MHT - CET 2023 Sample Papers

MHT-CET 2023
Physics
Q. 1 An electric dipole is put in north-south direction in a sphere filled with water. Which statement is
correct
Option 1:
Electric flux is coming towards sphere
Option 2:
Electric flux is coming out of sphere
0
Option 3:
36
Electric flux entering into sphere and leaving the sphere are same
Option 4:
Water does not permit electric flux to enter into sphere
Correct Answer:
S
Electric flux entering into sphere and leaving the sphere are same
R
Solution:
E
As we have learned
Flux may be Positive Negative or zero -

E
For closed body.

R
- wherein
A
C
In electric dipole, the flux coming out from positive charge is equal to the flux coming in at negative charge i.e. total
charge on sphere = 0. From Gauss law, total flux passing through the sphere = 0.
MHT CET Mock Test Series

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Q. 2 The time period of oscillation of a pendulum is T1. Now the pendulum is kept in a lift moving
downward with acceleration a. The time period of pendulum in lift is T2. If the ratio
, Then acceleration is (g=10 m/s2).
Option 1:
5 m/s2
Option 2:
0.2 m/s2
0
Option 3:
10 m/s2
36
Option 4:
3.33 m/s2
Correct Answer:
3.33 m/s2
S
R
Solution:
Time period of simple pendulum accelerating downward -
E
E
- wherein
R
length of pendulum
A
acceleration due to gravity.
acceleration of pendulum.
C

Q. 3 in the following whch is not a basic elements of communication system book diagram.
Option 1:
transmitter
Option 2:
receiver
Option 3:
0
channel
36
Option 4:
amplifier
Correct Answer:
amplifier
S
Solution:
R
as we learn
E
Transmitter -
A device which make an incoming message signal suitable for transmission through a channel and
E
subsequent reception.
-
R
A
C
Q. 4 . Two charges and placed at apart form an electric dipole. It

is placed in a uniform electric field of intensity . The electric dipole moment is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:

Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
Dipole moment -
Its S.I unit is C-m
0
and its cgs unit is Debye ( )
36
Dipole moment p = q (2l)
S
R
E
E
Q. 5 A given resistor has colour scheme red,violet,green and gold.Then tolerance value of this
resistor is
R
Option 1:
A
C
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt

Tolerance of Gold -
To remember the sequence of colour code -
B B ROY Great Britain Very Good Wife
- wherein
0
36
S
R
E
Its tolerance value

E
R
Q. 6 In which of the following case particle is said to be in motion

A
Option 1:
C
A box lying on table
Option 2:
A bus running on the road.
Option 3:
A man sitting in a stationary bus.
Option 4:
A monkey sitting on a tree.
Correct Answer:
A bus running on the road.

Solution:
As we have learnt,
Motion -
Motion is known as change in position of object with time.
- wherein
e.g A moving bus.
0
In A, C and D object is at rest.
36
Q. 7 In Bohr model of hydrogen atom, orbital frequency of the electron depends on the principal
quantum number as :
Option 1:
S
R
E
Option 2:
E
Option 3:
R
A
Option 4:
C
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learn
Orbital Frequency of electron -

- wherein
Orbital Frequency of electron -
0
36
Q. 8 Two particles A and B of charge q, after being accelerated through the same potential
difference, enters a region of uniform magentic field and makes circular path of radii 2 units
and 3 units respectively. The ratio of mass of A to that of B is:
Option 1:
S
R
E
Option 2:
E
Option 3:
R
A
Option 4:
C
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learn
Radius of charged particle -
-
Q. 9 A charge (– q) and another charge (+Q) are kept at two points A and B respectively. Keeping the
charge (+Q) fixed at B, the charge (– q) at A is moved to another point C such that ABC forms an
equilateral triangle of side l. The net work done in moving the charge (– q) is
Option 1:
Option 2:
0
36
Option 3:
Option 4: S
Zero
R
Correct Answer:
Zero
E
Solution:
As we leaned
E
R
Potential Difference -
A
-
C
Since

So
Q. 10 Which of the folowing is true about parallel combination of slab of equal length
(i) Temperature grdient across each slab is same
(ii) Net heat current will be sum of heat current through individual slabs
Option 1:
Only (i)
Option 2:
Only (ii)
0
Option 3:
Both (i) and (ii)
36
Option 4:
None of these
Correct Answer:
Both (i) and (ii)
S
R
Solution:
As we learn
E
Parallel Combination -
E
R
- wherein
A
C
Temperature gradient across each slab = is same.

Q. 11 For the given diagram Ampere law can be given as :
0
36
Option 1:
S
R
E
Option 2:
E
Option 3:
R
A
Option 4:
C
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learn
Ampere's Law -

- wherein
0
36
S
According to diagram
R
E
E
Correct option is 4
R
Q. 12 Below figures (1) and (2) represent lines of force. Which is correct statement
A
C
Option 1:
Figure (1) represents magnetic lines of force
Option 2:

Option 3:
Figure (1) represents electric lines of force
Option 4:
Both figure (1) and figure (2) represent magnetic lines of force
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learned
Electric lines of force -
0
The electric field in a region is represented by continious lines field line is an imaginary line along with a
36
Positive test charge will move if left free.
Magnetic lines of force always makes a closed loop

S
R
Q. 13 As shown in the figure magnetic field at point P will be equal to -(Here M is magnetic
moment of bar magnet)
E
E
R
A
C
Option 1:
Option 2:

Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learn
0
Magnetic Field at any general point due to bar magnet -
36
- S
R
Derivation
Correct option is 4.
E
E
Q. 14 Which one of the following graphs represents correctly the gravitational field intensity (I)
R
with distance (r) from the center of a uniform solid sphere of mass M and radius a?
A
Option 1:
C

Option 2:
Option 3:
0
36
Option 4:
S
R
E
E
R
Correct Answer:
A
C
Solution:
As we learn
Gravitational field intensity due to Uniform solid sphere -

Outside surface
0
* on the surface
36
- wherein
S
* Inside surface
R
E
E
R
A
C
If r< a then
Q. 15 If the gas is compressed suddenly and no heat is suplied from out side then specific heat of
gas is
Option 1:
Infinite

Option 2:
Zero
Option 3:
Equal to one
Option 4:
Less than one
Correct Answer:
Zero
Solution:
As we learn
0
If No Heat is supplied from outside(Delta Q=0) -
36
-
S
R
When gas is compressed suddenly
E
E
R
So,
A
C
Q. 16 The excess pressure inside a pherical drop of water is four times that of another drop. Then
their respective radius ratio is
Option 1:
Option 2:

Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
0
As we learn
36
Pressure Difference in Water Droplet -
- wherein
T- Temperature,
S
R
R- Radius
E
E
R
A
C
Q. 17 9 identical cells with emf 1V and internal resistance 1 are connected in a row and 6 such
rows are connected together in parallel connected across an external resistance of 3 . Then
potential difference across each cell is
Option 1:
Option 2:

Option 3:
1V
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt
Potential difference across each cell -
0
36
-
Current through circuit

S
R
m=6,n=9,r=1 ,R=3
E
E
The potential difference across the external resistor

R
P.D. across each cell

A
Q. 18 For earth revolving around the sun, which of the statement is true -
C
Option 1:
Sun is at rest with respect to the earth
Option 2:
Earth is at rest with respect to sun.
Option 3:
Earth is moving with respect to sun
Option 4:
All objects on earth are moving with respect to each other.

