CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME

(Academic Session : 2021 - 2022)

TARGET : JEE MAINS & (M + A) : 2022

CLASS : ENTHUSIAST REVISION PLAN
TEST TYPE: ONLINE DATE : 02.01.2022 PATTERN : JEE MAINS
Time : 3 Hours TEST - 6 Maximum Marks : 300
Student's Form No. : ..................................................................... Batch : ..........................................
Student's Name : .........................................................................................................................................

INSTRUCTIONS
Important Instructions :
1. Immediately fill in the form number on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen. Use of pencil
is strictly prohibited.
2. The candidates should not write their Form Number anywhere else (except in the specified space) on the Test Booklet/
Answer Sheet.
3. The test is of 3 hours duration.
4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
5. There are three parts in the question paper 1, 2, 3 consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics having
30 questions in each subject and each subject having Two sections.
(i) Section-I contains 20 multiple choice questions with only one correct option.
Marking scheme : +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
(ii) Section-II contains 10 Numerical Value Type questions. Attempt any 5 questions. First 5 attempted questions
will be considered for marking.
Marking scheme : +4 for correct answer and 0 in all other cases.
6. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writting particulars/marking responses on Side–1 and Side–2 of the Answer Sheet.
Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
7. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, mobile phone any electronic
device etc, except the Identity Card inside the examination hall/room.
8. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
9. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the invigilator on duty in the Room/
Hall. However, the candidate are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
10. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.
JEE MAINS & (M + A) ENTHUSIAST REVISION PLAN
TEST - 6 DATE: 02.01.2022

SYLLABUS

PHYSICS : Electrostatics, Gravitation, Mechanics Till Momentum

CHEMISTRY : P-Block (13 to 18), Thermodynamics & Thermochemistry, CAD,

Nitrogen containing organic Compounds

MATHS : Probablity, Permutation & Combination, Straight Line, Circle,

Binomial Theorem
 PART 1 – PHYSICS
SECTION–I : (Maximum Marks : 80)
This section contains TWENTY questions.
Horizontal line
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C)
P
and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is
correct.
For each question, darken the bubble corresponding
to the correct option in the ORS.
For each question, marks will be awarded in one
of the following categories :
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble T cos
T
corresponding to the correct option is darkened.
(A) (B)
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is
darkened.
Negative Marks : – 1 In all other cases
1. A frictionless tube lies in the vertical plane and is in
the shape of a function that has its endpoints at the
T sin
same height but shape is arbitrary. A chain with same T
uniform mass per unit length lies in each tube from (C) (D)
end to end, as shown in Fig. If magnitude of
acceleration in each case i, case ii, and case iii are
ai, aii and aiii respectively, then select correct relation 3. A light elastic cord of force constant 'k' and relaxed
length ' L ' is suspended from the ceiling. If the bead
case i case ii case iii slides down the cord with a constant speed v relative
to the ceiling, find expression for elongation of cord
2h 3h as function of time
h

(A) a i 0, a ii a iii 0
(B) a i 0, a ii 0, a iii 0
(C) a i 0, a ii 0, a iii 0 v
(D) a i a ii a iii 0
2. A chain with mass M hangs between two walls, with
its ends at the same height. P is point on chain at
which magnitude of tension is T and angle made by
tangent at P with horizontal is . Then select correct mgvt mgvt
alternative. (A) (B)
kL kL mg
Here varies from 0 to maximum (near the end
points of chain) mgv3 mgv2 t 2
(C) (D)
kL mg kL

Target: IIT-JEE MAINS & (M + A) XII 2021-22 REVISION PLAN TEST - 6

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4. Let total charge 2Q be distributed in a sphere of y y
radius R, with volume charge density =kr where r 7N 6N
is distance from center and k is a constant Two
2N 2N 3N
charges A and B, of charge -Q each, are placed on 7. 3N
x x
5N
diametrically opposited points, at equal distance a , 2N
from center . If A and B do not experience any force, 4N 4N
then
(1) (2)
1
3R
(A) a 8 4 R
(B) a 1 y y
24 6N
3N
1 5N 2N 3N
R x x
(C) a 2 4 R
(D) a 4N 5N
3 3N
4N 4N
5. When a block is placed on a wedge as shown in 5N
figure, the block starts sliding down and the wedge (3) (4)
also start sliding on ground. All surface are rough.
The centre of mass of (wedge + block) system will Above Figure gives the free-body diagram for four
move situations in which an object is pulled by several
rough forces across a frictionless floor, as seen from
overhead. Below Figure gives three graphs of
velocity component vx(t) and three graphs of velocity
component vy(t). The graphs are not to scale. Which
vx(t) graph and which vy(t) graph best correspond
Wedge to each of the four situations in top figure ?
vx vx vx

