Baza Volare

Professione Volare Domande Aerodynamics
Data:
Nome Allievo:
Pagina domande 1 di 45
149) In what way is the longitudinal stability affected by the 140) The lift coefficient (CL) of an aeroplane in steady
degree of positive camber of the aerofoil? horizontal flight is 0.35. Increase in angle of attack of 1
degree will increase CL by 0.079. A vertical up gust
A Positive, because the centre of pressure shifts rearward at instantly changes the angle of attack by 2 degrees. The
increasing angle of attack. load factor will be :
B Negative, because the lift vector rotates forward at A 1.9

increasing angle of attack.
B 1.45
C Positive, because the lift vector rotates backward at
C 0.9
D No effect, because camber of the aerofoil produces a
constant pitch down moment coefficient, independent of D 0.45
angle of attack.
141) Which aeroplane behaviour will be corrected by a yaw

137) How would the exterior appearance of an aeroplane damper ?
change, when trimming for speed increase ?
A Spiral dive.
A The elevator is deflected further up by a downward deflected
trim tab B Buffeting.
B The elevator is deflected further downward by means of a

movable horizontal stabiliser C Dutch roll.
C The exterior appearance of the aeroplane will not change D Tuck under.
D Elevator deflection is increased further downward by an

upward deflected trim tab 142) The aft movement of the centre of pressure during the
acceleration through the transonic flight regime will:
138) Trailing edge flap extension will: A decrease the static lateral stability.
B increase the static longitudinal stability.

A decrease the critical angle of attack and decrease the value
of CLmax.
C decrease the longitudinal stability.
B increase the critical angle of attack and decrease the value
of CLmax. D increase the static lateral stability.
C decrease the critical angle of attack and increase the value

of CLmax.
143) The relative thickness of an aerofoil is expressed in:
D increase the critical angle of attack and increase the value of
CLmax. A camber.
B meters.
139) The polar curve of an aerofoil is a graphic relation
between :
C degrees cross section tail angle.
A TAS and stall speed

D % chord.
B Angle of attack and CL
C CD and angle of attack 144) The frontal area of a body, placed in a certain airstream
is increased by a factor 3. The shape will not alter. The
aerodynamic drag will increase with a factor :
D CL and CD
A 1.5 .
B 3.
C 9.
D 6.
145) (For this question use annex 081-6271A) 150) (For this question use annex 081-1331A)
The high lift device shown in the figure is a An A 310 aeroplane weighing 100 tons is turning at FL
350 at constant altitude with a bank of 50 degrees. Its
A Slat flight Mach range between low-speed buffeting and high-
speed buffeting goes from:
B Fowler flap
A M= 0.72 to M higher than 0.84
C Slotted flap
B M= 0.65 to M higher than 0.84
D Krueger flap
C M= 0.74 to M= 0.84
D M= 0.69 to M higher than 0.84

146) One disadvantage of the swept back wing is it's stalling
characteristics. At the stall :
A wing root stall will occur first, which produces a rolling 151) The critical Mach Number of an aeroplane can be
moment increased by:
B tip stall will occur first, which produces a nose-down moment A sweep back of the wings.
C leading edge stall will occur first, which produces a nose- B vortex generators.
down moment
C control deflection
D tip stall will occur first, which produces a pitch-up moment.
D dihedral of the wings.
1) Shock induced separation results in

152) If an aeroplane flies in the ground effect
A decreasing lift.
A the lift is increased and the drag is decreased.
B constant lift.
B the effective angle of attack is decreased.
C increasing lift.
C the induced angle of attack is increased.
D decreasing drag.
D drag and lift are reduced.
148) (For this question use annex 081-6249A)

Which line represents the total drag line of an aeroplane?
153) Flap selection at constant IAS in straight and level flight
will increase the :
A Line d
A lift and the drag.
B Line c
B maximum lift coefficient (CLmax) and the drag.
C Line a
C lift coefficient and the drag.
D Line b
D stall speed.
134) The max aft position of the centre of gravity is amongst

others limited by the:
154) Which of these definitions of propeller parameters is
correct?
A minimum value of the stick force per g.
A Propeller angle of attack = angle between blade chord line
B maximum longitudinal stability of the aeroplane. and propeller vertical plane
C maximum elevator deflection. B Critical tip velocity = propeller speed at which risk of flow
separation at some parts of propeller blade occurs.
D too small effect of the controls on the aeroplane.
C geometric propeller pitch = the theoretical distance a
propeller blade element is travelling in forward direction in
one propeller revolution
D Blade angle = angle between blade chord line and propeller

axis
155) Compared with stalling airspeed (VS) in a given 160) "A line connecting the leading- and trailing edge midway
configuration, the airspeed at which stick shaker will be between the upper and lower surface of a aerofoil". This
triggered is: definition is applicable for :
A 1.30 VS. A the mean aerodynamic chord line
B 1.12 VS. B the upper camber line
C greater than VS. C the camber line
D 1.20 VS. D the chord line
156) Which one of the following systems suppresses the 147) When "spoilers" are used as speed brakes:
tendency to "Dutch roll"?
A Rudder limiter. A CLmax of the polar curve is not affected.
B Yaw damper. B they do not affect wheel braking action during landing.
C Roll spoilers. C at same angle of attack, CL remains unaffected.
D Spoiler mixer. D at same angle of attack, CD is increased and CL is

decreased.
157) Bernoulli's equation can be written as : 123) (For this question use annex 081-6262A)
(pt = total pressure, ps = static pressure, q = dynamic Which point marks the value for minimum sink rate?
pressure)
A Point a
A pt = q - ps
B Point b
B pt - q = ps
C Point d
C pt = ps - q
D Point c
D pt + ps = q
110) What factors determine the distance travelled over the

158) Which formula or equation describes the relationship ground of an aeroplane in a glide ?
between force (F), acceleration (a) and mass (m)?
A The wind and the aeroplane's mass
A a=F. m
B The wind and CLmax
B F=m / a
C The wind and weight together with power loading, which is

C F=m. a the ratio of power output to the weight
D m=F.a D The wind and the lift/drag ratio, which changes with angle of
attack
159) The high speed buffet is induced by

111) An aeroplane has a stalling speed of 100 kt in a steady
level flight. When the aeroplane is flying a level turn with
A boundary layer separation due to shock waves. a load factor of 1.5, the stalling speed is:
B boundary layer control. A 150 kt.
C expansion waves on the wing upper side. B 122 kt.
D a shift of the centre of gravity. C 141 kt.
D 82 kt.
112) In transonic flight the ailerons will be less effective than 117) Compared with level flight prior to the stall, the lift (1)
in subsonic flight because: and drag (2) in the stall change as follows :
A behind the shock wave pressure is lower. A (1) increases (2) decreases.
B aileron down deflection moves the shock wave forward. B (1) decreases (2) increases.
C aileron deflection only affects the air in front of the shock C (1) decreases (2) decreases.
wave.
D (1) increases (2) increases.
D aileron deflection only partly affects the pressure distribution
around the wing.
118) Which combination of speeds is applicable for structural

strength in gust (clean configuration) ?
113) Which one of the following statements about the
dynamic stability of a conventional aeroplane about the
lateral axis is correct? A 66 ft/sec and VD.
A An aft C.G. position shortens the period time of the phugoid. B 65 ft/sec at all speeds.
B Damping of the phugoid is normally very weak. C 55 ft/sec and VB.
C Speed remains constant during one period of the phugoid. D 50 ft/sec and VC.
D Period time of the phugoid is normally 5 sec.

119) The centre of gravity moving aft will:
114) The induced drag coefficient, CDi is proportional with: A increase the elevator up effectiveness.
A CLmax B decrease the elevator up effectiveness.
B CL² C not affect the elevator up or down effectiveness.
C CL D increase or decrease the elevator up effectiveness,

depending on wing location.
D square root (CL)
120) Compared with an oblique shock wave at the same

Mach number a normal shock wave has a
115) Which of the following statements about the difference
between Krueger flaps and slats is correct? A higher expansion.
A Deploying a Krueger flap will form a slot, deploying a slat

B smaller compression.
does not.
B Deploying a slat will increase critical angle of attack, C smaller expansion.

deploying a Krueger flap does not.
D higher compression.
C Deploying a Krueger flap will increase critical angle of
attack, deploying a slat does not.
D Deploying a slat will form a slot, deploying a Krueger flap 136) Which of the following statements about stall speed is
does not. correct ?
A Decreasing the angle of sweep of the wing will decrease the

stall speed.
116) Differential aileron deflection:
B Increasing the angle of sweep of the wing will decrease the
A is required to achieve the required roll-rate. stall speed.
B equals the drag of the right and left aileron.

C Use of a T-tail will decrease the stall speed..
D Increasing the anhedral of the wing will decrease the stall

C is required to keep the total lift constant when ailerons are speed.
deflected.
D increases the CLmax.
122) Examples of aerodynamic balancing of control surfaces 127) The flight Mach number is 0.8 and the TAS is 400 kts.
are: The speed of sound is:
A balance tab, horn balance, and mass balance. A 500 kts
B mass in the nose of the control surface, horn balance and B 320 kts
mass balance.
C 480 kts
C spring tab, servo tab, and power assisted control.
D 600 kts
D servo tab, spring tab, seal between the wing trailing edge
and the leading edge of control surface.
128) If the continuity equation is applicable, what will happen

to the air density (rho) if the cross sectional area of a
135) The value of the parasite drag in straight and level flight
tube changes ? (low speed, subsonic and
at constant weight varies linearly with the:
incompressible flow)
A square of the speed.
A rho1 < rho2
B speed.
B rho1 > rho2
C angle of attack.
C The density depends on the change of the tube area.
D square of the angle of attack.
D rho1 = rho2
124) An aeroplane has the following flap settings : 0°, 15°, 30°
129) The propeller blade angle of attack on a fixed pitch
and 45°. Slats can be selected too. Which of the above
propeller is increased when :
selections will produce the greatest negative influence
on the CL/CD ratio?
A velocity and RPM decrease
A Flaps from 15° to 30°.
B RPM increases and forward velocity decreases
B Flaps from 30° to 45°.
C velocity and RPM increase
C The slats.
D forward velocity increases and RPM decreasing
D Flaps from 0° to 15°.
130) When the trailing edge flaps are deflected in level flight,
the change in pitch moment will be:
125) What is the effect of a decreasing aeroplane weight on
Mcrit at n=1, when flying at constant IAS ? The value of
Mcrit: A nose up.
A is independent of the angle of attack. B zero.
B decreases. C dependent on c.g. location.
C increases. D nose down.
D remains constant.
131) During landing of a low-winged jet aeroplane, the
maximum elevator up deflection is normally required
when the flaps are:
126) The lift- and drag forces, acting on a wing cross section:
A up and the C.G. is fully aft.
A depend on the pressure distribution about the wing cross
section. B fully down and the C.G. is fully forward.
B are normal to each other at just one angle of attack.

C up and the C.G. is fully forward.
C are proportional to each other, independent of angle of attack. D fully down and the C.G. is fully aft.
D vary linearly with the angle of attack.
132) Increasing the number of propeller blades will: 161) The effect of a ventral fin on the static stability of an
aeroplane is as follows :
(1=longitudinal, 2=lateral, 3=directional)
A decrease the torque in the propeller shaft at maximum power.
A 1 : no effect, 2 : negative, 3 : positive
B increase the maximum absorption of power.
B 1 : positive, 2 : negative, 3 : negative
C increase the propeller efficiency.
C 1 : negative, 2 : positive, 3 : positive
D increase the noise level at maximum power.
D 1 : no effect, 2 : positive, 3: negative
133) The angle of attack (aerodynamic angle of incidence) of

an aerofoil is the angle between the: 191) After a disturbance about the lateral axis, an aeroplane
oscillates about the lateral axis at a constant amplitude.
A bottom surface and the chord line. The aeroplane is:
B chord line and the relative undisturbed airflow. A Statically unstable - Dynamically stable
C bottom surface and the horizontal B Statically stable - Dynamically unstable
D bottom surface and the relative airflow. C Statically unstable - Dynamically neutral
D Statically stable - Dynamically neutral

163) The critical angle of attack:
A decreases if the CG is moved aft 192) The continuity equation states: If the area of a tube is
increasing, the speed of the subsonic and
incompressible flow inside is
B changes with an increase in gross weight
A increasing.
C remains unchanged regardless of gross weight
B sonic.
D increases if the CG is moved forward
C decreasing.
121) Constant-speed propellers provide a better performance D not changing.

than fixed-pitch propellers because they:
A produce a greater maximum thrust than a fixed-pitch

propeller. 193) Which aeroplane design has the highest probability of a
super stall?
B have more blade surface area than a fixed-pitch propeller.
A A T-tail.
C produce an almost maximum efficiency over a wider speed
range. B A canard wing.
D have a higher maximum efficiency than a fixed-pitch C Swept wings.

propeller.
D A low horizontal tail.

How are the speeds (shown in the figure) at point 1 and
194) Why is a propeller blade twisted from root to tip?
point 2 related to the relative wind/airflow V?
A V1 = 0 and V2 = V A To ensure that the root produces most thrust.
B V1 > V2 and V2 < V B To ensure that the tip produces most thrust.
C V1 = 0 and V2 > V C Because the local angle of attack of a blade segment is

dependent on the ratio of that segment 's speed in the plane
D V1 < V2 and V2 < V of rotation and the true airspeed of the aeroplane.
D Because the local angle of attack of a blade segment is

dependent on the ratio of that segment 's speed in the plane
of rotation and the angular velocity of the propellers.
195) Which statement with respect to the climb is correct ? 200) A jet aeroplane is rolled into a turn, while maintaining
airspeed and holding altitude. In such a case, the pilot
has to:
A At constant Mach number the IAS increases
A increase angle of attack and keep thrust unchanged.
B At constant TAS the Mach number decreases
B increase thrust and angle of attack.
C At constant IAS the Mach number increases
C increase thrust and keep angle of attack unchanged.
D At constant IAS the TAS decreases
D increase thrust and decrease angle of attack.
196) Which load factor determines VA?

189) "Flutter" may be caused by:
A gust load factor at 66 ft/sec gust.
A distorsion by bending and torsion of the structure causing
B manoeuvring flap limit load factor. increasing vibration in the resonance frequency.
C manoeuvring limit load factor. B low airspeed aerodynamic wing stall.
D manoeuvring ultimate load factor. C roll control reversal.
D high airspeed aerodynamic wing stall.

197) The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the
following factors:
202) The aerodynamic drag of a body, placed in a certain
A Will increase during turn, increased mass and an aft c.g. airstream depends amongst others on:
location
A The airstream velocity.
B Will decrease with a forward c.g. location, lower altitude and
due to the slip stream from a propeller on an engine located B The specific mass of the body.
forward of the wing
C Will increase with increased load factor, icing conditions and C The weight of the body.
more flaps
D The c.g. location of the body.
D May increase during turbulence and will always increase
when banking in a turn
188) The stall speed increases, when: (all other factors of
importance being constant)
198) A jet transport aeroplane is in a straight climb at a
constant IAS and constant weight. The operational limit A spoilers are selected from OUT to IN.
that may be exceeded is:
B pulling up from a dive.
A MD.
B MMO.
C weight decreases.
D minor altitude changes occur e.g. 0-10.000 ft.

C VMO.
D VA.
204) By what approximate percentage will the stall speed
increase in a horizontal coordinated turn with a bank
angle of 45° ?
199) Which is one of the disadvantages of increasing the
number of propeller blades ? A 31%
A Increased noise B 41%
B Less power can be absorbed by the propeller

C 52%
C Higher tip-speed D 19%
D decrease propeller efficiency
205) The Mach-trim function is installed on most commercial 210) The positive manoeuvring limit load factor for a light
jets in order to minimize the adverse effects of : aeroplane in the utility category in the clean
configuration is:
A compressibility effects on the stabilizer
A 6.0
B changes in the position of centre of pressure
B 4.4
C increased drag due to shock wave formation
C 2.5
D uncontrolled changes in stabilizer setting
D 3.8
206) After take-off the slats (when installed) are always

retracted later than the flaps. Why ? 211) The trailing edge flaps when extended :
A Because FLAPS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in stall

speed with relatively less drag. A significantly increase the angle of attack for maximum lift
B Because SLATS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in B significantly lower the drag
stall speed with relatively less drag.
C worsen the best angle of glide
C Because SLATS EXTENDED provides a better view from
the cockpit than FLAPS EXTENDED. D increase the zero lift angle of attack
D Because VMCA with SLATS EXTENDED is more
favourable compared to the FLAPS EXTENDED situation.
212) Sensitivity for spiral dive will occur when :
207) What increases the stalling angle of attack ? Use of : A the dutch roll tendency is too strongly suppressed by the
yaw damper.
A flaps
B the static directional stability is positive and the static lateral
stability is relatively weak.
B spoilers
C the static directional stability is negative and the static lateral
C fuselage mounted speed-brakes stability is positive.
D slats D the static lateral and directional stability are both negative.
208) What data may be obtained from the Buffet Onset 213) Extension of FOWLER type trailing edge lift
Boundary chart? augmentation devices, will produce:
A The values of MMO at different weights and altitudes. A a force which reduces drag.
B The values of Mcrit at different weights and altitudes. B a nose-down pitching moment.
C The values of the Mach Number at which low speed and C no pitching moment.
shock-stall occur at different weights and altitudes.
D a nose-up pitching moment.
D The values of the Mach Number at which low speed and
Mach Buffet occur at different weights and altitudes.
214) The additional increase of drag at Mach Numbers above

the critical Mach Number is due to:
209) The regime of flight from the critical Mach number up to
M = 1.3 is called the
A wave drag.
A transonic range.
B increased angle of attack.
B supersonic range.
C increased interference drag.
C hypersonic range.
D increased skin friction.
D subsonic range.
201) A propeller is turning to the right, seen from behind. The 166) Which statement about induced drag and tip vortices is
asymmetric thrust effect is mainly induced by: correct?
A high angles of attack. A The flow direction at the upper and under side of the wing,
both deviate in wing tip direction.
B high speed.
B The wing tip vortices and the induced drag decrease at
C large angles of yaw.
C The flow direction at the upper side of the wing has a
D large angles of climb. component in wing root direction, the flow at the underside
of the wing in wing tip direction.
176) Which of the following statements about the spin is

D Tip vortices can be diminished by vortex generators.
correct?
A In the spin, airspeed continuously increases. 167) Air passes a normal shock wave. Which of the following
statements is correct?
B Every aeroplane should be designed such that it can never
enter a spin. A The temperature increases.
C During spin recovery the ailerons should be kept in the B The pressure decreases.
neutral position.
D An aeroplane is prone to spin when the stall starts at the C The temperature decreases.
wing root.
D The velocity increases.
107) The critical Mach Number of an aeroplane is the free

stream Mach Number, which produces the first evidence 168) A light twin is in a turn at 20 degrees bank and 150 kt
of : TAS. A more heavy aeroplane at the same bank and the
same speed will:
A local sonic flow.
A turn at a higher turn rate.
B buffet.
B turn at the same turn radius.
C shock wave.
C turn at a bigger turn radius.
D supersonic flow.
D turn at a smaller turn radius.
164) Comparing the lift coefficient and drag coefficient at

normal angle of attack: 169) Which of the following are used as stall warning
devices?
A CL is much lower than CD
A Stick shaker and angle of attack indicator.
B CL is much greater than CD
B Angle of attack indicator and speed indicator.
C CL has approximately the same value as CD
C Angle of attack sensor and stallstrip.
D CL is lower than CD
D Stick shaker and stallstrip .
165) Ground effect has the following influence on the landing

distance : 170) What is the limit load factor of a large transport
aeroplane in the manoeuvring diagram?
A decreases.
A 1.5
B does not change.
B 3.75
C increases, only if the landing flaps are fully extended.
C 6
D increases.
D 2.5
171) In case of supersonic flow retarded by a normal shock 162) Two identical aeroplanes A and B are flying horizontal
wave a high efficiency (low loss in total pressure) can be steady turns. Further data are:
obtained if the Mach number in front of the shock is A:
W= 1500 kg
A high (supersonic). Bank= 20°
TAS= 130 kt
B lower than 1.
B:
W= 1500 kg
C exactly 1.
Bank= 20°
TAS= 200 kt
D small but still supersonic.
Which of the following statements is correct?
172) The induced angle of attack is the result of: A The load factor A is larger than the load factor B.
B The turn radius A is larger than the turn radius B.

A downwash due to tip vortices.
C The lift coefficient A is smaller than the lift coefficient B.
B a large local angle of attack in a two dimensional flow.
D The rate of turn A is larger than the rate of turn B.
C downwash due to flow separation.
D change in direction of flow due to the effective angle of

attack. 177) The following unit of measurement: kgm/s² is expressed
in the SI-system as :
A Joule
173) In what way do (1) induced drag and (2) parasite drag
alter with increasing speed?
B Watt
A (1) decreases and (2) decreases.
C Newton
B (1) increases and (2) decreases.
D Pascal
C (1) decreases and (2) increases.
D (1) increases and (2) increases. 178) Which statement is correct about an aeroplane, that has
experienced a left engine failure and continues
afterwards in straight and level cruise flight with wings
level ?
190) If the total sum of moments about one of its axis is not
zero, an aeroplane: A turn indicator neutral, slip indicator left of neutral.
A would be difficult to control. B turn indicator left of neutral, slip indicator left of neutral.
B would fly a path with a constant curvature.

C turn indicator left of neutral, slip indicator neutral.
C would not be affected because the situation is normal. D turn indicator neutral, slip indicator neutral.
D would experience an angular acceleration about that axis.
179) The angle between the aeroplane longitudinal axis and

the chord line is the:
175) The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the
following factors: A angle of incidence.
A Increase during turn, increased mass and forward c.g. B glide path angle.
location
B Decrease in a forward c.g. location, higher altitude and due C angle of attack.
to the slip stream from a propeller on an engine located
forward of the wing D climb path angle.
C Increase with increased load factor, icing conditions and an

aft c.g. location
D Increase with increased load factor, more flaps but will not
increase due to the bank angle in a turn
180) After the transition point between the laminar and 185) The aeroplane drag in straight and level flight is lowest
turbulent boundary layer when the:
A the mean speed increases and the friction drag decreases A induced drag is equal to zero.
B the boundary layer gets thicker and the speed decreases B induced drag is lowest.
C the mean speed and friction drag increases C parasite drag is equal to the induced drag.
D the boundary layer gets thinner and the speed increases D parasite drag equals twice the induced drag.
181) A commercial jet aeroplane is performing a straight 186) The units of wing loading (I) W / S and (II) dynamic
descent at a constant Mach Number with constant pressure q are:
weight. The operational limit that may be exceeded is:
A (I) N / m, (II) kg.
A VNE.
B (I) N / m², (II) N / m².
B VD.
C (I) N / m3, (II) kg / m².
C MMO.
D (I) kg / m, (II) N / m².
D VMO.
187) Dihedral of the wing is:

182) An aeroplane is in a steady turn, at a constant TAS of
300 kt, and a bank angle of 45°. Its turning radius is
equal to: A the angle between the leading edge of the wing and the
(given: g= 10 m/s²) lateral axis.
A 2381 metres. B the angle between the 0.25 chord line of the wing and the
vertical axis.
B 4743 metres.
C the angle between the 0.25 chord line of the wing and the
horizon.
C 9000 metres.
D the angle between the 0.25 chord line of the wing and the
D 3354 metres. lateral axis.
183) Why is VMCG determined with the nosewheel steering 174) The positive manoeuvring limit load factor for a large jet
disconnected? transport aeroplane with flaps extended is:
A Because nosewheel steering has no effect on the value of A 1.5

VMCG.
B 2.5
B Because the value of VMCG must also be applicable on wet
and/or slippery runways. C 3.75
C Because the nosewheel steering could become inoperative D 2.0

after an engine has failed.
D Because it must be possible to abort the take-off even after

the nosewheel has already been lifted off the ground. 42) When power assisted controls are used for pitch
control, this:
184) The effects of very heavy rain (tropical rain) on the A makes trimming superfluous.
aerodynamic characteristics of an aeroplane are:
B makes aerodynamic balancing of the control surfaces
A decrease of CLmax and increase of drag. meaningless.
B decrease of CLmax and decrease of drag. C can only function in combination with an elevator trim tab.
C increase of CLmax and increase of drag. D ensures that a part of the aerodynamic forces is still felt on
the column.
D increase of CLmax and decrease of drag.
54) Which statement about a primary control surface 34) A horn balance in a control system has the following
controlled by a servo tab, is correct ? purpose:
A The servo tab can also be used as a trimtab. A to decrease the effective longitudinal dihedral of the
aeroplane.
B The control effectiveness of the primary surface is
increased by servo tab deflection. B to decrease stick forces.
C Due to the effectiveness of the servo tab the control surface C to prevent flutter.
area can be smaller.
D to obtain mass balancing.
D The position is undetermined during taxiing, in particular
with tailwind.
35) The static pressure is acting:

30) Which of the following flight phenomena can happen at
Mach Numbers below the critical Mach Number? A only perpendicular to the direction of the flow.
A Mach buffet. B only in the direction of the total pressure.
B Shock stall.
C in all directions.
C Dutch roll. D only in direction of the flow.
D Tuck under.
36) When the air has passed through a normal shock wave
the Mach number is
31) The value of the manoeuvre stability of an aeroplane is
150 N/g. The load factor in straight and level flight is 1. A lower than before but still greater than 1.
The increase of stick force necessary to achieve the
load factor of 2.5 is:
B equal to 1.
A 450 N.
C higher than before.
B 150 N.
D less than 1.
C 225 N.
D 375 N. 37) Tuck under will happen
A only at the critical Mach number.

32) A plain flap will increase CLmax by
B only below the critical Mach number.
A increasing the camber of the aerofoil.
C above or below the critical Mach number depending on the
angle of attack.
B increasing angle of attack.
D only above the critical Mach number.
C boundary layer control.
D centre of lift movement.

38) Winglets
33) Climbing at a constant Mach Number up to FL 350 the A decrease the induced drag.
TAS will:
B decrease the static lateral stability.
A remain constant.
C increase the manoeuvrability.
B decrease.
D create an elliptical lift distribution.
C first increase, then decrease.
D increase.
39) The span-wise flow is caused by the difference between 44) Compared with an oblique shock wave at the same
the air pressure on top and beneath the wing and its Mach number a normal shock wave has a
direction of movement goes from :
A lower static temperature.
A beneath to the top of the wing via the trailing edge
B higher loss in total pressure.
B the top to beneath the wing via the leading edge
C higher total pressure.
C beneath to the top of the wing via the wing tip
D higher total temperature.
D the top to beneath the wing via the wing's trailing edge
45) Two methods to increase the critical Mach Number are:

28) A strongly swept back wing stalls. If the wake of the
wing contacts the horizontal tail, the effect on the stall
behaviour can be: A thin aerofoils and dihedral of the wing.
A nose up tendency and/or lack of elevator response. B positive cambering of the aerofoil and sweep back of the
wing.
B nose down tendency.
C thick aerofoils and dihedral of the wing.
C increase sensitivity of elevator inputs.
D thin aerofoils and sweep back of the wing.
D tendency to increase speed after initial stall.
46) The location of the centre of pressure of a positive

cambered wing at increasing angle of attack will:
41) Entering the stall the centre of pressure of a straight (1)
wing and of a strongly swept back wing (2) will:
A shift aft.
A (1) move aft, (2) not move.
B shift in spanwise direction.
B (1) move aft, (2) move forward.
C shift forward.
C (1) move aft, (2) move aft.
D not shift.
D (1) not move (2) move forward.
47) Which one of the following statements about Bernoulli's

theorem is correct?
27) Lift and drag on an aerofoil are vertical respectively
parallel to the
A The total pressure is zero when the velocity of the stream is
zero.
A longitudinal axis.
B The dynamic pressure is maximum in the stagnation point.
B horizon.
C The dynamic pressure increases as static pressure
C relative wind/airflow. decreases.
D chord line. D The dynamic pressure decreases as static pressure

decreases.
43) Which kind of flow separation occurs at the smallest

angle of attack? 48) The boundary layer of a wing is caused by:
A shockstall. A a layer on the wing in which the stream velocity is lower than
the free stream velocity, due to friction.
B high-speed stall.
B the normal shock wave at transonic speeds.
C low-speed stall.
C a turbulent stream pattern around the wing.
D deep stall.
D suction at the upper wing side.
49) Dihedral of the wing: 40) The correct drag formula is:
A decreases the static lateral stability. A D= CD 2 RHO V² S
B increases the static lateral stability. B D= CD 1/2 RHO V S
C is the only way to increase the static lateral stability. C D= CD 1/2 1/RHO V² S
D is only positive for aeroplanes with high mounted wings. D D= CD 1/2 RHO V² S
50) How does the exterior view of an aeroplane change, 15) The total pressure is:
when the trim is used during a speed decrease ?
A The elevator is deflected further downwards by means of a A static pressure plus the dynamic pressure.
trimmable horizontal stabiliser.
B static pressure minus the dynamic pressure.
B Nothing changes in the exterior view.
C ½ rho V²
C The elevator is deflected further downwards by means of an
upwards deflected trimtab. D can be measured in a small hole in a surface, parallel to the
local stream.
D The elevator is deflected further upwards by means of a
downwards deflected trimtab.
2) High Aspect Ratio, as compared with low Aspect Ratio,
has the effect of :
51) On a non swept wing, when the aerofoil is accelerated
from subsonic to supersonic speeds, the aerodynamic A Decreasing induced drag and critical angle of attack
centre :
B Increasing lift and critical angle of attack
A shifts aft by about 10%.
B remains unchanged.
C Increasing lift and drag
D Increasing induced drag and decreasing critical angle of

C slightly shifts forward. attack
D shifts from 25% to about 50% of the aerofoil chord.

3) Which kind of ''tab'' is commonly used in case of manual
reversion of fully powered flight controls ?
52) For a normal stable aeroplane, the centre of gravity is
located: A Balance tab
A at the neutral point of the aeroplane. B Anti-balance tab
B between the aft limit and the neutral point of the aeroplane. C Servo tab
C with a sufficient minimum margin ahead of the neutral point D Spring tab
of the aeroplane.
D aft of the neutral point of the aeroplane.

4) The induced drag:
109) On a wing fitted with a "fowler" type trailing edge flap, A increases as the aspect ratio increases.
the "Full extended" position will produce:
B has no relation to the lift coefficient.
A an increase in wing area only.
C increases as the magnitude of the tip vortices decreases.
B an increase in wing area and camber.
D increases as the lift coefficient increases.
C an unaffected wing area and increase in camber.
D an unaffected CD, at a given angle of attack.
5) "Tuck under" is caused by (i) which movement of the 10) In case the Mach trimmer fails:
centre of pressure of the wing and (ii) which change of
the downwash angle at the location of the stabilizer.
A the aeroplane weight must be limited.
A (i) aft (ii) decreasing
B the Mach number must be limited.
B (i) forward (ii) decreasing
C try to relocate the centre-of-gravity aft.
C (i) aft (ii) increasing
D the speed must be kept constant.
D (i) forward (ii) increasing
11) What is the effect of high aspect ratio of an aeroplane's

6) During flap down selection in a continuous straight and wing on induced drag?
level flight at constant IAS and weight:
A It is reduced because the effect of wing-tip vortices is
A the centre of pressure moves aft. reduced.
B It is increased because high aspect ratio has greater frontal

B the lift coefficient and the drag coefficient increase. area.
C the stall speed increases. C It is unaffected because there is no relation between aspect
ratio and induced drag.
D the total boundary layer becomes laminar.
D It is increased because high aspect ratio produces greater
downwash.
7) The vane of a stall warning system with a flapper switch

is activated by the change of the:
12) The angle of attack of a two dimensional wing section is
the angle between :
A point of lowest pressure.
A the fuselage core line and the free stream direction.
B stagnation point.
B the chord line and the camber line of the aerofoil.
C centre of pressure.
D centre of gravity.
C the chord line of the aerofoil and the free stream direction.
D the chord line of the aerofoil and the fuselage centreline.
8) An aeroplane has static directional stability; in a side-

slip to the right, initially the:
29) "Tuck under" may happen at:
A nose of the aeroplane tends to move to the right.
A high Mach numbers.
B right wing tends to go down.
B low Mach numbers.
C nose of the aeroplane will remain in the same direction.
C all Mach numbers.
D nose of the aeroplane tends to move to the left.
D only at low altitudes.
9) The C.G. position of an aeroplane is forward of the

neutral point in a fixed location. Speed changes cause a 14) The lift coefficient (CL) of an aeroplane in steady
departure from the trimmed position. Which of the horizontal flight is 0.4. Increase of angle of attack of 1
following statements about the stick force stability is degree will increase CL by 0.09. A vertical up gust
correct? instantly changes the angle of attack by 5 degrees. The
load factor will be :
A Increase of speed generates pull forces.
A 2.13
B Aeroplane nose up trim decreases the stick force stability.
B 1.09
C Stick force stability is not affected by trim.
C 2.0
D Increasing 10 kt trimmed at low speed has more effect on
the stick force than increasing 10 kt trimmed at high speed. D 3.18
55) By what percentage does the lift increase in a steady 20) Low speed pitch up is caused by the:
level turn at 45° angle of bank, compared to straight and
level flight?
A spanwise flow on a swept back wing.
A 41%.
B spanwise flow on a swept forward wing.
B 19%.
C wing tip vortex.
C 31%.
D Mach trim system.
D 52%.
21) The buffet margin :

16) Consider an aerofoil with a certain camber and a
positive angle of attack. At which location will the A is always greatest after a stepclimb has been executed.
highest flow velocities occur ?
A In the stagnation point

B decreases during a descent with a constant Mach number.
B Upper side C is always positive at Mach numbers below MMO.
C Lower side
D increases during a descent with a constant IAS.
D In front of the stagnation point

22) Which of the following factors will lead to an increase of
ground distance during a glide ?
17) Which moments or motions interact in a dutch roll? A decrease of aeroplane weight
A Pitching and adverse yaw. B tailwind
B Rolling and yawing. C headwind
C Pitching and yawing. D increase of aeroplane weight
D Pitching and rolling.

23) A propeller turns to the right, seen from behind. The
torque effect in the take-off will:
18) The term angle of attack in a two dimensional flow is
defined as: A roll the aeroplane to the left.
A the angle formed by the longitudinal axis of the aeroplane B pitch the aeroplane nose down.
and the chord line of the wing
C roll the aeroplane to the right.
B the angle for maximum lift/drag ratio
D pitch the aeroplane nose up.
C the angle between the wing chord line and the direction of
the relative wind/airflow.
D the angle between the aeroplane climb path and the horizon. 24) Which statement about the trim position is true related
to centre of gravity and adjustable stabiliser position ?
A A nose heavy aeroplane requires that the stabiliser leading

19) The formula for the Mach Number is: edge is lower than compared with a tail heavy aeroplane
(a= speed of sound)
B Because characteristic speeds at take off do not vary with
A M= IAS / a centre of gravity location, the need for stabiliser adjustment
is dependent on flap position only.
B M= TAS / a
C A nose heavy aeroplane requires that the stabiliser leading
edge is higher than compared with a tail heavy aeroplane.
C M= a / TAS
D At the forward limit for centre of gravity, stabiliser trim is
D M= TAS*a adjusted maximum Nose Down to obtain maximum elevator
authority at take off rotation.
25) Which of the following statements about a constant 84) The aerofoil polar is:
speed propeller is correct?
A The blade angle increases with increasing speed. A a graph, in which the thickness of the wing aerofoil is given
as a function of the chord.
B The propeller system keeps the aeroplane speed constant. B a graph of the relation between the lift coefficient and the
drag coefficient.
C The RPM decreases with increasing aeroplane speed.
C a graph of the relation between the lift coefficient and the
D The selected RPM is kept constant by the manifold angle of attack.
pressure.
D the relation between the horizontal and the vertical speed.
26) Which statement is correct at the speed for minimum

drag (subsonic) ? 85) Rolling is the rotation of the aeroplane about the:
A Induced drag is greater than the parasite drag.

A wing axis.
B Propeller aeroplanes fly at that speed at max. endurance.
B longitudinal axis.
C The gliding angle is minimum.
C vertical axis.
D The CL/CD ratio is minimum.
D lateral axis.
13) How does VMCG change with increasing field elevation

and temperature ? 86) Critical Mach-number is the :
A increases, because at a lower density a larger IAS is

A speed at which there is supersonic airflow over all parts of
necessary to generate the required rudder force
the aeroplane.
B increases, because VMCG is related to V1 and VR and
B highest speed at which the aeroplane is certificated for
those speeds increase if the density decreases
operation (MMO).
C decreases, because the engine thrust decreases.
C highest speed without supersonic flow over any part of the
aeroplane.
D decreases, because VMCG is expressed in IAS and the
IAS decreases with TAS constant and decreasing density D speed at which there is subsonic airflow over all parts of the
aircraaeroplane Mach number < 1).
96) Which location on the aeroplane has the largest effect

on the induced drag ? 87) The difference between IAS and TAS will:
A Wing tip
A increase at decreasing temperature.
B Engine cowling
B increase at increasing air density.
C Wing root junction
C decrease at increasing speed.
D Landing gear
D decrease at decreasing altitude.
53) At an aeroplane's minimum drag speed, what is the ratio

between induced drag Di and profile drag Dp? Di/Dp= 88) Which part of an aeroplane provides the greatest
positive contribution to the static longitudinal stability ?
A 1/1
A The horizontal tailplane.
B It varies between aeroplane types.
B The engine.
C 2/1
C The fuselage.
D 1/2
D The wing.
89) When comparing a rectangular wing and a swept back 82) Floating due to ground effect during an approach to
wing of the same wing area and wing loading, the swept land will occur :
back wing has the advantage of :
A when a higher than normal angle of attack is used
A Increased longitudinal stability
B at a speed approaching the stall
B Lower stalling speed
C when the height is less than halve of the length of the wing
C Higher critical Mach number span above the surface
D Greater strength D when the height is less than twice the length of the wing
span above the surface
90) Which of the following statements is correct ?

95) From the polar diagram of the entire aeroplane one can
I VMCL is the minimum control speed in the landing
read:
configuration.
II The speed VMCL can be limited by the available
maximum roll rate
A the minimum CL/CD ratio and the minimum drag.
A I is incorrect, II is incorrect B the maximum CL/CD ratio and maximum lift coefficient.
B I is correct, II is incorrect C the minimum drag and the maximum lift.
C I is incorrect, II is correct D the minimum drag coefficient and the maximum lift.
D I is correct, II is correct
81) Which of the following (1) aerofoils and (2) angles of
attack will produce the lowest Mcrit values?
91) Which statement is correct?
A (1) thin and (2) large.
A Extension of flaps will increase (CL/CD)max, causing the B (1) thin and (2) small.
minimum rate of descent to decrease.
C (1) thick and (2) large.
B Extension of flaps has no influence on the minimum rate of
descent, as only the TAS has to be taken into account.
D (1) thick and (2) small.
C Spoiler extension decreases the stall speed and the
minimum rate of descent, but increases the minimum
descent angle. 97) In which situation would the wing lift of an aeroplane in
straight and level flight have the highest value ?
D Extension of flaps causes a reduction of the stall speed, the
maximum glide distance also reduces. A Aft centre of gravity and idle thrust.
B Forward centre of gravity and take-off thrust.

92) By what percentage does VA (EAS) alter when the
aeroplane's weight decreases by 19%?
C Aft centre of gravity and take-off thrust.
A 10% lower.
D Forward centre of gravity and idle thrust.
B 4.36% lower.
C no change 98) At higher altitudes, the stall speed (IAS):
D 19% lower. A increases
B decreases
93) If flaps are deployed at constant IAS in straight and level
flight, the magnitude of tip vortices will eventually : (flap C remains the same
span less than wing span)
D decreases until the tropopause
A increase.
B remain the same.
C increase or decrease, depending on the initial angle of attack.
D decrease.
99) In a twin-engined jet powered aeroplane (engines 104) In the transonic range lift will decrease at the shock stall
mounted below the low wings) the thrust is suddenly due to the
increased. Which elevator deflection will be required to
maintain the pitching moment zero ? A first appearance of a shock wave at the upper side of the
wing.
A No elevator movement will required because the thrust line
of the engines remains unchanged. B appearance of the bow wave.
B It depends on the position of the centre of gravity. C separation of the boundary layer at the shock waves.
C Down. D attachment of the shock wave on the trailing edge of the

wing.
D Up.
105) VMO :
100) VA is:
A should be chosen in between VC and VD
A the speed that should not be exceeded in the climb.
B is equal to the design speed for maximum gust intensity.
B the maximum speed at which maximum elevator deflection
up is allowed. C is the calibrated airspeed at which MMO is reached at 35
000 ft.
C the maximum speed at which rolls are allowed.
D should be not greater than VC.
D the speed at which a heavy transport aeroplane should fly in
turbulence.
106) The speed for minimum glide angle occurs at a certain
angle of attack. Which are the corresponding
101) If the altitude is increased and the TAS remains constant aerodynamic coefficients(s) ?
in the standard troposphere the Mach Number will:
A (CL/CD)max
A decrease.
B CLmax
B not change.
C (CL/CD^2)max
C increase or decrease, depends of the type of aeroplane.
D (CL^3/CD^2)max
D increase.
217) The pitch up effect of an aeroplane with swept wing in a

102) An aeroplane has a stall speed of 100 kt at a load factor stall is due to the
n=1. In a turn with a load factor of n=2, the stall speed is:
A aft movement of the centre of gravity.
A 70 kt
B forward movement of the centre of gravity.
B 200 kt
C wing root stalling first.
C 141 kt
D wing tip stalling first.
D 282 kt
94) The function of the stick pusher is:

The lift to drag ratio provides directly the
A to activate and push the stick forward at or beyond a certain
A distance for climb up to a certain altitude. value of angle of attack.
B to activate and push the stick forward prior to stick shaker.

B glide distance from a given altitude at zero wind.
C to vibrate the controls.

C glide distance from a given altitude.
D to pull the stick, to avoid a high speed stall.
D distance for horizontal flight.
69) The Cl - alpha curve of a positive cambered aerofoil 60) Considering a positive cambered aerofoil, the pitch
intersects with the vertical axis of the Cl - alpha graph: moment when Cl=0 is:
A in the origin. A infinite
B below the origin. B positive (pitch-up).
C nowhere. C negative (pitch-down).
D above the origin. D equal to zero.
56) The shape of the gust load diagram is also determinated 61) Which statement is correct for a side slip condition at
by the following three vertical speed in ft/s (clean constant speed and side slip angle, where the geometric
configuration) : dihedral of an aeroplane is increased ?
A 25, 55, 75 A the required lateral control force increases.
B 35, 55, 66 B the required lateral control force decreases.
C 25, 50, 66 C the required lateral control force does not change.
D 15, 56, 65 D the stick force per g decreases.
57) Longitudinal static stability is created by the fact that 62) The (subsonic) static pressure:
the:
A wing surface is greater than the horizontal tail surface. A decreases in a flow in a tube when the diameter decreases.
B aeroplane possesses a large trim speed range. B is the total pressure plus the dynamic pressure.
C centre of gravity is located in front of the neutral point of the C is the pressure in a point at which the velocity has become
aeroplane. zero.
D centre of gravity is located in front of the leading edge of the D increases in a flow in a tube when the diameter decreases.
wing.
63) The function of the slot between an extended slat and

58) The turn indicator shows a right turn. The slip indicator the leading edge of the wing is to:
is left of neutral. To coordinate the turn:
A reduce the wing loading.
A less right bank is required.
B slow the air flow in the slot so that more pressure is created
B a higher turn rate is required. under the wing.
C more right bank is required. C cause a venturi effect which energizes the boundary layer.
D more right rudder is required. D allow space for vibration of the slat.
59) When the air is passing through a shock wave the 64) Examples of aerodynamic balancing of control surfaces
density will are:
A decrease. A weight in the nose of the control surface, horn balance
B stay constant. B Fowler flaps, upper and lower rudder
C decrease and beyond a certain Mach number start C seal between wing's trailing edge and leading edge of a
increasing again control surface, horn balance
D increase. D upper and lower rudder, seal between wing's trailing edge
and leading edge of a control surface
65) Which of the following wing planforms gives the highest 70) (For this question use annex 081-6239A)
local profile lift coefficient at the wingroot ? Which one of the bodies in motion (all bodies have the
same cross section area) will have lowest drag?
A Rectangular.
A Body d
B Elliptical.
B Body c
C Tapered.
C Body a
D Positive angle of sweep.
D Body b
66) Vortex generators on the upper side of the wing:

Which type of flap is shown in the picture?
A increase critical Mach Number.
A Plain flap
B decrease critical Mach Number.
B Split flap
C decrease wave drag.
C Single slotted flap
D increase wave drag.
D Fowler flap
83) What is the most effective flap system?

72) Stick pushers must be installed in aeroplanes with
A Plain flap. dangerous stall characteristics. Dangerous stall
characteristics include:
B Single slotted flap.
A Excessive wing drop and deep stall.
C Fowler flap.
B pitch down and yaw.
D Split flap.
C pitch down and minor wing drop.
D pitch down and increase in speed.

68) A slat will
A increase the boundary layer energy and prolongs the stall to 73) The aspect ratio of the wing:
a higher angle of attack.
B increase the camber of the aerofoil and divert the flow A is the ratio between chord and root chord.
around the sharp leading edge.
B is the ratio between the wing span and the mean geometric
C increase the lift by increasing the wing area and the camber chord.
of the aft portion of the wing.
C is the ratio between the wing span and the root chord.
D provide a boundary layer suction on the upper side of the
wing. D is the ratio between the tip chord and the wing span.
108) In supersonic flight, all disturbances produced by an

74) The application of the area rule on aeroplane design will
aeroplane are:
decrease the
A in front of the aeroplane.
A form drag.
B very weak and negligible.

B wave drag.
C in between a conical area, depending on the Mach Number.

C skin friction drag.
D outside the conical area depending on the Mach Number.

D induced drag.
75) The value of the induced drag of an aeroplane in straight 80) If the Mach number of an aeroplane in supersonic flight
and level flight at constant weight varies linearly with: is increased, the shock wave angles will
A 1/V A decrease.
B 1/V² B increase.
C V² C stay constant.
D V D decrease and beyond a certain Mach number start

increasing again.
76) What is the correct relation of the True Air Speed (TAS)
for minimum sink rate (VR/Dmin) and best glide angle 67) The lift formula is:
(VBest glide) at a given altitude?
A L= n W
A VR/Dmin < VBest glide
B L= CL 1/2 RHO V² S
B VR/Dmin = VBest glide
C L= W
C VR/Dmin > VBest glide
D L= CL 2 RHO V² S
D VR/Dmin > VBest glide or VR/Dmin < VBest glide
depending on the type of aeroplane.
392) What is the approximate value of the lift of an aeroplane

77) The lift force, acting on an aerofoil : at a gross weight of 50 000 N, in a horizontal
coordinated 45 degrees banked turn ?
A is mainly caused by overpressure at the underside of the A 50 000 N

aerofoil.
B 80 000 N
B is maximum at an angle of attack of 2 degrees.
C 70 000 N
C is mainly caused by suction on the upperside of the aerofoil.
D 60 000 N
D increases, proportional to the angle of attack until 40
degrees.
404) At what speed does the front of a shock wave move

across the earth's surface?
78) During initiation of a turn with speedbrakes extended,
the roll spoiler function induces a spoiler deflection:
A The speed of sound at ground level.
A downward on the upgoing wing and upward on the
downgoing wing. B The speed of sound at flight level.
B upward on the upgoing wing and downward on the C The true air speed of the aeroplane.
downgoing wing.
D The ground speed of the aeroplane.
C on the upgoing wing only.
D on the downgoing wing only.

380) Which type of wing arrangement decreases the static
lateral stability of an aeroplane?
79) One of the requirements for dynamic stability is: A Increased wing span.
A positive static stability. B Anhedral.
B a large deflection range of the stabilizer trim. C Dihedral.
C a small C.G. range. D High wing.
D effective elevator.
381) If you pull back the RPM lever of a constant speed 386) When flutter damping of control surfaces is obtained by
propeller during a glide with idle power and constant mass balancing, these weights will be located with
speed, the propeller pitch will: respect to the hinge of the control surface:
A increase and the rate of descent will decrease. A below the hinge.
B increase and the rate of descent will increase. B above the hinge.
C decrease and the rate of descent will decrease. C behind the hinge.
D decrease and the rate of descent will increase. D in front of the hinge.
382) When the air is passing through a shock wave the static 387) Which of the following statements about boundary
temperature will layers is correct?
A increase. A The turbulent boundary layer has more kinetic energy than
the laminar boundary layer.
B decrease.
B The turbulent boundary layer is thinner than the laminar
boundary layer.
C stay constant.
C The turbulent boundary layer gives a lower skin friction than
D decrease and beyond a certain Mach number start the laminar boundary layer.
increasing again
D The turbulent boundary layer will separate more easily than
the laminar boundary layer.
383) The maximum acceptable cruising altitude is limited by
a minimum acceptable loadfactor because exceeding
that altitude: 388) Drag is in the direction of - and lift is perpendicular to
the:
A turbulence may induce Mach buffet.
A chord line.
B turbulence may exceed the limit load factor.
B horizon.
C a sudden necessary bankangle may exceed the limit load
factor. C longitudinal axis.
D Mach buffet will occur immediately.

D relative wind/airflow.

389) If you push forward the RPM lever of a constant speed
propeller during a glide with idle power and constant
A As the angle of attack increases, the stagnation point on the speed, the propeller pitch will:
wing's profile moves downwards.
A decrease and the rate of descent will decrease.
B The centre of pressure is the point on the wing's leading
edge where the airflow splits up. B decrease and the rate of descent will increase.
C The stagnation point is another name for centre of pressure.

C increase and the rate of descent will decrease.
D The stagnation point is always situated on the chordline, the D increase and the rate of descent will increase.
centre of pressure is not.
385) Some aeroplanes have a 'waist' or 'coke bottle' 378) A statically unstable aeroplane is:
contoured fuselage. This is done to
A sometimes dynamically stable.
A apply area rule.
B sometimes dynamically unstable.
B increase the strength of the wing root junction.
C never dynamically stable.
C fit the engine intakes better to the fuselage.
D always dynamically stable.
D improve the low speed characteristics.
391) (For this question use annex 081-6261A) 396) To increase the critical Mach number a conventional
Which point shown in the figure corresponds with CL aerofoil should
for minimum horizontal flight speed?
A have a low thickness to chord ratio.
A Point d
B have a large camber.
B Point a
C be used with a high angle of attack.
C Point b
D have a large leading edge radius.
D Point c
397) Increasing air pressure will have the following effect on

377) There are two types of boundary layer: laminar and the drag of an aeroplane (angle of attack, OAT and TAS
turbulent. One important advantage the turbulent are constant):
boundary layer has over the laminar type is that :
A The drag is only affected by the ground speed.
A it has less tendency to separate from the surface
B The drag increases.
B it is thinner
C This has no effect.
C skin friction drag is less
D The drag decreases.
D energy is less
398) Which statement regarding the gust load factor on an

393) Which statement is correct about a spring tab ? aeroplane is correct (all other factors of importance
being constant) ?
A At high IAS it behaves like a servo tab 1. Increasing the aspect-ratio of the wing will increase
the gust load factor.
B At low IAS it behaves like a servo tab
2. Increasing the speed will increase the gust load
C At high IAS it behaves like a fixed extension of the elevator factor.
D Its main purpose is to increase stick force per g A 1 and 2 are correct.
B 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct.
394) A propeller is turning to the right, seen from behind. The

asymmetric thrust effect in the climb will:
C 1 and 2 are incorrect.
A roll the aeroplane to the right. D 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect.
B yaw the aeroplane to the left.

399) Which of the following statements about the stall of a
C roll the aeroplane to the left. straight wing aeroplane is correct?
D yaw the aeroplane to the right. A The nose down effect is the result of increasing downwash,
due to flow separation.
B The horizontal tail will stall at a higher speed than the wing.
395) Which statement is correct about a normal shock wave ?
C Just before the stall the aeroplane will be have a nose-down
tendency.
A The airflow changes from supersonic to subsonic
D Buffeting is the result of flow separation on the tail plane.
B The airflow changes direction
C The airflow changes from subsonic to supersonic
D The airflow expands when passing the aerofoil
400) Which statement is correct about an expansion wave in 365) What is the unit of measurement for power ?
supersonic flow ?
1. The temperature in front of an expansion wave is A kgm/s²

higher than the temperature behind it.
B Pa/m²
2. The speed in front of an expansion wave is higher
than the speed behind it. C N/m
A 1 and 2 are incorrect. D Nm/s
B 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect.
215) Which statement is correct about the Cl and angle of

C 1 and 2 are correct.
attack?
D 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct. A for an asymmetric aerofoil with positive camber, if angle of
attack is greater than 0, Cl = 0
401) When an aeroplane is flying at an airspeed which is 1.3 B for a symmetric aerofoil, if angle of attack = 0, Cl =0
times its basic stalling speed, the coefficient of lift as a
percentage of the maximum lift coefficient (CLmax) C for a symmetric aerofoil, if angle of attack = 0, Cl is not equal
would be: to 0
A 59%. D for an asymmetric aerofoil, if angle of attack = 0, Cl =0
B 130%.
353) The Mach trim system will:
C 169%.
D 77%.
A keep the Mach Number automatically constant.
B pump the fuel from tank to tank, depending on the Mach

Number.
402) In a turn, the load factor n and the stalling speed VS will
be: C adjust the elevator trim tab, depending on the Mach Number.
A n smaller than 1, VS lower than in straight and level flight. D adjust the stabilizer, depending on the Mach Number.
B n greater than 1, VS lower than in straight and level flight.

354) The stall speed :
C n smaller than 1, VS higher than in straight and level flight.
D n greater than 1, VS higher than in straight and level flight. A does not depend on weight
B increases with the length of the wingspan

351) The stall speed in a 60° banked turn increases by the
following factor: C increases with an increased weight
A 1.30 D decreases with an increased weight
B 2.00
355) Which statement is correct about the laminar and
C 1.41 turbulent boundary layer :
D 1.07 A friction drag is lower in the turbulent layer
B separation point will occur earlier in the turbulent layer

390) The use of a slot in the leading edge of the wing enables
the aeroplane to fly at a slower speed because : C friction drag is lower in the laminar layer
A it changes the camber of the wing D friction drag will be equal in both types of layers
B it delays the stall to a higher angle of attack
C the laminar part of the boundary layer gets thicker
D it decelerates the upper surface boundary layer air
356) In which phase of the take-off is the aerodynamic effect 361) During an erect spin recovery:
of ice located on the wing leading edge most critical?
A During climb with all engines operating. A the control stick is pulled to the most aft position.
B All phases of the take-off are equally critical. B the ailerons are held in the neutral position.
C The last part of the rotation. C the control stick is moved side ways, against the angle of
bank.
D The take-off run. D the control stick is moved side ways, in the direction of the
angle of bank.
357) A normal shock wave:

362) Does the pitch-angle of a constant-speed propeller alter
in medium horizontal turbulence?
A is a discontinuity plane in an airflow, in which the pressure
drops suddenly.
A Yes slightly.
B is a discontinuity plane in an airflow, which is always normal
to the surface. B Yes strongly.
C can occur at different points on the aeroplane in transonic C No.

flight.
D Yes, but only if the pitch is full-fine.
D is a discontinuity plane in an airflow, in which the
temperature drops suddenly.
379) With increasing angle of attack, the stagnation point will

move (I) ...and the point of lowest pressure will move (II)
358) Which statement with respect to the speed of sound is
...Respectively (I) and (II) are:
correct ?
A Varies with the square root of the absolute temperature.

A (I) down, (II) forward.
B Increases always if the density of the air decreases.

B (I) up, (II) aft.
C Is independent of altitude. C (I) down, (II) aft.
D Doubles if the temperature increases from 9° to 36°

D (I) up, (II) forward.
Centigrade.
364) An aeroplane that has positive static stability:

359) Which combination of design features is known to be
responsible for deep stall?
A is always dynamically unstable.
A Straight wings and aft fuselage mounted engines
B can be dynamically stable, neutral or unstable.
B Swept back wings and a T-tail.
C is always dynamically stable.
C Straight wings and a T-tail.
D is never dynamically stable.
D Swept back wings and wing mounted engines.
405) The effect of a positive wing sweep on static directional

stability is as follows:
360) When the blades of a propeller are in the feathered
position:
A Destabilizing dihedral effect
A the propeller produces an optimal windmilling RPM.
B Negative dihedral effect
B the windmilling RPM is the maximum.
C Stabilizing effect
C the RPM is then just sufficient to lubricate the engine.
D No effect
D the drag of the propeller is then minimal.
366) The angle between the airflow (relative wind) and the 371) The effect of a high wing with zero dihedral is as follows:
chord line of an aerofoil is:
A glide path angle. A Its only purpose is to ease aeroplane loading
B climb path angle. B Zero dihedral effect
C same as the angle between chord line and fuselage axis. C Positive dihedral effect
D angle of attack. D Negative dihedral effect
367) Vortex generators mounted on the upper wing surface 372) When air has passed through a shock wave the speed of
will sound is
A decrease the stalling speed by increase of the tangential A increased.

velocity of the swept wing.
B not affected
B increase the effectiveness of the spoiler due to increase in
parasite drag. C decreased.
C decrease the shock wave induced separation. D decreased and beyond a certain Mach number start
increasing again
D decrease the interference drag of the trailing edge flaps.
373) The loss of total pressure in a shock wave is due to the

368) An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight while fact that
the IAS is doubled. The change in lift coefficient will be:
A the friction in the boundary layer is higher.
A x 0.5
B kinetic energy in the flow is changed into heat energy.
B x 4.0
C the speed reduction is too high.
C x 0.25
D the static pressure decrease is comparatively high.
D x 2.0
374) Spoiler deflection causes :

369) The aerodynamic centre of the wing is the point, where:
A an increase in lift only
A pitching moment coefficient does not vary with angle of
attack. B decrease in lift and drag
B change of lift due to variation of angle of attack is constant.

C an increase in drag and decrease in lift
C aerodynamic forces are constant. D an increase in lift and drag
D the aeroplane's lateral axis intersects with the centre of

gravity.
375) Which of the following statements about a Mach trimmer
is correct?
370) The lift coefficient (CL) of an aeroplane in steady
horizontal flight is 0.42, increase in angle of attack of 1
A A Mach trimmer corrects the change in stick force stability
of a swept wing aeroplane above a certain Mach number.
degree increases CL by is 0.1. A vertical up gust
instantly changes the angle of attack by 3 degrees. The
load factor will be :
B A straight wing aeroplane always needs a Mach trimmer for
flying at Mach numbers close to MMO.
A 1.49
C A Mach trimmer reduces the stick force stability of a straight
wing aeroplane to zero at high Mach numbers.
B 2.49
D The Mach trimmer corrects the natural tendency of a swept
C 1.71 wing aeroplane to pitch-up.
D 0.74
376) What is the effect on the aeroplane's static longitudinal 228) Consider a certain stream line tube. The velocity of the
stability of a shift of the centre of gravity to a more aft stream in the tube is V. An increase of temperature of
location and on the required control deflection for a the stream at constant value of V will:
certain pitch up or down?
A increase the mass flow.
A The static longitudinal stability is smaller and the required
control deflection is smaller. B not affect the mass flow.
B The static longitudinal stability is larger and the required

control deflection is smaller. C increase the mass flow when the tube is divergent in the
direction of the flow.
C The static longitudinal stability is larger and the required
D decrease the mass flow.
control deflection is larger.
D The static longitudinal stability is smaller and the required

control deflection is larger. 229) Which statement is correct about an expansion wave in
a supersonic flow ?
363) An aeroplane performs a continuous descent with 160 1- The density in front of an expansion wave is higher
kts IAS and 1000 feet/min vertical speed. In this than behind.
condition:
2- The pressure in front of an expansion wave is higher
A lift is equal to weight than behind.
B lift is less than drag

A 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect.
C drag is less than the combined forces that move the

B 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct.
aeroplane forward
C 1 and 2 are incorrect.
D weight is greater than lift
D 1 and 2 are correct.
240) In order to maintain straight and level flight at a

constant airspeed, whilst the flaps are being retracted, 230) A jet aeroplane is cruising at high altitude with a Mach-
the angle of attack will: number, that provides a buffet margin of 0.3g
incremental. In order to increase the buffet margin to
A remain constant. 0.4g incremental the pilot must :
B increase or decrease depending on type of flap. A fly at a larger angle of attack
C increase. B fly at a lower altitude and the same Mach-number
D decrease. C extend the flaps to the first selection
D fly at a higher Mach-number

403) What can happen to the aeroplane structure flying at a
speed just exceeding VA ?
231) What is the purpose of an auto-slat system ?
A It may suffer permanent deformation if the elevator is fully
deflected upwards
A extend automatically when a certain value of angle of atttack
B It may break if the elevator is fully deflected upwards. is exceeded.
B provide automatically slat IN selection after take-off.

C It may suffer permanent deformation because the flight is
performed at too large dynamic pressure.
C ensures that the slats are always extended when the
D It will collapse if a turn is made. ground/flight system is in the "ground" position.
D assist the ailerons during rolling.
232) When are outboard ailerons (if present) de-activated ? 237) The speed of sound is affected by the:
A Landing gear retracted. A temperature of the air.
B Landing gear extended. B density of the air.
C Flaps (and slats) retracted or speed above a certain value. C pressure of the air.
D Flaps (and/or slats) extended or speed below a certain D humidity of the air.
value..
226) For an aeroplane with one fixed value of VA the

233) Increase of wing loading will: following applies. VA is :
A increase the stall speeds. A the speed at which the aeroplane stalls at the manoeuvring
limit load factor at MTOW.
B decrease the minimum gliding angle. B the maximum speed in smooth air
C increase CLmax.
C the speed at which unrestricted application of elevator
control can be used, without exceeding the maximum
D decrease take off speeds. manoeuvring limit load factor
D just another symbol for the rough air speed

Which point in the diagram gives the best glide
condition? 239) (For this question use annex 081-6269A)
Which type of flap is shown in the picture?
A Point c
A Plain flap
B Point d
B Split flap
C Point b
C Fowler flap
D Point a
D Double slotted flap
235) In a mechanically controlled aeroplane, the most

forward allowable position of the centre of gravity could 431) Deploying a Fowler flap, the flap will:
be limited by the:
A engine thrust, engine location. A turn down, then move aft.
B trim system, trim tab surface. B just move aft.
C wing surface, stabilizer surface. C just turn down.
D elevator capability, elevator control forces. D move aft, then turn down.
236) Induced drag at constant IAS is affected by: 241) When an aeroplane is flying through the transonic range
with increasing Mach Number the centre of the pressure
of the wing will move aft. This requires:
A engine thrust.
A a stability augmentation system.
B aeroplane weight.
B much more thrust from the engine.
C aeroplane wing location.
C a higher IAS to compensate the nose down effect.
D angle between wing chord and fuselage centre line.
D a pitch up input of the stabilizer.
242) The (1) stick force stability and the (2) manoeuvre 247) The stalling speed in IAS will change according to the
stability are positively affected by: following factors:
A (1) forward C.G. position (2) forward CG. position. A May increase when the c.g. moves forward, with higher
altitude and due to the slip stream from a propellor on an
B (1) forward C.G. position (2) aeroplane nose up trim. engine located forward of the wing
B Will increase in a turn, higher temperature and will increase

C (1) aft C.G. position (2) aft CG. position.
when the c.g. moves aft
D (1) aeroplane nose up trim (2) aeroplane nose up trim. C Will increase with increased load factor, more flaps and
increased bank angle in a turn
243) What happens during an engine failure with two similar

D May increase with altitude, especially high altitude, will
aeroplanes with wing mounted engines, one of them increase during icing conditions and will increase when the
with jet engines, the other one with co-rotating c.g. moves forward
propellers:
A More roll tendency for the propeller aeroplane. 248) The angle of attack for a propeller blade is the angle
between blade chord line and:
B The same yaw tendency for both aeroplanes regardless of
left or right engine failure. A Local air speed vector.
C The same roll tendency for both aeroplanes. B Direction of propeller axis.
D Less roll tendency for the propeller aeroplane. C Aeroplane heading.
D Principal direction of propeller blade.

244) Lift is generated when:
249) A Machtrimmer:
A a certain mass of air is accelerated downwards.
B the shape of the aerofoil is slightly cambered. A is necessary for compensation of the autopilot at high Mach
Numbers.
C an aerofoil is placed in a high velocity air stream.
B has no effect on the shape of the elevator position versus
speed (IAS) curve for a fully hydraulic controlled aeroplane.
D a certain mass of air is retarded.
C corrects insufficient stick force stability at high Mach
Numbers.
245) An aeroplane accelerates from 80 kt to 160 kt at a load
factor equal to 1. The induced drag coefficient (i) and the D increases the stick force per g at high Mach Numbers.
induced drag (ii) alter with the following factors:
A (i) 1/2 (ii) 1/16 250) The normal stall recovery procedure for a light single
engined aeroplane is:
B (i) 4 (ii) 1/2
A idle power and stick roll-neutral nose-down and no other
C (i) 1/16 (ii) 1/4 corrections.
D (i) 1/4 (ii) 2 B idle power and stick neutral, waiting for the natural nose-
down tendency.
C full power and stick roll-neutral nose-down, correcting for

246) Flaperons are controls which are used simultaneously angle of bank with rudder.
as
D full power and stick roll-neutral nose-down, correction for
A flaps and speed brakes. angle of bank with stick.
B flaps and elevator.
C ailerons and flaps.
D ailerons and elevator.
251) What should be usually done to perform a landing with 407) An example of differential aileron deflection during
the stabilizer jammed in the cruise flight position ? initiation of left turn is:
A choose a lower landing speed than normal. A Left aileron: 5° down

Right aileron: 2° up
B if possible, relocate as many passengers as possible to the
front of the cabin. B Left aileron: 2° down
Right aileron: 5° up
C use the Mach trimmer until after landing.
C Left aileron: 5° up
Right aileron: 2° down
D choose a higher landing speed than normal and/or use a
lower flapsetting for landing.
D Left aileron: 2° up
Right aileron: 5° down
238) The bank angle in a rate-one turn depends on:

408) How is adverse yaw compensated for during entry into
A TAS. and roll out from a turn ?
B weight. A Servo tabs
C load factor. B Differential aileron deflection
D wind. C Horn-balanced controls
D Anti-balanced rudder control
419) A deployed slat will:
409) On a symmetrical aerofoil, the pitch moment for which

A decrease the boundary layer energy and decrease the Cl=0 is:
suction peak on the slat, so that CLmax is reached at lower
angles of attack. A zero
B increase the camber of the aerofoil and increase the

B equal to the moment coefficient for stabilized angle of attack.
effective angle of attack, so that CLmax is reached at higher
angles of attack.
C positive (pitch-up)
C increase the boundary layer energy, move the suction peak
from the fixed part of the wing to the slat, so that the stall is D negative (pitch-down)
postponed to higher angles of attack.
D increase the boundary layer energy and increase the suction

peak on the fixed part of the wing, so that the stall is 410) A high aspect ratio wing produces:
postponed to higher angles of attack.
A a decrease in stall speed
406) Which of the following statements is correct? B an increase in induced drag
A A dynamically stable aeroplane would be almost impossible C a decrease in induced drag

to fly manually.
D less sensitivity to gust effects
B Dynamic stability is possible only when the aeroplane is
statically stable about the relevant axis.
411) A boundary layer fence on a swept wing will:
C Static stability means that the aeroplane is also dynamically
satble about the relevant axis.
A increase the critical Mach Number.
D Dynamic stability means that after being displaced from
original equilibrium condition, the aeroplane will return to that
condition without oscillation.
B improve the lift coefficient of the trailing edge flap.
C improve the low speed characteristics.
D improve the high speed characteristics.
412) Bernoulli's equation can be written as: 227) Load factor is :
(pt= total pressure, ps = static pressure and q=dynamic
pressure)
A 1/Bank angle
A pt = ps / q
B Wing loading
B pt = ps + q
C Lift/Weight
C pt = ps - q
D Weight/Lift
D pt = q - ps
418) The sensor of a stall warning system can be activated

413) Compared with the flap up configuration the maximum by a change in the location of the
angle of attack for the flaps down configuration is
A stagnation point.
A smaller or larger depending on flap deflection.
B centre of lift.
B smaller.
C transition region.
C larger.
D centre of gravity.
D unchanged.
350) The "short period mode" is an:

414) Induced drag may be reduced by:
A oscillation about the lateral axis.
A the use of a wing tip with a much thinner aerofoil
B oscillation about the vertical axis.
B an increase in aspect ratio
C oscillation about the longitudinal axis.
C an increase in the taper ratio of the wing
D unstable movement of the aeroplane, induced by the pilot.
D a decrease of the aspect ratio
420) What is the influence of decreasing aeroplane weight on

415) Gyroscopic precession of the propeller is induced by: Mcrit at constant IAS ?
A Mcrit decreases as a result of flying at a greater angle of

A pitching and rolling. attack.
B increasing RPM and yawing. B Mcrit increases as a result of flying at a smaller angle of
attack.
C increasing RPM and rolling.
C Mcrit increases as a result of compressibility effects.
D pitching and yawing.

D Mcrit decreases.
416) The lift of an aeroplane of weight W in a constant linear

421) The following factors increase stall speed :
climb with a climb angle (gamma) is approximately:
A Wcos.gamma. A a lower weight, decreasing bank angle, a smaller flapsetting.
B W(1-sin.gamma). B an increase in load factor, a forward c.g. shift, decrease in

thrust.
C W(1-tan.gamma).
C a higher weight, selecting a higher flap setting, a forward c
D W/cos.gamma. .g. shift.
D increasing bank angle, increasing thrust, slat extension.
422) What wing shape or wing characteristic is the least 427) Which of the following statements, about a venturi in a
sensitive to turbulence : sub-sonic airflow are correct?
A winglets 1. the dynamic pressure in the undisturbed flow and in

the throat are equal.
B swept wings
2. the total pressure in the undisturbed flow and in the
throat are equal.
C straight wings
A 1 and 2 are correct.
D wing dihedral
B 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect.
423) A C.G location beyond the aft limit leads to: C 1 and 2 are incorrect.
A a too high pulling stick force during rotation in the take off. D 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct.
B an increasing static longitudinal stability.

428) Which statement about stick force per g is correct?
C a better recovery performance in the spin.
A The stick force per g can only be corrected by means of
D an unacceptable low value of the manoeuvre stability (stick electronic devices (stability augmentation) in case of an
force per g, Fe/g). unacceptable value.
B If the slope of the Fe-n line becomes negative, generally

424) Which of the following flight phenomena can only speaking this is not a problem for control of an aeroplane.
happen at Mach Numbers above the critical Mach
Number? C The stick force per g must have both an upper and lower
limit in order to assure acceptable control characteristics.
A Elevator stall.
D The stick force per g increases, when centre of gravity is
moved aft.
B Mach buffet.
C Dutch roll.
429) Excluding constants, the coefficient of induced drag
(CDi) is the ratio of :
D Speed instability.
A CL² and AR (aspect ratio)
425) Vortex generators: B CL and CD
A transfer energy from the free airflow into the boundary layer. C CL and b (wing span)
B change the turbulent boundary layer into a laminar boundary D CL²and S (wing surface)
layer.
C reduce the spanwise flow on swept wing. 430) An aeroplane is descending at a constant Mach number
from FL 350. What is the effect on true airspeed ?
D take kinetic energy out of the boundary layer to reduce
separation. A It decreases as pressure increases
B It decreases as altitude decreases

426) In a stationary subsonic streamline flow pattern, if the
streamlines converge, in this part of the pattern, the C It remains constant
static pressure (I) will ...and the velocity (II) will ... :
D It increases as temperature increases
A (I) decrease, (II) increase.
B (I) increase, (II) increase.
C (I) increase, (II) decrease.
D (I) increase, (II) decrease.
417) When the C.G. position is moved forward, the elevator 274) Which of the following statements concerning control is
deflection for a manoeuvre with a load factor greater correct?
than 1 will be:
A On some aeroplanes, the servo tab also serves as a trim tab.
A dependent on trim position.
B Hydraulically powered control surfaces do not need mass
B larger. balancing.
C smaller. C In general the maximum downward elevator deflection is

larger than upward.
D unchanged.
D In a differential aileron control system the control surfaces
have a larger upward than downward maximum deflection.
284) A jet aeroplane cruises buffet free at high constant

altitude in significant turbulence. Which type of stall can 275) The point, where the aerodynamic lift acts on a wing is:
occur if this aeroplane decelerates?
A Low speed stall. A the suction point of the wing.
B Shock stall. B the centre of pressure.
C Deep stall. C the c.g. location.
D Accelerated stall. D the point of maximum thickness of the wing.
296) Which statement about a jet transport aeroplane is 276) How does stalling speed (IAS) vary with altitude?
correct, during take-off at the maximum allowable
forward centre of gravity limit, while the THS (Trimmable
Horizontal Stabilizer) has been positioned at the A It remains constant at lower altitudes but decreases at
maximum allowable AND (Aeroplane Noise Down) higher altitudes due to compressibility effects.
position.
B It remains constant at lower altitudes but increases at
higher altitudes due to compressibility effects.
A Nothing special will happen.
C It remains constant.
B The rotation will require extra stick force.
D It increases with increasing altitude, because the density
C If the THS position is just within the limits of the green band, decreases.
the take off warning system will be activated.
D Early nose wheel raising will take place.

277) During the retraction of the flaps at a constant angle of
attack the aeroplane starts to (all other factors of
272) How does the total drag vary as speed is increased from
stalling speed (VS) to maximum IAS (VNE) in a straight A climb.
and level flight at constant weight?
B yaw.
A Increasing.
C sink suddenly.
B Increasing, then decreasing.
D bank.
C Decreasing, then increasing.
D Decreasing.
278) If the sum of moments in flight is not zero, the aeroplane
will rotate about:
273) Induced drag is created by the: A the centre of gravity.
A propeller wash blowing across the wing. B the neutral point of the aeroplane.
B spanwise flow pattern resulting in the tip vortices. C the aerodynamic centre of the wing.
C interference of the air stream between wing and fuselage.

D the centre of pressure of the wing.
D separation of the boundary layer over the wing.
279) Which of the following statements about dihedral is 269) The terms "q" and "S" in the lift formula are:
correct?
A Dihedral is necessary for the execution of slip-free turns. A static pressure and dynamic pressure
B The "effective dihedral" of an aeroplane component means B dynamic pressure and the area of the wing
the contribution of that component to the static lateral
stability. C square root of surface and wing loading
C Effective dihedral is the angle between the 1/4-chord line D static pressure and wing surface area
and the lateral axis of the aeroplane.
D Dihedral contributes to dynamic but not to static lateral

stability. 285) Which of the following series of configurations has an
increasing critical angle of attack ?
280) In general transport aeroplanes with power assisted

A slats only extended, flaps only extended, clean wing.
flight controls are fitted with an adjustable stabilizer
instead of trim tabs on the elevator. This is because : B flaps only extended, clean wing, slats only extended.
A mechanical adjustment of trim tabs creates too many C clean wing, flaps only extended, slats only extended.
problems
D slats only extended, clean wing, flaps only extended.
B trim tab deflection increases Mcrit
C effectiveness of trim tabs is insufficient for those aeroplanes

286) If a symmetrical aerofoil is accelerated from subsonic to
supersonic speed the centre of lift will move
D the pilot does not feel the stick forces at all
A aft to the trailing edge.
281) If an aeroplane is flying at transonic speed with B forward to the leading edge.
increasing Mach number the shock wave on the upper
side of the wing C forward to the mid chord.
A stays all the time at the same position. D aft to the mid chord.
B disappears.
287) The relationship between the stall speed VS and VA

C moves into trailing edge direction.
(EAS) for a large transport aeroplane can be expressed
in the following formula:
D moves into leading edge direction. (SQRT= square root)
A VS= VA SQRT(2.5)
270) To be able to predict compressibility effects you have to
determine the: B VS= VA SQRT(3.75)
A Mach Number. C Va= VA SQRT(3.75)
B EAS. D VA= VS SQRT(2.5)
C TAS.
288) Propeller efficiency may be defined as the ratio between:
D IAS.
A usable (power available) power of the propeller and shaft

power.
283) Which of the following lists aeroplane features that each
increase static lateral stability ? B the thrust and the maximum thrust.
A Fuselage mounted engines, dihedral, T-tail.
C the usable (power available) power and the maximum power.
B Sweep back, under wing mounted engines, winglets.
D the thermal power of fuel-flow and shaft power.
C High wing, sweep back, large and high vertical fin.
D Low wing, dihedral, elliptical wing planform.
289) When flaps are extended in a straight and level flight at 294) The units of the density of the air (I) and the force (II) are:
constant IAS, the lift coefficient will eventually :
A remain the same. A (I) N / kg, (II) kg.
B increase. B (I) kg / m3, (II) N.
C decrease. C (I) kg / m², (II) kg.
D first increase and then decrease. D (I) N / m3, (II) N.
290) The consequences of exceeding Mcrit in a swept-wing 352) The wing of an aeroplane will never stall at low subsonic
aeroplane may be : (assume no corrective devices, speeds as long as....
straight and level flight)
A there is a nose-down attitude.
A buffeting of the aeroplane and a tendency to pitch down.
B the angle of attack is smaller than the value at which the
B an increase in speed and a tendency to pitch up. stall occurs.
C the IAS exceeds the power-on stall speed.

C engine unbalance and buffeting.
D the CAS exceeds the power-on stall speed.
D buffeting of the aeroplane and a tendency to pitch up.
282) Rotation about the lateral axis is called :

291) The Mach number:
A yawing.
A is the ratio between the TAS of the aeroplane and the local
speed of sound.
B slipping.
B is the ratio between the TAS of the aeroplane and the speed
of sound at sea level. C pitching.
C is the ratio between the IAS of the aeroplane and the local D rolling.
speed of sound.
D increases at a given TAS, when the temperature rises.

257) When a pilot makes a turn in horizontal flight, the stall
speed :
292) When air has passed an expansion wave, the static A increases with the load factor squared
pressure is:
B increases with the square root of load factor
A decreased.
B decreased or increased, depending on Mach Number.

C increases with flap extension
D decreases with increasing bank angle

C increased.
D unchanged.
252) The relationship between induced drag and the aspect
ratio is:
293) The angle of attack of a wing profile is defined as the A a decrease in the aspect ratio increases the induced drag
angle between :
B there is no relationship
A The local airflow and the chordline.
B The undisturbed airflow and the mean camberline.

C induced drag = 1.3 aspect ratio value
D an increase in the aspect ratio increases the induced drag

C The undisturbed airflow and the chordline.
D The local airflow and the mean camberline.
218) What is the position of the elevator in relation to the 223) The true airspeed (TAS) is:
trimmable horizontal stabilizer of a power assisted
aeroplane, which is in trim ?
A higher than the speed of the undisturbed airstream about the
A The position depends on speed, the position of slats and aeroplane.
flaps and the position of the centre of gravity.
B equal to the IAS, multiplied by the air density at sea level.
B The elevator deflection (compared to the stabilizer position)
is always zero. C lower than the speed of the undisturbed airstream about the
aeroplane.
C At a forward CG the elevator is deflected upward and at an
aft CG the elevator is deflected downward. D lower than the indicated airspeed (IAS) at ISA conditions
and altitudes below sea level.
D The elevator is always deflected slightly downwards in order
to have sufficient remaining flare capability.
224) Deflection of leading edge flaps will:

The diagram shows the parameter X versus TAS. If a A decrease drag.
horizontal flight is considered the axis X shows
B not affect critical angle of attack.
A the induced drag.
C increase critical angle of attack.
B the total drag.
D decrease CLmax.
C the lift force.
D the parasite drag. 225) What is the effect on induced drag of weight and speed
changes ?
220) How will the density and temperature change in a A induced drag increases with decreasing speed and induced
supersonic flow from a position in front of a shock wave drag increases with increasing weight
to behind it ?
B induced drag decreases with increasing speed and induced
drag decreases with decreasing weight
A Density will decrease, temperature will increase.
C induced drag decreases with decreasing speed and induced
B Density will decrease, temperature will decrease. drag decreases with increasing weight
C Density will increase, temperature will increase. D induced drag increases with increasing speed and induced
drag increases with decreasing weight
D Density will increase, temperature will decrease.
253) "Tuck under" is:

221) An aeroplane, with a C.G. location behind the centre of
pressure of the wing can only maintain a straight and A the tendency to nose down when the control column is
level flight when the horizontal tail loading is: pulled back.
A zero. B the tendency to nose down when speed is increased into the
transonic flight regime.
B downwards.
C the tendency to nose up when speed is increased into the
C upwards or downwards depending on elevator deflection. transonic flight regime.
D D shaking of the control column at high Mach Number.

upwards.
222) The manoeuvrability of an aeroplane is best when the:
A flaps are down.
B C.G. is on the aft C.G. limit.
C speed is low.
D C.G. position is on the forward C.G. limit.
254) An aeroplane performs a straight and level horizontal 259) Which phenomenon is counteracted with differential
flight at the same angle of attack at two different aileron deflection?
altitudes. (all other factors of importance being
constant, assume ISA conditions and no compressibility A Adverse yaw.
effects)
B Aileron reversal.
A the TAS at the higher altitude is lower
C Sensitivity for spiral dive.
B the TAS at the higher altitude is higher
D Turn co-ordination.
C the TAS at both altitudes is the same
D the TAS at the higher altitude cannot be determined

260) During the extension of the flaps at a constant angle of
attack the aeroplane starts to (all other factors of
271) The unit of density is:
A climb.
A kg/cm²
B bank.
B Bar
C sink suddenly.
C kg/m³
D yaw.
D psi
261) For a fixed-pitch propeller designed for cruise, the angle

of attack of each blade, measured at the reference
256) Which of the following wing planforms produces the section:
lowest induced drag? (all other relevant factors
constant)
A is lower in ground run than in flight (with identical engine
RPM).
A Circular.
B is always positive during idling descent.
B Elliptical.
C is optimum when the aircraft is in a stabilized cruising flight.
C Rectangular.
D decreases when the aircraft speed decreases (with identical
D Tapered. engine RPM).
297) With increasing altitude and constant IAS the static 262) If the elevator trim tab is deflected up, the cockpit trim
lateral stability (1) and the dynamic lateral/directional indicator presents:
stability (2) of an aeroplane with swept-back wing will:
A nose-up.
A (1) decrease (2) decrease.
B nose-left.
B (1) decrease (2) increase.
C nose-down.
C (1) increase (2) decrease.
D neutral.
D (1) increase (2) increase.
263) Just above the critical Mach number the first evidence
258) An advantage of locating the engines at the rear of the of a shock wave will appear at the
fuselage, in comparison to a location beneath the wing,
is : A upper side of the wing.
A lighter wing construction. B lower side of the wing.
B less influence on longitudinal control of thrust changes. C leading edge of the wing.
C easier maintenance of the engines. D trailing edge of the wing.
D a wing which is less sensitive to flutter.
264) Slat extension will: 255) Which one of the following statements about the lift-to-
drag ratio in straight and level flight is correct?
A increase critical angle of attack. A The lift/drag ratio always increases as the lift decreases.
B reduce tip vortices. B The highest value of the lift/drag ratio is reached when the
lift is equal to the aircraft weight.
C create gaps between leading edge and engine nacelles.
C At the highest value of the lift/drag ratio the total drag is
D decrease the energy in the boundary layer on the upperside lowest.
of the wing.
D The highest value of the lift/drag ratio is reached when the
lift is zero.
265) The interference drag is created as a result of
338) In supersonic flight aerofoil pressure distribution is:

A the addition of induced and parasite drag.
B interaction between aeroplane parts (e.g. wing/fuselage). A rectangular.
C downwash behind the wing. B irregular.
D separation of the induced vortex. C triangular.
D the same as in subsonic flight.
266) Which of the following statements is true?
295) Where on the surface of a typical aerofoil will flow

A Through extension of the flaps in severe turbulence the separation normally start at high angles of attack?
centre of pressure will move aft which will increase the
margins to the structural limits A upper side leading edge.
B Limiting factors in severe turbulence are the possibility of a B lower side trailing edge.
stall and the margin to the structural limitations
C Through extension of the flaps in severe turbulence it is C lower side leading edge.
possible to reduce the speed and increase the margins to
the structural limits D upper side trailing edge.
D By increasing the flap setting in severe turbulence the stall

speed will be reduced and the risk for exceeding the
structural limits will be decreased 326) When the air is passing through an expansion wave the
local speed of sound will
A stay constant.
267) Which kind of boundary layer has the strongest change
in velocity close to the surface?
B decrease and beyond a certain Mach number start
increasing again.
A No difference
C decrease.
B Transition boundary layer
D increase.
C Turbulent boundary layer
D Laminar boundary layer

327) Which of the following statements about static lateral
and directional stability is correct?
268) Which of the following situations leads to a decreasing A Static directional stability can be increased by installing
stall speed (IAS)? more powerful engines.
A increasing load factor. B An aeroplane with an excessive static directional stability in

relation to its static lateral stability, will be prone to spiral
B decreasing weight. dive. (spiral instability)
C The effects of static lateral and static directional stability are

C increasing altitude. completely independent of each other because they take
place about different axis.
D increasing air density.
D An aeroplane with an excessive static directional stability in
relation to its static lateral stability, will be prone to "Dutch
roll".
328) If an aeroplane is accelerated from subsonic to 333) A body is placed in a certain airstream. The density of
supersonic speeds, the centre of pressure will move: the airstream decreases to half of the original value. The
aerodynamic drag will decrease with a factor :
A forward.
A 8.
B to a position near the leading edge.
B 1.4 .
C to a position near the trailing edge.
C 2.
D to the mid chord position.
D 4.
329) Increasing dynamic (kinetic) pressure will have the

following effect on the drag of an aeroplane (all other 334) When the air is passing through an expansion wave the
factors of importance remaining constant) : Mach number will
A This has no effect. A stay constant.
B The drag decreases. B decrease and beyond a certain Mach number start
increasing again.
C The drag is only affected by the ground speed.
C increase.
D The drag increases.
D decrease.
330) Which statement is correct about the gust load on an

aeroplane (IAS and all other factors of importance 335) The bow wave will appear first at:
remaining constant) ?
1. the gust load increases, when the weight decreases.

A M= Mcrit
2. the gust load increases, when the altitude increases. B M= 0.6
A 1 and 2 are incorrect. C M= 1.3
B 1 is incorrect and 2 is correct. D M= 1.0
C 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect.

324) If you increase the propeller pitch during a glide with
D 1 and 2 are correct. idle-power at constant IAS the lift to drag ratio will
A decrease and the rate of descent will decrease.

The high lift device shown in the figure below is a B decrease and the rate of descent will increase.
A Krueger flap C increase and the rate of descent will decrease.
B Fowler flap D increase and the rate of descent will increase.
C Slotted flap
337) An aeroplane with swept back wings is equipped with
D Slot or slat slats and/or leading edge (L.E.) flaps. One possible
efficient way to arrange the leading edge devices on the
wings is:
332) The most important problem of ice accretion on an
aeroplane during flight is:
A Wing roots: L.E. flaps
Wing tips: no devices
A reduction in CLmax. B Wing roots: L.E. flaps
Wing tips: slats
B increase in weight.
C Wing roots: slats
C increase in drag. Wing tips: L.E. flaps
D blocking of control surfaces. D Wing roots: slats

Wing tips: no devices
323) A body is placed in a certain airstream. The airstream 343) One advantage of a movable-stabilizer system
velocity increases by a factor 4. The aerodynamic drag compared with a fixed stabilizer system is that:
will increase with a factor :
A it leads to greater stability in flight
A 12 .
B the system's complexity is reduced
B 16 .
C it is a more powerful means of trimming
C 4.
D the structure weighs less
D 8.
344) A jet aeroplane equipped with inboard and outboard

339) In a two-dimensional flow pattern, where the streamlines ailerons is cruising at its normal cruise Mach number. In
converge the static pressure will : this case
A not change. A the inboard and outboard ailerons are active.
B increase initially, then decrease. B only the spoilers will be active, not the ailerons.
C decrease. C only the inboard ailerons are active.
D increase. D only the outboard aileron are active.
340) One method to compensate adverse yaw is a 345) The critical Mach number for an aerofoil equals the free
stream airfoil Mach number at which:
A balance tab. A sonic speed (M=1) is reached at a certain point on the upper
side of the aerofoil.
B antibalance tab.
B the maximum operating temperature is reached.
C balance panel.
C a shock-wave appears on the upper surface.
D differential aileron.
D a "supersonic bell" appears on the upper surface.

I When the critical engine fails during take-off the speed 346) Stick forces, provided by an elevator feel system,
VMCL can be limiting. depend on:
II The speed VMCL is always limited by maximum rudder
deflection. A stabilizer position, total pressure.
A I is incorrect, II is correct B elevator deflection, dynamic pressure.
B I is incorrect, II is incorrect C stabilizer position, static pressure.
C I is correct, II is correct D elevator deflection, static pressure.
D I is correct, II is incorrect
347) An aeroplane has a stall speed of 78 KCAS at its gross

weight of 6850 Ibs. What is the stall speed when the
342) When an aeroplane with the centre of gravity forward of weight is 5000 Ibs ?
the centre of pressure of the combined wing / fuselage
is in straight and level flight, the vertical load on the A 57 KCAS
tailplane will be:
B 67 KCAS
A zero because in steady flight all loads are in equilibrium.
B downwards because it is always negative regardless of the

C 91 KCAS
position of the centre of gravity.
D 78 KCAS
C downwards.
D upwards.
348) When the Mach number is slowly increased in straight 299) The Mach trim system will prevent:
and level flight the first shockwaves will occur:
A on the underside of the wing. A tuck under.
B somewhere on the fin. B dutch roll.
C somewhere on the hoizontal tail. C buffeting.
D at the wing root segment, upperside. D shock stall.
349) An aeroplane has a servo-tab controlled elevator. What 300) A slotted flap will increase the CLmax by:
will happen when only the elevator jams during flight ?
A decreasing the skin friction.
A Pitch control reverses direction.
B increasing only the camber of the aerofoil.
B Pitch control has been lost.
C increasing the critical angle of attack.
C The servo-tab now works as a negative trim-tab.
D increasing the camber of the aerofoil and improving the
D The pitch control forces double. boundary layer.
336) An engine failure can result in a windmilling (1) propeller 301) What will increase the sensitivity to Dutch Roll?
and a non rotating (2) propeller. Which statement about
propeller drag is correct?
A An increased static lateral stability.
A (1) is equal to (2).
B An increased static directional stability.
B (2) is larger than (1).
C A forward movement of the centre of gravity.
C impossible to say which one is largest.
D An increased anhedral.
D (1) is larger than (2).
302) When flaps are deployed at constant angle of attack the

311) Shock stall is: lift coefficient will:
A increase.
A separation of the flow at high angles of attack and at high
Mach Numbers. B decrease.
B separation of the flow at the trailing edge of the wing at high
Mach Numbers. C remain the same.
C separation of the boundary layer behind the shock wave. D vary as the square of IAS.
D separation of the flow behind the bow wave.

303) Which has the effect of increasing load factor ? (all other
relevant factors being constant)
298) Positive static stability of an aeroplane means that once
it has been displaced the : A Increased aeroplane mass
A tendency will be to move with an oscillating motion of B Increased air density

decreasing amplitude.
C Rearward CG location
B tendency will be to move with an oscillating motion of
increasing amplitude. D Vertical gusts
C initial tendency to move is towards its equilibrium position.
D initial tendency to move is away from its equilibrium position.
304) When the air is passing through an expansion wave the 325) The Mean Aerodynamic Chord (MAC) for a given wing of
static temperature will any planform is
A decrease and beyond a certain Mach number start A the chord of a large rectangular wing
increasing again.
B the average chord of the actual aeroplane
B decrease.
C the wing area divided by the wing span
C increase.
D the chord of a rectangular wing with same moment and lift
D stay constant.
310) Which type of stall has the largest associated angle of

305) The critical Mach number can be increased by attack?
A an increase in wing aspect ratio. A Accelerated stall.
B sweepback of the wings. B Low speed stall.
C positive dihedral of the wings. C Deep stall.
D a T-tail. D Shock stall.
306) If you decrease the propeller pitch during a glide with 216) A laminar boundary layer is a layer, in which:
idle-power at constant IAS the lift to drag ratio will
A no velocity components exist, normal to the surface.
A increase and the rate of descent will increase.
B the vortices are weak.
B decrease and the rate of descent will decrease.
C the velocity is constant.
C increase and the rate of descent will decrease.
D the temperature varies constantly.
D decrease and the rate of descent will increase.
312) Vortex generators on the upper side of the wing surface

307) If the nose of an aeroplane yaws to port (left), this will:
causes:
A increase the magnitude of the shock wave.
A a roll to starboard (right).
B decrease the intensity of shock wave induced air separation.
B a roll to port (left).
C increase the critical Mach Number.
C a decrease in relative airspeed on the starboard (right) wing.
D decrease the span wise flow at high Mach Numbers.
D an increase in lift on the port (left) wing.
313) Upon extension of a spoiler on a wing:

308) On an asymmetrical, single curve aerofoil, in subsonic
airflow, at low angle of attack, when the angle of attack
is increased, the centre of pressure will (assume a A CD is increased and CL is decreased.
conventional transport aeroplane) :
B only CL is decreased (CD remains unaffected).
A remain unaffected.
C both CL and CD are increased.
B move forward.
D CD is increased, while CL remains unaffected.
C move aft.
D remain matching the airfoil aerodynamic centre.
314) In the transonic range the aeroplane characteristics are 319) Should a transport aeroplane fly at a higher Mach
strongly determined by: number than the 'buffet-onset' Mach number?
A the IAS. A Yes, but only during approach.
B the CAS. B Yes, if you want to fly fast at very high altitudes.
C the Mach Number. C No, this is not acceptable
D the TAS. D Yes, this causes no problems.
315) On a swept wing aeroplane at low airspeed, the "pitch 320) Which of the following statements is correct ?
up" phenomenon: I When the critical engine fails during take-off the speed
VMCL can be limiting.
A is caused by boundary layer fences mounted on the wings. II The speed VMCL can be limited by the available
maximum roll rate
B is caused by wingtip stall.
A I is correct, II is incorrect
C never occurs, since a swept wing is a "remedy" to pitch up.
B I is incorrect, II is correct
D is caused by extension of trailing edge lift augmentation
devices. C I is correct, II is correct
D I is incorrect, II is incorrect
316) The unit of measurement of pressure is:
321) What will happen in ground effect ?

A lb/gal
B kg/dm² A a significant increase in thrust required
C psi B the induced angle of attack and induced drag decreases
D kg/m³ C the wing downwash on the tail surfaces increases
D an increase in strength of the wing tip vortices

317) Which of the following will reduce induced drag?
322) Mcrit is the free stream Mach Number at which:

A Extending the flaps.
B Elliptical lift distribution. A shockstall occurs.
C Low aspect ratio. B the critical angle of attack is reached.
D Flying at high angles of attack. C somewhere about the airframe Mach 1 is reached locally.
D Mach buffet occurs.

Which point in the diagram gives the lowest speed in
horizontal flight? 309) The extreme right limitation for both V-n (gust and
manoeuvre) diagrams is created by the speed:
A Point b
A VMO
B Point c
B VD
C Point d
C VC
D Point a
D Vflutter
Professione Volare Domande Navigation
Data:
Nome Allievo:
169) What is the time required to travel along the parallel of 172) The constant of the cone, on a Lambert chart where the
latitude 60° N between meridians 010° E and 030° W at a convergence angle between longitudes 010°E and 030°W
groundspeed of 480 kt? is 30°, is:
A 5 HR 00 MIN A 0.50
B 2 HR 30 MIN B 0.64
C 1 HR 15 MIN C 0.75
D 1 HR 45 MIN D 0.40
162) (For this question use annex 061-2326A to 061-2326D) 177) What is the final position after the following rhumb line
When it is 0600 Standard Time in Queensland (Australia) tracks and distances have been followed from position
the Standard Time in Hawaii (USA) is: 60°00'N 030°00'W?
South for 3600 NM,
A 1200 East for 3600 NM,
North for 3600 NM,
B 0200 West for 3600 NM.
The final position of the aircraft is:
C 0600
A 59°00'N 090°00'W
D 1000
B 60°00'N 090°00'W
C 60°00'N 030°00'E
175) A line drawn on a chart which joins all points where the
value of magnetic variation is zero is called an: D 59°00'N 060°00'W
A isotach
B agonic line 170) An aircraft at latitude 10°North flies south at a

groundspeed of 445 km/HR.
What will be its latitude after 3 HR?
C aclinic line
A 03°50'S
D isogonal
B 02°00'S
174) Given: C 12°15'S

Airport elevation is 1000 ft.
QNH is 988 hPa. D 22°00'S
What is the approximate airport pressure altitude?
(Assume 1 hPa = 27 FT)
A 1680 FT 178) (For this question refer to annex 061-12608A)

What feature is shown on the chart at position N5417
B 320 FT W01005?
C 680 FT
A Belmullet aerodrome
D - 320 FT
B Carnmore aerodrome
C Clonbullogue aerodrome
173) (For this question refer to annex 061-12618A) D EAGLE ISLAND LT.H. NDB
Which of the aeronautical chart symbols indicates a
basic, non-specified, navigation aid?
A 3
B 5
C 6
D 2
168) Given: 164) Given:
Distance 'A' to 'B' 2484 NM TAS = 465 kt,
Groundspeed 'out' 420 kt Track (T) = 007°,
Groundspeed 'back' 500 kt W/V = 300/80kt.
The time from 'A' to the Point of Equal Time (PET) Calculate the HDG (°T) and GS?
between 'A' and 'B' is:
A 357 - 430 kt
A 193 MIN
B 358 - 428 kt
B 163 MIN
C 001 - 432 kt
C 173 MIN
D 000 - 430 kt
D 183 MIN

167) An island is observed to be 15° to the left. Given:
The aircraft heading is 120°(M), variation 17°(W). SHA VOR N5243.3 W00853.1
The bearing °(T) from the aircraft to the island is: CON VOR N5354.8 W00849.1
Aircraft position N5320 W00950
A 302 Which of the following lists two radials that are
applicable to the aircraft position?
B 088
A SHA 325°
CON 235°
C 122
B SHA 137°
D 268 CON 046°
C SHA 317°
166) Which of the following statements concerning earth CON 226°
magnetism is completely correct?
D SHA 145°
CON 055°
A An isogonal is a line which connects places with the same
magnetic variation; the agonic line is the line of zero
magnetic dip
171) The distance between positions A and B is 180 NM. An
B An isogonal is a line which connects places of equal dip; the aircraft departs position A and after having travelled 60
aclinic is the line of zero magnetic dip NM, its position is pinpointed 4 NM left of the intended
track. Assuming no change in wind velocity, what
C An isogonal is a line which connects places with the same alteration of heading must be made in order to arrive at
magnetic variation; the aclinic connects places with the position B?
same magnetic field strength
A 2° Left
D An isogonal is a line which connects places with the same
magnetic variation; the aclinic is the line of zero magnetic dip B 4° Right
C 6° Right
165) The rhumb line track between position A (45°00'N,
010°00'W) and position B (48°30'N, 015°00'W) is D 8° Right
approximately:
A 300
185) (For this question refer to annex 061-12609A)
B 345 Which of the following lists all the aeronautical chart
symbols shown at position N5150.4 W00829.7?
C 315
A VOR: DME: NDB:compulsory reporting point
D 330
B VOR: DME: NDB: ILS
C civil airport: VOR: DME: compulsory reporting point
D civil airport: VOR: non-compulsory reporting point
231) A Lambert conformal conic chart has a constant of the 188) Given:
cone of 0.75. M 0.80,
The initial course of a straight line track drawn on this OAT -50°C,
chart from A (40°N 050°W) to B is 043°(T) at A; course at FL 330,
B is 055°(T). GS 490 kt,
What is the longitude of B? VAR 20°W,
Magnetic heading 140°,
A 36°W Drift is 11° Right.
Calculate the true W/V?
B 38°W
A 025°/45 kt
C 41°W
B 020°/95 kt
D 34°W
C 025°/47 kt
D 200°/95 kt
191) Given:
true track 352°
variation 11° W
deviation is -5° 176) Given:
drift 10°R. Distance A to B is 360 NM.
Calculate the compass heading? Wind component A - B is -15 kt,
Wind component B - A is +15 kt,
A 346° TAS is 180 kt.
What is the distance from the equal-time-point to B?
B 018°
A 180 NM
C 025°
B 170 NM
D 358°
C 165 NM
D 195 NM
190) An aircraft departs from position A (04°10' S 178°22'W)
and flies northward following the meridian for 2950 NM.
It then flies westward along the parallel of latitude for
382 NM to position B. 186) Given:
The coordinates of position B are? TAS = 155 kt,
Track (T) = 305°,
A 53°20'N 169°22W W/V = 160/18kt.
Calculate the HDG (°T) and GS?
B 45°00'N 169°22W
A 305 - 169 kt
C 53°20'N 172°38'E
B 309 - 170 kt
D 45°00'N 172°38'E
C 309 - 141 kt
D 301 - 169 kt
189) On a chart, the distance along a meridian between
latitudes 45°N and 46°N is 6 cm. The scale of the chart is
approximately:
A 1 : 1 850 000 What feature is shown on the chart at position N5211
W00931?
B 1 : 1 000 000
A Punchestown aerodrome
C 1 : 185 000
B KERRY/Farranfore aerodrome
D 1 : 18 500 000
C Waterford NDB
D Connemara aerodrome
184) The distance between two waypoints is 200 NM, 179) A flight is to be made from 'A' 49°S 180°E/W to 'B' 58°S,
To calculate compass heading, the pilot used 2°E 180°E/W.
magnetic variation instead of 2°W. The distance in kilometres from 'A' to 'B' is
Assuming that the forecast W/V applied, what will the off approximately:
track distance be at the second waypoint?
A 804
A 21 NM
B 1000
B 14 NM
C 1222
C 7 NM
D 540
D 0 NM
187) Given:
183) (For this question use annex 061-9437A) TAS = 485 kt,
Complete line 1 of the 'FLIGHT NAVIGATION LOG'; True HDG = 226°,
positions 'A' to 'B'. W/V = 110°(T)/95kt.
What is the HDG°(M) and ETA? Calculate the drift angle and GS?
A 282° - 1128 UTC A 9°R - 533 kt
B 282° - 1114 UTC B 7°R - 531 kt
C 268° - 1128 UTC C 9°R - 433 kt
D 268° - 1114 UTC D 8°L - 435 kt
182) An aircraft departing A(N40º 00´ E080º 00´) flies a 137) Given :
constant true track of 270º at a ground speed of 120 kt. ETA to cross a meridian is 2100 UTC
What are the coordinates of the position reached in 6 GS is 441 kt
HR? TAS is 491 kt
At 2010 UTC, ATC requests a speed reduction to cross
A N40º 00´ E060º 00´ the meridian at 2105 UTC.
The reduction to TAS will be approximately:
B N40º 00´ E068º 10´
A 75 kt
C N40º 00´ E064º 20´
B 60 kt
D N40º 00´ E070º 30´
C 40 kt
D 90 kt
181) On which of the following chart projections is it NOT
possible to represent the north or south poles?
A Transverse Mercator 163) On a Lambert conformal conic chart, with two standard
parallels, the quoted scale is correct:
B Polar stereographic
A along the parallel of origin
C Direct Mercator
B along the prime meridian
D Lambert's conformal
C along the two standard parallels
D in the area between the standard parallels

180) Which of the following correctly lists the order of
available selections of the Mode Selector switches of an
inertial reference system (IRS) mode panel?
A OFF - ALIGN - ATT - NAV
B OFF - ALIGN - NAV - ATT
C OFF - ON - ALIGN - NAV
D OFF - STBY - ALIGN - NAV
143) The angle between the plane of the ecliptic and the 145) Given:
plane of equator is approximately : Distance 'A' to 'B' 2484 NM
Mean groundspeed 'out' 420 kt
A 27.5° Mean groundspeed 'back' 500 kt
Safe endurance 08 HR 30 MIN
B 66.5° The distance from 'A' to the Point of Safe Return (PSR)
'A' is:
C 23.5°
A 1736 NM
D 25.3°
B 1630 NM
C 1940 NM
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a group of D 1908 NM
lighted obstacles?
A 12
138) The ICAO definition of ETA is the:
B 9
A estimated time of arrival at destination
C 10
B actual time of arrival at a point or fix
D 11
C estimated time of arrival at an en-route point or fix
141) Given: D estimated time en route

TAS = 200 kt,
Track (T) = 073°,
W/V = 210/20kt.
Calculate the HDG (°T) and GS? 146) Given:
Position A 45°N, ?°E
Position B 45°N, 45°15'E
A 079 - 211 kt
Distance A-B = 280 NM
B is to the East of A
B 075 - 213 kt Required: longitude of position A?
C 077 - 210 kt A 49°57'E
D 077 - 214 kt B 51°51'E
C 40°33'E
140) Given:
An aircraft is on final approach to runway 32R (322°); D 38°39'E
The wind velocity reported by the tower is 350°/20 kt.;
TAS on approach is 95 kt.
In order to maintain the centre line, the aircraft's
heading (°M) should be : 136) At the magnetic equator, when accelerating after take off
on heading West, a direct reading compass :
A 328°
A underreads the heading
B 322°
B indicates a turn to the south
C 316°
C indicates the correct heading
D 326°
D overreads the heading
135) Given: GS = 480 kt. 131) Given:
Distance from A to B = 5360 NM. Magnetic track = 075°,
What is the time from A to B? HDG = 066°(M),
VAR = 11°E,
A 11 HR 15 MIN TAS = 275 kt
Aircraft flies 48 NM in 10 MIN.
B 11 HR 10 MIN Calculate the true W/V °?
C 11 HR 06 MIN
A 340°/45 kt
D 11 HR 07 MIN
B 320°/50 kt
C 210°/15 kt
134) Given: D 180°/45 kt

True track 180°
Drift 8°R
Compass heading 195°
Deviation -2° 139) (For this question refer to annex 061-12624A)
Calculate the variation? Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates an
uncontrolled route?
A 21°W
A 3
B 25°W
B 4
C 5°W
C 5
D 9°W
D 2
133) In which of the following situations is the FMC present

position of a B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument 153) With reference to inertial navigation systems, a TAS
System likely to be least accurate? input is:
A On final approach A required for Polar navigation
B Just after take-off B required for rhumb line navigation
C At top of climb C required to provide a W/V read out
D At top of descent D not required
132) (For this question refer to annex 061-12626A) 160) (For this question use annex 061-12564A)
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a non- What is the average track (°M) and distance between
compulsory reporting point? WTD NDB (N5211.3 W00705.0) and KER NDB (N5210.9
W00931.5)?
A 15
A 098° - 90 NM
B 6
B 278° - 90 NM
C 7
C 090° - 91 NM
D 8
D 270° - 89 NM
159) Given: 144) As the INS position of the departure aerodrome,
TAS = 250 kt, coordinates 35°32.7'N 139°46.3'W are input instead of
HDG (T) = 029°, 35°32.7'N 139°46.3'E. When the aircraft subsequently
W/V = 035/45kt. passes point 52°N 180°W, the longitude value shown on
Calculate the drift and GS? the INS will be:
A 1L - 205 kt A 080° 27.4'W
B 1R - 205 kt B 099° 32.6'W
C 1L - 265 kt C 099° 32.6'E
D 1R - 295 kt D 080° 27.4'E
158) Complete the following statement regarding magnetic 154) Given:

variation. TAS = 170 kt,
The charted values of magnetic variation on earth HDG(T) = 100°,
normally change annually due to: W/V = 350/30kt.
Calculate the Track (°T) and GS?
A magnetic pole movement causing numerical values at all
locations to increase or decrease A 091 - 183 kt
B magnetic pole movement causing numerical values at all B 103 - 178 kt

locations to increase.
C a reducing field strength causing numerical values at all C 098 - 178 kt

locations to decrease.
D 109 - 182 kt
D an increasing field strength causing numerical values at all
locations to increase.
194) When decelerating on a westerly heading in the
Northern hemisphere, the compass card of a direct
157) Given: reading magnetic compass will turn :
Runway direction 230°(T),
Surface W/V 280°(T)/40 kt. A anti-clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the north
Calculate the effective cross-wind component?
B clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the south
A 26 kt
C anti-clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the south
B 31 kt
D clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the north
C 36 kt
D 21 kt
Given:
CON VOR/DME (N5354.8 W00849.1)
156) An aircraft is planned to fly from position 'A' to position Castlebar aerodrome (N5351 W00917)
'B',distance What is the CON radial and DME distance when
320 NM, at an average GS of 180 kt. It departs 'A' at 1200 overhead Castlebar aerodrome?
UTC.
After flying 70 NM along track from 'A', the aircraft is 3 A 086° - 18 NM
MIN ahead of planned time.
Using the actual GS experienced, what is the revised B 265° - 17 NM
ETA at 'B'?
A 1333 UTC C 077° - 18 NM
B 1401 UTC
D 257° - 17 NM
C 1347 UTC
D 1340 UTC
151) What is the source of magnetic variation information in 147) (For this question use annex 061-12561A)
a Flight Management System (FMS)? What is the radial and DME distance from BEL VOR/DME
(N5439.7 W00613.8) to position N5410 W00710?
A Magnetic variation information is stored in each IRS
memory; it is applied to the true heading calculated by the A 333° - 36 NM
respective IRS
B 236° - 44 NM
B The main directional gyro which is coupled to the magnetic
sensor (flux valve) positioned in the wingtip
C 223° - 36 NM
C The FMS calculates MH and MT from the FMC position
D 320° - 44 NM
D Magnetic variation is calculated by each IRS based on the
respective IRS position and the aircraft magnetic heading
155) An aircraft is maintaining a 5.2% gradient is at 7 NM from
the runway, on a flat terrain; its height is approximately:
150) Given:
True HDG = 035°, A 3640 FT
TAS = 245 kt,
Track (T) = 046°, B 2210 FT
GS = 220 kt.
Calculate the W/V? C 680 FT
A 340/45kt D 1890 FT
B 340/50kt
207) An aircraft was over 'Q' at 1320 hours flying direct to 'R'.
C 335/45kt
Given:
Distance 'Q' to 'R' 3016 NM
D 335/55kt True airspeed 480 kt
Mean wind component 'out' -90 kt
Mean wind component 'back' +75 kt
149) A ground feature appears 30° to the left of the centre line Safe endurance 10:00 HR
of the CRT of an airborne weather radar. If the heading The distance from 'Q' to the Point of Safe Return (PSR)
of the aircraft is 355° (M) and the magnetic variation is 'Q' is:
15° East, the true bearing of the aircraft from the feature
is: A 2370 NM
A 310° B 1310 NM
B 130° C 1510 NM
C 160° D 2290 NM
D 220°
What is the radial and DME distance from SHA
148) The constant of cone of a Lambert conformal conic VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1) to position N5220
chart is quoted as 0.3955. W00810?
At what latitude on the chart is earth convergency
correctly represented? A 129° - 46 NM
A 66°42' B 132° - 36 NM
B 68°25' C 212° - 26 NM
C 21°35' D 139° - 35 NM
D 23°18'
213) Route 'A' (44°N 026°E) to 'B' (46°N 024°E) forms an angle 215) (For this question use annex 061-12579A)
of 35° with longitude 026°E. Average magnetic variation Given:
between 'A' and 'B' is 3°E. SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) radial 223°,
What is the average magnetic course from 'A' to 'B'? CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) radial 322°.
What is the aircraft position?
A 328°
A N5220 W00920
B 032°
B N5230 W00910
C 038°
C N5210 W00910
D 322°
D N5210 W00930
212) Given: Waypoint 1. 60°S 030°W

Waypoint 2. 60°S 020°W 208) (For this question use annex 061-12592A)
What will be the approximate latitude shown on the Given:
display unit of an inertial navigation system at longitude SHA VOR N5243.3 W00853.1
025°W? CON VOR N5354.8 W00849.1
A 060°00'S Which of the following lists two radials that are
B 060°06'S
A SHA 042°
CON 138°
C 060°11'S
B SHA 213°
D 059°49'S CON 310°
C SHA 033°
211) An aircraft at FL290 is required to commence descent CON 130°
when 50 NM from a VOR and to cross that VOR at FL80.
Mean GS during descent is 271kt. D SHA 221°
What is the minimum rate of descent required? CON 318°
A 1900 FT/MIN
B 2000 FT/MIN Which of the aeronautical chart symbols indicates an
NDB?
C 1700 FT/MIN
A 4
D 1800 FT/MIN
B 6
C 2
210) Given:
Maximum allowable tailwind component for landing 10 D 3
kt.
Planned runway 05 (047° magnetic).
The direction of the surface wind reported by ATIS 210°.
Variation is 17°E. 206) Given: GS = 135 kt.
Calculate the maximum allowable windspeed that can Distance from A to B = 433 NM.
be accepted without exceeding the tailwind limit? What is the time from A to B?
A 8 kt A 3 HR 12 MIN
B 15 kt B 3 HR 25 MIN
C 11 kt C 3 HR 19 MIN
D 18 kt D 3 HR 20 MIN
205) (For this question use annex 061-12568A) 209) When accelerating on a westerly heading in the northern
What is the average track (°M) and distance between hemisphere, the compass card of a direct reading
KER NDB (N5210.9 W00931.5) and CRN NDB (N5318.1 magnetic compass will turn:
W00856.5)?
A anti-clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the north
A 197° - 71 NM
B anti-clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the south
B 205° - 71 NM
C clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the north
C 017° - 70 NM
D clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the south
D 025° - 70 NM
223) Given: GS = 435 kt.

204) The rhumb-line distance between points A (60°00'N Distance from A to B = 1920 NM.
002°30'E) and B (60°00'N 007°30'W) is: What is the time from A to B?
A 150 NM A 4 HR 10 MIN
B 300 NM B 4 HR 25 MIN
C 450 NM C 3 HR 25 MIN
D 600 NM D 3 HR 26 MIN
203) The north and south magnetic poles are the only 1) Given:
positions on the earth's surface where: true track 070°
variation 30°W
A a freely suspended compass needle will stand vertical deviation +1°
drift 10°R
B isogonals converge Calculate the compass heading?
C a freely suspended compass needle will stand horizontal

A 100°
D the value of magnetic variation equals 90°

B 101°
C 089°
202) The resultant of the first integration from the D 091°

north/south accelerometer of an inertial navigation
system (INS) in the NAV MODE is:
A velocity along the local meridian 229) Given:

B groundspeed Groundspeed 'out' 435 kt
Groundspeed 'back' 385 kt
The time from 'Q' to the Point of Equal Time (PET)
C change latitude
between 'Q' and 'R' is:
D latitude A 102 MIN
B 114 MIN
What is the radial and DME distance from CRK C 110 MIN
VOR/DME (N5150.4 W00829.7) to position N5140
W00730? D 106 MIN
A 293° - 39 NM
B 106° - 38 NM
C 113° - 38 NM
D 104° - 76 NM
228) The sensors of an INS measure: 199) The reported surface wind from the Control Tower is
240°/35 kt. Runway 30 (300°).
What is the cross-wind component?
A precession
A 21 kt
B acceleration
B 30 kt
C velocity
C 24 kt
D the horizontal component of the earth's rotation
D 27 kt

Which of the aeronautical chart symbols indicates a 222) When is the magnetic compass most effective?
VOR/DME?
A 2 A In the region of the magnetic South Pole.
B 6 B In the region of the magnetic North Pole.
C 7 C On the geographic equator
D 1 D About midway between the magnetic poles
226) Given: 221) On a Direct Mercator, rhumb lines are:

TAS = 485 kt,
OAT = ISA +10°C,
FL 410. A curves convex to the equator
Calculate the Mach Number?
B straight lines
A 0.90
C curves concave to the equator
B 0.85
D ellipses
C 0.87
D 0.825 220) (For this question use annex 061-12584A)

Given:
SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1) radial 120°/35 NM.
214) Parallels of latitude on a Direct Mercator chart are : What is the aircraft position?
A N5225 W00805
A straight lines converging above the pole
B N5250 W00950
B parallel straight lines unequally spaced
C N5230 W00800
C parallel straight lines equally spaced
D N5300 W00945
D arcs of concentric circles equally spaced
219) Given:
224) (For this question use annex 061-12587A) True course 300°
Given: drift 8°R
SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1) radial 025°/49 NM. variation 10°W
What is the aircraft position? deviation -4°
Calculate the compass heading?
A N5155 W00915
A 322°
B N5200 W0925
B 294°
C N5330 W00830
C 278°
D N5328 W00820
D 306°
218) The convergence factor of a Lambert conformal conic 201) (For this question use annex 061-12583A)
chart is quoted as 0.78535. Given:
At what latitude on the chart is earth convergency SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) radial 143°,
correctly represented? CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) radial 050°.
A 52°05'
A N5155 W00810
B 80°39'
B N5205 W00805
C 38°15'
C N5200 W00800
D 51°45'
D N5210 W00800
217) The value of magnetic variation:

Given:
A varies between a maximum of 45° East and 45° West SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1)
Birr aerodrome (N5304 W00754)
B cannot exceed 90° What is the SHA radial and DME distance when
overhead Birr aerodrome?
C has a maximum of 180°
A 240° - 41 NM
D must be 0° at the magnetic equator
B 068° - 41 NM
225) Which of the following statements concerning the C 248° - 42 NM

position indicated on the Inertial Reference System (IRS)
display is correct? D 060° - 42 Nm
A The positions from the two IRSs are compared to obtain a

'best position' which is displayed on the IRS 454) Given:
Pressure Altitude 29000 FT,
B It is not updated once the IRS mode is set to NAV OAT -55°C.
Calculate the Density Altitude?
C It is constantly updated from information obtained by the
FMC A 27500 FT
D It is updated when 'go-around' is selected on take-off B 31000 FT
C 33500 FT
449) Given :
A is N55° 000° D 26000 FT
B is N54° E010°
The average true course of the great circle is 100°.
The true course of the rhumbline at point A is:
453) Given:
A 107° Direct Mercator chart with a scale of 1 : 200 000 at
equator;
B 100° Chart length from 'A' to 'B', in the vicinity of the equator,
11 cm.
What is the approximate distance from 'A' to 'B'?
C 096°
A 21 NM
D 104°
B 22 NM
C 14 NM
D 12 NM
452) (For this question use annex 061-12565A) 448) (For this question refer to annex 061-12637A)
What is the average track (°M) and distance between Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates an
CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) and CRN NDB (N5318.1 aeronautical ground light?
W00856.5)?
A 15
A 349° - 90 NM
B 16
B 177° - 92 NM
C 10
C 357° - 89 NM
D 14
D 169° - 91 NM

457) On a Direct Mercator chart, meridians are: Complete line 4 of the 'FLIGHT NAVIGATION LOG',
positions 'G' to 'H'.
What is the HDG°(M) and ETA?
A inclined, equally spaced, straight lines that meet at the
nearer pole A HDG 354° - ETA 1326 UTC
B parallel, unequally spaced, vertical straight lines
B HDG 034° - ETA 1336 UTC
C inclined, unequally spaced, curved lines that meet at the

nearer pole C HDG 344° - ETA 1303 UTC
D parallel, equally spaced, vertical straight lines D HDG 344° - ETA 1336 UTC

Compass Heading 090°, Distance 'A' to 'B' 3623 NM
Deviation 2°W, Groundspeed 'out' 370 kt
Variation 12°E, Groundspeed 'back' 300 kt
TAS 160 kt. The time from 'A' to the Point of Equal Time (PET)
Whilst maintaining a radial 070° from a VOR station, between 'A' and 'B' is:
the aircraft flies a ground distance of 14 NM in 6 MIN.
What is the W/V °(T)? A 238 MIN
A 160°/50 kt B 263 MIN
B 340°/25 kt C 288 MIN
C 340°/98 kt D 323 MIN
D 155°/25 kt
458) A Rhumb line is : W00637?
A Clonbullogue aerodrome
A any straight line on a Lambert projection
B Punchestown aerodrome
B a line convex to the nearest pole on a Mercator projection
C Connemara aerodrome
C a line on the surface of the earth cutting all meridians at the
same angle D KERRY/Farranfore aerodrome
D the shortest distance between two points on a Polyconic
projection
444) (For this question use annex 061-12595A) 198) Given: GS = 345 kt.
Given: Distance from A to B = 3560 NM.
SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) DME 41 NM, What is the time from A to B?
CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) DME 30 NM,
Aircraft heading 270°(M), A 11 HR 02 MIN
Both DME distances decreasing.
What is the aircraft position? B 10 HR 19 MIN
A N5205 W00915
C 10 HR 05 MIN
B N5215 W00915
D 11 HR 00 MIN
C N5225 W00810
D N5215 W00805 197) For a landing on runway 23 (227° magnetic) surface

W/V reported by the ATIS is 180/30kt.
VAR is 13°E.
Calculate the cross wind component?
What is the radial and DME distance from CON A 15 kt
W00900? B 20 kt
A 358° - 36 NM
C 22 kt
B 214° - 26 NM
D 26 kt
C 049° - 45 NM
D 169° - 35 NM 196) (For this question use annex 061-12403A)

An aircraft on radial 315° at a range of 150 NM from
MYGGENES NDB (N6206 W00732) is at position:
451) A ground feature was observed on a relative bearing of A N6345 W01125

315° and 3 MIN later on a relative bearing of 270°.
The W/V is calm; aircraft GS 180 kt. B N6040 W00320
What is the minimum distance between the aircraft and
the ground feature?
C N6320 W01205
A 6 NM
D N6020 W00405
B 9 NM
C 12 NM 469) Fuel flow per HR is 22 US-GAL, total fuel on board is 83

IMP GAL.
D 3 NM What is the endurance?
A 2 HR 15 MIN
465) Given: B 4 HR 32 MIN

True heading = 310°
TAS = 200 kt
GS = 176 kt C 3 HR 12 MIN
Drift angle 7° right.
Calculate the W/V? D 3 HR 53 MIN
A 180° / 33 kt
468) A ground feature was observed on a relative bearing of
B 270° / 33 kt 325° and five minutes later on a relative bearing of 280°.
The aircraft heading was 165°(M), variation 25°W, drift
C 360° / 33 kt 10°Right and GS 360 kt. When the relative bearing was
280°, the distance and true bearing of the aircraft from
D 090° / 33 kt the feature was:
A 40 NM and 290°
B 30 NM and 060°
C 30 NM and 240°
D 40 NM and 110°
456) (For this question use annex 061-9441A) 462) In northern hemisphere, during an acceleration in an
Complete line 5 of the 'FLIGHT NAVIGATION LOG', easterly direction, the magnetic compass will indicate:
positions 'J' to 'K'.
What is the HDG°(M) and ETA? A a decrease in heading
A HDG 337° - ETA 1422 UTC B an increase in heading
B HDG 320° - ETA 1412 UTC C an apparent turn to the South
C HDG 337° - ETA 1322 UTC D a heading of East
D HDG 320° - ETA 1432 UTC

What is the average track (°T) and distance between
466) An aircraft at FL370, M0.86, OAT -44°C, headwind WTD NDB (N5211.3 W00705.0) and SLG NDB (N5416.7
component 110 kt, is required to reduce speed in order W00836.0)?
to cross a reporting point 5 MIN later than planned.
If the speed reduction were to be made 420 NM from the A 156° - 136 NM
reporting point, what Mach Number is required?
B 164° - 138 NM
A M0.79
C 336° - 137 NM
B M0.81
D 344° - 139 NM
C M0.73
D M0.75
460) Which of the following statements concerning the
operation of an Inertial Navigation System (INS)/Inertial
Reference System (IRS) is correct?
128) Isogrives are lines that connect positions that have:
A NAV mode must be selected on the runway just prior to
take-off
A the same horizontal magnetic field strength
B NAV mode must be selected prior to the loading of
B the same variation passengers and/or freight
C O° magnetic dip C NAV mode must be selected when the alignment procedure
is commenced
D the same grivation
D NAV mode must be selected prior to movement of the
aircraft off the gate
464) Given: GS = 95 kt.

Distance from A to B = 480 NM. 459) (For this question use annex 061-12589A)
What is the time from A to B? Given:
SHA VOR N5243.3 W00853.1
A 5 HR 03 MIN CRK VOR N5150.4 W00829.7
B 4 HR 59 MIN Which of the following lists two radials that are
C 5 HR 00 MIN
A SHA 212°
D 5 HR 08 MIN CRK 328°
B SHA 025°
CRK 141°
Given: C SHA 205°
SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) radial 129°, CRK 321°
CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) radial 047°.
What is the aircraft position? D SHA 033°
CRK 149°
A N5210 W00750
B N5205 W00755
C N5220 W00750
D N5215 W00755
467) An aircraft at FL370 is required to commence descent at 45) Given:
120 NM from a VOR and to cross the facility at FL130. If True HDG = 133°,
the mean GS for the descent is 288 kt, the minimum rate TAS = 225 kt,
of descent required is: Track (T) = 144°,
GS = 206 kt.
A 920 FT/MIN Calculate the W/V?
B 960 FT/MIN A 075/50kt
C 860 FT/MIN B 075/45kt
D 890 FT/MIN C 070/40kt
D 070/45kt
W00917? 44) Which one of the following is an advantage of a remote
reading compass as compared with a standby compass?
A Brittas Bay aerodrome
A It senses the magnetic meridian instead of seeking it,
B Castlebar aerodrome increasing compass sensitivity
B It is lighter than a direct reading compass because it

C Connaught aerodrome
employs, apart from the detector unit, existing aircraft
equipment
D Connemara aerodrome
C It eliminates the effect of turning and acceleration errors by
pendulously suspending the detector unit
33) Given:
Distance 'A' to 'B' is 100 NM, D It is more reliable because it is operated electrically and
Fix obtained 40 NM along and 6 NM to the left of course. power is always available from sources within the aircraft
What heading alteration must be made to reach 'B'?
A 9° Right 43) For a given track the:

Wind component = +45 kt
B 6° Right Drift angle = 15° left
TAS = 240 kt
What is the wind component on the reverse track?
C 18° Right
A -55 kt
D 15° Right
B -45 kt
46) The direct reading magnetic compass is made aperiodic C -35 kt

(dead beat) by:
D -65 kt
A using the lowest acceptable viscosity compass liquid
B using long magnets

48) An island appears 30° to the left of the centre line on an
airborne weather radar display. What is the true bearing
C pendulous suspension of the magnetic assembly
of the aircraft from the island if at the time of
observation the aircraft was on a magnetic heading (MH)
D keeping the magnetic assembly mass close to the compass of 020° with the magnetic variation (VAR) 25°W?
point and by using damping wires
A 145°
B 195°
C 205°
D 325°
41) The two standard parallels of a conical Lambert 37) Which of the following statements concerning the loss
projection are at N10°40'N and N41°20'. of alignment by an Inertial Reference System (IRS) in
The cone constant of this chart is approximatively : flight is correct?
A 0.66 A The IRS has to be coupled to the remaining serviceable

system and a realignment carried out in flight
B 0.18
B The mode selector has to be rotated to ATT then back
through ALIGN to NAV in order to obtain an in-flight
C 0.44
realignment
D 0.90 C It is not usable in any mode and must be shut down for the
rest of the flight
49) (For this question use annex 061-1818A) D The navigation mode, including present position and ground
Assume a North polar stereographic chart whose grid is speed outputs, is inoperative for the remainder of the flight
aligned with the Greenwich meridian.
An aircraft flies from the geographic North pole for a
distance 36) The platform of an inertial navigation system (INS) is
of 480 NM along the 110°E meridian, then follows a grid maintained at right angles to the local vertical by
track applying corrections for the effects of:
of 154° for a distance of 300 NM.
Its position is now approximately: A aircraft manoeuvres, earth rotation, transport wander and
coriolis
A 70°15'N 080°E
B gyroscopic inertia, earth rotation and real drift
B 80°00'N 080°E
C vertical velocities, earth precession, centrifugal forces and
C 78°45'N 087°E transport drift
D 79°15'N 074°E
D movement in the yawing plane, secondary precession and
pendulous oscillation
39) Given: GS = 105 kt. 35) Assuming zero wind, what distance will be covered by
Distance from A to B = 103 NM. an aircraft descending 15000 FT with a TAS of 320 kt and
What is the time from A to B? maintaining a rate of descent of 3000 FT/MIN?
A 00 HR 57 MIN A 38.4 NM
B 00 HR 58 MIN B 16.0 NM
C 01 HR 01 MIN C 26.7 NM
D 00 HR 59 MIN D 19.2 NM
38) Given: 130) The purpose of compass check swing is to:

TAS = 235 kt,
HDG (T) = 076°
W/V = 040/40kt. A measure the angle between Magnetic North and Compass
Calculate the drift angle and GS? North
A 5R - 207 kt B cancel out the vertical component of the earth's magnetic

field
B 7R - 204 kt
C cancel out the horizontal component of the earth's magnetic
field
C 7L - 269 kt
D cancel out the effects of the magnetic fields found on board
D 5L - 255 kt the aeroplane
42) During a low level flight 2 parallel roads that are crossed 60) Given:
at right angles by an aircraft. The time between these True HDG = 145°,
roads can be used to check the aircraft: TAS = 240 kt,
Track (T) = 150°,
A position GS = 210 kt.
Calculate the W/V?
B track
A 295/35kt
C drift
B 115/35kt
D groundspeed
C 360/35kt
D 180/35kt
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates the boundary
of advisory airspace?
A 5 What is the radial and DME distance from SHA
B 2 W00830?
C 3
A 070° - 58 NM
D 4
B 207° - 31 NM
C 019° - 31 NM
63) (For this question refer to annex 061-12619A) D 035° - 30 NM

TACAN?
A 2 47) (For this question use annex 061-12560A)

What is the radial and DME distance from CON
B 6 VOR/DME (N5354.8 W00849.1) to position N5330
W00930?
C 7
A 165° - 27 NM
D 1
B 335° - 43 NM
C 025° - 38 NM
62) Given:
TAS = 227 kt, D 233° - 35 NM
Track (T) = 316°,
W/V = 205/15kt.
57) One of the errors inherent in a ring laser gyroscope
A 313 - 235 kt occurs at low input rotation rates tending towards zero
when a phenomenon known as 'lock-in' is experienced.
B 310 - 233 kt What is the name of the technique, effected by means of
a piezo-electric motor, that is used to correct this error?
C 312 - 232 kt
A dither
D 311 - 230 kt
B cavity rotation
C zero drop
61) What is the chart distance between longitudes 179°E
and 175°W on a direct Mercator chart with a scale of 1 : D beam lock
5 000 000 at the equator?
A 106 mm
B 167 mm
C 72 mm
D 133 mm
32) Double integration of the output from the east/west 52) (For this question refer to annex 061-12603A)
accelerometer of an inertial navigation system (INS) in Given:
the NAV MODE give: CON VOR/DME (N5354.8 W00849.1)
Abbey Shrule aerodrome (N5335 W00739)
A vehicle longitude What is the CON radial and DME distance when
overhead Abbey Shrule aerodrome?
B distance north/south
A 296° - 46 NM
C velocity east/west
B 304° - 47 NM
D distance east/west
C 124° - 46 NM
D 116° - 47 NM
Complete line 3 of the 'FLIGHT NAVIGATION LOG',
positions 'E' to 'F'.
What is the HDG°(M) and ETA? 51) An Oblique Mercator projection is used specifically to
produce:
A HDG 106° - ETA 1215 UTC
A charts of the great circle route between two points
B radio navigational charts in equatorial regions
C HDG 105° - ETA 1205 UTC
C topographical maps of large east/ west extent
D plotting charts in equatorial regions
54) Which one of the following, concerning great circles on

a Direct Mercator chart, is correct? 50) (For this question use annex 061-1829A and the data for
1300 UTC)
A They are all curves concave to the equator 1300 UTC DR position 37°30'N 021°30'W alter heading
PORT SANTO NDB (33°03'N 016°23'W)
B They approximate to straight lines between the standard TAS 450 kt,
parallels Forecast W/V 360°/30kt.
Calculate the ETA at PORT SANTO NDB?
C They are all curves convex to the equator
A 1354
D With the exception of meridians and the equator, they are
curves concave to the equator B 1348
C 1344
53) Given the following:
Magnetic heading: 060° D 1341
Magnetic variation: 8°W
Drift angle: 4° right
What is the true track?
58) Given :
True altitude 9000 FT,
A 072°
OAT -32°C,
CAS 200 kt.
B 056° What is the TAS?
C 064° A 210 kt
D 048° B 220 kt
C 215 kt
D 200 kt
Given: What is the average track (°M) and distance between
CRN VOR (N5318.1 W00856.5) DME 34 NM, CRN NDB (N5318.1 W00856.5) and WTD NDB (N5211.3
SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) DME 26 NM, W00705.0)?
Aircraft heading 090°(M),
Both DME distances increasing. A 322° - 95 NM
B 142° - 95 NM
A N5250 W0030
C 315° - 94 NM
B N5305 W00930
D 135° - 96 NM
C N5310 W00820
D N5255 W00815
11) The angle between Magnetic North and Compass North
is called:
34) A course of 120°(T) is drawn between 'X' (61°30'N) and A magnetic variation
'Y' (58°30'N) on a Lambert Conformal conic chart with a
scale of 1 : 1 000 000 at 60°N. B alignment error
The chart distance between 'X' and 'Y' is:
A 33.4 cm
C compass deviation
B 38.5 cm
D compass error
C 36.0 cm
16) Which of the following statements is correct concerning
D 66.7 cm the effect of turning errors on a direct reading compass?
A Turning errors are greatest on east/west headings, and are

least at high latitudes
14) Given:
True HDG = 233°, B Turning errors are greatest on north/south headings, and
TAS = 480 kt, are least at high latitudes
Track (T) = 240°,
GS = 523 kt. C Turning errors are greatest on east/west headings, and are
Calculate the W/V? greatest at high latitudes
A 110/75kt D Turning errors are greatest on north/south headings, and

are greatest at high latitudes
B 115/70kt
C 110/80kt 9) An aircraft was over 'Q' at 1320 hours flying direct to 'R'.
Given:
D 105/75kt Distance 'Q' to 'R' 3016 NM
True airspeed 480 kt
Mean wind component 'out' -90 kt
Mean wind component 'back' +75 kt
13) (For this question use annex 061-12576A) The ETA for reaching the Point of Equal Time (PET)
What is the average track (°T) and distance between BAL between 'Q' and 'R' is:
VOR (N5318.0 W00626.9) and CRN NDB (N5318.1
W00856.5)? A 1756
A 272° - 89 NM B 1820
B 270° - 90 NM C 1742
C 278° - 89 NM D 1752
D 268° - 91 NM
17) Given: 4) On a Direct Mercator chart, a rhumb line appears as a:
Groundspeed 'out' 435 kt
Groundspeed 'back' 385 kt A straight line
Safe endurance 9 HR
The distance from 'Q' to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) B small circle concave to the nearer pole
between 'Q' and 'R' is:
C spiral curve
A 1313 NM
D curve convex to the nearer pole
B 1467 NM
C 1642 NM
What is the average track (°M) and distance between
D 1838 NM WTD NDB (N5211.3 W00705.0) and BAL VOR (N5318.0
W00626.9)?
7) Given: A 026° - 71 NM
TAS = 95 kt,
HDG (T) = 075°, B 018° - 153 NM
W/V = 310/20kt.
Calculate the drift and GS? C 206° - 71 NM
A 8R - 104 kt D 198° - 72 NM
B 9R - 108 kt
2) On a Transverse Mercator chart, scale is exactly correct

C 10L - 104 kt
along the:
D 9L - 105 kt A datum meridian and meridian perpendicular to it
B prime meridian and the equator

6) Which of the following statement is correct concerning
gyro-compassing of an inertial navigation system (INS)? C meridian of tangency
A Gyro-compassing of an INS is possible in flight because it D Equator, parallel of origin and prime vertical
cannot differentiate between movement induced and
misalignment induced accelerations.
B Gyro-compassing of an INS is not possible in flight 10) (For this question refer to annex 061-12631A)
because it can differentiate between movement induced and Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a group of
misalignment induced accelerations. unlighted obstacles?
C Gyro-compassing of an INS is not possible in flight because A 11

it cannot differentiate between movement induced and
misalignment induced accelerations. B 12
D Gyro-compassing of an INS is possible in flight because it
can differentiate between movement induced and C 13
misalignment induced accelerations.
D 9
5) Given:
TAS = 140 kt, 24) (For this question refer to annex 061-12613A)
True HDG = 302°, Which of the following lists all the aeronautical chart
W/V = 045°(T)/45kt symbols shown at position N5211 W00705?
Calculate the drift angle and GS?
A NDB: ILS
A 9°L - 146 kt
B civil airport: NDB
B 18°R - 146 kt
C VOR: NDB
C 16°L - 156 kt
D civil airport: ILS
D 9°R - 143 kt
31) Given: 27) (For this question use annex 061-12575A)
course required = 085° (T), What is the average track (°T) and distance between
Forecast W/V 030/100kt, SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) and CON VOR (N5354.8
TAS = 470 kt, W00849.1)?
Distance = 265 NM.
Calculate the true HDG and flight time? A 002° - 72 NM
A 096°, 29 MIN B 010° - 71 NM
B 095°, 31 MIN C 358° - 72 NM
C 075°, 39 MIN D 006° - 71 NM
D 076°, 34 MIN
15) Where and when are the IRS positions updated?

What is the radial and DME distance from CON A Only on the ground during the alignment procedure
W00800? B During flight IRS positions are automatically updated by the
FMC
A 260° - 30 NM
C IRS positions are updated by pressing the 'Take-off/ Go-
B 088° - 29 NM around' button at the start of the take-off roll
D Updating is normally carried out by the crew when over-

C 320° - 8 NM flying a known position (VOR station or NDB)
D 094° - 64 NM
Given:
29) An aircraft was over 'A' at 1435 hours flying direct to 'B'. SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) DME 50 NM,
Given: CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) DME 41 NM,
Distance 'A' to 'B' 2900 NM Aircraft heading 270°(M),
True airspeed 470 kt Both DME distances increasing.
Mean wind component 'out' +55 kt What is the aircraft position?
Mean wind component 'back' -75 kt
The ETA for reaching the Point of Equal Time (PET) A N5215 W00745
between 'A' and 'B' is:
B N5235 W00750
A 1846
C N5200 W00935
B 1721
D N5215 W00940
C 1657
D 1744
66) Approximately how many nautical miles correspond to
12 cm on a map with a scale of 1 : 2 000 000?
28) Given: A 329

Distance 'A' to 'B' 1973 NM
Groundspeed 'out' 430 kt B 43
The distance from 'A' to the Point of Safe Return (PSR)
C 130
'A' is:
D 150
A 1490 NM
B 1664 NM
C 1698 NM
D 1422 NM
23) Permanent magnetism in aircraft arises chiefly from: 19) An aircraft at FL370 is required to commence descent
when
100 NM from a DME facility and to cross the station at
A exposure to the earth's magnetic field during normal FL120.
operation If the mean GS during the descent is 396 kt, the
minimum
B the combined effect of aircraft electrical equipment and the rate of descent required is approximately:
earth's magnetic field
A 1550 FT/MIN
C the effect of internal wiring and exposure to electrical storms
B 1650 FT/MIN
D hammering, and the effect of the earth's magnetic field,
whilst under construction
C 2400 FT/MIN
22) An aircraft passes position A (60°00'N 120°00'W) on

D 1000 FT/MIN
route to position B (60°00'N 140°30'W).
What is the great circle track on departure from A?
18) Which of the following is an occasion for carrying out a
A 279° compass swing on a Direct Reading Compass?
B 288° A After an aircraft has passed through a severe electrical

storm, or has been struck by lightning
C 261°
B Before an aircraft goes on any flight that involves a large
change of magnetic latitude
D 270°
C After any of the aircraft radio equipment has been changed
due to unserviceability
21) Given:
TAS = 465 kt, D Whenever an aircraft carries a large freight load regardless
HDG (T) = 124°, of its content
W/V = 170/80kt.
Calculate the drift and GS?
26) The annunciator of a remote indicating compass system
A 4L - 400 kt is used when:
B 6L - 400 kt A setting the 'heading' pointer
C 8L - 415 kt B synchronising the magnetic and gyro compass elements
D 3L - 415 kt C compensating for deviation
D setting local magnetic variation

Given:
SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) radial 205°, 105) Concerning direct reading magnetic compasses, in the
CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) radial 317°. northern hemisphere, it can be said that :
A on a Westerly heading, a longitudinal deceleration causes
A N5210 W00910 an apparent turn to the North
B N5118 W00913 B on an Easterly heading, a longitudinal acceleration causes

an apparent turn to the North
C N5205 W00915
C on an Easterly heading, a longitudinal acceleration causes
an apparent turn to the South
D N5215 W00917
D on a Westerly heading, a longitudinal acceleration causes
an apparent turn to the South
64) In the B737-400 Flight Management System the CDUs 108) Given:
are used during preflight to: True HDG = 054°,
TAS = 450 kt,
A manually initialize the Flight Director System and FMC with Track (T) = 059°,
dispatch information GS = 416 kt.
Calculate the W/V?
B manually initialize the IRSs, FMC and Autothrottle with
dispatch information A 010/55kt
C manually initialize the IRSs and FMC with dispatch B 010/45kt

information
D automatically initialize the IRSs and FMC with dispatch C 010/50kt

information
D 005/50kt
111) The horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field:

A is approximately the same at magnetic latitudes 50°N and SLG NDB (N5416.7 W00836.0) and CFN NDB (N5502.6
50°S W00820.4)?
B weakens with increasing distance from the magnetic poles A 020° - 46 NM
C weakens with increasing distance from the nearer magnetic B 348° - 46 NM

pole
D is approximately the same at all magnetic latitudes less than C 191° - 45 NM

60°
D 011° - 47 NM
110) Which one of the following statements is correct

concerning the appearance of great circles, with the 106) Given:
exception of meridians, on a Polar Stereographic chart True HDG = 206°,
whose tangency is at the pole ? TAS = 140 kt,
Track (T) = 207°,
A The higher the latitude the closer they approximate to a GS = 135 kt.
straight line Calculate the W/V?
B Any straight line is a great circle A 000/10kt
C They are complex curves that can be convex and/or concave B 180/10kt
to the Pole
D They are curves convex to the Pole

C 180/05kt
D 000/05kt
109) What is the ISA temperature value at FL 330?

114) What is the highest latitude listed below at which the
A -56°C sun will reach an altitude of 90° above the horizon at
some time during the year?
B -66°C
A 45°
C -81°C
B 66°
D -50°C
C 0°
D 23°
104) Given: 100) An aircraft flies the following rhumb line tracks and
Position 'A' is N00° E100°, distances
Position 'B' is 240°(T), 200 NM from 'A'. from position 04°00'N 030°00'W :
What is the position of 'B'? 600 NM South,
then 600 NM East,
A N01°40' E097°07' then 600 NM North,
then 600 NM West.
B S01°40' E101°40' The final position of the aircraft is:
C N01°40' E101°40'
A 03°58'N 030°02'W
D S01°40' E097°07'
B 04°00'N 029°58'W
C 04°00'N 030°02'W
103) Given: D 04°00'N 030°00'W

TAS = 140 kt,
HDG (T) = 005°,
W/V = 265/25kt.
Calculate the drift and GS? 99) A negative (westerly) magnetic variation signifies that :
A 9R - 140 kt
A Compass North is West of Magnetic North
B 11R - 142 kt
B True North is East of Magnetic North
C 11R - 140 kt
C True North is West of Magnetic North
D 10R - 146 kt
D Compass North is East of Magnetic North
102) On a direct Mercator projection, the distance measured

between two meridians spaced 5° apart at latitude 60°N 107) The term drift refers to the wander of the axis of a gyro
is 8 cm. in:
The scale of this chart at latitude 60°N is approximately:
A any plane
A 1 : 7 000 000
B the horizontal plane
B 1 : 6 000 000
C the vertical plane
C 1 : 3 500 000
D the vertical and horizontal plane
D 1 : 4 750 000
121) Given the following:

101) Given: True track: 192°
TAS = 190 kt, Magnetic variation: 7°E
True HDG = 085°, Drift angle: 5° left
W/V = 110°(T)/50kt. What is the magnetic heading required to maintain the
Calculate the drift angle and GS? given track?
A 8°L - 146 kt A 204°
B 7°L - 156 kt B 180°
C 4°L - 168 kt C 190°
D 4°L - 145 kt D 194°
232) What is the name given to an Inertial Reference System 124) Given:
(IRS) which has the gyros and accelerometers as part of True Heading = 090°
the unit's fixture to the aircraft structure? TAS = 180 kt
GS = 180 kt
A Ring laser Drift 5° right
Calculate the W/V?
B Strapdown
A 360° / 15 kt
C Rigid
B 190° / 15 kt
D Solid state
C 010° / 15 kt
D 180° / 15 kt
127) At 0422 an aircraft at FL370, GS 320kt,
is on the direct track to VOR 'X' 185 NM distant.
The aircraft is required to cross VOR 'X' at FL80.
For a mean rate of descent of 1800 FT/MIN at a mean GS 112) A chart has the scale 1 : 1 000 000. From A to B on the
of 232 kt, chart measures 1.5 inches (one inch equals 2.54
the latest time at which to commence descent is: centimetres), the distance from A to B in NM is :
A 0454 A 44.5
B 0445 B 54.2
C 0448 C 20.6
D 0451 D 38.1
126) Given: 122) At 0020 UTC an aircraft is crossing the 310° radial at 40
TAS = 135 kt, NM of a VOR/DME station.
HDG (°T) = 278, At 0035 UTC the radial is 040° and DME distance is 40
W/V = 140/20kt NM.
Calculate the Track (°T) and GS? Magnetic variation is zero.
The true track and ground speed are :
A 279 - 152 kt
A 080° - 226 kt
B 282 - 148 kt
B 088° - 232 kt
C 275 - 150 kt
C 085° - 226 kt
D 283 - 150 kt
D 090° - 232 kt
125) The maximum difference between geocentric and

geodetic latitude occurs at about: 96) An aircraft at FL120, IAS 200kt, OAT -5° and wind
component +30kt, is required to reduce speed in order
A 0° North and South (equator) to cross a reporting point 5 MIN later than planned.
Assuming flight conditions do not change, when 100 NM
B 45° North and South from the reporting point IAS should be reduced to:
C 60° North and South

A 174 kt
D 90° North and South

B 159 kt
C 165 kt
D 169 kt
Chart scale is 1 : 1 850 000. TAS = 230 kt,
The chart distance between two points is 4 centimetres. HDG (T) = 250°,
Earth distance is approximately : W/V = 205/10kt.
A 100 NM
A 2L - 224 kt
B 4 NM
B 1L - 225 kt
C 40 NM
C 1R - 221 kt
D 74 NM
D 2R - 223 kt
119) On a Direct Mercator chart a great circle will be

represented by a: 115) Given: GS = 122 kt.
Distance from A to B = 985 NM.
A complex curve What is the time from A to B?
B curve convex to the equator A 8 HR 10 MIN
C straight line B 8 HR 04 MIN
D curve concave to the equator C 7 HR 48 MIN
D 7 HR 49 MIN
118) The Earth can be considered as being a magnet with the:
123) If an aeroplane was to circle around the Earth following

A red pole near the north pole of the earth and the direction of parallel 60°N at a ground speed of 480 kt. In order to
the magnetic force pointing straight up from the earth's circle around the Earth along the equator in the same
surface amount of time, it should fly at a ground speed of:
B blue pole near the north pole of the earth and the direction of A 480 kt
the magnetic force pointing straight down to the earth's
surface
B 960 kt
C red pole near the north pole of the earth and the direction of
the magnetic force pointing straight down to the earth's C 240 kt
surface
D 550 kt
D blue pole near the north pole of the earth and the direction of
the magnetic force pointing straight up from the earth's
surface
VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1)
117) On a Lambert conformal conic chart, the distance to position N5210 W00920?
between parallels of latitude spaced the same number of
degrees apart :
A 346° - 34 NM
A is constant between, and expands outside, the standard
parallels B 214° - 37 NM
B expands between, and reduces outside, the standard C 354° - 34 NM

parallels
D 198° - 37 NM
C is constant throughout the chart
D reduces between, and expands outside, the standard

parallels
79) When turning right from 330°(C) to 040°(C) in the 98) In an Inertial Navigation System (INS), Ground Speed
northern hemisphere, the reading of a direct reading (GS) is calculated:
magnetic compass will:
A from TAS and W/V from RNAV data
A over-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will increase the effect
B by integrating gyro precession in N/S and E/W directions
B under-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will increase the effect respectively
C over-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will decrease the effect C by integrating measured acceleration
D under-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will decrease the D from TAS and W/V from Air Data Computer (ADC)
effect
73) Given:
78) An aircraft travels 2.4 statute miles in 47 seconds. Half way between two reporting points the navigation
What is its groundspeed? log gives the following information:
TAS 360 kt,
A 131 kt W/V 330°/80kt,
Compass heading 237°,
B 160 kt Deviation on this heading -5°,
Variation 19°W.
What is the average ground speed for this leg?
C 183 kt
A 354 kt
D 209 kt
B 373 kt
77) The chart that is generally used for navigation in polar C 360 kt
areas is based on a:
D 403 kt
A Lambert conformal projection
B Stereographical projection
82) Given:
True course from A to B = 090°,
C Direct Mercator projection
TAS = 460 kt,
W/V = 360/100kt,
D Gnomonic projection Average variation = 10°E,
Deviation = -2°.
Calculate the compass heading and GS?
76) What are, in order of highest priority followed by lowest,
the two levels of message produced by the CDU of the A 068° - 460 kt
B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System?
B 078° - 450 kt
A Alerting and Advisory
C 070° - 453 kt
B Urgent and Routine
D 069° - 448 kt
C Priority and Alerting
D Urgent and Advisory 71) The scale on a Lambert conformal conic chart :
A is constant across the whole map

75) Position A is located on the equator at longitude
130°00E.
Position B is located 100 NM from A on a bearing of
B varies slightly as a function of latitude and longitude
225°(T).
The coordinates of position B are: C is constant along a parallel of latitude
A 01°11'N 128°49'E D is constant along a meridian of longitude
B 01°11'S 128°49'E
C 01°11'N 131°11'E
D 01°11'S 131°11'E
70) (For this question use annexes 061-2305A and 061- 74) On a Direct Mercator chart at latitude 15°S, a certain
2305B) length represents a distance of 120 NM on the earth.
When it is 1000 Standard Time in Kuwait, the Standard The same length on the chart will represent on the earth,
Time in Algeria is: at latitude 10°N, a distance of :
A 0700 A 124.2 NM
B 0800 B 118.2 NM
C 1200 C 122.3 NM
D 1300 D 117.7 NM
69) The circumference of the parallel of latitude at 60°N is 88) When an aircraft on a westerly heading on the northern
approximately: hemisphere accelerates, the effect of the acceleration
error causes the magnetic compass to:
A 34 641 NM
A lag behind the turning rate of the aircraft
B 10 800 NM
B indicate a turn towards the south
C 18 706 NM
C to turn faster than the actual turning rate of the aircraft
D 20 000 NM
D indicate a turn towards the north
68) An island appears 45° to the right of the centre line on

an airborne weather radar display. What is the true 65) An aeroplane is flying at TAS 180 kt on a track of 090°.
bearing of the aircraft from the island if at the time of The W/V is 045° / 50kt.
observation the aircraft was on a magnetic heading (MH) How far can the aeroplane fly out from its base and
of 215° with the magnetic variation (VAR) 21°W? return in one hour?
A 239° A 85 NM
B 329° B 88 NM
C 059° C 56 NM
D 101° D 176 NM
67) (For this question refer to annex 061-12634A) 95) An aircraft at FL390 is required to descend to cross a
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates an DME facility at FL70. Maximum rate of descent is 2500
exceptionally high lighted obstacle? FT/MIN, mean GS during descent is 248 kt. What is the
minimum range from the DME at which descent should
A 13 commence?
B 14 A 63 NM
C 10 B 68 NM
D 12 C 53 NM
D 58 NM
129) 265 US-GAL equals? (Specific gravity 0.80)
A 862 kg
B 895 kg
C 940 kg
D 803 kg
94) (For this question use annex 061-9442A) 80) On a Lambert chart (standard parallels 37°N and 65°N),
Complete line 6 of the 'FLIGHT NAVIGATION LOG', with respect to the straight line drawn on the map
positions 'L' to 'M'. between A ( N49° W030°) and B (N48° W040°), the:
What is the HDG°(M) and ETA?
A rhumb line is to the north, the great circle is to the south
A HDG 064° - ETA 1449 UTC
B great circle and rhumb line are to the south
C great circle and rhumb line are to the north
C HDG 070° - ETA 1459 UTC
D great circle is to the north, the rhumb line is to the south
89) On a Lambert Conformal Conic chart great circles that

93) Given: are not meridians are:
TAS = 485 kt,
HDG (T) = 168°, A curves concave to the pole of projection
W/V = 130/75kt.
Calculate the Track (°T) and GS? B straight lines within the standard parallels
A 173 - 424 kt
C curves concave to the parallel of origin
B 175 - 420 kt
D straight lines regardless of distance
C 175 - 432 kt
D 174 - 428 kt 81) Which one of the following describes the appearance of
rhumb lines, except meridians, on a Polar Stereographic
chart?
92) Given: A Straight lines

Groundspeed 'out' 430 kt B Curves concave to the Pole
The time from 'A' to the Point of Equal Time (PET)
between 'A' and 'B' is: C Ellipses around the Pole
A 181 MIN D Curves convex to the Pole
B 130 MIN
87) Given:
C 145 MIN TAS = 270 kt,
Track (T) = 260°,
D 162 MIN W/V = 275/30kt.
A 264 - 241 kt
91) Given:
TAS = 270 kt, B 264 - 237 kt
True HDG = 270°,
Actual wind 205°(T)/30kt,
Calculate the drift angle and GS? C 262 - 241 kt
A 6L - 256kt D 262 - 237 kt
B 6R - 251kt
C 8R - 259kt The UTC of sunrise on 6 December at WINNIPEG
(Canada) (49°50'N 097°30'W) is:
D 6R - 259kt
A 2230
B 1413
C 0930
D 0113
85) An aircraft at FL140, IAS 210 kt, OAT -5°C and wind 90) (For this question use annex 061-12598A)
component minus 35 kt, is required to reduce speed in Given:
order to cross a reporting point 5 MIN later than CON VOR (N5354.8 W00849.1) DME 30 NM,
planned. CRN VOR (N5318.1 W00856.5) DME 25 NM,
Assuming that flight conditions do not change, when Aircraft heading 270°(M),
150 NM from the reporting point the IAS should be Both DME distances decreasing.
reduced by: What is the aircraft position?
A 25 kt A N5330 W00820
B 30 kt B N5343 W00925
C 15 kt C N5335 W00925
D 20 kt D N5337 W00820
84) Given: 400) At what approximate date is the earth furthest from the
TAS = 375 kt, sun (aphelion)?
True HDG = 124°,
W/V = 130°(T)/55kt. A End of December
Calculate the true track and GS?
B Beginning of January
A 125 - 322 kt
C End of September
B 126 - 320 kt
D Beginning of July
C 125 - 318 kt
D 123 - 320 kt
What is the meaning of aeronautical chart symbol No.
15?
83) Given:
IAS 120 kt, A Lighthouse
FL 80,
OAT +20°C. B Aeronautical ground light
What is the TAS?
A 141 kt
C Visual reference point
B 102 kt
D Hazard to aerial navigation
C 120 kt
406) An island appears 30° to the left of the centre line on an
D 132 kt airborne weather radar display. What is the true bearing
observation the aircraft was on a magnetic heading of
276° with the magnetic variation 12°W?
97) The azimuth gyro of an inertial unit has a drift of
0.01°/HR. A 054°
After a flight of 12 HR with a ground speed of 500 kt, the
error on the aeroplane position is approximately : B 318°
A 60 NM
C 234°
B 12 NM
D 038°
C 1 NM
D 6 NM
405) (For this question use annex 061-12559A) 401) Which component of the B737-400 Flight Management
What is the radial and DME distance from CON System (FMS) is used to enter flight plan routeing and
VOR/DME (N5354.8 W00849.1) to position N5340 performance parameters?
W00820?
A Multi-Function Control Display Unit
A 240° - 24 NM
B Flight Management Computer
B 140° - 23 NM
C Inertial Reference System
C 119° - 42 NM
D Flight Director System
D 311° - 22 NM
409) Given:
404) Given: aircraft height 2500 FT,
True course A to B = 250° ILS GP angle 3°.
Distance A to B = 315 NM At what approximate distance from THR can you expect
TAS = 450 kt. to capture the GP?
W/V = 200°/60kt.
ETD A = 0650 UTC. A 7.0 NM
What is the ETA at B?
B 13.1 NM
A 0716 UTC
C 14.5 NM
B 0736 UTC
D 8.3 NM
C 0730 UTC
D 0810 UTC
alignment procedure for Inertial Navigation
Systems(INS)/Inertial Reference Systems (IRS) at mid-
403) The 'departure' between positions 60°N 160°E and 60°N latitudes is correct?
'x' is 900 NM.
What is the longitude of 'x'? A INS/IRS can only be aligned in NAV mode
A 145°E B INS/IRS can be aligned in either the ALIGN or NAV mode
B 175°E C INS/IRS can only be aligned in the ALIGN mode
C 170°W D INS/IRS can be aligned in either the ALIGN or ATT mode
D 140°W
What are the average magnetic course and distance
408) (For this question refer to annex 061-12623A) between
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a Control INGO VOR (N6350 W01640) and Sumburg VOR (N5955 W
Zone boundary? 00115)?
A 3 A 117° - 494 NM
B 4 B 130° - 440 NM
C 5 C 131° - 494 NM
D 2 D 118° - 440 NM
397) (For this question refer to annex 061-12620A) 402) The principle of 'Schuler Tuning' as applied to the
Which of the aeronautical chart symbols indicates a operation of Inertial Navigation Systems/ Inertial
VORTAC? Reference Systems is applicable to:
A 1 A both gyro-stabilised platform and 'strapdown' systems
B 3 B only gyro-stabilised systems
C 6 C both gyro-stabilised and laser gyro systems but only when

operating in the non 'strapdown' mode
D 7
D only to 'strapdown' laser gyro systems

Which of the following lists all the aeronautical chart 416) What additional information is required to be input to an
symbols shown at position N5318.0 W00626.9? Inertial Navigation System (INS) in order to obtain an
W/V readout?
A military airport: VOR: NDB
A Mach Number
B VOR: DME: danger area
B TAS
C military airport: VOR: DME
C IAS
D civil airport: VOR: DME
D Altitude and OAT
395) Isogonals converge at the:

230) On a Lambert Conformal chart the distance between
meridians 5° apart along latitude 37° North is 9 cm. The
A North and South magnetic poles only scale of the chart at that parallel approximates:
B North and South geographic and magnetic poles A 1 : 6 000 000
C Magnetic equator B 1 : 5 000 000
D North magnetic pole only C 1 : 3 750 000
D 1 : 2 000 000
424) The automatic flight control system (AFCS) in an aircraft
is coupled to the guidance outputs from an inertial
navigation system (INS). 422) (For this question use annex 061-12402A)
The aircraft is flying between inserted waypoints No. 3 What are the initial true course and distance between
(55°00'N 020°00'W) and No.4 (55°00'N 030°00'W). positions N5800 W01300 and N6600 E00200?
With DSRTK/STS selected on the CDU, to the nearest
whole degree, the initial track read-out from waypoint A 042° - 635 NM
No. 3 will be:
B 032° - 470 NM
A 266°
C 036° - 638 NM
B 270°
D 029° - 570 NM
C 274°
D 278°
421) An aircraft at latitude 10° South flies north at a GS of 890
km/HR.
What will its latitude be after 1.5 HR?
A 03°50'N
B 02°00'N
C 12°15'N
D 22°00'N
420) (For this question use annex 061-12549A) 392) What is the longitude of a position 6 NM to the east of
What is the radial and DME distance from CRK 58°42'N 094°00'W?
W00810? A 093°53.1'W
A 014° - 33 NM B 094°12.0'W
B 220° - 40 NM C 093°48.5'W
C 030° - 33 NM D 093°54.0'W
D 048° - 40 NM
415) The following points are entered into an inertial
navigation system (INS).
419) An aircraft at FL350 is required to cross a VOR/DME WPT 1: 60°N 30°W
facility at WPT 2: 60°N 20°W
FL110 and to commence descent when 100 NM from the WPT 3: 60°N 10°W
facility. The inertial navigation system is connected to the
If the mean GS for the descent is 335 kt, the minimum automatic pilot on route (1-2-3).
rate of The track change when passing WPT 2 will be
descent required is: approximately:
A 1290 FT/MIN A a 4° decrease
B 1340 FT/MIN B a 9° decrease
C 1390 FT/MIN C zero
D 1240 FT/MIN D a 9° increase

Magnetic track = 210°, TAS = 200 kt,
Magnetic HDG = 215°, Track (T) = 110°,
VAR = 15°E, W/V = 015/40kt.
TAS = 360 kt, Calculate the HDG (°T) and GS?
Aircraft flies 64 NM in 12 MIN.
Calculate the true W/V? A 121 - 199 kt
A 300°/30 kt B 097 - 201 kt
B 265°/50 kt C 099 - 199 kt
C 195°/50 kt D 121 - 207 kt
D 235°/50 kt
Given:
417) On a transverse Mercator chart, the scale is exactly SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) radial 120°,
correct along the: CRK VOR (N5150.4 W00829.7) radial 033°.
A prime meridian and the equator
A N5220 W00750
B meridians of tangency
B N5240 W00750
C equator and parallel of origin
C N5230 W00800
D meridian of tangency and the parallel of latitude
perpendicular to it D N5225 W00805
412) (For this question use annex 061-12550A) 394) Given:
What is the radial and DME distance from CRK Distance 'A' to 'B' 2346 NM
VOR/DME (N5150.4 W00829.7) to position N5210 Groundspeed 'out' 365 kt
W00920? Groundspeed 'back' 480 kt
The time from 'A' to the Point of Equal Time (PET)
A 311° - 38 NM between 'A' and 'B' is:
B 350° - 22 NM A 219 MIN
C 295° - 38 NM B 290 MIN
D 170° - 22 NM C 197 MIN
D 167 MIN
411) The angle between True North and Magnetic North is
called :
374) Given:
A compass error TAS = 205 kt,
HDG (T) = 180°,
B drift W/V = 240/25kt.
C variation
A 3L - 190 kt
D deviation
B 4L - 195 kt
C 6L - 194 kt
410) Given:
Runway direction 305°(M), D 7L - 192 kt
Surface W/V 260°(M)/30 kt.
Calculate the cross-wind component?
A 18 kt 373) The sensitivity of a direct reading compass varies:
B 21 kt
A directly with the vertical component of the earth's magnetic
field
C 24 kt
B inversely with both vertical and horizontal components of the
D 27 kt earth's magnetic field
C inversely with the vertical component of the earth's magnetic

field
418) An aircraft takes-off from an airport 2 hours before
sunset. The pilot flies a track of 090°(T), W/V 130°/ 20 kt, D directly with the horizontal component of the earth's
TAS 100 kt. In order to return to the point of departure magnetic field
before sunset, the furthest distance which may be
travelled is:
A 105 NM
What are the average magnetic course and distance
between
B 84 NM position N6000 W02000 and Sumburg VOR (N5955 W
00115)?
C 97 NM
A 105° - 562 NM
D 115 NM
B 091° - 480 NM
368) What is the local mean time, position 65°25'N 123°45'W C 091° - 562 NM
at 2200 UTC?
D 105° - 480 NM
A 0615
B 0815
C 1345
D 2200
371) The Great Circle bearing of 'B' (70°S 060°E), from 'A' (70° 366) Given:
S 030° W), is approximately: True Heading = 090°
TAS = 200 kt
A 135°(T) W/V = 220° / 30 kt.
Calculate the GS?
B 150°(T)
A 180 kt
C 090°(T)
B 200 kt
D 315°(T)
C 220 kt
D 230 kt
376) A Lambert conformal conic chart has a constant of the
cone of 0.80.
A straight line course drawn on this chart from A (53°N
004°W) to B is 080° at A; course at B is 092°(T). 365) An aircraft equipped with an Inertial Navigation System
What is the longitude of B? (INS) flies with INS 1 coupled with autopilot 1. Both
inertial navigation systems are navigating from way-
A 008°E point A to B. The inertial systems' Central Display Units
(CDU) sho shows:
B 019°E - XTK on INS 1 = 0
- XTK on INS 2 = 8L
(XTK = cross track)
C 011°E
From this information it can be deduced that:
D 009°36'E A only inertial navigation system No. 1 is drifting
B the autopilot is unserviceable in NAV mode

369) The distance measured between two points on a
navigation map is 42 mm (millimetres). The scale of the C at least one of the inertial navigaton systems is drifting
chart is 1:1 600 000.
The actual distance between these two point is D only inertial navigation system No. 2 is drifting
approximately:
A 67.20 NM
364) 5 HR 20 MIN 20 SEC corresponds to a longitude
B 3.69 NM difference of:
C 36.30 NM
A 78°45'
D 370.00 NM
B 80°05'
C 81°10'
377) A pilot receives the following signals from a VOR DME D 75°00'
station:
radial 180°+/- 1°, distance = 200 NM.
What is the approximate error?
363) A straight line on a Lambert Conformal Projection chart
A +/- 7 NM for normal flight planning purposes:
B +/- 3.5 NM A is approximately a Great Circle
C +/- 1 NM B is a Loxodromic line
D +/- 2 NM C is a Rhumb line
D can only be a parallel of latitude

367) In order to fly from position A (10°00'N, 030°00'W) to
position B (30°00'N, 050°00'W), maintaining a constant
true course, it is necessary to fly:
A a straight line plotted on a Lambert chart
B a rhumb line track
C the constant average drift route
D the great-circle route
362) (For this question use annex 061-9438A) 390) Seasons are due to the:
Complete line 2 of the 'FLIGHT NAVIGATION LOG',
positions 'C' to 'D'.
What is the HDG°(M) and ETA? A inclination of the polar axis with the ecliptic plane
A HDG 188° - ETA 1229 UTC B Earth's elliptical orbit around the Sun
B HDG 193° - ETA 1249 UTC C Earth's rotation on its polar axis
C HDG 183° - ETA 1159 UTC D variable distance between Earth and Sun

389) Deviation applied to magnetic heading gives:
370) Which of the following lists, which compares an Inertial A magnetic course
Reference System that utilises Ring Laser Gyroscopes
(RLG) instead of conventional gyroscopes, is
completely correct? B magnetic track
A There is little or no 'spin up' time and it does not suffer from C compass heading
'lock in' error
D true heading
B There is little or no 'spin up' time and it is insensitive to
gravitational ('g') forces
C The platform is kept stable relative to the earth 388) The standard parallels of a Lambert's conical
mathematically rather than mechanically but it has a longer orthomorphic projection are 07°40'N and 38°20' N.
'spin up' time The constant of the cone for this chart is:
D It does not suffer from 'lock in' error and it is insensitive to A 0.60
gravitational ('g') forces
B 0.92
384) Given: C 0.42

TAS = 132 kt,
HDG (T) = 053°, D 0.39
W/V = 205/15kt.
A 050 - 145 kt 387) (For this question refer to annex 061-12628A)

Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a Way-point?
B 057 - 144 kt
A 15
C 052 - 143 kt
B 6
D 051 - 144 kt
C 7
D 8
391) The resultant of the first integration of the output from
the east/west accelerometer of an inertial navigation
system (INS) in NAV MODE is:
A vehicle longitude What is the average track (°T) and distance between BAL
VOR (N5318.0 W00626.9) and CFN NDB (N5502.6
W00820.4)?
B departure
A 335° - 128 NM
C velocity along the local parallel of latitude
B 325° - 126 NM
D change of longitude
C 320° - 127 NM
D 327° - 124 NM
385) On the 27th of February, at 52°S and 040°E, the sunrise 381) Given:
is at 0243 UTC. True HDG = 002°,
On the same day, at 52°S and 035°W, the sunrise is at: TAS = 130 kt,
Track (T) = 353°,
A 0243 UTC GS = 132 kt.
Calculate the W/V?
B 2143 UTC
A 090/20kt
C 0523 UTC
B 095/25kt
D 0743 UTC
C 095/20kt
D 090/15kt
425) Given: GS = 236 kt.
Distance from A to B = 354 NM
What is the time from A to B?
A 1 HR 30 MIN What is the meaning of aeronautical chart symbol No.
16?
B 1 HR 09 MIN
A Off-shore lighthouse
C 1 HR 10 MIN
B Lightship
D 1 HR 40 MIN
C Off-shore helicopter landing platform
D Shipwreck showing above the surface at low tide

383) Given:
FL250,
OAT -15 ºC,
TAS 250 kt. 379) What is the ratio between the litre and the US-GAL ?
Calculate the Mach No.?
A 0.44 A 1 litre equals 3.78 US-GAL
B 0.39 B 1 US-GAL equals 4.55 litres
C 0.40 C 1 litre equals 4.55 US-GAL
D 0.42 D 1 US-GAL equals 3.78 litres
382) The flight log gives the following data : 378) In a remote indicating compass system the amount of
"True track, Drift, True heading, Magnetic variation, deviation caused by aircraft magnetism and electrical
Magnetic heading, Compass deviation, Compass circuits may be minimised by:
heading"
The right solution, in the same order, is : A the use of repeater cards
A 125°, 2°R, 123°, 2°W, 121°, -4°, 117° B positioning the master unit in the centre of the aircraft
B 119°, 3°L, 122°, 2°E, 120°, +4°, 116° C using a vertically mounted gyroscope
C 115°, 5°R, 120°, 3°W, 123°, +2°, 121° D mounting the detector unit in the wingtip
D 117°, 4°L, 121°, 1°E, 122°, -3°, 119°
386) The main reason for usually mounting the detector unit 495) For a distance of 1860 NM between Q and R, a ground
of a remote indicating compass in the wingtip of an speed "out" of 385 kt, a ground speed "back" of 465 kt
aeroplane is to: and an endurance of 8 HR (excluding reserves) the
distance from Q to the point of safe return (PSR) is:
A place it in a position where there is no electrical wiring to
cause deviation errors A 930 NM
B place it where it will not be subjected to electrical or B 1865 NM

magnetic interference from the aircraft
C reduce the amount of deviation caused by aircraft C 1685 NM

magnetism and electrical circuits
D 1532 NM
D facilitate easy maintenance of the unit and increase its
exposure to the Earth's magnetic field
494) The chart distance between meridians 10° apart at
latitude 65° North is 3.75 inches. The chart scale at this
490) (For this question use annex 061-12588A) latitude approximates:
Given:
SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1) radial 048°/22 NM. A 1 : 5 000 000
B 1 : 6 000 000
A N5258 W00825
C 1 : 2 500 000
B N5225 W00917
D 1 : 3 000 000
C N5228 W00920
D N5300 W0830
493) The automatic flight control system (AFCS) in an aircraft
is coupled to the guidance outputs from an inertial
navigation system (INS) and the aircraft is flying from
483) (For this question use annex 061-12405A) waypoint No. 2 (60°00'S 070°00'W) to No. 3 (60°00'S
Which of the following beacons is 185 NM from 080°00'W).
AKRABERG (N6124 W00640)? Comparing the initial track (°T) at 070°00'W and the final
track (°T) at 080°00'W, the difference between them is
A KIRKWALL (N5858 W 00254) that the initial track is approximately:
B STORNOWAY (N5815 W00617) A 5° less than the final one
C SUMBURGH (N5955 W00115) B 9° less than the final one
D SAXAVORD (N6050 W00050) C 5° greater than the final one
D 9° greater than the final one

496) Given:
Distance 'A' to 'B' is 475 NM,
Planned GS 315 kt, 498) What indication, if any, is given in the B737-400 Flight
ATD 1000 UTC, Management System if radio updating is not available?
1040 UTC - fix obtained 190 NM along track.
What GS must be maintained from the fix in A A warning message is displayed on the EHSI and MFDU
order to achieve planned ETA at 'B'?
B A warning message is displayed on the IRS displays
A 320 kt.
C A warning message is displayed on the Flight Director
B 340 kt System
C 360 kt. D No indication is given so long as the IRS positions remain

within limits
D 300 kt
491) (For this question use appendix ) 487) The circumference of the earth is approximately:
Given:
TAS is120 kt.
ATA 'X' 1232 UTC, A 5400 NM
ETA 'Y' 1247 UTC,
ATA 'Y' is 1250 UTC. B 10800 NM
What is ETA 'Z'?
C 21600 NM
A 1302 UTC
D 43200 NM
B 1257 UTC
C 1300 UTC
D 1303 UTC VOR?
A 6
499) An aircraft in the northern hemisphere makes an
accurate rate one turn to the right/starboard. If the initial B 2
heading was 330°, after 30 seconds of the turn the direct
reading magnetic compass should read: C 3
A more or less than 060° depending on the pendulous D 5

suspension used
B less than 060°

485) With reference to an inertial navigation system (INS), the
C 060° initial great circle track between computer inserted
waypoints will be displayed when the control display
unit (CDU) is selected to:
D more than 060°
A DSRTK/STS
489) The following information is displayed on an Inertial B HDG/DA

Navigation System:
GS 520 kt,
True HDG 090°,
C TK/GS
Drift angle 5° right,
TAS 480 kt. D XTK/TKE
SAT (static air temperature) -51°C.
The W/V being experienced is:
423) The nominal scale of a Lambert conformal conic chart is
A 320° / 60 kt the:
B 225° / 60 kt A scale at the standard parallels
C 220° / 60 kt B mean scale between pole and equator
D 325° / 60 kt C mean scale between the parallels of the secant cone
D scale at the equator

488) Given:
Distance 'A' to 'B' is 325 NM,
Planned GS 315 kt, 492) On a Direct Mercator chart at latitude of 45°N, a certain
ATD 1130 UTC, length represents a distance of 90 NM on the earth.
1205 UTC - fix obtained 165 NM along track. The same length on the chart will represent on the earth,
What GS must be maintained from the fix in at latitude 30°N, a distance of :
order to achieve planned ETA at 'B'?
A 73.5 NM
A 355 kt
B 78 NM
B 375 kt
C 45 NM
C 395 kt
D 110 NM
D 335 kt
506) (For this question refer to annex 061-12605A) 509) (For this question use annex 061-12563A)
What feature is shown on the chart at position N5212 What is the radial and DME distance from BEL VOR/DME
W00612? (N5439.7 W00613.8) to position N5500 W00700?
A Clonbullogue aerodrome A 126° - 33 NM
B TUSKAR ROCK LT.H. NDB B 222° - 48 NM
C WTD NDB C 315° - 34 NM
D KERRY/Farranfore aerodrome D 296° - 65 NM
513) Contour lines on aeronautical maps and charts connect 497) Waypoints can be entered in an INS memory in different
points : formats.
In which of the following formats can waypoints be
A with the same variation entered into all INSs?
B having the same longitude A by waypoints name
C of equal latitude B geographic coordinates
D having the same elevation above sea level C bearing and distance
D hexadecimal
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a Flight
Information Region (FIR) boundary? 507) Given:
TAS = 470 kt,
A 5 True HDG = 317°
W/V = 045°(T)/45kt
B 1 Calculate the drift angle and GS?
C 3
A 3°R - 470 kt
D 4
B 5°L - 475 kt
C 5°R - 475 kt
511) The equivalent of 70 m/sec is approximately: D 5°L - 470 kt
A 145 kt
482) Given:
B 210 kt AD = Air distance
GD = Ground distance
C 35 kt TAS = True Airspeed
GS = Groundspeed
D 136 kt Which of the following is the correct formula to calculate
ground distance (GD) gone?
A GD = (AD - TAS)/TAS
510) Two positions plotted on a polar stereographic chart, A
(80°N 000°) and B (70°N 102°W) are joined by a straight B GD = AD X (GS -TAS)/GS
line whose highest latitude is reached at 035°W.
At point B, the true course is:
C GD = TAS/(GS X AD)
A 023°
D GD = (AD X GS)/TAS
B 247°
C 305°
D 203°
505) What is the meaning of the term "standard time" ? 500) Isogonic lines connect positions that have:
A It is the time zone system applicable only in the USA A 0° variation
B It is an expression for local mean time B the same elevation
C It is another term for UTC C the same angle of magnetic dip
D It is the time set by the legal authorities for a country or part D the same variation
of a country

504) Given: Given:
Distance 'A' to 'B' is 90 NM, SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1)
Fix obtained 60 NM along and 4 NM to the right of Connemara aerodrome (N5314 W00928)
course. What is the SHA radial and DME distance when
What heading alteration must be made to reach 'B'? overhead Connemara aerodrome?
A 4° Left A 154° - 38 NM
B 8° Left B 326° - 37 NM
C 12° Left C 146° - 38 NM
D 16° Left D 333° - 37 NM
503) The lines on the earth's surface that join points of equal 432) Given:
magnetic variation are called: Runway direction 210°(M),
Surface W/V 230°(M)/30kt.
A isogrives Calculate the cross-wind component?
B isoclines A 10 kt
C isogonals B 19 kt
D isotachs C 16 kt
D 13 kt
502) Given:
Magnetic heading 311°
Drift angle 10° left 484) A useful method of a pilot resolving, during a visual
Relative bearing of NDB 270° flight, any uncertainty in the aircraft's position is to
What is the magnetic bearing of the NDB measured from maintain visual contact with the ground and:
the aircraft?
A set heading towards a line feature such as a coastline,
A 211° motorway, river or railway
B 180° B fly the reverse of the heading being flown prior to becoming
uncertain until a pinpoint is obtained
C 221°
C fly expanding circles until a pinpoint is obtained
D 208°
D fly reverse headings and associated timings until the point of
departure is regained
501) Isogonals are lines of equal :

438) The great circle distance between position A (59°34.1'N
A magnetic variation. 008°08.4'E) and B (30°25.9'N 171°51.6'W) is:
B compass deviation. A 10 800 NM
C pressure. B 5 400 NM
D wind velocity. C 10 800 km
D 2 700 NM
Aircraft at FL 150 overhead an airport TAS = 440 kt,
Elevation of airport 720 FT. HDG (T) = 349°
QNH is 1003 hPa. W/V = 040/40kt.
OAT at FL150 -5°C. Calculate the drift and GS?
What is the true altitude of the aircraft?
(Assume 1 hPa = 27 FT) A 2L - 420 kt
A 15 840 FT B 6L - 395 kt
B 14 160 FT C 5L - 385 kt
C 14 720 FT D 4L - 415 kt
D 15 280 FT
441) At 60° N the scale of a direct Mercator chart is 1 : 3 000
000.
436) (For this question refer to annex 061-12615A) What is the scale at the equator?
DME? A 1 : 6 000 000
A 5 B 1 : 3 000 000
B 6 C 1 : 3 500 000
C 2 D 1 : 1 500 000
D 3
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates an unlighted
435) (For this question use annex 061-12596A) obstacle?
Given:
CRN VOR (N5318.1 W00856.5) DME 18 NM, A 12
SHA VOR (N5243.3 W00853.1) DME 30 NM,
Aircraft heading 270°(M), B 9
Both DME distances decreasing.
C 10
A N5355 W00825
D 11
B N5310 W00830
C N5252 W00923 430) A straight line on a chart 4.89 cm long represents 185
NM.
D N5307 W00923 The scale of this chart is approximately :
A 1 : 7 000 000
440) (For this question refer to annex 061-12599A) B 1 : 3 500 000

Given:
CRK VOR/DME (N5150.4 W00829.7)
Kerry aerodrome (N5210.9 W00931.4) C 1 : 6 000 000
What is the CRK radial and DME distance when
overhead Kerry aerodrome? D 1 : 5 000 000
A 127° - 45 NM
429) A direct reading compass should be swung when:
B 299° - 42 NM
C 307° - 43 NM A the aircraft is stored for a long period and is frequently

moved
D 119° - 44 NM B the aircraft has made more than a stated number of landings
C there is a large, and permanent, change in magnetic latitude
D there is a large change in magnetic longitude
428) On a Lambert conformal conic chart the convergence of 481) The alignment time, at mid-latitudes, for an Inertial
the meridians: Reference System using laser ring gyros is
approximately:
A is zero throughout the chart
A 5 MIN
B varies as the secant of the latitude
B 10 MIN
C equals earth convergency at the standard parallels
C 20 MIN
D is the same as earth convergency at the parallel of origin
D 2 MIN
427) On a Polar Stereographic chart, the initial great circle

course from A 70°N 060°W to B 70°N 060°E is 480) Given: GS = 510 kt.
approximately: Distance A to B = 43 NM
What is the time (MIN) from A to B?
A 150° (T)
A 5
B 210° (T)
B 4
C 030° (T)
C 6
D 330° (T)
D 7
426) Given:
TAS = 270 kt, 479) At latitude 60°N the scale of a Mercator projection is 1 : 5
True HDG = 145°, 000 000. The length on the chart between 'C' N60°
Actual wind = 205°(T)/30kt. E008° and 'D' N60° W008° is:
A 19.2 cm
A 8°R - 261 kt
B 17.8 cm
B 6°R - 259 kt
C 16.2 cm
C 6°L - 256 kt
D 35.6 cm
D 6°R - 251 kt
478) Given:
434) An aircraft travels 100 statute miles in 20 MIN, how long An aircraft is flying a track of 255°(M),
does it take to travel 215 NM? 2254 UTC, it crosses radial 360° from a VOR station,
2300 UTC, it crosses radial 330° from the same station.
A 50 MIN At 2300 UTC, the distance between the aircraft and the
station is :
B 100 MIN
A less than it was at 2254 UTC
C 90 MIN
B the same as it was at 2254 UTC
D 80 MIN
C greater than it was at 2254 UTC
D randomly different than it was at 2254 UTC

