Test 4-Answer Key

PoP 2022 || TEST -4 Explanation|| IAS HUB MGOCSM
1. Option c is correct.
Option a is incorrect. The 7th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 facilitated the appointment of the same person
as the Governor for two or more states at the same time.
Option b is incorrect. According to Article 217, Every Judge of a High Court shall be appointed by the President by
warrant under his hand and seal after consultation with the Chief Justice of India, the Governor of the State, and, in
the case of appointment of a Judge other than the chief Justice, the chief Justice of the High court. He shall hold his
office until he attains the age of sixty two years.
Option c is correct. A governor holds office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office.
However, this term of five years is subject to the pleasure of the President. The Supreme Court held that the pleasure
of the President is not justifiable.
But the Constitution does not lay down any grounds or any procedure upon which a governor may be removed by
the President.
Option d is incorrect. Section 45 in The Government of Union Territories Act, 1963 states that the Chief Minister
shall be appointed by the President and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the
Chief Ministers. The Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the President.
Source: UPSC Pre 2013
2. Option a is the correct.

Of all the Cabinet Committees, the most powerful is the Political Affairs Committee, often described as a “Super-
Cabinet”.
Different Cabinet Committees:
1) Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC)
2) Cabinet Committee on Accommodation (CCA)
3) Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA)
4) Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs (CCPA)
5) Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs (CCPA
6) Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS)
Two new committees are recently formed are;
7) Cabinet committee on investment & growth
8) Cabinet Committee on Employment and skill development
Source: Chapter 21 (page no 21.2) Indian Polity by M. Laxmikanth fifth edition

Statement 1 is incorrect: The members of Electoral College for election of President includes:
1) Elected members of both Houses of Parliament
2) Elected members of Legislative Assemblies of the States and Union territories of Delhi and Puducherry.
While, the process of impeachment is carried out by members of both Houses of Parliament - both elected and
nominated.
Statement 2 is correct: During the process of election of President, the sum of the value votes of all MLAs is equal
to the sum of value of votes of all MPs.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The process of impeachment of President is a quasi-judicial process carried out by the
legislators.
Source: Indian Polity, M Laxmikanth, Fifth Edition Part I, Chapter 5, Page 5.2

Statement 1 is correct. The principle of collective responsibility means that the cabinet decisions bind all cabinet
ministers (and other ministers) even if they deferred in the cabinet meeting. It is the duty of every minister to stand
by the cabinet decisions and support them both within and outside the state legislature. If any minister disagrees with
a cabinet decision and is not prepared to defend it, he must resign. Several ministers have resigned in the past owing
to their differences with the cabinet.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 164 also contains the principle of individual responsibility. It states that the
ministers hold office during the pleasure of the governor (so state minister responsible to the governor not chief
minister).
Source: Indian Polity 4th Edition M.Laxmikanth; chapter 28
POLITY mail@mgocsmcsa.com|www.iashubcivilserviceacademy.com | 956 7744544

5. Option c is the correct.
Statement 1 is correct: A formal impeachment is not required for the removal of the Vice President. He can be
removed by a resolution of the RajyaSabha passed by an absolute majority and agreed to by the LokSabha. But no
such resolution can be moved unless at least 14 days’ notice is given to the Vice President.
Statement 2 is correct: He can act as President only for a maximum period of six months.
Source: Indian Polity - M Laxmikanth - Fifth Edition, Page - 18.2, 18.3
SGBs are government securities denominated in grams of gold. They are substitutes for holding physical gold.
Investors have to pay the issue price in cash and the bonds will be redeemed in cash on maturity. The Bond is issued by
Reserve Bank on behalf of Government of India. The quantity of gold for which the investor pays is protected, since
he receives the ongoing market price at the time of redemption/ premature redemption. The SGB offers a superior
alternative to holding gold in physical form. The risks and costs of storage are eliminated. Investors are assured of the
market value of gold at the time of maturity and periodical interest. SGB is free from issues like making charges and
purity in the case of gold in jewellery form. The bonds are held in the books of the RBI or in demat form eliminating
risk of loss of scrip etc. Persons resident in India as defined under Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 are
eligible to invest in SGB. Eligible investors include individuals, HUFs, trusts, universities and charitable institutions.
Individual investors with subsequent change in residential status from resident to non-resident may continue to hold
SGB till early redemption/maturity.