rough
t t t
(A) Leftward and downward.
(B) Rightward and downward.
(C) Leftward and upwards. (a) (b) ( c)
(D) Only downward. vy vy vy
6. If the resultant of all the external forces acting on a
system of particles is zero, then from an inertial frame,
one can surely say that t t t

(A) Linear momentum of the system does not change

in time
(d) (e) (f)
(B) Kinetic energy of the system does not change
in time 1 a,e 1 a,e
(C) Angular momentum of the system does not 2 b,d 2 c,d
change in time (A) 3 b,f (B) 3 b,f
(D) Potential energy of the system does not change
4 b,f 4 c,f
in time
1 a,e 1 b,e
2 b,d 2 c,d
(C) 3 b,f (D) 3 b,f
4 c,f 4 c,f

Target: IIT-JEE MAINS & (M + A) XII 2021-22 TEST DATE: 02.01.2022

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8. A 0.5 kg ball moving with a speed of 12 m/s strikes a
hard wall at an angle of 30° with the wall. It is
reflected with the same speed and at the same angle,
as shown in figure. If the ball is in contact with the
wall for 0.25 s, the average force acting on the wall
is
11. The curve represents the distribution of potential (V)
along the straight line joining the two charges Q1 and
Q2 (separated by a distance r) :
V

30
X
Q1 A Q2 B C
30

(A) 96 N (B) 48 N r

(C) 24 N (D) 12 N
1. | Q1 | > | Q2 |
9. Figure shows an electric line of force which curves
along a circular arc. The magnitude of electric field 2. Q1 is positive in nature
intensity is same at all points on this curve and is 3. A and B are equilibrium points.
equal to E. If the potential at A is V, then the potential 4. C is a point of unstable equilibrium for positive
At B is charge for displacement along the line joining
Q1 & Q2.
E
Then which of the above statements are correct
A B (A) 1 and 3 (B) 1, 2 and 3
r
(C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
12. An oil drop of mass M is found floating freely
between the plates of a parallel plate condenser
(A) V ER (B) V 2ER sin (which consists of two large metallic plates having
2
equal and opposite charges), the plates being
horizontal and the lower plate carrying a charge +Q.
(C) V ER (D) V 2ER sin The area of each plate is A and the distance of
2
separation between them is D. The charge on the oil
10. Figure shows a system of three concentric metal drop must be (g is the acceleration due to gravity)
shells A, B and C with radii a, 2a and 3a respectively.
Shell B is earthed and shell C is given a charge Q. Aq 0 MgA
Now if shell C is connected to shell A, then the final (A) (B)
QM Q
charge on the shell B is equal to
gAQ MgAQ
(C) (D)
D 0

3a a
A
2a B
C

4Q 8Q
(A) (B)
13 11
5Q 3Q
(C) (D)
13 7

Target: IIT-JEE MAINS & (M + A) XII 2021-22 REVISION PLAN TEST - 6

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13. Three dipoles each of dipole moment of magnitude p
are placed tangentially on a circle of radius R in its
plane positioned at equal angle from each other as
shown in the figure. The magnitude of electric field
intensity at the centre of the circle will be :
P
15. Three blocks A, B & C are arranged as shown.
Pulleys and strings are ideal. All surfaces are fric-
tionless and block C is observed moving down along
the incline at 1 m/s2. Find acceleration of B when
system is released from rest.
6 kg

o 1 m/s 2
120 120o A

C 3 kg
P 120o P
B 37

4kp 2kp
(A) (B) (A) 9 m/s2 downwards (B) 5 m/s2 downwards
R3 R3
(C) 5 m/s2 upwards (D) 9 m/s2 upwards
kp 16. A heavy flexible uniform chain of length r and mass
(C) (D) 0
R3
r lies in a smooth semicircular tube AB of radius
14. A steel ball is suspended from the ceiling of an ac-
r. Assuming a slight disturbance to start the chain in
celerating carriage by means of two cords 'A' and
motion find the velocity v with which it will emerge
'B'. Determine the acceleration 'a' of the carriage
from the end B of the tube.
which will cause the tension in 'A' to be twice that in
B.