474) What is the value of the convergence factor on a Polar
Stereographic chart?
A 0.0 477) An aircraft is over position HO (55°30'N 060°15'W), where

YYR VOR (53°30'N 060°15'W) can be received. The
B 1.0 magnetic variation is 31°W at HO and 28°W at YYR.
What is the radial from YYR?
C 0.866
A 028°
D 0.5
B 208°
C 031°
D 332°
439) (For this question use annex 061-12569A) 472) Given:
What is the average track (°M) and distance between True Heading = 180°
BAL VOR (N5318.0 W00626.9) and SLG NDB (N5416.7 TAS = 500 kt
W00836.0)? W/V 225° / 100 kt
Calculate the GS?
A 128° - 99 NM
A 535 kt
B 308° - 98 NM
B 450 kt
C 316° - 96 NM
C 435 kt
D 262° - 86 NM
D 600 kt
475) A Mercator chart has a scale at the equator = 1 : 3 704

000. 471) Which of the following can all be stored as five letter
What is the scale at latitude 60° S? waypoint identifiers through the CDU of a B737-400
Electronic Flight Instrument System?
A 1 : 7 408 000
A Waypoint names; navaid frequencies; runway codes; airport
B 1 : 3 208 000 ICAO identifiers
B Waypoint names; navaid positions; airport ICAO identifiers;

C 1 : 185 200
airport names
D 1 : 1 852 000 C Waypoint names; navaid identifiers; runway numbers; airport
ICAO identifiers
359) On a Mercator chart, at latitude 60°N, the distance

D Airway names; navaid identifiers; airport names; waypoint
measured between W002° and E008° is 20 cm. The scale code numbers
of this chart at latitude 60°N is approximately:
A 1 : 5 560 000 470) An aircraft obtains a relative bearing of 315° from an

NDB at 0830. At 0840 the relative bearing from the same
B 1 : 556 000 position is 270°.
Assuming no drift and a GS of 240 kt, what is the
approximate range from the NDB at 0840?
C 1 : 2 780 000
A 30 NM
D 1 : 278 000
B 40 NM
473) (For this question use annex 061-12591A) C 50 NM

Given:
SHA VOR N5243.3 W00853.1 D 60 NM
CRK VOR N5150.4 W00829.7
Which of the following lists two radials that are
applicable to the aircraft position? 443) During the initial alignment of an inertial navigation
system (INS) the equipment:
A SHA 068°
CRK 145° A will not accept a 10° error in initial latitude but will accept a
10° error in initial longitude
B SHA 060°
CRK 138° B will accept a 10° error in initial latitude but will not accept a
10° error in initial longitude
C SHA 240°
CRK 137° C will not accept a 10° error in initial latitude or initial longitude
D SHA 248° D will accept a 10° error in initial latitude and initial longitude
CRK 325°
442) Given: 277) The duration of civil twilight is the time:
Course 040°(T),
TAS is 120 kt,
Wind speed 30 kt. A between sunset and when the centre of the sun is 6° below
Maximum drift angle will be obtained for a wind the true horizon
direction of:
B agreed by the international aeronautical authorities which is
A 130° 12 minutes
B 145°
C needed by the sun to move from the apparent height of 0° to
the apparent height of 6°
C 115° D between sunset and when the centre of the sun is 12° below
the true horizon
D 120°
276) Given:
476) On a direct Mercator projection, at latitude 45° North, a TAS = 220 kt;
certain length represents 70 NM. Magnetic course = 212 º,
At latitude 30° North, the same length represents W/V 160 º(M)/ 50kt,
approximately: Calculate the GS?
A 70 NM A 186 kt
B 81 NM B 290 kt
C 86 NM C 246 kt
D 57 NM D 250 kt

ILS GP angle = 3.5 DEG, What is the radial and DME distance from CRK
GS = 150 kt. VOR/DME (N5150.4 W00829.7) to position N5230
What is the approximate rate of descent? W00750?
A 1000 FT/MIN A 017° - 43 NM
B 700 FT/MIN B 039° - 48 NM
C 800 FT/MIN C 024° - 43 NM
D 900 FT/MIN D 023° - 48 NM
264) An aircraft takes off from the aerodrome of BRIOUDE 274) When accelerating on an easterly heading in the
(altitude 1 483 FT, QFE = 963 hPa, temperature = 32°C). Northern hemisphere, the compass card of a direct
Five minutes later, passing 5 000 FT on QFE, the second reading magnetic compass will turn :
altimeter set on 1 013 hPa will indicate approximately :
A clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the south
A 6 400 FT
B anti-clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the north
B 6 800 FT
C anti-clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the south
C 6 000 FT
D clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the north
D 4 000 FT
279) An aircraft travels from point A to point B, using the 268) Given:
autopilot connected to the aircraft's inertial system. The Distance A to B = 120 NM,
coordinates of A (45°S 010°W) and B (45°S 030°W) have After 30 NM aircraft is 3 NM to the left of course.
been entered. What heading alteration should be made in order to
The true course of the aircraft on its arrival at B, to the arrive at point 'B'?
nearest degree, is:
A 4° right
A 277°
B 8° left
B 284°
C 8° right
C 263°
D 6° right
D 270°
267) An Agonic line is a line that connects:

272) A direct Mercator graticule is based on a projection that
is :
A positions that have the same variation
A spherical
B points of equal magnetic dip
B concentric
C points of equal magnetic horizontal field strength
C cylindrical
D positions that have 0° variation
D conical
266) An aircraft at FL350 is required to descend to cross a

280) Which is the highest latitude listed below at which the DME facility at FL80.
sun will rise above the horizon and set every day? Maximum rate of descent is 1800 FT/MIN and mean GS
for descent is 276 kt.
The minimum range from the DME at which descent
A 62°
should start is:
B 66° A 49 NM
C 68° B 59 NM
D 72°
C 69 NM
D 79 NM
270) A straight line drawn on a chart measures 4.63 cm and
represents 150 NM.
The chart scale is:
361) The main reason that day and night, throughout the
year, have different duration, is due to the:
A 1 : 5 000 000
B 1 : 1 000 000
A gravitational effect of the sun and moon on the speed of
rotation of the earth
C 1 : 6 000 000 B inclination of the ecliptic to the equator
D 1 : 3 000 000 C earth's rotation
D relative speed of the sun along the ecliptic

269) 730 FT/MIN equals:
A 1.6 m/sec
B 2.2 m/sec
C 3.7 m/sec
D 5.2 m/sec
273) Given : 292) On a polar stereographic projection chart showing the
Position 'A' N60 W020, South Pole, a straight line joins position A (70°S 065°E)
Position 'B' N60 W021, to position B (70°S 025°W).
Position 'C' N59 W020. The true course on departure from position A is
What are, respectively, the distances from A to B and approximately:
from A to C?
A 135°
A 60 NM and 30 NM
B 315°
B 60 NM and 52 NM
C 225°
C 30 NM and 60 NM
D 250°
D 52 NM and 60 NM
291) Civil twilight is defined by :

287) An island appears 30° to the right of the centre line on
an airborne weather radar display. What is the true
bearing of the aircraft from the island if at the time of A sun upper edge tangential to horizon
of 355° with the magnetic variation (VAR) 15°E? B sun altitude is 6° below the celestial horizon
A 160° C sun altitude is 12° below the celestial horizon
B 190° D sun altitude is 18° below the celestial horizon
C 220°
290) Given:
D 130° The coordinates of the heliport at Issy les Moulineaux
are:
N48°50' E002°16.5'
294) Given: The coordinates of the antipodes are :
FL120,
OAT is ISA standard, A S48°50' W177°43.5'
CAS is 200 kt,
Track is 222°(M), B S48°50' E177°43.5'
Heading is 215°(M),
Variation is 15°W. C S41°10' W177°43.5'
Time to fly 105 NM is 21 MIN.
What is the W/V? D S41°10' E177°43.5'
A 050°(T) / 70 kt.
B 040°(T) / 105 kt. 278) Given:

TAS = 125 kt,
True HDG = 355°,
C 055°(T) / 105 kt .
W/V = 320°(T)/30kt.
D 065°(T) / 70 kt.
A 348 - 102 kt
293) What is the validity period of the 'permanent' data base B 002 - 98 kt
of aeronautical information stored in the FMC In the
B737-400 Flight Management System? C 005 - 102 kt
A 28 days D 345 - 100 kt
B one calendar month
C 3 calendar months
D 14 days
288) Which of the following statements concerning the 284) (For this question use annex 061-12573A)
earth's magnetic field is completely correct? What is the average track (°T) and distance between
WTD NDB (N5211.3 W00705.0) and FOY NDB (N5234.0
A The earth's magnetic field can be classified as transient, W00911.7)?
semi-permanent or permanent
A 286° - 81 NM
B Dip is the angle between total magnetic field and vertical
field component B 294° - 80 NM
C The blue pole of the earth's magnetic field is situated in

C 075° - 81 NM
North Canada
D At the earth's magnetic equator, the inclination varies D 277° - 83 NM

depending on whether the geograhic equator is north or
south of the magnetic equator
283) What is the value of the magnetic dip at the magnetic
south pole ?
263) A great circle track joins position A (59°S 141°W) and B
(61°S 148°W). A 90°
What is the difference between the great circle track at A
and B? B 45°
A It increases by 3°
C 60°
B It decreases by 3°
D 0°
C It increases by 6°
D It decreases by 6° 282) (For this question use annex 061-12578A)

CRN NDB (N5318.1 W00856.5) and EKN NDB (N5423.6
W00738.7)?
286) (For this question use annex 061-1828A and the data for
1215 UTC) A 044° - 82 NM
1215 UTC LAJES VORTAC (38°46'N 027°05'W) RMI reads
178°, B 035° - 80 NM
range 135 NM.
Calculate the aircraft position at 1215 UTC?
C 042° - 83 NM
A 40°50'N 027°40'W
D 036° - 81 NM
B 41°00'N 028°10'W
C 41°05'N 027°50'W 281) An aircraft at latitude 02°20'N tracks 180°(T) for 685 km.
On completion of the flight the latitude will be:
D 40°55'N 027°55'W
A 04°10'S
B 04°30'S
285) Assume a Mercator chart.
The distance between positions A and B, located on the
same parallel and 10° longitude apart, is 6 cm. The scale C 09°05'S
at the parallel is 1 : 9 260 000.
What is the latitude of A and B? D 03°50'S
A 0°
289) On a Lambert Conformal Conic chart earth convergency
B 45° N or S is most accurately represented at the:
C 60° N or S A Equator
D 30° N or S B parallel of origin
C north and south limits of the chart
D standard parallels
239) An aircraft at FL310, M0.83, temperature -30°C, is 243) How long will it take to fly 5 NM at a groundspeed of 269
required to reduce speed in order to cross a reporting Kt ?
point five minutes later than planned.
Assuming that a zero wind component remains A 1 MIN 07 SEC
unchanged, when 360 NM from the reporting point Mach
Number should be reduced to: B 1 MIN 55 SEC
A M0.78
C 2 MIN 30 SEC
B M0.80
D 0 MIN 34 SEC
C M0.74
D M0.76 242) Given:

TAS = 198 kt,
HDG (°T) = 180,
W/V = 359/25.
265) An aircraft is planned to fly from position 'A' to position Calculate the Track(°T) and GS?
'B',
distance 480 NM at an average GS of 240 kt. It departs A 180 - 223 kt
'A' at 1000 UTC.
After flying 150 NM along track from 'A', the aircraft is 2 B 179 - 220 kt
MIN behind planned time.
Using the actual GS experienced, what is the revised
ETA at 'B'? C 181 - 180 kt
A 1203 D 180 - 183 kt
B 1153
247) At what approximate latitude is the length of one minute
C 1157 of arc along a meridian equal to one NM (1852 m)
correct?
D 1206
A 30°
B 45°
245) The main advantage of a remote indicating compass
over a direct reading compass is that it:
C 0°
A has less moving parts
D 90°
B requires less maintenance
C is able to magnify the earth's magnetic field in order to attain 240) (For this question refer to annex 061-12638A)
greater accuracy Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a lightship?
D senses, rather than seeks, the magnetic meridian A 10
B 12
244) Given:
TAS = 290 kt, C 14
True HDG = 171°,
W/V = 310°(T)/30kt D 16
A 4°L - 314 kt
248) ATT Mode of the Inertial Reference System (IRS) is a
back-up mode providing:
B 4°R - 310 kt
A only attitude and heading information
C 4°R - 314 kt
B only attitude information
D 4°L - 310 kt
C navigation information
D altitude, heading and position information
238) At what approximate date is the earth closest to the sun 234) Given:
(perihelion)? TAS = 132 kt,
True HDG = 257°
A Beginning of July W/V = 095°(T)/35kt.
B End of June
A 2°R - 166 kt
C Beginning of January
B 4°L - 167 kt
D End of March
C 3°L - 166 kt
D 4°R - 165 kt
237) How many NM would an aircraft travel in 1 MIN 45 SEC if
GS is 135 kt?
A 3.94 233) Given:

TAS = 225 kt,
B 2.36 HDG (°T) = 123°,
W/V = 090/60kt.
C 3.25
A 120 - 190 kt
D 39.0
B 128 - 180 kt
236) Given: C 134 - 178 kt

TAS = 472 kt,
True HDG = 005°, D 134 - 188 kt
W/V = 110°(T)/50kt.
A 7°R - 491 kt 241) An island is observed by weather radar to be 15° to the

left.
B 7°L - 491 kt The aircraft heading is 120°(M) and the magnetic
variation 17°W.
What is the true bearing of the aircraft from the island?
C 7°R - 487 kt
A 268°
D 6°L - 487 kt
B 302°
235) The automatic flight control system is coupled to the C 088°

guidance outputs from an inertial navigation system.
Which pair of latitudes will give the greatest difference D 122°
between initial track read-out and the average true
course given, in each case, a difference of longitude of
10°?
255) Given:
A 30°S to 25°S TAS = 370 kt,
True HDG = 181°,
B 60°N to 60°N W/V = 095°(T)/35kt.
C 60°N to 50°N
A 189 - 370 kt
D 30°S to 30°N
B 186 - 370 kt
C 176 - 370 kt
D 192 - 370 kt
262) An aircraft in the northern hemisphere is making an 246) An aircraft flies a great circle track from 56° N 070° W to
accurate rate one turn to the right. 62° N 110° E.
If the initial heading was 135°, after 30 seconds the The total distance travelled is?
direct reading magnetic compass should read:
A 1788 NM
A more or less than 225° depending on the pendulous
suspension used B 2040 NM
B more than 225°

C 3720 NM
C 225°
D 5420 NM
D less than 225°
256) Given:
For take-off an aircraft requires a headwind component
261) (For this question refer to annex 061-12612A) of at least 10 kt and has a cross-wind limitation of 35 kt.
Which of the following lists all the aeronautical chart The angle between the wind direction and the runway is
symbols shown at position N5318.1 W00856.5? 60°,
Calculate the minimum and maximum allowable wind
A civil airport: VOR: DME: non-compulsory reporting point speeds?
B VOR: DME: NDB: compulsory reporting point A 15 kt and 43 kt
C civil airport: NDB: DME: non-compulsory reporting point B 18 kt and 50 kt
D VOR: DME: NDB: compulsory reporting point C 20 kt and 40 kt
D 12 kt and 38 kt
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a
compulsory reporting point? 297) The Local Mean Time at longitude 095°20'W, at 0000
UTC, is :
A 7
A 0621:20 previous day
B 8
B 1738:40 same day
C 15
C 0621:20 same day
D 6
D 1738:40 previous day
259) The total length of the 53°N parallel of latitude on a

direct Mercator chart is 133 cm. What is the approximate 254) How is the radio position determined by the FMC in the
scale of the chart at latitude 30°S? B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System?
A 1 : 25 000 000 A DME/DME or VOR/DME
B 1 : 30 000 000 B DME ranges and/ or VOR/ADF bearings
C 1 : 18 000 000 C VOR/DME range and bearing
D 1 : 21 000 000 D DME/DME
258) Given: 253) An aircraft is descending down a 12% slope whilst

TAS = 155 kt, maintaining a GS of 540 kt.
HDG (T) = 216°, The rate of descent of the aircraft is approximately:
W/V = 090/60kt.
Caslculate the Track (°T) and GS? A 4500 FT/MIN
A 226 - 186 kt
B 3900 FT/MIN
B 231 - 196 kt
C 6500 FT/MIN
C 224 - 175 kt
D 650 FT/MIN
D 222 - 181 kt
252) Given: GS = 120 kt. 257) Given:
Distance from A to B = 84 NM. TAS = 480 kt,
What is the time from A to B? HDG (°T) = 040°,
W/V = 090/60kt.
A 00 HR 42 MIN Calculate the Track (°T) and GS?
B 00 HR 43 MIN A 034 - 445 kt
C 00 HR 44 MIN B 028 - 415 kt
D 00 HR 45 MIN C 032 - 425 kt
D 036 - 435 kt
251) In which two months of the year is the difference
between the transit of the Apparent Sun and Mean Sun
across the Greenwich Meridian the greatest? 336) The diameter of the Earth is approximately:
A June and December

A 12 700 km
B April and August
B 6 350 km
C February and November
C 18 500 km
D March and September
D 40 000 km
250) Given:
TAS 487kt, 295) The parallels on a Lambert Conformal Conic chart are
FL 330, represented by:
Temperature ISA + 15.
Calculate the MACH Number? A straight lines
A 0.81 B parabolic lines
B 0.84 C hyperbolic lines
C 0.76 D arcs of concentric circles
D 0.78
aircraft positions indicated on a triple fit Inertial
249) An aircraft at FL350 is required to commence descent Navigation System (INS)/ Inertial Reference System
when 85 NM from a VOR and to cross the VOR at FL80. (IRS) on the CDU is correct?
The mean GS for the descent is 340 kt.
What is the minimum rate of descent required? A The positions will be the same because they are an average
of three different positions
A 1700 FT/MIN
B The positions will only differ if one of the systems has been
decoupled because of a detected malfunction
B 1800 FT/MIN
C The positions will only differ if an error has been made when
C 1900 FT/MIN inputting the present position at the departure airport
D 1600 FT/MIN D The positions are likely to differ because they are calculated
from different sources
341) Two points A and B are 1000 NM apart. TAS = 490 kt. 337) (For this question refer to annex 061-12633A)
On the flight between A and B the equivalent headwind Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates an
is -20 kt. exceptionally high unlighted obstacle?
On the return leg between B and A, the equivalent
headwind is +40 kt. A 9
What distance from A, along the route A to B, is the the
Point of Equal Time (PET)? B 11
A 530 NM
C 13
B 470 NM
D 14
C 455 NM
D 500 NM 345) On a transverse Mercator chart, with the exception of

the Equator, parallels of latitude appear as:
A straight lines
340) Given:
TAS = 90 kt, B hyperbolic lines
HDG (T) = 355°,
W/V = 120/20kt.
Calculate the Track (°T) and GS? C parabolas
A 359 - 102 kt D ellipses
B 346 - 102 kt
335) At 47° North the chart distance between meridians 10°
C 006 - 95 kt apart is 5 inches.
The scale of the chart at 47° North approximates:
D 358 - 101 kt
A 1 : 6 000 000
B 1 : 8 000 000
339) At a specific location, the value of magnetic variation:
C 1 : 3 000 000
A depends on the magnetic heading
D 1 : 2 500 000
B depends on the true heading
C varies slowly over time 334) Gyrocompassing of an inertial reference system (IRS) is
accomplished with the mode selector switched to:
D depends on the type of compass installed
A ALIGN
344) An aircraft at position 60°N 005°W tracks 090°(T) for 315 B STBY
km.
On completion of the flight the longitude will be: C ATT/REF
A 000°15'E D ON
B 000°40'E
333) During initial alignment an inertial navigation system is
C 005°15'E north aligned by inputs from:
D 002°10'W A vertical accelerometers and the north gyro
B horizontal accelerometers and the east gyro
C the aircraft remote reading compass system
D computer matching of measured gravity magnitude to gravity

magnitude of initial alignment
true track is 348°, An aircraft on radial 110° at a range of 120 NM from
drift 17° left, SAXAVORD VOR (N6050 W00050) is at position:
variation 32° W,
deviation 4°E. A N6127 W00443
What is the compass heading?
B N6010 E00255
A 359°
C N6109 E00255
B 337°
D N6027 E00307
C 033°
D 007°
514) Which FMC/CDU page normally appears on initial power
application to the B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument
System?
331) Given:
TAS = 130 kt, A IDENT
Track (T) = 003°,
W/V = 190/40kt. B INITIAL
A 002 - 173 kt
C POS INIT
B 359 - 166 kt
D PERF INIT
C 357 - 168 kt
358) Given:
D 001 - 170 kt value for the ellipticity of the Earth is 1/297.
Earth's semi-major axis, as measured at the equator,
equals 6378.4 km.
What is the semi-minor axis (km) of the earth at the axis
330) (For this question use annex 061-12586A) of the Poles?
Given:
SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1) radial 232°/32 NM. A 6 356.9
B 6 378.4
A N5228 W00935
C 6 367.0
B N5303 W00810
D 6 399.9
C N5220 W00930
D N5305 W00815
357) Which of the following lists all the methods that can be
used to enter 'Created Waypoints' into the CDU of a
B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System?
338) The angle between the true great-circle track and the
true rhumb-line track joining the following points: A (60° A Identifier bearing/distance; place bearing/place bearing;
S 165° W) B (60° S 177° E), at the place of departure A, latitude and longitude; waypoint name
is:
B Identifier bearing/distance; place distance/place distance;
A 7.8° along-track displacement; latitude and longitude
B 9° C Identifier bearing/distance; place bearing/place bearing;

along-track displacement; latitude and longitude
C 15.6°
D Identifier bearing/distance; place bearing/place distance;
along/across-track displacement; latitude and longitude
D 5.2°
356) (For this question refer to annex 061-12611A) 351) Given:
Which of the following lists all the aeronautical chart Distance 'A' to 'B' 2346 NM
symbols shown at position N5416.7 W00836.0? Groundspeed 'out' 365 kt
A VOR: DME: NDB: non-compulsory reporting point Safe endurance 8 HR 30 MIN
The time from 'A' to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) 'A' is:
B civil airport: NDB: DME: compulsory reporting point
A 197 MIN
C VOR: DME: NDB: compulsory reporting point
B 209 MIN
D civil airport: VOR: DME: non-compulsory reporting point
C 290 MIN
D 219 MIN
355) Parallels of latitude, except the equator, are:
A Rhumb lines 350) (For this question use annex 061-12562A)

What is the radial and DME distance from BEL VOR/DME
B Great circles (N5439.7 W00613.8) to position N5440 W00730?
C both Rhumb lines and Great circles A 278° - 10 NM
D are neither Rhumb lines nor Great circles B 098° - 45 NM
C 278° - 44 NM
343) What is the effect on the Mach number and TAS in an
aircraft that is climbing with constant CAS? D 090° - 46 NM
A Mach number increases; TAS increases

349) Given:
B Mach number remains constant; TAS increases FL 350,
Mach 0.80,
C Mach number decreases; TAS decreases OAT -55°C.
Calculate the values for TAS and local speed of sound
D Mach number increases; TAS remains constant (LSS)?
A 461 kt , LSS 296 kt
353) From the departure point, the distance to the point of B 461 kt , LSS 576 kt
equal time is :
A proportional to the sum of ground speed out and ground

C 237 kt, LSS 296 kt
speed back
D 490 kt, LSS 461 kt
B inversely proportional to the total distance to go
C inversely proportional to ground speed back 348) (For this question refer to annex 061-12630A)
Which aeronautical chart symbol indicates a lighted
D inversely proportional to the sum of ground speed out and obstacle?
ground speed back
A 11
327) Given: B 12
TAS = 197 kt,
True course = 240°, C 9
W/V = 180/30kt.
Descent is initiated at FL 220 and completed at FL 40. D 10
Distance to be covered during descent is 39 NM.
What is the approximate rate of descent?
A 1500 FT/MIN
B 1400 FT/MIN
C 800 FT/MIN
D 950 FT/MIN
True HDG = 307°, A polar stereographic chart whose grid is aligned with
TAS = 230 kt, the zero meridian.
Track (T) = 313°, Grid track 344°,
GS = 210 kt. Longitude 115°00'W,
Calculate the W/V? Calculate the true course?
A 257/35kt A 049°
B 255/25kt B 229°
C 265/30kt C 099°
D 260/30kt D 279°
346) A pilot accidently turning OFF the INS in flight, and then 309) (For this question use annex 061-12571A)
turns it back ON a few moments later. Following this What is the average track (°T) and distance between
incident: CON VOR (N5354.8 W00849.1) and BEL VOR (N5439.7
W00613.8)?
A everything returns to normal and is usable
A 071° - 100 NM
B the INS is usable in NAV MODE after a position update
B 113° - 97 NM
C it can only be used for attitude reference
C 293° - 98 NM
D no useful information can be obtained from the INS
D 063° - 101 NM
354) The angular difference, on a Lambert conformal conic

chart, between the arrival and departure track is equal 308) Given:
to: Magnetic heading = 255°
VAR = 40°W
A earth convergence GS = 375 kt
W/V = 235°(T) / 120 kt
B conversion angle Calculate the drift angle?
C difference in longitude
A 9° left
D map convergence
B 16° right
C 7° left
303) (For this question use annex 061-12585A) D 7° right

Given:
SHA VOR/DME (N5243.3 W00853.1) radial 165°/36 NM.
307) An aircraft is flying with the aid of an inertial navigation
A N5210 W00830 system (INS) connected to the autopilot. The following
two points have been entered in the INS computer:
B N5208 W00840 WPT 1: 60°N 030°W
WPT 2: 60°N 020°W
When 025°W is passed the latitude shown on the
C N5315 W00915
display unit of the inertial navigation system will be:
D N5317 W00908 A 59°49.0'N
B 60°11.0'N
C 60°05.7'N
D 60°00.0'N
306) Given: 302) The purpose of the Flight Management System (FMS),
Magnetic track = 315 º, as for example installed in the B737-400, is to provide:
HDG = 301 º(M),
VAR = 5ºW, A both manual navigation guidance and performance
TAS = 225 kt, management
The aircraft flies 50 NM in 12 MIN.
Calculate the W/V(°T)? B continuous automatic navigation guidance and performance
management
A 195 º/61 kt
C manual navigation guidance and automatic performance
B 195 º/63 kt management
D continuous automatic navigation guidance as well as manual

C 190 º/63 kt
performance management
D 355 º/15 kt
Given:
329) The main reason for mounting the detector unit of a SHA VOR N5243.3 W00853.1
remote reading compass in the wingtip of an aeroplane CRK VOR N5150.4 W00829.7
is: Aircraft position N5230 W00820
Which of the following lists two radials that are
A by having detector units on both wingtips, to cancel out the applicable to the aircraft position?
deviation effects caused by the aircraft strucure
A SHA 131°
B to minimise the amount of deviation caused by aircraft CRK 017°
magnetism and electrical circuits
B SHA 304°
C to maximise the units exposure to the earth's magnetic field CRK 189°
D to ensure that the unit is in the most accessible position on C SHA 312°
the aircraft for ease of maintenance CRK 197°
D SHA 124°
CRK 009°
304) An aircraft at FL330 is rerquired to commence descent
when 65 NM from a VOR and to cross the VOR at FL100.
The mean GS during the descent is 330 kt.
What is the minimum rate of descent required? 300) An aeroplane flies from A (59°S 142°W) to B (61°S
148°W) with a TAS of 480 kt.
A 1850 FT/MIN The autopilot is engaged and coupled with an Inertial
Navigation System in which AB track is active.
On route AB, the true track:
B 1950 FT/MIN
A varies by 4°
C 1650 FT/MIN
B increases by 5°
D 1750 FT/MIN
C varies by 10°
313) An island appears 60° to the left of the centre line on an D decreases by 6°
airborne weather radar display. What is the true bearing
of 276° with the magnetic variation (VAR) 10°E? 299) In a navigation chart a distance of 49 NM is equal to 7
cm. The scale of the chart is approximately:
A 086°
A 1 : 1 300 000
B 226°
B 1 : 700 000
C 026°
C 1 : 130 000
D 046°
D 1 : 7 000 000
298) An aircraft is following a true track of 048° at a constant 296) A Lambert conformal conic projection, with two
TAS of 210 kt. standard parallels:
The wind velocity is 350° / 30 kt.
The GS and drift angle are: A shows lines of longitude as parallel straight lines
A 225 kt, 7° left B the scale is only correct along the standard parallels
B 192 kt, 7° right C shows all great circles as straight lines
C 200 kt, 3.5° right D the scale is only correct at parallel of origin
D 192 kt, 7° left

326) Which of the following lists the first three pages of the
FMC/CDU normally used to enter data on initial start-up
360) Some inertial reference and navigation systems are of the B737-400 Electronic Flight Instrument System?
known as "strapdown".
This means that: A POS INIT - RTE - IDENT
A gyros and accelerometers need satellite information input to B IDENT - RTE - DEPARTURE
obtain a vertical reference
B the gyroscopes and accelerometers become part of the C POS INIT - RTE - DEPARTURE
unit's fixture to the aircraft structure
D IDENT - POS INIT - RTE
C only the gyros, and not the accelerometers, become part of
the unit's fixture to the aircraft structure
D gyros and accelerometers are mounted on a stabilised What is the average track (°M) and distance between
platform in the aircraft CRN NDB (N5318.1 W00856.5) and BEL VOR (N5439.7
W00613.8)?
305) Given: A 237° - 130 NM

TAS = 190 kt,
HDG (T) = 355°, B 057° - 126 NM
W/V = 165/25kt.
C 089° - 95 NM
A 1R - 175 kt
D 229° - 125 NM
B 1R - 165 kt
C 1L - 215 kt 324) On a Mercator chart, the scale:
D 1L - 225 kt A varies as 1/2 cosine of the co-latitude
B varies as 1/cosine of latitude (1/cosine= secant)

319) An aircraft was over 'A' at 1435 hours flying direct to 'B'.
Given: C varies as the sine of the latitude
True airspeed 470 kt D is constant throughout the chart
Mean wind component 'out' +55 kt
Mean wind component 'back' -75 kt
The distance from 'A' to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) 323) In order to maintain an accurate vertical using a
'A' is: pendulous system, an aircraft inertial platform
incorporates a device:
A 2141 NM
A without damping and a period of 84.4 SEC
B 1611 NM
B with damping and a period of 84.4 SEC
C 1759 NM
C with damping and a period of 84.4 MIN
D 2844 NM
D without damping and a period of 84.4 MIN
322) Compass deviation is defined as the angle between: 318) (For this question use annex 061-12553A)
A True North and Compass North W00940?
B the horizontal and the total intensity of the earth's magnetic A 324° - 17 NM
field
B 309° - 33 NM
C Magnetic North and Compass North
D True North and Magnetic North

C 057° - 27 NM
D 293° - 33 NM
311) Given:
Runway direction 083°(M),
Surface W/V 035/35kt. 317) Given:
Calculate the effective headwind component? Maximum allowable crosswind component is 20 kt.
Runway 06, RWY QDM 063°(M).
Wind direction 100°(M)
A 27 kt
Calculate the maximum allowable windspeed?
B 31 kt A 25 kt
C 34 kt B 33 kt
D 24 kt
C 31 kt
D 26 kt
320) The drift of the azimuth gyro on an inertial unit induces
an error in the position given by this unit. "t" being the
elapsed time.
The total error is: 316) Given:
True HDG = 074°,
TAS = 230 kt,
A proportional to t
Track (T) = 066°,
GS = 242 kt.
B proportional to the square of time, t² Calculate the W/V?
C proportional to t/2 A 180/40kt
D sinusoîdal B 180/35kt
C 180/30kt
312) An aircraft is planned to fly from position 'A' to position
'B', D 185/35kt
distance 250 NM at an average GS of 115 kt. It departs
'A' at 0900 UTC.
After flying 75 NM along track from 'A', the aircraft is 1.5
MIN behind planned time. 315) Transverse Mercator projections are used for:
Using the actual GS experienced, what is the revised
ETA at 'B'? A maps of large north/south extent
A 1044 UTC
B maps of large east/west extent in equatorial areas
B 1050 UTC
C radio navigation charts in equatorial areas
C 1115 UTC
D plotting charts in equatorial areas
D 1110 UTC
314) Given:
Required course 045°(M);
Variation is 15°E;
W/V is 190°(T)/30 kt;
CAS is 120 kt at FL 55 in standard atmosphere.
What are the heading (°M) and GS?
A 056° and 137 kt
B 055° and 147 kt
C 036° and 151 kt
D 052° and 154 kt
328) Assuming mid-latitudes (40° to 50°N/S).

At which time of year is the relationship between the
length
of day and night, as well as the rate of change of
declination
of the sun, changing at the greatest rate?
A Summer solstice and spring equinox
B summer solstice and winter solstice
C Winter solstice and autumn equinox
D Spring equinox and autumn equinox
321) (For this question use annex 061-2325A to 061-2325D)

An aircraft takes off from Guam at 2300 Standard Time
on 30 April local date.
After a flight of 11 HR 15 MIN it lands at Los Angeles
(California).
What is the Standard Time and local date of arrival
(assume summer time rules apply)?
A 1715 on 30 April
B 1215 on 1 May
C 1315 on 1 May
D 1615 on 30 April
Professione Volare Domande Planning&monitor
Data:
Nome Allievo:
151) In an ATS flight plan, Item 15 (route), a cruising pressure 141) (For this question use annex 033-3305A or Flight
altitude of 32000 feet would be entered as : Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1)
Given: long range cruise: temp. -63° C at FL 330
A FL320 initial gross mass enroute 54 100 kg; leg flight
time 29 min
B S3200 Find: fuel consumption for this leg
C 32000
A 1 020 kg
D F320
B 1 200 kg
C 1 100 kg
163) (For this question use annex 033-3302A or Flight D 1 680 kg

Planning Manual MEP1 Figure 3.6)
A flight is to be made to an airport, pressure altitude
3000 ft, in a multi engine piston aireroplane (MEP1). The
forecast OAT for the airport is -1° C. The cruising level 142) If a pilot lands at an aerodrome other than the
will be FL 110, where OAT is -10° C. destination aerodrome specified in the flight plan, he
Calculate the still air descent distance for: must ensure that the ATS unit at the destination
145 KIAS aerodrome is informed within a certain number of
Rate of descent 1000 ft/min minutes of his planned ETA at destination. This number
Gears and flaps up of minutes is:
A 29 NM A 45
B 36 NM B 30
C 25 NM C 15
D 20 NM D 10
139) In the ATS flight plan Item 15 (Cruising speed), when not 143) Which of the following statements regarding filing a
expressed as a Mach number, cruising speed is flight plan is correct?
expressed as :
A Any flight plan should be filed at least 10 minutes before
A TAS departure.
B IAS B A flight plan should be filed when a national FIR boundary

will be crossed.
C CAS
C A flying college can file repetitive flight plan for VFR flights.
D Groundspeed
D In case of flow control the flight plan should be filed at least
three hours in advance of the time of departure.
140) The following fuel consumption figures are given for a

jet aeroplane: 144) An airway is marked 5000 2900a. The notation 5000 is
-standard taxi fuel: 600 kg. the :
-average cruise consumption: 10 000 kg/h.
-holding fuel consumption at 1500 ft above alternate A base of the airway (AGL)
airfield elevation: 8000 kg/h.
-flight time from departure to destination: 6 hours
-fuel for diversion to alternate: 10 200 kg.
B minimum enroute altitude (MEA)
The minimum ramp fuel load is:
C maximum authorised altitude (MAA)
A 77 200 kg
D minimum holding altitude (MHA)
B 77 800 kg
C 74 800 kg
D 79 800 kg
145) Which of the following statements is relevant for 137) (For this question use annex 033-3322A or Flight
forming route portions in integrated range flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.6)
planning? Given: estimated dry operation mass 35 500 kg;
estimated load 14 500 kg; final reserve fuel 1200 kg;
A A small change of temperature (2 °C) can divide a segment. distance to alternate 95 NM; average true track 219°;
head wind component 10 kt
B The distance from take-off up to the top of climb has to be Find : fuel and time to alternate.
known.
A 1 100 kg; 44 min
C No segment shall be more than 30 minutes of flight time.
B 800 kg; 24 min
D Each reporting point requires a new segment.
C 800 kg; 40 min
146) If your destination airport has no ICAO indicator, in the D 1 100 kg; 25 min
appropriate box of your flight plan, you write:
A AAAA 150) Given :

X = Distance A to point of equal time (PET) between A
B XXXX and B
E = Endurance
C //// D = Distance A to B
O = Groundspeed 'on'
H = Groundspeed 'back'
D ZZZZ
The formula for calculating the distance X to point of
equal time (PET) is:
147) (For this question use annex 033-12324A ) A ExOxH

In the vicinity of SHANNON (52° N009°W) the tropopause X = ________
is at about FL O+H
A 350 B DxOxH
X = ________
B 300 O+H
C DxH
C 270 X = _____
O+H
D 360
D DxO
X = _____
O+H
148) (For this question use annex 033-9737A,
AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART
(NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)
Flying VFR from PEITING (47°48.0'N, 010°55.5'E) to 136) (For this question use annex 033-9701A or Flight
IMMENSTADT (47°33.5'N, 010°13.0'E) determine the Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1)
magnetic course. Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for the twin
jet aeroplane.
A 077° Given: Estimated Take-off Mass (TOM) 52000 kg, Airport
elevation 387 ft, FL 280, W/V 280°/40 kt, ISA Deviation -
10°C, Average True Course 340°
B 243°
Find: Fuel to the top of climb (TOC)
C 063° A 1000 kg
D 257° B 1000 lbs
C 1100 kg
D 1500 lbs
152) (For this question use annex 033-9721A, 156) (For this question use annex 033-12361A or Flight
AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.7.3)
(NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6) Given:
Give the name and frequency of the Flight Information Distance to alternate 950 NM
Service for an aeroplane in position (47°59'N, 010°14'E). Head wind component 20 kt
Mass at point of diversion 50000kg
A MEMMINGEN INFORMATION 122.1 MHz Diversion fuel available 5800kg
The minimum pressure altitude at which the above
B MÜNCHEN INFORMATION 126.95 MHz conditions may be met is :
C MÜNCHEN INFORMATION 120.65 MHz

A 18000ft
D FRANKFURT INFORMATION 128.95 MHz

B 22000ft
C 20000ft
153) (For this question use annex 033-3309A or Flight D 26000ft

Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1)
Given : mass at brake release 57 500 kg;
temperature ISA -10°C; average head wind component
16 kt 157) Find the time to the Point of Safe Return (PSR).
initial cruise FL 280 Given: Maximum useable fuel 15000 kg, Minimum
Find: climb fuel reserve fuel 3500 kg, TAS out 425 kt, Head wind
component out 30 kt, TAS return 430 kt, Tailwind
A 1138 kg component return 20 kt, Average fuel flow 2150 kg/h
B 1238 kg A 2 h 43 min
C 1387 kg B 2 h 51 min
D 1040 kg C 3 h 43 min
D 2 h 59 min
154) (For this question use annex 033-12339A or Flight
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.1C)
For a flight of 2800 ground nautical miles the following 158) During an IFR flight TAS and time appear to deviate from
apply : the data in the flight plan. The minimum deviations, that
Head wind component 15 kt should be reported to ATC in order to conform to PANS-
Temperature ISA + 15°C RAC, are:
Cruise altitude 35000 ft
Landing mass 50000 kg A TAS 5% and time 3 minutes.
The (a) trip fuel and (b) trip time respectively are :
B TAS 3% and time 3 minutes.
A (a) 17000 kg
(b) 6 hr 10 min
C TAS 5 kt and time 5 minutes.
B (a) 20000 kg
(b) 7hr 00 min D TAS 10 kt and time 2 minutes.
C (a) 17600 kg
(b) 6 hr 50 min 159) (For this question use annex 033-12281A)
Item 9 of the ATS flight plan includes "NUMBER AND
D (a) 16200 kg TYPE OF AIRCRAFT". In this case "NUMBER" means :
(b) 6 hr 20 min
A the number of aircraft which will separately be using a
repetitive flight plan (RPL)
155) From which of the following would you expect to find
facilitation information (FAL) regarding customs and B the ICAO type designator number as set out in ICAO Doc
health formalities ? 8643
A AIP (Air Information Publication) C the number of aircraft flying in a group
B NAV/RAD charts D the registration number of the aircraft
C ATCC
D NOTAM
160) (For this question use annex 033-3316A or Route Manual 124) (For this question use annex 033-9579A, B,C,D or Flight
chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.2.2 and Figure 4.5.3.2)
An aeroplane has to fly from Salzburg (48°00.2'N Given: Estimated take-off mass 57000 kg, Ground
012°53.6'E) to Klagenfurt (46°37.5'N 014°33.8'E). Which distance 150 NM, Temperature ISA -10°C, Cruise at .74
statement is correct ? Mach
Find: Cruise altitude and expected true air speed
A The minimum enroute altitude (MEA) is 13400 ft.
A 33900 ft, 420 kt
B The minimum sector altitude (MSA) is 13400 ft.
B 25000 ft, 435 kt
C The minimum obstacle clearance altitude (MOCA) on this
route is 10800 ft above MSL. C 24000 ft, 445 kt
D The minimum grid safe altitude on this route is 13400 ft D 33500 ft, 430 kt
above MSL.
111) (For this question use annexes 033-3320A, 033-3320B

161) (For this question use annex 033- 11033A or Route
and 033-3320C or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1
Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA-Edition)
Figures 4.2.1, 4.2.2 and 4.5.3.2)
An appropriate flight level for flight on airway UG5 from
Given: estimated take-off mass 57 000 kg; still air
MENDE-NASBINALS MEN 115.3 (44°36'N 003°10'E) to
distance 150 NAM; outside air temperature (OAT) ISA -
GAILLAC GAI 115.8 (43°57'N 001°50'E) is :
10K; cruise at 0.74 Mach.
Find : cruise altitude and expected true airspeed
A FL310
A 25 000 ft; 435 kt
B FL290
B 25 000 ft; 445 kt
C FL280
C 22 000 ft; 441 kt
D FL300
D 22 000 ft; 451 kt
217) On an IFR navigation chart, in a 1° quadrant of longitude

and latitude, appears the following information "80".
This means that within this quadrant:
details of the Search and Rescue organisation and
procedures (SAR) ?
A the floor of the airway is at 8 000 ft
A AIP (Air Information Publication)
B the minimum safe altitude is 8 000 ft
B ATCC broadcasts
C the minimum flight level is FL 80
C NOTAM
D the altitude of the highest obstacle is 8 000 ft
D SIGMET
149) Given :
Course A to B 088° (T)
distance 1250 NM
Mean TAS 330 kt
The radio navigation aid STAD (51°45'N 004°15'E) is:
Mean W/V 340°/60 kt
The time from A to the PET between A and B is :
A a VOR, frequency 386 MHz
A 1 hour 39 minutes
B a VOR/DME, on channel 386
B 2 hours 02 minutes
C a TACAN, on channel 386
C 1 hour 42 minutes
D an NDB, frequency 386 kHz
D 1 hour 54 minutes
114) (For this question use annex 033- 10993A or Route 118) (For this question use annex 033- 11049A or Route
Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) Manual STAR charts for MUNICH (10-2A,B))
The magnetic course/distance from DINKELSBUHL DKB The correct arrival route and Initial Approach Fix (IAF)
117.8 (49°09'N010°14'E) to ERLANGEN ERL 114.9 for an arrival from the west via TANGO for runway 08
(49°39'N011°09'E) on airway UR11 is; L/R is:
A 230°/97NM A AALEN 1T, IAF MBG
B 133°/85 NM B NDG 1T, IAF ROKIL
C 052°/97 NM C DKB 1T, IAF ROKIL
D 050°/47 NM D AALEN 1T, IAF ROKIL
115) (For this question use annex 033-12344A or Flight 119) During a flight at night a position has to be reported to
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.1C) ATC. The aeroplane is at a distance of 750 NM from the
For a flight of 2000 ground nautical miles, cruising at groundstation and at flight level 350. The frequency to
30000 ft, within the limits of the data given, a headwind be used is:
component of 25 kt will affect the trip time by
approximately : A 11336 kHz.
A -3.6% B 17286 kHz.
B +7.6% C 123.9 MHz.
C +5.3% D 5649 kHz.
D +2.3%
120) (For this question use annex 033-9699A and 033-9699B
or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Paragraph 5.1 and
116) (For this question use annex 033-12318A) Figure 4.5.1)
The W/V (°/kt) at 60° N015° W is Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for a twin jet
aeroplane.
A 300/60 Given: Estimated Take-off Mass (TOM) 52000 kg, Airport
elevation 387 ft, FL 280, W/V 280°/40 kt, ISA-Deviation -
B 300/70 10°C, Average True Course 340°
Find: Ground distance to the top of climb (TOC)
C 320/60
A 53 NM
D 115/60
B 47 NM
C 50 NM
117) Mark the correct statement:
If a decision point procedure is applied for flight D 56 NM
planning,
A the trip fuel to the destination aerodrome is to be calculated

via the decision point. 121) (For this question use annex 033-11717A)
B the trip fuel to the destination aerodrome is to be calculated The planned flight is over a distance of 440 NM
via the suitable enroute alternate. Based on the wind charts at altitude the following
components are found;
C a destination alternate is not required. FL50: -30kt; FL100: -50kt; FL180: -70kt
The Operations Manual in appendix details the aircraft's
D the fuel calculation is based on a contingency fuel from performances
departure aerodrome to the decision point.
Which of the following flight levels (FL) gives the best
range performance:
A FL 100
B FL 050
C Either FL 050 or FL 100
D FL 180
138) (For this question use annex 033-9552A or Flight 126) (For this question use annex 033-12337A )
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.2.1) What minimum visibility is forecast for PARIS/CHARLES-
Find the OPTIMUM ALTITUDE for the twin jet aeroplane. DE-GAULLE at 2100 UTC ?
Given: Cruise mass=54000 kg, Long range cruise or .74
MACH A 8000m
A 34500 ft B 2000m
B 33800 ft C 6000m
C 35300 ft D 10km
D maximum operating altitude

Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.2)
123) An aeroplane flies at an airspeed of 380 kt. lt flies from A Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for the twin
to B and back to A. Distance AB = 480 NM. When going jet aeroplane.
from A to B, it experiences a headwind component = 60 Given: Gross mass 50000 kg, FL 280, ISA Deviation -
kt. The wind remains constant. 10°C, Cruise procedure Mach 0.74
The duration of the flight will be: Determine the TAS
A 2h 32min A 440 kt
B 2h 35min B 427 kt
C 3h 00min C 417 kt
D 2h 10min D 430 kt
164) An aeroplane is on an IFR flight. The flight is to be 128) A repetitive flight plan (RPL) is filed for a scheduled
changed from IFR to VFR. Is it possible? flight: Paris-Orly to Angouleme, Paris Orly as alternate.
Following heavy snow falls, Angouleme airport will be
A Yes, but only with permission from ATC. closed at the expected time of arrival. The airline
decides before departure to plan a re-routing of that
B Yes, the pilot in command must inform ATC using the flight to Limoges.
phrase "cancelling my IFR flight".
A It is not possible to plan another destination and the fIight
C No, you have to remain IFR in accordance to the filed flight has to be simply cancelled that day (scheduled flight and not
plan. chartered).
D No, only ATC can order you to do this. B The pilot-in-command must advise ATC of his intention to
divert to Limoges at least 15 minutes before the planned
time of arrival.
125) (For this question use annex 033-11186A) C The RPL must be cancelled for that day and a specific flight
Which best describes be maximum intensity of icing, if plan has to be filed.
any, at FL150 in the vicinity of BUCHAREST (45°N 026°E)
? D The airline's "Operations " Department has to tansmit a
change in the RPL at the ATC office, at least half an hour
A Light before the planned time of departure.
B Severe
C Nil
D Moderate
129) (For this question use annex 033-11207A and 033- 133) (For this question use annex 033- 11059A or Route
11207B) Manual chart AMSTERDAM SCHIPHOL ILS DME Rwy 22
A turbojet aeroplane is prepared for a 1300 NM flight at (11-6))
FL 350, with a true airspeed of 460 kt and a head wind of The Missed Approach procedure is to climb to an alitude
160 kt. The take-off runway limitation is 174 000 kg, the of (i)------------ on a track of (ii) ----------
planned departure mass is 160 000 kg. The departure
fuel price is equal to 0.92 times the arrival fuel price (fuel A (i) 2000 ft (ii) 160°
price ratio = 0.92). In order for the airline to optimize its
savings, the additional fuel quantity that must be loaded B (i) 200 ft (ii) 223°
on board is:
A 42 000 kg
C (i) 3000 ft (ii) 160°
B 12 000 kg
D (i) 3000 ft (ii) 223°
C 14 000 kg
D 30 000 kg Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.7.3)
Given:
Diversion fuel available 8500kg
Diversion cruise altitude 10000ft
130) In the appropriate box of a flight plan form, concerning Mass at point of diversion 62500kg
equipment, the letter to be used to indicate that the Head wind component 50kt
aircraft is equipped with a mode A 4096 codes Temperature ISA -5°C
transponder with altitude reporting capability is : The (a) maximum diversion distance, and
(b) elapsed time alternate, are approximately :
A P
A (a) 1130 NM
B S (b) 3h 30 min
B (a) 860 NM
C A
(b) 3h 20 min
D C C (a) 1000 NM
(b) 3h 40 min
131) From which of the following would you expect to find D (a) 760 NM
information regarding known short unserviceability of (b) 4h 30 min
VOR, TACAN, and NDB ?
A NOTAM 135) (For this question use annex 033-3315A or Route Manual
chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)
B AIP (Air Information Publication) An aeroplane has to fly from Salzburg (48°00.2'N
012°53.6'E) to Klagenfurt (46°37.5'N 014°33.8'E). Which
statement is correct ?
C SIGMET
A The airway UB5 is closed for southbound traffic above FL
D ATCC broadcasts 200.
B The airway UB5 is closed in this direction except during the

132) (For this question use annexes 033-9710A, 033-9710B weekends.
and 033-9710C or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-
Edition, STAR 10-2 and Instrument approach chart 11-4 C The airway UB5 can be used for flights to/from Klagenfurt
ILS DME Rwy 27R for London Heathrow ) and Salzburg.
Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London (Heathrow).
Assume: STAR is BIG 2A, Variation 5° W, en-route TAS
D The airway UB5 cannot be used, there is one way traffic to
the north.
430 kts, W/V 280/40, descent distance 76NM.
Determine the magnetic course, ground speed and wind
correction angle from ABB 116.6(N50 08.1 E001 51.3) to
top of descent. 122) (For this question use annex 033-11192A)
The approximate mean wind component (kt) at Mach
A MC 319°, GS 396 kt, WCA -3° 0.78 along true course 270° at 50°N from 000° to 010°W is
B MC 141°, GS 396 kt, WCA -3° A 55 kt headwind component
C MC 321°, GS 396 kt, WCA -3° B 35 kt tailwind component
D MC 141°, GS 396 kt, WCA +3° C 25 kt tailwind component
D 40 kt headwind component
205) (For this question use annex 033- 11035A or Route 195) (For this question use annex 033-9705A or Flight
Manual chart E(LO)2) Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.4 )
An appropriate flight level for flight on airway B3 from Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for the twin
CHATILLON CTL 117.6 (49°08'N 003°35'E) to CAMBRAI jet aeroplane.
CMB 112.6 (50°14'N 003°09'E) is : Given: Estimated Landing Mass 49700 kg, FL 280, W/V
280°/40 kt, Average True Course 320°, Procedure for
A FL80 descent .74 M/250 KIAS
Determine the time from the top of descent to London
B FL60 (elevation 80 ft).
C FL50
A 19 min
D FL170
B 10 min
C 17 min
162) (For this question use annex 033- 11003A or Route D 8 min
The magnetic course/distance from ELBA ELB 114.7
(42°44'N 010°24'E) to SPEZI (43°49'N 009°34'E) on airway
UA35 is: 196) (For this question use annex 033-11704A)
A 152°/42 NM True Air speed: 170 kt

Wind in the area: 270°/40 kt
B 322°/60 NM
According to the attached the navigation log, an aircraft
performs a turn overhead BULEN to re-route to ARD via
C 332°/118 NM
TGJ.
The given wind conditions remaining constant.
D 332°/76 NM The fuel consumption during the turn is 20 litres.
The total fuel consumption at position overhead ARD
will be:
AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART A 1 545 litres
Which navigation aid is located in position 48°23'N, B 1 182 litres
008°39'E?
C 1 326 litres
A VOR/DME
D 1 600 litres
B VORTAC
C VOR
197) (For this question use annex 033-11253A, 033-11253B,
033-11253C and 033-11253D)
D NDB Knowing that:
. Mass at brake release: 190 000 kg
. Selected cruise speed: 0.82 Mach
194) (For this question use annex 033-12329A ) . Flight leg distance: 1 500 NM
What lowest cloud conditions (oktas/ft) are forecast for . Cruise level: optimum
JOHANNESBURG/JAN SMUTS at 0300 UTC? . Air conditioning: standard
. Anti-icing: OFF
. Temperature: ISA
A 5 to 7 at 400
. CG: 37%
Assuming zero wind, the planned flight time from take-
B 3 to 4 at 800 off to landing needed to complete this flight will be:
C 5 to 7 at 800 A 209 minutes
D 3 to 4 at 400 B 192 minutes
C 198 minutes
D 203 minutes
198) You are flying a constant compass heading of 252°. 202) (For this question use annex 033-9546A or Flight
Variation is 22°E, deviation is 3°W and your INS is Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.6)
showing a drift of 9° right. True track is ? In order to find ALTERNATE FUEL and TIME TO
ALTERNATE, the AEROPLANE OPERATING MANUAL
A 262° shall be entered with:
B 280° A distance in nautical air miles (NAM), wind component,

landing mass at alternate
C 224°
B distance in nautical miles (NM), wind component, zero fuel
mass
D 242°
C distance in nautical miles (NM), wind component, dry
operating mass plus holding fuel
199) The required time for final reserve fuel for turbojet
aeroplane is: D distance in nautical miles (NM), wind component, landing
mass at alternate
A Variable with wind velocity.
B 30 min. 191) (For this question use annex 033- 11040A or Route
Manual STAR charts for ZURICH (10-2,10-2A,10-2B))
Aeroplane arriving via route BLM 2Z only, should follow
C 45 min.
the following route to EKRON int:
D 60 min. A WIL R018 outbound to EKRON int
B HOC R067 via GOLKE to EKRON int

The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight C BLM R111 to GOLKE int then TRA R-247 inbound to
using the following data: EKRON int
. Take-off mass: 168 500 kg
. Flight leg ground distance: 2 000 NM D TRA R247 outbound to EKRON int
. Flight level FL 370; "Long Range" flight regime
. Tailwind component at this level: 30 kt
. Total anti-ice set on "ON"
. Fixed taxi fuel: 500 kg; final reserve: 2 000 kg 204) (For this question use annex 033-11183A)
. Ignore alternate fuel. In the vicinity of PARIS (49°N 003°E) the tropopause is at
The effects of climb and descent are not corrected for about
consumption.
The prescribed quantity of trip fuel for the flight leg is: A FL350
A 20 500 kg B FL380
B 23 000 kg C FL400
C 22 500 kg D FL340
D 23 300 kg
190) The navigation plan reads:
Trip fuel: 100 kg
201) (For this question use annex 033-12335A ) Flight time: 1h35min
Which is the heaviest type of precipitation, if any, Taxi fuel: 3 kg
forecast for BORDEAUX/MERIGNAC at 1000 UTC ? Block fuel: 181 kg
The endurance on the ICAO flight plan should read:
A nil
A 2h 52min
B light rain
B 2h 49min
C rain showers
C 1h 35min
D heavy rain associated with thunderstorms
D 2h 04min
206) (For this question use annex 033-9715A or Flight 209) (For this question use annex 033-9716A or Flight
Planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1) Planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4)
Given: Take-off mass 3500 lbs, departure aerodrome Given: Aeroplane mass at start-up 3663 lbs, Aviation
pressure altitude 2500 ft, gasoline (density 6 lbs/gal)-fuel load 74 gal, Take-off
OAT +10°C, altitude sea level, Headwind 40 kt, Cruising altitude 8000
First cruising level: FL 140, OAT -5°C ft, Power setting full throttle 2300 RPM 20°C lean of peak
Find the time, fuel and still air distance to climb. EGT
Calculate the range.
A 16.5 min, 4.9 GAL, 34.5 NAM
A 633 NM
B 23 min, 7.7 GAL, 50 NAM
B 844 NM
C 22 min, 6.7 GAL, 45 NAM
C 730 NM
D 24 min, 7.7 GAL, 47 NAM
D 547.5 NM

and 033-11204C) 210) (For this question use annex 033-12289A)
The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight In the ATS flight plan Item 19, emergency and survival
using the following data: equipment carried on the flight should be indicated by :
Flight leg ground distance: 4 000 NM
Flight level FL 370; "Long range" flight regime A crossing out the box relevant to any equipment not carried
Effective wind at this level: head wind of 50 kt
Temperature: ISA B circling the relevant box
Centre of gravity (CG): 37 %
Pack flow : LOW (LO)
Anti ice: OFF C placing a tick in the relevant box
Reference landing mass: 140 000 kg
Taxi fuel: 500 kg D listing the items carried on the "REMARKS" line
Final reserve fuel: 2 400 kg
The fuel quantity which must be loaded on board the
aircraft is: 211) In the ATS flight plan Item 15, a cruising speed of 470
knots will be entered as :
A 46 340 kg
A 0470K
B 41 950 kg
B N470
C 51 860 kg
C N0470
D 52 060 kg
D KN470

Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) 212) (For this question use annexes 033-12309A and 033-
The magnetic course/distance from ST PREX SPR 113.9 12309B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.2
(46°28'N 006°27'E) to FRIBOURG FRI 115.1 (46°47'N and 4.5.3.4)
007°14'E) on airway UG60 is:
Given : Distance B - C : 350 NM
A 048°/46 NM Cruise 300 KIAS at FL 210
Temperature : - 40°C
B 061°/28 NM Tailwind component : 70 kt
Gross mass at B : 53 200 kg
C 041°/78 NM The fuel required from B - C is :
D 061°/37 NM A 1940 kg
B 2800 kg
C 2670 kg
D 1810 kg
213) (For this question use annex 033-12376A or Route 1) (For this question use annexes 033-12308A and 033-
Manual chart NAP) 12308B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.2
The initial true course from A (64°N006°E) to C and 4.5.3.4)
(62°N020°W) is Given : Distance C - D : 540 NM
Cruise 300 KIAS at FL 210
A 271° Temperature Deviation from ISA : +20°C
Headwind component : 50 kt
B 275° Gross mass at C : 60 000 kg
The fuel required from C to D is :
C 267°
A 3350 kg
D 246°
B 3680 kg
C 4620 kg
214) (For this question use annex 033-11243A and 033-
11243B) D 4200 kg
The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight
using the following data:
- Flight leg distance: 3 500 NM
- Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 450 kt 203) (For this question use annex 033-4738A or Flight
- Headwind component at this level: - 55 kt Planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1)
- Initially planned take-off mass (without extra fuel on Given:
board): 180 000 kg FL 75
- Fuel price: 0.30 Euro/l at departure; 0.27 Euro/l at OAT: +5°C
destination During climb: average head wind component 20 kt
To maximize savings, the commander decides to carry Take-off from MSL with the initial mass of 3 650 lbs.
extra fuel in addition to that which is necessary. Find:
Using the appended annex, the optimum quantity of fuel Still air distance (NAM) and ground distance (NM) using
which should be carried in addition to the prescribed the graph "time, fuel, distance to climb".
quantity is:
A 14 NAM.
A 15 000 kg 18 NM.
B 8 000 kg B 18 NAM.
15 NM.
C The fuel transport operation is not recommended in this
C 16 NAM.
case.
18 NM.
D 22 000 kg
D 18 NAM.
13 NM.

Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.7.3) 178) VFR flights shall not be flown over the congested areas
Given: of cities at a height less than
Diversion distance 650 NM
Diversion pressure altitude 16 000 ft A 1000 ft above the heighest obstacle within a radius of 600 m
Mass at point of diversion 57 000 kg from the aircraft.
Head wind component 20 kt
Temperature ISA + 15°C B 2000 ft above the heighest obstacle within a radius of 600 ft
The diversion (a) fuel required and (b) time, are from the aircraft.
approximately :
C 500 ft above the heighest obstacle.
A (a) 4400kg
(b) 1h 35min D the heighest obstacle.
B (a) 4800kg
(b) 2h 03min
165) Given : true track 017; W/V 340/30; TAS 420 kt
C (a) 3900kg Find : wind correction angle (WCA) and ground speed
(b) 1h 45min (GS)
D (a) 6200kg A WCA +2° ; GS 396 kt

(b) 2h 10min
B WCA -2° ; GS 426 kt
C WCA +2° ; GS 416 kt
D WCA -2° ; GS 396 kt
166) (For this question use annex 033-12366A or Flight 170) (For this question use annex 031-11231A)
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.7.2) For a long distance flight at FL 370, "Long Range"
An aircraft on an extended range operation is required regime, divided into four flight legs with the following
never to be more than 120 minutes from an alternate, specifications:
based on 1 engine inoperative LRC conditions in ISA. - segment AB - Ground distance: 2 000 NM. headwind
Using the above table and a given mass of 40000 kg at component: 50 kt
the most critical point, the maximum air distance to the - segment BC - Ground distance: 1 000 NM. headwind
relevant alternate is : component: 30 kt
- segment CD - Ground distance: 500 NM. tailwind
A 735 NM component: 70 kt
- segment DE - Ground distance: 1 000 NM. headwind
B 794 NM component: 20 kt
The total air distance is approximately:
C 810 NM
A 4 940 NM
D 875 NM
B 4 580 NM
C 4 820 NM
167) (For this question use annex 033-9702A or Route Manual
SID chart 20-3 for PARIS Carles-de-Gaulle) D 4 800 NM
Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London.
Determine the distance of the departure route ABB 8A.

171) A twin-jet aeroplane carries out the WASHINGTON-
A 83 NM PARIS flight. When it reaches point K (35°N - 048°W) a
non-mechanical event makes the Captain consider
B 74.5 NM rerouting to one of the three following fields. The flight
conditions are:
- from K to BERMUDAS (distance 847NM, headwind
C 72.5 NM
component=18 kt)
- from K to SANTA MARIA (distance 1112 NM, tailwind
D 56 NM component=120 kt)
- from K to GANDER (distance 883 NM, wind
component=0).
168) In the appropriate box of a flight plan form,
corresponding to the estimated time of departure, the With an aeroplane true airspeed of 460 kt, the field
time indicated is that at which the aircraft intends to : selected will be that more rapidly reached:
A start-up A BERMUDAS or GANDER, or SANTA MARIA
B pass the departure beacon B SANTA MARIA
C go off blocks C BERMUDAS
D take-off D Either GANDER or BERMUDAS
169) (For this question use annex 033-11239A and 031- 172) (For this question use annex 033-12275A)
11239B) In the ATS flight plan Item 10, "standard equipment" is
The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight considered to be :
- Flight leg distance: 3 500 NM A VHF RTF, ADF, VOR and transponder
- Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 450 kt
- Headwind component at this level: 55 kt B VHF RTF, VOR, ILS and transponder
- Initially planned take-off mass (without extra fuel on
board): 180 000 kg C VHF RTF, VOR, ILS and transponder
- Fuel price: 0.30 $/l at departure
The commander may carry a fuel quantity of 8 000 kg in D VHF RTF, ADF, VOR and ILS
addition to that which is necessary.
For this fuel transport operation to be cost effective, the
maximum fuel price at arrival must be:
A 0.26 $/l
B 0.28 $/l
C 0.33 $/l
D 0.27 $/l
173) Given: 177) (For this question use annex 033-12370A or Route
Dry operating mass (DOM)= 33500 kg Manual chart NAP)
Load= 7600 kg The initial magnetic course from C (62°N020°W) to B
Maximum allowable take-off mass= 66200 kg (58°N004°E) is
Standard taxi fuel= 200 kg
Tank capacity= 16 100 kg A 116°
The maximum possible take-off fuel is:
B 080°
A 17 300 kg
C 098°
B 15 900 kg
D 113°
C 17 100 kg
D 16 300 kg
11260B)
174) (For this question use annex 033- 11011A or Route using the following data:
Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) - Flight leg air distance: 2 700 NM
The radio navigation aid on airway UG4 at LUXEUIL - Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 470 kt
(47°41'N 006°18'E) is a: - Tailwind component at this level: 35 kt
A VOR, identifier LUL, frequency paired with TACAN identifier board): 195 000 kg
LXI - Fuel price: 0.28 Euro/l at departure; 0.26 Euro/l at
destination
B VOR/DME and NDB, identifier LXI To maximize savings, the commander chooses to carry
extra fuel in addition to that which is necessary.
C VOR/DME only, identifier LUL The optimum quantity of fuel which should be carried in
addition to the prescribed quantity is:
D VOR only, identifier LUL
A 8 000 kg
B 10 000 kg
Find the OPTIMUM ALTITUDE for the twin jet aeroplane.
C The fuel transport operation is not recommended in this case
Given: Cruise mass=50000 kg, .78 MACH
D 5 000 kg
A maximum operating altitude
B 35500 ft 179) (For this question use annex 033- 11029A or Route
Manual chart E(LO)5)
C 36200 ft The minimum enroute altitude that can be maintained
continuously on airway B65/H65 from DOXON (55°27'N
018°10'E) to RONNE ROE 112.0 (55°04'N 014°46'E) is :
D 36700 ft
A FL60
192) For the purposes of Item 9 (Wake turbulence category) B 1000ft

of the ATS flight plan, an aircraft with a maximum
certificated take-off mass of 62000 kg is :
C 2500 ft
A heavy "H"
D FL100
B light "L"
C unclassified "U" 180) On an ATC flight plan, the letter "Y" is used to indicate
that the flight is carried out under the following flight
rules.
D medium "M"
A IFR
B VFR
C IFR followed by VFR
D VFR followed by IFR
181) (For this question use annex 033- 11041A or Route 185) The still air distance in the climb is 189 Nautical Air
Manual SID chart for MUNICH(10-3C,10-3D)) Miles (NAM) and time 30 minutes. What ground distance
Which is the correct departure via KEMPTEN from would be covered in a 30 kt head wind?
runway 26L ?
A 188 NM
A KEMPTEN THREE QUEBEC
B 193 NM
B KEMPTEN THREE NOVEMBER
C 174 NM
C KEMPTEN FIVE SIERRA
D 203 NM
D KEMPTEN THREE ECHO

182) (For this question use annex 033- 11007A or Route Manual STAR chart for MADRID BARAJAS (10-2A,B))
Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) For runway 33 arrivals from the east and south, the
The radio navigation aid at ST DIZIER (48°38N 004°53'E) Initial Approach Fix (IAF) inbound from airway UR10 is :
is a:
A MOTIL
A TACAN, channel 114.0
B VTB
B TACAN, channel 87, and NDB frequency 114.0 kHz
C CJN
C TACAN, channel 87, frequency 114.0 MHz
D CENTA
D VOR, frequency 114.0 MHz, and TACAN channel 87

183) (For this question use annex 033-11270A) Manual chart E(LO)5)
A turbojet aeroplane flies using the following data: The initial magnetic course/distance from EELDE EEL
. flight level: FL 330, flight regime: "Long Range" (LR), 112.4 (53°10'N 006°40'E) to WELGO (54°18'N 007°25'E) on
mass: 156 500 kg airway A7 is:
. tailwind component at this level: 40 kt
With a remaining flight time of 1 h 10 min the ground A 024°/ 73 NM
distance that can be covered by the aeroplane at
cruising speed is: B 023°/ 73 NM
A 539 NM
C 024°/ 20 NM
B 493 NM
D 024°/ 47 NM
C 471 NM
D 518 NM 188) (For this question use annex 033- 11058A or Route
Manual chart LONDON HEATHROW ILS DME Rwy 09L
(11-2))
The Decision Altitude (DA) for a ILS straight-in landing is
184) (For this question use annex 033-12315A) :
What mean temperature (°C) is likely on a true course of
270° from 025° E to 010°E at 45°N ? A 280 ft
A -54 B 200 ft
B -50 C 400 ft
C -48 D 480 ft
D -52
189) (For this question use annex 033-12323A )
The surface system over VIENNA (48°N016°E) is a
A stationary occlued front
B cold front moving west
C cold front moving east
D warm front moving north
176) An aircraft plans to depart London at 1000 UTC and 31) A multi engine piston aeroplane is on an IFR flight. The
arrive at Munich (EDDM) at 1215 UTC. In the ATS flight fuel plan gives a trip fuel of 65 US gallons. The alternate
plan Item 16 (destination/EET) should be entered with : fuel, final reserve included, is 17 US gallons.
Contingency fuel is 5% of the trip fuel. The usable fuel at
A EDDM 2H15 departure is 93 US gallons. At a certain moment the fuel
consumed according to the fuel gauges is 40 US gallons
B EDDM 0215 and the distance flown is half of the total distance.
Assume that fuel consumption doesn't change. Which
statement is right ?
C EDDM 1415
A At the destination there will still be 30 US gallons in the tanks
D EDDM 1215
B At departure the reserve fuel was 28 US gallons
42) Flight planning chart for an aeroplane states, that the C At destination the required reserves remain intact.
time to reach the cruising level at a given gross mass is
36 minutes and the distance travelled is 157 NM (zero- D The remaining fuel is not sufficient to reach the destination
wind). What will be the distance travelled with an with reserves intact
average tailwind component of 60kt ?
A 228 NM
32) In the ATS flight plan Item 10 (equipment), the letter to
indicate the carriage of a serviceable transponder -
B 193 NM
mode A (4 digits-4096 codes) and mode C, is :
C 128 NM A C
D 157 NM B B
C A
Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) D P
The magnetic course/distance from TRENT TNT 115.7
(53°03'N 001°40'W) to WALLASEY WAL 114.1 (53°23'N
003°08W) on airway VR3 is:
A 117°/57 NM Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1)
Given : Brake release mass : 58 000 kg
Temperature : ISA + 15
B 297°/70 NM
The fuel required to climb from an aerodrome at
elevation 4000 ft to FL300 is :
C 117°/71 NM
A 1450 kg
D 297°/57 NM
B 1350 kg
30) (For this question use annex 033-10989A or Route C 1250 kg

Of the following, the preferred airways routing from D 1400 kg
FRANKFURT FFM 114.2 (50°03' N008°38'E) to KOKSY
(51°06'N 002°39'E) above FL245, on a Wednesday is :
A UR10 NTM UB6 BUB ATS 34) (For this question use annex 033-9573A or Flight
Given: Brake release mass 57500 kg, Initial FL 280,
B UG1
average temperature during climb ISA -10°C, average
head wind component 18 kt
C UB69 DINKI UB6 BUB ATS Find: Climb time for enroute climb 280/.74
D UG108 SPI UG1 A 13 min
B 11 min
C 15 min
D 14 min
35) (For this question use annex 033-12351A or Flight 38) (For this question use annex 033- 11000A or Route
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.5) Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)
For a flight of 2400 ground nautical miles the following The magnetic course/distance from TANGO TGO 112.5
apply : (48°37'N 009°16'E) to DINKELSBUHL DKB 117.8 (49°09'N
Tail wind 25kt 010°14E) on airway UR11 is:
Temperature ISA - 10°C
Brake release mass 66000kg A 052°/50 NM
B 007°/60 NM
A (a) 14000kg
(b) 5hr 35 min
C 105°/105 NM
B (a) 15800kg
(b)6hr 20 min D 132°/43 NM
C (a) 14600kg
(b) 5hr 45 min 39) A descent is planned from 7500 ft MSL so as to arrive at
1000 ft MSL 6 NM from a VORTAC.
D (a) 15000kg With a GS of 156 kts and a rate of descent of 800 ft/min.
(b) 6hr 00 min The distance from the VORTAC when descent is started
is :
36) (For this question use annex 033-12350A or Flight A 30,2 NM

The following apply : B 27,1 NM
Tail wind component 10kt
Temperature ISA +10°C
Brake release mass 63000kg C 15,0 NM
Trip fuel available 20000kg
What is the maximum possible trip distance ? D 11,7 NM
A 3500 NM
28) (For this question use annex 033-12372A or Route
B 3250 NM Manual chart NAP)
The distance (NM) from A (64°N006°E) to C (62°N020°W)
C 3740 NM is
D 3640 NM A 690
B 1590
37) For a planned flight the calculated fuel is as follows:
C 1440
Flight time: 3h06min
The reserve fuel, at any time, should not be less than D 720
30% of the remaining trip fuel.
Taxi fuel: 8 kg
Block fuel: 118 kg (For this question use annex.033-12321A )
41)
How much fuel should remain after 2 hours flight time? Which best describes the maximum intensity of icing, if
any, at FL160 in the vicinity of BERLIN (53° N013°E) ?
A 39 kg trip fuel and 12 kg reserve fuel.
A moderate
B 27 kg trip fuel and 12 kg reserve fuel.
B severe
C 39 kg trip fuel and no reserve fuel.
C light
D 30 kg trip fuel and 9 kg reserve fuel.
D nil
27) For a flight to an off-shore platform, an alternate 45) (For this question use annex 033-9700A or Flight
aerodrome is compulsory, except if : Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1)
Planning an IFR-flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) to
1 - flight duration does not exceed two hours London (Heathrow) for the twin jet aeroplane.
2 - during the period from two hours before to two hours Given: Estimated Take-off Mass (TOM) 52000 kg, Airport
after the estimated landing time, the forecast conditions elevation 387 ft, FL 280, W/V 280°/40 kt, ISA Deviation -
of ceiling and visibility are not less than one and a half 10°C, Average True Course 340°
times the applicable minima Find: Time to the top of climb (TOC)
3 - the platform is available and no other flight either
from or to the platform is expected between the A 12 min
estimated time of departure and one half hour after the
estimated landing time B 15 min
The combination which regroups all of the correct
statements is : C 11 min
A 1-2 D 3 min
B 1-3
C 2-3 chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)
An aeroplane has to fly from Abbeville (50°08.1'N
D 1-2-3 001°51.3'E) to Biggin (51°19.8'N 00°00.2'E). At Biggin you
can find : 141°. This is :
A The magnetic course to fly inbound to Biggin.

Planning Manual SEP 1 Table 2.2.3) B The average true course of the great circle from Biggin to
Given: Abbeville.
FL 75
OAT +10°C C The radial, referenced to true north, of Biggin to fly inbound.
Lean mixture
2300 RPM
Find:
D The magnetic great circle course from Biggin to Abbeville.
Fuel flow in gallons per hour (GPH) and TAS.
A 11.6 GPH 47) (For this question use annex 033-12331A )

TAS: 143 kt The lowest cloud conditions (oktas/ft) at
BORDEAUX/MERIGNAC at 1330 UTC were
B 71.1 GPH
TAS: 143 kt A 3 to 4 at 800
C 68.5 GPH B 1 to 2 at 3000

TAS: 160 kt
D 11.6 GPH C 1 to 4 at 3000

TAS: 160 kt
D 3 to 4 at 2000
44) (For the question use annex 033-12346A or Flight

Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.1C) 48) For turbojet engine driven aeroplane, given:
For a flight of 2800 ground nautical miles the following Taxi fuel 600 kg
apply : Fuel flow for cruise 10 000 kg/h
Tail wind component 45kt Fuel flow for holding 8 000 kg/h
Temperature ISA - 10°C Alternate fuel 10 200 kg
Cruise altitude 29000ft Planned flight time to destination 6h
Landing mass 55000kg Forecast visibility at destination 2000 m
The (a) trip fuel (b) trip time respectively are : The minimum ramp fuel required is:
A (a) 17100kg A 76 100 kg

(b) 6hr 07 min
B 80 500 kg
B (a) 18000kg
(b)5hr 50 min
C 79 200 kg
C (a) 20000kg
(b) 6hr 40 min D 77 800 kg
D (a) 16000kg
(b) 6hr 25 min
49) (For this question use annex 033- 11014A or Route 53) (For this question use annex 033- 11008A or Route
Manual chart E(LO)5) Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)
The VOR and TACAN on airway G9 at OSNABRUCK The radio navigation aid at ZURICH (47°36'N 008°49'E) is
(52°12'N 008°17'E) are: :
A NOT frequency paired, and have different identifiers A a VOR/DME, frequency 115.0MHz
B frequency paired, and have different identifiers B an NDB only, frequency 115.0 kHz
C NOT frequency paired, and have the same identifier C a TACAN, frequency 115.0 MHz
D frequency paired, and have the same identifier D a VOR only, frequency 115.0 MHz
50) (For this question use annex 033-4737A or Flight 40) Find the distance from waypoint 3 (WP 3) to the critical
Planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1) point.
Given: Given: distance from WP 3 to WP 4 = 750 NM, TAS out
FL 75 430 kt, TAS return 425 kt, Tailwind component out 30 kt,
OAT: +5°C head wind component return 40 kt
During climb: average head wind component 20 kt
Take-off from MSL with the initial mass of 3 650 lbs. A 342 NM
Find:
Time and fuel to climb. B 375 NM
A 9 min.
C 408 NM
3,3 USG
B 10 min. D 403 NM
3,6 USG
C 7 min. 15) (For this question use annex 033-11187A)

2,6 USG Which best describes the maximum intensity of CAT, if
any, forecast for FL330 over BENGHAZI (32°N 020°E) ?
D 9 min.
2,7 USG
A Severe
B Nil
51) An IFR flight is planned outside airways on a course of
235° magnetic. The minimum safe altitude is 7800 ft.
Knowing the QNH is 995 hPa, the minimum flight level C Light
you must fly is:
D Moderate
A 100
B 90 2) (For this question use annex 033-9697A or Flight

Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4)
C 85 Given: twin jet aeroplane, Estimated mass on arrival at
the alternate 50000 kg, Estimated mass on arrival at the
D 80 destination 52525 kg, Alternate elevation MSL,
Destination elevation 1500 ft
Find: Final reserve fuel and corresponding time
52) (For this question use annex 033-12317A ) A 2360 kg, 01 h 00 min
What is the temperature deviation (°C) from ISA over
50° N 010°E ? B 1180 kg, 45 min
A -55
C 1180 kg, 30 min
B +2
D 2360 kg, 30 min
C +10
D -10
3) An aeroplane has the following masses: 7) (For this question use annex 033-11252A,033-11252B
ESTLWT= 50 000 kg and 033-11252C)
Trip fuel= 4 300 kg Knowing that:
Contingency fuel= 215 kg . Mass at brake release: 210 000 kg
Alternate fuel (final reserve included)= 2 100kg . Selected cruise speed: 0.82 Mach
Taxi= 500 kg . Air distance: 3 000 NM
Block fuel= 7 115 kg . Cruise level: optimum
Before departure the captain orders to make the block . Air conditioning: standard
fuel 9 000 kg. . Anti-icing: OFF
The trip fuel in the operational flight plan should read: . Temperature: ISA
. CG: 37%
A 6 400 kg. Assuming zero wind, the planned flight time from take-
off to landing needed to complete this flight will be:
B 4 300 kg.
A 389 minutes
C 6 185 kg.
B 400 minutes
D 9 000 kg.
C 383 minutes
D 394 minutes
Flying from SAULGAU airport (48°02'N, 009°31'E) to 8) (For this question use annex 033- 11036A or Route
ALTENSTADT airport (47°50'N, 010°53'E). Find magnetic Manual chart E(LO)6)
course and the distance. An appropriate flight level for flight on airway W37 from
CHEB OKG 115.7 (50°04'N 012°24'E) to RODING RDG
A Magnetic course 078°, distance 82 NM 114.7 (49°02'N 012°32'E) is :
B Magnetic course 102°, distance 56 NM A FL50
C Magnetic course 282°, distance 56 NM B FL70
D Magnetic course 102°, distance 82 NM C FL80
D FL40
What is the earliest time (UTC), if any, that
thunderstorms are forecast for DOHA (OTBD) ? 9) Following in-flight depressurisation, a turbine powered
aeroplane is forced to divert to an en-route alternate
A 0600 airfield. If actual flight conditions are as forecast, the
minimum quantity of fuel remaining on arrival at the
B Nil forecast airfield will be:
C 1000
A at least equivalent to 30 minutes flying time
D 0800
B at least equivalent to the quantity required to fly to another
aerodrome in the event that weather conditions so require
C laid down by the operator, with the quantity being specified in

6) (For this question use annex 033- 11016A or Route the operating manual
The airway intersection at RONNEBY (56°18'N 015°16'E) D at least equivalent to 45 minutes flying time
is marked by:
A a fan marker callsign LP

B an NDB callsign LF Aeroplanes intending to use airway UR14 should cross
GIBSO intersection (50°45'N 002°30'W) at or above:
C an NDB callisign N
A FL200
D a TACAN callsign RON
B FL250
C FL140
D FL160
11) (For this question use annex 033-9696A or Flight 56) Given :
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.6) Distance A to B 2050 NM
Given: twin jet aeroplane, Dry operating mass 35500 kg, Mean groundspeed 'on' 440 kt
Traffic load 14500 kg, Final reserve fuel 1200 kg, Mean groundspeed 'back' 540 kt
Distance to alternate 95 NM, Tailwind component 10 kt The distance to the point of equal time (PET) between A
Find: Fuel required and trip time to alternate with and B is :
simplified flight planning (ALTERNATE PLANNING)
A 920 NM
A 1000 kg, 40 min
B 1153 NM
B 800 kg, 24 min
C 1130 NM
C 800 kg, 0.4 hr
D 1025 NM
D 1000 kg, 24 min

12) Given: Maximum allowable take-off mass 64400 kg, Which describes the worst hazard, if any, that could be
Maximum landing mass 56200 kg, Maximum zero fuel associated with the type of feature at 38°N 015°E ?
mass 53000 kg, Dry operating mass 35500 kg, Traffic
load 14500 kg, Trip fuel 4900 kg, Minimum Take-off Fuel A Reduced visibility
7400 kg
Find: Maximum allowable take-off fuel B There is no hazard
A 11400 kg
C Engine flame out and windscreen damage
B 14400 kg
D Severe attenuation in the HF R/T band
C 8600 kg
D 11100 kg 17) (For this question use annex 033-9556A or Flight

Find the SPECIFIC RANGE for the twin jet aeroplane
flying below the optimum altitude (range loss = 6%) and
29) (For this question use annex 033- 11013A or Route using the following data.
Manual chart E(LO)1) Given: MACH .74 CRUISE, Flight level = 310, Gross
The radio navigation aid at SHANNON (52°43'N mass = 50000 kg, ISA conditions
008°53'W) is :
A 187 NAM/1000 kg
A an NDB, frequency 352 kHz
B 2994 NAM/1000 kg
B a TACAN, frequency 113.3 kHz
C 2807 NAM/1000 kg
C a VOR only, frequency 113.3 MHz
D 176 NAM/1000 kg
D a VOR/DME, frequency 113.3 MHz

14) Given: Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.2.2)
Dry operating mass (DOM)= 33510 kg Find the SHORT DISTANCE CRUISE ALTITUDE for the
Load= 7600 kg twin jet aeroplane.
Trip fuel (TF)= 2040 kg Given: Brake release mass=40000 kg, Temperature=ISA
Final reserve fuel= 983 kg + 20°C, Trip distance=150 Nautical Air Miles (NAM)
Alternate fuel= 1100 kg
Contingency fuel= 5% of trip fuel A 27500 ft
Which of the listed estimated masses is correct?
B 30000 ft
A Estimated landing mass at destination= 43193 kg.
C 25000 ft
B Estimated take-off mass= 43295 kg.
D 21000 ft
C Estimated landing mass at destination= 43295 kg.
D Estimated take-off mass= 45233 kg.
19) (For this question use annex 033- 11027A or Route 23) Given: Maximum allowable take-off mass 64 400 kg;
Manual chart E(LO)2) maximum landing mass 56200 kg; maximum zero fuel
The minimum enroute altitude (MEA) that can be mass 53 000 kg; dry operating mass 35 500 kg;
maintained continuously on airway G4 from JERSEY estimated load 14 500 kg; estimated trip fuel 4 900 kg;
JSY 112.2 (49°13'N 002°03'W) to LIZAD (49°35'N minimum take-off fuel 7 400 kg.
004°20'W) is : Find: maximum additional load
A FL140 A 7 000 kg
B FL60 B 5 600 kg
C 2800 ft MSL C 3 000 kg
D 1000 ft MSL D 4 000 kg
20) When using decision point procedure, you reduce the 24) (For this question use annex 033-12359A or Flight
Given:
A holding fuel by 30%. Diversion distance 720NM
Tail wind component 25kt
B contingency fuel by adding contingency only from the Mass at point of diversion 55000kg
burnoff between decision point and destination. Temperature ISA
Diversion fuel available 4250kg
C contingency fuel by adding contingency only from the What is the minimum pressure altitude at which the
burnoff between the decision airport and destination. above conditions may be met ?
D reserve fuel from 10% down to 5%. A 14500ft
B 20000ft
chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) C 26000ft
An aeroplane has to fly from Abbeville (50°08.1'N
001°51.3'E) to Biggin (51°19.8'N 00°00.2'E). What is the D 16000ft
first FL above FL295 that can be flown on an IFR
flightplan ?
A FL 330 25) (For this question use annex 033- 11048A or Route
Manual SID chart for AMSTERDAM SCHIPHOL (10-3))
Which of the following statements is correct for ANDIK
B FL 320
departures from runway 19L?
C FL 300 A Cross ANDIK below FL60
D FL 310 B The distance to ANDIK is 25 NM
C Maximum IAS 250kt turning left at SPL 3.1 DME

22) From the options given below select those flights which
require flight plan notification: D Contact SCHIPOL DEPARTURE 119.05 passing 2000 ft
and report altitude
I - Any Public Transport flight.
2 - Any IFR flight
3 - Any flight which is to be carried out in regions which
are designated to ease the provision of the Alerting 26) The quantity of fuel which is calculated to be necessary
Service or the operations of Search and Rescue. for a jet aeroplane to fly IFR from departure aerodrome
4 - Any cross-border flights to the destination aerodrome is 5352 kg. Fuel
5 - Any flight which involves overflying water consumption in holding mode is 6 000 kg/h. Alternate
fuel is 4380 kg. Contingency should be 5% of trip fuel.
What is the minimum required quantity of fuel which
A 1+2+3
should be on board at take-off?
B 3+4+5 A 13220 kg.
C 2+4 B 13000 kg.
D 1+5
C 14500 kg.
D 13370 kg.
13) How many hours in advance of departure time should a 86) (For this question use annex 033-3307A or Flight
flight plan be filed in the case of flights into areas Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1)
subject to air traffic flow management (ATFM)? Given: estimated take-off mass 57 500 kg;
initial cruise FL 280;
A 0:30 hours. average temperature during climb ISA -10°C;
average head wind component 18 kt
B 0:10 hours. Find: climb time
C 3:00 hours.
A 13 min
D 1:00 hour.
B 11 min
C 15 min
97) (For this question use annex 033-12334A ) D 14 min

What is the earliest time (UTC), if any, that
thunderstorms are forecast for TUNIS/CARTHAGE ?
A 1800 87) (For this question use annex 033-11201A)

What mean temperature (°C) is likely on a course of 360°
B 1300 (T) from 40°N to 50°N at 040°E ?
C 0800
A -46
D nil
B -49
C -50
84) (For this question use annex 033- 11043A or Route D -47
Manual STAR charts for PARIS CHARLES DE GAULLE
(20-2))
The route distance from CHIEVRES (CIV) to
BOURSONNE (BSN) is : 88) If CAS is 190 kts, Altitude 9000 ft. Temp. ISA - 10°C, True
Course (TC) 350°, W/V 320/40, distance from departure
A 83 NM to destination is 350 NM, endurance 3 hours, and actual
time of departure is 1105 UTC. The Point of Equal Time
B 88 NM (PET) is reached at :
C 73 NM
A 1221 UTC
D 96 NM
B 1233 UTC
C 1203 UTC
85) (For this question use annex 033-11244A and 033- D 1213 UTC
11244B)
- Flight leg distance: 4 000 NM 89) (For this question use annexes 033-11224A, 033-11224B
- Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 450 kt and 033-11224C)
- Headwind component at this level: 50 kt Given:
- Initially planned take-off mass (without extra fuel on . Take-off mass: 150 000 kg
board): 170 000 kg . Planned cruise at FL 350
- Fuel price: 0.27 Euro/l at departure; 0.30 Euro/l at . Long range MACH
destination . Standard Atmosphere (ISA)
To maximize savings, the commander chooses to carry . CG: 37 %
extra fuel in addition to that which is necessary. You have to cover an air distance of 2 000 NM.
Using the appended annex, the optimum quantity of fuel Your flight time will be:
which should be carried in addition to the prescribed
quantity is: A 288 minutes
A 32 000 kg B 298 minutes
B 8 000 kg C 359 minutes
C The fuel transport operation is not recommended in this D 304 minutes

case.
D 18 000 kg
90) (For this question use annex 033-12325A ) 94) (For this question use annex 033-9724A,
Which best describes the significant cloud forecast over AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART
TOULOUSE (44°N001°E) ? (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)
Flying from Position SIGMARINGEN (48°05'N, 009°13'E)
A well separated CB base FL100 tops to FL 270 to BIBERACH airport (48°07'N, 009°46'E). Find magnetic
course and the distance.
B isolated CB embedded in layer cloud, surface to FL270
A Magnetic course 086°, distance 32 NM
C 5 to 7 oktas CU and AC base below FL100 tops to FL270
B Magnetic course 086°, distance 22 NM
D broken AC/CU base below FL100 tops FL150, embedded
isolated CB base below FL100 tops FL270 C Magnetic course 093°, distance 41 NM
D Magnetic course 267°, distance 22 NM

Planning Manual MEP1 Figure 3.1)
A flight is to be made from one airport (elevation 3000 ft) 54) (For this question use annex 033-3318A or Flight
to another in a multi engine piston aireroplane (MEP1). Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1)
The cruising level will be FL 110. The temperature at FL Given: long range cruise; outside air temperature
110 is ISA - 10° C. The temperature at the departure (OAT) -45 ° C in FL 350; mass at the beginning of the leg
aerodrome is -1° C. Calculate the fuel to climb with 40 000 kg; mass at the end of the leg 39 000 kg.
mixture rich. Find: true airspeed (TAS) at the end of the leg and the
distance (NAM).
A 3 US gallon
A TAS 431 kt; 1163 NAM
B 6 US gallon
B TAS 423 kt; 936 NAM
C 9 US gallon
C TAS 431 kt; 227 NAM
D 12 US gallon
D TAS 423 kt; 227 NAM

AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART 96) (For this question use annex 033-12285A)
(NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6) In the ATS flight plan item 7, for a radio equipped
Give the frequency of STUTTGART ATIS. aircraft, the identifier must always :
A 135.775 MHz A include the operating agency designator
B 112.250 MHZ B include an indication of the aircraft type
C 126.125 kHz C be the RTF callsign to be used
D 126.125 MHz D include the aircraft registration marking
93) (For this question use annex 033-11208A) 81) (For this question use annexes 033-11073A, 033-11073B,
A turbojet aeroplane, weighing 200 000 kg, initiates its 033-11073C and 033-11073D)
cruise at the optimum level at M 0.84 (ISA, CG=37%, Planning a MACH 0,82 cruise at FL 390, the estimated
Total Anti Ice ON). A head wind of 30 kt is experienced landing mass is 160 000 kg; the ground distance is
and, after a distance of 500 NM, severe icing is 2 800 NM and the mean tailwind is 100 kt; ISA
encountered and this requires an immediate descent. conditions.
The aeroplane mass at start of descent is: Fuel consumption will be:
A 193 800 kg A 22 860 kg
B 192 500 kg B 24 900 kg
C 193 000 kg C 30 117 kg
D 193 400 kg D 26 950 kg
98) To carry out a VFR flight to an off-shore platform, the 102) (For this question use annex 033-9698A or Flight
minimum fuel quantity on board is: Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4)
Given: twin jet aeroplane, Estimated mass on arrival at
A that defined for VFR flights over land increased by 5 % the alternate 50000 kg, Elevation at destination
aerodrome 3500 ft, Elevation at alternate aerodrome 30 ft
B that defined for VFR flights over land increased by 10 % Find: Final reserve fuel
C identical to that defined for VFR flights over land

A 2360 kg
D at least equal to that defined for IFR flights

B 1150 kg
C 2300 kg
99) On an ATC flight plan, an aircraft indicated as "H" for D 1180 kg

"Heavy"
A has a certified landing mass greater than or equal to 136

000 kg 103) When completing an ATS flight plan for a European
destination, clock times are to be expressed in :
B has a certified take-off mass greater than or equal to 140
000 kg A Central European Time
C requires a runway length of at least 2 000m at maximum B UTC

certified take-off mass
D is of the highest wake turbulence category C Local mean time
D local standard time

(NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6) 104) The planned departure time from the parking area is
Flying VFR from PEITING (47°48.0'N, 010°55.5'E) to 1815 UTC
IMMENSTADT (47°33.5'N, 010°13.0'E) determine the The estimated take-off time is 1825 UTC
distance. The IFR flight plan must be filed with ATC at the latest at:
A 32 NM A 1715 UTC
B 46 NM B 1725 UTC
C 58 NM C 1745 UTC
D 36 NM D 1755 UTC
101) An airway is marked FL 80 1500 a. This indicates that: 105) (For this question use annex 033- 11015A or Route
The NDB at DENKO (52°49'N 015°50'E) can be identified
A the minimum enroute altitude (MEA) is FL 80. on:
B the airway base is 1500 ft MSL. A Frequency 440 kHz, BFO on
C the airways extends from 1500 ft MSL to FL 80. B Channel 440, BFO on
D 1500 ft MSL is the minimum radio reception altitude (MRA). C Channel 440, BFO off
D Frequency 440 kHz, BFO off
106) (For this question use annex 033- 10994A or Route 69) (For this question use annex 033-3317A or Route Manual
Manual chart E(LO)6 ) chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)
The magnetic course/distance from GROSTENQUIN An aeroplane has to fly from Salzburg (48°00.2'N
GTQ 111.25 (49°00'N 006°43'E) to LINNA (49°41'N 012°53.6'E) to Klagenfurt (46°37.5'N 014°33.8'E). At
006°15'E) on airway R7 is: Salzburg there is stated on the chart D 113.8 SBG. That
means :
A 337°/58 NM
A VOR/DME with identification SBG frequency 113.8 MHz
B 337°/46 NM can be used.
B Only the DME with identification SBG can be used, for

C 157°/58 NM
which frequency 113.8 MHz should be tuned, VOR is not
available.
D 337°/31 NM
C VOR/DME SBG will be deleted in the future and cannot be
used for navigation.
Planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.5) D ILS/DME 113.8 MHz of Salzburg airport can be used for
Given: navigation.
FL 75
Lean mixture
Full throttle 109) (For this question use annex 033- 11037A or Route
2300 RPM Manual chart E(LO)6)
Take-off fuel: 444 lbs An appropriate flight level for flight on airway R10 from
Take-off from MSL MONTMEDY MMD 109.4 (49°24'N 005°08'E) to
Find: CHATILLON CTL 117.6 (49°08'N 003°35'E) is :
Endurance in hours.
A FL60
A 05:20
B FL70
B 04:42
C FL50
C 05:23
D FL40
D 05:12

218) (For this question use annex 033- 11025A or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)
Manual chart E(LO)1) The radio navigation aid serving STRASBOURG (48°30'N
The minimum enroute altitude that can be maintained 007°34'E) is a:
continuously on airway G1 from STRUMBLE STU 113.1
(52°00'N 005°02'W) to BRECON BCN 117.45 (51°43'N A TACAN only, frequency 115.6 MHz
003°16'W) is :
B VOR/TACAN, frequency 115.6 MHz
A FL110
C VOR only, frequency 115.6 MHz
B FL80
D DME only, channel 115.6
C 4100ft MSL
D 2900 ft MSL
58) ((For this question use annex 033- 11024A or Route
The minimum enroute altitude that can be maintained
95) (For this question use annex 033- 11064A or Route continuously on airway UA34 from WALLASEY WAL
Manual chart MUNICH ILS Rwy 26R (11-4)) 114.1 (53°23'N 003°08'W) to MIDHURST MID 114.0
The ILS frequency and identifier are: (51°03'N 000°37'W) is :
A 108.3 IMSW A FL245
B 108.7 IMNW B FL250
C 108.7 IMSW C FL330
D 108.3 IMNW D FL290
59) (For this question use annex 033-11262A) 63) A jet aeroplane has a cruising fuel consumption of 4060
Prior to an IFR flight, when filling in the ICAO flight plan, kg/h, and 3690 kg/h during holding. If the destination is
the time information which should be entered in box 16: an isolated airfield, the aeroplane must carry, in addition
"Total estimated time" is the time elapsed from: to contingency reserves, additionnal fuel of :
A taxiing until the IAF (Initial Approach Fix) of the destination A 7380 kg.
aerodrome.
B 1845 kg.
B take-off until reaching the IAF (Initial Approach Fix) of the
destination aerodrome.
C 3500 kg.
C taxi-out prior to take-off until taxiing completion after landing.
D 8120 kg.
D take-off until landing.
64) Which of the following statements is (are) correct with

regard to the advantages of computer flight plans ?
1. The computer can file the ATC flight plan.
Which describes the maximum intensity of icing, if any,
2. Wind data used by the computer is always more up-to-
at FL180 in the vicinity of CASABLANCA (33°N 008°W) ?
date than that available to the pilot.
A Moderate
A Neither statement
B Light
B Statement 1 only
C Nil
C Statement 2 only
D Severe
D Both statements
61) The purpose of the decision point procedure is ?

11245B)
A To reduce the landing weight and thus reduce the structural The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight
stress on the aircraft. using the following data:
B To increase the safety of the flight. - Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 450 kt
- Headwind component at this level: 5 kt
C To increase the amount of extra fuel.
board): 180 000 kg
- Fuel price: 0.35 $/l at departure; 0.315 $/l at destination
D To reduce the minimum required fuel and therefore be able To maximize savings, the commander chooses to carry
to increase the traffic load. extra fuel in addition to that which is necessary.
Using the appended annex, the optimum quantity of fuel
which should be carried in addition to the prescribed
62) If CAS is 190 kts, Altitude 9000 ft. Temp. ISA - 10°C, True quantity is:
Course (TC) 350°, W/V 320/40, distance from departure
to destination is 350 NM, endurance 3 hours and actual A 22 000 kg
time of departure is 1105 UTC. The distance from
departure to Point of Equal Time (PET) is : B 15 000 kg
A 203 NM
C 8 000 kg
B 147 NM
D The fuel transport operation is not recommended in this
case.
C 183 NM
D 167 NM 66) (For this question use annex 033- 11047A or Route
Manual SID chart for AMSTERDAM SCHIPHOL (10-3B))
The route distance from runway 27 to ARNEM is:
A 52 NM
B 67 NM
C 35 NM
D 59 NM
83) A helicopter is on a 150 NM leg to an off-shore oil rig. Its 71) (For this question use annex 033- 11002A or Route
TAS is 130 kt with a 20 kt tailwind, its endurance is Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)
3h30min without reserve. Upon reaching destination, it The magnetic course/distance from SALZBURG SBG
is asked to proceed outbound to locate a ship in 113.8 (48°00'N 012°54'E) to STAUB (48°44'N 012°38'E) on
distress, on a track which gives a 15 kt tailwind. airway UB5 is:
Maintaining zero reserve on return to the oil rig, the
helicopter can fly outbound for distance of: A 346°/43 NM
A 158.6 NM B 346°/45 NM
B 222.1 NM C 346°/64 NM
C 160.3 NM D 166°/64 NM
D 224.5 NM
Manual STAR chart for LONDON HEATHROW (10-2D))
68) A VFR flight planned for a Piper Seneca III. At a The minimum holding altitude (MHA) and maximum
navigational checkpoint the remaining usable fuel in holding speed (IAS) at MHA at OCKHAM OCK 115.3 are:
tanks is 60 US gallons. The alternate fuel is 12 US
gallons. According to the flight plan the remaining flight A 7000 ft and 220kt
time is 1h35min. Calculate the highest rate of
consumption possible for the rest of the trip. B 9000ft and 220kt
A 33.0 US gallons/hour
C 7000ft and 250kt
B 37.9 US gallons/hour
D 9000ft and 250kt
C 21.3 US gallons/hour
D 30.3 US gallons/hour 73) (For this question use annex 033-12343A or Flight
Within the limits of the data given, a mean temperature
increase of 30°C will affect the trip time by
82) (For this question use annex 033-12330A ) approximately :
The forecast period covered by the PARIS/CHARLES-DE-
GAULLE TAFs totals (hours) A +5%
A 9 B +8%
B 18 C -7%
C 20 D -5%
D 27
When completing Item 9 of the ATS flight plan, if there is
70) (For this question use annex 033-11253A, 033-11253B, no appropriate aircraft designator, the following should
and 033-11253C) be entered :
Knowing that:
. Mass at brake release: 210 000 kg A the most descriptive abbreviation
. Flight leg distance: 3 000 NM B "NONE"
. Cruise level: optimum
. Air conditioning: standard
. Anti-icing: OFF C "ZZZZ" followed by an entry in Item 18
. Temperature: ISA
. CG: 37 D "XXXX" followed by an entry in Item 18
Assuming zero wind, the planned landing mass at
destination will be:
A 172 300 kg
B 170 400 kg
C 171 300 kg
D 176 100 kg
75) The maximum permissible take-off mass of an aircraft 79) (For this question use annex 033-4623A or Flight
for the L wake turbulence category on a flight plan is: Planning Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.3)
A flight has to be made with a multi engine piston
A 7 000 kg aeroplane (MEP 1). For the fuel calculations take 5 US
gallons for the taxi, and an additional 13 minutes at
B 2 700 kg cruise condition to account for climb and descent.
Calculated time overhead to overhead is 2h37min.
Powersetting is 65%, 2500 RPM. Calculated reserve fuel
C 5 700 kg
is 30% of the trip fuel. FL 120. Temperature 1°C. Find the
minimum block fuel.
D 10 000 kg
A 76 US gallons.
76) (For this question use annexes 033-11226A and 033- B 118 US gallons.
11226B)
In standard atmosphere, assuming a mass of 197 000 kg, C 91 US gallons.
in order to fly at FL 370 and to be at the optimum
altitude, your Mach number should be: D 86 US gallons.
A 0.80
B the same as for LRC (Long Range Cruise) 80) (For this question use annex 033-12365A or Flight
Using the above table, in ISA conditions and at a speed
C 0.82
of M.70/280KIAS, in an elapsed time of 90 minutes an
aircraft with mass at point of diversion 48000 kg could
D 0.84 divert a distance of :
A 603 NM
77) Given:maximum allowable take-off mass 64 400 kg
maximum landing mass 56 200 kg B 608 NM
maximum zero fuel mass 53 000 kg
dry operating mass 35 500 kg C 584 NM
estimated load 14 500 kg
estimated trip fuel 4 900kg D 563 NM
minimum take-off fuel 7 400 kg
Find the maximum allowable take-off fuel:
A 14 400 kg 55) (For this question use annex 033-12369A or Route

Manual chart NAP)
B 8 600 kg The average true course from C (62°N020°W) to B
(58°N004°E) is
C 11 100 kg
A 120°
D 11 400 kg
B 109°
C 119°
11240B) D 099°
- Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 450 kt 67) (For this question use annex 033-9739A,
- Headwind component at this level: 55 kt AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART
- Initially planned take-off mass (without extra fuel on (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)
board): 180 000 kg Flying VFR from PEITING (47°48.0'N, 010°55.5'E) to
- Fuel price: 0.27 $/l at destination IMMENSTADT (47°33.5'N, 010°13.0'E).Determine the
The commander may carry on board 8 000 kg more fuel minimum altitude within a corridor 5NM left and 5 NM
than that which is necessary. right of the courseline in order to stay 1000 ft clear of
For this fuel transport operation to be cost effective, the obstacles.
maximum fuel price at departure must be:
A 6900 ft
A 0.30 $/l
B 5500 ft
B 0.24 $/l
C 6600 ft
C 0.28 $/l
D 5300 ft
D 0.29 $/l
368) (For this question use annex 033-11196A) 358) (For this question use annex 033-3327A or Flight
What minimum visibility (m) is forecast for 0600 UTC at Planning Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.2)
LONDON LHR (EGLL) ? A flight is to be made in a multi engine piston aeroplane
(MEP1). The cruising level will be 11000ft. The outside
A 1500 air temperature at FL is -15 ° C. The usable fuel is 123
US gallons. The power is set to economic cruise. Find
B 2200 the range in NM with 45 min reserve fuel at 45 % power.
C 5000
A 610 NM
D 10,000
B 602 NM
C 752 NM
380) (For this question use annex 033- 11060A or Route D 852 NM
Manual chart MADRID BARAJAS ILS DME Rwy 33 (11-1))
The minimum glide slope interception altitude for a full
ILS is:
359) A public transport aeroplane with reciprocating
A 4000 ft engines,is flying from PARlS to LYON. The final reserve
corresponds to:
B 3500 ft
A 2 hours at cruise consumption
C 2067 ft
B 1 hour at holding speed
D 1567 ft
C 30 minutes at holding speed
D 45 minutes at holding speed

356) The fuel burn of an aircraft turbine engine is 220 l/h with
a fuel density of 0,80. If the density is 0,75, the fuel burn
will be:
360) Which of the following statements is (are) correct with
A 206 l/h regard to the operation of flight planning computers ?
1. The computer can file the ATC flight plan.
B 220 l/h 2. In the event of inflight re-routing the computer
produces a new plan.
C 176 l/h
A Statement 2 only
D 235 l/h
B Both statements
C Neither statement
The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight D Statement 1 only
. Take-off mass: 210 500 kg
. Flight leg ground distance: 2 500 NM
. Flight level FL 330; "Long Range" flight regime 361) You have a flight plan IFR from Amsterdam to London.
. Tailwind component at this level: 70 kt In the flight plan it is noted that you will deviate from the
. Total anti-ice set on "ON" ATS route passing the FIR boundary
. Fixed taxi fuel: 500 kg; final reserve: 2 400 kg Amsterdam/London. The airway clearance reads:
. Ignore alternate fuel. Cleared to London via flight planned route.
The effects of climb and descent are not corrected for Which of the following statements is correct?
consumption.
The quantity of fuel that must be loaded at the parking A The filed deviation is not accepted.
area is:
B You will get a separate clearance for the deviation.
A 30 200 kg
C It is not allowed to file such a flight plan.
B 39 750 kg
D The route according to the flight plan is accepted.
C 31 840 kg
D 31 340 kg
362) For flight planning purposes the landing mass at 354) (For this question use annex 033-3906A or Route Manual
alternate is taken as: chart SID PARIS Charles-De-Gaulle (20-3))
Planning a IFR flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) to
A Landing Mass at destination plus Alternate Fuel. London (Heathrow).
Find the elevation of the departure aerodrome.
B Zero Fuel Mass plus Final Reserve Fuel and Alternate Fuel.
A 2 ft.
C Zero Fuel Mass plus Final Reserve Fuel and Contingency
Fuel. B 387 ft.
D Zero Fuel Mass plus Final Reserve Fuel. C 268 ft.
D 217 ft.
Given: Twin jet aeroplane, Ground distance to 367) (For this question use annexes 033-12306A and 033-
destination aerodrome is 1600 NM, Headwind 12306B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.2
component 50 kt, FL 330, Cruise .78 Mach, ISA Deviation and 4.5.3.3)
+20°C and Landing mass 55000 kg Given : Distance B - C :
Find: Fuel required and trip time with simplified flight Cruise Mach 0.78 at FL300
planning Temperature : - 52°C
A 12400 kg, 04 h 00 min Gross mass at B : 64 500 kg
The fuel required from B - C is :
B 11400 kg, 04 h 12 min
A 17 100 kg
C 11600 kg, 04 h 15 min
B 16 800 kg
D 12000 kg, 03 h 51 min
C 20 500 kg
364) An airway is marked 3500T 2100 a. This indicates that: D 20 800 kg
A the airway is a low level link route 2100 ft - 3500 ft MSL

Which best describes the significant cloud forecast for
B the minimum obstruction clearance altitude (MOCA) is 3500 the area east of Tunis (36°N010°E) ?
ft
A 5 to 7 oktas CU and AC base FL100 tops FL180
C the minimum enroute altitude (MEA) is 3500 ft
B 3 to 4 oktas CU and AC base FL100 tops FL160
D the airway base is 3500 ft MSL
C 5 to 7 oktas CU and AC base below FL100 tops FL180
365) (For this question use annex 033-3908A or Route Manual D 3 to 4 oktas CU and AC base below FL100 tops FL180
chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)
Planning a IFR flight from Paris Charles de Gaulle (N49
00.9 E002 36.9) to London Heathrow
(N51 29.2 W000 27.9). 369) (For this question use annex 033- 10990A or Route
Find the average true course from Paris to London. Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA-Edition)
Of the following, the preferred airways routing from
A 330°. MARTIGUES MTG 117.3 (43°23'N 005°05'E) to ST PREX
SPR 113.9 (46°28'N 006°27'E) above FL245 is :
B 343°.
A UB284 VILAR UB28
C 322°.
B UB28
D 142°.
C UA6 LSA UG52
D UB282 DGN UB46
370) In the cruise at FL 155 at 260 kt TAS, the pilot plans for a 374) On a ATC flight plan, to indicate that you will overfly the
500 feet/min descent in order to fly overhead MAN VOR way-point ROMEO at 120 kt at flight level 085, you will
at 2 000 feet (QNH 1030). TAS will remain constant write :
during descent, wind is negligible, temperature is
standard. A ROMEO / K0120 FL085
The pilot must start the descent at a distance from MAN
of: B ROMEO / FL085 N0120
A 110 NM
C ROMEO / F085 N0120
B 130 NM
D ROMEO / N0120 F085
C 120 NM
D 140 NM 375) (For this question use annex 033-11228A)

For a long distance flight at FL 390, "Long Range"
regime, divided into four flight legs with the following
characteristics:
371) (For this question use annex 033-12356A or Route - segment AB - Ground distance: 2 000 NM. head wind
Manual chart 5 AT(HI)) component: 50 kt
The initial great circle course from position A (80°00'N - segment BC - Ground distance: 1 000 NM. head wind
170°00'E) to position B (75°00'N 011°E) is 177° (G). The component: 30 kt
final grid course at position B will be : - segment CD - Ground distance: 500 NM. tail wind
component: 100 kt
A 177° (G) - segment DE - Ground distance: 1 000 NM. head wind
component: 70 kt
B 194° (G) The air distance of the entire flight is approximately:
C 172° (G)
A 4 900 NM
D 353° (G)
B 5 120 NM
C 4 630 NM
372) When calculating the fuel required to carry out a given D 5 040 NM
flight, one must take into account :
1 - the wind
2 - foreseeable airborne delays 376) An operator (turbojet engine) shall ensure that
3 - other weather forecasts calculation up of usable fuel for a flight for which no
4 - any foreseeable conditions which may delay landing destination alternate is required includes, taxi fuel, trip
fuel, contingency fuel and fuel to fly for:
The combination which provides the correct statement
is : A 30 minutes at holding speed at 450 m above MSL in
standard conditions
A 1-2-3-4
B 30 minutes at holding speed at 450 m above aerodrome
B 1-3 elevation in standard conditions
C 2-4
C 2 hours at normal cruise consumption
D 1-2-3
D 45 minutes plus 15% of the flight time planned to be spent
at cruising level or two hours whichever is less
373) (For this question use annex 033-12368A or Route 377) (For this question use annex 033-12316A )
Manual chart NAP) The W/V (°/kt) at 40°N 020°W is
The average magnetic course from C (62°N020°W) to B
(58°N004°E) is A 155/40
A 099°
B 310/40
B 118°
C 334/40
C 119°
D 135/40
D 109°
378) (For this question use annex 033-9736A, 328) (For this question use annex 033-12322A )
AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART Which describes the intensity of icing, if any, at FL 150
(NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6) in the vicinity of TOULOUSE (44° N 01°E) ?
Flying VFR from VILLINGEN (48°03.5'N, 008°27.0'E) to
FREUDENSTADT (48°28.0'N, 008°24.0'E).Determine the A light
minimum altitude within a corridor 5NM left and 5 NM
right of the courseline in order to stay 1000 ft clear of B nil
obstacles.
A 3900 ft
C moderate or severe
B 2900 ft
D moderate
C 4200 ft
329) An appropriate flight level for IFR flight in accordance
D 1500 ft with semi-circular height rules on a course of 180° (M) is:
A FL100
216) (For this question use annex 033-12364A or Flight B FL90

For the purpose of planning an extended range flight it
is required that with a start of diversion mass of 55000kg C FL95
a diversion of 600 nautical miles should be achieved in
90 minutes. Using the above table, the only listed cruise D FL105
technique to meet that requirement is :
A M/KIAS .74/330 330) You are to determine the maximum fuel load which can
be carried in the following conditions :
B M/KIAS .74/290
- dry operating mass : 2800 kg
C M/KIAS .70/280 - trip fuel : 300 kg
- payload : 400 kg
D LRC - maximum take-off mass : 4200 kg
- maximum landing mass : 3700 kg
A 500 kg
366) A jet aeroplane is to fly from A to B. The minimum final
reserve fuel must allow for : B 800 kg
A 20 minutes hold over alternate airfield.

C 1000 kg
B 30 minutes hold at 1500 ft above mean sea level.

D 700 kg
C 15 minutes hold at 1500 ft above destination aerodrome

elevation.
D 30 minutes hold at 1500 ft above destination aerodrome Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.2)
elevation, when no alternate is required. Find the FUEL FLOW for the twin jet aeroplane with
regard to the following data.
Given: MACH .74 cruise, Flight level 310, Gross mass
50000 kg, ISA conditions
341) A "current flight plan" is a :
A 1497 kg/h
A flight plan with the correct time of departure.
B 2300 kg/h
B flight plan in the course of which radio communication
should be practised between aeroplane and ATC. C 1150 kg/h
C filed flight plan with amendments and clearance included. D 2994 kg/h
D filed flight plan.
332) (For this question use annex 033- 11061A or Route 336) (For this question use annex 033-12314A )
Manual chart AMSTERDAM JAA MINIMUMS (10-9X) The W/V (°/kt) at 50°N015°W is:
The Radio Altimeter minimum altitude for a CAT 2 ILS
DME approach to Rwy 01L is : A 310/75
A 100 ft B 100/75
B 88 ft C 290/75
C 300 ft D 310/85
D 188 ft
337) The cruising speed to write in the appropriate box of a
flight plan is:
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1) A true air speed
Given: Long range cruise, OAT -45°C at FL 350, Gross
mass at the beginning of the leg 40000 kg, Gross mass B indicated air speed
at the end of the leg 39000 kg
Find: True air speed (TAS) and cruise distance (NAM)
for a twin jet aeroplane C ground speed
A TAS 433 kt, 227 NAM D calibrated air speed
B TAS 423 kt, 227 NAM

338) (For this question use annex 033-11254A, 033-11254B,
C TAS 433 kt, 1163 NAM 033-11254C and 033-11254D)
Knowing that:
D TAS 423 kt, 936 NAM . Mass at brake release: 190 000 kg
. Flight leg distance: 1 500 NM
. Cruise level: optimum
334) (For this question use annex 033- 10998A or Route . Air conditioning: standard
Manual chart E(LO)1) . Anti-icing: OFF
The magnetic course/distance from WALLASEY WAL . Temperature: ISA
114.1 (53°23N 003°28'W° to LIFFY (53°29'N 005°30'W) on . CG: 37%
airway B1 is: Assuming zero wind, the planned landing mass at
destination will be:
A 279°/85 NM
A 171 200 kg
B 279°/114 NM
B 169 200 kg
C 311°/114 NM
C 170 200 kg
D 311°/85 NM
D 174 800 kg

Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1) 355) (For this question use annex 033-12347A or Flight
The aeroplane gross mass at top of climb is 61500 kg. For a flight of 3500 ground nautical miles, the following
The distance to be flown is 385 NM at FL 350 and OAT - apply :
54.3 °C. The wind component is 40 kt tailwind.Using long Tail wind component 50 kt
range cruise procedure what fuel is required? Temperature ISA +10°C
Brake release mass 65000kg
A 2350 kg The (a) trip fuel and (b) trip time respectively are :
B 2050 kg A (a) 18100 kg

(b) 7hr 20 min
C 2150 kg
B (a) 15800 kg
(b) 6hr 00 min
D 2250 kg
C (a) 21800 kg
(b) 9hr 25 min
D (a) 19000 kg
(b) 7hr 45min
340) (For this question use annex 033-12345A or Flight 344) (For this question use annexes 033-12303A and 033-
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.5) 12303B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.2
Given a trip time of about 9 hours, within the limits of and 4.5.3.1))
the data given, a temperature decrease of 30°C will Given : Distance C - D : 680NM
affect the trip time by approximately : Long Range Cruise at FL340
Temperature Deviation from ISA : 0° C
A +3% Headwind component : 60 kt
Gross mass at C : 44 700 kg
B -4% The fuel required from C - D is :
C -10%
A 3700 kg
D + 7%
B 3400 kg
C 3100 kg
381) (For this question use annex 033-11212A and 033- D 4000 kg
11212B)
Assuming the following data:
. Ground distance to be covered: 1 500 NM
. Cruise flight level: FL 310 345) Given:
. Cruising speed: Mach 0.82 (true airspeed: 470 kt) Dry operating mass (DOM)= 33510 kg
. Head wind component: 40 kt Load= 7600 kg
. Planned destination landing mass: 140 000 kg Final reserve fuel= 983 kg
. Temperature: ISA + 15° C Alternate fuel= 1100 kg
. CG: 37 % Contingency fuel 102 kg
. Total anti-ice: ON The estimated landing mass at alternate should be :
. Pack flow: HI
Fuel consumption for such a flight is: A 42210 kg.
A 23 500 kg B 42312 kg.
B 21 500 kg C 42195 kg.
C 21 700 kg D 42093 kg.
D 19 900 kg
The wind direction and velocity (°/kt) at 60°N 015°W is
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.3C) A 290/185
Given: ground distance to destination aerodrome 1 600
NM; headwind component 50 kt; FL 330; cruise 0.78 B 290/155
Mach; ISA + 20 ° C; estimated landing weight 55000 kg .
Find: simplified flight planning to determine estimated
trip fuel and trip time. C 320/155
A 12 400 kg. 04h 12 min D 110/155
B 11 400 kg. 03h 55 min

C 12 400 kg. 03h 55 min Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.6)
In order to get alternate fuel and time, the twin -jet
D 11 400 kg. 04h 12 min aeroplane operations manual graph shall be entered
with:
A Distance (NM), wind component, zero fuel mass.

343) When completing an ATS flight plan for a flight
commencing under IFR but possibly changing to VFR, B Distance (NM), wind component, landing mass at alternate.
the letters entered in Item 8 (FLIGHT RULES) would be :
A G
C Still air distance, wind component, zero fuel mass.
B X
D Flight time, wind component, landing mass at alternate.
C Y
D N/S
348) It is possible, in flight, to: 352) (For this question use annex 033-12348A or Flight
1 - file an IFR flight plan The following apply:
2 - modify an active IFR or VFR flight plan Temperature ISA +15°C
3 - cancel an active VFR flight plan Brake release mass 62000kg
4 - close an active VFR flight plan Trip time 5hr 20 min
What is the trip fuel ?
Which of the following combinations contains all of the
correct statements? A 13500kg
A 1-2-4 B 13000kg
B 1-2-3 C 13200kg
C 2-3-4 D 13800kg
D 1-2-3-4
339) How many feet you have to climb to reach FL 75?
Given: FL 75; departure aerodrome elevation 1500 ft;
349) (For this question use annex 033-12311A or Flight QNH = 1023 hPa; temperature = ISA; 1 hPa = 30 ft
- HOLDING PLANNING) A 6600 ft.
The fuel required for 45 minutes holding, in a racetrack
pattern, B 7800 ft.
at PA 5000 ft, mean gross mass 47 000 kg, is :
A 1635 kg
C 6300 ft.
B 1090 kg
D 6000 ft.
C 1690 kg
D 1125 kg Which best describes the significant cloud, if any,
forecast for the area southwest of BODO (67°N 014°E)
A 5 to 7 oktas CU and CB base FL100, tops FL180

350) (For this question use annex 033 11702 A)
The measured course 042° T. B 3 to 7 oktas CU and CB base below FL100, tops FL180
The variation in the area is 6° W and the wind is calm.
The deviation card is reproduced in the annex.
C Nil
In order to follow this course, the pilot must fly a
compass heading of: D 5 to 7 oktas CU and CB base below FL100, tops FL180
A 058°
B 040° Manual chart PARIS CHARLES DE GAULLE ILS Rwy 27
(21-2))
C 044° The crossing altitude and descent instruction for a
propeller aircraft at COULOMMIERS (CLM) are :
D 052°
A Cross at FL60 descend to 4000 ft
B Cross at FL70 descend to 4000 ft

351) (For this question use annexes 033-9554A and 033-
9554B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Paragraph 2.1
and Figure 4.2.1) C Cross at FL80 descend to FL70
Find the FUEL MILEAGE PENALTY for the twin jet
aeroplane with regard to the given FLIGHT LEVEL . D Cross at FL60 and maintain
Given: Long range cruise, Cruise mass=53000 kg, FL 310
A 10 %
B 0%
C 4%
D 1%
410) When completing an ATS flight plan, an elapsed time 414) (For this question use annex 033-9575A or Flight
(Item 16) of 1 hour 55 minutes should be entered as : Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1)
Given: Brake release mass 57500 kg, Temperature ISA -
A 1H55 10°C, Average headwind component 16 kt, Initial FL 280
Find: Climb fuel for enroute climb 280/.74
B 115M
A 1387 kg
C 0115
B 1040 kg
D 0155
C 1138 kg
D 1238 kg
411) (For this question use annex 033-9709A or SID chart
Paris Charles de Gaulle 20-3 )
Planning an IFR-flight from Paris Charles de Gaulle to
London. SID is ABB 8A. 415) (For this question use annex 033- 11023A or Route
Assume Variation 3° W, TAS 430kts, W/V 280/40 and Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA-Edition)
distance to top of climb 50NM The minimum enroute altitude available on airway
Determine the magnetic course, ground speed and wind UR160 from NICE NIZ 112.4 (43°46'N 007°15'E) to
correction angle from top of climb to ABB 116.6. BASTIA BTA 116.2 (42°32'N 009°29'E) is:
A MC 349°, GS 414 kt, WCA +5° A FL250
B MC 169°, GS 450 kt, WCA +4° B FL200
C MC 349°, GS 414 kt, WCA -5° C FL210
D MC 169°, GS 414 kt, WCA +5° D FL260
412) (For this question use annexes 033-11074A, 033-11074B, 416) When an ATS flight plan is submitted for a flight outside
033-11074C and 033-11074D) designated ATS routes, points included in Item 15
Planning a MACH 0,82 cruise at FL 390, the estimated (route) should not normally be at intervals of more than :
landing mass is 160 000 kg.
The ground distance is 2 800 NM and the mean wind is A 20 minutes flying time or 150 km
equal to zero. ISA conditions.
Fuel consumption will be: B 15 minutes flying time or 100 km
A 30 371 kg
C 1 hour flying time or 500 km
B 32 657 kg
D 30 minutes flying time or 370 km
C 30 117 kg
D 27 577 kg 417) (For this question use annex 033-11214A)

Assuming the following data:
. Cruise flight level: FL 370
413) (For this question use annex 033-11241A) . Cruising speed: Mach 0.82 (true airspeed: 470 kt)
The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight . Wind: zero wind during flight
using the following data: . Planned destination landing mass: 140 000 kg
- Flight level FL 370 at "Long Range" (LR) cruise regime . Temperature: ISA + 15° C
- Mass at brake release: 212 800 kg . CG: 37 %
- Flight leg ground distance: 2 500 NM . Total anti-ice: ON
- Temperatures: ISA . Air conditioning: normal
- CG: 37% Fuel consumption for such a flight is:
- Headwind component: 30 kt
- "Total anti-ice" set on "ON" for the entire flight A 27 400 kg
- No requested climb and descent correction of the fuel
consumption B 31 500 kg
The fuel consumption (from take-off to landing) is:
A 28 720 kg
C 29 100 kg
B 30 440 kg
D 29 400kg
C 34 430 kg
D 32 480 kg
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.4 ) Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4)
Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for the twin - HOLDING PLANNING
jet aeroplane. The fuel required for 30 minutes holding, in a racetrack
Given: Estimated Landing Mass 49700 kg, FL 280, W/V pattern, at PA 1500 ft, mean gross mass 45 000 kg, is :
descent .74 M/250 KIAS A 1010 kg
Determine the distance from the top of descent to
London (elevation 80 ft). B 1310 kg
A 65 NM
C 2180 kg
B 76 NM
D 1090 kg
C 87 NM
D 97 NM 423) (For this question use annexes 033-3912A and 033-

3912B or Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition and
Flight planning manual Figure 4.3.2A)
Planning a flight from Paris Charles de Gaulle (N49 00.9
419) (For this question use annex 033- 11010A or Route E002 36.9) to London Heathrow
Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) (N51 29.2 W000 27.9) for a twin - jet aeroplane.
The radio navigation aid at CHIOGGIA (45°04'N 012°17'E) Preplanning:
is a: Powersetting: Mach= 0.74
Planned flight level FL 280
A VOR/DME, frequency 114.1 MHz, and NDB frequency 408 The Landing Mass in the fuel graph is 50 000 kg
kHz The trip distance used for calculation is 200 NM
The wind from Paris to London is 280°/40 kt
B VOR, frequency 114.1 MHz, and TACAN channel 408 Find the estimated trip fuel.
C VOR, frequency 114.1 MHz, and TACAN frequency 408 A 1 900 kg.
MHz
B 1 450 kg.
D VOR/DME only, frequency 114.1 MHz
C 1 740 kg.
408) On a flight plan you are required to indicate in the box D 1 550 kg.
marked "speed" the planned speed for the first part of
the cruise or for the entire cruise.
This speed is:
the dates and times when temporary danger areas are
A The estimated ground speed
active
B The true airspeed A SIGMET
C The equivalent airspeed B RAD/NAV charts
D The indicated airspeed C NOTAM and AIP (Air Information Publication)
D Only AIP (Air Information Publication)

421) In an ATS flight plan Item 15 (route), in terms of latitude
and longitude, a significant point at 41°35' north 4°15'
east should be entered as :
425) Given :
Distance X to Y 2700 NM
A 41°35' N 04° 15'E
Mach Number 0.75
Temperature -45°C
B N04135E0415 Mean wind component 'on' 10 kt tailwind
Mean wind compontent 'back' 35 kt tailwind
C N4135 E00415 The distance from X to the point of equal time (PET)
between X and Y is :
D 4135N00415E
A 1313 NM
B 1425 NM
C 1386 NM
D 1350 NM
426) Given the following: 430) (For this question use annex 033-10991A or Route
D = flight distance Of the following, the preferred airways routing from
X = distance to Point of Equal Time AMBOISE AMB 113.7 (47°26'N 001°04'E) to AGEN AGN
GSo = groundspeed out (43°53°'N 000°52'E) above FL200 is:
GSr = groundspeed return
A UA34
The correct formula to find distance to Point of Equal
Time is : B UB19 POI UB195
A X = D x GSr / (GSo + GSr)

C UH40 FOUCO UH20 PERIC UA34
B X = D x GSo / (GSo + GSr)

D UB19 CGC UA25
C X = (D/2) x GSo / (GSo + GSr)
D X = (D/2) + GSr / (GSo + GSr) 431) (For this question use annex 033-11182A)
The surface weather system over England (53°N 002°W)
is
427) (For this question use annex 033-12374A or Route A a depression moving north
Manual chart NAP)
The average true course from A (64°N006°E) to C B a warm front moving southeast
(62°N020°W) is
A 271°
C a cold front moving east
B 079°
D an occluded front moving east
C 259°
D 247° Manual chart LONDON HEATHROW ILS DME Rwy 09R
(11-1))
The Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA) for an ILS glide
slope out, is:
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1) A 275 ft
Find: Time, Fuel, Still Air Distance and TAS for an
enroute climb 280/.74 to FL 350. B 200 ft
Given: Brake release mass 64000 kg, ISA +10°C, airport
elevation 3000 ft
C 480 ft
A 26 min, 1975 kg, 157 Nautical Air Miles (NAM), 399 kt
D 405 ft
B 26 min, 2050 kg, 157 Nautical Air Miles (NAM), 399 kt
C 20 min, 1750 kg, 117 Nautical Air Miles (NAM), 288 kt 433) (For this question use annex 033-11211A and 033-
11211B )
D 25 min, 1875 kg, 148 Nautical Air Miles (NAM), 391 kt Assuming the following data:
. Cruising speed: Mach 0.82 (true airspeed: 470 kt)
429) Given: . Head wind component: 30 kt
Dry operating mass (DOM)= 33000 kg . Planned destination landing mass: 160 000 kg
Load= 8110 kg . Temperature: ISA
Final reserve fuel= 983 kg . CG: 37%
Alternate fuel= 1100 kg . Total anti-ice: ON
Contingency fuel 102 kg . Pack flow: HI
The estimated landing mass at alternate should be : Time needed to carry out such a flight is:
A 42312 kg. A 5 h 02 min
B 42195 kg. B 4 h 10 min
C 41110 kg. C 4 h 43 min
D 42210 kg. D 4 h 26 min
420) (For this question use annex 033-9732A or Flight 383) "Integrated range" curves or tables are presented in the
Planning Manual SEP1 Figure 2.2 Table 2.2.2) Aeroplane Operations Manuals. Their purpose is
A flight has to be made with the single engine sample
aeroplane. For the fuel calculation allow 10 lbs fuel for A to determine the still air distance for a wind components
start up and taxi, 3 minutes and 1 gallon of additional varying with altitude.
fuel to allow for the climb, 10 minutes and no fuel
correction for the descent. B to determine the optimum speed considering the fuel cost
Planned flight time (overhead to overhead) is 03 hours as well as the time related cost of the aeroplane.
and 12 minutes.
Reserve fuel 30% of the trip fuel. C to determine the fuel consumption for a certain still air
Power setting is 25 in.HG (or full throttle), 2100 RPM, distance considering the decreasing fuel flow with
20°C lean. decreasing mass.
Flight level is 70 and the OAT 11°C.
The minimum block fuel is: D to determine the flight time for a certain leg under
consideration of temperature deviations.
A 283 lbs
B 268 lbs 384) (For this question use annex 033- 11030A or Route
C 252 lbs An appropriate flight level for flight on airway UR1 from
ORTAC (50°00'N 002°00'W) to MIDHURST MID 114.0
D 215 lbs (51°03'N 000°37'W) is:
A FL230
395) (For this question use annex 033-3910A or Flight B FL250

Planning a flight from Paris Charles de Gaulle to London
Heathrow for a twin - jet aeroplane. C FL260
Preplanning:
Dry Operating Mass (DOM): 34 000 kg D FL240
Traffic Load: 13 000 kg
The holding is planned at 1 500 ft above alternate
elevation. The alternate elevation is 256 ft. The holding 385) ((For this question use annex 033-9727A,
is planned for 30 minutes with no reductions. AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART
Determine the Estimated Landing Mass at alternate (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)
Manchester. Give the frequency of ZÜRICH VOLMET.
A 48 125 kg. A 118.10 MHz
B 49 250 kg. B 127.20 MHz
C 2 250 kg.
C 127.20 kHz
D 48 675 kg. D 128.525 MHz
382) (For this question use annex 033-9703A or Route Manual 386) Given: Maximum allowable take-off mass 64400 kg,
SID chart 20-3 for PARIS Charles-de-Gaulle) Maximum landing mass 56200 kg, Maximum zero fuel
Planning an IFR-flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) mass 53000 kg, Dry operating mass 35500 kg, Traffic
RWY 27 to London. load 14500 kg, Trip fuel 4900 kg, Take-off fuel 7400 kg
Given: Distance from PARIS Charles-de-Gaulle to top of Find: Maximum additional load
climb 50 NM
Determine the distance from the top of climb (TOC) to
ABB 116.6.
A 3000 kg
A 36.5 NM B 4000 kg
B 31 NM C 7000 kg
C 24.5 NM
D 5600 kg
D 33 NM
387) (For this question use annex 033- 11046A or Route 391) (For this question use annex.033-12342A or Flight
Manual SID charts for ZURICH (10-3)) Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.5)
Which is the correct ALBIX departure via AARAU for Given the following :
runway 16? Head wind component 50 kt
Temperature ISA + 10°C
A ALBIX 7S Brake release mass 65000kg
B ALBIX 7A What is the maximum possible trip distance ?
C ALBIX 6H
A 3100 NM
D ALBIX 6E
B 3480 NM
C 2540 NM
388) (For this question use annex 033-12312A or Flight D 2740 NM

Given: Distance to Alternate 450 NM
Landing mass at Alternate : 45 000 kg
Tailwind component : 50 kt 392) (For this question use annex 033-3907A or Route Manual
The Alternate fuel required is : chart STAR LONDON Heathrow (10-2))
Planning a IFR flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) to
A 3050 kg London (Heathrow).
Find the elevation of the destination aerodrome.
B 2900 kg
A 100 ft.
C 2500 kg
B 80 ft.
D 2750 kg
C 77 ft.
D 177 ft.
Which best describes the weather, if any, forecast for
JOHANNESBURG/JAN SMUTS at 0400 UTC?
A CAVOK 3911B) or (Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition and
Flight planning manual Figure 4.3.6)
B mist and/or fog Planning a flight from Paris Charles de Gaulle (N49 00.9
E002 36.9) to London Heathrow (N51 29.2 W000 27.9) for
a twin - jet aeroplane. The alternate airport is
C patches of fog
Manchester (N53 21.4 W002 15.7)
Preplanning:
D rain associated with thunderstorms The wind from London to Manchester is 250°/30 kt
The distance from London to Manchester is 160 NM.
Assume the Estimated Landing Mass at alternate is
390) (For this question use annex 031-11229A ) about 50 000 kg.
For a turbojet aeroplane flying with a mass of 190 000 Find the alternate fuel and the according time.
kg, at Mach 0.82, and knowing that the temperature at
flight level FL 370 is - 35° C, the optimum flight altitude A 1 600 kg and 36 minutes.
calculated using the annex is:
B 1 200 kg and 26 minutes.
A 38600 ft
C 1 450 kg and 32 minutes.
B 37400 ft
D 1 300 kg and 28 minutes.
C 37800 ft
D 34600 ft 394) After flying for 16 min at 100 kt TAS with a 20 kt tail wind
component, you have to return to the airfield of
departure. You will arrive after:
A 24 min
B 20 min
C 10 min 40 sec
D 16 min
325) When a pilot fills in a flight plan, he must indicate the 399) (For this question use annex 033- 10997A or Route
wake turbulence category. This category is a function of Manual chart E(LO)2)
which mass? The magnetic course/distance from CAMBRAI CMB
112.6 (50°14'N 003°09'E) to TALUN (49°33'N 003°25'E) on
A estimated take-off mass airway B3 is:
B maximum certified landing mass A 349°/26 NM
C actual take-off mass B 169°/68 NM
D maximum certified take-off mass C 349°/42 NM
D 169°/42 NM
396) (For this question use annex 033-9576A or Route
Given: Leg Moulins(N46 24.4 E003 38.0)/Dijon(N47 16.3 400) (For this question use annexes 033-9707A, 033-9707B or
E005 05.9). Route Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition, Instrument
Find: Route designator and total distance approach chart ILS DME Rwy 27R)
Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London (Heathrow)
A UG 21, 26 NM via initial approach fix (IAF) Biggin VOR .
Given: distance from top of descent (TOD) to Rwy 27R is
B Direct route, 69 NM 76 NM
Determine the distance from ABB 116.6 to TOD.
C D, 44 NM
A 55 NM
D UG 21, 69 NM
B 49 NM
C 60 NM
397) The Trip Fuel for a jet aeroplane to fly from the
departure aerodrome to the destination aerodrome is 5 D 100 NM
350 kg. Fuel consumption in holding mode is 6 000
kg/h. The quantity of fuel which is needed to carry out
one go-around and land on the alternate airfield is 4 380
kg. The destination aerodrome has a single runway. 401) The navigation plan reads:
Trip fuel: 136 kg
What is the minimum quantity of fuel which should be Flight time: 2h45min
on board at take-off? Calculated reserve fuel: 30% of trip fuel
Fuel in tank is minimum (no extra fuel on board)
A 12 700 kg Taxi fuel: 3 kg
The endurance on the ICAO flight plan should read:
B 10 000 kg
A 2h49min
C 13 000 kg
B 3h38min
D 13 050 kg
C 3h34min
D 2h45min
398) In the ATS flight plan Item 13, in a flight plan submitted
before departure, the departure time entered is the :
A estimated off-block time 402) (For this question use annex 033-11216A)
A turbojet aeroplane is flying using the following data:
B estimated time over the first point en route . flight level FL 250, Long Range (LR) cruise, mass of
150 000 kg
. temperature: ISA
C estimated take-off time
. head wind component: 100 kt
. remaining flight time: 1 h 40 min
D allocated slot time The ground distance that can be covered during the
cruise flight is:
A 841 NM
B 2031 NM
C 445 NM
D 612 NM
403) (For this question use annex 033-12373A or Route 393) (For this question use annex 033-11213A and 033-
Manual chart NAP) 11213B)
The average magnetic course from A (64°N006°E) to C Assuming the following data:
(62°N020°W) is . Ground distance to be covered: 2 500 NM
A 279° . Cruising speed: Mach 0.82 (true airspeed: 470 kt)
. Tailwind component: 40 kt
B 271° . Planned destination landing mass: 150 000 kg
. Temperature: ISA
. CG: 37%
C 259°
. Total anti-ice: OFF
. Air conditioning: normal
D 247° Fuel consumption for such a flight is:
A 27 800 kg
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.5) B 27 000 kg
For a flight of 2800 ground nautical miles the following
apply : C 28 300 kg
Head wind component 20 kt
Temperature ISA + 15°C D 29 200 kg
Brake release mass 64700 kg
The (a) trip fuel, and (b) trip time respectively are :
A (a) 18400 kg 259) (For this question use annex 033-12276A)

(b) 7hr 00 min In the ATS flight plan Item 15, for a flight along a
designated route, where the departure aerodrome is not
B (a) 17000 kg on or connected to that route :
(b) 6hr 45 min
A the letters "DCT" should be entered, followed by the point of
C (a) 15800 kg joining the ATS route
(b) 6hr 15 min
B it is necessary only to give the first reporting point on that
D (a) 16200 kg route
(b) 6hr 20 min
C the words "as cleared" should be entered
405) (For this question use annex 033-11202A) D it is not necessary to indicate the point of joining that route
Which of the following flight levels, if any, is forecast to as it will be obvious to the ATS unit.
be clear of significant cloud, icing and CAT along the
marked route from SHANNON (53°N 10°W) to BERLIN
(53°N 13°E) ? 327) (For this question use annex 033-9706A or Flight
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.4 )
A FL290 Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London for the twin
jet aeroplane.
B None Given: Estimated Landing Mass 49700 kg, FL 280, W/V
C FL250 descent .74 M/250 KIAS
Determine the fuel consumption from the top of descent
to London (elevation 80 ft).
D FL 210
A 210 kg
406) (For this question use annex 033-9571A or Flight B 320 kg

Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1)
Find: Final fuel consumption for this leg
Given: Long range cruise, Temperature -63°C, FL 330,
C 273 kg
Initial gross mass enroute 54100 kg, Leg flight time 29
min D 263 kg
A 1000 kg
B 1093 kg
C 1107 kg
D 1100 kg
247) On a given path, it is possible to chose between four 250) (For this question use annex 033-3306A or Flight
flight levels (FL), each associated with a mandatory Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1)
flight Mach Number (M). The flight conditions, static air Given: flight time from top of climb to the enroute point
temperature (SAT) and headwind component (HWC) are in FL280 is 48 min. Cruise procedure is long range
given below: cruise (LRC).
Temp. ISA -5° C
FL 370 - M = 0.80 Ts = -60°C HWC = -15 kt Take-off mass 56 000 kg
FL 330 - M = 0.78 Ts = -60°C HWC= - 5 kt Climb fuel 1 100 kg
FL 290 - M = 0.80 Ts = -55°C HWC = -15 kt Find: distance in nautical air miles (NAM) for this leg and
FL 270 - M = 0.76 Ts = -43°C HWC = 0 fuel consumption:
The flight level allowing the highest ground speed is: A 437 NAM; 2100 kg
A FL290 B 345 NAM; 2000 kg
B FL330 C 350 NAM; 2000 kg
C FL370 D 345 NAM; 2100 kg
D FL270
Prior to an IFR flight, when filling in the ICAO flight plan,
248) (For this question use annex 033-9550A or Flight the time information which should be entered in box 13:
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.2.2) "Time" is:
Find the SHORT DISTANCE CRUISE ALTITUDE for the
twin jet aeroplane. A planned take-off time.
Given: Brake release mass=45000 kg, Temperature=ISA
+ 20°C, Trip distance=50 Nautical Air Miles (NAM) B planned engine start time.
A 11000 ft
C the time of flight plan filing.
B 10000 ft
D estimated off-block time.
C 7500 ft
D 12500 ft 252) (For this question use annex 033-9543A or Flight

The final reserve fuel taken from the HOLDING
PLANNING table for the twin jet aeroplane is based on
249) (For this question use annex 033-12375A or Route the following parameters:
Manual chart NAP)
The initial magnetic course from A (64°N006°E) to C A pressure altitude, aeroplane mass and flaps down with
(62°N020°W) is maximum range speed
A 267° B pressure altitude, aeroplane mass and flaps up with

maximum range speed
B 271°
C pressure altitude, aeroplane mass and flaps down with
minimum drag airspeed
C 262°
D pressure altitude, aeroplane mass and flaps up with
D 275° minimum drag airspeed

The surface wind velocity (°/kt) at PARIS/CHARLES-DE-
GAULLE at 1330 UTC was
A 180/12
B 270/04
C 300/05
D 270/08
254) (For this question use annex 033-11210A and 033- 258) (For this question use annex 033-11209A and 033-
11210B) 11209B)
Assuming a departure/destination fuel price ratio of Assuming a departure/destination fuel price ratio of
0.92, the commander decides to optimize fuel tankering 0.91, the commander decides to optimize fuel tankering
by using the following data: by using the following data:
. Cruise flight level: FL 350 . Cruise flight level: FL 350
. Air distance to be covered: 1 830 NM . Air distance to be covered: 2 500 NM
. Planned take-off mass: 190 000 kg (with a minimum . Planned take-off mass: 200 000 kg (with the minimum
prescribed fuel quantity of 30 000 kg that includes a trip prescribed fuel quantity of 38 000 kg that includes a trip
fuel of 22 000 kg) fuel of 29 000 kg)
. Maximum landing mass: 180 000 kg . Maximum landing mass: 180 000 kg
. Maximum take-off mass: 205 000 kg . Maximum take-off mass: 205 000 kg
. Maximum tank capacity: 40 000 kg . Maximum tank capacity: 40 000 kg
The additional fuel quantity will be: The additional fuel quantity will be:
A 10 000 kg A 3 000 kg
B 20 000 kg B 2 000 kg
C 12 000 kg C 4 000 kg
D 15 000 kg D 0 kg
255) (For this question use annex 033- 11012A or Route 244) (For this question use annex 033-12355A or Route
Manual chart E(LO)1) Manual chart 5 AT(HI))
The radio navigation aid at BELFAST CITY (54°37'N The initial great circle true course from Keflavik (64°00'N
005°53'W) is : 022°36' W) to Vigra (62°33'N 006°02'E) measures 084°. On
a polar enroute chart where the grid is aligned with the
A an NDB, frequency 420 kHz, continuous operation 000° meridian the initial grid course will be :
B an NDB, frequency 420 kHz, NOT continuous operation A 066°
C a TACAN, channel 420 B 106°
D a fan marker, frequency 420 kHz C 080°
D 096°
The maximum wind velocity (°/kt) shown in the vicinity
of MUNICH (48°N 012°E) is : 260) (For this question use annex 033-12349A or Flight
A 290/110 For a flight of 2400 ground nautical miles the following
apply :
B 300/140 Temperature ISA -10°C
Cruise altitude 29000ft
Landing mass 45000kg
C 300/100
What is the maximum headwind component which may
D 300/160 be accepted ?
A 0
245) A METAR reads : SA1430 35002KY 7000 SKC 21/03
QI024 = B 35 kt
Which of the following information is contained in this
METAR ? C 15kt
A temperature/dewpoint D 70kt
B runway in use
C day/month
D period of validity
261) Planning a flight from Paris (Charles de Gaulle) to 265) (For this question use annex 033-12354A or Route
London (Heathrow) for a twin - jet aeroplane. Manual chart NAP)
Preplanning: On a direct great circle course from Shannon (52°43' N
Maximum Take-off Mass: 62 800 kg 008°53'W) to Gander (48°54'N054°32'W), the
Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 51 250 kg (a) average true course, and
Maximum Landing Mass: 54 900 kg (b) distance, are :
Maximum Taxi Mass: 63 050 kg
Assume the following preplanning results: A a) 281°
Trip fuel: 1 800 kg (b) 1877 NM
Alternate fuel: 1 400 kg
Holding fuel (final reserve): 1 225 kg B (a) 262°
Dry Operating Mass: 34 000 kg (b) 1720 NM
Traffic Load: 13 000 kg
Catering: 750 kg C a) 281°
Baggage: 3 500 kg (b) 2730 NM
Find the Take-off Mass (TOM):
D a) 244°
A 51 515 kg. (b) 1520 NM
B 55 765 kg.
C 51 425 kg. Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1)
Given: twin jet aeroplane, FL 330, Long range cruise,
D 52 265 kg. Outside air temperature -63°C, Gross mass 50500 kg
Find: True air speed (TAS)
A 420 kt
262) An aeroplane is flying from an airport to another.
B 433 kt
In cruise, the calibrated airspeed is I50 kt, true airspeed
180 kt, average groundspeed 210 kt, the speed box on
the filed flight plan shall be filled as follows: C 431 kt
A K0150 D 418 kt
B N0180
C K0210 Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.6)
Given : Distance to Alternate : 400 NM
D K0180 Landing mass at Alternate : 50 000kg
The alternate fuel required is :
263) According to the chart the minimum obstruction A 2550 kg

clearance altitude (MOCA) is 8500 ft. The meteorological
data gives an outside air temperature of -20°C at FL 85. B 2900 kg
The QNH, given by a met. station at an elevation of
4000ft, is 1003 hPa.
What is the minimum pressure altitude which should be C 2650 kg
flown according to the given MOCA?
D 2800 kg
A 8500 ft.
B 12800 ft. 268) (For this question use annex 033-9723A,

C 8200 ft. (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)
Flying from ERBACH airport (48°21'N, 009°55'E) to
D 8800 ft. POLTRINGEN airport (48°33'N, 008°57'E). Find magnetic
course and the distance.
A Magnetic course 287°, distance 60 NM

264) The fuel burn off is 200 kg/h with a relative fuel density
of 0,8. If the relative density is 0,75, the fuel burn will be: B Magnetic course 287°, distance 41 NM
A 267 kg/h
C Magnetic course 252°, distance 41 NM
B 200 kg/h D Magnetic course 108°, distance 60 NM
C 213 kg/h
D 188 kg/h
269) (For this question use annexes 033-3308A or Flight 219) (For this question use annex 033-12327A )
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1) The maximum wind velocity (°/kt) immediately north of
Given : brake release mass 57 500 kg TUNIS (36°N010°E) is
temperature ISA -10°C; head wind component 16 kt
initial FL 280 A 280/110
Find: still air distance (NAM) and ground distance (NM)
for the climb B 250/85
A 62 NAM; 59 NM
C 180/105
B 59 NAM;62 NM
D 190/95
C 67 NAM; 71 NM
D 71 NAM;67 NM 220) (For this question use annex 033-9730A,

Which navigation aid is located in position 48°30'N,
270) (For this question use annex 033-12352A or Flight 007°34'E?
For a flight of 2400 ground nautical miles the following A VOR/DME
apply :
Tail wind component 25 kt B NDB
Temperature ISA -10°C
Cruise altitude 31000ft
Landing mass 52000kg C VOR
D TACAN
A (a) 16200kg
(b) 5 hr 45 min
B (a) 13600kg AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART
(b) 6 hr 30 min (NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6)
An aeroplane is flying VFR and approaching position
C (a) 12000kg TANGO VORTAC (48°37'N, 009°16'E) at FL 055 and
(b) 5 hr 15 min magnetic course 090°, distance from VORTAC TANGO
20 NM.
D (a) 14200kg Name the frequency of the TANGO VORTAC.
(b) 5 hr 30 min
A 118.80 MHz
257) In the ATS flight plan item 15, it is necessary to enter B 112.50 MHz
any point at which a change of cruising speed takes
place. For this purpose a "change of speed" is defined
as : C 118.60 MHz
A 10 % TAS or 0.05 Mach or more D 422 kHz
B 20 km per hour or 0.1 Mach or more

C 20 knots or 0.05 Mach or more Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4)
Given: dry operating mass 35 500 kg; estimated load 12
D 5% TAS or 0.01 Mach or more 000 kg, contingency approach and landing fuel 2 500 kg;
elevation at departure aerodrome 500 ft; elevation at
alternate aerodrome 30 ft.
Find: final reserve fuel for a jet aeroplane (holding) and
232) (For this question use annex 033-11194A) give the elevation which is relevant.
The wind direction and velocity (°/kt) at 40°N 040°E is
A 2 360 kg; alternate elevation
A 300/75
B 1 180 kg;destination elevation
B 330/75
C 2 360 kg;destination elevation
C 330/85
D 1 180 kg; alternate elevation
D 150/75
223) Which of the following statements is (are) correct with 227) An aircraft is in cruising flight at FL 095, IAS 155kt. The
regard to computer flight plans pilot intends to descend at 500 ft/min to arrive overhead
1. The computer takes account of bad weather on the the MAN VOR at 2 000 FT (QNH 1 030hPa). The TAS
route and adds extra fuel. remains constant in the descent, wind is negligeable,
2. The computer calculates alternate fuel sufficient for a temperature standard. At which distance from MAN
missed approach, climb, cruise, descent and approach should the pilot commence the descent?
and landing at the destination alternate.
A 40 NM
A Both statements
B 45 NM
B Statement 1 only
C 48 NM
C Neither statement
D 42 NM
D Statement 2 only

224) (For this question use annex 033-11195A) In the event that SELCAL, is prescribed by an
What lowest cloud conditions (oktas/ft) are forecast for appropriate authority, in which section of the ATS flight
1900 UTC at HAMBURG (EDDH) ? plan will the SELCAL code be entered ?
A 5 to 7 at 2000 A AIRCRAFT IDENTIFICATION
B 5 to 7 at 500 B OTHER INFORMATION
C 3 to 4 at 500 C EQUIPMENT
D 5 to 7 at 1200 D ROUTE
225) Find the distance to the POINT OF SAFE RETURN (PSR). 229) On an instrument approach chart, a minimum sector
Given: maximum useable fuel 15000 kg, minimum altitude (MSA) is defined in relation to a radio navigation
reserve fuel 3500 kg, Outbound: TAS 425 kt, head wind facility. Without any particular specification on distance,
component 30 kt, fuel flow 2150 kg/h, Return: TAS 430 this altitude is valid to:
kt, tailwind component 20 kt, fuel flow 2150 kg/h
A 10 NM
A 1143 NM
B 25 NM
B 1463 NM
C 20 NM
C 1491 NM
D 15 NM
D 1125 NM
246) During an IFR flight in a Beech Bonanza the fuel

226) (For this question use annex 033-12353A or Route indicators show that the remaining amount of fuel is 100
Manual chart 5 AT(HI)) lbs after 38 minutes. The total amount of fuel at
On airway PTS P from Vigra (62°334N 006°02'E), the departure was 160 lbs. For the alternate fuel, 30 lbs is
initial great circle grid course is : necessary. The planned fuel for taxi is 13 lbs. Final
reserve fuel is estimated at 50 lbs. If the fuel flow
A 350 remains the same, how many minutes can be flown to
the destination with the remaining fuel?
B 344
A 63 minutes.
C 353
B 44 minutes.
D 347
C 4 minutes.
D 12 minutes.
231) (For this question use annex 033-9728A, 235) On an ATC flight plan, to indicate that you will overfly
AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART the way-point TANGO at 350 kts at flight level 280, you
(NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6) write:
Which navigation aid is located in position 48°55'N,
009°20'E ? A TANGO / K0350 FL280
A VOR/DME B TANGO / FL280 N0350
B NDB C TANGO / KT350 F280
C TACAN D TANGO / N0350 F280
D VOR
236) In the appropriate box of a flight plan, for endurance,
one must indicate the time corresponding to:
The approximate mean wind component (kt) along true A the total usable fuel on board
course 180° from 50°N to 40°N at 005° W is
B the required fuel for the flight
A headwind 55 kt
C the required fuel for the flight plus the alternate and 45
B tail wind 55 kt minutes
C tail wind 40 kt D the total usable fuel on board minus reserve fuel
D tail wind 70 kt
Which affects the visibility forecast for 0000 UTC at
233) (For this question use annex 033- 11031A or Route LAHORE (OPLA) ?
An appropriate flight level for flight on airway UG1 from A Mist
ERLANGEN ERL 114.9 (49°39°'N 011°09'E) to
FRANKFURT FFM 114.2 (50°03'N 008°38'E) is : B Smoke
A FL290 C Dust
B FL300 D Haze
C FL320
D FL310 Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.1C)
For a flight of 1900 ground nautical miles the following
apply :
234) (For this question use annex 033- 11004A or Route Head wind component 10 kt
Manual chart E(HI)5 CAA-Edition) Temperature ISA -5°C
The magnetic course/distance from LIMOGES LMG Trip fuel available 15000 kg
114.5 (45°49'N 001°02'E) to CLERMONT FERRAND CMF Landing mass 50000kg
117.5 (45°47'N 003°11'E) on airway UG22 is: What is the minimum cruise level (pressure altitude)
which may be planned ?
A 094°/ 90 NM
A 17000 ft
B 067°/ 122 NM
B 22000 ft
C 113°/ 142 NM
C 14000 ft
D 046°/ 70 NM
D 10000 ft
239) (For this question use annex 033-3909A or Route Manual 242) (For this question use annexes 033-9494A and 033-
chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) 9694B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1
Planning a IFR flight from Paris Charles de Gaulle (N49 and Figure 4.3.1B)
00.9 E002 36.9) to London Heathrow Given: twin jet aeroplane, Zero fuel mass 50000 kg,
(N51 29.2 W000 27.9). Landing mass at alternate 52000 kg, Final reserve fuel
Determine the preplanning distance by calculating the 2000 kg, Alternate fuel 1000 kg, Flight to destination:
direct distance plus 10%. Distance 720 NM, True course 030°, W/V 340°/30 kt, Long
The preplanning distance is: range cruise, FL 330, Outside air temperature -30°C
Find: Estimated trip fuel and time with simplified flight
A 188 NM. planning
B 308 NM. A 4400 kg, 02 h 05 min
C 218 NM. B 4750 kg, 02 h 00 min
D 207 NM. C 4600 kg, 02 h 05 min
D 4800 kg, 01 h 51 min

11259B)
The flight crew of a turbojet aeroplane prepares a flight 243) (For this question use annex 033-3311A or Flight
using the following data: Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1)
- Flight leg air distance: 2 700 NM Given :FL 330; long range cruise; OAT -63°C; gross
- Flight level FL 310, true airspeed: 470 kt mass 50 500 kg.
- Tailwind component at this level: 35 kt Find: true airspeed (TAS)
board): 180 000 kg A 431 kt
- Fuel price: 0.28 Euro/l at departure; 0.26 Euro/l at
destination B 418 kt
To maximize savings, the commander chooses to carry
extra fuel in addition to that which is necessary.
The optimum quantity of fuel which should be carried in C 420 kt
addition to the prescribed quantity is:
D 433 kt
A The fuel transport operation is not recommended in this case
B 4 000 kg 230) You must fly IFR on an airway orientated 135° magnetic
with a MSA at 7 800 ft. Knowing the QNH is 1 025 hPa
C 6 000 kg and the temperature is ISA + 10°, the minimum flight
level you must fly at is:
D 10 000 kg
A 90
B 80
Which best describes the weather, if any, at
LYON/SATOLAS at 1330 UTC ? C 75
A light rain associated with thunderstorms D 70
B frequent rain showers

C fog Finish the ENDURANCE/FUEL CALCULATION and
determine ATC ENDURANCE for a twin jet aeroplane,
D nil with the help of the table provided. Contingency is 5% of
the planned trip fuel and fuel flow for extra fuel is 2400
kg/h.
A ATC ENDURANCE: 04:12
B ATC ENDURANCE: 04:07
C ATC ENDURANCE: 03:52
D ATC ENDURANCE: 03:37
301) (For this question use annex 033- 11065A or Route 306) An executive pilot is to carry out a flight to a French
Manual chart PARIS CHARLES DE GAULLE ILS Rwy 10 aerodrome, spend the night there and return the next
(21-8)) day. Where will he find the information concerning
The ILS localizer course is : parking and landing fees ?
A 088° A in the AGA chapter of the French Aeronautical Information

Publication (AIP)
B 100°
B in the GEN chapter of the French Aeronautical Information
Publication (AIP)
C 118°
C by telephoning the aerodrome's local chamber of commerce,
D 268° this type of information not being published
D in the FAL section of the French Aeronautical Information

Publication (AIP)
Manual SID chart for LONDON HEATHROW (10-3))
Which of the following is a correct Minimum Safe
Altitude (MSA) for the Airport? 307) On a VFR flight plan, the total estimated time is:
A West sector 2100 ft within 25 NM

A the estimated time from take-off to overhead the destination
airport
B West sector 2300 ft within 25 NM
B the estimated time from take-off to overhead the destination
C East sector 2100 ft within 50 NM airport, plus 15 minutes
D East sector 2300 ft within 50 NM C the estimated time from take-off to landing at the alternate
airport
D the estimated time from engine start to landing at the

303) (For this question use annex 033-11189A) destination airport
The wind velocity over ITALY is
A 110 kt at FL380 maximum velocity not shown on chart

B a maximum of 110 kt at FL380 Given: Brake release mass 57500 kg, Temperature ISA -
10°C, Headwind component 16 kt, Initial FL 280
C 130 kt at FL380 maximum velocity not shown on chart Find: Still air distance (NAM) and ground distance (NM)
for the enroute climb 280/.74
D a maximum of 160 kt at FL 380
A 62 NAM, 71 NM

B 71 NAM, 67 NM
Over LONDON (51°N000°E/W), the lowest FL listed which
is unaffected by CAT is: C 62 NAM, 59 NM
A 270 D 59 NAM, 62 NM
B 310
C 360 What maximum surface windspeed (kt) is forecast for
BORDEAUX/MERIGNAC at 1600 UTC ?
D 230
A 25
305) In the ATS flight plan Item 19, if the number of

B 10
passengers to be carried is not known when the plan is
ready for filing : C 5
A the plan should be filed with the relevant box blank D 30
B an estimate may be entered but that number may not

subsequently be exceeded
C the plan may not be filed until the information is available
D "TBN" (to be notified) may be entered in the relevant box
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.4) Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.1)
A descent is planned at .74/250KIAS from 35000ft to Given : Brake release mass : 62 000 kg
5000ft. How much fuel will be consumed during this Temperature : ISA + 15°C
descent? The fuel required for a climb from Sea Level to FL330 is :
A 290kg A 1700 kg
B 278kg B 1650 kg
C 140kg C 1750 kg
D 150kg D 1800 kg
311) (For this question use annex 033-3321A or Flight 315) Given :
Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.3.1.B) Distance A to B 3060 NM
Given : estimated zero fuel mass 50 t; estimated landing Mean groundspeed 'out' 440 kt
mass at alternate 52 t; final reserve fuel 2 t; alternate fuel Mean groundspeed 'back' 540 kt
1 t; flight to destination, distance 720 NM, true course Safe Endurance 10 hours
(TC) 030, W/V 340/30; cruise: long range FL 330, outside The time to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) is:
air temperature -30 ° C.
Find : estimated trip fuel and time A 5 hours 20 minutes
A 4 600 kg; 02 : 05 B 5 hours 30 minutes
B 4 800 kg; 01 : 45 C 5 hours 45 minutes
C 4 400 kg; 02 : 05 D 3 hours 55 minutes
D 4 750 kg; 02 : 00
316) For a repetitive flight plan (RPL) to be used, flights must
take place on a regular basis on at least :
Which describes the maximum intensity of turbulence, if A 30 occasions
any, forecast for FL260 over TOULOUSE (44°N001°E) ?
B 50 occasions
A light
C 10 occasions
B nil
D 20 occasions
C severe
D moderate
313) (For this question use annex 033-11190A) - Flight level FL 370 at "Long Range" (LR) cruise regime
The wind direction and velocity (°/kt) at 50°N 040°E is: - (Prescribed) mass at brake release: 204 500 kg
- Flight leg ground distance: 2 000 NM
A 200/70 - Temperatures: ISA
- Headwind component: 70 kt
B 020/80 - "Total anti-ice" set on "ON" for the entire flight
- no requested climb and descent correction of the fuel
consumption
C 020/70
The fuel required from take-off to landing is:
D 350/70 A 29 440 kg
B 27 770 kg
C 20 900 kg
D 22 160 kg
318) (For this question use annex 033-4622A or Flight 322) (For this question use annex 033-11193A)
Planning Manual MEP 1 Figure 3.3) What is the mean temperature deviation (°C) from the
A flight has to be made with a multi engine piston ISA over 50°N 010°W ?
aeroplane (MEP 1). For the fuel calculations take 5 US
gallons for the taxi, and an additional 13 minutes at A -2
cruise condition to account for climb and descent.
Calculated time from overhead to overhead is 1h47min. B +2
Powersetting is 45%, 2600 RPM. Calculated reserve fuel
is 30% of the trip fuel. FL 100. Temperature -5°C. Find
the minimum block fuel. C +9
A 470 US gallons. D +13
B 47 US gallons.
323) Minimum planned take-off fuel is 160 kg (30% total
C 37 US gallons. reserve fuel is included). Assume the groundspeed on
this trip is constant. When the aeroplane has done half
D 60 US gallons. the distance the remaining fuel is 70 kg. Is diversion to a
nearby alternate necessary?
A Diversion to a nearby alternate is not necessary, because it

319) (For this question use annex 033- 11066A or Route is allowed to calculate without reserve fuel.
Manual chart ZURICH ILS Rwy 16 (11-2))
The lowest published authorised RVR for an ILS B Diversion to a nearby alternate is necessary, unless the
approach glide slope out, all other aids serviceable, captain decides to continue on his own responsability.
aeroplane category A is:
C Diversion to a nearby alternate is necessary, because the
A 600m remaining fuel is not sufficient.
B 800m D Diversion to a nearby alternate is not necessary, because

the reserve fuel has not been used completely.
C 1500m
D 720m 324) In the ATS flight plan item 15, when entering a route for
which standard departure (SID) and standard arrival
(STAR) procedures exist :
320) (For this question use annex 033-12371A or Route A neither SID nor STAR should be entered
Manual chart NAP)
The initial true course from C (62°N020°W) to B B both should be entered in the ATS plan where appropriate
(58°N004°E) is
A 080°
C SIDs should be entered but not STARs
B 278°
D STARS should be entered but not SIDs
C 098°
434) An appropriate flight level for IFR flight in accordance
D 116° with semi-circular height rules on a magnetic course of
200° is:
A FL300
321) When an ATS flight plan has been submitted for a
controlled flight, the flight plan should be amended or B FL310
cancelled in the event of the off-block time being
delayed by :
C FL320
A 60 minutes or more
D FL290
B 90 minutes or more
C 30 minutes or more
D 45 minutes or more
312) In an ATS flight plan Item 15, in order to define a 275) (For this question use annex 033-12377A or Route
position as a bearing and distance from a VOR, the Manual chart NAP)
group of figures should consist of : The distance (NM) from C (62°N020°W) to B (58°N004°E)
is
A VOR ident, magnetic bearing and distance in nautical miles
A 700
B VOR ident, true bearing and distance in kilometres
B 775
C VOR ident, magnetic bearing and distance in kilometres
C 760
D full name of VOR, true bearing and distance in kilometres
D 725

Manual chart E(LO)5) 276) (For this question use annex 033- 11067A or Route
An appropriate flight level for flight on airway G9 from Manual chart MUNICH NDB DME Rwy 26L approach (16-
SUBI SUI 116.7 (52°23'N 014°35'E) to CZEMPIN CZE 3))
114.5 (52°08'N 016°44'E) is: The frequency and identifier of the NDB for the
published approachs are:
A FL80
A 400 MSW
B FL70
B 338 MNW
C FL50
C 108.6 DMS
D FL60
D 112.3 MUN
326) An aircraft has a maximum certificated take-off mass of

137000 kg but is operating at take-off mass 135000 kg. In 277) A sector distance is 450 NM long. The TAS is 460 kt.
Item 9 of the ATS flight plan its wake turbulence The wind component is 50 kt tailwind. What is the still
category is : air distance?
A heavy/medium "H/M" A 511 Nautical Air Miles (NAM)
B medium "M" B 406 Nautical Air Miles (NAM)
C medium plus "M+" C 499 Nautical Air Miles (NAM)
D heavy "H" D 414 Nautical Air Miles (NAM)
274) (For this question use annex 033-9734A, 278) (For this question use annexes 033-12307A and 033-
AERONAUTICAL CHART ICAO 1:500 000 STUTTGART 12307B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.2
(NO 47/6) or Route Manual VFR+GPS chart ED-6) and 4.5.3.3)
Flying VFR from VILLINGEN (48°03.5'N, 008°27.0'E) to Given : Distance B - C : 1200 NM
FREUDENSTADT (48°28.0'N, 008°24.0'E) determine the Cruise Mach 0.78 at FL300
magnetic course. Temperature Deviation from ISA : -14°C
Tailwind component : 40 kt
A 176° Gross mass at B : 50 200 kg
The fuel required from B - C is :
B 004°
A 7050 kg
C 185°
B 6150 kg
D 356°
C 5850 kg
D 7300 kg
279) (For this question use annex 033-3313A or Route Manual 283) (For this question use annex 033-9572A or Flight
chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition) Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.3.1)
An aeroplane has to fly from Abbeville (50°08.1'N Find: Air distance in Nautical Air Miles (NAM) for this leg
001°51.3'E) to Biggin (51°19.8'N 000°00.2'E). What is the and fuel consumption
distance of this leg ? Given: Flight time from top of climb at FL 280 to the
enroute point is 48 minutes. Cruise procedure is long
A 100 NM range cruise. Temperature is ISA -5°C. The take-off mass
is 56000 kg and climb fuel 1100 kg.
B 38 NM
A 345 NAM; 1994 kg
C 64NM
B 349 NAM; 2000 kg
D 62NM
C 345 NAM; 2000 kg
D 345 NAM; 2006 kg

280) The final reserve fuel for aeroplanes with turbine
engines is
A fuel to fly for 45 minutes at holding speed at 1000 ft (300 m) 300) An aircraft, following a 215° true track, must fly over a 10
above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions. 600 ft obstacle with a minimum obstacle clearance of 1
500 ft. Knowing the QNH received from an airport close
B fuel to fly for 60 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft (450 m) by, which is almost at sea-level, is 1035 and the
above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions. temperature is ISA -15°C, the minimum flight level will
be:
C fuel to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft (450 m)
above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions. A 120
D fuel to fly for 45 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft (450 m) B 130

above aerodrome elevation in standard conditions.
C 150
281) Given: True course (TC) 017°, W/V 340°/30 kt, True air D 140
speed (TAS) 420 kt
Find: Wind correction angle (WCA) and ground speed
(GS)
A WCA +2°, GS 416 kt and 033-11223C)
Given:
B WCA -2°, GS 396 kt . Take-off mass: 150 000 kg
. Planned cruise at FL 350
. Long range MACH
C WCA +2°, GS 396 kt
. Standard Atmosphere (ISA)
. CG: 37 %
D WCA -2°, GS 426 kt Covering an air distance of 2 000 NM, your trip fuel from
take-off to landing will be:
282) Unless otherwise shown on charts for standard A 22 360 kg

instrument departure the routes are given with:
B 19 660 kg
A true course
C 21 760 kg
B true headings
D 20 260 kg
C magnetic course
D magnetic headings 299) In the ATS flight plan, for a non-scheduled flight which
of the following letters schould be entered in Item 8
(Type of Flight) :
A N
B N/S
C G
D X
287) (For this question use annex 033- 11005A or Route 290) (For this question use annexes 033-12302A and 033-
Manual chart E(LO)1 ) 12302B or Flight Planning Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.5.2
The radio navigation aid at TOPCLIFFE (54°12'N and 4.5.3.1)
001°22'W) is a: Given : Distance C - D : 3200 NM
Long Range Cruise at FL 340
A TACAN, channel 84, and a VOR frequency 113.7 MHz only Temperature Deviation from ISA : +12°C
Tailwind component : 50 kt
B TACAN, channel 84, and an NDB frequency 92 kHz only Gross mass at C : 55 000 kg
The fuel required from C - D is :
C VORTAC, frequency 113.7 MHz, and an NDB frequency 92
A 17 500 kg
kHz
D TACAN only, channel 84, (frequency 113.7 MHz) B 14 500 kg
C 14 200 kg
Planning Manual SEP1 Figure 2.2 Table 2.2.3) D 17 800 kg
A flight has to be made with the single engine sample
aeroplane. For the fuel calculation allow 10 lbs fuel for
start up and taxi, 3 minutes and 1 gallon of additional 291) (For this question use annex 033- 10995A or Route
fuel to allow for the climb, 10 minutes and no fuel Manual chart E(LO)5)
correction for the descent. The magnetic course/distance from ELBE LBE 115.1
Planned flight time (overhead to overhead) is 02 hours (53°39'N 009°36'E) to LUNUD (54°50'N 009°19'E) on
and 37 minutes. airway H12 is:
Reserve fuel 30% of the trip fuel.
Power setting is 23 in.HG (or full throttle), 2300 RPM, A 352°/72 NM
20°C lean.
Flight level is 50 and the OAT -5°C.
The minimum block fuel is:
B 352°/96 NM
A 208 lbs C 339°/80 NM
B 270 lbs D 339°/125 NM
C 250 lbs
292) In a flight plan when the destination aerodrome is A and
D 265 lbs the alternate aerodrome is B, the final reserve fuel for a
turbojet engine aeroplane corresponds to:
A 30 minutes holding 1,500 feeI above aerodrome A

An appropriate flight level for flight on airway UR24 from
B 30 minutes holding 1,500 feet above aerodrome B
NANTES NTS 117.2 (47°09'N 001°37'W) to CAEN CAN
115.4 (49°10'N 000°27'W) is: C 30 minutes holding 2,000 feet above aerodrome B
A FL300 D 15 minutes holding 2,000 feet above aerodrome A
B FL270
C FL310 Manual chart E(HI)4 CAA-Edition)
Of the following, the preferred airways routing from
D FL290 CLACTON CLN 114.55 (51°51'N 001°09'E) to DINARD DIN
114.3 (48°35'N 002°05'W) above FL245 is:
A UB29 LAM UR1 MID UA34 LILAN UR9
B UB29 LAM UR1 ORTAC UR14
C UR12 MID UA47 DPE UA475 SOKMU UH111
D UR12 MID UR8 SAM UB11 BARLU UW115
294) For a flight plan filed before the flight, the indicated time 272) An aircraft is flying at MACH 0.84 at FL 330. The static
of departure is: air temperature is -48°C and the headwind component 52
Kt. At 1338 UTC the controller requests the pilot to cross
A the time of take-off. the meridian of 030W at 1500 UTC. Given the distance to
go is 570 NM, the reduced MACH No. should be:
B the time overhead the first reporting point after take-off.
A 0.78
C the estimated off-block time
B 0.76
D the time at which the flight plan is filed.
C 0.72
D 0.80
295) For a planned flight the calculated fuel is as follows:
Flight time: 2h42min

The reserve fuel, at any time, should not be less than 284) (For this question use annex 033-11215A)
30% of the remaining trip fuel. A turbojet aeroplane is flying using the following data:
Taxi fuel: 9 kg . optimum flight level, Mach 0.80, mass of 190 000 kg
Block fuel: 136 kg . temperature: ISA
How much fuel should remain after 2 hours flight time? . tailwind component: 100 kt
The fuel mileage and the fuel consumption per hour are:
A 33 kg trip fuel and no reserve fuel.
A 71 NM/1000 kg; 5330 kg/h
B 25 kg trip fuel and 8 kg reserve fuel.
B 105 NM/1000 kg; 5330 kg/h
C 33 kg trip fuel and 10 kg reserve fuel.
C 105 NM/1000 kg; 6515 kg/h
D 23 kg trip fuel and 10 kg reserve fuel.
D 86 NM/1000 kg; 6515 kg/h
296) (For this question use annex 033-9712A and 033-9712 B

or Route Manual STAR 10-2 and Instrument approach
chart 11-4 ILS/DME Rwy 27R for London (Heathrow))
Planning an IFR-flight from Paris to London (Heathrow).
Name the identifier and frequency of the initial approach
fix (IAF) of the BIG 2A arrival route.
A BIG 115.1 kHz
B BIG 115.1 MHz
C EPM 316 kHz
D OCK 115.3 MHz

Flying VFR from VILLINGEN (48°03.5'N, 008°27.0'E) to
FREUDENSTADT (48°28.0'N, 008°24.0'E) determine the
distance.
A 28 NM
B 24 km
C 24 NM
D 46 NM
Professione Volare Domande Metereology
Data:
Nome Allievo:
268) Where, as a general rule, is the core of the polar front jet 276) The temperature at FL 110 is -5°C. What will the
stream to be found? temperature be at FL 50 if the ICAO standard lapse rate
is applied ?
A In the warm air mass.
A +3°C
B In the cold air mass.
B 0°C
C Just above the warm-air tropopause.
C -3°C
D Just below the cold-air tropopause.
D +7°C
280) How does the height of the tropopause normally vary

with latitude in the northern hemisphere ? 275) (For this question use annex 050-2056A)
Of the four radio soundings, select the one that
A It remains constant throughout the year. indicates ground fog:
B It decreases from south to north. A 1
C It remains constant from north to south. B 3
D It increases from south to north. C 4
D 2
279) Refer to the following TAF for Zurich.
LSZH 061019 20018G30KT 9999 -RA SCT050 BKN080
TEMPO 23012KT 6000 -DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG 274) The QNH is equal to the QFE if
1518 23020G35KT 4000 RA OVC010=
The lowest cloud base forecast at ETA Zurich (1200
UTC) is: A the elevation = 0
A 1000 FT. B T actual = T standard
B 1500 m. C T actual > T standard
C 5000 FT. D T actual < T standard
D 1500 FT.
273) In the central part of the Atlantic Ocean between 10°N
and 20°N the prevailing winds are
At which position could you encounter thunderstorms, A NE monsoon in winter and SW monsoon in summer
and what is the maximum height of the CB clouds?
B SE trade winds
A Position C, FL 200.
C SW winds throughout the whole year
B Position D, FL 290.
D NE trade winds
C Position B, FL 270.
D Position A, FL 200. 272) (For this question use annex 050-4371A)

Select from the map the average wind for the route
Athens - Geneva at FL 160.
277) During the formation of rime ice in flight, water droplets
freeze A 210/25
A slowly and do not spread out B 260/40
B slowly and spread out C 050/35
C rapidly and spread out D 240/40
D rapidly and do not spread out
271) How would you characterise an air temperature of -15°C 266) In a warm front occlusion
at the 700 hPa level over western Europe?
A Low A the warm front overtakes the cold front
B High B the warm front becomes a front aloft
C Within +/-5°C of ISA C the cold air is lifted
D 20°C below standard D the warm air is lifted
257) (For this question use annex 050-2511A) 265) An isothermal layer is a layer of air in which the
At what flight level is the jet stream core that is situated temperature
over nothern Scandinavia ?
A decreases with height at a constant rate
A FL 330
B increases with height at a constant rate
B FL 360
C remains constant with height
C FL 300
D increases with height
D FL 280
264) What is the likely track for a hurricane in the Carribean

269) Freezing rain occurs when area?
A West deep into the USA.

A snow falls into an above-freezing layer of air
B West in the earlier stages and later turning south east.
B rain falls into a layer of air with temperatures below 0°C
C West in the earlier stages and later turning north east.
C ice pellets melt
D East then south.
D water vapour first turns into water droplets
263) A layer in which the temperature remains constant with

283) Over Central Europe what type of cloud cover is typical height is
of the warm sector of a depression during winter?
A unstable
A CI, CS.
B neutral
B Fair weather CU.
C conditionally unstable
C CU, CB.
D absolutely stable
D ST with drizzle.

267) A 500 hPa pressure level can vary in height. In On which of these routes would you not need to worry
temperate regions which of the following average about icing at FL 180?
heights is applicable ?
A Zurich - Vienna
A FL 160
B Hamburg - Stockholm
B FL 100
C Zurich - Madrid
C FL 390
D Zurich - Hamburg
D FL 180
261) Which of the following conditions are most favourable 294) The Foehn wind is a
to the formation of mountain waves ?
A Unstable air at mountain top altitude and a wind at least 20 A cold fall wind
knots blowing across the mountain ridge.
B warm anabatic wind
B Either stable or unstable air at mountain top and a wind of at
least 30 knots blowing parallel to the mountain ridge. C cold anabatic wind
C Moist unstable air at mountain top and wind of less than 5 D warm fall wind
knots blowing across the mountain ridge.
D Stable air at mountain top altitude and a wind at least 20

knots blowing across the mountain ridge. 409) On the approach, the surface temperature is given as -
5°C. The freezing level is at 3000 FT/AGL. At 4000
FT/AGL, there is a solid cloud layer from which rain is
260) How long does a typical microburst last? falling.
According to the weather briefing, the clouds are due to
an inversion caused by warm air sliding up and over an
A 1 to 2 hours. inclined front. Would you expect icing?
B About 30 minutes. A Yes, between ground level and 3000 FT/AGL.
C 1 to 5 minutes. B Yes, but only between 3000 and 4000 FT/AGL.
D Less than 1 minute. C No, flights clear of cloud experience no icing.
D No, absolutely no icing will occur.

259) What is the boundary layer between troposphere and
stratosphere called?
305) What is the approximate speed of a 40-knot wind,
A Tropopause. expressed in m/sec?
B Ionosphere. A 20 m/sec
C Stratosphere. B 15 m/sec
D Atmosphere. C 25 m/sec
D 30 m/sec
Flight Munich to London. What is the direction and
maximum speed of the jet stream affecting the route 304) The most dangerous form of airframe icing is
between Munich and London ?
A 050° / 120 km/h A clear ice.
B 050° / 120 kt B hoar frost.
C 230° / 120 m/sec C dry ice.
D 220° / 120 kt D rime ice.
270) In which of the following regions does polar maritime air 303) If Paris reports a wind of 19015KT on the METAR, what
originate ? wind velocity would you expect to encounter at a height
of 2000 feet above the ground ?
A Baltic Sea
A 25025KT
B Black Sea
B 22010KT
C East of Greenland
C 22030KT
D Region of British Isles
D 16020KT
302) A trough of low pressure on a surface synoptic chart is 297) For an aircraft what are the meteorological dangers
an area of associated with a Harmattan wind?
A convergence and subsidence A Dust and poor visibility.
B convergence and widespread ascent B Thunderstorms.
C divergence and subsidence C Sand up to FL 150.
D divergence and widespread ascent D Hail.
301) What causes surface winds to flow across the isobars 281) From what type of cloud does drizzle fall ?
at an angle rather than parallel to the isobars ?
A Greater density of the air at the surface A Altostratus
B Greater atmospheric pressure at the surface B Cumulus
C Surface friction C Cirrostratus.
D Coriolis force D Stratus.
300) (For this question use annex 050-2549A) 295) The QNH at an airfield located 200 metres above sea
What is the speed of the front located over France ? level is 1022 hPa. The air temperature is not available.
What is the QFF?
A 30 kt
A It is not possible to give a definitive answer
B 15 kt
B More than 1022 hPa
C 25 kt
C 1022 hPa
D 10 kt
D Less than 1022 hPa
299) Hoar frost is most likely to form when

282) A winter day in northern Europe with a thick layer of
stratocumulus clouds and temperature close to zero
A taking off from an airfield with a significant ground inversion. degrees C at ground level, you can expect:
B flying inside convective clouds. A A high probability for icing in clouds. Severe icing in the
upper part due to accumulation of large droplets.
C flying inside stratiform clouds.
B Decreasing visibility due to snowfall below cloud base, but
only light icing in clouds.
D flying in supercooled drizzle.
C Reduced visibility and light icing in clouds
298) The temperature at FL 80 is +6°C. What will the D Turbulence due to a strong inversion, but no icing because
temperature be at FL 130 if the ICAO standard lapse rate clouds consist of ice crystals
is applied ?
A +2°C 293) Refer to the TAF for Bordeaux airport.

