AIATS Medical - RM-2022 - Test-05 - Code-F - (27-03-2022)

27-03-2022
Medical Entrance Exam - 2022
TEST No. 5
(XII Passed Students)
1. Read each question carefully. 8. Each correct answer carries four marks. One mark will be
2. It is mandatory to use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen to darken the deducted for each incorrect answer from the total score.
appropriate circle in the answer sheet.
9. Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator, candidate
3. Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle. should check that Roll No. and Centre Code have been filled and
4. Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet. marked correctly.
5. Do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on answer
10. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over, the
sheet. No change in the answer once marked is allowed.
answer sheet to be returned to the invigilator.
6. Student cannot use log tables and calculators or any other material
in the examination hall. 11. There are two sections in each subject i.e., Section-A & Section-B.
7. Before attempting the question paper, student should ensure that You have to attempt all 35 questions from Section-A & only
the test paper contains all pages and no page is missing. 10 questions out of 15 from Section-B.
Note : It is compulsory to fill Roll No. and Test Booklet Code on answer sheet, otherwise your answer sheet will not be considered.
Test No. 5
Electric Charges & Field, Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance, Current

Physics Electricity
Chemistry Haloalkanes and Haloarenes, Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers
Reproduction in organisms, Sexual reproduction in flowering plants, Principles of

Botany Inheritance & Variation
Zoology Reproduction in Organisms, Human Reproduction, Reproductive Health.

Test-5 (Code-F) All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022
MM : 720 TEST - 5 Time : 3 Hrs.
[PHYSICS]
Choose the correct answer:
SECTION-A 5. The equivalent capacitance of network shown

below, between points A and B is
1. In given figure, charge given to outer sphere is Q.
What will be charge on inner sphere after earthing
as shown in the figure?
2C
(1) (2) 6C
3
(3) 5C (4) 4C
Q Q
(1) (2) – 6. If linear charge density of a straight wire of length l
2 2
(3) Q (4) –Q 0 x 2
depends on distance x from one end as   .
2. The value of X for which the Galvanometer in the l3
circuit shown below shows no deflection is Find total charge of wire.
0 l 0
(1) (2)
2 2
0 0 l
(3) (4)
3 3
7. Mass of charge Q is m and mass of charge 2Q is
2m. If both are released from rest, then what will be
(1) 5 (2) 2
kinetic energy of 2Q at infinite separation?
(3) 10 (4) 4
3. Three equal charges, each of charge Q, are placed
at the corners of an equilateral triangle of side L.
Work done to move a charge Q from any corner to
infinity is 3kQ 2 2kQ 2
(1) (2)
5r 3r
kQ 2 kQ 2
(1) (2) 
L L 5kQ 2 kQ 2
(3) (4)
2kQ 2 3kQ 2 3r 2r
(3)  (4) 
L L 8. A solid sphere of radius R is charged uniformly
4. A uniformly charged ring of radius R has charge Q. throughout the volume. At what distance from its
Electric field at the axis of ring at a distance R from
surface is the electrostatic potential half of the
its centre is
potential at the centre?
kQ 2kQ
(1) (2) (1) 2R (2) R
2R 2 R2
kQ kQ R 4R
(3) (4) (3) (4)
2 2R 2
R 2 3 3
Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456
1/21
All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2022 Test-5 (Code-F)
9. Three infinitely large charged sheets are kept 12. Two parallel metal plates having a potential
parallel to XY-plane having charge densities as difference of 400 V are 2 cm apart. It is found that a
shown in figure. Then the value of electric field at P particle of mass 2 × 10–15 kg remain suspended in
is the region between the plates. The charge on the
particle must be (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 10–15 C (2) 10–18 C
(3) 10–19 C (4) 4 × 10–16 C
13. A 10 m long potentiometer wire is connected to a
battery, having a constant voltage, in the primary
 2 circuit. A cell of unknown emf is balanced at 6 m
(1) (2)
0 0 length of the wire. If the length of potentiometer wire
 is reduced to 8 m, then the new balancing length will
(3) (4) Zero be
20
(1) 4.2 m (2) 4.8 m
10. The effective resistance of two resistors in parallel
is 4 . When they are connected in series, (3) 5.2 m (4) 5.4 m
equivalent resistance is 18 . Then the ratio of 14. If the reading of ammeter A1 is 4 A, what will be the
resistance of resistors is reading of ammeters A2 and A3? (Consider all
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1 ammeters are ideal)
(3) 3 : 1 (4) 4 : 1
11. Which graph best represents the relation between
conductivity and resistivity for a typical conductor?
10 2
(1) (1) 3 A; 1 A (2) A; A
3 3
8 4 7 5
(3) A; A (4) A; A
3 3 3 3
15. Two metallic spheres of radii R1 and R2 are
connected by a thin wire. If +q1 and + q2 are the final
(2) charges on the two spheres then
q1 R1 q1 R2
(1)  (2) 
q2 R2 q2 R1
2 2
q  R  R2  q  R – R2 
(3) 1   1  (4) 1   1 
q2  R1 – R2  q2  R1  R2 
(3)
16. If 1 and 2 are the conductivities of two conducting
wires of same length and cross-sectional area, then
their equivalent conductivity when they are joined in
series will be
1 1
(1) 1 + 2 (2) 
(4) 1 2
 1 1  21 2
(3) 2    (4)

 1  2  1   2
2/21
17. Calculate the minimum velocity v with which charge 20. If an electron is projected such that it moves in the
q should be projected so that it just reaches at the direction of electric field, then
centre of the uniformly charged ring as shown in the (1) Kinetic energy will increase and potential
figure. energy will decrease
(2) Kinetic energy will decrease and potential
energy will increase
(3) Both kinetic and potential energy will decrease
(4) Both kinetic and potential energy will increase
21. If electric flux passing through a closed Gaussian
surface is zero, then
kQq 2kQq
(1) (2) (1) Net charge inside the surface must be zero
mR mR
(2) E on every point on surface must be zero
kQq  1  2kQq  1  (3) E on every point on surface must be normal to
(3) 1   (4) 1  
mR  2 mR  2 area vector
18. In the given circuit, calculate the current through (4) Both (1) & (2)
6  resistor in the steady state condition, if internal 22. Figure shows the electric field lines emerging from
a charged body. If the electric field at P and Q are
resistance of battery is 1 .
EP and EQ respectively and the distance between P
and Q is r, then
(1) 1 A (2) 0.5 A