60 60
a
A B A
B

g g 2
(A) (B) (A) v 2gr
3 2 9 2
g g
(C) (D) 2
3 3 3 (B) v 2gr
4

2
(C) v gr

4
(D) v 4gr
2

Target: IIT-JEE MAINS & (M + A) XII 2021-22 TEST DATE: 02.01.2022

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17. Two spherical massive bodies of uniform density each 20. Under the influence of the coulomb field of charge
of mass M and radius R are kept at a distance 4R +Q which is fixed, a charge -q is moving around it in
apart. Then the minimum speed (Vmin) required to an elliptical orbit. Find out correct statements
project a particle from the surface of body A such (A) The angular momentum of the charge –q, about
that it will never return to the surface of the same +Q is con stant.
body is (B) The linear momentum of the charge –q is
A B constant.
M R (C) The angular velocity of the charge –q is
R M
constant.
(D) The linear speed of the charge –q is constant.
4R
12GM 2GM SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 20)
(A) Vmin (B) Vmin This section contains TEN questions. Attempt any
5R 3R
5 questions. First 5 attempted questions will be
5GM 2GM considered for marking.
(C) Vmin (D) Vmin
7R R The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL
18. System shown in figure is in equilibrium and at rest. VALUE.
The spring and string are massless. Now the string For each question, enter the correct numerical value
(If the numerical value has more than two decimal
is cut. The acceleration of mass 2m and m just after
places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO
string is cut will be decimal places; e.g. 6.25, 7.00, –0.33, –.30, 30.27,
–127.30, if answer is 11.36777..... then both 11.36
and 11.37 will be correct) by darken the
corresponding bubbles in the ORS.
For Example : If answer is –77.25, 5.2 then fill
the bubbles as follows.

2m + – + –
0 0 0 0 • 0 0 0 0 0 0 • 0 0
1 1 1 1 • 1 1 1 1 1 1 • 1 1
2 2 2 2 • 2 2 2 2 2 2 • 2 2
3 3 3 3 • 3 3 3 3 3 3 • 3 3
m 4 4 4 4 • 4 4 4 4 4 4 • 4 4
5 5 5 5 • 5 5 5 5 5 5 • 5 5
6 6 6 6 • 6 6 6 6 6 6 • 6 6
g 7 7 7 7 • 7 7 7 7 7 7 • 7 7
(A) upward, g downward 8 8 8 8 • 8 8 8 8 8 8 • 8 8
2 9 9 9 9 • 9 9 9 9 9 9 • 9 9

g
(B) g upward, downward Answer to each question will be evaluated according
2 to the following marking scheme:
(C) g upward, 2g downward Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct numerical
(D) 2g upward, g downward value is entered as answer.
19. A man wearing a hat of extended length 12 cm is Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases
running in rain falling vertically downwards with
speed 10 m/ s. The maximum speed with which man
can run, so that rain drops does not fall on his face
(the length of his face below the extended part of
the hat is 16 cm) will be :
(A) 7.5 m/s (B) 13.33 m/s
(C) 10 m/s (D) Zero
Target: IIT-JEE MAINS & (M + A) XII 2021-22 REVISION PLAN TEST - 6

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1. What is the maximum value of the force F 4. Two blocks of masses m1 = 5kg and m2 = 2kg are
(in Newton) such that the block shown in the connected by threads which pass over the pulleys as
arrangement, does not move ? Take g = 10 m/s2 shown in the figure. The threads are massless and
the pulleys are massless and smooth. The blocks can
F m 3 kg 1 move only along the vertical direction. If the

60 2 3 40
magnitude acceleration of m1, m/sec 2 , calculate
n
'n'. (Taken g = 10 m/s2)
2. In a conducting hollow sphere of inner and outer radii
5 cm and 10 cm respectively, a point charge Q = 1 C
is placed at point A, that is 3 cm from the centre C of
the hollow sphere. An external uniform electric field
of magnitude 20 N/C is also applied. Net electric
force on this charge is 15 N, away from the centre
T1
of the sphere as shown. Find magnitude of force
exerted by this charge Q placed at point A on the
T2
sphere (in N).