Statement 1 is correct: He is the chairman of NITI Aayog, National Development Council, National Integration
Council, Inter-State Council and National Water Resources Council.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The speaker can only adjourn the house, not summon or prorogue the house which is done
by the President. The President cannot arbitrarily summon or prorogue proceedings of the house, but based on the
PM's advice. However, he is not bound to accept the advice of the PM, when he is seeking a vote of confidence.

Statement 1 is correct. Governor is appointed by the president by warrant under his hand and seal. In a way, he is a
nominee of the Central government.
Statement 2 is incorrect. As held by the Supreme Court in 1979, the office of governor of a state is not an
employment under the Central government. It is an independent constitutional office and is not under the control of
or subordinate to the Central government.
The Constitution lays down only two qualifications for the appointment of a person as a governor. These are:
1) He should be a citizen of India.
2) Statement 3 is incorrect. He should have completed the age of 35 years. (Not 25 years)
Statement 4 is incorrect. Usually, there is a governor for each state, but the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act of
1956 facilitated the appointment of the same person as a governor for two or more states.
Source: Indian Polity 5th Edition M. Laxmikanth; chapter 30 “Governor”.
9. Option b is the correct.

Constitutional prerogative are the constitutional powers or rights or responsibilities of the President as mentioned in
the constitution.
Under Article 111 the President can return bill except money bill for the reconsideration of the parliament. The
President cannot return Appropriation Bill (money bill) for the reconsideration of the Parliament. Under Article 85
he can summon both the houses and may dissolve the Lok Sabha.
Source: Chapter 17 (page no 17.7 and 17.8) Indian Polity by M. Laxmikanth fifth edition

Statement 1 is correct: Article 72 grants President the power to pardon persons who have been tried and convicted of
any offence in all cases where:
1) Punishment or sentence is for offence against Union Law
2) Punishment or sentence is by court martial
3) Death Sentence. He can pardon death sentence given under state laws as well.
Statement 2 is correct: Pardoning power of President is independent of Judiciary, it is an executive power.
Source) Indian Polity - M Laxmikanth - Fifth Edition, Page - 17.12
11. Option a is correct.

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Advocate General of a State is a constitutional body (and not a statutory body) created
under Article 165. He is the highest law officer in the state.
Statement 2 is incorrect. She/he is appointed by the governor (and not Chief Minister) of the state. The term is not
fixed and she/he holds the office during the pleasure of the governor.
Statement 3 is correct. The qualification to be appointed as an Advocate General is similar to that of a judge of a
high court. As a result he must have held a judicial office for ten years or been an advocate in the high court for ten
years.
Source: Laxmikanth 4th edition 47.1
12. Option d is the correct.

Statement 1 is correct. The Governor appoints the State Election Commissioner and determines his conditions of
service and tenure of office. However, the State Election Commissioner can be removed only in like manner and on
the grounds as a judge of the High Court.
Statement 2 is correct. He appoints the chairman and members of the State Public Service Commission. However,
they can be removed only by the President and not by a Governor.
Statement 3 is incorrect. He acts as the chancellor (not vice-chancellors) of universities in the state. He also appoints
the vice-chancellors of universities in the state.
Statement 4 is correct. He appoints the chief minister and other ministers. They also hold office during his pleasure.
Source: Indian Polity 5th Edition M.Laxmikanth; chapter 30 “Governor”.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Cabinet Committees usually include only Cabinet Ministers. However, the non-cabinet
Ministers are not debarred from their membership.
Statement 2 is incorrect: They are mostly headed by the Prime Minister. Sometimes other Cabinet Ministers,
particularly the Home Minister or the Finance Minister, also acts as their Chairman. But, in case the Prime Minister
is a member of a committee, he invariably presides over it.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 76 does not mention about the solicitor general and additional solicitor general. It
should be noted that only the office of the AG is created by the Constitution.
Statement 2 is correct. In addition to the AG, there are other law officers of the Government of India. They are the
solicitor general of India and additional solicitor general of India. They assist the AG in the fulfillment of his official
responsibilities.
Source: Indian Polity, M Laxmikanth, Fifth Edition Part VII, Constitutional Bodies, Chapter 50,Page 50.2

Statement 1 is incorrect: The National Human Rights Commission submits its annual or special reports to the
Central Government and to the concerned State Governments.
Statement 2, 3 and 4 are correct: UPSC, NCST and CVC present their annual report of performance to the President,
who puts it in front of each house of Parliament.
Source: Indian Polity - M Laxmikanth - Fifth Edition, Page - 43.3, 47.2, 53.3, 57.4

Statement 1 is incorrect: The total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers
shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of the LokSabhaonly.

