NEET 2018 English Question Papers With Answer Key Code WW Hn1Ttnc

NEET2018
QUESTIONPAPER
WITH
ANSWERKEY
(
CODEWW,
XX,
YY,
ZZ)
ALHCA Test Booklet Code
*0WW*
WW
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ALHCA/WW/Page 1 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English

1. The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working 5. A battery consists of a variable number ‘n’ of
between the freezing point and boiling point of identical cells (having internal resistance ‘r’
water, is
each) which are connected in series. The
(1) 26·8%
terminals of the battery are short-circuited and
(2) 6·25%
the current I is measured. Which of the graphs
(3) 20% shows the correct relationship between I and n ?
(4) 12·5%
2. At what temperature will the rms speed of
oxygen molecules become just sufficient for
escaping from the Earth’s atmosphere ?
(Given :
–26
Mass of oxygen molecule (m) = 2·76  10 kg
–23 –1
Boltzmann’s constant kB = 1·38  10 JK )
4
(1) 2·508  10 K
4
(2) 5·016  10 K
4
(3) 8·360  10 K
4
(4) 1·254  10 K
3. The fundamental frequency in an open organ
pipe is equal to the third harmonic of a closed
organ pipe. If the length of the closed organ pipe
is 20 cm, the length of the open organ pipe is
(1) 13·2 cm
(2) 12·5 cm
(3) 8 cm
(4) 16 cm 6. A carbon resistor of (47  4·7) k is to be marked
4. The volume (V) of a monatomic gas varies with with rings of different colours for its
its temperature (T), as shown in the graph. The identification. The colour code sequence will be
ratio of work done by the gas, to the heat (1) Violet – Yellow – Orange – Silver
absorbed by it, when it undergoes a change from
state A to state B, is (2) Yellow – Green – Violet – Gold
(3) Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver
(4) Green – Orange – Violet – Gold
7. A set of ‘n’ equal resistors, of value ‘R’ each, are

connected in series to a battery of emf ‘E’ and
internal resistance ‘R’. The current drawn is I.
2 Now, the ‘n’ resistors are connected in parallel to
(1)
5 the same battery. Then the current drawn from
1 battery becomes 10 I. The value of ‘n’ is
(2)
3
(1) 10
2
(3) (2) 20
3
2 (3) 11
(4)
7 (4) 9

8. Current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer 12. An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm from a
is 5 div/mA and its voltage sensitivity (angular concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. If the object
deflection per unit voltage applied) is 20 div/V.
is displaced through a distance of 20 cm towards
The resistance of the galvanometer is
the mirror, the displacement of the image will be
(1) 40 
(1) 30 cm away from the mirror
(2) 250 
(2) 30 cm towards the mirror
(3) 25 
(4) 500  (3) 36 cm away from the mirror
9. A metallic rod of mass per unit length
–1
0·5 kg m is lying horizontally on a smooth 13. An em wave is propagating in a medium with a
inclined plane which makes an angle of 30 with  ^
velocity V = V i . The instantaneous oscillating
the horizontal. The rod is not allowed to slide
down by flowing a current through it when a electric field of this em wave is along +y axis.
magnetic field of induction 0·25 T is acting on it Then the direction of oscillating magnetic field of
in the vertical direction. The current flowing in the em wave will be along
the rod to keep it stationary is
(1) – z direction
(1) 7·14 A
(2) – y direction
(2) 14·76 A
(3) 5·98 A (3) + z direction
(4) 11·32 A (4) – x direction
10. A thin diamagnetic rod is placed vertically 14. The magnetic potential energy stored in a certain
between the poles of an electromagnet. When the inductor is 25 mJ, when the current in the
current in the electromagnet is switched on, then inductor is 60 mA. This inductor is of inductance
the diamagnetic rod is pushed up, out of the
(1) 0·138 H
horizontal magnetic field. Hence the rod gains
gravitational potential energy. The work (2) 1·389 H
required to do this comes from (3) 138·88 H
(1) the current source (4) 13·89 H
(2) the lattice structure of the material of the
rod 15. The refractive index of the material of a prism is
2 and the angle of the prism is 30. One of the
(3) the magnetic field
two refracting surfaces of the prism is made a
(4) the induced electric field due to the
changing magnetic field mirror inwards, by silver coating. A beam of
monochromatic light entering the prism from the
11. An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 100 F and a
other face will retrace its path (after reflection
resistor 50  are connected in series across a
from the silvered surface) if its angle of incidence
source of emf, V = 10 sin 314 t. The power loss in
the circuit is on the prism is
(1) 0·79 W (1) 60

