1101 10 Ftre

FIITJEE Talent Reward Exam - 2022
for students presently in Class 10 (going to 11) (Paper 1)

(25 December 2022)
Time: 3 Hours (9:00 am – 12:00 pm) CODE: 1011-1 Maximum Marks: 243
Instructions:
Caution: Class, Paper, Code as given above MUST be correctly marked on the answer OMR sheet
before attempting the paper. Wrong Class, Paper or Code will give wrong results.
1. You are advised to devote 60 Minutes on Section-I, 60 Minutes on Section-II and

60 Minutes on Section-III.
2. This Question paper consists of 3 sections. Marking scheme is given in table below:
Marking Scheme for each question

Section Subject Question no.
Correct answer Wrong answer
SECTION – I APTITUDE TEST 1 to 30 +3 0
PHYSICS (PART-A) 31 to 42 +2 0
SECTION – II CHEMISTRY (PART-B) 43 to 54 +2 0
MATHEMATICS (PART-C) 55 to 66 +2 0
SECTION – III CHEMISTRY (PART-B) 76 to 84 +3 0
3. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheet. The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your
rough work. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
4. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.
5. Before attempting paper write your OMR Answer Sheet No., Registration Number, Name and Test
Centre in the space provided below.
Note: Please check this Question Paper contains all 93 questions in serial order. If not so, exchange for the correct Question Paper.
OMR Answer Sheet No. : ____________________________________________________________
Registration Number : ____________________________________________________________
Name of the Candidate : ____________________________________________________________
Test Centre : ____________________________________________________________
FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph: 49283471/73/75
website: www.fiitjee.com
FTRE-2022-T1-C-X (Paper-1 & 2)-AT+PCM-2
Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – I
Section – I
APTITUDE TEST
This section contains 30 Multiple Choice Questions number 1 to 30. Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
1 1 1
1. The ratio of efficiencies of A, B and C is : : . If they completed a piece of work working
3 4 6
together, what fraction of the work was done by B?
4 1
(A) (B)
9 3
3 2
(C) (D)
13 13
2. A certain sum doubles in 7 years under compound interest, compounded annually. In how many
years will the sum becomes four times itself?
(A) 14 (B) 21
(C) 28 (D) None of these
3. This question is based on the different faces of a dice.
Which letter is on the opposite face of letter C?

(A) D (B) A
(C) B (D) C
4. Six persons, A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a circular table facing towards the centre but
not necessary in same order. C is sitting to the right of E and F is to the right of A. If B is sitting to
the left of D and A and C are sitting adjacent to each other, then who is sitting opposite D?
(A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) E
Space for Rough Work
5. Six friends – P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting around a hexagonal table facing towards the centre
but not necessary in same order. S is sitting adjacent to T and Q. Q is sitting to the left of U and P
is sitting to the right of R. Who among them is sitting opposite R?
(A) T (B) Q
(C) S (D) U
6. A student went to a class at quarter to ten. After 15 minutes his professor came who is late to the
class by 25 minutes. At what time should the class start?
(A) 9.25 (B) 9.35
(C) 9.40 (D) 9.30
7. Five children take part in a tournament. Each one has to play every other one. How many games
must they play?
(A) 8 (B) 30
(C) 10 (D) 24
8. A vendor has six baskets – A, B, C, D, E and F. A has 15 fruits, B has 25 fruits, C has 21 fruits, D
has 18 fruits, E has 30 fruits and F has 10 fruits. The fruits are either mangoes or oranges. If all
the fruits in one of these baskets are sold, then the number of mangoes left is thrice the number
of oranges left. Which basket is sold?
(A) F (B) D
(C) A (D) B
9. Manoj and Sachin are ranked 7th and 11th respectively from the top in a class of 31 students.
What will be their respective ranks from the bottom in the class?
(A) 20th and 24th (B) 24th and 20th
th st
(C) 25 and 21 (D) None of these
10. In the following question, select the alternative figure which is embedded in the given figure (x):
(x) (A) (B) (C) (D)
Directions (Q. 11 to 12): In each of the following questions, a number series is given with one term missing.
Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and replace the question mark in the given
series.
11. 61, 52, 63, 94, 46, ?

(A) 18 (B) 49
(C) 56 (D) 28
12. 521, 612, 343, 215, ?

(A) 729 (B) 927
(C) 930 (D) 972
13. In the given question, find out how many such pairs of letters are there in the given word each of
which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet.
CASTRAPHONE
(A) Three (B) Four
(C) Five (D) Six
14. A group of 240 persons consisting of teachers and students are travelling in a train. For every 15
students there is one teacher. The number of teachers are:
(A) 12 (B) 16
(C) 15 (D) 20
15. Which of the following is not a leap year?

(A) 2000 (B) 1600
(C) 2400 (D) 1900
Directions (Q. 16 to 18): In each of the following questions, a set of figures carrying certain numbers are
given. Assuming that the numbers in each set follow a similar pattern. Find the missing number in each
case.
16.
3 8 10 2 ? 1
6 56 90 2 20 0
(A) 0 (B) 3
(C) 5 (D) 7
17.
191
95 5
? 11
23
(A) 31 (B) 47
(C) 63 (D) 41
18. 6 5 3
7 8 7 4 7 5
219 65 ?
5 9 6 9 4 5
4 8 2
(A) 340 (B) 310
(C) 290 (D) 280
Directions (Q.19 to 22): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
K is the brother of X. Z is the son of X. P, the daughter of K, is married to N. G and X are sisters.
19. How is P related to G?

