A

18-07-2021

JEE (Main)-2022
TEST No. 1

(XII Studying Students)

1. Read each question carefully.
2. It is mandatory to use Blue/Black Ballpoint PEN to darken the
appropriate circle in the answer sheet.
3. Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
4. Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet.
5. Do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on answer
sheet.
6. Student cannot use log tables and calculators or any other
material in the examination hall.
7. Before attempting the question paper, student should ensure
that the test paper contains all pages and no page is missing.
8. Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator,
candidate should check that Roll No., Centre Code and Date of
Birth have been filled and marked correctly.
9. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over, the
answer sheet is to be returned to the invigilator.
10. There are three parts in the question paper A, B and C
consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics having
30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each part has
two sections.
Note : It is compulsory to fill Roll No. and Test Booklet Code on answer sheet, otherwise your answer sheet will not be considered.
(i) Section-I : This section contains 20 multiple choice
questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and
(4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Each question
carries 4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.
(ii) Section-II : This section contains 10 questions. Attempt any
five questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a
NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the correct
numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off
to the second decimal place; e.g. 06.25, 07.00, –00.33,
–00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using the mouse and the on-screen
virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the
answer (Applicable for Online Test). Each question
carries 4 marks for correct answer and there is no negative
marking for wrong answer.
 Test No. 1

TOPICS OF THE TEST

Physics Electric Charges and Field, Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance

Chemistry The Solid State, Solution, Electrochemistry

Mathematics Relations and Functions, Inverse Trigonometric Functions

 Test - 1 (Code-A) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2022

Time : 3 Hrs MM: 300

TEST - 1
PART - A (PHYSICS)
SECTION - I 3. A disc of radius R has uniform surface charge
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains density σ. The electric potential at its centre is
20 multiple choice questions. Each question has
4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE σR σR
(1) (2)
is correct. ε0 2ε0

 E σR σR
1. If electric field in a region is given by E = 20 x 2 iˆ, (3) (4)
a 3ε 0 πε0

then charge contained in a cubical surface of 4. A long wire having uniform linear charge density
side length a as shown will be
λ is bent in the shape as shown in figure. The
electric field at point P is

λ
(1)
4πε0 R
(1) 16E0 a 2 ε0
λ
(2)
(2) 2E0 a 2 ε0 2πε0 R

(3) 3E0 a 2 ε0 λ
(3)
πε0 R
(4) 7E0 a 2 ε0
(4) Zero
2. A capacitor of capacitance C is charged to
potential V and another capacitor of capacitance 5. Three large identical conducting plates are
2C is charged to potential 2V. Then they are arranged as shown in figure. If charges Q, 2Q
joined across each other with plates of same and Q are given to these conductors, then
polarity together. The amount of heat generated charge on surface 3 is
after connecting the two capacitors together is

CV 2
(1)
4

CV 2
(2)
3

2CV 2
(3)
3 (1) +Q (2) –Q

3CV 2 Q 3Q
(4) (3) − (4) +
4 2 2
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6. In the circuit shown below the potential 9. In circuit shown in the figure, if the switch S is
difference between points A and B, (VA – VB) shifted from the position (1) to (2), then heat loss
is is

10 −10 5CV 2 7CV 2

(1) V (2) V (1) (2)
3 3 2 2

9CV 2
20 −20 (3) 3CV2 (4)
(3) V (4) V 2
3 3
10. Find equivalent capacitance of infinite ladder
7. A charge q is placed at point P as shown inside
circuit across points A and B.
a spherical conducting shell of radius R and
having charge Q. The electric potential at surface
of shell is

(1) 12 µF (2) 10 µF

(3) 5 µF (4) 8.33 µF

11. An electric dipole of dipole moment P is in stable

q Q+q
(1) (2) equilibrium position in uniform electric field E. If
4πε0 R 4πε0 R
it is rotated slowly to unstable equilibrium
Q−q Q + 2q position then the work done by agent is
(3) (4)
4πε0 R 4πε0 R
(1) PE (2) Zero
8. A solid hemisphere of radius R has uniform
(3) 2PE (4) –PE
volume charge density ρ. The potential at point
12. A fixed ring of radius R has uniformly distributed
P as shown is
charge Q. A particle (m, –q) is at centre of ring.
It is displaced slightly along the axis of ring and
released. Time period of oscillation is

