18 Tầng Địa Ngục

CHAPTER 13—ENERGY
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The U.S. Department of Energy estimates that wind farms at favorable sites in North Dakota, South
Dakota, Kansas and Texas
a. could meet the electricity needs of the western half of the United States, minus Alaska and Hawaii
b. could meet the electricity needs of these four states, thereby reducing draw of electrical power
from hydroelectric dams
c. could meet the electrical needs of the northern plains states during the summers, but not the
winters
d. could more than meet the electricity needs of the lower 48 states
e. could meet the electricity needs of the 48 states during the summers if air conditioning use in
private homes was reduced
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate TOP: CORE CASE STUDY
BLOOM’S TAXONOMY: KNOWLEDGE
2. Which of the following statements best describes a projected side benefit to human health from
increased use of wind power?
a. Predatory birds usually leave an area where wind farms are established
b. The reduction in use of coal to generate electricity will lower the amount of air pollutants from
coal that kill up to 24,000 Americans per year and add climate-changing chemicals to the air
c. Building of the turbine systems will help put Americans back to work.
d. Less use of hydroelectric dams will allow us to consider more dam removals.
e. More than one of the above answers is correct.
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate TOP: CORE CASE STUDY

BLOOM’S TAXONOMY: COMPREHENSION
3. Which of the following methods of producing electricity have the lowest net energy ratios?
a. nuclear power and photovoltaics
b nuclear and wind power
.
c. wind power and coal
d coal and hydroelectric
.
e. nuclear and coal
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate

TOP: 13-1 WHAT IS NET ENERGY AND WHY IS IT IMPORTANT?
4. The statement that it takes high quality energy to get high quality energy refers to
a. energy resources with low or negative net energy
b hydroelectric power
.
c. the economic side of energy production
d the processes and fuel required to extract and refine some energy sources
.
e. coal and hydroelectric power
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult
5. Which of the following statements about net energy is false?
a. Some forms of energy have a higher net energy ratio than others.
b. The useable amount of high-quality, useful energy available from a given quantity of energy
resource is called its net energy yield.
c. All forms of energy supply the same amount of net energy yield.
d. Both the first and second laws of thermodynamics govern the use of fossil fuels and other energy
resources.
e. Only the first law of thermodynamics governs the use of fossil fuels and other energy resources.
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult

6. The energy source with the highest net energy ratio for space heating is
a. Oil
b active solar
.
c. passive solar
d electric resistance heating
.
e. Wind
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate

7. Net energy is
a. the usable amount of low-quality energy from a given quantity of energy resource
b. the total useful energy available from an energy resource
c. analogous to total income
d. the total useful energy from an energy resource minus the amount of energy used and wasted in
producing it
e. the amount of energy used and wasted to produce useful energy
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate

8. The energy source with the highest net energy ratio for transportation is
a. gasoline
b. coal liquefaction
c. natural gas
d. oil shale
e. ethanol from sugar cane residue

9. World oil supplies and prices are expected to be controlled long-term by

a. OPEC
b the United States
.
c. Mexico
d Russia
.
e. Saudi Arabia
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Easy
TOP: 13-2 WHAT ARE THE ADVANTAGES AND DISADVANTAGES OF USING FOSSIL
FUELS?
10. At present consumption rates, projected world crude oil reserves will be 80% depleted
a. some time between 2011 and 2061
b. at the beginning of the next millennium
c. between 2050 and 2100
d. by 2050, unless the Arctic National Wildlife Refuge is opened to oil
drilling
e. by 2025, unless the Arctic National Wildlife Refuge is opened to oil
drilling

FUELS?
11. Tar sands

a. are principal sources of conventional crude oil
b. contain large supplies of heavy oils
c. constitute a small but cheap supply of crude
oil
d. are usable only for aviation fuel
e. are predominantly located in Canada
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate

FUELS?
12. Tar sand processing requires large amounts of ________and also requires preliminary forest
_______________.
a. water, thinning
b electricity, clear cutting
.
c. fossil fuels, thinning
d fossil fuels, controlled burning
.
e. water, clear cutting
ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate
FUELS?
13. Bitumen is
a. a type of coal
b. a deep shale-oil deposit
c. high-sulfur heavy oil
d. an octane-raising gasoline
additive
e. a type of natural gas
FUELS?
14. Which of the following countries has the greatest tar sand deposits?
a. Saudi Arabia
b Canada
.
c. Venezuela
d Kuwait
.
e. United States
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Easy
FUELS?
15. Liquefied petroleum gas consists of

a. Methane
b butane and propane
.
c. Ammonia
d nitrogen oxides
.
e. Ethanol

FUELS?
16. A process for extracting natural gas that is causing a growing environmental problem involves
hydraulic fracturing of rocks and is called
a. deep well mining
b. strip mining
c. offshore drilling
d. deep water drilling
e. fracking
ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

FUELS?
17. The main problem with use of conventional natural gas as a transportation fuel is
a. the expensive engine modifications required to convert an automobile for use of natural
gas
b the fact that it has higher CO emissions than gasoline produced from conventional oil
2
.
c. the very low reserves, which could supply U.S. needs for less than 25 years
d the fact that not many fueling stations exist at present
.
e. it can only be obtained by fracking

FUELS?
18. The countries with the largest reserves of natural gas are
a. Canada and the United States
b Russia, Iran, and Qatar
.
c. Nigeria and Algeria
d India, Venezuela, and the United States
.
e. Russia, Venezuela, and Canada

FUELS?
19. Coal supplies ____ of the electricity generated in the United States.
a. 54%
b. 34%
c. 44%
d. 24%
e. 84%

FUELS?
20. The world's most abundant conventional fossil fuel is
a. crude oil
b natural gas
.
c. biomass
d tar sand
.
e. coal

FUELS?
21. The world's identified and unidentified coal reserves should last at least ____ years at current usage
rates.
a. 10
b. 50
c. 100
d. 150
e. 200

FUELS?
22. Which form of producing electrical energy produces the highest amount of CO per unit of energy,
2
when expressed as a percentage of emissions released by burning coal directly?

a. natural gas
b. coal-fired electricity
c. Coal
d. oil sand
e. synthetic oil and gas produced from coal
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult

FUELS?
23. The majority of commercial energy comes from

a. Hydropower
b. wind
c. biomass
d. renewable energy resources from the earth’s crust
e. nonrenewable energy resources from the earth’s crust

FUELS?
24. In 2009, the President of the United States

a. requested that the Congress proceed with funding for the Yucca Mountain radioactive waste
storage facility
b. requested the Congress fund another radioactive waste storage facility in New Mexico
c. requested that the current nuclear waste sitting in dry casks around the country immediately be
moved to Yucca Mountain
d. requested that the Congress cut off funding for the Yucca Mountain radioactive waste storage
facility while other shorter-term alternative are evaluated
e. requested that Congress pass a bill enacting the storage of radioactive waste on the site where it
was produced

TOP: 13-3 WHAT ARE THE ADVANTAGES AND DISADVANTAGES OF NUCLEAR
ENERGY?
25. Light-water reactors generate about ____ of the world’s nuclear-generated electricity.
a. 95%
b. 85%
c. 75%
d. 65%
e. 55%

ENERGY?
26. The useful operating life of today's nuclear power plants is supposed to be ____ years.
a. 10–25
b. 20–50
c. 15–60
d. 35–80
e. 100–150
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

ENERGY?
27. The explosions at the Fukushima Nuclear Power Plant in northeast Japan following damage by an
offshore earthquake blew the roofs off of three of the reactor buildings. The explosions were caused
a. presumably by a meltdown of the reactor cores.
b. presumably by steam from the heat exchangers inside the reactor cores
c. presumably by a buildup of hydrogen gas when the backup generators were disabled
d. terrorists taking advantage of the chaos of the situation
e. spent fuel rods that were exposed when the storage water tanks cracked and stopped cooling the
rods

ENERGY?
28. The purpose of generating steam within a nuclear power plant reactor core is, like other energy
producing systems, to
a. generate heat to heat buildings
b turn a turbine which generates electricity
.
c. use the radioactivity to drive industrial processes
d create light that is transferred to factories and local
. industries
e. Turbines are not part of nuclear reactor cores

ENERGY?
29. All of the following statements accurately describe the office-home building of the
Rocky Mountain Institute except:
a. Solar energy provides 90% of the household electricity.

b. The Institute’s heating bill is just less than $50 per year.
c. A central greenhouse in the building humidifies the building and helps to heat it and purify the air.
d. Except for office equipment power, the building draws a little more electricity than a single 100-
watt light bulb would draw.
e. Solar energy provides about 99% of the hot water used in the building.

TOP: 3-4 WHY IS ENERGY EFFICIENCY AN IMPORTANT ENERGY RESOURCE?
30. The home of the Rocky Mountain Institute demonstrates that

a. homes in sun-intense areas can do without central heating systems
b. solar energy alone can heat a home
c. little natural gas is needed to heat a home compared to coal burning furnaces
d. energy efficient design and renewable energy alternatives can work in cold
climates
e. using energy efficient design is very expensive

TOP: 13-4 WHY IS ENERGY EFFICIENCY AN IMPORTANT ENERGY RESOURCES?
31. Below are listed some widely-used devices and the amount of energy they waste. Which pair of
choices is not correct?
a. incandescent light bulb — up to 95%
b. internal combustion engine — 80%
c. nuclear power plant — 50%
d. coal-fired power plant — 65%
e. combined heat and power system (CHP) 10-
15%
32. What percentage of the commercial energy used in the United States is wasted?
a. 14%
b. 24%
c. 44%
d. 64%
e. 84%

33. What percentage of the commercial energy used in the United States is wasted unnecessarily?
a. 13%
b. 23%
c. 33%
d. 43%
e. 53%
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Easy
34. If the hidden health and environmental costs of using gasoline were included in the price of gas as a
tax, the actual cost in the United States would be
a. $4.00 per gallon
b. $4.00 per liter
c. $12.00 per liter
d. $12.00 per gallon
e. less than a liter of
water
35. Current models of the gasoline-electric car

a. may get up to 30 miles per gallon on the freeway
b get up to 51 miles per gallon
.
c. cannot be used in wet weather
d do not have the ability to climb steep hills
.
e. get up to 35 miles per gallon

36. Superefficient and ultralight cars

a. may eventually get up to 300 mpg
b. are not yet close to reality
c. have been developed in Europe, but not the United States
d. could get up to 50 miles per gallon in the future
e. are fuel efficient, but not safe for human transport

TOP: 13-4 WHY IS ENERGY EFFICIENCY AN IMPORTANT RESOURCE?
37. Widespread replacement of the U.S. vehicle fleet with highly efficient plug-in hybrids over a couple
of decades would
a. cut U.S. oil consumption by 70% to 90%
b. eliminate the need for oil imports
c. reduce carbon dioxide emissions by 27%
d. reduce carbon dioxide emissions by 27% and eliminate the need for oil imports
e. cut U.S. oil consumption by up to 90%, eliminate the need for oil imports and reduce carbon
dioxide emissions by 27%

TOP: 13-4 WHY IS ENERGY EFFICIENCY AN IMPORTANT RESOURCE?
38. The National Building Competition which started in 2010 is an opportunity for
a. students to design energy efficient buildings
b. architects to compete in designing the most energy efficient buildings
c. power companies to come up with better systems to heat homes
d. solar energy companies to demonstrate their newest technologies
e. commercial buildings, including those of major corporations, to compete in cutting energy use
over a 12 month period
39. The energy efficiency of buildings can be improved by all of the following strategies except
a. building big windows into the northern side of new housing
b. replacing standard windows with energy efficient windows
c. plugging leaks
d. using energy-efficient lighting
e. using energy-efficient appliances
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult
40. We continue to waste energy rather than convert to more energy efficient behaviors because:
a. There is a lack of substantial tax breaks for doing so.
b. There is a glut of artificially low-cost fossil fuels.
c. There is no clear and substantial benefit to the environment from avoiding waste.
d. Most people do not care about the adverse environmental effects of wasting energy.
e. There is a lack of substantial tax breaks for doing so and there is a glut of artificially low costing
fossil fuels are correct.

41. The energy in the sunlight striking the earth for just 1 hour is enough to run the world’s economy for
a. one hour
b one day
.
c. one week
d one month
.
e. one year

TOP: 13-5 WHAT ARE THE ADVANTAGES AND DISADVANTAGES OF USING
RENEWABLE ENERGY RESOURCES?
42. It is risky for companies to invest in renewable energy because:

a. Pricing for renewable energy resources are artificially low.
b. None of the known renewable energy resources are reliable.
c. It is expected that renewable energy will fall out of favor with the American public in the next
decade.
d. Subsidies and tax breaks have to be renewed by the government every few years.
e. More than one of these choices is correct.
43. Advantages of solar heating include all of the following except:

a. Cost is moderate
b. Access to the sun can be blocked by other
structures.
c. Disturbance to land is very minimal or low
d. Carbon dioxide emissions are very low
e. Net energy is moderate to high
44. All of the following can be used for cooling a house in warm weather except
a. foil sheets under the floor
b. breezes from open windows
c. window overhangs or awnings
d. superinsulation and high-efficiency windows
e. a light colored reflective roof

45. Which of the following is not an advantage of solar cells?

a. durable for 20 to 25 years
b. moderate net energy yield
c. easy expansion as needed
d. little or no carbon dioxide emissions
e. works the same in all areas of the
planet

46. Cells that convert solar energy directly into electricity are called
a. electrosolar chips
b. photovoltaic cells
c. helioelectric units
d. photoelectric cells
e. solarelectric cells

47. Which of the following statements about PV cells is false?

a. Not only Google, but more than 75 schools and colleges in California have parking lots covered
with canopies of PV cells
b. Solar cells have no moving parts and are safe and quiet
c. The U.S. government is the current global leader in photovoltaic production.
d. Generating electricity with such solar cells could be nearly as efficient as using coal-burning
power plants
e. Over the next one to two decades production of such cells is expected to increase sharply

48. The leading renewable energy source that is used to produce electricity today is
a. solar energy
b Hydropower
.
c. wind power
d Biomass
.
e. Geothermal

49. Which of the following is a disadvantage of hydropower?

a. It creates high levels of carbon dioxide emissions.
b. There is a high environmental impact from flooding land to form a reservoir.
c. The cost of electricity produced from hydropower is lower than electricity produced from other
sources.
d. It has a moderate to high net energy.
e. It is largely unavailable in the United States

50. In order, the largest wind power producers are:

a. China, India, Spain, United States, Germany
b. Germany, China, United States, Spain, India
c. United States, India, Spain, Germany, China
d. China, United States, Spain, Germany, India
e. Denmark, United States, China, Germany,
India

51. Which number and cause of bird death are incorrectly matched (for the U.S.)?
a. cars/trucks — 80 million
b pesticide poisoning - 500,000
.
c. wind turbines — 7,000 up to 440,000
d domestic and feral cats — 250 million
.
e. glass windows, buildings, and electrical transmission towers — 10 million
52. Which three states in the USA have the potential to provide enough usable wind power to supply the
entire country’s electricity needs?
a. Maine, Washington State and California
b North Dakota, Kansas, and Texas
.
c. Maine, Washington State Nevada
d Coastal Florida, Mississippi and Louisiana
.
e. North Carolina, Texas and Oregon

53. All of the following statements about solid biomass are correct except
a. plantations can help restore degraded areas
b. costs are moderate
c. they are widely available in some areas
d. they are possible to produce with no net carbon dioxide
increase
e. it can lead to deforestation

54. Which of the following statements about geothermal power is false?

a. It provides a moderate net energy gain.
b It can be highly efficient at accessible sites.
.
c. It releases more carbon dioxide than fossil fuels.
d It has a low cost at accessible sites.
.
e. There is a scarcity of suitable sites.

55. The use of hydrogen gas would eliminate most of the air pollution problems we have today because:
a. When it burns it combines with carbon dioxide and removes it from the air.
b. When it burns it combines with water to produce heavy rainwater.
c. When it burns it combines with oxygen gas in the air to produce water
vapor.
d. When it burns it combines with carbon to produce methane gas.
e. More than one of the answers is correct.

56. The lesson we can learn from disasters such as the disruption of oil production by Hurricane Katrina
and loss of nuclear power from the tsunamis in Japan is that
a. we need to build better structures to protect ourselves against terrorists
b. we need to have more than one type of energy producing plants available in case natural disasters
affect the main plant
c. each household has to have its own generator for emergency situations
d. a shift to a more decentralized energy system would improve national and economic security
e. we cannot protect ourselves from power outages and must accept this reality

TOP: 13-6 HOW CAN WE MAKE A TRANSITION TO A MORE SUSTAINABLE ENERGY
FUTURE?
57. A soft energy path is one that

a. relies on improving energy efficiency and increasing the use of a variety of renewable energy
resources
b. relies completely on the use of biofuels
c. relies on the use of liquid fossil fuels
d. relies on the use of soft money for research and development
e. relies on soft coal

TOP: 13-6 HOW CAN WE MAKE A TRANSITION TO A MORE SUSTAINABLE ENERGY
FUTURE?
TRUE/FALSE
1. There are three major forms of fossil fuels: coal, oil, and natural gas.
ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

2. The estimated oil reserves in the Arctic National Wildlife Refuge would meet current world oil
demand for at least another 50 years.
ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate

3. The world's dependence on fossil fuels has been increased through subsidies and tax breaks that
support fossil fuel processors (oil companies).
ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate
4. It has been estimated that using nuclear power will require more energy than it will ever produce.