(A) Niece (B) Sister
(C) Daughter–in–law (D) Daughter
20. How is Z related to P?

(A) Cousin (B) Uncle
(C) Brother–in–Law (D) Maternal Uncle
21. How is N related to K?

(A) Son (B) Son–in–Law
(C) Nephew (D) Father–in–Law
22. How is G related to Z?

(A) Aunt (B) Sister
(C) Wife (D) Mother–in–Law
23. In the given question, three statements of numbers following same rules are given. Find the rule
and accordingly find the value of the number.
If 3 + 9 = 39, 6 + 3 = 27, 5 + 4 = 29, then 3 + 8 = ?
(A) 25 (B) 35
(C) 38 (D) 28
24. There are two mothers, two daughters, two fathers and two sons are in a meeting, how minimum
persons can be in this meeting?
(A) 9 (B) 8
(C) 7 (D) 6
25. A number belongs to set x if it is divisible by 4 or if it is a factor of 4 or if it has 4 as one of its digits or if
the sum of its digits is 4. Other numbers do not belong to x. How many numbers from 1 to 50 belong
to x?
(A) 18 (B) 22
(C) 26 (D) 30
26. Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to replace * sings and to balance the
following equation.
12 * 3 * 4 = 6 * 8 * 8
(A) +, ×, –, × (B) ×, +, –, ×
(C) ×, +, ×, – (D) ×, –, ×, +
27. Shyam walked 6 meters towards East, then took a right turn and walked a distance of 9 meters.
He then took a left turn and walked a distance of 6 meters. How far is he from the starting point?
(A) 15 meters (B) 21 meters
(C) 18 meters (D) can’t determined
Directions (Q. 28 to 29): In the matrices a letter can be represented first by its row number and followed by
its column number. For example, T is represented by 12, 24; and I by 57, 75, etc. In each of the questions
following matrices, identify one set of number pairs out of (A), (B), (C) and (D) which represents the given
word.
MATRIX-I MATRIX-II
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
0 B D E T O 5 M U I L R
1 D E T O B 6 U L M R I
2 E B O D T 7 I M R U L
3 T O B E D 8 L R U I M
4 O T D B E 9 R I L M U
28. Cell numbers 03, 22, 88, 97.

(A) BOIL (B) TOIL
(C) TOIE (D) DIME
29. Cell numbers 76, 57, 79, 33.

(A) MORE (B) RODE
(C) MILE (D) MITE
30. If DELHI can be coded as CCIDD, how would you code MEERUT?
(A) LCLNON (B) LCBNPN
(C) LCBPNN (D) LBCNPN
Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – II
Section – II
PHYSICS – (PART – A)
This part contains 12 Multiple Choice Questions number 31 to 42. Each question has 4
31. Substances whose atoms have more free electrons are called :
(A) Conductors (B) Insulators
(C) Electrolytes (D) Semi-conductors
32. A body can be negatively charged by

(A) Giving excess of electrons to it (B) Removing some electrons from it
(C) Giving some protons to it (D) Removing some neutrons from it
33. Substances whose atoms have no free electrons are called :

(A) Conductors (B) Insulators
(C) Electrolyte (D) Semiconductors
34. When a piece of aluminium wire of finite length is drawn through a series of dies to reduce its
diameter to half its original value, its resistance will become
(A) Two times (B) Four times
(C) Eight times (D) Sixteen times
35. In the absence of applied potential, the electric current flowing through a metallic wire is zero
because
(A) The electrons remain stationary
(B) The electrons are drifted in random direction with some speed
(C) The electrons move in same direction with a speed equal to that of velocity of light
(D) Electrons and ions move in opposite direction
36. A uniform wire of resistance R is uniformly compressed along its length, until its radius becomes
n times the original radius. Now resistance of the wire becomes
R R
(A) 4 (B) 2
n n
R
(C) (D) nR
n
37. The value of I will be : I 2
(A) 1 amp (B) 2 amp

2 2
(C) 3 amp (D) 4 amp 1.5V 2
38. A straight wire of length 2 m is placed inside a uniform magnetic field of 2 Tesla. (Parallel to
magnetic field). Find the magnetic force acting on the wire.
(A) 4 N (B) zero
(C) 10 N (D) 15 N
39. Two lines of force due to a bar magnet

(A) Intersect at the neutral point
(B) Intersect near the poles of the magnet
(C) Intersect on the equatorial axis of the magnet
(D) Do not intersect at all
40. Field at the centre of a circular coil of radius r, through which a current I flows is
(A) Directly proportional to r (B) Inversely proportional to I
(C) Directly proportional to I (D) Directly proportional to I2
41. The right hand thumb rule is used to find

(A) force on a charged particle passing through the magnetic field
(B) force on a current carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field
(C) direction of induced current
(D) direction of B around a current carrying straight conductor
42. ____________ is used to make permanent magnets.