FCFR31 281400
B -4°C LFBD 1524 26015KT 9999 SHRA BKN020 TEMPO 1620
26020G30KT 8000 +SHRA BKN015CB PROB30 TSRA =
C -6°C Flight Lisbon to Bordeaux, ETA 1800 UTC. At ETA
Bordeaux what is the lowest quoted visibility forecast ?
D 0°C
A 10 or more km
B 8 km
C 8 NM
D 10 NM
292) Clear ice is dangerous because it 287) The height of the lifting condensation level is
determined by
A is not translucent and forms at the leading edges A wind and dewpoint at the surface
B spreads out and contains many air particles B wet adiabatic lapse rate and dewpoint at the surface
C is heavy and is difficult to remove from the aircraft surfaces

C temperature and dewpoint at the surface
D is translucent and only forms at the leading edges D temperature at surface and air pressure
291) Under which of the following conditions is the most 286) (For this question use annex 050-4368A)
severe CAT likely to be experienced ? Select from the map the average wind for the route
Frankfurt - Rome at FL 170.
A A westerly jet stream at low latitudes in the summer
A 050/40
B A straight jet stream near a low pressure area
B 030/35
C A curved jet stream near a deep trough
C 230/40
D A jet stream, with great spacing between the isotherms
D 200/50
290) Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a

4781 FT pressure level (FL50)? 285) (For this question use annex 050-3017A)
What name is given to the jet stream lying across India
A 300 hPa. (A) ?
B 850 hPa. A Sub-tropical jet stream.
C 700 hPa. B Equatorial jet stream.
D 500 hPa. C Polar front jet stream.
D Arctic jet stream.

What OAT would you expect at FL 200 over Geneva ?
284) An airborne weather radar installation makes it possible
A -28°C to detect the location of
B -24°C A all clouds
C -20°C B cumulonimbus, but provided that cloud of this type is

accompanied by falls of hail
D -16°C
C stratocumulus and its vertical development
D zones of precipitation, particulary liquid-state precipitation,

and also their intensity
Which airport is most likely to have fog in the coming
night?
A LSZH 256) Which form of precipitation from clouds containing only

water is most likely to fall in mid-latitudes?
B ENFB
A Drizzle.
C EKCH
B Moderate rain with large drops.
D ESSA
C Heavy rain with large drops.
D Hail.
296) At what degree of icing should ICAO's "Change of 226) Which of the following processes within a layer of air
course and/or altitude desirable" recommendation be may lead to the building of CU and CB clouds?
followed?
A Frontal lifting within stable layers.
A Extreme
B Convection.
B Moderate
C Radiation.
C Light
D Subsidence.
D Severe
225) What weather conditions are prevalent during the

217) Supercooled droplets are always summer, over the North Sea, approximately 300 km
behind a quickly moving cold front?
A at a temperature below -60°C A Cloud cover mostly scattered, isolated showers.
B at a temperature below freezing B Showers and thunderstorms.
C small and at a temperature below freezing

C Rain covering a large area, 8 octas NS.
D large and at a temperature below freezing D 8 octas CS, AS without precipitation.
229) (For this question use annex 050-10791A) 224) How does freezing rain develop?
The arrows labelled "s" represent the mean tracks of
tropical revolving storms which occur mainly from
A Rain falls through a layer where temperatures are below 0°C
A December to April and are called cyclones
B Rain falls on cold ground and then freezes
B May to November and are called hurricanes
C Through melting of sleet grains
C December to April and are called typhoons
D Through melting of ice crystals
D May to November and are called cyclones
223) A flight is to depart from an airport with runways 09 and

228) Which of the following circumstances most favour the 27. Surface wind is 270/05; an inversion is reported at
development of radiation fog? 300 feet with turbulence and wind shear. The wind just
above the inversion is 090/30. What is the safest
A Moist air over land during clear night with little wind departure procedure ?
B Warm moist air at the windward side of a mountain A Take-off is not possible under these conditions.
C Maritime tropical air flowing over cold sea B Depart on runway 09 with a tailwind.
D Advection of very cold air over much warmer sea C Depart runway 27 with maximum throttle during the passage
through the inversion.
D Depart runway 27 with as steep an ascent as possible.

227) Absolute instability exists whenever the environmental
lapse rate
A exceeds the saturated adiabatic lapse rate. 222) Altostratus clouds are classified as
B is less than the saturated adiabatic lapse rate. A high level clouds
C is between the dry and saturated adiabatic lapse rate. B convective clouds
D exceeds the dry adiabatic lapse rate. C medium level clouds
D low level clouds
221) Where, in central Europe, are the highest wind speeds to 216) The reason for the fact, that the Icelandic low is
be found ? normally deeper in winter than in summer is that
A Close to the ground A the temperature contrasts between arctic and equatorial
areas are much greater in winter.
B In the stratosphere
B the low pressure activity of the sea east of Canada is higher
in winter.
C Just below the tropopause
C the strong winds of the north Atlantic in winter are favourable
D At about 5500 metres altitude for the development of lows.
D converging air currents are of greater intensity in winter.

220) Half the mass of the atmosphere is found in the first

A 5 km
An aircraft is flying from Point A to Point B on the upper
level contour chart. The altimeter setting is 1013,2 hPa.
B 3 km Which of these statements is correct?
C 8 km A Wind speed at Paris is higher than at B
D 11 km B The true altitude will be higher at A than at B
C The true altitude will be higher at B than at A

258) A SPECI is
D Wind speed at A is higher than at B
A an aviation routine weather report
B a warning for special weather phenomena 214) With which type of cloud are tornadoes normally
associated ?
C a forecast for special weather phenomena
A Cumulus
D an aviation selected special weather report

B Stratus
C Nimbostratus
218) Which of the following phenomena should be described
as precipitation at the time they are observed? D Cumulonimbus
A SA
B TS 213) In which air mass are extremely low temperatures

encountered?
C SQ
A Arctic maritime air.
D DZ
B Polar continental air.
C Polar maritime air.

232) What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of
an aircraft parked on the ground during the period D Tropical continental air.
following the passage of an active cold front ?
A It will show a small increase or decrease.

212) An aircraft lands at an airport (airport elevation 1240 FT,
B It will have decreased. QNH 1008 hPa). The altimeter is set to 1013 hPa. The
altimeter will indicate :
C It will remain unchanged.
A 1375 FT.
D It will have increased.

B 1200 FT.
C 1105 FT.
D 1280 FT.
211) What weather conditions are indications of the summer 219) The station pressure used in surface weather charts is
monsoon in India?
A Fog. A QNE
B Thunderstorms, showers of heavy rain. B QFF
C Stratus clouds and drizzle. C QFE
D Sandstorms. D QNH
210) Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a 243) During a flight over the sea at FL 100 from Marseille
38662 FT pressure level (FL 390) ? (QNH 1012 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1012 hPa),
the true altitude is constantly increasing. What action, if
A 500 hPa any, should be taken ?
B 700 hPa
A Compensate by heading further to the left
B None, the reason for the change is that the air around Palma
C 200 hPa
is warmer than the air around Marseille
D 300 hPa C Have your altimeter checked, because its readings are
obviously wrong
209) Which of the following cloud types is a medium level

D Recheck the QNH because one of the QNH values must be
wrong
cloud ?
A ST
255) For a similar pressure gradient, the geostrophic wind
B SC speed will be
A greater at 30°N than at 60°N

C AS
D B greater at 60°N than at 30°N

CS
C the same at all latitudes north or south of 15°
208) A wind speed of 350 kt within a jet stream core should D equivalent to gradient wind ± thermal component
be world-wide regarded as:
A a common occurence.
254) When are the rainy seasons in equatorial Africa?
B not unusual in polar regions.
A March to May and October to November.
C possible but a very rare phenomenon.
B December to February and July to October.
D not possible.
C March to May and August to October.
207) (For this question use annex 050-2503A) D April to July and December to February.
Over Paris at what height would you expect to find the
tropopause according to the map?
253) Which is true of the temperature at the tropopause?
A 33000 FT
B 15000 FT A It is higher in polar regions than in equatorial regions
C 28000 FT B It is higher in equatorial regions than in polar regions
D 30000 FT C It is highest in middle latitudes
D There is no significant difference with change of latitude
252) (For this question use annex 050-4381A) 247) Which of the following phenomena are formed when a
Which of the following statements is true? moist, stable layer of air is forced to rise against a
mountain range ?
A The front to the north of Frankfurt is moving north-east at
about 5 kt A Stratified clouds
B The jet stream above Italy has a maximum speed of 120 B Inversions
km/h
C Thunderclouds have formed over the Iberian peninsula C Showers and thunderstorms
extending to some 25000 meters
D Areas of severe turbulence
D There is no significant cloud above Rome

251) The Bora is a Which one of the displayed cloud forms is
representative of altocumulus lenticularis?
A cold catabatic wind always associated with clouds and A 2

heavy showers
B 3
B cold catabatic wind with the possibility of violent gusts
C 4
C squally warm catabatic wind which occurs mainly in summer
D 1
D cold catabatic wind with gusts associated with a maritime air
mass
230) All pilots encountering Clear Air Turbulence are

250) Which thunderstorms generally develop in the afternoon requested to report it. You experience CAT which
in summer over land in moderate latitudes? causes passengers and crew to feel definite strain
against their seat belt or shoulders straps. Unsecured
objects are dislodged. Food service and walking are
A Airmass thunderstorms
difficult. This intensity of CAT should be reported as
B Warm front thunderstorms A severe
C Cold mass thunderstorms B extreme
D Occlusion thunderstorms
C moderate
D light
249) How does temperature vary with increasing altitude in
the ICAO standard atmosphere below the tropopause?
A Increases 244) Select the true statement concerning isobars and wind
flow patterns around high- and low-pressure systems
that are shown on a surface weather chart.
B At first it increases and higher up it decreases
A Isobars connect contour lines of equal temperature.
C Remains constant
B When the isobars are far apart, crest of standing waves
D Decreases may be marked by stationary lenticular clouds.
C When the isobars are close together, the pressure gradient

force is greater and wind velocities are stronger.
248) For a given airfield the QFE is 980 hPa and the QNH is
1000 hPa. The approximate elevation of the airfield is
D Surface winds flow perpendicular to the isobars.
A 120 metres
B 160 metres 231) What type of front / occlusion usually moves the fastest?
C 600 metres A Warm occlusion.
D 540 metres B Cold front.
C Warm front.
D Cold occlusion.
242) During which seasons are hurricanes most likely to 238) Aircraft struck by lightning may sometimes get
appear in the northern hemisphere? considerable damage and at least temporarily the
manoeuvring of the aircraft will be made more difficult.
A All seasons. Which one of the following statements is correct?
B Summer and autumn. A Aircraft made by composite material may get severe
damage, the crew may be blinded and temporarily lose the
hearing.
C Winter.
B An aircraft made by metal has a certain capacity to attract a
D Winter and spring. lightning, but the lightning will follow the surface and
therefore no damage will be caused.
241) (For this question use annex 050-4386A) C An aircraft has in the atmosphere the same qualities as a
If you are flying from Zurich to Shannon at FL 340, "Faradays cage", which means that struck of lightning
where will your cruising altitude be? seldom occurs. But if it happens, the result will be an
occasional engine failure. The crew may get a shock.
A Constantly in the stratosphere
D Aircraft made by composite material can´t conduct a
lightning and will therefore very seldom be struck.
B Constantly in the troposhere
C First in the troposphere and later in the stratosphere

237) Where does polar continental air originate?
D In the stratosphere for part of time

A Siberian landmass.
240) The 0° isotherm is forecast to be at FL 50. At what FL

B Areas of arctic water.
would you expect a temperature of -6° C?
C The region of the Baltic sea.
A FL 80
D The region of Greenland.
B FL 20
C FL 100 236) The tropopause is a level at which
D FL 110
A water vapour content is greatest
B pressure remains constant

239) Which of the following statements is true of the dew
point of an air mass?
C vertical currents are strongest
A It can only be equal to, or lower, than the temperature of the
D temperature ceases to fall with increasing height
air mass
B It can be higher than the temperature of the air mass

235) On which coast of North America, is the danger of
C It can be used together with the air pressure to estimate the tropical revolving storms the greatest?
air mass's relative humidity
A SE coast
D It can be used to estimate the air mass's relative humidity
even if the air temperature is unknown B W coast
C N coast
D NE coast
234) What is the name of the northerly, cold and strong wind,
that sometimes blows over a certain part of Europe?
A Typhoon.
B Mistral.
C Foehn.
D Bora.
What weather conditions are expected at Paris airport Which one of the displayed cloud forms is
(LFPO) around 0550 UTC? representative of a cumulonimbus capillatus?
A 23014KT 3000 +RA SCT008 OVC025 15/13 Q1004 A 1

NOSIG =
B 4
B 26012KT 9999 SCT025 SCT040 14/09 Q1018 TEMPO
5000 SHRA =
C 3
C 22020G36KT 1500 TSGR SCT004 BKN007 BKN025CB
18/13 Q1009 BECMG NSW = D 2
D 20004KT 8000 SCT110 SCT250 22/08 Q1016 NOSIG =

Which of the following best describes Zone D?
308) An aircraft is approaching under visual flight rules an
airfield whose runway is parallel to the coast. When A Ridge of high pressure
downwind over the sea, the airfield is on the right. What
wind effect should be anticipated on final approach and B Anticyclone
landing during a sunny afternoon?
C Trough of low pressure
A Tailwind
D Depression
B Headwind
C Crosswind from the right

379) The QFF at an airfield located 400 metres above sea
level is 1016 hPa. The air temperature is 10°C higher
D Crosswind from the left than a standard atmosphere. What is the QNH?
A More than 1016 hPa

245) In which meteorological forecast chart is information
about CAT regions found? B 1016 hPa
A 300 hPa chart. C Less than 1016 hPa
B Significant Weather Chart. D It is not possible to give a definitive answer
C 24 hour surface forecast.

378) An inversion is
D 500 hPa chart.
A a decrease of pressure with height

370) The troposphere is the
B a decrease of temperature with height
A part of the atmosphere below the tropopause C an increase of temperature with height
B part of the atmosphere above the stratosphere D an increase of pressure with height
C boundary between the mesosphere and thermosphere

377) What conditions are most likely to lead to the formation
D boundary between the stratosphere and the mesosphere of hill fog?
A High relative humidity and an unstable air mass

382) What type of fronts are most likely to be present during
the winter in Central Europe when temperatures close to B Clear skies, calm or light winds, with relatively low humidity
the ground are below 0°C, and freezing rain starts to fall?
C Precipitation which is lifted by the action of moderate winds
A Warm fronts, warm occlusions. striking the range
B Cold occlusions. D Humid stable air mass, wind blowing towards the hills.
C High level cold fronts.
D Cold fronts.
376) What characteristic is associated with a temperature 371) What are the meteorological prerequisites, at low level,
inversion ? for thunderstorms formed by lifting processes, over
land?
A Stability
A High air pressure (> 1013 hPa), high temperatures.
B Instability
B Low temperatures, low humidity.
C Clear ice
C Subsidence, inversion.
D Area of active storms
D High temperatures, high humidity.

Select from the map the average temperature for the 385) A layer in which the temperature decreases with 1°C per
route Zurich - Lisboa at FL 200. 100m is
A -30°C A absolutely stable
B -41°C B absolutely unstable
C -49°C C conditionally unstable
D -33°C D neutral for dry air
374) Which weather phenomena are typical for the northern 369) Low level wind shear is likely to be greatest
side of the Alps with stormy winds from the south
(Foehn)?
A at the top of a marked surface-based inversion.
A Continuous precipitation, severe turbulence.
B at the condensation level when there is no night radiation.
B Decrease in temperature, moderate to severe icing.
C at the condensation level when there is strong surface
friction.
C Icing, huge mass of clouds.
D at the top of the friction layer.
D Good visibility, turbulence.
368) The vertical extent of the friction layer depends

373) What prevents air from flowing directly from high- primarily on
pressure areas to low-pressure areas ?
A roughness of surface, temperature, local time
A Surface friction
B temperature, local time, environmental lapse rate
B Katabatic force
C stability, wind speed, roughness of surface

C The pressure gradient force
D wind speed, roughness of surface, temperature
D Coriolis force
367) Which of the statements is true concerning squall lines ?

359) Dew point is defined as
A Severe squall lines always move from northwest to southeast

A the temperature below which the change of state in a given
volume of air will result in the absorption of latent heat
B For severe squall lines a SIGMET is issued
B the temperature to which moist air must be cooled to
become saturated at a given pressure C Severe squall lines only occur in the tropics
C the lowest temperature at which evaporation will occur for a D For severe squall lines a TAF is issued
given pressure
D the lowest temperature to which air must be cooled in order

to reduce the relative humidity
366) When planning a flight at FL 60, which upper wind and 361) An aircraft is flying through the Alps on a warm
temperature chart would be nearest your flight level ? summer's day. The weather is fine, and there is a high
pressure system in the area. During the flight, a
A 300 hPa mountain is passed at an altitude of its summit. What
reading will the aneroid altimeter give, compared to the
B 850 hPa summit's elevation?
C 700 hPa
A A higher altitude than the elevation of the summit
D 500 hPa
B The same altitude as the elevation of the summit
C There is insufficient information to come to a conclusion
365) An observer on the northern hemisphere is under D A lower altitude than the elevation of the summit
influence of the wind system of a depression, which is
moving from West to East. The centre of the depression
passes to the South of the observer. For this observer
the wind direction is 306) Which of the following is true of a land breeze?
A continuously veering
A It blows only at noon
B initially backing, then veering
B It blows from land to water
C initially veering, then backing
C It blows from water to land
D continuously backing
D It blows by day
364) What surface weather is associated with a stationary

high pressure region over land in the winter? 372) Supercooled droplets can occur in
A NS with continuous rain. A clouds but not in precipitation
B The possibility of snow showers. B precipitation but not in clouds
C A tendency for fog and low ST. C clouds but not in fog
D Thunderstorms. D clouds, fog and precipitation
363) A high pressure area (shallow pressure gradient) covers 396) How would you characterise an air temperature of -55°C
an area of the Mediterranean Sea and its nearby airport. at the 200 hPa level over western Europe?
What surface wind direction is likely at the airport on a
sunny afternoon? A Within +/-5°C of ISA
A Variable.
B High
B Parallel to the coastline.
C Low
C Sea to land.
D Very high
D Land to sea.
1) Which of the following clouds are classified as medium

level clouds in temperate regions ?
Refer to the diagram. Assuming the usual direction of A AS, AC.
movement, to which position will the polar frontal wave
have moved ?
B SC, NS
A Position B
C CI, CC.
B Position C
D CS, ST.
C Position D
D Position A
407) The initial phase of a thunderstorm is characterized by 402) (For this question use annex 050-2523A)
What is the average wind at FL 160 between Zurich and
Rome ?
A continuous updraughts
A 350/40
B continuous downdraughts
B 020/50
C frequent lightning
C 050/40
D rain starting at surface
D 200/45
406) What is a microburst?

A A small low pressure system where the wind circulates with Weather conditions at Bombay during January are
very high speeds. mainly influenced by the
B A concentrated downdraft with high speeds and a lower A SE monsoon

temperature than the surrounding air.
B NE monsoon
C A concentrated downdraft with high speeds and a higher
temperature than the surrounding air. C SW monsoon
D An extremely strong wind gust in a tropical revolving storm.

D NW monsoon
405) Which of the following statements is true regarding

400) You intend to carry out a VFR flight over the Alps, on a
moderate-to-severe airframe icing?
hot summer day, when the weather is unstable. What is
the best time of day to conduct this flight?
A It may occur in the uppermost levels of a cumulonimbus
capillatus formation
A Mid-day.
B It always occurs in altostratus cloud
B Afternoon.
C It is likely to occur in nimbostratus cloud
C Early evening.
D It will occur in clear-sky conditions
D Morning.
404) Which of the following cloud types can project up into

the stratosphere? 399) How, if at all, is the relative humidity of an unsaturated
airmass influenced by temperature changes?
A Cumulonimbus
A It increases with increasing temperature.
B Cirrostratus
B It is only influenced by the amount of water vapour.
C Altocumulus
C It decreases with increasing temperature.
D Altostratus
D It is not influenced by temperature changes.
403) Which of the following cloud types is found at high

levels? 383) (For this question use annex 050-4379A)
Looking at the chart, at what altitude above Frankfurt
A CU would you expect the tropopause to be located?
B CI
A FL 250
B FL 280
C SC
D AS C FL 310
D FL 350
397) Which of the following phenomena should be described 392) What is the relationship, if any, between QFE and QNH at
as precipitation at the time they are observed? an airport situated 50 FT below sea level?
A VA A QFE equals QNH.
B BR B No clear relationship exists.
C MIFG C QFE is greater than QNH.
D +SHSN D QFE is smaller than QNH.
384) In which environment is aircraft structural ice most 391) If atmospheric conditions exist such that the
likely to have the highest rate of accretion ? temperature deviation is ISA +10°C in the lower
troposphere up to 18000 FT, what is the actual layer
A Stratus clouds. thickness between FL 60 and FL 120 ?
B Snow. A 5760 FT.
C Freezing rain. B 6240 FT.
D Cirrus clouds. C 6000 FT.
D 5900 FT.
Assuming a generalised zonal system of world wind
circulation, the NE trade winds are applicable to zone 390) A strong, dry and warm katabatic wind, produced by
prior enforced ascent of air over hills or mountains is
A v known as a
B w A Bora
C u B Foehn
D t C Harmattan
D Mistral
394) In which of the following situations can freezing rain be
encountered ?
389) Which of the following types of clouds are evidence of
A Ahead of a warm front in the winter unstable air conditions?
B Ahead of a cold front in the winter A SC, NS.
C Behind a warm front in the summer B CI, SC.
D Ahead of a cold front in the summer C CU, CB.
D ST, CS.
393) Why do tropical revolving storms tend to develop
mostly in the western parts of the tropical oceans?
388) Which of the following is true concerning atmospheric
A Because there is a maximal temperature difference between pressure ?
land mass and sea
A It always decreases with height at a rate of 1 hPa per 8m
B Because the gulf formation of the coastlines triggers a
strong rotary circulation B It decreases with height
C Because there is a maximum of humidity as a result of the

C It is higher in winter than in summer
trade winds`long sea passage
D Because they are areas in which there is a strong D It is higher at night than during the day
progressive windshear with increase of height
387) What is a trend forecast? 331) Which of the following weather reports is a warning of
conditions that could be potentially hazardous to
aircraft in flight ?
A An aerodrome forecast valid for 9 hours
A SIGMET.
B A route forecast valid for 24 hours
B ATIS.
C A routine report
C SPECI.
D A landing forecast appended to METAR/SPECI, valid for 2
hours D TAF.
386) Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause

airframe icing ? 330) What types of cloud will you meet flying towards a warm
front ?
A SHSN
A At some 500 km from the front, groups of CB, later at some
250 km thickening AS
B PE
B At some 800 km CS, later AS, and at some 300 km NS
C +FZRA until the front
D GR C Extensive areas of fog. At some 100 km from the front NS

begin
D At some 500 km AS, later CS and at some 80 km before the

358) Which one of the following local winds is a Foehn wind? front CB
A Scirocco
B Harmattan At what approximate flight level is the tropopause over
Frankfurt?
C Bora
A FL 330
D Chinook
B FL 300
C FL 350
398) Under what condition does pressure altitude have the
same value as density altitude ? D FL 240
A At sea level when the temperature is 0°C.
B When the altimeter has no position error. 328) What name is given to the low level wind system
between the subtropical high pressure belt and the
equatorial trough of low pressure (ITCZ) ?
C When the altimeter setting is 1013,2 hPa.
A Monsoon.
D At standard temperature.
B Trade winds.
319) The difference between geostrophic wind and gradient C Doldrums.

wind is caused by
D Westerly winds.
A curvature of isobars
B friction
327) Which of the following weather conditions favour the
formation of radiation fog?
C horizontal temperature gradients
A Light wind, extensive cloud, dry air.
D slope of pressure surfaces
B Light wind, extensive cloud, moist air.
C Strong wind, little or no cloud, moist air.
D Light wind, little or no cloud, moist air.
326) Advection is : 360) The jetstream and associated clear air turbulence can
sometimes be visually identified in flight by
A the same as convection A long streaks of cirrus clouds.
B horizontal motion of air B dust or haze at high level
C vertical motion of air

C a constant outside air temperature
D the same as subsidence D a high-pressure centre at high level
325) The sea breeze is a wind from the sea 320) Considering the North Atlantic region between 30°N and
65°N and the adjacent land areas during mid-summer,
A occurring only in mid-latitudes and in daytime the predominant pressure systems are
B occurring only in the lower layers of the atmosphere in

A Azores high and weak low over NE Canada
daytime
B Scandinavian high and Azores high
C that reaches up to the tropopause in daytime
C weak low over NE Canada and Scandinavian high
D blowing at night in mid-latitudes
D Azores low and Icelandic high
324) What wind conditions, occuring just before dawn, favour

the formation of fog at an airport where the temperature 334) Which of the following phenomena should be described
is 15°C and the dew point is 14°C? as precipitation at the time they are observed?
A Westerly, 10 kt variable. A BCFG
B Easterly, 10 kt. B FZFG
C Calm. C HZ
D Northerly, 10 kt. D SN
323) With which of the following types of cloud is "+RA" 318) In temperate latitudes what weather conditions may be
precipitation most commonly associated? expected over land during the summer in the centre of a
stationary high pressure zone ?
A SC
A NS.
B ST
B Calm winds, haze.
C NS
C TS, SH.
D AC
D CB, TS.
322) The lowest assumed temperature in the International

Standard Atmosphere (ISA) is : 317) Which of the following weather reports could be, in
accordance with the regulations, abbreviated to
A -273°C "CAVOK"?
B -44.7°C A 26012KT 8000 SHRA BKN025 16/12 Q1018 NOSIG =
C -100°C B 27019G37KT 9999 BKN050 18/14 Q1016 NOSIG =
D -56.5°C C 34004KT 7000 MIFG SCT260 09/08 Q1029 BECMG 1600 =
D 00000KT 0100 FG VV001 11/11 Q1025 BECMG 0500 =
316) What is the minimum speed for a wind to be classified 311) The region of the globe where the greatest number of
as a jet stream? tropical revolving storms occur is
A 100 kt. A the northern Indian ocean, affecting India, Sri Lanka and
Bangladesh.
B 60 kt.
B the north-west Pacific, affecting Japan, Formosa, Korea and
the Chinese coastline.
C 50 kt.
C the carribean sea, affecting the West Indies, Mexico and the
D 70 kt. south-east coastline of the USA.
D the south-western Indian ocean, affecting Madagascar,

315) Around Paris on January 3rd at 1800 UTC, the surface Mauritius and the island of Réunion.
temperature, under shelter, is 3°C. The sky is covered
by 8 oktas of stratus. QNH is 1033 hPa. If the sky is
covered all night, the minimum temperature of the night 310) The process by which water vapour is transformed
of January 3rd to January 4th should be directly into ice is known as
A slightly below +3°C. A sublimation
B significantly below 0°C. B supercooling
C slightly above +3°C. C supersaturation
D significantly above +3°C. D radiation cooling
314) Which of the following statements is true concerning 309) How do air masses move at a warm front ?
advection fog?
A It forms when unstable air is cooled adiabatically A Cold air overrides a warm air mass
B It forms slowly and disappears rapidly B Cold air undercuts a warm air mass
C It can be formed suddenly by day or night C Warm air undercuts a cold air mass
D It forms at night or the early morning D Warm air overrides a cold air mass
313) Which of the following conditions gives the highest 321) At FL 180, the air temperature is -35°C.The air density at
value of the QNH? this level is:
A QFE = 995 hPa, elevation = 1200 FT (366m) A Equal to the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL 180.
B QFE = 995 hPa, elevation = 1600 FT (488m) B Unable to be determined without knowing the QNH.
C QFE = 1000 hPa, elevation = 1200 FT (366m) C Greater than the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL 180.
D QFE = 1003 hPa, elevation = 1200 FT (366m) D Less than the density of the ISA atmosphere at FL 180.
312) Why are indications about the height of the tropopause

not essential for flight documentation in the tropics?
A Tropopause informations are of no value.
B The tropopause is generally well above the flight level

actually flown.
C The meteorological services are unable to provide such a

chart.
D The temperatures of the tropical tropopause are always very

cold and therefore not important.
345) In Zurich during a summer day the following weather 354) During the late afternoon an air temperature of +12°C
observations were taken: and a dew point of +5°C were measured. What
160450Z 23015KT 3000 +RA SCT008 SCT020 OVC030 temperature change must occur during the night in
13/12 Q1010 NOSIG = order to induce saturation?
160650Z 25008KT 6000 SCT040 BKN090 18/14 Q1010
RERA NOSIG = A It must decrease to +7°C.
160850Z 25006KT 8000 SCT040 SCT100 19/15 Q1009
NOSIG = B It must decrease to +5°C.
161050Z 24008KT 9999 SCT040 SCT100 21/15 Q1008
NOSIG =
161250Z 23012KT CAVOK 23/16 Q1005 NOSIG = C It must decrease by 5°C.
161450Z 23016KT 9999 SCT040 BKN090 24/17 Q1003
BECMG 25020G40KT TS = D It must decrease to +6°C.
161650Z 24018G35KT 3000 +TSRA SCT006 BKN015CB
18/16 Q1002 NOSIG =
161850Z 28012KT 9999 SCT030 SCT100 13/11 Q1005 353) Refer to the following TAF extract:
NOSIG = BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500
What do you conclude based on these observations? FG VV001
What visibility is forecast for 2400 UTC?
A A cold front passed the station early in the morning and a
warm front during late afternoon A 500 m.
B A trough line passed the station early in the morning and a
warm front during late afternoon B 2000 m.
C Storm clouds due to warm air came close to and grazed the C Between 500 m and 2000 m.
station
D Between 0 m and 1000 m.
D A warm front passed the station early in the morning and a
cold front during late afternoon
352) A sample of moist but unsaturated air may become

saturated by
357) What degree of turbulence, if any, is likely to be
encountered while flying through a cold front in the
summer over Central Europe at FL 100?
A expanding it adiabatically
A Moderate turbulence in NS cloud. B raising the temperature
B Light turbulence in CB cloud. C lowering the pressure, keeping temperature constant
C Light turbulence in ST cloud. D compressing it adiabatically
D Severe turbulence in CB cloud.

351) Which forces are balanced with geostrophic winds?
356) At what time of day, or night, is radiation fog most likely A Friction force, pressure gradient force, Coriolis force.
to occur?
B Pressure gradient force, Coriolis force, centrifugal force.
A Shortly after midnight.
C Pressure gradient force, centrifugal force, friction force.
B Shortly after sunrise.
D Pressure gradient force, Coriolis force.
C At sunset.
D Late evening.
350) An inversion is a layer of air in which the temperature
355) (For this question use annex 050-2065A) A remains constant with height
What is the classification of the airmass affecting
position "Q" at 0600 UTC? B increases with height more than 1°C/100m
A Polar maritime. C decreases with height more than 1°C/100m
B Polar continental. D increases with height
C Tropical continental.
D Tropical maritime.
349) Refer to the following TAF extract; 344) Which of the following cloud is classified as low level
BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 cloud ?
FG VV001
What does the abbreviation "PROB30" mean? A CS
A Change expected in less than 30 minutes. B AS
B Probability of 30%. C CC
C Conditions will last for at least 30 minutes. D ST
D The cloud ceiling should lift to 3000 FT.

343) Within a short interval, several flight crews report that
they have experienced strong clear air turbulence in a
348) Considering the North Atlantic region between 30°N and certain airspace. What is the consequence of these
65°N together with the adjacent land areas during winter, reports?
the normal disposition of the main anticyclones at the
surface is A The airspace in question, will be temporarily closed
A Greenland, Iberian peninsula B The competent aviation weather office will issue a SPECI
B Azores, Siberia C The competent aviation weather office will issue a storm
warning
C Siberia, Iceland, Canaries
D The competent aviation weather office will issue a SIGMET
D NE Canada, Iceland

332) (For this question use annex 050-3030A) The dotted line designated "Z" represents the
To which aerodrome is the following TAF most
applicable ? A northerly limit of the sub tropical jet stream during July
TAF 231019 24014KT 6000 SCT030 BKN100 TEMPO 1113
25020G38KT 2500 +TSRA SCT008 BKN025CB BECMG B northerly limit of the SE trade winds during January
1315 28012KT 9999 SCT025 TEMPO 5000 SHRA BKN020
BECMG 1719 27008KT 9999 SCT030 C mean position of the intertropical front (ITCZ) during July
A EKCH D mean position of the intertropical front (ITCZ) during January
B LOWW
341) What relationship exists between the wind at 3000 feet

C LFPG
and the surface wind?
D LEMD
A They are practically the same, except when eddies exist,
caused by obstacles
346) Which statement is true for a conditionally unstable B The surface wind is veered compared to the wind at 3000
layer? feet and is usually weaker.
A The environmental lapse rate is less than 0.65°C/100m C The wind at 3000 feet is parallel to the isohypses and the
surface wind direction is across the isobars toward the low
pressure and the surface wind is weaker.
B The layer is unstable for unsaturated air
D They have the same direction, but the surface wind is
C The wet adiabatic lapse rate is 0.65°C/100m weaker, caused by friction
D The environmental lapse rate is less than 1°C/100m

340) A layer is absolutely unstable if the temperature
decrease with height is
333) The presence of altocumulus castellanus indicates
A less than 0.65°C per 100m
A subsidence in a large part of the troposphere B more than 1°C per 100m
B instability in the middle troposphere C between 1°C per 100m and 0.65°C per 100m
C strong convection at low height D 0.65°C per 100m
D stability in the higher troposphere
339) If in a 100 m thick layer the temperature at the bottom of 204) (For this question use annex 050-4374A)
the layer is 10°C and at the top of the layer is 8°C then Select from the map the average wind for the route
this layer is Zurich - Hamburg at FL 240.
A conditionally unstable A 020/20
B neutral B 200/15
C absolutely unstable C 260/25
D absolutely stable D 230/20
338) Freezing fog exists if fog droplets 347) Which of the following types of cloud can extend over
the low, medium and high cloud levels ?
A are supercooled A CB
B are frozen B AC
C are freezing very rapidly

C ST
D freeze when temperature falls below zero D CI
337) Refer to the TAF for Amsterdam airport. 63) How does moderate turbulence affect an aircraft?
FCNL31 281500
EHAM 281601 14010KT 6000 -RA SCT025 BECMG 1618
12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1823 3000 RA A Large, abrupt changes in altitude or attitude occur but the
BKN005 OVC010 BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000 NSW aircraft may only be out of control momentarily.
BKN020 =
Flight from Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC. At B Continued flight in this environment will result in structural
ETA Amsterdam what surface wind is forecast ? damage.
A 120° / 15 kt gusts 25 kt C Changes in altitude or attitude occur but the aircraft remains
in positive control at all times.
B 140° / 10 kt
D Rapid and somewhat rhythmic bumpiness is experienced
without appreciable changes in altitude or attitude.
C 300° / 15 kt maximum wind 25 kt
D 250° / 20 kt
75) In which month does the humid monsoon in India start?
336) A 700 hPa pressure level can vary in height. In A In October.

temperate regions which of the following average
heights is applicable ? B In December.
A FL 180 C In March.
B FL 300 D In June.
C FL 390
74) Clouds, classified as being low level are considered to
D FL 100 have bases from
A 500 to 1000 FT
335) Which of the following clouds may extend into more
than one layer? B 100 to 200 FT
A Stratus. C the surface to 6500 FT
B Altocumulus. D 1000 to 2000 FT
C Cirrus.
D Nimbostratus.
73) The stable layer at some height in the low troposphere 68) A wind sounding in the region of a polar front jet stream
of an older high pressure area in the mid-latitudes is gives the following windprofile (Northern hemisphere).
called 900hPa 220/20kt
800hPa 220/25kt
A radiation inversion 700hPa 230/35kt
500hPa 260/60kt
B trade wind inversion 400hPa 280/85kt
300hPa 300/100kt
250hPa 310/120kt
C subsidence inversion
200hPa 310/80kt
Which system is the jet stream associated with?
D friction inversion
A With a cold front.
72) Which of the following is true concerning an aircraft that B With a ITCZ.
is flying at FL180 in the northern hemisphere, where
wind is geostrophic and the true altitude remains C With an easterly wave.
constant ?
D With a warm front.
A There is a cross wind from the left
B There is a cross wind from the right

67) A small supercooled cloud droplet that collides with an
airfoil will most likely
C Without knowing temperature at FL 180 this question can
not be answered
A freeze immediately and create clear ice.
D There is no cross wind
B travel back over the wing, creating rime ice.
71) A dry, sand- and dust-laden North Easterly wind that

C travel back over the wing, creating clear ice.
blows in winter over large parts of North West Africa is
known as a D freeze immediately and create rime ice.
A Pampero
66) When a given mass of air descends, what effect will it
B Khamsin have on relative humidity?
C Harmattan A It increases.
D Scirocco B It remains constant.
C It increases up to 100%, then remains stable.

70) Relative humidity at a given temperature is the relation
between D It decreases.
A water vapour weight and humid air volume

52) In which of these cloud types can icing be virtually ruled
B dew point and air temperature out?
C actual water vapour content and saturated water vapour A NS

content
B CU
D water vapour weight and dry air weight
C CI
69) In a polar front depression, an occlusion is called a D SC

warm occlusion when the cold air
A behind is colder than the cold air in front.
B behind is colder than the cold air in front, with the warm air
being at a high altitude.
C behind is less cold than the cold air in front, with the warm
air at a high altitude.
D in front of the surface position of front is only at a high

altitude.
64) The morning following a clear, calm night when the 60) Compare the following TAF and VOLMET reports for
temperature has dropped to the dewpoint, is likely to Nice:
produce TAF 240716 VRB02KT CAVOK =
0920Z 13012KT 8000 SCT040CB BKN100 20/18 Q1015
A a cold front TEMPO TS =
What can be concluded from the differences between
B advection fog the two reports ?
C good clear weather

A That the weather at Nice is clearly more volatile than the
TAF could have predicted earlier in the morning
D radiation fog B That the weather conditions at 0920 were actually predicted
in the TAF
78) The main factor which contributes to the formation of C That the weather in Nice after 0920 is also likely to be as
very low clouds ahead of a warm front is the predicted in the TAF
A saturation of the cold air by rain falling into it and evaporating

D That the VOLMET speaker has got his locations mixed up,
because there is no way the latest VOLMET report could be
so different from the TAF
B saturation of the warm air by rain falling into it and
evaporating
C reduction of outgoing radiation due to clouds 59) During periods of prolonged clear skies associated with
anticyclonic conditions, the
D warm air moving over a cold surface
A surface wind speed tends to be highest at night
B angle between isobars and surface wind direction tends to

62) Which statement is true ? be greatest in the early afternoon
A QNH can be 1013.25 only for a station at MSL

C wind tends to back from early morning until early afternoon
D surface wind speed tends to be highest during the early

B QNH can be lower as well as higher than 1013.25 hPa afternoon
C QNH can not be 1013.25 hPa

58) Areas of sinking air are generally cloudless because as
D QNH is lower than 1013.25 hPa at any time air sinks it
A loses water vapour

61) Glaze or clear ice is formed when supercooled droplets
are B is heated by compression
A large and at a temperature just below freezing C reaches warmer layers
B small and at a temperature just below freezing D is heated by expansion
C small and freeze rapidly

57) What does the term TREND signify?
D of any size at temperatures below -35°C.
A It is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station

several times daily
B It is a brief landing forecast added to the actual weather

report
C It is the actual weather report at an aerodrome and is

generally issued at half-hourly intervals
D It is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions
56) An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 90; the true 65) (For this question use annex 050-2055A)
altitude is 9100 feet; local QNH is unknown. What The cold front is indicated with a number at position:
assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in
which the aircraft is flying ? A 2
A It is colder than ISA B 1
B It is warmer than ISA C 3
C Its average temperature is the same as ISA D 4
D There is insufficient information to make any assumption

89) What are the requirements for the formation of a
thunderstorm?
Judging by the chart, on which of these routes can you A A stratocumulus cloud with sufficient moisture
expect to encounter moderate and locally severe CAT at
FL 300? B A cumulus cloud with sufficient moisture associated with an
inversion
A Paris - Bordeaux
C An adequate supply of moisture, conditional instability and a
B Zurich - Rome lifting action
C London - Zurich D Water vapour and high pressure
D Zurich - Copenhagen
101) What units are used to report vertical wind shear?
54) An aircraft is flying at FL 80. The local QNH is 1000 hPa. A kt.
After the second altimeter has been adjusted to the local
QNH, the reading will be approximately
B m/100 FT.
A 8350 FT.
C m/sec.
B 8000 FT.
D kt/100 FT.
C 7650 FT.
D 8600 FT. 100) What type of air movement is associated with the centre
line of a trough?
A Divergence with descending air.

206) During July flights from Bangkok (13°N - 100°E) to
Karachi (25°N - 67°E) experience an average tailwind
component of 22 kt. In January the same flights, also
B Divergence with lifting.
operating at FL 370, have an average headwind of 50 kt.
What is the reason for this difference? C Convergence with descending air.
A The flights in January encountered, by chance, very D Convergence with lifting.

unusual, adverse conditions.
B The flights happen to be in the area of the polar front jet

99) Above and below a low level inversion the wind is likely
stream.
to
C The wind components correspond to the seasonal change of
A experience little or no change in speed and direction
the regional wind system.
D The flights during the summer encountered, by chance, very B change significantly in speed and direction
unusual, favourable conditions.
C change in speed but not in direction
D change in direction but not in speed
98) When the subscale is set to the QNH of an airfield the 93) On a particular day part of a polar front jet stream runs
pressure altimeter indicates from north to south in the northern hemisphere. This
means that
A elevation while landing only if conditions are as in the
International Standard Atmosphere A below the core of the jet the horizontal temperature gradient
runs from north to south
B zero while landing only if conditions are as in the
International Standard Atmosphere B above the core of the jet the horizontal temperature gradient
runs from north to south
C elevation while landing
C the polar air is below and to the east of the core of the jet
D zero while landing
D the polar air is on the eastern side and above the core of the
jet
97) On a clear summer day, turbulence caused by solar
heating is most pronounced
92) A parcel of unsaturated air is lifted to just below the
A during early morning hours before sunrise condensation level and then returned to its original
level. What is the final temperature of the parcel of air?
B about midmorning
A It depends upon the QFE.
C during the early afternoon

B The same as the starting temperature.
D immediately after sunset
C Higher than the starting temperature.
D Lower than the starting temperature.

96) Steady precipitation, in contrast to showery
precipitation falls from
A stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence 76) When is the RVR reported at most airports?
B convective clouds with little or no turbulence A When the RVR decreases below 800 m.
C stratiform clouds with severe turbulence B When the RVR decreases below 2000 m.
D convective clouds with moderate turbulence C When the meteorological visibility decreases below 1500 m.
D When the meteorological visibility decreases below 800 m.

95) Which of the following best describes the intertropical
convergence zone ?
A The zone where the Harmattan meets the northeasterly To what extent is Munich covered by clouds ?
trade winds over Africa.
B The zone where cold fronts form in the tropics.

A 5 to 8 oktas
B 1 to 4 oktas
C The zone where the west winds meet the subtropical high
pressure belt.
C 5 to 7 oktas
D The zone where the trade winds of the northern hemisphere
meet those of the southern hemisphere. D 3 to 5 oktas
94) A microburst 77) What is the name of the hot, local wind, that blows
downwards from mountain chains? In the Alps, for
instance, it may exist both as a southerly or northerly
A occurs only in tropical areas
wind depending on the weather situation.
B has a diameter up to 4 km A Mistral.
C has a life time of more than 30 minutes B Bora.
D is always associated with thunderstorms C Scirocco.
D Foehn.
88) Which is true of a typical non frontal thermal 83) In which zone of a jet stream is the strongest CAT to be
depression? expected ?
A It forms over land in summer A The warm air side of the core.
B It forms over the ocean in summer B Exactly in the centre of the core.
C It forms over the ocean in winter C About 12000 FT above the core.
D It forms over land in winter D The cold air side of the core.
87) When in the upper part of a layer warm air is advected 82) A squall line usually is most likely to be encountered
the
A stability increases in the layer A at an occluded front
B stability decreases in the layer B in an airmass with cold mass properties
C wind will back with increasing height in the northern C behind of a stationary front
hemisphere
D ahead of a cold front
D wind speed will always decrease with increasing height in
the northern hemisphere
81) At what degree of icing can ICAO's "No change of
course and altitude necessary" recommendation be
86) With what type of cloud is "DZ" precipitation most followed?
commonly associated?
A Moderate
A CU
B Severe
B ST
C Extreme
C CB
D Light
D CC
80) At a certain position, the temperature on the 300 hPa

85) Which of the following conditions is most likely to lead chart is -48°C; according to the tropopause chart, the
to the formation of advection fog ? tropopause is at FL 330. What is the most likely
temperature at FL 350 ?
A Dry cold air moving over a warm surface
A -54°C.
B Moist warm air moving over a cold surface
B -50°C.
C Moist cold air moving over a warm surface
C -56,5°C.
D Dry warm air moving over a cold surface
D -58°C.
84) Which of the following causes echoes on meteorological

radar screens? 79) Under which of these conditions is radiation fog most
likely to form?
A Water vapour
A Little or no cloud
B Fog
B Very dry air
C Any cloud
C Strong surface winds
D Hail
D Very low temperatures
51) The temperature at FL 160 is -22°C. What will the 22) Which of the following statements is an interpretation of
temperature be at FL 90 if the ICAO standard lapse rate the SIGMET ?
is applied ? SIGMET VALID 121420/121820 embd ts obs and fcst in w
part of athinai fir / mov e / intst nc =
A +4°C
A Athens Airport is closed due to thunderstorms. The
B -8°C thunderstorm zone should be east of Athens by 1820 UTC
B The thunderstorms in the Athens FIR are increasing in

C -4°C
intensity, but are stationary above the western part of the
Athens FIR
D 0°C
C Thunderstorms must be expected in the western part of the
Athens FIR. The thunderstorm zone is moving east.
91) (For this question use annex 050-4372A) Intensity is constant
Select from the map the average temperature for the
route Athens - Geneva at FL 150. D Thunderstorms have formed in the eastern part of the
Athens FIR and are slowly moving west
A -14°C
B -21°C 21) What is the relationship between meteorological

visibility (met.vis.) and RVR in homogeneous fog?
C -11°C
A The met. vis. is generally less than the RVR.
D -27°C
B The met. vis. generally is greater than the RVR.
C The met. vis. generally is the same as the RVR.

12) Which one of the following statements applies to the
tropopause? D There is no specific relationship between the two.
A It is, by definition, an isothermal layer
B It indicates a strong temperature lapse rate 20) Refer to the following TAF for Zurich.
LSZH 261019 20018G30KT 9999 -RA SCT050 BKN080
TEMPO 23012KT 6000 -DZ BKN015 BKN030 BECMG
C It is, by definition, a temperature inversion
1518 23020G35KT 4000 RA OVC010=
The lowest visibility forecast at ETA Zurich 1430 UTC is:
D It separates the troposphere from the stratosphere
A 6 km.
24) What is normally the most effective measure to reduce B 6 NM.

or avoid CAT effects?
C 4 km.
A Change of flight level.
D 10 km.
B Change of course.
C Increase of speed.
19) Refer to TAF below.
EGBB 261812 28015G25KT 9999 SCT025 TEMPO 1822
D Decrease of speed. 29018G35KT 5000 SHRASN BKN010CB PROB30 TEMPO
1821 1500 TSGR BKN008CB BECMG 2124 26010KT
From the TAF above you can assume that visibility at
When isobars, for an area in the mid-latitudes on a 2055Z in Birmingham (EGBB) will be :
23)
weather map, are close together, the wind is most likely
to be A more than 10 km
A changing direction rapidly B not less than 1,5 km but could be in excess of 10 km.
B light C a maximum 5 km.
C strong D a minimum of 1,5 km and a maximum of 5 km.
D blowing perpendicular to the isobars
18) A cumulonimbus cloud at moderate latitudes in summer 13) (For this question use annex 050-10725A)
contains Assuming a generalised zonal system of world climatic
and wind circulation, zone "y" is an area of
A only ice crystals
A NE trade winds
B a combination of ice crystals and water droplets
B SE trade winds
C a combination of ice crystals, water droplets and
supercooled water droplets C subtropical high pressure systems
D only water droplets D travelling low pressure systems
17) Which wind systems converge on the ITCZ, when it lies 27) Fair weather cumulus often is an indication of
at the equator?
A NW monsoon and SW trade winds A a high risk of thunderstorms
B SE trade winds and NE trade winds B turbulence at and below the cloud level
C SW monsoon and NW monsoon C poor visibility at surface
D SW monsoon and NW trade winds D smooth flying conditions below the cloud level
16) What is the main energy source of a tropical revolving 11) The pressure altitude is equal to the true altitude if
storm?
A Cold air advancing from temperate latitudes.

A the outside air temperature is standard for that height
B The equatorial jet stream. B the air pressure is 1013.25 hPa at the surface
C Latent heat released from condensing water vapour. C the indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude
D Temperature difference between equatorial low pressure

D standard atmospheric conditions occur
trough and subtropical high pressure belt.
10) Vertical wind shear is

Considering the route indicates from Lisbon to
Freetown, the Harmattan is a
A vertical variation in the horizontal wind
A SW monsoonal wind causing extensive areas of advection B vertical variation in the vertical wind
fog along the West African coast south of 15°N.
C horizontal variation in the horizontal wind
B warm southerly dust-bearing wind affecting the coast of
North Africa. D horizontal variation in the vertical wind
C localised depression giving squally winds.
D NE wind affecting north-west Africa during November to 9) What does the abbreviation "nosig" mean?
April reducing visibility in rising dust.
A Not signed by the meteorologist
53) The isobars drawn on a surface weather chart represent B No significant changes
lines of equal pressure
A at flight level
C No report received
D No weather related problems

B at height of observatory
C at a determined density altitude
D reduced to sea level
8) Two aircraft, one with a sharp wing profile (S), and the 3) An aircraft is flying through the polar front jet stream
other with a thick profile (T), are flying through the same from south to north, beneath the core. How would the
cloud with same true airspeed. The cloud consists of OAT change, in the northern hemisphere, during this
small supercooled droplets. Which of the following portion of the flight?
statements is most correct concerning ice accretion ?
A It remains constant.
A Aircraft T experiences more icing than S.
B It decreases.
B Aircraft S and T experience the same amount of icing
C It increases.
C Neither of the aircraft accumulate ice due to the small size of
droplets. D It first increases, then decreases.
D Aircraft S experiences more icing than T.
2) During the winter months in mid-latitudes in the

northern hemisphere, the polar front jet stream moves
7) At what degree of icing should ICAO's "Change course toward the
and/or altitude immediately" instruction be followed?
A south and speed decreases
A Severe
B north and speed increases
B Light
C south and speed increases
C Moderate
D north and speed decreases
D Extreme
14) Supercooled droplets can be encountered

6) Several physical processes contribute to atmospheric
warming. Which of the following contribute the most ?
A only in winter above 10000 FT
A Absorption and vaporization.
B only in winter at high altitude
B Absorption and evaporation.
C at any time of the year
C Convection and condensation.
D in winter only in high clouds
D Solar radiation and conduction.
38) What is the approximate maximum diameter of a

5) Large supercooled water drops, which freeze on impact microburst ?
on an aircraft, form
A 20 km
A rime ice
B 50 km
B hoar frost
C 4 km
C cloudy ice
D 400 m
D clear ice
50) What is the average vertical extent of radiation fog?

4) What is the main cause for the formation of a polar front
jet stream?
A 2 000 FT.
A The pressure difference, close to the ground, between a
high over the Azores and a low over Iceland B 5 000 FT.
B The varied elevations of the tropopause in the polar front C 10 000 FT.
region
D 500 FT.
C Strong winds in the upper atmosphere
D The north-south horizontal temperature gradient at the polar

front
49) Visibility is reduced by haze when 44) What is the meaning of the abbreviation "SCT" ?
A small waterdroplets are present A 5 - 7 oktas
B dust particles are trapped below an inversion B 1 - 4 oktas
C a light drizzle falls C 3 - 4 oktas
D a cold front just passed D 1 - 2 oktas
48) A vertical temperature profile indicates the possibility of 43) Relative humidity depends on
severe icing when the temperature profile
A intersects the 0°C isotherm twice A moisture content of the air only
B coincides with a dry adiabatic lapse rate B temperature of the air only
C indicates temperatures below -40°C C moisture content and temperature of the air
D indicates temperatures above 3°C D moisture content and pressure of the air
47) (For this question use annex 050-4319A) 42) During the climb after take-off, the altimeter setting is
Of the four radio soundings, select the one that adjusted at the transition altitude. If the local QNH is
indicates low stratus: 1023 hPa, what will happen to the altimeter reading
during the resetting procedure ?
A 4
B 3
B It will decrease
C 1
C It will increase
D 2
D It will remain the same
46) Friction between the air and the ground results in the
northern hemisphere in: 41) Subsidence is :
A backing of the wind and decrease of wind speed at the A vertically upwards motion of air
surface.
B veering of the wind and decrease of wind speed at the

B the same as convection
surface.
C vertically downwards motion of air
C backing of the wind and increase of wind speed at the
surface. D horizontal motion of air
D veering of the wind and increase of wind speed at the

surface.
25) A layer in which the temperature increases with height is
45) 8/8 stratus base 200 FT/AGL is observed at sunrise at an A conditionally unstable
aerodrome in the north of France; the QNH is 1028 hPa
and there is a variable wind of 3 kt. B neutral
What change in these clouds is likely at 12:00 UTC in
summer and winter?
C absolutely stable
A Winter: SCT base 3000 FT/AGL; summer OVC base 500
FT/AGL. D absolutely unstable
B Winter: OVC base 500 FT/AGL; summer SCT base 3000

FT/AGL.
C Winter: clear sky; summer BKN CB base 1500 FT/AGL.
D Winter: BKN base 2500 FT/AGL; summer BKN base 3500

FT/AGL.
39) (For this question use annex 050-2506A) 34) In the weather briefing room during the pre-flight phase
What is the approximate height of the tropopause of a passenger flight from Zurich to Rome, you examine
between Munich and Helsinki? the following weather reports of pressing importance at
the time:
A FL 390 EINN SHANNON 2808 sigmet 2 valid 0800/1100 loc sev
turb fcst einn fir blw fl 050 south of 53n wkn =
B FL 340 LIMM MILANO 2809 sigmet 2 valid 0900/1500 mod sev
cat btn fl 250 and fl 430 fcst limm fir stnr nc =
EGLL LONDON 2808 sigmet nr01 valid 0800/1200 for
C FL 280
london fir isol cb embd in lyr cloud fcst tops fl 300 btn
52n and 54n east of 002e sev ice sev turb ts also fcst
D FL 300 mov e wkn =
Which decision is correct?
26) With what type of clouds are showers most likely A Because of the expected turbulence you select a flight level
associated? below FL 250.
A Cumulonimbus. B You show no further interest in these reports, since they do

not concern the route to be flown.
B Stratocumulus.
C Owing to these reports and taking into account the presence
of heavy thunderstorms at planned FL 310 you select a
C Nimbostratus. higher flight level (FL 370).
D Stratus. D You cancel the flight since the expected dangerous weather
conditions along the route would demand too much of the
passengers.

On which of these routes would you not have to worry
about turbulence at FL 340? 33) You have been flying for some time in dense layered
cloud. The outside air temperature is -25°C. Which of the
following statements is true?
A Zurich - Rome
A Severe airframe icing is quite likely under these conditions
B Zurich - Athens
B If you do not have weather radar on board there is no need
C Rome - Berlin to worry, as CB is unlikely to form in such cloud
D Shannon - Hamburg C In a dense layered cloud icing is unlikely also at an outside

air temperature of -5°C
In which approximate direction does the centre of a

D Severe airframe icing is unlikely under these conditions
36)
frontal depression move?
A In the direction of the warm sector isobars. 32) What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of
an aircraft parked on the ground shortly before an active
B In the direction of the isobars ahead of the warm front. cold front passes?
C In the direction of the sharpest pressure increase. A It will be increasing.
D In the direction of the isobars behind the cold front. B It will remain unchanged.
C It will be decreasing.
35) What is the type, intensity and seasonal variation of

precipitation in the equatorial region ?
D It will fluctuate up and down by about +/- 50 feet.
A Warm fronts are common with continuous rain. The

frequency is the same throughout the year 31) The value of the saturated adiabatic lapse rate is closest
to that of the dry adiabatic lapse rate in
B Precipitation is generally in the form of showers but
continuous rain occurs also. The greatest intensity is in July. A stratus
C Showers of rain or hail occur throughout the year; the B cumulus

frequency is highest in January.
D Rainshowers, hail showers and thunderstorms occur the C cirrus

whole year, but frequency is highest during two periods:
April-May and October-November. D freezing fog
30) Which weather chart gives information about icing and 40) Refer to the TAF for Bordeaux airport.
the height of the freezing level ? FCFR31 281400
LFBD 1524 26015KT 9999 SHRA BKN020 TEMPO 1620
A 700 hPa chart 26020G30KT 8000 +SHRA BKN015CB PROB30 TSRA =
Flight Lisbon to Bordeaux, ETA 1800 UTC. What type of
B Surface chart precipitation is forecast on the approach to Bordeaux ?
C Significant weather chart

A Continuous moderate rain
D 500 hPa chart

B Light drizzle and fog
C Moderate snow showers
29) Freezing precipitation occurs D Heavy rain showers
A only in the precipitation of a cold front

B only in the precipitation of a warm front Considering Melbourne (C) in July, the weather is
predominantly influenced by the zone of
C mainly in the form of freezing hail or freezing snow
A subtropical high pressure, with the occasional passage of
D mainly in the form of freezing rain or freezing drizzle fronts originating in the adjacent zone of disturbed temperate
low pressure
B antarctic high pressure due to the absence of any protective

28) (For this question use annex 050-2509A) land mass between south Australia and Antarctica
You are flying from Munich to Amsterdam. Which of the
following flight levels would you choose in order to C disturbed temperate low pressure, bringing an almost
avoid turbulence and icing? continuous succession of fronts resulting in strong winds,
low cloud and rain
A FL 320
D equatorial low pressure due to the proximity of the
B FL 180 intertropical convergence zone over central Australia
C FL 140
178) In METAR messages, the pressure group represents the
D FL 260
A QFE rounded to the nearest hPa.
104) Which degree of aircraft turbulence is determined by the B QNH rounded up to the nearest hPa.
following ICAO description?
"There may be moderate changes in aircraft attitude C QFE rounded down to the nearest hPa.
and/or altitude but the aircraft remains in positive
control at all times. Usually, small variations in air D QNH rounded down to the nearest hPa.
speed. Changes in accelerometer readings of 0.5 to 1.0 g
at the aircraft's center of gravity. Occupants feel strain
against seat belts. Loose objects move about. Food
service and walking are difficult." 177) (For this question use annex 050-4369A)
Assuming a normal vertical temperature gradient, at
A Severe. what altitude will the freezing level above Tunis be
found?
B Violent.
A FL 20
C Moderate.
B FL 180
D Light.
C FL 260
D FL 100
176) Which thunderstorms move forward the fastest? 171) A zone of strong convection currents is encountered
during a flight. In spite of moderate gust you decide to
continue the flight. What are your precautionary
A Thunderstorms formed by lifting processes. measures?
B Thermal thunderstorms. A Increase the speed / try to climb above the zone of
convective currents if aircraft performance parameters allow.
C Orographic thunderstorms.
B Decrease the speed / try to descend below the zone of
D Frontal thunderstorms. convective currents.
C Increase the speed / try to descend below the zone of

convective currents.
175) A plain in Western Europe with an average height of 500
m (1600 FT) above sea level is covered with a uniform D Decrease the speed / try to climb above the zone of
CC layer of cloud during the summer months. At what convective currents if aircraft performance parameters allow.
height above the ground is the base of this cloud to be
expected?
170) While descending through a cloud cover at high level, a
A 15000 - 35000 FT above the terrain small amount of a white and rough powderlike
contamination is detected along the leading edge of the
B 7000 - 15000 FT above the terrain wing. This contamination is called:
C 1500 - 7000 FT above the terrain A Rime ice.
D 100 - 1500 FT above the terrain B Clear ice.
C Mixed ice.
174) What does the term SIGMET signify?
D Frost.
A A SIGMET is a brief landing forecast added to the actual

weather report
B A SIGMET is an actual weather report at an aerodrome and At which airport is the following weather development
is generally issued at half-hourly intervals taking place?
TAF 231322 24014G32KT 4000 +TSRA SCT005 BKN015
C A SIGMET is a warning of dangerous meteorological BKN020CB BECMG 1416 29012KT 9999 BKN030TCU
conditions SCT100 TEMPO 8000 SHRA BKN025TCU BECMG 1922
27012KT 9999 SCT030 OVC220 =
D A SIGMET is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological
station several times daily A EKCH
B EINN
173) When water evaporates into unsaturated air
C ESSA
A heat is absorbed D LSZH
B heat is released
102) What are the characteristics of cumuliform clouds?

C relative humidity is not changed
D relative humidity is decreased A Small water droplets, instability, turbulence, extensive areas
of rain and rime ice.
B Large water droplets, instability, turbulence, showers and

172) When will the surface wind in a METAR record a gust mainly clear ice.
factor ?
C Small water droplets, stability, no turbulence and extensive
A With gusts of at least 25 knots areas of rain.
B With gusts of at least 35 knots D Large water droplets, stability, no turbulence, showers and
mainly rime ice.
C When gusts are at least 10 knots above the mean wind
speed
D When gusts are at least 15 knots above the mean wind

speed
167) Advection fog can be formed when 162) Assume that an aircraft is flying in the northern
hemisphere at the 500 hPa pressure surface on a
heading of 270 degrees. Which of the following
A warm moist air flows over a warmer surface statements is correct?
B cold moist air flows over warmer water A If in this pressure surface the wind comes from the direction
270 degrees, then true altitude is increasing
C warm moist air flows over a colder surface
B If in this pressure surface the wind comes from the direction
D cold moist air flows over a warmer surface 090 degrees, then true altitude is increasing
C If in this pressure surface the wind comes from the direction

181) What type of clouds are associated with snow showers ?
D If in this pressure surface the wind comes from the direction
A Cumulus and altostratus
B Altostratus and stratus 161) If the QNH at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is
1015 hPa, what is the approximate QFE?
C Nimbostratus (Assume 1hPa = 8m)
D Cumulus and cumulonimbus A 1005 hPa
B 990 hPa
165) The geostrophic wind is less than the gradient wind
around an anticyclone because the C 995 hPa
A centrifugal force is added to the pressure gradient D 1000 hPa
B centrifugal force opposes the pressure gradient

160) During a flight at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1012 hPa)
C effect of coriolis is added to friction to Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1015 hPa), an aircraft
remains at a constant true altitude. The reason for this is
D coriolis effect opposes the centrifugal force that :
A the altimeters are erroneous, and need to be tested.

164) Along the West coast of India the prevailing winds are
the B the air at Marseille is colder than that at Palma de Mallorca.
A SW monsoon in July and a NE monsoon in January C one of the two QNH values may be incorrect.
B SW monsoon in July and a SE monsoon in January D the air at Marseille is warmer than that at Palma de Mallorca.
C NE monsoon in July and a SW monsoon in January

159) Which statement is correct regarding the International
D SE monsoon in July and a SW monsoon in January Standard Atmosphere ?
A At MSL temperature is 15°C and the decrease in

temperature with height is 1°C per 100m
163) A moist but unsaturated parcel of air becomes saturated
by B At MSL temperature is 10°C and the decrease in
temperature with height is 1°C per 100m
A lifting the parcel to a higher level
C At MSL pressure is 1013.25 hPa and the decrease of
B lowering the parcel to a lower level temperature with height is 1°C per 100m
C moving the parcel to an area with lower pressure and equal D At MSL temperature is 15°C and pressure is 1013.25hPa
temperature
D moving the parcel to an area with higher pressure and equal

temperature
158) Which of the following statements describes a 410) An aircraft is flying from south to north, above the polar
microburst ? front jet stream, at FL 400 in the southern hemisphere.
What change, if any, in temperature will be experienced ?
A A high speed downdraft of air with a higher temperature than
its surroundings A It stays the same.
B An extremely strong wind gust associated with a tropical B It falls and then rises.
revolving storm
C A small low pressure system where the wind circulates at C It falls.

high speed
D It rises.
D A high speed downburst of air with a generally lower
temperature than its surroundings
203) During a flight over the sea at FL 100 from Marseille
(QNH 1016 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1016 hPa),
157) While crossing a jet stream at right angles in Western the true altitude is constantly decreasing. What is the
Europe (3000 FT below its core) and OAT is decreasing, probable reason for this ?
what would be the prevailing wind?
A The aircraft is being blown off track to the left
A A headwind.
B The air at Marseille is warmer than that at Palma de Mallorca
B A tailwind.
C One of the QNH values must be wrong
C Crosswind from the left
D The altimeter is faulty
D Crosswind from the right

156) Runway Visual Range (RVR) is An aircraft is flying from Point A to Point B on the upper
Which of these statements is correct?
A measured with ceilometers alongside the runway
A The true altitude will be higher at B than at A
B usually better than meteorological visibility
B Wind speed at A is higher than at B
C reported when meteorological visibility is less than 2000m
C Wind speed at A and at B is the same
D reported in TAF and METAR
D The true altitude will be higher at A than at B

Assuming a generalised zonal system of world climatic 201) (For this question use annex 050-4332A)
and wind circulation, zone "t" is an area of The warm sector is indicated by letter:
A subtropical high pressure systems A A
B SE trade winds B C
C travelling low pressure systems

C B
D NE trade winds D D
In what height range and at what intensity could you Which of the following symbols represents a squall line?
encounter turbulence in CAT area n°2?
A Symbol b)
A From FL 250 to FL 320, moderate
B Symbol c)
B From FL 220 to FL 400, moderate
C Symbol d)
C From FL 240 to FL 370, light
D Symbol a)
D From below FL 130 to FL 270, light
199) If the QFE at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 179) The intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) particularly
1000 hPa, what is the approximate QNH? affects
A 1035 hPa A the Atlantic ocean, between latitudes 10°N and 30°N,
depending on the time of year.
B 1025 hPa
B western Africa, where it is situated between the 10°N and
30°N parallels, depending on the time of the year.
C 985 hPa
C western Africa between 10° and 20°N and the northern
D 990 hPa coasts of the Arabian sea in July.
D western Africa, at a latitude of 25°N in July.

198) The most hazardous type of cloud that may be
encountered on a cross country flight is
193) What information is required to convert a minimum safe
A cumulus altitude into a lowest usable flight level?
B cirrus A Highest value of QNH and the highest positive temperature

deviation from ISA
C cumulonimbus
B Lowest value of QNH and the lowest negative temperature
deviation from ISA
D stratocumulus
C Lowest value of QNH and the highest negative temperature
deviation from ISA.
197) In addition to a lifting action, what are two other
conditions necessary for thunderstorm formation ? D Highest value of QNH and the highest negative temperature
deviation from ISA.
A Stable conditions and low atmospheric pressure
B Unstable conditions and low atmospheric pressure 180) During which months is the Hurricane season in the
Caribbean?
C Unstable conditions and high moisture content
A April until July.
D Stable conditions and high moisture content
B July until November.
196) What type of cloud can produce hail showers?

C October until January.
D January until April.

A CS
B AC 191) The barometric compensator of an altimeter is locked on

reference 1013.2 hPa. The aircraft has to land on a point
C CB with an elevation of 290 feet where the QNH is 1023 hPa.
Assuming that 1 hPa corresponds to 27 FT, the reading
D NS on the altimeter on the ground will be:
A 560 FT.
195) Which of the following conditions is most likely to lead

to the formation of steam fog (arctic smoke)?
B 20 FT.
A Warm air moving over cold water C 11 FT.
B The sea is warmed by strong radiation from the sun D -10 FT.
C The coastal region of the sea cools at night

190) What characteristics will the surface winds have in an
D Cold air moving over warm water area where the isobars on the weather map are very
close together?
A Very weak but gusty and flowing across the isobars.
B Strong and parallel to the isobars.
C Moderate and parallel to the isobars.
D Strong and flowing across the isobars.
189) The transition from SW to NE monsoon in India occurs in 184) (For this question use annex 050-4314A)
Continuous freezing rain is observed at an airfield.
Which of the four diagrams is most likely to reflect
A July, August, September temperatures above the airfield concerned?
B December, January, February A Diagram b)
C February, March, April B Diagram a)
D September, October, November C Diagram d)
D Diagram c)
188) In which weather report would you expect to find
information about icing conditions on the runway?
183) What weather is prevalent in the zone of easterly waves?
A GAFOR
B TAF A Frontal weather.
C METAR B Thunderstorms and rain.
D SIGMET C Continuous rain.
D Clear skies.
187) Below a low level inversion visibility is often

A moderate or poor because there is no vertical exchange Which typical weather condition is shown by the design
for northern Italy?
B very good at night
A High pressure
C very good in the early morning
B Warm southerly wind
D moderate or poor due to heavy snow showers.
C Westerly wind
186) Geostrophic wind is the wind when isobars are D Easterly wind
A curved lines and no friction is involved

153) Does the following report make sense?
LSZH VRB02KT 5000 MIFG 02/02 Q1015 NOSIG
B straight lines and friction is involved.
A The report would never be seen, because shallow fog is not
C curved lines and friction is involved. reported when the meteorological visibility is more than 2 km.
D straight lines and no friction is involved. B The report is nonsense, because it is impossible to observe
a meteorological visibility of 5 km if shallow fog is reported.
C The report is not possible, because, with a temperature of

185) Which statement is true for hurricanes in the North 2°C and a dew point of 2°C there must be uniform fog.
Atlantic?
D The report is possible, because shallow fog is defined as a
A The diameter is 50-500 m thin layer of fog below eye level.
B Their greatest frequency of occurrence is in winter

194) Which of the following conditions would cause the
C From the earth's surface up to the tropopause the core is altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than that actually
warmer than its surroundings flown ?
D They intensify rapidly after landfall A Air temperature higher than standard
B Atmospheric pressure lower than standard
C Pressure altitude the same as indicated altitude.
D Air temperature lower than standard.
115) In which of these cloud types can icing be virtually ruled 123) Hoar frost forms on an aircraft as a result of
out?
A SC A droplets forming on the aircraft and then freezing
B NS B small super-cooled droplets striking the aircraft
C CS C water vapour turning directly into ice crystals on the aircraft

surface
D AS D freezing rain striking the aircraft
155) What is the most likely temperature at the tropical 122) What values are used for the forecasted wind at higher
tropopause? levels?
A -55°C. A Direction relative to magnetic north and speed in kmh
B -35°C. B Direction relative to grid north and speed in kmh
C -25°C.
C Direction relative to true north and speed in knots
D -75°C. D Direction relative to magnetic north and speed in knots
126) In which of the following circumstances is a SIGMET 121) If Paris reports a wind of 30012KT on the METAR, what
issued ? wind velocity would you expect to encounter at a height
A Marked mountain waves.
A 27020KT
B Fog or a thunderstorm at an aerodrome.
B 33025KT
C Clear ice on the runways of an aerodrome.
C 23030KT
D A sudden change in the weather conditions contained in the
METAR. D 30025KT

Assuming a generalised zonal system of world wind 120) In the northern hemisphere with an anticyclonic
circulation, the SE trade winds are applicable to zone pressure system the geostrophic wind at 2000 FT over
the sea is 060/15. At the same position the surface wind
A w is most likely to be
B t
A 045/12
B 060/12
C u
D v
C 060/18
D 075/12
124) During the climb after takeoff, the altimeter setting is

adjusted at the transition altitude. If the local QNH is 966
hPa, what will happen to the altimeter reading during the 119) In a layer of air the decrease in temperature per 100
resetting procedure? metres increase in height is more than 1°C. This layer
can be described as being
A conditionally stable
B It will increase
B absolutely unstable
C It will decrease
C absolutely stable
D It will remain the same
D conditionally unstable
118) The environmental lapse rate in an actual atmosphere 113) A vertical spacing of 1000 FT, is the standard required
separation between two FL. Under conditions of cold air
advection (ISA -15°C), what would the true vertical
A has a fixed value of 2°C/1000 FT separation be?
B varies with time A It remains 1000 FT
C has a fixed value of 1°C/100m B More than 1000 FT
D has a fixed value of 0.65°C/100m C Without QNH information, it can not be determined
D Less than 1000 FT

Look at the chart. Assuming a normal vertical
temperature gradient, at what altitude will the freezing 112) How does a pilot react to heavy freezing rain at 2000
level above Shannon be found? FT/AGL, when he is unable to deice, nor land?
A FL 120 A He ascends to the cold air layer above.
B FL 60 B He continues to fly at the same altitude.
C FL 20
C He turns back before the aircraft loses manoeuvrability.
D FL 140 D He descends to the warm air layer below.
116) (For this question use annex 050-2060A) 111) How are high level condensation trails formed that are to
Which one of the tracks (dashed lines) is represented by be found occasionally behind jet aircraft ?
the cross-section shown on the left ?
A Through water vapour released during fuel combustion
A Track C-A
B Through a decrease in pressure, and the associated
B Track B-A adiabatic drop in temperature at the wing tips while flying
through relatively warm but humid air
C Track B-C
C Only through unburnt fuel in the exhaust gases
D Track D-A
D In conditions of low humidity, through the particles of soot
contained in the exhaust gases
The dotted line labelled "Y" represents the
110) Refer to the TAF for Zurich Airport
A mean position of the temperate/tropical front during July TAF LSZH 250716 00000KT 0100 FG VV001 BECMG 0810
0800 VV002 BECMG 1012 23005KT 2500 BKN005 TEMPO
1316 6000 SCT007 =
B mean position of the intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ)
Which of these statements best describes the weather
during January
that can be expected at 1200 UTC?
C axis of the subtropical jet stream during January
A Meteorological visibility 6 kilometres, cloudbase 500 feet,
windspeed 5 knots
D mean position of the intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ)
during July B Meteorological visibility 2,5 kilometres, cloudbase 500 feet,
windspeed 5 knots
114) In which of the following METAR reports, is the C Meteorological visibility 800 metres, wind from 230°,
probability of fog formation in the coming night the cloudbase 500 feet
highest?
D Meteorological visibility 800 metres, vertical visibility 200
A 1850Z 21003KT 8000 SCT250 12/m08 Q1028 NOSIG = feet, calm
B 1850Z 06018G30KT 5000 OVC010 04/01 Q1024 NOSIG =
C 1850Z 25010KT 4000 RA BKN012 OVC030 12/10 Q1006

TEMPO 1500 =
D 1850Z 15003KT 6000 SCT120 05/04 Q1032 BECMG 1600

=
109) The maximum amount of water vapour that the air can 105) An easterly wave is a
contain depends on the
A air temperature A wave in a trade wind belt, moving from east to west, with
severe convective activity in rear of its trough
B relative humidity B wave-like disturbance in the monsoon regime of India,
moving from east to west, with severe convective activity
C stability of the air ahead of its trough
D dewpoint C small scale wave disturbance in the tropics, moving from

east to west, with severe convective activity ahead of its
trough
108) At a weather station, at 0600 UTC, the air temperature D disturbance in the higher levels associated with the
and dew point are respectively: T = - 0,5°C,Td = -1,5°C. equatorial easterly jet, moving from east to west, with severe
In the METAR message transmitted by this station, the convective activity in rear of its trough
"temperature group" will be:
A M00/M01
205) When otherwise calm and clear conditions exist a
station on the shore of a large body of water will
B M01/M02 experience wind
C 00/M01 A continually from land to water
D M01/M01 B continually from water to the land
C from the land in daytime and from the water at night

107) In Central Europe when is the greatest likelihood for
thunderstorms due to warm updrafts? D from the water in daytime and from the land at night
A Late morning.
117) The stability in a layer is increasing if
B Mid - afternoon.
C Around midnight. A warm air is advected in the upper part and cold air in the
lower part
D Early morning.
B warm air is advected in the lower part and cold air in the
upper part
106) Refer to the TAF for Amsterdam airport. C warm and moist air is advected in the lower part
FCNL31 281500
EHAM 281601 14010KT 6000 -RA SCT025 BECMG 1618 D cold and dry air is advected in the upper part
12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1823 3000 RA
BKN005 OVC010 BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000 NSW
BKN020 =
Flight from Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC. 141) The most likely reason for radiation fog to dissipate or
What is the minimum visibility forecast for ETA become low stratus is :
Amsterdam ?
A an increasingly stable atmosphere.
A 5 NM
B surface cooling.
B 6 km
C a low level temperature inversion.
C 3 km
D increasing surface wind speed.
D 5 km
103) Which of the following statements is an interpretation of 148) (For this question use annex 050-2388A)
the SIGMET ? What change in pressure, will occur at point A, during
LSAW SWITZERLAND 0307 SIGMET 2 VALID the next hour?
030700/031100 LSSW mod to sev cat fcst north of alps
btn fl 260 and fl 380 / stnr / intsf = A A drop in pressure
A Severe turbulence observed below FL 260 north of the Alps. B Irregular fluctuations
Pilots advised to cross this area above FL 380
B Moderate to strong clear air turbulence of constant intensity C Approximately constant pressure
to be expected north of the Alps
D A rise in pressure
C Moderate to severe clear air turbulence to be expected north
of the Alps. Intensity increasing. Danger zone between FL
260 and FL 380 147) Which of the following changes of state is known as
sublimation?
D Zone of moderate to severe turbulence moving towards the
area north of the Alps. Intensity increasing. Pilots advised to
cross this area above FL 260
A Solid direct to liquid
B Liquid direct to solid

152) If you are planning a flight at FL 170, which of these
upper wind and temperature charts would be nearest C Liquid direct to vapour
your flight level ?
D Solid direct to vapour
A 850 hPa
B 700 hPa 146) The tropopause is lower
C 500 hPa
A south of the equator than north of it
D 300 hPa
B over the equator than over the South Pole
C over the North Pole than over the equator

151) Which of the following is typical for the passage of a
cold front in the summer ?
D in summer than winter in moderate latitudes
A Rapid increase in temperature once the front has passed
B Mainly towering clouds 145) (For this question use annex 050-4339A)
According to ICAO, which symbol indicates danger to an
aircraft in flight?
C Mainly layered clouds
D A Symbol a)
Rapid drop in pressure once the front has passed
B Symbol c)
150) The polar front is the boundary between: C Symbol b)
A polar air and tropical air. D Symbol d)
B arctic air and polar air.

144) Tropical revolving storms do not occur in the southeast
C arctic air and tropical air. Pacific and the south Atlantic because
D maritime polar air and continental polar air. A of the low water temperature.
B there is no coriolis force present.

149) Which jet stream blows all year round, over the northern
hemisphere? C of the strong southeast wind.
A The arctic jet stream. D the southeast trade winds cross over into the northern
hemisphere.
B The subtropical jet stream.
C The polar night jet stream.
D The equatorial jet stream.
127) How are well separated CB clouds described on the 139) What does the term METAR signify?
Significant Weather Chart?
A EMBD CB. A A METAR is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological

station several times daily.
B FREQ CB. B A METAR is a landing forecast added to the actual weather
report as a brief prognostic report.
C ISOL CB.
C A METAR signifies the actual weather report at an
D OCNL CB. aerodrome and is generally issued in half-hourly intervals.
D A METAR is a warning of dangerous meteorological

conditions within a FIR.
142) At the top of orographic waves, in mountainous regions,
the cloud most likely to be encountered is
138) A 850 hPa pressure level can vary in height. In
A cirrus.
heights is applicable ?
B cumulus mediocris.
A FL100
C altocumulus lenticularis.
B FL 300
D cirrostratus.
C FL 390
154) You cross a jet stream in horizontal flight at D FL 50

approximately right angles. While crossing, in spite of a
strong wind of 120 kt, you notice the temperature barely
changes.
137) Which of the following weather reports could be, in
A This phenomenon is absolutely normal as you are crossing
"CAVOK"? (MSA above ground : LSZB 10000 FT, LSZH
the jet core.
8000 FT, LSGG 12000 FT, LFSB 6000 FT)
B You assume the front associated with the jet stream to be
very weak with practically no temperature difference A LFSB 24008KT 9999 SCT050 18/11 Q1017 RERA NOSIG
between the two airmasses. =
C Since the result of such readings seems impossible, you will B LSZH VRB02KT 9000 BKN080 21/14 Q1022 NOSIG =
after landing have the instruments tested.
C LSGG 22006KT 9999 BKN090 17/15 Q1008 RERA NOSIG
D This phenomenon does not surprise you at all, since =
normally no large temperature differences are possible at
these heights. D LSZB 28012KT 9999 OVC100 16/12 Q1012 BECMG 5000
=

The arrows labelled "u" represent the tracks of tropical 136) Extensive cloud and precipitation is often associated
revolving storms which occur mainly from with a non frontal thermal depression because of :
A December to April and are called tornadoes A surface divergence and upper level convergence causing
widespread descent of air in the depression
B July to October and are called typhoons
B surface divergence and upper level convergence causing
widespread ascent of air in the depression
C January to March and are called willy-willies
C surface convergence and upper level divergence causing
D May to July and are called cyclones widespread ascent of air in the depression
D surface convergence and upper level divergence causing

widespread descent of air in the depression
135) When do cold occlusions occur most frequently in 130) When does frontal fog, also known as mixing fog, occur?
Europe?
A Summer A When very humid warm air meets with very humid cold air.
B Winter B When very humid warm air meets with dry cold air.
C Autumn and winter C When very humid cold air meets with dry warm air.
D Winter and spring D When very dry cold air meets with very dry warm air.
134) Flight visibility from the cockpit during approach in a 143) If the QNH at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is
tropical downpour can decrease to minimal 1025 hPa, what is the approximate QFE?
A about 500 metres A 1025 hPa
B about 1000 metres B 1000 hPa
C tens of metres C 995 hPa
D about 200 metres D 1005 hPa
133) What is the wind speed given in a METAR report based 677) In the month of August you prepare a flight (cruising
on? level FL 370) from Bombay (19°N - 73°E) to Bangkok
(13°N - 100°E). What wind conditions can you expect?
A The average speed of the previous 30 minutes
A Light winds diagonal to the route.
B The strongest gust in the previous hour
B Tailwinds.
C The actual speed at the time of recording
C Strong northerly winds.
D The average speed of the previous 10 minutes
D Headwinds.
132) Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a

18289 FT pressure level (FL 180) ? 689) What cloud formation is most likely to occur at low
levels when a warm air mass overrides a cold air mass?
A 300 hPa
A Nimbostratus.
B 200 hPa
B Cumulus.
C 700 hPa
C Altostratus.
D 500 hPa
D Cumulonimbus.

Select from the map the average temperature for the 688) What is the main composition of clouds classified as
route Geneva -Stockholm at FL 260. "high level clouds"?
A -51°C A Supercooled water droplets.
B -55°C B Water droplets.
C -63°C C Water vapour.
D -47°C D Ice crystals.
687) (For this question use annex 050-4305A) 682) In what hPa range is an upper weather chart for FL 340
Under the weather conditions depicted, which of the situated?
following statements is likely to apply?
A 400 - 300 hPa
A Moderate to strong Foehn in the Alps.
B 500 - 400 hPa
B Radiation fog is unlikely in Central Europe in the winter.
C 600 - 500 hPa
C Thunderstorms may occur in the summer months over
Central Europe. D 300 - 200 hPa
D Severe gradient wind likely over Central Europe.

Which of these statements is true?
686) If you are flying at FL 100 in an air mass that is 10°C
warmer than a standard atmosphere, what is the outside A The front to the north of London is moving south
temperature likely to be?
A -10°C
B Turbulence is likely to be encountered at FL 410 over Madrid
B -15°C C Scattered thunderstorms can be expected over France
D Freezing level above Madrid is higher than FL 120

C +5°C
D +15°C
680) What is the average height of the arctic jet stream core?
685) Which of the following statements concerning trade A 40000 FT.

winds is correct?
B 50000 FT.
A They occur only in the lower part of the troposphere and are
more pronounced over the continents
C 20000 FT .
B They occur only in the lower part of the troposphere and
more pronounced over the oceans D 30000 FT.
C They reach up to the tropopause and are more pronounced

over the continents 666) What, approximately, is the average height of the
tropopause over the equator ?
D They reach up to the tropopause and are more pronounced
over the oceans A 16 km
B 8 km
684) The relative humidity of a sample air mass is 50%. How
is the relative humidity of this air mass influenced by
changes of the amount of water vapour in it?
C 11 km
A It decreases with increasing water vapour. D 40 km
B It is only influenced by temperature.

678) Steaming fog (arctic sea smoke) occurs in air
C It increases with increasing water vapour.
A with warm mass properties
D It is not influenced by changing water vapour.
B that is absolutely stable
683) Where, during a flight from Marseille to Dakar, in July, C that is stable
may the ITCZ be encountered?
D with cold mass properties
A Near the Canary Islands
B At the latitudes of Gibraltar
C At the latitudes of Algeria
D In the vicinity of Dakar
692) How does relative humidity and the dewpoint in an 673) (For this question use annex 050-4373A)
unsaturated air mass change with varying temperature? What is the deviation of the temperature at FL 140 above
Copenhagen compared to ISA?
A When temperature increases, the relative humidity
decreases, and the dewpoint remains constant. A 12°C colder than ISA
B When temperature increases, the relative humidity B 8°C colder than ISA
increases, and the dewpoint decreases.
C When temperature decreases, the relative humidity C 4°C warmer than ISA
decreases, and the dewpoint increases.
D 8°C warmer than ISA
D When temperature decreases, the relative humidity and the
dewpoint remain constant.
672) What is the meaning of the abbreviation "BKN"?
676) Large hail stones

A 3 - 4 oktas.
A only occur in frontal thunderstorms B 6 - 8 oktas.
B are typically associated with severe thunderstorms C 8 oktas.
C only occur in thunderstorms of mid-latitudes D 5 - 7 oktas.
D are entirely composed of clear ice

671) In Geneva, the local QNH is 994 hPa. The elevation of
Geneva is 1411 FT. The QFE adjustment in Geneva is
675) During which stage of thunderstorm development are
rotor winds characterized by roll clouds most likely to A 942 hPa.
occur ?
B 967 hPa.
A Cumulus stage and mature stage.
C 961 hPa.
B Mature stage.
D 948 hPa.
C Cumulus stage.
D Dissipating stage.
670) Select the answer which you consider will complete
correctly the following statement in relation to the main
pressure systems affecting the North Atlantic region
674) Marseille Information gives you the following between 30°N and 65°N. During winter the predominant
meteorological information for Ajaccio and Calvi for mean low pressure system at the surface is usually
1600 UTC : centred over
Ajaccio: wind 360°/2 kt, visibility 2000 m, rain, BKN
stratocumulus at 1000 FT, OVC altostratus at 8000 FT, A Siberia
QNH 1023 hPa.
Calvi: wind 040°/2 kt, visibility 3000 m, mist, FEW stratus B Azores
at 500 FT, SCT stratocumulus at 2000 FT, OVC
altostratus at 9000 FT, QNH 1023 hPa.
The ceilings (more than 4 oktas) are therefore: C Iceland / Greenland
A 1000 FT at Ajaccio and 9000 FT at Calvi D USA
B 1000 FT at Ajaccio and 500 FT at Calvi

669) In a low pressure system the convergence at the surface
C 8000 FT at Ajaccio and 9000 FT at Calvi is caused by
D 1000 FT at Ajaccio and 2000 FT at Calvi A the curvature of the isobars
B frictional forces
C centripetal forces
D the inbalance of the horizontal gradient force and the

Coriolis force
668) (For this question use annex 050-2529A) 714) An inversion is
The temperature at FL 330 overhead London will be
A -39°C A an absolutely stable layer
B -33°C B a conditionally unstable layer
C -57°C C an unstable layer
D -45°C D a layer that can be either stable or unstable
716) Thunderstorms in exceptional circumstances can occur 713) An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 120, with a true
in a warm front if altitude of 12000 feet; local QNH is 1013 hPa. What
assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in
A the cold air is convectively stable. which the aircraft is flying ?
B the warm air is convectively stable.

A It is warmer than ISA
B There is insufficient information to come to any conclusion

C the warm air is convectively unstable.
D the cold air is convectively unstable.

C Its average temperature is the same as ISA
D It is colder than ISA
679) The wind indicator for a weather observation receives

the measured value from an anemometer. Where is this
instrument placed? 712) Low level vertical wind shear can be expected during the
night
A On a mast 8-10 m above the ground.
A in association with radiation inversions
B 1 m above the runway.
B in unstable atmospheres
C Close to the station about 2 m above the ground.
C and early morning only in winter
D On the roof of the weather station.
D and early morning only in summer
703) Going from the equator to the north pole, the altitude of
the tropopause 711) The most effective way to dissipate cloud is by
A decreases and its temperature increases A subsidence
B increases and its temperature increases B convection
C increases and its temperature decreases C a decrease in temperature
D decreases and its temperature decreases D a decrease in pressure
408) SIGMET information is issued as a warning for 710) The approximate inclined plane of a warm front is:
significant weather to
A VFR operations only A 1/150
B heavy aircraft only B 1/50
C all aircraft C 1/300
D light aircraft only D 1/500
709) A plain in Western Europe with an average elevation of 704) Under anticyclone conditions in the northern
500 m (1600 FT) above sea level is covered with a hemisphere, with curved isobars the speed of the
uniform AC layer of cloud during the summer months. gradient wind is
At what height above the ground is the base of this
cloud to be expected? A greater than the geostrophic wind
A 7000 - 15000 FT above the terrain. B less than the geostrophic wind
B 100 - 1500 FT above the terrain. C the same as the thermal component
C 1500 - 7000 FT above the terrain. D proportional only to the Coriolis force
D 15000 - 25000 FT above the terrain.

691) Which of the four answers is a correct interpretation of
data from the following METAR ?
708) (For this question use annex 050-10850A) 16003KT 0400 R14/P1500 R16/1000N FZFG VV003
The pressure distribution located mainly in square 2A is M02/M02 Q1026 BECMG 2000 =
a
A Meteorological visibility 400 m, RVR for runway 16 1000 m,
A ridge of high pressure dew point -2°C, freezing fog.
B col B RVR for runway 16 1000 m, meteorological visibility

increasing in the next 2 hours to 2000 m, vertical visibility
300 m, temperature -2°C.
C trough of low pressure
C RVR for runway 14 1500 m, meteorological visibility 400 m,
D depression QNH 1026 hPa, wind 160° at 3 kt.
D Meteorological visibility 1000 m, RVR 400 m, freezing level

at 300 m, variable winds, temperature 2°C.
707) In the northern hemisphere the wind at the surface blows
A from a low pressure area to a high pressure area 702) In the troposphere the decrease of pressure per 100 m
increase in height
B clockwise around, and away from the centre of, a low
pressure area A is smaller at higher levels than at lower levels.
C counter-clockwise around, and away from the centre of, a B remains constant at all levels.
high pressure area.
D counter-clockwise around, and toward the centre of, a low C is greater at higher levels than at lower levels.
pressure area
D is in the order of 27 hPa near MSL.
706) The QFF at an airfield located 400 metres above sea

level is 1016 hPa. The air temperature is 10°C lower than 701) What is the average height of the jet core within a polar
a standard atmosphere. What is the QNH? front jet stream?
A More than 1016 hPa A 30000 FT.
B 1016 hPa B 20000 FT.
C It is not possible to give a definitive answer C 40000 FT.
D Less than 1016 hPa D 50000 FT.
690) A pilot is warned of severe icing at certain flight levels 700) Which of the following statements is true regarding
by information supplied in moderate-to-severe airframe icing?
A SWC and SIGMET A It always occurs in altostratus cloud
B TAF and METAR B It is unlikely to occur in nimbostratus cloud
C METAR and SIGMET C It may occur in the uppermost levels of a cumulonimbus

capillatus formation
D TAF and SIGMET
D It will not occur in clear-sky conditions
699) Which one of the following types of cloud is most likely 694) You receive the following METAR :
to produce heavy precipitation ? LSGG 0750Z 00000KT 0300 R05/0700N FG VV001
M02/M02 Q1014 NOSIG =
A NS. What will be the RVR at 0900 UTC?
B CS. A 900 m.
C SC. B The RVR is unknown, because the "NOSIG" does not refer
to RVR.
D ST.
C 300 m.
D 700 m.
698) Which of the following conditions are you most likely to
encounter when approaching an active warm front at
medium to low level ?
693) In which of the following areas is the highest frequency
A Severe thunderstorms at low altitude. of thunderstorms encountered ?
B Extreme turbulence and severe lightning striking the ground.

A Temperate
B Tropical
C High cloud base, good surface visibility, and isolated
thunderstorms.
C Polar
D Low cloud base and poor visibility.
D Subtropical
697) Whilst flying at FL 180 on the northern hemisphere an

aircraft experiences right drift. What effect, if any, will 665) The thickness of the troposphere varies with
this have on the aircraft's true altitude ?
A Without knowing the pressure change this question cannot A rotation of the earth
be answered.
B the wind
B It decreases
C latitude
C It increases.
D longitude
D It remains constant.
705) The range of wind speed in which radiation fog is most

696) An aircraft lands at an airport (airport elevation 540 FT, likely to form is :
QNH 993 hPa) with the altimeter set to 1013 hPa. What
will it indicate ? A between 5 and 10 kt
A 380 FT B above 15 kt
B 0 FT C below 5 kt
C 1080 FT D between 10 and 15 kt
D 700 FT
626) An aircraft is flying in the southern hemisphere at low
altitude (less than 2000 feet) and going directly away
695) (For this question use annex 050-2058A) from a centre of low pressure. What direction, relative to
What does the symbol indicate on a significant weather the aircraft, does the wind come from ?
chart?
A From the right and slightly on the nose
A The upper limit of significant weather at FL 400.
B From the right and slightly on the tail
B The lower limit of the tropopause.
C From the left and slightly on the tail
C The center of a tropopause "high", where the tropopause is
at FL 400. D From the left and slightly on the nose
D The center of a high pressure area at 400 hPa.
638) What type of precipitation would you expect at an active 633) (For this question use annex 050-2505A)
unstable cold front? Flight Zurich to Rome, ETD 1600 UTC, ETA 1800 UTC. At
what flight level would you first expect to encounter
A Freezing rain clear air turbulence on the climb out from Zurich?
B Light to moderate continuous rain A FL 160
C Drizzle B FL 320
D Showers associated with thunderstorms C FL 140
D FL 220
637) Appended to a METAR you get the following runway
report: 01650428
What must you consider when making performance 632) (For this question use annex 050-4376A)
calculations? Select from the map the average wind for the route
Shannon - Lisboa at FL 290.
A The braking action will be medium to good.
A 360/80
B The runway will be wet.
B 030/70
C Aquaplaning conditions.
C 190/75
D The friction coefficient is 0.28.
D 340/90
636) In the northern hemisphere a pilot flying at 1000 FT/AGL

directly towards the centre of a low pressure area, will 631) Which jet stream is connected with a surface front
find the wind blowing from system?
A left and behind A The equatorial jet stream
B right and behind B The polar front jet stream
C about 45 degrees to the right of directly ahead C The arctic jet stream
D directly ahead D The subtropical jet stream
635) What flying conditions may be encountered when flying 630) Clouds, fog or dew will always be formed when:
in cirrus clouds?
A Average horizontal visibility less than 500 m; light to A water vapour condenses.
moderate icing.
B water vapour is present.
B Average horizontal visibility more than 1000 m; light to
moderate rime ice. C relative humidity reaches 98%.
C Average horizontal visibility more than 1000 m; nil icing. D temperature and dew point are nearly equal.
D Average horizontal visibility less than 500 m; nil icing.
629) The difference between temperature and dewpoint is

greater in
634) QNH is defined as
A moist air
A pressure at MSL in the standard atmosphere
B air with high temperature
B pressure at MSL in the actual atmosphere
C air with low temperature
C QFE reduced to MSL using the values of the actual
atmosphere D dry air
D QFE reduced to MSL using the values of the standard

atmosphere
667) The decrease in temperature, per 100 metres, in a 623) What is the approximate speed of a 90 km/h wind,
saturated rising parcel of air at lower level of the expressed in knots?
atmosphere is approximately
A 55 kt
A 1°C
B 60 kt
B 1.5°C
C 70 kt
C 0.35°C
D 50 kt
D 0.6°C
622) Thunderstorms can occur on a warm front if the

Assuming a generalised zonal system of world climatic
and wind circulation, zone "u" is in area of A warm air is moist and the environmental lapse rate exceeds
the saturated adiabatic lapse rate
A NE trade winds
B cold air is moist and the environmental lapse rate is less
than the dry adiabatic lapse rate
B travelling depressions
C warm air is moist and the environmental lapse rate is less
C SW trade winds than the saturated adiabatic lapse rate
D subtropical high pressure D cold air is moist and the environmental lapse rate exceeds
the saturated adiabatic lapse rate
641) If you are flying at FL 120 and the outside temperature

is -2°C, at what altitude will the "freezing level" be? 621) (For this question use annex 050-10803A)
The weather most likely to be experienced at position
"R" is
A FL 150
A fine and warm at first - AC Castellanus and CB in late
B FL 90 afternoon with thunderstorms
C FL 110 B early morning fog lifting to low stratus
D FL 130 C increasing amounts of AS and NS - heavy rain
D overcast with drizzle and hill fog

The arrows labelled "t" represents the mean track of
tropical revolving storms which occur mainly from 620) (For this question use annex 050-4340A)
According to ICAO, which symbol indicates danger to an
A December to April and are called hurricanes aircraft in flight?
B June to October and are called tornadoes A Symbol c)
C June to October and are called hurricanes B Symbol d)
D June to October and are called cyclones C Symbol a)
D Symbol b)
624) What is the relative movement of the two airmasses
along a cold front ?
619) An air mass is called stable when
A Cold air slides over a warm air mass
B Warm air pushes under a cold air mass A the pressure in a given area is constant
C Cold air pushes under a warm air mass B the environmental lapse rate is high, with little vertical motion
of air currents
D Warm air pushes over a cold air mass
C the vertical motion of rising air tends to become weaker and
disappears
D the temperature in a given air mass decreases rapidly with

height
618) Rime ice forms through the freezing onto aircraft 664) (For this question use annex 050-4297A)
surfaces of Examining the pictures, on which one of the tracks
(dashed lines) is this cross-section to be expected?
A small supercooled water drops.
A Track A-D
B large supercooled water drops.
B Track A-E
C water vapour.
C Track B-D
D snow.
D Track B-C
617) The diameter and the life time of a typical microburst are
in the order of 663) Which of the following weather reports could be, in
A 8 km and 5-15 minutes "CAVOK"?
B 12 km and 5-10 minutes A 04012G26KT 9999 BKN030 11/07 Q1024 NOSIG =
C 4 km and 1-5 minutes B 15003KT 9999 BKN100 17/11 Q1024 NOSIG =
D 4 km and 30-40 minutes C 24009KT 6000 RA SCT010 OVC030 12/11 Q1007 TEMPO
4000 =
D 29010KT 9999 SCT045TCU 16/12 Q1015 RESHRA

616) The cloud base, reported in the METAR, is the height NOSIG =
above
A airfield level
Assuming a generalised zonal system of world wind
B mean sea level circulation the travelling low pressure systems are
applicable to zone
C the pressure altitude of the observation station at the time of
observation A s and y
D the highest terrain within a radius of 8 km from the B t only

observation station
C t and x
628) In a land- and sea-breeze circulation the land-breeze D u and w

blows :
A during the day and is weaker than the sea-breeze.

661) What are the typical differences between the
B during the night and is stronger than the sea-breeze. temperature and humidity between an air mass with its
origin in the Azores and an air mass with its origin over
northern Russia ?
C during the night and is weaker than the sea-breeze.
A The North-Russian air is colder and more humid than the air
D during the day and is stronger than the sea-breeze. of the Azores.
B The air of the Azores is warmer and dryer than the North-
652) In a mountain-valley wind circulation, the mountain wind Russian air.
blows
C The North-Russian air is warmer and dryer than the air of
the Azores.
A at night down from the mountains
D The air of the Azores is warmer and more humid than the
B at night up from the valley North-Russian air.
C during the day down from the mountains
D during the day up from the valley
660) The most frequent wind direction in a valley caused by 655) During an adiabatic process heat is
thermal effects is toward the :
A mountain during daylight hours. A lost
B mountain at night. B added but the result is an overall loss
C valley during daylight hours. C neither added nor lost
D valley during daylight as much as at night. D added
659) In an area of converging air 639) Wind is caused by
A clouds can not be formed A the rotation of the earth
B clouds can be formed B friction between the air and the ground
C convective clouds can be dissolved C the movements of fronts
D stratified clouds can be dissolved D horizontal pressure differences
658) Which of the following is a cause of stratus forming over 653) (For this question use annex 050-4370A)
flat land? What is the mean temperature deviation from ISA for the
Frankfurt - Rome route?
A Unstable air.
A 10°C warmer than ISA
B Convection during the day.
B 4°C colder than ISA
C The release of latent heat.
C 4°C warmer than ISA
D Radiation during the night from the earth surface in
moderate wind. D 10°C colder than ISA
657) A mountain breeze (katabatic wind) blows 640) (For this question use annex 050-2053A)
What is the wind direction and speed at 3 000 FT
overhead position "Q" at 0600 UTC?
A down the slope during the day.
A 270° 15 kt.
B up the slope during the night.
B 240° 25 kt.
C down the slope during the night.
C 240° 20 kt.
D up the slope during the day.
D 270° 30 kt.
656) Relative humidity

What is the average temperature at FL 160 between Oslo
A does not change when water vapour is added provided the
and Paris ?
temperature of the air remains constant.
B changes when water vapour is added, even though the A -25°C

temperature remains constant.
B -19°C
C is not affected when air is ascending or descending.
C -23°C
D is not affected by temperature changes of the air.
D -15°C
650) (For this question use annex 050-4338A) 645) Frontal depressions can be assumed to move in the
According to ICAO, which symbol indicates a tropical direction of the 2000 feet wind
revolving storm?
A behind the cold front
A Symbol b)
B at the apex of the wave
B Symbol a)
C in the warm sector
C Symbol d)
D in front of the warm front
D Symbol c)
644) The QNH at an airfield located 0 metres above sea level

649) Read this description: "After such a fine day, the ring is 1022 hPa. The air temperature is not available. What is
around the moon was a bad sign yesterday evening for the QFF?
the weather today. And, sure enough, it is pouring down
outside. The clouds are making an oppressively low A It is not possible to give a definitive answer
ceiling of uniform grey; but at least it has become a little
bit warmer." Which of these weather phenomena is B 1022 hPa
being described?
A A blizzard
C Less than 1022 hPa
B Weather at the back of a cold front

D More than 1022 hPa
C A cold front
643) Which of these four METAR reports suggests that a
D A warm front thunderstorm is likely in the next few hours?
A 1350Z 16004KT 8000 SCT110 OVC220 02/m02 Q1008

NOSIG =
648) A parcel of moist but not saturated air rises due to
adiabatic effects. Which of the following changes ? B 1350Z 34003KT 0800 SN VV002 m02/m04 Q1014 NOSIG
=
A Mixing ratio
C 1350Z 04012KT 3000 OVC012 04/03 Q1022 BECMG 5000
B Specific humidity =
D 1350Z 21005KT 9999 SCT040CB SCT100 26/18 Q1016

C Relative humidity
TEMPO 24018G30 TS =
D Absolute humidity
642) The troposphere
647) Under which conditions would you expect the heaviest

clear ice accretion to occur in a CB? A reaches the same height at all latitudes
A Between -30°C and -40°C B has a greater vertical extent above the equator than above
the poles
B Between -2°C and -15°C
C contains all oxygen of the stratosphere
C Between -20°C and -30°C

D is the separation layer between the stratosphere and
atmosphere
D Close to the freezing level
717) Isobars on a surface chart are lines of equal

646) The wind direction in a METAR is measured relative to
A QFF
A magnetic north
B QFE
B the 0-meridian
C QNE
C grid north
D QNH
D true north
654) The following temperatures have been observed over a 789) What characterizes a stationary front ?
station at 1200 UTC. Assume the station is at MSL.
Height in feet. Temperature in degrees C.
20000.-12 18000.-11 16000.-10 14000.-10 12000.-6 A The warm air moves at approximately half the speed of the
10000.-2 8000. +2 6000. +6 4000. +12 2000. +15 cold air
surface+15.
B The weather conditions that it originates is a combination
A Assuming that the MSL pressure is 1013.25 hPa the true between those of an intense cold front and those of a warm
altitude of an aircraft would actually be higher than the and very active front
indicated altitude.
C The surface wind usually has its direction parallel to the front
B The height of the freezing level over the station is
approximately 12000 FT. D The surface wind usually has its direction perpendicular to
the front
C The temperature at 10000 FT is in agreement with the
temperature in the International Standard Atmosphere.
788) Most strong air currents at higher levels (jet streams)
D The layer between 16000 and 18000 FT is absolutely have a westerly direction. There is, however, an
unstable important easterly jet stream. When and where is it
likely to be encountered ?
779) (For this question use annex 050-4383A) A In summer from the Middle East extending over the southern
If you are flying from Zurich to Stockholm at FL 240, part of the Mediterranean to southern Spain.
what conditions can you expect at cruising altitude?
B Throughout the year to the south of the Azorian high.
A Out of cloud throughout the flight
C In summer from south-east Asia extending over southern
B Largely free of cloud; moderate icing half way along the route India to central Africa.
C Cloud most of the way; little chance of CAT D In winter along the Russian coast facing the Arctic ocean.
D Scattered thunderstorms
787) How may the correct wind speed be found, for a level,
which is between two upper air chart levels? (e.g. wind
at FL 250, when the 500 hPa and the 300 hPa chart are
791) (For this question use annex 050-4248A) available).
An aircraft is flying from Point A to Point B on the upper
Which of these statements is correct?
A By reading wind direction and speed from the 300 hPa chart.
A Wind speed at Madrid is higher than at A B By interpolation of the wind information available from the
two charts, while also considering the maximum wind
information found on the Significant Weather Chart.
B Wind speed at B is higher than at A
C By simple interpolation of wind information available from the
C The true altitude will be higher at B than at A two charts.
D The true altitude will be higher at A than at B D By reading wind direction and speed from the next higher
chart.
790) What jet streams are likely to be crossed during a flight

from Stockholm to Rio de Janeiro (23°S) at FL 350 in 786) What is the most significant difference between an
July ? equatorial jet stream and all the other jet streams ?
A One subtropical jet stream. A Wind direction.
B A polar front jet stream followed by one or two subtropical jet B Vertical dimension.
streams.
C Horizontal dimension.
C A subtropical jet stream followed by a polar front jet stream.
D Windspeed.
D A polar front jet stream followed by a subtropical jet stream
and later, a second polar front jet stream.
785) You are flying from east to west in the northern 780) Where is the source of tropical continental air that
hemisphere at the 500 hPa pressure surface. Which of affects Europe in summer?
the following statements is correct?
A The southern Balkan region and the Near East.
A If the wind is from the south you are gaining altitude
B Southern Italy.
B If you have a head wind you are gaining altitude
C Southern France.
C If you have a tail wind you are losing altitude
D The Azores region.
D If the wind is from the north you are gaining altitude
794) You are flying at 2 500 FT/AGL, with a southerly wind,

784) Convective clouds are formed and intend to land at an airport, at sea level directly
below. From approximately which direction would you
expect the surface wind (mid-latitude, northern
A in stable atmosphere hemisphere)?
B in summer during the day only A Southwest.
C in mid-latitudes only B South.
D in unstable atmosphere C South-southeast.
D South-southwest.
783) What is characteristic of the pamperos?
A A marked advance of cold arctic air in North America 778) In still air the temperature decreases at an average of
1.2°C per 100 m increase in altitude. This temperature
change is called:
B Foehn conditions in the Spanish Pyrenees
A dry adiabatic lapse rate
C A marked advance of cold air in South America
B normal lapse rate
D Katabatic winds in the Atlas Mountains
C environmental lapse rate
782) A super-cooled droplet is one that D saturated adiabatic lapse rate
A is at an above freezing temperature in below freezing air

777) During a descent from 2000 FT above the surface to the
B remains liquid at a below freezing temperature surface (no frontal passage) the wind normally
C has frozen to become an ice pellet A backs and decreases
D has a shell of ice with water inside it B veers and increases
C backs and increases
768) What are squall lines? D veers and decreases
A The paths of tropical revolving storms.

776) What winds are mainly associated with the winter
B Bands of intensive thunderstorms. monsoon in the monsoon regions of the Indian sub-
continent ?
C Unusual intensive cold fronts.
A Northeasterly winds bringing dry and hazy air.
D The surface weather associated with upper air troughs.
B Southwesterly winds carrying warm and humid air.
C Northwesterly winds bringing dry and hazy air.
D Southeasterly winds carrying warm and humid air.
775) The presence of altocumulus lenticularis is an indication 770) With what type of cloud is "+TSRA" precipitation most
of the commonly associated?
A development of thermal lows A NS
B presence of valley winds B CB
C presence of mountain waves C AS
D risk of orographic thunderstorms D SC
774) When the temperature and dew point are less than one 715) The temperature at 10000 FT in the International
degree apart the weather conditions are most likely to be Standard Atmosphere is :
A clear and cool A -20°C
B high scattered clouds B -35°C
C unlimited visibility C -5°C
D fog or low cloud D 0°C
773) The QNH of an airport at sea level is 983 hPa and the 781) What does dewpoint mean?
temperature deviation from ISA is -15°C below FL 100.
What is the true altitude of FL 100?
A The freezing level (danger of icing).
A 8590 FT.
B The temperature at which the relative humidity and
B 10210 FT. saturation vapour pressure are the same.
C The temperature to which a mass of air must be cooled in

C 9790 FT. order to reach saturation.
D 11410 FT. D The temperature at which ice melts.
772) Refer to the TAF for Amsterdam airport. 805) The wind tends to follow the contour lines (isohypses)
FCNL31 281500 above the friction layer because
EHAM 281601 14010KT 6000 -RA SCT025 BECMG 1618
12015G25KT SCT008 BKN013 TEMPO 1823 3000 RA A contour lines are lines that connect points with the same
BKN005 OVC010 BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000 NSW windspeed in the upper air
BKN020 =
Flight from Bordeaux to Amsterdam, ETA 2100 UTC. B the coriolis force acts perpendicular on a line that connects
What lowest cloud base is forecast for arrival at high and low pressure system
Amsterdam?
C the friction of the air with the earth's surface gives the airflow
A 250 FT a diversion perpendicular to the gradient force.
B 500 m D the coriolis force tends to balance with the horizontal

pressure gradient force
C 800 FT
D 500 FT 817) From which of the following pieces of information can

the stability of the atmosphere be derived?
A Pressure at the surface

What name is given to the jet stream lying over North B Environmental lapse rate
Africa (B) ?
A Equatorial jet stream C Surface temperature
B Polar front jet stream

D Dry adiabatic lapse rate
C Arctic jet stream
D Sub-tropical jet stream
816) In which of the following conditions is moderate to 811) What does the expression "Broken (BKN)" mean?
severe airframe icing most likely to be encountered?
A Below the freezing level in clear air A 5-7 Eights of the sky is cloud covered
B In clear air above the freezing level B 3-4 Eights of the sky is cloud covered
C Within cloud of any type C 3-5 Eights of the sky is cloud covered
D In Nimbostratus cloud D Nil significant cloud cover
815) Which layer of the atmosphere contains more than 90 810) A wide body takes off on a clear night in Dhahran, Saudi
per cent of all water vapour? Arabia. Shortly after take off the aircraft's rate of climb
drops to zero. This can be due to
A Troposphere
A very pronounced downdrafts
B Lower stratosphere
B low relative humidity
C Upper stratosphere
C a very strong temperature inversion
D Ionosphere
D sand/dust in the engines
814) ATIS information contains

809) What is the approximate ratio between height and width
for a jet stream cross section?
A only operational information
A 1/100
B meteorological and operational information
B 1/1
C only meteorological information
C 1/10
D operational information and if necessary meteorological
information D 1/1000
813) If the surface temperature is 15°C , then the temperature 808) What type of cloud is being described ?
at 10000 FT in a current of ascending unsaturated air is: A generally grey cloud layer with fairly uniform base and
uniform appearance, which may give drizzle or snow
A 5°C grains. When the sun is visible through the cloud, the
outline is clearly discernible. Sometimes it appears in
B -5°C the form of ragged patches.
C -15°C A Cirrostratus
D 0°C B Stratus
C Altostratus
812) What is the track most likely to be taken by a hurricane
in the Carribean area? D Nimbostratus
A West deep into the U.S.
B West in the earlier stages and later south east
C West in the earlier stages and later north east
D East
792) A frontal depression passes through the airport. What 802) In the southern hemisphere what wind effect would you
form of precipitation do you expect ? expect when flying from a high pressure area towards a
low pressure area at FL 100?
A Rain or snow during about 12 hours until the warm front
arrives. Within the warm sector the rain increases. A Wind from the left.
Improvement on the passage of the cold front.
B Tailwind with no drift.
B Continuous rain or snow during 6 hours until the warm front
arrives. The precipitation stops for several hours within the
warm sector. On the arrival of the cold front, showers within C Headwind with no drift.
a couple of hours.
D Wind from the right.
C Continous rain or snow while the frontal wave passes for a
period of some 24 hours.
801) What type of low pressure area is associated with a
D Showers during some 2 hours until the warm front arrives. surface front?
Drizzle in the warm sector within 12 hours. Rain or snow on
the passage of the cold front.
A A low on lee side of a mountain.
B Heat low.
A trough is indicated by letter:
C Polar front low.
A D
D A cold air pool.
B A
C B 800) Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a

30065 FT pressure level (FL 300)?
D C
A 200 hPa
B 700 hPa
793) The QNH at an airfield located 200 metres above sea
level is 1009 hPa. The air temperature is 10°C lower than
a standard atmosphere. What is the QFF? C 500 hPa
A Less than 1009 hPa D 300 hPa
B It is not possible to give a definitive answer

799) With what type of cloud is "GR" precipitation most
C More than 1009 hPa commonly associated?
D 1009 hPa A AS
B ST
804) Clear ice forms as a result of

C CC
A water vapour freezing to the aircraft D CB
B ice pellets splattering on the aircraft

798) In the lower part of the stratosphere the temperature
C supercooled droplets freezing on impact
D supercooled water droplets spreading during the freezing A increases with altitude
process
B increases at first and decreases afterward
803) Which of the following meteorological phenomena can C is almost constant

rapidly change the braking action of a runway?
D decreases with altitude
A HZ
B +FZRA
C MIFG
D FG
797) After passing at right angles through a very active cold 728) Which of the following meteorological phenomenon
front in the direction of the cold air, what will you indicates upper level instability which may lead to
encounter, in the northern hemisphere immediately after thunderstorm development ?
a marked change in temperature?
A Halo.
A A veering in the wind direction.
B Red cirrus.
B A backing in the wind direction.
C AC castellanus.
C An increase in tailwind.
D AC lenticularis.
D A decrease in headwind.

796) In which of the following bands of latitude is the Over Madrid, what intensity of turbulence and icing is
intertropical convergence zone most likely to be forecast at FL 200 ?
encountered in January, between Dakar and Rio de
Janeiro? A Severe turbulence, severe icing
A 0° - 7°N. B Moderate turbulence, moderate icing
B 3° - 8°S. C Moderate turbulence, light icing
C 8° - 12°S. D Severe turbulence, moderate icing
D 7° - 12°N.
739) The dry adiabatic lapse rate

According to ICAO, which symbol indicates severe icing A is greater during the night than during the day
?
B has a variable value
A Symbol a)
C has a constant fixed value
B Symbol b)
D is greater in summer than in winter
C Symbol c)
D Symbol d) 738) Which of the following statements concerning the core

of a polar front jet stream is correct ?
767) Fallstreaks or virga are A It and its surface projection lie in the warm air
B It lies in the warm air; its pressure surfaces are horizontal at

A strong katabatic winds in mountainous areas and the height of the core
accompanied by heavy precipitation
C It lies in the cold air; the thermal wind reverses direction at
B water or ice particles falling out of a cloud that evaporate the height of the core
before reaching the ground
D It lies at a height where there is no horizontal temperature
C strong downdraughts in the polar jet stream, associated with gradient; the slope of the pressure surfaces at the height of
jet streaks the core is at its maximum
D gusts associated with a well developed Bora

737) An aircraft is descending to land under IFR. If the local
QNH is 1009 hPa, what will happen to the altitude
807) Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for a reading when the altimeter is reset at the transition level
9882 FT pressure level (FL 100) ? ?
A 700 hPa A It will remain the same
B 850 hPa B It will not be affected
C 500 hPa C It will decrease
D 300 hPa D It will increase
736) Look at this TAF for Zurich Airport 732) You must make an emergency landing at sea. The QNH
TAF LSZH 211322 22018G35KT 9999 SCT012 BKN030 of a field on a nearby island with an elevation of 4000 FT
BECMG 1315 25025G45KT TEMPO 1720 4000 +SHRA is 1025 hPa and the temperature is -20°C. What is your
BKN025TCU BECMG 2022 25015KT T1815Z T1618Z = pressure altimeter reading when landing if 1025 hPa is
Which of these statements best describes the weather set in the subscale?
most likely to be experienced at 1500 UTC?
A 0 FT
A Meteorological visibility 10 kilometres or more, main
cloudbase 3000 feet, wind 250°, temperature 18°C. B More than 0 FT, but less than 4000 FT
B Meteorological visibility 4000 metres, gusts up to 25 knots,

temperature 18°C. C 4000 FT
C Meteorological visibility 10 kilometres or more, main D Less than 0 FT

cloudbase 1200 feet, gusts up to 45 knots.
D Severe rainshowers, meteorological visibility 4000 metres,

temperature 15°C, gusts up to 35 knots. What wind is forecast at FL 390 over Paris ?
A 210/40
735) The equatorial easterly jet is a jet stream that occurs :
B 240/20
A during the whole year in the northern hemisphere
C 030/40
B only in the summer of the northern hemisphere at approx. 45
000 FT D 190/40
C only in the winter of the northern hemisphere at approx. 30

000 FT
769) In unstable air, surface visibility is most likely to be
restricted by
D during the whole year in the southern hemisphere
A haze
734) In the vicinity of industrial areas, smoke is most likely to B drizzle

affect surface visibility when
A there is a low level inversion

C low stratus
D showers of rain or snow

B the surface wind is strong and gusty
C cumulus clouds have developed in the afternoon

729) What information is given on a Significant Weather
Chart?
D a rapid moving cold front has just passed the area
A The significant weather forecast for the time given on the
chart
733) What pressure is defined as QFE?
B The significant weather that is observed at the time given on
the chart
A The pressure reduced to sea level using actual temperatures
C The significant weather in a period 3 hours before and 3
B The pressure reduced to sea level using ISA temperatures hours after the time given on the chart
C The pressure at field elevation D The significant weather forecast for a period 6 hours after
the time given on the chart
D The pressure of the altimeter
743) The validity of a TAF is
A 2 hours
B between 6 and 9 hours
C 9 hours from the time of issue
D stated in the TAF
727) At what time of the year are tornadoes most likely to 722) What is the effect of a strong low level inversion ?
occur in North America?
A Summer, autumn. A It results in good visual conditions.
B Autumn, winter. B It promotes vertical windshear.
C Winter. C It promotes extensive vertical movement of air.
D Spring, summer. D It prevents vertical windshear.
726) A 200 hPa pressure altitude level can vary in height. In 721) Clear ice forms on an aircraft by the freezing of :
heights is applicable ? A small supercooled water drops
A FL 100.
B snow
B FL 50.
C large supercooled water drops
C FL 390.
D water vapour
D FL 300.
720) Which of the following zones is most likely to encounter

little or no precipitation?
725) Convective activity over land in mid-latitudes is greatest
in A Frontal zones.
A summer during the night and early morning.
B Occlusions.
B winter in the afternoon.
C The north side of the alps with a prevailing Foehn from the
south.
C summer in the afternoon.
D The north side of the alps with a prevailing Foehn from the
D winter during the night and early morning. north.
724) From which direction do the trade winds blow, in the 719) Which weather condition lowers true altitude as
southern hemisphere? compared to pressure altitude to a position where flight
over mountains could be dangereous?
A N
A Warm depression.
B SE
B Cold high.
C NE
C Warm high.
D SW
D Cold low.
723) Which of the following statements is an interpretation of

the METAR ? 718) An aircraft flying at FL 100 from Marseille (QNH 1012
00000KT 0200 R14/0800U R16/P1500U FZFG VV001 hPa) to Palma de Mallorca (QNH 1006 hPa) experiences
m03/m03 Q1022 BECMG 0800 = no change to true altitude. The reason for this is that :
A Meteorological visibility 200 metres, RVR for runway 16 A one of the two QNH values may be incorrect
1500 metres, temperature -3°C, vertical visibility 100 metres
B the air at Palma de Mallorca is warmer than that at Marseille
B Meteorological visibility 200 feet, RVR for runway 16 more
than 1500 metres, vertical visibility 100 feet, fog with hoar C the air at Palma de Mallorca is colder than that at Marseille
frost
D the altimeters are erroneous, and need to be tested
C Meteorological visibility for runway 14 800 metres, fog with
hoar frost, RVR for runway 16 more than 1500 metres
D RVR for runway 14 800 metres, vertical visibility 100 feet,

calm, meteorological visibility improving to 800 metres in the
next 2 hours
730) What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of 763) In which of the following situations is an aircraft most
an aircraft parked on the ground as an active cold front susceptible to icing ?
is passing?
A Flying in heavy drizzle.
A It will remain unchanged.
B Level flight below a rain producing cloud when OAT is below
B It will first decrease then increase. zero degrees C.
C It will fluctuate up and down by about +/- 50 feet. C Flying in dense cirrus clouds.
D It will first increase then decrease. D Level flight in snowfall below a nimbostratus layer.
754) (For this question use annex 050-2504A) 762) Which of the following types of jet streams can be
What is the optimum flight level between Rome and observed all year round?
Paris according to the significant weather chart?
A Subtropical jet stream / polar front jet stream.
A FL 160
B Equatorial jet stream / polar front jet stream.
B FL 360
C Arctic jet stream / subtropical jet stream.
C FL 220
D Equatorial jet stream / arctic jet stream.
D FL 340
761) After landing at an aerodrome (QNH 993 hPa) it is

766) What process in an air mass leads to the creation of noticed that the altimeter is still set to 1013,2 hPa and
wide spread NS, AS and ST cloud coverage? that it reads 1200 feet. What is the elevation of the
aerodrome above mean sea level ?
A Convection process
A 1200 feet.
B Radiation
B 1740 feet.
C Lifting
C 2280 feet.
D Sinking
D 660 feet.

Select from the map the wind for the route Zurich - 760) The wind speed in a system with curved isobars
London at FL 280. compared to a system with straight isobars is (other
conditions being the same)
A 250 / 80
A higher if curvature is cyclonic
B 040 / 60
B higher if curvature is anticyclonic
C 160 / 90
C always higher
D 220 / 60
D always lower
764) With what type of cloud is heavy precipitation unlikely

during the summer months ? 759) A significant inversion at low height is a characteristic of
A SC, AS A cumulus clouds
B CB, ST B nocturnal radiation
C NS, CC
C the passage of cold front
D AS, NS D advection fog
758) A 300 hPa pressure level can vary in height. In 753) What is the strong relatively cold katabatic wind,
temperate regions which of the following average blowing down the northern Adriatic coast, mainly during
heights is applicable ? the winter and spring called?
A FL 100 A Bora.
B FL 50 B Ghibli.
C FL 300 C Mistral.
D FL 390 D Scirocco.
757) The dewpoint temperature 752) In which layer is most of the atmospheric humidity
concentrated ?
A can not be equal to the air temperature A Stratosphere.
B can be equal to the air temperature B Stratopause.
C is always lower than the air temperature

C Troposphere.
D is always higher than the air temperature D Tropopause.
741) A layer is conditionally unstable if the air 751) If you are planning a flight at FL 290, which of these
upper wind and temperature charts would be nearest
A becomes stable by lifting it. your flight level ?
B is unstable for saturated air as well as for dry air.

A 850 hPa
B 300 hPa
C is unstable for saturated air and stable for dry air.
D is stable for saturated air and unstable for dry air.

C 500 hPa
D 700 hPa
755) What are the images of satellites provided daily by the

Weather Service used for?
750) With a uniform pressure pattern and no thunderstorms
A To locate precipitation zones around, what will the indication of the aneroid altimeter
of an aircraft parked on the ground do over a period of
about ten minutes?
B To locate fronts in areas with few observation stations
A Apparently nothing, because any changes would be small.
C To measure wind currents on the ground
B Increase rapidly.
D To help provide 14-day forecasts
C Show strong fluctuations.
742) What weather conditions in the region of the Alps would D Decrease rapidly.
you expect with Foehn from south?
A Strong north winds on the southern side of the Alps

749) Isolated thunderstorms of a local nature are generally
caused by
B Heavy airframe icing conditions on the northern side of the
Alps
A frontal lifting (warm front).
C Clouds, on the southern sides of passes in the Alps
B frontal lifting (cold front).
D Heavy clear air turbulence on the southern side of the Alps
C frontal occlusion.
D thermal triggering.
748) In the International Standard Atmosphere the decrease 613) Which one of the following statements concerning the
in temperature with height below 11 km is formation of aircraft icing is most correct ?
A 0.6°C per 100m A Risk for icing increases when cloud temperature decreases
well below minus 12 degrees C.
B 0.65°C per 100m
B Probability of icing increases when dry snow starts to fall
from a cloud.
C 1°C per 100m
C A cloud consisting of both supercooled cloud droplets and
D 0.5°C per 100m ice crystals produces aircraft icing
D Greatest risk of icing conditions is experienced in cirrus

747) Runway visual range can be reported in clouds.
A a METAR 756) At what time of the year are typhoons most likely to
occur over the southern islands of Japan?
B a TAF
A September to January.
C a SIGMET
B January to May.
D both a TAF and a METAR
C May to July.
746) (For this question use annex 050-4393A) D July to November.

The attached chart shows the weather conditions on the
ground at 1200 UTC on October 10. Which of the
following reports reflects weather development at 472) Generally northern hemisphere winds at 5000 FT/AGL
Zurich Airport? are southwesterly while most of the surface winds are
southerly. What is the primary reason of difference
A TAF LSZH 101601 05020G35KT 8000 BKN015 TEMPO between these two wind directions?
1720 05018KT 0300 +SHSN VV002 =
A A strong pressure gradient at higher altitudes.
B TAF LSZH 101601 23012KT 6000 RA BKN012 OVC030
TEMPO 2023 22025G40KT 1600 +SNRA BKN003
OVC015 =
B Stronger Coriolis force at the surface.
C TAF LSZH 101601 32008KT 9999 SCT030TCU TEMPO C The influence of warm air at the lower altitude.
2201 32020G32KT 3000 TSRA BKN020CB =
D Friction between the wind and the surface.
D TAF LSZH 101601 VRB02KT 8000 SCT280 BECMG 1618
00000KT 3500 MIFG BECMG 1820 1500 BCFG BECMG
2022 0100 FG VV001 =
484) An airmass is unstable when
745) The average height of the tropopause at 50°N is about A an ascending parcel of air continues to rise to a
considerable height.
A 14 km B temperature and humidity are not constant
B 16 km C pressure shows a marked variation over a given horizontal

area
C 11 km
D temperature increases with height
D 8 km
483) Which types of clouds are typical evidence of stable air

744) At what time of the year, are the paths of north Atlantic conditions?
lows moving from west to east generally at their most
southerly position? A ST, AS
A Autumn. B CU, CB
B Winter. C NS, CU
C Summer. D CB, CC
D Spring.
482) Where is the coldest air to be found, in an occlusion 478) The turbulence which occurs at high flight levels (above
with cold front characteristics? FL 250) is mainly of the type Clear Air Turbulence. In
what way can moderate to severe Clear Air Turbulence
A At the surface position of the front. affect an aircraft, the flight and the passengers?
B At the junction of the occlusion. A The turbulence is wave like which makes the flight
unpleasant for the passengers but the manoeuvring will not
be affected essentially.
C Behind the front.
B The turbulence is a small scale one and can cause damage
D Ahead of the front. of worn out type. The manoeuvring of the aircraft will be
made more difficult or even impossible. For the passengers
the flight will be unpleasant.
481) During a flight over the sea at FL 135, the true altitude is
13500 feet; local QNH is 1019 hPa. What information, if C The turbulence is a large scale one (waving) so that the
any, can be gained about the air mass in which the aircraft will be difficult to manoeuvre. The passengers will
aircraft is flying? feel some discomfort.
A Its average temperature is the same as ISA

D The turbulence can be resembled with the roughness of a
washing-board (small scale) and will not have influence on
the aircraft and its solidity, but will make flight a little more
B It is warmer than ISA difficult. The passengers will seldom notice anything of this
turbulence.
C There is insufficient information to make any assumption
D It is colder than ISA 477) Which of the following cloud types is least likely to
produce precipitation ?
480) If a saturated air mass descends down a slope its A NS

temperature increases at
B CI
A a lower rate than in dry air, as condensation gives out heat.
C AS
B a higher rate than in dry air, as it gives up latent evaporation
heat. D CB
C a lower rate than in dry air, as evaporation absorbs heat.
476) Given the following METAR: EDDM 250850Z 33005KT

D the same rate as if the air mass were dry.
2000 R26R/P1500N R26L/1500N BR SCT002 OVC003
05/05 Q1025 NOSIG
479) (For this question use annex 050-2064A) A Runway 26R and runway 26L have the same RVR
Refer to the diagram. Assuming the usual direction of
movement, where will this polar frontal wave have B RVR on runway 26R is increasing
moved ?
C Visibility is reduced by water droplets
A Position 2
D There is a distinct change in RVR observed
B Position 4
C Position 3
What is the temperature deviation in degrees Celsius,
D Position 1
from the International Standard Atmosphere overhead
Frankfurt ?
A ISA +12°C
B ISA +4°C
C ISA -4°C
D ISA -12°C
461) Which of the following is a common result of 469) At about what geographical latitude as average is
subsidence ? assumed for the zone of prevailing westerlies?
A Clear air turbulence at higher altitudes . A 30°N.
B An inversion over a large area with haze, mist. B 80°N.
C CB-clouds and thunderstorms over a large area. C 50°N.
D Wide spread NS and AS clouds and intense precipitation. D 10°N.
473) What is a SPECI? 468) (For this question use annex 050-2059A)
Which typical weather situation is shown on the weather
chart ? (Spacing of the isobars: 5 hPa)
A A warning of meteorological dangers at an aerodrome,
issued only when required. A Cutting wind.
B An aerodrome forecast issued every 9 hours.
B West wind condition.
C A selected special aerodrome weather report, issued when a

significant change of the weather conditions have been C Warm south wind condition (Foehn).
observed.
D Uniform pressure pattern.
D A routine aerodrome weather report issued every 3 hours.

487) Which area of a polar front jet stream in the northern Weather conditions at Bombay during early July are
hemisphere has the highest probability of turbulence? mainly influenced by the
A Looking downstream, the area to the left of the core. A NE monsoon and the proximity of the ITCZ
B Looking downstream, the area to the right of the core. B passage of frontal system generated in the south indian
ocean
C In the core of the jet stream.
C high incidence of tropical revolving storms originating in the
persian gulf
D Above the core in the boundary between warm and cold air.
D SW monsoon
471) You intend to overfly a mountain range. The

recommended minimum flight altitude is, according to 466) Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the
the aviation chart, 15000 FT/AMSL. The air mass that
you will fly through is on average 15°C warmer than the
standard atmosphere. The altimeter is set to QNH (1023 A period in which precipitation is not falling.
hPa). At what altimeter reading will you effectively be at
the recommended minimum flight altitude? B mature stage.
A 14100 FT.
C cumulus stage.
B 13830 FT.
D dissipating stage.
C 14370 FT.
D 15900 FT. 465) What type of clouds are associated with rain showers ?
A Towering cumulus and altostratus.

470) A layer can be
B Altostratus and stratus.
A stable for unsaturated air and unstable for saturated air

C Nimbostratus.
B stable for saturated air and unstable for unsaturated air

D Towering cumulus and cumulonimbus.
C unstable for unsaturated air and neutral for saturated air
D unstable for unsaturated air and conditionally unstable
464) What weather condition would you expect at a squall 498) (For this question use annex 050-4334A)
line? Which of the following best describes Zone B?
A Fog A Ridge of high pressure
B Strong whirlwinds reaching up to higher levels B Depression
C Thunderstorms C Trough of low pressure
D Strong steady rain D Col
463) (For this question use annex 050-4389A) 510) An airmass is stable when
This chart shows the weather conditions on the ground
at 0600 UTC on May 4. Which of the following reports
reflects weather development at Geneva Airport? A the lapse rate is 1°C per 100 m
A TAF LSGG 230716 23016KT 8000 -RA BKN030 OVC070 B the vertical motion of a rising parcel of air tends to become
BECMG 0810 5000 RA BKN020 OVC050 TEMPO 3000 weaker and disappears.
+RA BKN010 OVC030 BECMG 1215 25014KT 8000
SCT030 BKN090 = C temperature in a given area drops off very rapidly with height
B TAF LSGG 230716 05014KT 5000 OVC015 BECMG 0810 D pressure is constant
8000 BKN018 BECMG 1013 05015G30KT 9999 SCT025 =
C TAF LSGG 230716 26012KT 9999 SCT030 BKN080

TEMPO 1013 25020G35KT 3000 TSRA or +SHRA 509) In the mid-latitudes the stratosphere extends on an
BKN030CB BECMG 1316 VRB02KT 3000 BCFG SCT100 average from
=
A 85 to more than 200 km
D TAF LSGG 230716 VRB03KT 6000 BR SCT020 BECMG
0811 23005KT 9999 SCT025TCU PROB 40 TEMPO 1216 B 11 to 50 km
34012G30KT 3000 TSRA BKN020CB =
C 0 to 11 km
615) The rate of cooling of ascending saturated air is less D 50 to 85 km

than the rate of cooling of ascending unsaturated air
because:
A water vapour doesn't cool as rapidly as dry air 508) (For this question use annex 050-4378A)
On which of the following routes can you expect icing to
occur, on the basis of the chart?
B water vapour absorbs the incoming heat from the sun
A Hamburg - Oslo
C heat is released during the condensation process
B Tunis - Rome
D moist air is heavier than dry air
C Copenhagen - Helsinki
474) The geostrophic wind speed is directly proportional to D Rome - Frankfurt

the
A curvature of isobars
507) A temperature of +15°C is recorded at an altitude of 500
metres above sea level. If the vertical temperature
B sine of latitude
gradient is that of a standard atmosphere, what will the
temperature be at the summit of a mountain, 2500
C density of the air metres above sea level?
D horizontal pressure gradient A +4°C
B 0°C
C -2°C
D +2°C
506) In which of the following changes of state is latent heat 501) During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is
released ? characterized predominantly by downdrafts?
A Gas to liquid A Anvil stage
B Solid to liquid B Dissipating stage
C Solid to gas C Cumulus stage
D Liquid to gas D Mature stage
505) Continuous updraughts occur in a thunderstorm during 485) What cloud cover is typical for a wide warm sector of a
the polar front depression over Central Europe in the
summer ?
A period in which precipitation is falling.
A Fair weather CU
B cumulus stage.
B BKN CU and CB
C mature stage.
C Sky clear
D dissipating stage.
D ST with drizzle

The pressure system at position "D" is a 499) Which of the following cloud types are most likely to
produce light to moderate icing when they are not
A trough of low pressure subject to orographic lifting and consist of supercooled
cloud droplets?
B ridge of high pressure
A Stratocumulus and cirrostratus
C col
B Stratus and cumulonimbus
D secondary low
C Altostratus and cirrocumulus
D Altocumulus and altostratus.

503) Geostrophic wind
A is perpendicular to the horizontal pressure gradient force 486) Which of the following are favourable conditions for the
formation of freezing rain?
B is directly proportional to the density of the air
A An isothermal layer aloft with a temperature just above 0°C
C always increases with increasing height through which rain is falling.
D veers with height if cold air is advected in the northern B Warm air aloft from which rain is falling into air with a
hemisphere temperature below 0°C.
C Water droplets falling from cold air aloft with a temperature

below 0°C.
Judging by the chart, what windspeeds can you expect D Cold air aloft from which hail is falling into air that is warm.
at FL 340 above Rome?
A 95 kt
497) In which of the following areas do surface high pressure
systems usually predominate over the North Atlantic
B 140 km/h
region between 30°N and 65°N and the adjoining land
areas during the northern summer?
C 145 kt
A Greenland, SW Europe, NE Canada
D 340 kt
B Azores, SE USA, SW Europe
C Greenland, Azores, NE Canada
D Iceland, SW USA, Azores
496) What is the most likely cause of a lack of clouds at 491) A microburst phenomenon can arise in the
higher levels in a stationary high?
A Divergence at higher levels A updraught of a cumulonimbus at the mature stage.
B Sinking air B downdraught of a cumulonimbus at the formation stage.
C Rising air C updraught of a cumulonimbus at the growth stage.
D Instability D downdraught of a cumulonimbus at the mature stage.
495) (For this question use annex 050-10795A) 490) The geostrophic wind depends on
Considering that portion of the route indicated from
30°E to 50°E, the upper winds in January above FL 300 A centripetal force, height, pressure gradient
are most likely to be
A variable in direction and less than 30 kt

B density, earth's rotation, geographic latitude
B light easterlies C earth's rotation, geographic latitude, centripetal force
C a subtropical westerly jet stream, maximum speed

D geographic latitude, centripetal force, height
exceeding 90 kt
D a westerly polar front jet stream, maximum speed exceeding 489) If Paris reports a wind of 08010KT on the METAR, what
90 kt wind velocity would you expect to encounter at a height
494) Which of these four METAR reports suggests that rain is A 05020KT
most likely in the next few hours?
B 08005KT
A 05016G33KT 8000 OVC015 08/06 Q1028 NOSIG =
C 11020KT
B 23015KT 8000 BKN030 OVC070 17/14 Q1009 BECMG
4000 = D 08015KT
C 34004KT 9999 SCT040 SCT100 m05/m08 Q1014 NOSIG =
D 16002KT 0100 FG SCT300 06/06 Q1022 BECMG 1000 = 488) A cold pool
A occurs frequently in winter to the south of the Alps when this

493) Frontal fog is most likely to occur region is under the influence of cold north-westerly airstream
B is usually most evident in the circulation and temperature

A in winter in the early morning fields of the middle troposphere and may show little or no
sign on a surface chart
B in advance of a warm front
C develops usually in winter when very unstable maritime polar
or maritime arctic air currents stream southwards along the
C in rear of a warm front
eastern side of an extensive ridge of high pressure, in
association with occluded systems
D in summer in the early morning
D normally disappears at night and occurs almost exclusively
in summer
492) Which of the following are medium level clouds ?
460) An aircraft is flying at FL 180 on the northern

A Cumulonimbus hemisphere with a crosswind from the left. Which of the
following is correct concerning its true altitude ?
B All convective clouds
A It increases
C Altostratus and altocumulus
B It remains constant
D Cirrocumulus and cirrostratus
C Without knowing temperatures at FL 180 this question can
not be answered.
D It decreases
500) How is the direction and speed of upper winds 430) In which stage of the life cycle of a single thunderstorm
described in forecasts ? cell occur both up- and downdrafts simultaneously?
A The direction is relative to magnetic north and the speed is A Cumulus stage
in knots.
B Dissipating stage
B The direction is relative to magnetic north and the speed is
in miles per hour.
C In all stages
C The direction is relative to true north and the speed is in
miles per hour. D Mature stage
D The direction is relative to true north and the speed is in

knots. 429) An outside air temperature of -35°C is measured while
cruising at FL 200. What is the temperature deviation
from the ISA at this level?
421) An isohypse of the 500 hPa pressure surface is labelled
with the number 552. This means that for all points on A 10°C warmer than ISA.
the isohypse the
B 5°C warmer than ISA.
A pressure is 552 hPa
C 5°C colder than ISA.
B topography is 552 meters above MSL
D 10°C colder than ISA.
C pressure altimeter will overread by 552 FT
D topography is 552 decameters above MSL

428) Strongly developed cumulus clouds are an indication of
433) Which of the following factors have the greatest effect A the presence of a low level inversion
on the formation of the various types of ice on an
aircraft ? B the presence of warm air aloft
A Cloud temperature and droplet size C poor surface visibility
B Aircraft speed and size of cloud droplets D instability in the atmosphere
C Aircraft speed and curvature of the airfoil

D Relative humidity inside the cloud Which airport, at 1200 UTC, has the lowest probability of
precipitation?
432) How would you characterise an air temperature of -30°C A EFHK

at the 300 hPa level over western Europe?
B LSZH
A Within +/-5°C of ISA
C ESSA
B Low
D ENFB
C Very low
D High 426) Which of the following statements concerning jet

streams is correct?
431) What is the name of the wind or airmass which gives to A In the northern hemisphere only westerly jet streams occur
the main part of India its greatest proportion of
precipitation? B In the southern hemisphere no jet streams occur
A South-west monsoon. C In the southern hemisphere only easterly jet streams occur
B South-east trade wind. D In the northern hemisphere both westerly and easterly jet
streams occur
C Indian, maritime tropical air mass.
D Winter monsoon.
425) What is the vertical temperature lapse rate, up to 11 km, 420) In which of the following 1850 UTC METAR reports, is
in the standard ICAO atmosphere ? the probability of fog formation, in the coming night, the
highest?
A 6.5°C per 1000 m
A 00000KT 9999 SCT300 21/01 Q1032 NOSIG =
B 4.5°C per 1000 m
B VRB01KT 8000 SCT250 11/10 Q1028 BECMG 3000 =
C 3°C per 1000 m
C 22004KT 6000 -RA SCT012 OVC030 17/14 Q1009 NOSIG
D 2°C per 1000 m =
D VRB02KT 2500 SCT120 14/M08 Q1035 NOSIG =
424) Which of the following statements concerning the lifting

of a parcel of air is correct ?
419) Which of the following is most likely to lead to the
A Saturated parcels always cool at a rate of 0.65°C per 100m dissipation of radiation fog ?
B Unsaturated parcels cool more rapidly than saturated parcels

A A build up of a high pressure area resulting in adiabatic
warming associated with a sinking air mass
C Unsaturated parcels cool less rapidly than saturated parcels B A marked increase in wind velocity near the ground
D Unsaturated parcels cool at a rate of 0.65°C per 100m C A marked decrease in wind velocity close to the ground
D Ground cooling caused by radiation during the night

462) How are the air masses distributed in a cold occlusion ?
A The coldest air mass behind and the less cold air in front of 418) An aircraft flying in the southern hemisphere at 2000
the occlusion; the warm air mass is above ground level. feet, has to turn to the right in order to allow for drift. In
which direction, relative to the aircraft, is the centre of
B The coldest air in front of and the less cold air is behind the low pressure ?
occlusion; the warm air mass is above ground level.
A To the right.
C The coldest air in front of and the warm air behind the
occlusion; the less cold air is above ground level. B In front.
D The coldest air behind and the warm air in front of the
C Behind.
occlusion; the less cold air mass is above ground level.
D To the left.
422) What of the following is the most important constituent

in the atmosphere from a weather stand-point ?
A Nitrogen Which of the following best describes Zone C?
B Oxygen A Trough of low pressure
C Hydrogen B Depression
D Water vapour C Ridge of high pressure
D Col
436) At approximately what altitude is the subtropical jet

stream found over Europe?
A FL 200 Which of the following symbols represents a tropical
revolving storm?
B FL 300
A Symbol b)
C FL 500
B Symbol c)
D FL 400
C Symbol d)
D Symbol a)
415) The following statements deal with precipitation, 423) How long from the time of observation is a TREND in a
turbulence and icing. Select the list containing the most METAR valid?
likely alternatives for NS cloud:
A 1 hour.
A Precipitation is frequently in the form of hail. Icing and
turbulence are frequently severe. B 30 minutes.
B Precipitation and icing are usually nil. Turbulence is rarely

more than moderate. C 2 hours.
C Precipitation may be snow, sleet or rain. Icing is probable D 9 hours.

and may range between light and severe. Turbulence is
rarely more than moderate.
D Precipitation may be snow, sleet or rain. Icing and Select from the map the average temperature for the
turbulence are frequently severe. route Zurich - Rome at FL 110.
A +5°C
414) Which of the following phenomena can produce a risk of
aquaplaning? B -9°C
A SA
C -12°C
B +RA
D -6°C
C FG
D BCFG 459) The most dangerous low level wind shears are
encountered
A when strong ground inversions are present and near

413) What positions are connected by isobars on the surface thunderstorms
weather chart?
B in areas with layered clouds and wind speeds higher than 35
A Positions with the same relative pressure heights kt
B Positions with the same air pressure at a given level C during any period when wind speed is greater than 35 kt and
near valleys
C Positions with the same temperature at a given level
D near valleys and at the windward side of mountains.
D Positions with the same wind velocity at a given level
458) (For this question use annex 050-

2539A)
412) The upper wind and temperature chart of 250 hPa The front labelled "Z" is a:
corresponds, in a standard atmosphere, to about
A Warm front
A 32 000 FT
B Cold front
B 34 000 FT
C Warm front occlusion
C 39 000 FT
D Cold front occlusion
D 30 000 FT
457) In the northern hemisphere the gradient wind of a

411) The height and the temperature of the tropopause are cyclonic pressure distribution is 350/24, over the sea the
respectively in the order of surface wind would approximate
A 8 km and -40°C over the equator A 030/20
B 8 km and - 75°C over the poles B 340/28
C 16 km and -40°C over the poles C 030/28
D 16 km and -75°C over the equator D 340/20
456) Relative humidity 451) Refer to the following TAF extract:
BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500
FG VV001
A increases if the air is cooled whilst maintaining the vapour What does the abbreviation "BKN004" mean?
pressure constant
A 4 - 8 oktas, ceiling 400 m.
B is higher in warm air than in cool air
B 1 - 4 oktas, ceiling 400 m.
C is higher in cool air than in warm air
D decreases if the air is cooled whilst maintaining the vapour

C 5 - 7 oktas, ceiling 400 FT.
pressure constant
D 1 - 4 oktas, ceiling 400 FT.
455) In an unstable layer there are cumuliform clouds. The

vertical extent of these clouds depends on the 450) The rate of decrease of temperature with height per 100
m in the International Standard Atmosphere is :
A thickness of the unstable layer
A 0.65°C
B wind direction
B 1°C
C air pressure at the surface
C 0.5°C
D pressure at different levels
D variable
454) An altimeter adjusted to 1013 hPa indicates an altitude

of 3600 FT. Should this altimeter be adjusted to the local 434) In the lower layers of the atmosphere due to friction the
QNH value of 991 hPa, the altitude indicated would be wind changes direction towards the low pressure area
because :
A 4278 FT.
A the pressure gradient increases
B 4194 FT.
B turbulence is formed and pressure increases
C 3006 FT.
C turbulence is formed and pressure decreases
D 2922 FT.
D wind speed decreases and therefore coriolis force decreases
453) If you are flying at FL 300 in an air mass that is 15°C

warmer than a standard atmosphere, what is the outside 448) (For this question use annex 050-4333A)
temperature likely to be? Which of the following best describes Zone A?
A -15°C A Col
B -30°C B Ridge of high pressure
C -45°C C Depression
D -60°C D Trough of low pressure
452) What is the approximate composition of the dry air by 435) What are the differences between radiation fog and
volume in the troposphere ? advection fog ?
A 50 % oxygen, 40 % nitrogen, and the rest other gasses A Radiation fog forms only on the ground, advection fog only
on the sea.
B 21 % oxygen, 78 % nitrogen, and the rest other gasses
B Radiation fog forms due to night cooling and advection fog
due to daytime cooling.
C 10 % oxygen, 89 % nitrogen, and the rest other gasses
C Radiation fog is formed by surface cooling in a calm wind.
D 88 % oxygen, 9 % nitrogen, and the rest other gasses Advection fog is formed by evaporation over the sea.
D Radiation fog forms due to surface cooling at night in a light

wind. Advection fog forms when warm humid air flows over
a cold surface.
446) Precipitation in the form of showers occurs mainly from 441) The type of icing that occurs in dense clouds with large
supercooled drops that have a temperature of -5°C is
most likely to be
A cirro-type clouds
A rime ice
B clouds containing only ice crystals
B cloudy ice
C convective clouds
C clear ice
D stratified clouds
D hoar frost
445) You plan a flight over a mountain range at a true altitude

of 15000 FT/AMSL. The air is on an average 15°C colder 440) A super-cooled droplet is
than ISA, the pressure at sea level is 1003 hPa. What
indication must the altimeter (setting 1013.2 hPa) read?
A a water droplet that is mainly frozen
A 15690 FT.
B a small particle of water at a temperature below -50°C
B 14370 FT.
C a water droplet that has been frozen during its descent
C 13830 FT.
D a droplet still in liquid state at a temperature below freezing
D 16230 FT.
439) In which main direction does a polar front depression

444) In which of these temperature bands is ice most likely to move?
form on the aircraft's surface?
A Across the front towards the north
A +10°C to 0°C
B Across the front towards the south
B -20°C to -35°C
C Along the front towards the east
C -35°C to -50°C
D Along the front towards the west
D 0°C to -10°C
438) In order to reduce QFE to QNH, which of the following

443) The geostrophic wind is greater than the gradient wind item(s) must be known ?
around a low pressure system because the
A Temperature at the airfield
A coriolis force opposes to the centrifugal force
B Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at MSL
B centrifugal force opposes the pressure gradient
C Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at the airfield
C centrifugal force is added to the pressure gradient
D Elevation of the airfield
D coriolis force is added to the pressure gradient
437) You are flying at FL 160. Outside air temperature is -

442) The QFF at an airfield in California located 69 metres 27°C, and the pressure at sea level is 1003 hPa. What is
below sea level is 1030 hPa. The air temperature is 10°C the true altitude?
lower than a standard atmosphere. What is the QNH?
A 15630 feet
A 1030 hPa
B 16370 feet
C 16910 feet
C More than 1030 hPa
D 15090 feet
513) What are the characteristics of the Bora ? 585) If the pressure surfaces bulge upwards in all levels then
the pressure system is a
A It is a warm and moist, southwesterly wind experienced in A cold low

the eastern Mediterranean, that usually carries precipitation.
B It is a dry and hot southerly wind experienced in the Sahara B cold high
desert, that often carries dust.
C warm low
C It is a cold and very strong wind that blows mainly in winter
from a tableland downwards to the Adriatic D warm high
D It is a very cold wind that blows mainly in winter from a

northwesterly direction in the Mediterranean
The arrows labelled "r" represent the mean tracks of
tropical revolving storms which occur mainly from
449) What is the correct term for the descending air flow in a
large high pressure area?
A June to October and are called hurricanes
A Convection.
B December to April and are called cyclones
B Subsidence.
C December to April and are called tornadoes
C Convergence.
D June to October and are called typhoons
D Advection.
583) How do you recognize a cold air pool?

intertropical convergence zone is true? A A cold air pool may only be recognized on the surface chart
as a high pressure area.
A It does not change its position over the oceans during the
year B As a low pressure area aloft (e.g. on the 500 hPa chart).
B It is an area of low pressure and low relative humidity C As a high pressure area aloft (e.g. on the 500 hPa chart).
C There are frequent occurrences of CB D A cold air pool may only be recognized on the surface chart
as a low pressure area.
D It lies totally in the northern hemisphere in July and totally in
the southern hemisphere in January
582) Rising air cools because
587) The RVR, as reported in a METAR, is always the

A surrounding air is cooler at higher levels
A highest value of the A-, B- and C-position B it becomes more moist
B lowest value of the A-, B- and C-position C it contracts
C value representative of the touchdown zone D it expands
D average value of the A-, B- and C-position

581) What type of clouds, visible even at a long distance,
could indicate the presence of a tropical revolving
586) The diurnal variation in temperature is largest when the storm?
sky is
A Excessive accumulation of CU
A clear and winds are weak
B NS spread over a large area
B clear and winds are strong
C Dense CI
C overcast and winds are weak
D Frequent SC
D overcast and winds are strong
580) (For this question use annex 050-4363A) 590) In general, the meteorological visibility during rainfall
Which of the following weather conditions would be compared to during drizzle is
expected at Athens Airport (LGAT) at around 1450 UTC?
A greater
A 16002KT 0200 R33L/0600N FG VV001 12/12 Q1031
BECMG 0800 = B the same
B 26014KT 8000 BKN090 17/12 Q1009 BECMG 4000 =

C less
C 23018G35KT 9999 SCT035 10/04 Q0988 NOSIG =

D in rain - below 1 km, in drizzle - more than 2 km
D 21002KT 6000 BR SCT040 29/16 Q1026 NOSIG =
574) What positions are connected with contour lines on the

weather chart?
579) What is the technical term for an increase in temperature
with altitude? A Positions with the same air density.
A Advection
B Positions with the same wind velocity.
B Inversion
C Positions with the same height in a chart of constant
pressure.
C Subsidence
D Positions with the same thickness between two constant
D Adiabatic pressure levels.
578) What is the dry adiabatic lapse rate per 1000 FT ? 573) What feature is normally associated with the cumulus
stage of a thunderstorm?
A 1.5°C A Continuous updraft
B 3.5°C B Roll cloud
C 3.0°C. C Frequent lightning
D 2.0°C D Rain or hail at the surface
511) The dewpoint temperature 572) When, if at all, is a tropical revolving storm most likely
to affect Darwin, on the central north coast of Australia?
A can be reached by cooling the air whilst keeping pressure
A December to April
constant
B can be reached by lowering the pressure whilst keeping B May to July

temperature constant
C August to October
C can not be equal to the air temperature
D Not experienced at Darwin
D can not be lower than the air temperature
571) An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL 100, with a true

576) Between which latitudes are you most likely to find the altitude of 10000 feet; local QNH is 1003 hPa.
region of travelling low pressure systems ? What assumption, if any, can be made about the air
mass in which the aircraft is flying ?
A 25° - 35°
A It is warmer than ISA
B 10° - 15°
B Its average temperature is about ISA
C 55° - 75°
C It is colder than ISA
D 35° - 55°
D There is insufficient information to come to any conclusion
570) After landing at an aerodrome (aerodrome elevation 565) Which of the following weather reports could be, in
1715 FT), the altimeter indicates an altitude of 1310 FT. accordance with the regulations, abbreviated to
The altimeter is set to the pressure value of 1013 hPa. "CAVOK"? (MSA above ground: LSZB 10000 FT, LSZH
What is the QNH at this aerodrome? 8000 FT, LSGG 12000 FT, LFSB 6000 FT)
A 1028 hPa. A LSZH 26024G52KT 9999 BKN060 17/14 Q1012 RETS

TEMPO 5000 TSRA =
B 1015 hPa.
B LSZB 30004KT 9999 SCT090 10/09 Q1006 NOSIG =
C 1013 hPa.
C LFSB 00000KT 9000 SCT080 22/15 Q1022 NOSIG =
D 998 hPa.
D LSGG 22003KT 9999 SCT120 BKN280 09/08 Q1026
BECMG 5000 =
569) On the European continent METARs of main airports are

compiled and distributed with intervals of
577) A gustfront is
A 0.5 hour
A normally encountered directly below a thunderstorm
B 1 hour
B characterized by heavy lightning
C 2 hours
C another name for a cold front
D 3 hours
D formed by the cold air outflow from a thunderstorm
568) In an air mass with no clouds the surface temperature is

15°C and 13°C at 1000m. This layer of air is: 601) Refer to the following TAF extract:
BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500
A stable FG VV001
What does the "BECMG" data indicate for the 18 to 21
B unstable hour time frame?
C a layer of heavy turbulence A A quick change to new conditions between 1800 UTC and
1900 UTC.
D conditionally unstable B Many short term changes in the original weather.
C Many long term changes in the original weather.

567) Which is true of a secondary depression in the northern
hemisphere? D The new conditions are achieved between 1800 and 2100
UTC
A It rapidly closes on, and merges with the primary
B It tends to maintain its position relative to the primary 818) (For this question use annex 050-4380A)
If you are flying from Zurich to London at FL 220, what
C It tends to move round the primary in a cyclonic sense conditions can you expect at cruising altitude?
D It tends to move round the primary in an anticyclonic sense A Scattered thunderstorms
B Flight largely in cloud; no turbulence

Which one of the displayed cloud forms is C Prolonged severe turbulence and icing throughout the flight
representative of altocumulus castellanus?
D CAT for the first half of the flight
A 2.
B 4. 612) The diameter of a typical tornado is
C 3.
A only a few metres
D 1.
B about 2 to 6 km
C in the order of 10 km
D 100 to 150 metres
611) The dry adiabatic lapse rate has a value of 607) The QNH at an airfield in California located 69 metres
below sea level is 1018 hPa. The air temperature is 10°C
higher than a standard atmosphere. What is the QFF?
A 1°C/100m
A 1018 hPa
B 2°C/1000FT
C 0.65°C/100m
C More than 1018 hPa
D 0.5°C/100m
610) Atmospheric soundings give the following temperature

profile : 606) For the same pressure gradient at 60°N, 50°N and 40°N
3000 FT +15°C the speed of the geostrophic wind will be
6000 FT +8°C
10000 FT +1°C A least at 50°N
14000 FT -6°C
18000 FT -14°C
24000 FT -26°C B greatest at 40°N
At which of the following flight levels is the risk for
aircraft icing, in cloud, greatest? C the same at all latitudes
A FL 80 D greatest at 60°N
B FL 180
605) On which of the following aviation weather charts can a
C FL 220 pilot most easily find a jetstream?
D FL 150 A Wind / temperature chart.
B Surface chart.
609) A blocking anticyclone on the northern hemisphere is
C Upper air chart.
A a warm anticyclone/quasi stationary/situated between 50°N D Significant weather chart.

and 70°N
B quasi stationary/situated between 50°N and 70°N/a cold

anticyclone 604) A plain in Western Europe with an average height of 500
m (1600 FT) above sea level is covered with a uniform
C situated between 50° and 70°N/a cold anticyclone/steering SC layer of cloud during the summer months. At what
depressions height above the ground is the base of this cloud to be
expected?
D a cold anticyclone/steering depressions/situated over
Scandinavia A 100 - 1500 FT above ground
B 7000 - 15000 FT above ground

608) Which cloud type may indicate the presence of severe
turbulence ? C 15000 - 25000 FT above ground
A Cirrocumulus D 1500 - 7000 FT above ground
B Nimbostratus
588) An aircraft is flying through the Alps on a very cold

C Altocumulus lenticularis
winter's day. The regional QNH is 1013 hPa. During the
flight, you circle around a mountain at an altitude of its
D Stratocumulus summit. What reading will the aneroid altimeter give,
compared to the elevation of the summit?
A There is insufficient information to come to a conclusion
B A higher altitude than the elevation of the summit
C A lower altitude than the elevation of the summit
D The same altitude as the elevation of the summit
602) You are flying with an outside air temperature of -12°C 597) Cumulus clouds are an indication for
and a TAS of 250 kt at FL 150 through 8 oktas NS. What
type and degree of icing is most probable?
A up and downdrafts
A In clouds pushed up against the mountains, moderate to
severe mixed ice. B stability
B In clouds pushed up against the mountains, moderate to C the approach of a cold front
severe rime ice.
D the approach of a warm front
C Over flat terrain, away from fronts, moderate to severe mixed
ice.
D Over flat terrain, moderate hoar frost. 596) An isohypse (contour)
A indicates the altitude of the zero degree isotherm

589) The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence
that B indicates the true altitude of a pressure level
A freezing rain occurs at a higher altitude
C is the longest slope line of a frontal surface
B a cold front has passed
D is the limit between two air masses of different temperature
C there are thunderstorms in the area
D a warm front has passed 595) What is encountered during the summer, over land, in
the centre of a cold air pool?
A Nothing (CAVOK).
600) In the TAF for Dehli, during the summer, for the time of
your landing you note: TEMPO TS. What is the B Showers and thunderstorms.
maximum time this deterioration in weather can last in
anyone instance ?
C Strong westerly winds.
A 60 minutes.
D Fine weather CU.
B 120 minutes.
C 10 minutes. 594) The decrease in temperature, per 100 metres, in an

unsaturated rising parcel of air is
D 20 minutes.
A 2°C
B 0.65°C
599) A Foehn wind occurs on the
C 0.5°C
A windward side of a mountain range and is caused by
surface heating D 1°C
B windward side of a mountain range and is caused by

surface cooling and reverse air flow
593) If you have to fly through a warm front when freezing
C leeward side of a mountain range and is caused by the level is at 10000 feet in the warm air and at 2000 feet in
condensation level being lower on the leeward side than on the cold air, at which altitude is the probability of
the windward side freezing rain the lowest ?
D leeward side of a mountain range and is caused by A 5000 feet

significant moisture loss by precipitation from cloud
B 3000 feet
598) Which of the following statements is true ? C 12000 feet
A QNH can be equal to QFE

D 9000 feet
B QNH is always lower than QFE
C QNH is always higher than QFE
D QNH is always equal to QFE
592) Between which latitudes are you most likely to find the 564) When planning a flight at FL 110, which upper wind and
subtropical high-pressure belt ? temperature chart would be nearest your flight level ?
A 35° - 55°. A 700 hPa
B 55° - 75°. B 850 hPa
C 25° - 35°. C 300 hPa
D 10° - 15°. D 500 hPa
591) The degree of clear air turbulence experiencied by an 535) The greater the pressure gradient the
aircraft is proportional to the
A intensity of the solar radiation A closer the isobars and the lower the temperatures
B intensity of vertical and horizontal windshear B further the isobars will be apart and the higher the
temperature
C height of the aircraft
C closer the isobars and the stronger the wind
D stability of the air D further the isobars will be apart and the weaker the wind
562) You are flying at FL 200. Outside air temperature is - 534) What is the surface visibility most likely to be, in a warm
40°C, and the pressure at sea level is 1033 hPa. What is sector of tropical maritime air, during the summer?
the true altitude?
A Very good (greater than 50 km).
A 21740 feet
B Moderate (several km).
B 18260 feet
C Very poor (less than 1 km).

C 19340 feet
D Good (greater than 10 km).
D 20660 feet
533) Freezing fog consists of

603) Which type of fog is likely to form when air having
temperature of 15°C and dew point of 12°C blows at 10
knots over a sea surface having temperatures of 5°C ? A frozen minute snow flakes
A Steam fog B ice crystals
B Frontal fog C supercooled water droplets
C Advection fog D frozen water droplets
D Radiation fog
At which airport, is the following weather development
524) Refer to the following TAF extract: taking place?
BECMG 1821 2000 BKN004 PROB30 BECMG 2124 0500 TAF 060716 25006KT 8000 BKN240 BECMG 0710
FG VV001 OVC200 BECMG 1013 23010KT 8000 OVC100 BECMG
What does the abbreviation "VV001" mean? 1316 23014KT 6000 RA SCT030 OVC050 =
A Vertical visibility 100 m. A LFPO
B Vertical visibility 100 FT. B LOWW
C RVR less than 100 m. C LEMD
D RVR greater than 100 m. D EDDL
531) The temperature at FL 140 is -12°C. What will the 537) On a clear sky, continental ground surface, wind calm,
temperature be at FL 110 if the ICAO standard lapse rate the minimum temperature is reached approximately
is applied ?
A one hour before sunrise
A -15°C.
B half an hour after sunrise
B -6°C.
C half an hour before sunrise
C -18°C.
D at the moment the sun rises
D -9°C.
525) If Paris reports a wind of 16020KT on the METAR, what

530) An aircraft is approaching a cold front from the warm air wind velocity would you expect to encounter at a height
mass side at FL 270 and experiencing moderate to of 2000 feet above the ground?
severe turbulence. A jet stream is forecast to be at FL
310. The shortest way to get out of this turbulence is by : A 16030KT
A Descending B 14020KT
B Climbing C 17015KT
C Turn right D 19040KT
D Maintain FL 270
538) You are flying at FL 130, and your true altitude is 12000
FT. What is the temperature deviation from that of the
529) (For this question use annex 050-10799A) standard atmosphere at FL 130 (QNH 1013,2 hPa) ?
What weather conditions are most likely to affect an
approach to Dakar during July? A ISA -20°C
A Reduced visibility due to the rising sand of the Harmattan B ISA +/-0°C
B Wet and thundery due to the proximity of intertropical C ISA +20°C

convergence zone (ITCZ)
D ISA +12°C
C Dry and clear due to the influence of the Azores high
pressure system
D Generally clear skies - NW trade winds 523) (For this question use annex 050-4391A)
Which typical weather condition is shown by the design
for the area of Central Europe ?
528) Which of the following is most likely to lead to the
formation of radiation fog? A Easterly waves
A Cold air passing over warm ground B Westerly waves
B Heat loss from the ground on clear nights C Uniform pressure pattern
C Dry, warm air passing over warm ground D Cutting wind
D The passage of fronts

522) Where is the most dangerous zone in a tropical
revolving storm?
The weather most likely to be experienced at position A In the wall of clouds around the eye.
"R" is
B Anywhere in the eye.
A increasing high and medium cloud cover and generally good
visibility C In the centre of the eye.
B mainly overcast with anticyclonic gloom D About 600 km away from the eye.
C fine and warm with little or no cloud
D early morning fog lifting to low stratus
521) At which pressure and temperature conditions may you 517) At the approach of a warm front (northern hemisphere)
safely assume that the minimum usable flight level at the wind direction changes from the surface up to the
least lies at the same height, as the minimum safe tropopause. The effect of this change is that the wind
altitude?
A backs in the friction layer and and backs above the friction
A In a warm high pressure region layer
B At a temperature greater than or equal to that of the ISA and B veers in the friction layer and veers above the friction layer
where the QNH is greater than or equal to 1013 hPa
C backs in the friction layer and veers above the friction layer
C In a cold low pressure region
D veers in the friction layer and backs above the friction layer
D At a temperature less than or equal to that of the ISA and
where the QNH is less than 1013 hPa
516) While approaching your target aerodrome you receive
the following message:
520) Which one of the following statements regarding the RVR runway 23: 400m
intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ) is correct? This information indicates the
A The ITCZ is always associated with a strong jet stream. A length of runway which a pilot in an aircraft on the ground
would see, on the threshold of runway 23.
B The ITCZ does not change its position during the course of
the year. B meteorological visibility on runway 23.
C Frequent and widespread thunderstorms are to be expected C portion of runway which a pilot on the threshold of any of the
within the area of the ITCZ. runways would see, with runway 23 in service.
D Thunderstorms seldom occur within the area of the ITCZ. D minimum visibility at this aerodrome, with runway 23 being
the one in service.