E=20N/C
m1
10cm
m2

15N Q
C
A
5cm 5. A bullet is fired vertically upward with velocity "V"
from the surface of a spherical planet. When it
reaches its maximum height, its acceleration due to
3. A point charge +Q is positioned at the center of the
base of a square pyramid as shown. The flux through 1
the planet's gravity is th of its value at the surface
one of the four identical upper faces of the pyramid 16
Q
is n , then find n ? of the planet. If the escape velocity from the planet
0
surface is Vesc V N , then the value of N is (ignore
atmosphere).
6. Two point objects of masses m and 4m are at rest at
an infinite seperation. A slight push is given to one of

+Q them and they move towards each other under mutual

gravitational attraction. If G is the universal
gravitational constant. Then at a seperation "r" total
xGm 2
K.E of objects is given by find x?
r

Target: IIT-JEE MAINS & (M + A) XII 2021-22 TEST DATE: 02.01.2022

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7. Two particles A and B of masses 1 kg and 2 kg,
respectively are kept at very large separation. When
they are released they move under their gravitational
attraction. Find the speed (in 10–5 m/sec) of A when
that of B is 4.5 cm/hr
8. A solid sphere of mass M and radius R having a
frictionless tunnel as shown in free space. A particle
(m) is released from rest from the surface of sphere
from point A. The velocity of particle when it reaches
to point "P" in the tunnel is xGM . Find x.
10. A block of mass 0.15 kg rests on an inclined plane of
4R
A with the horizontal is 37o, the minimum force (in new-
R R
2
Target: IIT-JEE MAINS & (M + A) XII 2021-22
9. A tiny planet is going around the sun in an elliptical
orbit. The distance between the two points where
instantaneous velocity is perpendicular to gravitational
force is 14a. The closest distance between the planet
and the sun is 2a. The ratio of the maximum to mini-
mum speed of the planet is x : 1. Then x is?
Planet
Sun
coefficient of friction 0.3. If the angle of the plane
ton) parallel to the plane necessary to prevent it from
2
slipping is g 10m s
REVISION PLAN TEST - 6
9/16
 PART 2 - CHEMISTRY
SECTION–I : (Maximum Marks : 80) 5. A Carnot's engine absorbs 80 kcal of heat from the
This section contains TWENTY questions. source at 127ºC, and transfers to the sink at the
temperature of 27ºC. The magnitude of maximum
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) work which could be done by the engine is:
and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is
(A) 30 kcal (B) 20 kcal
correct.
(C) 40 kcal (D) 50 kcal
For each question, darken the bubble corresponding 6. The figure shows two paths for the change of state
to the correct option in the ORS. of a gas from A to B. The ratio of molar heat capacity
For each question, marks will be awarded in one in path 1 and 2 is
of the following categories : 1
P
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble A B
corresponding to the correct option is darkened. 2 V
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is
(A) >1 (B) <1
darkened.
(C) 1 (D) Data insufficient
Negative Marks : – 1 In all other cases
7. If the numerical value of the standard enthalpy of
1. The number of S-S bonds present in Na 2S 6O 6, formation of carbon dioxide (g) is 393.5 kilo joules
Na2S2O5 & Na2S2O8 are respectively per mol, what would be the change in internal energy
(A) 5, 1, 0 (B) 3, 1, 1 form combustion of graphite (s) at 298K?
(C) 4, 0, 1 (D) 3, 0, 0 (A) 393.5 kJ/mol
2. The correct order of decreasing stability of (B) –393.5 kJ/mol
hexafluoride of group 16 elements is (C) 393.5 kJ/mol + (1) R (298)
(A) SF6 > SeF6 > TeF6 (D) 393.5 kJ/mol – (1) R (298)
(B) TeF6 > SeF6 > SF6 8. 40 g NaOH is reacted with 1 gram equivalent of
(C) SF6 > TeF6 > SeF6 each of the following acids, separately in 10 L
(D) TeF6 > SF6 > SeF6 aqueous solution. The final temperature would be
3. (A) is formed by disproportionation of element (B) highest [assuming the heat capacity of all dilute
by KOH in hot conditions. (A) is used in fire-works solutions to be nearly 1 cal/(g-K)] in case of:
and safety-matches. Which of the following is true (A) Acetic acid
about (A)? [(A) is colourless solid, (B) is coloured] (B) Oxalic acid
(A) It is P (C) Phosphoric acid
(B) It is per-disulphate (D) Hydrofluoric acid
(C) It is a covalent oxides of a non-metal 9. One mole of a non-ideal gas undergoes a change of
(D) It is oxo-anion of halogen state variables from (2.0 atm, 3.0 L, 95 K) to
4. In XeO3, bonds are formed as (4.0 atm, 5.0L, 245 K) with a change in internal
energy E 30 L atm. The change in enthalpy of
(A) One p p overlap + two d p overlap
the process in L-atm is
(B) Three p p overlap (A) 40.0
(C) One d p overlap + two p p overlap (B) 42.3
(D) Three d p overlap (C) 44.0
(D) Not defined because it is not constant