(A) Soft iron (B) Steel
(C) Nichrome (D) Copper
CHEMISTRY – (PART – B)
43. Which of the following oxide is amphoteric?

(A) Na2O (B) Al2O3
(C) SO3 (D) P2O5
– +
44. The size of species Cl, Cl and Cl decreases as
(A) Cl > Cl+ > Cl– (B) Cl+ > Cl– > Cl
– +
(C) Cl > Cl > Cl (D) Cl– > Cl > Cl+
45. Which of the following elements is most metallic?

(A) C (B) Pb
(C) Si (D) Sn
46. HNO3 acts as

(A) Acid (B) Oxidizing agent
(C) Reducing agent (D) Both (A) and (B)
47. An example of solution of acid in acid is

(A) Brine (B) Vinegar
(C) Aquaregia (D) Milk of magnesia
48. The pH of 10–8 M NaOH is

(A) 6 (B) 7
(C) 8 (D) Greater than 7
49. The most ductile among the following is

(A) Sodium (B) Iron
(C) Copper (D) Gold
50. The reaction of potassium in water leads to the formation of

(A) K2O (B) KO2
(C) KOH (D) K(OH)2
51. The common ion that is produced by all Arrhenius acids in aqueous solution is:
(A) H+ (B) OH–
–
(C) Cl (D) O2–
52. The redox reactions are examples of

(A) Physical change (B) Chemical change
(C) Exothermic change (D) Both (B) and (C)
53. The reaction Na + Hg  Na – Hg is,

(A) Oxidation (B) Reduction
(C) Precipitation (D) None of these
54. The pair of acidic oxides are :

(A) SO2, MgO (B) MgO, Al2O3
(C) SO2, CO (D) CO2, NO2
MATHEMATICS – (PART – C)
55. If A = 11  7  4 , and B = 20 , then which of the following is true?

(A) A > B (B) A < B
(C) A = B (D) can not be determined
15 2 2
56. If R(x) is the remainder obtained by dividing x – 2x + 3x + 1 by (x – 1), evaluate R(2)
(A) 4 (B) 32767
(C) 7 (D) – 3
57. ABC is right angled at B. If AB = 4, BC = 7, find value of BD, where D lies on AC and BD  AC.
21 3
(A) (B)
65 65
11 28
(C) (D)
65 65
58. If cos – sin = k, then cos3 – sin3 = ?

k3  k 3k  k 3
(A) (B)
2 2
k  3k 2  k
3
k  3k 2
3
(C) (D)
2 2
59. A(– 2, 3), B(1, 4), C(–1, – 2) are co-ordinates of vertices of ABC. P, Q, R are points on line
segments AB, BC and CA respectively such that AP : PB = BQ : QC = CR : RA = 113 : 74. Find
the co-ordinates of centroid of PQR.
 57 63   130 112 
(A)  ,  (B)  , 
 187 187   187 187 
 210 114 
(C)  ,  (D) none of these
 187 187 
60. A number x is selected at random from the first nine natural numbers. A number y is selected
from the set {50, 51, …., 56}. What is the probability that x + y is even?
1 31
(A) (B)
2 63
32 11
(C) (D)
63 21
61. Let p be a prime number other than 2. How many natural numbers are there which are less than
2p2 and co-prime to 2p2?
p  p  1 2
(A) (B) 2p – 4p
2
2 p2  3p
(C) p – p (D)
3
2
62. Let p(x) = kx + ax + k. If p(x) gives a remainder of – 3 on division by x, and a remainder of ‘a’ on
division by (x + k), value of ‘a’ = ?
(A) 15 (B) 12
(C) 9 (D) 6
63. If sinx = cos2x, then x must lie in

(A) either I or II quadrant (B) either III or II quadrant
(C) either II or IV quadrant (D) either I or III quadrant
64. Let lines 1,  2 ,  3 intersect at A, B and C.  1 is given by 2x – y = 3,  2 is given by x + 3y = 4, and

 3 is given by 3x – y = 2. How many points exist in the XY plane which are equidistant from  1 ,
 2 and  3 ?
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 4 (D) infinite
65. Let p(1), p(2), p(3), ….., p(6) denote the respective probabilities of obtaining 1, 2, 3, ….., 6 on
throw of a six faced unfair die. Given that p(1) : p(2) : p(3) : p(4) : p(5) : p(6) = 1 : 2 : 3 : 4 : 5 : 6,
calculate the probability of obtaining an odd number on a single throw of dice.
3 5
(A) (B)
7 7
2 4
(C) (D)
7 7
66. The line 18x – 17y + 341 = 0 does not pass through which of the following quadrants?
(A) first (B) second
(C) third (D) fourth
Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – III
Section – III
This part contains 9 Multiple Choice Questions number 67 to 75. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
67. Magnetic field due to current carrying conductor depends on

(A) current flowing through conductor (B) distance from the conductor
(C) length of the conductor (D) both (A) and (B)
68. Image formed by a convex mirror is (when object is real)

(A) Virtual (B) Real
(C) Enlarged (D) Inverted
69. The frequency of alternating current supplied in India is