Flight Shannon to London. What amount and type of 515) In order to calculate QFE from QNH, which of the
cloud is forecast for the eastern sector of the route following must be known ?
between Shannon and London at FL 220 ?
A Elevation and the temperature at the airfield.
A Well separated cumulonimbus
B Elevation of the airfield.
B Overcast nimbo layered cumulonimbus
C Temperature at the airfield.
C Scattered towering cumulus
D Elevation of the airfield and the temperature at MSL.
D Scattered castellanus

518) (For this question use annex 050-2061A) Select from the map the average wind for the route
Which cross-section of air mass and cloud presentation Zurich - Rome at FL110.
is applicable to the straight line A-B?
A 040/10
A 4
B 250/20
B 3
C 230/10
C 1
D 200/30
D 2
614) Which of the following describes a warm occlusion?
A The warmer air mass is ahead of the original warm front
B The coldest air mass is ahead of the original warm front
C The air mass behind the front is more unstable than the air
mass ahead of the front
D The air mass ahead of the front is drier than the air mass
behind the front
526) The Chinook is a 559) What type of fog is most likely to form over flat land
during a clear night, with calm or light wind conditions ?
A warm anabatic wind up the slopes of snowfields or glaciers A Orographic.
B warm and dry wind that forms as air descends on the B Radiation.
leeward side of the Rocky Mountains
C very cold wind with blowing snow C Advection.
D downslope wind that occurs particularly at night as air cools D Steam.

along mountain slopes
558) Which of the following statements is an interpretation of

550) Before landing, an altimeter set to QFE indicates the METAR ?
25020G38KT 1200 +TSGR BKN006 BKN015CB 23/18
Q1016 BECMG NSW =
A in standard atmosphere, the height of the aircraft above the
official airport elevation. A Mean wind speed 20-38 knots, meteorological visibility 1200
metres, temperature 23°C
B the flight level.
B Broken, cloudbase 600 feet and 1500 feet, temperature 18°C
C the aircraft's altitude above the mean sea level.
C Wind 250°, thunderstorm with moderate hail, QNH 1016 hPa
D the height of the aircraft's wheels above the runway.
D Gusts of 38 knots, thunderstorm with heavy hail, dew point
18°C
512) What is the approximate vertical interval which is equal
to a pressure change of 1 hPa at an altitude of 5500 m ?
557) With an intense trough of low pressure over Iceland
A 8 m (27 FT). during wintertime the weather likely to be experienced is
:
B 32 m (105 FT).
A strong wind shear, convection and snow showers
C 64 m (210 FT).
B light wind, good visibility and a high cloud ceiling
D 15 m (50 FT).
C strong wind with subsidence at low levels
D strong wind associated with an almost clear sky

561) Where is a squall line to be expected?
A In front of a cold front occlusion at higher levels. 556) Which one of the following statements is correct
concerning the movement of the ITCZ in the region of
B At the surface position of a warm front. West Africa?
C In front of an active cold front. A It oscillates during the year between the Equator and 10
degrees North.
D Behind a cold front.
B It reaches its maximum northerly position of 15° - 20° N in
July
560) If the QFE at Locarno (200 metres above sea level) is 980 C It reaches its maximum southerly position of 5° S in January
hPa, what is the approximate QNH ?
D It oscillates during the year between 10 degrees North and
A 1015 hPa 10 degrees South.
B 1010 hPa
555) What is the approximate speed of a 25-knot wind,
C 1005 hPa expressed in kilometres per hour?
D 1000 hPa A 45 km/h
B 35 km/h
C 55 km/h
D 60 km/h
554) An aircraft is approaching under visual flight rules an 549) (For this question use annex 050-2555A)
airfield whose runway is parallel to the coast. When Over Amsterdam, what amount and general type of
downwind over the sea, the airfield is on the left. What cloud would you expect at FL 160 ?
wind effect should be anticipated on final approach and
landing during a sunny afternoon ? A 4 oktas broken cumulus
A Crosswind from the right B Isolated cumulonimbus only
B Tailwind C 5 to 7 oktas towering cumuliform cloud and with moderate

turbulence
C Headwind
D Mainly 5 to 8 oktas of stratiform cloud in layers
D Crosswind from the left
548) The prevailing surface wind in the area of the west coast
553) Which of the following is a common cause of ground or of Africa north of the equator (gulf of Guinea) is a
surface temperature inversion ?
A NE tradewind in summer and SE tradewind in winter
A Terrestrial radiation on a clear night with no or very light
winds. B NE monsoon in winter and SE tradewind in summer
B Warm air being lifted rapidly aloft, in the vicinity of C SW monsoon in summer and NE tradewind in winter
mountainous terrain.
D SW monsoon in winter and NE monsoon in summer
C The movement of colder air under warm air, or the
movement of warm air over cold air.
D Heating of the air by subsidence 547) An aircraft over Western Europe is crossing a jet stream
2500 FT below its core at right angles. While crossing,
the outside temperature is increasing. The prevailing
wind is
536) On an aerodrome, when a warm front is approaching
A from the left.
A QFE increases and QNH decreases.
B tailwind.
B QFE decreases and QNH increases.
C headwind.
C QFE and QNH decrease.
D from the right
D QFE and QNH increase.
546) You are planning to fly across a mountain range. The

551) Where are you likely to find the strongest winds close to chart recommends a minimum altitude of 12000 feet
the ground? above mean sea level. The air mass you will be flying
through is an average 10°C warmer than ISA. Your
A Where there is little variation in pressure over a large area altimeter is set to 1023 hPa (QNH of a nearby airport at
during the winter months nearly sea level). What altitude will the altimeter show
when you have reached the recommended minimum
B In the transition zone between two air masses altitude?
C At the centre of a low-pressure system A 11520 feet
D At the centre of a high-pressure system B 12210 feet
C 11250 feet
563) An inversion is a layer of air which is

D 11790 feet
A conditionally unstable
B conditionally stable
C absolutely stable
D absolutely unstable
545) The following weather report 540) Which of the following is the definition of relative
EDDM 241322 VRB03KT 1500 HZ OVC004 BECMG 1517 humidity ?
00000KT 0500 FG VV002 TEMPO 2022 0400 FG VV001
is a : A Ratio between water vapour pressure and atmospheric
pressure X 100
A 24 hour TAF.
B Ratio between water vapour (g) and air (kg) X 100
B SPECI.
C Ratio between the actual mixing ratio and the saturation
C METAR. mixing ratio X 100
D 9 hour TAF.
D Ratio between air temperature and dewpoint temperature X
100
544) During a cross-country flight at FL 50, you observe the 539) (For this question use annex 050-4249A)
following sequence of clouds: An aircraft is flying from Point A to Point B on the upper
Nimbostratus, Altostratus, Cirrostratus, Cirrus. level contour chart. The altimeter setting is 1013,2 hPa.
Which of the following are you most likely to encounter ? Which of these statements is correct?
A Strong, gusty winds. A Wind speed at B is higher than at A
B A strong downdraught. B The true altitude will be higher at B than at A
C Increasing temperatures. C The true altitude will be higher at A than at B
D Decreasing temperatures. D Wind speed at A and at B is the same
543) The radiation of the sun heats 552) At which altitude, at temperate latitudes, may hail be
expected in connection with a CB?
A the air in the troposphere only directly if no clouds are
present A From the base of the clouds up to FL 200.
B the surface of the earth, which heats the air in the B From the ground up to a maximum of FL 450.
troposphere
C From the ground up to about FL 200.
C the air in the troposphere directly
D From the ground up to about FL 100.
D the water vapour in the air of the troposphere
542) If CAVOK is reported then
A low level windshear has not been reported
B any CB's have a base above 5000 FT
C no low drifting snow is present
D no clouds are present
541) Divergence in the upper air results, near the surface, in
A falling pressure and likely dissipation of clouds
B falling pressure and likely formation of clouds
C rising pressure and likely formation of clouds
D rising pressure and likely dissipation of clouds
Professione Volare Domande Radio Nav Final C
Data:
Nome Allievo:
104) What airborne equipment, if any, is required to be fitted 100) In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS), a
in order that a VDF let-down may be flown? fix is obtained by:
A VOR/DME A the aircraft's receiver measuring the phase angle of signals

received from a number of satellites in known positions
B VHF radio
B measuring the time taken for an aircraft's transmissions to
travel to a number of satellites, in known positions, and
C VOR
return to the aircraft's receiver
D none C measuring the pulse lengths of signals received from a
minimum number of satellites received in a specific
sequential order
96) An airway 10 NM wide is to be defined by two VORs
each having a resultant bearing accuracy of plus or D measuring the time taken for a minimum number of
minus 5.5°. satellites' transmissions, in known positions, to reach the
In order to ensure accurate track guidance within the aircraft's receiver
airway limits the maximum distance apart for the
transmitter is approximately:
A 50 NM What is the manually selected heading?
B 165 NM A 260°(M)
C 210 NM B 272°(M)
D 105 NM C 280°(M)
D 300°(M)
97) The database of an FMS (Flight Management System) is
organised in such a way that the pilot can:
A read and write at any time in database Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight
Instrument System (EFIS) display in PLAN mode?
B insert navigation data between two updates
A Figure 4
C only read the database
B Figure 6
D can modify the database every 28 days
C Figure 2
D Figure 3
98) The selection of code 7500 on an aircraft SSR
transponder indicates:
A radio communication failure 103) The advantage of the use of slotted antennas in modern
radar technology is to:
B unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight
A simultaneously transmit weather and mapping beams
C an emergency
B have a wide beam and as a consequence better target
detection
D transponder malfunction
C eliminate the need for azimuth slaving
99) In a primary radar using pulse technique, pulse D virtually eliminate lateral lobes and as a consequence
recurrence frequency (PRF)/pulse recurrence rate (PRR) concentrate more energy in the main beam
determines:
A minimum range 93) In order to enter a waypoint that is designated by a VOR

into an RNAV, the VOR:
B beam width
A must be in range
C maximum theoretical range
B has to be positively identified by one of the pilots
D target discrimination
C does not have to be in range when entered but must be
when used
D does not have to be in range when entered or used
105) Radar returns, on a B737-400, can be displayed on all 109) What is the minimum number of satellites required for a
Electronic Horizontal Situation Indicator (EHSI) screen Satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS) to
modes of an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) carry out two dimensional operation?
WITH THE EXCEPTION OF:
A 4
A FULL VOR/ILS, EXP VOR/ILS and PLAN
B 5
B FULL NAV, FULL VOR/ILS and PLAN
C 2
C EXP VOR/ ILS, PLAN and MAP
D 3
D FULL NAV, PLAN and MAP
110) Which of the following will give the most accurate

106) What is the deviation per dot on the HSI when using an calculation of aircraft ground speed?
2-dot RNAV system in the approach mode?
A A DME station sited on the flight route
A 10°
B An ADF sited on the flight route
B 0.5 NM
C A VOR station sited on the flight route
C 10 NM
D A DME station sited across the flight route
D 0.5°
1) In which of the following cases would ETOs and ETA at

107) Under JAR-25 colour code rules, features displayed in destination calculated by the Flight Management
green on an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS), Computer (FMC) be correct?
indicate:
A When the actual winds match the forecast winds, and the
A engaged modes actual cruising Mach number is equal to the FMC calculated
Mach number
B cautions, abnormal sources
B When the FMC computes each ETO and ETA using the
correct GS
C the earth
C When the FMC positions and GS are accurate
D the ILS deviation pointer
D When the ETOs and ETA are based on the forecast winds
calculated from the actual take-off time
108) Which of the following statements is correct concerning
the principle behind the correction of one of the
NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system errors by the 102) When Mode C is selected on the aircraft SSR
transmission of the signals on two frequencies (L1 and transponder the additional information transmitted is:
L2)?
A altitude based on regional QNH
A The effect of receiver noise can be reduced due to the
interference of both frequencies
B aircraft height based on sub-scale setting
B The effect of signal reflections (multipath effect) can be
reduced due to the interference of both frequencies C height based on QFE
C The influence of shadowing on the GPS signals is D flight level based on 1013.25 hPa
proportional to the inverse of the carrier frequency squared
D The path delay of the signals in the earth atmosphere is

proportional to the inverse of the carrier frequency squared 86) ILS is subject to false glide paths resulting from:
A spurious signals reflected by nearby obstacles
B back-scattering of antennas
C ground returns ahead of the antennas
D multiple lobes of radiation patterns in the vertical plane
77) The prime factor in determining the maximum 82) In relation to the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation
unambiguous range of a primary radar is the: system, what is involved in the differential technique (D-
GPS)?
A size of parabolic receiver aerial
A Fixed ground stations compute position errors and transmit
B height of the transmitter above the ground correction data to a suitable receiver on the aircraft
B The difference between signals transmitted on the L1 and

C pulse recurrence rate
L2 frequencies are processed by the receiver to determine
an error correction
D power output
C Receivers from various manufacturers are operated in
parallel to reduce the characteristical receiver noise error
78) An NDB transmits a signal pattern in the horizontal
plane which is : D Signals from satellites are received by 2 different antennas
which are located a fixed distance apart. This enables a
suitable receiver on the aircraft to recognise and correct for
A omnidirectional
multipath errors
B bi-lobal circular
83) In relation to Area Navigation Systems (RNAV), which of

C a cardioid balanced at 30 Hz
the following is an Air Data input?
D a beam rotating at 30 Hz A True airspeed
B Inertial Navigation System (INS) position

79) Which of the following radar equipments operate by
means of the pulse technique? C VOR/DME radial/distance
1. Aerodrome Surface Movement Radar
2. Airborne Weather Radar D Doppler drift
3. Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)
4. Aerodrome Surveillance (approach) Radar
A 2, 3 and 4 only 95) The ATC transponder system,excluding Mode S,

contains :
B 2 and 4 only
A two modes, each of 4096 codes
C 1, 2, 3 and 4
B four modes, each 1024 codes
D 1, 2 and 4 only
C four modes, each 4096 codes
D two modes, each 1024 codes

80) The ISO-ECHO facility of an airborne weather radar is
provided in order to:
A detect areas of possible severe turbulence in cloud 85) Which combination of characteristics gives best screen
picture in a primary search radar?
B give an indication of cloud tops
A long pulse length and wide beam
C inhibit unwanted ground returns
B long pulse length and narrow beam
D extend the mapping range
C short pulse length and wide beam
D short pulse length and narrow beam

81) In which frequency bands are the L1 and L2 frequencies
used by the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS
for transmission of the navigation message?
A SHF
B UHF
C VHF
D EHF
94) Given: Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) for a VOR is 90) In relation to the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation
selected to 090°. system, 'Search the Sky' is a:
From/To indicator indicates "TO".
CDI needle is deflected halfway to the right. A continuous process by the ground segment to monitor the
On what radial is the aircraft? GPS satellites
A 095 B procedure performed by the receiver to recognise new

satellites becoming operational
B 275
C continuous procedure performed by the receiver that
searches the sky for satellites rising above the horizon
C 085
D procedure that starts after switching on a receiver if there is
D 265 no stored satellite data available
87) In relation to the satellite navigation system 91) The VOR system is limited to about 1° of accuracy. One
NAVSTAR/GPS, degree at 200 NM represents a width of:
the term 'inclination' denotes the angle between the:
A 2.5 NM
A horizontal plane at the location of the receiver and the direct
line to a satellite B 3.0 NM
B orbital plane and the earth's axis

C 3.5 NM
C horizontal plane at the location of the receiver and the orbital

D 2.0 NM
plane of a satellite
D orbital plane and the equatorial plane

92) Which of the following lists all the parameters that can
be determined by a GPS receiver tracking signals from 4
different satellites?
The diagram indicates that the aircraft is to the:
A Latitude, longitude and altitude
A right of the localizer and below the glidepath
B Latitude, longitude, altitude and time
B right of the localizer and above the glidepath
C Latitude and longitude
C left of the localizer and below the glidepath
D Latitude, longitude and time
D left of the localizer and above the glidepath
113) Which of the following combinations of satellite

navigation systems provide the most accurate position
89) Which of the following is the datum for altitude
fixes in air navigation?
information when conducting flights under IFR
conditions on airways using the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite
navigation system?
A NNSS-Transit and GLONASS
A The average of GPS altitude and barometric altitude B GLONASS and COSPAS-SARSAT
B GPS altitude C NAVSTAR/GPS and GLONASS
C GPS altitude if 4 or more satellites are received otherwise D NAVSTAR/GPS and NNSS-Transit
barometric altitude
D Barometric altitude
84) Which of the following statements concerning the 135) Assuming a five dot display, what does each of the dots
variable, or directional, signal of a conventional VOR is on either side of the ILS localizer cockpit display
correct? represent :
A The receiver adds 30 Hz to the variable signal before A 1.5 degrees

combining it with the reference signal
B 2.5 degrees
B The rotation of the variable signal at a rate of 30 times per
second gives it the characteristics of a 30 Hz amplitude
modulation C 2.0 degrees
C The transmitter varies the amplitude of the variable signal by D 0.5 degrees
30 Hz each time it rotates
D The transmitter changes the frequency of the variable signal

136) The heading rose of an HSI is frozen on 200°.
by 30 Hz either side of the allocated frequency each time it Lined up on the ILS of runway 25, the localizer needle
rotates will be:
A centred
141) Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight
Instrument Systems (EFIS), a selected heading is B left of centre
coloured:
A green
C right of centre
B white
D centred with the 'fail' flag showing
C yellow
137) A DME in tracking mode subsequently experiences a
D magenta reduction in signal strength will switch the equipment in
the first instance to:
A standby mode
133) Under JAR-25 colour code rules, features displayed in
amber/yellow on an Electronic Flight Instrument System B signal controlled search
(EFIS), indicate:
A engaged modes
C memory mode
B cautions, abnormal sources

D search mode
C flight envelope and system limits

138) An RMI indicates aircraft heading. To convert the RMI
D warnings bearings of NDBs and VORs to true bearings the correct
combination for the application of magnetic variation is:
A NDB: beacon position

134) An aircraft at 6400 FT will be able to receive a VOR VOR: beacon position
groundstation at 100 FT above MSL at an approximate
maximum range of : B NDB: beacon position
VOR: aircraft position
A 110 NM
C NDB: aircraft position
B 90 NM VOR: aircraft position
D NDB: aircraft position

C 100 NM
VOR: beacon position
D 120 NM
111) Which one of the following disturbances is most likely
to cause the greatest inaccuracy in ADF bearings?
A Coastal effect
B Quadrantal error
C Precipitation interference
D Local thunderstorm activity
140) What is the maximum number of usable Secondary 145) In an Airborne Weather Radar that has a colour cathode
Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder codes? ray tube (CRT) increasing severity of rain and
turbulence is generally shown by a change of colour
A 760 from:
B 4096 A green to red to black
C 3600 B yellow to orange to red
D 1000 C green to yellow to red
D yellow to amber to blue

130) DME channels utilise frequencies of approximately:
146) How does a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system

A 1000 MHz receiver recognise which of the received signals
belongs to which satellite?
B 300 MHz
A The Doppler shift is unique to each satellite
C 110 MHz
B The receiver detects the direction from which the signals are
D 600 MHz received and compares this information with the calculated
positions of the satellites
C Each satellite transmits its signal on a separate frequency

142) The aircraft DME receiver is able to accept replies to its
own transmissions and reject replies to other aircraft
interrogations because:
D Each satellite transmits its signal, on common frequencies,
with an individual Pseudo Random Noise code
A transmission frequencies are 63 MHz different for each
aircraft
147) An RMI slaved to a remote indicating compass has
B pulse pairs are discreet to a particular aircraft gone unserviceable and is locked on to a reading of
090°. The tail of the VOR pointer shows 135°. The
available information from the VOR is:
C pulse pairs are amplitude modulated with the aircraft
registration
A Radial 315°, relative bearing unknown
D aircraft interrogation signals and transponder responses are
63 MHz removed from each other B Radial 135°, relative bearing unknown
C Radial unknown, relative bearing 225°

143) What approximate rate of descent is required in order to
maintain a 3° glide path at a groundspeed of 120 kt? D Radial unknown, relative bearing 045°
A 950 FT/MIN
B 600 FT/MIN Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight
Instrument System (EFIS) display in Expanded (EXP)
C 550 FT/MIN VOR/ILS mode with a VOR frequency selected?
D 800 FT/MIN A Figure 2
B Figure 3
144) The reason why pre take-off holding areas are
sometimes further from the active runway when ILS C Figure 4
Category 2 and 3 landing procedures are in progress
than during good weather operations is: D Figure 1
A aircraft manoeuvring near the runway may disturb guidance

signals
B heavy precipitation may disturb guidance signals
C to increase distance from the runway during offset approach

operations
D to increase aircraft separation in very reduced visibility

conditions
139) In order to indicate unlawful interference with the 116) Ignoring pulse length, the maximum pulse repetition
planned operation of the flight, the aircraft Secondary frequency
Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder should be (PRF) that can be used by a primary radar facility to
selected to: detect targets
unambiguously to a range of 200 NM is:
A 7000 (pps = pulses per second)
B 7500 A 375 pps
C 7600 B 405 pps
D 7700 C 782 pps
D 308 pps
123) In Airborne Weather Radar (AWR), the main factors
which determine whether a cloud will be detected are:
117) An aircraft at FL 100 should be able to receive a VOR
A range from cloud; groundstation at 100 FT above MSL at an approximate
wavelength/frequency used maximum range of :
B size of the water drops; A 130 NM

diameter of radar scanner
B 142 NM
C rotational speed of radar scanner;
range from cloud
C 135 NM
D size of the water drops;
wavelength/frequency used D 123 NM
114) Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight 118) In relation to the satellite navigation system
Instrument Systems (EFIS), increasing intensity of NAVSTAR/GPS, which of the following statements
precipititation are coloured in the order: correctly describes the term 'Pseudo Random Noise
(PRN)' signal?
A green, amber/yellow, red, magenta
A PRN is the atmospheric jamming that affects the signals
B green, red, magenta, black transmitted by the satellites
C black, amber/yellow, magenta, red

B PRN describes the continuous electro-magnetical
background noise that exists in space
D amber/yellow, magenta, black C PRN occurs in the receiver. It is caused by the signal from
one satellite being received from different directions
(multipath effect)
115) Outer marker transmits on 75 MHz and has an aural
frequency of: D PRN is a code used for the identification of the satellites
and the measurement of the time taken by the signal to
reach the receiver
A 1300 Hz
B 2000 Hz
119) Which one of the following errors can be compensated
for by a NAVSTAR/GPS receiver comparing L1 and L2
C 3000 Hz
frequencies?
D 400 Hz A Multipath
B Tropospheric
C Receiver noise
D Ionospheric
120) What is the approximate angular coverage of reliable 124) Assuming sufficient transmission power, the maximum
navigation information for a 3° ILS glide path out to a range of a ground radar with a pulse repetition
distance of 10 NM? frequency of 450 pulses per second is: (Given: velocity
of light is 300 000 km/second)
A 3° above and below the glide path and 10° each side of the
localiser centreline A 666 km
B 1.35° above the horizontal to 5.25° above the horizontal and B 1333 km
8° each side of the localiser centreline
C 0.45° above the horizontal to 1.75° above the glide path and C 150 km
8° each side of the localiser centreline
D 333 km
D 0.7° above and below the glide path and 2.5° each side of
the localiser centreline
125) What is the minimum number of satellites required by a
GPS in order to obtain a three dimensional fix?
132) An aircraft is on radial 120 with a magnetic heading of
300°, the track selector (OBS) reads : 330. The A 3
indications on the Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) are
'fly': B 5
A left with 'TO' showing

C 6
B right with 'TO' showing

D 4
C right with 'FROM' showing
D left with 'FROM' showing 126) Which of the following NAVSTAR/GPS satellite
navigation system codes can be processed by
'unauthorised' civil aviation receivers?
122) (For this question use annex 062-9918A) A P

What is the value of the selected course?
B C/A- and P
A 280°(M)
C P and Y
B 299°(M)
D C/A
C 272°(M)
D 260°(M)
127) GPS satellites transmit on two L-band frequencies with
different types of signals.
Which of these are generally available for use by civil
131) (For this question use annex 062-9912A) aviation?
Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight
Instrument System (EFIS) display in Expanded (EXP) A L1-precise (P)
VOR/ILS mode with an VOR frequency selected?
B L2-for communications purpose
A Figure 5
C L1-coarse acquisition (C/A) with selected availability (S/A)
B Figure 6
D L2-coarse acquisition (C/A)
C Figure 1
D Figure 4
128) The basic elements of the satellite navigation system
NAVSTAR/GPS are the:
A control, space and user segments
B main control station, the monitoring station and the ground

antennas
C antenna, the receiver and the central control unit (CDU)
D atomic clock, power supply and transponder
129) The outer marker of an ILS with a 3° glide slope is 22) Which of the following, if any, is a prerequisite if a
located 4.6 NM from the threshold. Assuming a glide receiver of a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system
slope height of 50 FT above the threshold, the is to be used in combination with a multi sensor system?
approximate height of an aircraft passing the outer
marker is: A The prescribed IFR-equipment must be installed and
operational
A 1300 FT
B The prescribed IFR-equipment must be in working correctly
B 1450 FT and the navigation information continuously displayed
C 1400 FT C The RAIM-function of the GPS receiver must be able to

monitor all prescribed navigation systems
D 1350 FT D Multi-sensor systems are not certificated for flights under

IFR conditions
74) The DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) operates

within the following frequencies: 23) In which situation will speed indications on an airborne
Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) most closely
A 962 to 1213 kHz. represent the groundspeed of an aircraft flying at FL400?
B 962 to 1213 MHz A When tracking directly away from the station at a range of
10 NM
C 108 to 118 MHz
B When tracking directly towards the station at a range of 100
NM or more
D 329 to 335 MHz
C When passing abeam the station and within 5 NM of it
121) (For this question use annex 062-9917A) D When overhead the station, with no change of heading at
What wind velocity is indicated? transit
A 255°(M)/20KT
B 285°(M)/20KT What is the instantaneous aircraft track?
C 105°(M)/20KT A 272°(M)
D 030°(M)/20KT B 300°(M)
C 260°(M)
29) Which of the following is an ILS localiser frequency?
D 280°(M)
A 109.15 MHz
25) In civil aviation, the height value computed by the
B 108.25 MHz receiver of the satellite navigation system
NAVSTAR/GPS is the:
C 110.20 MHz
A height above the WGS-84 ellipsoid
D 112.10 MHz
B geometric height above ground
21) An aircraft is 100 NM from a VOR facility. Assuming no C height above Mean Sea Level (MSL)
error when using a deviation indicator where 1 dot = 2°
deviation, how many dots deviation from the centre line D flight level
of the instrument will represent the limits of the airway
boundary? (Assume that the airway is 10 NM wide)
26) Every 10 kt decrease in groundspeed, on a 3° ILS
A 6.0
glidepath, will require an approximate:
B 1.5 A increase in the aircraft's rate of descent of 50 FT/MIN
C 3.0 B decrease in the aircraft's rate of descent of 100 FT/MIN
D 4.5 C increase in the aircraft's rate of descent of 100 FT/MIN
D decrease in the aircraft's rate of descent of 50 FT/MIN
76) The MIDDLE MARKER of an Instrument Landing System 32) The principle used in VOR bearing measurement is:
(ILS) facility is identified audibly and visually by a series
of:
A phase comparison
A dots and a white light flashing
B envelope matching
B dashes and an amber light flashing
C beat frequency discrimination
C alternate dots and dashes and an amber light flashing
D difference in depth of modulation
D two dashes per second and a blue light flashing
33) Due to 'Doppler' effect an apparent decrease in the

28) Which of the following Secondary Surveillance Radar transmitted frequency, which is proportional to the
(SSR) codes is used to indicate transponder transmitter's velocity, will occur when:
malfunction?
A the transmitter moves away from the reciever
A 4096
B the transmitter and receiver move towards each other
B 9999
C the transmitter moves toward the reciever
C 0000
D both transmitter and receiver move away from each other
D 7600
34) Which one of the following statements is correct

18) In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, what concerning the use in primary radar of continuous wave
is the maximum time taken to receive the complete set transmissions as compared with pulse transmissions?
of almanac data from all satellites?
A The equipment required is more complex in continuous
A 24 seconds (= 1 second per data frame) wave radar but this is offset by greater reliability and
accuracy
B 12.5 minutes (= 30 seconds per data frame) B It eliminates the minimum target reception range
C 12 hours (= period of the satellites orbit)

C A smaller common transmitter and receiver aerial can be
used
D 25 seconds (= 1 second per data frame)
D It is less effective in short range radars but more effective in
long range radars
30) In order to ascertain whether a cloud return on an
Aircraft Weather Radar (AWR) is at or above the height
of the aircaft, the tilt control should be set to: 35) The geometric shape of the reference system for the
(Assume a beam width of 5°) satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS, defined as
WGS 84, is:
A 2.5° down
A a sphere
B 5° up
B a geoid
C 2.5° up
C an ellipsoid
D 0°
D a mathematical model that describes the exact shape of the
earth
31) An aircraft is flying on the true track 090° towards a VOR

station located near the equator where the magnetic
variation is 15°E. The variation at the aircraft position is 36) Which of the following frequency-bands is used by the
8°E. Loran C navigation system?
The aircraft is on VOR radial:
A 978 - 1213 MHz
A 285°
B 90 - 110 kHz
B 255°
C 1750 - 1950 kHz
C 278°
D 10.2 - 13.6 kHz
D 262°
27) A secondary radar can provide up to 4096 different 4) The main task of the user segment (receiver) of the
codes. satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is to:
These 4096 codes can be used in:
A to monitor the status of the satellites, determine their
A mode A only positions and to measure the time
B mode C only B monitor the orbital planes of the satellites
C mode S C select appropriate satellites automatically, to track the

signals and to measure the time taken by signals from the
satellites to reach the receiver
D all modes
D transmit signals which, from the time taken, are used to
determine the distance to the satellite
11) Airborne weather radar systems use a wavelength of
approximately 3 cm in order to:
5) An aircraft DME receiver does not lock on to its own
A obtain optimum use of the Cosecant squared beam transmissions reflected from the ground because:
B detect the smaller cloud formations as well as large A DME uses the UHF band
C detect the larger water droplets B they are not on the receiver frequency
D transmit at a higher pulse repetition frequency for extended C DME transmits twin pulses
range
D the pulse recurrence rates are varied
2) What is the procedure to be followed if, on a flight under

IFR conditions using the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite
6) If VOR bearing information is used beyond the
navigation system, the number of satellites required to
published protection range, errors could be caused by:
maintain the RAIM (Receiver Autonomous Integrity
Monitoring) function are not available?
A noise from precipitation static exceeding the signal strength
of the transmitter
A The flight may be continued using other certificated
navigation systems
B sky wave interference from the same transmitter
B The flight has to be continued under VFR conditions
C sky wave interference from distant transmitters on the same
frequency
C A constant heading and speed must be flown until the
required number of satellites are again available
D interference from other transmitters
D The flight may be continued as planned if at least 4 satellites
are available and the pilot monitors the GPS-System
manually 7) A Category 1 Instrument Landing System (ILS) ground
installation provides accurate guidance from coverage
limit down to:
3) The amplitude modulation and the colour of an outer
marker (OM) is: A 200 feet above the runway threshold
A 3000 Hz, blue B 50 feet above ILS reference point
B 1300 Hz, blue C runway surface
C 400 Hz, amber D 200 feet above the inner marker
D 400 Hz, blue

VOR/ILS mode with an ILS frequency selected?
A Figure 2
B Figure 3
C Figure 5
D Figure 6
20) Which of the following statements about the accuracy 13) In an Airborne Weather Radar that has a colour cathode
that can be obtained with the differential technique (D- ray tube (CRT) the areas of greatest turbulence are
GPS) of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS indicated on the screen by:
is correct?
A colour zones being closest together
A The increase in accuracy of position fixes is independent of
the receiver position in relation to a D-GPS ground station B blank iso-echo areas where there is no colour
B A D-GPS receiver can detect and correct for SA providing a

more accurate position fix C large areas of flashing red colour
C Only D-GPS allows position fixes accurate enough for 'Non D iso-echo areas which are coloured black
Precision Approaches'
D The nearer a receiver is situated to a D-GPS ground station,

14) Which of the following is an advantage of Ground/DF
the more accurate the position fix (VDF) let-down?
A It is pilot interpreted and does not require the assistance of

10) Why is a secondary radar display screen free of storm ATC
clutter?
B It does not require any special equipment to be fitted to the
A The principle of 'echo' return is not used in secondary radar aircraft
B The frequencies employed are too high to give returns from C It does not require any special equipment, apart from a VHF
moisture sources radio, to be installed in the aircraft or on the ground
C A moving target indicator facility suppresses the display of D It only requires a VHF radio to be fitted to the aircraft
static or near static returns
D The frequencies employed are too low to give returns from 15) In order to indicate radio failure the aircraft SSR
moisture sources transponder should be selected to code:
A 7700
19) Given:
Aircraft heading 160°(M), B 7000
Aircraft is on radial 240° from a VOR,
Selected course on HSI is 250°.
The HSI indications are deviation bar: C 7500
A ahead of the aeroplane symbol with the FROM flag showing D 7600
B ahead of the aeroplane symbol with the TO flag showing

16) The orbital planes of the satellite navigation system
C behind the aeroplane symbol with the FROM flag showing NAVSTAR/GPS are:
D behind the aeroplane symbol with the TO flag showing A inclined 55° to the earth axis
B inclined 90° to the equatorial plane

12) The maximum range of primary radar depends on :
C parallel to the equatorial plane
A frequency D inclined 55° to the equatorial plane
B pulse length
17) The maximum range obtainable from an ATC Long
C pulse recurrence frequency Range Surveillance Radar is approximately:
D wave length A 400 NM
B 300 NM
C 200 NM
D 100 NM
39) In relation to radar systems that use pulse technology, 60) The design requirements for DME stipulate that, at a
the term 'Pulse Recurrence Rate (PRR)' signifies the: range of 100 NM, the maximum systematic error should
not exceed:
A ratio of pulse period to pulse width
A + or - 3 NM
B number of pulses per second
B + or - 0.25 NM
C delay after which the process re-starts
C + or - 1.25 NM
D the number of cycles per second
D + or - 1.5 NM
9) In order to plot a bearing from a VOR station, a pilot

needs to know the magnetic variation: 61) Which one of the following inputs to an Area Navigation
System (R-NAV) comes from an external, not on-board,
A at the VOR system?
B at the aircraft location A Inertial Navigation System (INS) position
C at the half-way point between the aircraft and the station B Pressure altitude
D at both the VOR and aircraft C VOR/DME radial/distance
D Magnetic heading
67) Which of the following is one of the functions of the
Course-Line-Computer in a basic Area Navigation
(RNAV) system? 62) A radio beacon has an operational range of 10 NM. By
what factor should the transmitter power be increased in
A It transfers the information given by a VOR/DME station into order to achieve an operational range of 20 NM?
tracking and distance indications to any chosen Phantom
Station/waypoint A Four
B It checks the ground station accuracy using a built-in test B Six

programme
C It automatically selects the two strongest transmitters for the C Eight

Area-Nav-Mode and continues working by memory in case
one of the two necessary station goes off the air D Two
D It calculates cross track information for NDB approaches

63) On a DME, display counters rotating throughout their
range indicates:
37) An aircraft is required to approach a VOR station via the
244° radial. In order to obtain correct sense indications A airborne equipment failure
the deviation indicator should be set to:
B ground equipment failure
A 244° with the FROM flag showing
C the airborne equipment is conducting a frequency search
B 244° with the TO flag showing
D the airborne receiver is conducting a range search
C 064° with the TO flag showing
D 064° with the FROM flag showing 64) What approximate rate of descent is required in order to
maintain a 3° glidepath at a groundspeed of 90 kt?
59) The principle of operation of an ILS localiser transmitter A 450 FT/MIN

is based on two overlapping lobes that are transmitted
on (i).......... frequencies and carry different (ii).......... B 400 FT/MIN
A (i) the same (ii) phases C 600 FT/MIN
B (i) different (ii) modulation frequencies D 700 FT/MIN
C (i) different (ii) phases
D (i) the same (ii) modulation frequencies
57) How does a receiver of the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite 69) Which of the following coordinate systems is used by
navigation system determine the elevation and azimuth the GPS receiver to determine position (Latitude,
data of a satellite relative to the location of the antenna? longitude and altitude)?
A The data is determined by the satellite and transmitted A ED 87

together with the navigation message
B ED 50
B It calculates it by using Almanac data transmitted by the
satellites
C EUREF 92
C The data is stored in the receiver together with the Pseudo
Random Noise (PRN) code D WGS 84
D The data is based on the direction to the satellite determined

at the location of the antenna A frequency of 10 GHz is considered to be the optimum
70)
for use in an airborne weather radar system because:
66) In relation to the satellite navigation system A static interference is minimised

NAVSTAR/GPS, 'All in View' is a term used when a
receiver: B less power output is required in the mapping mode
A is tracking more than the required 4 satellites and can

C the larger water droplets will give good echoes and the
instantly replace any lost signal with another already being
antenna can be kept relatively small
monitored
B is receiving the signals of all visible satellites but tracking

D greater detail can be obtained at the more distant ranges of
the smaller water droplets
only those of the 4 with the best geometric coverage
C is receiving and tracking the signals of all 24 operational

satellites simultaneously 71) The BFO selector on an ADF receiver is used to:
D requires the signals of all visible satellites for navigation

purposes A hear the IDENT and must always be switched ON
B find the loop 'null' position

56) An aircraft is "homing" to a radio beacon whilst
maintaining a relative bearing of zero. C hear the IDENT of some NDB stations radiating a
If the magnetic heading decreases, the aircraft is continuous wave signal
experiencing :
D stop loop rotation
A left drift
B zero drift 72) An aircraft on a heading of 280°(M) is on a bearing of

090°(M) from a VOR.
C a wind from the west The bearing you should select on the OMNI bearing
selector to centralise the VOR/ILS left/right deviation
D needle with a 'TO' indication is:
right drift
A 280°
68) Given: B 270°

Magnetic heading 280°
VOR radial 090°
What bearing should be selected on the omni-bearing
C 090°
selector in order to centralise the VOR deviation needle
with a "TO" indication? D 100°
A 100°
73) The reason why the measured distance between a
B 090° NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system satellite and
a receiver is called a 'Pseudo-Range' is because the:
C 270°
A calculated range is based on an idealised Keplerian orbit
D 280°
B calculated range includes receiver clock error
C measured distance is based on the Pseudo Random Noise

code
D movement of satellite and receiver during the distance

calculation is not taken into account
151) In general the operation of airborne weather radar 41) An aircraft carrying out an ILS approach is receiving
equipment on the ground is: more 90 Hz than 150 Hz modulation notes from both the
localiser and glidepath transmitters. The ILS indication
A only permitted with certain precautions, to safeguard health will show:
of personnel and to protect equipment
A Fly left and fly up
B permitted anywhere
B Fly right and fly down
C totally prohibited
C Fly left and fly down
D unrestrictedly permitted in aerodrome maintenance areas
D Fly right and fly up
65) In which frequency band do VOR transmitters operate?

42) The two main design functions of Secondary
Surveillance Radar (SSR) Mode S are:
A SHF
A air to ground and ground to air data link communications and
B EHF improved ATC aircraft surveillance capability
C VHF B collision avoidance using TCAS II and improved long range

(HF) communication capability.
D UHF
C continuous automatic position reporting using Global
Positioning System (GPS) satellites and collision avoidance
using TCAS II
48) A Primary radar operates on the principle of:
D the elimination of ground to air communications and the
introduction of automatic separation between aircraft using
A phase comparison
TCAS II
B continuous wave transmission

43) Which of the following statements concerning LORAN-C
C pulse technique is correct?
D transponder interrogation A It is a navigation system based on secondary radar

principles; position lines are obtained in sequence from up
to eight ground stations
75) Basic RNAV requires a track-keeping accuracy of:
B It is a hyperbolic navigation system that works on the
principle of range measurement by phase comparison
A +/- 3NM or better for 90% of the flight time
C It is a navigation system based on simultaneous ranges
B +/- 2NM or better for 75% of the flight time being received from a minimum of four ground stations
D It is a hyperbolic navigation system that works on the

C +/- 5NM or better throughout the flight principle of differential range by pulse technique
D +/- 5NM or better for 95% of the flight time

44) A ground radar transmitting at a PRF of 1200
pulses/second will have a maximum unambiguous range
40) Signal reception is required from a minimum number of of approximately:
satellites that have adequate elevation and suitable
geometry in order for a Satellite-Assisted Navigation A 67 NM
System (GNSS/GPS) to carry out independent three
dimensional operation, Receiver Autonomous Integrity B 135 NM
Monitoring (RAIM) and to isolate any faulty satellite and
remove it from contributing to the navigation solution.
The number of satellites is:
C 270 NM
A 5
D 27 NM
B 6
C 7
D 4
45) What is the minimum number of NAVSTAR/GPS 50) Which of the following statements concerning the L1
satellites required to produce an accurate independent 3- and L2 NAVSTAR/GPS transmission frequencies and
D position fix? codes is correct?
A 24 A The higher frequency is used to transmit both the C/A and P

codes
B 3
B C/A and P codes are transmitted at different times on both
frequencies
C 4
C The higher frequency is only used to transmit the P code
D 5
D The lower frequency is used to transmit both the C/A and P
codes
58) In the event of the use of Selective Availability, how
does this affect, if at all, the navigation accuracy of the
NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system ? 51) Which of the following data, in addition to the Pseudo
Random Noise (PRN) code, forms part of the so called
A It degrades position accuracy by manipulating satellite 'Navigation Message' transmitted by NAVSTAR/GPS
signals satellites?
B It increases because only signals from satellites in the most A almanac data; satellite status information
suitable geometric constellation are selected by the receiver
B time; data to impair the accuracy of the position fix
C It has no influence because, by selecting of the most
suitable signals, the computing process in the receiver is
quicker C data to correct receiver clock error; almanac data
D It degrades accuracy by reducing the number of available D time; positions of the satellites
satellites

47) The Flight Management Computer (FMC) position is: The letters QTX and adjacent symbol indicate a:
A the computed position based on a number of sources (IRS, A Airport

Radio, ILS, GPS etc)
B VOR/DME
B the actual position of the aircraft at any point in time
C TACAN
C the same as that given on the No. 1 IRS
D VOR
D another source of aircaft position; it is independent of other
position sources (IRS, Radio, ILS etc)
53) Ignoring pulse length and fly-back, a radar facility
designed to have a maximum unambiguous range of 50
38) In a primary radar using pulse technique, pulse length km will have a PRF (pulses per second) of:
determines:
A 6000
A minimum measurable range
B 167
B target discrimination
C 330
C maximum measurable range
D 3000
D beam width
54) The aircraft DME receiver cannot lock on to

49) Factors liable to affect most NDB/ADF system interrogation signals reflected from the ground because:
performance and reliability include:
A DME pulse recurrence rates are varied
A static interference - night effect - absence of failure warning
system B aircraft transmitter and DME ground station are transmitting
on different frequencies
B static interference - station interference - latitude error
C reflections are subject to doppler frequency shift
C height error - station interference - mountain effect
D DME transmits twin pulses
D coastal refraction - lane slip - mountain effect
55) The azimuth transmitter of a Microwave Landing System 247) Which of the following types of radar systems are most
(MLS) provides a fan-shaped horizontal approach zone suited for short range operation?
which is usually:
A primary continuous wave
A + or - 30° of the runway centre-line
B centimetric pulse
B + or - 40° of the runway centre-line
C millimetric pulse
C + or - 50° of the runway centre-line
D secondary continuous wave
D + or - 60° of the runway centre-line
248) One of the tasks of the space segment of the satellite

46) The captain of an aircraft flying at FL100 wishes to navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is to:
obtain weather information at the destination airfield
from the airfield's VOR. At what maximum theoretical A compute the user position from the received user messages
range will it be possible to obtain this information? and to transmit the computed position back to the user
segment
A 1230 km
B monitor the satellites' orbits and status
B 123 NM
C transmit signals which can be used, by suitable receivers, to
C 123 km determine time, position and velocity
D 12.3 NM
D transmit signals to suitable receivers and to monitor the
orbital planes autonomously
253) Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight 249) Which one of the following methods is used by a
Instrument Systems (EFIS), turbulence is coloured: Microwave Landing System (MLS) to indicate distance
from the runway threshold?
A black
A Timing the interval between the reception of sequential
B cyan secondary radar pulses from the MLS station to the aircraft
C white or magenta B A DME co-located with the MLS transmitters
D red C Timing the interval between the transmission and reception

of primary radar pulses from the aircraft to MLS station
D Measurement of the frequency shift between the MLS

245) MLS installations notified for operation, unless azimuth and elevation transmissions
otherwise stated, provide azimuth coverage of:
A + or - 20° about the nominal courseline out to a range of 20 250) If an aircraft flies along a VOR radial it will follow a:
NM
B + or - 40° about the nominal courseline out to a range of 30 A constant magnetic track
NM
B great circle track
C + or - 20° about the nominal courseline out to a range of 10
NM
C rhumbline track
D + or - 40° about the nominal courseline out to a range of 20
NM D line of constant bearing
246) A typical frequency employed in Distance Measuring 225) One of the tasks of the control segment of the satellite
Equipment (DME) is: navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is to:
A 100 MHz A grant and monitor user authorisations
B 100 GHz B monitor the status of the satellites
C 1000 MHz C manufacture and launch the satellites
D 10 MHz D manipulate the signals of selected satellites to reduce the

precision of the position fix
252) What is the maximum distance between VOR and 256) 'Night Effect' which causes loss of signal and fading,
DME/TACAN ground installations if they are to have the resulting in bearing errors from NDB transmissions, is
same morse code identifier? due to:
A 600 m A static activity increasing at night particularly in the lower

frequency band
B 2000 m
B the effect of the Aurora Borealis
C 60 m
C skywave distortion of the null position and is maximum at
dawn and dusk
D 300 m
D interference from other transmissions and is maximum at
dusk when east of the NDB
Which of the distances indicated will be shown on a
basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation Equipment when 257) In an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS) data
using a 'Phantom Station' at position 'X'? relating primarily to navigation is provided by:
A 9 NM A Flight Management Computer

Aircraft Mapping Radar
B 11 NM Navigation radios
C 14 NM B Inertial Reference Systems

Navigation radios
True airspeed and drift inputs
D 8 NM
C Navigation radios
Flight Management Computer
254) An aircraft is flying on a heading of 270°(M). The VOR Inertial Reference Systems
OBS is also set to 270° with the full left deflection and
FROM flag displayed. D Inertial Reference Systems
In which sector is the aircraft from the VOR ground Aircraft Mapping Radar
station? Navigation radios
A SE
258) Which of the following statements about the 'visibility'
B NE of NAVSTAR/GPS satellites is correct?
C NW A It is greatest at the equator
D SW B It is greatest at the poles
C It varies, depending on the time and observer's location

255) Loran C coverage is:
D It is the same throughout the globe
A global
259) In which mode of operation does the aircraft weather
B unrestricted between latitudes 70°N and 70°S radar use a cosecant radiation pattern.
C unrestricted over the oceans and adjacent coastlines but A MANUAL

limited over the major continental land masses
B MAPPING
D confined to certain limited areas of the world
C CONTOUR
D WEATHER
260) The selection of code 2000 on an aircraft SSR 228) (For this question use annex 062-9915A)
transponder indicates: What drift is being experienced?
A entry into airspace from an area where SSR operation has A 20° Right
not been required
B 20° Left
B unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight
C 12° Right
C an emergency
D 8° Left
229) Erratic indications may be experienced when flying

251) In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, towards a basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation
'Selective Availability' (SA) gives the option to artificially System 'Phantom Station':
degrade the accuracy by :
A because, under adverse conditions (relative bearing to the
A shutting off selected satellites Phantom Station other than 180°/360°) it takes the computer
more time to calculate the necessary information
B using a less accurate atomic clock in a satellite for signal
processing B when in the cone of silence overhead the Phantom Station
C offsetting satellite atomic clocks by a predetermined C when the Phantom Station is out of range
constant amount
D dithering the satellite clock

D when operating at low altitudes close to the limit of reception
range from the reference station
235) Precision RNAV (P-RNAV) requires a track-keeping 230) How does the Electronic Flight Instrument System
accuracy of: display of a B737-400 respond to the failure of a VHF
navigation (VOR) receiver?
A 0.25 NM standard deviation or better
A It removes the associated magenta deviation bar and/or
B 1.0 NM standard deviation or better pointer from the display
C 1.5 NM standard deviation or better B The pointer rotates around the display and a VOR 1 or 2
failure warning bar appears
D 0.5 NM standard deviation or better
C The deviation bar and/or pointer change colour to red and
flash intermittently
149) What is the approximate maximum theoretical range at D The pointer flashes and a VOR 1 or 2 failure warning bar
which an aircraft at FL130 could receive information appears
from a VDF facility which is sited 1024 FT above MSL?
A 150 NM 231) An aircraft is required to approach a VOR via the 104°

radial. Which of the following settings should be made
B 180 NM on the VOR/ILS deviation indicator?
C 220 NM A 284° with the FROM flag showing
D 120 NM B 104° with the TO flag showing
C 104° with the FROM flag showing

227) The maximum pulse repetition frequency (PRF) that can
be D 284° with the TO flag showing
used by a primary radar facility in order to detect targets
unambiguously at a range of 50 NM is:
(pps = pulses per second)
A 610 pps
B 713 pps
C 1620 pps
D 3240 pps
232) ICAO specifications are that range errors indicated by 237) Under JAR-25 colour code rules, features displayed in
Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) should not red on an Electronic Flight Instrument System (EFIS),
exceed: indicate:
A + or - 0.5 NM or 3% of the distance measured whichever is A flight envelope and system limits; engaged modes
the greater
B warnings; cautions and abnormal sources
B + or - 1.25 NM plus 0.25% of the distance measured
C cautions and abnormal sources; engaged modes
C + or - 0.25 NM plus 3% of the distance measured up to a
maximum of 5 NM
D warnings; flight envelope and system limits
D + or - 0.25 NM plus 1.25% of the distance measured
238) Given:
VOR station position N61° E025°, variation 13°E;
Estimated position of an aircraft N59° E025°, variation
20°E.
Instrument System (EFIS) display in PLAN mode?
What VOR radial is the aircraft on?
A Figure 4
A 160°
B Figure 1
B 193°
C Figure 2
C 167°
D Figure 3
D 347°
234) The main factor which determines the minimum range

239) Which of the following equipments uses primary radar
that can be measured by a pulsed radar is pulse:
principles?
A amplitude
A Global Positioning System (GPS)
B repetition rate
B Airborne weather radar (AWR)
C frequency
C Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)
D length
D Distance Measuring Equipment (DME)
243) Which of the following is the ICAO allocated frequency

240) In order to indicate an emergency situation, the aircraft
band for ADF receivers?
Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder
should be set to:
A 200 - 2000 kHz
A 7500
B 200 - 1750 kHz
B 7000
C 255 - 455 kHz
C 7700
D 300 - 3000 kHz
D 7600
236) Of what use, if any, is a military TACAN station to civil

aviation ?
241) Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight
Instrument Systems (EFIS), selected data and values are
A It can provide a DME distance and magnetic bearing
coloured:
B It can provide a magnetic bearing A white
C It can provide DME distance B magenta
D It is of no use to civil aviation C yellow
D green
263) In the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system, 284) The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at
receiver clock error: FL210 may receive signals from a VOR facility sited 340
feet above mean sea level is approximately:
A is negligible small because of the great accuracy the atomic
clocks installed in the satellites A 204 NM
B is corrected by using signals from four satellites B 245 NM
C is the biggest part of the total error; it cannot be corrected C 163 NM
D can be minimised by synchronisation of the receiver clock D 183 NM

with the satellite clocks
285) Which one of the following is an advantages of a multi-

233) What is the maximum theoretical range that an aircraft at
sensor system using inputs from a global navigation
FL150 can receive signals from a VOR situated 609 feet
satellite system (GNSS) and an inertial navigational
above MSL?
system (INS)?
A 156 NM
A The GNSS can be used to update a drifting INS
B 184 NM
B The activation of 'Selective Availability' can be recognised by
the INS
C 220 NM
C The average position calculated from data provided by both
D 147 NM systems increases overall accuracy
D The only advantage of coupling both systems is double

redundancy
291) Which of the following satellite navigation systems has
Full Operational Capability (FOC) and is approved for
specified flights under IFR conditions in Europe?
286) There are two NDBs, one 20 NM inland, and the other 50
A NNSS-Transit NM inland from the coast.
Assuming that the error caused by coastal refraction is
the same for both propagations, the extent of the error
B COSPAS-SARSAT
in a position line plotted by an aircraft that is over water
will be:
C GLONASS
A the same from both beacons when the aircraft is on a
D NAVSTAR/GPS relative bearing of 090° and 270°
B greater from the beacon that is 50 NM inland

261) The code transmitted by a SSR transponder consists of:
C the same from both beacons when the aircraft is on a
relative bearing of 180° and 360°
A phase differences
D greater from the beacon that is 20 NM inland
B frequency differences
C amplitude differences 287) In a Satellite-Assisted Navigation system (GNSS/GPS) a

position line is obtained by:
D pulses
A the aircraft's receiver measuring the phase angle of the
signal received from a satellite in a known position
283) ADF bearings by an aeroplane by day within the B timing the period that is taken for a transmission from the
published protection range should be accurate to within aircraft's transmitter/receiver to reach and return from a
a maximum error of: satellite in a known position
A +/-5° C the aircraft's receiver measuring the time difference between

signals received from a minimum number of satellites
B +/-10°
D timing the period that is taken for a satellite's transmission to
reach the aircraft's receiver
C +/-2.5°
D +/-2°
288) Which of the following procedures must be adopted if, 293) What is the colour sequence when passing over an
on a flight under IFR conditions using a NAVSTAR/GPS Outer, Middle and Inner Marker beacon?
satellite navigation system receiver, the position fix
obtained from the GPS receiver differs from the position A blue - amber - white
of conventional navigation systems by an unacceptable
amount? B amber - white - green
A The pilot must determine the reason for the deviation and
C white - amber - blue
correct the error or switch off the faulty system
B It may be continued using conventional navigation systems D blue - green - white
C It may be continued using NAVSTAR/GPS; prior to the next

flight all systems must be checked 294) Which one of the following correctly lists the major
ground based components of a Microwave Landing
D It must be continued under VFR conditions System (MLS)?
A Separate azimuth and elevation transmitters, DME facility

281) At what approximate height above the WGS-84 ellipsoid
are NAVSTAR/GPS satellites circling the earth? B Separate azimuth and elevation transmitters, outer and
middle marker beacons
A 20200 km
C Combined azimuth and elevation transmitter, DME facility
B 10900 km
D Combined azimuth and elevation transmitter, outer and inner
marker beacons
C 36000 km
D 19500 km
295) Which one of the following is an advantage of a
Microwave Landing System (MLS) compared with an
Instrument Landing System (ILS)?
Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight A The installation does not require to have a separate method
Instrument System (EFIS) display in FULL VOR/ILS (marker beacons or DME) to determine range
mode with an ILS frequency selected?
B There is no restriction on the number of ground installations
A Figure 3 that can be operated because there is an unlimited number
of frequency channels available
B Figure 5
C It is insensitive to geographical site and can be installed at
sites where it is not possible to use an ILS
C Figure 6
D It does not require a separate azimuth (localiser) and
D Figure 2 elevation (azimuth) transmitter
280) How long does it take a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite to orbit 296) (For this question use annex 062-9916A)
the earth? What is the value of the track from TBX to YTB?
A 12 days A 280°(T)
B 365 days because the satellites are located in a B 097°(T)

geostationary orbit
C 170°(M)
C Approximately 12 hours (1/2 of a sidereal day)
D 140°(M)
D Approximately 24 hours (one sidereal day)
297) Which of the following gives the best information about

292) Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight the progress of a flight between 2 en-route waypoints
Instrument Systems (EFIS), armed modes are coloured: from a RNAV equipment?
A white A ETO
B green B ETD
C magenta C ATA
D amber/yellow D Elapsed time on route.
298) Complete the following statement. Aircraft Surface 265) The OUTER MARKER of an Instrument Landing System
movement Radar operates on frequencies in the (i) (ILS) facility transmits on a frequency of:
.......... band employing an antenna that rotates at
approximately (ii) .......... revolutions per minute; it is (iii) A 200 MHz and is modulated by alternate dot/dash in morse
......... possible to determine the type of aircraft from the
return on the radar screen. B 75 MHz and is modulated by alternate dot/dash in morse
A (i) EHF (ii) 30 (iii) never

C 300 MHz and is modulated by morse at two dashes per
second
B (i) SHF (ii) 10 (iii) always
D 75 MHz and is modulated by morse at two dashes per
C (i) EHF (ii) 100 (iii) never second
D (i) SHF (ii) 60 (iii) sometimes

266) In the MAPPING MODE the airborne weather radar
utilises a:
289) Quadrantal errors associated with aircraft Automatic
Direction Finding (ADF) equipment are caused by:
A pencil beam to a maximum range of 60 NM
A misalignment of the loop aerial B pencil beam effective from zero to 150 NM
B skywave/groundwave contamination C fan shaped beam effective up to a maximum of 50 NM to 60

NM range
C signal bending by the aircraft metallic surfaces
D fan shaped beam effective up to a range of 150 NM
D signal bending caused by electrical interference from

aircraft wiring
267) Which frequency band is used by VOR transmissions?
272) Which of the following combinations is likely to result in A VHF

the most accurate Area Navigation (RNAV) fixes?
B UHF
A VOR/DME
B NDB/VOR
C SHF
D HF
C VOR/VOR
D DME/DME
268) An aircraft tracking to intercept the Instrument Landing
System (ILS) localiser inbound on the approach side,
outside the published ILS coverage angle:
224) A DME is located at MSL.
An aircraft passing vertically above the station at flight A may receive false course indications
level FL 360 will obtain a DME range of approximately:
B will not normally receive signals
A 7 NM
B 11 NM
C will receive signals without identification coding
D can expect signals to give correct indications

C 8 NM
D 6 NM
269) Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) operates in the:
264) GPS system satellites transmit their signals on two A SHF band and uses frequency modulation techniques
carrier waves 1575 MHz and 1227 MHz and supply two
possible codes accessible acording to user (civil or B UHF band and is a secondary radar system
military).
Commercial aviation uses: C VHF band and uses the principle of phase comparison
A only the 1 227 MHz carrier wave and one code

D UHF band and is a primary radar system
B the two carrier waves and one public code
C only the 1 575 MHz carrier wave and one code
D only the 1 575 MHz carrier wave and two codes
282) The selection of code 7600 on an aircraft SSR 275) Which one of the following sensors/systems is self-
transponder indicates: contained and obtains no external information?
A radio communication failure A Inertial Navigation System (INS) position
B an emergency B Pressure altitude
C unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight C Magnetic heading
D transponder malfunction D VOR/DME radial/distance
271) (For this question use annex 062-9911A) 276) Concerning the NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation
Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight system, what is the meaning of the term 'Receiver
Instrument System (EFIS) display in MAP mode? Autonomous Integrity Monitoring' (RAIM)?
A Figure 4 A It is a technique by which a receiver ensures the integrity of

the navigation information
B Figure 5
B It is the ability of the GPS satellites to check the integrity of
the data transmitted by the monitoring stations of the ground
C Figure 2
segment
D Figure 3 C It is a method whereby a receiver ensures the integrity of the
Pseudo Random Noise (PRN) code transmitted by the
satellites
262) A VOR and DME are co-located.
You want to identify the DME by listening to the callsign. D It is a technique whereby the receivers of the world-wide
Having heard the same callsign 4 times in 30 seconds distributed monitor stations (ground segment) automatically
the: determines the integrity of the navigation message
A VOR and DME callsigns were the same and broadcast with
the same pitch 277) ICAO Annex 11 defines Area Navigation (RNAV) as a
method of navigation which permits aircraft operation
B DME callsign is the one with the higher pitch that was on any desired flight path:
broadcast only once
A within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids or
C DME callsign was not transmitted, the distance information within the limits of the capability of self-contained aids, or a
is sufficient proof of correct operation combination of these
D DME callsign is the one with the lower pitch that was B outside the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids
broadcast several times provided that it is equipped with a minimum of one
serviceable self-contained navigation aid
273) Errors caused by the effect of coastal refraction on C within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids
bearings at lower altitudes are maximum when the NDB provided that it is equipped with a minimum of one
is: serviceable self-contained navigation aid
A inland and the bearing crosses the coast at right angles

D outside the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids
provided that it is equipped with a minimum of two
serviceable self-contained navigation aids
B near the coast and the bearing crosses the coast at an
acute angle
C inland and the bearing crosses the coast at an acute angle 278) A VOR is sited at position 58°00'N 073°00'W where the
magnetic variation equals 32°W.
An aircraft is located at position 56°00'N 073°00'W where
D near the coast and the bearing crosses the coast at right
the magnetic variation equals 28°W.
angles
The aircraft is on VOR radial:
A 360
274) The rate of descent required to maintain a 3.25° glide
slope at a groundspeed of 140 kt is approximately: B 180
A 850 FT/MIN
C 212
B 670 FT/MIN
D 208
C 700 FT/MIN
D 800 FT/MIN
279) What is the deviation per dot on the HSI when using a 2- 172) Transmissions from VOR facilities may be adversely
dot basic RNAV system in the en-route mode? affected by:
A 2 NM A night effect
B 10 NM B quadrantal error
C 5 NM C uneven propagation over irregular ground surfaces
D 1 NM D static interference
270) If the reference phase differs 30° with the variable phase 173) In which frequency band do Satellite-Assisted
the radial from the VOR station will be : Navigation systems (GNSS/GPS) provide position
information that is available to civil aircraft?
A 210°
A UHF
B 150°
B SHF
C 030°
C EHF
D 330°
D VHF
178) The track-line on the Electronic Horizontal Situation

Indicator (EHSI) or Navigation Display of an Electronic 174) A frequency of airborne weather radar is :
Flight Instrument System:
A indicates to the pilot that a manually selected heading is A 9375 GHz

being flown
B 9375 kHz
B represents the track of the aircraft over the ground. When it
co-incides with the desired track, wind influence is C 93.75 MHz
compensated for
D 9375 MHz
C corresponds to the calculated IRS TH and is correct during
turns
D indicates that the pilot has made a manual track selection 175) In which navigation system does the master station
transmit a continuous string of pulses on a frequency
close to 100 kHz?
170) An Omni-bearing selector (OBS) shows full deflection to
the left when within range of a serviceable VOR.
A GPS
What angular deviation are you from the selected radial?
B Decca
A 1.5° or more
C Doppler
B 2.5 or more
D Loran C
C 10° or more
D less than 10° 226) The selection of code 7700 on an aircraft SSR
transponder indicates:
171) In which one of the following circumstances is ground

A unlawful interference with the planned operation of the flight
direction finding (VDF) likely to be used to fix an
aircraft's position? B an emergency
A When contacting ATC to join controlled airapace from the C radio communication failure
open FIR
B When declaring an emergency on any frequency
C When using the emergency VHF frequency 121.5 MHz
D On first contact with ATC on crossing an international FIR

boundary
177) In which frequency band do most airborne weather, and 182) The ground Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)
ground based ATC, radar systems operate? equipment incorporates a transmitter and receiver
respectively operating in the following frequencies:
A SHF
Transmitter Receiver
B UHF
A 1030 MHz 1030 MHz
C EHF
B 1030 MHz 1090 MHz
D VHF
C 1090 MHz 1030 MHz
D 1090 MHz 1090 MHz

167) A Cat III ILS glidepath transmitter provides reliable
guidance information down to:
A a maximum height of 200 ft above the runway 183) The distance between a NAVSTAR/GPS satellite and
receiver is:
B a maximum height of 100 ft above the runway
A determined by the time taken for the signal to arrive from the
satellite multiplied by the speed of light
C a maximum height of 50 ft above the runway
B calculated from the Doppler shift of the known frequencies
D the surface of the runway
C calculated, using the WGS-84 reference system, from the
known positions of the satellite and the receiver
179) Which component of the B737-400 Electronic Flight
Instrument System generates the visual displays on the D determined by the phase shift of the Pseudo Random Noise
EADI and EHSI? code multiplied by the speed of light
A Symbol Generator
184) The minimum range of a primary radar, using the pulse
B Flight Management Computer technique, is determined by the (i)........ ; the maximum
unambiguous range by the (ii).........
C Flight Control Computer
A (i) pulse length (ii) length of the timebase
D Navigation database
B (i) transmission frequency (ii) pulse recurrence frequency
180) When switching on the weather radar, after start-up, a

C (i) pulse length (ii) pulse recurrence frequency
single very bright line appears on the screen.
This means that the: D (i) transmission frequency (ii) transmitter power output
A scanner is not rotating

185) The Doppler Navigation System is based on:
B receiver is faulty
A radar principles using frequency shift
C scanning of the cathode ray tube is faulty
D transmitter is faulty
B radio waves refraction in the ionosphere
C doppler VOR (DVOR) Navigation System
181) The two signals transmitted by a conventional VOR D phase comparison from ground station transmissions
ground station are 90° out of phase on magnetic:
A east
B south
C west
D north
176) Which of the following lists information required to input 153) Which of the following geometric satellite constellations
a waypoint or 'Phantom Station' into a basic VOR/DME- provides the most accurate NAVSTAR/GPS position fix?
based Area Navigation System?
A 3 satellites with a low elevation above the horizon and an
A Magnetic track and distance from the aircraft to the waypoint azimuth of 120° from each other together with a fourth
or 'Phantom Station' directly overhead
B Magnetic track and distance to a VOR/DME from the B 3 satellites with an azimuth of 120° from each other and an
waypoint or 'Phantom Station' elevation of 45° above the horizon
C Radials from a minimum of two VORs to the waypoint or C 4 satellites with an azimuth of 90° from each other and a low
'Phantom Station' elevation above the horizon
D Radial and distance from a VOR/DME to the waypoint or D 4 satellites with an azimuth of 90° from each other and an
'Phantom Station' elevation of 45° above the horizon
160) The time taken for the transmission of an interrogation 154) In which frequency band does an ILS glide slope
pulse by a Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) to transmit?
travel to the ground transponder and return to the
airborne receiver was 2000 micro-second. A UHF
The slant range from the ground transponder was:
B VHF
A 165 NM
C SHF
B 186 NM
D EHF
C 296 NM
D 330 NM
155) The required 24 NAVSTAR/GPS operational satellites are
located on:
299) For a conventional DME facility 'Beacon Saturation' will A 4 orbital planes with 6 satellites in each plane
occur whenever the number of simultaneous
interrogations exceeds: B 6 orbital planes with 3 satellites in each plane plus 6 reserve
satellites positioned in a geostationary orbital plane
A 60
C 6 orbital planes with 4 satellites in each plane
B 80
D 3 orbital planes with 8 satellites in each plane
C 100
D 200 156) What are the effects, if any, of shadowing by parts of the
aircraft (e.g. wing) on the reception of signals from
NAVSTAR/GPS satellites?
152) In weather radar the use of a cosecant beam in
'Mapping' mode enables: A It may prevent the reception of signals
A higher definition echoes to be produced giving a clearer B It causes multipath propagation

picture
C The signals will be distorted, however the error can be
B scanning of a large ground zone producing echos whose corrected for using an algorithm and information from
signals are practically independent of distance unaffected signals
C better reception of echos on contrasting terrain such as D It has no influence because high frequency signals are
ground to sea unaffected
D a greater radar range to be achieved

157) The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at
FL80 can obtain bearings from a ground VDF facility
sited 325 FT above MSL is:
A 158 NM
B 107 NM
C 114 NM
D 134 NM
169) Which of the following lists are all errors that affect the 162) (For this question use annex 062-9921A)
accuracy and reliability of the Satellite-Assisted The 'O' followed by the letters 'KABC' indicate:
Navigation system (GNSS/GPS)?
A an off-route airport
A Satellite to ground time lag; atmospheric propagation;
satellite clock B a designated alternate airport
B Satellite mutual interference; frequency drift; satellite to

ground time lag C an off-route VOR/DME
C Satellite clock; satellite ephemeris; atmospheric propagation D the destination airport
D Satellite mutual interference; satellite ephemeris;

atmospheric propagation 163) Which of the following equipments works on the
interrogator/transponder principle?
159) What is the minimum level that an aircraft, at a range of A Aerodrome Surface Movement Radar
113 NM, must fly in order to contact the tower on R/T for
a VDF bearing from an airport sited 169 FT above MSL? B Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)
A FL50 C Global Positioning System (GPS)
B FL80 D Airborne Weather Radar (AWR)
C FL100
164) The frequency of an SSR ground transmission is:
D FL60
A 1030 +/- 0.2 Mhz

168) Given :
Compass heading 270° B 1050 +/- 0.5 Mhz
Deviation 2°W
Variation 30°E C 1090 +/- 0.3 Mhz
Relative bearing 316°
What is the QDR? D 1120 +/- 0.6 Mhz
A 044°
165) Which of the following is a complete list of airborne

B 226°
weather radar antenna stabilisation axes?
C 046° A pitch and yaw
D 224° B roll and yaw
C roll and pitch

161) A DME that has difficulty obtaining a "lock-on":
(NOTE: PRF = pulse recurrence frequency, D roll, pitch and yaw
PPS = pulses per second)
A alternates search mode with periods of memory mode

lasting 10 seconds 166) In which frequency band does the Microwave Landing
System (MLS) operate?
B stays in search mode but reduces PRF to max. 60 PPS
after 15000 pulse pairs have been transmitted A VHF
C stays in search mode without a reduction in PRF B UHF
D stays in search mode but reduces PRF to max. 60 PPS C SHF

after 100 seconds
D EHF
188) The pencil shaped beam of an airborne weather radar is 209) In a primary radar using pulse technique, the ability to
used in preference to the mapping mode for the discriminate between targets in azimuth is a factor of:
determination of ground features:
A beam width
A beyond 150 NM because the wider beam gives better
definition B aerial rotation rate
B when approaching coast-lines in polar regions

C Pulse Recurrence Rate (PRR)
C beyond 50 to 60 NM because more power can be

D pulse length
concentrated in the narrower beam
D beyond 100 NM because insufficient antenna tilt angle is

available with the mapping mode 210) An aircraft carrying out a 3° glidepath ILS approach
experiences a reduction in groundspeed from 150 kt at
the outer marker to 120 kt over the threshold. The effect
158) What is the wavelength of an NDB transmitting on 375 of this change in groundspeed on the aircraft's rate of
kHZ? descent will be a decrease of approximately:
A 8000 m A 100 FT/MIN
B 8m B 150 FT/MIN
C 80 m C 250 FT/MIN
D 800 m D 50 FT/MIN
216) The receiver aerial for a NAVSTAR/GPS system should 211) Which of the following is likely to have the greatest
be mounted: effect on ADF accuracy?
A inside the tail fin to minimise the influence of reflections from A Interference from other NDBs, particularly at night
the wing and fuselage
B Frequency drift at the ground station
B in the vicinity of the receiver to avoid long transmission lines
C Interference from other NDBs, particularly during the day
C under the fuselage in order to receive correction data
transmitted by D-GPS stations D Mutual interference between aircraft aerials
D on the upper side of the fuselage in the vicinity of the centre
of gravity
212) A VOR is sited at position A (45°00'N, 010°00'E). An
aircraft is located at position B (44°00'N, 010°00'E).
Assuming that the magnetic variation at A is 10°W and
186) An apparent increase in the transmitted frequency which
at B is 15°W, the aircraft is on VOR radial:
is proportional to the transmitter velocity will occur
when:
A 195°
A the transmitter moves away from the receiver
B 185°
B the receiver moves towards the transmitter
C 180°
C both transmitter and receiver move towards each other
D 190°
D the transmitter moves towards the receiver

208) Which one of the following switch positions should be
Instrument System (EFIS) display in FULL VOR/ILS
used when selecting a code on the Transponder?
mode with an VOR frequency selected?
A IDENT (Identification)
A Figure 5
B NORMAL
B Figure 6
C OFF
C Figure 1
D STBY (Standby)
D Figure 4
206) Which of the following cloud types is most readily 219) On which of the following radar displays is it possible to
detected by airborne weather radar when using the get an indication of the shape, and to some extent the
'weather beam'? type, of the aircraft generating the return?
A altostratus A Aerodrome Surface Movement Radar (ASMR)
B cumulus B Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)
C cirrocumulus C Aerodrome Surveillance (approach) Radar
D stratus D Airborne Weather Radar (AWR)
215) Which one of the following lists information given by a 220) Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight
basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation System? Instrument Systems (EFIS), current data and values are
coloured:
A Wind velocity
A white
B True airspeed; drift angle
B cyan
C Crosstrack distance; alongtrack distance; angular course
deviation C red
D Aircraft position in latitude and longitude D magenta
205) For any given circumstances, in order to double the 221) Which one of the following Secondary Surveillance
effective range of a primary radar the power output must Radar (SSR) codes should be used by aircraft entering
be increased by a factor of: airspace from an area where SSR operation has not
been required?
A 4
A 7000
B 8
B 0000
C 16
C 2000
D 2
D 5000
217) A DME station is located 1000 feet above MSL.

An aircraft flying at FL 370, 15 NM away from the DME 222) The frequency range of a VOR receiver is :
station, will have a DME reading of:
A 15 NM A 118 to 135.95 MHz
B 17 NM B 108 to 135.95 MHz
C 16 NM C 108 to 117.95 MHz
D 14 NM D 108 to 111.95 MHz
218) When an aircraft is operating its Secondary Surveillance 223) What datum is used for the Minimum Descent Altitude
Radar in Mode C an air traffic controller's presentation (MDA) on a non-precision approach when using the
gives information regarding the aircraft's indicated flight NAVSTAR/GPS satellite navigation system?
level that is accurate to within:
A Radar altitude
A + or - 25 FT
B GPS altitude
B + or - 50 FT
C Barometric altitude
C + or - 75 FT
D If using Differential-GPS (D-GPS) the altitude obtained from
D + or - 100 FT the D-GPS, otherwise barometric altitude
214) Almanac data stored in the receiver of the satellite 191) The influence of the ionosphere on the accuracy of the
navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is used for the: satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is:
A recognition wether Selective Availability (SA) is operative A minimised by computing the average of all signals
B assignment of received PRN-codes (Pseudo Random B only significant if the satellites are located at a small
Noise) to the appropriate satellite elevation angle above the horizon
C correction of receiver clock error C negligible
D fast identification of received signals coming from visible D minimised by the receiver using a model of the atmosphere
satellites and comparing signals transmitted by the satellites
197) Instrument Landing Systems (ILS) Glide Paths provide 192) The maximum theoretical range at which an aircraft at
azimuth coverage (i) ..........° each side of the localiser FL230 may receive signals from a VOR facility sited at
centre-line to a distance of (ii) .......... NM from the mean sea level is:
threshold.
A 230 NM
A (i) 25 (ii) 17
B 170 NM
B (i) 35 (ii) 25
C 151 NM
C (i) 5 (ii) 8
D 190 NM
D (i) 8 (ii) 10
193) In order to obtain an ADF bearing the:

150) How many operational satellites are required for Full
Operational Capability (FOC) of the satellite navigation
system NAVSTAR/GPS? A sense aerial must be tuned separately
A 12 B mode selector should be switched to 'loop'
B 30 C BFO switch must be selected to 'ON'
C 24 D signal must be received by both the sense and loop aerials
D 18
194) Which of the following correctly gives the principle of
operation of the Loran C navigation system?
189) A weather radar, set to the 100 NM scale, shows a squall
at 50NM. By changing the scale to 50 NM, the return on A Frequency shift between synchronised transmissions
the radar screen should:
B Differential range by phase comparison
A decrease in area and move to the top of the screen
C Phase comparison between synchronised transmissions
B increase in area and move to the top of the screen
D Differential range by pulse technique
C increase in area and appear nearer to the bottom of the
screen
D 207) Under JAR-25 colour code rules features displayed in

decrease in area but not change in position on the screen
cyan/blue, on an Electronic Flight Instrument Systems
(EFIS), indicate:
190) The theoretical maximum range for an Airborne Weather A the flight director bar(s)
Radar is determined by the:
B flight envelope and system limits
A transmission frequency
C the sky
B pulse recurrence frequency
D engaged modes
C transmission power
D size of the aerial
196) What type of satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS 201) Which of the following lists phenomena that CANNOT be
receiver is most suitable for use on board an aircraft? detected by weather radar?
A Sequential A clear air turbulence; turbulence in cloud with precipitation
B Multiplex B snow; turbulence in clouds with precipitation
C Any hand held type C snow; clear air turbulence
D Multichannel D dry hail; clear air turbulence
187) Where, in relation to the runway, is the ILS localiser 202) A radar facility transmitting at a Pulse Recurrence
transmitting aerial normally situated? Frequency (PRF) of 1200 pulses/second will have a
maximum unambiguous range of approximately:
A At the non-approach end about 150 m to one side of the
runway and 300 m along the extended centreline A 135 NM
B At the approach end about 150 m to one side of the runway B 270 NM
and 300 m from touchdown
C On the non-approach end of the runway about 300 m from C 27 NM

the runway on the extended centreline
D 69 NM
D At the approach end of the runway about 300 m from
touchdown on the centreline
203) During a flight at FL 210, a pilot does not receive any
DME distance indication from a DME station located
198) (For this question use annex 062-9905A) approximately 220 NM away.
Which of the figures depicts an Electronic Flight The reason for this is that the:
Instrument System (EFIS) display in MAP mode?
A aeroplane is circling around the station
A Figure 2
B altitude is too high
B Figure 3
C range of a DME system is always less than 200 NM
C Figure 4
D aeroplane is below the 'line of sight' altitude
D Figure 1

199) Under JAR-25 colour code rules for Electronic Flight Which of the distances indicated will be shown on a
Instrument Systems (EFIS), the active route/flight plan is basic VOR/DME-based Area Navigation Equipment when
coloured: using a 'Phantom Station'?
A green A 11 NM
B yellow B 12 NM
C cyan C 21 NM
D magenta D 10 NM

VOR/ILS mode with an ILS frequency selected?
A Figure 4
B Figure 1
C Figure 2
D Figure 3
195) Signal reception is required from a minimum number of
satellites that have adequate elevation and suitable
geometry in order for a Satellite-Assisted Navigation
System (GPS) to carry out independent three
dimensional operation without the Receiver
Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) function. The
number of satellites is:
A 5
B 6
C 3
D 4
Professione Volare Domande Air Law and ATC
Data:
Nome Allievo:
168) If the crew on an arriving aircraft approaching a 171) One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for
controlled aerodrome will report 'field in sight', a the provision of approach control service is:
clearance for 'visual approach' may be given under
certain conditions A To conduct precision radar approach (PAR).
A The meteorological visibility must not be less than 8 km B To apply a horizontal separation less than 5 NM.
B The air traffic controller will provide separation to other C To apply a reduced vertical separation of 500 feet between
controlled traffic IFR and VFR flights.
C Continued approach will be according to VFR D To provide instructions to reduce the separation minima.
D The approach must be passing the FAF

176) Alert phase is defined as follows:
161) An aircraft manoeuvering in an airport's circuit receives

a series of red flashes from the control tower. This A A situation related to an aircraft which reports that the fuel
signifies that the aircraft must : on board is exhausted.
A not land for the moment regardless of previous instructions. B A situation where an apprehension exists as to the safety of
an aircraft and its occupants.
B not land because the airport is not available for landing.
C An emergency event in which an aircraft and its occupants
are considered to be threatened by a danger.
C give way to another aircraft.
D A situation related to an aircraft and its occupants are
D return to land and that clearance to land will be considered to be in a state of emergency.
communicated in due
course.
169) The age of an applicant for a commercial pilot licence
shall not be less than :
174) The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace
classified as C, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) A 17 years of age
AMSL, is :
B 16 years of age
A Not applicable
C 18 years of age
B 250 KT IAS
D 21 years of age
C 250 KT TAS
D 240 KT IAS
177) Which code shall be used on Mode "A" to provide
recognition of an aircraft subjected to unlawful
interference?
173) The temporary, long-term modification ( 3 months or
more) and the short-term extensive or graphical A Code 7600.
information are published as follows:
B Code 2000.
A NOTAM
C Code 7500.
B Trigger NOTAM
D Code 7700.
C AIP Supplements
D AIP Amendments
167) The closure of a runway for a year, because of
maintenance, will be published :
172) In the "Aerodrome Reference Code" the code element 2 A only in NOTAM
shall identify:
B only in AIP
A The width of the aircraft wing.
C NOTAM, AIP and MAL
B The lenght of the aircraft fuselage.
D in NOTAM and AIP, inclusive Supplement.
C The aircraft wing span and the outer main gear wheel span.
D Only the aircraft wing span.
166) Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of 170) Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of
the intermediate approach segment in an instrument Tokyo by notification addressed
approach procedure?
A the other Contracting States
A 450m (1476 ft).
B United Nations
B 600m (1968 ft).
C to all States Members of United Nations
C 150m (492 ft).
D International Civile Aviation Organisation
D 300m (984 ft).
184) At what moment during the approach should the

165) The criterion which shall be used to determine that a reported airfield altimeter setting be set?
specific level is occupied by an aircraft shall be, (except
that appropriate ATS authorities may specify a smaller A When passing 3000 FT AMSL or 1000 FT AGL
criterion):
B When passing the transition level
A +/- 150 ft.
C When passing the transition altitude
B +/- 250 ft.
D Within the transition layer
C +/- 300 ft.
D +/- 200 ft.

129) An aircraft is maintaining FL 150 within airspace class C.
Another aircraft below at FL 140 is receiving a clearance
to descend to FL 70. It is severe turbulence in the area.
164) The VMC minima for a VFR flight inside an ATS airspace When is the earliest that a clearance to descend to FL
classified as B, is : 140 or below can be expected ?
A 8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL A When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 140
and clear of clouds
B When the other aircraft has reported that it has reached FL
B 8 km visibility when at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 70
and 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
C When the other aircraft has reported that it has left FL 120
C 5 NM visibility below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, clear of
clouds
D When the other aircraft has reported that it has descended
through FL 130
D 5 NM visibility when below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1500
m horizontal and 300 m vertical from cloud
190) When a controlled flight inadvertently deviates from its

current flightplan, ATC has to be informed in case :
163) In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the
outbound track is performed from the start of turn for
categories A and B aircraft for: A it is a deviation from the track.
A 1minute 30 seconds. B the TAS varies by plus or minus 5% of the TAS notified in
the flightplan.
B 2 minutes.
C of an emergency.
C 1 minute.
D the estimated time is in error by more than 10 minutes.
D 1 minute 15 seconds.
189) "Cabotage" refers to:
192) Lights on and in the vicinity of aerodromes may be

turned off, provided that they can be again brought into A domestic air services ;
operation :
B a national air carrier;
A At least 5 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft
C a flight above territorial waters;
B At least one hour before the expected arrival of an aircraft
D crop spraying
C At least 30 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft
D At least 15 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft
188) Longitudinal separation minima based on time for 160) The convention signed by the states and moved by a
aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids desire to endure adequate compensation for persons
permit frequent determination of position and speed who suffer damage caused on the surface by foreign
provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true aircraft is :
air speed of 20 Kt or more faster than the succeeding
aircraft will be A the Tokyo Convention
A 10 minutes B the Rome Convention
B 2 minutes C the Warsaw Convention
C 5 minutes D the Paris Convention
D 3 minutes
183) A contracting state which continues to require the
presentation of a cargo manifest shall, apart from the
187) When desinsecting is required by a Contracting State as information indicated in the heading of the format of the
a public health measure, the desinsecting is made when cargo manifest, not require more than the following
the aircraft is suitably equipped by means of an item(s) :
automatic dispersal or vapour while the aircraft is flying,
but as far in advance as possible and: A The air waybill number; the number of packages related to
each air waybill number and the nature of the goods
A At least immediately before landing.
B The air waybill number and the nature of the goods
B At least 30 minute prior to land.
C The air waybill number and the number of packages related
C At least one hour prior to land. to the air way bill number
D At least when the aircraft enter that state airspace.

D The air waybill number
182) A pilot receiving an IFR clearance from ATC should:

175) The primary area of an instrument approach segment is :
A the first part of the segment ;

A Read back the initial route clearance, level assignments and
transponder codes.
B the outside part of the segment where the obstacle B Read back should be unsolicited.
clearance increases from o ft to the appropriate minimum
C A defined are symmetrically disposed about the nominal

C Read back the entire clearance as required by regulation.
flight track in which full obstacle clearance is provided.
D Read back those parts containing level assignments,
D the most critical part of the segment where the minimum vectors or any part requiring verification.
altitude should be kept very carefully;
181) A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means :

185) For the transport of potentially disruptive passengers
some supplementary safeguards are to be observed
such as :
A Dangerous airfield. Do not land.
A the boarding will be at the pilot in command discretion B Not with standing any previous instructions, do not land for
the time being.
B the boarding has to be done at the state discretion
C Come back and land.
C boarding prior to all passengers D Give way to another aircraft and hold the circuit.
D boarding after to all other passengers
180) An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it

approaches the other aircraft from the rear on a line
forming an angle of less than :
A 60 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
B 80 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
C 70 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
D 50 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
179) When conducting a surveillance radar approach, the 142) Unaccompanied baggage carried by air shall be cleared
radar controller shall terminate the surveillance radar under the procedure applicable to :
approach, except as determined by the appropriate ATS
authority, at a distance of: A accompanied baggage or under another simplified customs
procedure distinct from that normally applicable to other
A 1 NM from touchdown. cargo
B 2 NM from touchdown. B cargo and is covered by a traffic document
C 3 NM from touchdown. C cargo but is free from any kind of declaration forms
D 2.5 NM from touchdown. D cargo but clearence documents provided by airlines shall be
completed by the passenger prior to shipment
178) The transition level:

141) In order to avoid confusion, the identification numbers
given to each prohibited area, restricted area and
A Is published on the approach and landing chart for each danger area shall not be re-used for a period of
aerodrome
A At least one year after cancellation of the area to which they
B Is calculated by the commander refer
C Will be distributed via NOTAM B At least 6 months after cancellation of the area to which they
refer
D Is calculated by ATS
C At least 3 months after cancellation of the area to which they
refer
186) The convention on offences and certain acts committed D At least 2 months after cancellation of the area to which they
on board aircraft, is : refer
A the convention of Tokyo

140) According to JAR-FCL, class rating shall be established
B the convention of Paris for single pilots aeroplanes not requiring a type rating,
including :
C the convention of Rome
A All self.-sustaining gliders.
D the convention of Chicago
B All types of single-pilot, single-engine aeroplanes fitted with
a turbojet engine.
136) The privileges of the holder of a commercial pilot C Microlights having fixed wings and moveable aerodynamic
licence-aeroplane shall be : control surfaces acting in all three dimensions.
A to act as pilot-in command in any aeroplane engaged in D Any other type of aeroplane if considered necessary.
operations other than commercial air transportation
B to act as pilot in command in any aeroplane engaged in

139) Which of the following is obligating for members of
commercial air transportation
ICAO ?
C to act as pilot in command in any aeroplane certificate for
A ICAO must be informed about new flight crew licenses and
single pilot operation other than in commercial air
transportation any suspended validity of such licenses
D none of the answers are correct B ICAO must be informed about differences from the
standards in any of the Annexes to the convention
C ICAO shall approve the pricing of tickets on international

162) Aerodromes signs should be in the following airline connections
configuration :
D ICAO must be informed about changes in the national
A mandatory instruction signs; black background with red regulations
inscriptions.
B information signs; yellow or black background with black or

yellow inscriptions.
C mandatory instruction signs ; red background with black

inscriptions.
D information signs; orange background with black

inscriptions.
144) When an aircraft is experiencing difficulties, triggering 133) A Control Zone shall extend laterally to at least:
of the alert phase is the responsibility of:
A air traffic coordination centres. A 10 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes
concerned in the direction from which approaches may be
made.
B control centres only.
B 15 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes
C air traffic control and flight information centers. concerned in the direction from which approaches may be
made.
D search and rescue coordination centres.
C 20 miles from the centre of the aerodrome or aerodromes
concerned in the direction from which approaches may be
made.
137) When acknowledging mode/code setting instructions,
pilots shall: D 5 nautical miles from the centre of the aerodrome or
aerodromes concerned in the direction from which
A Read back only the code to be set. approaches may be made.
B Read back the mode and code to be set.

132) We can distinguish two types of departure routes.
C Use only the word ROGER. During a straight departure the initial departure track is
within :
D Use only the word WILCO.
A 5° of the alignment of the runway centre-line
145) The minimum radar separation to be provided to aircraft

B 10° of the alignment of the runway centre-line
established on the localizer course shall be:
C 25° of the alignment of the runway centre-line
A 2.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.
D 15° of the alignment of the runway centre-line
B 5.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course.
C 3.0 NM between aircraft on the same localizer course. 131) The longitudinal separation minima based on time
between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation
D 3.0 NM between aircraft on adjacent localizer course. aids permit frequent determination of position and
speed, is:
A 15 minutes.
135) Which of the following Annexes to the Chicago
convention contains minimum specifications for the
design of aerodromes?
B 3 minutes.
A Annex 6 C 10 minutes.
B Annex 11 D 5 minutes.
C Annex 10
1) A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace
D Annex 14 classified as C has to maintain the following minima of
flight visibility and distance from clouds
A 5km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL 1500 m

134) The International Civil Aviation Convention Annex horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
containing standards and recommended practices for
Personnel Licensing is : B 5 NM at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1500 m
horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
A Annex 1
C 8 km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, and clear of
B Annex 2 clouds
C Annex 11 D 8 km at or above 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL 1500 m

horizontal and 300 m vertical from clouds
D Annex 12
138) A controlled flight is requested to inform the appropriate 156) An approaching aircraft may descent below the MSA if :
ATC unit whenever the average True Air Speed at
cruising level varies or is expected to vary from that
given in the flight plan by plus or minus: A the pilot is following the published approach procedure
A 5% B all mentioned answers are correct
B 3% C the pilot has the field and the underlying terrain in sight and
will keep it in sight;
C 2%
D the aircraft gets radar vectors ;
D 10 %
155) An aircraft is flying under Instrument Flight Rules in an

area where the visibility is unlimited and the sky is clear
152) The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft (free of clouds), when it totally loses
departed from the same aerodrome and following the radiocommunications. The procedure to be followed is:
same track, and the preceeding aircraft is maintaining a
true airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding
aircraft, is:
A adopt a VFR flight level and continue flight onto destination
A 3 minutes. B continue flight onto destination, complying with last received

clearances then with filed flight plan.
B 10 minutes.
C descend to En-route Minimum Safe Altitude and join closest
airfield open to IFR operations
C 2 minutes.
D land on the closest appropriate aerodrome, then advise Air
D 5 minutes. Traffic Services of landing
159) The vertical position of an aircraft at or above the 143) How far beyond the boundary of the holding area
transition level will be reported : extends the buffer area?
A as flight level. A 3 km.
B as height. B 5 NM.
C as altitude. C 3 NM.
D According to pilot's choice. D 5 km.
158) Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in- 153) In an instrument departure procedure the minimum
VOR approach continue its descend below the OCA? obstacle clearance at the departure end of runway
equals:
A When seems possible to land
A 0 ft.
B When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and
with the runway lights in sight B 3.3 % gradient.
C When the aircraft has the control tower in sight C 35 ft.
D When the aircraft is in contact with the ground but not with D 0.8 % gradient.
the runway in sight yet
193) Required Navigation Performance (RNP) shall be

157) Except in some special cases the establishment of prescribed
change-over points should be limited to route segments
of A by states but not on the basis of regional air agreements
A 60 NM or more B by ICAO on the basis of regional air navigation agreements
B 75 NM or more
C by regional air navigation agreements
C 50 NM or more D by states on the basis of regional air navigation agreements
D 100 NM or more
151) If an arriving aircraft is making a straight in approach a 147) Two minutes separation may be used between departing
departing aircraft may take off in any direction aircraft if they are to fly on the same track, when:
A until two minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to A The preceeding aircraft is 30 kt or more faster than the
be over the instrument runway following aircraft.
B until ten minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to B The preceeding aircraft is 20 kt or more faster than the
C until five minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to C The preceeding aircraft is 10 kt or more faster than the
D until three minutes before the arriving aircraft is estimated to D The preceeding aircraft is 40 kt or more faster than the
150) When a member state allows police officers, security 146) For commercial pilot licence aeroplane the applicant
staff, bodyguards or other agents of foreign states to shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than if the
carry weapons in their territory for the protection of privileges of the licence are to be exercised at night
aircraft in flight, permission for the carriage of weapons
should be conditional upon : A 5 hours of night flight time including 3 take offs and 5
landings as pilot in command
A Prior notification by the state of embarcation to the foreign
state in which the weapons will be carried on the airport of B 5 hours of night flight time including 5 take offs and 5
arrival and notification of the pilot in command of a decision landings as pilot in command
to permit a weapon to be carried on board his aircraft
C 5 hours of night flight time including 5 take offs and 5
B Notification of the pilot in command of a decision to permit a landings either as pilot in command or as co-pilot
weapon to be carried on board his aircraft only
D 5 hours of night flight time including 3 take-offs and 3
C Agreement between the state of embarcation and the state landings as pilot in command
of destination
D Agreement between the state of embarcation and the airport 154) When a fixed-distance marking has to be provided this
of arrival marking shall commence at :
A 450 m from threshold

149) The runway edge lights shall be :
B 600 m from threshold
A white
C 300 m from threshold
B blue
D 150 m from threshold
C green
D red 232) In a standard holding pattern turns are made :
A to the left
148) Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS
authority, the horizontal radar separation minimum shall B in a direction depending on the entry ;
be:
A 3.5 NM.
C in a direction depending on the wind direction
B 5.0 NM.
D to the right
C 3.0 NM.
D 10.0 NM.
225) The pilot in command of an aircraft: 235) What will be your action if you can not comply with a
standard holding pattern?
1 - must comply immediately to all instructions received
from ATC. A Follow the radio communication failure procedure.
2 - is responsible only if he is the "pilot flying".
3 - may deviate from air regulations for safety reasons. B inform the ATC immediately and request a revised
4 - may be exempt from air regulations in order to clearance.
comply to an ATC instruction.
5 - may ask for the modification of an unsatisfactory C a non-standard holding pattern is permitted.
clearance.

D it is permitted to deviate from the prescribed holding pattern
at pilots discretion.
correct statements?
A 2-3-5
240) Given:
B 3-5
AGL = above ground level
AMSL = above mean sea level
C 3-4-5 FL = flight level
D 1-4 within uncontrolled airspace, the first usable level in IFR

must provide a 500 ft margin above the following two
levels:
238) In order to meet wake turbulence criteria, for arriving
aircraft and using timed approaches, what minima shall
A 3 000 ft AMSL or 1 500 ft AGL.
be applied to aircraft landing behind a heavy or a
medium aircraft ? B FL 30 or 100 ft AGL.
A medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft - 2 minutes C FL 30 or 1 500 ft AGL.
B medium aircraft other medium aircraft - 2 minutes D 3 000 ft AMSL or 1 000ft AGL.
C light aircraft behind medium aircraft -4 minutes

233) The Air Traffic control Services : do not prevent
D medium aircraft behind heavy aircraft - 3 minutes collisions with terrain.
A Except when an aircraft is flying IFR in IMC.

237) If radio communication failure is experienced on an IFR
flight in IMC, generally the pilot shall: B Correct, expect when an IFR flight is vectored by radar.
A Try to get contact on other frequencies either ground or C Prevent collisions with terrain
aircraft stations.
D Do not prevent collisions with terrain
B Transmit blind indicating details required at least 2 times.
C Try to get contact on other frequencies either ground or

241) The movement area of an airfield, the adjacent lands and
aircraft stations - Transmit being indicating important details
required 2 times. buildings or the parts of them with controlled access is
called:
D Land on the nearest suitable aerodrome and report the
termination of the flight to ATC. A Security program.
B Manoeuvring area.
236) The pilot of an aircraft losing two-way communications
shall set the transponder to Mode A Code: C Terminal.
A 7700. D Aeronautical part
B 7600.
C 2000.
D 7500.
231) According with the "Aerodrome Reference Code" the 227) In case of aircraft registered in other Contracting States,
"Code number 4" shall identify an aircraft reference field which are not engaged in schedule international
length of: services, and which are making flights across the
territory of a Contracting State or stopping for non
A 1 500 m. traffic purposes, such Contracting State shall accept the
information contained in a flight plan as adequate
B 1 200 m. advance notification. This information is to be received :
C 1 800 m and over.

A at least 2 hours in advance of arrival
D 1 600 m.
B at least 4 hours in advance of arrival
C at least 1 hour in advance of arrival
230) Flight information service shall be provided to all D at least 12 hours in advance of the expected ETA
aircraft which are likely to be affected by the information
and which are:
A Provided with the air traffic control services and otherwise 191) According to JAR-FCL, an instrument rating is valid for :
known to the relevant air traffic service units.
B Provided with air traffic control services, only. A one year
C Known to the relevant air traffic services units. B two years
D Known to the relevant air traffic services units by a filed C The period of validity of the licence.
flight plan.
D Indefinitely
229) During circling-to-land ( with or without prescribed flight

tracks), the maximum allowed airspeed for a Cat B 234) "ASDA" (Acceleration Stop Distance Available) is:
aeroplane, in order to remain within the protection
envelope, is:
A The length of the take-off run available plus the length of
A 120 kt stopway (if stopway provided) .
B 125 kt
B The length of the runway plus the length of stopway
available (if stopway provided).
C 150 kt C The length of the take-off run available plus the length of
stopway and clearway (if provided) .
D 135 kt
D The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the
clearway.
228) Runway threshold lights shall be:
248) The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot

A Fixed lights showing green or white colours. performing under the supervision of the pilot in
command the functions and duties of a pilot in
B Fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of command shall be entitled to be credit :
approach to the runway.
A the flight time towards the total time required for higher
C Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of grade of pilot licence in accordance with the requirements of
approach to the runway. the licensing authority
D Fixed lights green colours. B 50% of his flight time towards the total time required for
higher grade of pilot licence
C in full with his flight time towards the total time required for
higher grade of pilot licence
D in full with his flight but not more than 300 hours towards the
total time required for a higher grade of pilot licence
255) When an aircraft is subjected to unlawful interference, 251) When "Secondary Radar" is used, an aircraft may be
the pilot-in-command shall indicate the situation by identified by one of the following procedures:
setting the transponder to:
A Observation of compliance with an instruction to operate
A 7500. transponder from "ON" to "STBY" and back to "ON".
B 7700. B To request pilot to set transponder on position "ON".
C 7600. C To request pilot to set transponder on position "OFF".
D 7000. D To request pilot to switch from "ON" to "STDBY".
254) For a category I precision approach, the decision height 239) An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful
cannot be lower than : interference ('hijacked') and is forced to divert from the
cleared track or cruising level without being able to
A 150 ft communicate with ATS shall try to:
B 100 ft
A Declare an emergency
B As soon as possible commence emergency descent in

C 200 ft
order minimize the difference between cabin pressure and
outside pressure
D 250 ft
C Continue at an altitude that differs from the semicircular rule
with 1000 feet when above FL 290 and 500 feet when lower
253) Which does ATC Term "Radar contact" signify? than FL 290
D Fly the emergency triangle

A ATC is receiving your transponder and will furnish vectors
and traffic advisories until you are advised that contact has
been lost.
249) Track separation between aircraft using the same FIX
shall be applied requiring the aircraft to fly:
B Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and
radar flight instructions will be provided until radar
identification is terminated. A At least 45° separated at a distance of 15 miles or more
from the FIX.
C Your aircraft has been identified and you will receive
B At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from
separation from all aircraft while in contact with this radar
facility. the FIX.
D You will be given traffic advisories until advised that the C At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 miles or more
service has been terminated or that radar contact has been from the FIX.
lost.
D At least 45° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from
the fix.
252) The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable

grounds to believe that a person has commited or is
about to commit, on board the aircraft, an offense 224) Which procedure you follow if during an IFR flight in
VMC you have two way communication failure?
against penal law
A may not require or authorise the assistance of other crew

A Return to the aerodrome of departure.
members
B Continue the flight maintaining VMC and land as soon as
B may deliver such person to the competent authorities practicable.
C may request such person to disembark C Continue the flight at the assigned level and route; start
approach at your ETA.
D may require the assistance of passengers to restrain such D Maintain your assigned level and route and land at the
person nearest aerodrome that has VMC conditions.
247) Taxiway centre line lights other than an exit taxiway 242) When a RADAR operator says the following to an
shall be: aircraft: "fly heading 030", the pilot must fly heading:
A Fixed lights showing blue. A 030° true
B Fixed lights showing yellow. B 030° true, in still air conditions (thereby flying the true track)
C Fixed lights showing white. C 030° magnetic
D Fixed lights showing green. D 030° magnetic in still air conditions (thereby flying the
magnetic track)
246) An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are

permitted and all flights are subject to air traffic control 250) The prescribed re-examination of a licence holder
service. IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights operating in an area distant from designated medical
and receive traffic information in respect of VFR flights. examination facilities may be deferred at the discretion
VFR flights receive traffic information in respect of all of the licence authority, provided that such deferment
other flights, is classified as : shall only be made as an exception and shall not exceed:
A Airspace A A A single period of three month in the case of a flight crew

member of an aircraft engaged in commercial operations.
B Airspace D
B Two consecutive periods each of six month in the case of a
flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non-
C Airspace B commercial operations.
D Airspace E C A single period of six month in the case of a flight crew

member of an aircraft engaged in non-commercial
operations.
245) In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the D Two consecutive periods each of three month in the case a
outbound track is performed from the start of the turn flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non-
for categories C, D, E aircraft for: commercial operations.
A 1 minute 15 seconds.
200) The transition level:
B 1 minute.
C 1 minute 30 seconds. A shall be the lowest available flight level above the transition
altitude that has been established
D 2 minutes.
B shall be the highest available flight level below the transition
altitude that has been established
244) A flight plan shall be submitted prior to departure for a C for the aerodrome is published in the AGA section of the AIP
controlled flight at least:
D is calculated and decided by the commander
A 50 minutes prior to leave the blocks.
B 60 minutes prior to departure.

226) Turning departures provide track guidance within :
C 10 minutes prior to departure.

A 15 Km
D 30 minutes prior to leave the blocks.
B 20 Km
243) The holder of a pilot licence, when acting as co-pilot of C 10 Km

an aircraft required to be operated with a co-pilot, shall
be entitled to be credit with not more than : D 5 Km
A 50 % of the co-pilot flight time towards the total flight time

required for a higher grade of pilot licence
B 40 % of the co-pilot flight time towards, the total flight time

required for a higher grade of a pilot licence
C 100 hours of flying time required for a higher grade of a pilot

licence
D 60 % of the co-pilot flight time towards, the total flight time

required for a higher grade of a pilot licence
206) The color identification of the contents of droppable 201) Repetitive flight plans (RPL's) shall not be used for
containers and packages containing survival equipment flights operated regularly on the same day(s) of
should take the form of coloured streamers according to consecutive weeks and :
the following code:
A On at least 20 days consecutively
A Yellow for miscellaneous equipment.
B On at least 20 occasions
B Red for medical supplies and first aid equipment.
C On at least ten occasions or every day over a period of at
C Blue for blankets and protective clothing. least ten consecutive days
D Black for food and water. D On at least ten occasions or every day over a period of at
least 20 consecutive days
205) The color identification of the contents of droppable

209) A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS airspace
containers and packages containing survival equipment
classified as B has to maintain the following minima of
should take the form of coloured streamers according to
flight visibility and distance from clouds
the following code:
A Black for miscellaneous equipment.

A 5 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMS 1.500 m horizontal and
300 m vertical from clouds
B Blue for blankets and protective clothing. B 8 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL, 1 500 m horizontal
and 300 m vertical from clouds
C Red for food and water.
C 5 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 300 m vertical from
D Yellow for medical supplies and first aid equipment. clouds
D 5 km below 3050 m (10.000 ft) AMSL and clear of clouds
204) When the holders of aircraft transport pilot licences

aeroplane and helicopter have passed their 40th
birthday the medical examination shall be reduced from : 199) An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane
shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than :
A 12 months to 6 months
A 200 hours of flight time and 70 hours as pilot in command
B 12 months to 3 months
B 150 hours of flight time and 100 hours as pilot in command
C 24 months to 12 months
C 200 hours of flight time or 150 hours if completed during a
course of approved training as a pilot of aeroplanes
D none of the answers are correct
D 200 hours of flight time and 80 hours as pilot in command
203) An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision

light:
permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control
A outside the daylight-period in flight, but not on the ground service and IFR flights are separated from other IFR
when it is being towed; flights and from VFR flights VFR flights are separated
from IFR flights and receive traffic information in
B while taxiing, but not when it is being towed;
respect of other VFR flights, is classified as :
C outside the daylight-period at engine-start. During the A Airspace E

daylight-period this is not applicable;
D on the ground when the engines are running

B Airspace B
C Airspace C
208) While on IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which D Airspace D

causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action
must be taken?
A Squawk 7700
B The appropriate ATC unit shall be notified of the action

taken as soon as circumstances permit
C Request an amended clearance or cancel the IFR flight plan
D Submit a detailed report to ATC within 24 hours
197) The "estimated total time" in block 16 of a VFR flight 216) Area Control Centres issue clearances for the purpose
plan is the estimated time : of:
A required by the aircraft from the moment it moves by its own A Providing advisory service
power until it stops at the end of the flight (block time).
B Achieving separation between controlled flights
B required by the aircraft from brake release at take-off until
landing.
C Achieving separation between IFR flights
C of endurance at cruising power taking into account pressure
and temperature on that day. D Providing flight Information Service
D required by the aircraft from take-off to arrive overhead the

destination airport. 223) Contracting states shall carry out the handling,
forwarding and clearance of airmail and shall comply
with the documentary procedures as prescribed :
196) The minimum age for obtaining a PPL is :
A by the Regional Postal Office
A 18 years
B in the Acts in force of the Universal Postal Union
B 21 years
C by IATA and accepted by the contracting states
C 17 years
D by IATA and accepted by ICAO
D 16 years
222) Longitudinal separation minima based on distance

using DME for aircraft at the same cruising level and
195) The informations on holding, approach and departure track, provided that each aircraft utilizes "on Track"
procedures, are found in the following part of the AIP DME stations and separation is checked by obtaining
simultaneous DME readings, is :
A AD
A 40 NM
B MAP
B 20 NM
C ENR
C 10 NM
D GEN
D 25 NM
194) In which chapter of the AIP can you find a list with
"location indicators"? 221) When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C
equipment, the pilot:
A GEN
A Shall continuously operate this mode unless otherwise
B AGA directed by ATC.
C ENR B Shall continuously operate this mode only when directed by

ATC.
D AD
C Shall continuously operate this mode regardless of ATC
instructions.
202) Aircraft "A" with an ATC clearance is flying in VMC D Shall continuously operate this mode only when the aircraft
conditions within a control area. Aircraft "B" with no is within controlled airspace.
ATC clearance is approaching at approximately the
same altitude and on a converging course. Which has
the right of way? 220) An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted and
receive flight information service if requested, is
A Aircraft "A" if "B" is on its right classified as
B Aircraft "A" regardless of the direction which "B" is A Airspace C

approaching
B Airspace E
C Aircraft "B" regardless of the direction "A" is approaching
D Aircraft "B" if "A" is on its left

C Airspace G
D Airspace F
219) When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued 214) The units responsable for promoting efficient
by another contracting state, the validity of the organization of search and rescue service are:
authorization:
A Alerting centre and rescue coordination centre.
A Shall not extend beyond one year for ATPL and PCL.
B Flight information centre and rescue coordination centre.
B Is only considered for PPL.
C Area control centre, flight information centre and rescue
C Shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence. coordination centre.
D Depends on the regulations of the contracting sate which D Rescue coordination centre and rescue sub-centres.
renders valid the licence.
213) Whilst flying in an aerodrome's traffic circuit, an aircraft

207) In general, during a straight-in approach, the MDH receives a series of green flashes from the tower. The
cannot be below: aircraft :
A the OCH A must give way to another aircraft.
B 200 ft B must come back to land and the landing clearance will be
sent in due time.
C 350 ft
C is cleared to land.
D 400 ft
D must land immediately and clear the landing area.
217) A separation minimum shall be applied between a light

or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and between a 212) According to JAR-FCL, Class 2 medical certificate for
LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier private pilots will be valid for
aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the
lighter aircraft is landing on the same runway in the A 24 months until age of 40, 12 months until age of 60 and 6
opposite direction or on a parallel opposite direction months thereafter
runway separated by :
B 60 months until age of 30, 24 months until age of 50, 12
A 730 m months until age of 65 and 6 months thereafter
B Less than 760 m

C 60 months until age of 30, 24 months until age of 40, 12
months thereafter
C 760 m D 24 months until age of 40, 12 months thereafter
D Less than 730 m

211) In a precision approach category I lighting system, the
centre line and crossbar lights shall be:
128) Air traffic services unit clocks and other time recording
devices shall be checked as necessary to ensure A Flashing lights showing variable green.
correct time to within plus or minus
B Fixed lights showing variable white.
A 10 seconds of UTC at all times
C Flashing lights showing variable white.
B 1 minute of UTC at all times
D Fixed lights showing variable green.
C 30 seconds of UTC at all times
D 15 seconds of UTC at all times
215) A checklist of AIP supplements currently in force shall

be issued at intervals of :
A Not more than 28 days
B Not more than 2 months
C Not more than one month
D Not more than three months
210) "ESSENTIAL TRAFFIC" is that controlled flight to which 45) A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a
the provision of separation by ATC is applicable, but designated track followed by a turn in the opposite
which, in relation to a particular controlled flight is not direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed
separated therefore by the appropriate separation along the reciprocal of the designated track is called a :
minima. Whenever separation minima is not applied.
The following flights are considered essential traffic one A Procedure turn.
to each other.
B Base turn.
A Controlled VFR flights and VFR flights.
C Race track.
B All IFR flights.
D Reversal track.
C Only controlled IFR flights.
D All IFR flight in controlled airspaces and controlled VFR.

44) Each contracting state shall provide an Aeronautical
Information Service (AIS) in its territory and for areas in
which the state is responsible for the Air Traffic
218) During an arrival procedure under an IFR flight plan in Services outside its territory, and this shall include the
VMC conditions, traffic avoidance is the responsibility preparation and origination of:
of:
A Only NOTAM's and Circulars.
A the pilot in command.
B Integrated Aeronautical Information Package.
B the approach controller.
C Only AIP and NOTAM's.
C the radar controller.
D AIP, NOTAM's, Circular and AIRAC.
D the airport controller.
43) Which "code letter" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway

40) What is the shortest distance in a sequence for landing to be used by an aircraft having a wheel base of 15 m?
between a 'Heavy' aircraft preceding a 'Light' aircraft
A Code letter "D".
A 6 NM
B Code letter "E".
B 3 NM
C Code letter "C".
C 2 km
D Code letter "B".
D 10 km
48) The vertical IFR separation minimum being applied by

33) "TODA" take-off distance available is: ATC within a controlled airspace below FL 290 is:
A 2000 feet (600 m).

A The length of the take-off run available plus the length of
clearway available (if provided).
B 500 feet (150 m).
B The length of the runway available plus the length of
clearway available (if provided). C 2500 feet (750 m).
C The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the D 1000 feet (300 m).
stopway and clearway (if provided).
D The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the
stopway. 41) An aircraft which is not engaged in scheduled
international air services and which is making a flight to
or through any designated airport of a Contracting State
and is admitted temporarily free of duty shall be allowed
46) What is the minimum vertical separation between to remain within that State without security for customs
aircraft flying IFR below flight level 290? duty.
A 500 feet A for a period of 48 hours
B 1500 feet B for a period of 12 hours
C 2000 feet
C For a period to be established by that State
D 1000 feet D for a period of 24 hours
49) The international convention defining rules relative to 36) The national civil aviation security programme shall be
the responsibilities of international air carriers for the established by :
carriage of passengers, baggage and freight is the :
A ECAC
A Tokyo Convention.
B ICAO and other organisations including the contracting
B Hague Convention. state concerned
C Montreal Convention. C Each contracting state
D Warsaw Convention. D ICAO
39) A minimum radar separation shall be provided until 35) During an instrument approach, followed by a missed
aircraft are etablished inbound on the ILS localizer approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the
course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum intermediate phase of this missed approach is :
is, when independent parallel approaches are being
conducted : A 30 m (98 ft)
A 1.0 NM B 50 m (164 ft)
B 2.0 NM C 90 m (295 ft)
C 3.0 NM D 120 m (384 ft)
D 5.0 NM
64) During an instrument approach, the minimum obstacle
clearance (MOC) of the initial approach segment primary
38) "Code letter D" shall be chosen to identify a taxiway area is equal to :
used by aircraft having an outer main gear wheel span
of less than 9 m. The taxiway width shall be: A 300 m (984 ft)
A 25 m. B 210 m (690 ft)
B 18 m. C 120 m (394 ft)
C 15 m. D 150 m (492 ft)
D 23 m.
42) Your aircraft is intercepted by a military aircraft
The signals given by this aircraft conflict with ATC
37) Were an operational advantage can be obtained, an ILS instructions
procedure may include a dead reckoning segment from You should :
a fix to the localizer. The DR track will:
A request ATC for other instructions.
A Intersect the localizer at 30° and will not be more 5 NM in
length. B select code A7500 on your transponder.
B Intersect the localizer at 45° and will not be more 5 NM in C follow the instructions of the intercepting aircraft.
length.
D follow ATC instructions.
C Intersect the localizer at 30° and will not be more 10 NM in
length.
D Intersect the localizer at 45° and will not be more 10 NM in 56) Related to the three entry sectors in a holding pattern,
length. there is a zone of flexibility on either side of the sectors
boundaries of:
A 10°.
B 15°.
C 20°.
D 5°.
130) When the transponder appears to be unserviceable prior 59) When an aircraft will pass through the level of another
to departure and restorage is impossible, than : aircraft on the same track, the following minimum
longitudinal separation shall be provided:
A departure to the nearest suitable airport where repair can be
effected is allowed A 5 minutes at the time the level is crossed.
B you must indicate the failure in the fightplan, after which the B 20 minutes at the time the level is crossed.
ATC will endeavour to provide for continuation of the flight;
C the flight can only continue in the most direct manner; C 15 minutes at the time the level is crossed.
D you are not allowed to commence the flight

D 10 minutes at the time the level is crossed.
47) Referring to the operational aspects in the unlawful

62) Concerning to RNP (Required Navigation Performance)
seizure acts, it can be said:
types, the indication RNP 4, represents a navigation
accuracy of
A The contracting States will not assist with navigation aids,
air transit services, etc, to an aircraft affected by an unlawful
A plus or minus 4 NM on a 95 per cent containment basis
seizure act.
B plus or minus 4 NM on a 90 per cent containment basis B The Annex 17 does not recognise the importance of
consusltations between the State where an aircraft affected
C plus or minus 4 NM on a 98 per cent containment basis by an unlawful interference act has landed and the aircraft
operator's State.
D plus or minus 4 miles on a 90 per cent containment basis
C The contracting States will make provisions to ensure that
an aircraft affected by an unlawful seizure act, which has
landed in their territory, world be retained, unless its
61) When independent parallel approaches are being departure is justified to protect lives.
conducted and vectoring to intercept the ILS localizer
course or MLS final approach track,the final vector shall D The contracting States will make provisions to ensure that
be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the ILS an aircraft affected by an unlawful seizure act, which has
localizer course or MLS final approach track at an angle landed in their territory, would be detained in all cases.
not greater than :
A 20 degrees 57) At the commencement of final approach, if the controller

possesses wind information in the form of components,
B 15 degrees significant changes in the mean surface wind direction
and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean
C 30 degrees cross-wind component significant change is :
D 25 degrees A 5 KT
B 3 KT
60) Which statement regarding approach control service is
correct ? C 10 KT
A During a visual approach an aircraft is maintaining its own D 8 KT

separation ;
B If it is anticipated that an aircraft has to hold for 30 minutes

or more, an Expected Approach Time will be transmitted by
Using the ground - air visual code the symbol meaning
the most expeditious means to the aircraft
"we have found all personnel" is :
C Approach control have to advise the aircraft operators about
A 2
substantial delays in departure in any event when they are
expected to exceed 45 minutes ;
B 3
D An approach sequence shall be established according to
the sequence of initial radio contact between aircraft and C 4
approach control ;
D 1
55) A so called "Visual Approach" can be performed : 51) Above flight level FL 290 the vertical flight separation
between aircraft on the same direction is:
A during IFR and VFR flights in VMC; A 3 000 feet.
B during IFR flights, if the cloudbase is 1000 ft more than the B 1 500 feet.
appropriate DA or MDA for that procedure;
C as in above, but in addition there should be a visibility of 5,5 C 4 000 feet.

km or more
D 2 000 feet.
D during IFR flights, if there is permanent sight on the
movement area and the underlying ground;
50) Except otherwise established by the appropriate ATS
authority a Surveillance Radar Approach (SRA) shall be
54) The transfer of an aircraft from one ATC unit to another terminated at a distance from the touchdown of:
is done :
A 4 NM.
A through a central control unit.
B 5 NM.
B by agreement with the receiving unit.
C 3 NM.
C automatically at the control zone boundary.
D 2 NM.
D with the pilot's consent.
58) The informations concerning charges for

53) Which of the following is information that is not given in aerodromes/heliports and Air Navigation Services are
AIP approach and landing charts on the following part of the AIP
A Obstacles penetrating the obstacle free area in the final A GEN

approach sector
B FAL
B OCH or OCA
C RAC
C DME-frequencies
D AD
D Visibility minima
8) When the visual manoeuvring (circling) area has been

52) An AIRAC is : established the obstacle clearance altitude/height
(OCA/H) is determined:
A A notice distributed by means of telecommunication
containing information A For all categories of aircraft, and it is the same for all of
concerning the establishment, condition or change in any them.
aeronautical
facility service, procedure or hazard, the timely knowledge B For each category of aircraft, and it may be different for
of which each one of them.
is essential to personnel concerned with flight operations.
C Only for categories A and B aircraft.
B A package which consists of the following elements : AIP,
supplements to the AIP, NOTAM, AIC, checklists and D Only for categories C, D and E aircraft.
summaries.
C An Acronym for a system aimed at advance notification

34) If no ICAO identifier has been attributed to an alternate
based on common effective dates, of circumstances
necessitating significant changes in operating procedures. airport (box 16) of a flight plan form...
D A publication issued by or with the authority of a state A write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional
containing aeronautical information of a lasting character information) DEGT/followed by the name of the airport.
essential to air navigation.
B write ZZZZ in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional
information) ALTN/followed by the name of the airport.
C write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional

information) ALTN/followed by the name of the airport
D write XXXX in box 16 and indicate in box 18 (additional

information) DEGT/followed by the name of the airport
14) A flashing red light from control tower during an 16) It is permissible to eliminate from consideration a
approach to land means: particular sector where a prominent obstacle exists in
the visual manoeuvring (circling) area outside the final
A The airport is temporarily closed, continue circling approach and missed approach area. When this option
is exercised, the published procedure:
B Give way to other aircraft in emergency
A Prohibits the circling approach to the affected runway.
C Continue circling and wait for further instructions
B Prohibits circling within the total sector in which the obstacle
exists.
D The airport is unsafe, do not land
C Permits circling only in VMC.
13) The holder of a pilot's licence should inform the D Recommends not to perform circling within the total sector
Authority of any illness which they are suffering which in which the obstacle exists.
involves incapacity to undertake those functions to
which the licence relates throughout a period of a
certain number of days or more. The number of days is :
9) Your transponder code assigned by ATC is 5320.
In flight, in case of radio communications failure, you
A 30 will squawk code :
B 60 A A 0020 Mode C
C 90 B A 7600 Mode C
D 21 C A 5300 Mode C
D A 7620 Mode C
12) The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace
classified as E, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft)
AMSL, is :
17) To be able to execute a public transport flight, the
minimum and maximum age (with ATPL) is :
A 260 KT IAS
A 18 and 60 years
B 250 KT IAS
B 21 and 59 years
C 250 KT TAS
C 16 and 60 years
D Not applicable
D 17 and 59 years
11) Longitudinal separation minima based on time for

aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids
permit frequent determination of position and speed will
containers and packages containing survival equipment
be
should take the form of coloured streamers according to
the following code:
A 5 minutes
A Yellow for blankets and protective clothing.
B 3 minutes
B Red for food and water.
C 10 minutes
C Blue for medical supplies and first aid equipment.
D 15 minutes
D Black for food and water.
6) The vertical position of an aircraft at or below the

transition altitude will be reported:
A as hlight level.
B according pilot's choice.
C as altitude.
D as height.
5) Which information is not included in Instrument 24) The light shown by an "Aerodrome Identification
Appraoch Charts (IAC) in the AIP Beacon" at a land aerodrome shall be:
A Obstacles penetrating the obstacle free area in the final A White and green colour identification given by Morse Code.
approach sector
B White colour identification given by Morse Code.
B OCA or OCH
C Green colour identification given by Morse Code.
C DME-frequencies
D Blue colour identification given by Morse Code.
D Any addition to minima when the aerodrome is used as
alternate
31) An aircraft in climb or descent is considered to have

crossed a level when the SSR mode C derived level
4) An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall
information indicates that it has passed this level in the
have completed in aeroplanes not less than :
required direction by:
A 100 hours of night flight as pilot in command or as co-pilot
A +/- 300 ft.
B 100 hours of night flight only as pilot in command
B More than 200 ft.
C 75 hours of night flight as pilot in command or as co-pilot

C More than 300 ft.
D 75 hours of night time only as pilot in command
D 300 ft.
3) The units providing Air Traffic Services are:

30) In a precision approach category I, lighting system, the
single, two and three light sources on the centre line
A Area Control Centre - Flight Information Region - Approach have a length of:
Control Office and Tower.
A 200 m.
B Area Control Centre - Flight Information Centre - Approach
Control Office - Aerodrome Control Tower and Air Traffic B 250 m.
Services reporting office.
C 300 m.
C Area Control Centre - Approach Control Office and
Aerodrome Control Tower.
D 150 m.
D Area Control Centre - Advisory Centre - Flight Information
Centre - Approach Control Office and Tower.
29) According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for a CPL (A) who
has satisfactorily followed an completed an integrated
2) The Rome Convention and later amendments deals with : flying training course shall have completed as a pilot of
aeroplanes having a certificate of airworthiness issued
or accepted by a JAA Member State at least:
A offences and certain other acts committed on board aircraft
A 150 hours of flight time
B Damage caused by foreign aircraft to third parties on the
surface B 200 hours of flight time
C Regulation of transportation of dangerous goods

C 150 hours of flight time plus 10 hours of instrument ground
time
D Damage caused by any aircraft to third parties on the
surface D 200 hours of flight time plus 10 hours of instrument ground
time
10) A circling approach is:

28) A precision approach runway CAT. II is an instrument
runway served by ILS and visual aids intended for
A A flight manoeuvre to be performed only under radar
operations down to:
vectoring.
B A contact flight manoeuvre. A a RVR of 250 meters and a DH of not less than 200 ft.
C A visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway in sight. B a RVR of 550 meters and a DH of not less than 200 ft.
D A visual manoeuvre to be conducted only in IMC. C a RVR of 200 meters and a DH of not less than 100 ft.
D a RVR of 300-450 meters and a DH of not less than 100 ft.
27) The "VMC and own separation" ATC clearance is used 23) Three aircraft, (1), (2) and (3), arrive successively at ten
for a controlled flight to cross the level of another minute intervals, overhead the scene of a recent aircraft
controlled flight when: accident.
A Requested by the pilot and during the day light. -aircraft (1) is unable to establish contact with the
Search and Rescue Centre
B Requested by the pilot and authorized by the state overflown. -aircraft (2) is able to contact the Search and Rescue
Centre
-aircraft (3) is a Search and Rescue helicopter
C This procedure is not allowed.
The command of the situation is the responsibility of;
D Requested by the pilot, during the day light and authorized
by the state overflown. A (1), then by mutual consent (2) until the completion of
operations.
15) An aircraft making a radar approach should be advised B (1), and then by mutual consent to (3).
to consider executing a missed approach, if the position
or identification of the aircraft is in doubt during any C (1) until the completion of operations.
portion of the final approach or if the aircraft is not
visible on the radar display for significant interval D (1), then by mutual consent (2) and then (3).
during the last:
A 3 NM.
22) In an offset entry into an omnidirectional racetrack
B 1 NM. procedure, the time on the 30° offset track is limited to:
C 4 NM.
A 2 minutes.
D 2 NM.
B 3 minutes.
C 1 minute 30 seconds.
25) Alerting service shall be provided: D 1 minute.
A In so far as practicable to all aircraft having filed a flight plan

or otherwise known by the ATS. 21) Where does the initial phase of a missed approach
procedure end?
B For all controlled flight, to any aircraft known or believed to
be subject of unlawful interference, and in so far as A At the missed approach point.
practicable to all aircraft having filed a flight plan or
otherwise known to the ATS.
B At the first point where 50m (164 ft) obstacle clearance is
obtained and can be maintained.
C For all aircraft provided with air traffic control services, only.
D To any aircraft known or believed to be subject of unlawful

C At the point where a new approach, holding or return to en-
route flight is initiated.
interference, only.
D At the point where the climb is established.
65) What is a "barrette"?

20) Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to
A a CAT II or III holding position. parallel runways provided that :
B a frangible structure on which approach lights are fixed. A the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at
least 20° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the
adjacent approach
C three or more groundlights closely spaced together to
appear as a bar of lights.
B the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at
D a highted obstacle near the runway and/or taxiway.
adjacent approach
C the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at

adjacent approach
D the missed approach track for one approach diverges by at

adjacent approach
19) During radar-control, a "radar-controller" shall issue a 110) In order to meet the wake turbulence criteria, what
missed-approach instruction, in case the "tower- minimum separation should be applied when a medium
controller" has not issued a "landing-clearance" at the aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft and both are
moment the aircraft is : using the same runway ?
A 3 NM from touch-down; A 2 minutes
B 4 NM from touch-down; B 3 minutes
C 2 NM from touch-down; C 4 minutes
D 1NM from touch-down; D 1 minute
18) When radar identification of aircraft has been achieved, 109) What action should be taken if contact is los with the
ATC unit shall: aerodrome on the down wind leg ?
A Inform the aircraft prior to issue any instructions or advice A Request an amended clearance
based on the use of radar.
B Initiate a missed approach
B Inform the aircraft only if communication's load permits it.
C Descend to OCL/ACH and in the hope that the visibility is
C not advise the aircraft before issuing instructions. better at a lower altitude
D Inform the aircraft only if radar identification has been D Maintain your circling altitude and turn towards the
achieved without availability of SSR. aerodrome
26) The aerodrome category for rescue and fire fighting is 108) On a non-precision approach a so-called "straight-in-
based on: approach" is considered acceptable, if the angle
between the final approach track and the runway
A The over-all length of the longest aeroplane. centreline is :
B The longuest aeroplane maximum width only A 30 degrees or less
C The over-all length of the longest aeroplane normally using B 40 degrees or less
the aerodrome and its maximum fuselage width.
C 20 degrees or less
D The over-all length of the longest aeroplane normally using
the aerodrome and its maximum fuselage weight. D 10 degrees or less
104) Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the

107) The radar controller shall not request the pilot to adjust
inbound radial in relation to the IAF. These sectors are
the speed where the aircraft has passed:
established for a distance from the IAF of:
A 20 NM
A 2 NM from the threshold on final approach.
B 10 NM
B 3 NM from the threshold on final approach.
C 5 NM C 5 NM from the threshold on final approach.
D 25 NM
D 4 NM from the threshold on final approach.
112) In relation to the three entry sectors, the entry into the
97) Flight Information Service shall be provided to aircraft in
holding pattern shall be according to:
order to avoid collision hazards when operating in
airspace classes :
A Heading.
A C, D, E, F, and G
B Course.
B F and G only
C Bearing.
C A, B, C, D, E, F and G
D Track.
D F only
105) "Instrument runways" are the following runways 101) Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of
intended for the operation of aircraft using instrument a controlled flight deviates from the track?
approach procedures.
A Inform the ATC unit immediately
A Precision approach runways in general.
B If VMC, maintain this condition, waiting for the ATC
B Non precision approach runways, precision approach instructions
runways category I, II and III.
C Notify ATC of the new track immediately and comply with
C Precision approach runways category I, II and III. instructions
D Instrument approach runways, precision approach runways D Adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as
category I, II and III. practicable
113) The minimum sector altitude provides 300 metres 100) Which statement is correct?
obstacle clearance within how many miles radius from
the navigation facility upon which the instrument
approach procedure is predicated:
A The lower limit of a TMA shall be established at a height of
at least 700ft AGL;
A 20 NM (37 km). B The lower limit of a CTA shall be established at a height of
at least 1500ft AGL;
B 30 NM (55 km).
C The upper limit of a CTR shall be established at a height of
C 25 NM (46 km). at least 3000ft AMSL;
D 15 NM (28 km). D The lower limit of an UIR may coincide with an IFR cruising
level
103) (For this question use annex 010-9803A) 99) Where State has not established minimum IFR altitudes,
What is the meaning of the showed symbol in the the minimum height of an aircraft above the highest
ground air visual signal code for use by survivors ? obstacle over high terrain, or in mountainous areas shall
be for an IFR flight :
A Drop emergency supplies at this point
A at least 2000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position
B Require medical assistance
B at least 1000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position
C Require assistance
C at least 1000 feet within 8 KM of the estimated position
D Landing here impossible
D at least 2000 feet within 5KM of the estimated position
102) According to JAR-FCL, licence holders do not exercise

the privileges of their licences, related ratings or 63) What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above
authorisations at any time when they are aware of any FL 140?
decrease in their medical fitness which might render
them unable to safely exercise those privileges. They
shall without undue delay seek the advice of the
A 2 minutes 30 seconds.
authority or AME when becoming aware of hospital or
clinic admissions for: B 1 minute 30 seconds.
A More than 12 days C 1 minute.
B More than one week D 2 minutes.
C Any period
106) The following minimum radar separation shall be
D More than 12 hours provided between aircraft on the same localizer with
additional longitudinal separation as required for wake
turbulence:
A 5 NM.
B 2.5 NM.
C 3 NM.
D 2 NM.
120) The protection areas associated with instrument 124) You may act as a flight instructor to carry out flight
approach procedures are determined with the instruction for the issue of a PPL
assumption that turns are performed at a bank angle of:
A With an ATPL
A The bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate for all procedures with
airspeed limitation related to aeroplane categories. B With a PPL plus flight instructor rating
B 25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is

lower, for departure and approach instrument procedures, C With a CPL
25° for circling-to-land with prescribed flight tracks and 15°
for missed approach procedures. D With a theorical CPL examination plus flight instructor rating
C 25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is

lower, for departure, approach or missed approach 123) What does the abbreviation DER mean?
instrument procedures, as well as circling-to-land (with or
without prescribed flight tracks).
A Distance end of route.
D 25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is
lower, for departure and approach instrument procedures, B Departure end of route.
as well as circle-to-land, and 15° for missed approach
procedures.
C Distance end of runway.
D Depature end of runway.

127) The Approach Control Service is an air traffic control
service
A An air traffic control service provided for the arriving and 111) If a licence holder is unable to perform the flight crew
departing controlled flights. functions appropriate to that licence due to illness, the
authority must be informed :
B An air traffic control service for IFR flights arriving and
departing. A if still not fit to fly when his/her current medical certificate
expires
C An air traffic control service provided for IFR and VFR
flights within a Control Zone. B After 21 days of consecutive "illness"
D An air traffic control service provided for IFR traffic within a

C as soon as possible if the illness is expected to last more
Control Zone. than 21days
D after one calendar month of consecutive illness

126) Flight Information Region (FIR) is an airspace within
which the following services are provided:
121) Taxiway edge lights shall be:
A Flight Information Service, Alerting Service and Advisory
Service.
A Fixed showing blue.
B Flight Information Service only.
B Fixed showing green.
C Flight Information Service and Advisory Service.
C Fixed showing yellow.
D Flight Information Service and Alerting Service.
D Flashing showing blue.
125) When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued

by another contracting state the validity of the
96) Pilots shall not operate the SSR special position
authorization
indicator (IDENT) feature unless:
A the Contracting state rendering a licence valid may extend
A They operate within non controlled airspace.
the date of the validity at its own discretion
B shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence B Requested by ATC.
other than for use in private flights
C They operate within controlled airspace.
C shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence
D They operate a transponder with Mode C.
D shall not extend more than 15 days from the date of the
licence
119) What is the speed limit (IAS) in airspace class E? 114) If a stepdown fix is established on the final approach
track, a descend shall be made so as to :
A 250 kt for IFR and VFR UP TO FL 100 A leave the intermediate approach altitude, step by step until
reaching the MAPt.
B 250 kt only for VFR up to FL 195
B pass the fix not below the specified crossing altitude.
C 250 kt VFR and IFR, all levels
C follow approximately 50 feet above the nominal glide path.
D 250 kt only for IFR up to FL 100
D pass the fix at the rate of descent of 500 feet/min, which is
obligatory.
118) While taxiing, an aircraft receives from the airport
controller the following light signal : a series of green
flashes. This signal means that the aircraft : 122) The applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall
have completed in aeroplanes not less than ...... hours of
A must return to its point of departure. cross-country flight time, of which not less than ......
hours shall be as pilot-in command or co-pilot
performing, under the supervision of the pilot in
B is cleared for take-off.
command, the duties and functions of a pilot in
command, provided that the method of supervision
C may continue to taxy towards the take-off area. employed is acceptable to the licensing authority. The
state above hours are respectively :
D must stop.
A 150 hours and 75 hours
117) An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence shall B 200 hours and 75 hours
have completed in aeroplanes not less than :
C 200 hours and 100 hours
A 100 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 30
hours of instrument ground time D 250 hours and 10 hours
B 150 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 75

hours of instrument ground time.
72) When letters are used for registration mark
C 75 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 20 combinations shall not be used which might be
hours of instrument ground time. confused with urgent signals for example
D 75 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 30 A LLL

hours may be instrument ground time.
B DDD
116) (For this question use annex 010-9806A) C PAN

What is the meanning of the showed symbol in the
ground-air visual signal code for use by rescue units ? D RCC
A we have found all personnel
B we have found only some personnel 98) The common mark shall be selected from the series of
symbols included in the radio call signs allocated :
C we are returning to base

A to the International Civil Aviation Organisation by the
International Telecommunication Union
D operation completed
B to the state of registry by the International Civil Aviation
Organisation
115) When on a RNP 1 route is indicated B235 Y, means that
all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP C to the State of registry by the International
Telecommunication Union
tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg
segments defined with a radius of :
D to state of the operator
A 22.5 NM between 30° and 90° at and above FL260
B 20 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above

FL200
C 22.5 NM between 30° and 90° at and above FL200
D 25.0 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL

250
78) The Warsaw convention and later amendments deals 80) Each contracting state shall establish measures to
with: ensure that the aircraft operator is informed when
passengers are obliged to travel because they have
A the regulation of transportation of dangerous goods been the subject of judicial or administrative
proceedings in order that appropriate security measures
B operator¹s licence for international scheduled aviation can be taken
C the security system at airports

A These measures are of the discretion of the contracting
state.
D limitation of the operator¹s responsibility vis-á-vis B The state above question in incomplete. The pilot in
passenger and goods transported command and the aircraft operator are to be informed.
C Correct.
77) Which of the following alternatives describes the
complete CAT 1 ('Calvert') type of approach light D The aircraft operator and the pilot in command are only to be
system? informed when any passenger is the subject of judicial
proceedings.
A 4 crossbars, centre line with 3 or 2 lamps per light unit
B 3 crossbars, centre line with 3, 2 or 1 lamp per light unit 73) Who establishes the OCA/H (Obstacle Clearance
Altitude/Height) for an approavh procedure?
C 3 crossbars, centre line with 3 or 2 lamps per light unit
A the operator
D 5 crossbars, centre line with 3, 2 and 1 lamp per light unit
B the pilot-in-command ;
76) Radar identification of a departing aircraft can be C the "flight-operations" of the company
achieved if a radar blip is observed within a certain
distance from the end of the runway. D the state
Identification has to be achieved within :
A 5NM
81) The planned cruising speed for the first leg or all of the
cruising portion of the flight must be entered in the
B 1NM speed box of a flight plan form. This speed is the:
C 2NM A true air speed (TAS).
D 3NM B estimated ground speed (G/S).
C indicated air speed (IAS).

75) The obligation of a carrier to transport any person away
from the territory of a Contracting State shall terminate D true air speed at 65% power.
from the moment such person has been definitely
admitted in other Contracting State of destination.
71) An aircraft which is being subjected to unlawful
A The operator has no obligation. interference ('hijacked') and is forced to divert from the
cleared track or cruising level without being able to
B The obligation is for the Contracting State of the operator. communicate with ATS shall try to:
C The obligation of the operator terminates as soon as the A Declare an emergency

person leaves the aeroplane.
B As soon as possible commence emergency descent in
D The stated above is correct. order minimize the difference between cabin pressure and
outside pressure
C Continue at an altitude that differs from the semicircular rule

with 1000 feet when above FL 290 and 500 feet when lower
than FL 290
D Fly the emergency triangle
70) What does the abbreviation OIS mean? 66) The STOPWAY is a defined rectangular area on the
ground at the end of take-off run available prepared as a
suitable area where:
A Obstacle identification surface.
A An aircraft taking-off or landing can be stopped.
B Obstacle in surface.
B An aircraft can be stopped in the case of an abandoned take-
C Obstacle identification slope. off.
D Obstruction in surface. C A landing aircraft can be stopped if overcoming the end of

runway.
D A landing aircraft can be stopped only in emergency.

69) The convention of Tokyo applies to damage :
A only caused in the territory of a contracting state by an 74) In a precision approach (ILS), obstacle clearance
aircraft registered in the territory of another contracting state surfaces assume that the pilot does not normally
deviate from the centreline, after being established on
B caused in the territory of a contrating state by any aircraft track, more than:
regardless the registration
A Half a scale deflection.
C the above convention does not deal with this item
B One scale deflection.
D caused in the territory of a contracting state or in a ship or
aircraft registered there in , by an aircraft registered in the
territory of another contraction state
C A quarter of scale deflection.
D One and a half of scale deflection.

68) Unless otherwise published or instructed by ATC, all
turns after initial entry into the holding pattern shall be
made into which direction? 88) A Special Air Report comprises a number of sections.
In section I the pilot fills in :
A To the right.
A weather noted ;
B To the left.
B flight identification and weather noted ;
C First right and then to the left.
C urgent messages
D Teardrop to the left and then to the right.
D a position report, including aircraft identification, height,
position and time ;
67) According to JAR-FCL, a professionnal flight crew
licence license issued by a non JAA State may be
rendered valid for use on aircraft registered in a JAA 95) An applicant for a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane
Member State shall have completed not less than ........ hours of cross
country flight time as pilot in command including a
A At the diiscretion of the Authority of the Member State cross country flight totalling not less than ........ km (-
concerned for a period not exceeding the period validity of NM), in the course of which full stop landings at two
basic licence different aerodromes shall be made. The hours and
distance referred are :
B At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State
concerned for a period not exceeding one year A 20 hours and 270 km (150NM)
C At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State B 20 hours and 540 km (300NM)
concerned for a period not exceeding one year, provided
that the basic licence remains valid. C 10 hours and 270 km (150 NM)
D At the discretion of the Authority of that Member State

D 15 hours and 540 km (300NM)
concerned for a period not exceeding one year, provided that
the basic licence remains valid.
94) One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for 89) (For this question use annex 010-9805A)
the provision of approach control service is: Using the ground - air visual signal code, the letter
similar to the symbol meanning "REQUIRE MEDICAL
A To conduct surveillance radar approaches. ASSISTANCE" is :
B To apply a reduced vertical separation of 500 feet between A 3

IFR flights and VFR flights.
B 4
C To apply a horizontal separation less than 5 NM.
C 1
D To provide instructions in order to reduce separations
minima, if accepted by the pilots. D 2
93) A controlled airspace extending upwards from a

258) A notice providing information on Rules of the Air, Air
specified limit above the earth is:
Traffic Services and Air Navigation Procedures and
distributed in advance of its effective date is:
A Advisory airspace.
A A NOTAM RAC.
B Flight Information Region.
B An ATS NOTAM.
C Control area.
C An Advisory NOTAM.
D Control zone.
D An AIRAC.
92) Where an upper flight information region (UIR) is

established, the procedures applicable there in :
87) Which action shall be taken by an aircraft in the traffic
pattern of an aerodrome, experiencing radio failure to
A have to be as indicated by ICAO council
indicate difficulties which compel it to land without
requiring immediate assistance?
B have to be as agreed at the regional air navigation meetings
A The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights
C need not to be identical with those applicable in the
underlying flight information region B Switching on and off three times the landing lights
D has to be the same as the underlying flight information region
C Switching on and off four times the landing lights
D Switching on and off four times the navigation lights

91) Any contracting state may denounce the Convention of
Montreal by written notification to the depositary
governments. The denounciation shall take effect :
86) A lower limit of a Control Area shall be established at a
A 2 months following the date ICAO is informed height above the ground level or water of not less than:
B 4 months following the date on which notification is received

A 150 metres.
by the Depositary Governements
B 500 metres.
C 6 months following the date on which notification is received
by the Depositary Governments C 200 metres.
D 3 months following the date on which notification is received D 300 metres.

by the Depositary Governments
85) Longitudinal separation minima based on time for

79) Normally all turns, which are requested by a radar
aircraft at the same cruising level when navigation aids
controller have to be executed as:
permit frequent determination of position and speed
provided that the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true
A the weather permits.
air speed of 40 Kt or more faster than the succeeding
aircraft will be
B Standard rate turns if not otherwise instructed by ATC.
A 5 minutes
C Decided on pilot's discretion.
B 10 minutes
D Prescribed by the aircraft operations.
C 2 minutes
D 3 minutes
84) Runway-lead-in lighting should consist : 418) Flying exactly on your current flight plan route, you
receive and acknowledge the following instruction from
the radar controller:
A always of a straight row of lights towards the runway "Turn immediately, continue heading 050° until further
advised".
B of flashing lights only; Time now is 18:36 UTC. At 18:37 UTC you find out that
radio communication cannot be stablished again and
C of an arbitrary amount of green lights; you have to return to your current flight plan route:
D of group of at least three white lights flashing in sequence A With an intercept of at least 45°.
towards the runway ;
B With an intercept of at least 30°.
83) An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted IFR C On the nearest way.
flights are subject to Air Trafic Control Service and are
separated from other IFR flights. All flights receive D With an intercept of 20° or more.
traffic information as far as is practical, is classified as
A Airspace D
431) Dependent parallel approaches may be conducted to
parallel runways provided that : the missed approach
B Airspace B track for one approach diverges by :
C Airspace A A at least 45° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the
adjacent approach
D Airspace E
B at least 25° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the
adjacent approach
82) During an instrument approach, followed by a missed C at least 15° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the
approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the adjacent approach
final phase of this missed approach is :
D at least 30° (degrees) from the missed approach track of the
A 90 m (295 ft) adjacent approach
B 120 m (384 ft)

430) A four-engine aeroplane is about to take-off from an
C 50 m (164 ft) airport where poor weather conditions are prevailing.
The closest accessible aerodrome is three flying hours
D 30 m (98 ft) away.
The take-off minima to be observed at departure airfield
are:
90) The rule governing flight over water for a single engined A VH (visibility horizontal) greater or equal to VH required for
aeroplane engaged in the public transport of landing, and ceiling greater or equal to ceiling required for
passengers: landing, with an available instrument approach procedure
A limits such flight to a height sufficient to land safely if the B ceiling greater or equal to DH/MDH, and VH (horizontal
engine fails. visibility) greater or equal to VH required for landing, with an
available instrument approach procedure
B does not permit such flight in any circumstances.
C VH (visibility horizontal) greater or equal to VH required for
C limits flight to up to 10 minutes flying time from the nearest landing on the runway to be used
shore.
D ceiling greater or equal to DH or MDH, and VH (horizontal
D limits flight to up to 8 NM from the nearest shore. visibility) greater or equal to VH required for landing, with an
available instrument approach procedure to be envisaged
with one engine out
425) An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall hold

429) In the vicinity of an aerodrome that is going to be used
A a current class III medical assessment by the aircraft the vertical position of the aircraft shall
be expressed in:
B a current class medical assessment as prescribed by the
state issuing the licence A flight level on or below the transition level
C a current class I medical assessment B flight level on or below the transition altitude
D a current class II medical assessment C altitude above sea level on or below the transition altitude
D altitude above sea level on or above the transition altitude
428) In the "PAPI" system the pilot during an approach will 424) Obstacle clearance for an ILS approach is based on the
see the two units nearest the runway as red and the two assumption that the pilot does not deviate from the
units farthest from the runway as white when: centre line more than :
A Only on the approach slope. A full scale deflection of the localizer indicator.
B On or close to the approach slope. B half scale deflection of the glidepath indicator and horizontal
35 ° off the centerline.
C Above the approach slope.
C full scale deflection of the localizer indicator and half scale
deflection of the glidepath indicator.
D Below the approach slope.
D half scale deflection of the localizer indicator.
433) When on a RNP 1 route is indicated A342 Z, means that

all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP
423) A controlled airspace extending upwards from the
tolerance of a tangential arc between the straight leg
surface of the earth to a specified upper limit is:
segments with a radius of :
A 15 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL

A Advisory airspace.
200
B Control zone.
B 22.5 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and above FL
250 C Control area.
C 25 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and below FL190 D Air traffic zone.
D 15 NM on the route between 30° and 90° at and below FL

190
422) Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies
dimensions of aerodromes are codes for different
runways. Which is the minimum width of a runway with
426) Where a "Secondary Surveillance Radar" (SSR) is not runway code 4?
available, radar identification may be achieved by one of
the following procedures: A 45 metres
A To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 30°

B 35 metres
or more.
B To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 20° C 40 metres

or more.
D 50 metres
C To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 10°.
D To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 45°. 421) Clearances will be issued by an ATC unit for the
purpose of:
434) The position reports shall contain the following A Providing alerting services
elements of information in the order listed:
B Achieving separation between controlled flights
A Aircraft identification, position, time, true air speed, flight
level or altitude, next position and time over. C Providing flight Information Service
B Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude,

D Providing advisory services
next position and time over.
C Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude,

next position and time over and ensuing significant point. 420) Which code shall be used on mode "A" to provide
recognition of an emergency aircraft?
D Aircraft identification, position, flight level or altitude,time,
next position and time over and ensuing significant point. A Code 7500.
B Code 7600.
C Code 7000.
D Code 7700.
449) Normally missed approach procedures are based on a 447) When it becomes apparent that an aircraft is in difficulty,
nominal missed approach climb gradient of: the decision to initiate the alert phases is the
responsibility of the:
A 0.8%.
A operational air traffic control centres
B 3.3%.
B flight information or control organisations
C 5%.
C air traffic co-ordination services
D 2.5%.
D search and rescue co-ordination centres
427) Except in special circumstances determined by the

public authorities concerned, when a passenger is 446) In an approach procedure, a descent or climb conducted
passing through the territory of a contracting state and in a holding pattern is called:
has to stay in that contracting state until the next flight
for lack of facilities or any other circumstances, the A Racetrack pattern.
contracting state where the international airport is
located shall permit such a passenger to remain within B Procedure turn.
its territory without requiring visas prior to the arrival
when
C Shuttle.
A the passenger is to leave that state within two (2) weeks
from the day of his (her) arrival D Based turn.
B the passenger is to leave that state within one (1) day from
the day of his (her) arrival 445) The width of the corridor around a specified arrival
route is :
C the passenger is to leave that state within 72 (seventy two)
hours from the time of arrival of that passenger
A ± 10 NM
D the passenger is to leave that state within two (2) days from
the day of his (her) arrival B ± 12.5 NM
C ± 2.5 NM
441) Air Traffic Service unit means:
D ± 5 NM
A Air Traffic Control units and Air Services reporting offices.
444) For an IFR flight to an airport equipped with navaids, the

B Flight Information Centers and Air Services reporting offices.
estimated time of arrival is the estimated time at which
the aircraft:
C Air Traffic Control units, Flight Information Centers or Air
Services reporting offices. A will arrive overhead the initial approach fix.
D Air Traffic Control units and Flight Information Centers.
B will land.
C will stop on the parking area.

256) A radio communications, "Distress" differs from
"Urgency" because in the first case: D will leave the initial approach fix to start the final approach.
A There is a serious and imminent danger requiring immediate
assistance.
432) Which is the content of section 2 of Air-Report (AIREP)?
B The aeroplane has suffered damages which impair its
fitness to fly.
A Estimated time of arrival (ETA), endurance.
C The aeroplane will not be able to reach a suitable aerodrome.
B Estimated elapse time (EET), endurance.
D The aeroplane or a passenger's safety require the flight
immediately interrupted. C Present position, estimated time of arrival (ETA).
D Estimated time over FIR boundary, endurance.
442) Air traffic control service is provided for the purpose of: 437) What is the length of an approach lighting system of a
precision-approach runway CAT II :
A Preventing collisions between aircraft, between aircraft and A 900m

obstacles on the manoeuvring area and expediting and
maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic
B 150m
B Applying separation between aircraft and expediting and
maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic C 300m
C Preventing collisions between controlled air traffic and D 600m

expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic
D Avoiding colisions between all aircraft and maintaining an

orderly flow of air traffic 436) The contents of Aeronautical Information Publication
(AIP) are :
417) In the event of a delay of a controlled flight, the

A GEN, ENR (en-route) and AD (aerodromes)
submitted flight plan should be amended or cancelled
and a new flight plan submitted when the delay is: B GEN, AGA, COM, RAC, FAL, SAR, MET, MAP.
A 30 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks. C GEN, ENR, RAC, AD
B 30 minutes in excess of the estimated time of departure. D GEN, AGA, COM, ENR, FAL
C 60 minutes in excess of the estimated time off blocks.

435) Which of the following correctly lists special purpose
D 60 minutes in excess of the estimated time of departure. codes that are to be used in conjunction with Secondary
Surveillance Radar (SSR)?
440) The objectives of ICAO was ratified by the :

A Distress 7700. Hijacking 7600. Communicaton failure 7500.
B Distress 7500. Hijacking 7700. Communication failure 7600.

A Geneva convention 1936
C Distress 7600. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7700.
B Chicago convention 1944
D Distress 7700. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7600.
C Warzaw convention 1929
D Geneva convention 1948 443) What are the controlled IFR separation methods applied
by ATC?
439) Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies A Vertical, horizontal and longitudinal separation.
dimensions of aerodromes is a specific dimension given
for the approach light system for CAT 1 ILS. What B Time separation and track separation.
should be the length of this approach light system?
C Composite separation.
A 420 metres
D Vertical, horizontal and composite separation.
B 1000 metres
C 1200 metres
393) The Alerting Service is provided by:
D 900 metres
A The ATS unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment.
438) How many separate segments has an instrument B The ATC unit responsible for the aircraft at that moment,
approach procedure. when it is provided with 121.5 MHz.
A Up to 4. C Only by ATC units.
B Up to 5.
D The Area Control Centres.
C 3.
D 4.
419) If radio contact with the intercepting aircraft is 401) When are ATIS broadcasts updated ?
established but communication on a common language
is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by
the intercepted aircraft to communicate that he is unable A Only when weather conditions change enough to require a
to comply with the instructions received ? change in the active runway or instrument approach in use
A CAN NOT COMPLY B Only when the ceiling and/or visibility changes by a
reportable value
B UNABLE TO COMPLY
C Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content
change or reported values
C NOT POSSIBLE
D Every 30 minutes if weather conditions are below those for
D CAN NOT VFR ; otherwise hourly
399) The speed limitation for both IFR flights and VFR flights 394) The licensing authority shall determine whether
inside ATS airspace classified as B, when flying below experience as pilot under instruction in a synthetic flight
3.050 m (10.000 ft) AMLS, is : trainer which it has approved, is acceptable as part of
the total flight time of 1 500 hours. Credit for such
experience shall be limited to a maximum of :
A Not applicable
A 100 hours of which not more than 15 hours shall have been
B 250 KT IAS acquired in a flight procedure trainer or basic instrument
flight trainer
C 250 KT TAS
B 75 hours of which not more than 20 hours shall have been
D 260 KT IAS acquired in a flight procedure trainer or basic instrument
flight trainer
C 100 hours, of which not more than 25 hours shall have been
398) The SIGMET service, is in the AIP, in the following part : acquired in a flight procedure trainer or basic instrument
flight trainer
A MET
D 100 hours of which not more than 20 hours shall have been
acquired in a basic instrument flight trainer
B GEN
C ENR
402) The air traffic control unit has reported 'radar contact',
what does that mean to the pilot?
D AGA
A The radar identity of the aircraft has been established
397) For controlled traffic that shall be separated in the B The pilot does not have to follow up the position of the
vicinity of an airport, separation minima may be reduced: aircraft
A At the discretion of the air traffic controller C The aircraft is subject to positive control
B If the commander of the involved aircraft so requests D Position reports may be omitted
C Only if the air traffic controller has the involved aircraft in

sight 392) Which of the following flights has the greatest priority to
land ?
D When the commander in the following aircraft has the
preceding aircraft in sight and is able to maintain own A VIP (Head of state) aircraft
separation
B Hospital aircraft carrying a very sick person needing
immediate medical attention
396) A "RNAV" distance based separation minimum may be
used at the time the level is crossed, provided that each C Emergency aircraft
aircraft reports its distance to or from the same "on
track" way-point. This minimum is: D Military aircraft
A 60 NM.
B 50 NM.
C 20 NM.
D 80 NM.
391) A notice containing information concerning flight safety, 395) When letters are used for the registration mark
air navigation, technical, administration or legislative combinations shall not be used which might be
matters and originated at the AIS of a state is called: confused with urgent or distress signals for example
A Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP). A RCC
B NOTAM. B LLL
C AIRAC. C XXX
D Aeronautical Information Circular (AIC). D DDD
390) Which letter is used in a flight plan to indicate that the 409) Except when prescribed in procedures or made possible
flight commences in accordance with IFR and by agreements, aircraft under radar-control shall not be
subsequently changes to VFR? vectored closer to the boundary of controlled airspace
than :
A Y
A 5 NM
B I
B 2,5 NM
C V
C 1,5 NM
D Z
D 3 NM
389) The longitudinal separation minima based on time

between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation 416) The radar separation minimum may be reduced but not
aids permit frequent determination of position and below:
speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true
airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding A 3.0 NM.
aircraft, is:
B 5.0 NM.
A 10 minutes.
C 2.0 NM.
B 3 minutes.
D 1.5 NM.
C 5 minutes.
D 6 minutes.
415) The "Aerodrome Reference Code" is a code composed
of two elements which are related to the aeroplane
performance characteristics and dimensions. These
388) While taxying an aircraft receives the following light elements are a combination of a number and a letter as
signal from the control tower : series of red flashes. This in the example under listed:
signal means that the aircraft :
A 2B.
A must vacate the landing area in use.
B 6D.
B must stop.
C 5E.
C must return to its point of departure.
D 4F.
D may continue to taxi to the take-off area.
414) What is the minimum wake turbulence separation

387) In the primary area, the obstacle clearance for the initial criteria when a light aircraft is taking off behind a
approach segment provides at least : medium aircraft and both are using the same runway ?
A 984 ft A 3 minutes
B 1476 ft B 1 minute
C 492 ft C 5 minutes
D decreasing from 984 to 492 ft D 2 minutes
413) According to JAR-FCL, an applicant for an IR(A) shall 450) When cargo, unaccompanied baggage or stores are not
hold a PPL (A)including a night qualification or CPL(A) unladen at their intended destination but are unladen at
and shall have completed at least 50 hours : another international airport, the contracting state where
the unlading takes place; if satisfied that there has been
A Instructional flight time as student-pilot-in-command of no gross negligence or careless by the operator
aeroplanes or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be
in aeroplanes. A shall not impose penalties, fines, customs duties and taxes
on the operator
B Cross country flight time as pilot-in-command in aeroplanes
or helicopters of which at least 10 hours shall be in B shall not impose penalties and fines but customs duties and
aeroplanes. taes on thexes on the operator
C Cross country flight time as pilot of aeroplanes or helicopters C shall not impose penalties, fines and custom duties but
of which at least 10 hours shall be in aeroplanes. taxes on the operator
D Instructional flight time as studen-pilot-in-command of D shall not impose penalties, fines and taxes but custom
aeroplanes. duties on the operator
412) Entering a holding pattern at FL 110 with a jet aircraft, 408) Each member state should designate an appropriate
which will be the maximum speed ? authority with its administration to be responsible for
the development implementation and maintenance of a
A 230 kt IAS. national aviation security programme. This programme
should apply :
B 230 kt TAS.
A to all international civil air transport including aircraft
engaged solely in the carriage of cargo and yet to domestic
C 240 kt IAS.
flights at the discretion of each member state
D 240 kt TAS. B only to all international civil transport including aircraft
engaged solely in the carriage of cargo
400) The validity of the instrument-rating aeroplane - IR(A) is : C only to passengers and aircrew in international civil transport
flights
A 6 months D only to passengers and aircrew in international civil transport

flights and domestic flights
B 5 years
C 2 years 407) An information issued by a meteorological watch office

concerning the occurence or expected occurence of
specified en-route weather phenomena which may affect
D 1 year
the safety of low-level aircraft operations and which was
not already included in the forecast issued for low level
flights in the flight information region concerned or sub-
410) Low intensity obstacle lights on mobile objects shall be: area thereof is
A An AIRMET information
A Flashing red or preferably yellow.
B A SIGMET information
B Fixed red or preferably orange.
C A NOTAM
C Fixed red or preferably blue.
D An En-Route Meteo Report
D Flashing blue.
406) At the commencement of final approach, if the controller

significant changes in the mean surface wind direction
and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean
head-wind component significant change is :
A 10 KT
B 5 KT
C 8 KT
D 4 KT
405) The longitudinal separation minima between aircraft 489) Whenever ATIS is provided, the broadcast information
departed from the same aerodrome and following the shall be updated
same track, and the preceeding aircraft is maintaining a
true airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeeding A as prescribed by the meteorological office
aircraft, is:
B as prescribed by the state
A 5 minutes.
C immediately a significant change occurs
B 10 minutes.
D at least every half an hour independently of any significant
C 8 minutes. change
D 3 minutes.
482) Cruising level IFR during cruise within controlled
airspace shall be given as flight level (FL)
404) A strayed aircraft is :
A When QNH is higher than the standard pressure 1013 hPa
A an aircraft in a given area but whose identity has not been B only in airspace class A
established
B An aircraft which has deviated significantly from its intended C if the obstacle clearance is more than 2000 feet
track or which reports that it is lost
D Above the transition altitude when applicable
C only that aircraft which has deviated significantly its intended
track
495) The identification of each prohibited, restricted and
D only that aircraft which reports that it is lost
danger area shall be composed by :
A The letters P (Prohibited), R (Restricted) and D (Dangerous)

403) When the Mach number tecnique (MNT) is being applied, followed by figures
and the preceding aircraft shall maintain a mach number
equal to or greater than the following aircraft a RNAV B The nationality letters for location indicators assigned to the
distance based separation minimum may be used on state or territory, followed the letters P. R and D and figures
the same direction tracks in lieu of 10 minutes
longitudinal separation minimum. The distance is : C The letters P (Prohibited), R (Restricted) and D (Dangerous)
for the area concerned and figures
A 80 NM
D The nationality letters for the location indicators assigned to
the state, followed by P, R and D
B 100 NM
C 70 NM
494) Who is responsible for an ATC clearance to be safe in
respect to terrain clearance?
D 60 NM
A The ATC.
411) You have received holding instructions for a radio fix. B The air traffic service reporting office when accepting the
The published holding procedure is: all turns to the flight plan.
right, 1 minute outbound, inbound MC 052°. You are
approaching the fix on an inbound Magnetic Track 232°. C The pilot in command.
Select the available entry procedure.
D The aircraft operator.
A Either "off set" or "parallel".
B Off set.
493) The VMC minima for an airspace classified as "B" above
10 000 feet MSL are :
C Parallel.
A 1 nautical mile horizontaly and 1 000 feet verticaly from
D Direct. clouds; 8 km visibility
B clear of clouds; 8 km visibility
C 1 mile horizontaly and 1 000 feet verticaly from clouds; 5 km

visibility
D 2 000 metres horizontaly, 1 000 feet verticaly from clouds; 8

km visibility
492) One minute separation may be used between departing 488) If radio communication is established during an
aircraft if they are to fly on tracks diverging by at least: interception but communications in a common language
is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by
A 25° immediately after take-off. the intercepting aircraft to request the intercepted
aircraft to descend for landing ?
B 45° immediately after take-off.
A Descend for landing
C 30° immediately after take-off.
B Descend
D 15° immediately after take-off.
C Let down
D You land
497) The longitudinal separation minima based on time
between aircraft at same cruising level where navigation
aids permit frequent determination of position and
speed and the preceding aircraft is maintaining a true 487) An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft shall
airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeeding immediately attempt to establish radio communication
aircraft, is: with the intercepting aircraft on the following
frequencies:
A 15 minutes.
A 121.5 MHz - 125.5 MHz
B 5 minutes.
B 121.5 MHz - 282.8 MHz
C 3 minutes.
C 243 MHz - 125.5 MHz
D 10 minutes.
D 121.5 MHz - 243 MHz
490) Normally, the maximum descent gradient, applicable in

the final approach segment to ensure the required 486) An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft, if equipped
minimum obstacle clearance, is : with SSR transponder shall, unless otherwise instructed
by the appropriate ATS unit, select one of the following
A 8%. code on mode "A"
B 6,5%. A 7 500
C 5%. B 7 600
D 7%. C 7 000
D 7 700
498) When, in air space where VFR are permitted, the pilot in
command of an IFR flight wishes to continue his flight in
accordance with visual flight rules, until the destination 485) Control Area (CTA) is defined as follows:
is reached:
1 He must inform the control unit ("cancel IFR")
2 He must request and obtain clearance. A A controlled airspace extending upwards from a height of
3 He may request his IFR flight plan to be changed to a 1000 feet above the earth.
VFR flight plan.
4 The flight plan automatically becomes a VFR flight B A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified
plan. limit above the earth.
The correct combination of statements is:
C A controlled airspace extending upwards from a height of
A 1 and 3 900 feet above the earth.
D A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of

B 1 and 4 the earth to a specified limit.
C 2 and 4
D 2 and 3
484) When mixing or contact does take place between 512) Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be:
passengers subjected to security control and other
persons not subjected to such control after the security
screening points at airports serving international civil A Fixed red.
aviation have been passed
B Flashing red.
A the persons not subjected to security control shall be
identified C Flashing yellow.
B the passengers concerned and their cabin baggage shall be D Fixed orange.
re screened before boarding an aircraft
C only the passengers are to be re screened

511) When independent parallel approaches are being
D only the passengers cabin baggage are to be re screened conducted to parallel runways and vectoring to intercept
the ILS localizer course or MLS final approach track, the
vector shall be such as to enable the aircraft to be
established on the ILS localizer course or MLS final
448) The ASHTAM provides information on the status of approach track in level flight for :
activity of a volcano when a change in its activity is, or
is expected to be of operational significance. This A at least 1.5 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or
information is provided using the volcano level of specified MLS elevation angle
colour code. When volcanic eruption in progress or
volcano dangerous, eruption likely, with ash B at least 2.5 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or
plume/cloud is reported above FL 250 or is expected to specified MLS elevation angle
rise above FL 250, the level of alert colour code is
C at least 2.0 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or
A ORANGE specified MLS elevation angle
B RED D at least 3.0 NM prior to intercepting the ILS glide path or

specified MLS elevation angle
C YELLOW
D GREEN 510) An airline is planning a flight that will require a

Technical landing in a neighboring state. Which freedom
of the Air will be exercised ?
491) The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of A 1st freedom
cargo and other articles on international flights is :
B 3rd freedom
A annex 15
B annex 16
C 4th freedom
D 2nd freedom
C annex 9
D annex 8
509) Type ratings shall be established
505) The letter "L" is written in the wake turbulence box of a A only aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum crew
flight plan form when the maximum certified take-off of at least two pilots
weight of an aircraft is less than or equal to:
B only for aircraft certificated for operation with a minimum
A 5 700 kg for airplanes and 2 700 kg for helicopters. crew of at least two pilots and each type of helicopter
B 7 000 kg. C all the answers are correct
D for any type of aircraft whenever considered necessary by

C 14 000 kg.
the authority
D 20 000 kg.
508) The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar 503) The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO)
indicates that : establishes;
A gliderflying is performed outside the landing area; A aeronautical standards adopted by all states.
B landing, take-off and taxiing is allowed on runway and/or B proposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 18
taxiway only; annexes.
C this aerodrome is using parallel runways C standards and recommended practices applied without
exception by all states, signatory to the Chicago convention.
D taxiing need not be confined to the taxiways ;
D standards and recommended international practices for
contracting member states.
496) In which section of AIP are contained information

elements relating to refuelling facilities and limitations
on refuelling services?
The ground - air visual code illustrated means :
A AD.
A Require assistance
B FAL.
B Please indicate direction
C GEN.
C Proceding in the direction shown
D SAR.
D Require medical assistance
506) A "precision approach" is a direct instrument

501) The duration of the period of currency of a medical
approach...
assessment shall begin on the date :
A using bearing, elevation and distance information, providing
A the licence is delivered to the pilot
the pilot uses a flight director or an autopilot certified to a
height below 200 ft.
B the medical assessment is issued
B carried out by a crew of at least two pilots trained with a
specific working method. C the licence is issued or validated
C using bearing, elevation and distance information. D the licence is issued or renewed
D using at least one source of bearing information and one

source of elevation or distance information.
500) The separation method whereby the vertical and
horizontal separation may be reduced till a maximum of
half the standard criteria is called :
481) Which manoeuvre shall be executed by an intercepting
aircraft if the pilot wants to communicate to the A Composite separation
intercepted aircraft "YOU MAY PROCEED" ?
A Circling the intercepted aircraft in a clock-wise pattern.

B Combined separation
B Rocking the wings and flashing the navigational lights. C Reduced separation
D Essential separation
C Executing a climbing turn of 90 degrees or more without
crossing the line of flight of the intercepted aircraft.
D Rocking wings twice and crossing in front of the aircraft. 499) "Clearway" is defined rectangular area established to:
A Reduce the risk of damage to aircraft running off a runway.

504) On aerodromes aircraft taxying on the manoeuvring
area of an aerodrome shall give way to:
B Protect aircraft during take-off or landing operations.
A all vehicles moving on the apron except the "follow me"
vehicle C Permit the aircraft to stop if it fails the take-off.
B aircraft taking off or about to take off D Permit aircraft to make a portion of its initial climb to a
specific height.
C other vehicles and pedestrians
D other converging aircraft
507) Runway threshold identification lights, when provided, 461) In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in
should be: which alignment and descent for landing are made is
called:
A Flashing white.
A Initial approach segment.
B Fixed green.
B Intermediate approach segment.
C Flashing green.
C Arrival segment.
D Fixed white.
D Final approach segment.
457) The applicant to exercise the functions of an

Instrumental Flight Rating in_____ aeroplanes shall 460) The "PAPI" shall consist of:
prove, according to Annex I, PERSONNEL LICENSING,
his/her capability to pilot such aircraft only by
instrumental rules and an engine _________. A A wing bar of 2 sharp transition multi-lamp equally spaced.
A Amphibious/inactive or simulated inactive. B A wing bar of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units
equally spaced.
B Single-engine/inactive.
C Two wing bars of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired
units equally spaced.
C Multi-engine / inoperative or simulated inoperative.
D Two wing bars of 6 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired
D Land/inactive. units equally spaced.
483) The ICAO annex which deals with entry and departure of 465) In a holding pattern all turns are to be made at a :
persons and their baggage in international flights is :
A annex 6
A maximum bank angle of 25°.
B annex 15
B rate of 3°per second or at a bank angle of 20°, which ever
requires the lesser bank.
C annex 9 C rate of 3°per second or at a bank angle of 25°, which ever

requires the lesser bank.
D annex 8
D rate of 3°per second.
463) A checklist of NOTAM currently in force shall be issued

at the AFTN at intervals of : 458) Operationaly significant changes to the AIP shall be
published in accordance with :
A Not more than 28 days
A AIC procedures and identified by the acronym AIC followed
B Not more than 10 days by a number
C Not more than one month

B AIRAC procedures and identified by the acronym AIRAC
D No more than 15 days C NOTAM procedures and identified by acronym NOTAM

followed by a number
D AIP supplements and shall be clearly identifical

462) Which of the following statements regarding Alerting
service is correct?
A The distress phase is established when an aircraft is known

or believed th be the subject of unlawful interference
B Aircraft in the vicinity of an aircraft known or believed to be

the subject of unlawful interference, shall be informed about
this;
C Alerting Service and Flight Information Service are often

provided by the same ATS unit
D The Alert phase is established when no communication has

been received from an aircraft within a period of thirty
minutes after the time a communication should have been
received;
466) Contracting states shall not require the authorized agent 453) Any person who suffers damage on the surface shall,
or pilot-in-command to deliver to the public authorities upon proof only that damage was caused by an aircraft
concerned, before departure of the aircraft, more than in flight or by any person or thing falling therefore will
some copies of General Declaration, Cargo Manifest and be entitled to compensation as provided by :
stores list. The numbers of the copies are :
A the Montreal Convention
A 2 copies of General Declarations and Cargo Manifest and
one copie of a simple stores list. B the Rome Convention
B 2 copies of General Declaration and of Cargo Manifest and

of a stores list C the Chicago Convention
C 2 of each D the Warsaw Convention
D 3 of each
452) When letters are used for registration mark
combinations shall not be used which might be
confused with urgent signals for example
456) According to international agreements wind direction
shall be adjusted to the local variation and given in
degrees magnetic : A TTT
A When the local variation exceeds 10° East or 10° West. B FFF
B In upper wind forecast for areas north of lat 60° north or 60° C RCC
south.
D LLL
C When an aircraft on the request by a meteorological watch
office (MWO) or at specified points transmits a PIREP
D Before landing and take-off 451) The state of design shall ensure that, there exists a
continuing structural integrity program to ensure the
airworthiness of the aeroplane, which includes specific
information concerning corrosion prevention and
455) How many red lights must a pilot see, whose aircraft, in control, in respect of aeroplanes :
final approach, is following a normal glide path defined
by a PAPI? A over 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off mass
A 1. B over 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off and landing mass
B 2. C up to 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off mass
C 3. D up to 5.700 kg maximum certificate take-off and landing

mass
D None.
459) Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding

454) A VFR flight constitutes essential traffic to other VFR level to be maintained by an aircraft flying IFR outside
flights, when operating in controlled airspaced classified controlled airspace?
as:
A 2 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of
A B and C. course
B B, C and D.
B 1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles
of course
C B, C, D and E. C 2 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 nautical miles
of course
D B.
D 1 000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8 kilometres of
the estimated position of the aircraft
473) High intensity obstacle lights should be: 477) At the commencement of final approach, if the controller
significant changes in the mean surface wind direction
A Flashing white. and speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean tail-
wind component significant change is :
B Flashing red.
A 3 KT
C Fixed red.
B 2 KT
D Fixed orange.
C 4 KT
480) In a precision approach (ILS), the OCA or OCH values D 5 KT

are based among other standard conditions, on a
vertical distance between the flight paths of the wheels
and glide path antenna, not greater than: 476) In the event of a delay for an uncontrolled flight which a
flight plan has been submitted, the flight plan should be
A 9m. amended or a new flight plan submitted and the old one
cancelled, when:
B 12m.
A The delay is more than 60 minutes of the estimated time off-
C 6m. blocks.
D 3m. B The delay is more than 30 minutes of the estimated time off-
blocks.
C The delay is more than 60 minutes of the estimated time of

479) The first freedom of the air is: departure.
D The delay is more than 30 minutes of the estimated time off

A The right to board passengers from the state where the departure.
aircraft is registered and to fly to an other state.
B The right to overfly without landing.

464) Which are the phases of a missed approach procedure?
C The right to land for a technical stop.
A Arrival, intermediate and final.
D The opportunity to operate a commercial flight with
passengers on board B Initial and final.
between two states.
C Initial, intermediate and final.
478) If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot in D Arrival, initial, intermediate and final.
command of an aircraft:
A The pilot should propose another clearance to the ATC

concerned. 474) The longitudinal separation minima based on distance
using DME, and each aircraft "on track" uses DME
B He may request and, if practicable, obtain an amended stations, is:
clearance.
A 10 NM.
C He may request another clearance and the ATC concerned
has to accept the pilot request. B 5 NM.
D The pilot has to accept the ATC clearance because it has

C 20 NM when the leading aircraft maintains a true airspeed of
been based on the flight plan filed with ATC. 20 kt or more faster than the succeding aircraft.
D 20 NM.
384) In cases where a visitor travelling by air holds a valid 469) The surveillance radar approach shall be terminated at a
passport and no visa is required of him, contracting distance of 2 NM from the touchdown except when as
states determined by the appropriate ATS authority, the
accuracy of the radar equipment permits to be
A none of the answers are applicable continued to a prescribed point less than 2 NM from the
touchdown. In this case distance and level information
B shall not require him to obtain any other identity document shall be given at each
from their consultates or operators prior to initiate the flight
A half NM
C may require him to obtain any other identity document prior
to the commencement of his flight B 1 NM
D in certain cases any other identity may be required C 1.5 NM
D half mile
472) If in an instrument departure procedure the track to be
followed by the aeroplane is published, the pilot is
expected:
468) A braking action given by ATS of 0.25 and below is :
A To request from ATC different heading for wind correction.
A Good
B To ignore the wind and proceed on an heading equal to the
track. B Medium/poor
C To request clearance from ATC for applying a wind

C Medium
correction.
D To correct for known wind to remain within the protected D Poor

airspace.
467) An aircraft is considered to be maintaining its assigned

471) The speed limitation for VFR flights inside ATS airspace level as long as the SSR mode C derived level
classified as C, when flying below 3.050 m (10.000 ft) information indicated that it is within:
AMSL, is :
A +/- 250 ft of the assigned level.
A 250 KT TAS
B +/- 500 ft of the assigned level.
B Not applicable
C +/- 300 ft of the assigned level.
C 240 KT IAS
D +/- 200 ft of the assigned level.
D 250 KT IAS
475) ATIS broadcast messages containing departure and

470) The convention which deals with offences againts penal arrival information should include cloud cover, when the
law, is clouds are :
A the convention of Rome A below 900 m (3.000 ft) or below the highest minimum sector
altitude, whichever is the greater
B the convention of Madrid
B below 2 000 m (600 ft) or below the highest minimum sector
altitude, whichever is the greater
C the convention of Tokyo
C cumulonimbus
D the convention of Warsaw
D below 1 500 m (5.000 ft) or below the highest minimum
sector altitude, whichever is the greater
296) According to JAR-FCL, establishment of separate type 299) In the "VASIS" , how many light units are in each wing
rating for aeroplanes will be assessed on the basis of bar?
three criteria. One of these three criteria is that the
aeroplane has : A 4.
A Handling characteristics that require the use of more than B 5.

one crew member
B A certificate of airworthiness issued by a non-member state. C 3.
D 2.
C A certificate of airworthiness issued by the manufacturer.
D Handling characteristics that require additional flying or

simulator training 304) Runway edge lights excepted in the case of a displaced
threshold shall be:
289) The assigment of the common mark to a common mark

A Fixed lights showing variable white or yellow.
registering authority will be made by :
B Flashing white.
A the International Civil Aviation Organisation
C Fixed lights showing variable white.
B the state of registry and accepted by the International
Telecommunication Union D Fixed lights, white or yellow colour.
C the International Telecommunication Union

297) Subject to conditions specified by the appropriate ATS
D the state of registry authority, a radar controller may request radar-
controlled aircraft to adjust their speed when
established on intermediate and final approach. This
302) The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after speed adjustment should not be more than:
completing an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft
into position for landing on runway which is not suitably A +/- 8 kt.
located for straight-in approach, is:
B +/- 20 kt.
A Contact approach.
C +/- 10 kt.
B Aerodrome traffic pattern.
D +/- 15 kt.
C Visual manoeuvring (circling).
D Visual approach. 305) In a precision approach (ILS), the final approach

segment begins at the:
301) The MSA, which must be established around a A IF.

navigation facility, is in general valid within a sector of :
B FAP.
A 15 NM
C FAF.
B 30 NM
D MAP.
C 25 NM
D 10 NM 295) Special VFR flights may the authorized to operate

locally within a control zone when the ground visibility
is not less than 1 500 metres, even when the aircraft is
300) In which section of AIP are contained information not equipped with a functioning radio receiver within
elements relating to prohibited, restricted and class :
dangerous areas?
A D and E airspaces
A AGA.
B D airspace
B ENR.
C C, D and E airspaces
C MAP.
D E airspace
D GEN.
294) When an aircraft carries a serviceable transponder, the 298) During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you
pilot shall operate the transponder: experience a two-way radio communication failure. You
will :
A Only when the aircraft is flying within airspace where SSR is
used for ATS purposes. A Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome maintaining VMC
and inform ATC ;
B Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace.
B Select A7600 and continue according currenct flight plan to
C Only when directed by ATC. destination ;
D At all times during flight, regardless of whether the aircraft is C Descend to the flight level submitted for that portion of flight ;
within or outside airspace where SSR is used for ATS
purposes. D Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and inform ATC
293) Temporary changes on specifications for AIP 312) The transition altitude of an aerodrome should not be
supplements of long duration and information of short below:
duration which contains extensive text and/or graphics
shall be published as AIP supplements. It is considered A 2500 ft.
a long duration.
B 1500 ft.
A Three months or longer
C 1000 ft.
B Six months or longer
D 3000 ft.
C One year or longer
D Two months or longer

319) Upon receipt of the modification and a request by the
state of occurrence for participation, the state of design
and the state of manufacture shall in the case of an
292) In which section of AIP are contained information accident or serious incident inform the state of
elements relating to areas and/or routes for which occurence of the name of its representative to be
meteorological service is provided? present at the investigation when the aircraft :
A RAC. A Has a maximum mass over 27.000 kg
B COM. B Has a maximum mass over 5 700 kg
C MET. C Has a maximum mass over 2 250 kg
D GEN. D Has a maximum mass over 100.000 kg
291) A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by 318) One of the main objectives of ICAO is to :
the following signals:
A Arms down , palms facing inwards, moving arms from A develop principles and techniqe for international aviation
extended position inwards.
B approve the ticket prices set by international airline
B Crossing arms extended above his head companies
C Horizontally moving his hands, fingers extended, palms C approve new internationel airlines with jet aircraft
toward ground
D approve new international airlines
D Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in
front of body , then clench fist
386) In a straight departure, the initial departure track is of

the aligment of the runway centre line within:
A 45°.
B 12.5°.
C 15°.
D 30°.
317) "Time Approach Procedure" is used as necessary to 288) The registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a
expedite the approach of a number of arriving aircraft. combination of letters and numbers and shall be that
This will be obtained requesting aircraft: assigned by :
A To pass the specified point inbound at the previously notified A the state of registry or common mark registering authority
time.
B the state of registry only
B To pass a specified point.
C the International Civil Aviation Organisation
C To apply a step down descent between aircraft in the
approach sequence.
D the Internationnal Telecommunication Union
D To maintain a specified speed during the approach
procedure.
311) A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by
the following signals:
316) A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal
area means: A Raising arm and hand horizontally in front of body, fingers
extended then clenching fist.
A Need special precautions while approaching for landing.
B Arms down, palms facing inwards, moving arms from
extended position inwards.
B The aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider
flights are being performed.
C Crossing arms extended above his head.
C An area unit for the movement of aircraft.
D Horizontally moving hands, fingers extended, palms toward
ground.
D Special precautions must be observed due to bad state of
the taxiways.
310) A minimum vertical separation shall be provided until

aircraft are etablished inbound on the ILS localizer
315) In the case of parallel runways, each runway designation
course and/or MLS final approach track. This minimum
number shall be supplemented:
is, when independent parallel approaches are being
conducted :
A By a letter - for example 3 parallel runways "L" and "R" and
the central has no letter.
A 100 m (330 ft)
B By a letter - for example 2 parallel runways "L" and "R" - for
3 "L", "C" and "R". B 300 m (1000 ft)
C By a number like "0" and "01" for 2 parallel runways. C 200 m (660 ft)
D By a letter for 2 parallel runways. D 150 m (500 ft)
303) What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern up to 309) An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed
FL 140? to execute a missed approach if no clearance to land
has been received from the non-radar controller by the
A 2 minutes time the aircraft reaches a distance of :
B 1,5 minutes A 4 NM from the touchdown
C 30 secondes B 5 NM from the touchdown
D 1 minute C 1.5 NM from the touchdown
D 2 NM from the touchdown

313) Radar controlled aircraft on intermediate or final
approach may be requested to make minor speed
adjustments by ATC. These adjustments shall never be 308) According to JAR-FCL, single pilot single-engine class
more than : ratings are valid for :
A 15 knots at any stage A One year
B 25 knots at any stage B Two years up to age 40 years then one year thereafter.
C 20 knots and not within 4 NM of threshold C Five years after licence issuie.
D 10 knots and not within 5 NM of threshold D Two years
307) The International Civil Aviation Organisation (I.C.A.O.) 270) Each contracting state shall designate an appropriate
was established by the international convention of : authority within its administration to be responsible for
the development, implementation and maintenance of
A Chicago the national civil aviation security programme. The said
appropriate authority :
B The Hague
A Should be specified to ICAO and to ECAC
C Warsaw
B Shall be specified to ICAO
D Montreal
C Shall be specified to ICAO and to ECAC
D Shall be specified to ICAO, ECAC and to other contracting

306) Where does the initial approach segment in an states
instrument approach procedure commence?
A At the FAF.
269) The longitudinal separation minima based on DME, and
each aircraft "on track" uses DME stations, is:
B At the final en-route fix.
A 10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true
C At the IAF. airspeed of 20 kt or more faster than the succeding aircraft.
D At the IF. B 10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true

airspeed of 40 kt or more faster than the succeding aircraft.
314) The EAT has to be transmitted to the pilot as soon as

C 20 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true
airspeed of 10 kt or more faster than the succeding aircraft.
possible, in case the expected delay is :
D 10 NM provided that the leading aircraft maintains a true
A 20 minutes airspeed of 10 kt or more faster than the succeding aircraft.
B 5 minutes or more.
268) The abbreviation PAPI stands for:
C 15 minutes or more
D 10 minutes A Precision Approach Power Indicator.
B Precision Approach Power Index.
264) An applicant holding a private or commercial pilot

licence aeroplane for the issue of an instrument rating, C Precision Approach Path Indicator.
shall have completed ..... hours of cross-country flight
time as pilot-in-command of aircraft in categories D Precision Approach Path Index.
acceptable to the licensing Authority, of which not less
than ..... hours shall be in aeroplanes. The said hours,
are respectively 267) Which letter is used in a flight plan to indicate that the
flight commences in accordance with VFR and
A 50 hours and 10 hours subsequently changes to IFR?
B 40 hours and 10 hours A I
C 40 hours and 15 hours B V
D 50 hours and 15 hours C Y
D Z
290) An integrated aeronautical information package consists
of the following elements
A AIP, including amendment service; supplements to AIP;

NOTAM and pre-flight information bulletin (PIB); AIC;
checklists and summuries
B AIP, including amendment service; supplements to AIP,

NOTAM, AIC and checklist summaries
C AIP, supplements to AIP; NOTAM and PIB; AIC and

checklist summaries
D AIP including amendment service; supplements to AIP;

NOTAM, AIC; AIRAC
272) Track separation between aircraft using the same VOR 262) Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of
shall be applied requiring the aircraft to fly: the initial approach segment in an instrument approach
procedure?
A At least 15° separated at a distance of 15 miles or more
from the facility. A At least 300m (984 ft).
B At least 15° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from B 150m (492 ft).

the facility.
C At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from C 300m (984 ft).

the facility.
D At least 150m (492 ft).
the facility.
261) An applicant for a commercial pilot licence aeroplane
shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than :
265) During an instrument approach, followed by a missed
approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the A 25 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command
intermediate phase of this missed approach is : including a cross country flight not less than 540 km
(300NM)
A 120 m (384 ft)
B 15 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command
B 30 m (98 ft) including a cross country flight not less than 540 km
(300NM)
C 50 m (164 ft)
C 20 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command
including a cross country flight not less than 540 km
D 90 m (295 ft) (300NM)
D 10 hours of cross country flight time as pilot-in-command

273) What is meant when departure control instruct you to including a cross country flight not less than 540 km
"resume own navigation" after you have been vectored (300NM)
to an airway?
A Radar Service is terminated. 260) ATIS broadcast
B Advisories will no longer be issued by ATC.

A Shall not be transmitted on the voice of a VOR
C You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.
B Shall only be transmitted on a discrete VHF frequency
D You should maintain that airway by use of your navigation

C shall not be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS
equipment.
D Shall be transmitted on the voice channel of an ILS, on a
discrete VHF frequency or on the voice channel of a VOR
263) Just before arriving on the apron, taxiing inadvertently
on the grass, a wheel falls into a hole, which seriously
damages the aircraft and obliges the crew to delay the
departure. 259) An aircraft making a radar approach should be directed
to consider executing a missed approach if the aircraft
is not visible on the radar display for any significant
A This is an irregularity in the operation, the crew must inform
interval during the :
the operator of the delay caused by necessary repair.
B This is an incident and the pilot-in-command must report it A Last 3 NM of the approach
to the airport authority within the next 48 hours.
B Last 5 NM of the approach
C This is an accident and the crew must follow the procedure
relevant to this case. C Last 2 NM of the approach
D Since no physical injury has been noticed and the flight is D Last 4 NM of the approach
over, the actions to be taken are related only to insurance, to
the repair man, the operator and the persons in charge of
the runway and taxiways.
513) The person who has final authority as to the disposition 286) Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to
of an aircraft during flight time is: parallel runways provided that a no transgression zone
(NTZ) of at least :
A The aircraft owner
A 500 m is established between extended runway centre lines
B The airliner operator and as is depicted on the radar display
B 710 m is established between extended runway centre lines

C The commander
and as is depicted on the radar display
D The ATC controller if the aircraft is flying in a controlled C 600 m is established between extended runway centre lines
airspace and as is depicted on the radar display
D 610 m is established between extended runway centre lines

266) Select the acronym corresponding to the following and as is depicted on the radar display
definition: an special NOTAM series notifying, by means
of a specific format, an important change for the aircraft
operations, due to a volcano activity, a volcano eruption 285) The system notifying in advance the circumstances
or a volcanic ash cloud. requiring important changes in the methods of
operation, based on common effective dates, is
A NAVTAM identified by the acronym:
B VULTAM A NOTAM
C ASHTAM B EATCHIP
D GVATAM C AIRAC
D IFPS
280) To perform a VFR flight in airspace classification E /
284) When letters are used for the registration mark

A two way radiocommunication is not required.
combinations shall not be used which might be
confused with the
B a clearance is required.
A three letters combinations used in the international code of
C a clearance and two-way radiocommunication is required. signals
D a clearance and/or two-way radiocommunication is required. B letters used for ICAO identification documents
C five letter combinations used in the international code of

signals
287) Which of the following statements regarding aerodrome
control service is correct?
D four letter combinations beginning with Q
A ATC permission is required for entering the apron with a
vehicule
283) Whenever ATIS is provided, the preparation and
B An aircraft entering the traffic circuit without permission of dissemination of the ATIS message shall be the
ATC, will be cleared to land if this is desirable ; responsability of
C The aerodrome control service is a service provided for the A the meteorological office serving the aerodrome (s)
purpose of preventing collisions between aircraft on the
movement area; B both air traffic services and the meteorological office
D Suspension of VFR operations can not be initiated by the
aerodrome controller; C the unit as prescribed the states
D the air traffic services
271) The height of the marks under the wings of heavier than 277) You receive an IFR enroute clearance stating: Clearence
air aircraft shall be expires at 0920. What does it mean ?
A at least 60 centimetres A After 0920 return to the ramp and file a new flight plan
B at least 75 centimetres B If not airborne until 0920, a new clearence has to be issued
C at least 50 centimetres C Do not take off before 0920
D at least between 40 centimetres and 50 centimetres D The take off clearence is expected at 0920
281) The documents for entry and departure of aircraft : 276) Which of the following is NOT an international distress
frequency ?
A are accepted at the contracting state discretion A 2.182 KHz
B are accepted in handwritten block lettering in ink B 2430 KHz
C has to be typewritten
C 121.5 MHz
D has to be typewritten or produced by electronic data D 243.0 MHz

processing techniques
322) A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial 275) According to the "Aerodrome Reference Code", the
approach between the end of the outbound track and "Code Letter E" shall identify an aircraft wing span of:
the beginning of the intermediate or final approach track
is a: A 24 m up to but not including 36 m.
A Procedure turn B 15 m up to but not including 24 m.
B Reversal procedure C 52 m up to but not including 65 m.
C Race track D 36 m up to but not including 52 m.
D Base turn
274) VMC minima for VFR flights in Class B airspace, above
3050m (10000 ft) AMSL, are :
containers and packages containing survival equipment A 5 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical
should take the form of coloured streamers according to distance from clouds ;
the following code:
B 8 km visibility, 1500 m horizontal and 1000 ft vertical
distance from clouds ;
A Black for food and water.
B Red for miscellaneous equipment.

C No minima, VFR flights are not permitted
D 8 km visibility, and clear of clouds ;

C Blue for food and water.
D Yellow for medical supplies and first aid equipment.

282) When vectoring an aircraft to intercept the localizer
course, the final vector furnished shall be such as to
enable the aircraft to intercept the localizer course at an
278) An applicant for a commercial pilot licence shall have angle not greater than:
completed in aeroplanes not less than :
A 20 degrees.
A 10 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more
than 5 hours may be instrument ground time B 30 degrees.
B 20 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more
than 5 hours may be instrument ground time. C 25 degrees.
C 20 hours of instrument instruction time of which not more D 15 degrees.

than 10 hours may be instrument ground time
D 15 hours of instrument time of which not more than 5 hours

as pilot in command
361) At night an aircraft observes a luminous signal 365) The vertical IFR separation minimum being applied by
requesting help. To indicate that he has received these ATC within a controlled airspace above FL 290 is:
ground signals, the pilot must :
A 500 feet (150 m).
A make at least one complete turn over the group of people in
difficulty. B 4000 feet (1200 m).
B transmit, by luminous Morse signal, a series of the letter "R"

using his C 2000 feet (600 m).
navigational lights.
D 1000 feet (300 m).
C fly over the group of people in difficulty as low as possible.
D switch his landing lights on and off twice or, if he is not so 364) The 'Standards' contained in the Annexes to the
equipped, his navigation lights twice. Chicago convention are to be considered:
A binding for all air line companies with international traffic

320) In a precision approach (ILS), generally glide path
intersection occurs at heights above runway elevation B binding for the member states that have not notified ICAO
from: about a national difference
A 150m (492 ft) to 300m (984 ft). C advice and guidance for the aviation legislation within the
member states
B 150m (492 ft) to 900m (2955 ft).
D binding for all member states
C 300m (984 ft) to 900m (2955 ft).
D 300m (984 ft) to 600m (1968 ft). 369) Changing of flight rules from IFR to VFR is possible
A If instructed by ATCso long as VMC is forecasted during the

367) An applicant for an Airline Transport Pilot Licence next 60 minutes
aeroplane shall have completed in aeroplanes not less
than ...... hours, either as pilot in command or made up B Only when leaving controlled airspace
by not less than ...... hours as pilot-in-command and the
additional flight time as co-pilot performing, under the C If the commander so requests
supervision of the pilot-in-command the duties and
functions of a pilot in command provided that the D If instructed by ATC so long as VMC is forecasted during
method of supervision employed is acceptable to the the next 30 minutes
licensing authority. The stated above hours are
respectively :
A 200 hours and 100 hours 362) What will be the transponder mode and code for radio
communication failure?
B 150 hours and 75 hours
A Mode A code 7500.
C 250 hours and 100 hours

B Mode B code 7600.
D 200 hours and 75 hours
C Mode A code 7700.
D Mode A code 7600.

366) When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft
shall be allowed to resume its flight, if
A the state of registry, the state of design and the state of 370) An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are
manufacture consider that the aircraft is still airworthy permitted, all participating IFR flights receive an air
traffic advisory service and all flights receive flight
B the state of manufacture informs the state of registry that information service if requested, is classified
the damage sustained is of a nature such that the aircraft is
still airworthy A Airspace G
C the state of design and the state of manufacture inform the B Airspace E
state of registry that the aircraft is still airworthy
D C Airspace D
the state of registry considers that the damage sustained is
of a nature such that the aircraft is still airworthy
D Airspace F
360) Clearence to land or any alternative clearence received 356) Whenever unlawful interference with an aircraft is
from the non-radar controller should normally be suspected, and where automatic distinct display of SSR
passed to the aircraft before it reaches a distance of : Mode A code 7500 and code 7700 is not provided, the
radar controller shall attempt to verify this suspicion by :
A 4 NM from touchdown
A Setting the SSR decoder to mode A code 7000 and
B 5 NM from touchdown thereafter to code 7500
B Setting the SSR decoder to mode A 7500 then to standby

C 2 NM from touchdown
and thereafter to code 7700
D 3 NM from touchdown C Setting the SSR decoder to mode A 7700 then to standby
and thereafter to code 7500
359) The loading limitations shall include :

D Setting the SSR decoder to mode A code 7500 and
thereafter to code 7700
A all limiting mass, centres of gravity position, mass

distributions and floor loadings 355) In general, which is the main factor that dictates the
design of an instrument departure procedure?
B all limiting mass and centres of gravity
A Navigation aids.
C all limiting mass, mass distributions and centres of gravity
B Airspace restrictions.
D all limiting mass, centres of gravity position and floor
loadings
C The terrain surrounding the airport.
D ATC requirements.
358) Aircraft flying along the same track may be separated by
DME-distances from the same DME and it is confirmed
that the aircraft have passed each other. Specify the
shortest difference in DME-distance to make it possible 363) If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an
for one aircraft to climb or descend instrument approach, it is expected that the pilot will
make an initial climbing turn towards the:
A 20 NM
A Landing runway.
B 10 NM
B MAP.
C 12 NM
C FAF.
D 15 NM
D Final missed approach track.
357) When surveillance radar approaches are to be continued

to the threshold of the runway transmission should not 377) Flight information service provided to flights shall
be interrupted for intervals of more than five seconds include the provision of information concerning
while the aircraft is within a distance of : collision hazards to aircraft operating in airspace
classes:
A 1.5 NM from the touchdown
A F and G
B 4 NM from the touchdown
B C to G (inclusive)
C 2 NM from the touchdown
C A to G (inclusive)
D 3 NM from the touchdown
D A to E (inclusive)

convention contains minimum specifications for a crew
licence to have international validity?
A Annex 3
B Annex 4
C Annex 1
D Annex 2
383) Which body of ICAO finalises the Standard and 378) Track separation between aircraft using the same NDB
Recommended Practices (SARPS) for submission for shall be applied requiring the aircraft to fly:
adoption ?
A At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 miles or more
A the Council from the facility.
B the Regional Air Navigation meeting B At least 30° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from
the facility.
C the Air Navigation Commission
C At least 15° separated at a distance of 15 NM or more from
the facility.
D the Assembly
the facility.
382) Standard airway holding pattern below 14 000 ft ?
352) Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, a

A Right hand turns / 1 minute outbound VFR flight can not enter or leave a control zone when
ceiling is less than :
B Right hand turns / 1.5 minutes outbound
A 2 000 feet or visibility is less than 5 km
C Left hand turns / 1 minute outbound
B 1 000 feet or visibility is less than 8 km
D Left hand turns / 1.5 minutes outbound
C 1 500 feet or visibility is less than 5 km
381) The pilot of a departing aircraft flying under IFR shall D 1 000 feet or visibility is less than 5 km
change the altimeter setting from QNH to standard
setting 1013.25 hPa when passing:
376) The height of the marks on the fuselage (or equivalent
A Transition level. structure) and on the vertical tail surfaces of heavier
than air aircraft shall be
B The level specified by ATC.
A at least 20 centimetres
C Transition altitude.
B at least between 20 centimetres and 40 centimetres
D Transition layer.
C at least 30 centimetres
380) An aircraft flying above the sea between 4 500 feet MSL D at least 40 centimetres
and 9 000 feet MSL outside controlled airspace under
VFR, must remain on principle at least:
375) An aircraft is flying over a mountainous region in which
A 2 000 feet horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds; 5 km a search is being carried out to find the survivors of an
visibility. aircraft accident. The pilot sees a ground signal in the
form of an "X".
B 1 500 m horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds; 5 km This indicates :
visibility.
A "Need mechanical assistance".
C 1500 m horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds; 8 km
visibility.
B "Need medical assistance".
D Clear of clouds and in sight of the surface; 8 km visibility.
C "Landing impossible".
368) Which condition is requested so that an aerodrome may

D "All occupants alive".
be considered controlled?
A The aerodrome shall be located within a Control Zone. 374) Who is responsible, under Annex 13 of the Chicago
convention for the initation of an accident investigation?
B The aerodrome shall be located within a controlled airspace.
A Operators of the same aircraft type
C The aerodrome shall be located within a Control Zone (CTR)
and provided with a Control Tower. B The aircraft manufacturer
D The aerodrome shall be provided with a Control Tower. C The law enforcement authorities of the state in which the
aircraft is registered
D The government of the state in which the accident took place
373) Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice-versa is 335) The ATIS broadcast message should, whenever
done: practicable, not exceed
A at transition level during climb and transition altitude during A 3 minutes

descent.
B 30 seconds
B only at transition altitude.
C 1 minute
C only at transition level.
D 2 minutes
D at transition altitude during climb and transition level during
descent.
334) What is the maximum speed adjustment that a pilot

should be requested to make when under radar control
and established on intermediate and final approach ?
convention contains international standards and
recommended practices for air traffic services (ATS)?
A ± 15 KT
A Annex 14
B ± 10KT
B Annex 6
C ± 25 KT
C Annex 17
D ± 20KT
D Annex 11
333) According to JAR-FCL, the validity of type ratings and

multi-engine class ratings will be one year from the date :
371) When a runway is 2 000 metres in length, and taxi
holding positions have not been established, aircraft
shall not be held closer to the runway in use more than: A Of the last medical certificate
A 50 metres. B Of issue
B 30 metres. C Of the skill test
C 45 metres. D The application is received by the Authority.
D 60 metres.
332) The primary duty provided by a radar unit is:
379) The phases related to an aircraft in emergency or A To assist aircraft due to failure of airborne equipment.
believed in emergency are:
B To assist aircraft on the location storms.
A uncertainty phase, urgency phase, distress phase.
B uncertainty phase, distress phase, urgency phase.