Statement 2 is correct: Under Article 74, the advice tendered by the Ministers to the President cannot be inquired
into in any court.
17. Option b is correct.

The Supreme Court directed all states and Union Territories to implement the One Nation, One Ration Card
(ONORC) system, which allows for inter- and intra-state portability, by July 31.
The ONORC scheme is aimed at enabling migrant workers and their family members to buy subsidised ration from
any fair price shop anywhere in the country under the National Food Security Act, 2013.
ONORC is based on technology that involves details of beneficiaries’ ration card, Aadhaar number, and electronic
Points of Sale (ePoS). The system identifies a beneficiary through biometric authentication on ePoS devices at fair
price shops. The system runs with the support of two portals —Integrated Management of Public Distribution
System (IM-PDS) (impds.nic.in) and Annavitran (annavitran.nic.in), which host all the relevant data.
Till date, 32 states and Union Territories have joined the ONORC, covering about 69 crore NFSA beneficiaries.
Four states are yet to join the scheme — Assam, Chhattisgarh, Delhi and West Bengal.

Statement 1 is correct. President can send back the advice given by the Council of Ministers and ask the Council to
reconsider the decision. In doing this, the President acts on his (or her) own discretion. Although, the Council can
still send back the same advice and the President would then be bound by that advice, such a request by the
President to reconsider the decision, would naturally carry a lot of weight. So, this is one way in which the President
can act in his own discretion.
Statement 2 is incorrect. President has discretionary powers but less as compared to the governor. Example is the
veto power held by the President. The President has discretionary power when he exercises suspensive veto ie.,
when he returns a bill for reconsideration of the parliament.
The President also has situational discretion when there is a hung Parliament (when no party or coalition has a
majority), here the President can appoint the Prime Minister. The President can also dismiss the council of ministers
when it cannot prove the confidence of the Lok Sabha.
Statement 3 is correct. President also has veto power by which he can withhold or refuse to give assent to Bills
(other than Money Bill) passed by the Parliament. Every bill passed by the Parliament goes to the President for his
assent before it becomes a law. The President can send the bill back to the Parliament asking it to reconsider the bill.
This ‘veto power is limited because, if the Parliament passes the same bill again and sends it back to the President,
then, the President has to give assent to that bill.
Source: NCERT Class XI Indian Constitution at Work Ch-4 Executive
19. Option d is correct.

Statement 1 is correct - The oath of office to the governor is administered by the chief justice of the concerned state
high court -and in his absence, senior most judge of that court available. Every person discharging the functions of
the governor also undertakes the similar oath or affirmation. Oath of the Governor - (a) to faithfully execute the
office; (b) to preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law; and (c) to devote himself to the service and
well-being of the people of the state.
Statement 2 is correct - Unlike President, the constitution has not laid down any grounds upon which a governor
may be removed from the office.
Statement 3 is correct - A governor holds office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his
office. However, this term of five years is subject to the pleasure of the President. Further, he can resign at any time
by addressing a resignation letter to the President. The Supreme Court held that the pleasure of the President is not
justifiable. The governor has no security of tenure and no fixed term of office. He may be removed any time.
Statement 4 is incorrect - A governor whose term has ended can be reappointed to same or different state is no such
convention of not reappointing the governor. There have been many cases where governors have served for more
than one terms in same state. He/She can also hold office beyond his term of five years until his successor assumes
charges. The underlying idea is that there must be a governor in the state and there cannot be an interregnum.
Source: M Laxmikanth, Chapter 30

Statement 1 is incorrect. Constitution of India does not require that a person must prove his majority in the Lok
Sabha before he is appointed as the Prime Minister. The President may first appoint him the Prime Minister and then
ask him to prove his majority in the Lok Sabha within a reasonable period. This was held by Delhi High Court in
1980. For example, Charan Singh (1979), V.P. Singh (1989), Chandrasekhar (1990), P.V. Narasimha Rao (1991),
A.B. Vajyapee (1996), Deve Gowda (1996), I.K. Gujral (1997) and again A.B. Vajpayee (1998) were appointed as
Prime Ministers in this way.
Statement 2 is correct. Supreme Court in 1997 held that a person who is not a member of either House of Parliament
can be appointed as Prime Minister for six months, within which, he should become a member of either House of
Parliament; otherwise, he ceases to be the Prime Minister. Example: When Dr.Manmohan Singh became the PM of
India in 2009, he was not member of any house of the Parliament. Subsequently he was elected to RajyaSabha from
Assam.