(A) 50 Hz (B) 60 Hz
(C) 100 Hz (D) 220 Hz
70. A plane mirror is approaching you at a speed of 17 cm/s. You can see your image in it. At what
speed will your image approach you
(A) 17 cm/s (B) 5 cm/s
(C) 34 cm/s (D) 15 cm/s
71. A light bulb is placed between two plane mirrors inclined at an angle of 60°. The number of
images formed are
(A) 6 (B) 2
(C) 5 (D) 4
72. A ray of light incidents on a plane mirror at an angle of 30°. The angle of reflection is
(A) 30° (B) 60°
(C) 90° (D) 120°
73. A ray of light is incidenting normally on a plane mirror. The angle of reflection will be
(A) 0° (B) 90°
(C) Will not be reflected (D) None of these
74. A plane mirror produces a magnification of

(A) – 1 (B) + 1
(C) Zero (D) Between 0 and 
75. What is the minimum height of plane mirror is required to see entire image of an object of height
70 cm?
(A) 35 cm (B) 70 cm
(C) 105 cm (D) 1 m
76. The oxidation number of nitrogen in nitrate ion is

(A) + 3 (B) + 5
(C) – 3 (D) – 5
77. The neutralization and precipitation reactions comes under the category of
(A) Redox and single displacement reactions
(B) Redox and double displacement reactions
(C) Non-Redox and single displacement reactions
(D) Non-Redox and double displacement reactions
78. The basic nature of oxides

(A) Decreases from left to right in a period (B) Increases from left to right in a period
(C) Increases from bottom to top in a group (D) Decreases from top to bottom in a group
79. The pH of basic solutions is (at 25C)

(A) = 7 (B) Less than 7
(C) Greater than 7 (D) Both (A) and (C)
80. BeCl2, AlCl3, LiCl are all examples of

(A) Ionic chlorides (B) Covalent chlorides
(C) Ionic chlorides with covalent character (D) None of these
81. Ionic compounds have

(A) High Melting and Boiling points (B) Have fixed Melting and Boiling points
(C) Have strong electrostatic forces (D) All of these
82. Balancing of reactions follow

(A) Law of conservation of mass (B) Law of constant proportion
(C) Law of multiple proportion (D) Law of reciprocal proportion
83. When a solution with pH = 6 is mixed in 500 mL water, the resulting solution will have a pH.
(A) Greater than 6 (B) Less than 6
(C) Less than 7 (D) Both (A) and (C)
84. The solvay process is used for the production of

(A) Caustic soda (B) Washing soda
(C) Baking soda (D) Both (B) and (C)
27
85. Which of the following can be the values of q if terminates after 4 places?
125q
(A) 80 (B) 160
(C) 400 (D) 1000
86. In the figure, AB || CD. ar(ABF) = 4 cm2, ar(DEF) = 1 cm2, A B

DE 3
 . Find area of ABCD.
EC 2
(A) 9 cm
2 F
(B) 10 cm2
(C) 11 cm2
(D) 12 cm2 D E C
87. Let (3x – 1)3 – (2x + 1)4(3x + 1)3 + (–2x + 4)5 = ax7 + bx6 + cx5 + …. + h. Find the value of a + b +
c+d+e+f+g+h
(A) – 5144 (B) 1278
(C) – 4550 (D) 3113
88. Given that p(A) = 0.4, p(B) = 0.5, p(A  B) = 0.8, find the value of p(A  B ).
(A) 0.1 (B) 0.2
(C) 0.3 (D) 0.4
89. If secx + secy = 2, evaluate sin2x + tan2y – cos2x.

1
(A) – 1 (B)
2
2 2
(C) – (D)
3 3
90. Let ABCD be a parallelogram such that A is (– 1, 2), B is (– 2, 3) and C is (1, – 3). Find area of
ABCD
2 5 2
(A) 3 unit (B) unit
2
7 2 2
(C) unit (D) 4 unit
2
91. A two digit natural number is selected at random. What is the probability that product of its digits
is greater than 50?
1 1
(A) (B)
10 9
1 9
(C) (D)
8 100
92. Consider the graph of the polynomial p(x) y

= ax3 + bx2 + cx + d. Judging from the
graph, which of the following must be B

true?
(A) d < 0
(B) d > 0 A C D x
 
(C) a < 0
(D) can not be determined
93. Consider the number N = 14916253649…….9611024. How many digits are there in N?
(A) 96 (B) 90
(C) 85 (D) 84

ANSWER KEY (T1)
1. B 2. A 3. B 4. A
5. C 6. B 7. C 8. C
9. C 10. C 11. A 12. B
13. D 14. C 15. D 16. C
17. B 18. B 19. A 20. A
21. B 22. A 23. B 24. D
25. C 26. C 27. A 28. B
29. C 30. B 31. A 32. A
33. B 34. D 35. B 36. A
37. A 38. B 39. D 40. C
41. D 42. B 43. B 44. D
45. B 46. D 47. C 48. D
49. D 50. C 51. A 52. D
53. D 54. D 55. A 56. C
57. D 58. B 59. D 60. B
61. C 62. A 63. A 64. C
65. A 66. D 67. D 68. A
69. A 70. C 71. C 72. A
73. A 74. B 75. A 76. B
77. D 78. A 79. C 80. B
81. D 82. A 83. D 84. D
85. A 86. C 87. A 88. C
89. A 90. A 91. B 92. B
93. C