(2) 2·74 W (2) 30
(3) 0·43 W (3) 45
(4) 1·13 W (4) zero

16. In the circuit shown in the figure, the input 19. Unpolarised light is incident from air on a plane
voltage Vi is 20 V, VBE = 0 and VCE = 0. The surface of a material of refractive index ‘’. At a
values of IB, IC and  are given by particular angle of incidence ‘i’, it is found that
the reflected and refracted rays are
perpendicular to each other. Which of the
following options is correct for this situation ?
(1) Reflected light is polarised with its electric

vector parallel to the plane of incidence
–1  1 
(2) i = sin  


vector perpendicular to the plane of
(1) IB = 40 A, IC = 10 mA,  = 250
incidence
(2) IB = 20 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 250
–1  1 
(4) i = tan  
(3) IB = 25 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 200 
(4) IB = 40 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 125

20. In Young’s double slit experiment the separation
17. In a p-n junction diode, change in temperature
d between the slits is 2 mm, the wavelength  of
due to heating
the light used is 5896 Å and distance D between
(1) affects only reverse resistance
the screen and slits is 100 cm. It is found that the
(2) does not affect resistance of p-n junction
angular width of the fringes is 0·20. To increase
(3) affects only forward resistance the fringe angular width to 0·21 (with same 
(4) affects the overall V – I characteristics of and D) the separation between the slits needs to
p-n junction
be changed to
18. In the combination of the following gates the (1) 1·8 mm
output Y can be written in terms of inputs A and
(2) 2·1 mm
B as
(3) 1·9 mm
(4) 1·7 mm
21. An astronomical refracting telescope will have

large angular magnification and high angular
resolution, when it has an objective lens of
(1) A.B
(1) small focal length and large diameter
(2) A.B +A.B (2) large focal length and large diameter
– –
(3) A. B + A .B (3) large focal length and small diameter
(4) AB (4) small focal length and small diameter

22. A tuning fork is used to produce resonance in a 26. The kinetic energies of a planet in an elliptical
glass tube. The length of the air column in this orbit about the Sun, at positions A, B and C are
tube can be adjusted by a variable piston. At
KA, KB and KC, respectively. AC is the major
room temperature of 27C two successive
resonances are produced at 20 cm and 73 cm of axis and SB is perpendicular to AC at the
column length. If the frequency of the tuning fork position of the Sun S as shown in the figure.
is 320 Hz, the velocity of sound in air at 27C is Then
(1) 330 m/s
(2) 350 m/s
(3) 339 m/s
(4) 300 m/s
(1) KA < KB < K C
23. A pendulum is hung from the roof of a
(2) KB < KA < K C
sufficiently high building and is moving freely to
and fro like a simple harmonic oscillator. The (3) KA > KB > K C
acceleration of the bob of the pendulum is
2 (4) KB > KA > K C
20 m/s at a distance of 5 m from the mean
position. The time period of oscillation is
27. A solid sphere is in rolling motion. In rolling
(1) 2 s motion a body possesses translational kinetic
(2) 2s energy (Kt) as well as rotational kinetic energy
(Kr) simultaneously. The ratio Kt : (Kt + Kr) for
(3) s
the sphere is
(4) 1s
(1) 7 : 10
24. The electrostatic force between the metal plates (2) 10 : 7
of an isolated parallel plate capacitor C having a (3) 5:7
charge Q and area A, is
(4) 2:5
(1) independent of the distance between the
plates. 28. A solid sphere is rotating freely about its
(2) proportional to the square root of the symmetry axis in free space. The radius of the
distance between the plates. sphere is increased keeping its mass same.
Which of the following physical quantities would
(3) linearly proportional to the distance
remain constant for the sphere ?
between the plates.
(1) Angular velocity
(4) inversely proportional to the distance
between the plates. (2) Rotational kinetic energy
(3) Moment of inertia
25. An electron falls from rest through a vertical
distance h in a uniform and vertically upward (4) Angular momentum
directed electric field E. The direction of electric
29. If the mass of the Sun were ten times smaller
field is now reversed, keeping its magnitude the
and the universal gravitational constant were
same. A proton is allowed to fall from rest in it
ten times larger in magnitude, which of the
through the same vertical distance h. The time of
following is not correct ?
fall of the electron, in comparison to the time of
fall of the proton is (1) Raindrops will fall faster.
(1) smaller (2) Time period of a simple pendulum on the
Earth would decrease.
(2) 10 times greater
(3) Walking on the ground would become more
(3) 5 times greater difficult.
(4) equal (4) ‘g’ on the Earth will not change.
30. A toy car with charge q moves on a frictionless 34. Which one of the following statements is
horizontal plane surface under the influence of a incorrect ?
 