(3) 3 A (4) 6 A
(1) EP > EQ (2) EP < EQ
19. Three uncharged capacitors of capacitance C1, C2
and C3 are connected as shown in figure. The EQ
(3) EP = EQ (4) EP 
potential at points A, B and C is VA, VB and VC r
respectively. Then the potential at point D will be 23. Six capacitors each of capacitance C are connected
as shown in figure. The ratio of capacitance
between A and B and the capacitance between A
and C is
C1VA  C2VB  C3VC C1VA  C2VB  C3VC

(1) (2)
C1C2  C2C3  C1C3 C1  C2  C3
VA  VB  VC VA  VB  VC (1) 4 : 3 (2) 6 : 5
(3) (4)
C1  C2  C3 C1C2  C2C3  C3C1 (3) 7 : 4 (4) 9 : 5
3/21
24. The capacitance of parallel plate capacitor of plate a

area A1 and A2 (A1 > A2) separated at distance d is 29. A charge of magnitude q is placed at height from
2
plane of a square surface PQRS as shown in the
figure. Then the electric flux passing through the
square surface is
A10 A20
(1) (2)
d d
( A1  A2 )0 ( A1  A2 )0
(3) (4)
2d 4d
25. In the circuit shown in following figure, the electric
charge stored on the plates of the capacitor C in q 3q
(1) (2)
steady state is 60 80
5q 2q
(3) (4)
240 90
30. Three charges Q, –q and –2q are held at the
vertices of an equilateral triangle of side l as shown
in figure. If the net electrostatic potential energy of
the system is zero, then Q is equal to
CV
(1) (2) CV
2
2CV
(3) 2CV (4)
3
26. A 10 volt battery of internal resistance of 2  is
connected to a variable resistance. The rate of heat q
production in the resistor is maximum when the (1) q (2)
3
current in the circuit is
(1) 1 A (2) 1.5 A 2q 4q
(3) (4)
(3) 2 A (4) 2.5 A 3 3
27. All bulbs in the circuit shown in the figure are 31. Electric potential in a particular region of space is
identical. Which bulb will glow most brightly? given by V = 6xy – 4xy2 + 3yz. The x-component of
electric field at point A(1, 1, 0) is
(1) 2iˆ (2) 3iˆ
(3) iˆ (4) 2iˆ
32. On moving a charge of 4 coulomb by 10 cm, 20 J
work is done, then the potential difference between
the points is
(1) A (2) B (1) 2 V (2) 4 V

(3) C (4) D (3) 5 V (4) 3.5 V
28. Two conducting wires are made up of two different 33. Two point charges repel each other with a force of
materials whose specific resistance are in the ratio 100 N. One of the charge is increased by 20% and
3 : 2, length in ratio 1 : 3 and cross-section area in other is reduced by 20%. The new force of repulsion
ratio 3 : 4. Then ratio of their resistances is at same separation would be
(1) 3 : 4 (2) 2 : 3 (1) 100 N (2) 120 N
(3) 3 : 8 (4) 4 : 9 (3) 108 N (4) 96 N
4/21
34. A steady current flows in a metallic conductor of 38. In the network shown below, the equivalent
non-uniform cross section. The quantity(s) constant resistance between points A and B is
along the length of conductor are
(i) Electric current (ii) Drift speed
(iii) Electric field
(1) (i) and (ii) only (2) (ii) and (iii) only
(3) (i) only (4) (ii) only
R
35. The equivalent resistance between point P and Q is (1) R (2)
2
3R
(3) (4) 2R
2
39. The resistance of conducting wire is 20  at 0°C. If

its temperature coefficient of resistance is
4 × 10–3/°C, then its resistance at 100° will be
(1) 20 
R (2) 16 
(1) 4R (2)
4 (3) 24 
4R 3R (4) 28 
(3) (4)
3 4
40. Two resistors of resistance R1 and R2 (R1 > R2) are
SECTION-B connected in parallel. The equivalent resistance of
combination is R, then the correct statement is
36. The ratio of currents as measured by ammeter in
two cases when the key (k) is open and when the (1) R > (R1 + R2)
key is closed will be
(2) R > R2
(3) R2 < R < R1

(4) R < R1
41. A block of mass M having charge Q is kept at rest

on a smooth inclined plane of inclination 30°. The
minimum electric field (E ) required to maintain the
block in equilibrium is
4 8
(1) (2) Mg
7 9 (1)
2Q
3 7
(3) (4)
4 11 3Mg
(2)
37. The capacitance of a capacitor with dielectric slab 2Q
of dielectric constant 3 is 6 F. If the dielectric slab Mg
is removed, the new capacitance is (3)
Q
(1) 6 F (2) 18 F
2Mg
(4)
(3) 12 F (4) 2 F Q
5/21
42. Cell having an emf  and internal resistance r is 3q q