Statement 1 is correct. Governor in any case, be it money bill or ordinary bill can reserve it for the assent of
President.
Statement 2 is correct. When the governor reserves a bill, for the consideration of the President; he will not have any
further role in the enactment of the bill. If the bill is returned by the President for the reconsideration of the House or
Houses and is passed again, the bill must be presented again for the Presidential assent only. If the President gives
his assent to the bill, it becomes an act. This means that the assent of the Governor is no longer required.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Article 200 of the constitution made it is obligatory for Governor to reserve the bill for
President's consideration if it endangers the position of state high court.
However, the governor may reserve the bill if it is unconstitutional, opposed to DPSPs, against larger interest of
country, of grave national importance, dealing with compulsory acquisition of property. He/She is not under any
obligation in the above cases and can follow his/her discretion.

Statement 1 is correct. When a money bill is reserved by governor for consideration of President, the President can
either give his assent to the bill or withhold his assent but cannot return the bill for reconsideration of state
legislature. There is no mention in constitution for how long can President withhold the bill. Hence, President can
withhold his assent for indefinite period as he/she wants.
Statement 2 is incorrect. When a bill is reserved by the governor for the consideration of the President, the President
may either give his assent to the bill or withhold his assent to the bill or return the bill for reconsideration of the
House or Houses of the state legislature. When a bill is so returned, the House or Houses have to reconsider it within
a period of six months.
Statement 3 is correct. If the bill is presented again to the Presidential assent after it is passed by the House or
Houses with or without amendments. It is not obligatory for the President to give his assent to such bill. This means
state legislature cannot over-ride the veto power of the President. The constitution doesn't provide any time limit in
which President has to give his/her assent. This is what we call as Pocket veto with respect to state legislation.
Source: LAXMIKANT

Dholavira, the archaeological site of a Harappan-era city, received the UNESCO world heritage site tag. While
Dholavira became the fourth site from Gujarat and 40 th from India to make the list, it is the first site of the ancient
Indus Valley Civilisation (IVC) in India to get the tag.

Statement 1 is correct. Value of vote of a MLA: Every elected member of the legislative assembly of a state shall
have as many votes as there are multiples of one thousand in the quotient obtained by dividing the population of the
state by the total number of the elected members of the assembly. Therefore, it varies with population of state.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Value of vote of an MP: Every elected member of either House of Parliament shall have
such number of votes as may be obtained by dividing the total number of votes assigned to members of the
legislative assemblies of the states by the total number of the elected members of both the Houses of Parliament.
Thus, the value of a MP of Lok Sabha is same as that of an MP from Rajya Sabha.
Source: M Laxmikanth

Only statements 1 and 3 are correct. The governor can use discretionary powers:
(a) If no party gets an absolute majority, the governor can use his discretion in the selection of the chief minister;
(b) During an emergency he can override the advice of the council of ministers. At such times, he acts as an agent of
the President and becomes the real ruler of the state:
(c) He uses his discretion in submitting a report to the President regarding the affairs of the state;
(d) He can withhold his assent to a bill and send it to the President for his approval.
Statement 2and 4 are incorrect. Article 166(3) - The Governor shall make rules for the more convenient transaction
of the business of the Government of the State, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business in so far
as it is not business with respect to which the Governor is by or under this Constitution required to act in his
discretion. Hence, making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government is not a discretionary power but
a constitutional obligation. Also, the Governor appoints Ministers on the advice of the Chief Minister.

The Vice-President is elected not directly by the people but by the method of indirect election. He is elected by the
members of an electoral college consisting of the members of both Houses of Parliament. The electoral college is
different from the electoral college for the election of the President in the following two respects:
1) It consists of both elected and nominated members of the Parliament (in the case of President, only elected
members).
2) It does not include the members of the state legislative assemblies (in the case of President, the elected members
of the state legislative assemblies are included).
This is because, according to Dr Babasaheb Ambedkar, normal functions of Vice President are to preside over the
council of states. It is only on a rare occasion, and that to for a temporary period, that he may be called upon to
assume the duties of the President. That being so, it does not seem necessary that the members of the state
legislatures should also be invited to take part in the election of the Vice-President.