5. Nuclear power is now the world's fastest-growing energy source.
ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

6. The United States wastes almost none of its energy.

7. Photovoltaic cells do not produce any of the greenhouse or acid gas emissions associated with
electricity generated by the combustion of fossil fuels.

8. A spent fuel rod that has been removed from a nuclear power plant reactor core is essentially safe
from radioactivity after a period of about 10 years.

9. None of the three worst nuclear power plant accidents occurred in the United States.

10. The most efficient and long-lasting light bulb available today is the LED (light-emitting diode).

11. Microwave ovens use about the same amount of energy as conventional ovens.

12. China plans to lead the world in relying on renewable energy resources.

13. Reducing energy waste is a commendable activity, but would not impact our energy supplies in any
meaningful way.
14. Sunlight reflected onto a “power tower” is a great idea for collecting solar energy, but there is no way
to store the collected energy.

15. It has been estimated that capturing the wind’s energy at the world’s best sites would only produce
about 50% of the electricity currently being used worldwide.

16. One of the disadvantages of liquid biofuels is that the area where the crops are grown has to compete
with areas where food crops can be grown.

17. Brazil, the second largest ethanol producer, makes its ethanol from the residue of sugar cane.

18. Geothermal fuels have lower carbon dioxide emissions than fossil fuels.

COMPLETION
1. The quickest, cleanest, and cheapest way to provide more energy is to ____________________.
ANS: reduce energy waste
PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate

2. ____________________ produces fewer pollutants than burning coal, but is significantly more
expensive and produces radioactive wastes.
ANS: Nuclear power

3. Large reserves of ____________________ are located in Canada and are now considered to be
conventional oil reserves, second only in size to those in Saudi Arabia.
ANS: oil sands

4. _______________energy is the only energy that really counts.
ANS: net

5. Although coal is a very plentiful fuel, when burned it produces very high ____________________
emissions.
ANS: carbon dioxide

6. Wind is actually an indirect form of ____________________ energy.
ANS: solar

7. Producing steel from recycled scrap iron uses _______________% less energy than producing steel
from virgin iron ore.
ANS: 75

8. Using wind to produce electricity is an important step toward ____________________.
ANS: sustainability

9. The estimated proven reserves under Alaska’s North slope would meet current world demand for oil
for about ____________months or U.S. demand for less than ____________years.
ANS: 6, 3
PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult

10. ____________________ is the point in time when we reach the maximum overall rate of crude oil
production for the whole world.
ANS: Global peak production

11. About ____________________% of the world’s proven crude oil reserves are in the hands of
government-owned companies.
ANS: 85

12. About ____________________ % of the electricity used in the United States is produced by burning
coal.
ANS: 44

13. The cleanest burning alternative among the fossil fuels is ______________ __________.
ANS: natural gas

14. The element _______________is said to be a safer radioactive element that could be used in newer
nuclear power plant reactors.
ANS: thorium

15. Ultra-high voltage, digitally controlled _________ ___________ would be more responsive to local
and regional changes in supply and demand of energy.
ANS: smart grids

16. An example of an energy efficient window is a ______________ ______________ window.
ANS: triple paned

17. A proposed program whereby owners of fuel-inefficient vehicles pay higher fees and the revenue
from those fees is given to owners of fuel-efficient vehicles is called the ____________________ program.
ANS: fee-bate

18. ____________________ loading washers are more efficient than ____________________ loading
washers.
ANS: Front, top

19. Food riots in Mexico were caused by the decrease in corn production in the United States when food
crop land was converted to producing corn for ______________.
ANS: ethanol, biofuels

MATCHING
Match the items listed below with the appropriate choice
1. Steam is generated to produce electricity in which compartment?
2. Water from the external cooling area penetrates inside the plant to which compartment?
3. Which area of the plant is susceptible to a meltdown?
4. Electricity is generated in which area of the plant?
1. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: Labeling
2. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: Labeling
3. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Easy OBJ: Labeling
4. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate OBJ: Labeling

Match the appropriate energy source with the advantage or disadvantage in the list below.
a. wind power
b. nuclear power
c. natural gas
d. hydro-electric
e. passive solar
5. radioactive wastes are an ongoing problem
6. requires access to sunlight for 60% of daylight hours
7. disrupts aquatic ecosystems
8. difficult and costly to transport between countries
9. easy to build and expand
10. low level noise pollution
11. emits less carbon dioxide than other fossil fuels when burned
12. needs a back-up system for cloudy days
13. displacement of people
14. low risk of incidents in newer, modern plants
5. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Easy
6. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Easy
7. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Easy
8. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Easy
9. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

12. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Easy
13. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

SHORT ANSWER
1. Explain this statement: The highest priority in fighting the war on terror must be to reduce America's
dependence on foreign oil.
ANS:
This is because the majority of oil reserves are in Middle Eastern countries that support or condone
terrorism. In purchasing oil from these countries, we provide them with income. Additionally, in order
to protect our status with these countries, we maintain a military presence in the Middle East that
costs billions of dollars, as well as loss of American lives.
PTS: 2 DIF: Easy OBJ: Critical Thinking

BLOOM’S TAXONOMY: ANALYSIS
2. Using information from this chapter about consumption of products of crude oil, and combining it
with information from chapter 10 on food production, explain something you can do in your day-to-day life
that can significantly help reduce energy consumption.
ANS:
Currently, burning oil, mostly as gasoline and diesel fuel for transportation, accounts for 43% of
global CO emissions. Putting food on the table consumes about 19% of the fossil fuel energy used in
2
the United States each year—more than any other sector of the economy except cars. Fossil fuels are
used to transport the food long distances within and between countries.
By purchasing locally grown food, or even growing some of your own food, this will reduce the fossil
fuel use for food transport.
PTS: 4 DIF: Difficult OBJ: Critical Thinking

BLOOM’S TAXONOMY: EVALUATION
3. This chapter presents a list of a dozen actions that individuals can take to make the shift to more
sustainable energy use. Using this list as a source or reference, name four actions you are willing to take and
four actions you are unwilling to take. For each action you are willing to take, state why. For each action you
are not willing to take, state why you are not. Also state what would have to change in order for you to take
the steps you are now unwilling to take?
ANS:
Answers will vary. Refer to the list in Figure 13-42 for answers to this question.
PTS: 3 DIF: Moderate OBJ: Critical Thinking

4. A survey in August 2011 on the world wide web was conducted by the news agency CNN, and asked
participants to rate the more serious problem with the United States economy, given the choices 1) the debt
crisis or 2) unemployment.
The majority of respondents voted unemployment as the more serious problem. Give at least one
example from this chapter of how using renewable energy can help solve this problem in the United
States.
ANS:
During the six-year period from 2004 to 2010, the number of jobs in the U.S. wind industry increased
from almost none to 85,000. Putting Americans back to work at this rate, over time, can both
alleviate some of the unemployment problems but also put us on a path to healthier lives because of
the few downsides to wind energy.
(Answers can vary. Many students may have examples of their own which, if expressed with correct
college-level writing, should be graded positively.)

BLOOM’S TAXONOMY: APPLICATION
ESSAY
1. Briefly explain why it is so expensive to close down a nuclear power plant.
ANS:
The materials in a nuclear power plant absorb radiation from the fuel, and when a plant is closed
down it cannot simply be abandoned, but must go through a process called decommissioning. The old
building parts and equipment are actually a form of radioactive waste and have to be treated as such.
The plant can either be entombed or surrounded by a physical barrier. These options require security
around the old plant for 30 to 100 years.
Another approach is to dismantle the plant and send all of the materials to a permanent nuclear waste
storage facility (which to date has not been built in any country).

2. List and briefly describe four widely used forms of technology in our society that waste large amounts
of energy.
ANS:
1 Incandescent light bulbs use only 5% of the electricity they draw to produce light. The other 95% is
. lost as heat.
2 Motor vehicles with internal combustion engines waste 94% of the energy in the fuel they
. consume.
3 Nuclear power plants producing electricity for space heating or water heating waste about 86% of
. the energy in their nuclear fuel.
4 A coal-burning power plant wastes two-thirds of the energy contained in the coal.
.

3. Scientists and energy experts who have evaluated energy alternatives have come to three general
conclusions. What are these conclusions? State each one and provide a single sentence as explanation for
each.
ANS:
1 There will be a gradual shift from large, centralized macropower systems to smaller, decentralized
. micropower systems. The acquisition of energy for each consumer will gradually switch to
individuals in the same way computer use has switched from central mainframes to personal
computers.
2 The best alternatives combine improved energy efficiency and the use of a mixture of sustainably
. produced biofuels to make the transition to a diverse mix of locally available renewable energy
resources over the next several decades. Instead of depending on non-renewable energy sources
produced elsewhere, people will make use of locally available energy resources.
3 Fossil fuels will continue to be used in large quantities because of their extensive supply and
. artificially low prices. The low cost and wide availability make fossil fuels attractive, but our
challenge is to figure out ways to use them with fewer harmful environmental impacts.

4. What five criteria must be met by new generation nuclear reactors in order to be considered
acceptable by the experts?
ANS:
1. It must be built so that a runaway chain reaction is impossible.
2. Its fuel must be of the sort that cannot be used to make nuclear weapons.
3. Its spent fuel must be easy to dispose of without burdening future generations with radioactive
waste.
4. Taking its entire fuel cycle into account, it must generate a higher net energy yield than other
energy alternatives do, and compete in the open marketplace without government subsidies, tax
breaks, and loan guarantees.
5. Its entire fuel cycle must generate fewer greenhouse gas emissions than other energy alternatives.

5. Briefly describe how a cogeneration or combined heat and power (CHP) functions.
ANS:
In such a system, two useful forms of energy are produced from the same fuel source. For example,
the steam produced in generating electricity in a CHP system can also be used to heat the plant or
other nearby buildings, rather than being released into the environment and wasted. The energy
efficiency of these systems is 75-90% compared to 30-40% for coal-fired boilers and nuclear power
plants.

CHAPTER 15—AIR POLLUTION, CLIMATE CHANGE, AND OZONE
DEPLETION
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which of the following statements is true about the ice that covers much of Greenland?
a. The glaciers are as much as two miles deep.
b. The ice contains roughly 10% of the world’s water.
c. Despite the massive amount of ice, if it all melted, it would only raise sea levels globally by 2-3
feet.
d. Two of the above are correct.
e. None of these answers is correct.
ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult TOP: CORE CASE STUDY

2. The correct sequence of layers of the atmosphere from innermost to outermost is

a. mesosphere—stratosphere—thermosphere—troposphere
b troposphere—stratosphere—mesosphere—thermosphere
.
c. stratosphere—thermosphere—troposphere—mesosphere
d thermosphere—stratosphere—mesosphere—troposphere
.
e. thermosphere—mesosphere—stratosphere—troposphere

TOP: 15-1 WHAT IS THE NATURE OF THE ATMOSPHERE?
3. If the Earth were an apple, the lower layer of the atmosphere would be the thickness of
a. the core
b. the part of the apple we eat
c. the skin
d. the whole apple
e. a seed

4. Most of Earth's weather occurs in the

a. Troposphere
b. Thermosphere
c. Mesosphere
d. Stratosphere
e. all of these
answers

5. In which of the following is the ozone layer found?
a. the troposphere
b. the stratosphere
c. the minisphere
d. the mesosphere
e. the thermosphere

6. What is the most abundant gas in the atmosphere?

a. Oxygen
b Nitrogen
.
c. Methane
d carbon dioxide
.
e. water vapor

7. Which of the following is a natural source of air pollution?

a. dust blown by wind
b. Wildfires
c. Volcanoes
d. volatile organic chemicals released by some
plants
e. all of these answers

TOP: 15-2 WHAT ARE THE MAJOR AIR POLLUTION PROBLEMS?
8. Which of the following is categorized as a secondary pollutant?

a. carbon monoxide
b Ozone
.
c. carbon dioxide
d sulfur dioxide
.
e. Hydrocarbons
9. Which of the following is not true of carbon monoxide?

a. It is a colorless, odorless gas.
b. It is highly toxic.
c. It forms during the incomplete combustion of carbon-containing materials.
d. It reacts with hemoglobin in red blood cells and reduces the body's ability to transport
oxygen.
e. It readily bio-accumulates and builds up in the fatty tissues of many aquatic organisms.

10. The primary ways in which the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere can be increased are
a. Burning fossil fuels
b. Fertilizing croplands
c. Clearing forests and grasslands
d. Two of the above are correct
e. All of the above are correct

11. Which of the following are primary pollutants that eventually result in acid deposition?
a. nitrogen oxides
b Ozone
.
c. sulfur dioxide
d carbon monoxide
.
e. both nitrogen oxides and sulfur dioxide

12. Which of the following forms of air pollution is most directly linked to increased incidence of asthma
and bronchitis?
a. Ozone
b VOCs
.
c. Radon
d SPMs
.
e. sulfur dioxide
13. Which of the following are health problems that can be caused by ozone?
a. skin cancer
b. reduced resistance to colds and pneumonia
c. nervous system disorders
d. Mutations
e. stomach cancer

14. Ozone is beneficial in the stratosphere but harmful in the lower troposphere. Ironically, human
activities are causing ozone to
a. decrease in the stratosphere and increase in the lower troposphere
b increase in the stratosphere and decrease in the lower troposphere
.
c. level out to equilibrium in both areas so there is no substantive difference between
them
d Human activities are not causing any changes in ozone concentrations anywhere.
.
e. bond with nitrous oxides to form acid rain

15. Which of the following is true of methane?

a. It is a greenhouse gas.
b It is produced by rice paddies.
.
c. It is produced naturally by wetlands and termites.
d All of these answers are correct.
.
e. It is a greenhouse gas and it is produced by rice paddies only.

16. All of the following are volatile organic compounds (VOCs) except
a. Methane
b dry cleaning fluids
.
c. carbon monoxide
d Benzene
.
e. industrial solvents

17. Primary pollutants from burning coal include all of the following except
a. droplets of sulfuric acid
b. sulfur dioxide
c. suspended solid particles
d. Ozone
e. None of the above

18. Industrial smog used to be a serious problem in many urban areas but is now rarely a problem in most
developed countries. It is still a problem in industrialized areas of
a. China, India, and Brazil
b. India, China, and the Ukraine
c. Ukraine, Spain, and Portugal
d. Southeast Asia, China, and
India
e. Brazil, China, and Russia

19. Photochemical smog generally requires the presence of

a. nitrogen oxides
b Sunlight
.
c. volatile organic compounds
d Heat
.

20. Photochemical smog is formed when primary pollutants interact with

a. Sunlight
b water vapor
.
c. sulfur dioxide
d Oxygen
.
e. Carbon

21. Photochemical smog is characteristic of urban areas with many vehicles and a climate that is
a. cool, wet, and cloudy
b. cool, dry, and sunny
c. warm, dry, and sunny
d. warm, wet, and
cloudy
e. warm, wet, and sunny

22. Which of the following statements is true?

a. Temperature inversions occur when a layer of cold air prevents warm air from rising.
b. Temperature inversions exacerbate pollution problems.
c. Temperature inversions last only a few minutes to a few hours.
d. Normally, cool air near Earth's surface expands and rises, carrying pollutants higher into the
troposphere.
e. Temperature inversions help prevent air pollution.