uniform electric field E . Due to the force q E , (1) Rolling friction is smaller than sliding
its velocity increases from 0 to 6 m/s in one friction.
second duration. At that instant the direction of (2) Frictional force opposes the relative motion.
the field is reversed. The car continues to move (3) Limiting value of static friction is directly
for two more seconds under the influence of this proportional to normal reaction.
field. The average velocity and the average speed (4) Coefficient of sliding friction has
of the toy car between 0 to 3 seconds are dimensions of length.
respectively 35. Three objects, A : (a solid sphere), B : (a thin
(1) 2 m/s, 4 m/s circular disk) and C : (a circular ring), each have
(2) 1 m/s, 3·5 m/s the same mass M and radius R. They all spin
(3) 1 m/s, 3 m/s with the same angular speed  about their own
(4) 1·5 m/s, 3 m/s symmetry axes. The amounts of work (W)
31. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth inclined required to bring them to rest, would satisfy the
wedge ABC of inclination  as shown in the relation
figure. The wedge is given an acceleration ‘a’
(1) WC > WB > WA
towards the right. The relation between a and 
for the block to remain stationary on the wedge (2) WB > WA > WC
is
(3) WA > WB > WC
(4) WA > WC > WB
36. A moving block having mass m, collides with
another stationary block having mass 4m. The
lighter block comes to rest after collision. When
g the initial velocity of the lighter block is v, then
(1) a=
cosec  the value of coefficient of restitution (e) will be
(2) a = g cos  (1) 0·5
g (2) 0·8
(3) a= (3) 0·25
sin 
(4) a = g tan  (4) 0·4
 ^ ^ ^
32. The moment of the force, F = 4 i + 5 j – 6 k at 37. A body initially at rest and sliding along a
(2, 0, – 3), about the point (2, – 2, – 2), is given by frictionless track from a height h (as shown in
^ ^ ^ the figure) just completes a vertical circle of
(1) – 8 i – 4 j – 7 k
diameter AB = D. The height h is equal to
^ ^ ^
(2) – 7 i – 8 j – 4 k
^ ^ ^
(3) – 4 i – j – 8 k
^ ^ ^
(4) – 7 i – 4 j – 8 k
33. A student measured the diameter of a small steel
ball using a screw gauge of least count
0·001 cm. The main scale reading is 5 mm and 3
(1) D
zero of circular scale division coincides with 2
25 divisions above the reference level. If screw 7
gauge has a zero error of – 0·004 cm, the correct (2) D
diameter of the ball is 5
(1) 0·521 cm (3) D
(2) 0·053 cm
(3) 0·525 cm 5
(4) D
(4) 0·529 cm 4
38. Two wires are made of the same material and
42. An electron of mass m with an initial velocity
have the same volume. The first wire has  ^
cross-sectional area A and the second wire has V = V0 i (V0 > 0) enters an electric field
cross-sectional area 3A. If the length of the first  ^
E = – E0 i (E0 = constant > 0) at t = 0. If 0 is
wire is increased by  l on applying a force F,
how much force is needed to stretch the second its de-Broglie wavelength initially, then its
wire by the same amount ?
de-Broglie wavelength at time t is
(1) 9 F
(2) 4 F 0
(1)
(3) 6 F  eE0 
1  t
(4) F  mV0 