The Cabinet Secretariat is responsible for the administration of the Government of India (Transaction of Business)
Rules, 1961 and the Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules 1961.
This Secretariat provides Secretarial assistance to the Cabinet and its Committees, and also assists in decision
making in Government by ensuring Inter-Ministerial coordination. It also prepares agenda for Cabinet Meetings.
The Cabinet Secretariat ensures that the President, the Vice President and Ministers are kept informed of the major
activities of all Ministries/Departments by means of monthly summary of their activities. It does not allocate
financial resources to the Ministries.

Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect. Every citizen who is 18 years old on the qualifying date (January 1 of the
year in case) unless disqualified, is eligible to be enrolled as a voter. Whereas an individual should be at least 25
years of age or more to be a member of the Legislative Assembly or a minister of the state. Thus, not every person
who is eligible to vote can be made a minister in a state unless he is of the age as specified. To be able to become a
minister, a person should be a member of the state Legislature, however, as an exception, an individual who is not
an MLA can be considered as the CM if he gets himself elected to the State Legislature within six months from the
date of his appointment. As per Section 8 of the Representation of People Act 1951, a person convicted of any
offence and sentenced to imprisonment for not less than two years (not five years) shall be disqualified from the date
of such conviction and shall continue to be disqualified for a further period of six years (not permanently
disqualified) since his release.
29. Option c is correct

Statement 1 is correct. The Constitution under Article 72 empowers the President to grant pardon, suspend, remit or
commute sentences including the death sentence. He can pardon, reprieve, respite, remit, suspend or commute the
punishment or sentence of any person convicted of any offence. The Governor can pardon, reprieve, respite, remit,
suspend or commute the punishment or sentence of any person convicted of any offence against a state law.
Statement 2 is correct. Only President of India can grant pardon, reprieve, respite, suspension, remission
commutation in respect to punishment or sentence by a court-martial (military court), whereas Governor does not
possess any such power.


According to provisions made in the Constitution, Governor of a state has following immunities and office
conditions -
Article 361(2): During his term of office, he is immune from any criminal proceedings, even in respect of his
personal acts.
Article 158(4): His emoluments and allowances cannot be diminished during his term of office.

Statement 1 is correct. According to Article 77(3), the President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction
of the business of the Government of India and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.
Statement 2 is incorrect. According to Article 77(1), all executive action of the Government of India shall be
expressed to be taken in the name of the President (and not the Prime Minister).

Article 74 deals with the status of the council of ministers while Article 75 deals with the appointment, tenure,
responsibility, qualification, oath and salaries and allowances of the minister .
Statement 1 is correct. The nature of advice tendered by ministers to the President cannot be enquired by any court.
This provision emphasizes the intimate a and the confidential relationship between the President and the ministers.
Further, the 42nd and 44th Constitutional Amendment Acts have made the advice binding on the President.
Statement 2 is incorrect. A minister who is a member of one House of Parliament has the right to speak and to take
part in the proceedings of the other House also, but he can vote only in the House of which he is a member.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The salaries and allowances of ministers are determined by Parliament (Not President) from
time to time. A minister gets the salary and allowances that are payable to a Member of Parliament. Additionally, he
gets a sumptuary allowance (according to his rank), free accommodation, travelling allowance, medical facilities,
etc.

Statement 1 is incorrect. While the Constitution envisages the possibility of the governor acting at times in his
discretion, no such possibility has been envisaged for the President. After the 42nd Constitutional Amendment
(1976), ministerial advice has been made binding on the President, but no such provision has been made with
respect to the governor.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Constitution makes it clear that if any question arises whether a matter falls within the
governor's discretion or not, the decision of the governor is final. The validity of anything done by him cannot be
called in question on the ground that he ought or ought not to have acted in his discretion.

Statement 1 is incorrect. The President of India can be removed from office by a process of impeachment for
violation of the Constitution. However, the Constitution does not define the meaning of the phrase "violation of the
Constitution'. The term Basic Structure is coined Kesavananda Bharati case in 1973 by Supreme Court in India and
it is not the ground for impeachment of President of India.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The impeachment charges can be initiated by either House of Parliament. It does not
require the prior permission of Chief Justice of India or any other institutions. These charges should be signed by
one-fourth members of the House (that framed the charges), and a 14 days' notice should be given to the president.
Statement 3 is correct. An impeachment is a quasi-judicial procedure in the Parliament. In this context, two things
should be noted: (a) the nominated members of either House of Parliament can participate in the impeachment of the
President though they do not participate in his election; (b) the elected members of the legislative assemblies of
states and the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry do not participate in the impeachment of the President
though they participate in his election.
Statement 4 is incorrect. After the impeachment resolution is passed by a majority of two-thirds of the total
membership of that House, it is sent to the other House, which should investigate the charges. If the other House
also sustains the charges and passes the impeachment resolution by a majority of two-thirds of the total membership,
then the President stands removed from his office from the date on which the resolution is so passed. There is no
need to pass Constitutional Amendment for the removal of President of India.
Source: M Laxmikanth, Chapter 17.