C To assist aircraft where navigation appears unsatisfactory.
D To provide radar separation.

C uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase and urgency
phase.
D uncertainty phase, alert phase, distress phase. 331) Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS
authority, the radar controller should notify the non-
radar controller when an aircraft making a radar
approach is approximately:
Using the ground - air visual code the letter(s) similar to
the symbol meaning "REQUIRE ASSISTANCE" is (are) :
A 5 NM.
A 4 B 6 NM.
B 1 C 8 NM.
C 2 D 10 NM.
D 3
354) The period of validity for take-off slots assigned by CEU 325) Runway end lights shall be:
(flow control centre):
A depends on the type of flight (10 minutes for international A Fixed unidirectional lights showing red in the direction of the
flights, 5 minutes for domestic flights). runway.
B is 10 minutes. B Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of

the runway.
C is 5 minutes.
C Fixed lights showing variable red.
D is 15 minutes. D Fixed lights showing variable white.
329) When a person is found inadmissible and is returned to 324) The second freedom of the air is the :
the operator for transport away from the territory of the
state, the operator :
A right to "cabotage" traffic, (trans-border traffic).
A and the state of the operator are both responsible for the
person inadmissible B right to operate a commercial passenger flight with
passengers on board between two states.
B shall not be preclude from recovering from such person any
transportation costs arising from his (her) inadmissibility C right to land for a technical stop
C shall not recover from such person any transportation costs

D right to overfly without landing
arising from his (her) inadmissibility
D is not responsible for the person inadmissible for entry in the

receiving state 323) Member states should introduce specific security
measures for the air transport of the following groups of
potentially disruptive passengers defined below :
338) During a take-off into IMC conditions with low ceiling the
pilot should contact departure control: A Deportees and persons in lawful custody only
A Before penetrating the clouds. B Deportees and inadmissible persons only
B When clear of the airport and established on the first C None of the answers is correct
heading given in the clearance.
D Deportees, inadmissible persons and persons in lawful
C After take-off. custody
D When advised by Tower.

385) Which one of the statements is correct :
327) ATS airspaces where IFR and VFR flights are permitted,
all flights are subject to air traffic control service and are
A contracting states shall accept an oral declaration of
baggage only from passengers
separated from each other is classified as:
A Class D.
B contracting states may not accept oral declaration of
baggages
B Class E. C contracting states shall accept an oral declaration of

baggage from passengers and crew
C Class B.
D contracting states shall accept an oral declaration of
D Class A. baggage only from crew
330) Unless otherwise indicated, the missed approach

326) In the ILS-approach, the OCA is referenced to:
procedures published on the IAC charts are based on a
minimum climb gradient of:
A Aeredrome reference point.
A 5%
B Relevant runway threshold.
B 3.3%
C Aerodrome elevation.
C 2.5%
D Mean sea level.
D 2%
344) Regarding Aerodrome Flight Information Sercice (AFIS) 349) Aerodrome traffic is:
:
A its only purpose is to relay ATC information to the aircraft in A All traffic on the manoeuvring area.
flight or on the ground.
B All traffic on the movement area and flying in the vicinity of
B it can only supply limited services to the users and under no an aerodrome.
circumstances may it supply ATC services.
C All traffic in the aerodrome circuit.
C its purpose is to supply ATC services but it is not a state
organisation. D All traffic on the manoeuvring area and flying in the vicinity
of an aerodrome.
D it has the same privileges and prerogatives as an ATC
organisation but its activity is neither continuous nor regular.
348) The profeciency check of a pilot took place the 15th of
April. The validity of the previous profeciency check
321) Which provisions on a VFR-flight in Class E airspace are was the 30th of June. The period of the new profeciency
CORRECT? check can be and can't exceed:
A Service provided : Traffic Information as far as practical; A 31th of December the same year
ATC Clearance : required ;
B 15th of October the same year
B Service provided : Air Traffic Control Service; ATC
Clearance : not required
C 30th of October the same year
C Service provided : Traffic Information as far as practical;
ATC Clearance : not required ; D 30th of April the following year
D Service provided : Air Traffic Control Service; ATC

Clearance : required ;
347) The tolerance value used to determine that mode C
derived level information displayed to the controller is
accurate shall be:
351) The VMC minima for an airspace classified as "G" above
10 000 feet MSL are : A +/- 500 ft.
A 1500 m horizontally and 1 000 feet verticaly from clouds; 5 B +/- 300 ft.
km visibility
B 1 nautical mile horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from C +/- 200 ft.
clouds; 5 km visibility
D +/- 250 ft.
C 1 nautical mile horizontally and 1000 feet vertically from
clouds; 8 km visibility
D 1500 m horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds; 8 336) In certain circumstances a medical examination may be
deferred at the discretion of the licensing authority,
km visibility.
provided that such deferment shall only be made as an
exception and shall not exceed :
350) Change from IFR to VFR will always take place : A A single period of six months in the case of a flight crew
member of an aircraft engaged in non commercial
A on the initiative of the aircraft commander operations.
B Two consecutive periods each of three months in the case

B at the clearance limit, irrespective of the weather conditions of a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in non
commercial operations
C as instructed by an air traffic control unit
C A single period of six months in the case of a flight crew
D when the aircraft is leaving controlled airspace during VMC member of an aircraft engaged in commercial operations.
D in the case of a private pilot, a single period of 12 months
345) You are on an IFR flight executing a circling approach. A 341) If contact is lost with the runway on the down-wind leg
descend below the MDA should not be made until : of a circling manoeuvre, what actions should be taken ?
1. the pilot has the landing threshold in sight A Turn towards the inner marker for the runway in use,
2. visual reference has been established and can be maintaining circling alitude
maintained
3. the required obstacle clearance can be maintained B Initiate a missed approach
and a landing can be made
C Turn 90 degrees towards the runway and wait for visual
The combination regrouping all the correct answers is : conctact
A 1, 3. D If you have other visual cues, continue with ground contact
B 1, 2, 3.
340) During flight through the transition layer the vertical
C 1, 2. position of the aircraft should be expressed as
D 2, 3. A altitude above mean sea level during climb
B flight level during descent

337) A separation minimum shall be applied between a light
or MEDIUM aircraft and a HEAVY aircraft and between a C either altitude above mean sea level or flight level during
LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft when the heavier climb
aircraft is making a low or missed approach and the
lighter aircraft is utilizing an opposite direction runway D altitude above mean sea level during descent
for take off, this minimum is :
A 2 minutes
permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control
B 5 minutes service and are separated from each other is classified
as
C 3 minutes
A Airspace B
D 1 minute
B Airspace C
343) Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller C Airspace D

advises you that you are on the airway and to "resume
own navigation". This phrase means that: D Airspace E
A You are to contact the centre at the next reporting point.

353) Which statement is correct ?
B You are to assume responsability for your own navigation. During a "Visual Approach" in Controlled Airspace
(Classe C):
C You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.
A ATC will apply separation with other arriving traffic
D Radar services are terminated and you will be responsable
for position reports. B ATC will apply separation with other traffic
C the pilot to apply separation with other traffic;

342) Aircraft wishing to conduct IFR flight within advisory
airspace, but not electing to use the air traffic advisory D ATC will apply separation only with other IFR-traffic
service:
A need to file a flight plan

346) An air traffic control unit :
B may file a flight plan under pilot's discretion.
A may require to change the call sign for safety reasons when
C Shall nevertheless submit a flight plan and notify changes there is a risk of confusion between two or more similar call
made thereto to the ATS unit providing that service. signs providing the aircraft is on a repetitive flight plan.
D Shall nevertheless submit a flight plan but changes made B must not ask an aircraft to change its call sign.
thereto are not necessary to be notified.
C may not ask an aircraft to change its call sign after
accepting the flight plan.
D may ask an aircraft to temporarily change its call sign for

safety reasons when there is a risk of confusion between
two or more similar call signs.
Professione Volare Domande Airplane Systems
Data:
Nome Allievo:
169) The aircraft hydraulic system is designed to produce: 174) On an airplane, the Krueger flaps are:
A high pressure and small flow. A leading edge flaps close to the wing root
B small pressure and large flow. B trailing edge flaps close to the wing root
C small pressure and small flow. C trailing edge flaps close to the wing tip
D high pressure and large flow. D leading edge flaps close to the wing tip
177) In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, during and following an 173) The Low Altitude Radio Altimeter uses the following
emergency descent, each occupant of the cockpit seats wavelengths:
on duty must have access to a minimum amount of
oxygen in: A metric.
1. order to maintain a supply throughout the entire flight B centimetric.

time where the cabin altitude pressure is greater than
13000 ft.
2. order to maintain a supply throughout the entire flight C myriametric.
time where the cabin altitude pressure is greater than
10000 ft and smaller than 13000 ft minus 30 minutes. D decimetric.
3. no case less than 30 minutes for airplanes certified to
fly up to 25000 ft.
4. no case less than 2 hours for airplanes certified to fly 172) Under normal running conditions a magneto draws
at over 25000 ft. primary current :
The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:
A from the aircraft batteries via an inverter.
A 1, 2, 3 et 4. B from a self-contained electro-magnetic induction system.
B 1, 2. C from the booster coil.
C 1, 2, 4. D directly from the aircraft batteries.
D 1,4.
197) On most transport jet aircraft, the low pressure pumps
of the fuel system are supplied with electric power of the
following type:
176) In the cockpit of a transport airplane, at least one
manual fire-extinguisher must be conveniently located
containing :
A 115 V AC
A powder. B 28 V AC
B water. C 28 V DC
C special fluids. D 115 V DC
D halon.
170) The primary purpose of bonding the metallic parts of an
aircraft is to :
175) Large transport aeroplane hydraulic systems usually
operate with a system pressure of approximately:
A isolate all components electrically and thus make the static
potential constant.
A 1000 psi B provide safe distribution of electrical charges and currents.
B 3000 psi
C provide a single earth for electrical devices.
C 4000 psi D prevent electrolytic corrosion between mating surfaces of

similar metals.
D 2000 psi
180) The purpose of a ditching control is to: 164) In an aeroplane utilising a constant frequency AC power
supply, DC power is obtained from a :
A close the outflow valve(s). A rotary converter.
B achieve rapid depressurisation. B Transformer Rectifier Unit.
C open the outflow valve(s).

C static inverter.
D direct pressurisation air to the flotation bags. D 3 phase current transformer unit.
168) In addition to energy storage the accumulator of the 163) In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, when an airplane flies at
hydraulic system is used : over 25000 ft, the total number of oxygen dispensing
units and supply terminals must be at least greater than
A for pressure storage. the number of:
B as a pressure relief valve. A seats by 30 %.
C for damping pressure surges in the system. B passengers by 30%.
D for fluid storage. C seats by 10 %.
D passengers by 10 %.
167) On most modern airliners the cabin pressure is
controlled by regulating the:
162) The maximum horsepower output which can be
A Bleed air valve. obtained from an engine when it is operated at specified
rpm and manifold pressure conditons established as
B Airflow leaving the cabin. safe for continuous operation is termed :
C Airflow entering the cabin. A critical power.
D RPM of the engine. B rated power.
C maximum power.
166) In computer technology, a storage peripheral is a:
D take-off power.
A key board
171) In a turbo-jet, the purpose of the turbine is to ...
B screen unit
C hard disk drive A drive the compressor by using part of the energy from the
exhaust gases
D printer
B clear the burnt gases, the expansion of which provide the
thrust
165) A modern Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) is designed to C compress the air in order to provide a better charge of the
provide power for ground starting of an engine. It also combustion chamber
supplies both in the air (subject to certification
limitations) and on the ground : D drive devices like pumps, regulator, generator.
A either air conditioning or electrical services, but never both at

the same time.
187) If the maximum operating pressure of the oxygen
system is exceeded the:
B air conditioning and electrical services (on the ground)
electrical and hydraulic back-up services (in the air).
A oxygen is discharged overboard via a safety plug.
C air conditioning and electrical services.
B oxygen becomes unusable for the passengers.
D air conditioning and thrust in the event of engine failure.
C passenger oxygen masks will drop down.
D oxygen bottles will explode.
297) The fan in a high by-pass ratio turbo-jet engine 191) A turbocharger consists of a :
produces:
A the greater part of the thrust. A compressor and turbine mounted on a common shaft.
B half the thrust. B compressor and turbine on individual shafts.
C the lesser part of the thrust. C compressor driving a turbine via a reduction gear.
D none of the thrust. D turbine driving a compressor via a reduction gear.
195) In a commercial transport aircraft the landing gear 190) A Constant Speed Drive aims at ensuring
operating system is usually:
A equal AC voltage from all generators.
A Electrically driven.
B that the electric generator produces a constant frequency.
B Hydraulically driven.
C that the starter-motor maintains a constant RPM not
C Mechanically driven. withstanding the acceleration of the engine.
D Pneumatically driven. D that the CSD remains at a constant RPM not withstanding
the generator RPM
194) In a compensated capacitance type quantity indicating

system, the contents gauge of a half-full fuel tank 178) Max. Exhaust Gas Temperature is theoretically
indicates a fuel mass of 8000 lb. If a temperature rise associated with :
increased the volume of fuel by 5 %, the indicated fuel
weight would : A Mixture ratio very close to idle cut-out.
A increase by 5 %. B Mass ratio of 1/15.
B decrease by 5 %. C Cruising mixture setting.
C increase by 10 %. D Full rich setting.
D remain the same.

188) Fuses are rated to a value by :
193) The indication of the fire detection systems is performed

by a:
A the number of amperes they will carry.
A warning light. B the number of volts they will pass.
B gear warning. C their wattage.
C warning light and a warning bell (or aural alert). D their resistance measured in ohms.
D warning bell.
179) For piston engines, mixture ratio is the ratio between the
:
192) An aircraft whose maximum approved configuration for
passenger seats is 200 seats must be equipped with:
A volume of fuel and volume of air entering the carburettor.
A 3 manual fire-extinguishers in the passenger cabin. B mass of fuel and volume of air entering the carburettor.
B 5 manual-fire extinguishers in the passenger cabin. C mass of fuel and mass of air entering the cylinder.
C 7 manual-fire extinguishers in the passenger cabin. D volume of fuel and volume of air entering the cylinder.
D 4 manual fire-extinguishers in the passenger cabin.
186) In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, 100 % of the passengers 181) The cabin air for modern airplanes is usually supplied
in a non-pressurized airplane must have an oxygen by:
supply reserve for the entire flight time at pressure
altitudes greater than: A main engine compressors.
A 10000 ft. B piston compressors.
B 14000 ft. C roots type compressors.
C 15000 ft. D single radial compressors.
D 13000 ft.
159) On most transport aircraft, the low pressure pumps of
the fuel system are:
185) Hydraulic fluids :
A Piston pumps.
A Do not require special care.
B Diaphragm pumps.
B Are irritating to eyes and skin and cause high fire risk.
C Centrifugal pumps.
C Are irritating to eyes and skin.

D Gear type pumps.
D Cause high fire risk.
189) The power of a piston engine decreases during climb

with a constant power lever setting, because of the
184) The working cycle of a four-stroke engine is : decreasing :
A induction, power, compression, exhaust. A engine temperature.
B compression induction, power, exhaust. B humidity.
C induction, compression, expansion, power. C temperature.
D induction, compression, power, exhaust. D air density.
183) When selected to normal, the oxygen proportion of the 131) In a gas turbine engine, compressor blades, which are
air/oxygen mixture supplied by the cockpit oxygen not rigidly fixed in position when the engine is
system regulator: stationary, take up a rigid position when the engine is
running due to :
A increases when the altitude increases.
A blade creep.
B decreases when the altitude increases.
B the resultant of aerodynamic and centrifugal forces.
C is constant whatever the altitude.
C oil pressure.
D is 100 %.
D thermal expansion.
182) A passenger emergency mask is a :

161) Hydraulic fluids of synthetic origin are:
A continuous flow mask and can be used if there is smoke in

the cabin. A red.
B mask with flow on request and can be used if there is B purple.

smoke.
C pink.
C continuous flow mask and cannot be used if there is smoke
in the cabin. D blue.
D mask with flow on request and cannot be used if there is
smoke in the cabin.
139) The pressure usually produced by the Boost Pumps 134) The operations of an airline plan the operation of a
(BP) of the fuel supply system is within the following pressurized aircraft at a 240 flight level on its whole
range: route with 150 passengers on board.
As concerns the regulatory requirements about oxygen:
A 5 to 10 psi
1. each crew member will have available a quick fitting
B 3000 to 5000 psi inhaler device.
2. the aircraft will be equipped with a warning system
indicating that the cabin altitude is higher than 3 000 m.
C 300 to 500 psi
3 . the quantity of oxygen on board will be sufficient for
the supply of 100 % of the occupants during the whole
D 20 to 50 psi flight time above the flight level 150 after an eventual
depressurization.
4. the first aid quantity of oxygen will be sufficient for
138) On an aeroplane utilising AC as primary power supplies, the supply of two passengers during the whole flight
the batteries are charged in flight from : time when the cabin altitude is greater than 8 000 feet.

A a DC transformer and rectifier.
is:
B the AC bus via current limiters. A 2,3
C a Transformer Rectifier Unit. B 1,2,3,4
D a static inverter.
C 2
D 3,4
137) One of the advantages of a turbosupercharger is that :
A it uses the exhaust gas energy which normally is lost. 141) In jet aeroplanes the 'thermal anti-ice system' is primary
supplied by
B it has a better propulsive efficiency.
A ram air, heated via a heat exchanger.
C there is no torsion at the crankshaft.
B the APU.
D there is no danger of knocking.
C bleed air from the engines.
D turbo compressors.
136) The power output of a piston engine can be calculated
by :
A Force times distance. 132) In modern aircraft, a pilot can actuate the feather system
by :
B Pressure times arm.
A pulling the power levers backwards.
C Torque times RPM.
B pulling the RPM lever backwards.
D Work times velocity.
C pushing the RPM lever forward.
D pushing the power lever forward.

135) The built-in passenger oxygen system be activated by :
A switching the diluter demand regulator and the passenger 142) The purposes of the oil and the nitrogen in an oleo-
oxygen ON. pneumatic strut are :
B switching the passenger oxygen ON. A the oil supplies the spring function and the nitrogen supplies
the damping function.
C switching the diluter demand regulator ON.
B the oil supplies the sealing and lubrication function, the
D opening the oxygen-bottle valves. nitrogen supplies the damping function.
C the oil supplies the damping and lubrication function, the

nitrogen supplies the heat-dissipation function.
D the oil supplies the damping function and the nitrogen

supplies the spring function
130) The term "pressure cabin" applies when an aeroplane : 125) On a transport type aircraft the fuel tank system is
vented through:
A has the ability to maintain a constant cabin differential A A pressure regulator in the wing tip.
pressure at all flight altitudes.
B has the ability to maintain a constant cabin altitude at all B Bleed air from the engines.
flight altitudes.
C The return lines of the fuel pumps.
C has the means to maintain cabin pressure higher than
ambient pressure. D Ram air scoops on the underside of the wing.
D is only pressurised in the area of the control cabin.
124) "Frequency wild" in relation to a AC generation system

means the generator :
129) Real load sharing in a parallel AC system is achieved by :
A output frequency is too low.
A carefully selecting the number of loads on the bus-bars at
any one time. B output frequency varies with engine speed.
B monitoring the kVAR of each generator/alternator. C output frequency is too high.
C automatic adjustment of the torque on each generator rotor D voltage regulator is out of adjustment.
via the CSD unit.
D controlling the generator field current.

133) A scissor is a component found on landing gears. Its
function is to :
128) In a fuel system, the oil to fuel heat exchanger allows: A make the body gears pivot when the nosewheel is turned
through more than 20°.
A automatic fuel heating by the engine oil so as to prevent B prevent any rotation of the oleo strut in the undercarriage
icing in fuel filter. shock absorber.
B jet engine oil cooling through thermal exchange with fuel C create the wheel pitch on bogie gears.
flowing from tanks.
C fuel cooling so as to prevent vapour creation likely to

D transform the translational movement of the rudder pedals
into the rotational movement of the nosewheel.
unprime nozzles.
D fuel heating as required whenever fuel filter clogging is

detected. 150) The main purpose of a Constant Speed Drive unit is to:
A mechanically protect the alternator drive shaft during

127) The purpose of static wick dischargers is to : coupling.
A dissipate static charge of the aircraft inflight thus avoiding

B take part in the voltage regulation.
radio interference as a result of static electricity.
C maintain a constant frequency.
B dissipate static charge from the aircraft skin after landing.
D take part in the balancing of reactive loads.
C provide a path to ground for static charges when refuelling.
D be able to fly higher because of less electrical friction.
126) The compression ratio of a piston engine is the ratio of

the:
A weight of the air induced to its weight after compression.
B volume of the cylinder with the piston at bottom dead centre

to that with the piston at top dead centre.
C diameter of the bore to the piston stroke.
D area of the piston to the cylinder volume.
198) The detection of a feeder fault on a direct current circuit 155) Assuming cabin differential pressure has attained the
results in: required value in normal flight conditions, if flight
1. automatic disconnection of the generator from the altitude is maintained:
aircraft AC busbar
2. opening of generator field current relay A the pressurisation system ceases to function until leakage
3. opening of the main relay of the generator breaker reduces the pressure.
4. opening of balancing circuit connecting two
generators B the outflow valves will move to the fully closed position.
5. lighting of an indicator lamp
The combination of correct statements is: C a constant mass air flow is permitted through the cabin.
A 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 D the outflow valves will move to the fully open position.
B 2, 3, 4, 5
154) The reason for the trim switch on a control column to

C 2, 4, 5
consist of two separate switches is
D 1, 3, 5
A To be able to use two different trim speeds, slow trim rate at
high speed and high trim rate at low speed
158) During a power change on an engine equipped with a B To reduce the probability of a trim-runaway
constant speed propeller, a wrong combination of
manifold pressure and RPM values results in excessive C To prevent that both pilots perform opposite trim inputs.
pressures in the cylinders. This is the case when one
simultaneously selects a ... D Because there are two trim motors.
A low manifold pressure and low RPM.
B high manifold pressure and low RPM. 153) The maximum quantity of fuel that can be dumped with
the jettisoning system is:
C low manifold pressure and high RPM. A All fuel until the maximum landing weight is reached.
D high manifold pressure and high RPM. B All up to a defined reserve quantity.
C 15 tons.
157) A diluter demand oxygen regulator :
D All fuel.
A mixes air and oxygen in a passenger oxygen mask.
B delivers oxygen flow when inhaling. 140) An airplane whose maximum approved passenger
seating configuration is 201 to 300 seats must be
C delivers oxygen flow only above FL 100. equipped with at least:
D is only recommended for use with smoke in the cockpit.

A 3 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the
passenger compartment.
B 5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the

156) On a non-stressed skin type wing, the wing structure passenger compartment.
elements which take up the vertical bending moments
Mx are: C 6 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the
A the spars.
D 4 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the
B the ribs.
C the webs.
151) In an alternator rotor coil you can find :
D the skin.
A Only induced current.
B DC.
C AC.
D Three-phase AC.
160) A pilot normally uses the propeller autofeather system 145) Shimmy occurs on the nosewheel landing gear during
during : taxiing when:
A Landing. 1. the wheels tend to describe a sinusoidal motion on

the ground
B Take-off and landing. 2. the wheels no longer respond to the pilot's actions
This effect is overcome by means of:

C Cruise.
3. the torque link
D Take-off. 4. an accumulator associated with the steering cylinder
The combination of correct statements is:

149) A radio signal looses strength as range from the
transmitter increases, this is called : A 1, 3.
A ducting B 1, 4.
B attenuation C 2, 4.
C refraction D 2, 3.
D propagation
144) The cross-feed fuel system is used to :
148) The crank assembly consists of A allow the unusable fuel elimination.
A crankshaft, connecting rods and pistons. B automatically fill every tank up to the desired level.
B propeller, crankshaft, pistons and connecting rods. C feed every engine from any fuel tank.
C Crankcase, crankshaft, connecting rods and pistons. D allow the fuel to be quickly thrown away in case of
emergency
D crankshaft, camshaft, valves, valve springs and push rods.
143) On a multi-engined aircraft a fire detection system

includes :
147) Which statement is true concerning the effect of the
application of carburettor heat?
A a single warning light and a single alarm bell
A it reduces the density of air entering the carburettor, thus
B both a warning light and an alarm bell unique to each engine
leaning the fuel/air mixture
B it reduces the volume of air entering the carburettor,thus C a warning light for each engine and a single alarm bell
enriching the fuel/air mixture common to all engines
C it reduces the density of air entering the carburettor, thus D a single warning light but a separate alarm bell for each
enriching the fuel/air mixture engine
D it reduces the volume of air entering the carburettor,thus

leaning the fuel/air mixture 152) The octane rating of a fuel and compression ratio of a
piston engine have which of the following relations?
146) The advantage of mounting the tailplane on top of the A compression ratio is independent of the octane rating.
vertical stabilizer is :
B the higher the octane rating is, the higher the possible
A to a have greater effectiveness at high speed compression ratio is
B that it does not require a de-icing system C the lower the octane rating is, the higher the possible
compression ratio is
C to decrease fuel consumption by creating a tail heavy
D the higher the octane rating is, the lower the possible
situation
compression ratio is.
D to withdraw it from the influence of wing turbulence
244) The purpose of the baffles in an aircraft's integral fuel 248) An aircraft with a pressurized cabin is settled at its
tank is to: cruise level.
During the flight, a malfunction of the pressure
A Prevent the fuel from flowing in the vent lines. controller is detected by the crew and the cabin rate of
climb indicator reads -200ft/min.
B Prevent mixture of the fuel and hydraulic fluid. Given that :
DELTA P: Differential pressure
Zc: Cabin altitude
C Restrict the fuel from flowing to the wing tips during
abnormal manoeuvre (side slipping...).
A The aircraft has to climb to a higher flight level in order to
D reduce Zc to its initial value.
Prevent overpressure in the tank.
B The crew has to intermittently cut off the incoming air flow in
order to maintain a zero Zc.
252) The cabin rate of descent is:
C DELTA P will rise up to its maximum value, thus causing the
safety relief valves to open.
A a cabin pressure decrease.
D A descent must be initiated to prevent the oxygen masks
B is not possible at constant airplane altitudes. dropping when Zc reaches 14000ft.
C a cabin pressure increase.

247) A turboprop aeroplane is performing an overwater flight,
D always the same as the airplane's rate of descent. which takes it further than 340 NM away from an
aerodrome where an emergency landing could be
performed. Normal cruising speed is 180 kt. One engine
out airspeed is 155 kt.
251) The 'slipstream effect' of a propeller is most prominent
at: A Life rafts must be available for all occupants.
A high airspeeds with low power setting. B Life jackets must be available for all occupants.
B high airspeeds with high power setting.

C The regulation does not require life jackets or rafts to be
taken on board in this particular case.
C low airspeeds with low power setting.
D Life jackets and rafts must be available for all occupants.
D low airspeeds with high power setting.
196) If inflammable gaseous materials, like propane for

250) In an aircraft electrical system where AC generators are example, are set on fire; the following extinguisher types
not paralleled mounted, the changover relay allows : should be used for fire fighting:
A connection of the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) to its main A BCF and CO2 type extinguishers
busbar.
B Water type extinguishers
B power supply to the faulty AC generators busbar.
C Dry and water type extinguishers
C connection of the AC generator to its distribution busbar.
D CO2 and water type extinguishers
D connection of the ground power truck to its distribution
busbar.
245) The most suitable means for extinguishing a magnesium

fire on the ground is :
249) Hydraulic power is a function of :
A carbon dioxide.
A System pressure and volume flow.
B freon.
B Pump RPM only.
C sand.
C System pressure and tank capacity.
D water.
D Pump size and volume flow.
255) An engine pressure ratio (EPR) gauge reading normally 240) As regards the Generator Contol Unit (GCU) of an AC
shows the ratio of: generator, it can be said that:
A jet pipe pressure to compressor inlet pressure. 1. The GCU controls the AC generator voltage
2. Modern GCUs are provided with a permanent
B jet pipe pressure to combustion chamber pressure. indication to record the failure
3. All the commands originating from the control panel
are applied via the GCU, except dog clutch release
C combustion chamber pressure to compressor inlet pressure.
4. The Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) provides the
excitation of the AC generator as soon as the APU starts
D compressor outlet pressure to compressor inlet pressure. up

243) Consider the variable-pitch propeller of a turbo-prop. is :
During deceleration :
A 3, 4
A when braking, the propeller supplies negative thrust and
absorbs engine power. B 2, 4
B at zero power, the propeller thrust is zero and the engine C 1, 3

power absorbed is nil.
D 2, 3
C when feathered, the propeller produces thrust and absorbs
no engine power.
D with propeller windmilling, the thrust is zero and the 239) The voltage regulator of a DC generator is connected in :
propeller supplies engine power.
A parallel with the shunt field coil.

242) The cabin heating supply in a heavy jet transport aircraft
is obtained from : B parallel with the armature.
A hot air coming from the engine's compressors. C series with the shunt field coil.
B hot air coming from the engine's turbines. D series with the armature.
C a fuel heater system.

238) An aircraft whose maximum approved configuration for
D an electrical heater system. passenger seats is 10 seats must be equipped with:
A three fire-extinguishers in the passenger cabin only.

241) The pneumatic ice protection system is mainly used for:
B two fire-extinguishers in the cockpit and two fire-
extinguishers in the passenger cabin.
A propellers.
C one fire-extinguisher in the cockpit and three fire-
B engine intakes. extinguishers in the passenger cabin.
D one fire-extinguisher in the cockpit and two fire-

C wings. extinguishers in the passenger cabin.
D pitot tubes.
237) During a normal pressurised climb after take-off:
A absolute cabin pressure increases to compensate for the fall

in pressure outside the aircraft
B cabin pressure decreases more slowly than atmospheric

pressure
C the pressurisation system is inoperative until an altitude of

10 000 feet is reached
D the cabin differential pressure is maintained constant
246) The purpose of a trim tab (device) is to: 268) Specific fuel consumption is defined as the :
A trim the aeroplane at low airspeed. A quantity of fuel required to run the engine for one minute at
maximum operating conditions.
B lower manoeuvring control forces.
B maximum fuel consumption of the aircraft.
C reduce or to cancel control forces.
C mass of fuel required to produce unit power for unit time.
D trim the aeroplane during normal flight.
D designed fuel consumption for a given rpm.
262) Because of the input/output relationship of an OR gate,

it is often referred to as the : 267) In a pressurized aircraft, the first-aid (therapeutic)
oxygen is designed to:
A "state indicator" gate.
A give medical assistance to passengers with pathological
respiratory disorders.
B "all or nothing" gate.
B protect the flight crew and cabin attendants against fumes
C "any or all" gate. and noxious gases.
D "inhibited" or "negated" gate. C protect all the occupants against the effects of accidental
depressurisation.
D protect certain passengers, and is only carried on board for

271) In aeronautics, the most commonly used batteries are these people.
NiCd because...
A they weigh less than lead-acid batteries.

266) The advantages of thermal anti-icing are :
1. Simple and reliable system
B their output voltage is more constant than lead-acid batteries. 2. Profiles maintained
3. Greater efficiency than that of an electrical resistor
C their electrolyte is neither corrosive nor dangerous. 4. Direct use of the hot air from the jet engine without
substantial reduction in engine thrust
D they are cheaper than lead-acid batteries. The combination of correct statements is:
A 1,3
270) A static inverter is a:
B 2,4
A transistorized unit used to convert DC into AC. C 1,2
B device for reversing the polarity of the static charge. D 3,4
C static discharger.
265) Concerning electrically powered ice protection devices,
D filter against radio interference. the only true statement is:
A on modern aeroplanes, electrically powered thermal devices

269) The "cabin differential pressure" is: are very efficient, therefore they only need little energy.
B on modern aeroplanes, electrically powered thermal devices

A approximately 5 psi at maximum. are used as de-icing devices for pitot-tubes, static ports,
windshield...
B approximately 15 psi at maximum.
C on modern aeroplanes, electrically powered thermal devices
are used to prevent icing on small surfaces (pitot-static,
C the pressure differential between the air entering and leaving
windshield...).
the cabin.
D cabin pressure minus ambient pressure.

D on modern aeroplanes, electrical power supply being
available in excess, this system is very often used for large
surfaces de-icing.
253) On modern carburettors, the variations of mixture ratios 259) Prolonged running at low rpm may have an adverse
are obtained by the adjustment of : effect on the efficiency of the:
A fuel flow and air flow. A carburettor.
B fuel flow, air flow and temperature. B oil pump.
C fuel flow. C fuel filter.
D air flow. D sparking plugs.
263) A smoke mask is a : 258) In a single spool gas turbine engine, the compressor
rpm is :
A continuous flow mask and covers only the nose and the A independent of turbine rpm.
mouth.
B mask with flow on request and covers the whole face. B greater than turbine rpm.
C continuous flow mask and covers the whole face. C less than turbine rpm.
D mask with flow on request and covers only the nose and the D the same as turbine rpm.
mouth.
257) Immediately after starting engine(s) with no other

254) The number of crash axes on board an airplane, whose electrical services switched on, an ammeter showing a
maximum approved configuration of passenger seats is high charge rate to the battery :
201, is :
A would be normal and is only cause for concern if the high
A 1 charge rate persists.
B 3 B indicates a battery failure since there should be no

immediate charge.
C 4
C indicates a generator failure, thus requiring the engine to be
shut down immediately.
D 2
D indicates a faulty reverse current relay.
261) Under normal flight conditions, cabin pressure is

controlled by : 256) An exit is considered to be out of service when the
following elements are inoperative the:
A engine rpm.
1. external door opening mechanism
B inward relief valve(s). 2. internal door opening mechanism
3. door opening aid device
4. open door locking system
C regulating the discharge of air through the outflow valve(s).
5. auxiliary means of evacuation
6. emergency lighting
D pressurisation duct relief valve(s).
is:
260) Smoke detectors fitted on transport aircraft are of the
following type : A 2, 3, 4, 6
A electrical B 1, 3, 4, 5
B magnetic C 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
C optical or ionization D 1, 2, 5, 6
D chemical
234) In order to produce an alternating voltage of 400 Hz, the 213) The true statement among the following in relation to
number of poles required in an AC generator running at the application of Ohm's law is :
6000 rpm is:
A The current in a circuit is directly proportional to the
A 8 resistance of the circuit.
B 4 B power in the circuit is inversely proportional to the square of

the current.
C 24
C current in a circuit is inversely proportional to the
electromotive force.
D 12
D Current in a circuit is directly proportional to the applied
electromotive force.
264) The demand valve of a diluter-demand type oxygen
regulator in normal mode, operates when the :
212) A piston engine may use a fuel of a different grade than
A user breathes in the recommended:
B diluter control is in normal position A provided that the grade is lower
C user requires 100 percent oxygen B never
D pressure in the oxygen reservoir is more than 500 psi C provided that it is an aeronautical petrol
D provided that the grade is higher

206) The type of a aircraft oxygen system intended for use by
passengers, is mostly :
211) To adjust the mixture ratio of a piston engine when
A a continuous flow system altitude increases, means to:
B a pressure demand system A decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for the
decreasing air density.
C portable equipment only
B decrease the amount of fuel in the mixture in order to
compensate for the increasing air density.
D an air recycle system
C increase the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for
the decreasing air pressure and density.
236) The wing of an aircraft in flight, powered by engines
located under the wing, is subjected to a bending
D increase the mixture ratio.
moment which causes its leading edge, from the wing
root to the wing tip, to operate in:
210) The cabin pressure is regulated by the:
A compression, then in tension.
B tension, then in compression. A Cabin inlet airflow valve.
C tension. B Outflow valve.
D compression. C Air cycle machine.
D Air conditioning pack.
214) Chemical oxygen generators are used to furnish oxygen

to the :
209) To ensure correct load sharing between AC generators
A cockpit only. operating in parallel :
B toilets only. A both real an reactive loads must be matched.
C cabin only. B the matching of loads is unimportant.
D cockpit and the cabin. C only reactive loads need to be matched.
D only real loads need to be matched.
216) The vapor lock is : 204) For a given type of oil, the oil viscosity depends on the:
A The abnormal mixture enrichment caused by a greater A outside pressure.

gasoline vaporisation in the carburettor.
B oil pressure.
B A stoppage in a fuel feeding line caused by a fuel vapor
bubble.
C quantity of oil.
C The exhaust gases obstructions caused by an engine
overheating. D oil temperature.
D The effect of the water vapor bubbles in the induction

manifold caused by the condensation
203) A public transport aircraft has a cruising altitude of FL
390. It is fitted with individual oxygen masks for the
passengers. In the event of depressurisation, the masks
207) The feathering pump of a hydraulic variable-pitch must be automatically released before the cabin
propeller: pressure altitude exceeds:
A is driven by the engine and supplies pressure oil to the A 12000 ft.
propeller in case of engine problems.
B 14000 ft.
B is an electrically driven oil pump, which supplies the
propeller with pressure oil, when the engine is inoperative.
C 15000 ft.
C is intended to control the pitch setting of the propeller during
flight in order to obtain a constant speed. D 13000 ft.
D controls the propeller, if the speed governor fails.

In the hydraulic press schematically shown, what
217) A main landing gear is said to be "locked down" when: balancing Force would be acting on the right hand side
? (The diagram is not to scale)
A the strut is locked by an overcentre mechanism. A 20 N.
B it is in the down position. B 1 N.
C the actuating cylinder is at the end of it's travel. C 100 N.
D the corresponding indicator lamp is amber. D 1000 N.
205) Consider the flight deck oxygen supply system. The 201) An impulse coupling does not function at such speeds
purpose of the oxygen regulator (as a function of above those encountered in starting. Its engaging pawls
demand and altitude) is to: are prevented from operating at higher speeds by
1. decrease oxygen pressure from 1800 PSI (in the A centrifugal force
bottles) down to about 50-75 PSI (low pressure system)
2. supply pure oxygen B engine oil pressure
3. supply diluted oxygen
4. supply oxygen at normal pressure
5. supply oxygen at emergency/positive pressure C a coil spring
6. trigger the continuous cabin altitude warning at 10000
ft cabin altitude D electro-magnetic action of operating magneto.

is:
200) If two constant frequency AC generators are operating
independently, then the phase relationship of each
A 3, 4, 5, 6
generator:
B 1, 2, 3, 4 A must be synchronised.
C 1, 3, 4, 6 B must be 120° out of phase.
D 2, 3, 4, 5 C must be 240° out of phase.
D is unimportant.
199) A "trip-free" type circuit breaker is a circuit protection 232) In a bootstrap system, the purpose of the heat
device which : exchangers is to:
A will allow the contacts to be held closed in order to clear a A cool bleed air and compressor air from the turbo refrigerator.
fault in the circuit.
B allow a homogeneous temperature by mixing air flows from
B will not allow the contacts to be held closed while a current various air conditioning groups in operation.
fault exists in the circuit.
C cool bleed air.
C is free from the normal CB tripping characteristic.
D allow a steady compressor outlet temperature.
D can be reset at any time.
231) In a hydraulic system, the reservoir is pressurized in

208) The correct formula to calculate the multi-cylinder order to:
engine displacement is :
A seal the system
A cylinder length * cylinder diameter
B keep the hydraulic fluid at optimum temperature
B piston area * piston stroke * number of cylinders
C reduce fluid combustibility
C piston area * piston stroke
D prevent pump cavitation
D cylinder volume * number of cylinders
230) The pyrotechnic means used in case of an emergency to

225) Cabin pressure is controlled by : indicate your position to the emergency teams are a
flare:
A the cabin air re-circulation system.
A and a smoke device which are only used in the daytime.
B the cabin air mass flow control inlet valve(s).
B which is used at night and a smoke device which is used in
the daytime.
C delivering a substantially constant flow of air into the cabin
and controlling the outflow.
C and a smoke device which are only used at night.
D controlling the flow of air into the cabin with a constant
outflow. D which is used at daytime and a smoke device which is used
at night.
121) In a piston engine, the purpose of an altitude mixture

control is to : 229) The most common extinguishing agent used in gas
turbine engine fire protection system is:
A weaken the mixture strength because of reduced exhaust
back pressure at altitude. A Water.
B enrich the mixture strength due to decreased air density at B CO2.

altitude.
C Powder.
C correct for variations in the fuel/air ratio due to decreased air
density at altitude. D Freon.
D prevent a weak cut when the throttle is opened rapidly at
altitude.
228) In the pneumatic supply system of a modern transport
aircraft, the air pressure is regulated. This pressure
233) The pitch angle of a propeller is the angle between the : regulation occurs just before the manifold by the :
A fan bleed air valve

A propeller reference chord line and the relative airflow.
B intermediate pressure check-valve
B propeller reference chord line and the extremity of the
propeller. C low pressure bleed air valve
C propeller plane of rotation and the relative airflow.

D high pressure bleed air valve
D reference chord line and the propeller plane of rotation.
215) In a gas turbine engine, the power changes are normally 222) Fixed-pitch propellers are usually designed for
made by controlling the amount of: maximum efficiency at :
A air entering the compressor and fuel entering the A cruising speed
combustion chambers.
B idling
B fuel supplied.
C full throttle
C air entering the compressor.
D take-off
D air leaving the compressor by the opening or closing of
bleed valves.
221) An impulse magneto coupling

226) The illumination of the green landing gear light indicates
that the landing gear is : A gives an automatic spark increase during high speed
operation.
A locked-down and its door is locked.
B gives a retarded spark at starting
B not in the required position.
C reduces magneto speed during engine warm-up
C locked-down.
D advances ignition timing and gives a hotter spark at starting
D in the required position.
220) The Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) is the ratio of:

235) The type of windings commonly used in DC starter
motors are :
A the total turbine inlet pressure to the total compressor outlet
pressure.
A compound wound.
B the total turbine outlet pressure to the total compressor inlet
B series wound. pressure.
C shunt wound. C the total turbine outlet pressure to the total compressor
outlet pressure.
D series shunt wound.
D the total turbine inlet pressure to the total compressor inlet
pressure.
224) On the ground, the Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) can be

substituted for the:
219) When a persistent overexcitation fault is detected on
only one AC generator, the protection device opens the :
A ground power unit, the starting system.
A tie breaker.
B ground power unit.
B generator breaker and tie breaker.
C ground power unit, the starting system, the air conditioning
unit.
C exciter breaker and generator breaker.
D ground power unit, the air conditioning unit.
D exciter breaker, generator breaker and tie breaker.
223) The primary purpose of a supercharger is to :

218) With regard to the pneumatic mechanical devices which
afford protection against the formation of ice, the only
A provide a richer mixture at high altitudes correct statement is:
B maintain power at altitude A The pneumatic mechanical device is used a lot on modern
aircraft as it is inexpensive and easy to maintain.
C increase quantity of fuel at metering jet
B The pneumatic mechanical device can only be used as an
anti-icing device.
D provide leaner mixtures at altitudes below 5000 ft
C The inflatable de-ice boots of the pneumatic mechanical
device are arranged perpendicular to the leading edges.
D The pneumatic mechanical device can only be used as a de-

icing device.
227) In jet transport aircraft, breathing oxygen for the cockpit 23) "Nose wheel shimmy" may be described as :
is stored in the following state:
A gaseous. A the oscillatory movement of the nose wheel when extended

prior to landing.
B liquid. B the amount of free movement of the nose wheel before
steering takes effect.
C chemical.
C aircraft vibration caused by the nose wheel upon extension
D chemical or gaseous. of the gear.
D a possibly damaging vibration of the nose wheel when

moving on the ground.
18) Turbine blade stages may be classed as either
"impulse" or "reaction". In an impulse blade section :
22) The function of a feed box in the fuel tank is to
A the pressure remains constant across the nozzle guide
vanes and rises constant across the rotor blades .
A trap fuel sediments or sludge in the lower part of the tank
B the pressure drops across the nozzle guide vanes and
remains constant across the rotor blades .
B distribute the fuel to the various tanks during refuelling
C the pressure rises across the nozzle guide vanes and
remains constant across the rotor blades . C ventilate the tank during refuelling under high pressure
D the pressure remains constant across the nozzle guide D increase the fuel level at the boost pump location
vanes and drops across the rotor blades .
21) What is breathed in when using a passenger oxygen

26) An operator shall not operate an aeroplane certicated to mask?
JAR25, across an area in which search and rescue
would be especially difficult, without survival equipment A Cabin air and oxygen.
if it flies away from an area suitable for making an
emergency landing at a distance greater than :
B 100% oxygen.
A 60 minutes at cruising speed.
C Cabin air and oxygen or 100% oxygen.
B 30 minutes at cruising speed.
D A mixture of oxygen and freon gas.
C 120 minutes at cruising speed.
D 90 minutes at cruising speed. 123) Which is (are) the damping element(s) in a landing gear
shock absorber used on larger aircraft ?
A Springs.
25) An asymmetric loading (p-factor) on the propeller exists
..
B Nitrogen and a viscous liquid.
A If there is an unbalanced propeller.
C Nitrogen.
B Only for counterrotating propeller
D Oxygen.
C Only if the 'constant speed propeller' mechanism is broken.
D If the aeroplane has a large angle of attack.
24) When the door operation of a transport airplane

equipped with evacuation slides is controlled from the
outside, the slide:
A is disarmed automatically.
B unfolds and becomes inflated.
C unfolds but does not become inflated.
D becomes inflated in its packboard thus preventing its

unfolding.
19) The purpose of the cabin pressure controller, in the 15) The voltage of a fully charged lead-acid battery cell is :
automatic mode, is to perform the following functions:
1. control of cabin altitude, A 1,2 volts.

2. control of cabin altitude rate-of-change,
3. limitation of differential pressure B 2,2 volts.
4. balancing aircraft altitude with cabin altitude
5. cabin ventilation C 1,4 volts.
6. keeping a constant differential pressure throughout
all the flight phases. D 1,8 volts.
is :
14) Internal leakage in a hydraulic system will cause :
A 1, 2, 3
B 2, 6, 4
A an increased fluid pressure.
B an increased fluid temperature.

C 5, 6, 1
D 4, 5, 3
C fluid loss.
D a decreased fluid temperature.
29) (For this question use appendix )
Associate the correct legend to each of the numbered 13) A DC generator fitted to a aircraft is cooled by :
diagrams :
A air tapped from the low pressure compressor.
A 1- half-fork 2- single trace 3- cantilever 4- dual wheels
B air via a ram air intake.
B 1- cantilever 2- fork 3- half fork 4- dual wheels
C water at 8 degrees centrigade from the air-conditioning
system.
C 1- half fork 2- fork 3- cantilever 4- tandem
D a fan located before the generator.
D 1- cantilever 2- dual wheels 3- half fork 4- fork
12) The chemical oxygen generator is a system:

17) The operating principle of float-type carburettors is
based on the: 1. which is inexpensive
2. requiring no external input
A measurement of the fuel flow into the induction system 3. which is lightweight
4. requiring no maintenance
B difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet 5. with adjustable flow rate
6. which is unsafe
C automatic metering of air at the venturi as the aircraft gains
altitude
is:
D increase in air velocity in the throat of a venturi causing an
increase in air pressure A 1, 3, 4
B 2, 3, 6
16) The VHF Omnirange (VOR) uses the following
wavelengths: C 1, 4, 6
A centimetric. D 2, 4, 5
B metric.
11) A pneumatic de-ice system should be operated ..
C hectometric.
D decimetric. A When there are approximately 5 cm of ice on leading edges
B Only at take-off and during approach.
C When there is approximately 1,5 cm of ice on leading edges.
D When entering areas with icing conditions.
20) The most widely used electrical frequency in aircraft is : 43) In the axial flow compressor of a turbo-jet engine, the
flow duct is tapered. Its shape is calculated so as to:
A 400 Hz. A reduce the axial speed, whatever the engine rating.
B 200 Hz. B maintain a constant axial speed in cruising flight.
C 50 Hz.
C maintain a constant axial speed whatever the engine rating.
D 60 Hz. D reduce the axial speed in cruising flight.
36) With engine fire alarm activated, the extinguisher 42) Engine bleed air used for air conditioning and
discharge: pressurization in turbo-jet aeroplanes is usually taken
from the:
A is the pilot's task
A by-pass ducting.
B is automatic and immediate
B compressor section.
C is automatic after a delay to allow the pilot to stop the engine
C fan section.
D does not need the engine to be stopped
D turbine section.
45) The power output of a normally aspirated piston engine

increases with increasing altitude at constant Manifold 41) During climb with constant throttle and RPM lever
Air Pressure (MAP) and RPM because of the : setting (mixture being constant) the :
A lower losses during the gas change. A RPM increases.
B lower friction losses. B Manifold Air Pressure (MAP) decreases.
C leaner mixture at higher altitudes.

C RPM decreases.
D lower back pressure. D Manifold Air Pressure (MAP) increases.
44) The installation and use of on-board oxygen generators 40) Using compressor bleed air to power systems:
is such that:
1 - the smoking ban is imperative when used A has no influence on aircraft performance
2 - in case of accidental drop of the "continuous flow"
passenger masks, no crew action is required B increases aircraft performance
3 - no trace of grease must be found in the system
assembly
4 - the system's filling adaptors must be greased with C is limited to the phases of take-off and landing
non freezable or graphite grease
D decreases aircraft performance
statements is :
39) Above what flight level must one pilot wear an oxygen
A 2-4 mask at all times during commercial flight.
B 1-3 A 490.
C 1-4 B 410.
D 2-3 C 300.
D 250.
27) Assume a constant speed DC generator providing a 33) The purpose of an ignition switch is to :
constant output voltage. If the electrical load increases,
the voltage regulator will :
A connect the battery to the magneto
A maintain the intensity of the excitation current constant.
B connect the contact breaker and condenser in series with
B decrease the intensity of the excitation current. the primary coil
C control the primary circuit of the magneto

C increase the intensity of the excitation current.
D connect the secondary coil to the distributor
D change the direction of the excitation current.
32) The correct statement about rain protection for cockpit

37) The function of a fusible plug is to windshields is that :
A protect the tyre against explosion due to excessive A the alcohol de-icing system for cockpit windows is also
temperature. suitable for rain protection
B protect the brake against brake disk fusion due to excessive B rain repellent should never be sprayed onto the windshield
temperature. unless the rainfall is very heavy
C function as a special circuit breaker in the electric system C wipers are sufficient under heavy rain conditions to provide
adequate view through the cockpit windows.
D protect against excessive pressure in the pneumatic
D the electric de-icing system for cockpit windows is also
system.
suitable for rain protection
28) In flight, the most commonly used anti-icing method for

31) A jet aircraft is certified for the carriage of 120
the wings of modern commercial aircraft fitted with
passengers. 42 passenger are on board and the
turbo-jet units is:
expected Flight Level on route Paris-Alger is FL 330. The
first aid oxygen to be on board at departure shall
A Electrical (electrical resistances). provide breathing supply for at least:
B Mechanical (pneumatic source which acts by deforming the A no first aid required.
profiles of the leading edge).
B 1 passenger for the entire flight after cabin depressurization
C Thermal (use of hot air).
at cabin altitude between 10000 and 14000 ft.
D Physical/chemical (glycol-based liquid). C 3 passengers for the entire flight after cabin
depressurization at cabin altitude between 10000 and 14000
ft.
35) In a "bootstrap" cooling system, the charge air is first
compressed in the cold air unit to: D 1 passenger for the entire flight after cabin depressurization
at cabin altitude of more than 8000 ft.
A maintain a constant cabin mass air flow.
B ensure an adequate pressure and temperature drop across 30) The difference between (1) a fuse and (2) a circuit
the cooling turbine. breaker is:
C increase the cabin air supply pressure when the charge A (1)not resettable, (2)resettable.
pressure is too low.
B (1) suitable for high currents, (2) not suitable for high
D ensure an adequate charge air flow across the inter-cooler currents.fuse circuit breaker
heat exchanger.
C (1) not suitable for high currents, (2) suitable for high
currents.fuse circuit breaker
34) The automatic fuelling shut off valve:
D (1)not resettable, (2) not resettable.
A stops fuelling as soon as a certain fuel level is reached

inside the tank.
B cuts off the fuel in case of engine fire.
C stops fuelling as soon as the fuel spills into the ventline.
D stops fuelling as soon as a certain pressure is reached.
8) Generally, on modern jet transport aircraft, how can the 312) An excessively rich mixture can be detected by :
landing gear be extended if there is a complete hydraulic
system failure.
A a long purple flame from exhaust.
A By hydraulic accumulators.
B black smoke from exhaust.
B Mechanically
C high cylinder head temperatures
C Electrically.
D white smoke from exhaust.
D Pneumatically.
311) For FAIL-SAFE designed structural parts :

38) The mixture control for a carburettor achieves its
control by: 1 The mounting principle is parallel mounting.
2 No routine check is necessary.
A altering the depression on the main discharge tube. 3 The member is removed at the end of the calculated
life cycle.
4 Certain components may not be accessible.
B varying the air supply to the main discharge tube. 5 The principle is the redundancy of components
6 The failure of a member causes the loads to be shared
C varying the fuel supply to the main discharge tube. between the other system components.
D moving the butterfly valve through a separate linkage to the The combination regrouping all the correct statements
main throttle control. is :
A 1,3,4
305) The essential difference between aircraft AC alternators
and DC generators (dynamos) is that the: B 2,5,6
A alternators supply all of the output current through the C 1,5,6

commutators and brush assemblies.
D 2,3,4
B The alternators generate much less power than DC
generators.
C induced (output) windings of the alternators are fixed 310) Concerning the centrifugal compressor, the compressor
(stator), and the dynamos have a fixed inductor (field) coil. diffuser is a device in which the:
D induced windings of the alternators are rotating (rotor), and A pressure rises at a constant velocity.
the dynamos have a rotary inductor coil.
B velocity, pressure and temperature rise.
10) An accumulator in a hydraulic system will : C velocity rises and pressure falls.
A increase pressure surges within the system.

D pressure rises and velocity falls.
B reduce fluid temperature and pressure.

309) An AC generator driven by a CSD unit :
C reduce fluid temperature only.
A requires a voltage controller to maintain constant frequency.
D store fluid under pressure.
B requires a voltage controller to maintain constant voltage
under load.
313) When a battery is almost fully discharged there is a
tendency for the : C does not need a voltage controller since the CSD will ensure
constant voltage.
A electrolyte to "boil".
D does not need a voltage controller since an AC generator
voltage cannot alter under load.
B voltage to decrease under load.
C voltage to increase due to the current available.
D current produced to increase due to the reduced voltage.
308) Fuel stored in aircraft tanks will accumulate moisture. 303) The capacity of a battery is expressed in terms of :
The most practical way to minimize this when an aircraft
is used every day or so is to :
A ampere-hours.
A keep tank vents plugged and filler cap tight
B volts.
B keep tanks topped off when the aircraft is not in use
C watts.
C drain tanks at end of each day's flight
D internal resistance.
D use only high octane gasoline

315) The safety precautions to be taken whenever using The smoke detection in the aircraft cargo compartments
oxygen are: is carried out by four sensors: C1, C2, C3 and C4.
They are associated with the logic circuit as described
1. refrain from smoking, avoid sparkes. in the annex.
2. Avoid operation of radio communication equipment. The repeating bell is activated when:
3. Slowly operate oxygen system valves.
4. Avoid greasy matter. A the C1 and C3 sensors detect smoke.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements B only one sensor detects smoke.
is :
C the C2 and C4 sensors detect smoke.
A 1, 3, 4.
D the C1 and C2 sensors detect smoke.
B 1, 2, 3.
C 2, 3, 4.
301) The term "bootstrap", when used to identify a cabin air
conditioning and pressurisation system, refers to the:
D 1, 2, 4.
A cold air unit (air cycle machine) arrangement.
306) The wavelength of a radio transmitted on frequency B source of the charge air.
121.95 MHz is:
C means by which pressurisation is controlled.
A 2.46 m
D charge air across the inter-cooler heat exchanger.
B 24.60 cm
C 2.46 cm
300) In which sections of the carburettor would icing most
likely occur?
D 24.60 m
A main air bleed and main discharge nozzle
316) The VHF direction finder uses the following wavelengths: B venturi and the throttle valve
A hectometric.
C float chamber and fuel inlet filter
D accelerator pump and main metering jet

B decimetric.
C centimetric.
299) The low pressure switch of a hydraulic circuit sets off an
D metric. alarm if :
A the reservoir level is at the normal operation limit.
304) When air is compressed for pressurization purposes, B there is a leak in the reservoir return line.
the percentage oxygen content is:
A unaffected.
C the pump power accumulator is deflated.
B decreased.
D the pump output pressure is insufficient.
C increased.
D dependent on the degree of pressurisation.
298) The purpose of a shuttle valve is to: 6) The advantages of grounding the negative pole of the
aircraft structure are:
A Protect a hydraulic system from overpressure. 1. Weight saving

2. Easy fault detection
B Relieve excess pressure in hydraulic systems. 3. Increase of short-circuit risk
4. Reduction of short-circuit risk
C Prevent overloading of the hydraulic pump. 5. Circuits are not single-wired lines
D Supply an operating unit with the most appropriate system The combination regrouping all the correct statements
pressure. is :
A 1, 3, 5
307) Assuming cabin pressure decreases, the cabin rate of

climb indicator should indicate :
B 1, 2, 4
A a rate of descent of approximately 300 feet per minutes. C 1, 2, 3
B zero. D 2, 3, 5
C a rate of descent dependent upon the cabin differential

pressure. 5) There are 60 passengers and crew members on board a
turbo-prop aircraft. Its speed is 240 kt. At a point along
D a rate of climb. the course steered, above the sea, the aircraft is at 1h45
min from an airdrome suitable for emergency landing.
The minimum equipment complying with regulations is :
324) A fuel strainer when fitted to a carburettor will be
positioned :
A 60 life jackets, two 30-seat life boats
A between the needle valve and the metering jet. B 60 life jackets and three 30-seat life boats
B between the metering jet and the discharge nozzle. C 60 life jackets
C downstream of th discharge nozzle. D One 30-seat life boat and two 20-seat life boats
D upstream of the needle valve.

4) Environmental system: in the air refrigeration unit, the
water separation unit is placed:
48) When an underspeed fault is detected on an AC
generator connected to the aircraft AC busbar, the
A after the cooling turbine.
protection device opens the:
B before the heat exchangers.
A exciter breaker.
C before the cooling turbine.
B exciter breaker and generator breaker.
D just after the heat exchangers.
C exciter breaker, generator breaker and tie breaker.
D generator breaker. 3) The fuel temperature, at which, under standard

conditions, the vapour ignites in contact with a flame
and extinguishs immediately, is the:
7) At constant fuel flow, if engine compressor air is bled off
for engine anti-icing or a similar system, the turbine
A combustion point
temperature:
B fire point
A will rise.
C self ignition point
B will be unchanged.
D flash point
C may rise or fall depending on which stage of the compressor
is used for the bleed and the rpm of the engine at the
moment of selection.
D will fall.
2) The hydraulic device similar to an electronic diode is a : 322) Assuming an accumulator is pre-charged with air to
1000 psi and the hydraulic system is pressurised to 1500
psi, the accumulator gauge will read :
A check valve.
A 2500 psi.
B flow control valve.
B 1000 psi.
C distribution valve.
C 500 psi.
D shutoff valve.
D 1500 psi.
314) In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, each occupant of the

cockpit seats on duty in a non-pressurized airplane 321) When increasing true airspeed with a constant engine
must have an oxygen supply reserve for the entire flight RPM, the angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller :
time at pressure altitudes greater than:
A increases.
A 14000 ft.
B stays constant.
B 10000 ft.
C stays constant because it only varies with engine RPM.
C 12500 ft.
D reduces.
D 13000 ft.
320) The advantages of a chemical oxygen source for the

325) In the cabin, when the oxygen mask is pulled passenger cabin are :
downwards, the passenger breathes :
1. reduced weight and volume,
A cabin air under pressure. 2. easy storage and maintenance,
3. greater autonomy,
B a mixture of oxygen and cabin air. 4. no risk of explosion,
5. reversible functioning,
C pure oxygen under pressure. 6. no maintenance.
D pure oxygen at the ambient pressure. The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:
A 1, 2, 4, 6
9) The output of a generator is controlled by :
B 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
A varying the length of wire in the armature windings.
C 2, 3, 5
B the reverse current relay circuit breaker.
D 1, 3, 4, 5
C varying the field strength.
D varying the speed of the engine. 319) The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass:
1 Is a limitation set by regulation.
2 Is designed for a maximum load factor.
3 Is due to the maximum bending moment at wing root.
323) In addition to fire detention/protection, most auxiliary 4 Requires to empty external tanks first.
power units (APUs) have automatic controls for stating, 5 Requires to empty internal tanks first.
stopping and maintaining operation within safe limits. The correct combination of true statements is :
These controls provide correct sequencing of the
starting cycle as well as protection against : A 2,5
A high TGT and loss of oil pressure only.

B 2,4
B overspeed and high oil temperature only.
C 1,3,5
C high TGT only.

D 1,2,3
D high turbine gas temperature (TGT), overspeed, loss of oil
pressure and high oil temperature.
318) The part of a piston engine that transforms 101) The purpose of the blow-in-doors at the air inlets is to:
reciprocating movement into rotary motion is termed
the :
A serve to increase the relative velocity at the first compressor
A reduction gear stage.
B provide the engine with additional air at high power settings

B crankshaft and low air speeds.
C piston C provide the engine with additional air at high power settings
at cruising speed.
D camshaft
D feed cooling air to the engine cowling.
317) The fuselage of an aircraft consists, among others, of

stringers whose purpose is to: 100) The frequency of an AC generator is dependent upon
the :
A assist the skin in absorbing the longitudinal traction-
compression stresses. A number of pairs of poles and the speed of the rotor.
B withstand the shear stresses. B number of individual poles and the field strength.
C provide sound and thermal isolation. C field strength and the speed of the rotor.
D integrate the strains due to pressurization to which the skin D number of individual poles only.
is subjected and convert them into a tensile stress.
99) A rich mixture setting has to be used during climb

1) Main cabin temperature is: segments. This results in a
A controlled automatically, or by flight crew selection. A higher torque.
B controlled by individual passenger. B lower cylinder head temperature.
C not controllable at the maximum cabin differential pressure. C higher efficiency.
D Only controllable at maximum cabin differential pressure. D slight loss of power.
93) The frequency of an AC generator is dependent on the : 98) The measured output power components of a constant
frequency AC system are :
A number of pairs of poles and the speed of the moving part. A amperes and kilowatts.
B number of individual poles and the field strength. B kVA and kVAR.
C field strength and the speed of the moving part. C volts and amperes.
D number of individual poles only. D volts and kilowatts.
85) (Use the appendix to answer this question) 97) In twin-engine aeroplanes with right turning propellers
The gas turbine illustrated is of the following type:

A the 'minimum control speed' is determined by the failure of
A free turbine and centrifugal compressor the right engine.
B free turbine and axial compressor

B the right engine is the critical motor.
C single shaft turbine and centrifugal compressor C the left engine is the critical motor.
D single shaft turbine and axial compressor

D the left engine produces a higher yaw moment if the right
engine fails than vice versa.
96) In a cabin air conditioning system, equipped with a 91) Pulling the fire shutoff handle causes a number of
bootstrap, the mass air flow is routed via the: devices to disconnect. In respect of the AC generator it
can be said that the:
A compressor outlet of the cold air unit to the primary heat
exchanger inlet. A exciter control relay, the generator breaker and the tie
breaker open.
B secondary heat exchanger outlet to the turbine inlet of the
cold air unit. B exciter control relay and the generator breaker open.
C secondary heat exchanger outlet to the compressor inlet of C exciter control relay opens.
the cold air unit.
D turbine outlet of the cold air unit to the primary heat

D generator breaker opens.
exchanger inlet.
90) An airplane whose maximum approved passenger

103) When the AC generators are connected in parallel, the seating configuration is 31 to 60 seats must be equipped
reactive loads are balanced by means of the: with at least:
A torque of the Constant Speed Drive (CSD). A 5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the
B energizing current.
C frequency.
C 3 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the
D voltage. passenger compartment.

94) The emergency lighting system must be able to function
and supply a certain level of lighting after the main
electric power system has been cut off for at least:
89) The function of the selector valve is to:
A 90 seconds
A select the system to which the hydraulic pump should
B 5 minutes supply pressure.
C 30 minutes B automatically activate the hydraulic system.
D 10 minutes C discharge some hydraulic fluid if the system pressure is too

high.
D communicate system pressure to either side of an actuator.

104) When a wire type fire system is tested:
A Only the warning function is tested. 88) When in flight, a piston engine is stopped and the
propeller blade pitch angle is near 90°, the propeller is
B a part of the wire is totally heated. said to be...
C the wire is totally heated. A windmilling.
D the wiring and the warning are tested. B transparent.
C at zero drag.
92) In the propagation of MF waves, the phenomenon of
FADING is particularly found : D feathered.
A at night, due to the combination of the sky and ground waves.
B by day, due to the combination of sky and ground waves.
C at night and when raining.
D by day and when raining.
87) In general, in twin-engine aeroplanes with 'constant 274) The pitch angle of a constant-speed propeller
speed propeller'
A the oil pressure turns the propeller blades towards smaller A increases with increasing true air speed.
pitch angle.
B only varies with engine RPM.
B the aerodynamic force turns the propeller blades towards
higher pitch angle. C decreases with increasing true air speed.
C the spring force turns the propeller blades towards smaller D is independent of the true air speed.
pitch angle.
D the oil pressure turns the propeller blades towards higher

pitch angle. 120) For weather radar, the frequency 9375 MHz in X Band is
preferable to C Band because:
46) The torque of an aeroplane engine can be measured at A It allows greater scanning rates.
the:
B It better detects clouds contour and range is greater with the
A accessory gear box. same transmission power.
B camshaft. C Its penetration power is higher.
C gear box which is located between the engine and the D It is not absorbed by heavy precipitations.
propeller.
D propeller blades. 119) With respect to a piston engined aircraft, ice in the
carburettor :
95) An artificial feel unit is necessary in the pitch channel A may form at OAT's higher than +10°C.
when:
B will only form at OAT's below +10°C.
A the elevators are actuated by reversible servo-control units.
C will only form at outside air temperatures (OAT's) below the
B the elevators are actuated by irreversible servo-control units. freezing point of water.
C the elevators are fitted with servo-tabs or trim tabs. D will only form at OAT's below the freezing point of fuel.
D there is a trimmable stabilizer.

118) Shuttle valves will automatically:
112) As regards three-phase AC generators, the following A Guard systems against overpressure.
conditions must be met for paralleling AC generators:
B Reduce pump loads.
1. Equal voltage
2. Equal current
3. Equal frequencies C Switch hydraulically operated units to the most appropriate
4. Same phase rotation pressure supply.
5. Voltages of same phase
D Shut down systems which are overloaded.
is :
117) Overheating of a piston engine is likely to result from an
A 1, 4, 5 excessively :
B 1, 3, 4, 5 A rich mixture.
C 1, 2, 3, 4 B low barometric pressure.
D 1, 3, 5 C high barometric pressure.
D weak mixture.
116) On modern transport aircraft, cockpit windows are 84) A current limiter fuse in a DC generation system is used
protected against icing by : to :
A Vinyl coating. A limit the current in the field circuit.
B Anti-icing fluid. B instantaneously rupture to limit the current in the load.
C Rain repellent system. C limit the current in the armature.
D Electric heating. D allow a short term overload before rupturing.
115) If the pressure in the cabin tends to become lower than 111) The main feature of BCF fire extinguishers is that they :
the outside ambient air pressure the :
A outflow valve open completely. A use the cooling effect created by the venturi during
discharge.
B air cycle machine will stop. B are electrical conductors.
C negative pressure relief valve will open.

C are highly corrosive particularly for aluminium alloys.
D negative pressure relief valve will close D act as flame inhibitors by absorbing the air's oxygen.
102) When leaning the mixture for the most economic cruise 110) An EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) indicator for a
fuel flow, excessive leaning will cause : piston engine is used to :
A high engine rpm A assist the pilot to settle correct mixture.
B low cylinder head and exhaust gas temperature B control the cylinder head temperature.
C high manifold pressure

C control the carburator inlet air flow.
D high cylinder head and exhaust gas temperature D control the fuel temperature.
113) In accordance with the JAR-OPS and with the exception 109) On starting, in a brushless AC generator with no
of amphibians and hydroplanes, the carriage of a life commutator rings, the generator is activated by:
jacket per person on board is compulsory when the
airplane is :
A the auxiliary winding.
1. cruising at such a distance from the shore that it
would not be able to return in the case of an engine B a set of permanent magnets.
failure.
2. is flying over a water surface at more than 50 NM off C the main field winding.
shore.
3. is using departure and arrival paths above the water D the stabilizer winding jointly with the voltage regulator.
and when a ditching probability exists in the case of a
problem.
4. is flying over a stretch of water at more than 100 NM
off shore. 108) The opening of the doors giving access to the oxygen
masks for the passengers is :
is: 1. pneumatic for the gaseous oxygen system,
2. electrical for the chemical oxygen system,
A 1, 2, 3, 4 3. pneumatic for the chemical oxygen system,
4. electrical for the gaseous oxygen system.
B 1, 2
is:
C 3, 4
A 2, 3
D 2, 3
B 2, 4
C 1, 2
D 1, 3
107) Consider a jet engine whose control is based on the 55) When the magneto selector switch is set to "OFF"
Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR): position, the piston engine continues to run normally.
The most probable cause of this failure is that:
1. with a constant EPR, the thrust decreases when the
altitude increases A There is a carbon deposit on the spark plugs electrodes.
2. with a constant EPR, the thrust is independent of the
Mach number B A wire from the magneto is in contact with a metallic part of
3. At same environmental conditions, a given EPR the engine.
setting maintains the thrust irrespective of engine wear
due to ageing. C There are local hot points in the engine (probably due to
4. the EPR is determined by the impact pressure overheating of the cylinder heads).
difference between the turbine outlet and the
compressor inlet D On a magneto, a grounding wire is broken.
5. on take-off, in the event of icing not detected by the
crew, the indicated EPR is lower than the real EPR
The combination regrouping all the correct statements 86) The pack cooling fan provides:
is :
A 1, 5.
A cooling air to the primary and secondary heat exchanger
during cruise.
B 1, 3. B cooling air to the primary and secondary heat exchanger

during slow flight and ground operation.
C 2, 3, 4.
C cooling air to the pre-cooler.
D 3, 4, 5.
D air to the eyeball outlets at the Passenger Service Unit
(PSU).
106) The term "Bootstrap", when used to identify a cabin air
conditioning and pressurisation system, refers to the :
63) If one of the 12 cells of a lead-acid battery is dead, the
A source of the charge air. battery:
B means by which pressurisation is controlled.

A has 1/12 less voltage, but can still be used.
B has 1/12 less capacity, but can still be used.

C charge air across the inter-cooler heat exchanger.
D cold air unit (air cycle machine) arrangement. C has 1/12 less voltage and less capacity, but can still be used.
D is unserviceable.
105) "Conditioned" air is air that has :
62) What is the purpose of the pack cooling fans in the air
A been controlled in respect of temperature and pressure. conditioning system?
B had any moisture removed from it. A Supplying the heat exchangers with cooling air during slow
flights and ground operation.
C had the oxygen content increased.
B Supplying the heat exchangers with cooling air during cruise
flight.
D had the oxygen content reduced.
C Supplying the Passenger Service Unit (PSU) with fresh air.
114) In an aircraft air conditioning system the air cannot be D Cooling of the APU compartment.
treated for:
A purity.
B pressure.
C temperature.
D humidity.
61) Among the different types of aircraft structures, the 65) In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, the minimum
shell structures efficiently transmit the: requirement for the survival oxygen needed to supply
100 % of the passengers during and following an
1. normal bending stresses emergency descend is:
2. tangent bending stresses
3. torsional moment A 10 minutes or the entire flight time where the cabin pressure
4. shear stresses altitude is above 15000 ft, whichever is the greater.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements B 30 minutes.

is :
C the entire flight time where the cabin pressure altitude is
A 1, 2, 3 above 13000 ft.
B 2, 3, 4 D the entire flight time where the cabin pressure altitude is

above 10000 ft minus 30 minutes.
C 1, 2, 4
D 1, 3, 4 56) The fuel system boost pumps are used to :
A avoid the bubbles accumulation and feed the lines with fuel
60) What can be the consequence during a descent with a for directing it to the engine at a positive pressure.
fully open throttle if the waste gate is seized ?
B avoid the bubbles accumulation.
A The turbine blades will separate.
C feed the lines with fuel for directing it to the engine at a
B The manifold air pressure (MAP) value may exceed the positive pressure.
maximum allowed value.
D feed the fuel control units, which inject the pressurized fuel
C The power of the motor will decrease. into the engine.
D The turbine shaft will break.

When fire is detected on engine n°2, the fire shutoff
handle n°2 is pulled and the extinguishing agent n°1 is
59) An airplane whose maximum approved passenger discharged. This results in :
seating configuration is greater than 600 seats must be
equipped with at least:
A the discharge of fire extinguisher bottle n°1 and illumination
of the DISCH (discharge) indicator lamp
passenger compartment. B the discharge of fire extinguisher bottle n°1 and illumination
of the DISCH indicator lamp of agent n°1 on both engines
C the discharge of fire extinguisher bottle n°1 and illumination
of the DISCH indicator lamp of agent n°1 on engine no. and
C 8 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the DISCH indicator lamp of agent n°2 on engine n°1
D the discharge of fire extinguisher bottle n°2 and illumination
D 9 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the of the DISCH indicator lamp of agent n°1 on engine n°1 and
passenger compartment. agent n°2 on engine n°2
58) (For this question use annex 021- 6660A) 54) A propeller blade is twisted, so as to
The logic symbol shown represents (assuming positive
logic) :
A keep the local Angle of Attack constant along the blade.
A a NAND gate.
B avoid the appearance of sonic phenomena.
B a NOR gate.
C decrease the blade tangential velocity from the blade root to
C an EXCLUSIVE gate. the tip.
D an INVERT or NOT gate. D allow a higher mechanical stress.
53) The useful work area in an ideal Otto engine indicator 122) Static dischargers :
diagram is enclosed by the following gas state change
lines 1. are used to set all the parts of the airframe to the
same electrical potential
A 2 adiabatic, 1 isochoric and 1 isobaric lines. 2. are placed on wing and tail tips to facilitate electrical
discharge
B 2 adiabatic and 2 isochoric lines. 3. are used to reset the electrostatic potential of the
aircraft to a value approximating 0 volts
4. are located on wing and tail tips to reduce intererence
C 2 adiabatic and 1 isothermic lines.
with the on-board radiocommunication systems to a
minimum
D 2 adiabatic and 2 isobaric lines. 5. limit the risks of transfer of electrical charges between
the aircraft and the electrified clouds
52) The oil system for a piston engine incorporates an oil The combination regrouping all the correct statements
cooler that is fitted : is :
A in the return line to the oil tank after the oil has passed A 1,2,5.
through the scavenge pump
B 1,3,4.
B between the oil tank and the pressure pump
C 3,4,5.
C after the pressure pump but before the oil passes through
the engine D 2,4,5.
D after the oil has passed through the engine and before it
enters the sump
57) The survival oxygen is:
51) The high Altitude Radio Altimeter uses the following A a therapeutical oxygen specifically carried for certain
wavelengths: passengers.
A hectometric. B the oxygen supplied to the airplane occupants in case of

accidental depressurization.
B myriametric.
C the oxygen supplied to a passenger who needs oxygen for
pathological reasons.
C decimetric.
D the oxygen used for protection against smoke and carbon
D metric. dioxide.
50) In a hydraulic braking system, the accumulator is: 74) A Yaw Damper is :
A an accumulator designed to restore brake energy in the A An elevator augmentor.

event of a hydraulic failure.
B An elevator augmentor to avoid the nose-down effect at
B a damping type accumulator designed to take up the speeds greater than M=0.8.
pressure fluctuations of the automatic braking system.
C A roll trim tab.
C designed to take up the hydraulic energy filtered by the anti-
skid system in order to prevent wheel blocking.
D A rudder damper designed to avoid the "Dutch roll".
D a buffer accumulator whose function is to assist the
hydraulic system during high intensity braking.
83) The anti-ice or de-icing system which is mostly used for
the wings of modern turboprop aeroplanes is :
49) On an aeroplane, spoilers are :
A Electrical heating.
A lower wing surface devices, their deflection is always B Thermal anti-icing.

asymmetrical.
B upper wing surface devices, their deflection is symmetrical C Fluid de-icing.

or asymmetrical.
D Pneumatic boots.
C lower wing surface devices, their deflection is symmetrical or
asymmetrical.
D upper wing surface devices, their deflection is always

asymmetrical.
82) Because of the input/output relationship of an AND gate, 77) A thermal circuit breaker:
it is often referred to as the :
A "inhibited" or "negated" gate. A forbids any overcurrent.
B "all or nothing" gate. B can be reset without any danger even if the fault remains.
C "any or all" gate. C protects the system in the event of overheating, even without
exceeding the maximum permissible current.
D "state indicator" gate. D is a protection system with a quick break capacity of about
one hundredth of a second.
81) On an aircraft landing gear, an under-inflated tyre:

64) The purpose of the barometric correction in a fuel
controller is to:
A will wear at the shoulders
A increase the fuel-to-air ratio when altitude increases.
B it's tread will deteriorate faster
B maintain a constant fuel metering whatever the altitude.
C will have an increased critical hydroplanning speed
C maintain the correct weight fuel to air ratio when the altitude
D will be more subject to viscosity aquaplaning on dry runway increases.
D reduce the fuel-to-air ratio when altitude increases.

80) If the ground wire between the magnetos and the
ignition switch becomes disconnected the most
noticeable result will be that: 75) The number of hand fire extinguishers which have to be
installed in the passenger cabin according to JAR-OPS
A a still operating engine will run down depends on the number of :
B the engine cannot be started with the ignition switch in the A seats in the cabin.
"ON" position
B seat rows in the cabin.
C the power developed by the engine will be strongly reduced
C passengers in the cabin.
D the engine cannot be shut down by turning the ignition
switch to the "OFF" position
D emergency exits in the cabin.
79) "Vapor lock" is the phenomenon by which:

47) The compressor surge effect during acceleration is
prevented by the :
A burnt gas plugs forming and remaining in the exhaust
manifold following an overheat and thereby disturbing the A Fuel Control Unit (F.C.U.).
exhaust.
B inlet guide vanes.
B heat produces vapour plugs in the fuel line.
C surge bleed valves.
C water vapour plugs are formed in the intake fuel line
following the condensation of water in fuel tanks which have
not been drained for sometime.
D variable setting type nozzle guide vanes.
D abrupt and abnormal enrichment of the fuel/air mixture

following an inappropriate use of carburettor heat. 73) Modern pressurized transport airplanes are equipped
with :
78) The reason for using inverters in an electrical system is A two oxygen systems both supplying the cockpit and the
.. cabin.
A To avoid a short circuit. B only portable oxygen bottles.
B To change DC into AC. C two independent oxygen systems, one supplying the cockpit,
the other the cabin.
C To change the DC voltage.
D only one oxygen system supplying the whole aircraft.
D To change AC into DC.
72) If the cabin altitude rises (aircraft in level flight), the 67) With a piston engine, when detonation is recognised,
differential pressure: you:
A decreases A Reduce manifold pressure and lean the mixture
B increases B Increase manifold pressure and enrich the mixture
C remains constant C Increase manifold pressure and lean the mixture
D may exceed the maximum permitted differential unless D Reduce manifold pressure and enrich the mixture
immediate preventative action is taken.
76) A turbocharger system is normally driven by:

71) The pneumatic system accumulator is useful :
A an hydraulic motor.
A to offset for the starting of some devices.
B an electrically activated hydraulically powered clutch.
B in emergency cases.
C the exhaust system.
C to eliminate the fluid pressure variations.
D an electric motor.
D to eliminate the fluid flow variations.
499) The purpose of a distributor in an ignition system is to

70) A public transport jet aeroplane may be operated up to distribute:
FL 450. The cabin includes 180 passenger seats, made
up of 30 rows (3 seats from each side of central aisle). A primary current to the condenser.
The minimum number of cabin oxygen masks for this
aeroplane must be:
B secondary current to the condenser.
A 210 (one additional mask per seat row).
C primary current to the sparking plugs.
B 198 (110% of the seating capacity).
D secondary current to the sparking plugs.
C 270 (150% of the seating capacity).
D 240 (one additional mask per seat block). 507) The function of an air cycle machine is to :
A pump the conditioned air into the cabin.

69) The hydraulic oil, entering the hydraulic pump, is
slightly pressurised to : B cool the bleed air.
A prevent overheating of the pump.

C decrease the pressure of the bleed air.
B prevent vapour locking. D remove the water from the bleed air.
C prevent cavitation in the pump
D 506) In hydraulic system, a shuttle valve :

ensure sufficient pump output
A allows two possible sources of pressure to operate one unit.

68) The function of the Generator Breaker is to close when
the voltage of the : B is a self-lapping non-return valve.
A alternator is greater than the battery voltage and to open C allows two units to be operated by one pressure source.
when the opposite is true
D regulates pump delivery pressure.
B battery is greater than the alternator voltage and to open
C generator is greater than battery voltage and to open when

the opposite is true
D battery is greater than the generator voltage and to open

505) If a current is passed through a conductor which is 500) When carrying out battery condition check using the
positioned in a magnetic field : aircraft's voltmeter :
A a force will be exerted on the conductor. A a load should be applied to the battery in order to give a
better indication of condition.
B the current will increase.
B no load should be applied to the battery because it would
depress the voltage.
C there will be no effect unless the conductor is moved.
C the battery should be isolated.
D the intensity of the magnetic field will decrease.
D the load condition is unimportant.
504) Fuel dump systems are required:

510) Generally, when the fire handle of the fire-extinguishing
A on all transport category aircraft where the Maximum Take- system on an aircraft is pulled, the effects are :
Off Weight (MTOW) is significant higher than the Maximum
Landing Weight (MLW). 1. closing of the LP valve of the fuel system
2. opening of the air bleed valves and HP valves on the
B on all transport category aircraft. engine concerned
3. setting of extinguishing systems
4. closing of the isolation and de-icing valves
C on all transport category aircraft with more than 150 seats.
5. isolation of the associated electric current generators
6. immediate discharge of extinguishing agent
D on aircraft with a Maximum Take-Off Weight (MTOW)
higher than 5.7 tons. The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:
503) In a fire detection system with single-loop continuous A 2,3,4,5

components (with no fault protection), if the line is
accidently grounded: B 1,3,4
A the fire alarm is triggered.

C 1,3,4,5
B the power supply is cut off automatically.

D 1,2,5,6
C there will be no effect on the system
D the engine fire extinguisher striker is automatically activated. 498) Circuit breakers protecting circuits may be :
A reset at any time.

502) The wavelength of a non-directional beacon (NDB) at a
frequency of 300 kHz is: B used in AC and DC circuits.
A 1000 metres. C used only in AC circuits.
B 100 metres. D used only in DC circuits.
C 10 metres.
497) A condenser in parallel with breaker points will
D 1 metre.
A intensify current in secondary winding

453) The maximum differential pressure of a transonic
transport category airplane is approximately: B permit arcing across points
A 15.5 psi C assist in negative feedback to secondary coil
B 9.0 psi D assist in collapse of secondary winding.
C 3.5 psi
D 13.5 psi
496) During fuelling the automatic fuelling shut off valves will 492) The use of igniters is necessary on a turbo-jet:
switch off the fuel supply system when:
1 - throughout the operating range of the engine
A the surge vent tank is filled. 2 - for accelerations
3 - for ground starts
B there is fire. 4 - for in-flight relights
5 - during turbulence in flight
6 - under heavy precipitation or in icing conditions
C the fuel has reached a predetermined volume or mass.
D fuelling system has reached a certain pressure. statements is :
A 3
495) The 'constant speed propeller' has
B 2-3-4
A its best efficiency during climb.

C 1
B only above and below the design point a better efficiency D 3-4-5-6
than the fixed propeller with the same design speed.
C in general a worse efficiency than the fixed propeller.

501) The reading on the oil pressure gauge is the:
D only at the design speed a better efficiency than the fixed
propeller.
A difference between the pressure pump pressure and the
scavenge pump pressure.
494) The part of the flight that will cause the highest loads on B pressure in the oil tank reservoir.
the torsion link in a bogie gear is
C pressure of the oil on the inlet side of the pressure pump.
A Touch down with crosswind
D pressure of the oil on the outlet side of the pressure pump.
B Gear down selection
C Braking with an inoperative anti skid system.

517) The purpose of cabin air flow control valves in a
pressurization system is to :
D Taxiing with a small turning radius.
A regulate cabin pressure at the maximum cabin pressure
differential.
493) The pressurization of tanks is maintained by the fuel:
B Maintain a constant and sufficient mass air flow to ventilate
the cabin and minimise cabin pressure surges.
A tank drains.
C regulate cabin pressure to the selected altitude.
B top off unit.
D discharge cabin air to atmosphere if cabin pressure rises
C dump system. above the selected altitude.
D vent system.
526) The ignition occurs in each cylinder of an four-stroke
engine (TDC = Top Dead Center)
A behind TDC at each crankshaft revolution.
B behind TDC at each second crankshaft revolution.
C before TDC at each second crankshaft revolution.
D before TDC at each crankshaft revolution.
525) The speed of an asynchronous four-pole motor fed at a 520) The very rapid magnetic field changes (flux) around the
frequency of 400 Hertz is: primary coil in a magneto are accomplished by the:
A 800 revolutions per minute. A contact breaker points closing.
B 1600 revolutions per minute. B rotor turning past the position of maximum flux in the
armature.
C 12000 revolutions per minute.
C contact breaker points opening.
D 6000 revolutions per minute.
D distributor arm aligning with one of the high tension
segments.
524) The main purpose of the mixture control is to:

508) Vapour lock is :
A decrease the air supplied to the engine
A vaporizing of fuel in the carburettor
B increase the oxygen supplied to the engine
B the inability of a fuel to vaporize in the carburettor
C decrease oxygen supplied to the engine
C vaporizing of fuel prior to reaching the carburettor
D adjust the fuel flow to obtain the proper fuel/air ratio
D the formation of water vapour in a fuel system
523) The purpose of a diluter demand regulator in an oxygen

system is to :
518) The purpose of a voltage regulator is to control the
output voltage of the :
A deliver oxygen flow when inhaling.
A generators at varying speeds and the batteries at varying
B deliver oxygen flow only above FL 100. loads.
C is only recommended with smoke in the cockpit. B output of the TRU.
D mix air and oxygen in a passenger oxygen mask. C generator at varying loads and speeds.
D batteries at varying loads.

522) For a turbine engine, the term self-sustaining speed
relates to the speed at which the engine :
509) If the maximum operating altitude of an airplane is
A operates most efficiently in the cruise.. limited by the pressurized cabin, this limitation is due to
the maximum:
B will enable the generators to supply bus-bar voltage.
A Negative differential pressure at maximum cabin altitude.
C will run without any external assistance.
B Positive cabin differential pressure at maximum operating
D is designed to idle after starting. ceiling.
C Negative cabin differential pressure at maximum operating

ceiling.
521) In flight the wing of an aircraft containing fuel is
subjected to vertical loads that produce a bending D Positive cabin differential pressure at maximum cabin
moment which is: altitude.
A lowest at the wing root

516) In large modern aircraft, in the air conditioning system,
B highest at the wing root reduction of air temperature and pressure is achieved
by:
C equal to the zero -fuel weight multiplied by the span
A a condenser.
D equal to half the weight of the aircraft multiplied by the semi
span B an evaporator.
C an expansion turbine.
D a compressor.
515) (For this question use annex 021-786A) 512) Some emergency exits must be equipped with devices
In a pressurized aircraft whose cabin altitude is 8000 ft, so as to help the occupants to get out and reach the
a crack in a cabin window makes it necessary to reduce ground if their threshold is at a height above the ground
the differential pressure to 5 psi. greater than:
The flight level to be maintained in order to keep the
same cabin altitude is: A 6 ft, aeroplane on the ground, one main gear or nose gear
collapse.
A FL 230
B 8 ft, aeroplane on the ground, one main gear or nose gear
B FL 340 collapse.
C FL 280 C 8 ft, aeroplane on the ground, landing gear extended.
D FL 180
D 6 ft, aeroplane on the ground, landing gear extended.
511) When a landing gear wheel is hydroplaning, its friction

514) Electrical bonding of an aircraft is used to:
factor is equal to:
1. protect the aircraft against lightning effects.
2. reset the electrostatic potential of the aircraft to a
A 0
value approximating 0 volt
3. reduce radio interference on radiocommunication B 1
systems
4. set the aircraft to a single potential C 0.1
The combination regrouping all the correct statements D 0.5

is:
A 1, 3, 4
489) To allow for failure of the normal method of system
pressure limiting control, a hydraulic system often
B 1, 2, 3
incorporates
C 3, 4 A a high pressure relief valve.
D 2, 4 B a stand-by hydraulic pump.
C an accumulator.
513) The control of free turbine engines on turboprops, is
accomplished by: D auxiliary hydraulic motors.
- a propeller control lever used to select:

1 - propeller RPM
2 - turbine temperature 519) On four-stroke piston engines, the theoretical valve and
3 - turbine RPM ignition settings are readjusted in order to increase the:
- a fuel control lever used to select: A overall efficiency

4 - propeller RPM
5 - torque B compression ratio
6 - turbine temperature

C piston displacement
statements is :
D engine r.p.m.
A 1-5-6
B 1-3-5 461) In the response curve of an amplifier, the bandwidth is:
C 3-4-6
A The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain less 3
decibels.
D 2-4-5
B The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain.
C The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain less

20 decibels.
D The frequency band corresponding to maximum gain,

increased by 10 kHz at each end.
491) The type of brake unit found on most transport 465) In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, 10 % of the passengers
aeroplanes is a: in a non-pressurized airplane must have an oxygen
supply reserve for the entire flight time when the cabin
A Drum type brake. altitude pressure is greater than:
B Single disk brake. A 10000 ft but not exceeding 13000 ft minus 30 minutes.
C Belt brake. B 13000 ft.
D Multiple disk brake. C 10000 ft.
D 10000 ft but not exceeding 13000 ft.

469) The turbine in a cold air unit (air cycle machine):
464) Oxygen systems are systems used on pressurized

A increases the pressure of the air supply to the cabin. airplanes in :
B drives the compressor in the unit and causes a pressure 1. an emergency in the case of depressurization.
increase in the conditioning air. 2. an emergency in the case of the indisposition of a
passenger.
C drives the compressor in the unit, creating a temperature 3. normal use in order to supply oxygen to the cabin.
drop in the conditioning air. 5. an emergency in the case of smoke or toxic gases.
D drives the compressor which provides pressurisation. The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:
468) A Continuous-Loop-Detector-System is a:
A 2, 3
B 1,4
A Carbon dioxide warning system
C 1, 2, 4
B Fire fighting system
D 3
C Fire detection system
D Smoke detection system

471) The type of hydraulic oil used in modern hydraulic
systems is:
467) The air in a piston engine turbo-supercharger A mineral oil

centrifugal compressor :
B synthetic oil
A enters at the periphery and leaves via the eye of the impeller.
C vegetable oil
B enters at a tangent to the rotor and leaves via the stator.
D mixture of mineral oil and alcohol
C enters the eye of the impeller and leaves at a tangent to the
periphery.
D enters via the diffuser and is fed to the impeller at the 462) When AC generators are operated in paralllel, they must
optimum angle of attack. be of the same:
A amperage and kVAR.

466) The component that transforms the hydraulic pressure
into a linear motion is called ... B voltage and amperage.
A An accumulator. C frequency and amperage.
B A Pressure regulator. D voltage and frequency.
C An actuator or jack.
D A hydraulic pump.
472) On a jet aircraft fuel heaters are : 456) Assume that during cruise flight with airconditioning
packs ON, the outflow valve(s) would close. The result
would be that:
A Located on the engines.
A the air supply would automatically be stopped
B Installed in each tank.
B the skin of the cabin would be overstressed
C Installed only in the center tank.
C the pressure differential would go to the maximum value
D not necessary at all.
D the cabin pressure would become equal to the ambient
outside air pressure
460) Cabin altitude means the:
455) In an engine equipped with a float-type carburettor, the

A flight level the aircraft is flying at. low temperature that causes carburettor ice is normally
the result of:
B flight level altitude at maximum differential pressure.
A freezing temperature of the air entering the carburettor
C cabin pressure expressed as altitude.
B compression of air at the carburettor venturi
D difference in height between the cabin floor and ceiling.
C low volatility of aviation fuel
459) A tubeless tyre has : D vaporization of fuel and expansion of the air in the carburettor
1- a built-in-air tube.
2- no built-in-air tube.
272) Smoke detector systems are installed in the
3- a crossed side casing.
4- a radial side casing.
A engine nacelles.
B fuel tanks.
A 2, 4.
C upper cargo compartments (class E).
B 1, 4.
D wheel wells.
C 2, 3.
D 1,3.
463) It may be determined that an aircraft is not properly
bonded if :
458) A unit that converts electrical DC into AC is : A static noises can be heard on the radio.
A a thermistor. B a circuit breaker pops out.
B an inverter. C there is interference on the VOR receiver.
C an AC generator. D there is heavy corrosion on the fuselage skin mountings.
D a transformer rectifier unit.
457) The refueling in a transport jet aircraft is made ...
A Through the refueling cap of every tank
B By means of the aircraft suction pumps.
C By means of the aircraft suction pumps through a unique

point (an underwing refueling center).
D Through a unique point (an underwing refueling center).
480) A tubeless tyre is a tyre: 486) Concerning the sequential pneumatic impulses used in
certain leading edge de-icing devices, one can affirm
1. which requires solid or branched wheels that :
2. whose valve can be sheared in sudden accelerations
3. whose mounting rim must be flawless 1 - They prevent ice formation.
4. which requires no rim protection between rim flange 2 - They are triggered from the flight deck after icing has
and tire removing device become visible.
5. which does not burst in the event of a tire puncture 3 - A cycle lasts more than ten seconds.
6. which eliminates internal friction between the tube 4 - There are more than ten cycles per second.
and the tire
The combination which regroups all the correct
The combination regrouping all the correct statements statements is :
is :
A 1-4
A 1, 5, 6.
B 2-3
B 3, 4, 5.
C 2-4
C 1, 2, 5.
D 1-3
D 2, 3, 6.
485) An aircraft is scheduled to fly from PARIS to

529) Thermal plugs are installed in: MARSEILLE at FL 390 and has the following
characteristics:
Maximum permissible number of passenger specified by
A cabin windows. the certificate of airworthiness= 230
Number of seats on board= 200
B cargo compartments. Scheduled number of passengers on board= 180
The minimum number of inhaler systems provided in
C wheel rims. the aircraft cabin should be:
D fire warning systems. A 220.
B 230.
488) The power of a piston engine which will be measured by

using a friction brake is :
C 200.
A Heat loss power. D 180.
B Indicated horse power.

484) In order to enable a fire to be controlled as quickly as
C Brake horse power. possible, the fire detectors are located in the highest
risk compartments. Theses compartments are :
D Friction horse power.
1. the main landing gear wheel wells
2. the fuel tanks
3. the oil tanks
487) The resistors R1 and R2 are connected in parallel. The 4. the auxiliary power unit
value of the equivalent resistance (Req) so obtained is 5. around the engines
given by the following formula:
A Req = R1 x R2 is:
B 1/Req = 1/(R1 + R2) A 1,4,5
C 1/Req = 1/R1 + 1/R2 B 2,3
D Req = R1 + R2 C 2,5
D 1,2,3,4,5
483) A feeder fault on a direct current circuit results from a 479) DURALUMIN alloys :
flux unbalance between the:
1 have an aluminium-copper base.
A shunt exciter and the series winding turn. 2 have an aluminium-magnesium base.
3 are easy to weld.
B voltage coil and the series winding turn. 4 are difficult to weld.
5 have a good thermal conductivity.
6 have a poor air corrosion resistance
C voltage coil and the series winding.
D generator and the series winding turn. is :
A 1,3,6
470) The fuel crossfeed system:
B 2,3,6
A allows feeding of any engine from any fuel tank.

C 1,4,5
B is only used to feed an engine from the tank of the opposite D 2,4,5
wing.
C is only used on the ground for fuel transfer from one tank to
another. 478) In a gas turbine engine, the maximum gas temperature
is attained:
D is only used in flight for fuel transfer from one tank to
another. A in the cooling airflow around the flame tube.
B at the entry to the exhaust unit.

481) When the combustion gases pass through a turbine the :
C within the combustion chamber.
A pressure drops.
D across the turbine.
B pressure rises.
C velocity decreases. 477) For a fan jet engine, the by-pass ratio is the:
D temperature increases.
A external airflow mass divided by the internal airflow mass
B internal airflow mass divided by the external airflow mass

490) In a bootstrap cooling system the supply air is first :
C internal airflow mass divided by the fuelflow mass
A passed across an expansion turbine, then directly to the
heat exchanger. D fuelflow mass divided by the internal airflow mass
B used to increase the cabin air supply pressure when the

charge pressure is too low.
476) Batteries are rated in :
C compressed, passed through a secondary heat exchanger,
and then across an expansion turbine. A Amperes.hours.
D passed across an expansion turbine, then compressed and

B Amperes/volts.
passed through a secondary heat exchanger.
C Watts.
D Ohms.
475) Usually, electric heating for ice protection is used on:
A Fin leading edges.
B Pitot tubes.
C Elevator leading edges.
D Slat leading edges.
474) An airplane whose maximum approved passenger 582) Load shedding means ..
A Reduction of airloads on the flaps by means of the flap load
A 5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the relief value
B A procedure used in control systems to reduce the stick
B 7 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the forces
C Temporarily or permanent switching off of certain electric
users to avoid overload of electric generators
D To leave behind extra cargo if the centre of gravity moves
D 6 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the outside limits
581) In a pressurized transport aircraft, the protective

473) When changing power on engines equipped with breathing equipment:
constant-speed propeller, engine overload is avoided by
: A protects the members of the crew against the effects of
accidental depressurization.
A adjusting Fuel Flow before the manifold pressure.
B protects the members of the crew against fumes and
noxious gases.
B reducing the RPM before reducing the manifold pressure.
C gives medical assistance to certain passengers with
C increasing the manifold pressure before increasing the RPM. respiratory disorders.
D increasing the RPM before increasing the manifold pressure. D protects all the occupants against the effects of accidental
depressurization.
482) The ice protection system currently used for the most
modern jet aeroplanes is the 580) The conditions which can cause knocking are :
A Electrical de-icing system. A High manifold pressure and low revolutions per minute.
B Hot air system. B High manifold pressure and high revolutions per minute.
C Pneumatic system with expandable boots. C Low manifold pressure and high revolutions per minute.
D Liquid de-icing system. D Low manifold pressure and high fuel flow.
574) An impulse coupling used on a magneto for a piston 579) The kind of compressor normally used as a
engine is for supercharger is :
A advancing ignition timing A a hybrid compressor.
B quick removal and installation B a piston compressor.
C absorbing starting loads C a radial compressor.
D providing a retarded spark for engine starting. D an axial compressor.
566) If the ground wire between the magneto and the ignition 578) The capacitance type fuel gauging system indicates the
switch becomes disconnected, the most noticeable fuel quantity by measuring the:
result will be that the engine
A dielectric change between fuel and air.
A will not operate at the right magneto
B density variation of the fuel.
B cannot be started with the switch in the ON position
C resistivity variation of the fuel.
C cannot be shut down by turning the switch to the OFF
position.
D electrical resistance change.
D will not operate at the left magneto
577) The disadvantages of a chemical oxygen source for the 573) On a normally aspirated aero-engine fitted with a fixed
passenger cabin are : pitch propeller :
1. a flow which cannot be modulated, A in level flight, manifold pressure will remain constant when
2. a heavy and bulky system, the rpm is increased by opening the throttle.
3. non reversible functioning,
4. risks of explosion, B in a descent at a fixed throttle setting manifold pressure will
5. poor autonomy. always remain constant.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements C manifold pressure decreases as the aircraft climbs at a fixed
is: throttle setting.
A 1, 3, 5 D the propeller setting is constant at all indicated airspeeds.
B 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
572) The reason for fitting thermal plugs to aircraft wheels is
C 2, 4 that they :
D 1, 2, 3, 5 A prevent the brakes from overheating.
B prevent heat transfer from the brake disks to the tyres.

584) A substance which may never be used in the vicinity or
on parts of an oxygen installation is : C release air from the tyre in case of overpressure.
A Grease D release air from the tyre in case of overheating.
B Water
571) If an engine fails to stop with the magneto switch in OFF
C Halon position, the cause may be :
D Nitrogen A defective condenser
B fouled spark plugs

575) The fuel supply system on a jet engine includes a fuel
heating device, upstream of the main fuel filter so as to: C excessive carbon formation in cylinder head.
A maintain and improve fuel heating power. D switch wire grounded
B ease low pressure pumps work by increasing fuel fluidity.

570) With which instrument(s) do you monitor the power
C prevent fuel from freezing in fuel pipes due to low output of an aeroplane fitted with a fixed pitch propeller?
temperatures at high altitude.
A RPM and EGT indicator.
D prevent, at low fuel temperature, the risk of ice formation
from water contained in the fuel. B RPM indicator.
C RPM and Fuel Flow indicator.

585) From the cruise, with all the parameters correctly set, if
the altitude is reduced, to maintain the same mixture the
fuel flow should:
D RPM and MAP indicator.
A increase
569) "Conditioned" air is air that has:
B decrease
A oxygen content increased.
C remain the same
B oxygen content reduced.
D increase or decrease, depending on the engine type
C been controled in respect of temperature and pressure.
D oxygen content regulated to a preset value.
568) The secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) uses the 602) An aircraft with a pressurized cabin flies at level 310.
following wavelengths: Following a malfunction of the pressure controller, the
outflow valve runs to the open position. Given :
A decimetric.
VZc: Cabin rate of climb indication
B centimetric. Zc: Cabin pressure altitude
DELTA P: Differential pressure
C hectometric.
This will result in a:
D myriametric. A VZc decrease

Zc increase
DELTA P decrease
527) In a steep turn to the left, when using spoilers ...
B VZc increase
Zc increase
A The right aileron will descend, the left one will ascend, the DELTA P increase
right spoiler will extend and the left one will retract.
C VZc decrease
B The right aileron will ascend, the left one will descend, the Zc decrease
right spoiler will extend and the left one will retract. DELTA P increase
C The right aileron will ascend, the left one will descend, the D VZc increase
right spoiler will retract and the left one will extend. Zc increase
DELTA P decrease
D The right aileron will descend, the left one will ascend, the
right spoiler will retract and the left one will extend.
601) In computer technology, an input peripheral is a:
576) When altitude increases without adjustment of the

mixture ratio, the piston engine performance is affected A hard disk drive
because of a :
B diskette drive
A decrease of air density for a smaller quantity of fuel.
C keyboard
B decrease of air density for a constant quantity of fuel.
D screen unit
C constant air density for a bigger quantity of fuel.
D increase of air density for smaller quantity of fuel. 600) In accordance with the JAR-OPS, an airplane constituted
of only one passenger deck, equipped with 61 seats and
effectively carrying passengers, must be equipped with :
593) The state in which the breathing oxygen for the cockpit
of jet transport aeroplanes is stored is : A 1 megaphone.
A Chemical compound. B 2 megaphones.
B Liquid. C 2 megaphones if there are more than 31 passengers on

board.
C Gaseous or chemical compound..
D no megaphone.
D Gaseous.
599) On large aeroplanes equipped with power brakes, the

main source of power is derived from :
A the brake actuators.
B the aeroplane's hydraulic system.
C the master cylinders.
D pressure to the rudder pedals.
598) An impulse turbine is a turbine in which the expansion 594) The reason for the fact that an aeroplane designed for
takes place: long distances cannot simply be used for short haul
flights at higher frequencies is that
A in order to produce a degree of jet propulsion < 1/2.
A the lifetime of the fatigue sensitive parts has been based on
B fully in the stator. a determined load spectrum
B the procedures and checklists for this kind of aeroplanes will

C fully in the rotor.
take too much time
D in the stator and in the rotor. C these aeroplanes often consume too much fuel on short haul
flights.
597) When quick donning masks are in use, the pilot is:
D in that case some fuel tanks remain empty during the whole
flight, which stresses the aeroplane's structure in an
unacceptable way
A only able to transmit.
B not able to do any radio communication. 565) When TAS increases, the pitch angle of a constant
speed propeller (RPM and MAP levers are not moved) :
C able to radiotelephone.
A reduces.
D only able to receive.
B first reduces and after a short time increases to its previous
value.
596) The modern anti-skid processes are based on the use of C stays constant.
a computer whose input data is:
D increases.
1. idle wheel speed (measured)
2. braked wheel speed (measured)
3. brake temperature (measured)
4. desired idle wheel train slipping rate 592) The chemical oxygen generator supplies oxygen for
5. tire pressure about :
The combination regrouping all the correct statements A 15 minutes.

is :
B 30 minutes.
A 1, 2, 4.
C 2 hours.
B 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
D 5 minutes.
C 2, 4.
D 1, 3.
591) Where in a hydraulic system might overheat indicators
be installed?
583) The conditions under which you obtain the highest A At the pumps.
engine power are :
B In the reservoirs.
A cold and humid air at high pressure.
C At actuators.
B warm and dry air at high pressure.
D At the coolers.
C cold and dry air at high pressure.
D warm and humid air at low pressure.

590) Tyre "creep" may be described as the :
A the increase in inflation pressure due to drease in ambient

temperature.
B the decrease in inflation pressure due to increase in ambient

temperature.
C gradual circumferential increase of tyre wear.
D circumferential movement of the tyre in relation to the wheel

flange.
589) In most cases aeroplane piston engines are short stroke 536) An airplane whose maximum approved passenger
engines. This permits a : seating configuration is 7 to 30 seats must be equipped
with at least:
A lower fuel consumption.
A 1 hand fire-extinguisher conveniently located in the
B better piston cooling. passenger compartment.

C cheaper construction
D lighter construction. C 3 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the
588) If air is tapped from a gas turbine HP compressor, the

effect on the engine pressure ratio (EPR) and the passenger compartment.
exhaust gas temperature (EGT) is that :
A EPR decreases and EGT remains constant. 567) In some aircraft, there is a protection device to avoid
the landing gear being inadvertently retracted on the
B EPR remains constant and EGT increases. ground. It consists of :
C EPR decreases and EGT increases.

A An aural warning horn.
D both EPR and EGT decrease.

B A warning light which is activated by the WOW (Weight On
Wheels) sensor system.
C A bolt.
587) The Instrument Landing System (ILS) uses the
following wavelengths: D A latch located in the landing gear lever.
A decimetric.
544) When an "open circuit" occurs in an electrical supply
B centimetric.
system, the :
C metric. A load as indicated by the ammeter will increase.
D hectometric. B loss of continuity will prevent its working components from

functioning.
586) When the pilot moves the mixture lever of a piston C fuse or CB should isolate the circuit due to excess current
engine towards a lean position the : drawn.
A amount of fuel entering the combustion chamber is reduced.

D component will operate normally, but will not switch off.
B volume of air entering the carburettor is reduced.

543) Real load sharing in a parallel AC system is achieved by :
C amount of fuel entering the combustion chamber is
increased. A monitoring the kVAR of each generator/alternator.
D volume of air entering the carburettor is increased.
B adjusting the torque on each generator rotor via the CSD
unit.
595) The function of a CSD in an AC generating system is to: C carefully secting the number of loads on the bus-bars at any
one time.
A vary generator rpm in order to compensate for various AC D controlling the generator field current.
loads.
B directly maintain a constant proportion between the rpm of

engine and generator.
C drive the generator at a constant speed.
D vary the engine rpm (within limits) to compensate for various

AC loads.
542) A public transport aircraft is operated at FL 390. The 537) (For this question use annex 021-6736A)
total number of oxygen dispensing units and outlets in The schematic diagram annexed illustates a jack and
the cabin must be at least the same as the total number selector valve in a typical hydraulic system. Assuming
of : hydraulic pressure throughout :
A passengers. A the jack will move to the right due to equal pressure acting
on differential areas.
B passengers exceeded by 10%.
B a condition of hydraulic lock exists and no movement of the
jack will take place.
C seats exceeded by 10%.
C since pressures are equal, the jack is free to move in
D seats. response to external forces.
D the jack will move to the left due to pressure acting on

differential areas.
The diagram shown in annex represents a jet fuel
system. The fuel-flow measurement is carried out :
547) Which of the following qualitative statements about a
A in the fuel control unit (item 3). fixed propeller optimized for cruise condition, is true for
the take-off case? The angle of attack of the propeller :
B after high pressure pump first stage (item 2).
A blade is relatively high.
C after low pressure valve (item 1).
B blade is relatively small.
D after high pressure valve (item 4).
C airfoil section is negative.
D blades reduces to zero.

540) Which of the following factors would be likely to
increase the possibility of detonation occurring within a
piston engine ?
535) For take-off, the correct combination of propeller pitch
A using an engine with a low compression ratio (1), and propeller lever position (2) at brake release is :
B slightly retarding the ignition timing A (1) low (2) forward.
C using too lean a fuel/air mixture ratio B (1) low (2) aft.
D the use of a fuel with a high octane rating as compared to C (1) high (2) aft.
the use of one with a low octane rating
D (1) high (2) forward.
539) In a piston engine, turbocharger boost pressure may be

monitored by : 534) The Microwave Landing System (MLS) uses the
following wavelengths:
A both a CHT gauge and manifold pressure gauge.
A metric.
B both engine rpm readings and a manifold pressure gauge.
B hectometric.
C a manifold pressure gauge only.
C myriametric.
D a cylinder head temperature gauge (CHT), a manifold
pressure gauge, and engine rpm readings. D centimetric.
546) In order that DC generators will achieve equal load

533) Evacuation slide inflation is ensured by :
sharing when operating in parallel, it is necessary to
ensure that :
A a pressurized gas canister combined with the slide itself.
A their voltages are almost equal.
B the aircraft's general pneumatic circuit.
B the synchronising bus-bar is disconnected from the busbar
system.
C a manual pump, used when needed by the cabin crew.
C equal loads are connected to each generator busbar before
D pressurized air from the air conditioning system.
paralleling.
D adequate voltage differences exists.
532) In a ditching situation, the passenger life jackets will be 555) The ABS (Auto Brake System) is being diconnected after
inflated : landing ..
A immediately on the opening of the exits. A by pilot action
B immediately on ditching. B automatically
C once the passengers are in the water. C at a certain low speed
D when leaving the airplane. D the system is always armed
531) A warning device alerts the crew in case of an excessive 564) A circuit breaker :
cabin altitude. This warning must be triggered on
reaching the following altitude:
A may be reset manually after the fault has been rectified.
A 14000 ft (approx. 4200 m)
B is self resetting after the fault has been rectified.
B 8000 ft (approx. 2400 m)
C can only be reset after major maintenance.
C 12000 ft (approx. 3600 m)
D can be reset on the ground only.
D 10000 ft (approx. 3000 m)
563) In the air cycle system the air is cooled down by

530) The cross-feed fuel system enables: expansion:
A of Freon in a heat exchanger.

A the supply of the jet engines mounted on a wing from any
fuel tank within that wing. B of Freon in the turbine.
B the supply of the outboard jet engines from any outboard

fuel tank. C in the turbine.
C only the transfer of fuel from the centre tank to the wing D in a pressure relief valve.
tanks.
D the supply of any jet engine from any fuel tank.

562) In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an airplane whose
maximum take-off mass exceeds 5 700 kg or whose
maximum approved passenger seating configuration is
452) The connection in parallel of two 12 volt/ 40 amphours greater than 9 seats and smaller than 200 seats must be
batteries, will create a unit with the following equipped with a:
characteristics;
A crash axe in the cockpit and a crow-bar in the passenger
A 24 volt / 80 amp hours compartment.
B 24 volt / 40 amp hours

B crow-bar in the cockpit and a crash axe in the passenger
compartment.
C 12 volt / 80 amp hours C crash axe or a crow-bar in the pilot compartment.
D 12 volt / 40 amp hours D crash axe and a crow-bar in the passenger compartment.
538) An airplane whose maximum approved passenger 561) Landing gear torque links are used to:
seating configuration is greater than 60 seats must be
A prevent the extension of the landing gear oleo strut rod.
A 4 HALON 1211 fire-extinguishers.
B maintain the compass heading throughout taxiing and take-
B 1 HALON 1211 fire-extinguisher. off.
C 3 HALON 1211 fire-extinguishers. C prevent rotation of the landing gear piston in the oleo strut.
D 2 HALON 1211 fire-extinguishers. D take up the lateral stresses to which the gear is subjected.
560) The purpose of the venturi in a carburettor is to: 528) In a manually operated system, the cabin altitude rate of
change is normally controlled by :
A create a rise in pressure at the throat before the mixture A a rate of change selector.
enters the induction system.
B create the depression necessary to cause fuel to flow B the difference between the altitude selected on the cabin
through the carburettor jets. pressure controller and the aeroplane altitude.
C prevent enrichment of the mixture due to high air velocity C the difference between the barometric pressure selected on
through the carburettor. the cabin pressure controller and ambient barometric
pressure.
D ensure complete atomisation of the fuel before entering the
induction system. D the duct relief valve when operating at the maximum cabin
differential pressure.
559) To unfeather a propeller during flight you have to :

554) The fuel system boost pumps are submerged in the fuel
..
A gain speed so as to use the engine unfeathering pump.
A To prime the pumps.
B use the electric unfeathering pump.
B Because their efficiency is greater.
C manually release the blade latch.
C To shorten the fuel lines, so minimising the pressure losses.
D gain speed for aerodynamic unfeathering.
D To cool the pumps.
558) A public transport passengers aircraft, with a seating

configuration of more than 61 seats, must have in its 553) The air-conditioning pack of a present-day aircraft
passenger compartment(s), at least 3 portable fire- consists of several components: these include two heat
extinguishers including: exchangers; the primary exchanger (P) and the
secondary exchanger (S).
A 1 halon fire-extinguisher. The functions of these heat exchangers are as follows:
B 3 halon fire-extinguishers. A P: pre-cools the engine bleed air

S: increases the temperature of the air used for air-
conditioning of cargo compartment (animals).
C no halon fire-extinguisher.
B P: precools the engine bleed air
D 2 halon fire-extinguishers. S: reduces the temperature of the air from the primary
exchanger or from the pack's compressor.
545) The reason for having a low pressure fuel-cooled oil C P: warms up engine bleed air
cooler in a recirculatory type oil system is to: S: recirculates the cabin air, reducing its temperature.
A cool both the oil and the fuel.

D P: warms up engine bleed air
S: increases the temperature of air originating from the
compressor of the pack.
B heat the fuel only.
C cool the oil and heat the fuel. 552) What will happen to the geometrical pitch angle of a
"constant speed propeller" if the manifold pressure is
D cool the oil only. increased ?
A It will decrease so that the engine can increase

556) On an aircraft provided with resistance and capacitance
variation type fire detection loops, a fire alarm is B It will remain the same
initiated by a temperature increase detected:
C It will increase
A on at least one loop
D It will increase and after a short time it will be the same again
B at any isolated point of the loops or else generally on all the
loops
C only at an isolated point of the loops
D only in a uniform way along the loops
551) The heating facility for the windshield of an aircraft is: 348) Ignition systems of piston engines are :
A Harmful to the integrity of the windows in the event of a bird A dependant on the battery.
strike.
B dependant on the DC-Generator.
B Only used when hot-air demisting is insufficient.
C dependant on the AC-Generator.
C Used only at low altitudes where there is a risk of ice
formation.
D independant from the electrical system of the aircraft.
D Used on a continual basis as it reduces the thermal
gradients which adversely affect the useful life of the
components. 356) As regards passengers oxygen in public transport
aircraft, information must be given to passengers
through a demonstration. If a flight is to be carried out at
550) The portable emergency beacons which are used after Flight Level FL 290, this demonstration must be
an emergency landing or ditching have a duration of : completed before :
A 72 h A the aircraft reaches FL 140.
B 48 h B the aircraft reaches FL 250.
C 24 h C take-off.
D 12 h D the aircraft reaches FL 100.
549) Low oil pressure is sometimes the result of a 355) A fault protection circuit in a fire detection system will:
A too large oil pump A activate an alarm in the cockpit and in the landing gear bay
for ground crew.
B restricted oil passage
B inhibit the fire detector when the detection line is connected
to ground.
C too small scavenger pump.
C activate the fire detection system when the detection line is
D worn oil pump connected to ground.
D automatically initiate APU shutdown and fire extinguisher

striker activation in the event of fire.
548) In a bootstrap cooling system the supply air is first:
A passed across an expansion turbine, then directly to the 354) Continuous loop fire detector systems operate on the
heat exchanger. principle that an increase in temperature produces :
B compressed, then passed across an expansion turbine A an increase in resistance

through a heat exchanger.
B a decrease in the reference current
C compressed, then goes through a heat exchanger, and
across an expansion turbine.
C a decrease in pressure
D passed across an expansion turbine, then compressed and
passed through a heat exchanger. D a decrease in resistance
557) An aircraft magneto is switched off by 353) A bus-bar is :
A opening the primary circuit A a device which may only be used in DC circuits.
B opening the secondary circuit B a distribution point for electrical power.
C grounding the secondary circuit. C a device permitting operation of two or more switches
together.
D grounding the primary circuit
D the stator of a moving coil instrument.
352) The oxygen masks have dropped down from the 347) On an aircraft, the Krueger flap is a:
passengers service units. The oxygen flow starts :
A After the system has been switched on by a crew member A trailing edge flap
B after pulling the oxygen mask downwards B leading edge flap close to the wing root
C immediately C leading edge flap close to the wing tip
D only above FL200 D leading edge flap
351) The octane rating of a fuel characterises the : 346) The purpose of the proximity of the emergency
evacuation path marking system is to :
A quantity of heat generated by its combustion A mark only the exits at the floor level.
B fuel electrical conductivity B to be used only at night.
C the anti-knock capability C replace the overhead emergency lighting during an

emergency evacuation with a thick smoke.
D fuel volatility
D replace the overhead emergency lighting in case of failure.
454) In flight, if the constant speed drive (CSD) temperature

indicator is in the red arc the: 345) The moving part in an AC generator is usually referred
to as the :
A pilot must disconnect it, and the generator is not available for
the rest of flight. A oscillator.
B pilot can disconnect it to allow it to cool and use it again. B slip ring.
C pilot has to throttle back. C rotor.
D pilot must disconnect it and manually control the alternator. D stator.
349) When applying carburettor heating : 344) Discounting the possibility of leak, the level in a
hydraulic reservoir will :
A the mixture becomes leaner. A always remain the same.
B no change occurs in the mixture ratio. B initially increase with system pressurisation.
C the mixture becomes richer.

C increase as ambient temperature decreases.
D a decrease in RPM results from the lean mixture. D fluctuate with jack displacement and accumulator pressure.
359) In case of smoke in the cockpit, the crew oxygen 343) The number of manual fire-extinguishers, on board the
regulator must be set to: passenger cabin of an airplane, whose maximum
approved configuration for passenger seats is 31, is:
A 100%
A 1
B normal.
B 3
C emergency.
C 0
D on demand.
D 2
342) A 3 phase AC generator has 3 separate stator windings 374) The richness of a fuel/air mixture ratio is the :
spaced at :
A 60°. A volume of fuel relative to the volume of air.
B 45°. B volume of fuel relative to the mass of the volume of air.
C 90°. C real mixture ratio relative to the theoretical ratio.
D 120°. D mass of fuel relative to the volume of air.
341) The main advantage of a constant speed propeller as 373) A turbo-fan cold air unit will:
compared to a fixed pitch propeller is a :
A decrease charge air pressure whilst causing hte
A lower propeller blade stress. temperature to rise in the heat exchanger.
B higher efficiency in cruising range. B cause a pressure drop as well as an associated temperature
drop in the charge air.
C higher efficiency in all operating ranges.
C not affect the charge air pressure.
D constant efficiency in all operating ranges.
D increase charge air pressure whilst causing hte temperature
to drop in the heat exchanger.
350) On the flight deck, an oil operated CSD unit is normally

provided with means of monitoring the:
372) In a free turbine engine:
A oil over-temperature and low oil pressure.
A its shaft may be connected to either a compressor or
B oil temperature and synchronous speed. another turbine.
C output speed and oil pressure. B the air enters the compressor via the input turbine.
D low oil temperature and low oil quantity. C the compressor and power output shaft are mechanically
connected.
D there is no mechanical connection between the compressor

366) In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an airplane must be and the power output shaft.
equipped with equipment or systems at each emergency
exit that allow to reach the ground safely in the case of
an emergency when the sill height of the passenger
371) An airplane whose maximum approved passenger
emergency exit is higher than:
A 1,86 m.
B 1,89 m. passenger compartment.
C 1,83 m. B 6 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the

D 1,80 m.
375) When two DC generators are operating in parallel, D 5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the
control of load sharing is achieved by : passenger compartment.
A the synchronous bus-bar.

370) When operating two AC generators unparalleled, the
B an equalising circuit which, in conjunction with the voltage phase relationship of each generator:
regulators, varies the field excitation current of the
generators. A must be 90° out of synchronisation.
C an equalising circuit which, in turn, controls the speed of the

B is unimportant.
generators.
D carrying out systematic load-shedding procedures. C must be synchronous.
D must be in opposition.
369) The passenger oxygen mask will supply : 364) In hydraulic systems of large modern transport category
aircraft the fluids used are:
A a mixture of compressed air and oxygen or 100 % oxygen. A Vegetable oil.
B a mixture of oxygen and freon gas. B Water and glycol.
C a mixture of cabin air and oxygen.

C Synthetic oil.
D 100 % oxygen. D Mineral oil.
357) Connecting two 12 volt 40 ampere-hour capacity 363) In computer technology, an EPROM is:
batteries in series will result in a total voltage and
capacity respectively of : 1. a read-only memory
2. a write memory
A 24 volts, 40 ampere-hours. 3. erases its content when power supply is cut off
4. keeps its content when power supply is cut off
B 12 volts, 40 ampere-hours.
C 24 volts, 80 ampere-hours. is:
D 12 volts, 80 ampere-hours. A 1,3
B 2,3
367) A CSD unit which has been disconnected in flight :

C 2,4
A automatically resets in flight providing engine rpm is below a D 1,4

given value.
B automatically resets at engine shut-down.

362) In a modern hydraulic system, "hydraulic fuses" can be
found. Their function is :
C may be reset on the ground only, after engine shut-down.
A To allow by-passing of a hydraulic pump in case it is subject
D may be reset in flight using the reset mechanism. to excessive pressure, without further damage to the system.
B To prevent total system loss in case of a leaking hydraulic

358) A test to assess the state of charge of a lead-acid line.
battery would involve :
C To switch to the secondary system in case of a leak in the
primary brake system.
A comparing the "on-load" and "off-load" battery voltages.
D To isolate a part of the system and protect it against
B checking the level of the electrolyte. accidental pollution.
C checking the discharge current of the battery "on-load".

361) The global output of a piston engine is of:
D checking the battery voltage "off-load". (global output = Thermal energy corresponding to the
available shaft/power over the total thermal energy
produced).
365) In the stator of a turbine, the speed V and static
pressure Ps vary as follows: A 0.30
A V decreases, Ps decreases. B 0.50
B V increases, Ps decreases. C 0.75
C V decreases, Ps increases. D 0.90
D V increases, Ps increases.
360) The so-called "hot buses" or "direct buses" are: 289) A "fan" stage of a ducted-fan turbine engine is driven by:
A kept in operating conditions by an electrical resistance in the A the high pressure turbine.
case of energy failure.
B airflow drawn across it by the high pressure compressor.
B automatically connected to the battery if generators have
failed.
C the low pressure turbine.
C providing an alternative current.
D the high pressure compressor through reduction gearing.
D directly connected to the battery.
288) The ice protection for propellers of modern turboprop

aeroplanes works
338) A relay is :
A pneumatically.
A A switch specially designed for AC circuits.
B with hot air.
B An electrical energy conversion unit.
C with anti-icing fluid.
C An electromagnetically operated switch.
D electrically.
D An electrical security switch.
287) Airliners are equipped with oxygen systems. It can be

368) For a piston engine, the ideal fuel/air mixture said that :
corresponding to a richness of 1 is obtained for a weight
ratio of: A with setting on "NORMAL", the crew breathes a mixture of
oxygen / cabin air.
A 1/9 th
B the same circuit is used by the crew and the passengers.
B 1/10th
C the seals must be carefully greased to avoid sparks.
C 1/12th
D the passenger circuit never uses chemically generated
D 1/15 th oxygen.
286) The term "cabin pressure" applies when an aeroplane:

281) In a two generator system, a differential relay will ensure
that :
A is only pressurized in the area of the control cabin.
A generator voltages are almost equal before the generators
are paralleled. B has the ability to maintain constant any cabin differential
pressure.
B only one generator can supply the bus-bar at a time.
C has the ability to maintain a constant cabin altitude at all
C generator voltages are not equal, dependent on load. flight altitudes.
D one generator comes "on-line" before the other. D has the means to maintain the cabin pressure at a higher
level than the ambient pressure.
340) The tanks of a hydraulic system are pressurized:

A by an auxiliary system. On the attached diagram showing the power output of a

piston engine as a function of mixture richness, best
economy is at the point marked:
B by bleed air coming from the turbine-engine.
A 3
C in flight only.
B 4
D by the air conditioning system.
C 1
D 2
284) A torsion link assembly is installed on the landing gear 279) A manual inflation handle:
to :
A absorb the spring tension. A serves to actuate inflation of a slide when automatic inflation
fails
B control the wheels. B serves to inflate a life jacket when the normal inflation
function fails
C lock the landing gear.
C operates a hand pump for manual inflation of a slide
D avoid rotation of the piston rod relative to the gear oleo strut.
D is generally not applied on slides.
291) In an aircraft equipped with a DC main power system,

AC for instrument operation may be obtained from : 278) The accessory units driven by the accessory gearbox of
a turbo-jet engine are the :
A a contactor.
1. tacho-generator N1
B a TRU. 2. tacho-generator N2
3. thrust reverser pneumatic motors
4. AC generator and its Constant Speed Unit (CSD)
C an inverter.
5. oil pumps
6. hydraulic pumps
D a rectifier. 7. high pressure fuel pumps

282) Ion detectors are devices used in aircraft for systems is :
protection. They detect :
A 2, 4, 5, 6.
A smoke.
B 4, 5, 6, 7.
B overtemperature.
C 1, 4, 5, 6, 7.
C fire.
D 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7.
D overtemperature and fire.
277) Compared to a tyre fitted with an inner tube, a tubeless

292) The function of a NOT logic gate within a circuit is to : tyre presents the following characteristics :
1 - high heating
A ensure the output signal is of the same state as the input 2 - valve fragility
signal. 3 - lower risk of bursting
4 - better adjustment to wheels
B invert the input signal such that the output is always of the
opposite state. The combination containing all the correct statements is:
C ensure the input signal is AC only. A 2-3
D ensure the input signal is DC only. B 2-4
C 1-2-3-4
280) The Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) has its own AC
generator which: D 3-4
A supplies the aircraft with three-phase 115-200 V, 400 Hz AC.

276) Fuel/air ratio is the ratio between the:
B is driven at constant speed throught a Constant Speed Drive
(CSD), in the same way as the main AC generator.
A mass of fuel and mass of air entering the carburettor
C is excited by its Generator Control Unit (GCU) as soon as
the APU starts up. B mass of fuel and mass of air entering the cylinder.
D must have the same characteristics as the main AC
generator so that it can be easily coupled with the latter. C volume of fuel and volume of air entering the carburettor.
D volume of fuel and volume of air entering the cylinder.
275) The number of emergency exits in transport aeroplanes 378) (For this question use annex 021-4008A)
Reference should be made to the fuel sypply system
shown in annex.
A must be in accordance with the number of passengers on In flight, with center tank empty and APU operating, a
board. fuel unbalance is detected (quantity in tank 1 < quantity
in tank 2).
B must be arranged to allow all passengers and all crew Rebalancing of the two tanks is:
members to leave the aeroplane within 90 sec. through 50
% of the available emergency exits. A possible with "CROSSFEED" open and tank 1 pumps
"OFF" and tank 2 pumps "ON".
C must be arranged to allow at least 50 % of all passengers to
leave the aeroplane within 2 minutes. B impossible without causing the APU stop.
D depends on the decision of the manufacturer in agreement
with the operator. C possible with "CROSSFEED" open and tank 2 pumps
"OFF".
D impossible because there is no fuel in center tank.

603) To ensure that the fuel flow is kept directly proportional
to the volume of air flowing through the choke, thus
preventing the main jet supplying excessive fuel as
engine speed is increased, a carburettor is fitted with : 337) On detection of a persistent overvoltage fault on an AC
generator connected to the aircraft AC busbars, the on-
A an accelerator pump board protection device opens:
B a mixture control A the exciter breaker, the generator breaker and tie breaker.
C a diffuser B The generator breaker and tie breaker.
D a power jet C The generator breaker.
D the exciter breaker and the generator breaker.
283) The types of fuel tanks used on most modern transport

aircraft are:
336) The services connected to a supply bus-bar are
A Cell tanks. normally in:
B Combined fuel tanks. A parallel, so that isolating individual loads decreases the bus-
bar current consumption.
C Fixed built-in tanks. B series, so that isolating one load increases the bus-bar
current consumption.
D Integral tanks.
C parallel, so that isolation of loads decreases the bus-bar
voltage.
329) The primary reason for a limitation being imposed on
the temperature of gas flow is to :
D series, so that isolation of loads increases the bus-bar
voltage.
A ensure that the maximum acceptable temperature within the
combustion chamber is not exceeded.
335) Hydraulic fluids must have the following characteristics:
B ensure that the maximum acceptable temperature at the
turbine blades is not exceeded. 1. thermal stability
2. low emulsifying characteristics
C prevent damage to the jet pipe from overheating. 3. corrosion resistance
4. good resistance to combustion
D prevent overheating and subsequent creep of the nozzle 5. high compressibility
guide vanes. 6. high volatility
7. high viscosity

is :
A 1, 2, 5, 7
B 2, 3, 4, 5
C 1, 3, 4, 6
D 1, 2, 3, 4
334) For an aeroplane hydraulic supply circuit, the correct 330) The water separator of an air-conditioning unit is
statement is : located at the cooling unit :
A the pumps are always electric due to the high pressures A inlet and uses an evaporation process.
which they must deliver (140 to 210 kg/cm²).
B outlet and uses a centrifugal process.
B the regulation system deals only with emergency operation
and is not applied to all hydraulic services but only those
considered as essential. C inlet and uses a centrifugal process.
C the reservoir constitutes a reserve of hydraulic fluid D outlet and uses an evaporation process.
maintained under pressure by a pneumatic back pressure
(air or nitrogen) and destined to serve as a fluid or pressure
reserve. 339) When a continuous element of a fire detection system is
heated:
D the security components comprise the filters, the pressure
relief valves, the by-passes, and the fire shut-off valve. 1. its resistance decreases.
2. its resistance increases.
3. the leakage current increases.
333) The pressurization of the cabin is controlled by : 4. the leakage current decreases.

A The cabin outflow valve. is :
B The cabin inlet airflow. A 2, 3
C The engine's RPM. B 1, 4
D The engine's bleed valves. C 2, 4
D 1, 3
332) From which flight level do the regulations require a
quick donning type oxygen mask for the flight crew in a
pressurized aircraft ? 328) The purpose of a battery protection unit is generally to
isolate the battery:
A FL 390.
1 - from the bus when the battery charge is deemed
B FL 100. satisfactory
2 - when there is a battery overheat condition
C FL 250. 3 - in case of an internal short circuit
4 - in case of a fault on the ground power unit
D FL 300.
statements is :
290) Assuming a hydraulic accumulator is pre-charged with A 1 - 2 - 3 -4

air to 1000 psi. If the hydraulic system is then
pressurised to its operating pressure of 3000 psi, the B 1
indicated pressure on the air side of the accumulator
should be :
C 1 - 2 -3
A 4000 psi.
D 1-2
B 3000 psi.
C 2000 psi. 327) A pressurized aeroplane is operated at FL 300. It

undergoes a rapid decompression so that the pressure
D 1000 psi. in the cabin goes quickly down to the outside pressure
value. What happens concerning the oxygen system ?
A the oxygen masks are automatically presented to flight crew

members
B if the automatic mask presentation has been activated, the

oxygen will flow within the first 3 minutes
C manual override of the automatic presentation of passenger

oxygen masks is, generally speaking, not possible
D the oxygen masks are automatically presented to cabin crew

members and passengers
326) Hydraulic fluids used in systems of large modern 331) Fuel pumps submerged in the fuel tanks of a multi-
airliners are: engine aircraft are:
A Mineral base fluids. A high pressure variable swash plate pumps.
B Phosphate ester base fluids. B centrifugal low pressure type pumps.
C Water base fluids. C low pressure variable swash plate pumps.
D Vegetable base fluids. D centrifugal high pressure pumps.
296) Cabin air for modern aircraft is usually taken from: 423) In a hydraulic braking system, an accumulator is
precharged to 1200 psi.
An electrically driven hydraulic pump is started and
A the low pressure compressor and from the high pressure provides a system pressure of 3000 psi.
compressor if necessary. The hydraulic pressure gauge which is connected to the
gas section of the accumulator, reads:
B the second fan stage.
A 1200 psi
C the low pressure compressor.
B 4200 psi
D the high pressure compressor.
C 1800 psi
295) The crash/fire axe is part of the safety equipment fitted D 3000 psi
to passenger aircraft. Its function is to :
A obtain forced access to a fire behind a panel and a general

415) The frequency of the current provided by an alternator
purpose tool during evacuation.
depends on...
B free exits in case of evacuation via the sides.
A its rotation speed
C activate a radio survival beacon by cutting off the red
B the strength of the excitation current
coloured top
D settle an escalating conflict with unreasonable passengers, C its load

who threaten flight safety.
D its phase balance
294) When a conductor cuts the flux of a magnetic field :

431) The operating principle of an anti skid system is as
A there will be no effect on the conductor. follows : the brake pressure will be :
B the field will collapse.

A Increased on the slower turning wheels.
B Decreased on the slower turning wheels.

C current will flow in accordance with Flemings left hand rule.
D an electromotive force (EMF) is induced in the conductor. C Increased on the faster turning wheels.
D Decreased on the faster turning wheels.
293) The equipment of an oxygen supply installation must be

kept absolutely free of oil or grease traces as:
430) During level flight at a constant cabin pressure altitude
A these substances mixed with oxygen could catch fire in the (which could be decreased, even at this flight level), the
presence of a spark. cabin outflow valves are:
B these substances could plug the oxygen masks filters. A fully closed until the cabin climbs to a selected altitude.
C these substances catch fire spontaneously in the presence B At the pre-set position for take-off.
of oxygen under pressure.
C Fully closed until the cabin descends to a selected altitude.
D the oxygen system would be contaminated.
D Partially open.
429) During flight, the wing anti-ice system has to protect 433) The primary purpose of the bleed valves fitted to axial
flow compressors is to :
A the whole upper wing surface and the flaps. A enable an external air supply to spin up the compressor for
engine starting.
B slats and the leading edge flaps only.
B reduce the likelihood of compressor stall.
C leading edges only.
C control the acceleration time of the engine.
D leading edges, slats and the leading edge flaps.
D spill compressor air should the engine overspeed thus
controlling the speed.
428) In a generator, the Constant Speed Drive (CSD):
1- may be disconnected from the engine shaft. 424) The advantages of a gaseous oxygen source for the
2- may be disconnected from the generator. passenger cabin are :
3- is a hydro-mechanical system.
4- is an electronic system. 1. a greater autonomy,
5- may not be disconnected in flight. 2. no risk of explosion,
6- may be disconnected in flight. 3. reversible functioning,
4. easy storage and maintenance,
The combination regrouping all the correct statements 5. possibility to regulate flow.
is :
A 1, 2, 5 is :
B 2, 3, 4 A 1, 3, 5
C 1, 4, 5 B 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
D 1, 3, 6 C 2, 4, 5
D 2, 3, 4
427) A CSD of an AC generator may be disconnected in flight.

The primary reason(s) for disconnection are :
434) The trim tab :
A illumination of the CSD disconnect warning light.
A reduces hinge moment and control surface efficiency.
B slight variation about the normal operating frequency.
B reduces hinge moment and increases control surface
C low oil pressure and/or high oil temperature of the generator efficiency.
drive.
C increases hinge moment and control surface efficiency.
D excessive variation of voltage and kVAR.
D increases hinge moment and reduces control surface
efficiency.
426) An oxygen regulator has 3 controls :
- a power lever : ON/OFF 422) The disadvantages of axial flow compressors compared
- an "O2" lever : NORMAL/100% to centrifugal flow compressors are :
- an emergency lever : ON/OFF
1 - expensive to manufacture
Among the following statements, the correct proposition 2 - limited airflow
is : 3 - greater vulnerability to foreign object damage
4 - limited compression ratio
A with the EMERGENCY lever on OFF, in an emergency
situation, one cannot use the oxygen mask to breathe. The combination of correct answers is :
B the power lever on ON, and, the "O2" lever on NORMAL A 2-4
allows the oxygen to enter the regulator and enables
breathing of a mixture of air/oxygen according to altitude.
B 1-3
C the EMERGENCY lever on ON enables breathing of pure
oxygen at ambient pressure. C 1-2
D the "O2" lever on ON enables breathing of the over- D 2-3

pressure oxygen at a constant flow rate.
421) An airplane whose maximum approved passenger 376) A stage in an axial compressor:
A has a compression ratio in the order of 2.1
passenger compartment. B is made of row of stator blades followed by a rotor disc
B 5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the C has a compression ration in the order of 0.8
D is made of a rotor disc followed by a row of stator blades
D 8 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the 425) A relay is :

A another name for a solenoid valve.

420) The purpose of the "Pressure Relief Valve" in a high
pressure oxygen system is to : B a unit which is used to convert electrical energy to heat
energy.
A act as a manual shut-off valve
C a device which is used to increase electrical power.
B maximize the charging pressure of the system
D a magnetically operated switch.
C relieve overpressure if the pressure reducing valve

malfunctions
442) Skip distance is the:
D reduce pressure in the oxygen reservoir to a suitable
manifold pressure for the regulator
A range from the transmitter to the first sky wave
419) The Ram Air Turbine (RAT) provides emergency

B highest critical frequency distance
hydraulic power for :
C wavelength distance of a certain frequency
A undercarriage selection and automatic brake system.
D thickness of the ionosphere
B flap extension only.
C flight controls in the event of loss of engine driven hydraulic 451) Spark plug fouling is more likely to happen if :
power.
D nose wheel steering after the aeroplane has landed. A the aircraft climbs without mixture adjustment.
B the aircraft descends without a mixture adjustment.

418) The type of hydraulic fluid which has the highest
resistance against cavitation is : C power is increased too abruptly.
A Water and glycol based fluid. D the engine runs at the authorized maximum continuous
power for too long.
B Synthetic fluid.
C Mineral oil based fluid. 450) Cabin differential pressure means the pressure
difference between:
D Vegetable oil based fluid (caster oil).
A actual cabin pressure and selected pressure.
B cabin pressure and ambient air pressure.

417) Generally speaking when the oxygen flows to the masks
in the passenger cabin, the system is activated by
C cockpit and passenger cabin.
A firmly pulling the mask towards the face, after the cover has
D
opened. cabin pressure and ambient air pressure at MSL.
B activating the relevant switch in the cockpit.
C firmly pulling the cover behind which the oxygen mask is

stowed.
D pushing the mask against the face and breath normally.
449) The purpose of the first aid oxygen is to: 445) On a modern aeroplane, to avoid the risk of tyre burst
from overheating, due for example to prolonged braking
during an aborted take-off, there is:
A supply all the passengers in case of depressurization.
A the "Emergency Burst" function of the anti-skid system
B provide the flight crew with respiratory assistance after which adapts braking to the tyre temperature.
depressurization.
B water injection triggered at a fixed temperature in order to
C provide some passengers with additional respiratory lower tyre temperature.
assistance after an emergency descent following a
depressurization. C a hollow bolt screwed into the wheel which melts at a given
temperature (thermal fuse) and deflates the tyre.
D provide the cabin attendants with respiratory protection.
D a pressure relief valve situated in the filler valve.
448) On-board electrical systems are protected against faults

of the following type: 432) The Fan Markers uses the following wavelengths:
1. AC generator over-voltage
2. AC generator under-voltage
3. over-current A hectometric.
4. over-speed
5. under-frequency B myriametric.
6. undue vibration of AC generators
The combination of correct statements is : C metric.
A 1,2,4,6
D centimetric.
B 1,3,5,6
443) In a piston engine if the ratio of air to fuel, by weight, is

C 2,3,4,5,6
approximately 9:1, the mixture is said to be :
D 1,2,4,5
A weak
B too weak to support combustion

447) Which of these signals are inputs, at least, in the stall
warning computers? C normal
A Angle of attack, flaps deflection and EPR. D rich
B Angle of attack, flaps deflection, EPR and N1.
414) The minimum airborne equipment required for operation

C Angle of attack and flaps and slats deflection.
of a the VHF direction finder is a:
D Angle of attack and flaps and spoilers deflection.
A VHF transmitter-receiver operating in the 118 MHz to 136
MHz range.
446) A "hung start" is the failure of an engine to accelerate to B VHF compass operating in the 200 kHz to 1750 kHz range.
its normal idle speed. It may be caused by:
C VHF receiver operating in the 118 MHz to 136 MHz range.
A failure of the fuel to ignite in the starting sequence after the
engine has been accelerated to the required rpm by the D cathode-ray tube.
starter.
B an attempt to ignite the fuel before the engine has been

accelerated sufficiently by the starter. 441) Fire precautions to be observed before refuelling are :
C compressor surging.
A All bonding and earthing connections between ground
equipment and the aircraft should be made before filler caps
D the starter cutting out early in the starting sequence before are removed.
the engine has accelerated to the required rpm for ignition.
B Ground Power Units (GPU) are not to be operated.
C Passengers may be boarded (traversing the refuelling zone)

providing suitable fire extinguishers are readily available.
D Aircraft must be more than 10 metres from radar or HF

radio equipment under test.
440) The purpose of baffle check valves fitted in aircraft fuel 436) On board present aircraft, the batteries used are mainly
tanks is to : Cadmium-Nickel. Their advantages are:
1. low risk of thermal runaway
A close the vent lines in case of turbulence. 2. high internal resistance, hence higher power
3. good charging and discharging capability at high
B prevent positive pressure build up inside the tank. rating
4. wider permissible temperature range
5. good storage capability
C prevent fuel movement to the wing tip.
6. sturdiness owing to its metal casing
7. the electrolyte density remains unchanged during
D damp out movement of the fuel in the tank. charging.
The combination of correct statement is:
439) A gaseous sensor/responder tube fire sensor is tested A 3, 4, 5, 6

by
B 1, 2, 5, 6, 7
A checking the wiring harness for faults but not the sensor.
C 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
B checking the sensor with pressurized gas.
D 3, 4, 6, 7
C heating up the sensor with test power connection.
D checking the continuity of the system with a test switch. 435) The skip zone of HF-transmission will increase when the
following change in circumstance occurs :
438) Assuming cabin differential pressure has attained the A Lower frequency and lower position of the reflecting
required value in normal flight conditions, if flight ionospheric layer
altitude is maintained :
B Higher frequency and higher position of the reflecting
ionospheric layer
A the pressurisation system ceases to function until leakage
reduces the pressure.
C Lower frequency ang higher position of the reflecting
B the outflow valves will move to the fully open position. ionospheric layer
D Higher frequency and lower position of the reflecting

C the pressurisation system must be controlled manually. ionospheric layer
D a constant mass air flow is permitted through the cabin.

444) The positions of the intake and exhaust valve at the end
of the power stroke are :
437) For internal cooling,reciprocating engines are especially
dependent on: A both valves closed.
A the circulation of lubricating oil B exhaust valve closed and intake valve open.
B a rich fuel/air mixture C intake valve closed and exhaust valve open.
C a properly functioning thermostat D both valves open.
D a lean fuel/air mixture

385) The airborne weather radar uses the following
wavelengths:
A myriametric.
B centimetric.
C metric.
D hectometric.
416) If the profile grooves or the tread of a new aircraft tyre 389) During climb with constant Manifold Air Pressure (MAP)
are worn, the tyre can be: and RPM indication and constant mixture setting, the
power output of a piston engine :
A Repaired several times.
A stays constant.
B repaired once.
B increases.
C Never repaired.
C decreases.
D Used on the nose wheel only.
D only stays constant if the speed control lever is pushed
forward.
393) On a a normally aspirated engine (non turbo-charged),
the manifold pressure gauge always indicates...
388) Pre-ignition refers to the condition that may arise when :
A a value equal to the QFE when the engine is at full power on
the ground. A a rich mixture is ignited by the sparking plugs.
B a lower value than atmospheric pressure when the engine is
running. B the sparking plug ignites the mixture too early.
C a greater value than atmospheric pressure when the engine C the mixture is ignited by abnormal conditions within the
is running. cylinder before the spark occurs at the plug
D zero on the ground when the engine is stopped. D the mixture is ignited before the piston has reached top dead
centre.
392) If the frequency of the supply in a series capacitive

circuit is increased, the current flowing in the circuit will 395) In a piston engine, magnetos are used to produce the
: spark which ignites the fuel/air mixture. The operating
principle of magnetos consists in :
A decrease.
A accumulating in a condenser a low volt current from the
battery, reconstitute it as high voltage current at the moment
B remain the same.
the spark is generated.
C increase. B creating a brief high intensity magnetic field which will be

sent through the distributor at the appropriate time.
D be zero.
C breaking the primary current in order to induce a low amp
high volt current which is distributed to the spark plugs.
391) In very cold weather, the pilot notices during startup, a D obtaining a high amp low volt current in order to generate the
slightly higher than normal oil pressure. spark.
This higher pressure :
A requires an oil change.

386) A piston engine compression ratio is the ratio of the :
B is normal, if it decreases after startup.
A total volume to the swept volume.
C is abnormal and requires the engine to be shut down.
B swept volume to the clearance volume.
D is abnormal but does not require the engine to be shut down.
C total volume to the clearance volume.
390) The function of a constant speed drive (CSD) in an AC D clearance volume to the swept volume.
generating system is to :
A drive the generator at a constant speed.
B vary generator rpm in order to compensate for various AC

loads.
C directly maintain a constant proportion between the rpm of

an engine and a generator.
D vary the engine rpm (within limits) to compensate for various

AC loads.
396) The elements specifically protected against icing on 381) An airplane whose maximum approved passenger
transport aircraft are: seating configuration is 61 to 200 seats must be
1) engine air intake and pod.
2) front glass shield. A 3 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the
3) radome. passenger compartment.
4) pitot tubes and waste water exhaust masts.
5) leading edge of wing. B 2 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the
6) cabin windows. passenger compartment.
7) trailing edge of wings.
8) electronic equipment compartment. C 4 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the
is : D 5 hand fire-extinguishers conveniently located in the
A 1, 2, 5, 6
B 1, 2, 3, 8 380) In transport aeroplanes overheat detection systems are

installed in the:
C 1, 2, 4, 5
A cabin.
D 1, 4, 5, 7
B fuel tanks.
384) A reverse thrust door warning light on the flight deck C tyres.
instrument panel illuminates when:
D landing gear bays / wheel wells.
A the reverser doors are locked.
B reverse has been selected but the doors have remained 379) The advantages of alternating current on board an
locked. aircraft are:
1. simple connection
C the reverser doors have moved to the reverse thrust position. 2. high starting torque
3. flexibility in use
D the reverser doors are unlocked. 4. lighter weight of equipment
5. easy to convert into direct current
6. easy maintenance of machines
383) In a compressor stage of a jet engine, the sequence is:
A 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
A rotor - rotor - stator
B 1, 2, 3, 5, 6
B stator - stator - rotor
C 1, 4, 6
C rotor - stator
D 3, 4, 5, 6
D stator - rotor
273) In case of engine failure during flight the blades of the

constant speed propeller in a single engine aeroplane,
382) In a four-stroke piston engine, the only "driving" stroke
not fitted with feathering system
is :
A compression
A move in the highest pitch position by the aerodynamical
force.
B exhaust B move in the lowest pitch position by the centrifugal force.
C firing-expansion C move in low pitch position by oil pressure created by the

windmilling propeller.
D intake
D move in a certain pitch position depending on windmilling
RPM.
387) The advantages of fly-by-wire control are: 411) A magnetic circuit-breaker is:
1. reduction of the electric and hydraulic power required

to operate the control surfaces A can be reset without any danger even when fault remains.
2. lesser sensitivity to lightning strike
3. direct and indirect weight saving through B is a system with a slow response time.
simplification of systems
4. immunity to different interfering signals C a protection system that has a quick tripping response.
5. improvement of piloting quality throughout the flight
envelope D permits an overcurrent limited in time.
is :
410) When a persistent top excitation limit fault on an AC
A 1 and 5 generator connected to the mains with another AC
generator, the overexcitation protection device opens:
B 2 and 3
A the exciter breaker and the generator breaker.
C 3 and 5
B the generator breaker.
D 1 and 2
C the exciter breaker, the generator breaker and the tie breaker.
D the tie breaker.

404) The thrust of a turbo-jet, at the selection of full power :
1 - equals the product of the exhaust gas mass flow and

the exhaust gas velocity 409) The Automatic Direction Finder uses the following
2 - is obtained by pressure of the exhaust gas on the wavelengths:
ambient air
3 - is equivalent to zero mechanical power since the A decimetric.
aeroplane is not moving
4 - is independant of the outside air temperature B centimetric.
statements is : C hectometric or kilometric.
A 1-3 D metric.
B 1-2
408) In addition to the fire hazard introduced, excessive
C 2-3 priming should be avoided because :
D 4 A the gasoline dilutes the oil and necessitates changing oil
B it washes the lubricant of cylinder walls

413) Assuming a CSD fault is indicated, the CSD should be
disconnected : C it fouls the spark plugs
A on the ground only. D it drains the carburettor float chamber
B during engine operation only.

407) On a modern large pressurized transport aircraft, the
C at flight idle engine rpm. maximum cabin differential pressure is approximately:
D in accordance with the regulated voltage level of the AC A 13 - 15 psi

generator.
B 22 psi
412) The Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) uses the C 7 - 9 psi

following wavelengths:
D 3 - 5 psi
A hectometric.
B metric.
C centimetric.
D decimetric.
394) In aviation, the reflection on ionosphere layers 401) 'Fail safe construction' is :
phenomenon is used in the following frequencies:
A UHF A A construction which is suitable for aerobatic flight.
B VLF B A type of construction in which the load is carried by other

components if a part of the structure fails.
C HF
C A simple and cheap type of construction.
D VHF D A type of construction for small aircraft only.
405) Under normal conditions (JAR 25) the cabin pressure 400) Spark timing is related to engine speed in the way that
altitude is not allowed to exceed: the:
A 6000 ft A faster the engine functions, the more retarded the spark is.
B 10000 ft B faster the engine functions, the more the spark is advanced
C 8000 ft
C slower the engine functions, the more the spark is advanced
D 4000 ft D faster the engine functions, the further past TDC the spark
occurs
377) On most transport aircraft, the low pressure pumps of

the fuel system are: 399) An aircraft electrical circuit which uses the aircraft
structure as a return path to earth, may be defined as a
A mechanically driven by the engine's accessory gearbox.
A semi-negative system.
B removable only after the associated tank has been emptied.
B single pole circuit.
C centrifugal pumps, driven by an electric motor.
C complete negative system.
D electro-mechanical wobble pumps, with self-regulated
pressure. D double pole circuit.
403) In computer technology, an output peripheral is a: 398) A cabin pressure controller maintains a pre-set cabin
altitude by regulating the :
A keyboard
A position of the outflow valve(s).
B hard disk drive
B mass air flow into the cabin.
C diskette drive
C position of the inward relief valve.
D screen unit
D position of the duct relief valve(s).
402) An artificial feel unit system:

397) In accordance with JAR-OPS 1 and if necessary, the
number of liferafts to be found on board an aircraft must
A is necessary on a reversible servodyne unit. allow the transportation of the entire aircraft occupants:
B is mounted in parallel on a spring tab. A in the case of a loss of one raft of the largest rated capacity.
C must be mounted in parallel on an irreversible servo-control B plus 10 %.

unit.
C plus 30 %.
D must be mounted in series on an irreversible servo-control
unit. D in the case of a loss of two rafts.
406) When a bimetallic strip is used as a switch in a fire
detection loop, a fire alarm is triggered after a delay. The
purpose of this delay is to:
A delay the triggering of the fire extinguinshers and increase

their efficiency
B wait for the triggering of the second fire detection loop in

order to confirm the fire
C avoid false alarms in case of vibrations
D allow temperatures to equalise
Professione Volare Domande Human Factor
Data:
Nome Allievo:
246) Which one of the following statements characterizes a 254) Early symptoms of hypoxia could be:
democratic and cooperative leadership style? 1. euphoria
If conflicts evolve, the leader 2. decreased rate and depth of breathing
3. lack of concentration
A decides what to do and pushes his own opinion through 4. visual disturbances
B tries to clarify the reasons and causes of the conflict with all A 1,2 and 4 are correct
persons involved
B 1,3 and 4 are correct
C mainly tries to reconcile all persons involved in the conflict
and tries to reestablish a nice and friendly atmosphere within C 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
the team
D keeps a neutral position and does not participate in arguing

D 1,2 and 3 are correct
253) The rate and depth of breathing is primary regulated by

257) Which of the following statements regarding
the concentration of:
interpersonal interactions are correct?
-1 If the sender finds the receiver competent, he/she
tends to A water vapour in the alveoli
reduce verbal redundancy content of his sentences
-2 If the interlocuter is of non-native tongue, the sender B oxygen in the cells
will reinforce
what he is saying by using more complicated words C carbon dioxide in the blood
so as to
optimize understanding D nitrogen in the air
-3 If he/she finds him incompetent, he tends to simplify
the content
of sentences
-4 Simplification of check list in a crew who know each 252) Which component(s) is/are transporting the oxygen in
other the blood?
essentially takes place in the case of interpersonal
conflict A Hemoglobin in the red blood cells.
The correct statement(s) is (are): B White blood cells.
A 1 and 2 are correct

C Plasma.
B 2 and 3 are correct D Blood fat.
C 3 and 4 are correct
251) Pulse rate is influenced by the following factors:

D 1 and 3 are correct
1. Adrenalin
2. Cortisol
3. Physical exercise.
256) The semicircular canals form part of the 4. Glucose concentration in the blood
A 1,3 and 4 are correct, 2 is false

A inner ear
B 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
B middle ear
C 2,3 and 4 are correct, 1 is false
C ear drum
D 1,2 and 4 are correct, 3 is false
D external ear
250) The inner ear is able to perceive:

255) Which of the following statements concerning 1. angular acceleration
hypovigilance is correct ? 2. linear acceleration
Hypovigilance : 3. noise
A essentially occurs several minutes after the intense take-off A 2 is correct, 1 and 3 are both false
phase
B tends to occur at the end of the mission as a result of a

B 1 and 2 and 3 are correct
relaxation in the operators' attention
C 2 and 3 are correct, 1 is false
C only affects certain personality types
D 1 and 2 are correct, 3 is false
D may occur at any moment of the flight
249) Which symptom does not belong to the following list: 244) A person being exposed to extreme or prolonged stress
factors can perceive:
A leans A stressors
B bends B distress (stress reactions)
C chokes
C coping stress
D creeps D eustress
236) How would you call the leadership style of a captain who 243) Barotrauma caused by gas accumulation in the stomach
primarily is interested in a friendly atmosphere within and intestinals can lead to:
his crew, who is always constructive and encouraging,
who usually compromises in interpersonal conflicts, A barotitis
who trusts in the capabilities of his crew-members, and
who leaves the crew freedom for own decisions, even if
this makes the process more difficult? B decompresion sickness
A Low task-orientation and low relationship-orientation C barosinusitis
B Low task-orientation and high relationship-orientation D pressure pain or flatulence
C High task-orientation and low relationship-orientation

242) With regard to decompression sickness associated with
D High task-orientation and high relationship-orientation flight, we know that :
A physical activity after decompression reduces the risks of

decompression sickness symptoms to appear
247) Our mental model of the world is based
B age, obesity and scuba diving are risk factors
A on both our past experiences and our motor programmes
C scuba diving does not pose any problem for a subsequent
B on both our past experiences and the sensory information flight
we receive
D sex is the prime risk factor, with two out of every three
C entirely on the sensory information we receive women being sensitive to it
D entirely on past experiences

241) With regard to short-term memory, we can say that :
260) The development of procedures makes pilots more A it is made up of everyday information for immediate use, and
effective and more reliable in their actions. This is called: is limited in its capacity for storing and retaining data
A knowledge-based behaviour B it is made up of everyday information for immediate use, and

is limited in terms of the time for which it retains data but not
B procedural confusion in its storage capacity
C it is a stable form of working memory, and thus not very

C procedural consistency sensitive to any disturbance
D mental model D it mainly contains procedural knowledge
245) The retina allows for the acquisition of colours as a 240) The maintenance of man's internal equilibrium is called :
result of the:
A rods located in its peripheral zone A Poikilothermy
B cones located in its central part B Homeostasis
C rods located in its central part C Heterostasis
D crystalline lens D Homeothermy
239) Desorientation is more likely to occur when the pilot is: 270) You climb from 0 to 50.000 ft and measure the decrease
1. flying in IMC of the pressure per 5.000 ft. The absolute difference in
2. frequently changing between inside and outside barometric pressure is greatest between :
references
3. flying from IMC into VMC A 10.000 and 15.000 feet
4. having a cold
B 45.000 and 50.000 feet
A 1, 3 and 4 are correct
C 0 and 5.000 feet
B 1, 2 and 4 are correct
D 5.000 and 10.000 feet
C 1, 2 and 3 are correct
D 2, 3 and 4 are correct

189) The part(s) of the eye responsible for night vision
238) Mental training is helpful to improve flying skills A is the cornea
B are the rods

A only at a certain level of flying experience
C are the cones
B at all levels of flying proficiency
D are rods and cones
C only for student pilots
D only for instructor pilots

280) At rest the cardial output (the quantity of blood the heart
pumps in one minute) of an adult is approximately:
282) The use of check lists must be carried out in such a way A 5 liters/min
that:
B 450 ml/min
A their execution may be done simultaneously with other
actions
C 45 liters/min
B their execution is not lumped together with important tasks
D 75 liters/min
C it may be rejected since redundancy in the following check
list will serve as verification
279) Pilot stress reactions :
D their execution must not be done simultaneously with other
actions
A are related to an internationally recognized list of stressors
where the top-ten items should be avoided by all means
248) Disturbance of the biological clock appears after a:
1. bad night's sleep
B do not change with the environment or different situations
but mainly with the characters themselves
2. day flight Amsterdam - New York
3. day flight Amsterdam - Johannesburg
4. night flight New York - Amsterdam
C differ from pilot to pilot, depending on how a person
manages the particular stressors
A 2 and 4 are correct D seem to be always the same for most pilots
278) The sleep cycles repeat during the course of a night's

sleep.
1. Each succeeding cycle contains a greater amount of
D 1,2,3 and 4 are correct REM-
sleep.
2. Frequent interruption of the REM-sleep can harm a
human being
in the long run.
A 1 and 2 are both not correct
B 1 and 2 are both correct
C 1 is correct 2 is not correct
D 1 is not correct 2 is correct
277) Having a serious cold, you are going to fly. What can 258) Which force(s) affect(s) the otoliths in the utriculus and
you expect: sacculus?
A bends A Gravity alone
B chokes B Linear acceleration and angular acceleration
C hypoxia C Angular acceleration
D pain in the sinuses D Gravity and linear acceleration
276) Hyperventilation can cause unconsciousness, because: 271) What is the sender's frequent reason to communicate
implicitly ('between the lines')?
A oxygen saturation of the blood is increased and the brain will A The receiver grasps quickly what the sender means.
be supplied with more blood than normal
B blood circulation to the brain is slowed down B He/she has not to adjust to the communication style of the
communication partner.
C oxygen saturation of the blood is decreased

C Afterwards he/she always can claim to have been
misunderstood.
D not enough time is left to exchange oxygen in the lungs
D There is no need to make up one's mind before starting to
communicate.
275) Trapped intestinal gases can cause severe pain.
When is this the case?
259) Which problem may be overlooked in the process of
A During descent as well as during climb, when the cabin making a decision?
pressure altitude is exceeding 2 000 FT
A Preparing decisions often leads to strategies of minimum
B More frequent when flying above 18 000 FT in a non- commitment
pressurized aircraft.
B Preparing decisions promotes the appearance of
C At lower altitudes. inflexibilities
D Only in pressurized aircraft when flying at higher flight levels. C The captain's superior knowledge, justified by his/her status
D Owing to great haste, bypassing analysis of the current

actual situation in order to apply the decision prepared
274) The Eustachian tube connects: beforehand
A the middle ear and the pharynx

269) It is inadvisable to fly when suffering from a cold. The
B the auditory duct and the inner ear reason for this is:
A swollen tissue in the inner ear will increase the rate of

C the semi circular canals
metabolic production resulting in hyperventilation
D the middle ear and the inner ear B because it will seriously affect peripheral vision
C the tissue around the nasal end of the Eustachian tube is

273) Which of the following mechanisms regulate body likely to be swollen thus causing difficulty in equalising the
temperature when expored to extreme high pressure within the middle ear and the nasal/throat area.
environmental temperatures? Pain and damage to the eardrum can result, particularly
-1 : Shivering during fast descents
-2 : Vasoconstriction of peripheral blood vessels
-3 : Sweating D although the change in air pressure during a climb at lower
-4 : Vasodilation of peripheral blood vessels altitudes is very small, it increases rapidly at high altitudes. If
the tissue in the Eustachian tube of the ear is swollen,
A 1,3,4 gentle descents at high alltitude would result in damage to
the ear drum
B 2,3
C 1
D 3,4
268) Without visual reference, what illusion could the pilot 263) A certain amount of water vapor saturated air (i.e.
get, when he is stopping the rotation to recover from a intestinal gases) is transported from sea-level up to 34
spin? He will get the illusion of 000 ft. In the same amount of dry air, the volume of this
gas is :
A climbing and turning into the original direction of the spin
A smaller
B spinning into the opposite direction
B constant
C spinning into the same direction
C first larger, then smaller
D straight and level flight
D larger
267) The first stage in the information process is

262) What is the effect of stress on performance ?
-1 : It always reduces performance.
A sensory stimulation -2 : Optimum performance is obtained with optimum
arousal.
B perception -3 : Excessive stress weakens performance.
-4 : Insufficient stress weakens performance.
C selective attention
D the recognition of information
A 1,3,4
B 1,2,4
266) Stress management programmes usually involve:
C 2,3,4
A the prevention and/or the removal of stress
D 1,2,3
B only the removal of stress
C only the prevention of stress 261) Which biases relate to human decision making?
1. Personal experience tends to alter the perception of
D the use of psychoactive drugs the risk of an event occurring
2. There is a natural tendency to want to confirm our
decision even in the face of facts which contradict it
3. The group to which an individual belongs tends to
265) Which of the following tasks are possible to do influence the particular decision
simultaneously without mutual interference? 4. There is natural tending to select only objective facts
for decision-making purposes
A Maintain manual straight and level flight and solve a problem.
A 1,2,4
B Listen attentively and solve a problem.
B 1,2,3
C Talk and rehearse a frequency in working memory.
C 1,2
D Read and listen attentively.
D 3,4
264) During paradoxical sleep

235) Which of the following statements best fits the definition
A the tone of the muscles is similar to that in the waking state of an active error?
Active error is:
B respiration is very regular
A produced either by a front-line operator or by a remote
operator and results in a hidden or latent consequence at a
C the rhythm of the heart is very regular specific moment of the action
D rapid eye movements can be observed B essentially results from the application of a bad rule or the
poor application of a good rule by airplane designers
C rare in front-line actions and difficult to detect owing to the

fact that it usually occurs in a complex system of
uncontrolled and involuntary deviations
D produced by the operator and can be rapidly detected via the

effects and consequences which it induces on the overall
action
272) In order to get colour vision, it is necessary : 208) Breathing 100% oxygen at 38000 ft is equivalent to
-1 : for there to be considerable amount of light (ambient breathe ambient air at :
luminosity)
-2 : at night to look at the point to be observed at an A 8 000 ft
angle of 15°
-3 : to allow the eye a period of time to get used to the B 14 000 ft
light
-4 : to avoid white light
C 18 000 ft
A 2,4
D 10 000 ft
B 3
C 1 207) Workload essentially depends on:
D 1,2,3 A the pilot's knowledge
B the task and the day's parameters (weather report, aircraft

199) When drugs against sleep disorders and/or nervosity load, type of flight, etc)
have been taken and the pilot intends to fly, attention
has to be payed to C the current situation, the pilot's expertise and the
ergonomics of the system
A schedule only those pilots, who show no reactions to these
medications D the pilot's experience and the ergonomics of the system
B the effect they have on reaction time and perceptional

awareness
206) A copilot has passed an upgrading course to become a
captain. Which psychological consequence is most
C the effect they have on hearing
likely?
D the fact that there is no difference in the quality of sleep A His/her self-concept is going to change because of new
produced under the influence of those drugs compared to roles and tasks which have to be incorporated.
normal drug-free sleep
B His/her self -concept is going to be stabilized because of the
higher status as a captain.
210) What are the main factors which bring about reduced or
low vigilance (hypovigilance) ? C The increased command authority leads to a higher
1. The monotony of the task professionalism.
2. Tiredness,the need for sleep
3. A lack of stimulation D An upgrading does not have any of the mentioned
4. Excessive stress psychological consequences.
A 1,2,3
205) What is a stressor?
B 2,4
A The adaptation response of the individual to his environment
C 1,3
D 3,4
B An external or internal stimulus which is interpreted by an
individual as beeing stressful
C All external stimulation are stressors since they modify the

209) An increase in the amount of carbon dioxide in the internal equilibrium
blood leads to:
D A psychological problem developed in a situation of danger
A an improving resistance to hypoxia
B shortness of breath 204) Most accidents are mainly caused by lack of:
C a decrease of acidity in the blood

A physical skills
D a reduction of red blood cells
B interpersonal relations
C good maintenance of aircraft
D good judgement
203) Angular accelerations are picked up in the inner ear by 198) During a final approach under bad weather conditions,
you feel dizzy, get tingling sensations in your hands
and a rapid heart rate.
A the cochlea These symptoms could indicate:
B the semicircular canals A hyperventilation
C the tympanum B disorientation
D the saccule and the utricle C hypoxia
D carbon monoxide poisoning

202) Hyperventilation is:
A an accellerated heart frequency caused by a decreasing 197) According to Rasmussen's model, errors in rule-based
blood-pressure control mode are of the following type(s) :
B a reduction of partial oxygen pressure in the brain A handling errors
C a normal compensatory physiological reaction to a drop in B creative errors

partial oxygen pressure (i.e. when climbing a high mountain)
C errors of technical knowledge
D an accellerated heart frequency caused by an increasing
blood pressure D routine errors
237) Which of the following statements is true?

196) How can a pilot increase his tolerance to +Gz ?
A People are capable of living without stress.

A Relax the muscles, ducking the head and lean upper body
forward.
B Stressors accumulate thus increasing the likelihood to
exhaustion. B Tightening of muscles, ducking the head and perform a kind
of pressure breathing.
C Stressors are independent from each other.
C Tighten shoulder harness.
D Stress should always be avoided under any circumstances.
D Take an upright seat position.
200) The ozone-layer is situated in the

195) Why does a deficiency in vitamin A cause night-
blindness?
A thermosphere
A Vitamin A deficiency interrupts the oxygen supply to the
B ionosphere photosensitive cells
C stratosphere B The transfer of light stimulus from the rods to a nerve

impulse depends on vitamin A
D troposphere
C Vitamin A is essential to the regeneration of visual purple
D Accomodation is destroyed
213) The requirement of good sunglasses is to
A eliminate distortion in aircraft windshields 194) If during flight a pilot is in a mental condition of
"optimum arousal" he/she will be:
B increase the time for dark adaptation
A in a confused mental state
C absorb enough visible light to eliminate glare without
decreasing visual acuity, absorb UV and IR radiation and B prepared best to cope with a difficult task
absorb all colors equally
D fit to the pilots individual taste

C unprepared to handle a difficult situation
D approaching a condition of complacency or fatigue
193) Concerning flying and blood alcohol content the 201) Incapacitation caused by barotrauma from gaseous
following statement is correct: expansion after decompression at high altitude may be
associated with the following part(s) of the body:
A flying with up to 0.08 % blood alcohol is safe, since driving is 1 the digestive tract
safe up to this limit 2 the ears
3 the eyes
B no flying under the influence of alcohol 4 the sinuses
C flying with up to 0.05 % blood alcohol A 1
D flying with up to 0.15 % blood alcohol B 1,2,3
C 2,3,4
192) Which of the following statements are correct ?
1 Hypothermia affects physical and mental abilities. D 2,4
2 Man has effective natural protection against intense
cold.
3 Shivering makes it possible to combat the cold to a 223) The "gestalt laws "formulates :
certain
extent, but uses up a lot of energy
4 Disorders associated with hypothermia appear at a A basic principles governing how objects are mentally
body organized and perceived
temperature of less than 35°C
B basic principles governing the relationship between stress
A 2,4 and performance
B 2,3,4 C basic principles governing the effects of habit and experience
C 1,3,4 D basic principles regarding to the relationship between

motivation and performance
D 1,2,3
234) The process of responding to a sender by confirming

the reception of a message is called
191) Coriolis illusion, causing spatial disorientation is the
result of: A feedback
A undergoing positive G B redundancy
B gazing in the direction of a flashing light

C synchronization
C normal deterioration of the semicircular canals with age D transference
D simultaneous head movements during aircraft manoeuvres
233) What are the main effects of a lack of sleep loss on

performance ?
376) When a pilot is facing a problem during flight he should
A It causes muscular spasms
A make up his mind before consulting other crew members
B It reduces concentration and fatigue only with sleep loss
greater than 48 hours
B take as much time as he needs and is available to make up
his mind
C It increases fatigue, concentration and attention difficulties,
the risk of sensory illusions and mood disorders
C always make up his mind quickly to give himself as much
spare time as possible D It increases fatigue and concentration difficulties, but
facilitates stress management by muscular relaxation,
D avoid making up his mind until the very last minute
232) Hypoxia will effect night vision
A and causes hyperventilation
B at 5000 FT
C less than day vision
D and causes the autokinetic phenomena
231) Which of the following symptoms can mark a beginning 227) The planning and anticipation of future actions and
hyperventilation? situations makes it possible to:
-1 : create a precise reference framework.
A Slow heart beat -2 : avoid saturation of the cognitive system.
-3 : automate planned actions.
B Slow rate of breathing -4 : activate knowledge which is considered necessary
for the
period to come.
C Cyanosis (blueing of lips and finger nails)
The correct statement(s) is (are):
D Dizzy feeling
230) Stress is a reaction to adapt a specific situation. B 1, 2 and 4 are correct

This reaction
A can only be controlled by medical treatment
B is purely physiological and automatic
C may include various psychological and physiological

226) The consumption of medicines or other substances may
elements which one can learn to manage
have consequences on qualification to fly for the
following reasons:
D is always linked to excessive fear
1. The desease requiring a treatment may be cause for
disqualification.
2. Flight conditions may modify the reactions of the
229) 1. In case of conflicting information you can always trust body to a
your treatment.
Seat- of-the-Pants-Sense. 3. Drugs may cause adverse side effects impairing flight
2. In case of conflicting information between the sensory safety.
organs 4. The effects of medicine do not necessarily
and the instruments you must believe the instruments. immediately
disappear when the treatment is stopped.
A 1 and 2 are false
A Only 2 is false.
B 1 is false, 2 is correct
B 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
C 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
D 1 is correct, 2 is false
D 3 and 4 are false, 1 and 2 are correct.
228) The body loses water via:

1. the skin and the lungs 211) You can survive at any altitude, provided that
2. the kidneys
A 1 is correct and 2 is not correct

A 21% oxygen is available in the air you breath in
B 1 is not correct and 2 is correct

B pressure respiration is guaranteed for that altitude
C both are false C the temperature in the cabin does not drop below 10" C

D enough oxygen, pressure and heat is available
224) A pressurized cabin helps to prevent:

1. decompression sickness
2 .the problem of expansion of gases in the intestines
3. hypoxia
4. coronary desease
A 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
B 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
C 1, 3 and 4 are correct.
D 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
212) What characterises the notion of role ? 219) One of the waste products of the metabolic process in
the cell is :
A The hierarchical position of the function and the associated A sugar

behaviour
B The function and behaviour associated with the particular B fat

role
C water
C Only the functions associated with role
D protein
D The characteristic behaviour associated with the description
of the various roles of a particular status
218) The most dangerous characteristic of the false mental
model is, that it
222) An non-synergetic cockpit :
A is frequently extremely resistant to correction
A is not very dangerous as each person checks everything
personally B will mainly occur under conditions of relaxation
B is characterised by withdrawn crewmembers and unclear C will only occur under conditions of stress
communication
D can easily be changed
C is characterised by a highly efficient crew, communicating
appropriately with the outside
D always results from an over-relaxed atmosphere 217) Which of the following are primary sources of
motivation in day-to-day professional life ?
1. Beeing in control of one's own situation
2. Fear of punishment
221) In civil air transport, linear accelerations (Gx): 3. Success (achievement of goals)
- 1 : do not exist 4. Social promotion, money
- 2 : have slight physiological consequences
- 3 : may, in the case of pull-out, lead to loss of A 3,4
consciousness
- 4 : cause sensory illusions on the pitch axis
B 2,4
A 2,4
C 1,2,3,4
B 1
D 1,2,3
C 3,4
D 3 216) Which of the following statements concerning stress is

correct?
A Stress will be evaluated differently depending on whether it

220) When consciously breathing fast or hyperventilating improves or reduces performance.
due to high arousal or overstress, the carbon dioxide
level in the blood is lowered, resulting in: B Stress always creates a state of high tension which
decreases cognitive and behavioural performance.
A a delay in the onset of hypoxia when flying at high altitudes
C Stress is evaluated as a positiv mechanism only in
B the activation of the respiratory centre, which in turn causes connection with precise tasks of the kind encountered in
hypoxia aeronautics
C less oxygen to be diffused into the cells D Stress is a necessary way of demonstrating one's own work.
D a poor saturation of oxygen in the blood

215) What is meant by the term 'complacency'?
A Physiological consequences on pilots because of fear of

flying
B Careless negligence or unjustified self-confidence
C To question possible solutions
D An agreement between captain and co-pilot due to Crew

Resources Management
214) What are the most frequent and the least appropriate 351) If you approach an airfield VFR at a prescribed altitude,
reactions on the part of a co-pilot when faced with a exactly following the approach procedure, and you
highly authoritarian captain ? encounter no inexpected or new problems you show:
1. Self-assertion
2. A scapegoat feeling A knowledge based behaviour
3. Delayed reactions to observed discrepancies
4. Disengagement B rule based behaviour
A 3,4
C rule and skill based behaviour
B 1,3,4
D skill based behaviour
C 2,3,4
D 1,2 350) To facilitate and reduce the time taken to access

information in long-term memory, it is helpful to:
A structure irrelevant information as much as possible before

283) The risk of getting a spatial disorientation is growing, committing it to memory
when
B avoid to rehearse information which we know we will need
A there is contradictory information between the instruments soon
and the vestibular organs
C mentally rehearse information before it is needed
B the pilot is buckled too tight to his seat and cannot sense the
attitude changes of the aircraft by his Seat-of-the-Pants- D learn and store data in a logical and structured way
Sense
C the pilot is performing an effective instrument cross-check

and is ignoring illusions 349) In order to minimize the effects of crossing more than 3-
4 time zones with a layover more than 24 hrs, it is
D informations from the vestibular organ in the inner ear are advisable to :
ignored 1. Adapt as quickly as possible to the rhythm of the
arrival country
2. Keep in swing with the rhythm of the departure
country for as long as possible
225) Breathing 100% will lift the pilot's physiological safe
3. Maintain regular living patterns (waking ,sleeping
altitude to approximately:
alternation and regular meal pattern )
4. Try to sleep as much as possible to overcome
A 45 000 ft
negative arousal effects
B 38 000 ft A 2,3
C 10 000 B 1,3
D 22 000 ft C 2,4
D 1,4
340) The "Seat-of-the-Pants-Sense"
A is a natural human instinct which will always indicate the 348) A study by NASA has examined the relationships
correct body position in space between incidents linked with ground-to-crew
communication. Which of the following factors is the
B can be used, if trained, to avoid disorientation in space main reason for disturbances in the correct reception of
a message?
C can be used as a reference for determining attitude when
A Listening errors.
operating in visual and instrument meteorological conditions
D can give false inputs to body orientation when visual B Errors in understanding clearance values.
reference is lost
C Radio failure.
D Mother tongue differing from working language.
347) Divided attention is the ability : 344) All pilots are going to suffer some hearing deterioration
1. to execute several mental activities at almost the as part of the process of growing old.
same time (i.e. when switching attention from outside The effects of aging
the aircraft
to the airspeed indicator on the instrument panel) A will not affect a pilot's hearing if he is wearing ear-plugs all
2. to monitor the progress of a motor programme (i.e. the time
flying or taxiing the airplane) on a relatively
subconscious level, B are to cut out the high tones first
while making a radio call at the same time (requiring a
rather C are to cut out the low tones first
conscious level)
3 .to select information and check if it is relevant to the
task in hand. At the same time no other operation can
D are to cut out all tones equally
be
performed.
4. to delegate tasks to the copilot while concentrating on 343) To optimise one's night-vision performance, it is
the procedures necessary :
- 1 : to spend some time getting adapted to low levels of
A 1 and 3 are correct, 2 and 4 are false illumination
- 2 : to increase the instrument panel lighting by
B Only 3 is false reducing the
cockpit lighting
- 3 : not to focus on the point to be observed
C 1 and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are false
- 4 : to avoid blinding
A 1,2,4
B 2,3,4
346) What are main signs indicating the loss of vigilance ?
1. Decrease in sensory perception C 2
2. Increase in selective attention
3. Sensation of muscular heaviness
4. Decrease in complacency
D 1,3,4
A 1,3
330) A stereotype and involuntary reaction of the organism
B 1,4 on stimulation of receptors is called:
C 2,3 A data processing
D 2,4 B control system
C change of stimulation level
345) Which of the following symptoms could a pilot get,

when he is subjected to hypoxia?
D reflex
1. Fatigue.
2. Euphoria.
3. Lack of concentration. 341) Dry air is a mixture of gases. Their volume percentage is
4. Pain in the joints. about:
5. Sensation of suffocation.
A 19% oxygen, 80% nitrogen, 1% other gases
B 25% oxygen, 74% nitrogen, 1% other gases
B 4 and 5 are correct
C 21% oxygen,78% nitrogen, 1% other gases
C 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
D 18% oxygen, 80% nitrogen, 2% other gases
D Only 5 is false
354) Which statement is correct? 335) Symptoms caused by gas bubbles in the lungs,
following a decompression are called:
A There is no relation between inadequate communication and A creeps

incidents or accidents.
B Inconsistent communication behaviour improves flight safety. B leans
C Problems in the personal relation between crew members C chokes

hardly hamper their communication process.
D bends
D Problems in the personal relation between crew members
very likely hamper their communication process.
334) Rising the perceptual threshold of a sensory organ
means:
339) Where is the "critical threshold" at which a pilot not
using oxygen reaches the critical or lethal zone? A a greater sensitivity
It starts at:
B a greater selectivity
A 18000 FT
B It25000 FT
C a lesser selectivity
D a lesser sensitivity
C It38000 FT
D 22000 FT.
333) What impression do you have when outside references
are fading away (e.g. fog, darkness, snow and vapor)?
338) The area in front of a threshold descends towards the A Objects seem to be much bigger than in reality
threshold.
Possible danger is: B There is no difference compared with flying on a clear and
sunny day
A approach is lower than normal and may result in a short
landing C It is difficult to determine the size and speed of objects
B to misjudge the length of the runway
D Objects seem to be closer than in reality
C approach is higher than normal and may result in a long

landing
332) A large number of medical preparations can be bought
D to drop far below the glide path without a doctor´s prescription. In relation to using
these preparations, which of the following is correct:
337) The atmosphere contains the following gases:

A They have no side effects which would give problems to a
pilot during flight
A 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 1% carbon monoxide, rest: rare B The side effects of these types of preparations are
gases sufficiently negligible as to be ignored by pilots
B 78% helium, 21% oxygen, 1% carbon monoxide, rest: rare C They will cause a condition of over-arousal
gases
D A pilot using any of these preparations should get
C 78% helium, 21% oxygen, 0,03% carbon dioxide, rest: rare professional advice from a flight surgeon if he intends to fly
gases and self-medicate at the same time
D 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 0,03% carbon dioxide, rest:

rare gases 281) A fatigued pilot
336) The part of blood without cell is called : A is acting similar as when encountering a state of depression
B will get precordial pain

A lymph
C considerably increases the ability to concentrate
B serum
D will show signs of increased irritability
C water
D plasm
342) Although the anticipation of possible events is a good 372) The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli is:
attitude for pilots to acquire, it can sometimes lead to
hazardous situations. With this statement in mind, select
the response below which could lead to such a hazard: A higher than the pressure of carbon dioxide in the blood
A anticipating that the weather may deteriorate B lower than the pressure of carbon dioxide in the atmospheric
air.
B anticipating that the flight will take longer time than planned
C lower than in the blood
C anticipating the sequence of items on a check list.
D almost the same as in the atmospheric air
D mishearing the contents of a reply from an air traffic
controller when a non-standard procedure was given but a
standard procedure was anticipated 371) During flight in IMC, the most reliable sense which
should be used to overcome illusions is the:
364) Starting a coordinated level turn can make the pilot A visual sense by looking outside
believe to
B visual sense, interpreting the attitude indicator
A climb
C "Seat-of-the-pants-Sense"
B descent
D vestibular sense
C turn into the opposite direction
D increase the rate of turn into the same direction 370) In decision-making, the selection of a solution depends :
1. on objective and subjective criteria
2. on the objective to be achieved
117) A pilot, trying to pick up a fallen object from the cockpit 3. on the risks associated with each solution
floor during a tight turn, experiences: 4. above all on the personality of the decision-maker
A pressure vertigo A 1,3
B coriolis illusion B 4
C autokinetic illusion C 1,2,3,4
D barotrauma D 1,2,4
374) During a climb, we can observe the following with 369) It is inadvisable to fly when suffering from a cold. The
regard to the partial oxygen pressure : reason for this is:
A an increase up to 10,000 ft followed by a sudden pressure A swollen tissue in the inner ear will prevent the air from
drop above that altitude ventilating through the tympanic membrane
B an increase which is inversely proportional to the decrease B swollen tissue in the Eustachian tube will cause permanent
in atmospheric pressure hearing loss
C an identical decrease to that for atmospheric pressure C pain and damage to the eardrum can result, particularly
during fast descents
D a decrease which is three times faster than the decrease in D gentle descents at high altitude can result in damage to the
atmospheric pressure ear drum
373) With regard to illusions due to perceptive conflicts, it

may be said that they:
A are caused by a conflictual disagreement concerning

attitudinal perception between the various members of a crew
B are mainly due to a sensory conflict concerning perception

of the vertical and the horizontal between the vestibular and
the visual system
C originate from a conflict between instrument readings and

external visual perceptions
D are caused by the absence of internal visual cues exclusively
368) What elements establish synergy within the crew ? 353) Between which components is an interface mismatch
causing an error of interpretation by using an old three-
point altimeter?
A Synergy establishes itself automatically within the crew, right
through from briefing to debriefing A Liveware - Hardware
B Synergy is independent of the natural individual
characteristics of the group members (communication, B Liveware - Software
mutual confidence, sharing of tasks, etc.)
C Liveware - Environment
C It is only the captain's status which allows the establishment
of synergy within the crew D Liveware - Liveware
D Synergy must be built up from the start of the mission

(briefing) and be maintained until it comes to an end
(debriefing) 363) Altitude-hypoxia, when breathing ambient air, should
not occur (indifferent phase)
367) Motor programmes are:

A between 3 000 m and 5 000 m
B between 5 000 m and 7 000 m

A rules that enable us to deal with novel situations
C below 3 000 m
B rules that enable us to deal with preconceived situations
D up to 5 000 m
C stored routines that enable patterns of behaviour to be
executed only under continuous conscious control
D stored routines that enable patterns of behaviour to be 362) The maximum number of unrelated items that can be
executed without continuous conscious control stored in working memory is:
A unlimited
352) Any prolonged exposure to noise in excess of 90 db can

end up in
B about 7 items
A a ruptured ear drum C very limited - only 3 items
B noise induced hearing loss D about 30 items
C conductive hearing loss

361) The so-called Coriolis effect (a conflict in information
D presbycusis (eefects of aging) processing in the brain) in spatial disorientation occurs:
A on stimulating several semicircular canals simultaneously
365) When the pressoreceptors signal a lowering of the

blood-pressure there are adaptation mechanisms which
B on stimulating the saccule and the utricle of the inner ear
result in:
1. an increase of respiratory activity C on stimulating the cochlea intensely
2. the arteriols to constrict
3. an increase of cardiac output D when no semicircular canal is stimulated
4. the heart rate to rise

360) You can overcome hyperventilation by breathing into a
plastic or paper bag. The intention is:
B 1,3 and 4 are correct, 2 is false
A to increase the amount of nitrogen in the lung
C 1,2 and 4 are correct, 3 is false
B to reduce blood pressure
C to raise the level of CO2 in the blood as fast as possible
D to prevent you from exhaling too much oxygen
359) Adaptation is 355) We can observe the following in relation to a state of
hypothermia :
A the adjustment of the eyes to high or low levels of A a rapid fall in ambient temperature
illumination
B the change of the diameter of the pupil B greater capacity for adaptation than in a hot atmosphere
C the reflection of the light at the cornea C reasoning problems as soon as body temperature falls
below 37°C
D the adjustment of the crystalline lens to focus light on the D a substantial increase in internal body temperature whereas
retina peripheral temperature at the skin is stable
358) The purpose of action plans which are implemented 329) The kinesthetic sense does not orient an individual to
during briefings is to: his surroundings, but informs him of
A activate a collective mental schema with respect to non- A the relative motion and relative position of his body parts
procedural actions to be carried out
B initiate procedures and reactions for situations that are most B a touch on the skin
likely, risky or difficult during the flight
C our surroundings
C define general planning of the flight plan
D the condition in the body itself
D allow everyone to prepare their own reactions in a difficult
situation
366) A system is all the more reliable if it offers good
detectability. The latter is the result of:
357) The effects of sleep deprivation on performance: -1 : tolerance of the various systems to errors.
1. increase with altitude -2 : the sum of the automatic monitoring, detection and
2. decrease with altitude warning facilities.
3. increase with higher workload -3 : the reliability of the Man-Man and Man-Machine links.
4. decrease with higher workload -4 : the alerting capability of the Man-Machine interface.
A 1 and 3 are correct The combination of correct statements is:
B 1,2 and 3 are correct A 1, 2 and 4
C 1, 3 and 4 are correct B 1 and 3
D 2, 3 and 4 are correct C 3 and 4
D 2 and 4
356) Perceptual conflicts between the vestibular and visual
systems are :
1 - classic and resistant when flying in IMC 293) Which of the following statements are correct with
2 - sensed via impressions of rotation regard to the design of a check list?
3 - sensed via distorted impressions of the attitude of -1 : The longer a check list, the more it must be
the aircraft subdivided into
4 - considerable during prolonged shallow turns under logical parts.
IMC -2 : The trickiest points must be placed in the middle of
the check
A 3,4 list.
-3 : Check lists must be designed in such a way that
B 1,2,3,4 they can be
lumped together with other tasks.
-4 : Whenever possible, a panel scan sequence should
C 2,3,4
be
applied
D 1,3 -5 : Critical points should have redundancies.
304) The team spirit of a cockpit-crew most likely depends on 300) In the pulmonary artery there is :
A both pilots wearing the same uniform A oxygen rich and carbon dioxide rich blood
B both pilots flying together very often for a long period B oxygen poor and carbon dioxide rich blood
C both pilots having the same political and ideological attitude C oxygen poor and carbon dioxide poor blood
D both pilots respecting each other and striving for the same D oxygen rich and carbon dioxide poor blond
goals
299) In order to make communication effective, it is

303) Once we have constructed a mental model we tend necessary to:
-1 : avoid the synchronization of verbal and non-verbal
channels.
A to give undue weight to information that contradicts the model
-2 : send information in line with the receiver's decoding
abilities.
B to give equal weight to contradicting and confirming -3 : always concentrate on the informational aspects of
information the
message only.
C to alter that model unnecessarily frequently -4 : avoid increasing the number of communication
channels, in
D to give undue weight to information that confirms the model order to simplify communication.