πε0 mR 2 ε0 mR 3
ρR 2 ρR 2 (1) (2)
(1) (2) 16Qq 8πQq
ε0 4ε 0

ρR 2 ρR 2 8π3 ε0 mR 3 16π3 ε0 mR 3
(3) (4) (3) (4)
6ε 0 3ε 0 Qq Qq
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 Test - 1 (Code-A) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2022

13. A spherical cavity of radius R/2 is made inside a
fixed uniformly charged non-conducting sphere
of radius R and volume charge density ρ as
shown. A particle of mass m and charge –q is
released from rest from centre of cavity. Time
taken by it to hit the surface of cavity is
16. Two long wires having linear charge densities λ1
and λ2 are placed perpendicular to each other at
separation r. The electrostatic force of interaction
between them is proportional to rn. Then value of
n is
(1) 0 (2) 1

(3) 2 (4) –1

17. Five identical conducting plates each of area A

are placed parallel to each other as shown at
equal and small separation d. Equivalent
3qm 6ε 0 m
(1) (2) capacitance between A and B is
2ε0 ρ ρq

ε0 m 3ε 0 m
(3) (4)
2ρq ρq

14. Space between plates of a parallel plate

capacitor is filled with dielectric slabs as shown
in figure. The equivalent capacitance is
ε0 A 3 ε0 A
(1) (2)
d 2 d

2ε0 A 2 ε0 A
(3) (4)
d 3 d

18. A block of mass m and charge q is placed on

smooth horizontal surface and released from
rest. Horizontal uniform electric field E is present
as shown perpendicular to the wall. If collision
with the wall is elastic then time period of periodic
9ε 0 A 3ε 0 A
(1) (2) motion is
2d d

15ε0 A 6ε 0 A
(3) (4)
2d d

15. A short dipole with dipole moment piˆ is kept at

origin. The electric field at point P(0, 0, d) will
be

piˆ − piˆ 2ml 8ml

(1) 2
(2) 3 (1) (2)
4πε0 d 4πε0 d qE qE

piˆ − piˆ 4ml ml

(3) 3
(4) (3) (4)
2πε0 d 2πε0 d 3 qE 2qE
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 All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2022 Test - 1 (Code-A)

19. Dimensional formula of ε0 (permittivity of free 23. A uniformly charged semi-infinite wire having
space) is linear charge density λ = 2 × 10–10 C/m is placed

(1) [M–1L–2T–4A–2] (2) [ML–2T–1A2] along x-axis as shown. Find electric flux (in SI
units) through a ring of radius r = 10 cm centred
(3) [M–1L–3T–3A2] (4) [M–1L–3T4A2]
at origin O and lying in y-z plane.
20. Three point charges q, 2q and –3q are arranged
as shown in figure. The electric dipole moment
of the system is

24. A non-conducting ring of radius R = 10 cm has

θ
linear charge density
= λ 2cos   × 10 −10 C/m
2
as shown in figure. The potential at the centre of
(1) 3q (2) 5q
ring (in volt) is ____
(3) 3q (4) 7q

SECTION - II

Numerical Value Type Questions: This section

contains 10 questions. In Section II, attempt any five
questions out of 10. The answer to each question is 25. A simple pendulum is suspended under gravity
a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the oscillates in vertical plane with time period 2 s.
correct numerical value (in decimal notation, The bob is given charge q and an electric field E
truncated/rounded‐off to the second decimal place; is switched on in horizontal direction. If
e.g. 06.25, 07.00, −00.33, −00.30, 30.27, −27.30) qE = 3mg, then new time period in seconds is
using the mouse and the on-screen virtual ______(Given, 103/4 = 5.62)
numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the
26. A hollow conducting sphere of radius 15 cm is
answer.
charged such that the potential on its surface is
21. The electric potential energy of a uniformly 25 volts. The potential at a distance of 10 cm
charged non-conducting solid sphere of radius from the centre in volts is _____
10 cm and charge 10 µC in joules is _____.
27. Two point charges, each of charge +Q, are
22. Electric field in a region is given as placed at positions (0, 20) and (0, –20) along