Correct Answer:
Earth is moving with respect to sun
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Relation between Rest and Motion -
Rest and motion are relative to each other.
- wherein
All passenger sitting inside moving bus are at rest with respect to one another. But all are appears to be
0
in motion
to a man standing outside the bus.
Sun and earth are moving with respect to each other.
36
S
Q. 19 An object is placed between two plane morriors inclined at an angle of 600 the number of
R
image formed are
E
E
Option 1:
2
R
Option 2:
A
Option 3:
C
Option 4:
5
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:
as we learn
Combination of two plane Mirror -
No. of image formed

a) If even number
Number of image =
b) If odd number
Number of image =
If object is placed on the angle bisector.
b) If odd number
0
Number of image =
36
If object is not placed on the angle bisector.
-
S
R
number of images=
E
Q. 20 If body given in a figure moves with constant velocity V through a distance 15m. Then find
workdone to move a body along incline plane:
E
R
A
C
Option 1:
1060 J
Option 2:
500J

Option 3:
1008J
Option 4:
400J
Correct Answer:
1060 J
Solution:
As we learn
Definition of work done by variable force -
0
36
- wherein
is variable force and is small displacement
S
R
here d = 15m,
E
E
R
A
Q. 21 A body of mass 0.3 kg is being pulled by a horizontal force P= 4 N. If body is just tending to
C
move then what is the value of resultant force exerted by surface on block.
Option 1:
8 N
Option 2:
0
Option 3:
5 N

Option 4:
6 N
Correct Answer:
5 N
Solution:
As we learn
Resultant Force Exerted by Surface on block -
0
36
S
R
S = Resultant force
E
Coefficient of friction
- wherein
E
If
R
S(will be minimum)
A
S = mg
C
In the given figure resultant force
for limiting case Fr = p
so

Q. 22 The vertical component of the earth's magnetic field is zero at a place where the angle of dip
is
Option 1:
0
Option 2:
45
0
Option 3:
60
36
Option 4:
90
Correct Answer: S
0
R
Solution:
As we have learned
E
Earth's Magnetic Field at Equator -

E
R
A
or
-
C
At equator of earth where the angle of dip is zero the vertical component of earth become zero
Q. 23 A resistor 40 , inductor of reactance 40 and capacitor of reactance 10 are connected in

series to an AC voltage source . The phase difference of the circuit is:

Option 1:
530
Option 2:
370
Option 3:
450
Option 4:
600
Correct Answer:
370
0
Solution:
As we learn
36
Phase difference -
S
R
-
E
E
R
A
Q. 24
C
For the study of vibration of composite string when joint is a Node ( N ) , It was found that
are the number of loops in two cases for the length of parts as
respectively . Then what is the ratio of linear density in two parts
Option 1:
Option 2:

Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
0
As we learned
Vibration of composite string when joint is a node (N) -
36
S
R
E
E
R
- wherein
A
are number of loops in two cases
are length of two parts

C
are linear density in two parts
Q. 25 Two spherical black bodies radiate the same power . If the radii of bodies are
with surface temperature respectively then the ratio of will be -

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
0
36
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learn
S
R
Radiant Power (P) -
E
It is defined as energy radiated per unit time.
-
E
R
A
Here
C
Q. 26 In which method heat transfer is based on gravitation -
Option 1:
Natural convection

Option 2:
Conduction
Option 3:
Radiation
Option 4:
Wave motion
Correct Answer:
Natural convection
Solution:
As we learn
0
Natural Convection -
36
This arise due to difference of densities at two places.
- wherein
Natural method of convection is by gravity.

S
R
E
Q. 27
For an ideal gas is equivalent to (p=Pressure, = density)
E
R
Option 1:
A
Option 2:
C
Option 3:
Option 4:

Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learned
Effect of pressure on speed of sound -
For ideal gas
0
36
- wherein
With change in pressure, the density also changes so pressure has no effect on speed of sound.
S
R
E
Q. 28 Which of the following curves correctly represents the variation of inductive reactance?
E
(F represent frequency)
R
Option 1:
A
C

Option 2:
0
Option 3:
36
S
R
E
E
Option 4:
R
A
C

Correct Answer:
Solution:
0
As we have learnt,
36
Graph -
S
R
- wherein
E
E
R
A
C
Q. 29 A wave is travelling with a velocity of 3000 ms-1 through a string of tension 16 N . If tension is
increased to 81 N, the velocity of wave is

Option 1:
6750
Option 2:
3750
Option 3:
1570
Option 4:
3000
Correct Answer:
6750
0
Solution:
Speed of wave on string
36
Tension in the string
S
R
linear mass density
E
E
R
A
C
Q. 30 The locus of the resultant of , is
Option 1:
ellipse
Option 2:
circle
Option 3:
straight line

Option 4:
parabola
Correct Answer:
ellipse
Solution:
As we have learnt
Composition of two SHM in perpendicular direction -
0
36
- wherein
Resultant equation
S
R
E
E
R
A
C
Q. 31 At a place if the earth's horizontal and vertical component of magnetic field are equal , then
the angle of dip will be:

Option 1:
300
Option 2:
900
Option 3:
450
Option 4:
00
Correct Answer:
450
0
Solution:
As we learn
36
Angle of Inclination or Dip -
It is the angle between the direction of intensity of total magnetic field of earth and a horizontal line in
the magnetic meridian. S
-
R
E
E
Here
R
So
A
Q. 32
C
The magnetic moment of a dimagnetic atom is
Option 1:
much greater than one
Option 2:
one
Option 3:
b/w zero and one

Option 4:
equal to zero
Correct Answer:
equal to zero
Solution:
Diamagnetic Substance -
The magnetic field lines are expelled by these substance. The magnetic moment of a dimagnetic atom is
zero.
0
36
S
R
E
E
R
A
Q. 33 An electric dipole of moment placed in a uniform electric field has minimum potential energy
C
when the angle between and is
Option 1:
zero
Option 2:
Option 3:

Option 4:
Correct Answer:
zero
Solution:
As we have learned
Work done in rotation -
0
-
36
It has minimum value when = 0o
i.e.
S
R
E
Q. 34 Intensity of sound in dB if its intensity in is is ?
(
E
R
Option 1:
20 dB
A
Option 2:
0.05 dB
C
Option 3:
60 dB
Option 4:
0.016 dB
Correct Answer:
60 dB
Solution:
As we learn
Sound level in decibels -

- wherein
Where is the intensity of the sound and is a constant reference intensity = 10-12 W/m2
0
36
Q. 35 Which statement is false related to digital communications?
Option 1:
it is a type of cotinueous signal
S
R
Option 2:
it is a type of discrete sinal
E
Option 3:
it is used in fax
E
Option 4:
R
none of the above
Correct Answer:
A
it is a type of cotinueous signal

C
Solution:
as we learn
Digital Communication -
Which uses digital signal.
- wherein
e.g. FAX, Mobile phone, E mail etc

Q. 36 The system shown in figure can move on a smooth surface. They are initially compressed by
3 cm and then released. Then time period of system is
Option 1:
0
Option 2:
36
Option 3:
Option 4:
S
R
Correct Answer:
E
Solution:
E
Concept behind this question is -

R
Oscillation of two - particle system -

A
C
- wherein
where is called reduced mass.

K is spring constant
0
Q. 37 Choose the correct option regarding dispersive power . when white light is incident on
prism:
36
Option 1:
S
Option 2:
R
E
Option 3:
E
R
Option 4:
A
Correct Answer:
C
Solution:
As we learn
Dispersive power (?) -

- wherein
= Refractive index of violet
Refractive index of red
0
Refractive index of yellow
36
Q. 38 Heat prouced is given by H = I2RT , where I is the current, R is the resistance and T is time. If
the error in the measurement of I,Rand T are 1%,3% and 4% respectively then error in the
S
measurement of H is:
R
E
Option 1:
7%
E
Option 2:
R
8%
Option 3:
A
9%
Option 4:
C
10%
Correct Answer:
9%
Solution:
As we learned
Percentage error in the value of x -
(% error in value of a + % error in value of b)

- wherein
= absolute error in measurement of a
= absolute error in measurement of b
= absolute error in measurement of x
% % % %
0
% % + % %
36
%
Q. 39
S
In a Davisson German experiment the intensity of scattered beams of electron is found to
R
be maximum when:
E
E
Option 1:
angle of scattering is 500
R
Option 2:
accerlerating potential is 54 V
A
Option 3:
C
both a and b
Option 4:
none of these
Correct Answer:
both a and b
Solution:
As we learn
Davisson Germer Experiment -

The energy of the incident beam of electrons can be varied by changing the applied voltage to the
electron gun.
- wherein
Intensity of scattered beam of electrons is found to be maximum when angle of scattering is and the
accelerating potential is 54 V
Q. 40 The graph shown represents that the alternative voltage is -
0
36
Option 1:
Triangular
S
Option 2:
R
Sinusoidal
E
Option 3:
Rectangular
E
Option 4:
None of above
R
Correct Answer:
Triangular
A
Solution:
C
As we have learnt,
Graphical representation -
Triangular
- wherein
The graph represents triangular alternative voltage.