302) Decompression sickness can be prevented by:
1. avoiding cabin altitudes above 18 000 FT
2. maintaining cabin pressure below 8 000FT when flying
at high B 2 and 4 are correct
altitudes
3. performing physical exercises before and during the C only 2 is correct
flight
4. breathing 100 % oxygen for 30 min prior and during D 1,2 and 3 are correct
the flight
A only 3 is correct
298) Which flight-maneouvre will most likely induce vertigo?
Turning the head while
A climbing
B descending
D 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
C flying straight and level
301) In the initial phase of flight training the relationship D banking

between confidence and expertise can be described as:
A during this learning stage, the pilot is very near to achieving

full potential knowledge of the machine 297) When flying through a thunderstorm with lightning you
can protect yourself from flashblindness by:
B the pilot has a sphere of expertise wich is reduced to daily a) turning up the intensity of cockpit lights
use of his skills b) looking inside the cockpit
c) wearing sunglasses
C the pilot is competent enough to fly the aircraft at this stage, d) using face blinds or face curtains when installed
but does neither have a great deal of confidence in his/her
abilities nor in the whole system A a), b), c) and d) are correct
D the pilot is sufficiently competent to fly and knows at this B a), b) and c) are correct, d) is false
stage what he can and cannot do
C a) and b) are correct, c) and d) are false
D c) and d) are correct, a) and b) are false
296) As a cause of accidents, the human factor 291) When assessing an individuals risk in developing
coronary artery disease, the following factors may
contribute:
A has increased considerably since 1980 - the percentage of 1.obesity
accident in which this factor has been involved has more 2.distress
than tripled since this date 3.smoking
4.family history
B which is cited in current statistics, applies to the flight crew
and ATC only A 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
C plays a negligible role in commercial aviation accidents. It is
B 2 and 3 are correct, 1 and 4 are false
much more important in general aviation
D is cited in approximately 70 - 80 % of aviation accidents C Only 3 is correct, 1, 2 and 4 are false
D 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false

331) When the pilot suffers from hypothermia (loss of cabin
heating):
290) Oxygen in the blood is primarily transported by
A his need for oxygen will be increased as long as he stays
conscious
A attaching itself to the hemoglobin in the white blood cells
B his oxygen need will not be affected
B the hemoglobin in the red blood cells
C his oxygen need will be reduced giving him a better
tolerance to hypoxia at higher altitudes C the blood plasma
D his oxygen need will be raised and his tolerance to hypoxia D attaching itself to the hemoglobin in the red blood plasma
will be increased
289) The cabin pressure in airline operation is

294) To prevent vertigo in flight we should
A look towards the sides when we make a turn

A normally not exceeding 6 000 to 8 000 feet
B breath deeply but control the respiratory frequency

B normally not exceeding 2 000 to 3 000 feet
C keep breathing normally C normally not exceeding 4 000 to 5 000 feet
D not move the head suddenly while we are turning

D always equivalent to sea level
288) Hypoxia can be prevented when the pilot

307) "Tunnel vision" (loss of peripherical vision) can be
observed if a pilot is subjected to more than:
A is relying on the body's built in warning system recognizing
A + 3.5 Gz any stage of hypoxia
B - 3.5 Gz B is swallowing, yawing and applying the Valsalva method
C + 3.5 Gx C will not exceed 20 000 FT cabin pressure altitude
D - 3.5 Gy D is using additional oxygen when flying above 10.000 feet
292) When accelerating forward the otoliths in the 287) Pain in the joints caused by gas bubbles following a
utriculus/sacculus will decompression is called:
A give the illusion of banking A chokes
B give the illusion of straight and level flight B creeps
C give the illusion of descending (body tilting downwards, or C leans

forwards, nose of the airplane going down)
D bends
D give the illusion of climbing (body tilting backwards, nose of
the a/c going up)
286) Many pilots think up systems to deal with affairs so they 328) In case of in-flight stress, one should :
don't have to think up every time what they have to do.
A this has to be rejected for the company draws the rules and A demonstrate aggressiveness to stimulate the crew
the procedures they have to comply with
B always carry out a breathing exercise
B this has to be advised against for it reduces flexibility at a
moment a problem has to be solved by improvisation. C use all available resources of the crew
C this has to be posetively appreciated for it increases D only trust in oneself; beeing sure to know the own limits
consistency in action
D this is dangerous for every situation is different

327) Incapacitation is most dangerous when it is :
285) Judgement is based upon: A insinuating
A a decision making process involving physical sensations B obvious

and their transfer to manually operate the aircraft controls
C sudden
B the development of skills from constant practice of flight
manoeuvres D intense
C the ability to interpret the flight instruments
D a process involving a pilot´s attitude to take and to evaluate 326) Which of the following measures can reduce the chance
of a black-out during positive G-manoeuvres?
risks by assessing the situation and making decisions
based upon knowledge, skill and experience
A Breathing oxygen.
284) The level at which a pilot will experience a situation as

B Sit in upright position and keep relaxed.
stressful
C Hyperventilation.
A depends on the individual's perception of available abilities in
comparison to the situational demands D A tilt back seat.
B does not depend on his capacity to absorb information

325) Metacommunication is defined as
C depends on the level of demand but not on individual
interpretation of the situational demands
A active listening
D depends on self-confidence alone
B communicating about the communication
295) Noise induced hearing loss is influenced by C balancing the own ideas and interests with those of the
interlocutor
A the duration and intensity of a noise D having an assessment conversation
B the duration of a noise but not its intensity

324) The ability of detecting relevant information which is not
C the suddenness of onset of a noise presented in an actively monitored input channel is
known as
D the intensity of the noise but not its duration
A appreciation
317) What is the most decisive factor in regard to a very B attention

demanding stress situation?
C perception
A The time available to cope with the situation.
D sensation
B The objective threat of the situation.
C The unexpected outcome of the situation.
D The subjective evaluation of the situation by the individual.
323) The effectiveness of the individual depends on: 318) To maintain good situational awareness you should:
(1) believe only in your own interpretation of the data
(2) gather as much datas as possible from every
A the ability to balance the dictates of the individual's needs possible
and the demands of reality source before making inferences
(3) question whether your hypothesis still fits the
B the ability to repress the dictates of needs situation as
events progress and try to make time to review the
C the ability to go beyond one's own capabilities situation
(4) consider ways of testing your situational hypothesis
D the total independence with respect to the environment to see
whether it is correct

322) What are the main strategies for adapting to time
constraints ?
A The prioritisation of tasks and the application of procedures
B The preparation of action and the application of procedures
D all answers are correct
C The preparation of action and the prioritisation of tasks
D The preparation of action and time management 306) After SCUBA diving (more than 30 feet of depth) you
have to wait a period of time before flying again. This
period is at least:
321) Cognitive evaluation which leads to stress is based on: A 24 hours
A the capabilities of the individual and the solutions provided B 6 hours

by the environment
C 12 hours
B the evaluation of the situation and the evaluation of
capabilities to cope with it D 48 hours
C the evaluation of the situation and the the state of fatigue of

the individual
316) What is synergy in a crew ?
D the evaluation of the capabilities of the individual and the
time available
A The coordinated action of unrelated individual performances
in achieving a non-standard task
320) A pilot is used to land on small and narrow runways B The uncoordinated action of the crewmembers towards a
only. Approaching a larger and wider runway can lead to common objective
:
C The coordinated action of all members towards a common
A the risk to land short of the overrun objective, in which collective performance is proving to be
more than the sum of the individual performances
B an early or high "round out"
D A behavioural expedient associated with the
C a steeper than normal approach dropping low desynchronisation of the coordinated actions
D a flatter than normal approach with the risk of "ducking

under" 315) Noise induced hearing loss (NIHL) is caused by:
A a blocked Eustachian tube

305) What optimises crew co-operation ?
1. Sharing and common task
2. Confidence in each others capability
B pressure differences on both sides of the eardrum
3. Precise definition of functions associated with each
crew C reduced mobility of the ossicles
members role
D damage of the sensitive membrane in the cochlea due to
A 1,2 overexposure to noise
B 2,3
C 1,2,3
D 1
314) Alcohol metabolism (elimination rate) 309) After a rapid decompression at an altitude of 30.000 FT
the first action of the pilot shall be:
A is approx. 0.3% per hour A preventing panic of the passengers
B depends on wether you get some sleep in between drinks B maintaining aircraft control and preventing hypoxia (use of
oxygen mask)
C definitely depends on the amount and composition of food
which has been eaten C informing ATC
D is approx. 0.015% per hour and cannot be expedited D informing the cabin crew
313) Scanning at night should be performed by: 308) Decompression symptoms are caused by:
A scanning with one eye open A release of locked gases from joints
B concentrated fixation on an object (image must fall on the B dissolved gases from tissues and fluids of the body
fovea centralis)
C avoiding food containing Vitamin A C low carbon dioxide pressure of inhaled air
D slight eye movements to the side of the object D low oxygen pressure of inhaled air
312) Which of the following statements concerning check list 188) How should a pilot react, when suffering from chronic
is correct? stress?
A The most important items must be placed in the middle of A Attempt to reduce the stress by using a concept which
check list so that they come to be examined once attention is approaches the entire body and improves wellness.
focused but before concentration starts to wane
B Use moderate administration of tranquillizers before flight.
B All the items of a check list are equally important; their
sequence is of no importance C Ignore the particular stressors and increase your physical
exercises.
C The most important items should be placed at the beginning
of a check list since attention is usually focused here D Always consult a psychotherapist before the next flight.
D The most important items must be placed at the end of

check list, allowing them to be kept near at hand so that they
319) The assessment of risk in a particular situation will be
are quickly available for any supplementary check
based on
A situational factors only

311) The normal rate of breathing of an adult at rest is about:
B subjective perception and evalutation of situational factors
A 32 cycles per minute
C external factors only
B 72 cycles per minute
D the emergency checklist only
C 16 cycles per minute
D 4 cycles per minute 31) The main limit(s) of long-term memory is (are):
A the quantity of data which may be stored

310) Flying at pressure altitude of 10 000 ft, a pilot, being a
moderate to heavy smoker, has an oxygen content in B the instantaneous inputting in memory of all information
the blood equal to an altitude collected during the day, which comes to saturate it
A above 10 000 FT C the data storage time
B of 10 000 FT D Data retrieval as a result from a loss of access to the stored

information
C lower than 10 000 FT
D of 15000 FT when breathing 100% oxygen
42) If the copilot continuosly feels unfairly treated by the 37) The normal arterial blood-pressure of a healthy adult is
captain in an unjustified way, then he should (systolic/diastolic):
A internally retire and think positive A 220/180 mm Hg
B duly point out the problem, reconcentrate on his duties and B 120/80 mm Hg
clear the matter in a more appropriate occasion
C 80/20 mm Hg
C freeze the communication and thus avoid immediate
confrontation
D 180/120 mm Hg
D speak up and point at consequencies if unfair behaviour
persists
36) The readiness for tracing information which could
indicate the development of a critical situation
41) Which of the following elements make up the personality
of an individual ? A is dangerous, because it distracts attention from flying the
1. Heredity aircraft
2. Childhood environment
3. Upbringing B makes no sense because the human information processing
4. Past experience system is limited anyway
A 2,3 C is responsible for the development of inadequate mental

models
of the real world
B 2,3,4
D is necessary to maintain good situational awareness
C 1,2,3,4
D 1,2,4
35) Inertia in the direction head => feet will cause the blood-
pressure in the brain to:
40) The most probable reason for spatial disorientation is A decrease
A to rely on instruments when flying in and out of clouds

B remain constant
B to believe the attitude indicator C increase
C a poor instrument cross-check and permanently

D first increase, then decrease
transitioning back and forth between instruments and visual
references
34) Which symptom of hypoxia is the most dangerous for
D the lack of attention to the vertical speed indicator conducting safe flight ?
A Dizziness.
39) Spatial disorientation will be most likely to occur during
flight: B Lack of adaptation.
A if the brain receives conflicting informations and the pilot C Lack of accomodation.
does not believe the instruments
D The interference of reasoning and perceptive functions.
B when flying in and out of clouds and the pilot maintains
good instrument cross check
C when flying in light rain below the ceiling 21) Which of the following responses is an example of
"habit reversion" (negative habit transfer):
D when flying in bright sunlight above a cloud layer
A habitually missing an item on the checklist or missing the
second item when two items are on the same line
38) What are the advantages of coordination? B A pilot who has flown many hours in an aircraft in which the
fuel lever points forward for the ON position, may
unintentionally turn the fuel lever into the false position,
A Cooperation, cognition, redundancy.
when flying a different aircraft, where the fuel lever has to
point aft to be in the ON position
B Interaction, cognition, redundancy.
C Turning and aircraft to the left when intending to turn it to the
C Redundancy, exploration, risky shift. right
D Redundancy, synergy, clarification of responsibility. D Incorrect anticipation of an air traffic controller´s instructions
32) Experiencing stress depends on: 27) The duration of a period of sleep is governed primarily
by
A the individual interpretation of the situation A the number of points you have in your 'credit/deficit' system
B the fragility of individuals to certain types of stimulation B the point within your circadian rhythm at which you try to
sleep
C the individual's state of tiredness
C the duration of your previous sleep
D the environment of the situation which the individual will live
through or is in the process of living through D the amount of time you have been awake
45) Which of the following operations are performed more 26) To reduce the risk of coronary artery disease, exercise
effectively by people than by automatic systems ? should be
1. Qualitative decision-making
2. Waiting for an infrequent phenomenon
3. Monitoring to ensure that certain values are not
A triple the resting heart rate for 20 minutes, once a week
exceeded
4. Detections of unusual conditions (smell, noise, etc.) B double the resting heart rate for at least 20 minutes, three
times a week
A 2,3,4
C avoided since raising the heart rate shortens the life of the
heart
B 1,4
D double the resting heart rate for at least an hour, five times a
C 1,2 week
D 3,4
25) The capacity of the short-term memory is
30) The primary factor to control the rate and depth of A very limited - only one item
breathing is the:
A pressure of carbon dioxide in the blood

B about 30 items
B partial pressure of nitrogen

C unlimited
D about 7 items
C partial pressure of oxygen in the blood
D total air pressure in the blood

24) Decompression sickness occurs in association with
exposure to reduced atmospheric pressure.
The evolution of bubbles of nitrogen coming out of
29) A pilot who is hyperventilating for a prolonged period of solution in body tissues can be derived from:
time may even get unconscious.
Hyperventilation is likely to occur, when: A Boyle Mariotte´s law
A there is a low CO-pressure in the blood

B Dalton´s law
B he is flying a tight turn

C Gay Lussac´s law
C there is an increased blood flow to the brain

D Henry´s law
D the pilot is emotionally aroused
23) A slight lack of coordination which can make it difficult

to carry out delicate and precise movements occurs
28) When focussing on near objects: when the level of alcohol in the blood is exceeding
A the pupil gets larger A 0.2 % blood alcohol
B the shape of lens gets more spherical

B 0.05 % blood alcohol
C the shape of lens gets flatter C 0.1 % blood alcohol
D the cornea gets smaller

D 0.15 % blood alcohol
67) A pilot will get hypoxia 64) The percentage of oxygen in the air at an altitude of
approximately
34 000 ft is :
A after decompression at high altitude and not taking additional
oxygen in time A 10,5%
B after decompression to 30 000 feet and taking 100 %
oxygen via an oxygen mask B 42%
C if his rate of climb exceeds 5 000 ft/min C 21%
D if he is flying an unpressurized airplane at an altitude of 15 D 5%

000 feet and breathing 100 % oxygen
63) What misjudgement may occur if an airplane is flying

33) Mental training, mental rehearsal of cognitive into fog, snow or haze?
pretraining is called the inner, ideomotor simulation of
actions. A Objects seem to be farther away than in reality
A It is most effective, if it is practiced on an abstract level if B Objects will appear closer than they really are
imagination
B It is more effective than training by doing C Objects will appear bigger in size than in reality
C It is most important for the acquisition of complex perceptual D Objects seem to move slower than in reality
motor skills
D It is most important for selfcontrol 62) 1. Psychosomatic means that a physiological problem is
followed
by psychological stress.
55) In order to get rid of excess nitrogen following scuba 2. Psychosomatic complaints hardly occur in
diving, subsequent flights should be delayed professional
aviation because of the strict selection for this
particular
A 48 hours after a continuous ascent in the water has been
profession .
made
B 24 hours A 1 and 2 are both correct
C 3 hours after non decompression diving B 1 is correct 2 is not correct
D 36 hours after any scuba diving C 1 is not correct 2 is correct
D 1 and 2 are both not correct
190) Disturbances of pressure equalization in air-filled

cavities of the head (nose, ear etc.) are called:
61) When accelerating in level flight we could experience
A hyperventilation the sensation of a
B barotrauma A climb
C ebulism B descent
D hypoxia C turn
D spin
65) Carbon monoxide, a product of incomplete combustion,

is toxic because
A it prevents the absorption of food from the digestive tract
B it prevents the excretion of catabolites in the kidneys
C it disturbs gaseous diffusion at the alveoli capillary

membrane
D it competes with oxygen in its union with haemoglobin
60) Our body takes its energy from : 44) During the preparational work in the cockpit the captain
1: minerals notices that his copilot on the one hand is rather
2: protein unexperienced and insecure but on the other hand
3: carbonhydrates highly motivated. Which kind of leadership behaviour
4: vitamines most likely is inappropriate?
A 1,3 A The captain flies the first leg by himself and explains each
action to the copilot in order to keep him informed about his
B 2,3 decisions
B The captain lets the copilot fly and gives him detailled
C 1,2,3,4
instructions what to do
D 1,4 C The captain lets the copilot fly and encourages him frankly to
ask for any support that needed
59) Pain in the Joints ("bends"), which suddenly appear D The captain lets the copilot fly and observes his behaviour
during a flight , are symptoms of without any comments
A hypoxia
54) Doing a general briefing in the preflight phase the
B decompression sickness captain should emphasize
C barotrauma
A to depart on schedule
D air-sickness
B to avoid inadequate handling of flight controls
C particular requirements in the field of crew coordination due

to specific circumstances
58) The ability of the lens to change its shape is called:
D complete delegation of all duties
A binocular vision
B depth perception 53) Fatigue and permanent concentration
C adaptation A do not affect hypoxia at all
D accomodation B will increase the tolerance to hypoxia when flying below 15

000 feet
43) Discussing private matters in the cockpit C lower the tolerance to hypoxia
D increase the tolerance to hypoxia

A can improve team spirit
B should be avoided by all means in the cockpit

52) In the following list you find some symptoms for
hypoxia and carbon monoxide poisoning.
C is appropriate in any phase of flight Please mark those indicating hypoxia:
D decreases the captains role of leadership A Dull headache and bends.
B Dizziness, hypothermia.
56) Which of the following statements about hyperthermia is
correct ? C Visual disturbances, lack of concentration, euphoria.
A Performance is not impaired by an increase in body D Nausea and barotitis.

temperature to 40°C or more.
B Complete adaption to the heat in a hot country takes about a

fortnight.
C Vasodilation is the only regulant which is capable of

reducing body temperature.
D Evaporation is more effective when ambient humidity is high.
51) The time between inadequate oxygen supply and 46) You should not despense blood without prior
incapacitation is called TUC (Time of Useful information from your flight surgeon. The most
Consciousness). It important reason for this advise is:
A varies individually and depends on cabin pressure altitude A your blood-pressure is too low after blood-donation
B is the same amount of time for every person B your heart frequency is too low after blood-donation
C is not dependent on physical or psychological pressure C you are more susceptible to hypoxia after a blood-donation.
D varies individually and does not depend on altitude D the chance you get the bends is higher after blood-donation
50) Concerning the effects of drugs and pilot´s performance 20) Which of the following symptoms can indicate the
beginning of hypoxia?
1. Blue lips and finger nails.
A the primary and the side effects have to be considered 2. Euphoria.
3. Flatulence.
B the side effects only have to be considered 4 .Unconsciousness..
C medication has no influence on pilot´s performance A 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
D only the primary effect has to be considered; side effects B 1, 3 and 4 are correct.
are negligable
C 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
49) The retina of the eye D 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
A is the light-sensitive inner lining of the eye containing the

photoreceptors essential for vision 57) The heart muscle is supplied with blood from:
B filters the UV-light

A the coronary arteries
C is the muscle, changing the size of the crystalline lens
B the auricles
D only regulates the light that falls into the eye
C ventricles
D the pulmonary veins

48) If you are disorientated during night flying you must:
A relay on instruments 127) Conductive hearing loss can be caused by:

1. damage to the ossicles in the middle ear caused by
B look outside infection or trauma
2. a damage of the auditory nerve
C descend 3. an obstruction in the auditory duct
4. a ruptured tympanic membrane
D check your rate of breathing - do not breathe too fast
B 1,3 and 4 are correct, 2 is false

47) At a high altitude flight (no cabin pressure system
available), a pilot gets severe flatulence due to trapped
gases. The correct counter-measure is:
C 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
A perform "valsalva maneouvre"

B use supplemental oxygen

138) Excessive exposure to noise damages:
C descend to lower altitude
A the sensitive membrane in the cochlea
D climb to a higher altitude
B the semi circular canals
C the ossicles
D the eardrum
137) A pilot approaching an upslope runway 133) Which of the following statements about long-term
memory are correct?
-1: Information is stored there in the form of descriptive,
A may feel that he is higher than actual. This illusion may rule-based
cause him to land short. and schematic knowledge.
-2: The period of time for which information is retained
B is performing a steeper than normal approach, landing long is limited by
the frequency with which this same information is
C establishes a higher than normal approach speed used.
-3: It processes information quickly and has an effective
D establishes a slower than normal approach speed with the mode of
risk of stalling out access in real time.
-4: Pre-activation of necessary knowledge will allow for
a reduction
in access time.
136) What is "divided attention"?
A Ease of concentrating on a particular objective
B Difficulty of concentrating on a particular objective
C The adverse effect of motivation which leads to one's
attention being dispersed D 2 and 4 are correct
D Alternative management of several matters of interest
132) Drugs against allergies (antihistamines), when taken by

an aviator can cause the following undesirable effects:
135) What counter-measure can be used against a 1. Drowsiness, dizziness
barotrauma of the middle ear (aerotitis)? 2. Dry mouth
3. Headaches
A Close the mouth, pinch the nose tight and blow out thereby 4. Impaired depth perception
increasing the pressure in the mouth and throat. At the 5. Nausea
same time try to swallow or move lower jaw (Valsalva)
B Increase rate of descent
B only 1 is correct
C Stop climbing, start descent
C 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 are correct
D Pilots should apply anti-cold remedies prior every flight to
prevent barotrauma in the middle ear D only 3, 4 and 5 are correct
134) What are the most frequent results of an self-centred

captain on the flight deck ? 131) The semicircular canals detect
A Performance is very poor as self-centred behaviour leads to A linear accelerations

an increase of cooperation and efficiency
B In a two-pilot flight deck, the co-pilot is ignored and may

B changes in arterial pressure
react by disengaging, showing delayed responses or
demonstrate the scapegoat effect C angular accelerations
C High group performance despite the strained relations D sound waves
D A major risk of authority inversion if the co-pilot is inassertive

130) Hypoxia effects visual performance.
A pilot may:
A get colour blindness accompanied by severe headache
B get blurred and/or tunnel vision
C have a reduction of 25% in visual acuity at 8000 FT AGL
D be unable to maintain piercing vision below 5000 FT AGL
22) What is the effect of tiredness on attention ? 125) Decision-making can be influenced by the following
factors:
1. people tend to conform to opinions expressed by a
A It has no specific effects on attention majority
within the group they belong to
B It reduces the ability to manage multiple matters 2. people always tend to keep the future decisions in line
with
C It increases the ability to manage multiple matters those their superiors have made in the past
3. people more easily tend to select data which meet the
D It leads to one's attention being dispersed between different expectations
centres of interest 4. people hardly base decisions on their personal
preferences but
rather on rational information
128) According to the I.C.A.O. standard atmosphere, the A 2,3

temperature lapse rate of the troposphere is
approximately
B 1,4
A constant in the troposphere
C 2,4
B - 2 °C every 1000 feet
D 1,3
C 10 °C every 100 feet
D 2 °C every 1000 metres 124) Success in achieving the objectives of a message

requires:
A differences in contexts for the sender and the receiver

141) The blood-pressure depends on:
1. the work of the heart
2. the peripheral resistance
B a form of the message, which should not match the
expectation of the receiver
3. the elasticity of the arterial walls
4. the bloode volume and viscosity
C different codes between form and meaning
D the matching of verbal, non-verbal and contextual meanings
B 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
C 1,2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false 123) A pilot who smokes will loose some of his capacity to
transport oxygen combined with hemoglobin.
D 1,3 and 4 are correct, 2 is false Which percentage of his total oxygen transportation
capacity would he give away when he smokes one pack
of cigarettes a day?
126) Mental schemes correspond to: A 12 - 18%
A the memorisation of regulatory procedures associated with a

B 20 - 25%
particular situation
C 5 - 8%
B memorised procedures which develop and change rapidly
during change-over to a new machine D 0.5 - 2%
C daily planning of probable dangerous situations

122) The readjustment of the biological rhythms after a time
D memorised representations of the various procedures and
shift is normally more difficult
situations which can be reactivated by the pilot at will
A with flights towards the West
B with flights towards the North
C with flights towards the South
D with flights towards the East
121) Which part of the inner ear is responsible for the 129) Although we have a field of vision of more than 180° it is
perception of noise? important during flight to use the scan ning technique,
because
A The semicircular canals
A only in the peripheral area of the retina resolution is good
B The sacculus and utriculus enough to see an object clearly
B the reduction in the field of vision with decreasing altitude is

C The eustachian tube
due to a lack of vitamin A
D The cochlea C only in the foveal area resolution is good enough to see an
object clearly
120) The vestibular system is composed of

D it is tiring to look continually in the same direction
-1: two ventricles
-2 : a saccule
-3 : an utricle 8) The relevance of check procedures during flight
-4 : three semicircular channels becomes even more important when:
A 1,4 A conducting a longer flight than you would normally perform
B 2,3 B flying an aircraft which you have flown many times before
C 1,3,4 C flying an unfamiliar type of aircraft and experiencing mental

pressure
D 2,3,4
D flying an aircraft which you have flown recently
119) Which of the following components belong to the middle

ear? 19) After a rapid decompression at 35 000 feet, the time of
useful consciousness is about:
A Semicircular canals
A 10 minutes.
B Ossicles
B 30 to 60 seconds
C Otoliths
C 15 seconds or less
D Endolymph
D 5 minutes.
118) Vitamin A and possibly vitamins B and C are chemical

factors and essential to good night vision: 18) "Pilot's vertigo"
1. Vitamin deficiencies may decrease night vision
performance
2. An excess intake of vitamin A will improve night vision A is the condition of dizziness and/or tumbling sensation
performance significantly caused by contradictory impulses to the central nervous
3. Pilots should be carefully concerned to take a balaced system (CNS)
diet
containing sufficient vitamin A B is the sensation to keep a rotation after completing a turn
4. Vitamin deficiencies may decrease visual acuity in
photopic C is the sensation of climbing caused by a strong linear
vision but not in scotopic vision acceleration
A Only 4 is false D announces the beginning of airsickness
B 1 and 3 are false, 2 and 4 are correct
D 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
17) What do you do, when you are affected by "pilot`s 12) The quality of learning :
vertigo"?
1. Establish and maintain an effective instrument cross-
check. A is independent of age
2. Believe the instruments.
3. Ignore illusions. B is promoted by feedback on the value of one's own
4. Minimize head movements. performance
A 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct C depends on long-term memory capacity
B 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false D is independent of the level of motivation

11) Information stays in the short-term memory
D Only 4 is false
A around 24 hours
16) Healthy people are usually capable to compensate for a B about 20 seconds
lack of oxygen up to
A 20.000 feet
C less than 1 second
B 25.000 feet
D from 5 to 10 minutes
C 10.000 - 12.000feet
139) Which of the following behaviours is most disruptive to
D 15.000 feet teamwork under high workload conditions in the
cockpit?
A Mentally absent.
15) Hypoxia can occur because:
B Sensitive.
A you inhale too much nitrogen
C Disciplined.
B the percentage of oxygen is lower at altitude
D Jovial.
C you are hyperventilating
D you are getting toomuch solar radiation 9) Illusions of interpretation (cognitive illusions) are :
A due mainly to a conflict between the various sensory systems

14) When stopping the rotation of a spin we have the
sensation B due mainly to a poor interpretation of instrumental data
A of turning in the same direction

C solely induced in the absence of external reference points
B of the sharp dipping of the nose of the aircraft
D associated with the task of mental construction of the
environment
C of the immediate stabilization of the aircraft
D that we are starting a spin into the opposite direction

140) Flickering light when reflected from spinning rotor
blades
13) How is haze effecting your perception? A can be neglected
B can be avoided when the strobe-lights are switched on

A Objects seem to be further away than in reality.
B Objects will give better contrast.

C should be avoided, because it may destroy the optical nerve
D can cause spatial disorientation and/or nausea, when looked

C Haze makes the eyes to focus at infinity at for a longer period of time
D Objects seem to be closer than in reality.
7) Being pressed into the seat can cause illusions and/or 2) You are crossing the Alps in a non-pressurised aircraft
false reactions in a pilot lacking visual contact to the at an altitude of 15.000 feet. You do not use the oxygen
ground, because this sensation mask because you feel fine. This is unsafe, because:
A will not stimulate the "seat-of-the-pants" sense A your judgement could be impaired
B corresponds with the sensation a pilot gets when starting a B the blood-pressure can get too high
climb or performing a level turn
C the blood-pressure can get too low
C corresponds with the sensation a pilots gets, when flying
straight and level or starting a descent
D you will get the bends
D makes the pilot to pull up the nose to compensate for level
flight
1) Which is the procedure to be followed when symptoms
of decompression sickness occur?
6) Stress is a response which is prompted by the
occurence of various stressors. Of these, which can be A Only medical treatment is of use
called physiological ?
B Only the prompt supply of oxygen is necessary
A Temperature, hunger, thirst, divorce
C Descend to the lowest possible level and land as soon as
B Noise, temperature (low or high), humidity, sleep deprivation possible
C Noise, hunger, conflicts, a death D Descend to the lowest possible level and wait for the
symptoms to disappear before climbing again
D Heat, humidity, fatique, administrative problems
143) In order to overcome an overload of work during the

flight, it is necessary to:
5) Safety is often improved by applying the principles of -1 : know how to use one's own reserve of resources in
CRM, e.g.: order to
ease the burden on the crew.
A abstention from any suggestion which might be untimely -2 : divide up tasks among the crew.
-3 : abandon automatic mode and instead process as
B the avoidance of any conflict in order to preserve the crew's much
synergy information as possible consciously.
-4 : drop certain tasks and stick to high-level priorities.
C expression of one's doubts or different opinion for as long as
this doubt can not be rejected on the base of evidence The correct statement(s) is (are):
D unquestioned obedience to all the Captain's decisions A 3 and 4 are correct

4) Improvement of human reliability should entail:
A in aviation, the elimination of errors on the part of front-line D 1, 2 and 3 are correct
operators
B the elimination of latent errors before they can effect

performance 142) Which of the following applies to carbon monoxide
poisoning?
C the analysis of modes of human failures
A A very early symptom for realising carbon monoxide
D an effort to understand the causes and find means of poisoning is euphoria.
recovery for errors committed
B The human body shows no sign of carbon monoxide
poisoning.
3) Following a rapid decompression at 30.000 feet, the time
of useful consciousness would be about: C Inhaling carbon monoxide leads to hyperventilation.
A 5 to 10 minutes D Several days are needed to recuperate from a carbon

monoxide poisoning.
B 10 to 12 minutes
C 1 to 2 minutes
D 3 to 5 minutes
68) Which measure(s) will help to compensate hypoxia? 161) Learning to fly naturally induces stress in a student pilot
1. Descend below 10 000 FT. because he is lacking experience. Manifestations of this
2. Breathe 100 % oxygen. type of stress are:
3. Climb to or above 10 000 FT. 1. nervousness and chanellized attention
4. Reduce physical activities. 2. being rough at the controls
3. smoke and drink much more alcohol than usual
A 1 and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are false 4. airsickness, lack of sleep
B 1, 2 and 4 are correct A 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
C 1, 2 and 3 are correct B 1, 2 and 4 are correct, 3 is false
D only 1 is correct C 1 and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are false
D 1 and 2 are false, 3 and 4 are correct,

10) What is characterized by a "laissez-faire" cockpit ?
160) One of the most dangerous symptoms of hypoxia

A The high level of independence granted to each member by concerning flight safety is:
the captain quickly leads to tension between the various
crew members A reduced coordination of limb movements, causing the pilot
to spin
B A passive approach by the captain allows decisions,
choices and actions by other crew members B cyanosis, reducing then pilots ability to hear
C Each member carries out actions and makes choices

without explicity informing the other members about them C hyperventilation, causing emotional stress
D The captain's authority rules all the actions or decisions D impaired judgement, disabling the pilot to recognize the
associated with the situation symptoms
152) How can spatial disorientation in IMC be avoided? By 159) Visual disturbances can be caused by:
1. hyperventilation
2. hypoxia
A maintaining a good instrument cross check. 3. hypertension
4. fatigue
B believing your body senses only.
A 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
C moving the head into the direction of the resultant vertical.
D looking outside whenever possible ignoring the attitude
indicator. C 2, 3 and 4 are correct

163) Pain in the middle ear during descent may be eased by:
A blocking the effected ear with the palm of your hand 158) Which combination of elements guarantee the
understanding of a message without adding new
information to it?
B increasing the rate of descent
A Synchronization.
C using an oxygen mask
B Encoding.
D leveling off and possibly climbing
C Feedback.
162) If man is compared with a computer, it can be said that D Coding.

man :
A has more effective means of action (output) and is above all

capable of considerable synergy
B has less effective means of action (output) than the

computer
C has less effective means of data collection than the computer
D is relatively limited compared with a computer, that means of

data collection or means of action are referred to
157) The fovea 166) What distinguishes status from role ?
A is an area in which rods predominate A While role defines- via behaviour- the functions that must be
performed by individuals, status defines the enjoyment of a
B is the area responsible for night vision hierarchical position and its recognition by the group
C is an area in which cones predominate

B While role defines the enjoyment of a hierarchical position
and its recognition by the group, status defines - via
behaviour- the functions that must be performed by
D is sensitive to very low intensities of light individuals
C Unlike status, role is fixed and is not modified either by the

156) Sunglasses with variable filtration (phototrope glasses) situation in flight or by the interactions of a new crew
D Unlike status, role is fixed and is modified either by the

A are generally forbidden for pilots situation in flight or by the interactions of a new crew
B are ideal, as long as there are no polarisation effects

151) What should a pilot do to keep his night vision (scotopic
C are advantageous for pilots vision)?
D can have disadvantages when used in the cockpit due to A Select meals with high contents of vitamin B and C
their dependence on ultraviolet light which is screened by
the cockpit glass B Not smoke before start and during flight and avoid flash-
blindness
155) The physiological effects of accelerations to the human

C Avoid food containing high amounts of vitamin A
body depend on:
1. the duration of the G-forces D Wait at least 60 minutes to night-adapt before he takes off
2. the onset rate of the G-forces
3. the magnitude of the G-forces
4. the direction of the G-forces. 150) A pilot approaching a runway which is narrower than
normal may feel he is at a greater height than he actually
A 1,2,3 are correct, 4 is false is. To compensate he may fly a
B 2,3 and 4 are correct, 1 is false A higher than normal approach with the tendency to overshoot
C 1and 4 are correct, 3 is false B flatter than normal approach with the tendency to undershoot
D 1,2,3 and 4 are correct C compensatory glide path and land long
D compensatory glide path and stall out

115) The "Effective Performance Time" or "Time of Useful
Consciousness" after a decompression at 35 000 ft is:
149) What means can be used to combat human error?
A between 30 and 60 seconds -1 : Reducing error-prone mechanisms.
-2 : Improving the way in which error is taken into
B approximately 3 minutes account in training.
-3 : Sanctions against the initiators of error.
C approximately 5 minutes -4 : Improving recovery from errors and its
consequences.
D less than 20 seconds
A 1 and 2
153) Working memory enables us, for example,
B 2, 3 and 4
A to remember our own name
C 1, 2 and 4
B to remember a clearance long enough to write it down
D 3 and 4
C to store a large amount of visual information for about 0.5
seconds
D to ignore messages for other aircraft
148) What happens in problem-solving when the application 66) The individual's perception of stress depends on:
of a rule allows for the situation to be resolved ?
A A switch is made to knowledge mode in order to refine the A the conditions of the current situation only
results
B the subjectiv evaluation of the situation and one's abilities to
B A switch is made to knowledge- based mode in order to cope with it
continue monitoring of the problem
C the objectiv evaluation of the situation and one's abilities to
C A second monitoring rule must be applied cope with it
D Actions return to an automatic mode D the pilot's increasing level of arousal
147) Tolerance to decompression sickness is decreased by: 154) Stress is above all :
1. SCUBA-Diving
2. Obesity A a response by man to his problems, which automatically
3. Age leads to a reduction in his performance
4. Body height
B a phenomenon which is specific to modern man
C the best adaptation phenomenon that man possesses for
B 1, 3 and 4 are correct responding to the various situation which he may have to
face
C only 4 is correct
D a psychosomatic disease that one can learn to control
176) Vertigo is the result of

146) Studies of human error rates during the performance of
simple repetitive task have shown, that errors can
normally be expected to occur about
A "Oculogyral illusion"
A 1 in 50 times B "Autokinetic-illusion"
B 1 in 100 times C "Elevator illusion"
C 1 in 250 times D "Coriolis-effect"
D 1 in 10 times
187) In the absence of external reference points, the
sensation that the vehicle in which you sitting is moving
when it is in fact the vehicle directly alongside which is
145) The symptoms of hyperventilation are caused by a:
moving is called :
A shortage of CO2 in the blood A somato-gravic illusion
B surplus of CO2 in the blood B illusion of relative movement
C surplus of O2 in the blood C autokinetic illusion
D shortage of CO in the blood D cognitive illusion
144) With "vertigo" the instrument-panel seems to tumble . 186) What strategy should be put in place when faced with an
This is due to anticipated period of time pressure ?
A conflicting information between the semicircular canals and A A strategy of preparing decisions
the tympanic membrane
B A non-sequential strategy
B oxygen deficiency
C A Laissez-faire strategy
C the coriolis effect in the semicircular canals
D A strategy of no commitment
D tuned resonance caused by vibration
185) The descriptive aspect of errors according to 181) Check the following statements:
Hollnagel's model describes various directly observable 1. A person experiencing sleep loss is unlikely to be
types of erroneous actions which are : aware of
1. Repetition and omission personal performance degradation
2. The forward leap and the backward leap 2. Performance loss may be present up to 20 minutes
3. Intrusion and anticipation after
4. Intrusion awaking from a short sleep (nap)
A 1,2,4 A 1 and 2 are both correct
B 1,3 B 1 is correct 2 is false
C 2,4 C 1 is false, 2 is correct
D 1,2,3 D 1 and 2 are both false
184) Which of the following statements concerning conflicts 180) Out of the list of possible measures to counteract
is correct ? hyperventilation, the most effective measure against
hyperventilation tetany is:
A Whatever the cause of the conflict, its resolution must
necessarily involve an additional party if it is to be effective A speak soothingly and get the person to breathe slowly
B Conflicts are negative in themselves and can only lead to a B breathe into a plastic or paper bag
general detachment of involved parties
C The emergence of a conflict always results from calling into C hold breath
question the general abilities of one of the involved parties
D avoid strenuous flight manoeuvres
D Conflict management involves the participation of all
involved parties in finding an acceptable collective solution
179) Through which part of the ear does the equalization of
pressure take place, when altitude is changed?
183) One of the substances present in the smoke of
cigarettes can make it significantly more difficult for the A Eustachian tube
red blood cells to transport oxygen and as a
consequence contributes to hypoxia. Which substance B Cochlea
are we referring to?
A Carbonic anhydride
C Tympanic membrane
B Tar
D External auditory canal
C Carbon dioxide
164) According to Wicken's theory, the human brain has:
D Carbon monoxide
A cognitive resources which are centered on action
182) The probability to suffer from air-sickness is higher, B processing capabilities which function at peak level when
when different tasks call for the same resources
A the student ist motivated and adapted to the specific stimuli C different reservoirs of resources depending on whether one
of flying is in the information-gathering, information-processing or
action phase
B the student has good outside visual reference
D unlimited information-processing resources
C the passenger or student is afraid and/or demotivated to fly
D the passenger has taken anti-motion sickness remedies 177) Alcohol, when taken simultaneously with drugs, may
prior flight
A intensify the effects of the drugs
B compensate for side effects of drugs
C show undesired effects only during night flights
D increase the rate of alcohol elimination from the blood
165) In relation to the word ´stress´as it affects human 171) The otoliths in the inner ear are sensitive to:
beings, which of the following responses is correct?
A Reactive stressors relate purely to a pilot´s physical A constant speed only

condition.
B linear acceleration and gravity
B Self imposed obligations will not create stress.
C angular acceleration
C ´Stress´is a term used to describe how a person reacts to
demands placed upon him/her. D angular speed
D All forms of stress should be avoided.
170) Between which components is an interface mismatch

causing disturbance of the biological rhythm, thus
175) Once a pilot has developed a certain way of thinking leading to reduced human peformance?
about a problem he will probably
A Liveware - Hardware
A find it difficult to get out of that way of thinking and difficult to
try a different interpretation of the data B Liveware - Software
B find it difficult to stick to his/her interpretation of the data
C Liveware - Liveware
C find it easy to interpret the data in different ways
D Liveware - Environment
D find it impossible to get out of that way of thinking, whatever
happens
169) A selective attentional mechanism is required
174) Angular accelerations are perceived by: A because the capacity of the long term memory is limited
A the receptors in the skin and the joints B because of the limitations of the sense organs
B the semi circular canals C because of limitations in our store of motor programmes
C the cochlea D because of the limited capacity of the central decision maker
and working memory
D the otholits
168) Please check the following statements:

1. Psychosomatic means that mental and/or emotional
173) What are the main limits of short-term memory ? stressors
It is :
can be manifested in organic stress reactions.
-1 : very sensitive to interruptions and interference
2. Psychosomatic means that a physical problem is
-2 : difficult to access
always
-3 : limited in size
followed by psychological stress.
-4 : subject to a biochemical burn-in of information
A A 1 is false, 2 is correct
2,4
B 1,3 ,4
B 1 and 2 are both false
C 1,2 ,3
C 1 is correct, 2 is false
D D 1 and 2 are both correct

2 ,3
167) The following applies for the physical properties of

172) The time for dark adaptation is gases:
A 10 min A at an altitude of 18 000 ft a gas volume is three times as

large as it would be at sea-level
B 30 min
B a water vapor saturated gas at 34 000 ft has 6 times its
volume as it would have at sea-level
C 10 sec
C at an altitute of 63 000 ft water will boil at temperature of
D 1/10 sec 65°C
D at sea-level a gas has 1/3 of the volume it would have at

27000 ft
114) Which of the following sentences concerning crew- 88) An increase in workload usually leads to:
performance is correct?
A Mistakes can always be detected and corrected faster by the A a longer and less frequent exchange of information
individual
B a shorter and more frequent exchange of information
B The quality of crew-performance is not dependent on social-
competence of individual team members C a longer and more frequent exchange of information
C The quality of crew-performance depends on the social- D a shorter and less frequent exchange of information
competence of individual team members
D To be a member of a team can not increase one's own

motivation to succeed in coping with task demands 87) The total pressure of a mixture of gases is equal to the
sum of the partial pressures of the gases which
compose the mixture corresponds to:
178) Changes in ambient pressure and accelerations during
flight are important physiological factors limiting the A Dalton´s law
pilots performance if not taken into consideration.
Linear accelerations along the long axis of the body B Graham´s law
A will not stimulate any of the vestibular organs C Henry`s law
B are of no interest when performing aerobatics D Boyle Mariotte´s law
C change blood presssure and blood volume distribution in the

body
86) The mechanism of accomodation is caused by:
D will have an effect on blood pressure and blood flow if the
accelerative force acts across the body at right angles to the A the functioning of the ciliary muscle aroud the lens
body axis
B the elasticity of the optic nerves
78) A symptom comparison for hypoxia and

hyperventilation is:
C the functioning of the muscles of the eye
A symptoms caused by hyperventilation will immediately

D the diameter of the pupil
vanish when 100% oxygen is given
B cyanosis (blue color of finger-nail and lips) exists only in 85) The human ear is capable of perceiving vibrations
hypoxia between the frequencies
C there are great differences between the two A 30 - 15000 dB
D altitude hypoxia is very unlikely at cabin pressure altitudes B 16 - 20,000 Hz

above 10 000 ft
C 0 - 16 Hz
89) Gaseous exchange in the human body depends on: D 20,000 - 40,000 Hz
1. diffusion gradients between the participating gases
2. permeable membranes
3. partial pressure of oxygen in the alveolus air
4. acid-base balance in the blood 84) The workload may be said to:
-1 : be acceptable if it requires more than 90 % of the
A only 1 is correct crew
resources.
B 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct -2 : be acceptable if it requires about 60 % of the crew
resources.
-3 : depend on the pilot's expertise.
C 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
-4 : correspond to the amount of resources available
D 2 and 3 are false The combination of correct statements is:
83) An individually given feedback improves 79) Barotrauma of the middle ear is usually accompanied by
communication. Which of the following rules should a
feedback comply with?
A dizziness
A The feedback should not be referred to a concrete situation.
B noises in the ear
B The feedback should always relate to a specific situation.
C pain in the joints
C The feedback should only be given if requested by the
captain. D a reduction in hearing ability and the feeling of increasing
pressure
D The receiver of the feedback should immediately justify his
behaviour.
92) The average pulse of a healthy adult in rest is about:
82) Murphy's law states :

A 90 to 100 beats/min
A Response to a particular stressful influence varies from one B 110 to 150 beats/min
person to another
B Expectation has an influence on perception

C 60 to 80 beats/min
D 30 to 50 beats/min
C Performance is dependent on motivation
D If equipment is designed in such a way that it can be

operated wrongly, then sooner or later, it will be 77) The procedure to be followed in the event of
decompression when flying above 10,000 ft must :
81) The volume percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere at

A make it possible to eliminate the risk of fogging due to the
sudden pressure changes
30.000 feet remains at 21 %; but the partial pressure of
oxygen :
B allow for the rapid supply of oxygen in order to prevent the
pilot becoming hypoxic
A remains constant, independent from altitude
C allow for a rapid descent independent from sufficient supply
B increases by expansion of oxygen in order to prevent disorders due to hypoxia
C decreases significantly with lower temperatures D make it possible to prevent hyperventilation owing to the
inhalation of 100 % oxygen
D decreases with decreasing barometric pressure
76) In the following list you will find several symptoms

listed for hypoxia and carbon monoxide poisoning.
116) According to the different phases of the "General Please mark those referring to carbon monoxide
Adaptation Syndrom" check the following statements: poisoning.
1. During the alarm phase stress hormones (i.e.
adrenalin) will cause a massiv release of glucose into
the blood, an acceleration of pulse and blood pressure
A Headache, increasing nausea, dizziness.
as well as an increase in the rate and depth of breathing
2. During the resistance phase the parasympathetic B High levels of arousal, increased error proneness, lack of
system uses a different type of hormone (cortisol) accuracy.
assisting to convert fat into sugar thus providing
sufficient energy supply to the brain and body cells for C Euphoria, accomodation problems, blurred vision.
sustained operation.
3. During the exhaustion phase the body has to be given D Muscular spasms, mental confusion, impairment of hearing.
time to eliminate the waste products which have been
generated excessively during the two preceeding
phases,
A 1 and 2 are correct, 3 is false
B only 1 is correct
75) You are transporting a passenger who has to be at a 71) What are the main consequences of latent errors? They:
certain destination for a meeting. The weather forcast at -1 : remain undetected in the system for a certain lenght
destination tends to be much worse than expected, so of time.
you consider to divert. The businessman offers you -2 : may only manifest themselves under certainl
money if you manage to land there at any case. conditions.
What is your appropriate way of action? You will -3 : are quickly detectable by the front-line operator
whose mental
A divert in any case to demonstrate who' s the man in charge schemas on the instantaneous situation filter out
aboard formal errors.
-4 : lull the pilots into security.
B see what you can do and ask the copilot to tolerate any
decision The correct statement(s) is (are):
C decide to divert if you think it is necessary. A 1 and 3
D continue and think about the nice things you can buy from B 2, 3 and 4
the money
C 1,2 and 4
74) Analysis of accidents involving the human factor in D 1 and 2

aviation shows that :
A only pilot training will make it possible to improve the situation

70) The occurrence of pain in the joints (bends) during
decompression can be explained by the principle that:
B failure of the human factor is always connected with
technical breakdowns
A a volume of gas is inversely proportional to the pressure of
this gas at constant temperature (Boyle's law)
C there is hardly ever a single cause responsible
B the total pressure of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum
D only front-line operators are involved of the partial pressures of the separate gases (Dalton's Law)
C the molecules of a gas will move from an area of higher

73) If coping with a stress situation is impossible, one will concentration or partial pressure to an area of lower
remain in the state of: concentration or partial pressure (law of diffusion)
A hypoxia
D the quantity of a gas dissolved in a fluid is proportional to the
pressure of that gas above the fluid (Henry's Law)
B eustress
69) Which of the following characteristics apply to short-

C distress
term memory ?
- 1 : It is limited in time and size
D adaptation - 2 : It is unlimited in time and limited in size
- 3 : It is stable and insensitive to disturbances
- 4 : It is limited in time and unlimited in size
72) When a pilot is starring at an isolated stationary light for
several seconds in the dark he might get the illusion A 2,3
that:
B 1
A the size of the lightis varying
C 1,3
B the intensity of the light is varying
D 3,4
C the colour of the light is varying
D the light is moving
80) Of the following statements, which apply to coordinated 112) How can a pilot overcome a vertigo, encountered during
cooperation? a real or simulated instrument flight?
-1 : It allows for synergy in the actions between the 1. Establish and maintain an effective instrument cross-
captain and the check.
pilot. 2. Always believe the instruments; never trust your
-2 : It represents the simultaneous execution of a single sense of feeling.
action by 3. Ignore arising illusions.
the various members of the crew. 4. Move the head sidewards and back and forth to
-3 : Communication in this mode has the function of "shake-off"
synchronizing illusions.
actions and distributing responsibilities.
-4 : Communication must be essentially focussed on A 1and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are false
temporal and
cognitive synchronisation. B Only 4 is correct
A 1,2 and 4
B 2 and 3
C 1 and 4 111) Sensory input to the "Seat-of-the-Pants" sense is given

by
D 1 and 3
A subcutaneous pressure receptors and kinesthetic muscle
activity sensors
102) During a night flight at 10,000 feet you notice that your B blood rushing into legs
acuity of vision has decreased. In this case you can
increase your acuity by: C acceleration of the stomach (nausea)
A breathing extra oxygen through the oxygen mask. D pressure of the heart on the diaphragm
B closing one eye
110) Short term memory can already be affected when flying

C scanning sectors of the field of vision
as low as:
D dim the instrument lights
A 12000 FT
B 15000 FT
113) General Adaptation Syndrome is characterised by the
following phases : C 20000 FT
-1 : alarm
-2 : alert phase
-3 : resistance phase
D 8000 FT
-4 : exhaustion phase
-5 : vigilance phase
109) The relationship between arousal and flying
A 2,3,4,5 performance is
B 1,3,4 A approximately linear increasing
C 2,3,4 B approximately exponential
D 1,2,4,5 C approximately sinusoidal
D approximately the form of an inverted U
108) Which is the audible range to human hearing?
A Between 16 Hz and 20 MHz
B Between 16 Hz and 20 KHz
C Between 16 MHz and 20 000MHz
D Between 16 KHz and 20 KHz
107) Which part of the ear could be affected due to air 91) Approaches at night without visual references on the
pressure changes during climb and/or descent? ground and no landing aids (e.g. VASIS) can make the
pilot believe of beeing
A The sacculus and utriculus
A lower than actual altitude with the risk of overshooting
B The eustachian tube and the tympanic membrane (ear drum)
B lower than actual altitude with the risk of ducking under
C The semicircular canals
C higher than actual altitude with the risk of landing short
D The cochlea ("ducking under")
D higher than actual altitude with the risk of overshooting
106) Cigarette smoking has particular significance to the

flyer, because there are long-term and short-term
harmful effects. From cigarette smoking the pilot can 101) What type of acceleration has the most significant
get: physiological effect upon the pilot?
A a suppressed desire to eat and drink A Linear acceleration (+ Gx)
B a mild carbon monoxide poisoning decreasing the pilot´s B Transverse acceleration (+ Gy)
tolerance to hypoxia
C Combined linear and transverse acceleration
C a mild carbon dioxide poisoning increasing the pilot's
tolerance to hypoxia D Radial acceleration (+ Gz)
D a mild carbon monoxide poisoning increasing the pilot´s

tolerance to hypoxia
100) Coaction is a mode of coordination which recommends:
105) During final approach under bad weather conditions you A sustained cooperation on actions and the formulation of
are getting uneasy, feel dizzy and get tingling commitments concerning flight situations
sensations in your hands.
When hyperventilating you should B the application of procedural knowledge in the conduct of
specific actions
A descend
C working parallel to achieve one common objective
B apply the Valsalva method
D working parallel to achieve individual objectives
C use the oxygen mask
D control your rate and depth of breathing 99) Boyle's law is directly applicable in case of:
A the occurance of decompression sickness at high altitude

90) With hyperventilation, caused by high levels of arousal
or overstress:
B the occurance of hypoxia with increasing altitude
A more oxygen will reach the brain
C hyperventilation with increasing altitude
B peripherical and scotopic vision will be improved
D the expansion of trapped gasses in the human body with
increasing altitude
C an increased amount of carbon dioxide is exhaled causing
muscular spasms and even unconsciousness
D finger nails and lips will turn blue ("cyanosis") 98) What can a pilot do to avoid "Flicker vertigo" when
flying in the clouds?
A Switch strobe-lights off

103) What is the procedure above 10.000 ft altitude when
faced with explosive decompression?
B Dim the cockpit lights to avoid reflections
A Descend to below 10,000 ft and signal an emergency
C Engage the autopilot until breaking the clouds
B Check the cabin altitude, don an oxygen mask and maintain
level flight D Fly straight and level and avoid head movements
C Don an oxygen mask and descend to below 10,000 ft
D First inform ATC
97) The semicircular canals monitor 93) Motivation is a quality wich is often considered vital in
the pilot's work to maintain safety.
A gravity A A high degree of motivation makes it possible to make up for

insufficient knowledge in complete safety
B angular accelerations
B A high degree of motivation lowers the level of vigilance
C relative speed
C However, excessive motivation leads to stress wich adversly
D horizontal and vertical accelerations affects performance
D Motivation reduces the intensity of sensory illusions
96) Stress appears:

-1 : only in a situation of imminent danger.
-2 : only when faced with real, existing and palpable 377) Hyperventilation is due to an excessive rate of breathing
phenomenon. and can produce the following symptoms:
-3 : sometimes via imagination, the anticipation of a
situation or its A blue finger-nails and lips
outcome.
-4 : because of the similarity with a formerly experienced B dizziness, tingling sensation in the fingers and toes, nausea
stressful and blurred vision
situation
C reduced heart rate and increase in visual acuity
D a state of overconfidence and reduced heart rate
A 3,4
B 1,2
104) Pilots are more easily inclined to take greater risks when:
C 2, 3
A making decisions independently of others
D 1,2,4
B they are not constrained by time
95) Depth perception when objects are close (< 1 m) is C making a flight over unfamiliar territory
achieved through
D they are part of a group of pilots and they feel that they are
A good visibility only beeing observed and admired (e.g. air shows)
B visual memory only

622) Glaucoma is characterised by:
C the "blind spot" at the retina 1. disturbed light adaptation
2. progressive narrowing of the visual field
D seeing with two eyes (binocular vision) 3. insidious onset and concealed progression
4. an increase in intra-ocular pressure
A 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false

94) 1. Euphoria can be a symptom of hypoxia.
2. Someone in an euphoric condition is more prone to B 1, 3 and 4 are correct, 2 is false
error.
A 1 is not correct, 2 is correct

C 2, 3 and 4 are correct ,1 is false
D 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

B 1 and 2 are both not correct
C 1 and 2 are both correct

633) According to Rasmussen's model, errors are of the
D 1 is correct, 2 is not correct following type(s) in skill-based control mode:
A creative errors
B routine errors
C knowledge errors
D handling errors
632) Orientation in flight is accomplished by 628) If a pilot has to perform two tasks requiring the
1. eyes allocation of cognitive resources :
2. utriculus and sacculus
3. semicircular canals A the only way of not seeing performance tail off is to switch to
4. Seat-of-the-pants-Sense rules-based mode for the two tasks
A only 1 and 4 are correct B the sharing of resources causes performance on each task
to be reduced
B 2, 3 and 4 are correct , 1 is false
C a person reaches his limits as from simultaneous tasks, and
performance will then tail off
C 2, 3 and 4 are false, only 1 is correct
D the only way of not seeing performance tail off is to switch to
D 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct knowledge-based mode for the two tasks
631) Visual perception of depth at close to medium distance 627) Which of the following statements are correct ?
is primarily due to -1: Modern aircraft allow for 50 - 60% relative humidity in
the cabin
A binocular vision air under any conditions of flight, which is
satisfactory for the
B interactions between cones and rods body
-2: Thirst is a belated symptom of dehydration
-3: Dehydration may lead to clinical manifestations such
C peripheral vision
as
dizziness and fatigue
D the high sensitivity of the retina -4: Drinking excessive quantities of water must be
avoided since
resistance to periods of low hydration will otherwise
be lost
630) Symptoms of decompression sickness
A 1,2,4
A disappear on landing and never appear again
B 1,4
B sometimes can appear with a delay after the airplane is on
the ground C 2,3
C always begin immediately after the decompression during D 2,3,4

the flight
D normally take 2 or 3 days to appear after exposure to a

hypobaric atmosphere 626) Which elements of communication are prone to
malfunctioning?
629) What are the main clinical signs of hypoxia during A Coding and decoding
explosive decompression ?
B The sender
A Increase in heart and respiratory rates, euphoria, impairment
of judgement, memory disorders C The receiver
B Headaches, fatigue, somnolence, palpitations D The sender and the receiver as well as coding and decoding
C Increase in heart rate, decrease in body temperature

impairment of judgement
625) Large amounts of carbon dioxide are eliminated from
D Headaches, articular pain, speeding-up of the respiratory the body when hyperventilating. This causes the blood
rate, memory disorders
A to accelerate the oxygen supply to the brain
B not to change at all
C to become more alkaline increasing the amount of oxygen to

be attached to the hemoglobin at lung area
D to turn more acid thus eliminating more oxygen from the

hemoglobin
612) What are the characteristics of the alarm phase of the 620) Blood-pressure depends on:
stress reactions? 1. the cardiac output
-1 : increased arousal level as a result of adrenaline 2. the resistance of the capillaries (peripheral resistance)
secretion.
-2 : an increase in heart rate, respiration and release of A 1 and 2 are correct
glucose.
-3 : a decrease in stress resistance. B 1 is correct 2 is false
-4 : activation of the digestive system.
-5 : secretion of cortisol to mobilize attention.
C 1 is false 2 is correct
D 1 and 2 are both false
A 1,2
B 2,4,5 619) Anxiety and fear can cause
C 1,3,5
A hyperventilation
D 1,2,3
B hypoxia
C spatial disorientation
623) Which of the following operations are performed more
effectively by automatic systems than by people ? D hypoglycemia
1. Waiting for an infrequent phenomenon
2. Long term controlling of a set value (e.g holding of
trajectory)
3. Monitoring to ensure that certain values are not 618) Stress may be defined as:
exceeded (e.g holding of flight path)
4. Qualitative decision-making
A a normal phenomenon which enables an individual to adapt
A 1,2,3 to encountered situations
B 2,4
B a poorly controlled emotion which leads to a reduction in
capabilities
C 3,4 C a psychological phenomenon which only affects fragile

personalities
D 2,3,4
D a human reaction which one must manage to eliminate
636) Which of the following is most true?

617) Stress is a frequent aspect of the pilot's job. Under
which of the following circumstances does it occur?
A Regular exercise is beneficial to general health, but the most 1. Stress occurs whenever the pilot must revise his plan
efficient way to lose weight is by reducing caloric of action
consumption and does not immediately have a solution
2. Stress occurs with unexperienced pilots when the
B Regular exercise is an impediment to losing weight since it situational
increases the metabolic rate demands exceed their individual capabilities
3. Stress occurs if a pilot is convinced that he will not be
C Regular exercise is beneficial to general health, and is the able to
only effective way to lose weight find a solution for the problem he just is confronted
with
D Regular exercise and reduction in caloric consumption are
both essential in order to lose weight A 1, 2 and 3 are correct
B Only 1 is false
621) Hyperventilation is:
A a too high percentage of nitrogen in the blood
D 1 is correct, 2 and 3 are false
B a decreased lung ventilation
C a too high percentage of oxygen in the blood.
D an increased lung ventilation
616) Carbon monoxide poisoning 624) Why should a pilot turn his attention to the instruments
when approaching on a snowed up, foggy or cloudy
winterday? Because
A is more likely to occur in aeroplanes where the cabin heat is
technically supplied by coating the exhaust A the danger of a "greying out" will make it impossible to
determine the height above the terrain
B is more likely to occur in aeroplanes with twin-engines
because of high engine efficiency B pressure differences can cause the altimeter to give wrong
information
C only occurs in jet-driven aeroplanes
C perception of distance and speed is difficult in an
D occurs only above 15 degrees OAT environment of low contrast
D his attention will be distracted automatically under these

conditions
615) Flying a coordinated level turn will
A make the seat-of-the-pants sense feel a decreased pressure 646) What is decompression sickness ?
along the body`s vertical axis
B make the body`s pressure receptors feel an increased A A frequent disorder in commercial aviation due to the
pressure along the body`s vertical axis pressurisation curve of modern aircraft
C first give the impression of climb , then the impression of B A disorder which is solely encountered below 18,000 ft
descent
C The formation of air bubbles in bodily tissues, with no
D make the blood being pooled in the head consequences for people's capabilities
D An sickness resulting from the formation of nitrogen

bubbles in bodily tissues and fluids after a cabin pressure
614) In an abnormal situation the pilot has an apparently
loss at high altitude
correct explanation for the problem. The chance that
he/she now ignores or devalues other relevant
information, not fitting into his/her mental picture is:
565) The symptoms caused by gas bubbles under the skin
A not applicable with old and experienced pilots following a decompression are called:
B decreasing A bends
C increasing B chokes
D the same, no matter if he/she has already made up his/her C leans

mind
D creeps
658) Which of the following statements concerning tiredness

is correct ? 656) Visual acuity during flight at high altitudes can be
affected by:
A Tiredness is a subjective sensation which is reflected in 1. anaemia
hypovigilance or in poor management of intellectual 2. smoking in the cockpit
capabilities 3. carbon monoxide poisoning
4. hypoxia
B Tiredness is always the result of an intellectual overload
A 1,3 and 4 are correct
C Tiredness is the consequence of a diminution of
performance B 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
D Tiredness is an objective psychophysiological symptom of a

C 1,2 and 3 are correct
reduction in attention capabilities
655) Which of the following statements fits best the concept 651) What are typical consequences of conflicts between
of latent error? crew members?
Latent errors: -1 The quality of work performance decreases as a
result of the
A are mainly associated with the behaviour of front-line impoverishment of communications
operators and are only detected after advanced problem- -2 A decrease in the quality of communications
solving -3 In the case of a crew made up of experts, conflicts
only result in
B rapidly may be detected via their immediate consequences a deterioration in relations between the individuals
on the action in progress -4 A decrease in the usage of available resources on the
flight
C have been present in the system for a certain lenght of time deck
and are difficult to understand as a result of the time lag
between the generation and the occurence of the error The correct statement(s) is (are):
D are rarely made by front-line operators, and are A 1, 2 and 4 are correct
consequently readily identified and detected by the
monitoring, detection and warning links B 2, 3 and 4 are correct
C 1,3 and 4 are correct

654) When the optical image forms in front of the retina; we
are talking about D 1,2 and 3 are correct
A myopia
B hypermetropia 650) Which of the following statements are correct:

-1: Scuba diving may be practiced without restriction
-2: Many medicines have effects which are incompatible
C presbyopia
with flight
safety
D astigmatism -3: An adequate amount of fluid should be drunk when
flying
-4: Diet has no repercussion on health
653) Professional languages have certain characteristics, for
example: A 2 and 3 are correct
-1 : They use a limited vocabulary .
-2 : They are rich and adapted to the context, which B 1, 2 and 3 are correct
sometimes
lead to ambiguities. C 2, 3 and 4 are correct
-3 : Their grammar is rather complicated and complex.
-4 : Context provides meaning, therefor reduces the risk D 1, 3 and 4 are correct
of
ambiguities.
The correct statement(s) is (are): 649) A pilot is prone to get vertigo, as visibility is impaired
(dust, smoke, snow). What is the correct action to
A only 4 is correct prevent vertigo?
B 1 and 4 are correct A Depend on information from the semicircular canals of the
inner ear, because those are the only ones giving correct
information
B Depend on the instruments
C Reduce rate of breathing until all symptoms disappear, then
breathe normal again
652) Vibrations can cause blurred vision.
This is due to tuned resonance oscillations of the: D Concentrate on the vertical speedometer
A optic nerve
B cristalline lens
C photosensitive cells
D eyeballs
634) Which of the following drawbacks are associated with 644) Contrary to a person's personality, attitudes:
automation ?
1. Reduced competence in manually controlling the
aircraft A are non-evolutive adaptation procedures regardless of the
2. Increased likelihood of slips while programming result of the actions associated with them
automatic
systems B are essentially driving forces behind changes in personality
3. Difficulties in adapting to the use of a sidestick
4. General decrease in technical reliability C Are the product of personal disposition and past experience
with reference to an object or a situation
A 2,3,4
D form part of personality and that, as a result, they cannot be
B 1,3 changed in an adult
C 1,2
643) TUC (Time of Useful Consciousness) is:
D 1,4
A the time between the start of hypoxia and death
647) What is the Time of Useful Consciouness ? B the length of time during which an individual can act with
both mental and physical efficiency and alertness;
measured from the moment at which he is exposed to
A The pilot's reaction time when faced with hypoxia hypoxia
B The period of time between the start of hypoxia and the C the time before becoming unconscious at a sudden
moment that the pilot becomes aware of it pressure loss
C The length of time during which an individualcan act with D the time after pressure loss until decompression sickness
both mental and physical efficiency and alertness, sets in
measured from the moment at which he loses his available
oxygen supply
642) Informal roles within a crew
D The time taken to become aware of hypoxia due to gradual
decompression
A characterize inefficient crews
635) Inhaling carbon monoxide can be extremely dangerous B evolve as a result of the interactions that take place among
during flying. crew members
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
C are explicitely set out by the crew
A With increasing altitude the negative effects of carbon
monoxide poisoning will be compensated. D do not impair the captain's influence
B Small amounts of carbon monoxide are harmless.

641) An identical situation can be experienced by one pilot as
C Carbon monoxide is odourless and cannot be smelled. exciting in a positive sense and by another pilot as
threatening. In both cases:
D Carbon monoxide increases the oxygen saturation in the
blood. A both pilots will loose their motor-coordination
B both pilots will experience the same amount of stress

645) Dizziness and tumbling sensations, when making head
movements in a tight turn, are symptoms of
C the pilot feeling threatened, will be much more relaxed, than
the pilot looking forward to what may happen
A "Pilot`s vertigo"
D the arousal level of both pilots will be raised
B "Nystagmus"
C "Flicker-vertigo"
640) Physiological problems due to increasing altitude are
caused by :
D "Oculogravic illusion"
A disorientation
B accelerations
C increased atmospherical pressure
D decreased atmospherical pressure
639) A pilot, climbing in a non-pressurised aircraft and 575) Affinity to hemoglobin is best with:
without using supplemental oxygen will pass the
"critical threshold" at approximately:
A carbon dioxide
A 38 000 ft
B carbon monoxide
B 22 000 ft
C nitrogen
C 16 000 ft
D oxygen
D 18 000 ft
586) 1. REM-sleep becomes shorter with any repeated sleep

638) Between which components is an interface mismatch cycle
responsible for deficiencies in conceptual aspects of during the night.
warning systems? 2. REM-sleep is more important for the regeneration of
mental and
A Liveware - Hardware physical functions than all the other sleep stages are.
B Liveware - Environment
A 1 is not correct 2 is correct

C Liveware - Liveware
D Liveware - Software
C 1 is correct 2 is not correct
D 1 and 2 are false
637) A pilot is used to land on wide runways only. When

approaching a smaller and/or narrower runway, the pilot
may feel he is at a 585) Which of the following systems are involved in the
appearance of motion sickness ?
-1 : Hearing
A greater height than he actually is with the tendency to land
-2 : The vestibular system
short
-3 : Vision
B lower than actual height with the tendency to overshoot -4 The proprioceptive senses "Seat-of-the-Pants-Sense")
-5 : The gastrointestinal system
C greater height and the impression of landing short

A 1,2,5
D lower height and the impression of landing slow

B 2,3,4
C 1,2,3
611) Which of the following applies when alcohol has been
consumed? D 2,3,4,5
A Small amounts of alcohol increase visual performance
B Acute effects of alcohol cease immediately when 100% 584) Someone who has anaemia has:
oxygen is taken
A not enough functional hemoglobin
C Even after the consumption of small amounts of alcohol,
normal cautionary attitudes may be lost
B not enough platelets
D Drinking coffee at the same time will increase the elimination
rate of alcohol C not enough plasma
D not enough white blood cells

648) The trend in airplane hull-loss rate over the last three
decades seems to be related to :
583) Under normal circumstances, which gas will diffuse
A the manufacturer from the blood to the alveoli:
B the number of engines A nitrogen
C the year of manufacture B oxygen
D the crew C carbon dioxide
D carbon monoxide
582) Illuminated anti-collision lights in IMC 578) How do you understand the statement 'one cannot not
communicate'?
A will improve the pilots depth perception A You cannot influence your own communication.
B will effect the pilots binocular vision B The statement above is a missprint.
C can cause disorientation

C Beeing silent as well as inactive are nonverbal behaviour
patterns which express a meaning.
D can cause colour-illusions
D Each situation requires communication.
581) Which of the following statements best characterise a

self-centered cockpit ? 613) The eustachian tube is the passage way between the
A The communication between crew members always

increases when the captain takes charge of a situation A nose, pharynx and inner ear
B While decreasing communication, the independence of B nose, pharynx and the external auditory canal
each member bolsters the crew's synergy
C sinuses and the pharynx
C Without taking note of what the other members are doing,
each one does his own thing while at the same time
assuming that everyone is aware of what is being done or
D nasopharynx and the middle ear
what is going on
D The egocentric personality of the captain often leads to a 576) On ascent the gases in the digestive tract will
synergetic cockpit
A expand
580) 'Environmental capture' is a term used to describe
which of the following statements? B stay the same
1.The tendency for a skill to be executed in an
environment in C shrink
which it is frequently exercised, even if it is
inappropriate to do D be absorbed by tissues and blood
so
2.The tendency for a skill acquired in one aircraft type to
be
executed in a new aircraft type, even if it is 589) Autokinesis is
inappropriate to do
so
3. The tendency for people bo behave in different ways
A the automatical adjustment of the crystalline lens to objects
situated at different distances
in different
social situations
4. The gaining of environmental skills
B the apparent movement of a static single light when stared
at for a relatively long period of time in the dark
A 4 is correct
C the phenomenon of spinning lights after the abuse of alcohol
B 1 and 2 are correct D the change in diameter of the pupil, when looking in the dark
D 2 and 3 are correct 574) After a decompression to 43 000 FT the TUC (Time of
Useful Consciousness) will be approximately:
A 5-15 seconds
579) Which statement is correct? Crew decision making is
generally most efficient, if all crew members concerned B 30-45 seconds
A adapt their management style to meet the situational

C 45-60 seconds
demands
B are always task oriented D 60-90 seconds
C are always relationship oriented
D always ask the captain what to do
573) Which sensations does a pilot get, when he is rolling 569) The following course of action must be taken if
out of a coordinated level turn? gastrointestinal or cardiopulmonary complaints or pain
arise before take-off :
A Flying straight and level -1 : take the standard medicines and advise the doctor
on
B Climbing returning from the flight
-2 : assess your own ability to fly, if necessary with the
help of a
C Turning into the original direction
doctor
-3 : if in doubt about fitness to fly - do not fly!
D Descending and turning into the opposite direction -4 : reduce the cabin temperature, and drink before you
are thirsty
so as to avoid dehydration
572) Equalization of pressure is limited between the middle
ear and the ambient, when: A 2,3
A the nose is pinched B 1,3
B you breath through the mouth C 1,4
C barotrauma exists in the sinuses D 1,2,4
D the eustachian tube is blocked

568) How can a pilot prevent spatial disorientation in flight?
571) What may be the origins of representation errors ? A Always try to catch outside visual cues.
1. Perception errors
2. The catering for all available information
3. Incorrect information from the observed world
B Rely on good situational awareness believing your natural
senses.
4. The receipt of a bad piece of information
A 3,4
C Rely on the kinaesthetic sense.
B 2,3
D Establish and maintain a good instrument cross check.
C 1,3,4
567) Subcutaneous pressure receptors are stimulated by:
D 1,2
A the pressure created on the corresponding body parts when
sitting, standing or lying down
570) Flying from Frankfurt to Moscow you will have a lay-
over of 4 days. What time measure is relevant for your B a touch on the skin indicating the true vertical
circadian rhythm on the 3. day?
C environmental stressors
A ZT (zonal time).
D the condition of the body itself
B UTC (universal time coordinated).
C LT (local time). 375) Which of the following statements summarises the

impact that motivation may have on attention ?
D MEZ (middle european time).
A It only facilitates attention in extreme cases (risk of death)
B Motivation has only a small effect on attention, but it

facilitates alertness
C It stimulates attention but may lead to phases of low arousal
D It increases the mobilisation of energy and thus facilitates

the quality of alertness and attention
577) What is the main adverse effect of expectations in the 608) Flying immediately after SCUBA diving involves the risk
perception mechanism ? of getting:
A The unconscious mechanism of attention leads to focus on A hyperventilation

all relevant information
B hypoxia
B The attention area is enlarged, thus it will lead to an
uncertainty in regard to necessary decisions
C stress
C Expectations often guide the focus of attention towards a
particular aspect, while possible alternates are neglected D decompression sickness without having a decompression
D They always lead to routine errors

607) To prevent the "autokinetic phenomena", the following
can be done:
599) The intended recipient of a message must:
-1 : give priority and adapt to the sender's situation. A look out for additional references inside and/or outside the
-2 : acknowledge the receipt only in case of doubt. cockpit using peripheral vision also
-3 : be able to reject or postpone a communication
attempt if B fixate the source of light, first with one eye, then with the
the pilot is too busy. other
-4 : stabilize or finish a challenging manoeuvre before
starting a C look sideways to the source of light for better fixation
discussion.
D turn down cabin light and shake head simultaneously

606) With regard to the practice of English, which of the
following statements is correct?
A The composition of every crew should be geared to a
C 2 and 3 are correct command of the official aeronautical language of the
destination country.
B All pilots should master it because the aeronautical world
needs one common language.
610) In terms of decision-making, the intention to become C Be familiar with normal procedures in English since only this
integrated into the team, to be recognised as the leader allows for effective management of any flight's
or to avoid conflicts may lead to : communication.
A an authoritarian approach thus demonstrating ones own D It is necessary and sufficient to have a command of any of
ability to lead the official languages of the ICAO.
B the improvement of internal risk assessment capabilities

605) Rods (scotopic visual cells) allow for :
C the suggestion of a sequential solution in which everyone
can contribute what he/she knows
A red vision, both during the day and at night
D the attempt to agree on decisions made by other crew
members B good night-vision after adaptation to darkness (30 min)
C good, virtually instantaneous night-vision (scotopic vision)

609) Which procedure is recommended to prevent or
overcome spatial disorientation? D precise vision of contours and colours
A Tilt your head to the side to get better informations from the
semicircular canals.
604) What triggers stress in humans?
B Rely on the Seat-of-the-Pants-Sense.
A Only strong excitations of the sensory organs: a flash of

C Get adapted to low levels of illumination before flying and
light, noise, the smell of smoke
use off-center vision all the time.
D Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments.

B Always the awareness of an emotion and a physiological
activation (e. g. rapide heart rate)
C The subjective interpretation an individual gives to a situation

experienced
D Objective stimulation from the environment regards of

subjective perceptions
603) Human errors are frequent and may take several forms : 598) The decision making in emergency situations requires
firstly:
A an error of intention is an error of routine A speed of reaction
B an violation is an error which is always involuntary B informing ATC thoroughly about the situation
C representational errors in which the pilot has properly

C the whole crew to focus on the problem
identified the situation and is familiar with the procedure
D an error can be described as the mismatch between the D distribution of tasks and crew coordination
pilots intention and the result of his/her actions
597) "Grey out" can be observed if a pilot is subjected to

602) Oxygen, combined with hemoglobin in blood is more than:
transported by
A + 3 Gz
A white blood cells
B - 3 Gz
B red blood cells
C + 3 Gx
C platelets
D + 3 Gy
D blood plasma
596) Which behaviour does most likely promote a

587) In a complex task high levels of arousal constructive solution of interpersonal conflicts?
A Active listening.
A reduce failures
B Responding with counter-arguments.
B narrow the span of attention
C Staying to the own point of view.
C improve performance
D Giving up the own point of view.
D lead to better decision-making

600) Which part of the vestibular apparatus is affected by
changes in gravity and linear acceleration?
A 40% of information processed by man enters via the visual
A The semicircular canals channel
B The cochlea B The kinesthetic channel provides the most important

information for flying
C The eustachian tube

C 70% of information processed by man enters via the visual
channel
D The sacculus and utriculus
D Hearing is the sense which collects most information in man
588) Concerning circadian rhythm disruption (jet lag), the

effects of adjustment to destination time : 594) The errors resulting from an irrational indexing system
1. are longer for western rather than eastern flights in an operations manual are related to an interface
2. are longer for eastern rather than western flights mismatch between
3. vary little between individuals
4. may vary greatly between individuals A Liveware - Liveware
A 1,3 B Liveware - Software
B 1,4
C Liveware - Hardware
C 2,3 D Liveware - Environment
D 2,4
593) The needs of an individual lead to : 659) What should a pilot do if he has no information about
the dimensions of the runway and the condition of the
terrain underneath the approach? He should
A prolonged suppression of all basic needs in favour of high
self-actualization A make a visual approach and call the tower for assistance
B a change in the individuals motivation and consequently to
an adaptation of the behaviour B be aware that approaches over water always make the pilot
feel that he is lower than actual height
C preservation from dangers only if social needs are beeing
satisfied C make an instrument approach and be aware of the illusory
effects that can be induced
D no change in his motivation and conrequently to the
persistence of the individuals behaviour in regard to the D be aware that approaches over downsloping terrain will
desired outcome make him believe that he is higher than actual
592) Gases of physiological importance to man are: 601) How can man cope with low error tolerant situations?
A oxygen and carbon monoxide A By randomly applying a combination of optimum detection,

warning and monitoring systems
B oxygen, nitrogen and water vapor B By generally avoiding situations in which tolerance to error is
low
C oxygen and carbon dioxide
C By constantly complying with cross-over verification
D nitrogen and carbon dioxide procedures (cross monitoring)
D By increasing error detection in all circumstances
591) The cognitive effects of stress may include :

-1 : excessive haste.
-2 : an improvement in memory. 716) What is the TUC at 20 000 FT?
-3 : a complete block: action is impossible.
-4 : a risk of focusing on a particular aspect.
-5 : ease of decision-making.
A 1to 2 hours
-6 : an increase in the rate of mistakes.
B 5 to 10 minutes
The combination which brings together all correct
statements is : C about 30 minutes
A 1,3,4,6 D 1 to 2 minutes
B 1,2,5
727) What is understood by air-sickness?
C 2,3,5,6
D 3,4,5 A An illness caused by an infection of the middle ear
B A sensory conflict within the vestibular system accompanied

by nausea, vomiting and fear
590) The amount of light which strikes the retina is controlled
by:
C An illness caused by evaporation of gases in the blood
A the cornea
D An illness caused by reduced air pressure
B the lens
C the pupil 726) What does not impair the function of the photosensitive
cells?
D the ciliary body
A Oxygen deficiency
B Acceleration
C Toxic influence (alcohol, nicotine, medication)
D Fast speed
725) Which part of the vestibular apparatus is responsible for 720) Breathing pure oxygen (without pressure) will be
the impression of angular acceleration? sufficient up to an altitude of:
A The eustachian tube A 60000 FT
B The semicircular canals B 80000 FT
C The cochlea C 38000 FT
D The sacculus and utriculus D 45000 FT
724) In the alveoli gas exchange takes place (external 719) Which of the following statements concerning hypoxia
respiration). Which gas will diffuse from the blood into is correct?
the lungs?
A It has little effect on the body, because the body can always
A Ambient air. compensate for it.
B Oxygen. B It is a potential threat to safety.
C Carbon monoxide. C It is never a problem at altitudes below 25.000 ft.
D Carbon dioxide. D It activates the senses and makes them function better.
723) If someone hyperventilates due to stress his blood will 706) Concentration is essential for pilots.
get:
A All intellectual processes, including very routined ones,
A more alkaline make demands on resources and therefore on one's
concentration
B less satured with oxygen
B However, capacity of concentration is limited
C more satured with carbon dioxide
C It only takes a little willpower to increase one's capacity of
D more acid concentration without limits
D Vigilance is all that is required to be attentive
722) With a heart rate of 72 beats per minute and a stroke

volume of 70 ml the cardial output is about:
717) Thinking on human reliability is changing.
A 6 liters/min
A It is thought that it will be possible to eliminate errors in the
B 7 liters/min near future
C 8 liters/min B Human errors are now considered as being inherent to the

cognitive function of human and are generally inescapable
D 5 liters/min
C Human errors can be avoided. All it takes is to be vigilant
and to extend one's knowledge
721) Flights immediately after SCUBA-diving (compressed D The individual view of safety has gradually replaced the
gas mixtures, bottles) (>10 m depth) systemic view of safety
A are allowed, if 38000 FT are not exceeded

730) Which of the following is NOT an hazardous attitude?
B should be avoided because hypoxia may develop
C are forbidden A Domination
D can be performed without any danger B Macho
C Anti-authority
D Impulsivity
715) The ability of the human eye to read alphanumeric 710) With regard to the level of automation of behaviours in
information (piercing vision): the attention mechanism, we know that :
A is limited to the foveal area of the retina A the more behaviour is automated, the less it requires
conscious attention and thus the more it frees mental
B is limited to daytime using the rod cells resources
B the more behaviour is automated, the more it requires

C is almost equally shared by the entire retina
attention and the more it frees resources
D is governed by peripheral vision over an area of C the more behaviour is automated, the more it requires
approximately 20 degrees of angle attention and the less it frees resources
D the less behaviour is automated, the less it requires

714) The pressoreceptors are located in attention and the more it frees resources
A the carotid and aortic arterial vessels

709) The "ideal professional pilot" is, in his behaviour,
B the intestines
A rather "person" than "goal" oriented
C the heart
B neither "person" nor "goal" oriented
D the lungs
C rather "goal" than "person" oriented
713) If somebody starts breathing faster and deeper without

D "person" and "goal" oriented
physiological need
A the acid-base balance of the blood will not change 708) Which of the following statements in regard to
motivation is correct?
B the blood pressure in the brain will rise significantly
A Too much motivation may result in hypovigilance and thus in
C the blood turns less more alkaline a decrease in attention
D the blood turns more acid

B Motivation will reduce the task automation process
C Low motivation will guarantee adequate attention

management capabilities
712) Dalton's law explains the occurance of :
D Extremely high motivation in combination with excessive
stress will limit attention management capabilities
A bends
B decompression sickness
657) Decision-making results in:
C creeps
A an objective choice concerning applicable solutions for a
D altitude hypoxia given end
B a subjective choice concerning applicable solutions
711) We know that transverse accelerations (Gy) C a choice between different solutions for achieving a goal
- 1 : are above all active in turns and pull-outs
- 2 : are present during take-off and landing
- 3 : are rare during routine flights
D a choice always based on the experience of the PIC
- 4 : often lead to loss of consciousness
A 3 718) Adverse effects of carbon monoxide increase as:
B 1,4
A altitude decreases
C 2,3
B air pressure increases
D 1,2,3
C relative humidity decreases
D altitude increases
740) Which data compose the ICAO standard atmosphere ? 748) What is hypoxia ?
1. Density
2. Pressure
3. Temperature A The respiratory symptom associated with altitude
4. Humidity decompression sickness
A 3,4 B A state charcterised by an excessive supply of oxygen

which may be due to maladjustment of the mask
B 1,2 ,3
C Any condition where the oxygen concentration of the body is
below normal limits or where the oxygen available to the
C 1, 2 ,4 body cannot be used due to some pathological condition
D 2,3 ,4 D The total absence of oxygen in the air
751) Hypoxia can be caused by: 747) What are the various means which allow for better error
1. low partial pressure of oxygen in the atmosphere detection?
when flying at -1 : Improvement of the man-machine interface.
high altitudes without pressurisation and -2 : Development of systems for checking the
supplemental oxygen consistency of
2. a decreased saturation of oxygen in the blood due to situations.
carbon -3 : Compliance with cross-over redundant procedures
monoxide attached to the hemoglobin by the
3. blood pooling in the lower extremities due to inertia (+ crew.
Gz) -4 : Adaptation of visual alarms to all systems.
4. malfunction of the body cells to metabolize oxygen
(i.e. after The correct statement(s) is (are):
a hangover)
A 1and 3
A 1 is false, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
B 2, 3 and 4
B 1, 2, 3 are correct, 4 is false
C 3 and 4
D 1, 2 and 3
D 1 and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are false
746) Different non-technical related opinions between pilots

750) A barotrauma of the middle ear (aerotitis) from different cultural backgrounds might be seen in
connection with:
-1 : the variations of technical training and skills.
A is to be expected during rapid decompressions, but an -2 : communication problems.
emergency descent immediately following the -3 : conflicting ways of management.
decompression will eliminate the problem -4 : interpersonal problems.
B is more likely, when the pilot is flying with a respiratory The combination of correct statements is:
infection and during descent
C is only caused by large pressure changes during climb
D causes severe pain in the sinuses
C only 1 is correct
749) The cupula in the semicircular canal will be bent, when a D 2 and 3 are correct
rotation begins. This is because
A the cupula will stay in place and give the correct impression
745) "The Bends" as a symptom of decompression sickness
consists of:
B the fluid (endolymph) will preceed the accelerated canal
walls
A pain in the joints
C the cupula will bend on constant angular speeds
B pain in the thorax and a backing cough
D the fluid (endolymph) within the semicircular canal lags
behind the accelerated canal walls C CNS-disturbances
D loss of peripheral vision
744) Air at an altitude of 18.000 feet contains, approximately : 739) You fly VFR from your home base (runway width 45 m)
to a small airfield (runway width 27 m). On reaching your
destination there is a risk of performing a:
A 5% oxygen
A high approach with overshoot
B 15% oxygen
B high approach with undershoot
C 10% oxygen
C low approach with overshoot
D 21% oxygen
D low approach with undershoot
743) The confirmation bias of decision making is

738) The physiology of stress is now well known:
A a tendency not to look for information which would reassure
oneself about a decision A stress slows down the production of sugar by the organism
and thereby slows down the heart rate
B a tendency to look for facts that confirm expectations before
implementing one's decision B stress promotes an increase in physical strength rather than
promoting mental oerformance
C a tendency to ignore that information which indicates that a
decision is poor; C the only stress hormone is adrenaline
D a tendency not to seek for information which confirms a
judgement D stress develops in 2 stages: sublimation of performance and
then acceleration of heart rate and increase in vision
728) We know that, in the mechanism of sight, the retina

allows for : 737) Symptoms of decompression sickness
A the acquisition of the visual signal and the accommodation A are bends, chokes, skin manifestations, neurological
process symptoms and circulatory shock
B binocular vision B are only relevant when diving
C the analysis of visual signals C can only develop at altitudes of more than 40000 FT
D the acquisition of the visual signal and its coding into D are flatulence and pain in the middle ear
physiological data
736) Once detected, an error will result in cognitive

741) The rate of absorption of alcohol depends on many
consequences which:
factors. However, the rate of metabolism or digestion of
alcohol in the body is relatively constant. It is about
A are prompted by inductive factors
A 0,02 - 0,05 mg % per hour
B have virtually no interaction with behaviour
B 0,2 - 0,25 mg % per hour
C make it possible to modify behaviour with a view to adaptation
C 0,3 - 0,35 mg % per hour
D destabilize cognitive progress and maintain the error
D 0,01 - 0,015 mg % per hour
735) Tuned resonance of body parts, distressing the

individual, can be caused by
729) Working memory :
A angular velocity
A is unlimited in size
B vibrations from 1 to 100 Hz
B is unlimited in duration
C vibrations from 16 Hz to 18 kHz
C varies considerably in size between an expert pilot and a
novice pilot D acceleration along the longitudonal body axis
D is sensitive to interruptions which may erase all or some of

its content
734) The first effect to be noticed on gradual exposure to 742) In the event of rapid decompression the first action for
high positive radial accelerations is the flight deck crew is:
A red-vision A don oxygen masks and ensure oxygen flow
B grey-out B descent to the higher of 10000 ft or MSA
C loss of consciousness C transmit mayday call
D black-out D carry out check for structural damage
733) The earth's atmosphere consists of different gases in 669) In order to completely resynchronise with local time
various concentration. Match the following: after zone crossing, circadian rhythms require
1 nitrogen A 0,03% A more time when flying from east to west

2 oxygen B 0,92%
3 carbon dioxide C 20.95% B about one day per 2.5 hours of time shift
4 rare gas D 78,10%
A 1D, 2C, 3A, 4B

C about one week per 2.5 hours of time shift
B 1B, 2A, 3D, 4C

D less time when flying from east to west
C 1C, 2B, 3A, 4D

680) What are the various factors which guide attention ?
D 1D, 2C, 3B, 4A 1. The level of automation of behaviour
2. Response time
3. The salience of the information
4. Expectations
732) What is the main problem caused by positive (+Gz)
accelerations? A 1,4
A An increase in blood pressure in the upper part of the body B 1,2

(above heart-level)
B Hyperoxygenation of the blood which may lead to sensory C 2,3,4

disorders
D 1,3,4
C A pooling of blood in the lower portions of the body, and
hence less blood available
679) The atmospheric pressure at 18,000 feet altitude is half
D An improvement of peripheral vision the atmospheric pressure at sea level.
In accordance with this statement,
731) During running your muscles are producing more CO2, A the oxygen percentage of the air at that altitude will drop by
raising the CO2 level in the blood. The consequence is: one half also
A hyperventilation (the rate and depth of breathing will B the partial oxygen pressure at that altitude will be doubled
increase)
C the partial oxygen pressure at that altitude will also drop to
B cyanosis 1/2 of the pressure of oxygen at sea level
C hypoxia D the oxygen saturation of the blood at that altitude will drop by
50 % too
D vertigo
678) The atmospheric gas pressure
705) Haemoglobin is:

A decreases slower at lower altitudes compared with higher
levels and equivalent altitude changes
A dissolved in the plasma
B drops faster at lower altitudes in comparison to the same
B in the white blood cells altitude changes at higher altitudes
C in the red blood cells C rises with altitude
D in the platelets D decreases linear with altitude
677) Barodontalgia 673) The 'cocktail party effect' is
A arises only at higher altitudes and after decompression A the ability to drink too much at social gathering
B even arises with healthy teeth B the tendency to believe information that reinforces our
mental model of the world
C arises in combination with a cold and very high rates of
descent C the tendency not to perceive relevant information
D arises especially with irritations of the sensitive tissues D the ability to pick up relevant information unintentionally
close to the root of a tooth
672) 1. Lively information is easier to take into consideration

676) At what altitude (breathing 100% oxygen without for creating
pressure) could symptoms of hypoxia be expected? a mental picture than boring information.
2.The sequence in which information is offered is also
A 22 000 ft important for
the use the pilot makes of it.
B Approximately 35 000 ft.
C Approximately 38 - 40 000 ft.
D Approximately 10 - 12 000 ft.
C 1 is correct, 2 is not correct
675) What are the communication qualities of a good D 1 is not correct, 2 is correct
briefing?
A good briefing must:
-1 : contain as much information and be as 707) Glaucoma
comprehensive as 1. can lead to total blindness
possible. 2. can lead to undetected reduction of the visual field
-2 : be of a standard type so that it can be reused for 3. reduces visual acuity in its final stage
another flight
of the same type. A 1 and 3 are correct, 2 is false
-3 : be short and precise.
-4 : be understandable to the other crew member(s).
B 2 and 3 are correct, 1 is false
C 1 is correct, 2 and 3 are false
C 1, 2 and 4 are correct 670) The use of modern technology applied to glass-cockpit
aircraft has:
A improved man-machine communication as a result of flight
sensations
674) Which scanning technique should be used when flying B facilitated feedback from the machine via more concise data
at night? for communication on the flight deck
A Look to the side (15 - 20 deg) of the object. C considerably improved all the communication facilities of the
crew
B Look directly at the object.
D reduced the scope for non-verbal communication in
C Blink your eyes. interpersonal relations
D Look with one eye.
683) A barotrauma of the middle ear is 665) In relation to hypoxia, which of the following
paraphrase(s) is (are) correct?
A an infection of the middle ear caused by rapid A This is a physical condition caused by a lack of oxygen to
decompression meet the needs of the body tissues, leading to mental and
muscular disturbances, causing impaired thinking, poor
B an acute or chronic trauma of the middle ear caused by a judgement and slow reactions
difference of pressure on either side of the eardrum
B This is a condition of lacking oxygen in the brain causing the
C a bacterial infection of the middle ear circulatory system to compensate by decreasing the heart
rate.
D a dilatation of the eustachian tube
C Hypoxia is often produced during steep turns when pilots
turn their heads in a direction opposite to the direction in
which the aircraft is turning
668) The volume percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere is
21% which
D This is a physical condition caused by a lack of oxygen
saturation in the blood while hyperventilating.
A is constant for all altitudes conventional airplanes can reach
B decreases with increasing altitude

664) A high level of motivation is related
C increases with increasing altitude

A to high levels of arousal
D is dependent on the present air pressure
B to high levels of intelligence
667) Saturation of oxygen in the blood at sea level is 98%. C to complacency

This saturation decreases with:
1. decreasing air pressure D to monotony states
2. carbon monoxide poisoning
3. increasing altitude
4. increasing air pressure
663) Which of the following illusions are brought about by
conflicts between the visual system and the vestibular
A 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false system ?
-1: Illusions concerning the attitude of the aircraft
B 1, 2 and 4 are correct, 3 is false -2: Autokinetic illusion (fixed point viewed as moving)
-3: Illusions when estimating the size and distance of
C 2, 3 and 4 are correct, 1 is false objects
-4 : Illusions of rotation
D 1, 3 and 4 are correct, 2 is false
A 3,4
B 1,4
666) Which problem may occur, when flying in an
environment of low contrast (fog, snow, darkness,
haze)? C 2,3,4
Under these conditions it is:
D 2
A impossible to detect objects
B no problem to estimate the correct speed and size of 662) Attitudes are defined as:
approaching objects
C improbable to get visual illusions A tendencies to respond to people, institutions or events either
positively or negatively
D difficult to estimate the correct speed and size of
approaching objects B the conditions necessary for carrying out an activity
C the genetic predispositions for thinking and acting
D a synonym for behaviour
661) The 'Black hole' phenomenon occurs during approaches 703) Hypoxia is a situation in which the cells
at night and over water, jungle or desert. When the pilot
is lacking of visual cues other than those of the
aerodrome there is an illusion of A are saturated with nitrogen
A climbing B are saturated with oxygen
B being too low, flying a steeper approach than normal C have a shortage of carbon dioxide
C being too high and too far away, dropping low and landing D have a shortage of oxygen
short
D being too close, landing long

702) Sleeplessness or the disruption of sleeping patterns
1. can lead to symptoms of drowsiness, irritability and
lack of
660) Please check the following statements: concentration
1. A stressor causes activation 2. will make an individual more prone to make errors
2. Activation stimulates a person to cope with it
A 1 is correct, 2 is not correct
B 1 is not correct, 2 is correct
C 1 is not correct, 2 is correct
C 1 and 2 are both not correct
D 1 is correct, 2 is not correct
D 1 and 2 are both correct
701) Why must flight safety considerations consider the

671) The rate of accidents in commercial aviation (excluding human error mechanism?
sabotage and acts of terrorism) : -1 : It is analysis of an incident or accident which will
make it
A represents about fifty accidents around the world every year possible to identify what error has been committed
and by
B is approximatively 1 accident per million airport movements whom. It is the process whereby the perpetrator is
made
responsible which may lead to elimination of the
C has improved considerably over the last fifteen years error.
-2 : If we have a better understanding of the cognitive
D is a long way short of the safety level of road transport error
mechanism, it will be possible to adapt procedures,
aircraft
interfaces, etc.
693) The severity of hypoxia depends on the:
-3 : It is error management procedure which enables us
1. rate of decompression
to
2. physical fitness
continuously adjust our actions. The better we
3. flight level
understand the
4. individual tolerance
underlying mechanism of an error, the better will be
our means
for detecting and adapting future errors.
-4 : Since error is essentially human, once it has been
B 2,3 and 4 are correct, 1 is false identified by
the use of procedures, a person will be able to
C 1 and 3 are correct, 2 and 4 are false anticipate and
deal with it automatically in the future.
D 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
A 3 and 4
704) Which of the following abilities will not improve efficient
decision making on the cockpit?
B 2 and 4
A Ability to think ahead and specify alternative courses of
action. C 1 and 4
B Ability to persuade others to follow the own point of view. D 2 and 3
C Communicational skills and social competence.
D Ability to search for and examine all available information

regarding a situation.
700) The rate and depth of breathing is primarily controlled 696) Which statement is correct regarding alcohol in the
by: human body?
A the amount of carbon monoxide in the blood A An increase of altitude decreases the adverse effect of
alcohol.
B the amount of nitrogen in the blood
B When drinking coffee, the human body metabolizes alcohol
at a faster rate than normal.
C the total atmospheric pressure
C Judgement and decision making can be affected even by a
D the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood small amount of alcohol.
D A small amount of alcohol increases visual acuity.

699) In order to provide optimum human performance it is
advisable to
681) The chemical substance responsible for addiction to
A plan future actions and decisions at least a couple of days in tobacco is
advance
A the combination of nicotine, tar and carbon monoxide
B establish strategies for planning, automating and managing
resources (in real time)
B nicotine
C plan a maximum of objectives and non-automated actions
C carbon monoxide
D avoid powerful behaviour expedient of automating tasks
D tar
698) What would be the priority aim in the design of man-

machine interfaces and in the creation of their 694) The available cognitive resources of the human brain:
application procedures for combatting problems
associated with human error ?
A are virtually unlimited
A To put in place redundant alarm systems
B allow for twin-tasks operation without any loss of
effectiveness
B To reduce the risks of the appearance or non-detection of
errors entailing serious consequences
C are limited and make it impossible to perform two attentional
tasks at the same time
C To eliminate the risk of latent errors occuring
D are limited but make it possible to easily perform several
D To cater systematically for the consequences of errors in tasks at the same time
order to analyse their nature and modify ergonomic
parameters
682) You fly VFR from your home base (runway width 27 m),
to an international airport (runway width 45 m). On
697) What are the main characteristics of active errors ? reaching your destination there is a risk of performing a:
They :
1. are detectable only with difficulty by first-line A high approach with overshoot
operators
2. have rapid and direct consequences on the action in B high approach with undershoot
progress
3. are down to first-line operators
4. have an impact on the overall action whose timing C low approach with overshoot
may be
affected significantly D low approach with undershoot
A 3,4
B 1,4
C 2,3
D 1,2
692) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct ? 688) The carcinogen (a substance with the ability to produce
- 1: The retina has rods on its peripheral zone and cones modifications in cells which develop a cancer) in the
on its bronchi of the lungs is
central zone
- 2: The retina has cones and the crystalline lens has A lead
rods
- 3: The rods allow for night-vision B tar
- 4: The cones are located on the peripheral zone of the
retina
C nicotine
A 2,3
D carbon monoxide
B 4
C 1,3 687) 1. Adaptation is a new state of equilibrium after having

coped with
D 1 a stressful situation.
2. An individual's prospect of the situation and his/her
abilities to
cope with it will determine the type and strength of
691) Decompression sickness symptoms may develop due to stress.
A 1 and 2 are both false

A sudden pressure surges in the cabin at altitudes below
18000 FT
B emergency descents after a cabin pressure loss
C 1 is correct, 2 is false
C fast flights from a high-pressure zone into a low pressure
area when flying an unpressurized aeroplane D 1 is false, 2 is correct
D cabin pressure loss when flying at higher altitudes (above

18000 FT)
686) A pilot can overcome hyperventilation by:
690) To avoid wrong decisions by the pilot, an aircraft A depending on instruments

system should at least be able to
B increasing the rate and depth of breathing to eliminate
A correct the deviation harmful carbon dioxide
B tolerate the deviation C the use of drugs stabilizing blood pressure
C report its malfunction D controlling the rate and depth of breathing, breathing into a
bag or speaking with a loud voice
D report the deviation
685) Flying immediately following a dive with SCUBA diving

equipment (> 10 m depth)
689) Some hours after a rapid decompression at FL 300 you
experience pain in the joints. Which of following A has no influence on altitude flights
answers is correct?
A This symptom indicates decompression sickness and will

B is forbidden for the flight crew, because it leads to hypoxia
disappear when you take some exercise.
C can cause decompression sicknesss even when flying at
B This phenomenon is treated by physiotherapy. pressure altitudes below 18 000 FT
D prevents any dangers caused by aeroembolism

C This phenomenon is treated by breathing 100% nitrogen.
(decompression sickness) when climbing to altitudes not
exceeding 30 000 FT
D You should ask for medical advice (flight surgeon) since this
is a symptom of decompression sickness.
684) Which of the following are the most favourable solutions 444) Which of the following solutions represent antidotes to
to manage phases of reduced or low vigilance conflicts ?
(hypovigilance)? 1. Seeking arbitration
1. Healthy living 2. Actively listening to other people
2. Use of amphetamines 3. Abandoning facts so as to move the conversation to a
3. Reducing the intensity of the light more emotional level
4. Organising periods of rest during the flight 4. Becoming aware of cultural influences
A 1,4 A 2,3,4
B 1,2 B 2,4
C 1,3 C 1,2,4
D 3,4 D 1,2,3
564) Human behaviour is determined by: 443) "Pilot's vertigo":
A cultural influences A a sudden loss of visual perception during flight due to

multiple irritation of the utriculus and sacculus at the same
B biological characteristics, social environment and cultural time
influences
B the impression of climbing when banking
C biological characteristics
C is a sensation of rotation during flight due to multiple
D the social environment irritation of several semicircular canals at the same time
D the impression of flying straight and level while the aircraft

is spinning
695) The human circadian rhythm is based on a cycle of
about:
442) The volume of air beeing exchanged during a normal
A 1.5 hours breathing cycle (tidal volume) is about:
B 12 hours A 500 ml of air
C 48 hours B 350 ml of air
D 24 hours C 150 ml of air
D 75 ml of air
434) A pilot, accelerating or decelerating in level flight may
get:
441) Which of the following statements is correct?
A the feeling of rotation The blood-pressure which is measured during flight
medical checks is the pressure
B the illusion to turn
A in the veins of the upper arm
C the impression of stationary objects moving to the right or
left B in the artery of the upper arm (representing the pressure at
heart level)
D the illusion of climbing or descending
C in all the blood-vessels of the body (representing the
pressure in the whole body)
445) Presbyopia is:
D in the mussles of the upper arm
A far sightedness linked with age
B short sightedness
C myopia
D high intraocular pressure
440) Henry's Law explains the occurence of: 435) Decompression sickness may occur as from :
- 1: an altitude of more than 18,000 ft
- 2 : an altitude of more than 5,500 ft
A hyperventilation - 3 : a rate of climb of more than 500 ft/min exceeding
18,000 ft
B hypoxia - 4 : a temperature of more than 24°C
C decompression sickness A 1,3,4
D diffusion B 2,4
C 1,3
439) The risk of a barotrauma of the middle ear is more likely
to occur D 2,3
A with colds and slow ascents

448) Autokinetic illusion is:
B after a decompression
C with colds and rapid descents

A poor interpretation of the surrounding world
D with colds and fast climbs

B an illusion in which a stationary point of light, if stared at for
several seconds in the dark, may - without a frame of
reference - appear to move
438) An overstressed pilot may show the following C the sensation during a radial acceleration of seeing a fixed
symptoms: reference point moving into the opposite direction of the
1. mental blocks, confusion and channelized attention acceleration
2. resignation, frustration, rage
3. deterioration in motor coordination D a conflict between the visual system and bodily sensations
4. high pitch voice and fast speaking
A 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct 433) Which of the following statements best characterise a
synergetic cockpit?
B 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false 1. Decisions are taken by the captain, but prepared by
the crew
C 1 and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are false 2. There is little delegating of tasks
3. Communications are few in number but precise and
D 1and 3 are correct, 2 and 4 are false geared purely to the flight
4. Fluid, consensual boundaries exist in regard to
leadership-style, which fluctuate between authority and
laissez-faire
437) The semicircular canals of the inner ear monitor
A 1,4
A gravity
B 1,3,4
B angular accelerations
C 2,3
C movements with constant speeds
D 2,4
D relative speed and linear accelerations
432) When can a system be said to be tolerant to error?

When:
424) In airline operations decompression sickness symptoms
A latent errors do not entail serious consequences for safety
A may affect people with defect tympanic membrane
B the consequences of an error will not seriously jeopardise
B may develop after a decompression from 7000 FT cabin safety
pressure altitude to 30000 FT flight altitude
C its safety system is too permeable to error
C may develop when being decompressed from MSL to 15
000 FT D its safety system has taken account of all statistically
probable errors
D appear only in air crew, previously engaged in diving
activities
431) Habits and routine can influence decision-making in a 427) Using a checklist prior start is a contribution to
way that:
A one always wants to see previous experience confirmed by A workload, because using checklists will increase the pilot´s
new decisions workload prior take-off
B professional pilots will never question established B frustration

procedures
C safety, because the concentration on the check list items
C one always selects a choice in accordance with the will draw the pilot´s attention to flight related tasks, reducing
company's usual practices distraction from personal stress
D a tendency to select the most familiar solution first and D stress, because time pressure prior take-off is always
foremost, sometimes to the detriment of achieving the best present
possible result
426) Exchange of gasses between the body and the

430) What are the effects of distress (overstress) ? environment takes place at the:
A lungs
A It activates resources stored in memory
B heart
B It has very little immediate effect on vigilance and attention
C muscles
C It increases vigilance for a longer period than stress itself,
but may focus attention
D central nervous system
D It reduces vigilance and focusses attention
470) The relationship which exists between crew error and

flight safety :
429) Which phenomenon is common to hypoxia and
hyperventilation?
A is dependent on the social and technical system and also on
the operational context created by the system
A Cyanosis (blueing of lips and finger-nails).
B is a linear relationship which introduces crew training as the
B Severe headache. main factor
C Euphoria. C is independent of the operational context, with the latter

being identical for any flight operation
D Tingling sensations in arms or legs.
D has been evolving for 40 years and has now become
independent of the social and technical system
428) The resistance phase of stress reaction is characterized

by:
436) The time an eye needs to adapt fully to the dark is about:
-1 : activation of the autonomic nervous system (ANS).
-2 : testosterone secretion which enables fats to be
converted into A 5 minutes
sugar.
-3 : a sudden fall in stress resistance.
-4 : the appearance of psychosomatic disorders when
B 10 minutes
lasting over
a prolonged time. C 10 seconds
D 25 - 30 minutes
B 2 , 3 and 4 are correct 458) Which of the following responses lists most of the
common hazardous thought patterns (attitudes) for
C 3 and 4 are correct pilots to develop?
D 1 and 4 are correct A Anti-authority, impulsiveness, invulnerabilty, resignation,

machismo complex
B Invulnerability, underconfidence, avoidance of making

decisions, lack of situational awareness
C Machismo complex, resignation, confidence, self critcism
D Resignation, confidence, inattention
566) If you are subjected to an illusion during night flying 464) What is meant by metabolism ?
you should:
A dim the cockpit lighting A Transfer of chemical messages
B scan the surroundings B Exchange of substances between the lung and the blood
C use your oxygen mask C The transformation by which energy is made available for
the uses of the organism
D continue on instruments D Information exchange
468) The eustachian tube serves for the pressure 463) Which of the following could a pilot experience when he
equalization between is hyperventilating?
1. Dizziness
A frontal, nose and maxillary sinuses 2. Muscular spasms
3. Visual disturbances
B middle ear and external atmosphere 4. Cyanosis
C sinuses of the nose and external atmosphere A 1,2 and 4 are correct, 3 is false
D nose and pharyngeal cavity and external atmosphere B 1 is false, all others are correct
C 2 and 4 are false

467) A high degree of cockpit automation may alter the
traditional tasks of the pilots in a way, that D 1,2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
A it is guaranteed that the crew maqintains always situational

awareness 462) The proprioceptive senses (seat-of-the-pants sense) are
important for motor coordination.
B Crew Coordination can be neglected on long haul flights They
without compromizing safety
A are completely unreliable for orientation when flying in IMC
C the crew can pay more attention to solve the problem in an
abnormal situation without monitoring the automatic systems
B indicate the difference between gravity and G-forces
D the attention of the cockpit crew will become reduced with
the consequence of 'being out of the loop' C allow the pilot to determine the absolute vertical at flight
condition
466) Conscious perception

D are important senses for flight training in IMC
A relies upon the development of intuition

461) Decision-making is a concept which represents :
B involves the transfer of information from the receptor to the

brain only A an automatic process of selection from among the various
solutions to a given problem
C relates to the correct recognition of colours
B a spontaneous act of seeking the most effective solution in a
D is a mental process involving experience and expectations given situation when faced with a defined problem
C a voluntary and conscious process of selection, from among

possible solutions, for a given problem
465) The Time of Useful Consciousness may vary according
to : D an automated or automation-like act of applying defined
1 : physical activity of the subjected crew procedures
2 : the experience of the pilot on the type of aircraft in
question
3 : the strength and time of decompression
446) The most dangerous symptoms of hypoxia at altitude are
4 : the cabin temperature
A 4 A hyperventilation
B 1,3 B sensation of heat and blurred vision
C 1,2 C breathlessness and reduced night vision
D 3,4 D euphoria and impairment of judgement
459) Long-term memory is an essential component of the 454) The phenomenon of accommodation, which enables a
pilot's knowledge and expertise. clear image to be obtained, is accomplished by which of
the following ?
A The recovery of information from long-term memory is
immediate and easy A The cones
B It is desirable to pre-activate knowledge stored in long-term B The retina

memory to have it available when required
C The capacity of long-term memory is limited C The crystalline lens
D Long-term memory stores knowledge on a temporary basis

D The rods
453) Getting uneasy will effect:

447) The choice of the moment you select flaps depending
1. attention
on situation and conditions of the landing is:
2. concentration
3. memory
A skill based behaviour
4. prudence
B knowledge based behaviour A 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
C pressure based behaviour B 1 and 2 are correct
D rule based behaviour C 1 and 3 are correct

457) Which of the following statements is correct regarding
decision making?
452) The effect of experience and habit on performance
A Deciding means imposing one's point of view.
B Deciding means applying an automatic procedure. A is always negative
C Deciding means choosing between alternatives. B is never negative
D Deciding means being able to come up with original C is always beneficial

solutions.
D can both be beneficial and negative
456) The proprioceptive senses ("Seat of-the-Pants-Sense")

451) The thin walls of capillaries are permeable for :
A is a natural human instinct, always indicating the correct
attitude A protein
B can be used, if trained, to avoid spatial disorientation in IMC
B red blood cells
C can neither be used for motor coordination in IMC and VMC
C gases
D give wrong information, when outside visual reference is lost
D platelets
455) What could cause hyperventilation ?

450) Of the following alternatives, which objective effects are
due to positive acceleration (+ Gz)?
A Abuse of alcohol - 1: Decrease in heart rate
- 2: Pooling of blood into lower parts of the body
B Extreme low rate of breathing - 3: Drop in blood pressure above heart-level
- 4: Downward displacement or deformation of soft or
mobile organs
C Fatigue
A 1
D Fear, anxiety and distress
B 1,3,4
C 2,3,4
D 1,2,3
449) The vestibular organ 397) Which of the following human error rates can be
described as both realistic and pretty good, after
methodical training
A reacts to linear/angular acceleration and gravity
A 1 in 100 times
B gives the impression of hearing
B 1 in 1000 times
C reacts to pressure changes in the middle ear
C 1 in 10000 times
D reacts to vibrations of the cochlea
D 1 in 100000 times
423) The human information processing system is highly

efficient compared to computers because of its 396) The peripheral vision is important for:
A speed
A visual acuity
B working memory capacity
B binocular vision
C independancy from attention
C colour vision
D flexibility
D detecting moving objects
460) After a cabin pressure loss in approximately 35 000 FT

the TUC (Time of Useful Consciousness) will be 395) Which of the following factors may have an influence on
approximately: medical disqualification?
A 30 -90 seconds A Low blood pressure only.
B 10-15 seconds B High and low blood pressure as well as a poor condition of
the circulatory system.
C 3-4 minutes
C High blood pressure only.
D 5 minutes or more
D Blood pressure problems cannot occur in aircrew because
they always can be treated by in-flight medication.
387) What could be symptoms of hypoxia (when flying

without oxygen) above 12,000 ft?
394) In a glass-cockpit aircraft, communication between the
members of the crew:
A Trembling, increase in body temperature,
convulsions,slowing of the rate of breathing
A are facilitated from the non-verbal point of view owing to the
increased availability wich results from technical lightening
B Headache, fatigue, dizziness, lack of coordination
of the workload
C Headache, thirst, somnolence, collapse B does not loose its importance
D Euphoria, headache, improvement in judgement, loss of C will increase as a result of the increase of technical
consciousness dissemination of information
D will be hampered by the decrease in actions brought about

398) What may become the main risk of a "laissez-faire" by technical improvements
cockpit ?
A Disengagement of the co-pilot 393) What are easily observable indications of stress?
B Inversion of authority
A Rising of the blood pressure, pupils narrowing, stabbing
pain around the heart.
C Lack of communication
B Perspiration, flushed skin, dilated pupils, fast breathing.
D Appearance of agressiveness
C Lowering of the blood pressure.
D Faster, deep inhalation, stabbing pain around the heart.
392) When spinning an aircraft, the predominating type of 401) Please mark the counter-measure a pilot can use against
acceleration will be a barotrauma of the middle ear (aerotitis).
A angular acceleration A Increase the rate of descent
B radial acceleration B Stop chewing and swallowing movements ("Valsalva")
C linear acceleration C Use drugs against a cold
D vertical acceleration D Stop descending, climb again and then descend with
reduced sink rate
391) The photosensitive cells beeing responsible for night

vision are called: 386) The biological reaction to stress is identical regardless
of the cause of stress. This mechanism occurs in three
A the rods phases and is referred to, by Selye, as the "General
Adaptation Syndrome".
The sequence is:
B the fovea
A alarm phase - denial phase - exhaustion phase
C the cones
B exhaustion phase - resistance phase - adaptation phase
D the cones and the rods
C resistance phase - exhaustion phase - recovery phase
390) Which of the folllowing statements concerning D alarm phase - resistance phase - exhaustion phase
barotrauma are correct? They are:
A caused by an increase in the partial pressure of oxygen

associated with a decrease in altitude 385) The DECIDE model is based on :
B more likely to occur during ascent then during a rapid

A a prescriptive generic model which is subject to
descent
mathematical logic
C mainly associated with a sink rate which exceeds the ability
B a normative generic model based on mathematical logic
of the body to balance its internal pressures
D due to pressure differentials between gases in hollow C a statistical model based on observation of human decision-
cavities of the body and the ambient pressure making
D a prescriptive generic model, taking into account the method

which seems most likely to come up with the solution
425) Acute stress quickly leads to
A a decrease in the amount of resources mobilized to face the 384) The barometric pressure has dropped to 1/2 of the
situation pressure at sea level at
B a permanent state of incapacitation A 30 000 feet
C a state of overactivation beyond the control of willpower B 18 000 feet
D the mobilization of resources required to cope with the C 10 000 feet

stressor
D 25 000 feet
388) The person with overall responsibility for the flight is the
-1 Pilot in Command
383) You suffered a rapid decompression without the
-2 Co-pilot
appearance of any decompression sickness symptoms.
-3 Navigator
How long should you wait until your next flight?
-4 Air traffic controller
The correct statement(s) is (are): A 48 hours
A 1 and 2 B 12 hours
B 2 and 3 C 24 hours
C 4 D 36 hours
D 1
382) With regard to central vision, which of the following 378) One negative aspect of the highly automated cockpit
statements are correct ? results in :
-1: It is due to the functioning of rods
-2: It enables details, colours and movement to be seen A pilots disregarding the automatic equipment
-3: Its very active both during the day and at night
-4: It represents a zone where about 150.000 cones per B constantly high crew overload with regard to the monitoring
mm are tasks
located to give high resolution capacity
C less experienced crews because of more transparent
A 1,2,4 system details
B 2,3,4 D complacency among the crewmembers
C 1,3
389) Smoking cigarettes reduces the capability of the blood
D 2,4 to carry oxygen. This is because:
A hemoglobin has a greater affinity for carbon monoxide than it

has for oxygen
381) CRM (Crew Resource Management) training is:
B carbon monoxide in the smoke of cigarettes assists
A intended to develop effectiveness of crew performance by diffusion of oxygen in the alveoli
improving attitudes towards flight safety and human
relationship management C carbon monoxide increases the partial pressure of oxygen
in the alveoli
B not intended to change the individual's attitude at all
D the smoke of one cigarette can cause an obstruction in the
respiratory tract
C intended solely to alter an individual's personality;
D is mainly of relevance to pilots with personality disorders or

inappropriate attitudes 411) Glaucoma is:
A high intra-ocular pressure

380) A good method to treat hyperventilation is to:
B disturbed colour vision
A excecute the valsalva manoeuvre
C disturbed adaptation
B close the eyes and relax
D disturbed night vision
C talk oneself through the relevant procedure aloud to
emotionally calm down and reduce the rate of breathing
simultaneously 422) During sustained positive G-forces the order of
symptoms you can expect is:
D don an oxygen mask
A grey-out, tunnel vision, black-out and unconsciousness.
379) When flying at night the first sense to be affected by a B unconsciousness, black-out, tunnel vision and grey out.
slight degree of hypoxia is the
C black-out, grey-out, tunnel vision and unconsciousness.
A sense of balance
D grey-out, unconsciousness, black-out and tunnel vision
B proprioceptive sensitivity
C vision
421) An excessive need for safety
D cochlea
A guarantees the right decision making in critical situations
B hampers severly the way of pilot decision making
C is absolute necessary for a safe flight operation
D is the most important attribute of a line pilot
420) The performance of the man machine system is above 415) The impression of an apparent movement of light
all : when stared at for a relatively long period of time in the
dark is called
A a balanced combination between someone actively engaged
in his work and automated systems which serve to control A "oculogyral illusion"
the pilot's workload
B "oculografic illusion"
B a combination which must make the pilot available for the
sphere in which he is most qualified, namely checking
departures from the normal operating range C "autokinesis"
C a combination in which the pilot must keep the main D "white out"
repetitive tasks and automated systems under his control in
line with rule-based behaviour
414) The negative (radial) acceleration of an airplane affects
D a combination which is based on decreasing the pilot's the sitting pilot with inertia along :
workload and increasing his time for supervision
A the transverse body axis to the right
419) The metabolisation of alcohol B the transverse body axis to the left
A is a question of time C the vertical body axis upwards
B is quicker when used to it D the vertical body axis downwards
C can be accelerated even more by coffee

399) During flight all crewmembers have one or more of the
D can be influenced by easy to get medication following symptoms:
1. blue lips
2. mental disturbances
3. tingling sensations in arms and/or legs
418) Why is hypoxia especially dangerous for pilots flying 4. reduction of peripheral vision
solo? Which is the possible cause?
A Since the first signs of hypoxia are generally hard to detect A Hypoxia.
(hypoxia of the brain), the solo pilot may not be able to react
in time (i.e. activate his emergency oxygen system)
B Glaucoma.
B Hypoxia does not cause a loss of control in steering the
plane. C Hypothermia.
C Hypoxia improves vision at night, so the pilot will have no D Hypoglycaemia.

indication of danger.
D The pilot may loose control when he is using the oxygen

mask. 412) Young pilots or pilots with little experience of airplanes
differ from experienced pilots in the following way :
417) The transfer of oxygen from the alveoli to the blood can
A experienced pilots are less routine-minded than young pilots
because they know that routine causes mistakes
be discribed by:
B task for task, an expert's workload is greater than a novice's
A Boyle's Law one
B Dalton's Law C flight planning performance decreases with age, and

experience is unable to mask this deficiency
C Henry's Law
D unexperienced pilots refer to information more than experts
D the law of diffusion when carrying out the same task
416) Nonverbal communication
A is of no meaning in the cockpit
B is always used intentionally
C should be avoided by all means in the cockpit
D supports verbal communication
400) What seem to be the main roles of deep sleep ? 407) With regard to the average influence of age on pilot
performance, it may be said that age:
A It is confined to physical recuperation associated with fatigue A has a major impact owing to the impairment of memory
B Its main role is associated with activities of memory B increases in impact as speed of thought and memory
activities and restoration of attention capabilities deteriorate
C Via physical recovery, it is characterised by an alternation of

C has little impact when the pilot is able to compensate for it by
dream phases and paradoxical phases his/her flight experience
D It essentially allows for physical recovery and the D sharply reduces performance without, however, affecting
reconstitution of neuron energy reserves cognitive capabilities
410) The human performance is generally 406) The effect of hypoxia to vision
A better when relaxed, independent of the period of day A can only be detected when smoking tobacco
B better very early in the morning B does not depend on the level of illumination
C always better in the evening than in the morning

C is stronger with the rods
D constant throughout the day D is usual stronger with the cones
409) Concerning the relation between performance and 405) Whilst flying a coordinated turn, most of your activity is
stress, which of the following statement(s) is (are)
correct?
A rule based behaviour
A A well trained pilot is able to eleminate any kind of stress
completely when he is scheduled to fly. B skill based behaviour
B A moderate level of stress may improve performance.

C coping behaviour
C A student will learn faster and better under severe stress.

D knowledge based behaviour
D Domestic stress will not affect the pilot's performance

because he is able to leave this type of stress on the ground.
404) The following actions are appropriate when faced with
symptoms of decompression sickness:
1. climb to higher level
408) Having a serious cold it is better not to fly, due to the
2. descent to the higher of 10000 ft or MSA and land as
extra risk of:
soon as
1. flatulence
possible
2. pain in the ear during descent
3. breathe 100 % oxygen
3. pressure vertigo
4. get medical advice about recompression after landing
4. pain in the nasal sinuses


C 1 and 2 are correct C 1 and 4 are correct

403) Vibrations within the frequency band of 1/10 to 2 Hertz

are a factor contributing to air-sickness, because they
A upset the vestibular apparatus
B interfere with those of the own blood thus causing

circulation problems
C interfere with the frequencies of the central nervous system
D make the stomach and its contents vibrating at the same

frequency
402) The type of hypoxia, which occurs at altitude is a 538) How can you determine if a person is suffering from a
explained by: barotrauma of the sinuses of the nose (aerosinusitis) or
the middle ear (aerotitis) ?
A Henry´s law
A There is no difference
B Graham´s law
B Hearing difficulties will normally accompany aerotitis
C Dalton´s law
C Aerosinusitis will never develop during descent
D Boyle Mariotte´s law
D Barotrauma of the middle ear will not effect hearing
471) A passenger complains about a painful inflated belly at

8.000 feet. You advise him to: 537) Hyperventilation causes
1. unbuckle and massage the belly
2. stand up and let go the gases out of the intestines
3. eat less gas forming food and avoid carbonhydrated A acidosis
beverages
before flight in the future B hypochondria
4. drink a lot of water throughout the flight
C a lack of carbon dioxide in the blood
A only 4 is correct
D an excess of carbon dioxide in the blood

536) After a decompression at high altitude
D 1 and 3 not advisable
A automatically oxygen is deployed into the cabin
413) The following occurs in man if the internal body B temperature in the cockpit will increase
temperature increases to 38°C :
C pressure differentials will suck air into the cabin
A impairment of physical and mental performance
D nitrogen gas bubbles can be released in the body fluids
B apathy causing gas embolism, bends and chokes
C considerable dehydration
535) How can a pilot avoid automation complacency?
D nothing signifiant happens at this temperature. The first
clinical signs only start to appear at 39°C A Nothing, because it is system-inherent
B Regard the automatic system as additional crew members

528) It is desirable to standardize as many patterns of that needs to be crosschecked as well
behaviour (operating procedures) as possible in
commercial aviation mainly because C Always try to enhance your aviation related knowledge
during low workload periods
A it makes the flight deck easier to design
D Always fly the whole flight manually to remain in man-
B such behaviour reduces errors even under adverse machine loop
circumstances
C this lowers the ability requirement in pilot selection 534) Barotrauma of the middle ear most likely will occur
D this reduces the amount of training required

A when climbing
B in sudden steep turns

539) Which of the following characteristics form part of
decision-making on the flight deck ?
C when descending rapidly
A A good decision depends on analysis of the situation
D during a long high altitude flight
B A decision is only valid in a defined and delimited time
C A good decision can always be reversed if its result does not

come up to expectations
D A group decision must always be established prior to action
533) What airplane equipment marked a subtantial decrease 542) Of the following statements concerning the effects of
in hull loss rates in the eighties? circadian rhythms on performance, we know that :
A SSR A Sensorimotor and intellectual performance are better in the

morning and are sensitive to the duration of the sleep state
B TCAS
B Sensorimotor and intellectual performance are better in the
evening and very sensitive to the duration of the waking
C GPWS
period
D DME C Sensorimotor performance is better in the evening whereas
intellectual performance is better in the morning
532) The circulatory system, among other things, allows for :

D Sensorimotor performance is better in the morning whereas
1. transportation of oxygen and carbon dioxide intellectual performance is better in the evening
2. transportation of information by chemical substances
A 1 is false and 2 is correct 527) With regard to communication in a cockpit, we can say
that:
B both are false
A communication uses up resources, thus limiting the
resources allocated to work in progress
B communication is always sufficiently automated to enable an
D 1 is correct and 2 is false activity with a high workload element to be carried out at the
same time
531) Fixation or tunnel vision is primarily to be expected C communication is only effective if messages are kept short
when : and sufficiently precise to limit their number
A stress is medium
D all the characteristics of communication, namely output,
duration, precision, clarity, etc. are stable and are not much
affected by changes in workload
B stress and motivation are medium
C stress and motivation are low

526) Empty field myopia is caused by:
D stress is high
A atmospheric perspective
518) One of the most frequent symptom(s) of decompression

B ozone at altitude
sickness emerging after a decompression in airline
operation C flying over mountainous terrain
A are the chokes D lack of distant focal points
B is a shock
525) The level of automation of behaviour-patterns facilitates
C are neurological damages to the CNS the saving of resources and therefore of attention. On
the other hand, it may result in :
D are the bends
A errors in selecting an appropriate plan of action
529) The transfer of carbon dioxide from the blood to the

B routine errors (slips)
alveoli can be described by:
C mistakes
A Boyles Law
D decision-making errors
B Dalton's Law
C Henry's Law 524) When flying above 10.000 feet hypoxia arises because:
D the law of diffusion

A the composition of the blood changes
B the composition of the air is different from sea level
C the percentage of oxygen is lower than at sea level
D the partial oxygen pressure is lower than at sea level.
523) Situations particularly vulnerable to "reversion to an 469) As a result of automation in cockpits,
earlier behaviour pattern" are :
1. when concentration on a particular task is relaxed
2. when situations are characterised by medium A coordination between the members is facilitated by the
workload provision of more precise and more important information
3. when situations are characterised by stress
B communication and coordination have clearly improved in
A 2. and 3. man-man and man-machine relations
B 1. and 3.
C communication and coordination call for an even greater
effort on the part of the crew members
C 1. and 2. D man-man communication has been significantly improved
D 3.
530) When turning in IMC , head movements should be
avoided as much as possible. This is a prevention
522) Errors which occur during highly automated actions against:
may result from :
1. the capture of a poor action subprogram A oculogyral illusion
2. a mistake in the decision making process
3. the application of a poor rule B pressure vertigo
4. an action mode error
A C coriolis illusion
1,4
D autokinesis
B 1,2
C 3,4
552) With regard to the humidity of air in current in a
pressurized cabin, we know that it :
D 2,3,4
-1 : varies between 40 and 60%
-2 : varies between 5 and 15%
-3 : may cause dehydration effecting the performance of
521) The acquisition of expertise comprises three stages ( the crew
Anderson model): -4 : has no special effects on crew members
A automatic, cognitive and knowledge A 1,4
B cognitive, associative and autonomous B 2,3
C cognitive, associative and knowledge C 1,3
D associative, autonomous and expert D 2,3,4
520) An autocratic cockpit is described by : 563) Pre-thought action plans may be said to:
-1 : ease access to information which may be necessary.
-2 : sensitize and prepare for a possible situation to
A Each of the members chooses what job to do without telling come.
the others and in the belief that everyone is aware of what he -3 : be readily interchangeable and can therefore be
is doing reformulated
at any time during the flight.
B The atmosphere is relaxed thanks to a captain who leaves -4 : define a framework and a probable strategy for the
complete freedom to the various members of the crew encountered situation.
C The captain's excessive authority cosiderably reduces The combination of correct statements is:
communications and consequently the synergy and
cohesion of the crew A 1, 2 and 3 are correct
D Despite the overly strong authority of the captain, everything
functions correctly owing to his natural leadership
562) A pilot is skilled when he : 558) The following can be observed when the internal body
-1 : trains or practises regularly temperature falls below 35°C :
-2 : knows how to manage himself/herself
-3 : possesses all the knowledge associated with his A shivering, will tend to cease, and be followed by the onset of
aircraft apathy
-4 : knows how to keep resources in reserve for coping
with the B the appearance of intense shivering
unexpected
C mental disorders, and even coma
A 1,2
D profuse sweating
B 2, 3,4
C 1,2,4
557) The intensity of a sound is measured in
D 1,2,3,4
A hertz
561) Carbon monoxide in the human body can lead to: B cycles per second
1. loss of muscular power
2. headache C curies
3. impaired judgement
4. pain in the joints D decibels
5. loss of consciousness
A 1, 2, 3, 4 are correct
556) The chemical composition of the earth´s atmosphere (I
C A O standard atmosphere) is
B 1, 2 , 3 and 5 are correct
A 78 % nitrogen, 21 % oxygen, 0,9 % carbon dioxide, 0,03 %
C 1, 2 and 4 are correct argon
D 2 and 3 are correct, 1 is false B 78 % nitrogen, 28 % oxygen, 0,9 % carbon dioxide, 0,03 %
argon
560) Which of the following statements concerning

C 71 % nitrogen, 28 % oxygen, 0,9 % argon, 0,03 % carbon
dioxide
communication is valid?
D 78 % nitrogen, 21 % oxygen, 0,9 % argon, 0,03 % carbon
A Professional communication means: using a restricted and dioxide
specific language, tailored to minimize misunderstandings.
B Professional communication means to exchange information

as little as possible. 555) Which of the following is true concerning carbon
monoxide?
C The syntax of communication is of little importance to its
success. Only the words uttered are important. A It is always present in the lungs.
D Communication must take priority over any other flight B It is to be found in the smoke of cigarettes lifting up a
activity under all circumstances smoker's "physiological altitude".
C It combines 5 times faster to the hemoglobin than oxygen.

559) Hypoxia can also be caused by
D It has no physiological effect when mixed with oxygen.
A increasing oxygen partial pressure used for the exchange of

gases
540) Very high ambition and need for achievement
B a lack of red blood cells in the blood or decreased ability of
the hemoglobin to transport oxygen
A always promote teamwork
C a lack of nitrogen in ambient air
B improves the coping process with personal failures
D too much carbon dioxide in the blood
C disturbe the climate of cooperation
D fulfil the requirements of stress resistance
553) The respiratory process consists mainly of 549) Carbon monoxide is always present in the exhaust
gases of engines. If a pilot is exposed to carbon
monoxide, which of the following responses is correct?
A the diffusion of oxygen through the respiratory membranes
into the blood, transportation to the cells, diffusion into the A Carbon monoxide can only affect pilots if they are exposed
cells and elimination of carbon dioxide from the body to them for a long period of time.
B the transportation of oxygen to the cell and the elimination of B When exposed to carbon monoxide for a long period of time,
carbon monoxide the body will adapt to it and no adverse physical effects are
experienced
C the transportation of oxygen to the cell and the elimination of
nitrogen
C A short exposure to relatively high concentrations of carbon
monoxide can seriously affect a pilot´s ability to operate an
D the transportation of carbon dioxide to the cell and aircraft.
elimination of oxygen
D Carbon monoxide is easily recognised by odour and taste.
541) The behavioural effects of stress may include :

-1 : manifestation of aggressiveness.
-2 : a willingness to improve communication. 548) The fovea centralis is
-3 : a willingness for group cohesion.
-4 : a tendency to withdrawl. A the area of best day vision and no night vision at all
-5 : inappropriate gestural agitation.
The combination of correct statements is :

B the area of the blind spot (optic disc)
A 2,4 and 5 are correct C where the optic nerves come together with the pupil
B 1,4 and 5 are correct D the area of best day vision and best night vision

547) What does not apply to a constructive and helpful
D 1,2 and 3 are correct feedback?
A Feedback should always state bluntly the personal failings of

the receiver
551) Which of the following personality characteristics makes
crew decision making most effective? B It should be individually tailored to the receiver's background
A General intelligence.
C It should be formulated subjectively and personally ('I'
instead of 'one')
B Friendliness.
D It should be actual and specify in regard to the concerned
C Assertiveness. situation
D Competitiveness.
546) Mark the two most important attributes for a positive
leadership style:
(1) dominant behaviour
550) What does the 'End Deterioration Effect'('Home-itis')
(2) examplary role-behaviour
mean?
(3) mastery of communication skills
(4) "Laissez-faire" behaviour
A The breakdown of crew coordination due to interpersonal
tensions between captain and co-pilot
A 2 and 4
B The tendency to sudden, imperceptible errors shortly before
the end of a flight B 2 and 3
C The result of a poor preflight planning C 1 and 4
D The potential risk of loosing orientation after flying in clouds D 1 and 3
545) Linear accelleration when flying straight and level in 554) Among the functions below, which is the most sensitive
IMC may give the illusion of: to hypoxia?
A descending A Speech.
B yawing B Night vision.
C spinning C Motor coordination.
D climbing D Hearing.
544) A pilot can be described as being proficient, when 481) During the cruising phase of a short-haul flight the
he/she: captain starts to smoke a cigarette in the cockpit. The
flying copilot asks him to stop smoking because he is a
A has automated a large part of the necessary flight deck non-smoker. The captain tells him: 'This is your
routine operations in order to free his/her cognitive resources problem', and continues smoking. What should the
copilot do?
B is able to reduce his/her arousal to a low level during the
entire flight A He should report the chief pilot about this behaviour of the
captain
C knows how to invest the maximum resources in the
automation of tasks in real time B He should not further discuss this issue but should come
back to this conflict during the debriefing
D is capable of maintaining a high level of arousal during a
great bulk of the flight C He should learn to accept the captain smoking cigarettes in
the cockpit
543) Which statement is correct? D He should repeat his worries about smoking in the cockpit
1. Smokers have a greater chance of suffering from and should argue with the captain about this problem until
coronary heart disease the conflict is solved
2. Smoking tobacco will raise the individuals
pysiological altitude
during flight 492) Alcohol, even when taken in minor quantities
3. Smokers have a greater chance of decreasing ung
cancer
A can make the brain cells to be more susceptible to hypoxia
B will stimulate the brain, making the pilot resistant to hypoxia
B 1 and 2 are correct, 3 is false
C will have no effect at all
D may improve the mental functions, so that the symptoms of
D 2 and 3 are correct, 1 is false hypoxia are much better to be identified
491) Concerning the capacity of the human long-term

517) What event can cause a hyperventilation (not required memory
by physical need)?
1. Pressure breathing.
2. Anxiety or fear.
A its storage capacity is unlimited
3. Overstress.
4. Strong pain. B it is structurally limited in terms of storage capacity, but
5. Jogging. unlimted in terms of storage time
A Only 2 and 3 are correct C it is structurally limited in terms of storage time but not in
terms of capacity
B 1,2,3,4 and 5 are correct D its mode of storing information is passive, making memory
searches effective
C 1and 5 are both false
D 1,2,3 and 4 are correct, 5 is false
490) Which of the following provides the basis of all 485) Positive linear accelleration when flying in IMC may
perceptions? cause a false sensation of:
A The aural or visual significance attributed in long term A pitching up

memory.
B pitching down
B The seperation of figure and background.
C apparent sideward movement of objects in the field of vision
C The intensity of the stimuli.
D vertigo
D The aural or visual significance attributed in short term
memory.
484) Which of the following physical stimuli may cause

stress reactions?
489) What could the crew do in order to avoid air-sickness
-1 : noise.
with passengers?
-2 : interpersonnal conflict.
1. Avoid turbulences.
-3 : temperature.
2. Avoid flying through rough weather.
-4 : administrative problem.
3. Seat passenger close to the center of gravity.
-5 : hunger.
4. Give pertinent information.
A 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
A 1,3,5
B 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
B 1,3,4
C 3,4,5
D Only 4 is correct
D 2,3,5
488) Which of the following is a/are symptom(s) of hypoxia ?

519) The organism is mobilized by a process known as:
A Lack of concentration, fatigue, euphoria
A NAS : Natural Adaptation Syndrome
B Pain in the joints
B GMS : General Mobilization Syndrome.
C Low blood pressure
C GAF : General Adaptation Function.
D Excessive rate and depth of breathing combined with pains
in the chest area
D GAS : General Adaptation Syndrome
487) Barotrauma of the sinuses of the nose (aerosinusitis)

482) Man possesses a system for maintaining his internal
equilibrium in the face of variations brought about by
A is caused by a difference in pressure existing between the external stimulations.
sinus cavity and the ambient air This internal equilibrium is called :
B is only caused by the flying sport, not by the diving sport A Heterostasis
C is an irritation of sinuses by abuse of nose sprays B Isothermy
D is only caused by colds and their effects C Metastasis
D Homeostasis
486) When you stare at a single light against the dark (f.e. an
isolated star) you will find the light appears to move
after some time. This phenomenon is called: 495) The group of tiny bones (the hammer, anvil and stirrup)
are situated in
A autokinetic phenomenon
A the middle ear
B black hole illusion
B the inner ear
C coriolis illusion
C the outer ear
D leans
D the maxillary sinus
480) Changes in blood-pressure are measured by: 475) What are the three phases of General Adaptation
Syndrome ?
A arteriols A alert, resistance, exhaustion
B adrenal glands B Alarm, resistance, exhaustion.
C pacemakers
C Alert, resistance, performance.
D pressoreceptors D alarm, resistance, performance,
479) At what altitude ("threshold for compensatory 474) Of the following statements, select those which apply to
reactions") does the human organism start with "information".
remarkable measures to compensate for the drop in pO2 -1 : It is said to be random when it is not intended for
when climbing? receivers.
At about: -2 : It is intended to reduce uncertainty for the receiver.
-3 : It is measured in bits.
A 6000-7000 FT -4 : Each bit of information reduces uncertainty by a
quarter.
B 8000-9000 FT
C 9000-10000 FT
D 10000-12000 FT
B only 1 is correct
478) The main function of the red blood cells is

D 1,2,3 and 4 are correct

A to contribute to the immune response of the organism
B to transport oxygen
473) A shining light is fading out (i. e. when flying into fog,
dust or haze). What kind of sensation could the pilot get?
C to participate in the process of coagulation of the blood
A The light source will make the pilot believe, that he is
D the cellular defense of the organism climbing
B The source of light moves away from him

477) The momentum of gas exchange in respiration is
C The source of light stands still
A depending on the active transportation of nitrogen into the D The source of light is approaching him with increasing speed
alveoli
B dependent on the pressure gradient between the

participating gases during respiration 472) A stress reaction is:
C the excess pressure caused by inhaling

A the specific stimuli causing a human body to respond
D independent from the partial pressures of the participating

B the non-specific response of the body to every demand
gases
placed on a person
C the specific response of the body to every demand placed on

476) CO (carbon monoxide) present in the smoke of a person
cigarettes can lead to:
1. reduction of time of usefull consciousness D the non-specific stimuli causing a human body to respond
2. hypoxia at a much lower altitude than normal
A 1 and 2 are both correct
B 1 is correct, 2 is false
C 1 is false, 2 is correct
D 1 and 2 are both false
483) Learning is called each lasting change of behaviour due 513) When exhaling, the expired air contains:
to
A maturation A less water vapour than the inhaled air
B drug influence B more oxygen than the inhaled air
C practice and experience C more carbon dioxide than the inspired air
D innate mechanisms D more nitrogen than the inhaled air
505) How can a pilot prevent "pilots-vertigo"? 512) What is the "Time of Useful Consciousness" for a rapid
decompression at 25,000 ft ?
A Practise an extremely fast scanning technique using off- A Between 25 seconds and 1 minute 30 seconds
center vision.
B About 30 seconds
B Use the autopilot and disregard monitoring the instruments.
C Between 3 and 5 minutes depending on the physical
C Maintain orientation on outside visual references as long as activities of the subjected pilot
possible and rely upon the senses of balance..
D About 18 seconds
D Avoid steep turns and abrupt flight maneouvers and
maintain an effective instrument cross check.
511) Under what circumstances will a pilot change from

automated level to rule-based level ?
516) The physiological rhythms of a pilot in a new time zone
will resynchronise to this new time zone at a rate of
about A An automated cognitive check procedure
A 1 - 1.5 hours a day B When detecting, that an automated behaviour will no longer
lead to the intended outcome
B 2 - 2.5 hours a day
C Failure of all the known rules
C 3 - 3.5 hours a day

D The appearance of a situation or problem which is unknown
and completely new
D 4 - 4.5 hours a day
510) The normal rate of breathing is

515) The time required for complete adaptation is
A 32 to 40 cycles a minute
A for high levels of illumination 10 minutes and for low levels of
illumination 30 minutes B 60 to 100 cycles a minute
B for day and night: 30 min

C 20 to 30 cycles a minute
C for night 10 sec and for day 30 min

D 12 to 16 cycles a minute
D for high levels of illumination 10 sec and for full dark

adaptation 30 min
509) When oxygen is beeing transferred from the blood into
the tissues and carbon dioxide from the body cells into
the blood, it is called:
514) An efficient flight deck (synergetic cockpit) will be
observed when:
A ventilation
A the plan of action is defined by the Captain because of his
experience level B hyperventilation
B the Captain delegates the decision making process to other C internal respiration
crew members
D external respiration
C decisions do not need to be discussed because of a
common synergy between the crew members
D decisions are taken by the Captain with the help and

participation of the other crew members
508) The following may occur during gradual 503) What is the name for the sensation of rotation occuring
depressurisation between 12,000 and 18,000 ft : during flight and which is caused by multiple irritation of
several semicircular canals at the same time?
A a rapid decrease in blood pressure which will lead to
headache and also to a loss of coordination A "Pilot's" Vertigo.
B sudden visual hyperacuity associated with headache B Sudden incapacitation.
C a rapid decrease in blood pressure leading to considerable C "Seat-of-the-Pants" illusions.

somnolence
D a loss of coordination associated with fatigue and headache

D Graveyard spin.
502) In problem-solving, what determines the transition from

493) To safely supply the crew with oxygen, at which altitude
rules-based activities to a knowledge-based activity ?
is it necessary to breathe 100% oxygen plus pressure
after a rapid decompression ?
A The unsuitability of the automated actions
A Approximately 14 000 ft.
B The unsuitability of the known rules for the problem posed
B Approximately 20 000 ft.
C Attentional capture
C Approximately 45 000 ft.
D Knowledge of rules which apply to the problem posed
D Approximately 38 000 ft.
501) What is the average Time of Useful Consciousness after

a rapid decompression at 40,000 ft ?
506) Action plans (SOP's) in a cockpit must :
A More than 1 minute
A only follow the manufacturers proposals and not reflect
individual operators cockpit philosophies B About 12 seconds
B be shared by the members of the crew and updated at each

C Between 20 seconds and 1 minute
modification in order to maintain maximum synergy
C be tailored to the individual pilot's needs in order to facilitate

D About 40 secods
the normal operation of the aircraft
D only be tailored to the type of aircraft, regardless of current 500) Check the following statements:
MCC procedures 1. The first information received determines how
subsequent
information will be evaluated.
494) How can the process of learning be facilitated? 2. If one has made up one's mind, contradictory
information may
not get the attention it really needs.
A By punishing the learner for unsuccessful trials 3. With increasing stress, channelizing attention is
limiting the flow
B By reinforcing errors of information to the central decision maker (CNS).
C By reinforcing successful trials A 1and 3 are correct
D By increasing the psychological pressure on the student B 1 and 2 are correct

504) The so-called "Seat-of-the-Pants" sense is
A the only sense a pilot can rely on, when flying in IMC
499) In the short-term-memory, information is stored for
B not suitable for spatial orientation when outside visual approximately
references are lost
A a couple of days
C only to be used by experienced pilots with the permission to
fly in IMC
B 20 seconds
D useful for instrument and contact flight
C 5 minutes
D 1 hour
498) Which of the following errors occur at rules-based level
?
1.Omission
2.The application of a poor rule
3. Attentional capture
4. The poor application of a good rule
A 1,2
B 3,4
C 1,3
D 2,4
497) Which statement applies to hypoxia?
A carbon monoxide increases the tolerance of the brain to

oxygen deficiency
B you may become immune to hypoxia when exposed

repeatedly to hypoxia
C it is possible to prognose when, how and where hypoxia

reaction starts to set in
D sensitivity and reaction to hypoxia varies from person to

person
496) The Seat-of-the-Pants Sense is including receptors in the
A skin of the breech only
B muscles, tendons and joints sensitive to the position and

movement of body parts
C semicircular canals
D utriculus and sacculus
752) Hypoxia is caused by
A a higher affinity of the red blood cells (hemoglobin) to oxygen
B reduced partial oxygen pressure in the lung
C reduced partial pressure of nitrogen in the lung
D an increased number of red blood cells
507) Which statement is correct ?
A Oxygen diffusion from the lungs into the blood does not
depend on partial oxygen pressure.
B Oxygen diffusion from the blood into the cells depends on

their partial oxygen pressure gradient.
C The blood plasma is transporting the oxygen.
D The gradient of diffusion is higher at altitude than it is at sea-

level.
Professione Volare Domande Finale
Data:
Nome Allievo:
103) The velocity of sound at the sea level in a standard 96) The "Bourdon tube" is used to measure :
atmosphere is:
A 644 kt. A quantity.
B 332 kt. B a flow rate.
C 661 kt. C pressure.
D 1059 kt. D temperature.
68) The purpose of Auto Throttle is: 97) A pilot wishes to turn right on to a northerly heading
with 20° bank at a latitude of 40° North. Using a direct
reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop
A automatic shut down of one engine at too high temperature the turn on to an approximate heading of :
B to deactivate manual throttles and transfer engine control to A 010°

Auto Pilot
B 330°
C to synchronize engines to avoid "yawing"
C 350°
D to maintain constant engine power or airplane speed
D 030°
93) When only one autopilot is used for climbing, cruising

and approach, the system is considered: 98) The error in altimeter readings caused by the variation
of the static pressure near the source is known as:
A "fail soft" or with minimized failure effect.
A position pressure error.
B "fail passive" or without failure effect but with disconnection.
B barometric error.
C "fail survival" or without failure effect with function always
ensured. C instrument error.
D "fail safe" with failure effect without disconnection.

D hysteresis effect.
94) In the event of a conflict, the TCAS (Traffic Collision

99) Torque can be determined by measuring the :
Avoidance System) will give information such as :
A turn left/turn right A quantity of light passing through a rack-wheel attached to a

transmission shaft.
B too low terrain
B oil pressure at the fixed crown of an epicycloidal reducer of
C glide slope the main engine gearbox.
D climb/descent
C phase difference between 2 impulse tachometers attached
to a transmission shaft.
D frequency of an impulse tachometer attached to a

95) The hysteresis error of an altimeter varies substantially transmission shaft.
with the:
A mach number of the aircraft. 100) On the ground, during a left turn, the turn indicator
indicates :
B aircraft altitude.
A needle in the middle, ball to the left
C static temperature.
B needle to the left, ball to the right
D time passed at a given altitude.
C needle to the left, ball to the left
D needle in the middle, ball to the right
91) In automatic landing mode, in case of failure of one of 105) The Decision Height (DH) warning light comes on when
the two autopilots, the system is considered: an aircraft:
A "fail soft" with minimized failure effect. A descends below a pre-set barometric altitude.
B "fail passive" or without failure effect but with disconnection. B passes over the ILS inner marker.
C "fail survival" or without failure effect with function always C descends below a pre-set radio altitude.
ensured.
D passes over the outer marker.
D "fail hard" or without failure effect and disconnection.
106) The requirement to carry a GPWS (Ground Proximity

102) The autothrottle : Warning System) concerns aeroplanes which are,
depending on their age, weight and passenger capacity :
1- enable to catch and to maintain the N1 RPM
2- enable to catch and to maintain the N2 RPM 1- turboprop-powered
3- enable to catch and to maintain an airplane indicated 2- piston-powered
airspeed (IAS) 3- jet-powered
4- is always engaged automatically at the same time as
the autopilot The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is :
is: A 1, 3
A 1 and 4
B 1
B 1, 3 and 4
C 1, 2, 3
C 1 and 3
D 3
D 2 and 3
107) The computers of the electrical flight controls system

comply with programs defined by attitude control laws
90) When, in flight, the needle of a needle-and-ball indicator such as :
is on the right and the ball on the left, the aircraft is :
1- on the longitudinal axis, the law may combine the
A turning left with not enough bank load factor and the changes in the pitch rate as control
data sources
B turning left with too much bank 2- the trimming is automatic and ensures neutral stability
3- the protections apply to pitch and bank attitudes
C turning right with not enough bank depending on the speed
4- these laws do not apply to the whole flight envelope
D turning right with too much bank
is:
104) The yaw damper indicator supplies the pilot with A 1, 2, 3

information regarding the:
B 2, 3
A yaw damper action only on the ground
C 1, 2, 3, 4
B rudder position
D 1, 3, 4
C yaw damper action on the rudder
D rudder displacement by the rudder pedals

108) An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 2
degrees of freedom and a horizontal spin axis is:
A an artificial horizon
B a turn indicator
C a fluxgate compass
D a directional gyro
109) A Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC) has the 101) During an acceleration phase at constant attitude, the
following functions : resetting principle of the artificial horizon results in the
horizon bar indicating a :
1- flow regulation (fuel, decelerations and accelerations
monitoring) A nose-down followed by a nose-up attitude
2- automatic starting sequence
3- transmissions of engine data to the pilot's instruments B nose-up attitude
4- thrust management and protection of operation limits
5- monitoring of the thrust reversers
C nose-down attitude
is: D constant attitude
A 1, 3, 5
80) In a modern airplane equipped with an ECAM (Electronic
B 1, 3, 4, 5 centralized aircraft monitor), when a failure occurs in a
circuit, the centralized flight management system:
C 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
1- releases an aural warning
D 2, 4, 5 2- lights up the appropriate push-buttons on the
overhead panel
3- displays the relevant circuit on the system display
4- processes the failure automatically
110) In some configurations, modern aircraft do not respect
the regulatory margins between stall and natural buffet. The combination regrouping all the correct statements
The warning system supplies the corresponding alarm. is:
The required margin related to the stall speed is:
A 1, 2, 3.
A 3%
B 1, 3, 4.
B 7%
C 3, 4.
C 5%
D 1, 2.
D 10%
160) The two main sources of information used to calculate

111) To permit turbine exit temperatures to be measured, gas turbojet thrust are the:
turbines are equipped with thermometers which work on
the following principle: A fan rotation speed (or N1) or the total pressure at the low
pressure turbine outlet.
A liquid expansion
B fan rotation speed (or N1) or the EPR (Engine Pressure
B gas pressure Ratio).
C thermocouple C high pressure turbine rotation speed or the EPR (Engine

Pressure Ratio).
D bi-metallic strip D fan rotation speed (or N1) or the total pressure at the high
pressure compressor outlet.
112) The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) is a

system working according to a height span ranging
from :
A the ground to 500 ft
B 50 ft to 2 500 ft
C the ground to 1 000 ft
D 30 ft to 5 000 ft
70) (For this question use annex 022-11232A) 74) The purpose of the altitude alert system is to generate a
After having programmed your flight director, you see visual and aural warning to the pilot when the:
that the indications of your ADI (Attitude Director
indicator) are as represented in diagram N°1 of the A airplane altitude differs from a selected altitude.
appended annex. On this instrument, the command bars
indicate that you must : B airplane altitude is equal to the decision altitude.
A increase the flight attitude and bank your airplane to the left
C proximity to the ground becomes dangerous.
until the command bars recentre on the symbolic aeroplane.
B increase the flight attitude and bank your aeroplane to the D altimeter setting differs from the standard setting above the
right until the command bars recentre on the symbolic transition altitude.
aeroplane.
C decrease the flight attitude and bank your airplane to the left 75) Among the flight control instruments, the artificial
until the command bars recentre on the symbolic aeroplane. horizon plays an essential part. It uses a gyroscope with
:
D decrease the flight attitude and bank your airplane to the Note : in this question, the degrees of freedom of a gyro
right until the command bars recentre on the symbolic are determined by the number of gimbal rings it
aeroplane. comprises.
A two degrees of freedom, whose axis is oriented and

71) A gravity type erector is used in a vertical gyro device to continously maintained to local vertical by an automatic
correct errors on : erecting system.
A an artificial horizon B two degrees of freedom, whose horizontal axis

corresponding to a reference direction is maintained in a
horizontal plane by an automatic erecting system
B a directional gyro unit
C one degree of freedom, whose horizontal axis is maintained
C a turn indicator in a horizontal plane by an automatic erecting system
D a gyromagnetic indicator D one degree of freedom, whose vertical axis oriented in the
direction of the real vertical to the location is maintained in
this direction by an automatic erecting system
72) The fields affecting a magnetic compass originate from:
1. magnetic masses
2. ferrous metal masses 76) If the static source of an altimeter becomes blocked
3. non ferrous metal masses during a descent the instrument will:
4. electrical currents
The combination of correct statements is: A continue to display the reading at which the blockage
occured
A 1, 3, 4
B gradually indicate zero
B 1, 2, 4
C under-read
C 1, 2, 3
D indicate a height equivalent to the setting on the millibar
subscale
D 1, 2, 3, 4
77) For most radio altimeters, when a system error occurs

73) A turn indicator is built around a gyroscope with: during approach the ..
A 0 degree of freedom. A Height indication is removed
B 1 degree of freedom.
B DH lamp flashes red and the audio signal sounds
C 3 degrees of freedom. C DH lamp flashes red
D 2 degrees of freedom.
D Audio warning signal sounds
92) All the anemometers are calibrated according to: 82) In a turn at constant rate, the turn indicator reading is:
A Bernouilli's limited formula which takes into account the air A inversely proportional to the aircraft true airspeed
compressibility.
B proportional to the aircraft true airspeed
B St-Venant's formula which considers the air as an
uncompressible fluid.
C independent to the aircraft true airspeed
C Bernouilli's limited formula which considers the air as an
uncompressible fluid. D proportional to the aircraft weight
D St-Venant' formula which takes into account the air

compressibility. Alarms are standardised and follow a code of colours.
83)
Those requiring action but not immediately, are
signalled by the colour:
79) If an aircraft is equipped with one altimeter which is
compensated for position error and another altimeter A red
which is not ; and all other factors being equal...
B green
A At high speed the non-compensated altimeter will indicate a
lower altitude
C flashing red
B There will be no difference between them if the air data
computer (ADC) is functioning normally D amber
C ATC will get an erroneous altitude report SSR

84) In the building principle of a gyroscope, the best
D At high speed, the non-compensated altimeter will indicate a efficiency is obtained through the concentration of the
higher altitude mass :
A on the periphery and with a low rotation speed.

115) A gyromagnetic compass or heading reference unit is an
assembly which always consists of : B close to the axis and with a low rotation speed.
1- a directional gyro
2- a vertical axis gyro
3- an earth's magnetic field detector
C on the periphery and with a high rotation speed.
4- an azimuth control
5- a synchronising control
D close to the axis and with a high rotation speed.
A 1,3,5 85) In order to align a strapdown inertial unit, it is required

to insert the local geographical coordinates. This is
B 2,3,5 necessary to:
C 1,4 A Determine magnetic or true heading.
D 2,5 B Re-erect laser gyros.
C Position the computing trihedron with reference to earth.

81) The GPWS calculator receives the following signals :
D Check operation of laser gyros.
1 - vertical speed
2 - radio altimeter height
3 - pressure altitude
4 - glidepath deviation
5 - gear and flaps position
6 - angle of attack

is :
A 2,3,4,6
B 1,2,4,5
C 1,3,4,5,6
D 1,2,5,6
86) The advantages of an electrical induction tachometer 78) A stall warning system is based on a measure of :
are:
1- the display is not sensitive to line resistance A airspeed.

2- the measurement is independent of aircraft power
supply B attitude.
3- the measurement is independent of temperature
variations C groundspeed.
4- the option to use without restriction several
indicators connected in parallel to a single transmitter D aerodynamic incidence.
is:
150) The pressure probe used to measure the pressure of a
A 1, 3, 4. low pressure fuel pump is:
B 1, 2, 3, 4. A a differential capsule.
C 2, 3, 4. B an aneroid capsule.
D 1, 2, 4. C a bellows sensor.
D a Bourdon tube.
87) In the Southern hemisphere, during deceleration
following a landing in a Westerly direction, the magnetic
compass will indicate : 139) In an engine vibration monitoring system for a turbojet
any vibration produced by the engine is :
A no apparent turn.
A directly proportional to engine speed.
B a heading fluctuating about 270°.
B fed directly to the cockpit indicator without amplification or
C an apparent turn to the North. filtering.
D an apparent turn to the South. C amplified and filtered before being fed to the cockpit
indicator.
D inversely proportional to engine speed.

88) The static pressure error of the static vent on which the
altimeter is connected varies substantially with the:
140) In a non-pressurized aircraft, if one or several static
A Mach number of the aircraft
pressure ports are damaged, there is an ultimate
emergency means for restoring a practically correct
B deformation of the aneroid capsule static pressure intake :
C aircraft altitude A breaking the rate-of-climb indicator glass window
D static temperature B slightly opening a window to restore the ambient pressure in

the cabin
89) An aeroplane is in steady cruise at flight level 270. The

C descending as much as possible in order to fly at a pressure
as close to 1013.25 hPa as possible
autothrottle maintains a constant calibrated airspeed. If
the total temperature increases, the Mach number : D calculating the ambient static pressure, allowing for the
altitude and QNH and adjusting the instruments
A decreases if the outside temperature is higher than the
standard temperature, increases if lower.
B remains constant. 141) The vertical speed indicator of an aircraft flying at a true
airspeed of 100 kt, in a descent with a slope of 3
degrees, indicates :
C increases.
A - 250 ft/min
D decreases.
B - 500 ft/min.
C - 300 ft/min
D - 150 ft/min
142) If the static source to an airspeed indicator (ASI) 146) Given :
becomes blocked during a descent the instrument will: - Ts the static temperature (SAT)
- Tt the total temperature (TAT)
A continue to indicate the speed applicable to that at the time - Kr the recovery coefficient
of the blockage - M the Mach number
The total temperature can be expressed approximately
B under-read by the formula :
C over-read A Tt = Ts(1+0.2 Kr.M²)
D read zero B Tt = Ts/(1+0.2 Kr.M²)
C Tt = Ts(1+0.2 M²)
143) When an aircraft has turned 270 degrees with a constant
attitude and bank, the pilot observes the following on a D Tt = Ts(1-0.2 M²)
classic artificial horizon :
A too much nose-up and bank too high. 147) When, in flight, the needle and ball of a needle-and-ball
indicator are on the right, the aircraft is :
B too much nose-up and bank too low.
A turning left with too much bank
C attitude and bank correct.
B turning left with not enough bank
D too much nose-up and bank correct.
C turning right with too much bank
144) A "resolution advisory" (RA) is represented on the D turning right with not enough bank
display system of the TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision
Avoidance System) by a :
113) In automatic landing mode, when the 2 autopilots are
A red full circle. used, the system is considered:
B red full square. A "fail soft" or with minimized failure effect.
C blue or white full lozenge. B "fail passive" or without failure effect but with disconnection.
D blue or white empty lozenge. C "fail hard" or with failure effect and disconnection.
D "fail survival" or without failure effect with function always

145) The operating principle of the "induction" type of ensured.
tachometer is to measure the:
A magnetic field produced by a dynamo or an alternator. 149) The mach number is the:
B rotation speed of an asynchronous motor energized by an

A corrected airspeed (CAS) divided by the local speed of
alternator.
sound
C electromotive force (EMF) produced by a dynamo or an
B indicated airspeed (IAS) divided by the local speed of sound
alternator.
D frequency of the electric impulse created by a notched C equivalent airspeed (EAS) divided by the local speed of
wheel rotating in a magnetic field. sound
D true airspeed (TAS) divided by the local speed of sound
136) When the altitude acquisition mode is engaged on a jet 154) The operating principle of the vertical speed indicator
transport airplane equipped with autopilot (AP) and auto- (VSI) is based on the measurement of the rate of change
throttle (ATS) systems the: of:
A indicated airspeed (IAS) is maintained constant by the auto- A Total pressure

throttle system.
B Kinetic pressure
B indicated airspeed (IAS) is maintained constant by the
autopilot by means of elevator.
C Static pressure
C true airspeed (TAS) is maintained constant by the autopilot
by means of elevator. D Dynamic pressure
D true airspeed (TAS) is maintained constant by the auto-

throttle system.
155) The principle of the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance
Systems) is based on the use of :
151) A slaved directional gyro derives it's directional signal A air traffic control radar systems
from :
B transponders fitted in the aircraft
A the flux valve.
C airborne weather radar system
B the air-data-computer.
D F.M.S. (Flight Management System)
C a direct reading magnetic compass.
D the flight director.

156) Given :
M is the Mach number
Ts is the static temperature
152) Regarding Electronic Instrument System (EFIS) : Tt is the total temperature
1- the Navigation Display (ND) displays Flight Director A Ts = Tt.(0.2. M²)

Bars.
2- the altimeter setting is displayed on the PFD (Primary B Ts = Tt/( 0.2 M²)
Flight Display).
3- the PFD is the main flying instrument.
4- the FMA (Flight Mode Annunciator) is part of the ND. C Ts = Tt /(1+0.2. M²)
The combination regrouping all the correct statements D Ts = Tt.(1+0.2. M²)

is :
A 1, 4. 157) (For this question use annex 022-9771A)

The atmospheric pressure at FL 70 in a "standard + 10"
B 1, 2. atmosphere is:
C 2, 3. A 1 013.25 hPa.
D 3, 4. B 644.41 hPa.
C 781.85 hPa.
153) The control law of a transport airplane autopilot control
channel may be defined as the relationship between the D 942.13 hPa.
:
A crew inputs to the computer and the detector responses 158) When flying from a sector of warm air into one of colder
(returned to the airplane). air, the altimeter will :
B computer input deviation data and the output control
A underread.
deflection signals.
C computer input deviation data and the signals received by B be just as correct as before.
the servoactuators.
C show the actual height above ground.
D input and output signals at the amplifier level respectively
control deviation data and control deflection signals. D overread.
1) Machmeter readings are subject to: 67) The inputs to the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning
System), are:
A setting error. 1- Air Data Computer - (Mach number and Vertical

Speed)
B position pressure error 2- Radio Altimeter
3- NAV/ILS (Glide Slope)
C density error. 4- NAV/VOR
5- Flap (position)
D temperature error. 6- Angle of Attack
7- Landing Gear (position)

148) A landing will be considered to be performed in the
AUTOMATIC mode when: A 1,2,5,6,7
1- the autopilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam
until the decision height is reached then is disengaged B 1,2,5,6,7
automatically.
2- the autothrottle maintains a constant speed until the
decision height is reached then is disengaged
C 1,2,3,5,7
automatically.
3- the autopilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam D 2,3,4,5,7
until the flare.
4- the autothrottle decreases the thrust when the height
is approximately 30 ft. 116) An autopilot capable of holding at least altitude and
5- the flare and the ground roll are performed heading mode is compulsory:
automatically.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements A for IFR or night flights with only one pilot.
is:
A 1 and 2.
B on multipilot airplanes.
B 2, 3 and 5. C for VFR and IFR flights with only one pilot.
C 1 and 4.
D on airplanes over 5.7 t.
D 3, 4 and 5.
117) (Use the appendix to answer this question)
The diagram which shows a 40° left bank and 15° nose
126) On an autopilot coupled approach, GO AROUND mode is down attitude is n°
engaged:
A 4
A by the pilot pushing a button located on the throttles.
B 1
B by the pilot selecting G.A. mode on the thrust computer
control panel.
C 2
C automatically in case of an autopilot or flight director alarm.
D 3
D if the aircraft reaches the decision height selected on the
radio altimeter at a higher speed than the one selected.
118) An aircraft is flying at a 120 kt true airspeed (VV), in
order to achieve a rate 1 turn, the pilot will have to bank
the aircraft at an angle of:
A 30°.
B 18°.
C 12°.
D 36°.
119) The pressure altitude is the altitude corresponding : 123) A directional gyro is:
1- a gyroscope free around two axis

A in standard atmosphere, to the pressure Ps prevailing at this 2- a gyroscope free around one axis
point 3- capable of self- orientation around an earth-tied
direction
B in ambiant atmosphere, to the reference pressure Ps 4- incapable of self-orientation around an earth-tied
direction
C in standard atmosphere, to the reference pressure Ps
D in ambiant atmosphere, to the pressure Ps prevailing at this statements is:
point
A 2-4
120) The Altitude Select System: B 2-3
C 1-3
A Engages autopilot Auto Trim at selected altitude
D 1-4
B Disengages autopilot Auto Trim at selected altitude
C Is annunciated by light and/or sound when airplane is

approaching selected altitude 138) From a flight mechanics point of view, the "guidance"
functions of a transport airplane autopilot consist in:
D Illuminates a light when selected altitude is attained
A monitoring the movements of the centre of gravity in the
three dimensions of space (path).
121) On the ground, during a right turn, the turn indicator B stabilizing and monitoring the movements around the centre
indicates : of gravity.
A needle to the right, ball to left C monitoring the movements of the aerodynamic centre in the
three dimensions of space (path).
B needle to the right, ball to right
D stabilizing and monitoring the movements around the
aerodynamic centre.
C needle in the middle, ball to right
D needle in the middle, ball to left

125) During the approach, a crew reads on the radio altimeter
the value of 650 ft. This is an indication of the true:
122) Heading information from the gyromagnetic compass A height of the aircraft with regard to the runway.
flux gate is transmitted to the :
B altitude of the aircraft.
A erecting system.
C height of the lowest wheels with regard to the ground at any
B heading indicator. time.
C amplifier. D height of the aircraft with regard to the ground at any time.
D error detector.
137) The stall warning system receives information about the
:
1- airplane angle of attack

2- airplane speed
3- airplane bank angle
4- airplane configuration
5- load factor on the airplane

is:
A 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
B 2, 3, 4, 5
C 1, 3, 5
D 1, 4
127) VLO is the maximum : 131) Sound propagates through the air at a speed which only
depends on :
A flight speed with landing gear down. A pressure.
B speed with flaps extended in a given position. B density.
C cruising speed not to be exceeded except in still air with

C temperature.
caution.
D speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full D temperature and the pressure.
safety.
132) The engagement of an autopilot is not possible when:

128) The purpose of the automatic trim is to:
1- there is a fault in the electrical power supply
1- reduce to zero the hinge moment of the entire control 2- the controlled-turn knob is not set to centre-off
surface in order to relieve the load on the servo-actuator 3- there is a synchronization fault in the pitch channel
2- ensure the aeroplane is properly trimmed when the 4- there is a fault in the attitude reference unit
autopilot is disengaged
3- maintain the same stability/manoeuverablity trade-off The combination regrouping all the correct statements
within the whole flight envelope is:
The combination regrouping all the correct statements A 1, 3, 4.

is:
B 1, 2, 3, 4.
A 1, 2.
C 1, 2, 4.
B 1, 3.
D 2, 3, 4.
C 2, 3.
D 1, 2, 3.
133) The stick shaker calculator receives the following
informations :
129) An airplane is in steady cruise at flight level 290. The 1- mass of the airplane
autothrottle maintains a constant Mach number. If the 2- angle of attack
total temperature decreases, the calibrated airspeed: 3- wing flap deflection
4- position of the landing gear
A decreases. 5- total air temperature
6- pressure altitude
B decreases if the outside temperature is lower than the
standard temperature, increases if higher.
is:
C remains constant.
A 2, 3, 5
D increases.
B 1, 2, 3, 4
C 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
130) Which one of the following statements is true with
regard to the operation of a Mach trim system :
D 2, 3
A It operates to counteract the larger than normal forward
movements of the wing centre of pressure at high subsonic
airspeeds. 134) A thermocouple type thermometer consists of:
B It only operates when the autopilot is engaged.