Target: IIT-JEE MAINS & (M + A) XII 2021-22 TEST DATE: 02.01.2022

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10. Upon complete combustion of the gases CH4, C2H6 15. The following compound is partially hydrolyzed to
and C 3H 8 the enthalpy changes associated are give a plant growth supplement (A) & another
–210.8, –368.4 and –526.2 k cal mol-1 respectively. compound (B). (B) is heated to give (C). Select the
The heat released by complete oxidation of hexane correct statement from the following:
by dioxygen would be
1 1 O
(A) 840kcal mol (B) 684kcal mol
NH
(C) 999kcal mol 1
(D) 1105.6kcal mol 1 C6H 5
O
11. In a reversible elementary reaction, A B ,the half- CH3CH2
life of forward reaction (t1/2)f is 400 sec and that of NH
reverse reaction (t1/2)r is 250 sec. The equilibrium O
constant of the reaction is
(A) A is guanidine
(A) 1.6 (B) 0.433
(B) B is an amide
(C) 0.625 (D) 1.109
(C) C is an optically active lactone
12. The heat of reaction at constant volume for an
(D) C has more no. of stereoisomers than B
endothermic reaction in equilibrium is 1200 calories
more than that of at constant pressure at 300 K. The 16. What is the major product in the reaction?
ratio of equilibrium constants KC to KP would be O
(A) 25 (B) 625 NH 3 1 LiAlH 4
O 2 H2 O
(C) 0.04 (D) 0.2
13. To convert MeCOCH2COOEt into
MeCOCH2CHO, which of the following reagent
H
would work? N
(A) NaBH4/PCC (A)
(B) LiAlH4/Jones reagent
(C) H3O+/BH3/HOH
(D) Acidic ethelene glycol/DIBAL-H/H3O+ H
14. Which of the following reactions will proceed at N
room temperature ? (B) OH
O O
(I) CH 3CH 2 CCl H 2O CH 3CH 2 COH HCl
CH2CH2OH
O O
(II) CH 3CH 2 CNH 2 H 2O CH 3CH 2 COH NH 3 (C)
NH2
O O O O-
(III) CH 3COCCH 3 2NH 3 CH 3CNH 2 CH 3 CONH 4 OH
O O (D)
(IV) HCOCH 2CH 3 NH 3 HCNH 2 CH 3CH 2OH CH2CH2NH2