(25 December 2022)
Time: 3 Hours (2:00 pm – 5:00 pm) CODE: 1011-2 Maximum Marks: 234
Instructions:
Caution: Class, Paper, Code as given above MUST be correctly marked on the answer OMR sheet
before attempting the paper. Wrong Class, Paper or Code will give wrong results.
1. You are advised to devote 60 Minutes on Section-I, 60 Minutes on Section-II and
60 Minutes on Section-III.
2. This Question paper consists of 3 sections. Marking scheme is given in table below:
Marking Scheme for each
Section Subject Question no. question
Correct answer Wrong answer
PHYSICS (PART-A) 1 to 10 +3 –1
SECTION – I CHEMISTRY (PART-B) 11 to 20 +3 –1
MATHEMATICS (PART-C) 21 to 30 +3 –1
PHYSICS (PART-A) 31 to 36 +3 –1
CHEMISTRY (PART-B) 37 to 42 +3 –1
MATHEMATICS (PART-C) 43 to 48 +3 –1
SECTION – II
PHYSICS (PART-D) 49 to 50 +3 0
CHEMISTRY (PART-E) 51 to 52 +3 0
MATHEMATICS (PART-F) 53 to 54 +3 0
CHEMISTRY (PART-B) 60 to 64 +3 0
SECTION – III
PHYSICS (PART-D) 70 to 72 +3 0
CHEMISTRY (PART-E) 73 to 75 +3 0
MATHEMATICS (PART-F) 76 to 78 +3 0
3. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheet. The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your
rough work. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
4. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.
5. Before attempting paper writes your OMR Answer Sheet No., Registration Number, Name and Test
Centre in the space provided below.
6. See method of marking of bubbles at the back of cover page for question no. 49 to 54 and 70 to
78.
Note: Please check this Question Paper contains all 78 questions in serial order. If not so, exchange for the correct Question Paper.
OMR Answer Sheet No. : ____________________________________________________________
Registration Number : ____________________________________________________________
Name of the Candidate : ____________________________________________________________
Test Centre : ____________________________________________________________
For questions 49 to 54 and 70 to 78

Numerical based questions single digit answer 0 to 9
Example 1:
If answer is 6.
Correct method:
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Example 2:
If answer is 2.
Correct method:
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – I
Section – I
1. A plane mirror is approaching you at a speed of 10 cm/s. You can see your image in it. At what
speed will your image approach you
(A) 10 cm/s (B) 5 cm/s
(C) 20 cm/s (D) 15 cm/s
2. A watch shows time as 3 : 25 when seen through a mirror, time appeared will be
(A) 8 : 35 (B) 9 : 35
(C) 7 : 35 (D) 8 : 25
3. A beam of light is converging towards a point I on a screen. A plane glass plate whose thickness
in the direction of the beam =t, refractive index = µ, is introduced in the path of the beam, The
convergence point is shifted by
 1  1
(A) t 1   away (B) t 1   away
 μ  μ
 1  1
(C) t 1   nearer (D) t 1   nearer
 μ  μ
4. Magnetic field inside the solenoid is __________.

(A) radial (B) uniform
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) circular
5. The magnetic lines of force inside a bar magnet

(A) Are from south-pole to north-pole of the magnet
(B) Are from north-pole to south-pole of the magnet
(C) Do not exist
(D) Depend upon the area of cross-section of the bar magnet
6. A charge +q is moving upwards vertically. It enters a magnetic field directed to the north. The
force on the charged will be towards.
(A) north (B) south
(C) west (D) east
7. The current in wire is directed towards east and the wire is placed in magnetic field directed
towards north. The force on the wire is
(A) vertically upwards (B) vertically downwards
(C) due south (D) due east
8. How many minimum number of 2Ω resistance can be connected to have an effective resistance
of 1.5Ω
(A) 3 (B) 2
(C) 6 (D) 4
9. When a wire of resistance R is stretched so that its radius becomes half, so the new resistance
will be
(A) 16 R (B) 4 R
(C) 2 R (D) 0
10. At 25° C, the resistance of a given wire of length 1 m and diameter 0.5 mm is 25 Ω. What is the
resistivity of the material of the wire at that temperature ?
(A) 4.9  10 6 m (B) 4.9  10 7 m
(C) 9.8  107 m (D) None of these
11. The hydrated copper sulphate crystals are

(A) White in colour (B) Blue in colour
(C) Colourless (D) Brown in colour
12. The oxidation state of Fe in ferrous and ferric ion respectively is

(A) +1, +2 (B) +2, +3
(C) +2, +4 (D) +3, +4
13. Decomposition reactions are generally

(A) Endothermic (B) Exothermic
(C) All redox in nature (D) None of these
14. Molarity of a solution relates the

(A) Volume of solute and volume of solvent (B) Moles of solute and solvent
(C) Moles of solution and mass of solution (D) Volume of solution and moles of solute
15. Which of the following is NOT an Arrhenius Base