The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) announced an Open Network for Digital
Commerce (ONDC). Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) project that is aimed at curbing “digital
monopolies”. This is a step in the direction of making e-commerce processes open source, thus creating a platform
that can be utilized by all online retailers.
It will make the e-commerce ecosystem open source, which means allowing sellers to be discoverable across
multiple platforms for a wider reach to customers instead of available to customers on only one particular e-
commerce platform; will help democratize digital commerce much like Unified Payments Interface (UPI).

Statement 1 is correct. The Governor can summon or prorogue the state legislature and dissolve the state legislative
assembly. He can address the state legislature at the commencement of the first session after each general election
and the first session of each year.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 208 states that, “A House of the Legislature of a State may make rules for regulating
subject to the provisions of this Constitution, its procedure and the conduct of its business. Until such rules are
made, the rules of procedure and standing orders in force immediately before the commencement of this
Constitution with respect to the Legislature for the corresponding Province shall have effect in relation to legislature
of state subject to modifications by Speaker of Legislative Assembly or Chairman of Legislative Council".
The words 'council of ministers' and 'cabinet are often used interchangeably though there is a definite distinction
between them. They differ from each other in respects of composition, functions, and role. Council of Minister is a
constitutional body, dealt in detail by the Articles 74 and 75 of the Constitution. Its size and classification are,
however, not mentioned in the Constitution. With respect to term 'Cabinet', Article 352 only defines the cabinet
saying that it is 'the council consisting of the prime minister and other ministers of cabinet rank appointed under
Article 75'. However, it does not describe its powers and functions.
Statement 1 is incorrect. Council of Ministers does not meet, as a body, to transact government business. It has no
collective functions. On the other hand, Cabinet meets, as a body, frequently and usually once in a week to
deliberate and take decisions regarding the transaction of government business.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Council of ministers (not Cabinet) is collectively responsible to the Lower House of the
Parliament. Cabinet enforces the collective responsibility of the council of ministers to the Lower House of
Parliament.

Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect. According to Article 85(1) of the Constitution “The President
shall from time to time summon each House of Parliament to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit, but six
months shall not intervene between its last sitting in one session and the date appointed for its first sitting in the next
session." Hence, Parliament must meet at least twice a year.
Statement 3 is correct. The parliament sits thrice in a year-Budget Session (February to May), Monsoon Session
(July to September) and Winter Session (November to December). The period during which the House meets to
transact its business is called a session. There is no minimum number of days that Parliament is required to meet in a
year.

President is the nominal executive authority (de jure executive) and Prime Minister is the real executive authority
(de facto executive). In other words, President is the head of the State while Prime Minister is the head of the
government.

Statement 1 is correct. The resignation or death of an incumbent Prime Minister automatically dissolves the council
of ministers and thereby generates a vacuum. The resignation or death of any other minister, on the other hand,
merely creates a vacancy which the Prime Minister may or may not like to fill.
Statement 2 is correct. Prime Minister recommends persons who can be appointed as ministers by the President. The
President can appoint only those persons as ministers who are recommended by the Prime Minister.
Statement 3 is correct. The Prime Minister is the leader of the Lower House. In this capacity, he enjoys the
following powers:
1) Prime Minister advises the President with regard to summoning and proroguing of the sessions of the parliament.
2) Prime Minister can recommend dissolution of the Lok Sabha to President at any time.
3. He announces government policies on the floor of the House
Statement 4 is incorrect. Prime Minister advises the President with regard to the appointment of important officials
like attorney general of India, Comptroller and Auditor General of India, chairman and members of the UPSC,
election commissioners, chairman and members of the finance commission. Chief Information Commissioner are
appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee consisting of the Prime Minister as Chairperson,
the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister

The Indian constitution has no provision of deputy prime minister.
Gulzarilal Nanda was the prime minster of India twice for 13 days each, the first time after the death of Prime
Minister Jawahar Lal Nehru in 1964, and the second time after the death of Prime Minister Lal Bahadur Shastri in
1966. He was the home minister of India during both these periods. He never was the deputy prime minister.
At his death Nanda was the last surviving member of the second and third Nehru cabinets and the last living state
leader to have been born in the 19th century.