(A) I, II (B) I, III

(C) II, III (D) II, IV

Target: IIT-JEE MAINS & (M + A) XII 2021-22 REVISION PLAN TEST - 6

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17. Which of the following is the strongest base? SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 20)
CH 2NH 2 This section contains TEN questions.
NHCH3
The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL
(A) (B) VALUE.
Attempt any FIVE questions out of 10.
NH2 NH2 For each question, enter the correct numerical value
CH3 (If the numerical value has more than two decimal
places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO
(C) (D)
decimal places; e.g. 6.25, 7.00, –0.33, –.30, 30.27,
–127.30, if answer is 11.36777..... then both 11.36
18. Which of the following reaction is incorrectly and 11.37 will be correct) by darken the
matched? corresponding bubbles in the ORS.
(A) CH 3 CH 2 I AgCN C2 H 5OH /H 2 O
EtNC For Example : If answer is –77.25, 5.2 then fill
the bubbles as follows.
(B) CH 3 NO 2 Cl2 NaOH ClCH 2 NO 2
+ – + –
(C) Benzamide KOBr PhNH 2 0 0 0 0 • 0 0 0 0 0 0 • 0 0
1 1 1 1 • 1 1 1 1 1 1 • 1 1
(D) MeCONH 2 P Br2 BrCH 2 CONH 2 2 2 2 2 • 2 2 2 2 2 2 • 2 2
3 3 3 3 • 3 3 3 3 3 3 • 3 3
19. In the following reactions, reactants A, B and C are 4 4 4 4 • 4 4 4 4 4 4 • 4 4
5 5 5 5 • 5 5 5 5 5 5 • 5 5
C 2 H5 NH 2 A C2 H5 N CH C 6 H5 H 2O 6 6 6 6 • 6 6 6 6 6 6 • 6 6
7 7 7 7 • 7 7 7 7 7 7 • 7 7
Urea B H 2 N NHCONH 2 NH 3 8 8 8 8 • 8 8 8 8 8 8 • 8 8
9 9 9 9 • 9 9 9 9 9 9 • 9 9
C 2 H5 NH 2 C C 2 H 5 Cl H 2 O N 2
(A) CH 3 CHO, NH 2 NH 2 and PCl5 Answer to each question will be evaluated according
to the following marking scheme:
(B) C6 H 5 CHO, NH 2 NH 2 andSOCl 2
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct numerical
(C) C6 H 5 CHO, NH 2 NH 2 and NOCl value is entered as answer.
(D) C 6 H5 CHO, NH 2 NH 2 and PCl 3 Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.
1. How many of the following species have permanent
20. The major product (B) of the reaction
dipole?
O3 , CO, C3O 2 , N 2 O, NO 2 , N 2 O5 ,CH 2 F2 ,
HCl i NaCN excess
ZnCl 2
A ii H 2 ,Ni
B is
O PCl 3 F2 ,SeF4 , XeF4 , ICl 3 , I 2 Cl 6
2. 3.45 g sodium nitrite & 5.35 g ammonium chloride
Cl are mixed in 250 mL of water. Upon heating slowly
(A) HO
a gas is evolved, which is colourless, odourless, neutral
CN to litmus & insoluble in water. The volume (in mL)
(B) NO
of the gas(es) collected at STP is

(C) H2N NH2

(D) HO
NH2

Target: IIT-JEE MAINS & (M + A) XII 2021-22 TEST DATE: 02.01.2022

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3. The amount of heat energy (in cal) required to convert 7. When salicylic acid reacts with acetic anhydride
half mole of ice at –15ºC to steam at 100ºC? product A is formed, when it reacts with acetyl
chloride, B is formed; but when it reacts with phenol,
(Sice = 0.53 cal/gºC, Hfus 80cal / g and
C is formed. If the differences in the molar masses
H vap 539cal / g, and Swater 1cal / gº C ) of A & B is m1 and that of B & C is m 2 , find the
(where 'S' specific heat) value of m2 m1
4. A gas 1.5 is compressed against a varying 8. When the compound 3,6-dioxo-cyclohexane-1,1,2,2-
pressure finally to 1/4th of its original volume, in a tetracarboxylic acid is heated strongly, the volume
container surrounded by a jacket of asbestos around (in L) of gaseous products evolved, measured at STP
it. If we started from the temperature 27ºC, calculate would be
the difference in temperature T,inº C 9. Phthalimide is reacted with NaOEt followed by
reaction with diphenyl-chloromethane. The
5. The enthalpy of atomization of CH4 and C2H6 are subsequent hydrolysis yields two organic compounds.
360 and 620k cal mol-1 respectively. The C–C bond The magnitude of difference of degree of
energy (in k cal/mol) is expected to be unsaturation of the two compounds is
6. The standard enthalpy change (in kJ/mol) for the 10. When nitro benzene is reduced with an element
isomerization of gaseous dimethyl ether into gaseous (the d-block amphoteric metal form 4th period existing
, 415kJmol 1 ; in only one OS) with NaOH in presence of ethanol,
ethanol would be [ H C H
the product formed has:
HC ,350kJmol 1 ; H C ,344kJmol 1 ; Degree of unsaturation = x
O C
Number of C=C = y
HO H
,465kJmol 1 ] The number of multiple bonds other than C = C = z
Give your answer as (100x + 10y + z)