Q. 41 A slab of length 2d is made of two slab of 'd' each of refrective index
respectively the appareat depth of slab seen perpendicularly is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
0
36
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
S
R
Solution:
E
As we learn
E
Refraction across multiple slabs -

R
A
C
- wherein
are thickness of medium
are Refractive index of medium

Q. 42 The dimension of stafen's constant is
Option 1:
[ ]
Option 2:
[ ]
Option 3:
[ ]
0
Option 4:
[ ]
36
Correct Answer:
[ ]
Solution:
As we learn
S
R
Stefan's Law -
E
E
- wherein
R
Stefan's constant
A
C
According to Stefan's law

Q. 43 The capacity of a condenser is farad and its potential is . The energy released
on discharging it fully will be
Option 1:
0.02 joule
Option 2:
0.04 joule
Option 3:
0.025 joule
Option 4:
0
0.05 joule
36
Correct Answer:
0.02 joule
Solution: S
As we have learned
Loss of Energy -
R
E
-
E
R
A
Q. 44 Angle between equipotential surface and lines of force is

C
Option 1:
Zero
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:

Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Equipotential Surface -
The Direction of electric field is Perpendicular to equipotential surface.
0
Lines of force is perpendicular to the equipotential surface. Hence angle = 90o
36
Q. 45 The SI unit of Intensity of magnetising field is -
S
Option 1:
R
Versted
E
Option 2:
Tesla
E
Option 3:
A/m
R
Option 4:
A/m2
A
Correct Answer:
C
A/m
Solution:
As we learn
Intensity of magnetising field -
- wherein
S.I. unit is A/m
In C.G.S. - Oersted

S.I unit of H is A/m
Q. 46 A particle is projected horizontally with a speed of 98m/s from top of a tower of height
490m. Find the veelocity with which the projectile hits the ground ( take g = 9.8 m/s2)
0
36
Option 1:
98 m/s
Option 2:
49 m/s S
Option 3:
R
60 m/s
Option 4:
E
E
Correct Answer:
R
Solution:
As we learned
A
C
Projectile Projected Horizontally -
- wherein
velocity at which projectile hit the ground.

Q. 47 A hollow metal sphere of radius 5cm is charged such that the potential on its surface is 10V. The
potential at a distance of 2cm from the centre of the sphere
Option 1:
Zero
0
Option 2:
36
10 V
Option 3:
4V
Option 4:
S
R
10/3 V
Correct Answer:
E
10 V
E
Solution:
As we learned
R
Electric Potential -
A
C
- wherein
w - work done
q0 - unit charge.
At a point inside the sphere, the potential is same everywhere and is equal to that of the surface.
Q. 48 The resultant of two SHM is

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
None of these
Correct Answer:
0
36
Solution:
As we have learnt
Resultant equation of two SHM when ? = ? - S

Resultant equation
R
E
- wherein
E
R
A
C
Q. 49 An 80 galvanometer deflect fuel scale for a potential of 20mV.A voltmeter deflecting full
scale of 5V is to be made using this galvanometer. We must connect

Option 1:
A resistance of 19.92k parallel to galvanometer
Option 2:
A resistance of 19.92k in series with galvanometer
Option 3:
A resistance of 20k parallel to galvanometer
Option 4:
A resistance of 20k in series with galvanometer
Correct Answer:
A resistance of 19.92k in series with galvanometer
0
Solution:
As we learnt
36
Required resistance -
S
R
E
-
E
R
Current through galvanometer producing full deflection.

A
C
To convert galvanometer into voltmeter a high resistance is connected in series with the galvanometer
Q. 50 A particle is oscillating in SHM. What fraction of total energy is kinetic when the particle is at
from the mean position ( is the amplitude)

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
0
Correct Answer:
36
Solution:
As we learnt in S
Total energy in S.H.M. -
R
Total Energy = Kinetic + Potential Energy
- wherein
E
Total Energy =
E
Hence total energy in S.H.M. is constant

R
A
C
Chemistry
Q. 1 How many sigma bonds pesent in

Option 1:
6
Option 2:
7
Option 3:
8
Option 4:
9
Correct Answer:
8
0
Solution:
as we learn
36
Sigma bond -
When a covalent bond is formed by overlapping of atomic orbitals along the same axis it is called Sigma
bond. Such type of bond is symmetrical about the line joining the two nuclei.
S
- wherein
R
E
E
R
A
no. of sigma bond are 8 and no. of pi bonds are 4

C
Q. 2 Which of the following is Vic-dihalide:
Option 1:
Ethylidene chloride
Option 2:
Ethylene dichloride
Option 3:
Chloroform

Option 4:
Vinyl chloride
Correct Answer:
Ethylene dichloride
Solution:
Vicinal Dihalides -
Those compounds in which two halogen atoms are attached to adjacent carbon atoms.
- wherein
0
Ethylene dichloride is: which is Vic-dihalide.
36
Q. 3 is used in
S
R
Option 1:
Textile industry
E
Option 2:
paper industry
E
Option 3:
R
Lead storage industry
Option 4:
A
All of the above
Correct Answer:
C
All of the above
Solution:
As we have learned
Uses of Sulfuric acid -
In textile and paper industry

is used in textile industry , paper industry , lead storage battery
Q. 4 Which is the most powerful reducing agent in aqueous solution?
Option 1:
Li
Option 2:
Na
Option 3:
0
K
36
Option 4:
Rb
Correct Answer:
Li S
Solution:
R
As we learn
Reducing nature of alkali metals -

E
Strong reducing agent. Increases down the group except Li which is the strongest reducing agent
E
- wherein
R
Standard electrode potential measuring reducing power
sublimation ethalpy
A
C
Li has highest standard oxidation potential so it is most powerful oxidising agent.

Q. 5 Leaching is often used in the metallurgy of
Option 1:
Ag
Option 2:
Au
Option 3:
Al
Option 4:
All of these
0
Correct Answer:
36
All of these
Solution:
Leaching -
S
R
In this process, we use a suitable agent which react with ore to form water soluble complex while
impurities are insoluble
E
- wherein
E
Ag2S +NaCN Na [Ag (CN)2]
Na [Ag (CN)2] + Zn Na2 [Zn(CN)4] +Ag

R
A
Leaching of alumina from bauxite is done similarly Au and Ag are leached with a dilute solution of NaCN
or KCN.
C
Q. 6 Which of the following won't react with Fehling's solution ?
Option 1:
Maltose
Option 2:
Fructose

Option 3:
Lactose
Option 4:
Sucrose
Correct Answer:
Sucrose
Solution:
As we have learnt,
Non-reducing Sugar -
They don't have free aldehyde or ketone group and thus cannot reduce Fehling solution and Tollen's
0
reagent.
36
Eg. Sucrose , raffinose , trehalose .
Hence, the correct answer is Option (4)
Q. 7 Consider the reaction given below S

R
E
The major product (A) obtained in the reaction is

E
R
Option 1:
A
C
Option 2:

Option 3:
Option 4:
0
36
Correct Answer:
S
R
Solution:
E
The reaction of tertiary arylamines with HNO2 -
Tertiary arylamines react with nitrous acid to form p - Nitroso aromatic compounds. Electrophilic
E
aromatic substitution occurs on the benzene ring in which a Nitroso group is substituted on the Benzene
ring.
R
The reaction is given below

A
C
Therefore, Option(3) is correct.
Q. 8 Which is not true for azeotrope ?
Option 1:
A non - ideal solution forms azeotrope

Option 2:
azeotrope cannot separated by fractional distillation
Option 3:
azeotrope mixture boils at a constant temperature
Option 4:
an ideal solution can form azeotrope
Correct Answer:
an ideal solution can form azeotrope
Solution:
As we learn
0
Ideal solutions of Azeotropes -
36
Ideal solution mixture never forms Azeotropes.
S
R
An ideal solution can never form an azeotrope.
E
E
Q. 9 If
R
A
C
Option 1:
is unstable and disproportionates to and
Option 2:
is stable and disproportionate reaction is not spontaneous.
Option 3:
is easily reduced to
Option 4:
None of the above