India is the largest democracy in the world. The United States of America is the oldest democracy. Both are
democratic republic countries only. But USA follows Presidential form of Government and India is governed by
Parliamentary form of Government.
Statement 1 is incorrect. Indian President is eligible for re-election to the office. He can be elected for any number of
terms. However, in USA, a person cannot be elected to the office of the President more than twice.
Statement 2 is correct. Qualified Veto is seen in Constitution of the USA. Once a bill is passed by the Congress it is
sent to the President for his assent. If he decides to withhold it or does not give his assent, he may send it back to the
Congress within 10 days of the bill being presented to him. If the same bill is passed with 2/3rd (extraordinary
majority) he has to give his assent. Simply put, this veto can be overridden by the legislature with higher majority.
There is no qualified veto in the case of Indian President; it is possessed by the American President. Statement 3 is
correct. In India both a citizen by birth as well as a naturalized citizen are eligible for the office of President while in
USA, only a citizen by birth and not a naturalized citizen is eligible for the office of President Naturalized Citizen
means a non-citizen of a country that has acquired citizenship or nationality of that country by the legal act or
process mentioned in the Constitution of that country. In India, The Citizenship Act (1955) provides for acquisition
and loss of citizenship (Citizenship by Naturalization) after the commencement of the Constitution.

Statement 1 is incorrect - Although the Governor appoints the chairman and members of the State Public service
commission, they are removed only by the President and not the governor. They are removed on the same grounds
as the chairman and members of UPSC for ex, if judged insolvent, infirmity of body of mind etc.
Statement 2 is correct - Article 167 of the Indian constitution provides for the duties of the Chief Minister. It
includes to communicate all the decisions of the Council of minister to the governor and to furnish such information
relating to the administration of the affairs of the state and proposals for legislation from the chief minister.
Statement 3 is correct - The constitution provides that Governor should constitute the State Finance Commission
after every five years to review the financial position of Panchayat and Urban local bodies.
Statement 4 is incorrect - Governor can make any advancement out of contingency fund of state and not
consolidated fund of state to meet any unforeseen circumstances. To take any fund out of Consolidated Fund of
State, a bill must be passed in the state legislative assembly with prior approval of governor.
Source: M Laxmikanth.

Statement b is correct. Under Article 356, in the event that a State government is unable to function according to
constitutional provisions, president’s rule can be imposed in the state.
The president can declare that the powers of state legislature are to be exercised by the parliament. In this case the
parliament uses its authority on issues which were to be decided by the state legislature. It is also known as “State
emergency” or “constitutional emergency”.
Statement a and d are incorrect. During its operation, State executive is dismissed and the state legislature is either
suspended or dissolved. The president administers the State through the governor and the parliament makes law for
the State. In brief, the executive and legislative powers of the state are assumed by the centre.
Statement c is incorrect. It has no effect on the fundamental rights of the citizens.

There are six components to the programme. A manned submersible will be developed to carry three people to a
depth of 6,000 metres in the ocean with a suite of scientific sensors and tools. An Integrated Mining System will be
also developed for mining polymetallic nodules at those depths in the central Indian Ocean.
The second component involves developing Ocean Climate Change Advisory Services, which entails developing a
suite of observations and models to understand and provide future projections of important climate variables on
seasonal to decadal time scales. The next component is searching for deep sea flora and fauna, including microbes,
and studying ways to sustainably utilise them. The fourth component is to explore and identify potential sources of
hydrothermal minerals that are sources of precious metals formed from the earth’s crust along the Indian Ocean mid-
oceanic ridges. The fifth component involves studying and preparing detailed engineering design for offshore Ocean
Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC) powered desalination plants.
The final component is aimed at grooming experts in the field of ocean biology and engineering.

As per Article 66 of the constitution, to be eligible for election as Vice-President, a person should fulfil the
following qualifications:
1. He should be a citizen of India.
2. He should have completed 35 years of age.
3. He should be qualified for election as a member of the Rajya Sabha.
4. He should not hold any office of profit under the Union government or any state government or any local
authority or any other public authority.