Target: IIT-JEE MAINS & (M + A) XII 2021-22 REVISION PLAN TEST - 6

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 PART 3 - MATHEMATICS
SECTION–I : (Maximum Marks : 80) 4. If the straight line ax by 2;a, b 0 touches the
This section contains TWENTY questions. circle x 2 y2 2x 3 and is normal to the circle
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) x 2 y 2 4y 6, then the values of a and b are
and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is respectively
correct.
(A) 1, 1 (B) 1, 2
For each question, darken the bubble corresponding
to the correct option in the ORS. 4
(C) ,1 (D) 2,1
For each question, marks will be awarded in one 3
of the following categories : 5. In how many ways can 5 boys and 5 girls be seated
Full Marks : +4 If only the bubble at a round table so that not two girls are together?
corresponding to the correct option is darkened. (A) 5! 5! (B) 5! 4!
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the bubbles is 1 2 1
darkened. (C) 5! (D) 5! 4!
2 2
Negative Marks : – 1 In all other cases 6. A student appeared in an examination consisting of
1. Two tangents are drawn from the point P 1,1 to 8 true-false type questions. The student guesses the
answers with equal probability. The smallest value
the circle x 2 y 2 2x 6y 6 0. If these tangents of n, so that the probability of guessing at least 'n'
touch the circle at points A and B, and if D is a point 1
on the circle such that length of the segments AB correct answers is less than , is:
2
and AD are equal, then the area of the triangle ABD
is equal to: (A) 5 (B) 6
(C) 3 (D) 4
(A) 2 (B) 3 2 2 7. If the lines
ax by p 0, x cos ysin p 0 p 0 and
(C) 4 (D) 3 2 1
x sin y cos 0 are concurrent and the first two
2. The coefficient of x 256 in the expansion of
101 2 100 lines include an angle , then a 2 b 2 is equal to
1 x x x 1 is: 4
___
(A) 100 C16 (B) 100
C15 (A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 100
C16 (D) 100
C15 (C) 4 (D) p2
3. Words with or without meaning are to be formed 8. The vertices of a triangle are A 0, 6 ,B 6,0 and
using all the letters of the word EXAMINATION.
The probability that the letter M appears at the fourth C 1,1 respectively, then coordinates of the ex-centre
position in any such word is: opposite to vertex A is:
10 1 3 3 3
(A) (B) (A) , (B) 4,
11 11 2 2 2
1 2
(C) (D) 3 3
9 11 (C) . (D) 4,6
2 2

Target: IIT-JEE MAINS & (M + A) XII 2021-22 TEST DATE: 02.01.2022

LM/16
9. The number of ways in which 20 different pearls of 15. Let A, B and C be three events such that the
two colour can be set alternately on a necklace, there probability that exactly one of A and B occurs is
being 10 pearls of each colour, is
1 k , the probability that exactly one of B and C
2
(A) 9! 10! (B) 5 9! occurs is 1 2k , the probability that exactly one
2
(C) 9! (D) None of these of C and A occurs is 1 k and the probability of all

10. The probability that a randomly selected 2-digit A, B and C occur simultaneously is k 2 , where

number belongs to the set n N: 2n 2 is a 0 k 1. Then the probability that at least one of A,
B and C occur is:
multiple of 3 is equal to
1 1
(A) Greater than but less than
1 2 8 4
(A) (B)
6 3
1
(B) Greater than
1 1 2
(C) (D)
2 3
1 1
11. For the natural numbers m, n, if (C) Greater than but less than
4 2
m n
1 y 1 y 1 a1 y a 2 y 2 ... a m n y m n
1
(D) Exactly equal to
and a1 a 2 10, then the value of m n is equal
2
to: 16. The sum of all those terms which are rational
12
(A) 88 (B) 64 1 1
3 4
(C) 100 (D) 80 numbers in the expansion of 2 3 is:
12. Consider a circle C which touches the y-axis at
(A) 89 (B) 27
0,6 and cuts off an intercept 6 5 on the x-axis.
(C) 35 (D) 43
Then the radius of the circle C is equal to:
17. Let r1 and r2 be the radii of the largest and smallest
(A) 53 (B) 9 circles, respectively, which pass through the point
(C) 8 (D) 82 4,1 and having their centres on the circumference
of the circle x 2 y2 2x 4y 4 0. If
13. If the straight line 3x 4y k x y 3 0 is
parallel to y-axis, then the value of k is: r1
a b 2, then a b is equal to: a,b Q
(A) 1 (B) 2 r2
(C) 3 (D) 4
(A) 3 (B) 11
14. If the circle x 2 y 2 6x 2y k 0 bisects the (C) 5 (D) 7
circumference of the circle 18. Four dice are thrown simultaneously and the numbers
x2 y2 2x 6y 15 0, then k = shown on these dice are recorded in 2 2 matrices.
The probability that such formed matrices have all
(A) 21 (B) -21
different entries and are non-singular, is:
(C) 23 (D) -23
45 23
(A) (B)
162 81