Correct Answer:
is stable and disproportionate reaction is not spontaneous.
Solution:
As we learned
Standard reduction potential -
It measure the tendency of a chemical species to acquire electrons and there by be reduced. It is
measured in volts or mv.
A cell reaction is spontaneous if
0
36
A and C are not possible.
S
R
Q. 10 Which of the following is not a basic flux?
E
E
Option 1:
R
Option 2:
Lime
A
Option 3:
C
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Flux-
A chemical substance that combines with the impurities present in the roasted or calcined ore to form an
easily fusible material.
Flux + Impurity Slag

But is acidic in nature, so it is not basic flux.
Hence, the correct answer is Option (3)
Q. 11 Which technique is used to separate glycerol from spent-lye in soap industry.
Option 1:
Simple distillation
Option 2:
Sublimation
Option 3:
0
Distillation under reduced pressure
36
Option 4:
Crystallisation
Correct Answer:
Distillation under reduced pressure S
Solution:
R
As we learned
E
Distillation under reduced pressure -

E
This method is used to purify liquid having high boiling points and decomposes below their boiling point.
R
-
A
Glycerol can be separated from spent - lye in soap industry by distillation under reduced pressure.
C
Q. 12 The substance that gets adsorbed on the surface of the solid is called.
Option 1:
Adsorbate
Option 2:
Adsorbent

Option 3:
Micelle
Option 4:
Inner phase
Correct Answer:
Adsorbate
Solution:
Adsorbate and Adsorbent -
The molecular species or substance, which concentrates or accumulates at the surface is termed
adsorbate and the material on the surface of which adsorption takes place is called adsorbent.
0
Therefore, option number (1) is correct.
36
Q. 13 Which of the following is known as animal starch ?
Option 1:
Glucose
S
R
Option 2:
Sucrose
E
Option 3:
Fructose
E
Option 4:
R
Glycogen
Correct Answer:
A
Glycogen
C
Solution:
As we have learned
Glycogen -
A multi-branched polymer of
- wherein
Muscle glycogen - provide energy
Liver glycogen - Maintain blood sugar

Carbohydrates are stored in body as glycogen . It is present in liver , muscles , and brain . when body
needa glucose , enzymes break down the glycogen to glucose
Q. 14 Which of the following work as dehydrating agent ?
Option 1:
P4O10
Option 2:
N2O5
0
Option 3:
SiO2
36
Option 4:
Cl2O7
Correct Answer: S
P4O10
R
Solution:
As we have learnt,
E
Uses of phosphorus pentaoxide -

E
As dessicating and dehydrating agent

R
-
A
P4O10 is weak dehydrating agent for alcohol

C
Q. 15 What is the molarity of a solution containing 222.6 g ethylene glycol in 200 g of water
Option 1:
10.56
Option 2:
16.56

Option 3:
17.86
Option 4:
18.0
Correct Answer:
16.56
Solution:
As we learned from
Molality -
Molality (m) = (number of moles of solute)/(mass of solvent in kg)
0
36
- wherein
It is defined as the number of moles of solute present in 1 kg of solvent. It is denoted by m.

S
No. of moles of ethlene glycol = 222.6/ 67.2 molar mass = 3.3125 moles
R
molarity = 3.3125/ 0.2 = 16.56
E
Q. 16 Statement-1: Temperature coefficient of one step reaction may be negative.

E
Statement-2: The rate of reaction having negative order w.r.t a reactant decreases with
increase in conc. of reactant.
R
A
Option 1:
Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is not the correct explanation for statement-
1.
C
Option 2:
Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1.
Option 3:
Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false
Option 4:
Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true

Correct Answer:
Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true
Solution:
As we learnt
Temperature Coefficient -
In homogenous thermal reaction, the rate constant of the reaction becomes double / thrice by changing
the temperature by .
0
- wherein
Formula:
= Rate constant of the reaction which is temperature dependent
36
S
R
Q. 17 The common name of trichloromethane is :
E
E
Option 1:
Methylene chloride
R
Option 2:
Chloroform
A
Option 3:
D.D.T
C
Option 4:
Vinyl chloride
Correct Answer:
Chloroform
Solution:
Trihalogen derivative -
General Formula

- wherein
Chloroform
Bromoform
is chloroform.
Chloroform :
DDT :
0
36
Methylene chloride : ; vinyl chloride :
Q. 18 What is the shape of SF4 molecule

S
R
Option 1:
E
T - shape
E
Option 2:
Bend
R
Option 3:
Trigonal bipyramidal
A
Option 4:
sea - saw
C
Correct Answer:
sea - saw
Solution:
as we learn
Determination of shape of molecules using VSEPR Theory -
VSEPR Rules:
1. Identify the central atom
2. Count its valence electrons

3. Add one electron for each bonding atom
4. Add or subtract electrons for charge
5. Divide the total of these by 2 to find the total number of electron pairs
6. Use this number to predict the shape
- wherein
0
36
S
R
E
E
R
A
C
trigonal bipyramidal but one lone pair so, see-saw shape is correct

Q. 19 The increasing order of basicity of the following compounds is:
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Option 1:
(d) < (b) < (a) < (c)
0
Option 2:
(a) < (b) < (c) < (d)
36
Option 3:
(b) < (a) < (c) < (d)
Option 4:
(b) < (a) < (d) < (c)
S
R
Correct Answer:
(b) < (a) < (d) < (c)
E
Solution:
Comparison of Basic nature in aliphatic amines in gaseous phase -
E
Order of basic strength depends on electron donation tendency.

R
In compound (b) nitrogen is sp2 hybridized, so it is least basic among all given compounds.
A
Compound (C) is a very strong nitrogenous organic base as a lone pair of one nitrogen is delocalized in
resonance and make the other nitrogen negatively charged. The conjugate acid has two equivalent
resonating structures.
C
Thus it is most basic in a given compound.
Compound (d) is a secondary amine which is more basic than compound (a) which is a primary amine.
Therefore, increasing order of basicity is
(b) < (a) < (d) < (c)
The correct option is 4.
Q. 20 Hydrogen burns with oxygen in a

Option 1:
Pale yellow flame
Option 2:
Green flame
Option 3:
Bright red flame
Option 4:
Pale blue flame
Correct Answer:
Pale blue flame
0
Solution:
As we have learned
36
Hydrogen reacts with oxygen to form water
S
R
Hydrogen burns with oxygen with a pale blue flame which sometimes is hard to notice
Therefore, option(4) is correct.
E
Q. 21 Down's process is used in the extraction of which metal?

E
R
Option 1:
Li
A
Option 2:
Ca
C
Option 3:
Na
Option 4:
Al
Correct Answer:
Na
Solution:
Extraction of sodium -

By Down's process: Electrolysis of fused sodium chloride in the presence of and KF using graphite
anode and iron cathode
- wherein
At cathode:
At Anode:
Na is extracted by the electrolysis of molten Nacl in the Down cell.
0
36
Q. 22 Source of He is S
R
Option 1:
Monazite Sand
E
Option 2:
Clevite
E
Option 3:
R
both
Option 4:
A
none
C
Correct Answer:
both
Solution:
As we learnt
Source of He -
Source of He is Monazite sand and cleveite
- wherein

Cleveite is the impure uranium
Q. 23 If is working as a reducing agent then which is true?
Option 1:
0
Option 2:
36
Option 3:
Option 4:
S
R
Correct Answer:
E
Solution:
E
As we learnt
R
Reducing Nature -
A
H2O2 acts as reducing agent.

C
- wherein
H2O2 get oxidised to O2
Q. 24 Which of the following hydroxide is amphoteric in nature?

Option 1:
Ba(OH)2
Option 2:
Ca(OH)2
Option 3:
Mg(OH)2
Option 4:
Be(OH)2
Correct Answer:
Be(OH)2
0
Solution:
As we learn
36
Basic nature of hydroxides of alkaline metals -
Except all hydroxides are basic in nature. this character increases down the group
- wherein
S
R
Due to weak M-OH bond which breaks easily heterolytically to yield
E
Be(OH)2 is amphoteric rest are basic hydroxides.