23. Which of the following is not a natural factor that helps reduce air pollution?
a. Wind
b chemical reactions
.
c. salty spray from the oceans
d a sunny, warm, and dry climate
.
e. rain and snow

24. The movement of air pollutants via evaporation and winds from tropical and temperate areas to polar
regions is referred to as
a. temperature inversion
b. the grasshopper effect
c. acid deposition
d. the rainshadow effect
e. none of these answers

25. Which of the following can be placed into a broad category called acid rain?
a. acidic fog
b. acidic snow
c. wet deposition
d. dry deposition
e. all of these
answers

26. Acid deposition can affect forests by
a. Leaching out essential plant nutrients

b. Diminishing the supply of Oxygen available to the
tree
c. Releasing ions that are toxic to the trees
d. A and B are correct
e. A and C are correct

27. Acid deposition is best classified as a

a. local problem
b. state problem
c. regional problem
d. national problem
e. international
problem

28. Acid deposition has been linked to

a. contamination of fish with mercury
b leaching of calcium and magnesium from soils
.
c. releasing ions of cadmium and aluminum into the soils
d weakening trees, so they become more susceptible to other types of damage
.
ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult
29. Of the following strategies to reduce acid deposition, the most effective is probably
a. using low-sulfur coal
b adding phosphate fertilizer to acidified lakes
.
c. adding more topsoil to thin soil with little buffering capacity
d adding lime to neutralize the acids
.
e. implementing prevention approaches that reduce or eliminate emissions

30. According to WHO (World Health Organization) and World Bank experts, indoor air pollution is
a. the world’s most serious air pollution problem
b. the world’s least serious air pollution problem
c. a serious problem in poor countries, but no problem in affluent
countries
d. more than one of these

31. All of the following are on the EPA's "four most dangerous indoor air pollutants list" in developed
countries except
a. ultrafine particles from
emissions
b. radon-222
c. cigarette smoke
d. formaldehyde
e. cooking fuels

32. The people least vulnerable to air pollution are

a. infants
b. elderly people
c. adult males
d. people with heart and respiratory disease
e. pregnant women
33. Formaldehyde is used in

a. particle board
b. paneling
c. furniture stuffing
d. foam insulation
e. all of these
answers

34. Pipe insulation and vinyl ceiling and floor tiles may be sources of
a. chloroform
b formaldehyde
.
c. carbon monoxide
d asbestos
.
e. sulfur dioxide

35. Humans are protected from air pollution by

a. sneezing and coughing
b. mucus capturing small particles
c. nasal hairs filtering out large particles
d. tiny mucus-coated, hairlike structures called
cilia

36. Years of smoking and exposure to air pollutants can contribute to the incidence of
a. emphysema
b. chronic bronchitis
c. lung cancer
d. asthma
e. all of these
answers
37. Which of the following can be said about the indoor pollutant styrene?
a. It is found in carpets.
b. It is found in plastic products.
c. It causes kidney damage.
d. It causes liver damage.
e. All of these answers

38. The effectiveness of the pollution prevention approach is best illustrated by the significant drop in
atmospheric
a. ozone
b sulfur dioxide
.
c. lead
d carbon monoxide
.
e. nitrogen oxide

TOP: 15-3 HOW SHOULD WE DEAL WITH AIR POLLUTION?
39. An emissions trading policy tried on ____ cut U.S. emissions by 53%.
a. carbon oxides
b sulfur dioxide
.
c. asbestos
d lead
.
e. carbon dioxide
40. The reduction of outdoor air pollution in the United States has been so successful because:
a. The U.S. Congress supported it and diligently crafted laws to ensure its success.
b. U.S. citizens insisted that the laws be passed.
c. The country is affluent enough to afford the controls and improvements it required.
d. All of these answers are correct.
e. Only U.S. citizens insisted that the laws be passed and the country is affluent enough to afford the
controls and improvements it required are correct.

41. All of the following are problems that remain to be solved in the United States with respect to air
pollution except
a. Dramatically reducing emissions from older power and industrial
plants
b The current laws do not deal seriously with indoor air pollution.
.
c. Enforcement of the Clean Air Act is too stringent.
d Airports are exempt from many air pollution regulations.
.
e. Two-cycle engines need to be regulated more effectively.

42. Which of the following would function as a pollution reduction method for motor vehicles?
a. Improve motor efficiency.
b. Rely on mass transit and bicycles.
c. Use emission-control devices.
d. Add a charge to new cars based on the amount of pollution they
produce.
e. All of these answers.

43. Methods to prevent pollution from motor vehicle emissions include all of the following except
a. improving fuel efficiency
b getting older, more polluting cars off the road
.
c. using pollution-control devices
d using mass transit
.
e. walking or biking

44. All of the following statements about emissions trading are correct except
a. The success of emissions trading programs depends on how low the initial cap is set.
b. Sulfur dioxide emissions were reduced by the emissions trading system in the United States.
c. Cheating is possible without strict government oversight
d. The success of emissions trading programs depends on how often the cap is lowered to promote
continuing innovation in air pollution prevention and control.
e. All of these answers are correct.
45. Which statement is the most accurate?

a. Climate is determined by average weather conditions.
b. Weather is determined by average climate conditions.
c. Climatologists examine data from one to a few years to estimate weather.
d. A general rise or fall in temperature or precipitation over 25 to 30 years is a standard time period
that climatologists will study.
e. None of these answers are accurate.

TOP: 15-4 HOW MIGHT THE EARTH'S CLIMATE CHANGE IN THE FUTURE?
46. Which of the following best describes the Earth's average surface temperature for the past 900,000
years?
a. a steady warming trend
b fairly steady temperatures until recently
.
c. many fluctuations of several degrees centigrade
d fairly steady with occasional cool spells
.
e. fairly steady with a recent cooling trend

47. Which of the following has provided information associated with past temperature changes?
a. tiny bubbles of ancient air found in ice cores
b tree rings
.
c. radioisotopes in rocks and fossils
d layers of soot trapped in ice cores
.

48. According to a 2007 IPCC report, with what amount of probability is it that human activities have
been the leading cause of the observed atmospheric warming?
a. at least 50%
b. at least 60%
c. at least 70%
d. at least 80%
e. at least 90%

49. Which of the following statements about the greenhouse effect is false?
a. The amount of heat trapped in the troposphere depends on concentrations of greenhouse gases.
b. The greenhouse effect is a new theory that explains the warming of the atmosphere.
c. Heat trapped by greenhouse gases keeps the planet warm enough for life.
d. The predominant greenhouse gases are water vapor, carbon dioxide, methane, and nitrous oxide.
e. It has been confirmed by numerous lab experiments and measurements of atmospheric
temperatures at different altitudes.

50. Which of the following statements correctly reflect the content of the 2007 IPCC report by climate
scientists on climate change?
a. 2000-2009 was the warmest decade since the 1880’s.
b Average levels of CO rose sharply between 1960 and 2010.
2
.
c. During the last century, the world’s average sea level rose 7 inches.
d Glaciers and floating sea ice are melting at increasing rates.
.
e. All of these answers are correct.

51. NASA scientist Jim Hansen has recommended that we bring our atmospheric carbon dioxide levels
down to _____ from the current level of _____ in order to maintain a planet with fairly constant atmospheric
temperatures.
a. 450 ppm, 500 ppm
b. 350 ppm, 390 ppm
c. 388 ppm, 450 ppm
d. 488 ppm, 550 ppm
e. 560 ppm, 660 ppm
52. As of 2009, per capita CO emissions in the United States were

2
a. Two times as high as China

b Five times as high as China
.
c. Two hundred times as high as some of the world’s poorest countries
d A and C are correct
.
e. B and C are correct
53. Of what value are the oceans in moderating climate change?
a. Oceans remove about 25% to 30% of the atmospheric carbon dioxide produced by humans.
b. Oceans reflect sunlight back into space before the ultraviolet wavelengths are converted into
infrared radiation.
c. Oceans absorb about 40% of the methane out of the atmosphere that has been produced by rice
paddies and livestock.
d. Oceans help to reduce the level of water vapor in the atmosphere through condensation and
transpiration.
e. All of these answers.

54. Increased levels of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere have been implicated in which of the following?
a. increased global warming
b increased seawater acidity
.
c. decreased seawater temperatures
d both increased global warming and increased seawater acidity
.
e. both increased global warming and decreased seawater temperatures

55. Which of the following would make a greater contribution to rising sea levels?
a. melting sea ice
b. melting land-based ice
c. increased levels of precipitation in some areas
d. increased levels of atmospheric water vapor
e. increased levels of global evaporation and
transpiration

56. A warmer world is least likely to result in

a. decreased food production
b. reductions in biodiversity
c. a rise in sea level
d. more moderate weather
e. spread of tropical diseases
TOP: 15-5 WHAT ARE SOME POSSIBLE EFFECTS OF PROJECTED CLIMATE CHANGE?
57. In a warmer world, we would expect more
a. droughts
b hurricanes
.
c. prolonged heat waves
d desert expansion
.

58. In the arctic

a. Temperatures have risen twice as fast as the rest of the world during the past 50
years
b. Soot is darkening the ice, causing it to reflect more radiation
c. Sea ice is increasing while land based ice is decreasing
d. A and B are correct
e. None of the above

TOP: 15-5 WHAT ARE SOME PROJECTED EFFECTS OF CLIMATE CHANGE?
59. Which statement most accurately reflects the projections on temperature-related deaths in humans if
our climate projections are accurate?
a. Cold-related deaths will decline, heat-related deaths will increase.
b Cold-related deaths will increase, heat-related deaths will decline.
.
c. Cold- and heat-related deaths will not change.
d Heat-related deaths will not change, but cold-related deaths will.
.
e. Cold-related deaths will not change, but heat-related deaths will.

60. A loss of 15% of _____ would cause a one meter rise in sea level that would threaten millions of
people and cause trillions of dollar of damage to coastal areas.
a. the Antarctic ice sheet
b. the Arctic ice sheet
c. inland glaciers in
Alaska
d. Greenland’s ice sheet
e. Iceland’s ice sheet

61. As oceans become more acidic, the shells of tiny sea snails tend to dissolve. This is a concern
because:
a. The snail shells provide material for jewelry making on south sea islands.
b. The shells are ground up and used for fertilizer for agricultural crops.
c. The snails are the base of a food web that supports entire polar
ecosystems.
d. More than one of these are correct.
e. None of these answers.

62. The threat of global warming can be addressed by

a. using energy more efficiently
b. reducing deforestation
c. slowing population growth
d. all of these answers
e. shifting to renewable
resources

TOP: 15-6 WHAT CAN WE DO TO SLOW PROJECTED CLIMATE CHANGE?
63. All of the following are prevention approaches to global warming except
a. limiting urban sprawl
b. shifting to renewable energy sources
c. improving energy efficiency and transferring energy-efficiency and pollution-prevention
technologies to developing countries
d. slowing population growth
e. dispersing methane from landfills to prevent explosions

64. The Kyoto treaty to reduce global warming

a. does not require developing countries to make any cuts in their greenhouse gas
emissions
b. requires participating countries to cut CO , CH , and N O emissions
2 4 2
c. went into effect in 2005

d. was not supported by the U.S. after 2001
65. President Barack Obama wants the United States to

a. continue to boycott the Kyoto Protocol
b. lead the way in creating a new international agreement on climate change
c. reduce our carbon emissions to 1990 levels by 2020
e. lead the way in creating a new international agreement on climate change and reduce our carbon
emissions to 1990 levels by 2020

66. Which of the following statements is false?
a. Ozone in the lower stratosphere shields the earth from about 95% of the sun’s harmful ultraviolet
rays.
b. CFCs are odorless and stable.
c. CFCs are nonflammable, nontoxic, and noncorrosive.
d. Fluorine atoms are most responsible for the breakdown of ozone to molecular oxygen.
e. CFCs are cheap to produce.

TOP: 15-7 HOW HAVE WE DEPLETED OZONE IN THE STRATOSPHERE AND WHAT CAN
WE DO ABOUT IT?
67. Chlorofluorocarbons are

a. nontoxic
b. corrosive
c. odorous
d. flammable
e. expensive

WE DO ABOUT IT?
68. Between the first warnings about CFCs from the scientific community and a response to reduce CFCs
from the political community there was a ____-year lag.
a. one
b. five
c. ten
d. fourteen
e. twenty-five
WE DO ABOUT IT?
69. CFCs take ____ years to reach the stratosphere.

a. 1-2
b. 5-10
c. 11-20
d. 21-30
e. 31-50

WE DO ABOUT IT?
70. We can slow the rate of ozone hole-creation by

a. stopping production of ozone-depleting chemicals
b. recovering and reusing ozone-depleting
chemicals
c. finding substitutes for CFCs

WE DO ABOUT IT?
71. In 1987, 36 nations meeting in Montreal, Canada, developed the Montreal Protocol to reduce
production of
a. carbon dioxide
b nitrous oxide
.
c. CFCs
d toxic wastes
.
e. halons

WE DO ABOUT IT?
72. Which of the following are effects of ozone depletion?

a. increased photochemical smog
b reduced crop yields
.
c. immune system suppression
d reduced phytoplankton populations
.

WE DO ABOUT IT?
73. With immediate and sustained action to stop production of all ozone-depleting chemicals:
a. The ozone-hole problem will be solved immediately.
b. It will take about 5 years for the earth’s ozone layer to recover to 1980 levels.
c. It will take about 30 years for the earth’s ozone layer to recover to pre-1950
levels.
d. It will take about 60 years for the earth’s ozone layer to recover to pre-1950
levels.
e. It will take about 60 years for the earth’s ozone layer to recover to 1980 levels.

WE DO ABOUT IT?
TRUE/FALSE
1. Chlorofluorocarbons are compounds that were not appreciably present in the atmosphere before 1950
and have a significant role in catalyzing decomposition of stratospheric ozone.

2. Most of the carbon dioxide in the atmosphere is the result of human activities.

3. Nitrogen oxides can combine with water in the atmosphere and form nitric acid, one of the
components of harmful acid deposition.

4. Ozone is only toxic in the form that it takes in the stratosphere.

5. The molecular structure of stratospheric ozone is identical to ozone that is toxic in the troposphere.

6. Today, the use of other fossil fuels, nuclear power, and hydroelectricity instead of coal has greatly
reduced the occurrence of industrial smog.

7. Cow belching results in the release of methane, a greenhouse gas.

8. Chinese automobile fuel efficiency standards are higher than those in the United States.

BLOOM’S TAXONOMY: KN OWLEDGE
9. Climate change affects the entire planet and will be long-term.

10. The world's economies are not affected by climate change.

11. It has been hypothesized that climate change helped to lead nomadic hunter-gatherers to settle down
and invent agriculture.

12. China's per capita carbon dioxide emissions rate will soon be greater than that of the U.S.

13. China has passed the U.S. in terms of becoming the largest carbon dioxide emitting country.

14. A warmer atmosphere is beneficial to wildlife habitats and plant species because of the increased
temperature and productivity.

15. The United States, China, and Russia—three of the world's major emitters—agreed in 2001 to
participate in a cap-and-trade program to slow global warming.

16. In 2007, the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change concluded that human activities are the
primary cause of recent global warming.

17. An increase in thick and continuous clouds at low altitudes could warm the lower atmosphere and
increase surface warming.
ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult

18. The Kyoto Protocol requires that developing nations reduce their greenhouse gas emissions to a level
below their 1990 levels.

19. President George W. Bush withdrew U.S. participation from the Kyoto Protocol, arguing that
participation would harm the U.S. economy.

20. Drier conditions have led to more frequent and intense forest fires in the western United States.

21. The Montreal Protocol addresses global CO emissions.

2

22. Soot generated in Europe is darkening arctic ice and lessening its ability to reflect sunlight, thereby
hastening the disappearance of ice in the Arctic.

23. Global warming will cause flooding and increased precipitation in some areas, and yet severe
droughts in other areas.

24. While climate change is a serious threat to natural ecosystems, it is not a threat to human health.

25. Carbon capture and storage (CCS) involves restoring degraded wetlands so that they will absorb
massive amounts of carbon from the atmosphere.

26. Actions you can take at home to help with the problem of climate change include insulating your hot
water heater and setting the temperature no higher than 49 C. These actions greatly reduce heat released into
o
the atmosphere, and thus help with global warming.

27. If participating nations continue to follow the Montreal Protocol recommendations, ozone levels
should return to 1980 levels by the year 2071.

COMPLETION
1. ____________________ are manmade compounds that have been widely used as refrigerants and in
spray propellants and foam blowing.
ANS: Chlorofluorocarbons
PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

2. The ____________________ is the layer of the atmosphere that contains the protective ozone layer.
ANS: stratosphere

3. ____________________ are harmful chemicals emitted directly into the air from natural processes
and human activities.
ANS: Primary pollutants
PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

4. ____________________ is a mixture of primary and secondary pollutants formed under the influence
of UV radiation from the sun.
ANS: Photochemical smog

5. The most dangerous type of skin cancer is ____________________.
ANS: malignant melanoma

6. ____________________ is a colorless gas used in foam insulation and can cause irritation of the eyes,
throat, skin, and lungs.
ANS: Formaldehyde

7. Life as we know it could not exist without ____________________ in the stratosphere.
ANS: ozone
PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

8. Air pollution comes from ____________________ and ____________________ sources.
ANS:
natural, human
human, natural
PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

9. The Environmental Protection Agency’s classification of fine and ultra-fine particles refers to
____________________.
ANS:
SPM
suspended particulate matter

10. The type of air pollution that is currently leading the list of 18 sources of cancer risk
is____________________.
ANS: indoor air pollution

11. Removing your shoes before entering your house can help to reduce indoor pollution because it can
help to reduce inputs of ____________________, ____________________, and ____________________.
ANS:
dust, lead, pesticides
lead, pesticides, dust
pesticides, dust, lead

12. The estimated tipping point of carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere is ____________________
ppm.
ANS: 450

13. The United States emits about five times more carbon dioxide ____________________ than China
emits.
ANS: per person

14. _____________________ has been referred to as a methane time bomb because it could release such
a high level of methane into the atmosphere.
ANS: Permafrost

15. ____________________ aims to be the first country to become carbon neutral.
ANS: Costa Rica
PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

MATCHING

1. On the atmospheric layers figure, choose the letter that represents the boundary in the atmosphere
between the troposphere and the stratosphere.
2. On the atmospheric layers figure, choose the letter that represents the area where air would be thin
and temperatures vary greatly with solar activity.
3. On the atmospheric layers figure, choose the layer that contains ozone, which keeps approximately
95% of the sun's ultraviolet radiation from reaching the Earth's surface.
4. On the atmospheric layers figure, choose the layer that represents the separation of the mesosphere
and stratosphere.
5. On the atmospheric layers figure, choose the layer that represents part of the middle atmosphere in
which temperatures vary greatly with altitude.
1. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate OBJ: Labeling
2. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate OBJ: Labeling
4. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate OBJ: Labeling
5. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate OBJ: Labeling


6. On the sources and types of air pollutants figure, choose the letter that represents CO, CO , SO , NO,
2 2
NO , most hydrocarbons, and most suspended particles.