= 2iˆ + 3 ˆj N/C . The potential
E difference y-axis. The position on positive x-axis where
(VA – VB) between points A(1, –2) and B(3, –4) in electric field magnitude is maximum is given by
volts is _____ (xm, 0). The value of xm is _____

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 Test - 1 (Code-A) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2022

28. Electric field in a region is radially outward from at corner of cube is V, then potential at its centre

a point and its magnitude varies as E = αr2, will be nV. Find value of n.

where α is a positive constant, and r is distance 30. The equivalent capacitance of the arrangement
from fixed point. The electric charge enclosed by across the points A and B in µF is ______
a sphere of radius R centred at the point is given
by Q = nε0αR4. Find the value of n. (Given
π = 3.14)

29. A solid non-conducting cube of side length a is

uniformly charged with density ρ. If the potential

PART - B (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION - I 33. An aqueous solution containing non-volatile

Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains solute has a freezing point of –0.2°C. What is the
20 multiple choice questions. Each question has osmotic pressure of this solution at 300 K, if
4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE density of solution is 1.01 g cm–3? Given Kf(H2O)
is correct.
= 2 K kg mol–1. Solute is non-electrolyte and has
W molar mass of 100 g mol–1.
31. 20%   of compound-A in benzene has same
w
(1) 2.46 atm (2) 10.92 atm
W
boiling point as 45%   of compound-B in (3) 15.73 atm (4) 5.37 atm
w
34. If the ratio of mole fraction of two components A
same solvent. If molar mass of A is 20 g mol–1
and B in vapour phase is YA : YB = 2 : 3 and in the
then molar mass of B is (compound-A is non-
liquid phase is XA : XB = 3 : 2. Then the ratio of
electrolyte but compound-B undergoes 100%
PAo : PBo is
dimerization at the given concentration).
(1) 4 : 9 (2) 8 : 3
(1) 22.5 g mol–1
(3) 2 : 3 (4) 2 : 5
(2) 32.73 g mol–1
35. Relative lowering in vapour pressure (RLVP) of
(3) 65.45 g mol–1
acetone solution containing NaI is 0.2. How much
(4) 45.00 g mol–1 acetone is further needed to be added to the
32. Total number of voids present in 38 mg of osmium same solution to make the RLVP to 0.1? Initial

metal which crystallizes as hcp lattice is? (Atomic solution contains 10 mole acetone, assume 100%
°
mass of Os is 190 amu, NA = 6 × 1023) ionization of NaI and PAcetone = 200 Torr at 300 K.

(1) 1.2 × 1020 (1) 22.5 mole

(2) 3.6 × 1020 (2) 12.5 mole

(3) 2.4 × 1020 (3) 10 mole

(4) 20 mole
(4) 6 × 1020
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 All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2022 Test - 1 (Code-A)

36. Which one of the following graphs is correct

representation of reduction potential of H+/H2 vs.
concentration of H+? (Pressure of H2(g) is (R) HCl + H2O (iii)
maintained at 1 bar)

(1) P → (iii), Q → (i), R → (ii)

(1)
(2) P → (ii), Q → (i), R → (iii)

(3) P → (i), Q → (iii), R → (ii)

(4) P → (ii), Q → (iii), R → (i)

38. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct

(2) about corrosion?