E
Be(OH)2 react with acid as well as with base.

R
A
Q. 25 Which of the following reaction is wrong for ?

C
Option 1:
(In acidic medium)
Option 2:
(In acidic medium)
Option 3:
(In basic medium)
Option 4:
(In basic medium)

Correct Answer:
(In basic medium)
Solution:
As we learnt
Oxidising Nature -
It acts as oxidising agent in both acidic and alkaline solution.
- wherein
Acidic solution H2O2 reduced to H2O
0
36

(In basic medium) is correct so opt c.

S
Q. 26
R
Which of the following compound is diamagnetic
E
Option 1:
E
R
Option 2:
A
Option 3:
C
Option 4:
All of these above
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learn
Diamagnetism -
A compound in which there are no unpaired electrons is said to be diamagnetic.

- wherein
Variation of magnetic susceptibility of diamagnetic substances with temperature.
0
36
has no unpaired electron in its molecular orbitals, hence it will show diamagnetism
Q. 27 S
Number of Significant figures for d 5,000 will be
R
Option 1:
3
E
Option 2:
E
Option 3:
R
2
A
Option 4:
4
C
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
As we learned from
Rules for significant figures -
All non-zero digits are significant.
- wherein
In 765 cm, there are three significant figures and in 0.83 mL, there are two significant figures.

Zeroes on the right-hand side of a non zero digit will not contribute to significant figures.
Q. 28 For the electrocle . ( along X-axis ) is plotted against (

along Y-axis ). The plot obtained is shown in the figure. The electrode potential of half cell
will be
0
36
S
R
Option 1:
E
Option 2:
E
R
Option 3:
A
Option 4:
C
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learned
Cathode -
The half-cell in which reduction takes place is called cathode.

0
36
Q. 29 Which of the following are true ?
a) gelatin is used in food particles.
b) carbohydrates are constituents of all meals.

S
c) carbohydrates are constituents of nucleic acid.
R
E
Option 1:
a,b,c
E
Option 2:
b,c
R
Option 3:
a,c
A
Option 4:
C
Correct Answer:
b,c
Solution:
As we have learned
Importance of carbohydrate -
Energy source
Constituent of cell walls
Building furnitures, clothes , papers.
(aldopentoses) are constituents of nucleic acid .

- Gelatine is a protien
Q. 30 CaCO3 is soluble in dilute HCL due to-
Option 1:
Its alkaline nature
Option 2:
Its amphoteric nature
Option 3:
0
Its acidic nature
36
Option 4:
Insolubility in water
Correct Answer:
Its alkaline nature S
Solution:
R
As we learn
Nature of carbonates of alkaline earth metals -

E
Insoluble in neutral medium but soluble in acid medium thermal stability

E
R
-
A
C
Base acid
CaCo3 is basic in nature.
Q. 31 The most volatile hydride of Oxygen family is
Option 1:

Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
Volatility describes how easily a substance will vaporize (turn into a gas or vapor).
0
36
Water has low volatility (high boiling point) as hydrogen bonding brings association.
H2S has high volatility as no hydrogen bonding is present. Volatility decreases from H2S to H2Te
Due to increase in molecular masses of the hydrides.

S
Therefore, the correct option is (2).
R
Q. 32 Mulliken barker test induces which of the following?
E
E
Option 1:
Reduction of group to
R
Option 2:
yellow precipitate
A
Option 3:
C
Fehling's test
Option 4:
White precipitate
Correct Answer:
Reduction of group to
Solution:
As we have learned
Mullikan - Barker test -

Ethanolic solution of nitrobenzene is treated with Zinc dust and solution. The mixture is heated
and filtered in a test tube containing Tollen's reagent. A grey or black pricipitate ( Ag mirror ) is formed.
In the test is reduced to group. Hyroxlyamine group then reduces the fehlings reagent
and gets oxidiised to nitroso compound
Therefore, Option (1) is correct.
Q. 33 A catalyst in a finely divided form is most effective because:
0
Option 1:
Less surface area is available
36
Option 2:
More active centres are formed
Option 3:
More energy stored in catalyst
S
R
Option 4:
None of these
E
Correct Answer:
More active centres are formed
E
Solution:
R
Finely divided means more surface area and more surface area, more active sites.
The extent of adsorption increases with the increase of the surface area of the adsorbent. These finely
A
divided metals and porous substances having large surface areas are good adsorbents.
C
So, Option 2 is correct.
Q. 34 Which of the fo allowing is the example of tertiary alcohols
Option 1:
Option 2:

Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
0
36
Solution:
As we learned
S
R
Tertiary alcohol -
group is attached to tertiary carbon.

E
- wherein
E
R
A
C
Q. 35 In C6H6, how many (sigma) bonds are present in the molecule
Option 1:
5
Option 2:
9

Option 3:
7
Option 4:
11
Correct Answer:
11
Solution:
as we learn
Lewis structure -
1. pair of bonded electrons is by means of a dash (-) usually called a bond
0
2. Lone pairs or non-bonded electrons are represented by dots
36
3. the represents in the last shell of atoms are called valence electrons.
- wherein
S
R
E
E
R
A
C
total 11 sigma bond
Q. 36 Which of the following is known as water gas shift reaction ?
Option 1:
Option 2:

Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
The mixture of is known as Water Gas.
0
It is also known as Syn Gas (synthesis gas).
36
S
The above reaction is called water gas shift reaction . Carbon dioxide is removed by scrubbing with
sodium arsenite solution
R
Q. 37 Temporary hardness of water is caused by presence of :
E
E
Option 1:
bicarbonate salts
R
Option 2:
chloride salts
A
Option 3:
sulphide salts
C
Option 4:
carbonate salts
Correct Answer:
bicarbonate salts
Solution:
Temporary hardness is caused by the presence of magnesium and calcium hydrogen carbonates
Mg(HCO3)2 and Ca(HCO3)2
Therefore, option(1) is correct.

Q. 38
,Which of the follwing bond is the strongest
Option 1:
C-H
Option 2:
C - Cl
Option 3:
C-F
0
Option 4:
36
O-H
Correct Answer:
C-H
Solution:
S
as we learn
R
Valence bond theory ( VBT ) -
E
1. It is formed by overlapping of valence shell atomic orbital of the two atoms having unpaired electron.
E
2. There is maximum electron density between the bonding atoms
3. Greater the overlapping of atomic orbital higher is the strength of chemical bond
R
- wherein
A
C

electron density ishighest between C and H atom as compare to other bonds. Sp3-S overlap of C-H and
Sp3-P in C-Cl
Q. 39 Which one of the following is an example of cationic detergent?
Option 1:
Alkyltrimethyl ammonium chloride
Option 2:
Sodium salts of alkyl sulphates
Option 3:
Sodium salts of aklyl benzene and sulphonic acids
0
Option 4:
36
Polythene
Correct Answer:
Alkyltrimethyl ammonium chloride
Solution:
S
Alkyltrimethyl ammonium chloride has an ammonium centre which is positively charged. So, it is an
R
example of cationic detergent.
Option 1 is correct.
E
Q. 40 In which of the following case, 1st solution is hypertonic than 2nd solution:
E
R
Option 1:
0.1M glucose , 0.1M urea
A
Option 2:
0.2M urea , 0.1M NaCl
C
Option 3:
0.2M glucose , 0.1M urea
Option 4:
0.1M glucose, 0.2 M urea
Correct Answer:
0.1M glucose, 0.2 M urea
Solution:
As we learn
Hypotonic Solutions -
Solution having osmotic pressure less than another
- wherein
If
Then solution 1 is hypotonic
For 0.1M glucose solution
For 0.2 M urea solution
0
36
Q. 41
S
R
E
crystals of which compound is obtained in the above process:

E
Option 1:
R
CaCl2
Option 2:
A
MgCl2
C
Option 3:
NaCl
Option 4:
LiCl
Correct Answer:
NaCl
Solution:
As we learn
Sodium Chloride (NaCl) -