2
7. On the sources and types of air pollutants figure, choose the letter that represents SO , HNO , H SO ,
3 3 3 4
H O , O , PANs, and most NO and SO salts.

2 2 3 3
-
4
2-

8. On the acid deposition figure, choose the letter that represents the wet acid deposition.
9. On the acid deposition figure, choose the letter that represents the transformation to sulfuric acid and
nitric acid.

SHORT ANSWER
1. Based on the image, which chemicals are primarily responsible for lowering the pH of rain?
ANS:
Sulfuric acid and nitric acid are primarily responsible for lowering the pH of rain.

2. Based on the figure, which lakes will be mostly affected by acid rain?
ANS:
Lakes in shallow soil in limestone will be mostly affected by acid rain.

3. Before 150,000 years ago, when did the Earth have high average surface temperature?
ANS:
between 350,000 and 330,000 years ago

4. In the last 10,000 years, when did the temperature reach a maximum?
ANS:
about 1,000 years ago

5. How much did the surface temperature of the Earth change from 1950 to 2004?
ANS:
The temperature increased by 0.5 degrees Celsius.

6. What change of the surface temperature of the Earth is projected for 2025?
ANS:
The temperature is expected to increase by 0.6 degrees Celsius.

7. Is the projected change of the surface temperature of the Earth worrisome? Why?
ANS:
Yes, because the increase is faster than ever before.

BLOOM’S TAXONOMY: SYNTHESIS
8. Consider the Individuals Matter essay for this chapter about the scientists Sherwood Rowland and
Mario Molina. These two scientists brought the problem with CFCs to the attention of the entire world, and
in doing so shocked not only the scientific community, but the $28 billion per-year CFC industry by calling
for an immediate ban of CFCs in spray cans.
Comment on what this experience must have been like for Rowland and Molina, what has happened
because of their work and decisive mandate for action, and what might have occurred if they had
chosen not to take such decisive action.
Do all scientists have the integrity of these two? Why or why not?
ANS:
Answers will be variable on this question. Students should be graded more on content than opinion.
The question should generate some thoughts on social responsibility in students.

ESSAY
1. Clearly describe the major mechanisms by which "acid rain" is produced.
ANS:
Various human activities result in air pollution. Among those, two widespread examples are
emissions associated with transportation and the burning of coal in the generation of electricity. Auto
emissions contain high quantities of nitrogen oxides. Coal emissions contain high quantities of sulfur
oxides. These are both examples of primary pollutants. In the atmosphere, these primary pollutants
can mix with water and convert into secondary pollutants, nitric and sulfuric acid respectively. These
secondary pollutants then fall from the atmosphere as acid deposition.
2. Clearly describe a positive feedback loop associated with global warming.
ANS:
Many answers are possible. Below are a couple outlined in the text.
1 The oceans absorb large quantities of carbon dioxide out of the atmosphere. However as
. temperatures increase, temperatures of the oceans increase and the solubility of carbon dioxide in
the oceans will decrease. Thus if the oceans heat up, some of their dissolved carbon dioxide could
be released into the lower atmosphere. This could amplify global warming.
2 Increased seawater acidity threatens certain photosynthetic plankton. If these plankton were
. reduced, this would decrease the ability of such plankton to slow global warming by removing
carbon dioxide from the atmosphere. Thus the oceans would become increasingly acidic.
3 As global temperatures rise, increasing quantities of mountain glaciers and polar ice caps are
. melting. The melting of such reflective ice and snow exposes much darker land and water, which
absorb more solar energy and accelerates global warming.
4 As global temperatures increase, permafrost melts. The amount of carbon locked up as methane in
. permafrost soils is 50–60 times the amount emitted as carbon dioxide from burning of fossil fuels
each year. A significant release of methane from melting permafrost would greatly exacerbate
global warming. This would then lead to increased melting of permafrost.
PTS: 2 DIF: Easy

3. Explain why indoor air pollution is considered the most serious air pollution problem by some
experts. In your answer, utilize recent facts about indoor air pollution that stem from EPA studies.
ANS:
1. Levels of 11 common pollutants are generally two to five times higher inside U.S. homes and
commercial buildings than they are outdoors, and in some cases they are up to 100 times higher.
2. Pollution levels inside cars that are stalled in traffic are up to 18 times higher than levels outside.
3. The health risks from exposure to such chemicals are magnified because most people in developed
urban areas spend 70–98% of their time indoors or inside vehicles.

4. Explain what our options are for dealing with the projected harmful effects of global warming.
ANS:
1. One is to drastically slow greenhouse gas emissions to slow down the rate of global temperature
increase and to shift to a mix of noncarbon-based energy options in time to prevent major climate
changes.
2. The other option is to recognize that some climate change is unavoidable and to devise strategies to
reduce its harmful effects.
Most analysts believe we need to employ a mix of both of these options.

5. This chapter refers to actions taken by Oberlin College students to help address the global warming
issue. Many colleges today are involved in similar projects and activities. What, if any, actions has your
college taken to participate in this student movement? If your college does not have a program that you are
aware of, what could it do (in your opinion) to start the process of becoming a “carbon neutral” campus.
ANS:
Answers will be variable.

CHAPTER 10—FOOD, SOIL, AND PEST MANAGEMENT
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which of the following is a likely scenario for an organic farm?

a. use of synthetic pesticides
b. use of synthetic fertilizers
c. use of genetically engineered seeds
d. use feed additives
e. use of feed that contains no
antibiotics
ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Easy TOP: CORE CASE STUDY

2. Which of the following terms does not belong with the others?
a. organic food
b. sustainable agriculture
c. animals raised on 100% organic feed
d. natural food
e. label of 100% organic
ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Easy TOP: CORE CASE STUDY

3. Which of the following is the root cause of food insecurity?

a. insufficient food resources being produced globally
b rapid climate change
.
c. Poverty
d political disputes over natural resources
.
e. poor organization of government agencies

TOP: 10-1 WHAT IS FOOD SECURITY AND WHY IS IT DIFFICULT TO ATTAIN?
4. Which of the following is a micronutrient, which without sufficient quantities in a diet can result in
goiter?
a. Protein
b Carbohydrates
.
c. vitamin A
d vitamin C
.
e. Iodine

5. The term malnutrition refers to people who

a. eat less than the basic minimum number of daily
calories
b. eat balanced meals
c. eat too much
d. suffer from lack of protein and other key nutrients
e. eat too much protein

6. Which macronutrient in the human diet helps to build and repair body tissues?
a. Proteins
b Carbohydrates
.
c. Oils
d Fats
.
e. both oils and proteins

7. Which of the following problems with nutrition do you think is most prevalent in the United States?
a. Malnutrition
b under nutrition
.
c. Micronutrition
d chronic hunger
.
e. Overnutrition

8. Which of the following is the list of macronutrients needed to sustain good health?
a. vitamin A, C, and iodine
b. vitamin A, C, and E
c. iodine, protein, and carbohydrate
d. protein, carbohydrate, and fats
e. protein, carbohydrate, and nucleic acids
9. The following grains are among the world's major food crops except
a. Wheat
b. Soybean
c. Rice
d. Corn
e. wheat and corn are major food crops, but not soybeans or
rice

TOP: 10-2 HOW IS FOOD PRODUCED?
10. Which of the following types of agriculture is most characteristic of developing countries?
a. plantation agriculture
b traditional agriculture
.
c. industrialized agriculture
d minimum-tillage agriculture
.
e. high-input agriculture

11. Which of the following types of agriculture is most characteristic of developed countries?
a. plantation agriculture
b. traditional agriculture
c. industrialized agriculture
d. minimum-tillage agriculture
e. maximum-tillage agriculture

12. All of the following crops are commonly grown in plantation agriculture (nông nghiệp trồng trọt)
except
a. Corn
b. Bananas
c. palm oil
d. Coffee
e. Sugarcane
13. The majority of soil organic matter is concentrated in the

a. O horizon of leaf litter
b. A horizon of topsoil
c. O and A horizons
d. C horizon
e. B horizon

14. What proportion of food products sold on U.S. supermarket shelves contains some form of
genetically engineered crop?
a. 20%
b 30%
.
c. 50%
d 60%
.
e. 70%

15. Which of the following would not be used to describe poly-culture?

a. Plants mature at various times.
b The plot of land is left unmanaged for long periods of time.
.
c. Fertilizer use and water use are reduced.
d Pesticides are rarely needed.
.
e. It produces higher yields than high-input monocultures.

16. Which of the following associations is incorrect?

a. croplands and grains
b aquaculture and seafood
.
c. rangelands and meat
d feedlots and shellfish
.
e. fishery and commercial harvesting
17. Because root systems at different depths in a given area of soil capture nutrients and soil efficiently
we can say that
a. polyculture lessens the need for fertilizer
b polyculture lessens the need for fertilizer and water
.
c. polyculture increases the need for fertilizer but not
water
d polyculture increases the need for water but not
. fertilizer
e. polyculture lessens the need for pollinators

18. Monoculture is a method of growing food that is utilized solely in

a. industrialized agriculture
b Polyculture
.
c. traditional subsistence agriculture
d traditional intensive agriculture
.
e. both industrialized agriculture and traditional intensive agriculture

19. Since 1950, aquaculture production has

a. declined by half
b increased almost seven-fold
.
c. increased over 40-fold
d stayed exactly the same as the wild fish catch
.
e. declined by about 10%

20. Our economic systems promote unsustainable forms of industrialized agriculture because
a. they so successfully provide healthy food to our populations
b. they do not include most of the harmful environmental and health costs of such food
production in the market prices
c. they are so effective in cutting costs
d. they provide so many jobs
e. the food production is so efficient

21. Most soil erosion is caused by

a. wind and moving water
b. Photosynthesis
c. earthquakes
d. volcanoes
e. excess heat

TOP: 10-3 WHAT ENVIRONMENTAL PROBLEMS ARISE FROM INDUSTRIALIZED FOOD
PRODUCTION?
22. Salt buildup may

a. increase crop growth
b. increase yields
c. eventually kill weeds
d. eventually make the land unproductive
e. initially decrease yield, but later increase
yield

PRODUCTION?
23. Which of the following can lead to desertification?

a. conservation tillage
b severe and prolonged drought
.
c. crop rotation
d polyculture farming
.
e. terraced crop arrangements

PRODUCTION?
24. Which of the following best describes how the process of irrigation can lead to salinization of soils?
a. Water associated with irrigation flows from uphill. The salts that were in the soil uphill end up
being brought to the lower elevations.
b. Water associated with irrigation contains small amounts of dissolved salts. Evaporation leaves
behind increasing concentrations of these salts.
c. Irrigation water contains salts. Evaporation allows the salts to be lifted away, reducing the levels
of salts in the soil.
d. Irrigation water is treated with dissolved salts to promote plant growth. Over time the plants
become saturated with salts and do not need this macronutrient.
e. Irrigation is primarily accomplished through the use of abundant sea water, which contains high
concentrations of salts.

PRODUCTION?
25. How many units of energy are required to produce one unit of grain-fed beef?
a. One
b 10
.
c. 15
d 25
.
e. 35

PRODUCTION?
26. Which one of the following items is a major disadvantage of animal feed lots ( cho thú ăn)?
a. Less land is required to feed the animals.
b Use of antibiotics can increase genetic resistance to microbes (Virus mạnh hơn) in
. humans.
c. Soil erosion is reduced.
d Overgrazing is reduced.
.
e. Biodiversity is protected.

PRODUCTIONN?
27. Killing wild predators is an example of a(n) ______________problem caused by industrialized food
production.
a. biodiversity loss
b. soil
c. human health
d. air pollution
e. water

PRODUCTION?
28. The amount of irrigated land used to produce food crops has increased since 1950. It can also be
said that:
a. The amount of irrigated land per person has increased since 1950.
b. The amount of irrigated land per person has decreased since 1950.
c. The amount of irrigated land per person has stayed the same since 1950.
d. The amount of irrigated land per person for this time period is not known.
e. The amount of irrigated land per person has increased in some areas and decreased in
others.

PRODUCTION?
29. Strains (Sức cố) of genetically modified food crops can hybridize (lai tạo) with wild crop varieties
when
a. The process is carefully controlled in an agricultural lab.
b Pollen blows from the genetically modified crop and spreads among wild varieties.
.
c. Pollen is transferred by the farmer from one crop to the other.
d It is not possible for a genetically modified plant to hybridize with a wild species.
.
e. More than one of these answers is correct

PRODUCTION?
30. According to pesticide proponents, pesticides

a. work fast
b increase profit for farmers
.
c. save lives and work fast
d increase food supplies and profit for farmers
.
e. work fast, increase profit, save lives, and increase food supplies

TOP: 10-4 HOW CAN WE PROTECT CROPS FROM PESTS MORE SUSTAINABLY?
31. The world’s 30,000 known species of spiders
a. kill more livestock with poisonous bites than any other threat.
b. have to be controlled in order for integrated pest management to work properly
c. are a threat not only to livestock, but also to rural farmers because they nest in sheds where
equipment is stored and later retrieved.
d. kill far more crop-eating insects every year than humans do by using chemicals.
e. Are at the bottom of the food chain in agricultural settings and so provide important food for birds
that control caterpillar populations.

32. Since 1945, approximately ____ species of insects and rodents have developed resistance to one or
more insecticides (tăng khả năng đề kháng với các loại thuốc diệt côn trùng)
a. 50
b. 500
c. 1,000
d. 2,000
e. 5,000

33. The Environmental Working Group estimates that you could reduce your pesticide intake by up to
90% by eating only 100% organic (100% organic mới loại bỏ đươc 90% pesticide intake)
a. tomatoes and lettuce
b. lettuce, imported grapes, sweet bell peppers, peaches, apples and
celery
c. nectarines, cherries, strawberries, spinach, pears and potatoes
d. choices a and b are both correct
e. choices b and c are both correct

34. Which of the following approaches would be the least beneficial in trying to reduce insect damage?
a. rotating crops
b. genetic engineering of crops
c. planting monocultures (nhớ luôn là nó sẽ thu hút sâu bọ rất nhiều nên là “the least
beneficial, tại trồng có 1 loại à, kiểu vậy)
d. bringing in natural enemies
e. planting polycultures

35. Biological control of pests (này giống như là implant genetic resistance (biological) hoăc là cho
insect enemies vào để khử insect, thì hoàn toàn ko độc hại – (ecological))
a. costs more money than pesticides to
use
b. is toxic to use
c. is fast-acting
d. is not toxic to use
e. has never been very effective

36. A pheromone is
a. a new form of chemical insecticide awaiting approval by FIFRA
b. a strong herbicide
c. a species-specific chemical sex attractant
d. a bloodstream chemical that controls an organism's growth and
development
e. a safe, natural pesticide

37. Which of the following statements is a weakness of using pheromones?

a. They are costly and time-consuming to produce.
b. They are more effective in the juvenile stage than the adult
stage.
c. Insects develop resistance to pheromones.
d. They are biologically magnified in nontarget species.
e. They only work in large amounts.