(A) Fe(OH)3 (B) NaOH
(C) B(OH)3 (D) Cu(OH)2
16. Salt is formed when

(A) An acid is diluted in water (B) A Base is mixed in alcohol
(C) Acids and Bases are mixed together (D) Bases are diluted in water
17. Conjugate Base of a strong acid is

(A) A weak Base (B) A strong Base
(C) Neutral (D) A weak acid
18. The atomic size from top to bottom in a group increases due to
(A) Increase in number of valence electrons (B) Increase in number of valence shells
(C) Addition of new shells (D) Addition of protons
19. The ionic compounds are soluble in

(A) Water (B) Ionic solvents
(C) Polar solvents (D) All of these
20. The units of ionic product of water (kW ) are

–1 –1 –2 –2
(A) mol L (B) mol L
(C) mol–2 L–1 (D) mol2 L–2
21. A and B are two irrational numbers, which are not conjugates of each other. Then A + B?
(A) is always rational (B) is always irrational
(C) may be rational or irrational (D) is always transcendental
3 4 5 6
22. What is the degree of the following polynomial: p(x) = (2x – 1) (2 – x) + (3 – x) – (2x – 1)
(A) 7 (B) 6
(C) 5 (D) 4
23. In the given figure, PQ || BC and ar(APQ) = ar( PQCB), then find A
AP : PB = ?
(A) 2 – 1 (B) 2 + 1
1
(C) 2 (D) P Q
2
B C
24. For some value of x in the fourth quadrant, 1 + sinx + sin2x attains its minimum possible value.
For the same value of x, what is the exact value of 1 + cosx + cos2x?
1 2 3 72 3
(A) (B)
4 4
32 3
(C) (D) 3
4
25. Let P(h, k) be the co-ordinates of a point in the third quadrant, lying on the line x – 2y = 1, and at
a unit distance from the origin. Evaluate h + k.
1
(A) 1 (B) 
5
1 7
(C) (D) –
5 5
26. A dice is thrown twice. Let first number recorded be x and second number recorded be y. What is
probability that |x – y|  2?
2 4
(A) (B)
9 9
7 2
(C) (D)
18 3
27. Let p(x) = ax 2+ bx + c such that all its co-efficient are distinct natural numbers. The leading co-
efficient of p(x) is 2. If p(1) = 6 and p(-1) = 0, evaluate p(2)
(A) 9 (B) 11
(C) 13 (D) 15
28. In the figure, BAD = ADC = AED = 90°. If DE = 9 cm, BE = 4 cm, A B

then EC = ? 4
(A) 12 cm (B) 6 cm
9 E
27
(C) cm (D) 97 cm
2
D C
29. In ABC, AB = 4 cm, AC = 6 cm and A = 60°. Then area of ABC = ?

(A) 3 cm2 (B) 3 3 cm2
(C) 6 3 cm2 (D) 6 cm2
30. Find the equation of a line such that if we take any point P on the line, then PA = PB, where A is
the co-ordinate (1, – 1) and B is (– 2, 1)
(A) 3x + 2y = 4 (B) 4y – 6x = 3
(C) x – 3y = 5 (D) 2y + 3x = 6
Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – II

Section – II
31. A square wire of side 1 cm is placed perpendicular to the principle axis of a concave mirror of
focal length 15 cm at a distance of 20 cm. The area enclosed by the image of the wire is
2 2
(A) 4 cm (B) 6 cm
2
(C) 2 cm (D) 9 cm2
32. The field of view is maximum for

(A) Plane mirror (B) Concave mirror
(C) Convex mirror (D) Cylindrical mirror
33. A circular coil A of radius r carries current I. Another circular coil B of radius 2r carries current of I.
The magnetic fields at the centres of the circular coils are in the ratio of
(A) 3 : 1 (B) 4 : 1
(C) 1 : 1 (D) 2 : 1
34. Three resistances of 4 Ω each are connected as shown in A

figure. If the point D divides the resistance into two equal
halves, the resistance between point A and D will be
(A) 12 Ω (B) 6 Ω
(C) 3 Ω (D) 1/3 Ω 4Ω D 4Ω
B C
4Ω
35. In the circuit shown, the point ‘B’ is earthed. The potential at 5Ω 7Ω B
the point ‘A’ is A
10Ω
(A) 14 V (B) 24 V
(C) 26 V (D) 50 V 50V C
3Ω
E D
36. Resistance of rod is 1 . It is bent in the form of square. What is the resistance across adjacent
corners?
(A) 1  (B) 3 
3 3
(C)  (D) 
16 4
37. Select the incorrect statement

(A) Neutralisation is an endothermic reaction
(B) The decomposition of vegetable matter into compost is an exothermic reaction
(C) Decomposition of CaCO3 is an endothermic reaction
(D) Oxidation is loss of electrons
38. Which of the following is observed on mixing sodium sulphate with barium chloride solution?
(A) Barium undergoes reduction
(B) Formation of white ppt occurs because of NaCl formation
(C) It is a double displacement reaction
(D) All of these
39. Select the correct one

(A) Normal salts are acidic in nature
(B) POP has the property of setting into a hard mass on wetting with water
(C) Salts are non electrovalent compounds
(D) All are correct
40. An acid in water gives