Generally obtained by evapouration of sea water by sunlight
- wherein
It is purified by passing HCl gas to impure solution of NaCl. Concentration of increases, thus pure
NaCl gets precipitated due to common ion effect
The crude brine solution is saturated with HCl (g), crystals of pure NaCl are separated out. CaCl2 and
MgCl2 being more soluble, remain in solution.
0
36
Q. 42 Electronic configuration of Indium is-
Option 1: S
R
Option 2:
E
Option 3:
E
Option 4:
R
Correct Answer:
A
C
Solution:
As we learnt
Electronic Configuration of Indium -
Electronic Configuration of Indium :

Q. 43 Distillation process is used to refine
Option 1:
Mercury
0
Option 2:
Copper
36
Option 3:
Silicon
Option 4:
Nickel
S
Correct Answer:
R
Mercury
E
Solution:
E
Distillation -
R
This process is based on the difference in the boiling points of the metal and the impurities.
- wherein
A
Zn and Hg
C
Distillation is very useful for low boiling metals like Zinc and mercury.
Q. 44 Elevation in boiling point of an aquous urea solution is 0.52 ( Kb = 0.52 mol-1 kg) . Hence
the mole fraction of urea in this solution is :
Option 1:
0.982

Option 2:
0.0567
Option 3:
0.943
Option 4:
0.018
Correct Answer:
0.018
0
Solution:
As we learn
36
Mathematical Expression -
Unis of
S
R
E
- wherein
E
R
A
C
molatity = 1 mole kg-1
urea = 1 mole
Mol fraction of urea

Unis of
- wherein
0
36
S
R
Unis of
E
E
- wherein
R
A
C
Q. 45 The molecularity and order of reaction are respectively:
Option 1:
1, 1
Option 2:
2, 1

Option 3:
1, 2
Option 4:
1, 0
Correct Answer:
1, 1
Solution:
As we learn
Nucleophilic Substitution Reaction -
0
SN1substitution nucleophilic unimolecular reaction.
36
These reactions proceed in two steps.
- wherein
S
R
E
E
: Substitution nucleopholic unimolecular order of reaction is also one.

R
A
Q. 46 Chloroform and Aniline are easily separated by the technique of

C
Option 1:
Sublimation
Option 2:
Crystallisation
Option 3:
Distillation
Option 4:
None

Correct Answer:
Distillation
Solution:
As we learned
Distillation -
This method is used to separate volatile liquid to a nonvolatile liquid having sufficient difference in their
boiling point.
- wherein
0
Hexane + Toluene
36
If the difference in boiling points of two liquids is not much, fractional distillation can be used to separate
them.
S
Q. 47 The gas which required for prepartion of by is
R
E
Option 1:
E
Option 2:
R
Option 3:
A
C
Option 4:
CO
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
Preparation of boric acid by ore colemanite -
By passing SO2 through the suspension of the ore in hot water
- wherein

Therefore, Option(2) is correct.
Q. 48 Example of zeolite is –
Option 1:
ZSM – 3
0
Option 2:
ZSM – 2
36
Option 3:
ZSM – 4
Option 4: S
ZSM - 5
R
Correct Answer:
ZSM - 5
E
Solution:
As we learnt,
E
Zeolites
R
ZMS-5 (Zeolite Socony Mobil-5) is an aluminosilicate zeolite which belongs to the pentasil family of
zeolites which have chemical formula NanAlnSi96-nO
A
Therefore, option (4) is correct.

C
Q. 49 A dilute solution of litmus becomes colourless on shaking with charcoal. This is due to :
Option 1:
Absorption
Option 2:
Adsorption
Option 3:
Chemical reaction

Option 4:
Both A & B
Correct Answer:
Adsorption
Solution:
The Colour of the solution is adsorbed on the surface of the charcoal like chalk powder is adsorbed on
the duster. This is due to adsorption because it is adsorbing on the surface.
Hence, the correct answer is Option(2)
Q. 50 We have 200 mL of 6% urea solution at 27 osmoti pressure due to osmosis is:
0
(R = 0.0821 L atm mol-1 K-1)
36
Option 1: S
24.63 atm
R
Option 2:
12.315 atm
E
Option 3:
4.926 atm
E
Option 4:
6.157 atm
R
Correct Answer:
A
12.315 atm
Solution:
C
As we learn
Osmotic Pressure -
Osmotic Pressure ( ) is excess pressure developed on solution side due to osmosis.

Maths
Q. 1 If A is 2x2 matrix (non-zero matrix) such that , where is null matrix. Then tr(A)=?
Option 1:
0
0
Option 2:
36
1
Option 3:
-1
Option 4:
S
R
Correct Answer:
0
E
Solution:
E
As we have learnt
Trace of a Matrix -
R
A
if
C
- wherein
The sum of the elements of a square matrix lying along the principal diagonal
Let

If , then b=0, c=0 and hence a=0 , d=0 which is contradiction
Q. 2 what is the equation of the tangent at(1,-2) on the curve;
0
36
Option 1:
S
R
Option 2:
E
E
Option 3:
R
Option 4:
None of these
A
Correct Answer:
C
Solution:
As we learned
Equation of tangent -
Let is the point on the curve y = f(x) then for equation of tangent at on the curve, we can
do following replacements in the equation of curve and get the equation of tangent :

-
0
36
S
R
E
E
Q. 3 What is the number of solutions of the equation : , where

are non-negative integers?
R
A
Option 1:
C
Option 2:
Option 3:
182
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt
Theorem of Integral Solutions -
Number of positive integral solutions of equation x1 + x2 + x3 + ..........+ xr =n is .
- wherein
Where
0

36
Q. 4 In the cartesian product {(1,a),(1,b),(2,a),(2,b)}.Find the image of element 1.
Option 1:
S
a
R
Option 2:
E
Option 3:
E
a and b
R
Option 4:
None of these
A
Correct Answer:
a and b
C
Solution:
As we learnt
IMAGE
If (x,y) ∈ R, then the image of an element x under a relation R is y
In this question,
As the image (1,a) and (1,b) ∈ R, so images of 1 are both a and b.

Q. 5
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
0
Correct Answer:
36
Solution:
As we have learnt S
Results of Compound Angles -
R
E
- wherein
E
Where A and B are two angles.

R
A
C
Q. 6 Which of the following is not a surjective function ?
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:

Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
Function Check Graphically -
A line parallel to y - axis cuts the curve atmost one point is called function.
0
f(x)= cosec x has range
36
Thus
Range codomain
S
R
Q. 7 f(x) is said to be continous in (a,b) if it is continous of -------------- point of the interval (a,b)
E
Option 1:
E
No
R
Option 2:
Every
A
Option 3:
Some
C
Option 4:
Intermittent
Correct Answer:
Every
Solution:
As we learned
Continuity in an open interval -

f(x) is said to be continuous in an open interval (a, b) or a < x < b.If it is continuous at each and every
point of the interval belonging to (a, b).
Q. 8
0
Option 1:
36
Option 2:
Option 3:
S
R
E
Option 4:
E
Correct Answer:
R
A
Solution:
As we have learnt
C
Triple Angle Formula -

- wherein
These are formulae for triple angles.
Q. 9 The statement among the following that is tautology is :
Option 1:
0
36
Option 2:
Option 3: S
R
Option 4:
E
Correct Answer:
E
R
Solution:
A
C
Q. 10 If the number of terms in are n1 and no. of terms in

are n2 then
Option 1:
12

Option 2:
3
Option 3:
2
Option 4:
none of these
Correct Answer:
2
Solution:
As we have learned
0
Last term of an A.P.(l) -
36
- wherein
If a series has n terms last term is S

R
If n is odd
has equal no. of terms

E
Then
E
R
Q. 11 Which of the following function is a many-one function?

A
C
Option 1:

Option 2:
Option 3:
0
36
Option 4: S
None of these
Correct Answer:
R
E
E
R
A
Solution:
For second option
C
we can have many horizontal lines that cut the graph at more than one point. So it is many one function
Q. 12 Write sample space of tossing a coin alongwith throwing a dice .