39. A sample of 0·1 g of water at 100C and normal (2) 0 t
5 –2
pressure (1·013  10 Nm ) requires 54 cal of
 eE0 
heat energy to convert to steam at 100C. If the (3) 0  1  t 
 mV0 
volume of the steam produced is 167·1 cc, the
change in internal energy of the sample, is (4) 0
(1) 104·3 J
(2) 42·2 J 43. For a radioactive material, half-life is
(3) 208·7 J 10 minutes. If initially there are 600 number of
(4) 84·5 J nuclei, the time taken (in minutes) for the
disintegration of 450 nuclei is
40. The power radiated by a black body is P and it (1) 20
radiates maximum energy at wavelength, 0. If (2) 30
the temperature of the black body is now (3) 10
changed so that it radiates maximum energy at (4) 15
3
wavelength  , the power radiated by it
4 0 44. The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy of
becomes nP. The value of n is an electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom,
3 is
(1)
4 (1) 1:1
256 (2) 2:–1
(2)
81
(3) 1:–1
4
(3) (4) 1:–2
3
81 45. When the light of frequency 2v0 (where v0 is
(4)
256 threshold frequency), is incident on a metal
plate, the maximum velocity of electrons emitted
41. A small sphere of radius ‘r’ falls from rest in a
viscous liquid. As a result, heat is produced due is v1. When the frequency of the incident
to viscous force. The rate of production of heat radiation is increased to 5v0, the maximum
when the sphere attains its terminal velocity, is velocity of electrons emitted from the same plate
proportional to is v2. The ratio of v1 to v2 is
3
(1) r (1) 1:2
5
(2) r (2) 4:1
2
(3) r (3) 1:4
4
(4) r (4) 2:1
46. Which of the following oxides is most acidic in 51. The compound A on treatment with Na gives B,
nature ?
and with PCl5 gives C. B and C react together to
(1) MgO
give diethyl ether. A, B and C are in the order
(2) BaO
(3) BeO (1) C2H5OH, C2H6, C2H5Cl
(4) CaO
(2) C2H5Cl, C2H6, C2H5OH
47. The difference between amylose and amylopectin
is (3) C2H5OH, C2H5Cl, C2H5ONa
(1) Amylopectin have 1  4 -linkage and
(4) C2H5OH, C2H5ONa, C2H5Cl
1  6 -linkage
1  6 -linkage 52. Hydrocarbon (A) reacts with bromine by
substitution to form an alkyl bromide which by
(3) Amylose have 14 -linkage and
1  6 -linkage Wurtz reaction is converted to gaseous
(4) Amylose is made up of glucose and hydrocarbon containing less than four carbon
galactose atoms. (A) is
48. A mixture of 2·3 g formic acid and 4·5 g oxalic (1) CH  CH

acid is treated with conc. H2SO4. The evolved
(2) CH3 – CH3
gaseous mixture is passed through KOH pellets.
Weight (in g) of the remaining product at STP (3) CH2 = CH2
will be
(1) 1·4 (4) CH4
(2) 2·8
53. The compound C7H8 undergoes the following
(3) 3·0
(4) 4·4 reactions :
49. Regarding cross-linked or network polymers,