(A) Hydronium ions (B) Hydride ions
(C) Hydroxyl ions (D) Both (A) & (B)
41. Select the wrong statement

(A) Ionic compounds are soluble in water
(B) Ionic solids are non-conductors
(C) Ionic compounds are directional
(D) Ionic bond is formed between a metal and a non-metal
42. Select the incorrect one

(A) Covalent compound is directional
(B) Covalent compound shows slow molecular reaction
(C) Covalent compound is a good conductor of electricity
(D) PCl5 does not obey octet rule
43. A coin is tossed three times. What is the probability that the first toss and the last toss yield
different outputs?
5 1
(A) (B)
8 2
3 1
(C) (D)
8 4
2
44. How many triplets of prime numbers (a, b, c) exist such that a + b = c, if a < b?
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) infinitely many
45. For which of the following values of x is sinx > cosx?

(A) 200° (B) 230°
(C) 260° (D) 310°
46. Find the remainder when 232 – 1 is divided by 1023

(A) 763 (B) 3
(C) 243 (D) 73
1 1 1
47. x and y are integers such that   . How many such pairs of (x, y) exist?
x y 2
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5
48. Let A be the set of all natural numbers less than 1000 which are perfect squares. Let B be the set
of all natural numbers less than 1000 which are perfect cubes. A number is picked at random
from (A  B). What is the probability that the number chosen is even?
1 18
(A) (B)
2 37
19 19
(C) (D)
40 37
PHYSICS – (PART – D)
This part contains 2 Numerical Based Questions number 49 to 50. Each question has Single
Digit Answer 0 to 9.
49. A wire of resistance 12 ohm is bent in the form a circle. The effective resistance (in ohm) between
two points on the diametrically opposite sides is
5
50. A beam of ions with velocity 2×10 m/s enters normally into a uniform magnetic field of 0.04T. If
q 
the specific charge of ion  is 5  106 c/kg  . Find the radius of the circular path.
m 
CHEMISTRY – (PART – E)
51. From one H2O molecule how many intermolecular H-bonding are formed
52. Calculate the sum of bond pair and lone pair in N2 molecule.
MATHEMATICS – (PART – F)
53. N is a natural number less than 50 such that 5N has 6 factors. How many possible values of N
exist?
54. C1 is a circle with centre (1, – 2) and radius 1 unit. C2 is a circle with centre (– 2, 2) and radius 2
units. Let P be any point on C1 and Q be any point on C2. What is the minimum possible distance
between P and Q?
Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – III
Section – III
55. An object of length 6 cm is placed on the principle axis of a concave mirror of focal length f at a
distance of 4f. The length of the image will be
(A) 2 cm (B) 12 cm
(C) 4 cm (D) 1.2 cm
56. A concave mirror is used to focus the image of a flower on a nearby well 120 cm from the flower.
If a lateral magnification of 16 is desired, the distance of the flower from the mirror should be
(A) 8 cm (B) 12 cm
(C) 80 cm (D) 120 cm
57. The forces existing between two parallel current carrying conductors is F. If the current in each
conductor is doubled, then the value of force will be
(A) 2F (B) 4F
(C) 5F (D) F/2
58. A charged particle is moved along a magnetic field line. The magnetic force on the particle is
(A) along its velocity (B) opposite to its velocity
(C) perpendicular to its velocity (D) zero
59. What is the equivalent resistance between A and B

A C
2 3 B
(A) R (B) R 2R 2R D R
3 2
R
(C) (D) 2R
2
60. The properties of metals to withstand tensile stress is called

(A) Malleability (B) Ductility
(C) Lustre (D) Sonorosity
61. Melting point of magnesium halides decreases in the order. Choose correct option :
(A) MgF2 > MgCl2 > MgBr2 > MgI2 (B) MgI2 > MgBr2 > MgCl2 > MgF2
(C) MgCl2 > MgBr2 > MgF2 > MgI2 (D) MgCl2 > MgBr2 > MgI2 > MgF2
62. Which one of the following ions is paramagnetic?

+ 2+
(A) Ag (B) Fe
+ 2+
(C) K (D) Mg
63. The correct order of second IE of C, N, O and F are in the order

(A) F > O > N > C (B) C > N > O > F
(C) O > N > F > C (D) O > F > N > C
64. The first ionization enthalpy of Na, Mg, Al and Si are in the order of
(A) Na < Mg > Al < Si (B) Na > Mg > Al > Si
(C) Na < Mg < Al > Si (D) Na > Mg > Al < Si
65. In the figure, QAP = PAC, BAD = CAD, BD = 2 and CD = 3 QP

(QAB and EAP are straight lines). Find the value of BE.
(A) 10 (B) 5
A
(C) 8 (D) 6
E B 2 D 3 C
66. How many co-ordinates (x, y) lie on the line 3x – 7y = 12 such that both x and y are integers, and
– 50 < x < 50?
(A) 13 (B) 14
(C) 15 (D) 16
67. Let p(x) = bx + a, and g(x) = ax + b, if a  b, and p(g(1)) = g(p(1)), evaluate p(1)
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) – 1 (D) 2
68. 8 coins are tossed together, What is the probability of obtaining at least 2 heads?
15 31
(A) (B)
16 32
247 249
(C) (D)
256 256
69. If sinx + cosx = sinx. cosx, evaluate sin3x + cos3x.