(1) (2)
connected across a variable external resistance R. 0 240
As the resistance R is increased, the plot of
potential difference V across R is best represented q q
(3) (4)
by 0 8 0
47. A particle having charge Q and mass m is released
at a point having perpendicular distance r from a
uniformly charged long wire of linear charge density
(1) (2)
. The initial acceleration of charge will be
2k Q k Q
(1) (2)
mr mr
3 k Q k Q
(3) (4)
2 mr 2mr
(3) (4) 48. Two coaxial dipole of dipole moment P1 and P2 are
separated by a distance r. The magnitude of electric
force on P2 due to P1 is
kP1P2 2kP1P2
43. Masses of two wires of aluminium are in the ratio (1) 3
(2)
r r3
1 : 2 and their length 3 : 5. The ratio of their
resistances is 2kP1P2 6kP1P2
(3) 4
(4)
r r4
(1) 13:19 (2) 18:25
49. The electric field due to a short dipole of dipole
(3) 17:24 (4) 13:23
moment P at point Q shown below is (symbols
44. Mobility of free electron is have usual meaning)
(1) Directly proportional to relaxation time
(2) Inversely proportional to relaxation time
(3) Directly proportional to square of electric field
(4) Inversely proportional to square of electric field
45. A 50 F capacitor is charged by a 100 V battery.
3kP 5kP
The capacitor is then disconnected from battery and (1) (2)
connected to another uncharged 100 F capacitor. r3 2r 3
The final electrostatic energy stored by the two 7kP 5kP
capacitor system is (3) (4)
2r 3
r3
(1) 250 mJ (2) 125 mJ
50. The ratio of electric field due to a short electric
250 150 dipole of dipole moment P at point A and B i.e.,
(3) mJ (4) mJ
3 7 | EA |
is
46. Two point charges are placed at corners of cube as | EB |
shown in the figure. Flux through shaded face will
be
(1) 2:1 (2) 1:2

(3) 1:1 (4) 2:3
6/21
[CHEMISTRY]
SECTION-A 57. Major product in the following reaction is
51. Chloroform is slowly oxidized by air in the presence

of light to give a poisonous gas known as
(1) Syn gas (2) Marsh gas
(3) Carbonyl chloride (4) Carbon tetrachloride (1) An ether
52. CH3MgBr + CH3NH2  (2) An alkene

Major product formed in the above reaction is (3) An alcohol
(1) C2H5NH2 (2) CH4
(4) An alkane
(3) CH3 – NHBr (4) C2H5MgBr
58. The reaction(s) that does not give an acid as the
53. Which one of the following is not a product of
major product is/are
dehydration of the compound in

(I)
acidic medium?
(II)
(1) (2)
K Cr O
(III) CH3CH2OH 
2 2 7

H
(1) I only
(3) (4)
(2) II Only
(3) I and II only

54. In Reimer-Tiemann reaction, which one of the
following functional groups is finally introduced in (4) I, II and III
phenol ring?
59. (Major),
(1) –CH2OH (2) –OCH3
(3) –CHO (4) –OH
55. Which of the following reagents would distinguish what is X?
cis-cyclohexane-1, 2-diol from its trans-isomer? (1)
(1) MnO2 (2) Acetaldehyde
(3) Conc. H2SO4 (4) Br2 water (2)
56.
X is (3)
(1) (2)
(4)
(3) (4)
7/21
65. Which of the following biphenyls is optically active?

60.
(1)
Which of the following product will be formed in the
above reaction?
(1) (2)
(2)
(3) (4)
(3)
61. Which of the following substituted phenols is the

strongest acid?
(4)
66. Acetylation of salicylic acid produces

(1) (2)
(1) Aspirin (2) DDT
(3) Picric acid (4) Anisole
67. Select an incorrect statement about SN2 reaction
mechanism.
(3) (4) (1) In case of optically active alkyl halides, SN2
reactions are accompanied by racemization
(2) SN2 reactions of optically active halides are
62. Which of the following in not chiral? accompanied by inversion of configuration
(1) 2-Hydroxypropanoic acid (3) No intermediate species is formed
(2) 2-Butanol (4) In transition state, reacting carbon centre is
simultaneously bonded to five atoms
(3) 2,3-Dibromopentane
68. Fastest SN2 reaction is observed in
(4) 3-Bromopentane
(1) C6H5CH2Br
63. Strongest nucleophile in polar protic solvent is
(2) C6H5CH(C6H5)Br
(1) F– (2) Cl–
(3) C6H5CH(CH3)Br
(3) PhO– (4) I–
(4) C6H5C(CH3)(C6H5)Br
64. Ether, that cannot be prepared by Williamson’s
synthesis, is 69. Select the most acidic compound among the
following.
(1) CH3OCH3 (2) (1) CH3OH (2)
(3) (4) CH3 – O – C6H5 (3) (4)
8/21
70. Which of the following class of alkyl halides are 77. Ethylene oxide when treated with Grignard reagent
often prepared by Finkelstein reaction? followed by hydrolysis produces
(1) Alkyl chlorides (2) Alkyl bromides (1) Primary alcohol (2) Secondary alcohol
(3) Alkyl fluorides (4) Alkyl iodides (3) Tertiary alcohol (4) An aldehyde
71. R – X + KCN  (P) + KX 78. Select the incorrect statement(s) about SN1 reaction
mechanism.
Major product
(a) Occurs in two steps
In the above reaction, (P) is
(b) Carbocation intermediate is formed
(1) RCH2NH2 (2) RN2 X
(c) Rearranged product(s) may be obtained
(3) R – CN (4) R – NC (d) The rate of reaction depends upon the
72. Which of the following is an ambident nucleophile? concentration of alkyl halide and nucleophile
(1) H2O (2) OH– (1) (a) and (b) only (2) (c) and (d) only
(3) (b), (c) and (d) only (4) Only (d)
(3) NO2 (4) CH3O–
79. The alkane that gives only two monochloro products
73. Which one of the following compounds will be most on chlorination with Cl2 in the presence of diffused
readily dehydrated in acidic medium? sunlight is
(1) CH3CH2OH (2) (CH3)3C – OH (1) CH3CH3 (2)
(3) CH3OH (4)
(3) CH3CH2CH3 (4) (CH3)4C
74. Freon 12 is manufactured from tetrachloromethane 80. Match the reactions given in column I with their
by major products given in column II
(1) Wurtz reaction Column I Column II
(2) Swarts reaction
a. CH CH OH 
H2SO4
 (i) CH3OH
3 2 443 K
(3) Corey-House reaction
(4) Sandmeyer’s reaction b. CH CH OH 
H2SO4 (ii) CH3CH2OH
3 2 413 K