38. A hormone is
a. a new form of chemical insecticide awaiting approval by FIFRA
b. a strong herbicide
c. a species-specific chemical sex attractant
d. a chemical that controls an organism's growth and
development
e. a strong pesticide

39. Integrated pest management ____ than pesticides.

a. requires more expert knowledge about individual pest-crop situations
b. is faster acting
c. requires more fertilizer and irrigation
d. is more expensive
e. requires more labor
40. An integrated pest management program attempts to

a. increase inputs of fertilizer and irrigation water
b reduce crop damage to an economically tolerable level
.
c. increase pesticide use
d decrease yields and increase costs
.
e. increase the development of disease-resistant pests

41. Switching to integrated pest management in the United States

a. will be easy to do because it is very simple
b. is hindered by government subsidies for using chemicals and by opposition from chemical
manufacturers
c. is difficult because it only works for a few pests
d. is strongly opposed by environmentalists
e. is easy to accomplish but is opposed by organic farmers

42. Perhaps the most important thing about Rachel Carson’s investigative work on the environmental
effects of pesticides, and her publication “Silent Spring,” is
a. the number of errors in the book
b. her failure to include a discussion about Integrated Pest Management
c. that it laid the groundwork for later, more serious work
d. that many historians consider her work to be an important contribution to the modern
environmental movement emerging in the United States
e. that it is a remarkable book considering it was written by a person without any scientific training

43. The sale and use of pesticides in the United States is regulated by which agencies?
a. FDA, EPA, and USDA
b USDA, FDA, and ATF
.
c. CIA, FDA, and USDA
d FBI, FDA, and EPA
.
e. EPA, ATF, and FBI

44. In the United States, the use of synthetic pesticides has increased 10-fold between 1942 and 1997.
For the same time period, the crop loss to insects has
a. declined by 10%
b. increased by 2%
c. almost doubled from 10% to 13%
d. stayed at exactly the same
percentage
e. declined by 50%

45. The National Academy of Sciences has estimated that 98% of the potential risk of developing cancer
from pesticide residue on food grown in the U.S. could be eliminated if
a. the entire industrialized agriculture business switched to integrated pest
management
b genetically modified foods were grown exclusively
.
c. pheromone traps were used more effectively to capture pests
d EPA standards for pre-1972 pesticides were as strict as standards for later pesticides
.
e. the government banned just one of the worst pesticides from use

46. All of the following are true about subsidies for food production except
a. Subsidies in developed countries average $571,000 per minute.
b. Milk production quadrupled in New Zealand after farm subsidies were ended.
c. Food prices in developed countries are kept artificially low.
d. Developing countries also receive large amounts of subsidies for growing food.
e. Some analysts recommend replacing traditional subsidies with subsidies that promote sustainable
agricultural practices.

TOP: 10-5 HOW CAN WE IMPROVE FOOD SECURITY?
47. Government subsidies (trợ cấp) to fishing fleets

a. promote overfishing
b. promote the reduction of aquatic biodiversity
c. promote overfishing and reduction of aquatic
biodiversity
d. reduce the use of bottom-trawling harvests
e. are currently less than $100,000 per year

TOP: 10-5 HOW CAN WE IMPROVE FOOD SECURITY?
48. Topsoil in the United States is eroding about ____ times faster than it can form.
a. 2
b 4
.
c. 8
d 17
.
e. 22

TOP: 10-6 HOW CAN WE PRODUCE FOOD MORE SUSTAINABLY?
49. Which of the following is central to most of the efforts to conserve topsoil?
a. an emphasis on agricultural practices that enhance
monocultures
b. annual crop rotations
c. keeping the soil covered by vegetation
d. preventing insect pests from destroying valuable crops
e. conversion of croplands into pasturelands or feedlots

50. Conservation tillage

a. increases labor costs
b. increases erosion
c. increases energy consumption
d. accelerates water loss from the soil
e. decreases erosion (conserve là
tốt)

51. In alley cropping:

a. Crops are planted between hedgerows of trees or shrubs that are used for fruits or
fuelwood.
b. Terraces are built to prevent swift water runoff.
c. Plowing runs across slopes.
d. Special tillers are used so the topsoil is not disturbed.
e. A row of crops alternates in strips with another row of crops.

52. Which of the following is not one of the three major types of organic fertilizer?
a. green manure
b. sewage sludge
c. compost
d. animal manure
e. All of these are major types of organic
fertilizers.

53. The process least likely to conserve soil nutrients is

a. crop rotation
b fertilizing with compost
.
c. fertilizing with green manure
d fertilizing with animal manure
.
e. irrigation

54. Aquaculture would be more sustainable if

a. consumers chose to eat fish species that are primary consumers instead of secondary
consumers
b. consumers chose to eat top predators
c. fish farms were located near mangrove forests
d. fish farms were located near estuaries
e. chemical pesticides were used to control common fish diseases

55. Which of the following is a characteristic of polyaquaculture?

a. Only herbivorous fish are raised.
b. Only carnivorous fish are raised.
c. Fish and shrimp are raised in ponds along with algae, seaweed, and shellfish.
d. Fish are raised in estuaries where the flushing action of rivers keeps the wastes moving away from
the fish.
e. Multiple kinds of shellfish (crab, shrimp, mussels) are raised in the same pond.

56. Which choice reflects the correct sequence of animal efficiency at converting grain into protein, from
the most efficient animal to the least?
a. fish, chicken, pigs, beef cattle
b. chicken, fish, beef cattle, pigs
c. pigs, chicken, fish, beef cattle
d. beef cattle, fish, chicken, pigs
e. These animals are all equally efficient at converting grain into
protein.

57. The largest contributor to the ecological foot print of most individuals in affluent nations is
a. recreational hunting and fishing
b vacations via air travel
.
c. residential heating
d meat production and consumption
.
e. purchasing more clothing and accessories than are needed

58. Sustainable agriculture is characterized by all of the following except

a. soil salinization
b. crop rotation
c. soil conservation
d. integrated pest management
e. promoting polyculture practices

59. In order to switch to sustainable agriculture, which of the following practices would not be favorable?
a. Give subsidies and tax breaks to those that use the method.
b Shift to full-cost pricing.
.
c. Increase government support of research on sustainable
agriculture.
d Expand the use of the crops of the green revolution.
.
e. Discourage monocultures.

60. You spend an evening with friends who have invited you for dinner and are gourmet cooks. During
the conversation over dinner, you learn that the food being served was all locally grown and purchased
through a CSA that your hosts participate in. Your hosts could be called
a. environmental activists
b bioprospectors
.
c. omnivores
d backyard gardeners
.
e. locavores

61. Which of the following are ways that individuals can support sustainable agriculture
through their choices and behaviors?
a. waste less food

b. eat locally grown food and meat
c. waste less food and compost food wastes
d. waste less food, eat less meat, compost food wastes and eat locally grown
food
e. use a drip system for watering in your own garden

62. Compared to conventional tillage, conservation tillage

a. reduces fuel and tillage costs
b. accelerates water loss from the soil
c. causes soil compaction
d. requires increased use of herbicides
e. can qualify the farmer for more government
subsidies
TRUE/FALSE
1. Food production worldwide is now less than in previous decades.

2. There are sufficient food resources being produced to meet the basic nutritional requirements of every
person on the planet.

3. Overgrazing by cattle can ultimately result in water pollution.

4. Plantation agriculture is used primarily to reduce soil erosion and restore soil fertility.

5. Over time, the extensive addition of water through irrigation practices can actually lead to
desertification.

6. A disadvantage to the green revolution is the intensive use of commercial inorganic fertilizers.

7. Pesticides have a positive benefit in terms of public health because fungi, insects, and noncrop plants
can contaminate crops with many natural toxins.

8. Malnourished individuals may become more prone to infections, and eventually may develop a
specific deficiency disease.

9. Farmers use alley cropping with row patterns nearly level around hills—not up and down—to
dissuade soil erosion.
10. Per unit area, the application of synthetic pesticides is higher on typical crop fields than it is on the
average lawn.

11. Since 1942 the use of synthetic pesticides has increased 10-fold. In spite of this fact, food supply
damage due to pests has increased during that time.

12. Some nations have experienced an increase in certain crop yields after greatly cutting pesticide use.

13. Health problems faced by those who are overfed are completely different from the health problems
faced by those who are underfed.

14. There are no technological substitutes for fertile and uncontaminated topsoil.

15. It takes about one unit of nonrenewable fossil fuel energy to put one unit of food energy on the table.

16. Research shows that, on average, low-input polycultures produce higher crop yields than high-input
monocultures.

17. To be classified as organically grown, animals must be free-ranging.

18. Organic agriculture is globally export-oriented because it also embraces cultural diversity.

19. The main source of carbohydrates (one of the key nutrients) is lipids.

20. Polyculture lessens the need for fertilizer and water.

21. World grain production per capita has increased consistently between 1961 and 2009.

22. Excessive irrigation of food crops has never been a problem for agriculture.

COMPLETION
1. A(n) ____________________ is a chemical used to control or kill populations of organisms that we

consider undesirable such as insects, weeds, or rodents.
ANS: pesticide
PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

2. Numerous practices have been developed to deter ____________________, including reducing or

eliminating tillage, managing irrigation to reduce runoff, and keeping the soil covered with plants or mulch.
ANS: soil erosion
PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

3. ____________________ is a form of industrialized agriculture used primarily in tropical developing

countries.
ANS: Plantation agriculture

4. ____________________ reduces soil oxygen levels, causes accumulation of gases toxic to plants, and
alters the concentration of nutrients around plant roots.
ANS: Waterlogging

5. ____________________ is a way to grow food on steep slopes or mountainsides without depleting
topsoil.
ANS: Terracing
PTS: 1 DIF: Easy
6. The process of ____________________ allows for the raising of marine and freshwater fish in ponds
and underwater cages.
ANS: aquaculture

7. ____________________ are chemicals emitted by living organisms to send messages to individuals

of the same species and can be used as alternatives to pesticides.
ANS: Pheromones
PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

8. The United States primarily uses ____________________ for food production.
ANS: industrialized agriculture
PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

9. Today in America, four of the top ten causes of death are diseases related to ____________________.
ANS: diet

10. Low-input ____________________ produces higher yields than does high-input

____________________.
ANS: polyculture, monoculture

11. When farmers use _________________systems, typically 90-95% of the water input reaches the
crops
ANS: drip, microirrigation, trickle irrigation

12. One of the problems with genetically modified food crops is that if pollen released from the plants
spreads among non-engineered plants => Lai giống á, nên reduce natural genetic biodiversity hen) it will
reduce the natural genetic ____________________ of wild strains.
ANS: biodiversity

13. ________________is (are) a key nutrient that drives the synthesis of hormones as well as the growth
of membrane tissues in humans.
ANS:
lipids
oils
fats

14. Alley cropping, agroforestry and terracing are all methods of reducing ____________________.
ANS: soil erosion

15. Two of the solutions for cleaning up salinized soil are flushing the soil with water, and placing
underground drainage systems. The negative aspect of these solutions is their____________________.
ANS:
expense
high cost

16. The irrigation system with the lowest efficiency rating is __________________.
ANS: gravity flow

MATCHING
Indicate whether the processes listed below are used in industrialized agriculture or organic
agriculture.
a. industrialized agriculture b. organic agriculture
1. globally export-oriented
2. no genetically modified seeds
3. represents a shift away from the sustainability principle of reliance on solar energy
4. growth hormones used to produce meat
5. crop rotation
6. locally oriented
7. depends on non-renewable fossil fuels
8. uses antibiotics to produce meat
9. greater use of renewable energy sources
10. synthetic inorganic fertilizers
11. produces about 80% of the world’s food
12. biological pest control


SHORT ANSWER
1. Polyface Farm in the U.S. state of Virginia raises beef, chickens and pigs. A particular practice on
Polyface Farm is to bring chickens into a pasture after the cows have eaten the grass. The chickens eat the
insect grubs that are found in the cow manure. While the chickens fatten up on the insect grubs, they also
produce waste which in turn fertilizes the grass the cows will later eat. Explain this process in terms of
sustainable agriculture and the basic principles of sustainability.
ANS:
The raising of a diversity of animals on the same land is a form of polyculture. It reduces the need for
pesticides to control the insects that would hatch out of the cow manure, and the purchase of chemical
fertilizers. Thus, it also embraces the basic sustainability principle of nutrient and chemical cycling.

2. Michael Pollan, in his landmark book The Omnivore’s Dilemma, investigates and discussed the
practices of meat production in modern, industrialized agriculture in the United States. After his extensive
study, he writes that he believes hunting for meat may be the more humane and wise choice. He cites the
fact that game animals at least live their lives in a free, uncaged environment, compared with beef cattle that
spend much of their lives confined in feedlots, standing in manure and eating grain they are not designed to
digest. Additionally, the game animal typically has a relatively quick and painless death.
Discuss this issue. Include in your discussion aspects of animal cruelty, relative availability of the
meat to satisfy food needs for a large population, and the relative impacts of farming versus hunting
on biodiversity.
ANS:
Answers to this question will vary widely, depending on the worldview of students. Grading should
be based on the thoroughness of coverage of the question rather than on student opinions.

3. For a given theoretical country, assume the productivity in metric tons per hectare remains stable, and
the weighting factor remains the same, but the metric tons of fish harvested per year is reduced by 50%.
How will this affect the fishprint for this country?
ANS:
The fishprint will be reduced by 50% also.

4. If the metric tons of fish harvested per year is reduced by 50% how will this reduction affect the
sustainable yield?
ANS:
There will be no change in the sustainable yield for that year.

5. It is well-documented that while some synthetc pesticides have caused great harm to living creatures,
others have saved lives. Give a brief account of one that has, ironically, saved human lives: DDT.
ANS:
Since 1945, it is estimated that DDT and other insecticides have probably prevented the premature
death of at least 7 million people and possibly up to 500 million people from insect-transmitted
diseases such as malaria (carried by the Anopheles mosquito), bubonic plague (carried by rat fleas)
and typhus (carried by body lice and fleas).

ESSAY
1. Clearly explain the relationship between irrigation and salinization of soils.
ANS:
Water used in irrigation contains small concentrations of dissolved salts. As evaporation and
transpiration occur, the water molecules leave, but the salt is left behind. Over long periods of
irrigation and evapotranspiration, the end result is an increasing concentration of salts in the soil. This
results in salinization of the soil.
PTS: 2 DIF: Easy

2. Discuss the relative costs of organically grown food and conventionally produced food. In your
answer, include specifics about why the costs are as they are. Also give a possible example.
ANS:
Organically produced food is anywhere from 10% to 75% more expensive than traditionally produced
food, primarily because organic farming is very labor intensive. However, the harmful health and
environmental effects of traditional crop production are not included in the price of the food. If this
were so, traditionally produced food would be more expensive.
For example, if the costs of treating health problems that result from eating food treated with
chemicals and hormones were included in the price of the food, traditionally produced food would
have a very high price tag.

3. Explain the benefits of using perennial plants rather than annual plants for food crops.
ANS:
Annual plants such as the grain crops wheat, sorghum, and sunflowers, have to be replanted every
year.
If perennial plants were used instead of annual plants, the soil would not have to be tilled every year
for planting. This would reduce soil erosion and water pollution from eroded sediment because the
unplowed soil would not be exposed to wind and rain. It also would reduce the need for irrigation
because the deep roots of the annual plants retain more water than the shallow rooted annual plants.
There is also less need for chemical fertilizers and pesticides for perennial plants.

4. Explain how growing corn in the Midwest creates a ‘dead zone’ in the Gulf of Mexico.
ANS:
Every growing season, huge amounts of synthetic inorganic fertilizer are used in the mid-western
United States to grow corn crops. The corn crops will be used for animal feed, and some will be
converted to ethanol as fuel. Much of this fertilizer runs off the land and into the Mississippi River,
which drains into the Gulf of Mexico. The addition of this nitrate and phosphorus nutrient load
creates an algal bloom that depletes the water of oxygen and results in a dead zone the size of the U.S.
state of Massachusetts.

CHAPTER 11—WATER RESOURCES AND WATER POLLUTION
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Water that is used for crop irrigation in southern California’s Imperial Valley originates as snowmelt
in the
a. Sierra Nevada mountain range
b. Tehachapi mountain range of southern California
c. Rocky Mountains
d. springs that feed the Colorado River in nearby
Arizona
e. Cascade Mountain range
ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Easy TOP: CORE CASE STUDY

2. The Colorado River system can be said to provide water and electricity for
a. one of every ten people in the United States
b. 1% of people in the United States
c. 5% of people in the United States
d. 10 million people in the United States
e. The Colorado River does not provide electricity, but provides water for 10% of the U.S.
population
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate TOP: CORE CASE STUDY

3. Which of the following statements about the Colorado River is not true?
a. 14 major dams and reservoirs have been built along the river
b the system has experienced severe drought since 1999
.
c. it provides resources to people in 7 states
d part of the upper basin originates in the state of Wyoming
.
e. the river still delivers the same amount of water to the sea in the Gulf of
California
ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Easy TOP: CORE CASE STUDY

4. Lake Powell
a. is a reservoir behind Hoover Dam and is the second largest reservoir in the U.S.
b. is a reservoir behind Hoover Dam and is the largest reservoir in the U.S.
c. is a reservoir behind Glen Canyon Dam and is the largest reservoir in the U.S.
d. is a reservoir behind Glen Canyon Dam and is the second largest reservoir in the
U.S.
e. is behind Hoover Dam and Lake Mead is behind Glen Canyon Dam

5. Water covers about ____% of the Earth's surface.

a. 51
b 61
.
c. 71
d 81
.
e. 91

TOP: 11-1 WILL WE HAVE ENOUGH USABLE WATER?
6. A water resource that would be categorized as nonrenewable would be

a. water vapor in the atmosphere
b. Precipitation
c. surface water in lakes and
streams
d. confined aquifers
e. Snowpack

7. That portion of surface runoff that we can generally count on as a stable source of freshwater from
year to year is best described as
a. surface water
b. drainage basin
c. reliable runoff
d. watershed
e. precipitation

8. Ultimately, which of the following is the source of energy that continually drives the hydrologic
cycle?
a. Gravity
b. energy from the sun and gravity
c. Electricity
d. geothermal energy
e. Wind

9. Virtual water is water

a. that exists only in deep underground aquifers
b. that we hope to be able to draw on in coming years
c. that is not directly consumed but is used to provide us with food and other consumer
products
d. that comes as precipitation in desert areas
e. that is predicted to be in runoff from snowfields at high altitudes

10. We can say that the United States has _____________freshwater scarcity stress
a. No
b very little or minimal
.
c. Average
d Spotty
.
e. Widespread

11. Worldwide, about 70% of the water withdrawn each year is used for
a. industrial processes
b. cooling towers of power plants
c. irrigation of croplands and raising
livestock
d. domestic use
e. water theme parks in tourist areas

12. In the western United States, as compared to the eastern United States, the major water problem(s) is
(are)
a. Flooding
b insufficient water for some urban areas
.
c. chronic drought and insufficient runoff
d pollution of rivers, lakes, and groundwater
.
e. insufficient water for industry


a. The top of the groundwater zone is the water table.
b. The recharge of aquifers below cities is very efficient because of storm drains.
c. In the zone of saturation, spaces in rock and soil are completely filled with
water.
d. Rivers of underground water are sometimes found in caverns in aquifers.
e. More than one of these choices is false.

