TECHNOLOGY MULTI CHOICE – 8

1. What is meant by operating factor (O/f) in welding?

a) The safety value given as the % of time a conductor can carry a current b) The specific current at 60% and 100%
in a given time i.e 350A 100% c) The rate of weld progression d) The arc time in hours divided by the total hours
worked or the welding process operated

2. Surface breaking solidification cracks can be detected by:

a) RT b) UT c) VT d) All of the above

3. In TIG (Pulsed) welding which parameters can be adjusted?

a) Pulse peak current b) Pulse frequency c) Pulse duration d) All of the above

4. In the MMA process the effect of polarity on welding may be described as:
a) Electrode positive results in an increase in the depth of the weld penetration b) Electrode negative results in
decreased depth of the weld penetration c) Electrode negative causes heat build up on the electrode, increasing the
electrode melting rate d) All the above

5. Submerged arc welding is noted for its ability to employ high welding currents to the properties and functions of
the flux. Generally which polarity is used up to about 1000A?
a) AC b) DC-ve c) DC+ve&DC-ve d) DC+ve

6. What is the significance of OCV in MMA welding using a transformer?

a) There is no significance b) It helps in arc initiation c) It decides the current d) It decides the depth of penetration

7. Regarding the operating factors (O/F_ for MMA and MIG/MAG which one is correct?
a) MMA has a low O/F of approximately b) Manual semi-automatic MIG/MAG O/F is approximately 60% c) Fully
automated MIG/MAG O/F is in the region of 90% d) All of above

8. Magnetic particle testing is applicable only to ferromagnetic materials which are at a temperature below the
__________
a) Curie point(about 950OC) b) Curie point(about 650OC) c) Curie point(about 150OC) d) Curie point(about
450OC)

9. A welder qualification begins from the date of welding of the test piece. The European Standard allows a
qualification certificate to remain valid for a period of two years, provided that:
a) The welding co-ordinator or other responsible person can confirm that the welder has been working within the
initial range of qualification b) Working within the initial qualification range is confirmed every six months c) Both
A&B d) Since they have passed the performance test, their certificates will be valid for 2years and no more
assessment is required

10. Which of the following could be used to minimize the occurrence of solidification cracks in steel welds?
a) Increase sulphur levels to a minimum of 0.5% b) Reduce the dilution into the base metal c) Increase carbon
content in the weld metal d) Reduce the manganese content in the weld metal

11. In a heavy plate fabrication, where S is residual @0.3%, which may cause problems in the welded joint,
additions of Manganese (Mn) may be added to prevent.
a) Laminations in the plate through thickness b) Stress corrosion c) Manganese sulphides d) Solidification cracking

12. A homogeneous welded joint is a

a) Welded joint in which the weld metal and parent material have no significant differences in mechanical properties
and/or chemical composition b) Welded joint in which the weld metal and parent material have significant
differences in mechanical properties and/or chemical composition c) Welded joint in which the parent material have
significant differences in mechanical properties and/or chemical composition d) Welded joint made without filler
metal
13. The similarities between BS EN 22553 and AWS 2.4 in depicting welding symbols are:
a) Both have same rule for depicting weld all around b) Both have same rule for depicting other side c) Both have
same rule for depicting sequence of operations d) Both have same rule for depicting welding processes

14. Asymmetrical weld symbols to EN 22553 are:

a) The same both sides of the arrow b) Different each side of the arrow c) Show fillet welds only d) Show butt welds
only

15. The welding symbols superintendent before welding has asked for UT examination (Longitudinal wave) on a
pipe of 100 mm each side of the intended weld what is the most probable reason for this?
a) To check the grain structure of the base material b) To check for any slag in the base material c) To check the
material has not been process hardened d) To check for any laminations in the base material

16. With respect to preheat and inter-pass temperature, which of the following is true?
a) Preheat is higher than the inter pass temperature b) Inter pass temperature is higher than the preheat temperature
c) Inter pass temperature always the minimum d) Preheat temperature is always the maximum

17. Lamellar tears in steel weldments may only be formed when:

a) Using deep penetration welding processes b) High level of stresses act in the short transverse direction in the steel
c) Martensite has formed in the weld HAZ d) Low melting point iron sulphide has formed in the fusion zone

18. Which test from below measures the material property known as fracture “toughness”.
a) CTOD test b) Fillet fracture test c) Impact test d) Nick break test

19. Usually liquid penetrant testing is applicable at a temperature range of approximately

a) 0-100oC b) -5-90oC c) -20-60oC d) 5-60oC

20. After welding is completed the inspector would access which of the following:
a) Weld contour b) Weld width c) Weld profile d) All of the above
21. Who or what determines the necessity of a post weld heat treatment? a) Senior welding inspector and WPS b)
Welding inspector and WPQR c) Welding supervisor and PQT d) Welding engineer and code requirements

22. According to BS EN 22553, if the symbol on the identification line, where does the weld go?
a) On both sides b) On the arrow side c) Opposite arrow side d) It does not matter