75. Correct order of dipole moment of the given
molecules is ZnOCr2O3
c. CO  2H  (iii) CH2 = CH2
2 200 300 atm
(1) CH3 – F > CH3 – Cl > CH3 – Br > CH3 – I 573 673 K
(2) CH3 – Cl > CH3 – Br > CH3 – I > CH3 – F d. CH CHO  H 

Pd
 (iv) C2H5OC2H5
3 2
(3) CH3 – I > CH3 – Br > CH3 – Cl > CH3 – F
(1) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv) (2) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
(4) CH3 – Cl > CH3 – F > CH3 – Br > CH3 – I
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
81. Elimination reaction of 2-bromopentane to form
76. pent-2-ene is
(a) -elimination reaction
Presence of which of the following groups on (b) Follows Hofmann's rule
haloarene at ortho- or para-positions enhances the (c) Dehydrohalogenation reaction
reaction rate? (d) Dehydration reaction
(1) –CH3 (2) –OCH3 (1) (a), (b), (c) only (2) (a), (c) only
(3) –NO2 (4) –OH (3) (b), (c) only (4) (a), (b), (d) only
9/21
82. Identify chiral molecule among the following.

(1) (2)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
(3) (4) CH3CH2 – Br
83. Which of the following alcohols gives red colour in 87.

Victor Meyer test?
In the above reaction, molecule (X) is
(1)
(1) (2)
(2)
(3) CH3CH2OH (3) (4)
(4)
88. Which among the following is most suitable solvent
84. Select the major product in the following reaction for SN1 reaction?
(1) Water (2) DMSO
(3) Benzene (4) Acetone
89. The commercial alcohol is made unfit for drinking by
mixing it with
(1) (2)
(1) Copper sulphate (2) Potassium sulphate
(3) Zinc sulphate (4) Sodium sulphate
(3) (4) 90. Which of the following alcohol produces immediate
turbidity when treated with Lucas reagent?
85. Molecule which gives fastest SN1 reaction is (1) CH3OH (2) (CH3)2CH – OH
(3) (CH3)3C – OH (4) C2H5OH
LiAlH PBr
Ethanal   X   Y 
(1) (2) 4 3 alc. KOH
91. 
Z
The product Z is
(1) Acetic acid (2) Ethanol
(3) (4)
(3) Ethene (4) Dimethyl ether
92. C12H22O11 + H2O  C6H12O6 + C6H12O6
SECTION-B Sucrose Glucose Fructose

Above reaction is catalyzed by the presence of
86. which enzyme?
(1) Zymase (2) Invertase
Product (C) is (3) Maltase (4) Urease
10/21
93. How many stereoisomers does the following

compound have? (3)
CH3 – CH = CH – CH2CHBrCH3
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 6
(4)
94. Which of the following alcohols is produced by
destructive distillation of wood?
(1) Ethanol (2) Methanol
98.
(3) Propanol (4) Butanol
95. C2H5Br + Mg  C2H5MgBr
Product (Z) is
Grignard reagent
For the above reaction most suitable solvent is

(1) H2O (2) CH3OH (1) (2)
(3) CH3COOH (4) Dry ether
96.
(3) (4)
Major product in the above reaction is

99. Statement I : When phenol is treated with bromine
(1) water, 2,4,6-tribromophenol is formed.
Statement II : 2,4,6-tribromophenol is a white
coloured compound.
(2)
In the light of above statements choose the correct
option among the following
(3)
(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(2) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(4) (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is

incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
97. P(Major) correct
100. Among the following, molecule with the highest
Major product ‘P’ in the reaction is boiling point is

(1) CH3CH2CH2CH2Br
(1) (2)
(3)
(2)
(4) CH3CH2CH2Br
11/21
[BOTANY]
SECTION-A 106. T.H. Morgan used Drosophila melanogaster as a
suitable material for his experimental genetics
101. Inheritance of only one of the parental trait in a because of the following reasons, except
monohybrid cross in the F1 generation is explained
by (1) It grows on simple synthetic medium in the
laboratory
(1) Law of segregation
(2) Single mating produces hundreds of offsprings
(2) Law of dominance
(3) They have very few hereditary variation
(3) Law of independent assortment
(4) Test cross (4) They have a short life cycle of about 2 weeks
102. Mendel conducted his hybridization experiment for 107. According to ABO blood grouping, what would be
a period of the phenotype of the individual whose parents have
(1) 7 years (2) 5 years O blood group?
(3) 17 years (4) 2 years (1) AB (2) A
103. Read the following statements and select the (3) O (4) B
correct option 108. Select the recessive traits for pea plant varieties,
Statement A : Unmodified allele, which represent taken by Mendel in his experiment.
the original phenotype is the dominant allele.
Yellow seed colour, White flower colour, Yellow
Statement B : Modified allele is generally the
pod colour, Terminal flower position, Tall stem,
recessive allele or mutant type.
Inflated pod shape
(1) Only statement A is correct
(2) Only statement B is correct (1) 4 (2) 3
(3) Both the statements are incorrect (3) 2 (4) 5