(i) Corrosion of Fe can be prevented by coating

with bisphenol

(ii) Green coating on bronze is due to corrosion

of Zn

(3) (iii) Corrosion is an electrochemical

phenomenon

(iv) By providing a sacrificial electrode like Mg or

Zn, corrosion of iron can be prevented

(1) (i), (ii) and (iii) only

(4) (2) (ii) and (iv) only

(3) (iii) and (iv) only

(4) (i), (iii) and (iv) only

37. Match the characteristic graph for solutions given
39. 2.49 L of CO2 is passed into excess of lime water
in column-I with column-II.
solution at 1 bar and 27°C. The precipitate is
Column-I Column-II
filtered and dried and dissolved in 1 L of 0.2 M
HCl solution and heated slightly. What is the
osmotic pressure of the resulting solution at
(P) (i) 27°C? (R = 0.083 L. bar. K–1 mol–1) [Assuming all
CO2 in reaction 1 has been converted into ppt
and all CO2 from reaction 2 escaped into
atmoshere]
(1) 7.47 bar

(Q) (ii) (2) 11.20 bar

(3) 13.44 bar

(4) 2.69 bar

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 Test - 1 (Code-A) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2022

40. What is the mass of Ag deposited on cathode 43. Match the unit cell parameters given in column-II
when 0.1 M, 100 ml AgNO3 solution is subjected with the crystal systems given in column-I.
to electrolysis using Ag electrodes for 2 hr with
Column-I Column-II
482.5 milliampere current? Efficiency of current is
(crystal systems) (axial angles)
100% (Atomic mass of Ag is 108 amu)
(A) Triclinic (i) α = β = γ = 90°
(1) 3.888 g
(B) Monoclinic (ii) α = β = γ ≠ 90°
(2) 1.944 g
(C) Trigonal (iii) α = γ = 90°, β ≠ 90°
(3) 15.552 g
(D) Orthorhombic (iv) α ≠ β ≠ γ ≠ 90°
(4) No silver is deposited
(1) (A) → (ii), (B) → (iii), (C) → (iv), (D) → (i)
41. Coordination number of atom in top most layer of
(2) (A) → (iv), (B) → (iii), (C) → (i), (D) → (ii)
hcp lattice structure is
(3) (A) → (iii), (B) → (iv), (C) → (ii), (D) → (i)
(1) 12 (2) 4
(3) 6 (4) 9 (4) (A) → (iv), (B) → (iii), (C) → (ii), (D) → (i)

42. Select the correct graph of molar conductivity vs 44. Select the correct statement(s) from following set

volume of titrant in the given titration. (i) TiO, CrO2 and ReO3 behaves like metals
(ii) ReO3 is like metallic copper in its
conductivity and appearance
(iii) VO, VO2, VO3 and TiO3 shows metallic or
(1)
insulating properties depending on the
temperature
(1) Only (i) (2) Only (i) and (ii)
(3) Only (i) and (iii) (4) (i), (ii) and (iii)
45. A metal forms fcc lattice structure and atoms from
(2)
the shaded plane are removed. If di is initial
density and df is final density then the value of
df − di
is ______ [Assuming no change in the
di

edge length of unit cell during the removal of

(3) atoms]

(4) 15 8
(1) (2)
32 6
17 15
(3) (4)
32 8
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46. Two volatile liquids A and B have vapour 50. Which of the following compound(s) show
pressures of 222 Torr and 444 Torr respectively dislocation defects?
in an ideal binary solution at 80°C. What is the (i) ZnS (ii) AgCl
vapour pressures of pure liquid A if vapour
(iii) AgBr (iv) AgI
pressure of pure liquid B is 555 Torr, at 80°C?
(1) Only (iii) (2) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(1) 666 Torr (2) 1110 torr
(3) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (4) Only (i) and (ii)
(3) 888 Torr (4) 777 Torr
47. Calculate the emf of the following cell at 25°C. SECTION - II
Pt, H2 H2SO4 NaCl, AgCl Ag Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
1bar 0.1M 0.1M contains 10 questions. In Section II, attempt any five
questions out of 10. The answer to each question is
Given : KSP(AgCl) = 1 × 10–10, E° = 0.80
Ag+ /Ag a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the
2.303 RT correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
volt, = 0.06
F truncated/rounded‐off to the second decimal place;