22 43
(C) (D)
81 162

Target: IIT-JEE MAINS & (M + A) XII 2021-22 REVISION PLAN TEST - 6

15/16
19. A line passes through point A 2,3 and makes an 1. The number of rational terms in the binomial
angle of 45 with x-axis. If this line meet the line 1 1 120
4 6
x y 1 0 at point P then distance AP is:- expansion of 4 5 is _____

(A) 2 3 (B) 3 2 2. If the digits are not allowed to repeat in any number
(C) 5 2 (D) 2 5 formed by using the digits 0, 2, 4,6,8 then the number
of all numbers greater than 10,000 is equal to ____
20. The probability of selecting integers a 5,30 such
3. There are 15 players in a cricket team, out of which
2
that x 2 a 4 x 5a 64 0, for all x R, is : 6 are bowlers, 7 are batsmen and 2 are wicket
keepers. The number of ways, a team of 11 players
7 2 be selected from them so as to include at least 4
(A) (B) bowlers, 5 batsmen and 1 wicket keeper, is _____.
36 9
4. If the constant term, in binomial expansion of
1 1
(C) (D) 1
10
6 4 2x r
is 180, then r is equal to ____
x2

SECTION-II : (Maximum Marks: 20) 5. The equation

This section contains TEN questions. Attempt any 9x 3 9x 2 y 45x 2 4y3 4xy 2 20y2 represents
5 questions. First 5 attempted questions will be 3 straight lines, two of which pass through the origin.
considered for marking. Find the area of the triangle formed by these lines
The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL (in sq. units)
VALUE.
For each question, enter the correct numerical value 6. If y 2x m is a diameter to the circle
(If the numerical value has more than two decimal x2 y2 3x 4y 1 0, then find m
places, truncate/round-off the value to TWO
decimal places; e.g. 6.25, 7.00, –0.33, –.30, 30.27, 7. In how many ways the letters of the word
–127.30, if answer is 11.36777..... then both 11.36 "ARRANGE" can be arranged without altering the
and 11.37 will be correct) by darken the relative position of vowels and constants.
corresponding bubbles in the ORS. 8. A 0,1 and B 0, 1 are 2 points. If a variable point
For Example : If answer is –77.25, 5.2 then fill
P moves such that sum of its distance from A and B
the bubbles as follows.
is 4, then the locus of P is the equation of the form of
+ – + – x2 y2
0 0 0 0 • 0 0 0 0 0 0 • 0 0 1. Find the value of a 2 b2 .
1 1 1 1 • 1 1 1 1 1 1 • 1 1
a2 b2
2 2 2 2 • 2 2 2 2 2 2 • 2 2 9. The ratio of the coefficient of the middle term in the
3 3 3 3 • 3 3 3 3 3 3 • 3 3
20
4 4 4 4 • 4 4 4 4 4 4 • 4 4 expansion of 1 x and the sum of the coefficients
5 5 5 5 • 5 5 5 5 5 5 • 5 5
6 6 6 6 • 6 6 6 6 6 6 • 6 6 19
7 7 7 7 • 7 7 7 7 7 7 • 7 7
of two middle terms in expansion of 1 x is
8 8 8 8 • 8 8 8 8 8 8 • 8 8 ____
9 9 9 9 • 9 9 9 9 9 9 • 9 9
10. The term independent of 'x' in the expansion of
Answer to each question will be evaluated according 10

to the following marking scheme: x 1 x 1

2 1 1
, where x 0,1 is equal to
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct numerical 3 3 2
x x 1 x x
value is entered as answer.
_____
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases

Target: IIT-JEE MAINS & (M + A) XII 2021-22 TEST DATE: 02.01.2022

LM/16