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
None of these
Correct Answer:
None of these
0
Solution:
As we learned
36
Discrete Sample Space -
A sample space S is called a discrete sample space if S is a finite set.
-
S
R
E
Q. 13 If defined by , is onto, then the interval of is

E
R
Option 1:
A
Option 2:
C
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learnt in
Range -

The range of the relation R is the set of all second elements of the ordered pairs in a relation R.
- wherein
eg. R={(a,b),(c,d)}. Then Range is {b,d}
0
36
Now
[-2 + 1, 2 + 1]
S
[- 1, 3]
R
E
E
Q. 14 If A and B both square matrix of order 3. And C is matrix with 4 row. What is the order of C
such that CB=A.
R
A
Option 1:
C
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:

As we learned
Square Matrix -
Number of rows Number of columns
- wherein
A matrix Where
A and B are of order 3x3.
0
Let C be order of 4xm.
36
Thus So m=3 , Hence
Q. 15
S
R
Option 1:
E
E
Option 2:
R
Option 3:
A
C
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learned,
Type of integration by substitution -

- wherein
Let
0
36
Put ;
Q. 16 For
S
we have as one of its roots. Find the other root
R
Option 1:
E
E
R
Option 2:
A
C
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learned
Nature of Rational roots -

If is a polynomial equation with rational coefficients then irrational roots always occur in
conjugate pair.
- wherein
Sometimes one root is observed by observation and with this concept nature of other root can be
decided.
Q. 17 Find the difference. &
0
36
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
S
R
Option 4:
E
None of these
E
Correct Answer:
R
Solution:
As we learned
A
C
Geometric Progession (GP) -
A progression of non - zero terms, in which every term bears to the preceding term a constant ratio.
- wherein
eg 2, 4, 8, 16,- - - - - -
and
100, 10, 1, 1/10,- - - - - - -

Q. 18
Find range of
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
R
0
Option 4:
36
None of these
Correct Answer:
Solution:
For
S
R
Here f(x) is not defined
E
For
E
R
Now as x can only be negative, so f(x) will take all positive values
Q. 19
A
"STudents of classs X are honest "
" Rohit of class speaks lie "

C
This is an example of
Option 1:
proposition
Option 2:
contradiction
Option 3:
counter example

Option 4:
truth table
Correct Answer:
counter example
Solution:
As we have learned
Counter example -
Example of a situation where the statement is not valid.
0
Example of a situation where the statement is not valid.
36
Q. 20
S
Choose the correct option for the following table :
R
E
E
R
A
C
Option 1:
1 - T , 2 -T , 3 - F , 4 F
Option 2:
1 - T , 2 - F , 3 - F , 4 - T
Option 3:
1 - T , 2 - F , 3 - F , 4 - T
Option 4:
1 - T , 2 - T , 3 - T , 4 - F

Correct Answer:
1 - T , 2 - T , 3 - T , 4 - F
Solution:
As we have learned
Truth table of 'OR' operator -
0
36
-
S
R
E
E
Q. 21 In how many parts a plane can be divided if 9 straight lines are drawn, none of which are
R
parallel to each other and no 3 lines are concurrent?

A
Option 1:
10
C
Option 2:
46
Option 3:
45
Option 4:
None of these
Correct Answer:
46
Solution:
Number of Planes -
n straight lines are drawn in the plane such that no two lines are parallel and no three lines are
concurrent. Then the number of parts which these line divide the plane is equal to .
0
=1+45=46
36
Q. 22 Find the angle between the curves at their point
of contact or intersection.
Option 1:
S
R
Option 2:
E
E
Option 3:
R
Option 4:
A
Correct Answer:
C
Solution:
As we learned
Condition for the two curves to touch -
Two curves touch each other if the tangents to each of them are parallel to each other.
- wherein
Where m1 & m2 are Tangents slopes at the point of intersection of two curves.

On solving given equations,
0
Q. 23 What is the fundamental period of .
36
Option 1:
Option 2:
S
R
Option 3:
E
Not Defined
E
Option 4:
R
Correct Answer:
A
Solution:
C
As we learned
Period of a Trigonometric Ratio -
Period of is
- wherein
Since ' -3 ' is a constant value and is periodic with period = .
So, has as fundamental period.

Q. 24
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
0
Option 4:
Not defined
36
Correct Answer:
Solution:
S
As we have learnt
R
Important Results of Inverse Trigonometric Functions -
E
E
Q. 25 In the final differential equation formation process,which one of the following must be
eliminated?
R
A
Option 1:
Dependent variable
C
Option 2:
independent variable
Option 3:
Arbitrary constant
Option 4:
none of these
Correct Answer:
Arbitrary constant
Solution:
As we learnt
Formation of Differential Equations -
A differential equation can be derived from its equation by the process of differentiation and other
algebraical process of elimination
Differential equation is formed by elimination of arbitrary constants.
0
Q. 26 Out of vectors are:
36
Option 1:
Collinear vectors S
Option 2:
R
Coplanar vectors
Option 3:
E
Parallel vectors
E
Option 4:
Anti-parallel vectors pair wise
R
Correct Answer:
Coplanar vectors
A
Solution:
As we have learnt
C
Coplanar vectors -
If any two of are collinear, then are coplanar
- wherein
are three vectors.
Since , are collinear
So, are coplanar.

Q. 27
Let . Then find the value of x such that
Option 1:
Real value
0
Option 2:
Purely imaginary
36
Option 3:
Complex no
Option 4:
both (1) and (3)
S
Correct Answer:
R
both (1) and (3)
E
Solution:
As we have learnt
E
Property of determinant -
R
If rows be changed into columns and columns into the rows , then the values of the determinant remains
unaltered.
A
-
C
Take common from
Interchanging row and column of 2nd det.
Apply on 2nd matrix

cube root of unity
Q. 28 If 3 is a root of ,it is also a root of
0
36
Option 1:
Option 2:
S
R
Option 3:
E
Option 4:
E
R
Correct Answer:
A
Solution:
C
As we learn
Roots of Quadratic Equation with real Coefficients -
are roots if
is satisfied by
- wherein

Equation , has one root as 3,
Put x=3 and k=5 in optin
only (c) gives the correct answer i.e
0
Q. 29 A proposition is an ____ sentence which is either true or false
36
Fill in the blank :
Option 1:
S
OPtative
R
Option 2:
E
Imperative
Option 3:
E
Exclamatory
R
Option 4:
Assertive
A
Correct Answer:
Assertive
C
Solution:
As we have learned
Propositions -
A proposition is an assertive sentence which is either True or False. If the statement is false it is called
invalid statement.
Q. 30 The value of is equal to

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
None of these
Correct Answer:
0
Solution:
As we learted
36
Properties of Binomial Theorem -
-
S
R
E
We have
E
R
A
C
Trick : Put in given expansion
Which is given by option (c)
Q. 31 Three point are collinear if where

Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
0
Solution:
As we have learnt
36
Test of Collinearity -
are collinear iff where
-
S
R
E
E
R
where
A
C
Q. 32 Let A be the matrix of the order 2x2 and I is the identity matrix.Then total number of
solution of the matrix equation is:
Option 1:
0
Option 2:
1

Option 3:
2
Option 4:
more than 2
Correct Answer:
more than 2
Solution:
As we have learnt
Unit / Identity Matrix -
A diagonal matrix of order which has unity for all its elements
0
- wherein
36
S
R
E
E
R
A
C
There are many such matrices which are inverse of their own.
Q. 33 Find the no of terms in
Option 1:
15

Option 2:
14
Option 3:
16
Option 4:
21
Correct Answer:
16
Solution:
As we have learned
0
Number of terms -
36
In the expression of total number of terms is .
- wherein
more than 1 from n. S

R
Number of terms in number of terms in
E
E
R
Q. 34 Let R be an equivalence relation on a finite set A having n elements. Then the number of
A
ordered pairs in R is?

C
Option 1:
less than n
Option 2:
greater than or equal to n
Option 3:
less than equal to n
Option 4:
none of these

Correct Answer:
greater than or equal to n
Solution:
As we learnt
Equivalence relation -
Any relation which is reflexive, symmetric and transitive is called an equivalence relation
0
36
Since R is an equivalence relation on set A.
Hence R has atleast n ordered pairs.