(1) 0.211 volt (2) 0.302 volt e.g. 06.25, 07.00, −00.33, −00.30, 30.27, −27.30)
using the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric
(3) 0.602 volt (4) 0.8 volt
keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.
48. Which of the following chemical species is(are)
not an electrical conductor(s)?
(i) CCl4(s)
(ii) I2(s) 51.
(iii) MgO(s)
(iv) Quartz
(1) Only (i), (ii) and (iii) Consider the solutions given below with
(2) Only (i), (ii) and (iv) mentioned concentrations and identify P and Q.
(3) Only (i), (iii) and (iv) P is the number of solutions having characteristic

(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) of “sol-1” and Q is the number of solutions having
P
49. For strong electrolytes, ΛM increases slowly with characteristics of “sol-2”. Then value is
Q
dilution and can be represented by
_______. Given Kf = 2 kg K mol–1. Assume all
o
ΛM =ΛM −A C electrolytes undergo complete ionization.
Which of the following pair of salts have the same
(i) 0.5 molal urea solution
value of A for both the salts at a given
(ii) 0.5 molal NaCl solution
temperature in a given solvent.

(1) NaCl, Na2SO4 (iii) 0.5 molal K3[Fe(CN)6] solution

(2) CaCl2, AlCl3 (iv) 0.1 molal Ca3(PO4)2 solution

(3) KCl, CaSO4 1

(v) molal CaCl2 solution
(4) MgCl2, [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 6
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52. At 25°C the change in reduction potential of

MnO−4 / Mn2 + half cell is x when pH of solution
changes from 1 to 6, keeping the concentration of
all other chemical species as 1 M. Then the value
2.303 RT
of |x| in V is _______. (Given: = 0.06 )
F
53. 0.5 moles of AlCl3 is dissolved in 100 g of solvent-
57. An alloy is made by mixing metal A with metal B.
X. The boiling point of solution is 202°C. When
Originally metal A forms FCC lattice structure.
0.1 kg of non-volatile solute Y is dissolved in 1 kg
When metal B is added, alternate corners and
of solvent-X, the boiling point of solution is
200.1°C. Solute Y undergoes dimerization in alternate face centres are replaced by metal B. If

solvent-X and percentage of dimerization is 80.
What is the molar mass of solute Y in g mol–1?
(Boiling point of pure solvent-X is 200°C. AlCl3
undergoes complete dissociation in solvent-X).
54. A crystal of A2O is Na2O type solid with density of
1000 kg m–3. What is the nearest distance
between two A+ ions in Å? (Molar mass of A2O is
76.8 g mol–1, NA = 6 × 1023)
55. To oxidize each Cr3+ ion to Cr2O72− ion in acidic
medium needs x × 10–20 Coulombs of charge. The
value of x is _______. (Nearest integer)
the empirical formula of the alloy is AxBy then
x + y _______.
58. There is 7.6% increase in total volume, when 23.9
mL CHCl3 (d = 1.5 g cm–3) is mixed with 115.5 mL
CCl4 (d = 1.6 g cm–3). What is the molarity of
CHCl3 in the resulting solution, in mol L–1? (To the
nearest integer)
59. What is the ratio of distance of 3rd nearest
neighbour to 2nd nearest neighbour in body
centered cubic lattice? ( )
2 = 1.41

56. Change in reduction potential of Cr3+/Cr is plotted
against the change in concentration of Cr3+
the following graph is obtained. Then the value of
E° 3 + × slope × 100 in volt2 is ____. Given
Cr /Cr
60. 15 mol m–3 aqueous solution of NaCl has a
and conductance of 1.5 mS when measured in a
conductivity cell with a cell constant of 1.5 cm–1.
The molar conductivity in mS m2 mol–1 of this

2.303 RT solution is _____.

= 0.06.
F

PART - C (MATHEMATICS)
SECTION - I 1 − 5 1 + 5 
 
(1)  , 
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains  2
 2 
20 multiple choice questions. Each question has
4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE  1− 5 1+ 5 
(2)  , 
 2 2 
is correct. 