A two metal conductors of the same type connected at two
points.
C It operates over the full aircraft speed range.
B a Wheatstone bridge connected to a voltage indicator.
D It only operates above a pre-determined Mach number.
C a single-wire metal winding.
D two metal conductors of different type connected at one

point.
135) If a manifold pressure gauge consistently registers 26) The yellow sector of the temperature gauge
atmospheric pressure, the cause is probably; corresponds to:
A too high float level. A a forbidden operating range.
B fuel of too low volatility. B an exceptional operating range.
C ice in induction system. C a normal operating range.
D leak in pressure gauge line. D a frequent operating range.
114) The altimeter is fed by : 27) VLE is the maximum :
A static pressure A speed authorized in flight
B dynamic pressure B flight speed with landing gear down
C total pressure C speed at which the landing gear can be operated with full
safety
D differential pressure
D speed with flaps extended in a given position
124) The Mach number is :

28) The temperature measured by the CHT (Cylinder Head
temperature) probe is the :
A the ratio of the aircraft true airspeed to the sonic velocity at
the altitude considered A temperature within the hottest cylinder, depending on its
position in the engine block.
B a direct function of temperature ; it varies in proportion to the
square root of the absolute temperature B average temperature within the whole set of cylinders.
C the ratio of the indicated airspeed to the sonic velocity at the

C temperature of the exhaust gases.
altitude considered
D the ratio of the aircraft conventionnal airspeed to the sonic D temperature of the carburator to be monitored when the
velocity at the altitude considered outside air temperature is between -5°C and 10°C.
29) The flight data recorder must start data recording

207) The principle of the Mach indicator is based on the
computation of the ratio : automatically:
A (Pt + Ps) to Ps A when lining up.
B (Pt - Ps) to Ps B before the airplane is able to move by under its own power.
C Pt to Ps C when taking-off.
D (Pt - Ps) to Pt
D when the landing gear is retracted.
69) The principle of capacitor gauges is based on: 201) All the last generation aircraft use flight control
systems. The Flight Management System (FMS) is the
most advanced system ; it can be defined as a:
A the variation of capacity by volumetric measurement
exercised on the sensor A global 2-D Flight Management System
B the variation of flow and torque exercised in a supply line B global 3-D Flight Management System
C the variation in capacity of a condensor with the nature of the C management system optimized in the vertical plane
dielectric
D the current variation in a Wheastone bridge

D management system optimized in the horizontal plane
202) An "intruding traffic advisory" is represented on the 206) Compared with a conventional gyro, a laser gyro :
display system of the TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision
Avoidance System) by displaying :
A is influenced by temperature
A a yellow full circle.
B has a fairly long starting cycle
B a blue or white empty lozenge.
C consumes a lot of power
C a blue or white full lozenge.
D has a longer life cycle
D a red full square.
23) The use of the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance

203) A pitot blockage of both the ram air input and the drain System) for avoiding an aircraft in flight is now general.
hole with the static port open causes the airspeed TCAS uses for its operation :
indicator to :
A the replies from the transponders of other aircraft
A freeze at zero.
B the echos from the ground air traffic control radar system
B react like an altimeter.
C the echos of collision avoidance radar system especially
installed on board
C read a little high.
D both the replies from the transponders of other aircraft and
D read a little low. the ground-based radar echoes
204) In a transport airplane, an autopilot comprises, in 208) The low-altitude radio altimeters used in precision
addition to the mode display devices, the following approaches:
fundamental elements :
1 operate in the 1540-1660 MHz range.
1- Airflow valve 2 are of the pulsed type.
2- Sensors 3 are of the frequency modulation type.
3- Comparators 4 have an operating range of 0 to 5000 ft.
4- Computers 5 have a precision of +/- 2 feet between 0 and 500 ft.
5- Amplifiers
6- Servo-actuators The combination of the correct statements is :
The combination regrouping all the correct statements A 3, 5

is:
B 3, 4
A 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
B 2, 3, 4, 5
C 2, 3, 4
D 1, 2, 5
C 1, 3, 4, 6
D 1, 2, 6
209) The Primary Flight Display (PFD) displays information
dedicated to:
24) When an aircraft has turned 360 degrees with a constant A systems.
attitude and bank, the pilot observes the following on a
B piloting.
A too much nose-up and bank correct
C weather situation.
B too much nose-up and bank too high
D engines and alarms.
C attitude and bank correct
D too much nose-up and bank too low
210) The basis properties of a gyroscope are : 214) The pressure measured at the forward facing orifice of a
1. The gyro's weight. pitot tube is the :
2. The rigidity in space.
3. The inertia. A total pressure plus static pressure.
4. The high RPM.
5. The precession B dynamic pressure.
A 3,4
C total pressure.
B 2,5
D static pressure.
C 2,3,5
215) A transport airplane is compelled to carry on board a
D 1,3,5 Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS). This
system will warn the crew in case of :
1 - keeping the altitude at a lower level than the one

211) The flight director indicates the : shown in the flight plan entered in the FMS.
2 - dangerous ground proximity.
3 - loss of altitude during take-off or missed approach.
A optimum instantaneous path to reach selected radial. 4 - wrong landing configuration.
5 - descent below glidepath, within limits.
B optimum path at the moment it is entered to reach a
selected radial. The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is :
C path permitting reaching a selected radial in minimum time.
A 1,3,4
D path permitting reaching a selected radial over a minimum
distance. B 2,5
C 2,3,4,5
212) An aeroplane is in steady climb. The autothrottle
maintains a constant calibrated airspeed. If the total D 2
temperature remains constant, the Mach number :
A decreases if the static temperature is lower than the

standard temperature. 216) The purpose of a compass swing is to attempt to
coincide the indications of:
B increases.
A compass north and true north.
C decreases.
B true north and magnetic north.
D remains constant.
C compass north and the lubber line.

D compass north and magnetic north.
An aircraft is under guidance mode following a VOR
radial. From the ADI and HSI information represented in
the enclosed annex, it is possible to deduce that the 205) The rate-of-turn is the:
aircraft is :
A located to the leftside of the selected radial. A aircraft speed in a turn
B located to the rightside of the selected radial. B pitch rate in a turn
C experiencing rightside wind. C change-of-heading rate of the aircraft
D experiencing a leftside wind. D yaw rate in a turn
13) In the Southern hemisphere, during deceleration 5) The input signal of the amplifier of the gyromagnetic
following a landing in an Easterly direction, the compass resetting device originates from the:
magnetic compass will indicate :
A directional gyro erection device.
A a heading fluctuating about 090°.
B error detector.
B an apparent turn to the North.
C flux valve.
C an apparent turn to the South.
D directional gyro unit.
D no apparent turn.
6) Modern low altitude radioaltimeters emit waves in the

2) The limits of the white scale of an airspeed indicator are : following frequency band:
A VLF (Very Low Frequency).

A VSO for the lower limit and VFE for the upper limit
B HF (High Frequency).
B VSI for the lower limit and VFE for the upper limit
C UHF (Ultra High Frequency).
C VSO for the lower limit and VLE for the upper limit
D SHF (Super High Frequency).
D VSI for the lower limit and VLE for the upper limit
7) The magnetic heading can be derived from the true

3) The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) heading by means of a :
computer receives information :
A compass swinging curve
1- about the pressure altitude through the mode S
transponder
2- from the radio-altimeter B map showing the isogonal lines
3- specific to the airplane configuration
4- from the inertial units C map showing the isoclinic lines
The combination regrouping all the correct statements D deviation correction curve
is:
A 1, 2, 3
8) When the intruding aircraft is equipped with a
serviceable mode C transponder, the TCAS II (Traffic
B 1, 2, 3, 4 Collision Avoidance System) generates a :
C 1, 2, 4 A "traffic advisory" and horizontal "resolution advisory".
D 1, 2 B "traffic advisory" only.
C "traffic advisory", vertical and horizontal "resolution advisory".

4) The calculator combined with the stick shaker system of
a modern transport airplane receives information about D "traffic advisory" and vertical "resolution advisory".
the:
1- angle of attack
2- engine R.P.M. 9) In an auto-pilot slaved powered control circuit, the
3- configuration system which ensures synchronisation :
4- pitch and bank attitude
5- sideslip A intervenes only when the automatic pilot has been engaged.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements B prevents uncommanded surface deflection when the
is: automatic pilot is disengaged.
A 1, 2, 3 and 4. C is inhibited when the automatic pilot is engaged.
B 1 and 3. D can itself, when it fails, prevent the automatic pilot from
being engaged.
C 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5.
D 1 and 5.
10) The signal supplied by a transmitter fitted with a 3- 14) The reading of a Mach indicator is independent of :
phase AC generator, connected to RPM indicator, is :
A an AC voltage, the frequency of which varies with the RPM; A the differential pressure measurement
the indicator converts the signal into square pulses which
are then counted B the outside temperature
B an AC voltage varying with the RPM; the indicator rectifies C the static pressure
the signal via a diode bridge and is provided with a voltmeter
D the total pressure
C a three-phase voltage, the frequency of which varies with the
RPM; the indicator is provided with a motor which drives a
magnetic tachometer
15) An automatic landing is carried out when the automatic
D a DC voltage varying with the RPM; the indicator is a plain pilot :
voltmeter with a rev/min. scale
A and the autothrottle ensure a correct final approach, at least
up to flare-out
25) The basic principle used for measuring a quantity of fuel
in a transport airplane equipped with "capacitor" gauges B and the autothrottle ensure a correct final approach, at least
is that the: up to flare-out while the human pilot controls the power
A electromotive force of a capacity depends on the nature of C and the autothrottle ensure a correct final approach, at least
the dielectric in which it is immersed. up to ground roll
B capacity of a capacitor depends on the nature of the D ensures a correct final approach, at least up to ground roll
dielectric in which it is immersed. while the human pilot controls the power
C internal resistance of a capacity depends on the nature of

the dielectric in which it is immersed. 16) Among the following functions of an autopilot, those
related to the airplane stabilization are:
D capacity of a capacitor depends on the distance between its
plates. 1- pitch attitude holding
2- horizontal wing holding
3- displayed heading or inertial track holding
12) The autopilot basic modes include, among other things, 4- indicated airspeed or Mach number holding
the following functions : 5- yaw damping
6- VOR axis holding
1- pitch attitude hold
2- pressure altitude hold The combination regrouping all the correct statements
3- horizontal wing hold is:
4- heading hold
A 2, 4, and 5.
is : B 1, 2 and 5.
A 1, 2, 3 C 1, 2, 3 and 6.
B 1, 4 D 3, 4, 5 and 6.
C 1, 3
17) A leak in the pitot total pressure line of a non-
D 1, 2, 3, 4 pressurized aircraft to an airspeed indicator would
cause it to:
219) An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 2 A under-read in a climb and over-read in a descent.
degrees of freedom and a horizontal spin axis is :
B under-read.
A a turn indicator
C over-read.
B a flux gate compass
D over-read in a climb and under-read in a descent.
C a directional gyro
D an artificial horizon
18) An automatic landing system which can keep on 22) When being engaged, and without selecting a particular
operating without deterioration of its performances mode, an automatic pilot enables :
following the failure of one of the autopilots is called
"FAIL...: A aeroplane piloting and guidance functions.
A "PASSIVE" B a constant speed on track, wings horizontal.
B "SAFE" C all aeroplane piloting and guidance functions except

maintaining radio-navigation course lines.
C "REDUNDANT"
D aeroplane stabilisation with attitude hold or maintaining
D "OPERATIONAL" vertical speed and possibly automatic trim.
11) A flux valve senses the changes in orientation of the

19) The QNH is by definition the value of the:
horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field.
A altimeter setting so that the needles indicate zero when the 1- the flux valve is made of a pair of soft iron bars
aircraft is on ground at the location for which it is provided. 2- the primary coils are fed A.C. voltage (usually 487.5
Hz)
B atmospheric pressure at the level of the ground overflown by 3- the information can be used by a "flux gate" compass
the aircraft. or a directional gyro
4- the flux gate valve casing is dependent on the aircraft
C altimeter setting so that the needles of the altimeter indicate three inertial axis
the altitude of the location for which it is given. 5- the accuracy on the value of the magnetic field
indication is less than 0,5%
D atmospheric pressure at the sea level of the location for
which it is given. Which of the following combinations contains all of the
correct statements?
20) At a constant calibrated airspeed (CAS), the Mach

A 1-3-4-5
number :
B 3-5
A remains unchanged when the outside temperature increases
C 1-4-5
B remains unchanged when the outside temperature
decreases D 2-3-5
C increases when the altitude increases

57) The operating principle of Flowmeters, or "unit flow
D decreases when the altitude increases meters," the most commonly used at the present time, is
to measure across their system the :
21) On a TCAS2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System), a A pressure and temperature of the fuel
corrective "resolution advisory" (RA) is a "resolution
advisory": B volumetric mass and di-electric resistance of the fuel
A asking the pilot to modify the heading of his aircraft. C volume and viscosity of the fuel
B asking the pilot to modify the speed of his aircraft. D quantity of fuel movement
C asking the pilot to modify effectively the vertical speed of his

aircraft.
46) The characteristics of the directional gyro (DG) used in a
D which does not require any action from the pilot but on the gyro stabilised compass system are :
contrary asks him not to modify his current vertical speed
rate. A two degrees of freedom, whose axis aligned with the vertical
to the location is maintained in this direction by an erecting
system.
B one degree of freedom, whose horizontal axis is maintained

in the horizontal plane by an automatic erecting system.
C one degree of freedom, whose vertical axis, aligned with the

real vertical to the location is maintained in this direction by
an automatic erecting system.
D two degrees of freedom, whose horizontal axis

corresponding to the reference direction is maintained in the
horizontal plane by an automatic erecting system.
47) Magnetic compass swinging is carried out to reduce as 51) A pitot tube covered by ice which blocks the ram air
much as possible : inlet will affect the following instrument (s) :
A variation. A airspeed indicator only.
B regulation. B altimeter only.
C acceleration. C vertical speed indicator only.
D deviation. D airspeed indicator, altimeter and vertical speed indicator.
48) Under normal operating conditions, when an aircraft is 52) During a Category II automatic approach, the height
in a banked turn, the rate-of-turn indicator is a valuable information is supplied by the :
gyroscopic flight control instrument ; when it is
associated with an attitude indicator it indicates : A encoding altimeter.
1. the angular velocity of the aircraft about the yaw axis B altimeter.
2. The bank of the aircraft
3. The direction of the aircraft turn
4. The angular velocity of the aircraft about the real C radio altimeter.
vertical
D GPS (Global Positioning System).
A 3,4. 53) An aircraft takes-off on a runway with an alignment of

045°. The isogonic line on the area chart indicates 0°.
B 2,4. The compass deviation is O°.
On a take-off with zero wind, the northerly turning error:
C 1,3.
A is such that the compass will indicate a value noticeably
D 1,2. above 045°.
B will be nul if the wings are kept level.
49) An "altitude warning system" must at least warn the C will be nul
crew :
1- when approaching the pre-selected altitude

D is such that the compass will indicate a value noticeably
below 045°.
2- when the airplane is approaching the ground too fast
3- in case of a given deviation above or below the pre-
selected altitude (at least by an aural warning)
4- in case of excessive vertical speed 54) With a pitot probe blocked due to ice build up, the
5- when approaching the ground with the gear retracted aircraft airspeed indicator will indicate in descent a :
The combination regrouping all the correct statements A decreasing speed.

is :
B constant speed.
A 1, 3, 4
C increasing speed.
B 1, 3
D fluctuating speed.
C 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
D 2, 4, 5
217) In order to know in which mode the autothrottles are
engaged, the crew will check the :
50) The gauge indicating the quantity of fuel measured by a A ND (Navigation Display).
capacity gauging system can be graduated directly in
weight units because the dielectric constant of fuel is: B TCC (Thrust Control Computer).
A twice that of air and varies inversely with density. C throttles position.
B the same as that of air and varies inversely with density. D PFD (Primary Flight Display)
C twice that of air and varies directly with density.
D the same as that of air and varies directly with density.
56) A gravity erector system is used to correct the errors on 61) VNE is the maximum speed :
:
A a directional gyro. A with flaps extended in landing position
B a turn indicator. B which must never be exceeded
C a gyromagnetic compass. C not to be exceeded except in still air and with caution
D an artificial horizon. D at which the flight controls can be fully deflected
43) The static air temperature (SAT) is : 62) Among the following functions of an autopilot, those
related to the airplane guidance are:
A a relative temperature expressed in degrees Kelvin 1- pitch attitude holding

2- horizontal wing holding
B an absolute temperature expressed in degrees Celsius 3- indicated airspeed or Mach number holding
4- altitude holding
5- VOR axis holding
C a differential temperature expressed in degrees Kelvin
6- yaw damping
D a relative temperature expressed in degrees Celsius The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:
58) A synchroscope is used on aircraft to: A 1, 2, 3 and 6.
B 1, 3, 4 and 5.
A reduce the vibration of each engine.
C 3, 4 and 5.
B reduce the rpm of each engine.
D 1, 2, and 6.
C achieve optimum control of on-board voltages.
D set several engines to the same speed.

63) A landing is performed automatically when the autopilot
and auto-throttle ensure good performance from the
final approach :
A during the landing roll and sometimes until the aircraft
The diagram representing a left turn with insufficient comes to a complete stop.
rudder is:
B until reaching 100 ft, height at which point the autopilot is
A 1 automatically disconnected.
B 2 C until the flare.
C 3 D until reaching decision height.
D 4
64) Mode "Localizer ARM" active on Flight Director means:
60) A "close traffic advisory" is displayed on the display A Localizer is armed and coupling will occur when flag warning
device of the TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance disappears
System) by :
B System is armed for localizer approach and coupling will
A a blue or white full lozenge. occur upon capturing center line
B a red full square. C Localizer ALARM, making localizer approach not authorized
C a blue or white empty lozenge. D Coupling has occurred and system provides control data to
capture the centerline
D an orange full circle.
65) The TCAS 1 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) 161) Heading information given by a gyro platform, is given
provides : by a gyro at :
1- traffic information A 2 degrees-of-freedom in the vertical axis

2- horizontal resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory)
3- vertical resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory) B 1 degree-of-freedom in the horizontal axis
4- ground proximity warning
The combination regrouping all the correct statements C l degree-of-freedom in the vertical axis
is:
D 2 degrees-of-freedom in the horizontal axis
A 1
B 1, 2 220) When an automatic landing is interrupted by a go-

around :
C 1, 2, 3
1- the autothrottle reacts immediately upon the pilot
D 1, 2, 3, 4 action on the TO/GA (Take-off/Go-around) switch in
order to recover the maximum thrust
2- the autopilot monitors the climb and the rotation of
the airplane
66) If the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) 3- the autopilot retracts the landing gear and reduces
activates, and alerts the pilot with an aural warning the flap deflection in order to reduce the drag
"DON'T SINK" (twice times), it is because : 4- the pilot performs the climb and the rotation of the
airplane
A during take-off or missed approach manoeuvre, the aircraft 5- the pilot retracts the landing gear and reduces the flap
has started to loose altitude. deflection in order to reduce the drag
B the aircraft experiences an unexpected proximity to the The combination regrouping all the correct statements
terrain, with landing gear retracted. is:
C at too low altitude, the aircraft has an excessive rate of A 1, 2 and 5.

descent.
B 1, 4 and 5.
D the aircraft experiences an unexpected proximity to terrain,
without landing-flap selected.
C 1, 3 and 4.
D 1, 2 and 3.
55) A "TCAS II" (Traffic Collision Avoidance System)
provides:
A a simple intruding airplane proximity warning. 221) Among the following engine instruments, the one
operating with an aneroid pressure diaphragm is the :
B the intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a
collision avoidance manoeuvre within both the vertical and A fuel pressure gauge.
horizontal planes.
B oil thermometer.
C the intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a
collision avoidance manoeuvre within the horizontal plane C manifold pressure gauge.
only.
D the intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a

D oil pressure gauge.
collision avoidance manoeuvre within the vertical plane only.
33) Different pressure sensors are used according to the

intensity of the pressure measured (low, medium or
high)
Classify the following sensors by order of increasing
pressure for which they are suitable :
1- bellows type
2- Bourdon tube type
3- aneroid capsule type
A 1,2,3
B 3,2,1
C 2,1,3
D 3,1,2
222) The indications on a directional gyroscope or 226) For this question use annex (022-10179A)
gyrocompass are subject to errors, due to:
Four scenarios of VOR axis interception are represented
1- rotation of Earth. in the appended annex. The one corresponding to the
2- aeroplane motion on Earth. optimal interception path calculated by a flight director
3- lateral and transversal aeroplane bank angles. is number :
4- north change.
5- mechanical defects. A 4
Chose the combination with true statements only: B 3
A 1,2,4,5.
C 2
B 2,3,5.
D 1
C 1,2,3,5.
D 3,4,5. 30) The advantages of single-phase A.C. generator

tachometer are:
1- the suppression of spurious signals due to a D.C.

223) The total air temperature (TAT) is always : generator commutator
2- the importance of line resistance on the information
value
A lower than Static Air Temperature (SAT) depending on the 3- the independence of the information in relation to the
altitude. airborne electrical power supply
4- the ease of transmission of the information
B higher than Static Air Temperature (SAT) depending on the
Calibrated Air Speed (CAS). The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:
C higher lower than Static Air Temperature (SAT) depending
on the Calibrated Air Speed (CAS). A 1, 3.
D higher than Static Air Temperature (SAT) depending on the
altitude. B 1, 2, 3, 4.
C 2, 3, 4.
224) The operating principle of an "electronic" tachometer is
to measure the: D 2, 4.
A magnetic field produced by a dynamo or an alternator.

45) A failed RMI rose is locked on 090° and the ADF pointer
B frequency of the electric impulse created by a notched indicates 225°. The relative bearing to the station is :
wheel rotating in a magnetic field.
A 135°.
C electromotive force (EMF) produced by a dynamo or an
alternator. B Impossible to read, due to failure RMI.
D rotation speed of an asynchronous motor energized by an
alternator. C 315°.
D 225°.
225) The vertical speed indicator (VSI) is fed by :
32) The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS)

A total pressure generates the following sound signal or signals when
the aircraft is sinking after a take-off or a go-around :
B differential pressure
A WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP repetitive only
C static pressure
B DON'T SINK always followed by WHOOP WHOOP PULL
D dynamic pressure UP
C DON'T SINK followed by WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP if

the sink rate overshoots a second level
D DON'T SINK repetitive only
44) Among the errors of a magnetic compass, are errors: 38) According to the JAR-OPS regulations, the Cockpit
Voice Recorder of a 50 seat multi-engined aircraft,
having been granted an airworthiness certificate after
A of parallax, due to oscillations of the compass rose 1st April 1998, shall start recording :
B in North seeking, due to bank angle and magnetic heading A Automatically when the wheels leave the ground until the
moment when the wheels touch the ground again.
C due to cross-wind gusts particularly on westerly or easterly
headings B From the first radio contact with Air Traffic Control until
radio shutdown after the flight.
D due to Schüler type oscillations
C When the pilot selects the "CVR: ON" during engine start
until the pilot selects the "CVR: OFF" during the engine shut
down.
34) The response time of a vertical speed detector may be
increased by adding a: D Automatically prior to the aircraft moving under its own
power until flight completion when the aircraft is no longer
A bimettalic strip able to move under its own power.
B return spring
39) The primary factor which makes the servo-assisted
C second calibrated port altimeter more accurate than the simple pressure
altimeter is the use of:
D correction based on an accelerometer sensor.
A a sub-scale logarithmic function
35) An aeroplane is in steady cruise at flight level 270. The

B an induction pick-off device
autothrottle maintains a constant calibrated airspeed. If
the total temperature decreases, the Mach number : C more effective temperature compensating leaf springs
A remains constant. D combination of counters/pointers
B increases.
40) In accordance with (ICAO) Annex 6 part I, the flight data
C decreases. recorder is to be located in the aircraft :
D increases if the outside temperature is higher than the A as near to the landing gear as practicable
standard temperature, decreases if lower.
B at the right or left wing tip
36) The command bars of a flight director are generally C as far to the rear as practicable
represented on an:
D as far forward as practicable
A RMI (Radio Magnetic Indicator)
B ILS (Instrument Landing System)

Today's airspeed indicators (calibrated to the Saint-
41)
Venant formula), indicate, in the absence of static (and
C ADI (Attitude Director Indicator) instrumental) error :
D HSI (Horizontal Situation Indicator) A The true airspeed
B The airspeed, whatever the altitude

37) A pilot wishes to turn right on to a southerly heading
with 20° bank at a latitude of 20° North. Using a direct C The equivalent airspeed, in all cases
reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop
the turn on an approximate heading of : D The conventional airspeed (CAS) in all cases
A 170°
B 190°
C 210°
D 150°
42) The indication of the directional gyro as an on-board 305) If the tanks of your airplane only contain water, the
instrument are valid only for a short period of time. The capacitor gauges indicate:
causes of this inaccuracy are :
1. The earth's rotation A a mass equal to zero.
2. The longitudinal acceleration
3. The aircraft's motion over the surface of the earth. B a mass equal to the mass of a same volume of fuel.
4. The mechanical defects of the gyro
5. The gyro's weight
6. The gimbal mount of the gyro rings C a mass of water different from zero, but inaccurate.
D the exact mass of water contained in the tanks.
A 1,3,4
B 1,2,3,4,5,6 306) The float type fuel gauges provide information on:
C 2,5,6
A volume whose indication varies with the temperature of the
fuel.
D 1,3,4,6
B volume whose indication is independent of the temperature
of the fuel.
218) The flight data recorder must automatically stop data
recording when the: C mass whose indication varies with the temperature of the
fuel.
A landing gear is extended and locked.
D mass whose indication is independent of the temperature of
the fuel.
B airplane clears the runway.
C airplane cannot any longer move by its own power.

307) When turning onto a northerly heading the rose of a
magnetic compass tends to "undershoot;" when turning
D main gear shock strut compresses when touching the onto a southerly heading it tends to "overshoot":
runway.
1)these compass indications are less reliable in the
northern hemisphere than in the southern hemisphere.
31) The airspeed indicator of a twin-engined aircraft 2)these compass oscillations following a lateral gust are
comprises different sectors and color marks. The blue not identical if the aircraft is heading north or south.
line corresponds to the : 3) this behaviour is due to the mechanical construction
of the compass.
A optimum climbing speed with one engine inoperative, or Vy 4) this behaviour is a symptom of a badly swung
compass.
B speed not to be exceeded, or VNE
The correct statements are :
C minimum control speed, or VMC A 1 and 3.
D maximum speed in operations, or VMO B 2 and 3.
C 1, 2, and 4.
315) On board an aircraft the altitude is measured from the:
D 2, 3, and 4.
A density altitude
B temperature altitude 308) The pendulum type detector system of the directional
gyro feeds :
C standard altitude
A 2 torque motors arranged horizontally
D pressure altitude
B a levelling erection torque motor
280) The electronic tachometer sensor is composed of:

C a nozzle integral with the outer gimbal ring
D a torque motor on the sensitive axis

A a circular magnet with four poles.
B the rotor of a single phase A.C. generator.
C the rotor of a three-phase A.C. generator.
D a notched wheel rotating in front of an electro-magnet.
309) The calibrated airspeed (CAS) is obtained by applying to 303) During deceleration following a landing in a Southerly
the indicated airspeed (IAS) : direction, the magnetic compass will indicate :
A a compressibility and density correction. A no apparent turn.
B an instrument and position/pressure error correction. B an apparent turn to the East.
C an antenna and compressibility correction. C an apparent turn to the West.
D and instrument and density correction. D a heading fluctuating about 180°.
310) The disavantages of an "electric" fuel (float) gauge are : 314) On a TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) the
preventive "resolution advisory" (RA) is a "resolution
1- the design is complex advisory":
2- the indications are influenced by the airplane attitude
variations A asking the pilot to modify the speed of his aircraft.
3- the indications are influenced by the accelerations
4- the indications are influenced by temperature B that advises the pilot to avoid certain deviations from the
variations current vertical rate but does not require any change to be
5- that an alternative current supply is necessary made to that rate.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements C asking the pilot to modify effectively the vertical speed of his
is : aircraft.
A 1, 2, 3, 4 D asking the pilot to modify the heading of his aircraft.
B 2, 3, 4, 5
302) The functions of an autopilot (basic modes) consist of :
C 1
D 2, 3, 4 A stabilizing and monitoring the movement around the airplane

centre of gravity.
B monitoring the movement of the airplane centre of gravity.

311) The advantages of an electric float gauge are:
1- ease of manufacture
C guiding the airplane path.
2- independence of the indication relative to the
variations of the aircraft power system if the D stabilizing and monitoring the movement around the airplane
measurement is made by a ratiometer aerodynamic centre.
3- independence of the indication relative to the
variations of the aircraft power system if the
measurement is made by a galvanometer 316) The stall warning system of a large transport airplane
4- independence of the indication relative to temperature includes:
variations
1- an angle of attack sensor
The combination regrouping all the correct statements 2- a computer
is: 3- a transmitter originating from the anemometer
4- an independent pitot probe
A 1, 2, 3, 4 5- a transmitter of the flap/slat position indicating system
B 1, 3, 4 The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:
C 2, 3, 4
A 1, 2, 4, 5.
D 1, 2, 4
B 1, 2, 5.
C 1, 2, 4.
312) The position of a Flight Director command bars:
D 1, 4.
A enables the measurement of deviation from a given position.
B only displays information relating to radio-electric deviation.
C indicates the manoeuvers to execute, to achieve or maintain

a flight situation.
D repeats the ADI and HSI information
317) The angle of attack transmitter provides an electric 321) Indication of Mach number is obtained from:
signal varying with:
1- the angular position of a wind vane A A kind of echo sound comparing velocity of sound with
2- the deviation between the airplane flight attitude and indicated speed
the path calculated by the inertial unit
3- a probe differential pressure depending on the B Indicated speed (IAS) compared with true air speed (TAS)
variation of the angle of attack from the air data computer
The combination regrouping all the correct statements C Indicated speed and altitude using a speed indicator
is: equipped with an altimeter type aneroid
A 1.
D An ordinary airspeed indicator scaled for Mach numbers
instead of knots
B 2 and 3.
322) The purpose of Auto Trim function in autopilot is to :

C 1 and 3.
D 1, 2 and 3. A tell the pilot when elevator trimming is required
B trim throttles to obtain smooth engine power variation

318) When descending through an isothermal layer at a
constant Calibrated Airspeed (CAS), the True Airspeed C control elevator trim tab in order to relieve elevator load
(TAS) will:
D help Auto Pilot compensate for crosswind influence
A increase at a linear rate
B remain constant 323) The airspeed indicator of an aircraft is provided with a

moving red and white hatched pointer. This pointer
C increase at an exponential rate indicates the:
D decrease A maximum speed in VMO operation versus altitude
B maximum speed in VMO operation, versus temperature

319) The essential components of a flight director are :
1- a computer C speed indicated on the autothrottle control box, versus
2- an automatic pilot temperature
3- an autothrottle
4- command bars D speed indicated on the autothrottle control box versus
The combination of correct statements is : altitude
A 1,2
324) A vibration indicator receives a signal from different
B 2,4 sensors (accelerometers). It indicates the :
C 2,3 A vibration frequency expressed in Hz
D 1,4 B vibration period expressed in seconds
C vibration amplitude at a given frequency
320) For capturing and keeping a preselected magnetic

heading, the flight director computer takes into account:
D acceleration measured by the sensors, expressed in g
1- track deviation
2- rate of track closure 313) On an aeroplane equipped with a constant speed
3- rate of change of track closure propeller, the RPM indicator enables :
4- wind velocity given by the inertial reference unit
A selection of engine RPM.
is :
B on a twin-engine aeroplane, automatic engine
synchronisation.
A 1,3,4
C control of the propeller regulator and the display of propeller
B 1,2,3 RPM.
C 1,2,4 D control of power.
D 2,3,4
292) An aeroplane is equipped with a Flight Director (with 284) The oncoming stall of a large transport airplane appears
crosshair trend bars), heading 270°, in HDG mode in the form of:
(heading hold). A new heading, of 360°, is selected the
vertical trend bar : A a bell type warning.
A deviates to the right and remains in that position until the B control stick vibrations simulating natural buffeting.
aircraft has reached heading 360°.
B disappears, the new heading selection has deactivated the C an orange light on the warning display.
HDG mode.
D a natural buffeting which occurs prior to the simulated
C deviates to its right stop as long as the aeroplane is more buffeting.
than 10° off the new selected heading.
D deviates to the right and will be centred as soon as you roll 285) The GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) is active
the aircraft to the bank angle calculated by the flight director. for a height range from:
A 0 ft to 5 000 ft measured by the radio altimeter.

159) A VMO-MMO warning device consists of an alarm
connected to : B 50 ft to 5 000 ft measured by the radio altimeter.
A a barometric aneroid capsule and an airspeed sensor C 50 ft to 2 500 ft measured by the radio altimeter.
subjected to a static pressure.
B a barometric aneroid capsule subjected to a static pressure

D 0 ft to 2 500 ft measured by the radio altimeter.
and an airspeed sensor subjected to a dynamic pressure.
C a barometic aneroid capsule subjected to a dynamic 286) In order to measure temperature the cylinder head
pressure and an airspeed sensor subjected to a static temperature (CHT) gauge utilises a :
pressure.
A ratiometer circuit.
D a barometric aneroid capsule and an airspeed sensor
subjected to dynamic pressure.
B bourdon tube.
C thermocouple consisting of two dissimilar metals.

282) In a steep turn, the northerly turning error on a magnetic
compass on the northern hemisphere is:
D wheatstone bridge circuit.
A none on a 090° heading in a right turn.
B equal to 180° on a 270° heading in a right turn. 287) Landing shall be considered as having been carried out
automatically when the autopilot and the auto-throttle of
an aircraft are disengaged by flight crew :
C equal to 180° on a 090° heading in a right turn.
D none on a 270° heading in a left turn.

A at the decision height.
B at the outer marker.
283) The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) is a C during ground roll.
proximity alarm system which detects a "traffic" when
the conflicting traffic is equipped with a :
D during the flare.
A DME system
B serviceable SSR transponder 288) In a selected axis capture mode, the autopilot gives a
bank attitude input :
C serviceable weather radar
A proportional to the deviation between the selected heading
and the current heading but not exceeding a given value.
D SELCAL system
B of a fixed value equal to 27°.
C of a fixed value equal to 20°.
D proportional to the aircraft true airspeed but not exceeding a

given value.
289) In the automatic trim control system of an autopilot, 294) An autopilot is selected "ON" in mode "altitude hold,"
automatic trimming is normally effected about the : the pilot alters the barometric pressure set on the sub-
scale of his altimeter the:
A roll and yaw axes only.
A aircraft will remain at the same altitude, the autopilot takes
B pitch roll and yaw axes. its pressure information from the static source
B aircraft will remain at the same altitude, the autopilot takes

C pitch and roll axes only.
its pressure information from the altimeter corrected to
standard pressure, 1013.25 hPa
D pitch axis only.
C aircraft will climb or descend in the sense of the change, the
autopilot takes its pressure information from the altimeter
304) With a constant weight, irrespective of the airfield
altitude, an aircraft always takes off at the same : D mode altitude hold will disengage
A equivalent airspeed.
295) The disadvantages of a single-phase A.C. generator
B calibrated airspeed. tachometer are:
C ground speed. 1- the presence of spurious signals due to a D.C.

generator commutator
2- the importance of line resistance on the information
D true airspeed.
value
3- the influence of temperature on the tachometer
information
291) A turn indicator is an instrument which indicates rate of
turn. The combination regrouping all the correct statements
Rate of turn depends upon : is:
1 : bank angle A 2.
2 : aeroplane speed
3 : aeroplane weight B 1, 2, 3.
The combination regrouping the correct statements is :

C 1, 2.
A 2 and 3.
D 1, 3.
B 1, 2, and 3.
C 1 and 2. 296) The diagram on annex 022-648A shows three gyro

assemblies: A, B and C. Among these gyros,
-one is a roll gyro (noted 1)
D 1 and 3.
-one is a pitch gyro (noted 2)
-one is a yaw gyro (noted 3)
The correct matching of gyros and assemblies is:
327) During deceleration following a landing in Northerly
direction, the magnetic compass will indicate : A 1C, 2B, 3A
A an apparent turn to the West. B 1B, 2A, 3C
B a heading fluctuating about 360°. C 1A, 2B, 3C
C no apparent turn. D 1B, 2C, 3A
D an apparent turn to the East.
293) When, in flight, the needle and ball of a needle-and-ball

indicator are on the left, the aircraft is:
A turning left with too much bank
C turning right with too much bank
D turning right with not enough bank
297) In a 3-phase synchronous motor type tachometer 300) An aeroplane is in steady descent. The autothrottle
indicator : maintains a constant calibrated airspeed. If the total
temperature remains constant, the Mach number :
1- the transmitter is a direct current generator
2- the voltage is proportional to the transmitter drive A decreases.
speed
3- the frequency is proportional to the transmitter drive B increases.
speed
4- the speed indicating element is a galvanometer
5. the speed indicating element is an asynchronous C remains constant.
motor driving a magnetic tachometer
D increases if the static temperature is lower than the
The combination regrouping all the correct statements standard temperature, decreases if higher.
is:
A 2, 5 301) The heading read on the dial of a directional gyro is

subject to errors, one of which is due to the movement
B 1, 4 of the aircraft.
This error...
C 3, 5
A is at its greatest value when the aircraft follows a meridional
track
D 1, 2
B shows itself by an apparent rotation of the horizontal axis of
the gyroscope which seems to turn at 15° per hour to the
298) A landing will be considered to be performed in the right in the northern hemisphere
SEMI-AUTOMATIC mode when:
1- the autopilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam C is dependent on the ground speed of the aircraft, its true
until the decision height is reached then is disengaged track and the average latitude of the flight
automatically.
2- the autothrottle maintains a constant speed until the D is, in spite of this, insignificant and may be neglected
decision height is reached then is disengaged
automatically.
3- the autopilot maintains the airplane on the ILS beam 290) The quantity of fuel in the tanks is measured by
until the flare. capacitor type contents gauges. The working principle
4- the autothrottle decreases the thrust when the height of these sensors is to measure the :
is approximately 30 ft.
5- the flare and the ground roll are performed
automatically.
A height of the fuel
is: B volume of the fuel
A 1 and 2. C charge of condensors
B 3, 4 and 5. D di-electric resistivity of the fuel
C 1 and 4.
362) The directional gyro axis no longer spins about the local
D 2, 3 and 5. vertical when it is located :
A on the equator
299) The aim of the flight director is to provide information to
the pilot: B in the latitude 30°
A about his position with regard to a radioelectric axis. C in the latitude 45°
B allowing him to return to a desired path according to a 45° D on the North pole
intercept angle.
C allowing him to return to a desired path according to a 30°

intercept angle.
D allowing him to return to a desired path in an optimal way.
351) The GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) 355) In an average or heavy weight transport airplane,
releases a warning in the following cases : generally, the fuel quantity is measured by "capacitor"
gauges because these give :
1- excessive rate of descent
2- excessive ground proximity rate 1- indications partly independent of fuel temperature
3- loss of altitude after take-off or go-around variations
4- abnormal gear/flaps configuration 2- indications almost independent of the airplane's
5- excessive deviation under the glidepath attitude and accelerations
6- abnormal airbrakes configuration 3- indications expressed in density
The combination regrouping all the correct statements The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is: is:
A 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 A 1, 2, 3
B 3, 4, 5, 6 B 2
C 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 C 1, 3
D 2, 4, 5, 6 D 1, 2
352) When the auto-pilot is engaged; the role of the 356) An automatic pilot is a system which can ensure the
automatic trim is to: functions of:
A react to altitude changes in Altitude Hold mode A navigation.
B synchronize the longitudinal loop B piloting from take-off to landing without any action from the
human pilot.
C relieve the A.P. servo motor and return the aircraft in-trim at
A.P. disconnect C piloting and guidance of an aircraft in both the horizontal and
vertical planes.
D relieve the pressure on the control column and return, the
aircraft in-trim at A.P. disconnect D piloting only.
353) The Head Up Display (HUD) is a device allowing the 357) The gyromagnetic compass torque motor :
pilot, while still looking outside, to have:
A a flying and flight path control aid. A causes the heading indicator to precess
B a monitoring of engine data. B feeds the error detector system
C a monitoring only during Cat III precision approaches. C is fed by the flux valve
D a synthetic view of the instrument procedure. D causes the directional gyro unit to precess
354) The automatic power control system (autothrottle) of a 358) The operating frequency range of a low altitude radio
transport airplane has the following mode(s) : altimeter is:
1- capture and holding of speeds A 5 GHz.

2- capture and holding of Mach number
3- capture and holding of flight angle of attack B 4200 MHz to 4400 MHz.
4- capture and holding of N1 or EPR (Engine Power
Ratio) C 5400 MHz or 9400 MHz.
5- capture and holding of flight paths
D 2700 MHz to 2900 MHz.
is :
A 1, 4, 5
B 1, 2, 4
C 1, 2, 3, 5
D 2, 4
359) At sea level, on a typical servo altimeter, the tolerance in 363) A transport airplane has to be equipped with an altitude
feet from indicated must not exceed : warning device. This system will warn the crew about :
A +/-70 feet 1 - getting close to the preselected altitude, during both

climb and descent.
B +/-60 feet 2 - getting close to the preselected altitude, during climb
only.
3 - the loss of altitude during take-off or missed
C +/-75 feet
approach.
4 - a wrong landing configuration.
D +/-30 feet 5 - a variation higher or lower than a preselected altitude.
The combination regrouping the correct statements is:

325) The advantages provided by an air data computer to
indicate the altitude are : A 2
1. Position/pressure error correction B 1,3,4

2. Hysteresis error correction
3. Remote data transmission capability C 1,5
4. Capability of operating as a conventional altimeter in
the event of a failure D 3,4
A 1,2,3,4 364) A Stand-by-horizon or emergency attitude indicator:
B 2,3,4 A Only works of there is a complete electrical failure
C 1,2,3 B Contains its own separate gyro
D 1,3,4
C Is automatically connected to the primary vertical gyro if the
alternator fails
361) The command functions of an autopilot include, among D Is fully independent of external energy resources in an
others, the holding of : emergency situation
1- vertical speed
2- altitude 365) During a climb after take-off from a contaminated
3- attitude runway, if the total pressure probe of the airspeed
4- bank indicator is blocked, the pilot finds that indicated
5- heading airspeed :
The combination which regroups all of the correct A increases steadily

statements is :
B increases abruptly towards VNE
A 3-5
B 2-3-4
C decreases stadily
D decreases abruptly towards zero

C 1-2-5
D 1-2-3-5
366) The principle of detection of a vibration monitoring
system is based on the use of:
348) In a standard atmosphere and at the sea level, the A 2 high and low frequency filters.
calibrated airspeed (CAS) is :
B a frequency converter.
A independent of the true airspeed (TAS).
B higher than the true airspeed (TAS).

C 2 accelerometers.
D 2 high and low frequency amplifiers.

C lower than the true airspeed (TAS).
D equal to the true airspeed (TAS).
367) The correction of the control surface deflection made by 371) Following 180° stabilized turn with a constant attitude
the auto-pilot calculator in order to keep a given altitude and bank, the artificial horizon indicates :
will be all the more significant when the :
A too high pitch up and too high banking
1- difference between the attitude necessary to keep the
given or reference altitude and the instantaneous B too high pitch-up and too low banking
attitude is high.
2 - variation speed of the difference between the attitude
necessary to maintain the altitude and the instantaneous C too high pitch-up and correct banking
attitude is high.
3 - difference between the altitude of reference and the D attitude and banking correct
instantaneous altitude is high.
4 - variation speed of the difference between the
reference altitude and the instantaneous altitude is high. 360) The purpose of an airplane automatic trim system is to
trim out the hinge moment of the :
A elevator(s)
A 1, 2 and 3.
B rudder(s)
B 1, 2, 3 and 4.
C elevator(s) and rudder(s)
C 1 and 2.
D elevator(s), rudder(s) and ailerons.
D 3 and 4.
338) An aeroplane is in a steady climb. The autothrottle

368) The capacity fuel gauges provide information: maintains a constant Mach number. If the total
temperature remains constant, the calibrated airspeed :
A which is independent of the temperature of the fuel.
A remains constant.
B which varies with the temperature of the fuel.
B decreases if the static temperature is lower than the
standard temperature, increases if higher.
C on mass whose indication is independent of the temperature
of the fuel.
C decreases.
D on mass whose indication varies with the temperature of the
fuel. D increases.
369) When climbing at a constant Mach number below the 279) At a constant Mach number, the calibrated air speed
tropopause, in ISA conditions, the Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) :
(CAS) will:
A decreases when the altitude increases
A increase at an exponential rate
B increases when the altitude increases
B decrease
C remains unchanged when the outside temperature increases
C increase at a linear rate
D remains unchanged when the outside temperature
D remain constant decreases
370) An airplane is in steady descent. The autothrottle 328) A "Bourdon Tube" is used in:
maintains a constant Mach number. If the total
temperature remains constant, the calibrated airspeed:
A smoke detectors
A decreases if the static temperature is lower than the
standard temperature, increases if above. B turbine temperature probes
B increases. C pressure sensors
C decreases. D vibration detectors
D remains constant.
329) The directional gyro axis spins about the local vertical 333) The turn rate indicator uses a gyroscope:
by 15°/hour :
1 - with one degree of freedom.
A in the latitude 30° 2 - with two degrees of freedom
3 - the frame of which is supported by two return
B in the latitude 45° springs.
4 - the spinning wheel axis of which is parallel to the
pitch axis.
C on the equator
5 - the spinning wheel axis of which is parallel to the
yawing axis.
D on the North pole 6 - the spinning wheel axis of which is horizontal.

330) The limits of the yellow scale of an airspeed indicator is:
are :
A 1-3-4
A VLO for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit
B 2-5
B VLE for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit
C 1-6
C VFE for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit
D 1-3
D VNO for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit
334) A cockpit voice recorder (CVR) will record :

331) The interception of a localizer beam by the autopilot
takes place : 1. the information exchanged by the cabin crew
2. the conversations between the crew members and
voice communications transmitted from or received on
A according to an interception versus range and angular
the flight deck by radio
3. the announcements made via the public address even
B at a constant heading if it has not been selected
4. the conversations and alarms audible in the cockpit
C at a constant magnetic course 5. the captain conversations only
D according to an interception versus radio deviation law The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is :
A 2, 4
332) The operation of the GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning
System) is governed by laws taking the aircraft height
into account as well as :
B 3, 4
1- the descent rate
2- the climb rate C 1, 2
3- the aircraft configuration
4- the selected engine rpm D 1, 5
A 2,3
335) In transport airplanes, the temperatures are generally
measured with :
B 1,3
1- resistance thermometers
C 1,2,4 2- thermocouple thermometers
3- reactance thermometers
D 2,4 4- capacitance thermometers
5- mercury thermometers

is :
A 1, 2
B 1, 3, 4, 5
C 1, 2, 5
D 2, 3
350) A radio altimeter can be defined as a : 340) A thermocouple can be made of:
A self-contained on-board aid used to measure the true A a three wire coil.
altitude of the aircraft
B a single wire coil.
B ground radio aid used to measure the true height of the
aircraft
C two metal conductors of different nature fixed together at two
points.
C ground radio aid used to measure the true altitude of the
aircraft
D two metal conductors of the same nature fixed together at
two points.
D self-contained on-board aid used to measure the true height
of the aircraft
341) The limits of the green scale of an airspeed indicator are

:
337) A Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) generates
automatically a distinct warning to the flight crew with
aural and/or light warning signals in the case of: A VS1 for the lower limit and VLO for the upper limit
1- an excessive rate of descent with respect to terrain B VS1 for the lower limit and VNO for the upper limit
2- a dangerous proximity to the ground
3- a loss of altitude following take-off or go-around C VS0 for the lower limit and VNO for the upper limit
4- an abnormal flight attitude
5- an abnormal landing configuration D VS1 for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit
6- an abnormal deviation below ILS glide slope

is: 342) The TCAS II data display devices can be in the form of:
A 1,2 and 4. 1- a specific dedicated screen

2- a screen combined with the weather radar
B 3, 4, 5 and 6. 3- a variometer represented on a liquid crystal screen
which allows the display of Traffic Advisory (TA) and
Resolution Advisory (RA)
C 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6. 4- an EFIS (Electronic Flight Instrument System) screen
D 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. The combination regrouping all the correct statements

is:
349) In the northern hemisphere, during deceleration

A 3 and 4.
following a landing in an Easterly direction, the
magnetic compass will indicate : B 1 and 3.
A an apparent turn to the South. C 1, 2, 3 and 4.
B an apparent turn to the North. D 1, 2 and 3.
C a constant heading.
343) In low altitude radio altimeters, the height measurement
D a heading fluctuating about 090°. (above the ground) is based upon:
A a pulse transmission, for which time between transmission

and reception is measured on a circular scanning screen.
339) The advantages of a D.C. generator tachometer are:
1- easy transmission of the information.

B a wave transmission, for which the frequency shift by
DOPPLER effect after ground reflection is measured.
2- independence of the information relative to the
airborne electrical power supply.
3- freedom from any spurious current due to the C a triangular amplitude modulation wave, for which
modulation phase shift between transmitted and received
commutator.
waves after ground reflection is measured.
is:
D a frequency modulation wave, for which the frequency
variation between the transmitted wave and the received
wave after ground reflection is measured.
A 1, 3.
B 1, 2.
C 1, 2, 3.
D 2, 3.
344) The airplane outside air temperature "probe" measures 336) The GPWS calculator is able to operate in the following
the : modes :
A "static" air temperature minus compressibility effects in 1- excessive descent rate

order to obtain the total temperature. 2- excessive rate of terrain closure
3- excessive angle of attack
B "total" air temperature minus kinetic heating effects in order 4- too high descent attitude
to obtain the static temperature. 5- loss of altitude after take-off
6- abnormal gear/flaps configuration
C "static" air temperature minus kinetic heating effects in order 7- excessive glidepath deviation
to obtain the total temperature.
D "total" air temperature minus compressibility effects in order is:
to obtain the static temperature.
A 2,3,5,7
345) For an aircraft flying a true track of 360° between the B 1,2,5,6,7
005°S and 005°N parallels, the precession error of the
directional gyro due to apparent drift is equal to: C 1,2,4,6,7
A +5°/hour D 3,4,5,6
B -5°/hour
196) An airplane is in steady cruise at flight level 290. The

C depends only on the aircraft's ground speed
autothrottle maintains a constant Mach number. If the
total temperature increases, the calibrated airspeed:
D 0°/hour
A remains constant.
346) The indication of a fuel float gauge varies with : B increases.

1- aircraft attitude
2- accelerations C decreases.
3- atmospheric pressure
4- temperature D increases if the static temperature is higher than the
The combination of correct statements is : standard temperature, decreases if lower.
A 4
281) The airspeed indicator circuit consists of pressure
B 1,2
sensors. The pitot tube directly supplies:
C 1,2,4 A the dynamic pressure
D 1,2,3,4 B the total pressure
C the static pressure

347) When, in flight, the needle of a needle-and-ball indicator
is on the left and the ball on the right, the aircraft is: D the total pressure and the static pressure
A turning right with too much bank

186) The main advantage of a ratiometer-type temperature
indicator is that it:
C turning left with too much bank A carries out an independent measurement of the supply
voltage.
D turning right with not enough bank
B is simple.
326) The vertical reference unit of a three-axis data generator C can operate without an electrical power supply.
is equipped with a gyro with :
D is very accurate.
A 2 degrees of freedom and horizontal spin axis
B 1 degree of freedom and horizontal spin axis
C 1 degree of freedom and vertical spin axis
D 2 degrees of freedom and vertical spin axis
187) A manifold pressure gauge of a piston engine measures : 192) When an aircraft has turned 90 degrees with a constant
attitude and bank, the pilot observes the following on a
A absolute airpressure entering the carburettor.
A too much nose-up and bank too high
B fuel pressure leaving the carburettor.
B too much nose-up and bank too low
C vacuum in the carburettor.
C attitude and bank correct
D absolute pressure in intake system near the inlet valve.
D too much nose-up and bank correct
188) Mach Trim is a device to compensate for :

193) When the intruding aircraft is equipped with a
A the effects of temperature variation during a climb or transponder without altitude reporting capability, the
descent at constant Mach TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) issues a :
B weight reduction resulting from fuel consumption during the A "traffic advisory" and horizontal "resolution advisory".
cruise
B "traffic advisory", vertical and horizontal "resolution advisory".
C backing of the aerodynamic center at high Mach numbers by
moving the elevator to nose-up C "traffic advisory" only.
D the effects of fuel transfer between the main tanks and the
D "traffic advisory" and vertical "resolution advisory".
tank located in the horizontal tail
189) On a modern aircraft, the flight director modes are 184) The TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance System) gives
displayed on the: avoidance resolutions :
A upper strip of the ECAM (Electronic Centralized A/C A only in the horizontal plane
Management).
B in horizontal and vertical planes
B control panel of the flight director only.
C based on speed control
C upper strip of the PFD (Primary Flight Display).
D only in the vertical plane
D upper strip of the ND (Navigation Display).
195) An airborne instrument, equipped with a gyro with 1

190) Flight recorder duration must be such that flight data, degree of freedom and a horizontal spin axis is a :
cockpit voice and sound warnings may respectively be
recorded during at least: A turn indicator
A 24 hours for flight data, 60 minutes for cockpit voices and B gyromagnetic compass
warnings horns.
B 20 hours for flight data, 15 minutes for cockpit voices and

C fluxgate compass
warnings horns.
D directional gyro
C 48 hours for flight data, 60 minutes for cockpit voices and
warnings horns
183) A semi-automatic landing system disconnects itself
D 25 hours for flight data, 30 minutes for cockpit voices and automatically:
warnings horns.
A at approximately 100 ft.
191) If the static source to an altimeter becomes blocked B at the decision height.
during a climb, the instrument will:
A gradually return to zero

C on ground.
B continue to indicate the reading at which the blockage

D when going around.
occured
C under-read by an amount equivalent to the reading at the

time that the instrument became blocked
D over-read
197) According to the JAR-OPS regulations, the Cockpit 200) A rate integrating gyro is a detecting element used in
Voice Recorder of a 50 seat multi-engined aircraft 1. An inertial attitude unit
having been granted the airworthiness certificate after 2. An automatic pilot
1st April 1998 will record: 3. A stabilizing servo system
4. An inertial navigation system
1- the radiotelephonic communications transmitted or 5. A rate-of-turn indicator
received by the cockpit crew The combination of correct statements is :
2- the audio environment of the cockpit
3- the cabin attendants communications in the cabin via A 2,3,4.
the interphone
4- the flight crew members communications in the B 1,4.
cockpit via the interphone
5- the flight crew members communications in the
cockpit via the public address system C 1,2,3,4,5.
6- the audio signals identifiying the navigation or
approach aids D 2,3,5.

227) In a Turn-indicator, the measurement of rate-of-turn
A 1,3,4,5 consists for :
B 1,2,4,5,6 A low bank angles , in measuring the roll rate
C 1,2,3,4,5,6 B high bank angles,in measuring the yaw rate
D 1 C high bank angles, in measuring the roll rate
D low bank angles, in measuring the yaw rate

198) The correction of the control surface deflection made by
the automatic pilot calculator in order to stabilize the
longitudinal attitude will be all the more significant as 228) (For this question use annex 022-10217A)
the : After having programmed your flight director, you see
that the indications of your ADI (Attitude Director
1- difference between the reference attitude and the Indicator) are as represented in diagram N°1 of the
instantaneous attitude is high. appended annex. On this instrument, the command bars
2- rate of change of the difference between the reference indicate that you must bank your airplane to the left and :
attitude and the instantaneous attitude is high.
3- temperature is low.
4- pressure altitude is high.
A increase the flight attitude until the command bars recentre
on the symbolic airplane.
is:
B decrease the flight attitude until the command bars recentre
on the symbolic airplane.
A 1,2. C increase the flight attitude until the command bars recentre
on the horizon.
B 1, 2, 3, 4.
D decrease the flight attitude until the command bars recentre
C 1, 2, 3. on the horizon.
D 2, 3, 4.
229) VNO is the maximum speed :
199) Flight Director Information supplied by an FD computer A at which the flight controls can be fully deflected.
is presented in the form of command bars on the
following instrument: B with flaps extended in landing position.
A BDHI Bearing Distance Heading Indicator.

C not to be exceeded except in still air and with caution.
B RMI Radio Magnetic Indicator.

D which must never be exceeded.
C HSI Horizontal Situation Indicator.
D ADI Attitude Display Indicator.
230) Among the systematic errors of the "directional gyro", 162) While inertial platform system is operating on board an
the error due to the earth rotation make the north aircraft, it is necessary to use a device with the following
reference turn in the horizontal plane. At a mean latitude characteristics, in order to keep the vertical line with a
of 45°N, this reference turns by... pendulous system:
A 15°/hour to the right. A with damping and a period of 84 seconds
B 7.5°/hour to the right. B with damping and a period of about 84 minutes.
C 7.5°/hour to the left. C without damping and a period of about 84 minutes
D 10.5°/hour to the right. D without damping and a period of about 84 seconds
231) The signal supplied by a transmitter fitted with a 163) The voice recorder records on four different channels
magnetic sensor, connected to an RPM indicator is : the following information:
A a three-phase voltage frequency varies with the RPM; the 1- aural warnings
indicator is provided with a motor which drives a magnetic 2- radio communications
tachometer 3- conversations between the crew members through
the cockpit interphone
B a DC voltage varying with the RPM ; the indicator is a simple 4- announcements to the passengers
voltmeter with a rev/min. scale
C an AC voltage varying with the RPM ; the indicator rectifies is:
the signal via a diode bridge and is provided with a voltmeter
A 1, 4.
D an AC voltage, the frequency of which varies with the RPM;
the indicator converts the signal into square pulses which B 1, 2, 3.
are then counted
C 1, 2, 3, 4.
194) An Air Data Computer (ADC) : D 1, 3.
A Measures position error in the static system and transmits

this information to ATC to provide correct altitude reporting 164) The operation of the radio altimeter of a modern aircraft
is based on:
B Transforms air data measurements into electric impulses
driving servo motors in instruments A frequency modulation of the carrier wave.
C Is an auxiliary system that provides altitude information in
B amplitude modulation of the carrier wave.
the event that the static source is blocked
D Converts air data measurements given by ATC from the C pulse modulation of the carrier wave.
ground in order to provide correct altitude and speed
information D a combination of frequency modulation and pulse
modulation.
173) The altitude indicated on board an aircraft flying in an

atmosphere where all atmosphere layers below the 165) The velocity maximum operating (V.M.O.) is a speed
aircraft are warm is: expressed in :
A equal to the standard altitude. A calibrated airspeed (CAS).
B higher than the real altitude. B equivalent airspeed (EAS).
C the same as the real altitude. C true airspeed (TAS).
D lower than the real altitude. D computed airspeed (COAS).
166) A pilot wishes to turn left on to a northerly heading with 170) A laser gyro consists of :
10° bank at a latitude of 50° North. Using a direct reading
compass, in order to achieve this he must stop the turn
on an approximate heading of : A 2 electrodes (anodes+cathodes)
A 030° B a gyro with 2 degrees of freedom
B 355° C two moving cavities provided with mirrors
C 330° D a laser generating two light waves
D 015°
185) After an aircraft has passed through a volcanic cloud
which has blocked the total pressure probe inlet of the
167) The transmitter of RPM indicator may consist of : airspeed indicator, the pilot begins a stabilized descent
1- a magnetic sensor supplying an induced AC voltage and finds that the indicated airspeed :
2- a DC generator supplying a DC voltage
3- a single-phase AC generator supplying an AC voltage A increases abruptly towards VNE
4- a three-phase AC generator supplying a three-phase
voltage B increases steadily
C decreases abruptly towards zero
A 1,2,3
D decreases steadily
B 1,2,3,4
C 2,3,4
172) During a straight and uniform climb, the pilot maintains
a constant calibrated airspeed (CAS) :
D 1,4
A The Mach number is constant and the true airspeed (TAS)
is constant.
168) A pilot engages the control wheel steering (CWS) of a
conventional autopilot and carries out a manoeuvre in B The Mach number is constant and the true airspeed (TAS)
roll. When the control wheel is released, the autopilot decreases.
will :
C The Mach number increases and the true airspeed (TAS)
increases.
A maintain the track and the flight attitude obtained at that
moment.
D The Mach number increases and the true airspeed (TAS) is
B restore the flight attitude and the rate of turn selected on the constant.
autopilot control display unit.
C maintain the flight attitude obtained at that moment. 234) The principle of capacity gauges is based on the:
D roll wings level and maintain the heading obtained at that

A current variation in the Wheatstone bridge.
moment.
B capacitance variation by the volume measurement carried

out on the sensor.
169) A pilot wishes to turn left on to a southerly heading with
20° bank at a latitude of 20° North. Using a direct reading C flow rate and torque variation occurring in a supply line.
compass, in order to achieve this he must stop the turn
on an approximate heading of :
D capacitance variation of a given capacitor with the type of
dielectric.
A 200°
B 170°
174) The flight data recorders must preserve the
conversation and aural warnings of the last :
C 190°
A 25 hours of operation
D 160°
B flight
C 48 hours of operation
D 30 minutes of operation
175) The probe used to measure the air intake pressure of a 179) The quadrantal deviation of the magnetic compass is
gas turbine engined powerplant is: due to the action of :
A a differential capsule. A the hard iron ices and the soft iron pieces influenced by the
hard iron pieces
B a Bourdon tube.
B the hard iron pieces influenced by the geomagnetic field
C a bellows sensor.
C the hard iron pieces influenced by the mild iron pieces
D an aneroid capsule.
D the soft iron pieces influenced by the geomagnetic field
176) The yaw damper, which suppresses Dutch roll:

180) The electromotive force of a thermocouple is not
modified if one or several intermediate metals are
A controls the rudder, with Mach Number as the input signal. inserted in the circuit provided that:
B controls the ailerons, with the angular rate about the vertical A contact points are maintained at equal temperature between
axis as the input signal. these different metals.
C controls the rudder, with the angular rate about the vertical B these metals are not the same as those constituting the
axis as the input signal. thermocouple.
D controls the ailerons, with Mach Number as the input signal. C these metals are maintained at a temperature higher than
that of the cold source.
D these metals are maintained at a temperature lower than

177) A closed loop control system in which a small power that of the cold source.
input controls a much larger power output in a strictly
proportionate manner is known as :
181) The data supplied by a radio altimeter:
A a servomechanism.
B an amplifier. A concerns only the decision height.
C a feedback control circuit. B is used only by the radio altimeter indicator.
D an autopilot. C is used by the automatic pilot in the altitude hold mode.
D indicates the distance between the ground and the aircraft.

178) The TCAS 2 (Traffic Collision Avoidance System)
provides :
182) The CVR (Cockpit Voice Recorder) includes:
1- traffic information (TA: Traffic Advisory) 1. a microphone
2- horizontal resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory) 2. a recorder in compliance with the shock and fire
3- vertical resolution (RA: Resolution Advisory) resistance standards
4- ground proximity warning 3. an independent battery
4. a flight data recorder
The combination regrouping all the correct statements The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is: is:
A 1, 2, 3 A 1, 2
B 1, 2, 3, 4 B 1, 4
C 1, 3 C 1, 2, 3, 4
D 1, 2 D 2, 4
171) For a constant Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) and a level 261) In low altitude radio altimeters, the reading is zero when
flight, a fall in ambient temperature will result in a: main landing gear wheels are on the ground. For this, it
is necessary to:
A lower True Airspeed (TAS) due to a decrease in air density
A compensate residual altitude due to antennas height above
B lower True Airspeed (TAS) due to an increase in air density the ground and coaxial cables length.
B account for signal processing time in the unit and apply a

C higher True Airspeed (TAS) due to a decrease in air density
correction factor to the reading.
D higher True Airspeed (TAS) due to an increase in air density C place the antennas on the bottom of the aeroplane.
D change the display scale in short final, in order to have a

269) The disadvantage of an electronic rpm indicator is the : precise readout.
A influence of temperature on the indication.

262) The heading information originating from the
gyromagnetic compass flux valve is sent to the:
B high influence of line resistance on the indication.
A erector system.
C necessity of providing a power supply source.
B heading indicator.
D generation of spurious signals at the commutator.
C amplifier.
258) An automatic landing system necessitating that the D error detector.

landing be continued manually in the case of a system
failure during an automatic approach is called "FAIL...."
263) Considering the maximum operational Mach number
A "PASSIVE"
(MMO) and the maximum operational speed (VMO), the
captain of a pressurized aircraft begins his descent from
B "OPERATIONAL" a high flight level. In order to meet his scheduled time of
arrival, he decides to use the maximum ground speed at
C "SAFE" any time of the descent. He will be limited :
D "REDUNDANT" A initially by theVMO, then by the MMO below a certain flight

level
B by the MMO
259) Concerning the TCAS (Traffic Collision Avoidance
System) :
C by the VMO in still air
A No protection is available against aircraft not equipped with a
serviceable SSR transponder D initially by the MMO, then by the VMO below a certain flight
level
B In one of the system modes, the warning : "TOO LOW
TERRAIN" is generated
264) In case of accidental closing of an aircraft's left static
C In one of the system modes, the warning : "PULL UP" is pressure port (rain, birds), the altimeter:
generated
A overreads the altitude in case of a sideslip to the left and
D Resolution Advisory (RA) must not be followed without displays the correct information during symmetric flight.
obtaining clearance from ATC
B overreads the altitude in case of a side-slip to the right and
displays the correct information during symmetric flight.
260) The purpose of compass swinging is to determine the
deviation of a magnetic compass : C keeps on providing reliable reading in all situations
A on a given heading D underreads the altitude.
B at any latitude
C at a given latitude
D on any heading
265) A ground proximity warning system (GPWS), when 255) The automatic trim is a component of the autopilot pitch
mandatorily installed on board an aircraft, must in all channel. Its function is to:
cases generate :
A automatically disengage the autopilot in the case of an
A a visual alarm to which a sound alarm can be excessive pitch up.
B at least one sound alarm to which a visual alarm can be B transfer a stabilized aeroplane to the pilot during autopilot
added disengagement.
C a sound alarm or a visual alarm C reset the attitude, after engaging (the autopilot).
D a sound and visual alarm D set the attitude to an instantaneous value before engaging
the autopilot.
266) The gimbal error of the directional gyro is due to the

270) The synchronization of the autopilot control channel
effect of :
system :
A the aircraft's track over the earth 1- enables the prevention of jerks during
disengagement
B a bank or pitch attitude of the aircraft 2- enables the cancellation of rudder control signals
3- enables the prevention of jerks during engagement
C an apparent weight and an apparent vertical 4- functions in the heading, navigation, approach modes
D too slow precession on the horizontal gimbal ring The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:
A 2, 3
232) VFE is the maximum speed :
B 3, 4
A with the flaps extended in take-off position.
C 2, 4
B with the flaps extended in a given position.
D 1, 4
C with the flaps extended in landing position.
D at which the flaps can be operated. 271) When using the autopilot, the function of the pitch
channel automatic trim is to:
1- cancel the hinge moment of the elevator

268) The advantages of an "electric" fuel (float) gauge are : 2- ease as much as possible the load of the servo-
actuator
1- easy construction
3- restore to the pilot a correctly trimmed airplane
2- independence of indications with regard to airplane
during the autopilot disengagement
attitude
3- independence of indications with regard to the
accelerations is:
4- independence of indications with regard to
temperature variations
5- independence of indications with regard to vibrations
A 1 and 2.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements B 1, 2 and 3.

is:
C 3.
A 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
D 1 and 3.
B 2, 3, 4, 5
C 2, 3, 4 272) The compass heading can be derived from the magnetic

heading by reference to a:
D 1
A map showing the isogonic lines
B compass swinging curve
C map showing the isoclinic lines
D deviation correction curve
273) The heading reference unit of a three-axis data 276) The main input data to the Stall Warning Annunciator
generator is equipped with a gyro with: System are :
A 1 degree of freedom and vertical spin axis 1- Mach Meter indication

2- Angle of Attack
B 2 degrees of freedom and horizontal spin axis 3- Indicate Airspeed (IAS)
4- Aircraft configuration (Flaps/Slats)
C 2 degrees of freedom and vertical spin axis
is :
D 1 degree of freedom and horizontal spin axis
A 2,3
274) The calibrated airspeed (CAS) or Mach holding mode is B 1,4

carried out by:
C 1,2
1- the autopilot pitch channel in the climb mode at a
constant calibrated airspeed (CAS) or Mach number D 2,4
2- the autothrottles in the climb mode at a constant
calibrated airspeed (CAS) or Mach number
3- the autopilot pitch channel in the altitude or glide path
holding mode 277) The aircraft radio equipment which emits on a frequency
4- the autothrottles in the altitude or glide path holding of 4400 MHz is the :
mode
A primary radar.
is: B radio altimeter.
A 1 and 4.
C high altitude radio altimeter.
B 2 and 4.
D weather radar.
C 1 and 3.
D 2 and 3. 278) The density altitude is :
A the pressure altitude corrected for the relative density

275) If an aircraft is flying (with flaps and landing gear prevailing at this point
retracted) in proximity to terrain and its GPWS (Ground
Proximity Warning System) get activated, because it is B the pressure altitude corrected for the density of air at this
detecting that the aeroplane has an excessive rate of point
descent, the system provides the following aural
warning signals : C the altitude of the standard atmosphere on which the density
is equal to the actual density of the atmosphere
A "DON'T SINK, DON'T SINK"
D the temperature altitude corrected for the difference
between the real temperature and the standard temperature
B "TERRAIN, TERRAIN" followed by "WHOOP WHOOP
PULL UP" (twice)
C "TOO LOW, TERRAIN" (twice) followed by "TOO LOW 267) The red pointer which is normally on the red line on the
GEAR" (twice) EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) indicators:
D "SINK RATE, SINK RATE" followed by "WHOOP WHOOP A shows the vibration level of the engine under consideration.
PULL UP" (twice)
B moves when the corresponding value is exceeded and
remains positioned at the maximum value that has been
reached.
C shows the limit value not to be exceeded.
D allows the display of the parameter value to be adopted

during take-off.
245) If the outside temperature at 35 000 feet is -40°C, the 238) The maximum directional gyro error due to the earth
local speed of sound is : rotation is:
A 247 kt. A 15°/hour
B 307 kt. B 90°/hour
C 686 kt. C 180°/hour
D 596 kt. D 5°/hour
372) A pilot has to carry out a single-pilot IFR flight on a light 239) When an aircraft, operating in the VOR coupled mode,
twin-engined aircraft for cargo transport. The purpose of approaches the "cone of confusion" over a VOR station,
the automatic pilot is at least to hold the: the roll channel of the autopilot :
A heading and to hold the altitude A remains always coupled to the selected VOR radial.
B heading B is temporarily disconnected.
C altitude C temporarily switches over to the heading mode.
D heading, to hold the altitude and to have a radio axis tracking D is damped by a trim input signal from the lateral trim system.
function
240) The altitude indicated on board an aircraft flying in an

235) Except for airplanes under 5,7 t airworthiness certificate atmosphere where all the atmosphere layers below the
of which is subsequent to 31 march 1998, a flight data aircraft are cold is :
recording system must be able to store the recorded
data for a minimum of the last : A lower than the real altitude.
A 30 minutes.
B the same as the real altitude.
B 60 minutes.
C higher than the real altitude.
C 25 hours.
D equal to the standard altitude.
D 10 hours.
241) In An Air Data Computer (ADC), aeroplane altitude is

calculated from:
236) The purpose of the vibrating device of an altimeter is to:
A Measurement of outside air temperature (OAT)
A reduce the effect of friction in the linkages
B Measurement of elapsed time for a radio signal transmitted
B inform the crew of a failure of the instrument to the ground surface and back
C Measurement of absolute barometric pressure from a static

C allow damping of the measurement in the unit source on the fuselage
D reduce the hysteresis effect D The difference between absolute and dynamic pressure at
the fuselage

The block diagram of an auto-pilot is shown in the annex. 242) The RPM indicator (or tachometer) of a piston engine
For each control channel (pitch, roll and yaw) the can include a small red arc within the arc normally used
piloting law is the relationship between the deflection of (green arc)
the control surface commanded by the computer (BETA In the RPM range corresponding to this small red arc the
c) and the: :
A offset EPSILON at the computer input. A propoller generates vibration, continuous rating is forbidden
B pilot command E. B rating is the maximum possible in continuous mode
C aircraft response S. C rating is the minimum usable in cruise
D real deflection of the control surface (BETA control surface D propeller efficency is minimum at this rating
feedback).
257) At a low bank angle, the measurement of rate-of-turn 248) A millivoltmeter measuring the electromotive force
actually consists in measuring the : between the "hot junction" and the "cold junction" of a
thermocouple can be directly graduated in temperature
A pitch rate of the aircraft values provided that the temperature of the:
B roll rate of the aircraft A cold junction is maintained constant.
C angular velocity of the aircraft B hot junction is maintained constant.
D yaw rate of the aircraft C cold junction is maintained at 15 °C.
D hot junction is maintained at 15 °C.

244) The quadrantal deviation of a magnetic compass is
corrected by using :
249) The sensors used to measure the exhaust gas
A pairs of permanent magnets temperature on an aircraft equipped with turbojets are:
B magnetized needles A based on metallic parts whose expansion/contraction is

measured.
C soft iron pieces
B based on metallic conductors whose resistance increases
linearly with temperature.
D hard iron pieces
C capacitors whose capacity varies proportionnally with
temperature.
256) A paddle-wheel placed in a the fuel circuit of a gas
turbine engine initially measures: D thermocouples.
A volumetric flow by a tally of the impulses

250) The angle of attack transmitters placed laterally on the
B mass flow by a tally of the impulses forward part of the fuselage supply an electrical signal
indicating:
C volumetric flow by measure of a voltage proportional to the
rotational speed 1- the angular position of a wind vane
2- a differential pressure in a probe, depending on the
D mass flow by measure of a voltage proportional to the variation of the angle of attack
rotational speed 3- a differential pressure in a probe, depending on the
variation of the speed

246) The altimeter consists of one or several aneroid is:
capsules located in a sealed casing.
The pressures in the aneroid capsule (i) and casing (ii)
are respectively :
A 1, 3.
A (i) static pressure at time t (ii) static pressure at time t - t B 1, 2.
B (i) total pressure (ii) static pressure C 1, 2, 3.
C (i) static pressure (ii) total pressure D 2, 3.
D (i) vacuum (or a very low pressure) (ii) static pressure

251) The Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) is computed by :
247) The "heading hold" mode is selected on the flight A dividing compressor discharge pressure by turbine
director (FD) with a course to steer of 180°. Your aircraft discharge pressure.
holds a heading of 160°. The vertical bar of the FD:
B multiplying compressor inlet pressure by turbine discharge
A is centered if the aircraft has a port drift of 20° pressure.
B cannot be centered C multiplying compressor discharge pressure by turbine inlet

pressure.
C is centered if the aircraft is on optimum path to join heading
D dividing turbine discharge pressure by compressor inlet
180°
pressure.
D is centered if the aircraft has a starboard drift of 20°
252) The measurement of the turbine temperature or of the
EGT (Exhaust Gas Temperature) is carried out at the :
A high pressure turbine outlet.
B combustion chamber outlet.
C combustion chamber intake.
D high pressure chamber intake.
253) During an automatic landing, from a height of about 50 ft

the:
A Loc and Glideslope modes are disconnected and the

airplane carries on its descent until landing.
B autopilot maintains a vertical speed depending on the radio

altimeter height.
C glideslope mode is disconnected and the airplane continues

its descent until landing.
D autopilot maintains an angle of attack depending on the

radio altimeter height.
254) When compared with the volumetric fuel flowmeter, the

mass fuel flowmeter takes into account the fuel :
A pressure.
B dielectrical constant.
C density.
D temperature.
233) The white sector of the arc of a temperature gauge

corresponds to:
A a special operating range.
B a normal operating range.
C an exceptional operating range.
D a forbidden operating range.
243) In the Northern hemisphere, during deceleration

following a landing in a Westerly direction, the magnetic
compass will indicate :
A an apparent turn to the South.
B an apparent turn to the North.
C no apparent turn.
D a heading fluctuating about 270°.
Professione Volare Domande Mass and Balance
Data:
Nome Allievo:
1) Prior to departure the medium range twin jet aeroplane 5) During a violent avoidance manoeuvre, a light twin
is loaded with maximum fuel of 20100 litres at a fuel aircraft, certified to FAR 23 requirements was subjected
density (specific gravity) of 0.78. to an instantaneous load factor of 4.2. The Flight Manual
Using the following data - specifies that the aircraft is certified in the normal
Performance limited take-off mass 67200 kg category for a load factor of -1.9 to +3.8.
Performance limited landing mass 54200 kg Considering the certification requirements and taking
Dry Operating Mass 34930 kg into account that the manufacturer of the twin did not
Taxi fuel 250 kg include, during its conception, a supplementary margin
Trip fuel 9250 kg in the flight envelope, it might be possible to observe;
Contingency and holding fuel 850 kg
Alternate fuel 700 kg A a permanent deformation of the structure
The maximum permissible traffic load is
B a elastic deformation whilst the load was applied, but no
A 16470 kg permanent distortion
B 18040 kg C no distortion, permanent or temporary of the structure
C 12840 kg D rupture of one or more structural components
D 13090 kg.
6) The actual 'Zero Fuel Mass' is equal to the:
2) (For this question use annex 031-12266A or Loading

Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.14)
A Basic Empty Mass plus the fuel loaded.
Using the load and trim sheet for the JAR FCL twin jet,
which of the following is the correct value for the index B Actual Landing Mass plus trip fuel.
at a Dry Operating Mass (DOM) of 35000 kg with a CG at
14% MAC ? C Dry Operating Mass plus the traffic load.
A 33..0 D Operating Mass plus all the traffic load.
B 40.0
7) (For this question use annex 031-9629 A or Loading
C 35.5 Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.9)
From the loading manual for the jet transport aeroplane,
D 41.5 the maximum floor loading intensity for the aft cargo
compartment is :
3) The responsibility for determination of the mass of

A 68 kg per square metre.
'operating items' and 'crew members' included within
the Dry Operating Mass lies with B 68 kg per square foot.
A the commander. C 150 kg per square foot.
B the authority of the state of registration. D 68 Lbs per square foot.
C the person compiling the weighing schedule.

8) The empty mass of an aeroplane is recorded in
D the operator.
A the weighing schedule and is amended to take account of

changes due to modifications of the aeroplane.
4) The stalling speed of an aeroplane will be highest when
it is loaded with a: B the weighing schedule. If changes occur, due to
modifications, the aeroplane must be re-weighed always.
A low gross mass and forward centre of gravity.
C the loading manifest. It differs from Dry Operating Mass by
B low gross mass and aft centre of gravity. the value of the 'useful load'.
D the loading manifest. It differs from the zero fuel mass by

C high gross mass and aft centre of gravity.
the value of the 'traffic load'.
D high gross mass and forward centre of gravity.
9) The actual 'Take-off Mass' is equivalent to: 13) (For this question use annex 031-12271A)
From the data given at the appendix and assuming a fuel
index shift of - 5.7 from the ZFM loaded index, determine
A Actual Zero Fuel Mass plus the traffic load which of the following is the correct value (percentage
MAC) for the position of the centre of gravity at Take Off
B Dry Operating Mass plus the take-off fuel Mass.
C Actual Landing Mass plus the take-off fuel A 15 %
D Dry Operating Mass plus take-off fuel and the traffic load B 14 %
C 18 %
10) Given that the total mass of an aeroplane is 112 000 kg
with a centre of gravity position at 22.62m aft of the D 19 %
datum. The centre of gravity limits are between 18m and
22m. How much mass must be removed from the rear
hold (30 m aft of the datum) to move the centre of 14) (For this question use annex 031-9609 A or Loading
gravity to the middle of the limits: Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.9)
Referring to the loading manual for the transport
A 8 680 kg aeroplane, the maximum load intensity for the lower
forward cargo compartment is:
B 43 120 kg
A 7288 kg in forward compartment and 9232 kg in aft
C 29 344 kg compartment.
D 16 529 kg B 68 kg per square foot.
C 3305 kg in forward compartment and 4187 kg in aft

compartment.
11) Which of the following is unlikely to have any effect on
the position of the centre of gravity on an aeroplane in D 150 kg per square foot.
flight ?
A Lowering the landing gear.

15) At a mass of 1 800 kg, a helicopter equipped with a
winch has a lateral CG-position of 5 cm to the left. The
B Movement of cabin attendants going about their normal
CG of the load suspended from the winch is at a
duties.
distance of 60 cm to the right. With a winch load of 200
kg the lateral CG-position of the helicopter will be:
C Normal consumption of fuel for a swept wing aeroplane.
D Changing the tailplane (horizontal stabiliser) incidence angle.

A 10,5 cm to the right
B 1.5 cm to the right
12) The distance from the datum to the Centre of Gravity of C 1.5 cm to the left
a mass is known as
D 10.5 cm to the right
A the lever.
B the moment.
An aeroplane is carrying a traffic load of 10320 kg
C the index.
Complete the necessary sections of the attached
appendix and determine which of the answers given
D the moment arm or balance arm. below represents the maximum increase in the traffic
load
A 7000 kg
B 8268 kg
C 655 kg
D 1830 kg
17) Length of the mean aerodynamic chord = 1 m 21) For the purpose of completing the Mass and Balance
Moment arm of the forward cargo: -0,50 m documentation, the Dry Operating Mass is defined as:
Moment arm of the aft cargo: + 2,50 m
The aircraft mass is 2 200 kg and its centre of gravity is A The total mass of the aeroplane ready for a specific type of
at 25% MAC operation excluding all usable fuel and traffic load.
To move the centre of gravity to 40%, which mass has to
be transferred from the forward to the aft cargo hold? B The total mass of the aeroplane ready for a specific type of
operation excluding all usable fuel.
A 183 kg
C The total mass of the aeroplane ready for a specific type of
B 165 kg operation excluding all traffic load.
D The total mass of the aeroplane ready for a specific type of

C 104 kg
operation excluding crew and crew baggage.
D 110 kg
22) An additional baggage container is loaded into the aft
cargo compartment but is not entered into the load and
18) To calculate a usable take-off mass, the factors to be trim sheet. The aeroplane will be heavier than expected
taken into account include: and calculated take-off safety speeds
A Maximum zero fuel mass augmented by the fuel burn. A will give reduced safety margins.
B Maximum take-off mass decreased by the fuel burn. B will not be achieved.
C Maximum landing mass augmented by the fuel burn. C will be greater than required.
D Maximum landing mass augmented by fuel on board at take- D are unaffected but V1 will be increased.
off.
23) Determine the Landing Mass for the following single

19) (For this question use annexes 031-9631A or Loading engine aeroplane.
From the Loading Manual for the transport aeroplane, Given:
the maximum load that can be carried in that section of Standard Empty Mass :1764 lbs
the aft cargo compartment which has a balance arm Optional Equipment : 35 lbs
centroid at : Pilot + Front seat passenger : 300 lbs
Cargo Mass : 350 lbs
A 835.5 inches is 3062 kg. Ramp Fuel = Block Fuel : 60 Gal.
Trip Fuel : 35 Gal.
B 835.5 inches is 6752 kg. Fuel density: 6 lbs/Gal.
C 421.5 inches is 4541 kg. A 2659 lbs
D 421.5 inches is 2059 Lbs. B 2449 lbs
C 2589 lbs
20) For the purpose of completing the Mass and Balance
documentation, the Operating Mass is considered to be D 2799 lbs
Dry Operating Mass plus
A Ramp Fuel Mass.
B Trip Fuel Mass.
C Ramp Fuel Mass less the fuel for APU and run-up.
D Take-off Fuel Mass.
24) (For this question use annex 031-9685 A or Loading 27) If an aeroplane is at a higher mass than anticipated, for a
Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.14) given airspeed the angle of attack will
The medium range twin jet transport is scheduled to
operate from a departure airfield where conditions limit A remain constant, drag will decrease and endurance will
the take-off mass to 65050 kg. The destination airfield decrease.
has a performance limited landing mass of 54500 kg.
The Dry Operating Mass is 34900 kg. Loading data is as B remain constant, drag will increase and endurance will
follows - increase.
Taxi fuel 350 kg
Trip fuel 9250 kg C be greater, drag will increase and endurance will decrease.
Contingency and final reserve fuel 1100 kg
Alternate fuel 1000 kg D be decreased, drag will decrease and endurance will
Traffic load 18600 kg increase.
Check the load and ensure that the flight may be
operated without exceeding any of the aeroplane limits.
Choose, from those given below, the most appropriate
answer. 28) (For this question use annex 031-4739A or Loading
Manual MEP1 Figure 3.4)
With respect to multi-engine piston powered aeroplane,
A The flight may be safely operated with an additional 200 kg
determine the ramp mass (lbs) in the following
of traffic load.
conditions:
Basic empty mass: 3 210 lbs
B The flight is 'landing mass' limited and the traffic load must
Basic arm: 88.5 Inches
be reduced to 17500 kg.
One pilot: 160 lbs
Front seat passenger : 200 lbs
C The flight is 'zero fuel mass' limited and the traffic load must
Centre seat passengers: 290 lbs
be reduced to 14170 kg.
One passenger rear seat: 110 lbs
D The flight may be safely operated with the stated traffic and Baggage in zone 1: 100 lbs
fuel load. Baggage in zone 4: 50 lbs
Block fuel: 100 US Gal.
Trip fuel: 55 US Gal.
Fuel for start up and taxi (included in block fuel): 3 US
25) Given the following : Gal.
- Maximum structural take-off mass 48 000 kg Fuel density: 6 lbs/US Gal.
- Maximum structural landing mass: 44 000 kg
- Maximum zero fuel mass: 36 000 kg A 4 372
-Taxi fuel: 600 kg
-Contingency fuel: 900 kg
-Alternate fuel: 800 kg
B 4 720
-Final reserve fuel: 1 100 kg
-Trip fuel: 9 000 kg C 4 120
Determine the actual take-off mass:
D 4 390
A 47 800 kg
B 48 000 kg 29) (For this question use annex 031-1581A)

The loading for a flight is shown in the attached
C 48 400 kg loadsheet, with the following data applying to the
aeroplane:
D 53 000 kg Maximum take-off mass: 150 000 kg
Maximum landing mass: 140 000 kg
Centre of gravity (cg) limit forward: 10.5 m aft of datum
aft: 13.0 m aft of datum
26) An aeroplane is weighed prior to entry into service. Estimated trip fuel: 55 000 kg
Who is responsible for deriving the Dry Operational
Mass from the weighed mass by the addition of the A Take-off cg is out of limits at 10.17 m aft of datum.
'operational items' ?
A The aeroplane manufacturer or supplier.

B Take-off cg is out of limits at 12.34 m aft of datum.
B The commander of the aeroplane.

C Landing cg is out of limits at 11.97 m aft of datum.
D Landing cg is out of limits at 10.17 m aft of datum.

C The Operator.
D The appropriate Aviation Authority.
30) In calculations with respect to the position of the centre 34) An aeroplane is weighed and the following recordings
of gravity a reference is made to a datum. The datum is are made:
nose wheel assembly scale 5330 kg
A an arbitrary reference chosen by the pilot which can be left main wheel assembly scale 12370 kg
located anywhere on the aeroplane. right main wheel assembly scale 12480 kg
If the 'operational items' amount to a mass of 1780 kg
B calculated from the data derived from the weighing with a crew mass of 545 kg, the empty mass, as entered
procedure carried out on the aeroplane after any major in the weight schedule, is
modification.
A 32505 kg
C a reference plane which is chosen by the aeroplane
manufacturer. Its position is given in the aeroplane Flight or B 30180 kg
Loading Manual.
D calculated from the loading manifest. C 28400 kg
D 31960 kg
31) The crew of a transport aeroplane prepares a flight

- Dry operating mass: 90 000 kg 35) The Dry Operating Mass of an aircraft is 2 000 kg.
- Block fuel: 30 000 kg The maximum take-off mass, landing and zero fuel mass
- Taxi fuel: 800 kg are identical at 3500 kg. The block fuel mass is 550kg,
- Maximum take-off mass: 145 000 kg and the taxi fuel mass is 50 kg. The available mass of
The traffic load available for this flight is: payload is:
A 55 000 kg A 1 000 kg
B 55 800 kg B 950 kg
C 25 800 kg C 1 500 kg
D 25 000 kg D 1 450 kg
32) The Basic Mass of a helicopter is the mass of the 36) (For this question use annexes 031-11072A and 031-
helicopter without crew, : 11072B)
The weight and balance sheet is available and contrary
A without payload, with specific equipment for the mission, to the forecast, cargo compartment 1 is empty.
without the unusable fuel. The zero fuel weight centre of gravity in MAC % (Mean
Aerodynamic Chord) is located at:
B without specific equipment for the mission, without payload,
wthout unusable fuel. A 31.5 %
C without specific equipments for the mission, without payload, B 26 %

with fuel on board.
D without specific equipment for the mission, without payload,

C 35.5 %
with the unusable fuel and standard equipment.
D 32 %
33) With the centre of gravity on the forward limit which of

the following is to be expected? 37) (For this question use annex 031-11258A and 031-
11258B)
A A decrease in the landing speed. The planned take-off mass of a turbojet aeroplane is 180
000 kg, with its centre of gravity located at 26 % MAC
(Mean Aerodynamic Cord). Shortly prior to engine start,
B A decrease of the stalling speed.
the local staff informs the flight crew that 4 000 kg must
be unloaded from cargo 4. After the handling operation,
C A tendency to yaw to the right on take-off. the new centre of gravity location in % MAC will be:
D A decrease in range. A 21.8 %
B 20.0 %
C 30.2 %
D 23.0 %
38) If the centre of gravity is near the forward limit the 42) An aeroplane may be weighed
aeroplane will:
A require elevator trim which will result in an increase in fuel A in an area of the airfield set aside for maintenance.
consumption.
B at a specified 'weighing location' on the airfield.
B benefit from reduced drag due to the decrease in angle of
attack. C in an enclosed, non-air conditioned, hangar.
C require less power for a given airspeed. D in a quiet parking area clear of the normal manoeuvring area.
D tend to over rotate during take-off.

11070B)
39) (For this question use annex 031-2946A) Contrary to the loading sheet forecasts you have :
The total mass of an aeroplane is 145000 kg and the
centre of gravity limits are between 4.7 m and 6.9 m aft Cargo compartment 1: empty passengers in
of the datum. The loaded centre of gravity position is 4.4 compartment OA: 20
m aft. How much mass must be transferred from the Cargo compartment 2: 1 000 kg passengers in
front to the rear hold in order to bring the out of limit compartment OB: 20
centre of gravity position to the foremost limit: Cargo compartment 3: 3 000 kg passengers in
compartment OC: 30
A 35 000 kg Cargo compartment 4: 2 000 kg
Cargo compartment 5: 1 000 kg
B 62 500 kg
The take-off centre of gravity in MAC % (Mean
Aerodynamic Chord), will be located at:
C 7 500 kg
D 3 500 kg
A 35.5 %
B 31.5 %
40) The maximum quantity of fuel that can be loaded into an C 24.5 %
aeroplane's tanks is given as 3800 US Gallons. If the
fuel density (specific gravity) is given as 0.79 the mass
of fuel which may be loaded is
D 32.5 %
A 13647 kg.
44) (For this question use annex 031-11249A , 031-11249B
B 11364 kg. and 031-11249C)
Knowing that:
. Dry operating mass: 110 000 kg
C 14383 kg.
. Basic index: 119.1
. Number of passengers: 335 distributed as shown in the
D 18206 kg. annex (75 kg per PAX)
. Cargo load + luggage: 9 500 kg distributed as shown in
the annex.
41) (For this question use annex 031-11606A) . Fuel: 40 000 kg
Stages (1) to (7) and (11) having already been calculated,
Without the man on the winch, the mass and the lateral the centre of gravity in % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic
CG-position of the aircraft are 6 000 kg and 0,04 m to the Cord) at take-off is located at:
right.
A 30.5 %
- the mass of the man on the winch is 100 kg
B 28.0 %
With the man on the winch , the lateral CG-position of
the aircraft will be: C 29.3 %
A 0,016m to the left

D 27.4 %
B beyond the limits
C 0,0633m to the right
D 0,062m to the right
45) An aeroplane must be re-weighed at certain intervals. 49) While making mass and balance calculation for a
Where an operator uses 'fleet masses' and provided that particular aeroplane, the term 'Empty Mass' applies to
changes have been correctly documented, this interval is the sum of airframe, engine(s), fixed ballast plus
A whenever a major modification is carried out. A all the oil, fuel, and hydraulic fluid but not including crew and
traffic load.
B 9 years for each aeroplane.
B all the consumable fuel and oil, but not including any radio or
navigation equipment installed by manufacturer.
C 4 years for each aeroplane.
C all the oil and fuel.
D whenever the Certificate of Airworthiness is renewed.
D unusable fuel and full operating fluids.
46) After weighing a helicopter the following values are

noted:
50) What determines the longitudinal stability of an
aeroplane ?
forward point: 350 kg
aft right point: 995 kg
aft left point: 1 205 kg
A The location of the centre of gravity with respect to the
neutral point.
What is the longitudinal CG-position in relation to the
datum situated 4 m in front of the rotor axis, knowing
B The effectiveness of the horizontal stabilizer, rudder and
rudder trim tab.
that the forward point is at 2.5 m forward of the rotor
axis and the aft points are 1 m aft of the rotor axis?
C The relationship of thrust and lift to weight and drag.
A 4.52 m
D The dihedral, angle of sweepback and the keel effect.
B 4.09 m
C 4.21 m 51) Which of the following statements is correct?
D 4.15 m A If the actual centre of gravity is close to the forward limit of

the centre of gravity the aeroplane may be unstable, making
it necessary to increase elevator forces
47) The term 'useful load' as applied to an aeroplane
includes B The lowest stalling speed is obtained if the actual centre of
gravity is located in the middle between the aft and forward
A the revenue-earning portion of traffic load only. limit of centre of gravity
B the revenue-earning portion of traffic load plus useable fuel.

C A tail heavy aeroplane is less stable and stalls at a lower
speed than a nose heavy aeroplane
C traffic load plus useable fuel. D If the actual centre of gravity is located behind the aft limit of
centre of gravity it is possible that the aeroplane will be
D traffic load only. unstable, making it necessary to increase elevator forces
Given: 52) (For this question use annex 031-9598 A or Loading

48)
Dry operating mass = 38 000 kg Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.11)
maximum structural take-off mass = 72 000 kg The aeroplane has a Take Off Mass of 58 000 kg. At this
maximum landing mass = 65 000 kg mass the range of safe CG positions, as determined
maximum zero fuel mass = 61 000 kg from the appropriate graph in the loading manual, is:
Fuel burn = 8 000 kg
Take-off Fuel = 10 300 kg A Forward limit 8.0% MAC aft limit 26.5% MAC
The maximum allowed take-off mass and payload are B Forward limit 8.2% MAC aft limit 26.2% MAC
respectively :
C Forward limit 9.5% MAC aft limit 26.1% MAC
A 73 000 kg and 27 000 kg
D Forward limit 8.5% MAC aft limit 26.1% MAC
B 71 300 kg and 23 000 kg
C 71 300 kg and 25 300 kg
D 73 000 kg and 24 700 kg
53) (For this question use annex 031-12267A ) 57) A revenue flight is to be made by a jet transport. The
Using the data given in the Load & Trim sheet, following are the aeroplane's structural limits:
determine which of the following gives the correct -Maximum Ramp Mass: 69 900 kg
values for the Zero Fuel Mass and position of the centre -Maximum Take Off Mass: 69 300 kg
of gravity (% MAC) at that mass. -Maximum Landing Mass: 58 900 kg
-Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 52 740 kg
A 41300 Kg and 17,8% The performance limited take off mass is 67 450kg and
the performance limited landing mass is 55 470 kg.
B 51300 Kg and 20,8% Dry Operating Mass: 34 900 kg
Trip Fuel: 6 200 kg
Taxi Fuel: 250 kg
C 46130 Kg and 20,8%
Contingency & final reserve fuel: 1 300 kg
Alternate Fuel: 1 100 kg
D 46130 Kg and 17,8% The maximum traffic load that can be carried is:
A 25 800 kg
54) Which is true of the aeroplane empty mass?
B 17 840 kg
A It is a component of dry operating mass.

C 18 170 kg
B It is dry operating mass minus fuel load. D 13 950 kg
C It is dry operating mass minus traffic load.
D It is the actual take-off mass, less traffic load. 58) During take-off you notice that, for a given elevator
input, the aeroplane rotates much more rapidly than
expected. This is an indication that :
55) The following data is extracted from an aeroplane's A the centre of pressure is aft of the centre of gravity.
loading manifest:
Performance limited take-off mass 93500 kg B the centre of gravity may be towards the aft limit.
Expected landing mass at destination 81700 kg
Maximum certificated landing mass 86300 kg
Fuel on board 16500 kg C the aeroplane is overloaded.
During the flight a diversion is made to an en-route
alternate which is not 'performance limited' for landing. D the centre of gravity is too far forward.
Fuel remaining at landing is 10300 kg. The landing mass
A is 87300 kg and excess structural stress could result 59) An aeroplane is to depart from an airfield at a take-off
mass of 302550 kg. Fuel on board at take-off (including
B is 83200 kg which is in excess of the regulated landing contingency and alternate of 19450 kg) is 121450 kg.
mass and could result in overrunning the runway The Dry Operating Mass is 161450 kg. The useful load
will be
C must be reduced to 81700 kg in order to avoid a high speed
approach. A 19650 kg
D is 87300 kg which is acceptable in this case because this is B 121450 kg

a diversion and not a normal scheduled landing.
C 39105 kg
56) The mass displacement caused by landing gear

extension:
D 141100 kg
A creates a pitch-up longitudinal moment

60) Conversion of fuel volume to mass
B does not create a longitudinal moment
A may be done by using standard fuel density values as
C creates a pitch-down longitudinal moment specified in JAR - OPS 1.
D creates a longitudinal moment in the direction (pitch-up or B must be done by using actual measured fuel density values.
pitch-down) determined by the type of landing gear
C must be done using fuel density values of 0.79 for JP 1 and
0.76 for JP 4 as specified in JAR - OPS, IEM - OPS 1.605E.
D may be done by using standard fuel density values as

specified in the Operations Manual, if the actual fuel density
is not known.
61) The maximum taxi (ramp) mass is governed by : 64) The following results were obtained after weighing a
helicopter :
A tyre speed and temperature limitations. - mass at front point: 300 kg

- mass at right rear point : 1 100 kg
B bearing strength of the taxiway pavement. - mass at left rear point : 950 kg
C taxi distance to take - off point. It is given that the front point is located 0.30 m left of the
longitudinal axis and the rear points are symmetricaly
D structural considerations. located 1.20 m from this axis.
The helicopter's lateral CG-position relative to the
longitudinal axis is:
62) (For this question use annex 031-9640 A or Loading A 4 cm left

A revenue flight is planned for the transport aeroplane. B 11 cm right
Take-off mass is not airfield limited. The following data
applies:
Dry Operating Mass 34930 kg
C 11 cm left
Performance limited landing mass 55000 kg
Fuel on board at ramp- D 4 cm right
Taxi fuel 350 kg
Trip fuel 9730 kg
Contingency and final reserve fuel 1200 kg 65) (For this question use annex 031-4741A or Loading
Alternate fuel 1600 kg Manual MEP1 Figure 3.4)
Passengers on board 130 With respect to a multi-engine piston powered
Standard mass for each passenger 84 kg aeroplane, determine the total moment (lbs.In) at landing
Baggage per passenger 14 kg in the following conditions:
Traffic load Maximum possible Basic empty mass: 3 210 lbs.
Use the loading manual provided and the above data. One pilot: 160 lbs.
Determine the maximum cargo load that may be carried Front seat passenger : 200 lbs.
without exceeding the limiting aeroplane landing mass. Centre seat passengers: 290 lbs. (total)
One passenger rear seat: 110 lbs.
A 5400 kg Baggage in zone 1: 100 lbs.
Baggage in zone 4: 50 lbs.
B 6350 kg. Block fuel: 100 US Gal.
C 3185 kg. Fuel for start up and taxi (included in block fuel): 3 US
Gal.
Fuel density: 6 lbs./US Gal.
D 4530 kg.
Total moment at take-off: 432226 lbs.In
A 432 221
63) Given:
Total mass: 7500 kg B 433 906
Centre of gravity (cg) location station: 80.5
Aft cg limit station: 79.5
How much cargo must be shifted from the aft cargo
C 377 746
compartment at station 150 to the forward cargo
compartment at station 30 in order to move the cg D 401 338
location to the aft limit?
A 65.8 kg.
B 68.9 kg.
C 73.5 kg.
D 62.5 kg.
66) Given the following information, calculate the loaded 69) At maximum certificated take-off mass an aeroplane
centre of gravity (cg). departs from an airfield which is not limiting for either
take-off or landing masses. During initial climb the
_________________________________________________ number one engine suffers a contained disintegration.
__________________ An emergency is declared and the aeroplane returns to
STATION MASS (kg) ARM (cm) departure airfield for an immediate landing. The most
MOMENT (kgcm) likely result of this action will be
_________________________________________________
__________________ A a high threshold speed and a shorter stop distance.
Basic Empty Condition 12045 +30
+361350 B a landing further along the runway than normal.
Crew 145 -160 -
23200
Freight 1 5455 +200 C a landing short resultant from the increased angle of
approach due to the very high aeroplane mass.
+1091000
Freight 2 410 -40 -
16400
D a high threshold speed and possible undercarriage or other
structural failure.
Fuel 6045 -8 -
48360
Oil 124 +40
+4960 70) Assuming gross mass, altitude and airspeed remain
unchanged, movement of the centre of gravity from the
A 56.53 cm aft datum. forward to the aft limit will cause
B 56.35 cm aft datum. A higher stall speed.
C 60.16 cm aft datum. B lower optimum cruising speed.
D 53.35 cm aft datum. C reduced maximum cruise range.
D increased cruise range.

Using the data given at the appendix to this question, if
the fuel index corrections (from ZFM index) are as 71) (For this question use annex 031-9660 A or Loading
follows Manual MRJT 1 Paragraph 3.1)
9500 kg - 0.9 The medium range jet transport aeroplane is to operate
6500 kg - 6.1 a flight carrying the maximum possible fuel load.
3500 kg - 4.7 Using the following data as appropriate, determine the
3000 kg - 4.3 mass of fuel on board at start of take off.
Which of the following represent the correct values for Departure airfield performance limited take-off mass: 60
landing mass of the aeroplane and the position of the 400 kg
centre of gravity for this condition ? Landing airfield -not performance limited.
A 49130 kg and 21.8 % Dry Operating Mass: 34930 kg

Fuel required for flight -
Taxi fuel: 715 kg
B 49130 kg and 19 %
Trip fuel: 8600 kg
Contingency and final reserve fuel: 1700 kg
C 52900kg and 19 % Alternate fuel 1500 kg
Additional reserve 400 kg
D 52900 kg and 21.6 % Traffic load for flight 11000 kg
A 15 815 kg
68) An aeroplane is said to be 'neutrally stable'. This is likely
to: B 13 655 kg
A be caused by a centre of gravity which is towards the C 16 080 kg

rearward limit.
D 14 470 kg
B be caused by a centre of gravity which is towards the
forward limit.
C be totally unrelated to the position of the centre of gravity.
D cause the centre of gravity to move forwards.
72) The datum is a reference from which all moment 76) If individual masses are used, the mass of an aeroplane
(balance) arms are measured. Its precise position is must be determined prior to initial entry into service
given in the control and loading manual and it is located and thereafter
A at or near the focal point of the aeroplane axis system. A at intervals of 9 years.
B at or near the natural balance point of the empty aeroplane. B at intervals of 4 years if no modifications have taken place.
C at a convenient point which may not physically be on the C at regular annual intervals.
aeroplane.
D only if major modifications have taken place.
D at or near the forward limit of the centre of gravity.
77) When preparing to carry out the weighing procedure on

73) At a given mass the CG position is at 15% MAC. If the an aeroplane, which of the following is not required?
leading edge of MAC is at a position 625.6 inches aft of
the datum and the MAC is given as 134.5 inches A drain all engine tank oil.
determine the position of the CG in relation to to the
datum.
B drain all useable fuel.
A 228.34 inches aft of datum
C drain all chemical toilet fluid tanks.
B 645.78 inches aft of datum
D removable passenger services equipment to be off-loaded.
C 20.18 inches aft of datum
D 605.43 inches aft of datum 78) An aeroplane's weighing schedule indicates that the
empty mass is 57320 kg. The nominal Dry Operating
Mass is 60120 kg and the Maximum Zero Fuel Mass is
given as 72100 kg. Which of the following is a correct
74) (For this question use annexes 031-11071A and 031- statement in relation to this aeroplane?
11071B)
Just prior to departure, you accept 10 passengers A operational items have a mass of 2800 kg and the maximum
additional on board who will be seated in "compartment useful load is 14780 kg.
OC" and you have 750 kg unloaded from cargo
compartment 5. B operational items have a mass of 2800 kg and the maximum
The take-off centre of gravity in MAC % (Mean traffic load for this aeroplane is 11980 kg.
Aerodynamic Chord) will be located at:
C operational items have a mass of 2800 kg and the maximum
A 30.5 % traffic load for this aeroplane is 14780 kg.
B 28.5 % D operational items have a mass of 2800 kg and the maximum

useful load is 11980 kg.
C 27.2 %
D 27.8 % 79) The crew of a transport aeroplane prepares a flight

- Block fuel: 40 000 kg
- Trip fuel: 29 000 kg
75) (For this question use annex 031-9630 A or Loading - Taxi fuel: 800 kg
Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.9) - Maximum take-off mass: 170 000 kg
From the loading manual for the transport aeroplane, - Maximum landing mass: 148 500 kg
the aft cargo compartment has a maximum total load of : - Maximum zero fuel mass: 112 500 kg
- Dry operating mass: 80 400 kg
A 1568 kg
The maximum traffic load for this flight is:
B 3062 kg
A 32 100 kg
C 4187 kg
B 32 900 kg
D 9232 kg
C 18 900 kg
D 40 400 kg
80) The floor limit of an aircraft cargo hold is 5 000 N/m2. 84) If nose wheel moves aft during gear retraction, how will
It is planned to load-up a cubic container measuring 0,4 this movement affect the location of the centre of
m of side. gravity (cg) on the aeroplane?
It's maximum gross mass must not exceed:
(assume g=10m/s2) A It will cause the cg to move aft.
A 32 kg B It will not affect the cg location.
B 320 kg C It will cause the cg to move forward.
C 80 kg D The cg location will change, but the direction cannot be told

the information given.
D 800 kg
85) (For this question use appendix 031-11590A )

81) The maximum load per running metre of an aeroplane is
350 kg/m. The width of the floor area is 2 metres. The Without the crew, the mass and longitudinal CG position
floor strength limitation is 300 kg per square metre. of the aircraft are 6 000 kg and 4,70m.
Which one of the following crates (length x width x
height) can be loaded directly on the floor? - the mass of the pilot is 90 kg
- the mass of the copilot is 100 kg
A A load of 400 kg in a crate with dimensions 1.2 m x 1.2 m x - the mass of the flight engineer is 80 kg
1.2 m.
With the crew, the mass and longitudinal CG position of
B A load of 500 kg in a crate with dimensions 1.5 m x 1 m x 1 the aircraft are :
m.
A 6 270 kg and 5.012 m
C A load of 400 kg in a crate with dimensions 1.4 m x 0.8 m x
0.8 m. B 6 270 kg and 4.61 m
D A load of 700 kg in a crate with dimensions 1.8 m x 1.4 m x C 6 270 kg and 4.594 m
0.8 m.
D 6 270 kg and 4.796 m

A pallet having a freight platform which measures 200 86) (For this question use annex 031-11632A )
cm x 250 cm has a total mass of 300 kg. The pallet is
carried on two ground supports each measuring 20 cm x The empty mass of your helicopter is 1 100 kg with a CG-
200 cm. position at 3.05m. The load is as follows:
Using the loading manual for the transport aeroplane,
calculate how much mass may be added to, or must be -total mass of pilot and co-pilot: 150 kg
off loaded from, the pallet in order for the load intensity -total mass of passengers at rear: 200 kg
to match the maximum permitted distribution load
intensity for lower deck forward cargo compartement. In order not to exeed the limitations the minimum
remaining fuel on board should be:
A 285.5 kg may be added.
A 250 kg
B 28.5 kg must be off loaded.
B 125 kg
C 28.5 kg may be added.
C 450 kg
D 158.3 kg must be off loaded.
D 350 kg

Manual MRJT 1 Paragraph 4) 87) The Dry Operating Mass of a helicopter is the total mass
For the medium range transport aeroplane, from the of a helicopter :
loading manual, determine the maximum total volume of
fuel which can be loaded into the main wing tanks. (Fuel A including the crew,the fuel and the specific equipments for
density value 0.78) the mission but excluding payload
A 5674 litres B including the crew, the usable fuel and the specific
equipments for the mission and payload
B 11349 litres
C ready for a specific operation including the crew and traffic
load, not including the usable fuel
C 8850 litres
D excluding the crew but including specific equipments for the
D 11646 litres mission and not including the usable fuel
88) (For this question use annex 031-12270A) 93) Loads must be adequately secured in order to:
Using the data given at the appendix, determine which
of the following correctly gives the values of the Zero
Fuel Mass (ZFM) of the aeroplane and the load index at A avoid unplanned centre of gravity (cg) movement and aircraft
ZFM damage.
A 48600 kg and 57.0 B avoid any centre of gravity (cg) movement during flight.
B 51300 kg and 57.0 C prevent excessive 'g'-loading during the landing flare.
C 46300 kg and 20.5 D allow steep turns.
D 35100 kg and 20.5

94) The weight of an aeroplane, which is in level non
accelerated flight, is said to act
89) On an aeroplane with 20 or more seats engaged on an
inter-continental flight, the 'standard mass' which may
A vertically through the datum point.
be used for passenger baggage is
B always along the vertical axis of the aeroplane.
A 14 kg per passenger.
C vertically through the centre of gravity.
B 11 kg per passenger.
D vertically through the centre of pressure.
C 15 kg per passenger.
D 13 kg per passenger. 95) The following data applies to an aeroplane which is

about to take off:
Certified maximum take-off mass 141500 kg
Performance limited take-off mass 137300 kg
90) The Zero Fuel Mass and the Dry Operating Mass Dry Operating Mass 58400 kg
Crew and crew hand baggage mass 640 kg
A differ by the mass of usable fuel. Crew baggage in hold 110 kg
Fuel on board 60700 kg
B differ by the value of the traffic load mass.
From this data calculate the mass of the useful load.
C are the same value. A 17450 kg
D differ by the sum of the mass of usable fuel plus traffic load B 78900 kg
mass.
C 78150 kg
91) If the centre of gravity of an aeroplane moves forward D 18200 kg

during flight the elevator control will :
A become heavier making the aeroplane more difficult to

manouevre in pitch 96) In relation to an aeroplane, the term ' Basic Empty Mass'
includes the mass of the aeroplane structure complete
B become lighter making the aeroplane more difficult to with its powerplants, systems, furnishings and other
manouevre in pitch. items of equipment considered to be an integral part of
the particular aeroplane configuration. Its value is
C become heavier making the aeroplane more easy to
manouevre in pitch. A printed in the loading manual and includes unusable fuel.
D become lighter making the aeroplane more easy to B found in the latest version of the weighing schedule as
manouevre in pitch. corrected to allow for modifications.
C inclusive of an allowance for crew, crew baggage and other

92) A location in the aeroplane which is identified by a operating items. It is entered in the loading manifest.
number designating its distance from the datum is
known as: D found in the flight manual and is inclusive of unusable fuel
plus fluids contained in closed systems.
A Station.
B Moment.
C MAC.
D Index.
97) (For this question use annex 031-9605 A or Loading 101) The centre of gravity is the
For the transport aeroplane the moment (balance) arm
(B.A.) for the forward hold centroid is: A centre of thrust along the longitudinal axis, in relation to a
datum line
A 421.5 inches.
B focus along the longitudinal axis, in relation to a datum line
B 367.9 inches.
C neutral point along the longitudinal axis, in relation to a
datum line
C 257 inches.
D point where all the aircraft mass is considered to be
D 314.5 inches. concentrated
98) An aircraft basic empty mass is 3000 kg. 102) The mass and balance information gives :
The maximum take-off, landing, and zero-fuel mass are Basic mass : 1 200 kg ; Basic balance arm : 3.00 m
identical, at 5200 kg. Ramp fuel is 650 kg, the taxi fuel is
50 kg. Under these conditions the Basic centre of gravity is at
The payload available is : 25% of the mean aerodynamic chord (MAC). The length
of MAC is 2m.
A 1 600 kg
In the mass and balance section of the flight manual the
B 1 550 kg following information is given :
Position Arm
front seats : 2.5 m
C 2 200 kg rear seats : 3.5 m
rear hold : 4.5 m
D 2 150 kg fuel tanks : 3.0 m
The pilot and one passenger embark; each weighs 80
kg. Fuel tanks contain 140 litres of petrol with a density
of 0.714. The rear seats are not occupied.Taxi fuel is
99) The maximum mass to which an aeroplane may be
negligable.
loaded, prior to engine start, is :
The position of the centre of gravity at take-off (as %
MAC) is :
A maximum certificated taxi (ramp) mass.
A 29 %
B maximum regulated taxi (ramp) mass.
B 34 %
C maximum certificated take - off mass.
C 17 %
D maximum regulated take - off mass.
D 22 %

11273B)
103) The centre of gravity of an aeroplane is that point
A turbojet aeroplane has a planned take-off mass of 190
through which the total mass of the aeroplane is said to
000 kg. Following cargo loading, the crew is informed
act. The weight acts in a direction
that the centre of gravity at take-off is located at 38 %
MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord) which is beyond limits.
The captain decides then to redistribute part of the A at right angles to the flight path.
cargo load between cargo 1 and cargo 4 in order to
obtain a new centre of gravity location at 31 % MAC. He B governed by the distribution of the mass within the
asks for a transfer of: aeroplane.
A 1 000 kg from cargo 4 to cargo 1. C parallel to the gravity vector.
B It is not possible to obtain the required centre of gravity. D always parallel to the aeroplane's vertical axis.
C 3 000 kg from cargo 4 to cargo 1.
D 2 000 kg from cargo 4 to cargo 1.
104) In mass and balance calculations which of the following 109) When an aeroplane is stationary on the ground, its total
describes the datum? weight will act vertically
A It is the most forward position of the centre of gravity. A through the main wheels of its undercarriage assembly.
B It is the most aft position of the centre of gravity. B through a point defined as the datum point.
C It is the distance from the centre of gravity to the point C through its centre of gravity.
through which the weight of the component acts.
D through its centre of pressure.
D It is the point on the aeroplane designated by the
manufacturers from which all centre of gravity
measurements and calculations are made.
110) The maximum floor loading for a cargo compartment in
an aeroplane is given as 750 kg per square metre. A
package with a mass of 600 kg. is to be loaded.
105) A mass of 500 kg is loaded at a station which is located
Assuming the pallet base is entirely in contact with the
10 metres behind the present Centre of Gravity and 16
floor, which of the following is the minimum size pallet
metres behind the datum.
that can be used ?
(Assume: g=10 m/s^2)
The moment for that mass used in the loading manifest
is :
A 30 cm by 200 cm
A 130000 Nm B 40 cm by 300 cm
B 80000 Nm C 40 cm by 200 cm
C 50000 Nm D 30 cm by 300 cm
D 30000 Nm
111) An aeroplane is to depart from an airfield where the
performance limited take-off mass is 89200 kg.
Certificated maximum masses are as follows:
106) In relation to an aeroplane the Dry Operating Mass is the
Ramp (taxi) mass 89930 kg
total mass of the aeroplane ready for a specific type of
Maximum Take-off mass 89430 kg
operation but excluding
MaximumLanding mass 71520 kg
Actual Zero fuel mass 62050 kg
A usable fuel and crew.
Fuel on board at ramp:
Taxi fuel 600 kg
B potable water and lavatory chemicals. Trip fuel 17830 kg
Contingency, final reserve and alternate 9030 kg
C usable fuel, potable water and lavatory chemicals. If the Dry Operating Mass is 40970 kg the traffic load
that can be carried on this flight is
D usable fuel and traffic load.
A 21080 kg
B 21500 kg
107) Dry Operating Mass is the mass of the aeroplane less
C 21220 kg
A traffic load, potable water and lavatory chemicals.
D 20870 kg
B usable fuel, potable water and lavatory chemicals.
C usable fuel and traffic load. 112) (For this question use annex 031-9603 A or Loading
D usable fuel. A aeroplane has a landing mass of 53 000kg. The range
of safe CG positions, as determined from the
appropriate graph in the loading manual, is :
108) On an aeroplane without central fuel tank, the maximum
Zero Fuel Mass is related to:
A Forward limit 7.3% MAC aft limit 26.8% MAC
A Maximum Structural Take-Off Mass. B Forward limit 8.7% MAC aft limit 26.8% MAC
B Wing loaded trip fuel. C Forward limit 7.8% MAC aft limit 27.0% MAC
C Variable equipment for the flight. D Forward limit 8.2% MAC aft limit 27.0% MAC
D The bending moment at the wing root.
113) An aeroplane has a mean aerodynamic chord (MAC) of 117) Considering only structural limitations, on long distance
134.5 inches. The leading edge of this chord is at a flights (at the aeroplane's maximum range), the traffic
distance of 625.6 inches aft of the datum. Give the load is normally limited by:
location of the centre of gravity of the aeroplane in
terms of percentage MAC if the mass of the aeroplane is A The maximum zero fuel mass.
acting vertically through a balance arm located 650
inches aft of the datum. B The maximum zero fuel mass plus the take-off mass.
A 75,6%
C The maximum landing mass.
B 85,5%
D The maximum take-off mass.
C 10,5%
D 18,14% 118) (For this question use annex 031-11248A , 031-11248B

and 031-11248C)
Knowing that:
114) The empty mass of an aeroplane is given as 44800 kg. . Basic index: 119.1
Operational items (including crew standard mass of . Number of passengers: 185 distributed as shown in the
1060 kg) are 2300 kg. If the maximum zero fuel mass is annex (75 kg per PAX)
given as 65500 kg, the maximum traffic load which could . Cargo load + luggage: 14 000 kg distributed as shown
be carried is: in the annex.
. Fuel: 42 000 kg
A 19460 kg. Stages (1) to (7) and (11) having already been calculated,
the centre of gravity in % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic
B 18400 kg Cord) at take-off is located at:
C 20700 kg
A 31.5 %
D 23000 kg
B 30.5 %
C 32.5 %
115) With respect to aeroplane loading in the planning phase, D 28.0 %

which of the following statements is always correct ?
LM = Landing Mass
TOM = Take-off Mass
MTOM = Maximum Take-off Mass 119) When considering the effects of increased mass on an
ZFM = Zero Fuel Mass aeroplane, which of the following is true?
MZFM = Maximum Zero Fuel Mass
DOM = Dry Operating Mass A Stalling speeds will be higher.
A LM = TOM - Trip Fuel B Stalling speeds will be lower.
B MTOM = ZFM + maximum possible fuel mass C Gradient of climb for a given power setting will be higher.
C MZFM = Traffic load + DOM D Flight endurance will be increased.
D Reserve Fuel = TOM - Trip Fuel

120) A flight benefits from a strong tail wind which was not
forecast. On arrival at destination a straight in approach
116) The mass of an aeroplane is 1950 kg. If 450 kg is added and immediate landing clearance is given. The landing
to a cargo hold 1.75 metres from the loaded centre of mass will be higher than planned and
gravity (cg). The loaded cg will move:
A the landing distance will be unaffected.
A 33 cm.
B the approach path will be steeper.
B 40 cm.
C the approach path will be steeper and threshold speed
C 30 cm. higher.
D 34 cm. D the landing distance required will be longer.
121) Traffic load is the: 125) Which of the following statements is correct?
A Zero Fuel Mass minus Dry Operating Mass. A The centre of gravity is given in percent of MAC calculated
from the leading edge of the wing, where MAC always = the
B Dry Operating Mass minus the disposable load. wing chord halfway between the centre line of the fuselage
and the wing tip
C Dry Operating Mass minus the variable load.
B If the actual centre of gravity is located behind the aft limit
the aeroplane longitudinal stability increases.
D Take-off Mass minus Zero Fuel Mass.
C A tail heavy aeroplane is less stable and stalls at a lower
speed than a nose heavy aeroplane
122) When the centre of gravity is at the forward limit, an
aeroplane will be : D The station (STA) is always the location of the centre of
gravity in relation to a reference point, normally the leading
edge of the wing at MAC
A extremely unstable and require small elevator control to
change pitch.
B extremely stable and will require excessive elevator control 126) In cruise flight, an aft centre of gravity location will:
to change pitch.
C extremely stable and require small elevator control to change A decrease longitudinal static stability
pitch.
B increase longitudinal static stability
D extremely unstable and require excessive elevator control to
change pitch. C does not influence longitudinal static stability
D not change the static curve of stability into longitudinal

Where is the centre of gravity of the aeroplane in the
diagram?
127) (For this question use appendix 031-11589A)
A 26.57 cm aft of datum.
Without the man on the winch, the mass and the lateral
CG position of the helicopter are 6 000 kg and 0.055 m to
B 32.29 cm aft of datum. the right.
C 26.57 cm forward of datum. - the mass of the wet man on the winch is 180 kg
D 32.29 cm forward of datum. With the man on the winch, the mass and lateral CG-
position of the helicopter are :
A 6 180 kg and 0.059m to the right

124) By adding to the basic empty mass the following fixed
necessary equipment for a specific flight (catering,
safety and rescue equipment, fly away kit, crew), we get: B 6 180 kg and 0.075m to the right
A landing mass C 6 180 kg and 0.041m to the right
B Dry operating mass D beyond the limit
C take-off mass
128) The floor of the main cargo hold is limited to 4 000 N/m2.
D zero fuel mass It is planned to load a cubic container each side of which
measures 0.5m.
Its maximum gross mass must not exceed:
(assume g=10m/s2)
A 5 000 kg
B 100 kg
C 1 000 kg
D 500 kg
129) (For this question use annex 031-11219A) 132) The following results were obtained after weighing a
An aeroplane, whose specific data is shown in the helicopter :
annex, has a planned take-off mass of 200 000 kg, with
its centre of gravity (C.G.) is located at 15.38 m rearward - front point : 220 kg
of the reference point, representing a C.G. location at 30 - right rear point : 500 kg
% MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord). For performance - left rear point : 480 kg
purposes, the captain decides to reset the value of the
centre of gravity location to 35 % MAC. The front and The helicopter's datum is 3.40 m forward of the rotor
rear cargo compartments are located at a distance of 15 axis. The front point is located 2.00 m forward of the
m and 25 m from the reference point respectively, the rotor axis and the rear points are located 0.50 m aft of
cargo load mass which needs to be transferred from the the rotor axis.
front to the rear cargo compartment is: The longitudinal CG-position in relation to the datum is:
A It is not possible to establish the required centre of gravity A 0,04 m

location.
B 3,44 m
B 4 600 kg
C 1,18 m
C 5 600 kg
D 3,36 m
D 3 600 kg
133) A revenue flight is to be made by a jet transport. The

130) The datum used for balance calculations is: following are the aeroplane's structural limits:
-Maximum Ramp Mass: 69 900 kg
-Maximum Take Off Mass: 69 300 kg
A chosen on the longitudinal axis of the aeroplane, and
-Maximum Landing Mass: 58 900 kg
necessarily situated between the nose and the tail of the
aircraft
Take Off and Landing mass are not performance limited.
Dry Operating Mass: 34 930 kg
B chosen on the longitudinal axis of the aircraft and
Trip Fuel: 11 500 kg
necessarily situated between the leading edge and trailing
Taxi Fuel: 250 kg
edge of the wing
Alternate Fuel: 1 350 kg
C chosen on the longitudinal axis of the aircraft, and always at
The maximum traffic load that can be carried is:
the fire-wall level
D chosen on the longitudinal axis of the aeroplane, but not A 20 420 kg

necessarily between the nose and the tail of the aircraft
B 17 810 kg
131) A revenue flight is to be made by a jet transport. The C 21 170 kg

following are the aeroplane's structural limits:
-Maximum Ramp Mass: 69 900 kg D 21 070 kg
-Maximum Take Off Mass: 69 300 kg
Take Off and Landing mass are not performance limited. 134) The term 'Maximum Zero Fuel Mass' consist of :
Trip Fuel: 11 800 kg A The maximum mass authorized for a certain aeroplane not
Taxi Fuel: 500 kg including the fuel load and operational items
Alternate Fuel: 1 900 kg B The maximum mass for some aeroplanes including the fuel
The maximum traffic load that can be carried is: load and the traffic load
A 17 840 kg C The maximum permissible mass of an aeroplane with no

usable fuel.
B 19 100 kg
D The maximum mass authorized for a certain aeroplane not
C 19 200 kg including traffic load and fuel load.
D 19 500 kg
135) The following data applies to a planned flight. 138) Based on actual conditions, an aeroplane has the
Dry Operating Mass 34900 kg following performance take-off mass limitations:
Performance limited Take-Off Mass 66300 kg
Performance limited Landing Mass 55200 kg Flaps : 0° 10° 15°
Maximum Zero Fuel Mass 53070 kg Runway: 4100 4400 4600
Fuel required at ramp:- Climb: 4700 4500 4200
Taxy fuel 400 kg
trip fuel 8600 kg Masses are in kg
contingency fuel 430 kg Structural limits: take-off/landing/zero fuel: 4 300 kg
alternate fuel 970 kg
holding fuel 900 kg The maximum take-off mass is :
Traffic load 16600 kg
Fuel costs at the departure airfield are such that it is A 4 200 kg
decided to load the maximum fuel quantity possible. The
total fuel which may be safely loaded prior to departure B 4 700 kg
is :
A 12700 kg
C 4 300 kg
B 13230 kg
D 4 100 kg
C 15200 kg
139) For a particular aeroplane, the structural maximum mass
D 10730 kg without any fuel on board, other than unusable
quantities, is :
A a fixed value which is stated in the Aeroplane Operating

136) Determine the Take-off Mass for the following single Manual.
engine aeroplane.
B a variable value which is governed by the payload carried.
Given :
Standard Empty Mass : 1764 lbs C a variable value which may limit the payload carried.
Optional Equipment : 35 lbs
Pilot + Front seat passenger : 300 lbs
D a fixed value which will limit the amount of fuel carried.
Ramp Fuel = Block Fuel : 60 Gal.
Trip Fuel : 35 Gal.
Fuel density : 6 lbs/Gal. 140) Given that:
- Maximum structural take-off mass: 146 000 kg
A 2659 lbs - Maximum structural landing mass: 93 900 kg
- Maximum zero fuel mass: 86 300 kg
B 2799 lbs - Trip fuel: 27 000 kg
- Taxi fuel: 1 000 kg
- Contingency fuel: 1350 kg
C 2764 lbs
- Alternate fuel: 2650 kg
- Final reserve fuel: 3000 kg
D 2809 lbs Determine the actual take-off mass:
A 121 300 kg.

137) The flight preparation of a turbojet aeroplane provides
the following data: B 120 300 kg.
Take-off runway limitation: 185 000 kg
Landing runway limitation: 180 000 kg C 146 000 kg.
Planned fuel consumption: 11 500 kg
Fuel already loaded on board the aircraft: 20 000 kg
Knowing that:
D 120 900 kg.
Maximum take-off mass (MTOM): 212 000 kg
Maximum landing mass (MLM): 174 000 kg
Maximum zero fuel mass (MZFM): 164 000 kg 141) The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass is the mass of the
Dry operating mass (DOM): 110 000 kg aeroplane with no usable fuel on board. It is a limitation
The maximum cargo load that the captain may decide to which is:
load on board is:
A governed by the requirements of the centre of gravity limits
A 61 500 kg and the structural limits of the aeroplane.
B 54 000 kg B tabulated in the Flight Manual against arguments of airfield

elevation and temperature.
C 55 000 kg
C governed by the traffic load to be carried. It also provides
protection from excessive 'wing bending'.
D 55 500 kg
D listed in the Flight Manual as a fixed value. It is a structural
limit.
142) (For this question use annex 033-9583A or Loading 146) (For this question use annex 031-12268A)
Manual MRJT 1 page 20) Using the data given in the Load & Trim sheet,
For the medium range twin jet the datum point is located determine from the following the correct values for the
take off mass and the position of the centre of gravity at
A 540 cm forward of the front spar. that mass if the fuel index correction to be applied is
given as - 0.9
B on the nose of the aeroplane.
A 20.3 %
C at the leading edge of the Mean Aerodynamic Chord (MAC).
B 22.6 %
D 540 inches forward of the front spar.
C 17.5 %
D 20.1 %
143) In order to provide an adequate "buffet boundary" at the
commencement of the cruise a speed of 1.3Vs is used.
At a mass of 120000 kg this is a CAS of 180 knots. If the
mass of the aeroplane is increased to 135000 kg the 147) An aeroplane, which is scheduled to fly an oceanic
value of 1.3Vs will be sector, is due to depart from a high altitude airport in the
tropics at 1400 local time. The airport has an
A increased to 191 knots, drag will increase and air distance exceptionally long runway. Which of the following is
per kg of fuel will decrease. most likely to be the limiting factor(s) in determining the
take - off mass ?
B unaffected as Vs always occurs at the same angle of attack.
A maximum zero fuel mass.
C increased to 191 knots, drag will decrease and air distance
per kg of fuel will increase. B maximum certificated take - off mass.
D increased to 202 knots but, since the same angle of attack C en route obstacle clearance requirements.
is used, drag and range will remain the same.
D altitude and temperature of the departure airfield.
144) Which of the following alternatives corresponds to zero

fuel mass?
148) The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass is a structural limiting
A Operating mass plus passengers and cargo. mass. It is made up of the aeroplane Dry Operational
mass plus
B Take-off mass minus fuel to destination and alternate.
A traffic load and crew standard mass.
C The mass of an aeroplane with no usable fuel.

B traffic load and unuseable fuel.
D Operating mass plus load of passengers and cargo.
C traffic load, unuseable fuel and crew standard mass.
D unuseable and crew standard mass.

6564B or Loading Manual SEP1 Figure 2.4)
With respect to a single-engine piston powered
aeroplane, determine the zero fuel moment (lbs.In./100) 149) (For this question use annex 031-11227A)
in the following conditions: An aeroplane, whose specific data is shown in the
Basic Empty Mass: 2415 lbs. annex, has a planned take-off mass of 200 000 kg, with
Arm at Basic Empty Mass: 77,9 In. its centre of gravity (C.G.) located at 15.38 m rearward
Cargo Zone A: 350 lbs. of the reference point, representing a C.G. location at
Baggage Zone B: 35 lbs. 30 % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Cord). The current cargo
Pilot and front seat passenger : 300 lbs (total) load distribution is: front cargo: 6 500 kg; rear cargo: 4
000 kg. For performance purposes, the captain decides
A 6675 to reset the value of the centre of gravity location to 33
% MAC. The front and rear cargo compartments are
located at a distance of 15 m and 25 m from the
B 2496,3
reference point respectively. After the transfer
operation, the new cargo load distribution is:
C 2311,8
A front cargo: 9 260 kg; rear cargo: 1 240 kg
D 2548,8
B front cargo: 3 740 kg; rear cargo: 6 760 kg
C front cargo: 6 760 kg; rear cargo: 3 740 kg
D front cargo: 4 550 kg; rear cargo: 5 950 kg
150) (For this question use annex 031-11257A and 031- 154) (For this question use annex 031-12272A)
11257B ) For the purpose of calculating traffic loads, an
The planned take-off mass of a turbojet aeroplane is 190 operator's loading manual gives the following standard
000 kg, with its centre of gravity located at 29 % MAC mass values for passengers. (These values include an
(Mean Aerodynamic Cord) . Shortly prior to engine start, allowance for hand baggage)
the local staff informs the flight crew that 4 000 kg must Male 88 kg
be unloaded from cargo 4. After the handling operation, Female 70 kg
the new centre of gravity location in % MAC will be: Child 35 kg
Infant 6 kg
A 33 % The standard mass value to be used for hold baggage is
14 kg per piece
B 27 % The loading manifest shows the following details :
Passengers loaded
Males 40
C 31 %
Females 65
Children 8
D 25 % Infants 5
Baggage in hold number 4: 120 pieces
151) Calculate the centre of gravity in % MAC (mean Using the standard mass values given and the data in
aerodynamic chord) with following data: the appendix, select from the following the correct value
Distance datum - centre of gravity: 12.53 m for the mass of freight (all loaded in hold No1) which
Distance datum - leading edge: 9.63 m constitutes the remainder of the traffic load
Length of MAC: 8 m
A 280 kg
A 36.3 % MAC
B no cargo can be loaded in hold number 1
B 63.4 % MAC
C 260 kg
C 47.0 % MAC
D 210 kg
D 23.1 % MAC

152) (For this question use annex 031-11275A and 031- 11069B)
11275B) Contrary to the forecast given in the LOAD and TRIM
A turbojet aeroplane has a planned take-off mass of 190 sheet, cargo compartment 1 is empty. The take-off
000 kg; the cargo load is distributed as follows: cargo 1: centre of gravity in MAC % (Mean Aerodynamic Chord)
3 000 kg; cargo 4: 7 000 kg. Once the cargo loading is will be located at:
completed, the crew is informed that the centre of
gravity at take-off is located at 38 % MAC (Mean A 32.5 %
Aerodynamic Cord) which is beyond the limits. The
captain decides then to redistribute part of the cargo B 36 %
load between cargo 1 and cargo 4 in order to obtain a
new centre of gravity location at 31 % MAC. Following C 25 %
the transfer operation, the new load distribution is:
D 31 %
A cargo 1: 6 000 kg; cargo 4: 4 000 kg
B cargo 1: 4 000 kg; cargo 4: 6 000 kg

156) Standard masses may be used for the computation of
mass values for baggage if the aeroplane
C cargo 1: 5 000 kg; cargo 4: 4 000 kg
A has 30 or more seats.
D cargo 1: 4 000 kg; cargo 4: 5 000 kg
B is carrying 30 or more passengers.
153) The Dry Operating Mass of an aeroplane includes : C has 20 or more seats.
A Fuel and passengers baggage and cargo. D has 6 or more seats.
B Passengers baggage and cargo.
C Crew and crew baggage, catering, removable passenger

service equipment, potable water and lavatory chemicals.
D Unusable fuel and reserve fuel.
157) An aeroplane is performance limited to a landing mass 161) The maximum certificated take - off mass is :
of 54230 kg. The Dry Operating Mass is 35000 kg and
the zero fuel mass is 52080 kg. If the take-off mass is
64280 kg the useful load is A a take - off limiting mass which is governed by the gradient
of climb after reaching V2 .
A 17080 kg
B limited by the runway take off distance available. It is
tabulated in the Flight Manual.
B 12200 kg.
C a structural limit which may not be exceeded for any take -
C 10080 kg. off.
D 29280 kg. D a take - off limiting mass which is affected by the aerodrome
altitude and temperature.
158) The operator of an aircraft equipped with 50 seats uses

standard masses for passengers and baggage. During 162) The maximum zero-fuel mass:
the preparation of a scheduled flight a group of 1- is a regulatory limitation
passengers present themselves at the check-in desk, it 2- is calculated for a maximum load factor of +3.5 g
is apparent that even the lightest of these exceeds the 3- is due to the maximum permissible bending moment
value of the declared standard mass. at the wing root
4- imposes fuel dumping from the outer wings tank first
5- imposes fuel dumping from the inner wings tank first
A the operator is obliged to use the actual masses of each
6- can be increased by stiffening the wing
passenger
B the operator should use the individual masses of the
passengers or alter the standard masss A 1, 2, 3
C the operator may use the standard masses for the load and B 1, 3, 5
balance calculation without correction
C 2, 5, 6
D the operator may use the standard masses for the balance
but must correct these for the load calculation D 4, 2, 6
159) Given:
Maximum structural take-off mass= 146 900 kg 163) The maximum zero fuel mass is a mass limitation for the:
Maximum structural landing mass= 93 800 kg
Maximum zero fuel mass= 86 400 kg A strength of the fuselage
Trip fuel= 27 500 kg
Block fuel= 35 500 kg
Engine starting and taxi fuel = 1 000 kg B allowable load exerted upon the wing considering a margin
The maximum take-off mass is equal to: for fuel tanking
A 120 300 kg C total load of the fuel imposed upon the wing
B 120 900 kg
D strength of the wing root
C 121 300 kg
D 113 900 kg Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.14)
The following data relates to a planned flight of an
aeroplane -
Dry Operational mass 60520 kg
160) In determining the Dry Operating Mass of an aeroplane it Performance limited take-off mass 92750 kg
is common practice to use 'standard mass' values for Performance limited landing mass 72250 kg
crew. These values are Maximum Zero Fuel mass 67530 kg
Fuel on board at take-off -
A flight crew (male) 88 kg. (female) 75 kg., cabin crew 75 kg. Trip fuel 12500 kg
each. These include an allowance for hand baggage. Contingency and final reserve fuel 2300 kg
Alternate fuel 1700 kg
B flight crew (male) 88 kg. (female) 75 kg., cabin crew 75 kg. Using this data, as appropriate, calculate the maximum
each. These do not include an allowance for hand baggage. traffic load that can be carried.
C flight crew 85 kg., cabin crew 75 kg. each. These are A 7010 kg
inclusive of a hand baggage allowance.
B 7730 kg
D flight crew 85 kg., cabin crew 75 kg. each. These do not
include a hand baggage allowance.
C 11730 kg
D 15730 kg
165) (For this question use annex 031-9604 A or Loading 169) The determination of the centre of gravity in relation to
Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.11) the mean aerodynamic chord:
The aeroplane has a mass of 61 000 kg in the cruise. The
range of safe CG positions, as determined from the A consists of defining the centre of gravity longitudinally in
appropriate graph in the loading manual, is: relation to the length of the mean aerodynamic chord and the
leading edge
A forward limit 7.7% aft limit 25.2% MAC
B consists of defining the centre of gravity longitudinally in
B forward limit 8.3% aft limit 26.3% MAC relation to the length of the mean aerodynamic chord and
the trailing edge
C forward limit 8.0% aft limit 27.2% MAC.
C consists of defining the centre of gravity longitudinally in
relation to the position of the aerodynamic convergence point
D forward limit 7.6% aft limit 26.9% MAC.
D consists of defining the centre of gravity longitudinally in
relation to the position of the aerodynamic centre of pressure
166) The Take-off Mass of an aeroplane is 66700 kg which
includes a traffic load of 14200 kg and a usable fuel load
of 10500 kg. If the standard mass for the crew is 545 kg 170) (For this question use annex 031-11246A and 031-
the Dry Operating Mass is 11246B)
The planned take-off mass of an aeroplane is 180 000 kg,
A 56200 kg with its centre of gravity located at 31 % MAC (Mean
Aerodynamic Cord). Shortly prior to engine start, the
B 41455 kg local staff informs the crew that an additional load of 4
000 kg must be loaded in cargo 1. After loading this
cargo, the new centre of gravity location will be:
C 42545 kg
A 28 %
D 42000 kg
B 37 %
167) The centre of gravity location of the aeroplane is C 34 %

normally computed along the:
D 25 %
A horizontal axis.
B longitudinal axis.
171) The empty mass of an aeroplane, as given in the
weighing schedule, is 61300 kg. The operational items
C lateral axis.
(including crew) is given as a mass of 2300 kg. If the
take-off mass is 132000 kg (including a useable fuel
D vertical axis. quantity of 43800 kg) the useful load is
A 70700 kg
168) Assume:
Aeroplane gross mass: 4750 kg B 29600 kg
Centre of gravity at station: 115.8
C 26900 kg.
What will be the new position of the centre of gravity if
100 kg is moved from the station 30 to station 120? D 68400 kg
A Station 117.69
B Station 118.33 172) The centre of gravity of a body is that point
C Station 120.22 A through which the sum of the forces of all masses of the
body is considered to act.
D Station 118.25
B where the sum of the moments from the external forces
acting on the body is equal to zero.
C where the sum of the external forces is equal to zero.
D which is always used as datum when computing moments.
173) Which one of the following is correct? 177) (For this question use annex 031-9644 A or Loading
Aeroplane Dry Operating mass 85000 kg
A Arm = Force / Moment Performance limited take-off mass 127000 kg
Performance limited landing mass 98500 kg
B Moment = Force / Arm Maximum zero fuel mass 89800 kg
Fuel requirements for flight -
C Arm = Force X Moment Trip fuel 29300 kg
Contingency and final reserve fuel 3600 kg
D Arm = Moment / Force Alternate fuel 2800 kg.
The maximum traffic load that can be carried on this
flight is:
174) (For this question use annex 031-9608 A or Loading A 4800 kg

Referring to the loading manual for the transport B 7100 kg
aeroplane, the maximum running load for the aft section
of the forward lower deck cargo compartment is:
C 6300 kg
A 13.12 kg per inch.
D 12700 kg
B 13.15 kg per inch.
C 14.65 kg per inch. 178) (For this question use annex 031-1580A)
A jet aeroplane, with the geometrical characteristics
D shown in the appendix, has a take-off weight (W) of 460
7.18 kg per inch.
000 N and a centre of gravity (point G on annex) located
at 15.40 m from the zero reference point.
At the last moment the station manager has 12 000 N of
175) For the purpose of completing the Mass and Balance freight added in the forward compartment at 10 m from
documentation, the Traffic Load is considered to be the zero reference point.
equal to the Take-off Mass The final location of the centre of gravity, calculated in
percentage of mean aerodynamic chord AB (from point
A less the Operating Mass. A), is equal to:
B plus the Operating Mass. A 30.4 %.
C plus the Trip Fuel Mass. B 35.5 %.
D less the Trip Fuel Mass. C 27.5 %.
D 16.9 %.
176) The centre of gravity of an aeroplane
179) An aeroplane is loaded with its centre of gravity towards

A may only be moved if permitted by the regulating authority the rear limit. This will result in :
and endorsed in the aeroplane's certificate of airworthiness.
A a reduced fuel consumption as a result of reduced drag.
B is in a fixed position and is unaffected by aeroplane loading.
B an increase in longitudinal stability.
C must be maintained in a fixed position by careful distribution
of the load.
C a reduction in power required for a given speed.
D can be allowed to move between defined limits.
D an increased risk of stalling due to a decrease in tailplane
moment
180) On an aeroplane with a seating capacity of more than 30,

it is decided to use standard mass values for computing
the total mass of passengers. If the flight is not a
holiday charter, the mass value which may be used for
an adult is
A 76 kg
B 84 kg (male) 76 kg (female).
C 88 kg (male) 74 kg (female).
D 84 kg
181) Allowed traffic load is the difference between : 184) Fuel loaded onto an aeroplane is 15400 kg but is
erroneously entered into the load and trim sheet as
14500 kg. This error is not detected by the flight crew
A allowed take off mass and basic mass but they will notice that
B operating mass and basic mass A V1 will be reached sooner than expected
C allowed take off mass and operating mass B V1 will be increased.
D allowed take off mass and basic mass plus trip fuel C the aeroplane will rotate much earlier than expected.
D speed at un-stick will be higher than expected

11247B)
A turbojet aeroplane is parked with the following data: 185) Prior to departure an aeroplane is loaded with 16500
Corrected Dry Operating Mass: 110 100 kg litres of fuel at a fuel density of 780 kg/m³. This is
Basic corrected index: 118.6 entered into the load sheet as 16500 kg and calculations
Initial cargo distribution: cargo 1 = 4 000 kg; cargo 2 = 2 are carried out accordingly. As a result of this error, the
000 kg; cargo 3 = 2 000 kg; aeroplane is
The other cargo compartments are empty.
Take-off mass: 200 000 kg A lighter than anticipated and the calculated safety speeds will
Centre of gravity location: 32 % MAC (Mean be too high
Aerodynamic Cord)
To maximize performance, the captain decides to B lighter than anticipated and the calculated safety speeds will
redistribute part of the cargo load between cargo 1 and be too low
cargo 4, in order to take off with a new centre of gravity
location at 35 % MAC. After loading, the new load
distribution between cargo 1 and cargo 4 is:
C heavier than anticipated and the calculated safety speeds
will be too high
A 1 000 kg in cargo 1; 3 000 kg in cargo 4 D heavier than anticipated and the calculated safety speeds
will be too low.
B 2 500 kg in cargo 1; 1 500 kg in cargo 4
C 3 000 kg in cargo 1; 1 000 kg in cargo 4 186) The standard mass for a child is
D 2 000 kg in cargo 1; 2 000 kg in cargo 4

A 35 kg for holiday charters and 38 kg for all other flights.
B 38 kg for all flights.

183) (For this question use annex 031 11634A)
Maximum allowed take-off mass limit: 37 200kg
Dry operating mass: 21 600 kg C 30 kg for holiday charters and 35 kg for all other flights.
Take-off fuel: 8 500 kg
Passengers on board: male 33, female 32, children 5 D 35 kg for all flights.
Baggages: 880 kg
The company uses the standard passenger mass 187) (For this question use annex 031-11619A )
systems (see annex) allowed by regulations. The flight
is not a holiday charter. A helicopter's basic mass is 1 100 kg and the
In these conditions, the maximum cargo that may be longitudinal CG-position is at 3.10 m.
loaded is Determine the longitudinal CG position in the following
conditions :
A 585 kg
- pilot and front passenger : 150 kg
B 901 kg - rear passengers : 150 kg
- fuel : 500 kg
C 1 098 kg
A 2.82 m
D 1 105 kg
B 2.91 m
C 2.85 m
D 2.97 m
188) (For this question use annex 031-9596 A or Loading 191) Given an aeroplane with:
Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.11) Maximum Structural Landing Mass: 68000 kg
At the maximum landing mass the range of safe CG Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 70200 kg
positions, as determined from the appropriate graph in Maximum Structural Take-off Mass: 78200 kg
the loading manual, is: Dry Operating Mass : 48000 kg
Scheduled trip fuel is 7000 kg and the reserve fuel is
A Forward limit 8.0% MAC aft limit 27.2% MAC 2800 kg,
B Forward limit 8.6% MAC aft limit 27.0% MAC Assuming performance limitations are not restricting,
the maximum permitted take-off mass and maximum
traffic load are respectively:
C Forward limit 8.0% MAC aft limit 26.8% MAC
A 77200 kg and 22200 kg
D Forward limit 7.4% MAC aft limit 27.0% MAC
B 75000 kg and 17200 kg
189) In cruise, an extreme aft longitudinal center of gravity: C 75000 kg and 20000 kg
A moves away the cyclic stick from its forward stop and D 77200 kg and 19400 kg
increases the stress in the rotor head
B brings the cyclic stick closer to its forward stop and 192) The centre of gravity of an aeroplane is at 25% of the
decreases the stress in the rotor head Mean Aerodynamic Chord.
This means that the centre of gravity of the aeroplane is
C moves away the cyclic stick from its forward stop and situated at 25% of the length of:
decreases the stresses in the head rotors
D brings the cyclic stick closer to its forward stop and

A the mean aerodynamic chord in relation to the datum
increases the stress in the rotor head
B the aeroplane in relation to the leading edge
190) (For this question use annexes 031- 11205A and 031- C the mean aerodynamic chord in relation to the leading edge
11205B)
A turbojet aeroplane is parked with the following data: D the mean aerodynamic chord in relation to the trailing edge
Corrected dry operating mass: 110 100 kg
Basic corrected index: 118.6
Initial cargo distribution: cargo 1: 4 000 kg ; cargo 2: 2 193) Given:
000 kg ; cargo 3: 2 000 kg; Dry Operating Mass= 29 800 kg
other cargo compartments are Maximum Take-Off Mass= 52 400 kg
empty Maximum Zero-Fuel Mass= 43 100 kg
Take-off mass: 200 000 kg; centre of gravity (C.G.) Maximum Landing Mass= 46 700 kg
location: 32 % Trip fuel= 4 000 kg
For perfomance reasons, the captain decides to Fuel quantity at brakes release= 8 000 kg
redistribute part of the cargo loading between cargo The maximum traffic load is:
compartments, in order to take off with a new C.G.
location of 34 %. He asks for a transfer of:
A 13 300 kg
A 1 500 kg from cargo 3 to cargo 1
B 9 300 kg
B 1 000 kg from cargo 1 to cargo 4
C 14 600 kg
C 500 kg from cargo 1 to cargo 3

D 12 900 kg
D 1 000 kg from cargo 3 to cargo 1
194) The maximum intensity floor loading for an aeroplane is

given in the Flight Manual as 650 kg per square metre.
What is the maximum mass of a package which can be
safely supported on a pallet with dimensions of 80 cm
by 80 cm?
A 41.6 kg
B 101.6 kg
C 416.0 kg
D 1015.6 kg
195) An aeroplane with a two wheel nose gear and four main 199) (For this question use annex 031-12273A)
wheels rests on the ground with a single nose wheel From the data contained in the attached appendix, the
load of 500 kg and a single main wheel load of 6000 kg. maximum allowable take - off mass and traffic load is
The distance between the nose wheels and the main respectively :
wheels is 10 meter.
How far is the centre of gravity in front of the main A 68038 kg and 18588 kg
wheels?
B 66770 kg and 17320 kg
A 41.6 cm.
C 60425 kg and 10975 kg
B 40 cm.
D 61600 kg and 12150 kg
C 25 cm.
D 4 meter.
200) The total mass of an aeroplane is 9000 kg. The centre of
gravity (cg) position is at 2.0 m from the datum line. The
aft limit for cg is at 2.1 m from the datum line.
196) Moment (balance) arms are measured from a specific What mass of cargo must be shifted from the front
point to the body station at which the mass is located. cargo hold (at 0.8 m from the datum) to the aft hold (at
That point is known as 3.8 m), to move the cg to the aft limit?
A the datum. A 300 kg
B the focal point. B 900 kg
C the axis. C 30.0 kg
D the centre of gravity of the aeroplane. D 196 kg
197) The total mass of the aeroplane including crew, crew 201) The zero fuel mass of an aeroplane is always:
baggage; plus catering and removable passenger
equipment; plus potable water and lavatory chemicals
but excluding usable fuel and traffic load, is referred to A The maximum take-off mass minus the take-off fuel mass.
as:
B The take-off mass minus the take-off fuel mass.
A Maximum Zero Fuel Mass
C The take-off mass minus the wing fuel mass.
B Dry Operating Mass.
D The take-off mass minus the fuselage fuel mass.
C Zero Fuel Mass.
D Aeroplane Prepared for Service ( APS) Mass. 202) (For this question use annex 031-11250A, 031-11250B
and 031-11250C)
Knowing that:
198) A jet transport has the following structural limits: . Dry operating mass: 110 000 kg
-Maximum Ramp Mass: 63 060 kg . Basic index: 119.1
-Maximum Take Off Mass: 62 800 kg . Number of passengers: 335 distributed as shown in the
-Maximum Landing Mass: 54 900 kg annex (75 kg per PAX)
-Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 51 300 kg . Cargo load + luggage: 9 500 kg distributed as shown in
The aeroplane's fuel is loaded accordance with the the annex.
following requirements: . Fuel: 40 000 kg
-Taxi fuel: 400 kg Stages (1) to (7) and (11) having already been calculated,
-Trip fuel: 8400 kg the centre of gravity in % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic
-Contingency & final reserve fuel: 1800 kg Cord) for zero fuel mass is located at:
-Alternate fuel: 1100 kg
If the Dry Operating Mass is 34930 kg, determine the A 28.0 %
maximum traffic load that can be carried on the flight if
departure and landing airfields are not performance B 30.5 %
limited.
C 27.4 %
A 16 370 kg
D 29.3 %
B 16 430 kg
C 17 070 kg
D 16 570 kg
203) Considering only structural limitations, on very short 206) 'Standard Mass' as used in the computation of
legs with minimum take-off fuel, the traffic load is passenger load establish the mass of a child as
normally limited by:
A 35 kg irrespective of age provided they occupy a seat.
A Maximum take-off mass.
B 35 kg only if they are over 2 years old and occupy a seat.
B Actual landing mass.
C 35 kg for children over 2 years occupying a seat and 10 kg
C Maximum zero fuel mass. for infants (less than 2 years) not occupying a seat.
D Maximum landing mass. D 35 kg for children over 2 years occupying a seat and 10 kg
for infants (less than 2 years) occupying a seat.
204) An aeroplane has its centre of gravity located 7 metres

207) Determine the Zero Fuel Mass for the following single
from the datum line and it has a mass of 49000 N. The
engine aeroplane.
moment about the datum is:
Given :
A 7000 Nm. Standard Empty Mass : 1764 lbs
Optional Equipment : 35 lbs
B 34 300 Nm. Pilot + Front seat passenger : 300 lbs
C 343 000 Nm. Ramp Fuel = Block Fuel : 60 Gal.
Trip Fuel : 35 Gal.
D 1.43 Nm. Fuel density : 6 lbs/Gal.
A 2659 lbs
205) Given are the following information at take-off B 2414 lbs

_________________________________________________
__________________
STATION MASS (kg) ARM (cm) C 2449 lbs
MOMENT (kgcm)
_________________________________________________ D 2589 lbs
__________________
Basic Empty Condition 12045 +30
+361350
208) In mass and balance calculations the "index" is:
Crew 145 -160 -
23200
Freight 1 5455 +200 A the moment divided by a constant.
+1091000
Freight 2 410 -40 -
16400
B a location in the aeroplane identified by a number.
Fuel 6045 -8 -
48360 C an imaginary vertical plane or line from which all
Oil 124 +40 measurements are taken.
+4960
Given that the flight time is 2 hours and the estimated D the range of moments the centre of gravity (cg) can have
fuel flow will be 1050 litres per hour and the average oil without making the aeroplane unsafe to fly.
consumption will be 2.25 litres per hour. The specific
density of fuel is 0.79 and the specific density of oil is
0.96. 209) The take-off mass of an aeroplane is 117 000 kg,
Calculate the landing centre of gravity comprising a traffic load of 18 000 kg and fuel of 46 000
kg. What is the dry operating mass?
A 61.29 cm aft of datum.
A 71 000 kg
B 61.28 cm aft of datum.
B 99 000 kg
C 61.26 cm aft of datum.
C 53 000 kg
D 61.27 cm aft of datum.
D 64 000 kg
210) The take-off mass of an aeroplane is 141000 kg. Total 214) (For this question use annex 031-4742A or Loading
fuel on board is 63000 kg including 14000 kg reserve fuel Manual MEP1 Figure 3.4)
and 1000 kg of unusable fuel. The traffic load is 12800 With respect to a multi-engine piston powered
kg. The zero fuel mass is: aeroplane, determine the CG location at take off in the
following conditions:
A 65200 kg. Basic empty mass: 3 210 lbs.
One pilot: 160 lbs.
B 79000 kg Front seat passenger : 200 lbs.
Centre seat passengers: 290 lbs. (total)
C 78000 kg
D 93000 kg Zero Fuel Mass: 4210 lbs.
Moment at Zero Fuel Mass: 377751 lbs.In
211) Mass for individual passengers (to be carried on an Trip fuel: 55 US Gal.
aeroplane) may be determined from a verbal statement Fuel for start up and taxi (included in block fuel): 3 US
by or on behalf of the passengers if the number of Gal.
A passengers carried is less than 20.
A 93.60 inches aft of datum
B passenger seats available is less than 6.
B 91.84 inches aft of datum
C passengers carried is less than 6.
C 91.92 inches aft of datum
D passenger seats available is less than 20.
D 91.69 inches aft of datum
212) To measure the mass and CG-position of an aircraft, it

should be weighed with a minimum of: 215) When establishing the mass breakdown of an aeroplane,
the empty mass is defined as the sum of the:
A 1 point of support
A basic mass plus special equipment mass
B 4 point of support
B standard empty mass plus specific equipment mass plus
trapped fluids plus unusable fuel mass
C 3 points of support
C empty mass dry plus variable equipment mass
D 2 points of support
D basic mass plus variable equipment mass

216) Which of the following is most likely to affect the range
A The Maximum Take-off Mass is equal to the maximum mass of centre of gravity positions on an aeroplane?
when leaving the ramp.
A Location of the undercarriage.
B The Basic Empty Mass is equal to the mass of the
aeroplane excluding traffic load and useable fuel but B The need to maintain a low value of stalling speed.
including the crew.
C The need to minimise drag forces and so improve efficiency.
C The Maximum Landing Mass of an aeroplane is restricted by
structural limitations, performance limitations and the D Elevator and tailplane (horizontal stabiliser) effectiveness in
strength of the runway.
all flight conditions.
D The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass ensures that the centre of
gravity remains within limits after the uplift of fuel.
217) A flight has been made from London to Valencia 220) (For this question use appendix 031-11605A)
carrying minimum fuel and maximum traffic load. On the
return flight the fuel tanks in the aeroplane are to be Without the crew, the weight and the CG-position of the
filled to capacity with a total fuel load of 20100 litres at a aircraft are 7 000 kg and 4,70m.
fuel density of 0.79 kg/l.
The following are the aeroplane's structural limits: - the mass of the pilot is 90 kg
-Maximum Ramp Mass: 69 900 kg - the mass of the copilot is 75 kg
-Maximum Take Off Mass: 69 300 kg - the mass of the flight engineer is 90 kg
-Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 52 740 kg With this crew on board, the CG-position of the aircraft
The performance limited take off mass at Valencia is 67 will be:
330 kg.
The landing mass at London is not performance limited. A 0,217 m
Trip Fuel (Valencia to London): 5 990 kg B 4,783 m
Taxi fuel: 250 kg
The maximum traffic load that can be carried from
Valencia will be: C 4,455 m
A 13 240 kg D 4,615 m
B 16 770 kg
221) The maximum certificated taxi (or ramp) mass is that
C 9 830 kg mass to which an aeroplane may be loaded prior to
engine start. It is :
D 14 331 kg
A a value which varies with airfield temperature and altitude.
Corrections are listed in the Flight Manual.
218) The loaded centre of gravity (cg) of an aeroplane is 713 B a value which varies only with airfield altitude. Standard
mm aft of datum. The mean aerodynamic chord lies corrections are listed in the Flight Manual.
between station 524 mm aft and 1706 mm aft. The cg
expressed as % MAC (mean aerodynamic chord) is: C a value which is only affected by the outside air temperature.
Corrections are calculated from data given in the Flight
A 60 % Manual.
B 10 % D a fixed value which is listed in the Flight Manual.
C 16 %
222) (For this question use annex 031-11251A , 031-11251B
D 41 % and 031-11251C)
Knowing that:
. Basic index: 119.1
219) If 390 Ibs of cargo are moved from compartment B (aft) . Number of passengers: 185 distributed as shown in the
to compartment A (forward), what is the station number annex (75 kg per PAX)
of the new centre of gravity (cg). . Cargo load + luggage: 14 000 kg distributed as shown
Given : Gross mass 116.500 Ibs in the annex.
Present cg station 435.0 . Fuel: 42 000 kg
Compartment A station 285.5 Stages (1) to (7) and (11) having already been calculated,
Compartment B station 792.5 the centre of gravity in % MAC (Mean Aerodynamic
Cord) for zero fuel mass is located at:
A 506.3
A 32.3 %
B 436.7
B 29.3 %
C 433.3
C 28.3 %
D 463.7
D 30.5 %
223) At the flight preparation stage, the following parameters 226) (For this question use annex 031-11222A and 031-
in particular are available for determining the mass of 11222B )
the aircraft: The planned take-off mass of an aeroplane is 190 000 kg,
1- Dry operating mass with its centre of gravity located at 29 % MAC (Mean
2- Operating mass Aerodynamic Cord). Shortly prior to engine start, the
Which statement is correct: local staff informs the flight crew that an additional load
of 4 000 kg must be loaded in cargo 4. After loading this
A The operating mass is the mass of the aeroplane without cargo, the new centre of gravity location will be:
take-off fuel.
A 33 %
B The dry operating mass includes take-off fuel.
B 25 %
C The operating mass includes the traffic load.
C 27 %
D The dry operating mass includes fixed equipment needed to
carry out a specific flight. D 31 %
224) Given an aeroplane with:

227) The basic empty mass of an aircraft is 30 000 kg. The
Maximum Structural Landing Mass: 125000 kg
masses of the following items are :
Maximum Zero Fuel Mass: 108500 kg
- catering: 300 kg
Maximum Structural Take-off Mass: 155000 kg
- safety and rescue material: nil
Dry Operating Mass: 82000 kg
- fly away kit: nil
Scheduled trip fuel is 17000 kg and the reserve fuel is
- crew (inclusive crew baggage): 365kg
5000 kg.
- fuel at take-off: 3 000 kg
- unusable fuel: 120 kg
Assuming performance limitations are not restricting,
- passengers, baggage, cargo: 8 000 kg
the maximum permitted take-off mass and maximum
traffic load are respectively:
The Dry Operating Mass is :
A 130500 kg and 26500 kg
A 30 785 kg
B 130500 kg and 31500 kg

B 30 300 kg
C 125500 kg and 21500 kg

C 38 300 kg
D 125500 kg and 26500 kg
D 30 665 kg
225) Given:
228) With reference to mass and balance calculations (on an
Total mass 2900 kg
aeroplane) a datum point is used. This datum point is :
Centre of gravity (cg) location station: 115.0
Aft cg limit station: 116.0
The maximum mass that can be added at station 130.0 is: A a point near the centre of the aeroplane. It moves
longitudinally as masses are added forward and aft of its
location.
A 207 kg.
B a point from which all balance arms are measured. The
B 317 kg. location of this point varies with the distribution of loads on
the aeroplane.
C 140 kg.
C a fixed point from which all balance arms are measured. It
D 14 kg. may be located anywhere on the aeroplane's longitudinal
axis or on the extensions to that axis.
D the point through which the sum of the mass values (of the
aeroplane and its contents) is assumed to act vertically.
229) Given are:
- Maximum structural take-off mass: 72 000 kg

- Maximum structural landing mass: 56 000 kg
- Maximum zero fuel mass: 48 000 kg
- Taxi fuel: 800 kg
- Trip fuel: 18 000 kg
- Contingency fuel: 900 kg
- Alternate fuel: 700 kg
- Final reserve fuel: 2 000 kg
Determine the actual take-off mass:
A 74 000 kg
B 72 000 kg
C 70 400 kg
D 69 600 kg
230) (For this question use annex 031-4740A or Loading

Manual MEP1 Figure 3.4)
With respect to multi-engine piston powered aeroplane,
determine the block fuel moment (lbs.In.) in the
Basic empty mass: 3 210 lbs.
One pilot: 160 lbs.
Front seat passenger : 200 lbs.
Centre seat passengers: 290 lbs. (total)
Fuel for start up and taxi (included in block fuel): 3 US
Gal.
A 433 906
B 30 888
C 9 360
D 56 160
231) Given:
Aeroplane mass = 36 000 kg
Centre of gravity (cg) is located at station 17 m
What is the effect on cg location if you move 20
passengers (total mass = 1 600 kg) from station 16 to
station 23?
A It moves aft by 0.157 m.
B It moves aft by 0.31 m.
C It moves forward by 0.157 m.
D It moves aft by 3.22 m.
Professione Volare Domande Ops Procedures
Data:
Nome Allievo:
123) The tire pressure of an aircraft main landing gear is 10,8 117) Posit :
bars. The speed at which the hydroplaning phenomenon
will appear is approximately: g, the longitude difference
Lm, the average latitude
A 56 kt Lo, the latitude of the tangent
B 87 kt The transport precession is equal to :
C 145 kt
A 15°/h.sin Lm
D 112 kt
B g.(sin Lm-sin Lo)
C g/2.sin Lm
90) The maximum validity of a SNOWTAM is : D g.sin Lm
A 3 hours
118) A 1211 halon fire-extinguisher can be used for:
B 24 hours
1. a paper fire
C 12 hours 2. a fabric fire
3. an electric fire
D 6 hours 4. a wood fire
5. a hydrocarbon fire

114) Which one of the following magnitudes will be the first is:
to change its value when penetrating a windshear ?
A 1, 3, 5
A Pitch angle.
B 2, 3, 4
B Vertical speed.
C 2, 4, 5
C Groundspeed.
D 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
D Indicated airspeed.
119) The tip vortices circulate about each wing tip :

115) In the hazardous materials transportation act, the
freight compliance with the regulatory arrangements is
the responsibility of the : A clockwise.
A station manager. B counterclockwise.
B aerodrome manager. C from the upper side of the wing toward the underwing.
C sender. D from the underwing toward the upper side of the wing.
D captain.
120) According with the "noise abatement take-off and climb
procedure B", as established in DOC 8168 - Ops Volume
116) The authorization for the transport of hazardous 1, part V, aircraft must climb at V2 + 10 to 20 kt, until
materials is specified on the: reaching :
A insurance certificate. A 1 500 ft
B air carrier certificate. B 3 000 ft
C registration certificate. C 1 000 ft
D airworthiness certificate. D 500 ft
112) One of the main characteristics of windshear is that it : 125) Astronomic precession is :
A occurs only at a low altitude ( 2000 ft) and never in the A existing whether the aircraft is on the ground or flying
horizontal plane
B independent of the latitude
B can occur at any altitude and only in the horizontal plane
C depending on the chart used
C can occur at any altitude in both the vertical and horizontal
planes
D zero when the aircraft is on the ground
D occurs only at a low altitude ( 2000 ft) and never in the
vertical plane
126) The standby power supply powering the standby
artificial horizon must be operable on board any aircraft
122) The validity period of a flight track system organized in of more than 5700 kg or more than 9 passengers during
MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification) at least :
airspace during a Westbound flight normally is :
A 60 minutes.
A 00H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC
B 15 minutes.
B 11H30 UTC to 19H00 UTC
C 2 hours.
C 10H30 UTC to 19H00 UTC
D 30 minutes.
D 01H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC
127) From the following list :

111) In accordance with JAR-OPS1, a Category III B 1. Fire extinguishers
operations, is a precision instrument approach and 2. Portable oxygen supplies
landing using ILS or MLS with, a decision height lower 3. First-aid kits
than 50 ft, or no decision height and a runway visual 4. Passenger meals
range lower than 200 m but no less than : 5. Alcoholic beverages
Which are classed as Dangerous Goods that are
A 75 m required to be on the aeroplane in accordance with
relevant JAR's for operating reasons :
B 150 m
A 2,3 and 4 only
C 100 m
B 1,2 and 3 only
D 50 m
C 1,2 and 5 only
D 3,4 and 5 only

124) You will use a CO2 fire-extinguisher for :
1. a paper fire
2. a plastic fire 128) The presence of dynamic hydroplaning depends
3. a hydrocarbon fire primarily on the :
4. an electrical fire
A depth of the standing water on the runway.
is: B aircraft's weight.
A 3,4 C strength of the headwind.
B 1,2,3 D amount of the lift off speed.
C 2,3
D 1,2,3,4
129) You plan to fly from point A (60°N 010°E) to point B 121) In a 5 kt right crosswind component behind a taking off
(60°N 020°E). aircraft:
The gyro North of the gyro compass, assumed to be
operating perfectly, with no rate correction device, is A The runway will be clear of any hazard turbulence.
aligned with the true North of point A.
The constant gyro heading to be followed when starting B The right wake turbulence stays approximately on the
from A given that the flight time scheduled is 1h30 min runway.
with a zero wind, is equal to :
C The left wake turbulence stays approximately on the runway.
A 076°.
D The right and left wake turbulence stays approximately on
B 080°. the runway.
C 066°.
101) The captain is asked by the authority to present the
D 085°. documents of the aircraft. He
A can refuse to present them.

130) When a course is plotted at minimum time route, one
passes from the air isochrone to the corresponding B can only do so after having consulted the operator.
ground isochrone by applying to point K (original spot)
a vector KK' which is equal to: C must do so, within a reasonable period of time.
A mean wind from the preceding ground isochrone. D can request a delay of 48 hours.
B wind at K'.
178) During take-off an aircraft hits a bird. Due to control
C wind at K. vibrations a landing must be made immediately.
Following this incident the pilot :
D mean wind up to the next ground isochrone.
A must file a airworthiness report
131) You are the captain of a commercial airplane and you B is not obliged to report this incident
notice, after take-off, a flock of birds which may present
a bird strike hazard, you must: C must file a Bird Strike report
A immediately inform the appropriate ground station. D must file an AIR PROX report: the Control Tower having
given no warning
B inform the other aircraft by radio.
C inform the appropriate ground station within a reasonable 92) The minimum requirements for Supplemental Oxygen to
period of time. be supplied in pressurised aeroplanes during and
following an emergency descent are that for pilots it
D draft a bird strike hazard report upon arrival and within at shall be available for the entire flight time that the cabin
most 48 hours. pressure altitude exceeds a minimum of X feet. That
minimum of X feet is :
132) If airworthiness documents do not shown any A 15000 ft

additionnal correction factor for landing performance
determination on a wet runway, the landing distance B 25000 ft
shall be increased by:
C 13000 ft
A 10%.
D 14000 ft
B 5%.
C 15%.
D 20%.
93) The master minimum equipment list (MMEL) is 97) Viscous hydroplaning occurs primary if the runway is
established by: covered with a thin film of water and:
A the manufacturer of the aircraft, but need not to be accepted A is very smooth and clean.
by the authority
B is rough textured.
B the operator of the aircraft, and accepted by the
manufacturer
C the tyre treads are not in a good state.
C the manufacturer of the aircraft, and accepted by the
authority D is very smooth and dirty.
D the operator of the aircraft, and accepted by the authority

98) Without wind, the tip vortices created by an airplane at
take-off:
94) During a transoceanic and polar flight, the transport
precession is the rotation in degrees of the gyro North A separate to the left side.
with respect to the:
B separate on each side of the runway.
A magnetic North
C stagnate on the runway.
B compass North
D separate to the right side.
C true North
D grid North 113) If a flight is planned to operate along the whole length of
one of the organised tracks, the intended organised
track should be defined in items of the FPL by :
95) An aircraft is flying in heavy rain. To carry out a safe
approach, it is necessary to : A using the abbreviation "OTS" followed by the code letter
assigned to the track.
A maintain the normal approach speed up to landing
B inserting coordinates defining significant points with
intervals of 10° of longitude.
B carry out an approach with flaps up, in order to avoid
exposing too much lifting surface to the rain
C the abbreviation "NAT" followed by the code letter assigned
to the track.
C increase its approach speed, because the rain affects the lift
by deteriorating the boundary layer
D inserting coordinates as detailed in the NAT track message.
D reduce the approach speed, because the runway may be
very slippery on landing
100) At 18h40min UTC, a complete failure of the inertial
systems of an aircraft flying on the LONDON-
96) (For this question use annex 071-2070A) ANCHORAGE line occurs in the geographic North pole
region. The wind is nil, the grid heading at this moment
On the diagram where : is 315°. The crew then uses the Sun to continue the
flight. The bearing of the Sun on occurence of the failure
Nt = True North is :
Nm = Magnetic North
Ng = Grid North NOTE: The time equation is nil. The chart used is a polar
stereographic chart whose grid is parallel with the zero
If the magnetic variation is equal to 65°W and if the grid meridian, the Grid North is in direction of the geographic
variation is equal to 4°E, the correct arrangement of the North pole.
different north is :
A 000°.
A 1
B 325°.
B 2
C 035°.
C 3
D 180°.
D 4
135) In case of landing on a flooded runway and in heavy rain 105) The frequency designated for VHF air to air
: communications when out of range of VHF ground
stations in NAT region is :
1. you increase your approach speed,
2. you land firmly in order to obtain a firm contact of the A 243 MHz.
wheels with the runway and immediately land your nose
gear, B 118.5 MHz.
3. you decrease your approach speed,
4. you use systematically all the lift dumper devices,
5. you land as smoothly as possible, C 131.8 MHz.
6. you brake energically.
D 121.5 MHz.
is :
106) To fight a fire in an air-conditioned cargo hold:
A 1, 2, 4
B 3, 5 A Extinguish fire and reduce air conditioning.
C 2, 3, 4 B Extinguish fire only.
D 1, 4, 5, 6 C Fire-fighting is not necessary, since the transport of

combustible goods in an air-conditioned cargo hold is
forbidden.
102) Astronomic precession : D you turn off the cargo hold ventilation and extinguish fire.
A is zero at the South pole

107) An aircraft airworthiness certificate states a maximum of
B causes the gyro axis to spin to the left in the southern eight occupants (including pilot).
hemisphere The pilot has a passenger load of six adults and two
children (5 and 6 years old).
C causes the gyro axis to spin to the right in the Southern The boarding of all passengers is:
hemisphere
A authorized, providing both children are sitting on the same
D is zero at the North pole seat and using the same seat belt. No other particular
precautions are necessary.
B authorized, providing both children are sitting on the same

103) Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their seat, using the same seat belt with an adult sitting on the
safety belt fastened: seat next to them, in order to release their seat belt if
necessary.
A from take off to landing.
C authorized, providing both children are of a similar stature,
B while at their station. sitting on the same seat and using the same seat belt with
an adult sitting on the seat next to them in order to relase thir
C only during take off and landing. seat bel
D only during take off and landing and whenever necessary by

D forbidden.
the commander in the interest of safety.
108) Tip vortices which are responsible for wake turbulence

104) For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is appear as soon as the following is established :
the ICAO minimum radar separation distance if a heavy
aeroplane is following directly behind another heavy A spin up
aeroplance on the approach to the same runway ?
B lift destruction
A 3.7 km (2 NM)
C lift
B 7.4 km (4 NM)
D drag
C 9.3 km (5 NM)
D 11.1 km (6 NM)
109) Beneath fire extinguishers the following equipment for 159) During a flight to Europe, scheduled in MNPS (Minimum
fire fighting is on board: Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you
expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 1000 UTC ; you will
A a big bunch of fire extinguishing blankets. normally be :
B crash axes or crowbars. A out of the organised route system.
C water and all type of beverage. B in random airspace.
D a hydraulic winch and a big box of tools. C in a day flight route system.
D in a night flight route system.

110) An operator must ensure that, for the duration of each
flight, be kept on the ground a copy of the :
160) Astronomic precession :
A flight route sheet.
B operation flight plan.

A causes the gyro axis to spin to the right in the Northern
hemisphere
C ATC (Air Traffic Control) flight plan. B causes the gyro axis to spin to the left in the Northern
hemisphere
D flight plan processing.
C is zero at the North pole
99) During a flight, the chief steward informs the crew that a
D is zero at the South pole
passenger is using a portable device suspected to
disburb the aircraft electronic systems. The captain:
161) In the "worst case" scenario of recovery from the effects
A may authorize the use of this device, as an exception. of a microburst, having increased to full go-around
power, in co-ordinating power and pitch it may be
B must not authorize any person to use such a device on necessary to :
board.
A increase the pitch angle until the stick shaker is felt and hold
C authorizes its use except during take-off and landing phases. at slightly below this angle
D authorizes its use during the whole flight phase. B climb away at Vat + 20 kt
C reduce speed to V2 and hold
168) During a transoceanic and polar flight, the chart

precession is a rotation in degrees, for a moving
D slowly increase speed whilst maintaining a positive rate of
climb
aircraft, of the gyro North with respect to the :
A true North for a given chart

162) When the weather conditions require an alternate
B true North for any chart aerodrome to be available on take-off, the latter shall be
located, for a twin-engined aircraft, at an equivalent
distance not exceeding :
C grid North for a given chart
A 1 hour of flight at cruising speed with two engines
D grid North for any chart
B 2 hours of flight at cruising speed with single engine
158) An aeroplane suffers an explosive decompression at an C 2 hours of flight at cruising speed with two engines
altitude of 31000 ft . What is the initial action by the
operating crew ? D 1 hour of flight at cruising speed with a single engine
A transmit a MAYDAY message
B place the seat belts sign to ON
C to put on oxygen masks
D disconnect the autopilot
163) A passenger is allowed to carry match-boxes: 167) Wake turbulence risk is highest :
1. on himself/herself
2. in his/her hand luggage A when a preceeding aircraft has briefly applied take-off thrust
3. in his/her checked luggage just prior to take off.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements B when a heavy aircraft has just performed a take-off at a
is: closely situated parallel runway with a light crosswind.
A 1, 2 C if, just before landing a much lighter aircraft has landed at

the same runway with heavy crosswind.
B 2, 3 D following a preceding aircraft at high speed.
C 1
155) The minimum equipment list (MEL) gives the equipment

D 1, 2, 3
which can be inoperative when undertaking a flight and
the additonnal procedures to be observed accordingly.
This list is prepared by:
164) On board a non-pressurized aircraft, 10% of the
passengers must be supplied with oxygen throughout A the operator, and it is inserted in the operations manual
the period of flight, reduced by 30 minutes, during which
the pressure altitude is between : B the manufacturer, and it is inserted in the operations manual
A 10 000 ft and 13 000 ft C the operator, and it is appended to the flight manual
B 10 000 ft and 12 000 ft D the manufacturer, and it is appended to the flight manual
C 11 000 ft and 13 000 ft
169) About procedures for noise attenuation during landing:

D 11 000 ft and 12 000 ft
A Such procedures will not involve the prohibition of using

reverse thrust .
165) The braking efficiency is a piece of information
presenting itself in the form of a :
B They prohibit the use of reverse thrust .
A combination of the terms: poor, medium, good.
C Such procedures do not exist.
B percentage varying from 10 % to 100 %.
D They are applied in the case of an instrument approach only.
C zero followed by two decimals.
D letter falling between A and E. 170) According to the JAR OPS, when a commercial
transport passenger airplane is equipped with a door in
the flight crew compartment area, this door must
include:
133) The minimum navigation equipment required for an
aircraft flying without restriction in MNPS airspace can A a locking system to prevent any unauthorized access.
be at the very least :
A Two inertial navigation units and a DECCA.