14. The amount of water needed to produce the amount of beef in one single hamburger (most of which is
used to grow the grain to feed cattle) is approximately
a. the same volume as the hamburger is
b. 10 gallons
c. 16 gallons
d. 10 bathtubs full of water
e. 16 bathtubs full of water

15. The Ogallala is which of the following?

a. a massive desalination plant in the Middle East
b. the world's largest known aquifer
c. a pumping station drawing fresh water from the Great Lakes for use in the S.W. United States
d. a large body of water in Russia that has almost completely dried up
e. a river in the Middle East that flows into the Mediterranean Sea, and has the potential to become
dried up due to extensive irrigation systems

TOP: 11-2 HOW CAN WE INCREASE FRESHWATER SUPPLIES?
16. Which of the following is not a way to prevent groundwater depletion?

a. waste less water
b subsidize water conservation
.
c. limit the number of wells
d do not grow water intensive crops in dry areas
.
e. tax water pumped from wells near surface waters

17. Large dams and reservoirs

a. reduce danger of flooding upstream
b disrupt migration and spawning of fish
.
c. cannot be used for outdoor recreation
d can be used to provide electric power
.
e. two of these answers are correct

18. Which of the following statements about the Aral Sea is false?
a. Water has been diverted from the Aral Sea and the two rivers that replenish its water for use in
manufacturing.
b. The volume of the Aral Sea has dropped by 90%.
c. The salinity levels have risen dramatically.
d. Most native fish species have disappeared.
e. Salts carried by the wind from the dried up lake basin are negatively impacting local crops.

19. Currently, in the United States, groundwater is being withdrawn ____ times faster than it is being
replaced.
a. 2
b 4
.
c. 8
d 10
.
e. 20

20. In 2008, Saudi Arabia announced that it will stop producing wheat by 2016 and will from that point
on import wheat to feed its 29 million people. This decision has been made because
a. its major deep aquifer has been depleted by drawing water for irrigation
b. multiple years of severe droughts have depleted the water table
c. this very rich, oil-financed economy can easily import food rather than grow its own
d. desalinization of sea water around Saudi Arabia has contaminated local freshwater
reserves
e. oil seepage from oil fields has contaminated local freshwater reserves

21. Which of the following statements about desalination is true?

a. The common methods of desalination are reverse osmosis and transpiration.
b Desalination is expensive.
.
c. The removed salt can be dumped back into the ocean with no real concerns.
d Desalination is the best approach to solving irrigation problems.
.
e. Desalination is the best method of acquiring clear water for drinking.

22. It is most economically and environmentally sound to focus water resource management on
a. increasing the water supply
b. controlling the “mining” of groundwater
c. reducing unnecessary waste of water
d. developing desalination plants
e. cloud seeding and towing icebergs to arid
regions

23. Saltwater intrusion into freshwater (drinking water) supplies can occur when
a. land subsidence occurs
b. snowpack is used as drinking water in areas close to saltwater bodies
c. groundwater is withdrawn near saltwater bodies
d. water is drawn from desert lakes to irrigate crops
e. runoff of agricultural fields drains into wells

24. Conflicts within and between countries over scarce water supplies is expected to be most severe in
a. industrialized, developed countries
b South America
.
c. the United Kingdom
d the Middle East and part of Asia
.
e. all of these countries

25. In some areas of the Ogallala aquifer, water is being pumped

a. four times faster than it is being replenished
b at the same rate it is being replenished
.
c. 10 to 40 times faster than it is being replenished
d It is not possible to determine this, since the aquifer is so far below ground.
.
e. The Ogallala is not being pumped at this point in time due to a Federal court
decision.

26. Solutions to the increasing problem with water shortages in central and southern California include
a. reducing water waste by improving irrigation efficiency
b. not growing water-thirsty crops in this arid climate
c. raising the historically low cost of water to encourage water conservation
d. educating water users as the value of this precious resource
e. reducing water waste by improving irrigation efficiency, not growing water-thirsty crops in this
arid climate and raising the historically low cost of water to encourage conservation

27. According to the World Resources Institute, what percentage of the water that people use throughout
the world is unnecessarily wasted?
a. one-tenth
b. one-third
c. one-fourth
d. one-half
e. two-thirds

TOP: 11-3 HOW CAN WE USE FRESHWATER MORE SUSTAINABLY?
28. Which of the following is true of flood irrigation?

a. It relies solely on water that falls directly on the crop fields in the form of precipitation.
b. It results in 40% inefficient loss of the water applied.
c. It is the primary form of irrigation used in China.
d. It results in 40% inefficient loss of the water applied and it is the primary form of irrigation used
in China.
e. At this time, it is the most efficient way to irrigate, from all of the known methods.

29. Which of the following is the most efficient form of irrigation?

a. flood irrigation
b. center-pivot irrigation
c. low pressure irrigation
d. precision sprinkler irrigation
e. micro irrigation

30. According to water resource experts, what are the two main causes of water waste?
a. lack of government subsidies for improving the efficiency of water use and ignorance about the
amount of water being wasted
b. low cost of water to users and lack of government subsidies for improving the efficiency of water
use
c. lack of desire to conserve water and knowledge that there is actually enough water on the planet
to supply all uses
d. lack of information about efficient irrigation systems and lack of regulation of water use
e. There is a single main cause of water waste and it is the lack of regulation of water use.

31. The smart card water manager system that is used in ___________has typically reduced water and
electricity use, and has reduced household water bills by about _______%
a. Singapore, 10%
b Beijing, 40%
.
c. Singapore, 40%
d Brazil, 10%
.
e. Brazil, 40%

32. According to the United Nations, from 30% to 60% of all water supplied in all of the world’s major
cities in developing countries is
a. used for crop irrigation
b lost through leakage of water mains, pipes, pumps, and valves
.
c. recycled as grey water
d used for watering landscaping
.
e. polluted

33. Which of the following actions will help to decrease the single greatest use of domestic water in the
United States?
a. use a drip system in your garden
b. use a low-flow shower head
c. use native plants in your landscaping that do not require a lot of extra
water
d. install a water-saving toilet tank
e. use grey water to water your houseplants

34. Benefits of floods include all of the following except

a. provision of productive farmland
b refilling of wetlands
.
c. recharging of groundwater
d filling up of soil air spaces to prevent oxidation of nutrients
.
e. supporting biodiversity

TOP: 11-4 HOW CAN WE REDUCE THE THREAT OF FLOODING?
35. Floodplains usually contain
a. highly productive wetlands
b debris that has been deposited during floods
.
c. high concentrations of agricultural chemical
runoff
d pest insect populations
.
e. nutrient poor soil

36. Floods and droughts are

a. strictly natural disasters
b. influenced by human activities
c. decreased by increases in human population
d. independent of human activity
e. always predictable and cyclic

37. Humans increase the likelihood of flooding by all of the following activities except
a. building on wetlands
b. draining wetlands
c. removing water-absorbing
vegetation
d. building a park on a riverbank
e. building levees

38. Which of the following human activities is thought to be directly linked to why the damage from
Hurricane Katrina was so devastating to the city of New Orleans?
a. the overdraft of groundwater from the region
b. the implementation of xeriscaping in the region
c. the degradation or removal of coastal wetlands in the
region
d. the conversion of forests into land used for agriculture
e. the channelization of streams nearby

39. All of the following are actions that the country of Bangladesh is implementing to adapt to sea level
rises due to climate change except
a. using varieties of rice that can better tolerate flooding
b. shifting to new crops such as maize
c. building small ponds that can collect monsoon rainwater to be used for irrigation during dry
periods
d. creating a network of earthen embankments to protect against high tides
e. develop a system of capturing wave action during monsoons to run small, local power plants
40. To reduce flooding risks, an environmentalist is most likely to choose

a. floodplain management
b a flood control dam
.
c. channelization of streams
d artificial levees
.
e. artificial levees combined with channelization of streams

BLOOM’S TAXONOMY: COMPREHESION
41. All of the following are nonpoint sources of water pollution except
a. offshore oil wells
b. livestock feedlots
c. urban lands
d. Croplands
e. parking lots

TOP: 11-5 HOW CAN WE DEAL WITH WATER POLLUTION?
42. Which of the following is a point source of pollution?

a. acid deposition
b. urban streets
c. oil tankers
d. suburban lawns
e. parking lots


a. Heat lowers dissolved oxygen in streams and rivers.
b. Organic wastes that can be decomposed by aerobic bacteria reduce the amount of oxygen in the
water supply.
c. Toxic chemicals released from industries can result in fish kills.
d. Inorganic nutrients such as fertilizers have no adverse effects on aquatic ecosystems.
e. Sediment can cloud water and reduce photosynthesis.

44. Nitrates and phosphates are examples of

a. disease-causing agents
b. oxygen-demanding wastes
c. organic chemicals
d. plant nutrients
e. Sediment

45. Acids, salts, and metals are examples of

a. oxygen-demanding wastes
b. organic plant nutrients
c. inorganic plant nutrients
d. inorganic chemicals
e. sediment

46. One class of pollutants that can cause excessive growth of algae is
a. radioactive substances
b. oxygen-demanding wastes
c. plant nutrients
d. organic chemicals
e. Sediment

47. Which of the following decrease(s) photosynthesis in bodies of water?

a. disease-causing organisms
b inorganic plant nutrients
.
c. sediment such as soil or silt
d heat
.
e. organic chemicals

48. An oxygen sag curve occurs when
a. Fish population numbers sag.
b. Heavy metals that have entered a stream bind oxygen molecules and remove them from the
available oxygen supply.
c. The breakdown of biodegradable wastes by bacteria lowers the available oxygen in the water for
organisms with high oxygen requirements.
d. Carbon dioxide values exceed dissolved oxygen values.
e. Oxygen content in the air around a particular body of water becomes slightly lower than normal


a. Rivers are more vulnerable than lakes to contamination by plant nutrients, oil, toxins, and
pesticides.
b. Lakes are more susceptible to pollution because of little water flow.
c. Eutrophication is a natural process and can occur without the influence of humans.
d. Human activities can induce cultural eutrophication.
e. Eutrophication is caused by inputs of nutrients from the surrounding land basin.

50. Which of the following developments of cultural eutrophication would occur last?
a. fish kills
b. blooms of algae
c. increase in aerobic bacteria
d. increase of plants such as
duckweed
e. increase in anaerobic bacteria

51. About ____ of the 100,000 medium to large lakes in the U.S. suffer from cultural eutrophication.
a. one-fifth
b. one-fourth
c. one-third
d. one-half
e. one-tenth

52. Assume you are vacationing by a small lake, where you intend to do some fishing.
When you arrive at this lake, you notice a slight sulfur smell. Which phase of cultural eutrophication
does this sulfur smell indicate?
a. An algal bloom.
b. Anaerobic bacteria are decomposing the aerobic
organisms.
c. Aerobic bacteria are decomposing the algae.
d. Fish have died from lack of oxygen.
e. Insect populations in the lake are dying off.

53. Groundwater
a. has turbulent flows that dilute pollutants
b has large populations of decomposing bacteria that break down degradable
. wastes
c. is cold, which slows down decomposition rates
d may take five to ten years to cleanse itself of wastes
.
e. is quickly renewable

54. _______________________ is the only effective way to protect groundwater.

a. pollution prevention
b community-based local clean up
.
c. bioremediation
d sewage treatment
.
e. stream restoration

55. The practice of suspending rust particles in contaminated water, and then drawing out the rust with
hand-held magnets, has been effective in dealing with
a. DDT contaminated water
b. arsenic contaminated water
c. oil contaminated water
d. heavy metal contaminated water
e. acidified water secondary to acid
rain

56. Arsenic is released into drinking water
a. from inorganic fertilizers
b. from sewage and animal wastes
c. from food processing facilities
d. when any well is drilled down to the water
table
e. from mining refuse

57. Which of the following statements about underground contaminants is false?

a. Degradable organic wastes do not decompose as rapidly underground as on the surface.
b. There is little dissolved oxygen to aid in degradation of wastes.
c. Waste products are diluted and dispersed quickly in underground aquifers.
d. It can take hundreds to thousands of years for contaminated groundwater to cleanse itself of
degradable wastes.
e. In some coastal areas, groundwater has been contaminated by saltwater intrusion.

58. Which of the following aquatic ecosystems receives the vast majority of the global inputs of
pollution?
a. estuary
b. swiftly flowing stream
c. deep-water ocean
d. coastal parts of the ocean
e. slow-moving river

59. Which of the following aquatic ecosystems is most capable of diluting, dispersing, and degrading
large amounts of sewage, sludge, and oil?
a. estuary
b. swiftly flowing stream
c. deep-water ocean
d. coastal parts of the ocean
e. slow-moving river

60. The majority of the oil pollution of the ocean comes from
a. blowouts (rupture of a borehole of an oil rig in the ocean)
b tanker accidents
.
c. environmental terrorism
d runoff from land
.
e. normal operation of offshore wells

COMPREHENSION
61. All of the following are true about the discharge trading policy except
a. is sponsored by the EPA
b. uses market forces to reduce water pollution
c. allows polluters to pollute at higher levels than they have permits for under certain circumstances
d. purchasing of unused polluting credits from permit holders who are polluting below their allowed
levels
e. polluters who pollute at higher levels than they have permits for are immediately closed down

62. Which of the following types of sewage treatment are properly matched?
a. primary--removal of pollutants particular to a given area
b secondary--removal of oxygen-demanding wastes
.
c. advanced--removal of suspended solids
d primary - removal of oxygen-demanding wastes
.
e. primary and secondary both - removal of pollutants particular to a given
area

63. The shift to pollution prevention will most likely be the result of
a. bottom-up political pressure
b. elected officials recognizing the benefits of sustainable living
c. financial benefits of pollution prevention inspiring business
leaders
d. community cooperatives promoting the idea
e. top-down politics starting at the White House

64. The main sources of lead, mercury and arsenic water pollutants are
a. electric power plants
b inclined landfills, household chemicals, mining refuse and industrial
. discharges
c. sewage and inorganic fertilizers
d runoff from streets and parking lots
.
e. land erosion from farms that have used chemical insecticides

65. Which of the following statements about drinking bottled water is NOT true?
a. Americans are the world’s largest consumers of bottled water.

b. The movement to boycott bottled water consumption is called back-to-the-tap
c. 86% of the bottles containing bottled water are recycled
d. Some of the bottled water that Americans drink comes from as much as 5,500 miles away.
e. BPA is a chemical in the plastic of water bottles that can leach into the water, especially if the
bottle is exposed to the sun.

TRUE/FALSE
1. Most aquifers are rapidly recharged through precipitation that percolates downward through soil and
rock.

2. A large amount of the world's drinking water comes from desalination.

3. We are using freshwater unsustainably by wasting it, polluting it and not charging enough for it.

4. Some water resources are best categorized as nonrenewable.

5. Drinking is the biggest use of water worldwide.

6. Flooding increases with economic and urban development.

7. Eutrophication is a condition of natural nutrient enrichment of a shallow lake, estuary or slow-moving

stream.

8. Global reduction of grain-fed beef consumption would help to reduce water shortages.

9. One potential problem associated with global warming is that rising sea levels will cause salt
contamination of coastal area soils.

10. The creation of dams and reservoirs has decreased the annual reliable runoff available for human use.

11. Salt from the region of the Aral Sea is being blown onto the alpine glaciers of the Himalayas, and is
causing them to melt at faster than normal rates.

12. Federal subsidies are provided to U.S. farmers who reduce water use in irrigation.

13. Drip irrigation systems can increase crop yields by 20–90%.

14. An oligotrophic lake tends to have relatively high levels of dissolved oxygen.

15. If we protect more wetlands, that will actually increase the threat of flooding.

16. Use of dams, reservoirs and water transfer projects has disrupted ecosystems.

17. The shrinkage of the Aral Sea has actually altered the climate of the area around it.

18. Heat is a type of water pollutant.

BLOOM’S TAXONOMY: KOWLEDGE
19. Atmospheric warming will increase water pollution in areas with increased rainfall and areas with
prolonged drought.