61. Let  1− 5   1+ 5 
(3)  −∞,  ∪  , ∞
 2   2 
 π  
f ( x ) cot −1( x 2 − 2ax + a + 1).
f : R →  0,  ,=
 2 
1 − 5 
If f(x) is surjective function, then a ∈ (4)  
 2 
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62. Let f : R – {0, 1} → R, satisfies 67. If x1 and x2 are two values of x satisfying the
 1 equation |x – 1| = 2[x] – 3{x}, where x1 < x2, then
log10 | x | for all x ∈ R − {0, 1} ,
f ( x ) + f 1 −  =
 x the value of 2sin–1(sinx1) + 4tan–1(tanx2) is equal
then the value of log10 (1001) − f (1001) is equal to to

(1) log3(1001) (1) 2(7 – 2π) (2) 2(2π − 7)

(2) 3 11
(3) −π (4) 14
(3) 2 4

(4) Zero 68. Let f : [0, 1] → [–1, 1] and g : [–1, 1] → [0, 2] be

63. If f : R → R is a function satisfying f(x)(f 2(x) + two functions such that g is injective and gof :

9x2/3) = 27 – x2, then which of the following [0, 1] → [0, 2] is surjective. Then

statement is incorrect? (1) f must be injective but need not be surjective

(1) sin–1(sinf(1)) = π – 2 (2) f must be surjective but need not be injective
(2) f(8) = 1 (3) f must be bijective
(3) Range of f(x) is (–∞, 3]
(4) f must be constant function
(4) Graph of y = f(x) is symmetric about y-axis
69. The range of the function f : R → R,
64. Let R be relation defined on Z (set of all integers)
x 2 + 1 − 3x
such that R = {(x, y): x2020 + y2 = 2y, x, y ∈ Z}, then f (x) = is
x2 + 1 + x
(1) Domain of R is {0, 1}
(1) (0, ∞) (2) (–1, ∞)
(2) Domain of R is {–1, 0}
(3) (–∞, –1) (4) (–1, 1)
(3) Range of R is {0, 1}

(4) Range of R is {0, 1, 2} 70. Let g(x) = f(x) – 1. If f(x) + f(1 – x) = 2 ∀x ∈ R,

then the graph of y = g(x) is symmetric about
2 3
65. The range of the function y = 2{ x } − { x } − is 1
4 (1) Origin (2) The line x =
2
… (where {.} denotes the fractional part function)
1 
(3) The point (1, 0) (4) The point  , 0 
 1 1  1 2 
(1)  − ,  (2) 0, 
 4 4  2
71. If f is a function such that
 1 1 1 1+ f (x)
(3) 0,  (4)  ,  f (=
x + a) ∀x ∈ R , then which of the
 4 4 2  1− f (x)
66. The fundamental period of the function following is correct?

 x −π  x −π (1) f(x)f(x + 2a) = 1

=f ( x ) 4cos4  2 
− 2cos   is
 4π   2π 2  (2) f(x) is periodic function with period 4a
3 2
(1) 7π (2) 2π (3) f(x + a)⋅f(x – a) = 1

(3) 2π3 (4) 3π2 (4) f(x – 2a)⋅f(x + 2a) = 1

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 Test - 1 (Code-A) All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2022

72. If f(x) is a non-constant continuous function such 76. If f(x) = x11 + x9 – x7 + x3 + 1 and f(sin–1(sin8)) =
that f(x + y)⋅f(x – y) = (f(x)⋅f(y))2, then which of the α, where α is a constant, then f(tan–1(tan8)) is
equal to
following is correct?
(1) α (2) α – 3
(1) f(0) = 2
(3) α + 3 (4) 2 – α
(2) f is an even function
77. Equation of the image of the line
n 2 +1 x + y = sin–1(a6 + 1) + cos–1(a4 + 1) – tan–1(a2 + 1),
(3) f (nx ) (f ( x ))
= , n ∈N
a ∈ R about x-axis is given by
(4) f is an odd function
π
(1) x – y = 0 (2) x − y =
73. If R be a relation ‘<’ from A = {1, 2, 3, 4} to 2
B = {1, 3, 5} i.e. (a, b) ∈ R ⇔ a < b, then R o R −1 π
(3) x − y =π (4) x − y =
4
is