23. On inspecting a completed 150 mm OD pipe weld some small smooth, shallow areas of undercut have been
found < 0.25 mm deep. The welder says he can quickly put this right by depositing a thin narrow bead along the
undercut. In this situation would you?
a) Agree to go ahead with no preheat as the weld is so small b) Only allow the welder to cosmetically blend out the
undercut providing the wall thickness remains within the specification tolerance c) Agree to go ahead with a preheat
500C d) Cut out the joint and reweid

24. Before welding components the welder’s qualification need to be checked, do those welders that are going to
weld temporary handling attachments also need to have taken performance qualification test?
a) No if thy will be removed b) Yes even if they will be removed c) It depends on the material d) Only those who
will work on pressure parts need to take test

25. Before and during welding in the cleaning stage which statements from below would you consider are correct?
a) Only stainless steel brushes and tools shall be used on stainless steels b) Only stainless steel brushes and tools
shall be used on nickel and non ferrous material c) Grinding discs containing sulphur shall not be used on stainless
steels d) All of the above

26. Before welding components the welder’s qualifications need to be checked, does a tack welder also need to do a
performance qualification test?
a) Yes b) No c) Only piping tack welders shall take test d) Only those working on pressure parts shall take the test
27. Which of the following NDE methods can detect lamellar tearing?
a) RT b) UT c) Eddy current d) MPI using AC

28. Of the following heat treatments which will be the most effective in reducing the chances of HIC?
a) Stress relieving after 6 days b) Post heating and stress relieving after one day c) Post heating and immediate stress
relieving d) Post heating

29. HIC is usually delayed because:

a) There is a specific time gap between completion of welding and cracking b) The diffusion of hydrogen atoms
takes time to build pressure which leads to cracking c) Formation of new phase takes time d) The strength of the
weld metal changes with time

30. GTAW water cooled torches should be used when the amperage exceeds:
a) 50A b) 100A c) 150A d) 200A

31. Bend tests are used for which of the following?

a) To check tensile strength and fusion b) To check yield strength and fusion c) To check ductility and fusion d) To
check yield strength and ductility

32. Ina transverse tensile test if the test piece breaks in the weld metal it is:
a) Rejected b) Acceptable provided the calculated strength is not less than the minimum tensile strength specified c)
Acceptable d) Acceptable provided the calculated strength is above 95% of the minimum base metal strength

33. The test method for assessing resistance to brittle fracture, by measuring the energy to initiate and propagate a
crack from a sharp notch in a standard sized specimen is called:
a) An impact toughness b) A transverse tensile test c) A hardness test d) An all weld tensile test

34. By which of the following welding processes can autogenous welding NOT be achieved?
a) TIG b) Plasma c) Oxy-fuel gas welding d) SAW

35. Which statement from below is NOT true concerning fracture tests?
a) It is test method that can be used for welder qualification testing b) It is test method that can be used for welding
procedure qualification c) They quality/soundness of a fillet weld can be assessed d) This method may be specified
by application standards as an alternative to macroscopic examination

36. To prevent excess weld in SMAW/SAW the polarity used should be:
a) DCEP b) DCEN c) AC d) Polarity doesn’t have any effect

37. Generally in brazing the melting point of the filler metal is above _______ but always below the melting
temperature of the parent material
. a) 3500C b) 5500C c) 4500C d) 2500C

38. What is duty cycle?

a) A productivity value given as the % of time a conductor can carry a current b) A safety value given as the as the
% of time a conductor can carry a current c) A quality value given as the as the % of time a conductor can carry a
current d) The percentage (%) of arc time in a given time span

39. Weld decay occurs in which of the following steel types:

a) Carbon/manganese b) Low alloy c) Any stainless steels d) Austenitic stainless steels

40. During welding, you observe that the welder is weaving excessively high. What mechanical property is most
likely to deteriorate because of this?
a) Percentage elongation b) Impact properties c) Chemical composition d) All of the above
 41. What is a hot pass?
a) The pass made before root pass b) The pass made with higher preheat c) The pass made in the final layers d) The
pass made immediately after the root pass

42. A number of changes and deviations have happened during the fabrication of a component, how will they be
indicated to every one for future reference?
a) By verbal communication b) By written communication c) By incorporating them in the as-built drawings d) No
need to mention these changes to every one as they are insignificant

43. You have noticed several times that a certain welder is having his welds rejected due to poor cap profile, What
course of action would you take?
a) None b) None as long as they pass the radiography c) Dismiss the welder d) Suggest a period of retraining
followed by a requalification test

44. Which statement from below is NOT true concerning weld decay?

a) It is also known as inter-granular corrosion b) It causes transverse cracking in the weld HAZ c) It may occur in
austenitic stainless steel d) It is also known as knife line attack

45. Which of the following is true?

a) If run out length reduces heat input decreases b) If run out length increase heat input increase c) If weaving is
reduces heat input increase d) None of the above

46. Which of the following processes is most prone to solidification cracks?

a) MMA with basic coated electrodes b) MMA with rutile coated electrodes c) TIG d) SAW