(A) 2  1 (B) 1 – 2
(C) 2  2 (D) 2 – 2
PHYSICS – (PART – D)
70. A current of 3A is flowing in a linear conductor having a length of 40 cm. The conductor is placed
in a magnetic field of strength 500 gauss and makes an angle of 300 with the direction of the field.
It experiences a force of magnitude X × 10–2 N
71. An object is placed on the principal axis of a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm at a distance
8.0 cm from the pole. The image is formed at a distance of N×10cm from the pole of mirror
determine N.
72. A symmetric double convex lens is cut in two equal parts by a plane containing the principal axis.
If the power of the original lens was 4 D, the power of a divided lens will be ---------- D
CHEMISTRY – (PART – E)
73. At 25°C pOH of 103M NaOH solution is
74. Oxidation state of Cr in CrO5 is
75. The sum of basicities of H3PO2, H3PO3 and H3PO4 is

MATHEMATICS – (PART – F)
76. Let k be the co-efficient of x8 in (x2 – 1)(x2 – 2)(x2 – 3)(x2 – 4)(x2 – 5). Find the sum of digits of |k|.
77. Among 22, 33, 44, 55, ……, 1010, how many numbers have odd number of positive factors?
78. From a well shuffled deck of 52 cards, Uday picks up a card at random. From the remaining
cards, Majnu then picks up a card at random. If the probability that both Uday and Majnu got a
face card is given by p/q, where p and q are co-prime, what is the unit’s digit of (q – p)?

ANSWER KEY (T1)
1. C 2. A 3. A 4. B
5. A 6. C 7. A 8. C
9. A 10. D 11. B 12. B
13. A 14. D 15. C 16. C
17. A 18. C 19. D 20. D
21. C 22. A 23. B 24. B
25. D 26. D 27. D 28. C
29. C 30. B 31. D 32. C
33. D 34. C 35. B 36. C
37. A 38. C 39. B 40. A
41. C 42. C 43. B 44. B
45. A 46. B 47. D 48. B
49. 3 50. 1 51. 4 52. 5
53. 6 54. 2 55. A 56. A
57. B 58. D 59. C 60. B
61. A 62. B 63. D 64. A
65. A 66. B 67. B 68. C
69. C 70. 3 71. 4 72. 4
73. 3 74. 6 75. 6 76. 6
77. 6 78. 0

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FIITJEE Talent Reward Exam - 2022

for students presently in Class 10 (going to 11) (Paper 1)

1. You are advised to devote 60 Minutes on Section-I, 60 Minutes on Section-II and

Marking Scheme for each question

OMR Answer Sheet No. : ____________________________________________________________

Registration Number : ____________________________________________________________

Name of the Candidate : ____________________________________________________________

Test Centre : ____________________________________________________________

Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – I

3. This question is based on the different faces of a dice.

Which letter is on the opposite face of letter C?

(x) (A) (B) (C) (D)

Space for Rough Work

11. 61, 52, 63, 94, 46, ?

12. 521, 612, 343, 215, ?

15. Which of the following is not a leap year?

19. How is P related to G?

20. How is Z related to P?

21. How is N related to K?

22. How is G related to Z?

28. Cell numbers 03, 22, 88, 97.

29. Cell numbers 76, 57, 79, 33.

Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – II

32. A body can be negatively charged by

33. Substances whose atoms have no free electrons are called :

37. The value of I will be : I 2

(A) 1 amp (B) 2 amp

39. Two lines of force due to a bar magnet

41. The right hand thumb rule is used to find

42. ____________ is used to make permanent magnets.

43. Which of the following oxide is amphoteric?

45. Which of the following elements is most metallic?

46. HNO3 acts as

47. An example of solution of acid in acid is

48. The pH of 10–8 M NaOH is

49. The most ductile among the following is

50. The reaction of potassium in water leads to the formation of

52. The redox reactions are examples of

53. The reaction Na + Hg  Na – Hg is,

54. The pair of acidic oxides are :

55. If A = 11  7  4 , and B = 20 , then which of the following is true?

58. If cos – sin = k, then cos3 – sin3 = ?

63. If sinx = cos2x, then x must lie in

64. Let lines 1,  2 ,  3 intersect at A, B and C.  1 is given by 2x – y = 3,  2 is given by x + 3y = 4, and

Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – III

67. Magnetic field due to current carrying conductor depends on

68. Image formed by a convex mirror is (when object is real)

69. The frequency of alternating current supplied in India is

74. A plane mirror produces a magnification of

76. The oxidation number of nitrogen in nitrate ion is

78. The basic nature of oxides

79. The pH of basic solutions is (at 25C)

80. BeCl2, AlCl3, LiCl are all examples of

81. Ionic compounds have

82. Balancing of reactions follow

84. The solvay process is used for the production of

86. In the figure, AB || CD. ar(ABF) = 4 cm2, ar(DEF) = 1 cm2, A B