S
R
E
Q. 35 If the variance of the terms in on increasing AP. is 90 then common

difference of this A.P is ___
E
R
Option 1:
-3
A
Option 2:
6
C
Option 3:
3
Option 4:
Both (a) and (c)
Correct Answer:
3
Solution:

But it is given that AP is increasing
0
Hence d = 3
36
Q. 36 What is called the middle of a distribution arranged in ascending/descending order?
Option 1:
Mean
S
R
Option 2:
Mode
E
Option 3:
E
Median
R
Option 4:
Range
A
Correct Answer:
Median
C
Solution:
As we learned
MEDIAN -
The median is the middle of a distribution. Half the scores are above the median and half are below the
median.
- wherein
The median is the middle of a distribution arranged in ascending or descending order.

Q. 37
Let such that and satisfy . then the eq
has
Option 1:
Atleast one root in (-1,1)
Option 2:
0
atleast one root in [0,1/2]
36
Option 3:
atleast one root in [0,1]
Option 4:
Atleat one root in [-1/2,1/2] S
Correct Answer:
R
atleast one root in [0,1/2]
E
Solution:
As we have learnt
E
Circulant determinant -
The elements of the rows (or columns) are in cyclic arrangement

R
- wherein
A
eg:-
C
Since
So

So, f(x) satisfies rolles's theorem and therefore f'(x) = 0 has atleast one root in [0,1/2]
correct option b.
0
36
Q. 38 In a if AB = p , BC = q , CA = r also if AB is bisector of
S , then BD /CD = ?
R
Option 1:
AB / AC
E
Option 2:
E
R
Option 3:
A
Option 4:
none of these
C
Correct Answer:
AB / AC
Solution:
As we have learned
Angle Bisector -
A line segment that bisects an angle of a triangle.
- wherein

0
36
S
R
Angle bisector 'AD' divides the opposite side in the ratio of adjacent sides
E
BD /DC = AB/AC
E
Q. 39 Find if
R
A
Option 1:
C
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:

As we have learnt
Scalar multiplication -
If is a vector and m is a scalar, then is a vector whose modulus is m times .
Q. 40 Let
0
where a , b , c are rational and , where Z is the set of integers. Then a + b is
:
36
Option 1:
a negative integer S
Option 2:
R
an integer
Option 3:
E
non integral rational number

E
Option 4:
none
R
Correct Answer:
an integer
A
Solution:
C
FUNCTIONS -
A relation f from a set A to a set B is said to be a function if every element of set A has one and only one
image in set B.

Q. 41 is:
Option 1:
continuous in but not differentiable at
Option 2:
Continuous and differentiable in
0
Option 3:
36
non-continuous in
Option 4:
continuous in and non-differentiable in
Correct Answer:
S
continuous in but not differentiable at
R
Solution:
E
As we have learnt,
E
Properties of differentiable functions -

R
Absolute functions are always continuous throughout but not differentiable at their critical point.
A
-
C
Q. 42
Find
Option 1:

Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
none of these
Correct Answer:
0
Solution:
As we have learned
36
Rule of integration by Partial fraction -
Linear and non-repeated:

S
R
Let
E
Find ...
E
By comparing and
R
-
A
C

Q. 43 Normal from the point P(x,y) of a curve meets Y-axis at Q. If PQ is constant length K. Then eq
of curve passing via (K,0) is
Option 1:
Option 2:
Option 3:
Option 4:
0
None of these
36
Correct Answer:
Solution: S
As we learnt
R
Length of Normal -
E
E
R
- wherein
A
C

0
36
S
R
E
Integrate both side

E
R
This curve passes through (K,0)
C=0
A
C
Q. 44
where is identity matrix of order 2. Ordered pair of (a,b) is
:
Option 1:
(2,2)
Option 2:
(-2,-2)

Option 3:
(1,1)
Option 4:
Both (a) and (b).
Correct Answer:
Both (a) and (b).
Solution:
As we have learnt
Transpose of a Matrix -
The matrix obtained from any given matrix , by interchanging its rows and columns.
0
- wherein
36
S
R
E
E
R
A
C

(a,b)=(2,2) or (-2,-2)
Q. 45 What is the correct formula for deciles ?
Option 1:
0
Option 2:
36
Option 3:
S
Option 4:
R
E
Correct Answer:
E
R
Solution:
As we learned
A
C
QUARTILES, OCTILES, DECILES, PERCENTILES -
Measure formulae Where
Qr?????? Qr =
Or Or =
Dr Dr =
Pr Pr =

- wherein
0
36
S
R
Q. 46 Find vector area of , if position vectors of vertices are
E
Option 1:
E
R
Option 2:
A
Option 3:
C
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we learned

Vector Area -
area of
- wherein
, and are three vectors.
0
36
Vector Area -
area of
S
- wherein
R
, and are three vectors.
E
E
area of
R
A
=
C
Q. 47 Which of the following is a set?
Option 1:
The list of all the bright colors.
Option 2:
The list of all the dull colors.
Option 3:
The list of all colors in the Rainbow.

Option 4:
The list of all the good colors.
Correct Answer:
The list of all colors in the Rainbow.
Solution:
As we learnt
SETS
A set is a well-defined collection of objects. eg. A={1,2,3}
0
In this Question,
Bright, dull and good colours are not well-defined as it is different for different person. But, the list of all
36
colors in the rainbow is definite and well defined. So, it is a set.
We can decide with respect to any colour, say green, whether it will lie in the set or not. So, it is a well
defined collection. We cannot do this in case of bright, dull or good colours.
S
Q. 48 The mean and variance of observations are and , respectively .If five observations are
R
then the absolute difference of the remaining two observations is :
E
Option 1:
E
Option 2:
R
A
Option 3:
C
Option 4:
Correct Answer:
Solution:

Q. 49 For set of observations with 12 & 9 as no. of observations respectively, means as 5 and 7
respectively and 2 and 4 are standard deviations respectively, then find the combined
variance of two series.
0
36
Option 1:
S
R
Option 2:
E
Option 3:
E
Option 4:
R
Correct Answer:
A
Solution:
C
As we learned
Properties of Standard deviation -
Let n1 , n2 be the number of observations of two series and their means and S.D are and
respectively.
Let denote the combined mean of two series then
The combined variance of two series is given by

- wherein
where
and
0
36
S
R
E
E
R
A
C
Q. 50
If
Option 1:
Option 2:
1
Option 3:

Option 4:
none
Correct Answer:
Solution:
As we have learned
Results of Compound Angles -
- wherein
0
Where A and B are two angles.
36
S
R
E
E
R
A
C


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MHT-CET 2023

Flux may be Positive Negative or zero -

For closed body.

MHT CET Mock Test Series

, Then acceleration is (g=10 m/s2).

acceleration due to gravity.

MHT CET Mock Test Series

Q. 4 . Two charges and placed at apart form an electric dipole. It

MHT CET Mock Test Series

Its S.I unit is C-m

MHT CET Mock Test Series

To remember the sequence of colour code -

Its tolerance value

Q. 6 In which of the following case particle is said to be in motion

A box lying on table

MHT CET Mock Test Series

Motion is known as change in position of object with time.

e.g A moving bus.

Orbital Frequency of electron -

MHT CET Mock Test Series

Orbital Frequency of electron -

Radius of charged particle -

MHT CET Mock Test Series

(i) Temperature grdient across each slab is same

Temperature gradient across each slab = is same.

MHT CET Mock Test Series

MHT CET Mock Test Series

MHT CET Mock Test Series

Electric lines of force -

Magnetic lines of force always makes a closed loop

MHT CET Mock Test Series

MHT CET Mock Test Series

Gravitational field intensity due to Uniform solid sphere -

MHT CET Mock Test Series

If r< a then

MHT CET Mock Test Series

MHT CET Mock Test Series

MHT CET Mock Test Series

Potential difference across each cell -

Current through circuit

The potential difference across the external resistor

P.D. across each cell

MHT CET Mock Test Series

Relation between Rest and Motion -

Rest and motion are relative to each other.

Sun and earth are moving with respect to each other.

Combination of two plane Mirror -

No. of image formed

MHT CET Mock Test Series

b) If odd number

If object is placed on the angle bisector.

b) If odd number

MHT CET Mock Test Series

Definition of work done by variable force -

is variable force and is small displacement

MHT CET Mock Test Series

Resultant Force Exerted by Surface on block -