20. Cruise ships are a significant source of pollution of ocean water.

21. The United States is the world’s largest user of water, and wastes about 50% of all water drawn from
surface and groundwater sources.

22. Land erosion causes water pollution.

23. Preventing contamination is the least expensive and most effective way to protect groundwater
resources.

24. Water in a tap in Palm Springs, California, could have originated in northwestern Colorado.
COMPLETION
1. ____________________ are deep underground sources of freshwater found between the porous
geological layers of sand, gravel, or bedrock.
ANS: Aquifers
PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

2. When a lot of water is pumped from an aquifer, or when there is a dry spell, the
____________________ sinks lower.
ANS: water table
PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

3. ____________________ involves removing dissolved salts from ocean water or from to increase
supplies of freshwater.
ANS: Desalination
PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

4. A flood happens when water in a stream overflows its normal channel and spills into the adjacent
area, called a(n) ____________________.
ANS: floodplain
PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

5. One of the most serious overdrafts of groundwater is in the United States in the lower half of the
________________aquifer.
ANS: Ogalalla
PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

6. ____________________ is the name given to the natural nutrient enrichment of a shallow lake.
ANS: Eutrophication
PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

7. Withdrawing massive amounts of groundwater can cause a condition called____________

______________
ANS: land subsidence

8. ____________________ keep the price of water so low that users do not worry about wasting water.
ANS: Subsidies

9. About ____________% of the freshwater used in the United States is unnecessarily wasted.
ANS: 50
PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

10. Human activities can greatly accelerate the rate at which nutrients and organic substances enter
aquatic ecosystems from their surrounding watersheds in a process called ______________
_______________.
ANS: cultural eutrophication

11. Spaces in rock and soil called the ____________________ are completely filled with water.
ANS: zone of saturation

12. The LifeStraw is a portable ____________________that eliminates many bacteria and viruses that are
drawn into it.
ANS: water filter (lọc)
PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

13. The country with the highest percentage of agricultural land irrigated with drip irrigation is
____________________.
ANS: Cyprus

14. In the United States and most other developed countries, there has been an increase in the number and
quality of _______________ treatment plants since the 1970’s.
ANS: wastewater

15. ________________is slower to cleanse itself of contaminants than ____________________
_______________ ________________is.
ANS: Groundwater, flowing surface water

16. Drip irrigation is used on ____________________%of irrigated crop fields in the United States, and
____________________% of irrigated crop fields worldwide.
ANS: 4, 1
PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

17. About _________% of the garbage in the huge rotating masses of plastic and other trash in the Pacific
Ocean comes from land.
ANS: 90
PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

MATCHING
1. On the dilution and decay of degradable wastes figure, choose the zone in which populations of
organisms with high oxygen requirements will most likely be eliminated.
2. On the dilution and decay of degradable wastes figure, choose the zone in which the breakdown of
degradable wastes by bacteria starts to deplete the dissolved oxygen.
3. On the dilution and decay of degradable wastes figure, choose the zone in which the water has
recovered from oxygen-demanding wastes and heat.
4. On the dilution and decay of degradable wastes figure, choose the zone in which the water needs time
and must have an adequate flow rate.
5. On the dilution and decay of degradable wastes figure, choose the zone in which the bacteria have not
started the decay of degradable, oxygen-demanding wastes.

6. On the primary and secondary sewage treatment figure, choose the letter that represents where
bacteria are killed and the water is clean.
7. On the primary and secondary sewage treatment figure, choose the letter that represents where sludge
is dried before being disposed of.
8. On the primary and secondary sewage treatment figure, choose the letter that represents where the
water is aerated.
9. On the primary and secondary sewage treatment figure, choose the letter that represents where large
floating objects and solids are removed.
activated sludge settles out in the biological process of sewage treatment.
suspended solids settle out as sludge in the physical process of sewage treatment.
12. On the primary and secondary sewage treatment figure, choose the letter that represents where all the
sludge is combined before drying.
7. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate OBJ: Labeling
12. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate OBJ: Labeling

SHORT ANSWER
1. Writer Jacques Leslie, in his Harper’s Magazine article of July 2000, made this statement: “Las Vegas
is America’s city of fantasy, and water, not wealth, is its greatest fantasy of all. Comment on this statement
using information from this chapter.
ANS:
Answers may vary but should focus around the comments in the Core Case Study that indicate if it
were not for dams on the Colorado River, the area we know as Las Vegas would be uninhabited
desert.

2. Many of the world’s large rivers flow from one state or province to another, or even through several
others. The Colorado River and Mississippi River are examples of this. In many instances, they flow from
one country to another. Discuss the potential problems that arise from this simple geographical fact. For
example, what potential problem arises if the irrigation water used in Nebraska was polluted or contaminated
as the water moved through South Dakota?
ANS:
States, provinces or even countries downstream may suffer the consequences of too many diversions
upstream, or pollution that originates upstream. This situation could lead to lawsuits between states in
a single nation, or legal battles or even wars between nations. The Middle East, for example, is an
area where significant conflicts over water sharing is expected to increase.
3. List in order, from largest to smallest, the uses of water drawn from groundwater and surface water in
the United States. Also state what the percentages of use are. Include at the end how the drinking water that
is used in your city or town is acquired.
ANS:
41% Removing heat from electric power plants
37% Irrigation
13% Public water supplies
5% Industry
4% Raising livestock
End comments will varying depending on whether the student lives in an area with freshwater
supplied directly from a river, or a reservoir, or is drawn from wells. Some students may be unaware
of the source of their drinking water. The point of this question is to make them become aware.
PTS: 3 DIF: Easy

4. Hoover Dam was built in the 1930’s on the Colorado River, and at that time was extremely important
as an employment project. The United States was just coming out of the Great Depression and it was viewed
as a life-saver by thousands of people across the country. Now this dam is 80 years old. Drawing from
information in this chapter about aging dams, what is a severe problem that could be expected?
ANS:
Aging dams typically fill up with mud and silt within 50 years.

ESSAY
1. In a freshwater river or stream, clearly explain what causes an oxygen sag curve and how this can
impact natural populations in that ecosystem.
ANS:
If there are high quantities of organic materials added into a body of water, these materials will be
broken down by bacteria. This process can deplete dissolved oxygen in a region of a river, creating an
oxygen sag curve. This can reduce or eliminate populations of organisms with high oxygen
requirements. The depletion of oxygen could also be caused by the addition of thermal pollution.

2. Clearly explain how soil erosion, associated with poor agricultural practices, can lead to a decrease in
dissolved oxygen in bodies of water.
ANS:
Poor agricultural practices that result in soil erosion allow for increased levels of silt to enter into
bodies of water. This silt can result in increasing levels of turbidity (cloudiness) in the water column.
This then prevents sunlight from penetrating the depths of the water and limits photosynthesis. In this
way it can result in declining levels of dissolved oxygen in the water.

3. Explain the advantages and disadvantages of large dams and reservoirs.
ANS:
Advantages:
-provides irrigation water
-provides drinking water
-useful for fishing and recreation
-produces cheap electricity
-reduces downstream flooding
Disadvantages
-flood land under the reservoir displaces people and destroys croplands and forests
-large amounts of water are lost from the surface of the reservoir through evaporation
-deprives downstream areas of nutrient-rich silt
-risk of failure and devastating downstream floods
-disrupts migration and spawning of fish
PTS: 3 DIF: Easy

4. List at least five things you are willing to do to help eliminate water waste. As part of your answer
explain why these things are important.
ANS:
The answers to the first part of this question will be variable, but will likely come from this list:
-Use water-saving showerheads, toilets, and faucet aerators.
-Take short showers, and shower rather than take baths.
-Repair household water leaks.
-Turn off sink faucets when brushing teeth or shaving.
-Wash only full loads, or use lowest possible load setting for small loads.
-Use grey water for yard and plant watering.
-Wash cars using a bucket of soapy water and spray from hose only to rinse.
-Only use commercial carwashes that recycle water.
-Replace lawn with native plants that use little water.
-Water lawns only in early a.m. or evening.
-Use drip irrigation and mulch for gardens and flowerbeds.
These actions are all important because in the United States about half of water that is drawn from
surface or groundwater for our use is wasted.

5. Using statistics presented in this chapter, discuss the problem with groundwater contamination in the
United States.
ANS:
Answers will vary somewhat, but the basic statistics that should be included, at a minimum, are these:
An EPA survey of 26,000 industrial waste ponds and lagoons found that one-third of them had no
liners to prevent toxic wastes from leaking into aquifers. One-third of these sites are within a mile of
a drinking water well. Almost two-thirds of America’s liquid hazardous wastes are injected into the
ground in disposable wells, some of which leak into aquifers used as drinking water sources.
By 2008, the EPA had cleaned up about 357,000 of the more than 479,000 underground tanks that
were leaking gasoline, diesel fuel, home heating oil or toxic solvents into groundwater.

6. A recent Time magazine article discussed the profession of farming in the United States. The theme
of this article was the affluence of some farmers, and the fact that it is a very profitable career to have.
Discuss this fact, now that you are informed on some of the subsidies that traditional agriculture receive.
Keep in mind, also, the value of crop production and farming to our country. Weigh also the profitability of
such careers as being a professional athlete, an actor or actress, a celebrity, a Wall Street CEO, and include
comments on this as part of your answer.
ANS:
Answers to this question will vary widely. The point of this question is having the student think about
a reasonable solution to the idea of subsidies for farmers, and yet also consider the value of this
profession to our country. Grading should be based on the quality and clarity of writing and the
presentation of reasonable solutions that are in line with the themes of sustainability.

CHAPTER 17—ENVIRONMENTAL ECONOMICS, POLITICS, AND
WORLDVIEWS
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Since 1989
a. The Tennessee River, which flows through Chattanooga, Tennessee, has been bubbling with toxic
waste.
b. The U.S. government has rated the air in Chattanooga, Tennessee, as the dirtiest in the country.
c. The levels of the seven major air pollutants in Chattanooga, Tennessee, have been higher than
allowed by federal standards.
d. The levels of the seven major air pollutants in Chattanooga, Tennessee, have been lower than
those required by federal standards.
e. The city center has become a deserted, crime-infested area.

2. Chattanooga’s environmental success story is an example of how

a. Ethics, economics, and politics can be used to solve environmental problems.
b Top-down changes can solve environmental problems.
.
c. Environmental policies do not need the endorsement of common citizens.
d Federal funding solves environmental problems.
.
ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult TOP: CORE CASE STUDY

3. In a market-based economic system, economic decisions about prices are made by

a. supply and demand
b. the government
c. past customs and
experience
d. the banks

TOP: 17-1 HOW ARE ECONOMIC SYSTEMS RELATED TO THE BIOSPHERE?
4. Which type of economist views economic systems as subsystems of the biosphere that depend heavily
on irreplaceable natural resources?
a. neoclassical
b ecological
.
c. environmental
d all of these answers
.

5. The ecological economist believes that conventional economic growth will eventually
a. Pull us out of our dependence on Middle Eastern oil.
b. Lead us into a socialist economy.
c. Become unsustainable because it will deplete natural
capital.
d. Lead us into a sustainable economy.
e. Collapse when oil runs out.

6. The view that natural resources are important but not indispensable is held by
a. environmental economists
b. ecological economists
c. Eastern European economists
d. neoclassical economists
e. classical economists

7. Goods and services are produced by

a. natural capital
b. human capital
c. manufactured capital
d. manufactured and human capital
e. natural, human, and manufactured capital

8. The category of economist that has taken the middle ground in the debate about economic growth, and
believes in fine-tuning economic systems and tools, is the
a. ecological economist
b environmental economist
.
c. neoclassical economist
d neoconservative economist
.
e. high-throughput economist
9. Which of the following is not an external cost of driving a domestic car?

a. air pollution and litter
b cost of manufacture
.
c. highway accidents
d health costs
.
e. hazardous wastes produced by car exhaust

TOP: 17-2 HOW CAN WE USE ECONOMIC TOOLS TO DEAL WITH ENVIRONMENTAL
PROBLEMS?
10. Excluding the external costs from the prices of goods and services
a. hides these costs from the consumer
b. hinders the development of green goods and services
c. promotes pollution and resource waste
e. both hide these costs from the consumer and promote pollution and resource waste is
correct.

PROBLEMS?
11. Between 1950 and 2004 we can say that:

a. The per capita GDP rose sharply while per capita GPI stayed flat.
b The per capita GPI rose sharply while per capita GDP stayed flat.
.
c. Both the GDP and the GPI rose sharply.
d Both the GDP and the GPI stayed relatively flat.
.
e. While GDP rose sharply, the GPI could not be measured.

PROBLEMS?
12. Full-cost pricing

a. would improve human health
b. reduces the final cost of goods
c. is very popular with manufacturers
d. would make the market price higher than the true cost of a product or
service

PROBLEMS?
13. Full-cost pricing

a. involves making the market price approach the true cost of economic
goods
b. fails to include the cost of pollution
c. omits the costs of taxes
d. increases the chance for environmental degradation

PROBLEMS?
14. Which of the following countries have not phased out all coal subsidies?
a. Belgium
b. Japan
c. Germany
d. France
e. all of these
answers

PROBLEMS?
15. Proponents of a tax shift that transfers taxes from income and wealth to pollution and environmental
degradation point out that:
a. It should be enacted immediately in order to do any good.
b. It should only apply to developed countries.
c. It should include tax breaks.
d. In some cases both pollution and income/wealth should be
taxed.
e. It should be phased in over 10 to 20 years.

PROBLEMS?
16. Green taxes or ecotaxes

a. can be administered by existing tax agencies
b help bring about full-cost pricing
.
c. encourage businesses to develop environmentally beneficial technologies
d discourage pollution
.

PROBLEMS?
17. The cap-and-trade program for regulating air pollutants by the U.S. government is an example of
a. full-cost pricing
b incentive-based regulation
.
c. command and control regulation
d service-flow regulation
.

PROBLEMS?
18. If a company changes from selling a product to eco-leasing the product, we can say that:
a. They are supporting a service-flow economy.
b. They are supported a materials-flow economy.
c. They will increase the pollution they generate.
d. The amount of pollution they generate will stay the
same.
e. They will be getting a huge tax break.

PROBLEMS?
19. If a leased Xerox machine's lease expires, the company

a. allows the customer to purchase it at a very low cost
b takes the machine and sends it to a landfill
.
c. takes the machine back for reuse or re-manufacture
d asks the customer to dispose of it in an ecologically sound way
.
e. sends the plastic and metal shell to a developing country for
disposal
PROBLEMS?
20. From the environmental perspective, it will help to stabilize population growth in developing
countries as soon as possible because
a. Poverty has numerous harmful health and environmental effects.
b. Poverty has been identified as one of the four major causes of the environmental problems we
face.
c. Polluting activities and lifestyles are much more prevalent in developing countries.
d. All of these answers
e. Poverty has numerous harmful health and environmental effects and has been identified as one of
the four major causes of the environmental problems we face.

PROBLEMS?
21. Poverty is usually defined as

a. not being able to buy health insurance
b not being able to meet one's basic economic needs
.
c. earning less than 100 dollars per month
d not being able to afford a healthy diet
.

PROBLEMS?
22. Strategies to reduce poverty include

a. providing primary education
b. Combating malnutrition
c. Spending more on coal and oil to generate revenue
d. refocusing the national budget to environmental
causes
e. Two of the above are correct

PROBLEMS?
23. The United States has ____ its goal of contributing .7% of its annual national income to the
Millennium Development Goals.
a. fallen short of
b. Met
c. Exceeded
d. always met or exceeded
e. Changed

PROBLEMS?
24. Economic succession is something that occurs when

a. Changing environmental conditions allow certain species to move into an area and replace other
species that are no longer favored by the new conditions.
b. Investment opportunities change in the stock market.
c. Creative destruction causes companies to fail.
d. New and more innovative businesses replace older ones that can no longer thrive under changing
economic conditions.

PROBLEMS?
25. All of the following are suggestions by Lester Brown and Paul Hawken for making a transition to
more environmentally sustainable economies except
a. mimic nature
b reduce poverty
.
c. sell more things instead of services
d use full-cost pricing
.
e. use eco-labels on products

PROBLEMS?
26. The process by which individuals and groups try to influence the decisions and policies of
governments is
a. economics
b. resource management
c. politics
d. ethics
TOP: 17-3 HOW CAN WE IMPLEMENT MORE SUSTAINABLE AND JUST
ENVIRONMENTAL POLICIES?
27. Gradual rather than destabilizing change in constitutional democracies stems from
a. conflicting information from experts
b. distribution of power among federal, state, and local authorities
c. distribution of power among different branches of government
e. both distribution of power among federal, state, and local authorities and distribution of power
among different branches of government

28. History shows that significant change

a. is cyclical
b. is exponentially decreasing
c. is from the bottom up
d. is from the top down

29. Effective environmental leadership

a. leads by working within the system
b. leads by example
c. leads by working within the government or environmental
arena
d. leads by working for better solutions to environmental
problems

30. A citizen-based global sustainability movement that is emerging is comprised of
a. a loosely connected worldwide network of grassroots NGOs
b regulatory agencies within governments that oversee environmental laws
.
c. special interest groups that lobby for restriction of environmental laws
d environmentalists that have won elections
.
e. a well-funded movement to change the way public lands are used in the U.S.
31. Militant environmental groups that use violence to achieve their ends
a. are considered valid by most environmentalists
b are applauded by most NGOs
.
c. have never been active in the United States
d are opposed by most environmentalists
.