(4) Both the statements are correct 109. Phenomenon that leads to variation in DNA is/are
104. When abnormal egg (22 + 0) fuses with a normal (1) Recombination (2) Translation
sperm in humans, such individual have
(3) Mutation (4) Both (1) and (3)
(1) Klinefelter’s syndrome
110. Which among the following disorders is autosomal
(2) Chromosomal disorder caused due to
dominant?
monosomy
(1) Sickle-cell anaemia
(3) Short stature with overall masculine
development (2) Haemophilia
(4) Mendelian disorder (3) Myotonic dystrophy
105. Sex in humans is determined due to reason that (4) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(1) Female produce two types of ova during 111. In phenylketonuria,
gametogenesis
(1) Polyploidy is seen
(2) Male individual produce similar types of sperms
(2) Conversion of tyrosine into phenylalanine
during gametogenesis
occurs
(3) Both male and female produce heterogametes
(3) Phenylalanine accumulates in the body
(4) 50% of total sperm produced possess the
X-chromosome and the rest 50% has (4) Phenylalanine is not converted into
Y-chromosomes phenylpyruvic acid
12/21
112. Individual inflicted with Down’s syndrome have all of 118. Triploid primary endosperm nucleus is produced by
the following characters, except fusion of
(1) Flat back of head (1) Two male gametes
(2) Big and wrinkled tongue (2) Male gamete and egg
(3) Trisomy of chromosome number 22 (3) Two polar nuclei
(4) Congenital heart disease (4) Two polar nuclei and a male gamete
113. Select the incorrect match 119. Remnant of nucellus is seen in seeds of
(1) Point mutation – Sickle cell anaemia (1) Black pepper (2) Wheat
(3) Bean (4) Coconut
(2) Chromosomal – Cancer cell
aberration 120. Parthenocarpic fruits
(3) Frame-shift – Substitution of thymine (1) Always develop after fertilization process
mutation with cytosine (2) Bear seeds
(4) UV radiation – Mutagen (3) Can be produced through application of auxin

(4) Can be exemplified with the help of apple and
114. During megasporogenesis in angiosperms,
strawberry
megaspore mother cell
121. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. post-fertilization
(1) Undergoes mitosis to form four megaspores
events.
(2) Forms a linear tetrad of four haploid
(1) Ovule – Seed
megaspores
(2) Ovary – Fruit
(3) Forms a dyad of diploid megaspores
(3) Integument – Endosperm
(4) Undergoes meiosis to form four egg cells
(4) Zygote – Embryo
115. In which of the following sets, pollen grains for
pollination comes from the same plant? 122. All of the following features are of insect pollinated
(1) Geitonogamy and Xenogamy flowers, except
(2) Xenogamy and Autogamy (1) These are generally large-sized
(3) Geitonogamy and Autogamy (2) These are colourful and have fragrance
(4) Xenogamy and Cleistogamy (3) They have light and non-sticky pollen grains
116. The outer layer of wall of pollen grain (4) They have nectaries
(1) Is made up of sporopollenin which is not 123. Among the following plants, insect pollination
resistant to enzymes action. occurs in
(2) Exhibits a fascinating array of patterns and (1) Zostera

design which is of taxonomic significance (2) Water lily
(3) Has germ pore, where sporopollenin is present (3) Vallisneria
(4) Is made up of pectin and hemicellulose (4) Hydrilla
117. Select the correct match w.r.t. pollen viability 124. Which among the following is not the part of anther
period. wall layers in a typical anther?
(1) Rice – 30 days (1) Endothecium
(2) Potato – Several years (2) Sporogenous tissue
(3) Pea – 10 minutes (3) Middle layers
(4) Wheat – 30 minutes (4) Tapetum
13/21
125. Embryo formation is present in all the following plant 132. Term ‘linkage’ was coined by
groups, except (1) Alfred Sturtevant (2) Mendel
(1) Bryophytes (2) Pteridophytes (3) T.H. Morgan (4) Sutton and Boveri
(3) Gymnosperms (4) Algae 133. ABO blood grouping in human being shows
126. The sex organs in Chara are (1) Only dominance - recessive alleles interaction
(1) Unicelled and covered by jacket (2) Multiple allelism and incomplete dominance
(2) Multicelled and unjacketed (3) Pleiotropy
(3) Multicelled and covered by jacket (4) Multiple allelism and co-dominance
134. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. sickle cell
(4) Unicelled and unjacketed
anaemia.
127. In a typical anther, two anther lobes are separated
(1) Individual showing HbAHbS genotype are
by a deep grove in front and are attached to each
normal but they are carrier of the disease
other by a band of vasculated sterile tissue called
(2) It is an autosomal dominant disorder
(1) Thalamus (2) Filament
(3) The mutant haemoglobin molecule undergoes
(3) Line of dehiscence (4) Connective polymerisation under low O 2 tension.
128. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. life span of (4) It is caused due to replacement of glutamic acid
organisms. at 6th position of -chain of haemoglobin by
(1) It is a specific trait of each organism valine
135. In F1 generation, a typical monohybrid test cross
(2) It varies from few days to several thousand
shows phenotypic ratio as
years
(1) 1 : 2 : 1 (2) 3 : 1
(3) It depends on size or complexity of organism
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 2 : 1
(4) It is the period from birth to the natural death of
an organism SECTION-B
129. When two fusing gametes belong to different 136.

parents then such species are called
(1) Homothallic (2) Heterothallic
(3) Heterogametic (4) Homogametic
130. Select the incorrect match.
(1) Zoospore – Chlamydomonas
(2) Conidia – Penicillium According to the given pedigree chart, the
(3) Budding – Amoeba individuals can be affected by which of the following
disorders?
(4) Binary fission – Paramoecium
(1) Sickle-cell anaemia
131. Chromosomal disorders
(2) Myotonic dystrophy
(1) Are caused due to imbalance in chromosome
(3) Haemophilia
number and chromosomal rearrangement
(4) Colour blindness
(2) Can be exemplified by colour blindness
137. Consanguineous mating is shown by which of the
(3) Are due to the formation of mutant allele and following symbol in human pedigree analysis?
their defective products
(1) (2)
(4) Are always passed from one generation to
another (3) (4)
14/21
138. In sickle cell anaemia, the mRNA that synthesizes 145. Match the following columns and select the correct
 chain of haemoglobin in the individual has _____ option w.r.t. an anther of typical stamen
in place of GAG
Column I Column II
(1) CUC (2) GUG
a. Epidermis (i) Degenerates at
(3) AGA (4) GUA
maturity
139. Total number of possible genotypes for ABO blood
type in humans is b. Middle layer (ii) Innermost anther
wall layer
(1) 6 (2) 4
c. Endothecium (iii) Single layered and
(3) 10 (4) 3
protective
140. The genes which are linked together
d. Tapetum (iv) Help in dehiscence
(1) Show independent segregation
of anther
(2) Follow 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 phenotypic ratio for F 2
generation. (1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
(3) Show significant deviation in phenotypic ratio in (2) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
F2 generation (3) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)
(4) Shows linkage in monohybrid cross only (4) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
141. Which of the following cells inside the embryo sac 146. How many of organisms in the box given below
guides the entry of pollen tube?
have morphologically distinct type of fusing
(1) Central cell (2) Egg gametes?
(3) Antipodal (4) Synergid
Cladophora, Chara, Volvox, Synchytrium,
142. Which amongst the following is the oldest and viable Rhizopus, Ulothrix
seed recorded?
(1) Cocos nucifera (1) 4 (2) 3
(2) Phoenix dactylifera (3) 5 (4) 2
(3) Orobanche 147. Sexual reproduction leads to
(4) Oxalis (1) Variation by generating new genetic