B a device preventing the flight crew from being locked in the
cockpit.
B Three inertial navigation units. C distinctive red or yellow colored markings indicating the
access area (in case of a blocked door).
C One inertial navigation unit.
D a sealing system allowing the maintenance for as long as
D Two inertial navigation units. possible of the pressure in the cockpit in case of a
depressurization in the compartment area.
171) The M.E.L. (Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by :
A the aircraft state of registry
B the operator
C the manufacturer
D the aircraft manufacturer's list
172) According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence 176) Arriving at the point of entry into MNPS (Minimum
radar separation minima of 9,3 Km (5,0 NM) shall be Navigation Performance Specification) airspace over the
applied when a : North Atlantic and not having yet received the oceanic
clearance, the crew :
A HEAVY aircraft is crossing behind a HEAVY aircraft, at the
same altitude or less than 300 m (1 000 ft) A carries out a holding pattern
B MEDIUM aircraft is crossing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, at B returns to base immediately

the same altitude or less than 300 n (1 000 ft)
C LIGHT aircraft is crossing behind a MEDIUM aircraft, at the C keeps flying in accordance with the air-filed flight plan
same altitude or less than 300 m (1 000.ft)
D keeps flying deviating its course by 30 nautical miles from
D LIGHT aircraft is crossing behind a HEAVY aircraft, at the that of the air-filed flight plan
same altitude or less than 300 m (1 000 ft)
1) The touch down areas located at both ends of the

173) According to the JAR-OPS regulations, an IFR flight runways are typical for the appearance of:
with no alternate airfield can be undertaken only if the
minimum weather conditions stipulated in the A rubber reversion hydroplaning.
regulations are effective for at least :
B rubber steaming hydroplaning.
A 3 hours before to at least 1 hour after the expected time of
arrival C viscous hydroplaning.
B 3 hours before to at least 3 hours after the expected time of

D dynamic hydroplaning.
arrival
C 1 hour before to at least 1 hour after the expected time of

arrival 166) In VFR public transport on an aircraft for which the flight
manual inidicates a minimum crew of one pilot, when do
D 2 hours before to at least 2 hours after the expected time of the regulations require the presence of a second pilot ?
arrival
A if the flight lasts more than 3 hours.
174) During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to B never.

windshear with a decreasing tail wind. In the absence of
a pilot action, the aircraft :
C if the aircraft is a twin-engine.
1- flies above the glide path
2- flies below the glide path
D if part or all the flight is done at night.
3- has an increasing true airspeed
4- has a decreasing true airspeed
146) The minimum lateral separation in the NAT region is:
the combination of correct statements is :
A 2,3. A 60 NM between aircraft flying above FL285.
B 2,4. B 60 NM between aircraft operating below MNPS airspace.
C 1,3. C 90 NM between aircraft flying above FL285.
D 1,4. D 90 NM between all aircraft flying in the NAT region.
175) The JAR-OPS is based on : 89) In case of an engine nozzle fire while on ground you :
A The Federal Aviation Requirements (FAR) A fight the nozzle fire with a water fire-extinguisher.
B A JAA guideline B carry out a dry cranking.
C ICAO Appendix 6 C carry out a damp cranking.
D The air transport rules D pull the fire shut off handle and trigger the engines fire-
extinguishers.
136) A category III B precision approach (CAT III B) is an 139) If both precision navigation systems of an aircraft are
approach which may be carried out with a runway visual unserviceable during a flight in MNPS airspace, and if
range of at least : you cannot establish communication with the air traffic
control, you :
A 75 m
A take an intermediate flight level
B 150 m
B descend below the MNPS space
C 250 m
C return to departure airport
D 200 m
D land at the nearest airport
137) For stable clouds:

140) JAR OPS 1.465 (VFR Operating minima), establishes
1- the most favourable temperatures for icing are that, the operator shall ensure about VFR flights, that :
between 0°C and -10°C
2- the most favourable temperatures for icing are A for conducted VFR flights in airspace E, flight visibility at
between 0°C and -15°C and above 3 050 m. (10 000 ft) is 5 km at least (clear of
3- icing becomes rare at t < -18°C cloud)
4- icing becomes rare at t < -30°C
5- the diameter of water droplets is between 0.002 and B special VFR flights are not commenced when visibility is
0.03mm less than 3 km
6- the diameter of water droplets is between 0.004 and
0.2mm C for conducted VFR flights in airspace B, horizontal distance
from clouds is 1 000 m at least
Which of the following combinations contains all the
correct statements? D for conducted VFR flights in airspace F, vertical distance
from clouds is 250 m at least
A 2-3-5
B 1-4-6 141) The file kept by an employer on its flight crews records:
C 1-3-5 1 - the training

2 - the test results
D 2-4-6 3 - a log of flying hours
4 - a summary of the training by reference period

138) In final approach, you encounter a strong rear wind gust correct answers?
or strong down wind which forces you to go around. You
A 2-3
1- maintain the same aircraft configuration (gear and
flaps) B 3-4
2- reduce the drags (gear and flaps)
3- gradually increase the attitude up to triggering of
stick shaker C 1-2-3-4
4- avoid excessive attitude change
D 1-2-3
A 1,4 142) The system which must be switched off in case of a

belly compartment fire is generally the :
B 2,3
A ventilation of the cargo compartment
C 2,4
B pressurization
D 1,3
C total airconditioning
D trim air
143) The safety position for adults looks like: seat belts 147) In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, the minimum required
fastened, recent experience for a pilot engaged in a single-pilot
operation under IFR or at night shall be :
A cross the arm in front of the face.
A 5 IFR flights, including 3 take-off and 3 landings carried out
B head placed on a knee cushion, arms around the thigh. during the preceding 90 days on the type or class of
aeroplane in the single-pilot role.
C head down as far as possible, grasp the passenger in front
B 5 IFR flights, including 3 take-off and 3 landings carried out
of you.
during the preceding 30 days on the type or class of
aeroplane in the single-pilot role.
D head down as far as possible, grasp the legs with your arms.
C 5 IFR flights, including 3 instrument approaches, carried out
during the preceding 90 days on the type class of aeroplane
157) For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 14 bars, there is in the single-pilot role.
a risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the :
D 3 IFR flights, including 3 instrument approaches, carried out
1- water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves. during the preceding 90 days on the type class of aeroplane
2- speed is greater than 123 kt. in the single-pilot role.
3- water height is equal to the half of the depth of the
tyre grooves.
4- speed is greater than 95 kt. 148) Which of the following requirements should be met
when planning a flight with icing conditions:
is: A The aircraft shall before flight be sprayed with anti-icing fluid
A 1 and 2.
B A meterologist shall decide whether the flight may be
performed without ice-protection systems
B 1 and 4.
C The aircraft shall be equipped with approved ice-protection
C 3 and 4. systems
D 2 and 3. D The flight should be planned so that a change of cruising

level can be initiated rapidly
145) Assuming contaminated runway conditions, if an

149) The holdover time following an anti-icing procedure
aeroplane's mainwheel tyre pressure is 206 psi., the
being carried out will vary considerbly depending on the
approximate speed above which dynamic hydroplaning
ambient temperature and the weather conditions. For a
may occur in the event of applying brakes is :
given ambient temperature, the longest protection will
be in weather conditions of :
A 114 kt
A frost
B 100 kt
B freezing fog
C 80 kt
C rain on a cold soaked wing
D 129 kt
D steady snow
156) A braking action of 0.25 and below reported on a

SNOWTAM is :
150) A category D aircraft can carry out an indirect approach
followed by a visual maneuver only if the horizontal
A unreliable visibility is higher than or equal to :
B medium A 2400 m
C good B 1600 m
D poor C 1500 m
D 3600 m
151) In a polar Antarctic regions, the pilot uses a South polar 144) H2O extinguishers are fit to fight:
stereographic chart whose printed over grid is parallel
with the zero meridian and Grid North in the direction of
geographic North along this meridian. A Class A fires
The aircraft position is 80°S 130°E, its true route is 110°,
the grid route at this moment is : B Class B fires
A 060°. C electrical source fires
B 110°. D special fires: metals, gas, chemical products
C 340°.
34) While approaching a mountainous airfield, the captain of
D 240°. a transport aircraft notices a fast and high increase in
the indicated airspeed without any change in the
preselected engine and attitude parameters. The
152) A category I precision approach (CAT I) has : preceding crews had reported the occurrence of
windshears in final phase. you must :
A a decision height equal to at least 100 ft. A reduce rapidly the selected thrust, maintain on the glide path.
B a decision height equal to at least 50 ft. B take a level flight attitude to reduce speed, then come back
to glide path from above.
C no decision height.
C reduce rapidly the selected thrust in order to reach 1.2 Vs
and try a precision landing.
D a decision height equal to at least 200 ft.
D maintain the aircraft on the glide path, accept a positive
speed deviation, monitor the speed evolution.
153) DOC 4444 (ICAO) establishes, that wake turbulence
separation minima shall be based on a grouping of
aircraft types into three categories according to the 91) During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit,
maximum certificated take-off mass. seeing an aircraft coming from the front right right, will
Heavy (H) Category, are all aircraft types of : first see the :
A 136 000 Kg or more A green flashing light
B 135 000 Kg or more B red steady light
C less than 136 000 Kg but more than 126 000 Kg C green steady light
D 146 000 Kg or more D white steady light
154) A jet-powered aircraft, flying above the optimum altitude 25) A pilot is using a polar stereographic chart whose grid is
will have : parallel to the zero meridian, with Grid North in the
direction of the North geographic pole.
A increased Mach number stability In polar regions, the pilot stops navigation in free-gyro
mode after leaving the 6 microteslas zone, and the grid
B reduced range heading controlled by information from the inertial
navigation system (INS) is 045°. After switching to
C increased manoeuvring limits "magnetic mode", the compass heading is 220°. The INS
position at this moment is 76°N 180°W. The magnetic
variation on the chart is 10°E.
D increased flight envelope
The compass shift on this heading at this point in time
is:
134) What transponder code should be used to provide A +15°.

recognition of an aircraft which is being subjected to
unlawful interference : B -5°.
A code 7700 C +5°.
B code 2000 D -15°.
C code 7500
D code 7600
26) According to the JAR-OPS rules, the route of a twin- 30) The regulatory green navigation light is located on the
engined aircraft with a maximum certificated take-off starboard wing tip, with a coverage angle of :
mass exceeding 8618 kg or a maximum approved
seating configuration of more than 19 passagers must A 110°.
be planned in such a way that on one engine an
appropriate aerodrome can be reached within : B 140°.
A 90 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.

C 70°.
B 120 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.

D 220°.
C 60 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative.
D 30 minutes at the cruise speed, one engine inoperative. 31) When a LIGHT aircraft is landing behind a MEDIUM
aircraft, the wake turbulence non-radar minimum time
approach separation, according with DOC 4444 (ICAO),
shall be :
27) In addition to informing each State, whose citizens are
known to be on board an aircraft, the State of the A 1 MIN
country in which an aircraft has landed after an act of
unlawful interference must immediately notify the : B 2 MIN
A State of the operator, the J.A.A. and ICAO

C 4 MIN
B State of Registry of the aircraft and the State of the operator

D 3 MIN
only
C State of Registry of the aircraft, the State of the operator and

ICAO 23) During the flight of two aircraft in MNPS airspace with a
leading aircraft flying at higher speed, the longitudinal
D State of Registry of the aircraft and the J.A.A. spacing must be at least :
A 20 minutes
28) The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance
Specification) airspace extends from : B 5 minutes
A 30° North to 90° North. C 10 minutes
B 27° North to 70° North. D 15 minutes
C 30° North to 70° North.

33) The time of useful consciousness in case of an
D 27° North to 90° North. explosive decompression at an altitude of
40 000 ft is:
29) In accordance with OPS 1 430 (Aerodrome Operating A 1 minute.

Minima - General), it is established, among other
considerations, that an Operator must take full account B 5 minutes.
of Aeroplane Categories.
The criteria taken into consideration for classification of C 12 seconds.
Aeroplanes by Categories is the indicated airspeed at
threshold (Vat), which is equal to the stalling speed at D 30 seconds.
the maximum landing mass (Vso) multiplied by 1,3.
Corresponding Aeroplane Category when Vat is from
141 kt to 165 kt is :
22) The information concerning dangerous products that
A C passengers may carry, are listed in the :
B E A JAR-OPS documentation.
C D B ICAO document named "Technical safety instructions for

the air transportation of dangerous products"
D B
C aircraft's flight manual.
D IATA document "Dangerous products transportation".
35) For turbo-jet aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the 39) When taking-off, in winter conditions, the wing
landing distance at the scheduled destination contamination by ice or frost will cause the following
aerodrome shall be less than the available landing effects:
distance multiplied by a factor of :
1 - an increase in the take-off distance
A 0.5 2 - a diminution of the take-off run
3 - an increase in the stalling speed
B 0.8 4 - a diminution of the stalling speed
5 - a diminution of the climb gradient
C 0.6
is :
D 0.7
A 1, 2, 3
36) A fast decompression is recognizable by the following B 2, 3, 5

elements:
C 1, 3, 5
1. mist in the cabin
2. blast towards the exterior of the aircraft D 2, 4, 5
3. expansion of body gases
4. blast of air released violently from the lungs
The combination regrouping all the correct statements 40) An airplane creates a wake turbulence when :
is:
A 1, 2, 3, 4 A generating lift.
B 2, 3, 4 B flying at high speed.
C 1, 2, 3 C using a high engine R.P.M.
D 1, 4 D flying with its gear and flaps extended.
37) CO2 type extinguishers are fit to fight: 41) The attitudes to be adopted by the passengers, sitting in
1 - class A fires the travelling direction, in case of an emergency landing
2 - class B fires are:
3 - electrical source fires
4 - special fires: metals, gas, chemical product 1. legs together and feet flat on the floor,
2. head resting against the back of the front seat,
Which of the following combinations contains all the 3. forearms on the armrests,
correct statements: 4. seat belt very tightly fastened,
5. head resting on the forearms.
A 2-3-4
is:
B 1-3-4
A 1, 4, 5
C 1-2-3
B 1, 2, 3, 4
D 1-2-4
C 2, 3, 4
38) A category C aircraft can carry out an indirect approach D 2, 4, 5

followed by a visual maneuver only if the horizontal
visibility is higher than or equal to :
A 1600 m 42) Carriage of dangerous goods is allowed, provided that:
B 1500 m A no passenger is carried on the same flight
C 2400 m B the airline complies with the Technical Instructions
D 3600 m C national aviation administration permission has been granted
D government permission has been granted
43) The coverage angle of the regulatory red position light, 3) During a flight to Europe, planned in MNPS (Minimum
continuously lit in flight and located at the tip of the left Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you
wing is : expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 11H00 UTC ; you
will then normally be :
A 140°
A in a random space.
B 70°
B out of the organized flight track system.
C 220°
C within the organized daytime flight track system.
D 110°
D within the organized night-time flight track system.
32) In case of a fire due to the heating of the brakes, you

fight the fire using: 4) The aircraft is of Category A. The runway has edge
lights and high intensity centre line lights. There is an
1. a dry powder fire extinguisher accessible alternate aerodrome and the two pilot crew is
2. a water spray atomizer IFR qualified on type. The minimum horizontal visibility
3. a water fire-extinguisher required for take-off is:
4. a CO2 fire-extinguisher to the maximum
A 200 m.
is: B 300 m.
A 3, 4
C 150 m if a threshold RVR is available.
B 1, 4
D 150 m.
C 1, 2
D 2, 3, 4 5) Your flight manual does not include specific

supplementary information on landing distances on wet
runways and the service bulletins or weather reports
indicate that the runway may be wet at the estimated
12) The MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance time of arrival. The required landing distance on a dry
Specification) airspace extends vertically between flight runway must be increased by:
levels:
A 18 %
A 280 and 400.
B 20 %
B 280 and 390.
C 17,6 %
C 275 and 400.
D 15 %
D 285 and 420.
6) Fire fighting in the toilets must be performed with:

2) In the event of a contingency which required an en-route
diversion to an alternate aerodrome across the direction
of the prevailing "NAT" traffic flow and if prior ATC A all available extinguishers simultaneously.
clearance cannot be obtained an aircraft not able to
maintain its assigned flight level should: B all available liquids.
A Start its descent while turning to acquire a track separated C all available extinguishers in sequence.
by 60 NM from its assigned route or track.
D only the extinguisher corresponding to the toilets.
B Start its descent while turning to acquire a track separated
C Descend below FL275.
D Start its descent while turning to acquire a track separated

7) The observations and studies conducted on the 46) In the event of a contingency which required an en-route
behavior of birds on the ground, ahead of an aircraft diversion to an alternate aerodrome across the direction
taking off and having reached an average speed of 135 of the prevailing "NAT" traffic flow and if prior ATC
kt, show that birds fly away : clearance cannot be obtained an aircraft able to
maintain its assigned flight level should:
A about two seconds beforehand
A If at FL410, climb 500 ft, while turning towards the alternate
B about ten seconds beforehand aerodrome.
B If at FL410, climb or descend 500 ft, while turning towards

C as soon as they hear the engines noise
the alternate aerodrome.
D from the beginning of the takeoff roll C If at FL410, descend 1000 ft, while turning towards the
alternate aerodrome.
8) If the EPR probe becomes covered with ice, EPR D If at FL410, climb 1000 ft or descend 500 ft, while turning
indications will be: towards the alternate aerodrome.
A Less than the actual.

13) At a high ambient temperature (+ 30° C) and with a
B Equal to the actual. relative humidity as low as 40 %, in air free of cloud, fog
and precipitation, serious carburettor icing :
C Dependent on the temperature.
A is possible at any setting
D Greater than the actual.
B can occur, but only at a low power setting
C cannot occur
9) The minimum equipment list of a public transport
airplane is to be found in the : D can occur, but only at full power or cruise settings
A flight record.
B operation manual. 14) In case of a hi-jack, the squawk code is :
C JAR OPS. A 7600
D flight manual. B 7700
C 2000
24) Which errors in "estimates" minutes shall be reported
by aircraft overflying the North Atlantic? D 7500
A 2 or more.
15) When refueling is being performed while passengers are
B 3 or more. boarding or disembarking the aircraft, it is necessary
that: (Annex 6, Part I)
C 5 or more.
A Communications be maintained between ground personnel
D 10 or more. and qualified personnel on board.
B The aircraft's stairs be completely extended.
11) The most efficient bird scaring technique generally

available is : C Refueling is prohibited while passengers are boarding
and/or disembarking.
A firing shellcrackers D All the flight crew be on board.
B various visual methods
C the use of model predators, scarecrows, etc
D broadcasting of recorded distress calls
16) (For this question use appendix ) 20) The ascent or descent through MNPS (Minimum
Navigation Performance Specification) airspace of a non
For the two labels represented in the appendix, the MNPS certified aircraft is :
principal and secondary risks are respectively:
A forbidden in all cases
A toxic material, corrosive
B authorized when the aircraft has two precision navigation
B corrosive material, toxic systems
C corrosive material, infectious C authorized only if the aircraft is in radio contact with the
aircraft present in this space
D infectious material, corrosive
D authorized under radar control if the aircraft is in VHF
contact with the MNPS controller
17) In accordance with DOC 4444 (ICAO) when a MEDIUM

and a LIGHT aircraft are using the same runway, or 21) The reference document dealing with air transport of
parallel runways separated by less than 760 m, (in hazardous materials is :
approach or departure phases of flight), shall be applied
a wake turbulence radar separation minima of : A Instruction No. 300 of June 3, 1957
A 4 NM
B ICAO Appendix 18
B 3 NM
C ICAO Appendix 8
C 2 NM
D the Washington Convention
D 5 NM
10) The validity period of a "certificate of airworthiness"

varies with the conditions under which the aircraft is
18) The minimum lateral spacing to be maintained between maintained.
aircraft flying in MNPS airspace is : If the maintenance is carried out according to an
approved programme and done in a maintenance shop
A 30 NM. approved by the Minister of Civil Aviation, the validity
period is:
B 90 NM.
A three years.
C 120 NM.
B three years for public transport aircraft and one year for the
D 60 NM. others.
C three years for public transport aircraft and five years for the
others.
19) During a conventional approach, the Minimum Descent
Height (MDH) is referred to the runway threshold altitude D three years if the aircraft has not undergone major
and not to the aerodrome altitude if the runway modifications.
threshold is at more than :
A 2 m (7 ft) below the airdrome altitude 79) Which separation will be provided if Reduced Vertical
Separation Minimum (RVSM) is used when operating in
B 2 m (7 ft) above the airdrome altitude MNPS airspace?
C 4 m (14 ft) below the airdrome altitude A 60 NM lateral and 500 ft vertical.
D 4 m (14 ft) above the airdrome altitude B 90 NM lateral and 500 ft vertical.
C 60 NM lateral and 1000 ft vertical.
D 90 NM lateral and 1000 ft vertical.
69) The chart in question is of the polar stereographic type 72) In case of a ditching, the cabin attendants will :
with its grid parallel to the zero meridian, and Grid North
in the direction of the North geographic pole. The gyro 1. evacuate women and children first.
does not comprise a rate correction device. 2. have the passengers embark directly in the liferafts.
The gyro-magnetic compass of an aircraft standing at an 3. prevent passenger movements which may impede the
aerodrome located at 59°57'N 010°30'E is switched to airplane's flotation ability.
free gyro mode at 14.00 UTC, with gyro North being 4. ensure the complete evacuation of the airplane.
aligned with Grid North and the gyro heading reading
120°. A technical problem delays take off until 16.30 The combination regrouping all the correct statements
UTC. The gyro, whose mechanical precession is zero, is:
was not reset prior to take off.
The error (E) at the time of alignment on this runway will A 1, 4
be :
B 2, 3, 4
A +32.5°.
C 2, 3
B +13°.
D 1, 2, 3, 4
C +73.5°.
D -32.5°.
73) A check on the operation of the SELCAL equipment
during a transatlantic flight using the OTS (Organised
Track System) must be done :
70) Noise attenuation shall not be the determining factor in
the designation of a runway, under the following A Prior entering the NAT region.
circumstances :
B As soon as possible after entering the NAT region.
1. when cross wind component, including gust, exceeds
15 knots.
2. when the tail wind component, including gust, C When crossing the oceanic airspace boundary.
exceeds 5 knots.
3. when the runway is not clear or dry. D At or prior entering the NAT region.

is : The pilot of a category A aircraft is flying a non-
74)
precision direct IFR approach with the following
A 1,3. operational minimums: MDH 250 feet and visibility 750
metres. RVR for threshold, mid and end of the runway
B 2,3. are given by the controller...
C 1,2,3. A flying a non-precision approach, the pilot may start the final
approach only if he has a meteorological visibility higher than
D 1,2. 750 metres. RVR are to be taken into account only for
precision approaches.
B the pilot may start the final approach if the threshold RVR is
71) For the purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is higher than 750 metres.
the minimum separation time that is permitted when a
light aircraft is taking off behind a heavy aircraft from an C the pilot may start the final approach if the threshold and mid-
intermediate part of the same runway ? runway RVR are higher than 750 metres.
A 3 minutes D the pilot may start the final approach if the three RVR are
higher than 750 metres.
B 4 minutes
C 5 minutes 75) A four-jet aircraft must be equipped with an in-flight fuel

jettisoning system in order to reduce the aircraft weight
D 2 minutes in an emergency :
A unless it is capable of meeting the climb requirements :

2.7% in approach configuration with 1 engine inoperative
and 3.2% in landing configuration with all engines operative
B until the central tank is empty in order to cope with the wing
and landing gear constraints at landing touchdown
C in order to reach the maximum structural landing weight in

less than 15 minutes after activation of the jettisoning system
D in order to reduce the landing distance to 60% of the

effective runway length
76) In addition to the languages required by the State of 80) Which one of the following sets of conditions is the least
Origin, what language should be set for the markings likely to attract flocks of birds ?
related to dangerous goods :
A an area liable to flooding
A English, French or Spanish
B short gang-mown grass
B English
C long grass
C French
D edible rubbish
D Spanish
81) For a twin-engine aeroplane, the standard operational

44) An aircraft flies a VOR/DME direct approach for which take-off minimums may be used provided an alternate
the operational minima are : MDH = 360 feet, horizontal aerodrome is accessible at less than:
visibility = 1 500 metres :
Visibility given by ATC and received by the crew is 2 500 A 60 minutes at cruising speed all engines running.
metres :
B 60 minutes at cruising speed with one engine unserviceable.
The pilot may start the final approach...
A if the ceiling transmitted by ATC and received by the crew is

C 30 minutes at cruising speed with one engine unserviceable.
higher than 240 feet.
D 30 minutes at cruising speed all engines running.
B if the ceiling transmitted by ATC and received by the crew is
higher than 240 feet during the day and 360 feet at night.
82) MNPS is the abbreviation for:
C whatever the ceiling given by ATC.
D if the ceiling transmitted by ATC and received by the crew is A Minimum Navigation Performance Specification.
higher than 360 feet.
B Maximum North-atlantic Precision System.
78) In accordance with JAR OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome C Military Network Performance Structure.
Operating Minima), the Category III A Operation, is a
precision instrument approach and landing using ILS or D Minimum Navigation Positioning System.
MLS with a decision height lower than 100 feet an RVR
(runway visual range) no less than :
A 230 m 83) Flight data recorders must keep the data and parameters
recorded during at least the last :
B 300 m
A flight.
C 200 m
B 48 hours of operation.
D 250 m
C 25 hours of operation.
D 30 hours of operation.
66) A CO2 fire extinguisher can be used for:
1. a paper fire
2. a hydrocarbon fire 84) If obliged to jettison part of the fuel in flight, it would be
3. a fabric fire better to do so:
5. a wood fire A under flight level 50 (FL50).
The combination regrouping all the correct statements B during final phase of approach.
is:
C in a straight line and at a relatively high flight level.
A 1, 3, 5
D in a holding stack, after control clearance.
B 2, 3, 4
C 2, 4, 5
D 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
85) Following an explosive decompression, if you are using 77) When setting up a minimum noise climb, the minimum
an oxygen diluter demand system, the regulator height at which a power reduction shall be allowed is :
controls the amount of air that is mixed with pure
oxygen when the supply selector is at the "normal" A 600 m (2000 ft)
position. At what approximate altitude will the regulator
supply to the mask become pure oxygen only ? B 300 m (1000 ft)
A 32000 ft
C 450 m (1500 ft)
B 25000 ft
D 150 m (500 ft)
C 14000 ft
D 8000 ft 57) Minimum Navigation Performance Specification (MNPS)

airspace of the North Atlantic is comprised within :
A sea level and FL660 from North parallel 27 to the pole

86) The correct definition of a safe forced landing is:
B flight levels 280 and 475 from North parallel 27 to the pole
A a voluntary landing on land or sea carried out by the crew in
order to protect the aircraft and its occupants C flight levels 285 and 420 from the North parallel 27 to the
pole
B an inevitable landing on land or sea from which one may
reasonably expect no injuries on board D flight levels 270 and 400 from the equator to the pole
C an inevitable landing on land or sea from which one may

reasonably expect no injuries on board or on the surface
179) Wake turbulence should be taken into account when :
D a landing on land or sea from which it is guaranteed no
injuries will result to the occupants A during cruise the vertical separation is reduced to 1000 ft.
B a preceding aeroplane has performed low altitude high roll

87) On board a pressurized aircraft, a flight shall be rate rolling manoeuvres over the runway.
undertaken only if the aircraft is provided with an
oxygen reserve enabling all the crew members and part C a much heavier aeroplane has landed just previously on the
of the passengers to be supplied with oxygen in the same runway, a light crosswind condition exist and all high-
event of a cabin depressurization, throughout the flight lift devices are being used.
period, during which the pressure altitude is greater
than : D when just before the landing a much lighter aeroplane has
landed with a strong crosswind on a long runway.
A 11 000 ft.
B 12 000 ft. 47) A class B fire is a fire of:
C 13 000 ft.
A electrical source fire
D 10 000 ft.
B special fire: metal, gas, chemical product
C liquid or liquefiable solid

88) In a microburst combined with a violent storm the winds
at : D solid material usually of organic nature
A low altitude diverge from the center of the phenomenon and
the atmospheric pressure increases by a few hectopascals.
48) Due to a cabin pressurisation defect the maximum
B low altitude diverge from the center of the phenomenon and differential pressure is limited to 3 psi. Assuming the
the atmospheric pressure decreases by a few hectopascals. oxygen masks will be deployed at 14000 feet, the
maximum achievable flight altitude is approximately :
C high altitude converge on the center of the phenomenon and
the atmospheric pressure increases by a few hectopascals. A 24500 ft
D low altitude converge on the center of the phenomenon and B 22500 ft

the atmospheric pressure decreases by a few hectopascals.
C 27000 ft
D 29000 ft
49) Who checks, before flight, that the aircraft's weight is 52) For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 8 bars, there is a
such that flight can be safely made, and that any risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as the :
transported cargo is properly distributed and secured?
(Annex 6, Part I) 1- water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves.
2- speed is greater than 96 kt.
A The mechanic on board, or in his absence the co-pilot. 3- water height is equal to the half of the depth of the
tyre grooves.
B The company's cargo technicians. 4- speed is greater than 127 kt.

C The captain.
is:
D The operator. A 1 and 2.
B 1 and 4.
50) Aircraft using a VFR flight plan in controlled airspace
shall be equipped: (Annex 6, Part I) C 2 and 3.
A Only as is necessary for aircraft that make VFR flights. D 3 and 4.
B With more anti-icing and/or de-icing devices (if one expects

icy conditions).
53) In the event of a contingency which required an en-route
C As is necessary for aircraft that make VFR flights, and such diversion to an alternate aerodrome across the direction
aircraft must also possess indicators of attitude and course, of the prevailing "NAT" traffic flow and if prior ATC
along with a precise barometric altimeter. clearance cannot be obtained an aircraft able to
maintain its assigned flight level should :
D As is necessary for aircraft that operate in accordance with
instrument flight rules. A If below FL410, climb or descend 1000 ft, while turning
towards the alternate aerodrome.
B If above FL410, climb or descend 1000 ft, while turning

51) (For this question use annex 071-9199A) towards the alternate aerodrome.
Considering the two holds of an aircraft :
Each one consists of 4 compartments to accommodate
freight pallets or luggage containers.
C If below FL410, climb 500 ft or descend 1000 ft, while
turning towards the alternate aerodrome.
You are asked to load :
2 pallets of live animals marked "AVI" D If above FL410, climb 1000 ft or descend 500 ft, while
2 luggage containers marked "BAG" turning towards the alternate aerodrome.
1 mortal remains marked "HUM"
1 pallet of food product marked "EAT"
1 pallet of radioactive materials marked "RRY"
1 pallet of toxic materials marked "RHF" 54) The time needed for the dissipation of a turbulent wake
The locations still vacant shall be marked "XXX" created by a wide-body aircraft during take-off is about:
According to the table of compatibility of special freight
and hazardous materials given in the appendix, the most A 10 minutes.
operational distribution in the holds shall be :
B 3 minutes.
A Hold 1 : BAG - BAG - RRY - HUM
Hold 2 : AVI - AVI - XXX - EAT (RHF disembarked) C 30 seconds.
B Hold 1 : BAG - RHF - HUM - RRY D 1 minute.

Hold 2 : AVI - AVI - BAG - EAT
C Hold 1 : EAT - BAG - RRY - RHF

Hold 2 : BAG - AVI - AVI - HUM 68) Posit :
D Hold 1 : EAT - BAG - AVI - AVI g, the longitude difference

Hold 2 : BAG - HUM - RRY - RHF Lm, the average latitude
Lo, the latitude of the tangent
The correct formula expressing the travel precession

applied during a transoceanic and polar navigation, is
equal to :
A g.sin Lm
B g.(sin Lm-sin Lo)
C g/2.sin Lm
D 15°/h.sin Lm
56) Information concerning evacuation procedures can be 60) Flights within NAT region shall be conducted in
found in the : accordance with IFR when:
A operational flight plan. A Operating more than 100 NM seaward from the shoreline
within uncontrolled airspace.
B operation manual.
B Operating at or above FL 60 or 2000 ft whichever is higher.
C flight manual.
C Flying above 3000 ft.
D journey logbook.
D Operating more than 100 NM seaward from the shoreline
within controlled airspace.
67) During an ILS procedure, if the information transmitted

by the appropriate services and received by the crew
61) When taking-off behind a wide-body aircraft, with wind
contains parameters below the crew's operational
coming from the right side, you adopt a path, whenever
minimums, the point beyond which the approach must
possible :
not be continued is:
A the middle marker.

A distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining on the
right of and above its path.
B the start final descent point (glide slope intersection). B distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining on the left
of and under its path.
C the outer marker (OM).
C identical to the one of the preceding airplane.
D the FAF.
D different from the preceding airplane, by remaining behind it
and under its path.
58) If smoke appears in the air conditioning, the first action
to take is to :
62) The term decision height (DH) is used for :
A Determine which system is causing the smoke.
A a conventional approach.
B Cut off all air conditioning units.
B an indirect approach.
C Put on the mask and goggles.
C a conventional approach followed by a visual maneuver.
D Begin an emergency descent.
D a precision approach.
59) During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to

windshear with a decreasing head wind. In the absence 63) Products or materials are considered to be dangerous
of a pilot action, the aircraft : goods if the products or materials in question are
defined as such by:
1. flies above the glide path
2. flies below the glide path
3. has an increasing true airspeed
A The directives of the Community Union.
4. has a decreasing true airspeed
B The IATA document entitled "Regulations governing the
The combination of correct statements is : transportation of dangerous goods by air".
A 2,3 C The ICAO document entitled "Technical Instructions for the

safe transport of dangerous goods by air".
B 1,3 D The UNO document entitled "Dangerous Goods
Regulations".
C 1,4
D 2,4 64) What is the transponder code to be used by an aircraft

that is subject to unlawful interference (hijacked) is :
A 7500
B 7600
C 7700
D 7800
65) On a polar stereographic chart where the earth 268) Who has the responsibility to take adequate measures
convergence between 2 points located on the parallel for the safety of passengers and crew of an aircraft
60°N is 20°, the great circle maximum cross-track which is subjected to an act of unlawful interference
difference with the straight line joining the 2 points is : until their journey can be continued ? The :
A 30 NM. A contracting State in which the unlawful interference occurs
B 4.0 NM. B J.A.A.
C 9.2 NM. C Commander of the aircraft
D 4.0 NM. D aeroplane's operator
45) The information to consider for a standard straight-in 292) The wake turbulence is greater when the aircraft has a :
approach is :
1 - the horizontal visibility A high weight and low speed

2 - the ceiling
3 - the minimum descending altitude (MDA) B high weight and high speed
4 - the decision altitude (DA)
C low weight and low speed
correct statements? D low weight and high speed
A 1-3
B 1-4 293) Who has the responsibility for establishing operating

procedures for noise abatement purposes during
instrument flight in compliance with ICAO PANS OPS
C 1-2-3
the :
D 1-2-4 A state in which the aeroplane is operating
B commander
55) The terminal VOR transmittes the following weather
data. When do you expect carburettor icing? C operator
A Outside Air Temperature (OAT) : -10°C D state of the operator

Dew point (DEWP) : -15°C
B Outside Air Temperature (OAT) : +10°C

Dew Point (DEWP) : +7°C 294) When an aircraft, having already undergone an anti-
icing procedure, must be protected again:
C Outside Air Temperature (OAT) : +15°C
Dew Point (DEWP) : -5°C A you must wait until the protection time of the anti-icing fluid
is over before applying the new layer of anti-icing fluid.
D Outside Air Temperature (OAT) : +25°C
Dew Point (DEWP) : +5°C B First, you must de-ice again the surface of the airplane,
then apply the new layer of anti-icing fluid.
301) A runway covered with 4 mm thick water, is said to be: C You can apply directly the new layer of anti-icing fluid without
previous de-icing.
A wet. D You must operate the aircraft de-icing/anti-icing devices

before applying the new layer of anti-icing fluid.
B flooded.
C damp. 295) In what period of time must a fuel jettisoning system be

capable of jettisoning sufficient fuel to meet the precise
D contaminated. climb and discontinued approach requirements :
A 60 minutes
B 90 minutes
C 15 minutes
D 30 minutes
296) An operator must ensure that for the duration of each 300) The determination of the aerodrome minimum operating
flight, be kept on the ground, if required: conditions must take the following into account :
A a copy of the calculated take-off performances. 1. equipment available for navigation

2. dimensions and characteristics of the runways
B the calculation of the airborne fuel quantity. 3. composition of the flight crew
4. obstacles in the vicinity of approach and missed
approach areas
C the aircraft equipment report (logbook).
5. facilities for determining and communicating the
weather conditions
D a copy of the weight and balance sheet.
is :
297) While approaching the outer-marker, the tower informs
you about the presence of a "microburst". You will A 1,2,3,4,5
expect to encounter:
B 1,2,4,5
A supercooled water.
C 2,4,5
B convection motion of air mass.
D 2,3,5
C windshears (vertical and horizontal).
D wake turbulence . 289) For a given aircraft and runway contamination,

increased pressure altitude will:
298) The chart is a South polar stereographic projection of A decreases the hydroplaning speed.
the Antarctic regions. A grid, printed over it, its aligned
with meridian 180°, the grid North in the direction of the B maintains the hydroplaning speed.
geographic North (non standard grid).
The grid course followed by the aircraft is Rg=280°, the C maintains or increases the hydroplaning speed.
position is 80°S 100°E.
The true course followed at this moment is : D increases the hydroplaning speed.
A 260°.
B 080°. 302) For an operation in MNPS airspace along notified

special routes unless otherwise specified, an aircraft
must be equipped with at least:
C 100°.
A One Inertial Navigation System (INS).
D 000°.
B Two Inertial Navigation Systems (INS).
290) For aircraft certified before the 1 april 1998, cockpit C Two independant Long Range Navigation Systems (LRNS).
voice recorder must keep the conversations and sound
alarms recorded during the last : D One Long Range Navigation System (LNRS).
A 30 minutes of operation.
B 25 hours of operation. 303) The wake turbulence is the most severe when the
aircraft is :
C flight.
1. slow
2. heavy
D 48 hours of operation. 3. in a clean configuration
4. flying with a high thrust
A 1, 2, 3
B 1, 4
C 1, 2, 3, 4
D 2, 3, 4
304) The flight deck door should be capable of being : 308) An air traffic units may request the aircraft to report
position when flying east-west north of 70°N between
10°W and 50°W, every:
A directly locked from outside the compartment
A 5° of longitude.
B remotely locked by cabin crew operation from outside the
compartment B 20° of longitude.
C remotely locked from either inside or outside the

compartment C 10° of longitude.
D locked from within the compartment D 15° of longitude.
305) After a landing, with overweight and overspeed 309) In the event of communication failure in an MNPS
conditions, the tyres and brakes are extremely hot. The (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification)
fireguards should approach the landing gear tyres: airspace, the pilot must:
A only from left or right side. A continue his flight compliance with the last oceanic
clearance received and acknowledge by him.
B from any side.
B return to his flight plan route if its different from the last
oceanic clearance received and acknowledge by him.
C under no circumstances.
C join one of the so-called "special" routes.
D only from front or rear side.
D change the flight level in accordance with the predetermined
instructions.
306) Following an emergency landing which will need an
escape from the aircraft, you will:
310) The accumulation of snow or ice on an aircraft in flight
1 - remain on the runway, induces an increase in the:
2 - clear the runway using the first available taxiway,
3 - keep one engine or the APU running in order to A roll rate
maintain the electrical power supply on,
4 - turn off all systems. B stalling speed
is: C value of the stall angle of attack
A 2,4. D tuck under
B 1,4.
299) An aircraft leaves point P (60°N 030°W) on a true
C 1,3. heading equal to 090° while the gyro compass, which is
assumed to be operating perfecly and without an hourly
D 2,3. rate corrector unit, indicates 000°.
The aircraft arrives at point Q (62°N 010°W) on a true
heading equal to 095°. On the journey from P to Q the
gyro compass remains in free gyro mode.
307) (For this question use appendix ) If the flight lasted 1 hour 30 minutes, the gyro heading at
Q will be :
If a packet is marked with the label shown in the
appendix it is : A 345°.
A a toxic material or gas B 003°.
B a corpse C 334°.
C an infectious material D 328°.
D an explosive material
279) ICAO (International Civil Aviation Organization) 272) For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 16 bars, there is a
Appendix 18 is a document dealing with : risk of dynamic hydroplaning as soon as :
A the noise pollution of aircraft 1- water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves.
B the technical operational use of aircraft 3- water height is equal to the half of the depth of the
tyre grooves.
C the safety of the air transport of hazardous materials
D the air transport of live animals is:
A 1 and 2.
177) A life jacket is mandatory for any passenger on board an
aircraft flying away from the shore by more than : B 1 and 4.
A 400 NM C 2 and 3.
B 50 NM D 3 and 4.
C 100 NM
273) If cabin altitude increases during level flight, the
D 200 NM differential pressure :
A increases
270) In MNPS airspace, the speed reference is the:
B remains constant
A indicated airspeed.
C attains its maximum permitted operating limit
B Mach number. D decreases
C ground speed.
D true airspeed. 274) After take-off, an aircraft is subjected to windshear with

a decreasing head wind. In the absence of a pilot action,
the aircraft :
271) The anti-icing fluid protecting film can wear off and 1- flies above the climb-out path
reduce considerably the protection time: 2- flies below the climb-out path
A during strong winds or as a result of the other aircraft 4- has a decreasing true airspeed
engines jet wash.
B when the outside temperature is close to 0 °C.
A 1,4.
C when the temperature of the airplane skin is close to 0 °C.
B 2,4.
D when the airplane is into the wind.
C 2,3.
D 1,3.
275) To use passengers oxygen in case of severe cabin

smoke is:
A useless because breathing oxygen would explode under

smoke conditions.
B possible and recommended.
C useless because the toxical cabin smoke is mixed with the

breathing oxygen.
D useless because the oxygen units do not operate under

smoke conditions.
276) In accordance with ICAO and PANS RAC procedures, 280) If you encounter a "microburst" just after taking-off, at
which letter should be entered into a flight plan to the beginning you will have:
denote an aeroplane which has a weight of less than
136000 kg but greater than 7000 kg : 1 - a head wind
2 - a strong rear wind
A H 3 - better climb performances
4 - a diminution of climb gradient
B L 5 - an important thrust drop

C S
is :
D M A 2,4
B 1,4
291) During an aircraft de-icing/anti-icing procedure:
C 4,5
A the anti-icing fluid is applied without heating and the de-icing
fluid is applied hot. D 1,3
B the anti-icing and de-icing fluids are applied hot.

281) A water fire extinguisher can be used without restriction
C the anti-icing and de-icing fluids are applied cold. for:
D the de-icing fluid is applied without heating and the anti-icing 1. a paper fire
fluid is applied hot. 2. a hydrocarbon fire
3. a fabric fire
5. a wood fire
278) According to the recommended noise abatement
procedures contained in the ICAO, DOC 8268 Volume I
part V, data available indicates that the procedure which
is:
results in noise relief during the part of the procedure
close to the airport :
A 2, 3, 4
A is procedure A
B 2, 4, 5
B is either procedure A or B, because there is not difference in
noise distribution C 1, 3, 5
C depends on the wind component D 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
D is procedure B
282) One shall not initiate any flight made in accordance with
instrument flight rules unless the available information
313) To extinguish a fire in the cockpit, you use: indicates that the conditions at the aerodrome of
predicted destination or, at an aerodrome of alternative
1. a water fire-extinguisher destination, are: (Annex 6, Part I)
2. a powder or chemical fire-extinguisher
3. a halon fire-extinguisher A At the predicted time of arrival equal to or better than the
4. a CO2 fire-extinguisher minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements B At the predicted time of take-off equal to or better than the
is: minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.
A 3, 4 C At the predicted time of arrival, and for a reasonable period

before and after such a predicted time, equal to or better
than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.
B 1, 2, 3, 4
D At the predicted time of arrival better than the minimum
C 1, 2 conditions required for aerodrome use.
D 2, 3, 4
283) 90 % of bird strikes occur : 287) When the weather conditions require an alternate
aerodrome to be available on take-off, the latter shall be
located, for aircraft with three or more engines, at an
A between 500 and 1 000 m equivalent distance not exceeding :
B between 500 and 1 500 m A 1 hour of flight at cruising speed with all enginesoperating
C under 500 m B 2 hours of flight at cruising speed with 1 engine inoperative
D above 1 000 m C 2 hours of flight at cruising speed with all engines operating
D 1 hour of flight at cruising speed with all engine inoperative

284) The "NO SMOKING" sign must be illuminated :
A when oxygen is being supplied in the cabin. 288) For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 10 bars, there is
B during climb and descent. 1- water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves.
C in each cabin section if oxygen is being carried. 3- water height is equal to the half of the depth of the
tyre grooves.
D during take off and landing. 4- speed is greater than 96 kt.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements i :

285) Each flight is subject to a preliminary file collecting a A 2 and 3.
certain amount of information. The operator will see that
this file is kept on ground. It contains more particularly:
B 3 and 4.
1 - the weather conditions for the day including the
weather forecast at destination, C 1 and 2.
2 - one copy of the operational flight plan and, if
required, the weight and balance sheet, D 1 and 4.
3 - copies of the relevant parts of the aircraft's materiel
report,
4 - the en-route NOTAM documentation when
specifically issued by the operator, 277) An aircraft flying above flight level 410 on MNPS
5 - notification for special loadings, Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with
6 - for each flight, details of the day's performances and its air traffic control clearance (degradation of
limitations with completed charts. navigational performance requirements, mechanics
troubles... etc), bus is able to maintain its assigned level,
The combination regrouping all the correct statements and due to a total loss of communications capability,
is: could not obtain a revised clearance from ATC. The
aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by
A 2,4 turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right of left whenever this
is possible, and the subsequent action will be, turn to
acquire and maintain in either direction track laterally
B 2,3,4,5 separated by 30 NM from its assigned route and :
C 1,2,3,4,5,6 A climb or descend 1 000 ft
D 1,3,5 B climb or descent 500 ft
C climb 1 000 ft or descent 500 ft

286) During a flight to Europe, planned in MNPS (Minimum
Navigation Performance Specification) airspace, you D climb 500 ft or descend 1 000 ft
expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 00H30 UTC ; you
will then normally be ;
A within the organized daytime flight track system 346) A category III C precision approach (CAT III C) is an
approach with :
B within the organized night-time flight track system
A no runway visual range limits
C in a random space
B a runway visual range of at least 50 m
D out of the organized flight track system

C a runway visual range of at least 200 m
D a runway visual range of at least 350 m
336) A category III A precision approach (CAT III A) is an 340) In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an operator shall ensure
approach which may be carried out with a runway visual that a pilot does not operate an aeroplane as pilot-in-
range of at least : command unless :
A 200 m A he has carried out at least three take-off and three landings
as pilot flying in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator
B 100 m of the type to be used, in the preceding 90 days
B he has carried out at least three flights as pilot-in-command

C 250 m
in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator of the type to
be used, in the preceding 90 days
D 50 m
C he has carried out at least three take-off and three landings
as pilot flying in any type of aeroplane or an approved
337) A piece of equipment on your public transport airplane simulator, under the supervision of an examiner, in the
fails while you are still parked. The reference document preceding 60 days
you use to decide on the procedure to follow is:
D he has carried out at least three take-off and three landings
as pilot flying in an aeroplane or an approved flight simulator
A the JAR OPS.
of the type to be used, in the preceding 30 days
B the flight manual.
341) In the event of an en-route HF communication failure in
C the minimum equipment list.
an MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance
Specification) airspace, the appropriate VHF frequency
D the operation manual's chapter "Abnormal and Emergency for air-air communications is :
procedures".
A 128.800 MHz.
338) The minimum flight crew for night transport of B 131.800 MHz.
passengers or according to the Instrument flight rules is
:
C 118.800 MHz.
A 2 pilots for any turbo-prop aircraft weighing more than 5.7

D 121.800 MHz.
tons or for any turbo-jet aircraft
B 2 pilots for turbo-jet aircraft and turbo-prop aircraft with

more than 9 passenger seats 342) For twin-engined aircraft, the take-off alternate shall be
located at a distance that : (Annex 6, Part I)
C 2 pilots for any aircraft weighing more than 5.7 tons or
having more than 9 passenger seats A Does not exceed the equivalent of two hours of flight time, at
cruising speed with only one engine operative.
D 1 pilot for any aircraft weighing less than 5.7 tons, provided
that the maximum certified number of passenger seats is B Does not exceed the equivalent of one hour of flight time at
less than 9 cruising speed all engines operating.
C Does not exceed the equivalent of two hour of flight time at

339) During a flight to Europe, scheduled in MNPS (Minimum cruising speed all engines operating.
Navigation Performance Spécification) airspace, you
expect to cross the 30°W meridian at 2330 UTC ; you will D Does not exceed the equivalent of one hour of flight time, at
normally be : cruising speed with only one engine operative.
A in a day flight route system

343) For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the
B in a night flight route system ICAO minimum radar separation time if a light
aeroplance (7000 kg or less) is following a medium
C out of the organized route system aeroplane (less than 136000 kg but more than 7000 kg)
on the approach to landing ?
D in random airspace
A 4 minutes
B 5 minutess
C 2 minutes
D 3 minutes
311) With the Control Display Unit (CDU) of an Inertial 347) In case of an unexpected encounter with windshear, you
Navigation System (INS), you can read the following will:
information :
1. set the maximum take-off thrust
- Desired track (DTK) = 100° 2. increase the pitch-up attitude up to the limit actuating
- Track (TK) = 120° the stick shaker
3. pull in the drag devices (gear and flaps)
You can conclude that the : 4. keep the airplane's current configuration
5. try to reach the maximum lift-to-drag ratio
A Track Error Angle (TKE) is left (L)
B Aircraft is converging towards its ideal course is:
C Aircraft is diverging from its ideal course

A 1, 3, 5
D Track Error Angle (TKE) is right (R)

B 2, 3
C 3, 5
345) JAR-OPS 1 establishes that, a co-pilot is not assigned to D 1, 2, 4

operate at the flight controls during take-off and landing
unless :
A he has carried out as-pilot-in-command or as co-pilot at lest 348) A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an approach
three take-off and three landings in an aeroplane or an with :
approved flight simulator of the type used, in the preceding
30 days A a decision height of at least 100 ft
B he has carried out at least three flights as pilot-in-command B a decision height of at least 200 ft
or as a co-pilot at the controls of the type to be used, in the
preceding 90 days.
C a decision height of at least 50 ft
C he has operated as pilot-in-command or as co-pilot at the
controls during take-off and landing of the type to be used in D no decision height
the preceding 90 days.
D he has carried out as pilot-in-command or as co-pilot at 349) At which levels may Reduced Vertical Separation
least three take-off and three landings in an aeroplane or an Minimum (RVSM) be used within NAT region?
approved flight simulator of the type used, in the preceding
90 days.
A Below FL290.
B Between FL290 and FL410.

333) An aircraft flying at flight level 370 (FL 370) on MNPS
Airspace is unable to continue flight in accordance with
its air traffic control clearance (degradation of C Between FL275 and FL400.
navigational performance requirements, mechanics
troubles .... etc), but is able to maintain its assigned D Between FL245 and FL410.
level (FL 370), and due to a total loss of communications
capability, could not obtain a revised clearance from
ATC. The aircraft should leave its assigned route or
350) When leaving the MNPS oceanic control area for a
track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to the right or left domestic controlled area, the pilot has to:
whenever this is possible, and the subsequent action
will be, turn to acquire and maintain in either direction a
track laterally separated by 30 NM from its assigned
A take the Mach number specified in this initial flight plan.
route and :
B take any Mach number.
A climb or descent 1 000 ft
C take the Mach number provided for this type of flight by his
B climb or descent 1 000 ft or descend 500 ft airline.
D maintain the Mach number previously assigned up to the

C climb 500 ft or descend 1 000 ft last position shown in the oceanic clearance.
D climb or descend 500 ft
351) The aircraft is a single engine, IFR, category A with a 355) According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-
cruising speed of 150 knots. The aircraft is flown by a radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied :
single pilot.
The usable runway has edge lights, high intensity A to LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from
runway centre lights and RVR readings for threshold an intermediate part of parallel runway separated by less
mid and end of runway. 760 m
The approach minimums for runway 06 are :
DH = 300 feet, B to a departing MEDIUM aircraft following a HEAVY aircraft
Horizontal visibility (HV) = 800 metres. arrival when operating on a runway with a desplaced landing
The weather conditions are : horizontal visibility (HV) threshold
900 metres and ceiling 200 feet.
C to an arriving LIGHT aircraft following a MEDIUM aircraft
Is take-off possible? departure when operating on a runway with a desplaced
landing threshold, if the projected flight paths are expected
A Yes, if there is an accessible airport within 75 NM. to cross
B No, the ceiling being below the DH for the runway's D Between a LIGHT aircraft and a MEDIUM aircraft making a
approach procedure. missed approach and the LIGHT aircraft utilizing an
opposite-direction runway for take-off
C No, visibility being below 1 200 metres.
D Yes, visibility being higher than the horizontal visibility for the 344) According DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-
approach procedure. radar separation minima of 2 minutes shall be applied to
:
352) If after anti-icing has been completed a pre-departure

A LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft
inspection reveals evidence of freezing, the correct
action is to : B MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft
A carry out a further de-icing process C MEDIUM aircraft taking-off behind a HEAVY aircraft from
an intermediate part of a parallel separated by less than 760
B complete departure as soon as possible to reduce the m
possibility of further freezing
D LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from an
C switch on all the aeroplane anti-icing and de-icing systems intermediate part of the same runway
and leave on until clear of icing conditions when airborne
D complete departure provided that the recommended anti- 324) A category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach
icing holdover (protection) time for the prevailing conditons which may be carried out with a runway visual range of
and type of fluid used has not been exceeded at least :
A 500 m
353) For the flight crew members, quickly-fitted oxygen
masks are compulsory on board any pressurized B 550 m
aircraft flying at a pressure altitude greater than :
C 350 m
A 25 000 ft
D 800 m
B 13 000 ft
C 29 000 ft
267) A polar stereographic chart has a grid printed over it
which is parallel to the meridian 054°W, with Grid North
D 10 000 ft in the direction of the North geographic pole.
An aircraft is following a true course of 330°.
At position 80°N 140°E, its grid heading (GH) with this
354) The Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) defines system will be :
the equipment on which certain in-flight failures can be
allowed and the conditions under which this allowance A 136°.
can be accepted. This MMEL is drawn up by :
B 276°.
A the operator from a main list drawn up by the manufacturer
C 316°.
B the manufacturer and approved by the certification authority
D 164°.
C the operator and is specified in the operation manual
D the operator and approved by the certification authority
314) According to the recommended "noise abatement take- 318) Wind shear is:
off and climb procedure A" established in ICAO, DOC
8168 Volume I part V, Chapter 3, thrust reduction to
climb power, has to be done as soon as the aircraft A a vertical or horizontal wind velocity and / or wind direction
reaches : over a large distance
A 3 000 ft B a vertical or horizontal wind velocity and / or wind direction

over a short distance
B 2 000 ft
C a horizontal wind velocity variation over a short distance
C 1 000 ft D a vertical wind velocity variation over a short distance
D 1 500 ft
319) The general information, instructions and

recommendations on the transport of hazardous
315) (For this question use annex 071-10645A) materials are specified in the :
Due to a cabin pressurisation defect the maximum
differential pressure is limited to 2 psi. Assuming the A flight manual.
oxygen masks will be deployed at 14000 feet, the
maximum achievable flight altitude is approximately : B AIP (Aeronautical Information Publication).
A 20750 ft
C air carrier certificate.
B 12000 ft
D operation manual.
C 8600 ft
D 2900 ft 320) A dry-chemical type fire extinguisher is fit to fight:
1- class A fires
2- class B fires
316) In the absence of wind and without the astronomic 3- electrical source fires
precession effect, an aircraft would, at a constant gyro 4- special fires: metals, gas, chemicals
heading, follow a :
A straight map line correct statements?
B great circle line A 2-4
C rhumb line B 3-4
D spherical flight segment C 1-2-3
D 1-2-3-4
317) An aircraft operating within MNPS Airspace is unable to
continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control
clearance (due to degradation of navigational 321) The M.M.E.L. (Master Minimum Equipment List) is
performance requirements), but is able to maintain its drawn up by :
assigned level,and due to a total loss of
communications capability, could not obtain a revised A the operator.
clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its
assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to B the aircraft manufacture'rs list.
the right or left whenever this is possible, and the
subsequent action will be, turn to acquire and maintain
in either direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM C the aircraft state of registry.
from its assigned route and climb 1 000 ft or descend
500 ft, if : D the manufacturer.
A at FL 430
B at FL410
C above FL 410
D below FL 410
335) On landing on an isolated field, the captain of a turbojet 326) The first part of the JAR-OPS applies to:
engined aircraft must mandatorily have a minimum
quantity of fuel and lubricant sufficient for flying during :
A the aircraft used by police, customs and defense
A 30 minutes with normal cruising consumption departments.
B the operation by a state member of the JAA of any civil

B 2 hours with normal cruising consumption aircraft.
C 2 hours at holding flight speed and 1500 ft C the operation by a state member of the JAA of any civil
commercial transport aircraft.
D 30 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ft
D the aircraft proceeding from European states or flying over
them.
323) A recent aircraft must be provided with a flight data

recorder when its certified take-off gross weight is
greater than : 327) In icing conditions and after the application of an anti-
icing fluid on your airplane, you are waiting to take-off
by:
A 27 000 kg
1. avoiding positioning yourself in the engine jet wash of
B 5 700 kg the preceding aircraft
2. avoiding positioning yourself in the turbo-props wash
C 14 000 kg of the preceding aircraft
3. positioning yourself in the engine jet wash of the
D 20 000 kg preceding aircraft
4. positioning yourself in the turbo-props wash of the
preceding aircraft
334) You will use a halon extinguisher for a fire of: The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:
1 - solids (fabric, plastic, ...)
2 - liquids (alcohol, gasoline, ...) A 3, 4
3 - gas
4 - metals (aluminium, magnesium, ...)
B 2, 3
is: C 1, 4
A 1,2,3,4 D 1, 2
B 2,3,4
328) According with DOC 4444 (ICAO), a wake turbulence non-
C 1,2,4 radar separation minima of 3 minutes shall be applied to
:
D 1,2,3
A LIGHT aircraft landing behind a MEDIUM aircraft
325) When establishing an instrument approach procedure, 5

B LIGHT aircraft taking-off behind a MEDIUM aircraft from a
parallel runway separated by less than 760 m. (using whole
aircraft categories according to their speed at the
runway)
threshold (Vat) are established. This speed is equal to
the stalling speed in the landing configuration at the
maximum certified landing weight multiplied by a factor C LIGHT aircraft taking -off behind a MEDIUM aircraft when
aircraft are using the same runway
of:
D MEDIUM aircraft landing behind a HEAVY aircraft
A 1.3
B 1.45
C 1.5
D 1.15
329) When flying in straight and level flight at FL 290 for 312) On an alternate field, the captain of turbojet engined
some considerable time a small leak develops in the aircraft must mandatorily have a quantity of fuel and
cabin which causes a slow depressurisation, this can be lubricant sufficient for flying during :
seen on the cabin rate of climb indicator which will
indicate : A 45 minutes at cruising speed
A a rate of descent dependent upon the cabin differential B 30 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ft
pressure
B a rate of climb C 45 minutes at holding flight speed and 1500 ft
D 30 minutes at cruising speed

C a rate of descent of approximately 300 fpm
D zero
The inertial navigation system (INS) indicates:

330) The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class Position: 71° 55.1'N 094°55.3'W
B fires are: Drift: 6°L (left)
1 - H2O The route followed in order to return to the VOR station
2 - CO2 is the meridian of the VOR station used:
3 - dry-chemical RESOLUTE BAY (74°43.6'N 094°55.3W), this VOR has
4 - halogen North set on the local geographic meridian.
The gyro compass has just been reset to Grid North
Which of the following combinations contains all of the (chart used: polar stereographic chart, grid parallel to
correct statements? zero meridian, Grid North in the direction of geographic
North Pole).
A 1-2-3-4 The correct representation of the RMI VOR/DME is at
this moment:
B 2 (the distance DME is in the box)
C 3-4 A 2
D 2-3-4 B 3
C 4
331) Selecting an alternate aerodrome the runway of this
facility must be sufficiently long to allow a full stop D 1
landing from 50 ft above the threshold (jet type aircraft,
dry runway) within:
212) During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to
A 60% of the landing distance available. windshear with an increasing tail wind. In the absence of
a pilot action, the aircraft :
B 70% of the landing distance available.
C 80% of the landing distance available. 2- flies below the gilde path
4- has a decreasing true airspeed
D 50% of the landing distance available.
332) Following an explosive decompression, the maximum A 2,3.

altitude without oxygen at which flying efficiency is not
impaired is : B 1,3.
A 14000 ft C 1,4.
B 2500 ft D 2,4.
C 8000 ft
D 25000 ft
269) During a landing approach, the aircraft is subjected to 206) The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is established by:
windshear with an increasing head wind.In the absence
of a pilot action, the aircraft :
A the aeronautical authority the airline operator depends on.
2- flies below theglide path B the Civil Aviation Authority of the european states.
4- has a decreasing true airspeed C the airline operator.
The combination of correct statements is : D the manufacturer.

A 1,3.
B 1,4. 207) On board a non-pressurized aircraft, the crew and all the
passengers must be fed with oxygen throughout the
flight period during which the pressure altitude is
C 2,3.
greater than :
D 2,4. A 13 000 ft
B 12 000 ft
203) On overwater flights, an operator shall not operate an
aeroplane at a distance away from land, which is C 11 000 ft
suitable for making a emergency landing greater than
that corresponding to : D 10 000 ft
A 400 NM or 120 minutes at cruising speed.
B 300 NM or 90 minutes at cruising speed. 208) After landing, in case of high temperature of the brakes
you:
C 200 NM or 45 minutes at cruising speed.
A apply the parking brake and approach the wheels sidewards.
D 100 NM or 30 minutes at cruising speed.
B release the parking brake and you approach the wheels
either from aft or fore.
204) A category B aircraft can carry out an indirect approach C release the parking brake and you approach the wheels
followed by a visual maneuver only if the horizontal sidewards.
visibility is higher than or equal to:
D apply the parking brake and you approach the wheels either
A 1500 m from fore or aft.
B 3600 m
209) The fire extinguisher types which may be used on class
C 2400 m A fires are:
1 - H2O
2 - CO2
D 1600 m
3 - dry-chemical
4 - halogen
205) An aircraft having undergone an anti-icing procedure Which of the following combinations contains all of the
and having exceeded the protection time of the anti- correct statements?
icing fluid:
A 1
A must only undergo a new anti-icing procedure for take-off.
B 3-4
B need not to undergo a new anti-icing procedure for take-off.
C 1-2-3-4
C must only undergo a de-icing procedure for take-off.
D 2-3-4
D must undergo a de-icing procedure before a new application
of anti-icing fluid for take-off.
201) A fire occurs in a wheel and immediate action is required 214) In the JAR OPS, a runway is refered to as contaminated
to extinguish it. The safest extinguishant to use is : when more than 25 % of the required runway surface is
covered with the one of the following elements:
A dry powder
1. a water film sufficiently thick to give a shiny
B water appearance to the runway.
2. a water film or loose or slushy snow equivalent to
more than 3 mm of water.
C CO2 (carbon dioxide)
3. compacted snow (a solid mass which may not be
compacted further).
D foam 4. ice, including wet ice.
5. moist grass.
211) For an airplane with a tyre pressure of 12 bars, there is is:
A 2, 3, 4
1- water height is equal to the depth of the tyre grooves.
2- speed is greater than 114 kt. B 1, 2, 3, 4
3- water height is equal to the half of the depth of the
tyre grooves. C 1, 3, 4
D 1, 3, 4, 5
is :
A 1 and 4. 215) Windshear may be described as a change in wind

direction and/or speed in space, including updraughts
B 2 and 3. and downdraughts. To counter the effects of windshear
the amount of control action that is required is :
C 3 and 4.
A substantial
D 1 and 2.
B small
C medium
200) For a given ambient temperature and type of de-icing
fluid used, in which one of the following types of D null
weather condition will the holdover (protection) time be
shortest ?
A Freezing rain 216) A analysis of the bird strikes shows that the highest risk
is encountered in a layer from :
B Steady snow
A from 0 to 150 m.
C Freezing fog
B from 500 to 1200 m.
D Frost
C from 100 to 800 m.
D from 200 to 500 m.

213) As regards the detection of bird strike hazard, the pilot's
means of information and prevention are:
1 - ATIS. 217) You will use a water fire-extinguisher (straight jet) on a

2 - NOTAMs. fire of :
3 - BIRDTAMs.
4 - Weather radar. 1 - solids (fabric, carpet, ...)
5 - The report by another crew. 2 - liquids (ether, gasoline, ...)
3 - gas
The combination regrouping all the correct statements 4 - metals (sodium, ...)
is :
A 1,2,5 is:
B 1,2,3,4,5 A 2
C 1,3,4 B 3
D 2,5 C 3 and 4
D 1
218) During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, 210) The operator will include in the operations manual a list
seeing an aircraft coming from the front left, will first see of minimum required equipment approved by : (Annex 6,
the : Part I)
A green flashing light A The country where the aircraft is operated.
B green steady light B It is not mandatory that such a book be approved by aviation
authorities.
C red steady light
C The country of the operator.
D white steady light
D The country where the aircraft was manufactured.
219) The dangerous goods transport document, if required,

shall be drawn up by : 190) After an accident, the operator of an airplane equipped
with a flight recorder must keep the original recordings
A the handling agent. for a minimum period of:
B the shipper.
A 90 days.
B 45 days.
C the operator.
D the captain. C 60 days.
D 30 days.
220) An airline operator shall make sure that if the aircraft

planned for the flight is a performance class B
aeroplane, it will be able, throughout its flight route or 180) In accordance with JAR-OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome
its alternate route scheduled from this initial route, to Operating Minima), the lowest minima to be used by an
reach a climb rate of at least : operator in a category B aeroplane for circling are :
A 500 ft/min with one engine inoperative and all the others A MDH=600 ft and visibility=2400 m
operating at maximum continuous power.
B MDH=700 ft and visibility=2600 m
B 300ft/min with all engines operating at maximum continuous
power. C MDH=500 ft and visibility=1600 m
C 300 ft/min with one engine inoperative and all the others
D MDH=400 ft and visibility=1500 m
operating at maximum continuous power.
D 500 ft/min with all engines operating at maximum cruise

power. 181) In accordance with JAR-OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome
Operationg Minima), an operator must ensure that
system minima for "non-precision approach
221) The North Atlantic airspace is regulated according to : procedures", which are based upon the use of ILS
without glidepath (LLZ only), VOR NDB, SRA, and VDF
are no lower than MDH following value with:
A rules issued by the bordering States (document 6530)
A VOR/DME facility, lowest MDH=300 ft
B rules common to the bordering States, grouped in document
7050 (North Atlantic Ocean Airspace) B NDB facility, lowest MDH=300 ft
C Canadian rules, because this country has the greatest

C ILS facility without glidepath (localizer) lowest MDH=200 ft
surface area of territorial waters in this airspace
D the ICAO document 7030 (additional regional procedures) D VOR facility, lowest MDH=250 ft
182) (For this question use annex 071-2083A) 186) Following a heavy mass landing on a short runway, you
In order to meet the "twin-engine" flight standards should check the :
authorised by the official departments of his company
(1hour 45 minutes flight on 1 engine at an air speed of A temperature of the hydraulic fluid.
420 kt to reach the alternate aerodromes in still air
conditions), a pilot has to choose an ATC route, in B pressure of the hydraulic fluid.
Minimum Navigation Performance Specification area,
while at the same time taking the shortest possible time.
Given that the three alternate aerodromes taken into C pressure of the pneumatic tyres.
account are SHANNON, SANTA MARIA, ST JOHN
TORBAY, the track to be chosen between PARIS and D temperature of the brakes.
WASHINGTON will be:
A Track A , time 8 hours 3 minutes. 187) Mist in the cabin, pressure and temperature drop
characterize:
B Track D , time 8 hours 20 minutes.
A an electrical fire.
C Track B , time 8 hours 10 minutes.
B a plastic fire.
D Track C , time 8 hours 15 minutes.
C a fast depressurization.
183) The greatest possibility of ice buildup, while flying D a slow depressurization.
under icing conditions, occurs on :
A The aircraft front areas. 202) A pilot whose aircraft does not have MNPS certification
has to fly via the SHANNON-GANDER great circle. The
B The upper and lower wingsurfaces. flight must be planned to take place :
C The upper and lower rudder surfaces. A at flight level FL 280 or less.
D Only the pitot and static probes. B outside scheduled flight times.
C at a Mach number of 0.70 or less.

184) Posit :
D at a constant airspeed of 480 kt.
g, the longitude difference
Lm, the average latitude
Lo, the latitude of the tangent 189) An engine fire warning will switch on the relevant fire
shut off-handle.
The correct formula of the conversion angle applied, The fire shut-off handle will be switched off when:
during a transoceanic and polar navigation, is equal to :
A the fire-extinguisher has been triggered.
A g/2.sin Lm
B all the fire-extinguishers connected to this engine have been
B 15°/h.sin Lm triggered.
C g.sin Lm C fire is no longer detected.
D g.(sin Lm-sin Lo) D the fire shut-off handle has been pulled.
185) Which one of the following sets of conditions is most 224) For purpose of wake turbulence separation, what is the
likely to attract birds to an aerodrome ? ICAO minimum radar separation distance and minimum
time if a medium aeroplane (less than 136000 kg and
A the extraction of minerals such as sand and gravel more than 7000 kg) is following directly behind a heavy
aeroplane on the approach to the same runway ?
B a refuse tip in close proximity
A 11.1 km (6 NM) and 3 minutes
C mowing and maintaining the grass long
B 7.4 km (4 NM) and 2 minutes
D a modern sewage tip in close proximity
C 9.3 km (5 NM) and 3 minutes
D 9.3 km (5 NM) and 2 minutes
191) Supplemental oxygen is used to : 195) In the MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance
Specification) area, a pilot should first of all take the
following action in the event of a failure of the last
A protect a crew who fights a fire inertial navigation system:
B provide with oxygen passengers who might require it, A request authorization from Control to track another aircraft.
following a cabin depressurisation
B set a different heading approximately 45° from the previous
C assist a passenger with breathing disorders one.
D provide people on board with oxygen during a cabin C immediately climb or descent 1 000 ft.
depressurisation
D notify Control and wait for a reply within a reasonable time.
192) The minimum time track is a track defined for :

196) The abbreviation MNPS means :
A aircraft flying in MNPS airspace
A Main Navigation Performance Specification
B a given travel
B Maximum Navigation Performance Specification
C a period of 12 hours
D a period of 24 hours
C Magnetic Navigation Performance Specification
D Minimum Navigation Performance Specification
193) The protection time of an anti-icing fluid depends on:
1. the type and intensity of the showers 197) A category A aircraft can carry out an indirect approach
2. the ambient temperature followed by a visual manoeuvre only if the horizontal
3. the relative humidity visibility is higher than or equal to :
4. the direction and speed of the wind
5. the temperature of the airplane skin A 1500 m
6. the type of fluid, its concentration and temperature
B 2400 m
is: C 1600 m
A 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 D 3600 m
B 1, 3, 5, 6
198) The minimum longitudinal spacing of two aircraft flying
C 2, 3, 4, 5
in MNPS airspace at the same Mach number is :
D 1, 2, 4, 6 A 20 minutes.
B 10 minutes.
194) A piece of equipment on your public transport airplane
fails while taxiing to the holding point. The reference C 5 minutes.
document you use in the first place to decide on the
procedure to follow is: D 15 minutes.
A the minimum equipment list.
B the JAR OPS. 199) When an aircraft flies into a horizontal tail wind gust the
aircraft tends :
C the flight record.
A to climb or descend, depending on the gust strength
D the operation manual's chapter "Abnormal and Emergency
B to descend
Procedures".
C to climb
D not to change its trajectory
188) In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered damp when: 249) Following take-off, the noise abatement climb
procedures specified by the operator is :
A surface moisture gives it a shiny appearance. A different according to airports and airplane types.
B it is covered with a film of water of less than 3 mm. B for the same airplane type, the same for all airports.
C it is covered with a film of water of less than 1 mm.

C for all airplane types, the same for a specific airport.
D its surface is not dry, and when surface moisture does not D different for a same airplane type, according to airports.
give it a shiny appearance.
257) We would know that the automatic pressurization 250) The correct statement about extinguishing agents on
system has malfunctioned if : board aeroplanes is :
1. threre is a change in environnemental sounds. A A powder extinguisher is suitable for extinguishing a cockpit
2. the cabin barometer indicates a sharp rise. fire.
3. the differential pressure between the exterior and the
interior becomes equal. B Burning cargo in a cargo-aeroplane is usually extinguished
by using carbon dioxide.
is : C Halon is an effective extinguishing agent for use in
aeroplanes.
A 1,2.
D Water may only be used for minor fires.
B 1,3.
C 2,3. 251) To avoid wake turbulence, when departing behind a

larger aircraft, the pilot should manoeuver :
D 1,2,3.
A Above and upwind from the larger aircraft
B Above and downwind from the larger aircraft

247) Item D of a SNOWTAM gives the cleared length of a
runway in metres. If this is less than the published
length, how is this reported :
C Below and downwind from the larger aircraft
A it is not reported
D Below and upwind from the larger aircraft
B by a four figure group added to item D, which gives the

lenght in metres 252) A polar track is a track part of which is included in an
area where the horizontal component of the earth
C as a percentage of the total lenght of the runway available as magnetic field is less than :
the final item of a SNOWTAM
A 10 micro-tesla
D in plain language at item T (the final paragraph) of a
SNOWTAM B 6 micro-tesla
C 17 micro-tesla
248) If a pilot has connected the automatic pilot to the gyro
compass (which is assumed to be operating correctly) D 38 micro tesla
and the latter is fitted with a rate correction device which
is properly corrected by astronomical precession, the
course followed by the aircraft (in still air conditions) is
a:
A great circle.
B rhumb line.
C curve of some type or other.
D spherical flight segment.
253) In accordance with (ICAO) DOC 8168 - OPS, noise 244) The validity period of a flight track system organized in
preferential routes are established to ensure that MNPS (Minimum Navigation Performance Specification)
departing and arriving aeroplanes avoid overflying airspace during an Eastbound flight normally is :
noise-sensitive areas in the vicinity of the aerodrome as
far as practicable. In establishing noise preferential A 01H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC
routes :
B 10H30 UTC to 19H00 UTC
A no turns should be required coincident with a reduction of
power associated with a noise abatement procedure.
C 11H30 UTC to 19H00 UTC
B turns during take-off and climb should not be required
unless the aeroplane has reached and can maintain D 00H00 UTC to 08H00 UTC
throughout the turn a height of no less than 100 m above
terrain and the highest obstacle.
258) The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) defines the
C turns during take-off and climb should not be required equipment on which certain in-flight failures can be
unless the bank angle for turns is limited to 20° (climbing at allowed and the conditions under which this allowance
V2 + 10 to 20 Kt) can be accepted . The Mel is drawn up by :
D turns during take-off and climb should not be required
A the operator and may be less restrictive than the Master
unless the bank angle for turns is limited to 28° (climbing at
Minimum equipment List (MMEL)
V2 + 10 to 20 Kt)
B the manufacturer and may be more restrictive than the
Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL)
254) The application of a type II de-icing fluid on an aircraft
on ground will provide a : C the operator and may be more restrictive than the Master
Minimum Equipment List (MMEL)
A certain time of protection independent of the outside
temperature. D the manufacturer and may be less restrictive than the
Master Minimum equipment List (MMEL)
B 3 hours protection time.
C certain time of protection depending on its concentration. 259) During a de-icing/anti-icing procedure carried out in two
stages, the waiting time starts:
D 24 hours protection time.
A at the end of the second stage (anti-icing stage).
222) Which one of the following factors should prevent a

B a the end of the first stage (de-icing stage).
runway being chosen as the preferential landing runway
for noise abatement purposes in visual meteorological C at the beginning of the second stage (anti-icing stage).
condition (VMC) ?
D at the beginning of the first stage (de-icing stage).
A It has a tail wind component of any value
B It has a tail wind component of 3 kts and a cross wind, 260) In the JAR OPS, a runway is considered wet when:
including gusts, of 12 kt 1. it is covered with a quantity of water or loose or
slushy snow less than or equal to the equivalent of 3
C It has no ILS or visual approach slope guidance mm of water.
2. the amount of surface moisture is sufficient to modify
D Cross-wind component, including gusts, is 10 kt its colour but does not give it a shiny appearance.
3. the amount of surface moisture is sufficient to make it
reflective, but does not create large stagnant sheets of
water.
256) In case of a serious threat based on the presence of a
4. it bears stagnant sheets of water.
bomb on board a pressurized aircraft and disregarding
any fuel considerations:
is:
A you climb to the maximum flight level which does not need
A 1, 2, 3
the use of pressurization.
B you go down to the level corresponding to the indicated B 1, 2

cabin altitude and keep the airplane in a clean configuration
until the final approach. C 4
C you dexcend to the flight level corresponding to the indicated D 1, 3

cabin altitude or the safety altitude if higher and take
preventive steps by putting yourself in a landing approach
configuration.
D you carry out an emergency descent to reach the safety

altitude.
261) During an explosive decompression at flight level 370 266) In public transport, prior to take-off in icing conditions,
(FL 370), your first action will be : the captain must check that:
A to warn the ATC A possible ice accretions do not cause to exceed weight and
balance limits.
B to comfort your passengers
B external surfaces are free from any ice accretion which may
impede the airplane performance and manoeuvrability,
C to put on the oxygen mask
except within the limits specified by the flight manual.
D to set the transponder to 7700 C external surfaces are free from any ice accretion greater
than 5 mm.
262) In the Area where the MNPS is applicable, the vertical

D external surfaces are still covered with anti-icing fluid.
separation that can be applied between FL 290 and
FL410 inclusive is :
255) The recent experience conditions of a captain assigned
A 2000ft to a flight on an aircraft by an operator must not be less
than :
B 1 500 ft
A 6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot in command on this type
C 1 000 ft of aircraft during the last 90 days
D 500 ft
B 6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot in command on this type
of aircraft during the last 6 months
C 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command on this type

263) The greatest wake turbulence occurs when the of aircraft during the last 6 months
generating aircraft is :
D 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command on this type
A Large, heavy, at maximum speed in full flaps configuration of aircraft during the last 90 days
B Small, light, at low speed in clean configuration

235) Who shall provide the flight operations personal with a
C Small, light, at maximum speed in full flaps configuration operations manual and also issue the amendments to
keep it up to date?
D Large, heavy, at low speed in clean configuration
A Aircraft producer.
B Owner of the aircraft.

264) An aircraft having undergone an anti-icing procedure
must be anti-icing fluid free at the latest when :
C ATS authority of the state of registry.
A releasing the brakes in order to take-off.

D Aircraft operator.
B it is implementing its own anti-icing devices.
C leaving the icing zone. 356) Penetration into the North Atlantic ocean airspace is :
D it is rotating (before taking-off). A subject to a clearance only if the flight route is changed
B subject to a mandatory clearance

265) In compliance with the JAR OPS, in order to carry
hazardous materials on board a public transport C subject to an optional clearance depending on the type of
airplane, they must be accompanied with a : flight (scheduled or not)
A representative of the company owning the materials. D not subject to a clearance, since the flight is already
controlled
B specialized handling employee.
C system to warn the crew in case of a leak or of an abnormal

increase in temperature.
D transport document for hazardous materials.
225) Who makes sure that the air transportation of an item of 229) From the following list :
dangerous goods is not prohibited? 1. Fuel jettisoning system and its operation are free from
fire hazard
A The operator. 2. The fuel discharges clear of any part of the aeroplane
3. Fuel fumes do not enter any part of the aeroplane
B It is not specified. 4. The jettisoning operation does not adversely affect
the controllability of the aeroplane.
Which of the above are requirements that must be
C The shipper when completing the shipper's declaration for
shown to exist during fuel jettisoning tests :
dangerous goods.
D The captain, always using the list of prohibited aircraft items.

A 1,3 and 4
B 1 and 4
226) When taking-off after a widebody aircraft which has just

landed, you should take-off :
C 2 and 3
A in front of the point where the aircraft's wheels have touched

D 1,2,3 and 4
down.
B at the point where the aircraft's wheels have touched down 230) A class A fire is a fire of:
and on the wind side of the runway .
C at the point where the aircraft's wheels have touched the A metal or gas or chemical (special fires)
ground and on the underwind side of the runway .
B solid material, generally of organic nature
D beyond the point where the aircraft's wheels have touched
down.
C liquid or liquefiable solid
D electrical origin
227) In accordance with JAR-OPS 1, an operator shall ensure
that all relevant operational and technical information
for a individual flight is preserved on ground for a
predetermined period of time. Consequently, if 231) The wake turbulence caused by an aircraft is mainly the
practicable, a copy of the operational flight plan shall be result of:
retained, during at least :
1. An aerodynamical effect (wing tip vortices).
A 15 months 2. The engines action (propellers rotation or engine gas
exhausts).
B 24 months 3. The importance of the drag devices (size of the
landing gear, of the flaps, etc.).
C 3 months The combination regrouping all the correct statements
is:
D 12 months
A 1.
228) Following an act of unlawful interference on board an B 3.

aeroplane, to whom the commander should submit a
report of the act to : C 2 and 3.
A the Autority of the State of the operator only D 1, 2 and 3.
B the Authority of the State within which the aeroplane is

operating at the time of the unlawful interference
232) You will use a powder fire-extinguisher for:
C both the local authority and the Authority of the State of the
1. a paper fire
operator
2. a plastic fire
D the local authority only 3. a hydrocarbon fire

is:
A 1, 4
B 1, 2, 3, 4
C 1, 2, 3
D 2, 3
246) The coverage angle of the regulatory white position 237) An aircraft which experiencies a headwind of 40 kt while
lights, continuously lit in flight and located at the rear of making its way towards the centre of a microburst may
the aircraft, is : expect, when crossing the microburst, to face a
windshear of :
A 220°
A 80 kt.
B 140°
B 40 kt.
C 110°
C 60 kt.
D 70°
D 20 kt.
234) A list of dangerous goods, which may not be

transported by air, can be found in : 238) The wake turbulence:
A the shipper's declaration for dangerous goods.

A starts when pulling out the drag devices and stops when
rectracting the drag devices.
B the technical instructions for the safe transport of dangerous
goods by air. B starts during the rotation and stops as soon as the airplane's
wheels touch the ground.
C Annex 18 to the Chicago convention.
C starts as soon as the aeroplane is running for take-off and
D Annex 6 to the Chicago Convention. stops as soon as it has come to a stop at landing.
D starts when the airplane reaches a height of 300 ft above the

ground and stops when it crosses this height before landing.
245) An aircraft operating within MNPS Airspace is unable to
continue flight in accordance with its air traffic control
clearance (due to degradation of navigational
performance requirements), but is able to maintain its 239) An air traffic unit may request the aircraft to report
assigned level, and due to a total loss of position when flying east-west south of 70°N between
communications capability, could not obtain a revised 5°W and 65°W, every:
clearance from ATC. The aircraft should leave its
assigned route or track by turning 90° (90 degrees) to A 10° of longitude.
the right or left whenever this is possible, and the
subsequent action will be, turn to acquire and maintain B 5° of longitude.
in either direction a track laterally separated by 30 NM
from its assigned route and climb or descend 500 ft, if :
C 20° of longitude.
A above FL 410
D 15° of longitude.
B at FL 430
C below FL 410 240) On a polar stereographic chart whose grid is parallel

with the Greenwich meridian in the direction of the true
North pole, the "true" orientation of the great circle
D at FL 410
linking point 62°N 010°E to point 66°N 050°W is 305°. The
grid route at the starting point of this great circle is :
236) For turbo-propeller aircraft, in the flight preparation A 301°.

stage, the landing distance on at alternate aerodrome
shall be less than the available landing distance B 292°.
multiplied by a factor of :
A 0.8
C 295°.
D 298°.
B 0.7
C 0.6
D 0.5
241) When taking-off behind a wide-body aircraft, with wind 233) For aeroplanes having a seating capacity of more than
coming from the left side, you adopt a path, whenever 44 passengers, it must be shown by actual
possible : demonstration that the maximum seating capacity,
including the required number of crew members, can be
A distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining at the right evacuated from the aeroplane to the ground in :
of and under its path.
A 60 seconds
B identical to the one of the preceding airplane.
B 90 seconds
C distinct form the preceding airplane, by remaining behind it
and under its path. C 132 seconds
D distinct from the preceding airplane, by remaining at the left
D 120 seconds
of and above its path.
242) For a long-range four-jet aircraft in cruising flight, the

optimum altitude and the lock-on altitude increase. The
most cost-effective flight plan will consist of chosing
cruising levels which increase during the flight in order
to fly :
A about the lock-on altitude
B between the lock-on altitude and the optimum altitude
C just below the optimum altitude
D about the optimum altitude
243) A minimum time track is a :
A spherical capable flight segment
B track determined according to weather conditions
C great circle track
D rhumb line
223) A slow decompression may be caused by:
1. a slight airtightness defect

2. a bad functioning of the pressurization
3. the loss of a window
4. the loss of a door

is:
A 3, 4
B 1, 2, 3
C 1, 2
D 1, 2, 3, 4
Professione Volare Domande Performances
Data:
Nome Allievo:
109) Maximum and minimum values of V1 are limited by : 102) With regard to a take-off from a wet runway, which of the
A VR and VMCG A Screen height cannot be reduced.
B V2 and VMCA B The screen height can be lowered to reduce the mass
penalties.
C VR and VMCA
C When the runway is wet, the V1 reduction is sufficient to
D V2 and VMCG maintain the same margins on the runway length.
D In case of a reverser inoperative the wet runway

performance information can still be used.
99) During the certification flight testing of a twin engine
turbojet aeroplane, the real take-off distances are equal
to:
- 1547 m with all engines running 103) On a reciprocating engined aeroplane, to maintain a
given angle of attack, configuration and altitude at
- 1720 m with failure of critical engine at V1, with all
higher gross mass
other things remaining unchanged.
The take-off distance adopted for the certification file is:
A an increase in airspeed is required but power setting does
A 1547 m. not change.
B requires an increase in power and decrease in the airspeed.

B 1720 m.
C an increase in airspeed and power is required.
C 1779 m.
D a higher coefficient of drag is required.
D 1978 m.
104) The first segment of the take-off flight path ends

100) The minimum value of V2 must exceed "air minimum
control speed" by:
A at completion of gear retraction.
A 15%
B at completion of flap retraction.
B 20%
C at reaching V2.
C 30%
D at 35 ft above the runway.
D 10%
105) Which of the following factors favours the selection of a

101) (For this question use annex 032-6577A or Performance low flap setting for the take-off?
Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1)
With regard to the take off performance chart for the A High field elevation, no obstacles in the climb-out path, low
single engine aeroplane determine the take off speed for ambient temperature and short runway.
(1) rotation and (2) at a height of 50 ft.
B Low field elevation, no obstacles in the climb-out path, short
Given : runway and a low ambient temperature.
O.A.T : ISA+10°C
Pressure Altitude: 5000 ft C High field elevation, distant obstacles in the climb-out path,
Aeroplane mass: 3400 lbs long runway and a high ambient temperature.
Headwind component: 5 kt
Flaps: up D Low field elevation, close-in obstacles in the climb-out path,
Runway: Tarred and Dry long runway and a high ambient temperature.
A 73 and 84 KIAS
106) Balanced V1 is selected
B 68 and 78 KIAS
C 65 and 75 KIAS
A for a runway length limited take-off with a clearway to give
the highest mass.
D 71 and 82 KIAS B if it is equal to V2.
C if the accelerate stop distance is equal to the one engine out

take-off distance.
D for a runway length limited take-off with a stopway to give

the highest mass.
165) (For this question use annex 032-4744A) 111) ETOPS flight is a twin engine jet aeroplane flight
Considering a rate of climb diagram (ROC versus TAS) conducted over a route, where no suitable airport is
for an aeroplane. Which of the diagrams shows the within an area of
correct curves for "flaps down" compared to "clean"
configuration? A 75 minutes flying time at the approved one engine out cruise
speed.
A d
B 60 minutes flying time in still air at the approved one engine
B a out cruise speed.
C b C 60 minutes flying time in still air at the normal cruising speed.
D c
D 30 minutes flying time at the normal cruising speed.
112) For a take-off from a contaminated runway, which of the

108) For jet-engined aeroplanes, what is the effect of
increased altitude on specific range?
A Does not change.

A Dry snow is not considered to affect the take-off
performance.
B Increases only if there is no wind. B A slush covered runway must be cleared before take-off,
even if the performance data for contaminated runway is
C Increases. available.
D Decreases. C The performance data for take-off must be determined in

general by means of calculation, only a few values are
verified by flight tests.
96) The speed for best rate of climb is called D The greater the depth of contamination at constant take-off
mass, the more V1 has to be decreased to compensate for
decreasing friction.
A VO.
B VY.
113) If the thrust available exceeds the thrust required for
level flight
C VX.
A the aeroplane accelerates if the altitude is maintained.
D V2.
B the aeroplane descends if the airspeed is maintained.
110) Two identical aeroplanes at different masses are C the aeroplane decelerates if it is in the region of reversed
descending at idle thrust. Which of the following command.
statements correctly describes their descent
characteristics ? D the aeroplane decelerates if the altitude is maintained.
A At a given angle of attack, both the vertical and the forward

speed are greater for the heavier aeroplane.
114) Which statement regarding the relationship between
traffic load and range is correct?
B There is no difference between the descent characteristics
of the two aeroplanes.
A The maximum landing mass is basically equal to the
maximum zero fuel mass.
C At a given angle of attack the heavier aeroplane will always
glide further than the lighter aeroplane.
B The maximum traffic load is not limited by the reserve fuel
D At a given angle of attack the lighter aeroplane will always quantity.
glide further than the heavier aeroplane.
C The traffic load can be limited by the desired range.
D The maximum zero fuel mass limits the maximum quantity

of fuel.
115) The induced drag of an aeroplane 87) The danger associated with low speed and/or high
speed buffet
A is independent of the airspeed. A limits the maneuvering load factor at high altitudes.
B increases with increasing airspeed. B can be reduced by increasing the load factor.
C decreases with increasing airspeed.

C exists only above MMO.
D decreases with increasing gross weight. D has to be considered at take-off and landing.
116) Which statement, in relation to the climb limited take-off 76) Given a jet aircraft. Which order of increasing speeds in
mass of a jet aeroplane, is correct? the performance diagram is correct?
A 50% of a head wind is taken into account when determining A Vs, Maximum range speed, Vx
the climb limited take-off mass.
B On high elevation airports equipped with long runways the B Maximum endurance speed, Maximum range speed, Vx
aeroplane will always be climb limited.
C Vs, Vx, Maximum range speed
C The climb limited take-off mass decreases with increasing
OAT. D Maximum endurance speed, Long range speed, Maximum
range speed
D The climb limited take-off mass is determined at the speed
for best rate of climb.
77) If the climb speed schedule is changed from 280/.74 to
290/.74 the new crossover altitude is
117) How is V2 affected if T/O flaps 20° is chosen instead of
T/O flaps 10°? A unchanged.
A V2 increases in proportion to the angle at which the flaps are B only affected by the aeroplane gross mass.
set.
B V2 has no connection with T/O flap setting, as it is a C lower.

function of runway length only.
D higher.
C V2 decreases if not restricted by VMCA.
D V2 has the same value in both cases. 78) Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used
when:
118) Which of the jet engine ratings below is not a certified A it is dark.
rating?
B the runway is wet.
A Go-Around Thrust
C obstacles are present close to the end of the runway.
B Maximum Take-off Thrust
D the runway is contaminated.
C Maximum Cruise Thrust
D Maximum Continuous Thrust 79) Which data can be extracted from the Buffet Onset
Boundary Chart?
107) Which statement regarding the influence of a runway A The value of the Mach number at which low speed and
down-slope is correct for a balanced take-off? Down- shockstall occur at various weights and altitudes.
slope...
B The values of the Mach number at which low speed and
A increases V1 and reduces the accelerate stop distance Mach buffet occur at various masses and altitudes.
required (ASDR).
C The value of maximum operating Mach number (MMO) at
B reduces V1 and increases the accelerate stop distance various masses and power settings.
required (ASDR).
D The value of the critical Mach number at various masses
and altitudes.
C increases V1 and increases the take-off distance required
(TODR).
D reduces V1 and reduces take-off distance required (TODR).
80) With zero wind, the angle of attack for maximum range 98) Which one of the following is not affected by a tail wind?
for an aeroplane with turbojet engines is:
A equal to that of maximum lift to drag ratio. A the field limited take-off mass.
B equal to that maximum endurance. B the obstacle limited take-off mass.
C equal to that corresponding to zero induced drag. C the take-off run.
D lower than that of maximum lift to drag ratio. D the climb limited take-off mass.
81) The speed V2 is defined for jet aeroplane as 86) In a steady descending flight (descent angle GAMMA)
equilibrium of forces acting on the aeroplane is given by:
(T = Thrust, D = Drag, W = Weight)
A take-off climb speed or speed at 35 ft.
A T + D = - W sin GAMMA
B lift off speed.
B T + W sin GAMMA = D
C take-off decision speed.
C T - W sin GAMMA = D
D critical engine failure speed.
D T - D = W sin GAMMA
82) An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other

things, the following consequences on take-off 97) (For this question use annex 032-6588A or Flight
performance: planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4)
Using the Range Profile Diagramm, for the single engine
A a reduced take-off distance and degraded initial climb aeroplane, determine the range, with 45 minutes reserve,
performance in the following conditions:
Given :
B a reduced take-off distance and improved initial climb O.A.T.: ISA -15°C
performance Pressure altitude: 12000 ft
Power: Full throttle / 23,0 in/Hg./ 2300 RPM
C an increases take-off distance and degraded initial climb
performance A 908 NM
D an increased take-off distance and improved initial climb B 902 NM

performance
C 875 NM
83) The induced drag of an aeroplane at constant gross D 860 NM

weight and altitude is highest at
A VSO (stalling speed in landing configuration)

88) The pilot of a light twin engine aircraft has calculated a 4
B VS1 (stalling speed in clean configuration) 000 m service ceiling, based on the forecast general
conditions for the flight and a take-off mass of 3 250 kg.
C VMO (maximum operating limit speed)
If the take-off mass is 3 000 kg, the service ceiling will be:
D VA (design manoeuvring speed) A less than 4 000 m.
B unchanged, equal to 4 000 m.

84) On a twin engined piston aircraft with variable pitch
propellers, for a given mass and altitude, the minimum C only a new performance analysis will determine if the service
drag speed is 125 kt and the holding speed (minimum ceiling is higher or lower than 4 000 m.
fuel burn per hour) is 95 kt.
D higher than 4 000 m.
The best rate of climb speed will be obtained for a speed:
A inferior to 95 kts
B is between 95 and 125 kt
C equal to 125 kt
D equal to 95 kt
89) Consider the graphic representation of the power 94) (For this question use annex 032-2211A)
required versus true air speed (TAS), for a jet aeroplane Which of the following diagrams correctly shows the
with a given mass. When drawing the tangent out of the movement of the power required curve with increasing
origin, the point of contact determines the speed of: altitude .(H1 < H2)
A critical angle of attack. A Figure c
B maximum endurance. B Figure a
C minimum power. C Figure d
D maximum specific range. D Figure b
90) Which of the following statements is correct ? 95) What is the most important aspect of the 'backside of
the power curve'?
A If a clearway or a stopway is used, the liftoff point must be A The elevator must be pulled to lower the nose.
attainable at least at the end of the permanent runway
surface.
B The speed is unstable.
B A stopway means an area beyond the take-off runway, able
to support the aeroplane during an aborted take-off. C The aeroplane will not stall.
C An underrun is an area beyond the runway end which can be D The altitude cannot be maintained.
used for an aborted take-off.
D A clearway is an area beyond the runway which can be used

for an aborted take-off. 121) How does the lift coefficient for maximum range vary
with altitude?
(No compressibility effects.)
91) What effect has a downhill slope on the take-off speeds?
The slope
A The lift coefficient decreases with increasing altitude.
A has no effect on the take-off speed V1. B The lift coefficient increases with increasing altitude.
B decreases the take-off speed V1. C Only at low speeds the lift coefficient decreases with
increasing altitude.
C decreases the TAS for take-off. D The lift coefficient is independant of altitude.
D increases the IAS for take-off.
85) How does TAS vary in a constant Mach climb in the

troposphere?
92) The load factor in a turn in level flight with constant TAS
depends on A TAS increases.
A the radius of the turn and the bank angle. B TAS is constant.
B the true airspeed and the bank angle.

C TAS is not related to Mach Number.
C the radius of the turn and the weight of the aeroplane. D TAS decreases.
D the bank angle only.
155) The landing reference speed VREF has, in accordance

with international requirements, the following margins
93) Which of the following factors determines the maximum above stall speed in landing configuration:
flight altitude in the "Buffet Onset Boundary" graph?
A 15%
A Aerodynamics.
B 20%
B Theoretical ceiling.
C 10%
C Service ceiling.
D 30%
D Economy.
119) In the drag versus TAS curve for a jet aeroplane, the 149) A 'Balanced Field Length' is said to exist where:
speed for maximum range corresponds with:
A the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the drag A The accelerate stop distance is equal to the take-off
curve. distance available.
B the point of intersection of the parasite drag curve and the B The clearway does not equal the stopway.
induced drag curve.
C The accelerate stop distance is equal to the all engine take-
C the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the off distance.
parasite drag curve.
D The one engine out take-off distance is equal to the all
D the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the engine take-off distance.
induced drag curve.

145) If the antiskid system is inoperative, which of the What is the maximum vertical speed of a three engine
following statements is true? turbojet aeroplane with one engine inoperative (N-1) and
a mass of 75 000 kg?
A It has no effect on the accelerate stop distance. Using the following: g = 10 m/s²
1 kt = 100 ft/min
B Take-off with antiskid inoperative is not permitted. SIN( Angle of climb) = (Thrust- Drag)/
Weight
C The accelerate stop distance increases.

A +3293 ft / min.
D The accelerate stop distance decreases.

B +1267 ft / min.
C -1267 ft / min.
146) A runway is contaminated with 0.5 cm of wet snow.
The flight manual of a light twin nevertheless authorises D 0 ft / min.
a landing in these conditions.
The landing distance will be, in relation to that for a dry
runway:
151) Complete the following statement regarding the take-off
A reduced performance of an aeroplane in performance class A.
Following an engine failure at (i) ........... and allowing for
B substantially decreased a reaction time of (ii) ........... a correctly loaded aircraft
must be capable of decelerating to a halt within the (iii)
.........
C increased
A (i) V1 (ii) 2 seconds (iii) Accelerate - stop distance
D unchanged available.
B (i) V2 (ii) 3 seconds (iii) Take-off distance available.

147) Which of the following represents the maximum value
for V1 assuming max tyre speed and max brake energy C (i) V1 (ii) 1 second (iii) Accelerate - stop distance available.
speed are not limiting?
D (i) V1 (ii) 2 seconds (iii) Take-off distance available.
A VREF
B VR 152) (For this question use annex 032-3590A or Performance

C VMCA With regard to the take-off performance of a twin jet
aeroplane, why does the take-off performance climb
D V2 limit graph show a kink at 30°C, pressure altitude 0?
A At lower temperatures one has to take the danger of icing

into account.
148) The lowest take-off safety speed (V2 min) is:
B The engines are pressure limited at lower temperature, at
A 1.15 Vs for all turbojet aeroplanes. higher temperatures they are temperature limited.
B 1.20 Vs for all turboprop powered aeroplanes.

C At higher temperatures the flat rated engines determines the
climb limit mass.
C 1.15 Vs for four-engine turboprop aeroplanes and 1.20 Vs D At higher temperatures the VMBE determines the climb limit
for two or three-engine turboprop aeroplanes. mass.
D 1.20 Vs for all turbojet aeroplanes.
143) (For this question use annex 032-6583A or Performance 157) During the flight preparation a pilot makes a mistake by
Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.3) selecting a V1 greater than that required. Which problem
Using the climb performance chart, for the single engine will occur when the engine fails at a speed immediatly
aeroplane, determine the rate of climb and the gradient above the correct value of V1?
of climb in the following conditions:
Given : A The stop distance required will exceed the stop distance
O.A.T at Take-off: ISA available.
Airport pressure altitude: 3000 ft
Aeroplane mass: 3450 lbs B The one engine out take-off distance required may exceed
Speed: 100 KIAS the take-off distance available.
A 1310 ft/min and 11,3% C V2 may be too high so that climb performance decreases.
B 1120 ft/min and 9,3% D It may lead to over-rotation.
C 1030 ft/min and 8,4%

158) What is the effect of a head wind component, compared
D 1170 ft/min and 9,9% to still air, on the maximum range speed (IAS) and the
speed for maximum climb angle respectively?
154) The speed V2 is

A Maximum range speed decreases and maximum climb
angle speed decreases.
A that speed at which the PIC should decide to continue or not B Maximum range speed increases and maximum climb angle
the take-off in the case of an engine failure. speed increases.
B the lowest airspeed required to retract flaps without stall C Maximum range speed increases and maximum climb angle
problems. speed stays constant.
C the lowest safety airspeed at which the aeroplane is under D Maximum range speed decreases and maximum climb
control with aerodynamic surfaces in the case of an engine angle speed increases.
failure.
D the take-off safety speed. 159) (For this question use annex 032-6573A or Performance
With regard to the landing chart for the single engine
aeroplane determine the landing distance from a height
142) The speed VS is defined as
of 50 ft .
A speed for best specific range. Given :

O.A.T : ISA +15°C
B stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed at which the Pressure Altitude: 0 ft
aeroplane is controllable. Aeroplane Mass: 2940 lbs
Flaps: Landing position (down)
C safety speed for take-off in case of a contaminated runway.
Runway: short and wet grass- firm soil
Correction factor (wet grass): 1.38
D design stress speed.
A approximately : 1300 feet
156) A higher outside air temperature B approximately : 2000 feet
A does not have any noticeable effect on climb performance. C approximately : 1450 feet
B reduces the angle of climb but increases the rate of climb. D approximately :1794 feet
C reduces the angle and the rate of climb.

160) The lift coefficient decreases during a glide with
D increases the angle of climb but decreases the rate of climb. constant Mach number, mainly because the :
A TAS decreases.
B glide angle increases.
C IAS increases.
D aircraft mass decreases.
161) The speed V2 of a jet aeroplane must be greater than: 132) Which of the following sets of factors will increase the
climb-limited TOM?
A 1.2VMCG. A High flap setting, low PA, low OAT.
B 1.05VLOF. B Low flap setting, high PA, high OAT.
C 1.3V1.
C Low flap setting, high PA, low OAT.
D 1.2Vs. D Low flap setting, low PA, low OAT.
162) When an aircraft takes off with the mass limited by the 73) (For this question use annex 032-6580A or Performance
TODA: Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.2)
With regard to the take off performance chart for the
A the actual take-off mass equals the field length limited take- single engine aeroplane determine the take off distance
off mass. over a 50 ft obstacle height.
B the distance from brake release to V1 will be equal to the Given :
distance from V1 to the 35 feet point. O.A.T : 30°C
Pressure Altitude: 1000 ft
C the "balanced take-off distance" equals 115% of the "all Aeroplane Mass: 2950 lbs
engine take-off distance". Tailwind component: 5 kt
Flaps: Approach setting
D the end of the runway will be cleared by 35 feet following an Runway: Short, wet grass, firm subsoil
engine failure at V1. Correction factor: 1.25 (for runway conditions)
A 1600 ft
163) A runway is contaminated by a 0,5 cm layer of wet snow.
The take-off is nevertheless authorized by a light-twin's B 2000 ft
flight manual.
The take-off distance in relation to a dry runway will be:
C 2375 ft
A very significantly decreased
D 1900 ft
B increased
C unchanged 122) The absolute ceiling
D decreased A is the altitude at which the best climb gradient attainable is

5%
349) A jet aeroplane is flying long range cruise. How does the B is the altitude at which the aeroplane reaches a maximum
specific range / fuel flow change? rate of climb of 100 ft/min.
A Decrease / decrease. C is the altitude at which the rate of climb theoretically is zero.
B Increase / decrease. D can be reached only with minimim steady flight speed
C Increase / increase.
123) The maximum indicated air speed of a piston engined
D Decrease / increase. aeroplane, in level flight, is reached:
A at the service ceiling.
153) Which of the following combinations basically has an B at the practical ceiling.
effect on the angle of descent in a glide?
(Ignore compressibility effects.)
C at the lowest possible altitude.
A Configuration and mass.
D at the optimum cruise altitude.
B Configuration and angle of attack.
C Mass and altitude.
D Altitude and configuration.
124) In unaccelerated climb 129) (For this question use annex 032-3591A or Performance
Consider the take-off performance for the twin jet
A thrust equals drag plus the uphill component of the gross aeroplane climb limit chart. Why has the wind been
weight in the flight path direction. omitted from the chart?
B thrust equals drag plus the downhill component of the gross A There is a built-in safety measure.
weight in the flight path direction.
C lift is greater than the gross weight. B The climb limit performances are taken relative to the air.
D lift equals weight plus the vertical component of the drag. C The effect of the wind must be taken from another chart.
D There is no effect of the wind on the climb angle relative to

the ground.
125) The optimum cruise altitude increases
A if the aeroplane mass is decreased. 144) How is wind considered in the take-off performance data
of the Aeroplane Operations Manuals ?
B if the temperature (OAT) is increased.
A Unfactored headwind and tailwind components are used.
C if the tailwind component is decreased.
B Not more than 80% headwind and not less than 125%
tailwind.
D if the aeroplane mass is increased.
C Since take-offs with tailwind are not permitted, only
headwinds are considered.
126) Regarding the obstacle limited take-off mass, which of
the following statements is correct? D Not more than 50% of a headwind and not less than 150%
of the tailwind.
A The obstacle limited mass can never be lower than the climb
limited take-off mass.
131) On a reciprocating engined aeroplane, with increasing
B The maximum bank angle which can be used is 10°. altitude at constant gross mass, angle of attack and
configuraton the drag
C A take-off in the direction of an obstacle is also permitted in
tail wind condition. A remains unchanged but the TAS increases.
D Wind speed plays no role when calculating this particular B remains unchanged but the the CAS increases.
mass.
C increases at constant TAS.
127) A jet aeroplane is climbing at a constant IAS and D decreases and the CAS decreases too because of the lower
maximum climb thrust, how will the climb angle / the air density.
pitch angle change?
A Remain constant / decrease.

120) The drift down procedure specifies requirements
concerning the:
B Remain constant / become larger.
A engine power at the altitude at which engine failure occurs
C Reduce / decrease.
B climb gradient during the descent to the net level-off altitude
D Reduce / remain constant.
C weight during landing at the alternate
128) Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used D obstacle clearance during descent to the net level-off altitude
when:
A the runway is wet.
B the OAT is ISA +10°C
C anti skid is not usable.
D it is dark.
133) Which statement is correct for a descent without engine 138) Which of the equations below defines specific range
thrust at maximum lift to drag ratio speed? (SR)?
A The mass of an aeroplane does not have any effect on the A SR = Groundspeed/Total Fuel Flow
speed for descent.
B SR = True Airspeed/Total Fuel Flow
B The higher the gross mass the greater is the speed for
descent.
C SR = Indicated Airspeed/Total Fuel Flow
C The higher the gross mass the lower is the speed for
descent. D SR = Mach Number/Total Fuel Flow
D The higher the average temperature (OAT) the lower is the

speed for descent. 139) Take-off performance data, for the ambient conditions,
show the following limitations with flap 10° selected:
- runway limit: 5 270 kg
134) What will be the influence on the aeroplane performance - obstacle limit: 4 630 kg
if aerodrome pressure altitude is increased? Estimated take-off mass is 5 000kg.
Considering a take-off with flaps at:
A It will increase the take-off distance.
A 20°, both limitations are increased
B It will decrease the take-off distance.
B 5°, the obstacle limit is increased but the runway limit
C It will increase the take-off distance available. decreases
D It will increase the accelerate stop distance available. C 5°, both limitations are increased
D 20°, the obstacle limit is increased but the runway limit

decreases
135) An aeroplane is in a power off glide at best gliding
speed. If the pilot increases pitch attitude the glide
distance:
140) Is there any difference between the vertical speed
versus forward speed curves for two identical
A increases.
aeroplanes having different masses ? (assume zero
thrust and wind)
B remains the same.
A Yes, the difference is that the lighter aeroplane will always
C may increase or decrease depending on the aeroplane. glide a greater distance.
D decreases. B Yes, the difference is that for a given angle of attack both
the vertical and forward speeds of the heavier aeroplane will
be larger.
136) Which statement concerning the inclusion of a clearway C No difference.

in take-off calculation is correct?
D Yes, the difference is that the heavier aeroplane will always
A The field length limited take-off mass will increase. glide a greater distance.
B The usable length of the clearway is not limited.

141) Which of the following statements with regard to the
C V1 is increased. optimum cruise altitude (best fuel mileage) is correct?
D V1 remains constant. A An aeroplane usually flies above the optimum cruise altitude,
as this provides the largest specific range.
B An aeroplane sometimes flies above the optimum cruise

137) What affect has a tailwind on the maximum endurance altitude, because ATC normally does not allow to fly
speed? continuously at the optimum cruise altitude.
A No affect C An aeroplane always flies below the optimum cruise altitude,
as otherwise Mach buffet can occur.
B Tailwind only effects holding speed.
D An aeroplane always flies on the optimum cruise altitude,
C The IAS will be increased. because this is most attractive from an economy point of
view.
D The IAS will be decreased.
130) A four jet-engined aeroplane (mass = 150 000 kg) is 10) Following a take-off determined by the 50ft (15m) screen
established on climb with all engines operating. The lift- height, a light twin climbs on a 10% over-the-ground
to-drag ratio is 14. climb gradient.
Each engine has a thrust of 75 000 Newtons. The
gradient of climb is: It will clear a 900 m high obstacle in relation to the
(given: g= 10 m/s²) runway (horizontally), situated at 10 000 m from the 50 ft
clearing point with an obstacle clearance of:
A 1.286%.
A 85 m
B 27%.
B It will not clear the obstacle
C 7.86%.
C 115 m
D 12.86%.
D 100 m
18) How does the best angle of climb and best rate of climb
vary with increasing altitude? 11) Moving the center of gravity from the forward to the aft
limit (gross mass, altitude and airspeed remain
A Both decrease. unchanged)
B Both increase. A increases the power required.
C Best angle of climb increases while best rate of climb B affects neither drag nor power required.
decreases.
C increases the induced drag.
D Best angle of climb decreases while best rate of climb
increases. D decreases the induced drag and reduces the power required.
28) The optimum altitude

12) On a reciprocating engined aeroplane, with increasing
altitude at constant gross mass, angle of attack and
A is the altitude up to which cabin pressure of 8 000 ft can be configuraton the power required
maintained.
A remains unchanged but the TAS increases.
B increases as mass decreases and is the altitude at which
the specific range reaches its maximum. B increases and the TAS increases by the same percentage.
C decreases as mass decreases.

C increases but TAS remains constant.
D is the altitude at which the specific range reaches its D decreases slightly because of the lower air density.
minimum.
8) A lower airspeed at constant mass and altitude requires 13) During certification test flights for a turbojet aeroplane,
the actual measured take-off runs from brake release to
a point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is
A less thrust and a lower coefficient of lift. reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35 feet
above the take-off surface are:
B more thrust and a lower coefficient of lift. - 1747 m, all engines operating
- 1950 m, with the critical engine failure recognized at
V1, the other factors remaining unchanged.
C more thrust and a lower coefficient of drag.
Considering both possibilities to determine the take-off
run (TOR). What is the correct distance?
D a higher coefficient of lift.
A 1950 m.
9) At a constant Mach number the thrust and the fuel flow B 2009 m.
of a jet engine
C 2243 m.
A increase in proportion to the ambient pressure at constant
temperature. D 2096 m.
B decrease in proportion to the ambient pressure at constant
temperature.
C increase with increasing altitude.
D are independent of outside air temperature (OAT).
14) (For this question use annex 032-6586A or Flight 5) Given that:
planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.3 Table 2.3.1) VEF= Critical engine failure speed
Using the Power Setting Table, for the single engine VMCG= Ground minimum control speed
aeroplane, determine the cruise TAS and fuel flow VMCA= Air minimum control speed
(lbs/hr) with full throttle and cruise lean mixture in the VMU= Minimum unstick speed
following conditions: V1= Take-off decision speed
Given : VR= Rotation speed
OAT: 3°C V2 min.= Minimum take-off safety speed
Pressure altitude: 6000 ft The correct formula is:
A 1.05 VMCA<= VEF<= V1
A 131 kt and 56,9 lbs/hr
B 1.05 VMCG< VEF<= VR
B 125 kt and 55,7 lbs/hr
C V2min<= VEF<= VMU
C 134 kt and 55,7 lbs/hr
D VMCG<=VEF < V1
D 136 kt and 56,9 lbs/hr
19) Which statement related to a take-off from a wet runway

15) (For this question use annex 032-3589A or Performance is correct?
With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet A In case of a reverser inoperative the wet runway
aeroplane, why does the curve representing 35 000 kg performance information can still be used
gross mass in the chart for drift down net profiles start
at approximately 3 minutes at FL370? B Screenheight reduction can not be applied because of
reduction in obstacle clearance.
A Because at this mass the engines slow down at a slower
rate after failure, there is still some thrust left during four C A reduction of screen height is allowed in order to reduce
minutes. weight penalties
B Due to higher TAS at this mass it takes more time to D The use of a reduced Vr is sufficient to maitain the same
develop the optimal rate of descent, because of the inertia safety margins as for a dry runway
involved.
C All the curves start at the same point, which is situated 20) Reduced take-off thrust should normally not be used
outside the chart. when:
D Because at this mass it takes about 3 minutes to decelerate
A it is dark.
to the optimum speed for drift down at the original cruising
level.
B the runway is dry.
6) At a given altitude, when a turbojet aeroplane mass is C the runway is wet.

increased by 5% - assuming the engines specific
consumption remains unchanged -, its hourly D windshear is reported on the take-off path.
consumption is approximately increased by:
A 10% 21) The long range cruise speed is in relation to the speed
for maximum range cruise.
B 2.5%
A Lower
C 5%
B Depending on the OAT and net mass.
D 7.5%
C Depending on density altitude and mass.
17) The point at which a tangent out of the origin touches D Higher
the power required curve
A is the point where Drag coefficient is a minimum.
B is the point where the Lift to Drag ratio is a minimum.
C is the maximum drag speed.
D is the point where the Lift to Drag ratio is a maximum.
22) (For this question use annex 032-6585A or Flight 26) The required Take-off Distance (TOD) and the field
planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.2 Table 2.2.3) length limited Take-off Mass (TOM) are different for the
Using the Power Setting Table, for the single engine zero flap case and take-off position flap case. What is
aeroplane, determine the cruise TAS and fuel flow the result of flap setting in take-off position compared to
(lbs/hr) with full throttle and cruise lean mixture in the zero flap position?
A Increased TOD required and decreased field length limited
Given: TOM.
OAT: 13°C
Pressure altitude: 8000 ft B Increased TOD required and increased field length limited
RPM: 2300 TOM.
A 160 kt and 71,1 lbs/hr C Decreased TOD required and decreased field length limited
TOM.
B 159 kt and 71,7 lbs/hr
D Decreased TOD required and increased field length limited
TOM.
C 160 kt and 69,3 lbs/hr
D 158 kt and 74,4 lbs/hr

75) Regarding take-off, the take-off decision speed V1:
23) The rate of climb A is the airspeed of the aeroplane upon reaching 35 feet above
the take-off surface.
A is approximately climb gradient times true airspeed divided B is the airspeed on the ground at which the pilot is assumed
by 100. to have made a decision to continue or discontinue the take-
off.
B is the downhill component of the true airspeed.
C is always equal to VEF (Engine Failure speed).
C is angle of climb times true airspeed.
D is an airspeed at which the aeroplane is airborne but below
D is the horizontal component of the true airspeed. 35 ft and the pilot is assumed to have made a decision to
continue or discontinue the take-off .
24) The maximum horizontal speed occurs when:

16) Assuming that the required lift exists, which forces
determine an aeroplane's angle of climb?
A The thrust is equal to minimum drag.
A Thrust and drag only.
B The thrust does not increase further with increasing speed.
B Weight and thrust only.
C The maximum thrust is equal to the total drag.
C Weight, drag and thrust.
D The thrust is equal to the maximum drag.
D Weight and drag only.
25) (For this question use annex 032-6575A or Performance

Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1) 361) If the field length limited take off mass has been
With regard to the take off performance chart for the calculated using a Balanced Field Length technique, the
single engine aeroplane determine the maximum use of any additional clearway in take off performance
allowable take off mass . calculations may allow
Given : A a greater field length limited take off mass but with a higher
O.A.T : ISA V1
Headwind component: 5 kt B the obstacle clearance limit to be increased with no effect on
Flaps: up V1
Runway: Tarred and Dry
Factored runway length: 2000 ft C the obstacle clearance limit to be increased with an higher
Obstacle height: 50 ft V1
A 3000 lbs D a greater field length limited take off mass but with a lower
V1
B 2900 lbs
C > 3650 lbs
D 3240 lbs
350) Which statement is correct for a descent without engine 354) Which statement regarding V1 is correct?
thrust at maximum lift to drag ratio speed?
A A tailwind component increases fuel and time to descent. A V1 is not allowed to be greater than VMCG.
B A tailwind component decreases the ground distance. B When determining the V1, reverse thrust is only allowed to
be taken into account on the remaining symmetric engines.
C A tailwind component increases the ground distance.
C The V1 correction for up-slope is negative.
D A headwind component increases the ground distance. D V1 is not allowed to be greater than VR.
351) Which of the following is true according to JAA 355) The 'maximum tyre speed' limits:
regulations for turbopropeller powered aeroplanes not
performing a steep approach?
A VR, or VMU if this is lower than VR.
A Maximum Take-off Run is 0,5 x runway.
B V1 in kt ground speed.
B Maximum use of clearway is 1,5 x runway.
C VLOF in terms of ground speed.
C Maximum Landing Distance at the destination aerodrome
and at any alternate aerodrome is 0,7 x LDA (Landing D V1 in kt TAS.
Distance Available).
D Maximum Landing Distance at destination is 0,95 x LDA

(Landing Distance Available). 356) The result of a higher flap setting up to the optimum at
take-off is
352) Under which condition should you fly considerably A a higher V1.
lower (4 000 ft or more) than the optimum altitude ?
B a longer take-off run.
A If at the lower altitude either more headwind or less tailwind
can be expected. C a shorter ground roll.
B If at the lower altitude either considerably less headwind or D an increased acceleration.

considerably more tailwind can be expected.
C If the maximum altitude is below the optimum altitude.

357) Which of the following provides maximum obstacle
D If the temperature is lower at the low altitude (high altitude clearance during climb?
inversion).
A 1.2Vs.
353) Which of the following statements is applicable to the B The speed for maximum rate of climb.
acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd climb
segment ? C The speed, at which the flaps may be selected one position
further UP.
A The minimum legally allowed acceleration height is at 1500
ft. D The speed for maximum climb angle Vx.
B There is no requirement for minimum climb performance

when flying at the acceleration height.
358) In relation to the net take-off flight path, the required 35
ft vertical distance to clear all obstacles is
C The minimum one engine out acceleration height must be
maintained in case of all engines operating.
A based on pressure altitudes.
D The maximum acceleration height depends on the maximum
time take-off thrust may be applied. B the height by which acceleration and flap retraction should
be completed.
C the height at which power is reduced to maximum climb

thrust.
D the minimum vertical distance between the lowest part of the

aeroplane and all obstacles within the obstacle corridor.
7) Which of the following statements is correct? 363) The take-off run is
A The performance limited take-off mass is independant of the A the horizontal distance along the take-off path from the start
wind component. of the take-off to a point equidistant between the point at
which VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane
B The accelerate stop distance required is independant of the is 35 ft above the take-off surface.
runway condition.
B 1.5 times the distance from the point of brake release to a
C The take-off distance with one engine out is independant of point equidistant between the point at which VLOF is
the wind component. reached and the point at which the aeroplane attains a
height of 35 ft above the runway with all engines operative.
D The climb limited take-off mass is independant of the wind
component. C 1.15 times the distance from the point of brake release to the
point at which VLOF is reached assuming a failure of the
critical engine at V1.
360) The coefficient of lift can be increased either by flap
extension or by D the distance of the point of brake release to a point
equidistant between the point at which VLOF is reached and
the point at which the aeroplane attains a height of 50 ft
A increasing the CAS.
above the runway assuming a failure of the critical engine at
V1.
B increasing the angle of attack.
C increasing the TAS.

364) The use of reduced take-off thrust is permitted, only if:
D decreasing the 'nose-up' elevator trim setting.
A The actual take-off mass (TOM) is greater than the climb
limited TOM.
29) Considering TAS for maximum range and maximum B The actual take-off mass (TOM) is lower than the field
endurance, other factors remaining constant, length limited TOM.
A TAS for maximum range will increase with increased altitude C The take-off distance available is lower than the take-off
while TAS for maximum endurance will decrease with distance required one engine out at V1.
increased altitude.
D The actual take-off mass (TOM) including a margin is
B both will increase with increasing altitude. greater than the performance limited TOM.
C both will decrease with increasing altitude.

365) With one or two engines inoperative the best specific
D both will stay constant regardless of altitude. range at high altitudes is
A first improved and later reduced.

B reduced.
A An engine failure at high cruising altitude will always result in

C improved.
a drift down, because it is not permitted to fly the same
altitude as with all engines operating.
D not affected.
B When determining the obstacle clearance during drift down,
fuel dumping may be taken into account.
366) A jet aeroplane equipped with old engines has a specific
C The drift down regulations require a minimum descent angle fuel consumption of 0.06 kg per Newton of thrust and
after an engine failure at cruising altitude. per hour and, in a given flying condition, a fuel mileage
of 14 kg per Nautical Mile. In the same flying conditions,
D The drift down procedure requires a minimum obstacle the same aeroplane equipped with modern engines with
clearance of 35 ft. a specific fuel consumption of 0.035 kg per Newton of
thrust and per hour, has a fuel mileage of:
A 10.7 kg/NM.
B 8.17 kg/NM.
C 14 kg/NM.
D 11.7 kg/NM.
1) The optimum cruise altitude is 64) The drift down requirements are based on:
A the pressure altitude up to which a cabin altitude of 8000 ft A the actual engine thrust output at the altitude of engine
can be maintained. failure.
B the pressure altitude at which the speed for high speed B the maximum flight path gradient during the descent.
buffet as TAS is a maximum.
C the landing mass limit at the alternate.
C the pressure altitude at which the best specific range can be
achieved.
D the obstacle clearance during a descent to the new cruising
altitude if an engine has failed.
D the pressure altitude at which the fuel flow is a maximum.

2) Which statement with respect to the step climb is
correct?
A VR must not be less than 1.05 VMCA and not less than 1.1
A A step climb is executed because ATC desires a higher V1.
altitude.
B VR must not be less than 1.05 VMCA and not less than V1.
B A step climb is executed in principle when, just after leveling
off, the 1.3g altitude is reached. C VR must not be less than VMCA and not less than 1.05 V1.
C Executing a desired step climb at high altitude can be limited D VR must not be less than 1.1 VMCA and not less than V1.
by buffet onset at g-loads larger than 1.
D A step climb must be executed immediately after the

aeroplane has exceeded the optimum altitude. 54) If the level-off altitude is below the obstacle clearance
altitude during a drift down procedure
3) Which speed provides maximum obstacle clearance A fuel jettisoning should be started at the beginning of drift
during climb? down.
A The speed for which the ratio between rate of climb and B the recommended drift down speed should be disregarded
forward speed is maximum. and it should be flown at the stall speed plus 10 kt.
B V2 + 10 kt. C fuel jettisoning should be started when the obstacle

clearance altitude is reached.
C The speed for maximum rate of climb. D the drift down should be flown with flaps in the approach
configuration.
D V2.
55) After engine failure the aeroplane is unable to maintain

4) On a reciprocating engined aeroplane, to maintain a its cruising altitude. What is the procedure which should
given angle of attack, configuration and altitude at be applied?
higher gross mass
A Emergency Descent Procedure.
A the airspeed and the drag will be increased.
B ETOPS.
B the airspeed will be decreased and the drag increased.
C Long Range Cruise Descent.
C the lift/drag ratio must be increased.
D Drift Down Procedure.
D the airspeed will be increased but the drag does not change.
56) With all engines out, a pilot wants to fly for maximum
359) The stopway is an area which allows an increase only in : time. Therefore he has to fly the speed corresponding to:
A the minimum drag.

A the accelerate-stop distance available.
B the critical Mach number.
B the take-off run available.
C the minimum angle of descent.
C the take-off distance available.
D the maximum lift.
D the landing distance available.
57) Which of the following statements with regard to the 61) (For this question use annex 032-6570A or Performance
actual acceleration height at the beginning of the 3rd Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4)
climb segment is correct? With regard to the landing chart for the single engine
A The minimum value according to regulations is 1000 ft. of 50 ft .
B There is no legal minimum value, because this will be Given :

determined from case to case during the calculation of the O.A.T : ISA +15°C
net flight path. Pressure Altitude: 0 ft
Aeroplane Mass: 2940 lbs
C The minimum value according to regulations is 400 ft. Tailwind component: 10 kt
D A lower height than 400 ft is allowed in special
circumstances e.g. noise abatement.
The take-off distance available is

B approximately : 1400 feet
58)
C approximately : 750 feet

A the total runway length, without clearway even if this one
exists. D approximately : 1300 feet
B the length of the take-off run available plus the length of the
clearway available.
52) Maximum endurance for a piston engined aeroplane is
C the runway length minus stopway. achieved at:
D the runway length plus half of the clearway. A The speed that approximately corresponds to the maximum
rate of climb speed.
B The speed for maximum lift coefficient.

59) At constant thrust and constant altitude the fuel flow of
a jet engine C The speed for minimum drag.
A increases slightly with increasing airspeed. D The speed that corresponds to the speed for maximum
climb angle.
B is independent of the airspeed.
C decreases slightly with increasing airspeed. 63) (For this question use annex 032-6582A or Performance
D increases with decreasing OAT. Using the climb performance chart, for the single engine
aeroplane, determine the ground distance to reach a
height of 1500 ft above the reference zero inthe
60) During certification flight testing on a four engine
Given :
turbojet aeroplane the actual take-off distances
O.A.T at Take-off: ISA
measured are:
Airport pressure altitude: 5000 ft
- 3050 m with failure of the critical engine recognised at
Aeroplane mass: 3300 lbs
V1
Speed: 100 KIAS
- 2555 m with all engines operating and all other things
Wind component: 5 kts Tailwind
being equal
The take-off distance adopted for the certification file is:

A 18 909 ft
A 3050 m B 18 073 ft
B 3513 m C 20 109 ft
C 2555 m D 16 665 ft
D 2938 m
51) For a turboprop powered aeroplane, a 2200 m long 69) Which of the following statements is correct?
runway at the destination aerodrome is expected to be
"wet". The "dry runway" landing distance, should not
exceed: A VR is the speed at which, during rotation, the nose wheel
comes off the runway.
A 1540 m.
B VR is the speed at which the pilot should start to rotate the
aeroplane.
B 1147 m.
C VR should not be higher than V1.
C 1339 m.
D VR should not be higher than 1.05 VMCG.
D 1771 m.
70) Field length is balanced when

65) An aeroplane executes a steady glide at the speed for
minimum glide angle. If the forward speed is kept
constant, what is the effect of a lower mass? A one engine acceleration from V1 to VLOF plus flare distance
between VLOF and 35 feet are equal.
Rate of descent / Glide angle / CL/CD ratio
B take-off distance equals accelerate-stop distance.
A decreases / constant / decreases
C calculated V2 is less than 110% VMCA and V1, VR, VMCG.
B increases / increases / constant
D all engine acceleration to V1 and braking distance for
C increases / constant / increases rejected take-off are equal.
D increases / increases / decreases

Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.4 )
For a twin engine turbojet aeroplane two take-off flap
66) Which of the following statements is correct? settings (5° and 15°) are certified.
Given:
Field length avalaible= 2400 m
A Induced drag decreases with increasing speed.
Outside air temperature= -10°C
Airport pressure altitude= 7000 ft
B Induced drag increases with increasing speed. The maximum allowed take-off mass is:
C Induced drag is independant of the speed. A 55 000 kg
D Induced drag decreases with increasing angle of attack. B 70 000 kg
C 52 000 kg
67) A flight is planned with a turbojet aeroplane to an
aerodrome with a landing distance available of 2400 m. D 56 000 kg
Which of the following is the maximum landing distance
for a dry runway?
72) Which of the following answers is true?
A 1 440 m.
B 1 250 m. A V1 > VR
C 1 090 m. B V1 < VMCG
D 1 655 m. C V1 <= VR
D V1 > Vlof
68) How does the thrust of fixed propeller vary during take-
off run ? The thrust
A increases slightly while the aeroplane speed builds up.
B varies with mass changes only.
C has no change during take-off and climb.
D decreases slightly while the aeroplane speed builds up.
166) Which of the equations below expresses approximately 31) Which one of the following statements concerning drift-
the unaccelerated percentage climb gradient for small down is correct?
climb angles?
A The drift-down procedure requires a minimum descent angle
A Climb Gradient = ((Thrust - Drag)/Weight) x 100 after an engine failure at cruising altitude.
B Climb Gradient = ((Thrust + Drag)/Lift) x 100 B The drift-down procedure requires a minimum obstacle
clearance of 35 ft.
C Climb Gradient = ((Thrust - Mass)/Lift) x 100
C An engine failure at high cruising altitude will always result in
a drift-down, because it is not permitted to fly the same
D Cimb Gradient = (Lift/Weight) x 100 altitude with one engine inoperative as with all engines
operating.
62) On a long distance flight the gross mass decreases D When determining the obstacle clearance during drift-down,
continuously as a consequence of the fuel consumption. fuel dumping may be taken into account.
The result is:
A The speed must be increased to compensate the lower 32) Two identical turbojet aeroplanes (whose specific fuel
mass. consumption is assumed to be constant) are in a
holding pattern at the same altitude. The mass of the
B The specific range increases and the optimum altitude first one is 95 000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is
decreases. equal to 3100 kg/h. Since the mass of the second one is
105 000 kg, its hourly fuel consumption is:
C The specific range decreases and the optimum altitude
increases. A 3787 kg/h
D The specific range and the optimum altitude increases. B 3426 kg/h
C 3259 kg/h
41) The Density Altitude
D 3602 kg/h
A is used to calculate the FL above the Transition Altitude.
B is used to determine the aeroplane performance. 33) As long as an aeroplane is in a positive climb
C is equal to the pressure altitude. A VX is always below VY.
D is used to establish minimum clearance of 2.000 feet over B VX is sometimes below and sometimes above VY
mountains. depending on altitude.
C VX is always above VY.

30) The climb gradient of an aircraft after take-off is 6% in
standard atmosphere, no wind, at 0 ft pressure altitude. D VY is always above VMO.
Using the following corrections:
"± 0,2 % / 1 000 ft field elevation"
"± 0,1 % / °C from standard temperature"
" - 1 % with wing anti-ice" 34) What is the advantage of balancing V1, even in the event
" - 0,5% with engine anti-ice" of a climb limited take-off?
The climb gradient after take-off from an airport situated
at 1 000 ft, 17° C; QNH 1013,25 hPa, with wing and A The safety margin with respect to the runway length is
engine anti-ice operating for a functional check is : greatest.
A 3,9 % B The take-off distance required with one engine out at V1 is

the shortest.
B 4,3 %
C The accelerate stop distance required is the shortest.
C 4,7 %
D The climb limited take-off mass is the highest.
D 4,9 %
35) What happens to the drag of a jet aeroplane if, during 40) For take-off obstacle clearance calculations, obstacles
the initial climb after take off, constant IAS is in the first segment may be avoided
maintained?
(Assume a constant mass.) A by banking not more than 15° between 50 ft and 400 ft
above the runway elevation.
A The drag decreases.
B by banking as much as needed if aeroplane is more than 50
B The drag increases initially and decreases thereafter. ft above runway elevation.
C The drag remains almost constant. C only by using standard turns.
D The drag increases considerably.

D by standard turns - but only after passing 1500 ft.
74) A jet aeroplane is climbing at constant Mach number

36) The point where Drag coefficient/Lift coefficient is a
below the tropopause. Which of the following
minimum is
statements is correct?
A at stalling speed (VS).
A IAS decreases and TAS decreases.
B on the "back side" of the drag curve.

B IAS increases and TAS increases.
C the point where a tangent from the origin touches the drag
C IAS decreases and TAS increases.
curve.
D the lowest point of the drag curve. D IAS increases and TAS decreases.
37) The speed VR 42) Which of the following factors leads to the maximum
flight time of a glide?
A must be higher than VLOF. A Low mass.
B must be equal to or lower than V1. B High mass.
C is the speed at which rotation to the lift-off angle of attack is C Headwind.

initiated.
D Tailwind.
D must be higher than V2.
43) A constant headwind

38) At a given mass, the stalling speed of a twin engine
aircraft is 100 kt in the landing configuration. The
minimum speed a pilot must maintain in short final is: A increases the descent distance over ground.
A 130 kt B increases the angle of the descent flight path.
B 115 kt C increases the angle of descent.
C 125 kt D increases the rate of descent.
D 120 kt
44) The second segment begins
53) When the outside air temperature increases, then

A when landing gear is fully retracted.
A the field length limited take-off mass decreases but the B when flap retraction begins.
climb limited take-off mass increases.
B the field length limited take-off mass increases but the climb C when flaps are selected up.
limited take-off mass decreases.
D when acceleration starts from V2 to the speed for flap
C the field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited retraction.
take-off mass decreases.
D the field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited
take-off mass increases.
45) The stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed 50) Higher gross mass at the same altitude decreases the
at which the aeroplane is controllable in landing gradient and the rate of climb whereas
configuration is abbreviated as
A VY and VX are increased.
A VS1.
B VX is increased and VY is decreased.
B VS.
C VY and VX are not affected by a higher gross mass.
C VMC.
D VY and VX are decreased.
D VSO.
39) In case of an engine failure which is recognized at or

46) If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is tyre speed limited, above V1
downhill slope would
A the take-off should be rejected if the speed is still below VR.
A increase the maximum mass for take-off.
B the take-off must be continued.
B increase the required take-off distance.
C the take-off must be rejected if the speed is still below VLOF.
C have no effect on the maximum mass for take-off.
D a height of 50 ft must be reached within the take-off
D decrease the maximum mass for take-off. distance.
47) What will be the effect on an aeroplane's performance if 292) When flying the "Backside of Thrustcurve" means
aerodrome pressure altitude is decreased?
A a lower airspeed requires more thrust.
A It will increase the take-off distance required.
B the thrust required is independent of the airspeed.
B It will increase the take-off ground run.
C a thrust reduction results in an acceleration of the aeroplane.

C It will increase the accelerate stop distance.
D a lower airspeed requires less thrust because drag is
D It will decrease the take-off distance required. decreased.
48) An aeroplane carries out a descent from FL 410 to FL 282) VR cannot be lower than:
270 at cruise Mach number, and from FL 270 to FL 100 at
the IAS reached at FL 270.
How does the angle of descent change in the first and in A 105% of V1 and VMCA.
the second part of the descent?
Assume idle thrust and clean configuration and ignore B 1.2 Vs for twin and three engine jet aeroplane.
compressibility effects.
C 1.15 Vs for turbo-prop with three or more engines.
A Increases in the first part; is constant in the second.
D V1 and 105% of VMCA.
B Increases in the first part; decreases in the second.
C Is constant in the first part; decreases in the second.

283) Given:
VS= Stalling speed
D Decreases in the first part; increases in the second.
VMCA= Air minimum control speed
VMU= Minimum unstick speed (disregarding engine
failure)
49) A constant headwind component V1= take-off decision speed
VR= Rotation speed
V2 min.= Minimum take-off safety speed
A increases the angle of flight path during climb. VLOF: Lift-off speed
The correct formula is:
B increases the best rate of climb.
A VR< VMCA< VLOF
C decreases the angle of climb.
B VMU<= VMCA< V1
D increases the maximum endurance.
C V2min< VMCA> VMU
D VS< VMCA< V2 min
284) On a dry runway the accelerate stop distance is 288) (For this question use annex 032-2219A or Performance
increased Manual SEP1 1 Figure 2.4 )
With regard to the graph for landing performance, what
A by headwind. is the minimum headwind component required in order
to land at Helgoland airport?
B by low outside air temperature. Given:
Runway length: 1300 ft
Runway elevation: MSL
C by a lower take-off mass because the aeroplane accelerates
Weather: assume ISA conditions
faster to V1.
Mass: 3200 lbs
Obstacle height: 50 ft
D by uphill slope.
A No wind.
285) With regard to a unaccelerated horizontal flight, which B 5 kt.

of the following statement is correct?
C 15 kt.
A The minimum drag is independant of the aircraft mass.
D 10 kt.
B The minimum drag is proportional to the aircraft mass.
C The minimum drag is a function of the pressure altitude.

289) Which of the following speeds can be limited by the
'maximum tyre speed'?
D The minimum drag is is a function of the density altitude.
A Lift-off groundspeed.
286) With an true airspeed of 194 kt and a vertical speed of 1 B Lift-off IAS.
000 ft/min, the climb gradient is about :
C Lift-off TAS.
A 3°
D Lift-off EAS.
B 3%
C 5°
164) The maximum operating altitude for a certain aeroplane
with a pressurised cabin
D 8%
A is dependent on aerodynamic ceiling.
287) Concerning the landing gear, which of the following B is dependent on the OAT.
factors would limit the take-off mass?
A Nitrogen pressure in the strut and brake temperature.

C is only certified for four-engine aeroplanes.
D is the highest pressure altitude certified for normal operation.

B Rate of rotation of the wheel at lift off and brake energy.
C Tyre pressure and brake temperature.

291) A higher outside air temperature (OAT)
D Rate of rotation of the wheel and tyre pressure.
A decreases the brake energy limited take-off mass.
B increases the field length limited take-off mass.
C increases the climb limited take-off mass.
D decreases the take-off distance.
279) Why are 'step climbs' used on long distance flights ? 296) In which of the following distances can the length of a
stopway be included?
A Step climbs do not have any special purpose for jet A In the accelerate stop distance available.
aeroplanes; they are used for piston engine aeroplanes only.
B To respect ATC flight level constraints. B In the one-engine failure case, take-off distance.
C To fly as close as possible to the optimum altitude as C In the all-engine take-off distance.
aeroplane mass reduces.
D In the take-off run available.
D Step climbs are only justified if at the higher altitude less
headwind or more tailwind can be expected.
297) For jet aeroplanes which of the following statements is
correct?
293) If the take-off mass of an aeroplane is brake energy
limited a higher uphill slope would A When determining the maximum allowable landing mass at
destination, 60% of the available distance is taken into
A have no effect on the maximum mass for take-off. account, if the runway is expected to be dry.
B decrease the required take-off distance. B In any case runway slope is one of the factors taken into
account when determining the required landing field length.
C increase the maximum mass for take-off.
C An anti-skid system malfunction has no effect on the
required landing field length.
D decrease the maximum mass for take-off.
D The required landing field length is the distance from 35 ft to
the full stop point.
294) The approach climb requirement has been established
so that the aeroplane will achieve:
A manoeuverability during approach with full flaps and gear Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4)
down, all engines operating. With regard to the landing chart for the single engine
B minimum climb gradient in the event of a go-around with one of 50 ft .
engine inoperative.
Given :
C obstacle clearance in the approach area. O.A.T : ISA
D manoeuverability in the event of landing with one engine Aeroplane Mass: 3500 lbs
inoperative. Tailwind component: 5 kt
single engine aeroplane determine the take off distance B approximately :1150 feet
to a height of 50 ft .
Given :
O.A.T : 30°C D approximately : 920 feet
Tailwind component: 2.5 kt
Flaps: up 299) (For this question use annex 032-4732A or Performance
Runway: Tarred and Dry Manual MRJT 1 Figure 4.24)
With regard to the drift down performance of the twin jet
A approximately : 2200 feet aeroplane, what is meant by "equivalent gross weight at
engine failure" ?
A The increment accounts for the higher fuel flow at higher
temperatures.
B The equivalent gross weight at engine failure is the actual
D approximately : 2800 feet gross weight corrected for OAT higher than ISA +10°C.
C The increment represents fuel used before engine failure.
D This gross weight accounts for the lower Mach number at

higher temperatures.
300) Which of the following factors will lead to an increase of 260) At which minimum height will the second climb segment
ground distance during a glide, while maintaining the end?
appropriate minimum glide angle speed?
A 1500 ft above field elevation.
A Headwind.
B 400 ft above field elevation.
B Tailwind.
C 35 ft above ground.
C Increase of aircraft mass.
D When gear retraction is completed.
D Decrease of aircraft mass.
261) In case of an engine failure recognized below V1

301) Which of the following sequences of speed for a jet
aeroplane is correct ? (from low to high speeds)
A the take-off must be rejected.
A Maximum endurance speed, maximum range speed,
maximum angle of climb speed. B the take-off may be continued if a clearway is available.
B Maximum endurance speed, long range speed, maximum C the take-off should only be rejected if a stopway is available.
range speed.
D the take-off is to be continued unless V1 is less than the
C Vs, maximum angle climb speed, maximum range speed. balanced V1.
D Vs, maximum range speed, maximum angle climb speed.

262) On a segment of the take-off flight path an obstacle
requires a minimum gradient of climb of 2.6% in order to
290) Vx and Vy with take-off flaps will be: provide an adequate margin of safe clearance. At a
mass of 110000 kg the gradient of climb is 2.8%. For the
same power and assuming that the sine of the angle of
A lower than that for clean configuration. climb varies inversely with mass, at what maximum
mass will the aeroplane be able to achieve the minimum
B higher than that for clean configuration. gradient?
C same as that for clean configuration. A 121310 kg
D changed so that Vx increases and Vy decreases compared B 106425 kg

to clean configuration.
C 118455 kg
270) The speed V1 is defined as D 102150 kg
A take-off climb speed.

263) The take-off safety speed V2 for two-engined or three-
engined turbo propeller powered aeroplanes may not be
B speed for best angle of climb.
less than:
C engine failure speed. A 1.3 Vs
D take-off decision speed. B 1.15 Vs
C 1.15 Vs1
259) The maximum rate of climb that can be maintained at the
absolute ceiling is: D 1.2 Vs
A 0 ft/min
B 125 ft/min 264) The pilot of a jet aeroplane wants to use a minimum
amount of fuel between two airfields. Which flight
procedure should the pilot fly?
C 500 ft/min
A Maximum endurance.
D 100 ft/min
B Holding.
C Long range.
D Maximum range.
265) When V1 has to be reduced because of a wet runway the 269) What margin above the stall speed is provided by the
one engine out obstacle clearance / climb performance: landing reference speed VREF?
A increases / increases. A 1,10 VSO
B remains constant / remains constant. B VMCA x 1,2
C decreases / decreases. C 1,30 VSO
D decreases / remains constant. D 1,05 VSO
266) Density altitude is the 280) In the event of engine failure below V1, the first action to
be taken by the pilot in order to decelerate the aeroplane
is to:
A altitude read directly from the altimeter
A apply wheel brakes.
B height above the surface
B deploy airbrakes or spoilers.
C pressure altitude corrected for 'non standard' temperature
C reduce the engine thrust.
D altitude reference to the standard datum plane
D reverse engine thrust.
267) An increase in atmospheric pressure has, among other

things, the following consequences on landing 271) A multi engine aeroplane is flying at the minimum
performance: control speed (VMCA). Which parameter(s) must be
maintainable after engine failure?
A a reduced landing distance and degraded go around
performance A Heading, altitude and a positive rate of climb of 100 ft/min
B a reduced landing distance and improved go-around
performance B Altitude
C an increased landing distance and degraded go-around C Straight flight

performance
D Straight flight and altitude
D an increased landing distance and improved go-around
performance
272) Long range cruise is selected as

281) The determination of the maximum mass on brake
release, of a certified turbojet aeroplane with 5°, 15° and A the higher speed to achieve 99% of maximum specific range
25° flaps angles on take-off, leads to the following in zero wind.
values, with wind:
Flap angle: 5° 15° 25° B the speed for best economy.
Runway limitation (kg): 66 000 69 500 71 500
2nd segment slope limitation: 72 200 69 000 61 800 C the climbing cruise with one or two engines inoperative.
Wind correction:
Head wind:+120kg / kt
Tail wind: -360kg / kt
D specific range with tailwind.
Given that the tail wind component is equal to 5 kt, the
maximum mass on brake release and corresponding
flap angle will be: 273) An airport has a 3000 metres long runway, and a 2000
metres clearway at each end of that runway. For the
A 67 700 kg / 15 deg calculation of the maximum allowed take-off mass, the
take-off distance available cannot be greater than:
B 69 000 kg / 15 deg
A 6000 metres.
C 72 200 kg / 5 deg
B 4000 metres.
D 69 700 kg / 25 deg
C 5000 metres.
D 4500 metres.
274) The length of a clearway may be included in: 278) (For this question use annex 032-6584A or Flight
Planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.2 Table 2.2.3)
Using the Power Setting Table, for the single engine
A the accelerate-stop distance available. aeroplane, determine the manifold pressure and fuel
flow (lbs/hr) with full throttle and cruise lean mixture in
B the take-off run available. the following conditions:
C the distance to reach V1. Given:

OAT: 13°C
D the take-off distance available. Pressure altitude: 8000 ft
RPM: 2300
A 22,4 in.Hg and 73,8 lbs/hr

275) What happens when an aeroplane climbs at a constant
Mach number? B 22,4 in.Hg and 69,3 lbs/hr
A IAS stays constant so there will be no problems.

C 23,0 in.Hg and 69,0 lbs/hr
B The "1.3G" altitude is exceeded, so Mach buffet will start D 22,4 in.Hg and 71,1 lbs/hr
immediately.
C The lift coefficient increases.

304) The optimum long-range cruise altitude for a turbojet
D The TAS continues to increase, which may lead to aeroplane:
structural problems.
A is only dependent on the outside air temperature.
276) A higher altitude at constant mass and Mach number B increases when the aeroplane mass decreases.
requires
C is always equal to the powerplant ceiling.
A a lower coefficient of drag.
D is independent of the aeroplane mass.
B a lower angle of attack.
C a higher angle of attack. 268) Approaching in turbulent wind conditions requires a

change in the landing reference speed (VREF):
D a lower coefficient of lift.
A Increasing VREF
277) The decision speed at take-off (V1) is the calibrated B Lowering VREF
airspeed:
C Keeping same VREF because wind has no influence on IAS.
A at which the take-off must be rejected.
D Increasing VREF and making a steeper glide path to avoid
B below which the take-off must be continued. the use of spoilers.
C at which the failure of the critical engine is expected to occur.

338) How is VMCA influenced by increasing pressure
D below which take-off must be rejected if an engine failure is altitude?
recognized, above which take-off must be continued.
A VMCA decreases with increasing pressure altitude.
B VMCA increases with pressure altitude higher than 4000 ft.
C VMCA increases with increasing pressure altitude.
D VMCA is not affected by pressure altitude.
302) Two identical turbojet aeroplane (whose specific fuel 331) The take-off distance of an aircraft is 600m in standard
consumptions are considered to be equal) are at holding atmosphere, no wind at 0 ft pressure-altitude.
speed at the same altitude. Using the following corrections:
The mass of the first aircraft is 130 000 kg and its hourly "± 20 m / 1 000 ft field elevation"
fuel consumption is 4300 kg/h. The mass of the second "- 5 m / kt headwind"
aircraft is 115 000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is: "+ 10 m / kt tail wind"
"± 15 m / % runway slope"
A 4044 kg/h. "± 5 m / °C deviation from standard temperature"
The take-off distance from an airport at 1 000 ft
B 3365 kg/h. elevation, temperature 17°C, QNH 1013,25 hPa, 1% up-
slope, 10 kt tail wind is:
C 3578 kg/h.
A 555 m
D 3804 kg/h.
B 685 m
C 755 m
Assuming constant L/D ratio, which of the diagrams D 715 m
provided correctly shows the movement of the "Thrust
Required Curve .(M1>M2).
A d 332) "Maximum endurance"
B c A is the same as maximum specific range with wind correction.
C a B can be flown in a steady climb only.
D b
C can be reached with the 'best rate of climb' speed in level
flight.
329) (For this question use annex 032-6572A or Performance D is achieved in unaccelerated level flight with minimum fuel
Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4) consumption.
of 50 ft . 333) VX is
Given :
O.A.T : 0°C A the speed for best rate of climb.
Aeroplane Mass: 3500 lbs B the speed for best specific range.
Tailwind component: 5 kt
Flaps: Landing position (down) C the speed for best angle of flight path.

D the speed for best angle of climb.

334) During take-off the third segment begins:
A when acceleration to flap retraction speed is started.
D approximately : 1150 feet
B when landing gear is fully retracted.
330) A head wind will: C when acceleration starts from VLOF to V2.
A increase the rate of climb.

D when flap retraction is completed.
B shorten the time of climb.
C increase the climb flight path angle.
D increase the angle of climb.
335) Which statement with respect to the step climb is 339) The speed range between low speed buffet and high
correct ? speed buffet
A A step climb provides better economy than a cruise climb. A decreases with increasing mass and is independent of
altitude.
B Performing a step climb based on economy can be limited
by the 1.3-g altitude. B is only limiting at low altitudes.
C In principle a step climb is performed immediately after the C increases with increasing mass.
aircraft has exceeded the optimum altitude.
D narrows with increasing mass and increasing altitude.
D A step climb may not be performed unless it is indicated in
the filed flight plan.
340) If there is a tail wind, the climb limited TOM will:

326) The climb limited take-off mass can be increased by
A increase.
A selecting a lower VR.
B decrease.
B a lower flap setting for take-off and selecting a higher V2.
C increase in the flaps extended case.
C selecting a lower V1.
D not be affected.
D selecting a lower V2.
341) According to JAR-OPS 1, which one of the following

statements concerning the landing distance for a
337) The maximum mass for landing could be limited by
turbojet aeroplane is correct?
A the climb requirements with all engines in the landing A The landing distance is the distance from 35 ft above the
configuration but with gear up. surface of the runway to the full stop.
B the climb requirements with one engine inoperative in the B When determining the maximum allowable landing mass at
approach configuration. destination, 60% of the available landing runway length
should be taken into account.
C the climb requirements with one engine inoperative in the
landing configuration. C Reverse thrust is one of the factors always taken into
account when determining the landing distance required.
D the climb requirements with all engines in the approach
configuration. D Malfunctioning of an anti-skid system has no effect on the
required runway length.

Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4) 342) By what factor must the landing distance available (dry
Using the Landing Diagramm, for single engine runway) for a turbojet powered aeroplane be multiplied
aeroplane, determine the landing distance (from a to find the landing distance required? (planning phase
screen height of 50 ft) required, in the following for destination).
conditions:
Given : A 115/100
Pressure altitude: 4000 ft
O.A.T.: 5°C B 1.67
Aeroplane mass: 3530 lbs
Flaps: Approach setting
C 60/115
Runway: tarred and dry
Landing gear: down D 0.60
A 1550 ft
343) The landing field length required for jet aeroplanes at
B 1020 ft the alternate (wet condition) is the demonstrated landing
distance plus
C 1400 ft
A 92%
D 880 ft
B 43%
C 70%
D 67%
344) The take-off distance of an aircraft is 800m in standard 347) (For this question use annex 032-6576A or Performance
atmosphere, no wind at 0 ft pressure-altitude. Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.2)
Using the following corrections : With regard to the take off performance chart for the
single engine aeroplane determine the take off distance
"± 20 m / 1 000 ft field elevation " to a height of 50 ft.
"- 5 m / kt headwind "
"+ 10 m / kt tail wind " Given :
"± 15 m / % runway slope " O.A.T : -7°C
"± 5 m / °C deviation from standard temperature " Pressure Altitude: 7000 ft
The take-off distance from an airport at 2 000 ft Headwind component: 5 kt
elevation, temperature 21°C, QNH 1013.25 hPa, 2% up- Flaps: Approach setting
slope, 5 kt tail wind is : Runway: Tarred and Dry
A 810 m A approximately : 1150 ft
B 970 m B approximately : 2450 ft
C 890 m C approximately : 1260 ft
D 870 m D approximately : 2050 ft
345) A jet aeroplane descends with constant Mach number. 336) With a jet aeroplane the maximum climb angle can be
Which of the following speed limits is most likely to be flown at approximately:
exceeded first?
A 1.2 Vs
A Maximum Operational Mach Number
B 1.1 Vs
B Maximum Operating Speed
C The highest CL/CD ratio.
C Never Exceed Speed
D The highest CL/CD² ratio.
D High Speed Buffet Limit
315) During climb with all engines, the altitude where the rate
346) The best rate of climb at a constant gross mass of climb reduces to 100 ft/min is called:
A Thrust ceiling
A decreases with increasing altitude since the thrust available
decreases due to the lower air density.
B Maximum transfer ceiling
B increases with increasing altitude since the drag decreases
due to the lower air density. C Service ceiling
C increases with increasing altitude due to the higher true D Absolute ceiling
airspeed.
D is independent of altitude.
256) The net flight path climb gradient after take-off
compared to the gross climb gradient is:
A larger.
B equal.
C depends on type of aircraft.
D smaller.
305) The approach climb requirement has been established 310) Can the length of a stopway be added to the runway
to ensure: length to determine the take-off distance available ?
A minimum climb gradient in case of a go-around with one A Yes, but the stopway must be able to carry the weight of the
engine inoperative. aeroplane.
B obstacle clearance in the approach area. B Yes, but the stopway must have the same width as the
runway.
C manoeuvrability in case of landing with one engine
inoperative. C No.
D manoeuvrability during approach with full flaps and gear D No, unless its centerline is on the extended centerline of the
down, all engines operating. runway.
306) For a piston engined aeroplane, the speed for maximum 311) During a glide at constant Mach number, the pitch angle
range is : of the aeroplane will:
A that which gives the maximum lift to drag ratio. A decrease.
B that which givesthe minimum value of drag. B increase.
C that which givesthe maximun value of lift C increase at first and decrease later on.
D 1.4 times the stall speed in clean configuration. D remain constant.
307) Other factors remaining constant, how does increasing 312) Any acceleration in climb, with a constant power setting,
altitude affect Vx and Vy:
A Vx will decrease and Vy will increase. A improves the climb gradient if the airspeed is below VX.
B Both will increase. B improves the rate of climb if the airspeed is below VY.
C Both will remain the same. C decreases rate of climb and increses angle of climb.
D Both will decrease. D decreases the rate of climb and the angle of climb.
308) Which of the following three speeds of a jet aeroplane 327) Which is the correct sequence of speeds during take-off?
are basically identical?
The speeds for: A V1, VR, V2, VMCA.
A maximum range, minimum drag and minimum glide angle.

B VMCG, V1, VR, V2.
B maximum climb angle, minimum glide angle and maximum
range. C V1, VMCG, VR, V2.
C holding, maximum climb angle and minimum glide angle. D V1, VR, VMCG, V2.
D maximum drag, maximum endurance and maximum climb

angle. 314) A climb gradient required is 3,3%. For an aircraft
maintaining 100 kt true airspeed , no wind, this climb
gradient corresponds to a rate of climb of approximately:
309) Due to standing water on the runway the field length
limited take-off mass will be A 3,30 m/s
A only higher for three and four engine aeroplanes. B 33,0 m/s
B lower. C 330 ft/min
C higher. D 3 300 ft/min
D unaffected.
303) Which of the following will decrease V1? 319) The effect of a higher take-off flap setting up to the
optimum is:
A Inoperative flight management system. A an increase of both the field length limited take-off mass and
the climb limited take-off mass.
B Increased outside air temperature.
B an increase of the field length limited take-off mass but a
C Inoperative anti-skid. decrease of the climb limited take-off mass.
D Increased take-off mass. C a decrease of the field length limited take-off mass but an
increase of the climb limited take-off mass.
D a decrease of both the field length limited take-off mass and

316) (For this question use annex 032-6579A or Performance the climb limited take-off mass.
With regard to the climb performance chart for the
single engine aeroplane determine the climb speed 320) What is the effect of increased mass on the performance
(ft/min). of a gliding aeroplane?
Given : A The lift/drag ratio decreases.
O.A.T : ISA + 15°C
Aeroplane Mass: 3400 lbs B The speed for best angle of descent increases.
Flaps: up
Speed: 100 KIAS C There is no effect.
A 1150 ft/min D The gliding angle decreases.
B 1290 ft/min
321) The flight manual of a light twin engine recommends
C 1370 ft/min two cruise power settings, 65 and 75 %. The 75% power
setting in relation to the 65 % results in:
D 1210 ft/min
A an increase in speed, fuel consumption and fuel-
burn/distance.
317) A twin jet aeroplane is in cruise, with one engine B same speed and an increase of the fuel-burn per hour and
inoperative, and has to overfly a high terrain area. In fuel-burn/distance.
order to allow the greatest clearance height, the
appropriate airspeed must be the airspeed
C an increase in speed and fuel-burn/distance, but an
unchanged fuel-burn per hour.
A giving the highest Cd/Cl ratio.
D same speed and fuel-burn/distance, but an increase in the
B for long-range cruise. fuel-burn per hour.
C of greatest lift-to-drag ratio.

322) A higher pressure altitude at ISA temperature
D giving the lowest Cl/Cd ratio.
A has no influence on the allowed take-off mass.
318) Which force compensates the weight in unaccelerated B decreases the field length limited take-off mass.
straight and level flight ?
A the lift
C decreases the take-off distance.
D increases the climb limited take-off mass.

B the thrust
C the drag
323) Reduced take-off thrust
D the resultant from lift and drag
A can be used if the headwind component during take-off is at
least 10 kt.
B has the benefit of improving engine life.
C can be used if the actual take-off mass is higher than the

performance limited take-off mass.
D is not recommended at very low temperatures (OAT).
324) Below the optimum cruise altitude 192) The speed for maximum endurance
A the Mach number for long range cruise decreases A is always higher than the speed for maximum specific range.
continuously with decreasing altitude.
B is always lower than the speed for maximum specific range.
B the IAS for long range cruise increases continuously with
decreasing altitude.
C is the lower speed to achieve 99% of maximum specific
range.
C the TAS for long range cruise increases continuously with
decreasing altitude.
D can either be higher or lower than the speed for maximum
specific range.
D the Mach number for long range cruise increases
continuously with decreasing altitude.
193) A headwind component increasing with altitude, as

compared to zero wind condition, (assuming IAS is
313) During climb to the cruising level, a headwind
constant)
component
A decreases the climb time.

A improves angle and rate of climb.
B decreases the ground distance flown during that climb.

B decreases angle and rate of climb.
C increases the amount of fuel for the climb. C has no effect on rate of climb.
D increases the climb time.

D does not have any effect on the angle of flight path during
climb.
201) V1 has to be 194) The intersections of the thrust available and the drag
curve are the operating points of the aeroplane
A equal to or higher than VMCG.
A in unaccelerated climb.
B equal to or higher than VMCA.
B in unaccelerated level flight.
C higher than than VR.

C in descent with constant IAS.
D equal to or higher than V2.
D in accelerated level flight.
211) Take-off run is defined as the

195) With respect to the optimum altitude, which of the
following statements is correct ?
A Distance from brake release to V2.
A An aeroplane always flies below the optimum altitude,
B horizontal distance along the take-off path from the start of because Mach buffet might occur.
the take-off to a point equidistant between the point at which
VLOF is reached and the point at which the aeroplane is 35 B An aeroplane always flies at the optimum altitude because
ft above the take-off surface. this is economically seen as the most attractive altitude.
C distance to V1 and stop, assuming an engine failure at V1. C An aeroplane flies most of the time above the optimum
altitude because this yields the most economic result.
D distance to 35 feet with an engine failure at V1 or 115% all D An aeroplane sometimes flies above or below the optimum
engine distance to 35 feet.
altitude because optimum altitude increases continuously
during flight.
191) The pilot of a single engine aircraft has established the

climb performance.
The carriage of an additional passenger will cause the
climb performance to be:
A Degraded
B Improved
C Unchanged
D Unchanged, if a short field take-off is adopted
196) With all other things remaining unchanged and with T 200) (For this question use annex 032-6587A or Flight
the outside static air temperature expressed in degrees planning Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.4)
K, the hourly fuel consumption of a turbojet powered Using the Range Profile Diagramm, for the single engine
aeroplane in a cruise flight with a constant Mach aeroplane, determine the range, with 45 minutes reserve,
Number and zero headwind,is as follows: in the following conditions:
A proportional to T Given :
O.A.T.: ISA +16°C
B proportional to 1/T² Pressure altitude: 4000 ft
C proportional to 1/T
A 851 NM
D independent from T
B 911 NM
C 865 NM
197) To minimize the risk of hydroplaning during landing the
pilot should: D 739 NM
A make a "positive" landing and apply maximum reverse thrust

and brakes as quickly as possible.
188) The centre of gravity near, but still within, the aft limit
B use maximum reverse thrust, and should start braking below
the hydroplaning speed.
A increases the stalling speed.
C use normal landing-, braking- and reverse technique.
B improves the longitudinal stabiity.
D postpone the landing until the risk of hydroplaning no longer
exists. C decreases the maximum range.
D improves the maximum range.

198) Provided all other parameters stay constant. Which of
the following alternatives will decrease the take-off
ground run?
202) An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25°
and 35°.
A Decreased take-off mass, increased pressure altitude, If a pilot chooses 25° instead of 35°, the aircraft will
increased temperature. have:
B Decreased take-off mass, increased density, increased flap
A a reduced landing distance and better go-around
setting.
performance
C Increased pressure altitude, increased outside air
B an increased landing distance and degraded go-around
temperature, increased take-off mass.
performance
D Increased outside air temperature, decreased pressure
C a reduced landing distance and degraded go-around
altitude, decreased flap setting.
performance
D an increased landing distance and better go-around

189) For a jet transport aeroplane, which of the following is performance
the reason for the use of 'maximum range speed' ?
A Minimum specific fuel consumption. 203) An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25°
and 35°.
B Minimum fuel flow. If a pilot chooses 35° instead of 25°, the aircraft will have:
C Longest flight duration. A an increased landing distance and better go-around

performance
D Minimum drag.
B a reduced landing distance and degraded go-around
performance
C a reduced landing distance and better go-around

performance
D an increased landing distance and degraded go-around

performance
204) The take-off safety speed V2min for turbo-propeller 209) Which of the following statements, concerning the
powered aeroplanes with more than three engines may obstacle limited take-off mass for performance class A
not be less than: aeroplane, is correct?
A 1.15 Vs A It should not be corrected for 30° bank turns in the take-off
path.
B 1.3 Vs
B It should be calculated in such a way that there is a margin
of 50 ft with respect to the "net take off flight path".
C 1.2 Vs
C It cannot be lower than the corresponding climb limited take-
D 1.2 Vs1 off mass.
D It should be determined on the basis of a 35 ft obstacle

clearance with the respect to the "net take-off flight path".
205) Which of the following is true with regard to VMCA (air
minimum control speed)?
A The aeroplane is uncontrollable below VMCA 258) How does runway slope affect allowable take-off mass,
assuming other factors remain constant and not
B The aeroplane will not gather the minimum required climb limiting?
gradient
A An uphill slope increases take-off mass.
C VMCA only applies to four-engine aeroplanes
B Allowable take-off mass is not affected by runway slope.
D Straight flight can not be maintained below VMCA, when the
critical engine has failed. C A downhill slope decreases allowable take-off mass.
D A downhill slope increases allowable take-off mass.

206) Minimum control speed on ground, VMCG, is based on
directional control being maintained by:
199) You climb with a climb speed schedule 300/.78. What do
A nosewheel steering only. you expect in the crossover altitude 29 200 ft (OAT =
ISA) ?
B primary aerodynamic control only.
A During the acceleration to the Mach number .78 the rate of
C primary aerodynamic control and nosewheel. climb is approximately zero.
D primary aerodynamic control, nosewheel steering and B No noticeable effect since the true airspeed at 300 kt IAS
differential braking. and .78 Mach are the same (at ISA temperature TAS=460
kt)
207) What is the advantage of a balanced field length

C The rate of climb increases since the constant IAS-climb is
replaced by the constant Mach-climb.
condition ?
D The rate of climb decreases since climb performance at a
A For a balanced field length the required take-off runway constant Mach number is grossly reduced as compared to
length always equals the available runway length. constant IAS.
B A balanced field length provides the greatest margin
between "net" and "gross" take-off flight paths.
178) The critical engine inoperative
C A balanced field length gives the minimum required field
length in the event of an engine failure. A does not affect the aeroplane performance since it is
independent of the power plant.
D A balanced take-off provides the lowest elevator input force
requirement for rotation. B decreases the power required because of the lower drag
caused by the windmilling engine.
208) A jet aeroplane is performing a maximum range flight. C increases the power required and decreases the total drag
The speed corresponds to: due to the windmilling engine.
A the minimum drag. D increases the power required because of the greater drag
caused by the windmilling engine and the compensation for
B the minimum required power. the yaw effect.
C the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the

power required (Pr) versus TAS curve.
D the point of contact of the tangent from the origin to the Drag
versus TAS curve.
167) Which of the following distances will increase if you 172) During a cruise flight of a jet aeroplane at constant flight
increase V1? level and at the maximum range speed, the IAS / the
drag will:
A All Engine Take-off distance
A increase / increase.
B Take-off run
B decrease / increase.
C Accelerate Stop Distance
C decrease / decrease.
D Take-off distance
D increase / decrease.
168) V2 has to be equal to or higher than

173) The minimum climb gradient required on the 2nd flight
path segment after the take-off of a jet aeroplane is
A 1.1 VMCA. defined by the following parameters:
1 Gear up
B 1.15 VMCG. 2 Gear down
3 Wing flaps retracted
C 1.1 VSO. 4 Wing flaps in take-off position
5 N engines at the take-off thrust
D 1.15 VR. 6 (N-1) engines at the take-off thrust
7 Speed over the path equal to V2 + 10 kt
8 Speed over the path equal to 1.3 VS
9 Speed over the path equal to V2
169) 'Drift down' is the procedure to be applied 10 At a height of 35 ft above the runway
The correct statements are:

A to conduct a visual approach if VASI is available.
A 2, 3, 6, 9
B after engine failure if the aeroplane is above the one engine
out maximum altitude. B 1, 4, 5, 10
C after cabin depressurization.

C 1, 5, 8, 10
D to conduct an instrument approach at the alternate.
D 1, 4, 6, 9
170) Which of the following combinations adversely affects

take-off and initial climb performance ? 174) Given that the characteristics of a three engine turbojet
aeroplane are as follows:
Thrust = 50 000 Newton / Engine
A High temperature and low relative humidity
g = 10 m/s²
Drag = 72 569 N
B Low temperature and low relative humidity Minimum gross gradient (2nd segment) = 2.7%
SIN(Angle of climb) = (Thrust- Drag) / Weight
C High temperature and high relative humidity The maximum take-off mass under 2nd segment
conditions is:
D Low temperature and high relative humidity
A 101 596 kg
171) Which statement regarding V1 is correct ?

B 286 781 kg
C 74 064 kg
A When determining V1, reverse thrust may only be used on
the remaining symmetric engines D 209 064 kg
B The correction for up-slope on the balanced V1 is negative
C VR may not be lower than V1
D V1 may not be higher than Vmcg
175) A decrease in atmospheric pressure has, among other 180) Which statement about reduced thrust is correct?
things, the following consequences on take-off
performance:
A In case of reduced thrust V1 should be decreased.
A a reduced take-off distance and degraded initial climb
performance B Reduced thrust can be used when the actual take-off mass
is less than the field length limited take-off mass.
B an increased take-off distance and degraded initial climb
performance C Reduced thrust is primarily a noise abatement procedure.
C a reduced take-off distance and improved initial climb D Reduced thrust is used in order to save fuel.
performance
D an increased take-off distance and improved initial climb

performance 181) Before take-off the temperature of the wheel brakes
should be checked. For what reason?
190) Which of the following is a reason to operate an

A To ensure that the wheels have warmed up evenly.
aeroplane at 'long range speed'?
B To ensure that the thermal blow-out plugs are not melted.
A The aircraft can be operated close to the buffet onset speed.
C Because overheated brakes will not perform adequately in
B In order to prevent loss of speed stability and tuck-under. the event of a rejected take-off.
D To ensure that the brake wear is not excessive.

C It is efficient to fly slightly faster than with maximum range
speed.
D In order to achieve speed stability. 182) The requirements with regard to take-off flight path and
the climb segments are only specified for:
177) The angle of climb with flaps extended, compared to that

A the failure of two engines on a multi-engined aeroplane.
with flaps retracted, will normally be:
B the failure of the critical engine on a multi-engines aeroplane.
A Increase at moderate flap setting, decrease at large flap
setting. C the failure of any engine on a multi-engined aeroplane.
B Smaller. D 2 engined aeroplane.
C Larger.
183) A jet aeroplane is climbing with constant IAS. Which
D Not change. operational speed limit is most likely to be reached?
A The Stalling speed.

212) Long range cruise is a flight procedure which gives:
B The Minimum control speed air.
A an IAS which is 1% higher than the IAS for maximum

specific range. C The Mach limit for the Mach trim system.
B a specific range which is 99% of maximum specific range D The Maximum operating Mach number.
and a lower cruise speed.
C a specific range which is about 99% of maximum specific 184) (For this question use annex 032-4743A or Performance
range and higher cruise speed. Manual MEP1 Figure 3.2)
With regard to the graph for the light twin aeroplane, will
D a 1% higher TAS for maximum specific range.
the accelerate and stop distance be achieved in a take-
off where the brakes are released before take-off power
is set?
179) The lowest point of the drag or thrust required curve of
a jet aeroplane, respectively, is the point for A It does not matter which take-off technique is being used.
A minimum drag. B No, the performance will be worse than in the chart.
B maximum specific range. C Performance will be better than in the chart.
C maximum endurance. D Yes, the chart has been made for this situation.
D minimum specific range.
185) Uphill slope 247) (For this question use annex 032-6569A or Performance
A increases the take-off distance more than the accelerate aeroplane determine the landing distance from a height
stop distance. of 50 ft .
B decreases the accelerate stop distance only. Given :
O.A.T : 27 °C
C decreases the take-off distance only. Pressure Altitude: 3000 ft
D increases the allowed take-off mass. Tailwind component: 5 kt
186) In a given configuration the endurance of a piston A approximately : 1120 feet

engined aeroplane only depends on:
A altitude, speed and mass.

B speed and mass.

D approximately : 1850 feet

C speed, mass and fuel on board.
D altitude, speed, mass and fuel on board.

210) The airspeed for jet aeroplanes at which power required
is a minimum
187) What is the effect of tail wind on the time to climb to a A is always higher than the minimum drag speed.
given altitude?
B is lower than the minimum drag speed in the climb and
A The time to climb increases. higher than the minimum drag speed in the descent.
B The time to climb decreases. C is the same as the minimum drag speed.
C The effect on time to climb will depend on the aeroplane type. D is always lower than the minimum drag speed.
D The time to climb does not change.

If the aircraft mass, in a horizontal unaccelerated flight,
176) Which of the following set of factors could lead to a V2 decreases
value which is limited by VMCA?
A the minimum drag decreases and the IAS for minimum drag
A High take-off mass, low flap setting and high field elevation. decreases.
B Low take-off mass, high flap setting and low field elevation. B the minimum drag increases and the IAS for minimum drag
decreases.
C Low take-off mass, low flap setting and low field elevation.
C the minimum drag increases and the IAS for minimum drag
increases.
D High take-off mass, high flap setting and low field elevation.
D the minimum drag decreases and the IAS for minimum drag
increases.
238) Which of the following represents the minimum for V1?
A VMU
B VR
C VMCG
D VLOF
239) The landing field length required for turbojet aeroplanes 244) Changing the take-off flap setting from flap 15° to flap 5°
at the destination (wet condition) is the demonstrated will normally result in :
landing distance plus
A a longer take-off distance and a better climb.
A 67%
B a shorter take-off distance and an equal climb.
B 70%
C a better climb and an equal take-off distance.
C 43%
D a shorter take-off distance and a better climb.
D 92%
235) The aerodynamic ceiling

240) Other factors remaining constant and not limiting, how
does increasing pressure altitude affect allowable take-
off mass? A is the altitude at which the aeroplane reaches 50 ft/min.
A Allowable take-off mass remains uninfluenced up to 5000 ft B is the altitude at which the speeds for low speed buffet and
PA. for high speed buffet are the same.
B Allowable take-off mass decreases. C depends upon thrust setting and increase with increasing
thrust.
C Allowable take-off mass increases.
D is the altitude at which the best rate of climb theoretically is
zero.
D There is no effect on allowable take-off mass.
246) The take-off mass of an aeroplane is restricted by the

241) If other factors are unchanged, the fuel mileage (nautical climb limit. What would be the effect on this limit of an
miles per kg) is increase in the headwind component?
A independent from the centre of gravity position. A The climb limited take-off mass would decrease.
B lower with an aft centre of gravity position. B None.
C higher with a forward centre of gravity position. C The effect would vary depending upon the height of any
obstacle within the net take-off flight path.
D lower with a forward centre of gravity position.
D The climb limited take-off mass would increase.
242) For a turbojet aeroplane, what is the maximum landing

distance for wet runways when the landing distance 234) (For this question use annex 032-2929A)
available at an aerodrome is 3000 m? Consider the graphic representation of the power
required versus true air speed (TAS), for a piston
A 2 070 m. engined aeroplane with a given mass. When drawing the
tangent from the origin, the point of contact (A)
B 1565 m. determines the speed of:
A maximum thrust.
C 1800 m.
D B critical angle of attack.

2609 m.
C maximum specific range.
243) Which statement is correct? D maximum endurance.
A The climb limited take-off mass increases when a larger

take-off flap setting is used. 248) The speed for maximum lift/drag ratio will result in :
B The climb limited take-off mass depends on pressure

altitude and outer air temperature A The maximum endurance for a propeller driven aeroplane.
C The performance limited take-off mass is the highest of: B The maximum angle of climb for a propeller driven
field length limited take-off mass aeroplane.
climb limited take-off mass
obstacle limited take-off mass. C The maximum range for a propeller driven aeroplane.
D The climb limited take-off mass will increase if the headwind D The maximum range for a jet aeroplane.
component increases.
249) In the event that the take-off mass is obstacle limited 254) What is the influence of the mass on maximum rate of
and the take-off flight path includes a turn, the bank climb (ROC) speed if all other parameters remain
angle should not exceed constant ?
A 10 degrees up to a height of 400 ft. A The ROC is affected by the mass, but not the ROC speed.
B 20 degrees up to a height of 400 ft. B The ROC and the ROC speed are independant of the mass.
C 25 degrees up to a height of 400 ft. C The ROC speed increases with increasing mass.
D 15 degrees up to height of 400 ft. D The ROC speed decreases with increasing mass.
250) The one engine out take-off run is the distance between 255) During a descent at constant Mach Number, the margin
the brake release point and: to low speed buffet will:
A the point half way between V1 and V2. A decrease, because the lift coefficient decreases.
B the middle of the segment between VLOF point and 35 ft B increase, because the lift coefficient decreases.
point.
C remain constant, because the Mach number remains
C the lift-off point. constant.
D the point where V2 is reached. D increase, because the lift coefficient increases.
251) Which take-off speed is affected by the presence or 348) Which combination of circumstances or conditions
absence of stopway and/or clearway ? would most likely lead to a tyre speed limited take-off?
A V2 A A low runway elevation and a cross wind.
B VMCG B A high runway elevation and a head wind.
C VMCA C A low runway elevation and a head wind.
D V1 D A high runway elevation and tail wind.
252) The take-off mass could be limited by 245) (For this question use annex 032-11661A or
Performance Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.1)
A the take-off distance available (TODA), the maximum brake An extract of the flight manual of a single engine
energy and the climb gradient with one engine inoperative. propeller aircraft is reproduced in annex.
Airport characteristics: hard, dry and zero slope runway
B the maximum brake energy only. Actual conditions are:
pressure altitude: 1 500 ft
C the climb gradient with one engine inoperative only. outside tempereature: +18°C
wind component: 4 knots tailwind
D the take-off distance available (TODA) only.
For a take-off mass of 1 270 kg, the take-off distance will
be:
253) If a flight is performed with a higher "Cost Index" at a A 525 m

given mass which of the following will occur?
A A better long range.

B 415 m
B A higher cruise mach number.

C 440 m
D 615 m
C A lower cruise mach number.
D A better maximum range.
224) (For this question use annex 032-6578A or Performance 216) Which statement is correct?
single engine aeroplane determine the take off distance A VR is the speed at which rotation should be initiated.
to a height of 50 ft.
B VR is the lowest climb speed after engine failure.
Given :
O.A.T : 38°C C In case of engine failure below VR the take-off should be
Pressure Altitude: 4000 ft aborted.
Tailwind component: 5 kt D VR is the lowest speed for directional control in case of
Flaps: Approach setting engine failure.
Runway: Dry Grass
Correction factor: 1.2
217) A twin engined aeroplane in cruise flight with one engine
A approximately : 3680 ft
inoperative has to fly over high ground. In order to
maintain the highest possible altitude the pilot should
B approximately : 4200 ft choose:
C approximately : 5040 ft A the speed corresponding to the minimum value of (lift /

drag)^3/2.
D approximately : 3960 ft
B the speed at the maximum lift.
213) The thrust of a jet engine at constant RPM

C the speed corresponding to the maximum value of the lift /
drag ratio.
A does not change with changing altitude. D the long range speed.
B is independent of the airspeed.

C is inversely proportional to the airspeed. Manual SEP 1 Figure 2.3)
D increases in proportion to the airspeed. Using the climb performance chart, for the single engine
aeroplane, determine the ground distance to reach a
height of 2000 ft above the reference zero inthe
214) During the flight preparation the climb limited take-off Given :
mass (TOM) is found to be much greater than the field O.A.T. at take-off: 25°C
length limited TOM using 5° flap. In what way can the Airport pressure altitude: 1000 ft
performance limited TOM be increased? There are no Aeroplane mass: 3600 lbs
limiting obstacles. Speed: 100 KIAS
Wind component: 15 kts Headwind
A By selecting a higher flap setting.
A 24 637 ft
B By selecting a higher V2.
B 18 832 ft
C By selecting a lower V2.
C 18 347 ft
D By selecting a lower flap setting.
D 21 505 ft
215) If the value of the balanced V1 is found to be lower than

VMCG, which of the following is correct ? 219) At speeds below minimum drag
A The ASDR will become greater than the one engine out take-
off distance. A the aeroplane can be controlled only in level flight.
B The take-off is not permitted. B a lower speed requires a higher thrust.
C The one engine out take-off distance will become greater C a higher speed requires a higher thrust.
than the ASDR.
D the aeroplane can not be controlled manually.
D The VMCG will be lowered to V1.
220) Which of the following are to be taken into account for 225) The take-off decision speed V1 is:
the runway in use for take-off ?
A Airport elevation, runway slope, standard temperature, A a chosen limit. If an engine failure is recognized before
pressure altitude and wind components. reaching V1 the take-off must be aborted.
B Airport elevation, runway slope, outside air temperature, B not less than V2min, the minimum take-off safety speed.
standard pressure and wind components.
C a chosen limit. If an engine failure is recognized after
C Airport elevation, runway slope, outside air temperature, reaching V1 the take-off must be aborted.
pressure altitude and wind components.
D sometimes greater than the rotation speed VR.
D Airport elevation, runway slope, standard temperature,
standard pressure and wind components.
226) The speed VLO is defined as
221) To achieve the maximum range over ground with

headwind the airspeed should be A lift off speed.
A lower compared to the speed for maximum range cruise with B landing gear operating speed.
no wind.
C design low operating speed.
B reduced to the gust penetration speed.
D long distance operating speed.
C higher compared to the speed for maximum range cruise
with no wind.
D equal to the speed for maximum range cruise with no wind. 227) An aeroplane operating under the 180 minutes ETOPS
rule may be up to :
A 180 minutes flying time to a suitable airport in still air with

236) In which of the flight conditions listed below is the one engine inoperative.
thrust required (Tr) equal to the drag (D)?
B 180 minutes flying time to a suitable airport under the
A In a descent with constant TAS prevailing weather condition with one engine inoperative.
B In level flight with constant IAS C 180 minutes flying time from suitable airport in still air at a
normal cruising speed
C In accelerated level flight
D 90 minutes flying time from the first enroute airport and
D another 90 minutes from the second enroute airport in still
In a climb with constant IAS
air with one engine inoperative.
223) May anti-skid be considered to determine the take-off 228) If the airworthiness documents do not specify a
and landing data ? correction for landing on a wet runway; the landing
distance must be increased by:
A Only for take-off.
A 10 %
B Only for landing.
B 20 %
C Yes.
C 15 %
D No.
D 5%
257) An operator shall ensure that the net take-off flight path
clears all obstacles. The half-width of the obstacle- 229) The 'climb gradient' is defined as the ratio of
corridor at the distance D from the end of the TODA is at
least:
A true airspeed to rate of climb.
A -90m + 1.125D
B rate of climb to true airspeed.
B 90m + D/0.125
C the increase of altitude to horizontal air distance expressed
C 90m + 0.125D as a percentage.
D 0.125D D the increase of altitude to distance over ground expressed

as a percentage.
230) The take-off distance required increases 222) Required runway length at destination airport for
turboprop aeroplanes
A due to slush on the runway. A is the same as at an alternate airport.
B due to downhill slope because of the smaller angle of attack. B is less then at an alternate airport.
C due to head wind because of the drag augmentation.

C is more than at an alternate airport.
D due to lower gross mass at take-off. D is 60% longer than at an alternate airport.
231) Following a take-off, limited by the 50 ft screen height, a

light twin climbs on a gradient of 5%.
It will clear a 160 m obstacle in relation to the runway
(horizontally), situated at 5 000 m from the 50 ft point
with an obstacle clearance margin of:
A it will not clear the obstacle
B 105 m
C 90 m
D 75 m

What is the minimum field length required for the worst
wind situation, landing a twin jet aeroplane with the anti-
skid inoperative?
Elevation: 2000 ft
QNH: 1013 hPa
Landing mass: 50 000 kg
Flaps: as required for minimum landing distance
Runway condition: dry
Wind:
Maximum allowable tailwind: 15 kt
Maximum allowable headwind: 50 kt
A 2600 m.
B 2700 m.
C 2900 m.
D 3100 m.
233) The take-off performance requirements for transport

category aeroplanes are based upon:
A failure of critical engine.
B failure of critical engine or all engines operating which ever

gives the largest take off distance.
C all engines operating.
D only one engine operating.

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Professione Volare Domande Aerodynamics

B Negative, because the lift vector rotates forward at A 1.9

141) Which aeroplane behaviour will be corrected by a yaw

B The elevator is deflected further downward by means of a

D Elevator deflection is increased further downward by an

B increase the static longitudinal stability.

C decrease the critical angle of attack and increase the value

A TAS and stall speed

B Angle of attack and CL

D M= 0.69 to M higher than 0.84

1) Shock induced separation results in

148) (For this question use annex 081-6249A)

134) The max aft position of the centre of gravity is amongst

D Blade angle = angle between blade chord line and propeller

A 1.30 VS. A the mean aerodynamic chord line

B 1.12 VS. B the upper camber line

C greater than VS. C the camber line

D 1.20 VS. D the chord line

A Rudder limiter. A CLmax of the polar curve is not affected.

C Roll spoilers. C at same angle of attack, CL remains unaffected.

D Spoiler mixer. D at same angle of attack, CD is increased and CL is

110) What factors determine the distance travelled over the

C The wind and weight together with power loading, which is

159) The high speed buffet is induced by

B boundary layer control. A 150 kt.

C expansion waves on the wing upper side. B 122 kt.

D a shift of the centre of gravity. C 141 kt.

118) Which combination of speeds is applicable for structural

B Damping of the phugoid is normally very weak. C 55 ft/sec and VB.

D Period time of the phugoid is normally 5 sec.

A CLmax B decrease the elevator up effectiveness.

B CL² C not affect the elevator up or down effectiveness.

C CL D increase or decrease the elevator up effectiveness,

120) Compared with an oblique shock wave at the same

A Deploying a Krueger flap will form a slot, deploying a slat

B Deploying a slat will increase critical angle of attack, C smaller expansion.

A Decreasing the angle of sweep of the wing will decrease the

B equals the drag of the right and left aileron.

D Increasing the anhedral of the wing will decrease the stall

D increases the CLmax.

A balance tab, horn balance, and mass balance. A 500 kts

128) If the continuity equation is applicable, what will happen

A is independent of the angle of attack. B zero.

B decreases. C dependent on c.g. location.

C increases. D nose down.

B are normal to each other at just one angle of attack.

D vary linearly with the angle of attack.

133) The angle of attack (aerodynamic angle of incidence) of

C bottom surface and the horizontal B Statically stable - Dynamically unstable

D Statically stable - Dynamically neutral

121) Constant-speed propellers provide a better performance D not changing.

A produce a greater maximum thrust than a fixed-pitch

D have a higher maximum efficiency than a fixed-pitch C Swept wings.

203) (For this question use annex 081-6253A)

A V1 = 0 and V2 = V A To ensure that the root produces most thrust.

C V1 = 0 and V2 > V C Because the local angle of attack of a blade segment is

D Because the local angle of attack of a blade segment is

196) Which load factor determines VA?