D.C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar, 1986: In the case of D.C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar, the State of Bihar's
promulgating and repromulgating ordinances were challenged as there was promulgation of the same in massive
scale.
BP Singhal v. Union of India, 2010: A Constitution Bench in the B P Singhal v. Union of India had ruled that
"change in government at Centre is not a ground for removal of Governors holding office to make way for others
favoured by the new government”.
S.R. Bommaivs Union of India, 1994: This case was related to the issue of Article 356 and the role of Governor.
R.C. Cooper v. Union of India: This case was related to the issue of Bank nationalization and the Fabian socialism in
India.

Statement 1 and 2 are correct. It consists of both elected and nominated members of the Parliament (in the case of
president, only elected members). If the election of a person as Vice President is declared void by the Supreme
Court, acts done by him in the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of the office of Vice President, on
or before the date of the decision of the Supreme Court shall not be invalidated by reason of that declaration.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Method of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote is used in
election of Vice President.

Article 160: Discharge of the functions of the Governor in certain contingencies
 The President may make such provision thinks fit for the discharge of the ne of the Governor of a State in
any contingency.

 If Governor becomes unable to deliver the address as required under article 176, the President may make
some other provision for the discharge of the functions of the Governor.
 The present position is that if a Governor dies, resigns and relinquishes the office or is absent on long leave
etc., either the Chief Justice of the State High Court is entrusted the responsibilities of discharging the
functions of the Governor's office or under Proviso to article 153, the Governor of a neighbouring State is
asked to temporarily hold additional charge of the State till a new Governor is appointed.

The office of Governor was borrowed in the Indian Constitution from the Government of India Act 1935.
Other features that are borrowed from the Federal Scheme the GoI Act 1935 are:
 Federal Scheme,
 Judiciary,
 Public Service Commissions,
 Public Service Commissions,
 Emergency provisions,
 Administrative details.

Union Education Minister launched the National Initiative for Proficiency in Reading with Understanding and
Numeracy (NIPUN Bharat) for ensuring that every child in the country necessarily attains foundational literacy and
numeracy by the end of grade 3, by 2026-27.
The mission planned as per the new National Education Policy (NEP) has been launched under the aegis of the
centrally sponsored scheme of Samagra Shiksha. It will focus on providing access and retaining children in
foundational years of schooling, teacher capacity building; development of high quality and diversified student and
teacher resources and tracking the progress of each child in achieving learning outcomes. NIPUN Bharat aims to
cover the learning needs of children in the age group of 3 to 9 years.

Test 4-Answer Key

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Description:

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Test 4-Answer Key

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

PoP 2022 || TEST -4 Explanation|| IAS HUB MGOCSM

2. Option a is the correct.

3. Option a is the correct.

4. Option a is the correct.

POLITY mail@mgocsmcsa.com|www.iashubcivilserviceacademy.com | 956 7744544

7. Option a is the correct.

8. Option c is the correct.

9. Option b is the correct.

POLITY mail@mgocsmcsa.com|www.iashubcivilserviceacademy.com | 956 7744544

11. Option a is correct.

12. Option d is the correct.

13. Option c is the correct.

14. Option b is the correct.

15. Option b is the correct.

16. Option b is the correct.

POLITY mail@mgocsmcsa.com|www.iashubcivilserviceacademy.com | 956 7744544

17. Option b is correct.

18. Option c is correct.

19. Option d is correct.

20. Option b is correct.

21. Option a is correct.

22. Option a is correct.

23. Option b is correct.

24. Option a is correct.

25. Option b is correct.

26. Option a is correct.

27. Option c is correct.

28. Option d is correct.

29. Option c is correct

POLITY mail@mgocsmcsa.com|www.iashubcivilserviceacademy.com | 956 7744544

30. Option c is correct.

31. Option a is correct.

32. Option a is correct.

33. Option d is correct.

34. Option c is correct.

35. Option b is correct.

36. Option c is correct.

37. Option d is correct.

38. Option c is correct.

39. Option c is correct.

POLITY mail@mgocsmcsa.com|www.iashubcivilserviceacademy.com | 956 7744544

40. Option c is correct.

41. Option b is correct.

42. Option b is correct.

POLITY mail@mgocsmcsa.com|www.iashubcivilserviceacademy.com | 956 7744544

44. Option d is correct.

45. Option a is correct.

46. Option b is correct.

47. Option c is correct.

48. Option c is correct.

POLITY mail@mgocsmcsa.com|www.iashubcivilserviceacademy.com | 956 7744544

49. Option d is correct.

50. Option c is correct.

POLITY mail@mgocsmcsa.com|www.iashubcivilserviceacademy.com | 956 7744544

You might also like