combinations
143. Pollen-grains are shed at which stage in 60% of
angiosperms? (2) Formation of morphologically and genetically
(1) 3-celled stage similar individuals
(2) 2-celled stage (3) Formation of vegetative propagules
(3) Single-celled stage (4) Formation of clones
(4) 4-celled stage 148. Select the correct statement regarding asexual
144. Scutellum, a structure found in embryo of certain reproduction
plants is a (1) Mostly biparental and uniparental in some
(1) Single cotyledon in dicots cases
(2) Single cotyledon in monocots (2) Slow and elaborated process
(3) Remains of second cotyledon in monocots (3) It can occur with and without gamete formation
(4) Root primordia in dicots (4) Gametic fusion is present
15/21
149. Flowering plants such as Mango, Apple and 150. Breaking of vegetative propagule in Eichhornia
Jackfruit are helps in its propagation. This structure is called
(1) Monocarpic plants (1) Rhizome
(2) Biennial plants (2) Runner
(3) Annual plants (3) Offset
(4) Polycarpic plants (4) Bulbil
[ZOOLOGY]
SECTION-A 154. Medical termination of pregnancy is considered
relatively safe upto how many weeks of pregnancy
151. Match the IUDs listed in column I with column II and on the opinion of one registered medical
select the correct option. practitioner?
(1) Twelve weeks (2) Eighteen weeks
Column I Column II
(3) Sixteen weeks (4) Twenty six weeks
a. Progestasert (i) Copper-ions
155. Assertion (A): The entry of sperm into ovum
releasing IUD induces completion of meiotic division of secondary
oocyte.
b. Lippes loop (ii) Non-medicated IUD
Reason (R): Entry of sperm causes breakdown of
c. Multiload 375 (iii) Hormone-releasing MPF and turns on APC.
IUD
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
a b c correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the
(1) (i) (ii) (iii)
correct explanation of (A).
(2) (ii) (iii) (i)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) 156. Identify the human developmental stage shown in
152. Select an incorrect match w.r.t. methods of the diagram below and its site of occurrence in a
contraception. normal human female.
(1) IUD : CuT
(2) Barrier method : Condom
(3) Surgical method : Vasectomy
(4) Natural method : Vault

Select the correct option.
153. Identify the correct set of STIs mentioned below, Developmental Site of
which are only caused due to viral pathogens. stage occurrence
(1) Gonorrhea, Genital warts (1) Blastocyst Uterus
(2) Syphilis, Genital herpes (2) Early morula Fallopian tube
(3) Trichomoniasis, AIDS (3) Blastula Ovary
(4) Genital herpes, Genital warts (4) Late morula Infundibulum
16/21
157. Read the following w.r.t. normal menstrual cycle in 160. How many statements among the following are true
human females. w.r.t. inhibin?
(a) Longest phase, of about 14 days (a) In males, it is secreted by Leydig cells.
(b) Ruptured follicle under the influence of LH, (b) In males, it inhibits LH synthesis.
develops into corpus luteum (c) In females, it is produced by granulosa cells in
(c) High levels of oestrogen and progesterone ovary.
during this period inhibits FSH Choose the suitable option.
Choose the phase of menstrual cycle from the given (1) Zero (2) One
options which correctly matches with the above (3) Two (4) Three
given descriptions. 161. Select the incorrect match.
(1) Menstrual phase (2) Follicular phase
(1) Caput epididymis – Head part of
(3) Ovulatory phase (4) Luteal phase epididymis
158. Observe the following given incomplete flow chart
(2) Cowper’s glands – Male accessory
of hormonal control of female reproductive system.
glands
Choose the correct labelling combination among
the given options in order to complete the flow chart. (3) Sustentacular cells – Provide nourishment
to the male germ
cells
(4) Ectopic pregnancy – Pregnancy with

genetic abnormality
162. Match column I with column II w.r.t. uterus and

choose the correct option.
Column I Column II
a. Middle thick muscle (i) Endometrium

A B C
layer of womb
(1) GnRH LH hCG
b. Uterine mucosa (ii) Perimetrium
(2) Gonado- Progesterone FSH
c. Thin membranous (iii) Myometrium
trophins
layer
(3) GnRH FSH/LH Oestrogen/
a b c
Progesterone
(1) (i) (ii) (iii)
(4) Gonado- LH/FSH Oestrogen/ (2) (iii) (ii) (i)
trophins Progesterone
(3) (iii) (i) (ii)
159. Which of the following enzyme is involved in the (4) (ii) (iii) (i)
digestion of zona pellucida? 163. Human egg releases second polar body
(1) Acrosin only (1) Before the entry of sperm within ovum
(2) Hyaluronidase only (2) After the entry of sperm within ovum
(3) Corona penetrating enzyme only (3) Spontaneously with no relation to sperm entry
(4) Acrosin and corona penetrating enzyme (4) After fusion of haploid nuclei of sperm and ovum
17/21
164. The fusion of female gamete with male gamete is (1) A – Filled with enzymes that help in
called fertilization of the ovum
(1) Embryogenesis (2) B – Contains an elongated haploid nucleus
(2) Gametogenesis (3) C – Contains proximal centriole which plays