32. You travel to Costa Rica during the winter holidays for an eco-tour vacation. Part of your tour
includes a visit to a beach late at night to observe endangered turtles laying their eggs on the beach. When
you arrive at the appointed place and hour, you are startled to see an armed guard at the entrance to the
beach. You learn that the armed guard is there to assure that no one enters the turtle egg-laying area too early,
or in too large a group, as these actions would prevent the turtles from laying their eggs. This is an example
of
a. a militant environmental group
b an Endangered Species Act misinterpreted
.
c. environmental security
d eco-terrorism
.
e. both a militant environmental group and environmental security

33. Which one of the following list of federal agencies that manage U.S. public lands is responsible for
land that is used primarily for grazing, mining, and oil and gas extraction in the western states?
a. U.S. Forest Service
b U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service
.
c. National Wildlife Refuge System
d National Park System
.
e. Bureau of Land Management

34. Many free-market economists, among others, believe that all of these principles should govern use of
public lands except:
a. Cut old-growth forests in national forests and replace them with tree plantations.
b. They should be used primarily for protecting biodiversity, wildlife habitats, and ecosystems.
c. The American people deserve fair compensation for use of their property.
d. All users or extractors of resources on public lands should be held responsible for damage they
cause.
e. No one should receive tax breaks for extracting resources on public lands.

35. According to the planetary management environmental worldview

a. We have an ethical responsibility to be good stewards of the
Earth.
b. Resources are limited and should not be wasted.
c. We should manage nature to meet our needs.
d. Resources are limited and should not be wasted.
e. Our success depends on learning how nature sustains itself.

TOP: 17-4 WHAT ARE SOME MAJOR ENVIRONMENTAL WORLDVIEWS?
36. The belief that we are a part of, and totally dependent on, nature is one of the principles of the
a. planetary management worldview
b stewardship worldview
.
c. environmental dictatorship worldview
d environmental wisdom worldview
.
e. spaceship Earth worldview

37. According to the stewardship worldview

a. The potential for economic growth is essentially unlimited.
b We will probably not run out of resources, but they should not be wasted.
.
c. Our success depends on how well we manage the earth’s life support systems for our own
benefit.
d Our success depends on learning how nature sustains itself.
.

38. A fellow student and friend of yours is a business major with an emphasis area in marketing. In
discussions with your friend, you learn that she wishes to have a career in marketing because she believes the
potential for economic growth is basically unlimited, and she will have a happy and prosperous life. Your
friend espouses which environmental worldview?
a. environmental wisdom
b. stewardship
c. economic succession
d. planetary management
e. planetary intrinsic
value

39. Which of the following beliefs does not characterize an environmental-wisdom worldview?
a. Human ingenuity can fix any problems we face.
b. Earth has limited resources.
c. We are part of, and totally dependent on, nature.
d. Our success depends on learning how nature sustains itself.

40. Which of these ideas is an important component of environmental literacy?
a. Natural capital is expendable

b. Ecological footprints of the more- developed world are balanced by those of the less-developed
world.
c. Ecological tipping points are irreversible and should not be crossed
d. Ecological tipping points can be balanced by reforestation and restoration efforts
e. gloom-and-doom pessimism in the critical evaluation of experts and leaders

TOP: 17-5 HOW CAN WE LIVE MORE SUSTAINABLY?
41. You have a lively discussion about environmental issues with a fellow student in your class. This
student tells you that her family has purchased a bio-diesel fuel generator and uses it to produce fuel for the
family vehicles. They collect used cooking oil from local fast-food restaurants to supply the raw materials for
this process. This demonstrates an understanding of which key topics of environmental literacy?
a. Pollution prevention and waste reduction
b Renewable energy resources
.
c. Environmentally sustainable economic systems
d Environmental worldviews
.

42. All of the following are elements of the Sustainability Eight except:
a. Reduce car use.
b. Buy or grow organic food.
c. Use a car for two years while it runs well, and then discard it for a newer
model.
d. Reduce meat consumption.
e. Buy locally grown food.

43. The concept of affluent people learning to live with less than what they are accustomed to is known
as
a. demographic equilibrium
b. demographic sufficiency
c. voluntary simplicity
d. affluenza
e. affluent regression

44. Which of the following is one of the human activities with the greatest harmful impact on the
environment?
a. Food production
b. Transportation
c. Overall resource use
d. Home energy use
e. All of the above

45. You would like to live more simply and lightly on the earth, and are keeping this in mind as you
consider some additions to your wardrobe. What is the best choice of the following options?
a. You decide to purchase a sweater from an outdoor clothing company that is rather pricey, but
donates a share of its profits to several environmental groups.
b. You decide to purchase a sweater from Macy’s that is on sale, and is marked down $40. You will
use the $40 for the cost of a membership in an environmental group.
c. You decide to purchase a sweater from a clothing company that uses sustainable methods in
acquiring the materials for their clothing.
d. You decide to purchase a sweater from an internet-based company that employs women in
developing countries to make the sweaters.
e. You decide to forego the new sweater, and try to make do with what you have for at least another
year.

TRUE/FALSE
1. Stewardship is based on an idea that nature exists for all species alike and our success depends on
how well we manage the Earth and nature.

2. Blind technological optimism could be a trait of someone with a planetary management worldview.

3. The majority of neoclassical economists adopt a lifestyle of voluntary simplicity.

4. The cap-and-trade approach to pollution reduction means a permit holder not using its entire
allocation can save credits for future expansion.

5. Exaggeration has been a problem for the con side of environmental arguments, but never the pro side.

6. Biosphere II would have been a successful and valuable experiment if the enclosure had not been
invaded by an ant species.

7. One of the first goals for someone who seeks environmental literacy is to develop a respect or
reverence for all life.

8. The Sustainability Dozen is a list of the worst polluting compounds used on the planet today.

9. Technological advances can always be relied upon to provide solutions to our environmental
problems.

10. Natural capital refers to the physical and mental talents of humans.

11. Environmental economists take a middle of the road stance in the debate about economic growth
being sustainable.

12. The genuine progress indicator, or GPI, takes into account the harmful environmental and social costs
of all transactions.

13. Ecotaxes would tax pollution.

14. The CEO of a large carpet company has switched to leasing rather than selling carpets. This action
supports the idea of a service-flow economy.

15. A potential budget for funding total earth restoration and solving social problems is less than half the
annual U.S. military budget per year.

16. While improving environmental quality and striving for environmental sustainability is worthwhile
and admirable, it is not viable in the job market or financial investment world.

17. The humility principle advises us to be humble in the face of natural systems.

COMPLETION
1. A(n)____________________ worldview assumes that humans are dominant over all other species and
should therefore make environmental decisions based on that dominance.
ANS: planetary management

2. The goods and services produced by the Earth's natural processes that support all life are called
____________________.
ANS:
natural capital
natural resources

3. The practice of including the estimated harmful environmental and health costs of resource use in the
market price of goods and services is called ____________________.
ANS: full-cost pricing

4. In recent years, most major U.S. federal environmental laws and regulations have been
____________________.
ANS: weakened

5. Machines, equipment, and factories are examples of ____________________ made from natural
resources.
ANS:
manufactured resources
manufactured capital

6. Taxes that discourage pollution are called ____________________.
ANS:
green taxes
eco-taxes

7. According to the environmental wisdom world view, humans are ____________________ the
community of life, and not separate from it.
ANS: part of
PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

8. Understanding and evaluating our environmental worldviews should be a(n) ____________________

process.
ANS: lifelong

9. Using the forces of the marketplace to encourage businesses to reduce pollution and resource waste is
called ____________________.
ANS: incentive-based regulation

10. Since 1992, ____________________ company has been leasing most of its copying machines as part
of its mission to provide document services rather than to sell photocopiers.
ANS: Xerox
PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

11. By 2009, the five countries that had met their Millennium Development Goals were
____________________, ____________________, ____________________, ____________________, and
____________________.
ANS: Denmark, Luxembourg, Sweden, Norway, the Netherlands

12. Muhammad Yunus and his Grameen Bank received the Nobel Peace Prize for pioneering the use of
____________________ to assist millions of people in lifting themselves out of poverty.
ANS: microcredit

13. A guiding principle for environmental sustainability that advises us not to make decisions that cannot
be reversed later if the decision turns out to be wrong is the ____________________.
ANS: reversibility principle

14. Sport hunting and mining are not allowed in national parks, but they are allowed in
____________________.
ANS: national recreation areas

15. In 1969, the first law addressing environmental concerns was passed in the United States. This law is
the ____________________.
ANS:
National Environmental Policy Act
NEPA
PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

16. Ecological and climate change ____________________ are irreversible and should never be crossed.
ANS: tipping points

MATCHING
Match the options below with this list. Use each response once, being careful to select the best
choice.
a. protects waterfowl f. hunting allowed
b CEO of eco-industrial company g Clean Air Act passed
. .
c. Green Seal h Clean Water Act passed
.
d Superfund passed i. limits pollution
.
e. oil extraction permitted j. no oil extraction
1. national recreation areas
2. 1972
3. 1970
4. national parks
5. resource use permit
6. 1980
7. Ray Anderson
8. national resource lands
9. eco-labeling
10. national wildlife refuge
1. ANS: F PTS: 1 DIF: Easy
2. ANS: H PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate
3. ANS: G PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate
4. ANS: J PTS: 1 DIF: Easy
5. ANS: I PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate
6. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate
8. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate

SHORT ANSWER
1. Assume that you are an elected official and a decision-maker in your local community. You are
responsible for allocating funding among several groups requesting funds from one particular account that
contains $10 million. The groups requesting this money are a local food bank that feeds homeless people, the
local parks department that wishes to create a greenbelt along a river that runs through downtown, a
conservation group that wishes to restore a section of the river, an elementary school that wishes to start
installing computers in some of its classrooms, a low-cost health clinic that provides family planning
information, and the local public works department wishing to establish a "tool library" for home mechanics.
How will you allocate this $10 million, and in what way will your allocation plan help us to bring
about a sustainability revolution?
ANS:
Answers will be variable, but a good overall response would be one that divides the pool of money
amongst all of the requesting entities. Each one can be tied to a long-term benefit for building a
sustainable society. For example:
Food bank—reducing poverty helps us have a healthier community and lower crime rates.
Parks/greenbelt—allows opportunities for the community to learn about nature, experience it, and
want to protect it.
Conservation group—the healthy river ecosystem helps to deliver clean water and also afford
opportunities for recreation, such as fishing, to families and community members.
Education—having an educated and informed populace is beneficial to the environment.
Family planning—valuable to the process of education about planning for children and understanding
the population issue.
Tool library—people can check-out power tools and garden and lawn equipment so they do not have
to purchase it, and can reduce consumption of products.

2. Is your campus a green campus (yes or no)? If it is a green campus, explain how. If it is not, explain
some things that could be done on your campus to convert it to being green.
ANS:
Answers will be variable. However, some common ways that campuses participate in the
environmental cause is to recycle all drink containers in the cafeteria, have recycling stations for
paper in computer labs and other classrooms or areas where students meet, not use Styrofoam food
containers in the food services areas, use solar panels, use cogeneration to heat classrooms, serve all-
meatless meals on certain days of the week, use hybrid or electric campus service vehicles, have
student environmental or conservation clubs, invite speakers that promote environmental ethics.

3. You have decided to write a letter to your U.S. Senator and request support for a particular
environmental issue that is coming before the Senate that you feel is beneficial. What guidelines from this
chapter might you use as you prepare your letter, which you hope will foster cooperation from your elected
official?
ANS:
Emphasize how important it is to prevent or minimize environmental problems rather than letting
them build up to critical levels. Suggest solutions that work in the marketplace to reduce or prevent
the impact of environmental problems. Offer ideas that result in a win-win solution rather than win-
lose or winner-take-all solution. Do not exaggerate or distort your position, and do not use gloom and
doom tactics.

NOTE: This question can be revised to focus on some important local or state environmental issue,
depending on where your school is located. Alternatively, you could change the question to focus on
an issue that has been discussed in class, e.g., the Arctic National Wildlife Refuge, mining reform,
water pollution, etc.
4. Explain how a common trap called paralysis by analysis can prevent us from moving beyond blame
and guilt so we can effectively address environmental challenges. Draw in ideas from this chapter and
previous chapters to support your answer.
ANS:
A common mental trap called paralysis by analysis refers to the idea that we should not take action on
environmental issues until we have the perfect worldview, necessary scientific information, or
potential solutions. The problem with this line of thinking is that we can pass the ecological tipping
point, where the harmful changes are no longer reversible, while we are waiting to hear about the
perfect solutions.
This would be analogous to an emergency room doctor doing nothing with a patient who is brought in
with a heart attack because research is ongoing and may change the way heart attacks are dealt with in
the future when we know more about them. In the meantime, the patient could die. If the doctor takes
action immediately, based on what is known at the time, the patient’s life may be saved.

5. Consider the Core Case Study from this chapter about the changes made in the city of Chattanooga,
Tennessee. Now, think about the city or town that you live in today. Is a similar transition something that is
needed in your home town or city? If it is needed, think carefully about three major changes that should take
place, and list them. For example, is it the transportation system, a particular industry, the local governing
body? Then, under each potential change, make a brief statement about what processes will make this change
occur. Is it city government, private citizens, public agencies, environmental groups?
If you feel your hometown or city has already addressed its environmental issues and is moving
toward a sustainable place to live, briefly explain why.
ANS:
Answers will vary among students. Grading can be based on whether or not the content of the answers
addresses challenges and solutions presented in the chapter.

ESSAY
1. List seven things you can do to influence environmental policy.
ANS:
1. Become informed on issues.
2. Make your views known at public hearings.
3. Make your views known to elected officials.
4. Contribute money and time to candidates for office.
5. Vote.
6. Run for office (especially at the local level).
7. Form or join NGOs seeking environmental changes.
8. Support election reform that reduces the influence of corporations and wealthy
individuals.

2. What are the four principles that conservation biologists, environmental ecologists, and some free-
market economists believe should govern use of public lands?
ANS:
1 They should be used primarily for protecting biodiversity, wildlife habitats, and ecosystems.
.
2 No one should receive government subsidies or tax breaks for using or extracting resources on
. public lands.
3 The American people deserve fair compensation for the use of their property.
.
4 All users or extractors of resources on public lands should be fully responsible for any
. environmental damage they cause.

3. Sustainable living, or green living, is now widely covered in the popular press and media. Do you
think this general coverage addresses the issue of environmental literacy? Why or why not? Provide specific
examples as part of your answer.
ANS:
Answers will vary, but here is a possible sample answer.
The popular press and media provide a superficial coverage of the real issues. To thoroughly
understand the underlying concepts about sustainable lifestyles, one must delve deeper into the issues,
challenges, and literature that thoroughly explain them.
For example, the popular press and media do not cover the particulars of such issues as soil
conservation, sustainable water use, human population dynamics, environmental history, the three
scientific principles of sustainability, or environmental ethics.

4. What lifestyle choice does Gandhi’s principle of enoughness address and how does it help the
environment?
ANS:
Gandhi’s principle of enoughness is the same basic concept as voluntary simplicity. This is a lifestyle
choice that many are making today as a way to reduce the overconsumption that characterizes affluent
people in developed countries. They seek to learn how to live with much less than they are used to, in
order to reduce their material possessions, have a smaller ecological footprint on the earth, and thus
work less and have more time to spend with loved ones and friends and neighbors.
The outcome of this lifestyle choice is less use and waste of valuable natural capital.


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CHAPTER 13—ENERGY

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate TOP: CORE CASE STUDY

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate

9. World oil supplies and prices are expected to be controlled long-term by

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate

11. Tar sands

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate

15. Liquefied petroleum gas consists of

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

when expressed as a percentage of emissions released by burning coal directly?

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult

23. The majority of commercial energy comes from

ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate

24. In 2009, the President of the United States

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate

a. Solar energy provides 90% of the household electricity.

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate

30. The home of the Rocky Mountain Institute demonstrates that

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate

ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

35. Current models of the gasoline-electric car

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

36. Superefficient and ultralight cars

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate

ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate

ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate

ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

42. It is risky for companies to invest in renewable energy because:

43. Advantages of solar heating include all of the following except:

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate

45. Which of the following is not an advantage of solar cells?

ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

47. Which of the following statements about PV cells is false?

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate

49. Which of the following is a disadvantage of hydropower?

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult

50. In order, the largest wind power producers are:

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate

54. Which of the following statements about geothermal power is false?

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult

ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult

ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate

57. A soft energy path is one that

ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate

ANS: T PTS: 1 DIF: Easy

16. An example of an energy efficient window is a window.