(1) {(1, 3), (1, 5), (2, 3), (3, 5), (4, 5)}  2x   1− x2 
78. Let f ( x ) = sin−1  , g ( x ) = cos−1  
 1+ x2   1+ x2
(2) {(3, 1), (5, 1), (3, 2), (5, 2), (5, 3), (5, 4)}  

(3) {(3, 3), (3, 5), (5, 3), (5, 5)}  2x 

and h( x ) = tan−1   . If x ∈ (–1, 1), then a
 1− x2 
(4) {(3, 3), (3, 4), (4, 5)}
π
solution of the equation f(x) + g(x) + h(x) = is
74. Let R = {(1, 3), (4, 2), (2, 4), (2, 3), (3, 1)} be a 2
relation on the set A = {1, 2, 3, 4}. The relation R 1 1
(1) (2) −
is 3 3
(1) Reflexive
(3) 2 − 3 (4) 1 − 3
(2) Transitive
79. If the ordered pairs (x, y) of positive integers
(3) Not symmetric x and y satisfying the equation tan–1x + cot–1y
(4) A function = tan–13 are represented as points A and B in
cartesian plane, then distance between points
75. Consider the following statements. A and B is
Statement 1 : If R = {(a, b) ∈ N × N : a divides b (1) 26 (2) 6
in N}, then the relation R is reflexive and
(3) 90 (4) 82
symmetric but not transitive

Statement 2 : If A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} and  −1  1  −1  −1  

80. If a tan  cos   + tan 
=  ,
R = {(S1, S2) : S1, S2 are subsets of A, S1 ⊆ S2},  2  3 
then the relation R is not reflexive, not transitive π  −1    3
=b sin  − sin−1    and c = cos  tan−1  ,
and not symmetric 3  2   4

Which of the statements are correct? a2

then the value of is
b+c
(1) 1 only
27
(2) 2 only (1) (2) 5
5
(3) Both 1 and 2
5 4 +1
(3) (4)
(4) Neither 1 nor 2 27 5 3
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 All India Aakash Test Series for JEE (Main)-2022 Test - 1 (Code-A)

84. If the equation (a – 2)(x – [x])2 + 2(x – [x]) + a2 = 0

SECTION - II
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
contains 10 questions. In Section II, attempt any five
questions out of 10. The answer to each question is
a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the
correct numerical value (in decimal
truncated/rounded‐off to the second decimal place;
e.g. 06.25, 07.00, −00.33, −00.30, 30.27, −27.30)
using the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric
keypad in the place designated to enter the answer
81. The number of integers in the domain of the
function
 3
=f ( x ) log10  log|sin x| ( x 2 − 8 x + 23) −
 log2 | sin x | 
is
82. Let f : R → R, satisfying f(x + y) + f(x – y) =
2(x2 + y2) for all x and y then f(10) – f(5) is equal
to
has no integral solution and has exactly one
solution in (2, 3), then number of integral values
of a is (where [.] denotes greatest integer
function)
85. Range of f(x) = 2cos–1x + 3sin–1x + 4tan–1x is
notation,
[k1 π, k2π], then k1 + k2 is equal to
86. If f(x2 – 6x + 6) + f(x2 – 4x + 4) = 2x ∀x ∈ R , then
value of f(–3) + f(9) is equal to
87. The number of solutions of the equation
x2 – 3[sinx] = 3, where [.] denotes greatest
integer function, is

 88. The value of the angle tan–1(tan65° – 2tan 40°)
in degrees, (as tan–1(tan x°) = x°) is equal
to
89. Let cos–1(x) + cos–1(2x) + cos–1(3x) = π. If x
satisfies the cubic ax3 + bx2 + cx –1 = 0, then the
value of a + b + c is equal to

83. If x ∈ ( ) 1
2, 3 is such that   = { x 2 } , then the
x
90. Number of integral ordered pairs (x, y) satisfying
 1  1  1
the equation tan−1   + tan−1   =tan−1   ,
number of possible values of x is equal to (Where x y  10 
{.} denotes the fractional part function) is

  

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