a crucial role during the first cleavage of
(3) Fertilization fertilised ovum, and distal centriole
(4) Spermatogenesis which forms the axial filament
165. High concentration of LH leads to release of (4) D – Aids in sperm motility
(1) Ootid from the primary follicle 169. Select the odd one w.r.t. female mammals
exhibiting oestrus cycle.
(2) Ovum from the secondary follicle
(1) Sheep (2) Cows
(3) Ovum from the tertiary follicle
(3) Apes (4) Dogs
(4) Ovum from the Graafian follicle 170. In which of the following methods, the egg is
166. Which of the following is an incorrect pair w.r.t. fertilized outside the body and is then inserted into
chromosome number in gamete? the oviduct?
(1) Human beings – 23 (1) AI (2) IUI
(2) Rat – 21 (3) GIFT (4) ZIFT

171. Select an option which contains the correct
(3) Dog – 28
properties, explaining condoms being one of the
(4) Fruit fly –4 most popular contraceptives.
167. Select the incorrect statement regarding life span. a. Help in reducing the risk of STIs
(1) Life spans of organisms are not necessarily b. Do not interfere with coital act
correlated with their sizes. c. Inexpensive
(2) No individual is immortal except protozoans. d. User–friendly
(3) It is the period from birth to the natural death of (1) Only a and b (2) Only b and c
an organism. (3) Only a, b and c (4) a, b, c and d
(4) Cow has shorter life span as compared to 172. Oral contraceptive pills help in birth control by
crocodile. (1) Enhancing sperm motility
168. Observe the following given structure of human (2) Killing ovum
spermatozoa with the labellings A, B, C and D. (3) Preventing ovulation and implantation
Choose the option containing the correct function
(4) No effect on the quality of cervical mucus
of the labelled part concerned with it.
173. Read the following given statements and choose
the correct option.
Statement A : A large number of couples all over
the world including India are infertile.
Statement B : Infertility could be only due to
immunological or psychological disturbances.
(1) Only statement A is correct
(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Both statements A and B are correct
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
18/21
174. How many ova would be formed from three primary 180. Match column I with column II and choose the
oocytes? correct option.
(1) Three (2) Six Column I Column II
(3) Four (4) Two
a. After 1st month of (i) Appearance of hair
175. Fusion of sperm with ovum occurs in _____ region
pregnancy on the head of
of oviduct.
foetus
Select the correct option to fill in the blank.
b. By the end of 2nd (ii) Embryo’s heart is
(1) Ampulla (2) Isthmus
month of formed
(3) Infundibulum (4) Fimbriae pregnancy
176. How many among the following given statements
c. During the 5th (iii) Limbs and digits
are correct w.r.t. ovary?
month of develop in foetus
(a) Ovaries are primary sex organs in females. pregnancy
(b) Stroma of ovary is divided into peripheral cortex
and inner medulla. a b c
(c) Each ovary is covered by a thin epithelium (1) (i) (ii) (iii)
which encloses the ovarian stroma. (2) (iii) (ii) (i)
Choose the correct option. (3) (ii) (i) (iii)
(1) Zero (2) One (4) (ii) (iii) (i)
(3) Two (4) Three 181. In external genitalia of human female, fleshy folds
177. For parturition, birth canal is formed by of tissue which extend down from the mons pubis
are called
(1) Only cervical canal
(1) Labia minora (2) Labia majora
(2) Only vagina
(3) Hymen (4) Clitoris
(3) Fallopian tubes and womb
(4) Cervical canal and vagina 182. How many hormones given below in the box are
produced by placenta?
178. Select the correct sequence of the milk flow in
mammary glands. hPL, hCG, Oestrogen, Progestogen
(1) Mammary duct  Mammary alveoli  Choose the correct option.
Mammary tubules  Mammary ampulla
(1) Two (2) Three
(2) Mammary alveoli  Mammary tubules 
(3) One (4) Four
Mammary duct  Mammary ampulla
183. The structural and functional unit between foetus
(3) Mammary alveoli  Mammary duct 
and maternal body is called
Mammary tubules  Mammary ampulla
(1) Amnion (2) Yolk sac
(4) Mammary ampulla  Mammary tubules 
Mammary alveoli  Mammary duct (3) Placenta (4) Umbilical cord
179. Select the correct option to complete the analogy. 184. The signals for parturition originate
Bulbourethral glands : Lubricate the penis :: _____: (1) Only from fully developed foetus
Lubricate the vagina (2) Only from fully developed placenta
(1) Cowper’s glands (2) Seminal vesicles (3) From fully developed foetus and placenta
(3) Prostate gland (4) Bartholin’s glands (4) From oxytocin released by maternal pituitary
19/21
185. Secretion of which of the following hormone 189. Select the incorrect match.
decreases during the time of pregnancy?
(1) World population in 1900 – 2 billion
(1) FSH (2) Oestrogen
(2) World population in 2000 – 6 billion
(3) Progesterone (4) Cortisol
(3) World population in 2011 – 11.8 billion
SECTION-B
(4) Indian population in 2011 – 1.2 billion
186. Reproductively healthy society is the one with
people having 190. Oral contraceptive pills are made up of
(1) Normal emotional interaction among them but (1) Progestogen – testosterone combinations
having non-functional reproductive organs
(2) Progestogen – oestrogen combinations
(2) Physically and functionally normal reproductive
(3) Oestrogen only
organs and normal emotional and behavioural
interactions among them in all sex-related (4) Oestrogen – testosterone combinations
aspects. 191. Read the given statements w.r.t an ideal
(3) Only functionally normal reproductive organs contraceptive and state them as true (T) or false (F).
and no social interaction among them. a. It should interfere with libido.
(4) Physically normal reproductive organs but not b. It should be easily available.
normal behavioural interaction among them. c. It should be effective and reversible with no or
187. Match the terms listed in column I with column II and least side effects.
select the correct option. a b c
Column I Column II (1) T T F
(2) F T F
a. Oligospermia (i) Embryo formation
(3) F T T
b. Trophoblast (ii) Low sperm motility
(4) T F F
c. Inner cell mass (iii) Low sperm count 192. What are the causes of higher population growth
d. Asthenozoospermia (iv) Chorionic villi among the following given options?
a. Increase in the number of people in the
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
reproductive age group
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
b. Rapid increase in MMR
188. Read the following statements w.r.t. infertility and
c. Rapid decline in IMR
choose the correct option.
Choose the correct option.
Statement A : Primary infertility is a condition in
which the conception has not occurred even once. (1) a and b (2) a and c
Statement B : Secondary infertility is a condition in (3) b and c (4) a, b and c

