Act, 1986.

The Rules of 1989 define five competent authorities (which are thus non-statutory):

• Institutional Biosafety Committees (IBSC),

• Review Committee of Genetic Manipulation (RCGM),

• Genetic Engineering Approval Committee (GEAC),

• State Biotechnology Coordination Committee (SBCC) and

• District Level Committee (DLC) for handling of various aspects of the rules