which the conception has not occurred after first 193. Statutory ban on amniocentesis is for
pregnancy. (1) Detecting the presence of certain genetic
(1) Both statements A and B are correct disorders in unborn foetus.
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect (2) Determining the survivability of the foetus
(3) Only statement A is correct (3) Sex-determination
(4) Only statement B is correct (4) Detecting cleft-palate in developing foetus
20/21
194. A national level approach to build up a 198. Fluid filled cavity, antrum is a characteristic feature
reproductively healthy society was taken up in India of
under the title ‘family planning’ in the year (1) Primary follicle (2) Secondary follicle
(1) 1943 (2) 1951 (3) Tertiary follicle (4) Primary oocyte
(3) 1963 (4) 1974 199. Select the correct statement w.r.t. secretions of
195. Emergency contraceptives containing estrogen- male accessory sex glands.
progesterone combination may prevent pregnancy (1) Secretions of epididymis, vas deferens, seminal
if used within 72 hours of vesicles and prostate gland are essential for
(1) Implantation (2) Placenta formation maturation and motility of sperms.
(2) Seminal plasma is also termed semen.
(3) Coitus (4) Menstruation
(3) Seminal plasma is rich in glucose and
196. Which of the following layer exhibits strong
potassium while enzymes are absent.
contractions of uterus during delivery of the baby?
(4) The secretion from Cowper’s glands provides
(1) Perimetrium (2) Perimysium
characteristic odour to the seminal fluid.
(3) Endometrium (4) Myometrium
200. Select the incorrect match w.r.t. ploidy.
197. Complete the analogy w.r.t. life span.
(1) Primary Diploid
Tortoise : 100 to 150 years :: Crow : _____
spermatocyte
(1) 10 years
(2) Secondary oocyte Diploid
(2) 15 years
(3) 20 years (3) Oogonium Diploid
(4) 25 years (4) Spermatogonium Diploid
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21/21
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Medical Entrance Exam - 2022

Electric Charges & Field, Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance, Current

Chemistry Haloalkanes and Haloarenes, Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers

Reproduction in organisms, Sexual reproduction in flowering plants, Principles of

Zoology Reproduction in Organisms, Human Reproduction, Reproductive Health.

MM : 720 TEST - 5 Time : 3 Hrs.

SECTION-A 5. The equivalent capacitance of network shown

(1) 1 A (2) 0.5 A

C1VA  C2VB  C3VC C1VA  C2VB  C3VC

24. The capacitance of parallel plate capacitor of plate a

(1) A (2) B (1) 2 V (2) 4 V

39. The resistance of conducting wire is 20  at 0°C. If

(3) R2 < R < R1

41. A block of mass M having charge Q is kept at rest

42. Cell having an emf  and internal resistance r is 3q q

(1) 2:1 (2) 1:2

51. Chloroform is slowly oxidized by air in the presence

52. CH3MgBr + CH3NH2  (2) An alkene

dehydration of the compound in

(3) I and II only

65. Which of the following biphenyls is optically active?

61. Which of the following substituted phenols is the

66. Acetylation of salicylic acid produces

(1) CH3OCH3 (2) (1) CH3OH (2)

(3) (4) CH3 – O – C6H5 (3) (4)

(2) CH3 – Cl > CH3 – Br > CH3 – I > CH3 – F d. CH CHO  H 

82. Identify chiral molecule among the following.

(3) (4) CH3CH2 – Br

83. Which of the following alcohols gives red colour in 87.

SECTION-B Sucrose Glucose Fructose

Product (C) is (3) Maltase (4) Urease

93. How many stereoisomers does the following

For the above reaction most suitable solvent is

Major product in the above reaction is

(4) (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is

Major product ‘P’ in the reaction is boiling point is

(3) 17 years (4) 2 years (1) AB (2) A

(3) Both the statements are incorrect (3) 2 (4) 5

(4) UV radiation – Mutagen (3) Can be produced through application of auxin

(2) Xenogamy and Autogamy (1) These are generally large-sized

(2) Exhibits a fascinating array of patterns and (1) Zostera

129. When two fusing gametes belong to different 136.

(2) Phoenix dactylifera (3) 5 (4) 2

(3) Orobanche 147. Sexual reproduction leads to

(4) Oxalis (1) Variation by generating new genetic

(2) 2-celled stage (3) Formation of vegetative propagules

(3) Single-celled stage (4) Formation of clones

(2) Single cotyledon in monocots (2) Slow and elaborated process

(1) IUD : CuT

(2) Barrier method : Condom

(3) Surgical method : Vasectomy

(4) Natural method : Vault

(4) Ectopic pregnancy – Pregnancy with

162. Match column I with column II w.r.t. uterus and

a. Middle thick muscle (i) Endometrium

(2) Gametogenesis (3) C – Contains proximal centriole which plays

165. High concentration of LH leads to release of (4) D – Aids in sperm motility

(1) Human beings – 23 (1) AI (2) IUI

(2) Rat – 21 (3) GIFT (4) ZIFT

Statement B : Secondary infertility is a condition in (3) b and c (4) a, b and c

(4) 25 years (4) Spermatogonium Diploid