which of the following statements is incorrect ?
The product ‘C’ is
(1) They contain covalent bonds between
various linear polymer chains. (1) m-bromotoluene
(2) Examples are bakelite and melamine.
(2) 3-bromo-2,4,6-trichlorotoluene
(3) They are formed from bi- and tri-functional
monomers. (3) o-bromotoluene
(4) They contain strong covalent bonds in their (4) p-bromotoluene
polymer chains.
50. Nitration of aniline in strong acidic medium also 54. Which oxide of nitrogen is not a common
gives m-nitroaniline because pollutant introduced into the atmosphere both
(1) In spite of substituents nitro group always due to natural and human activity ?
goes to only m-position.
(1) N2O5
(2) In absence of substituents nitro group
always goes to m-position. (2) N2O
(3) In electrophilic substitution reactions
amino group is meta directive. (3) NO2
(4) In acidic (strong) medium aniline is present
(4) NO
as anilinium ion.
55. The bond dissociation energies of X2, Y2 and XY 60. Consider the change in oxidation state of
are in the ratio of 1 : 0·5 : 1. H for the formation Bromine corresponding to different emf values as
–1
of XY is – 200 kJ mol . The bond dissociation shown in the diagram below :
energy of X2 will be
–1
(1) 200 kJ mol
–1
(2) 800 kJ mol
–1
(3) 100 kJ mol
–1 Then the species undergoing disproportionation
(4) 400 kJ mol
is
56. When initial concentration of the reactant is (1) Br O 3–
doubled, the half-life period of a zero order
reaction (2) Br2
(1) is halved (3) Br O 4–
(2) is tripled
(4) HBrO
(3) is doubled
(4) remains unchanged 61. Among CaH2, BeH2, BaH2, the order of ionic
character is
57. The correction factor ‘a’ to the ideal gas equation
corresponds to (1) BeH2 < CaH2 < BaH2
(1) density of the gas molecules (2) BeH2 < BaH2 < CaH2
(2) electric field present between the gas (3) CaH2 < BeH2 < BaH2
molecules
(4) BaH2 < BeH2 < CaH2
(3) volume of the gas molecules
(4) forces of attraction between the gas 62. In which case is the number of molecules of water
molecules maximum ?
(1) 18 mL of water
58. For the redox reaction
(2) 0·00224 L of water vapours at 1 atm and
– + 2+
Mn O 4– + C2 O42 + H  Mn + CO2 + H2O 273 K
the correct coefficients of the reactants for the (3) 0·18 g of water
balanced equation are –3
(4) 10 mol of water
+
Mn O 4– C 2O 2 – H 63. The correct difference between first- and
4
(1) 16 5 2 second-order reactions is that
(2) 2 16 5 (1) the rate of a first-order reaction does not
depend on reactant concentrations; the rate
(3) 2 5 16
of a second-order reaction does depend on
(4) 5 16 2 reactant concentrations
59. Which one of the following conditions will favour (2) a first-order reaction can be catalyzed; a
maximum formation of the product in the second-order reaction cannot be catalyzed
reaction, (3) the half-life of a first-order reaction does not
A2 (g) + B2 (g) 
X2 (g) rH = – X kJ ? depend on [A]0; the half-life of a
(1) Low temperature and high pressure second-order reaction does depend on [A] 0
(2) High temperature and high pressure (4) the rate of a first-order reaction does
(3) Low temperature and low pressure
of a second-order reaction does not depend
(4) High temperature and low pressure on reactant concentrations
64. Which of the following is correct with respect to 67. Magnesium reacts with an element (X) to form an
– I effect of the substituents ? (R = alkyl) ionic compound. If the ground state electronic
2 2 3
configuration of (X) is 1s 2s 2p , the simplest
(1) – NH2 < – OR < – F
formula for this compound is
(2) – NH2 > – OR > – F (1) Mg2X3
(3) – NR2 < – OR < – F (2) Mg2X
(4) – NR2 > – OR > – F (3) MgX2

(4) Mg3X2
65. Which of the following molecules represents the 68. Iron exhibits bcc structure at room temperature.
2 2 Above 900C, it transforms to fcc structure. The
order of hybridisation sp , sp , sp, sp from left to
right atoms ? ratio of density of iron at room temperature to
that at 900C (assuming molar mass and atomic
(1) HC  C – C  CH radii of iron remains constant with temperature)
is
(2) CH2 = CH – CH = CH2
3
(3) CH2 = CH – C  CH (1)
2
(4) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3 3 3
(2)
4 2
66. Which of the following carbocations is expected to 4 3
be most stable ? (3)
3 2
1
(4)
2
69. Which one is a wrong statement ?
(1) Total orbital angular momentum of electron
in ‘s’ orbital is equal to zero.
(2) The electronic configuration of N atom is
(3) An orbital is designated by three quantum

numbers while an electron in an atom is
designated by four quantum numbers.
(4) The value of m for d z 2 is zero.
70. Consider the following species :

+ –
CN , CN , NO and CN
Which one of these will have the highest bond
order ?
(1) NO
+
(2) CN
–
(3) CN
(4) CN
71. Which of the following statements is not true for 77. In the reaction
halogens ?
(1) All form monobasic oxyacids.
(2) All but fluorine show positive oxidation
states.
(3) All are oxidizing agents.
the electrophile involved is
(4) Chlorine has the highest electron-gain

enthalpy. (1) dichloromethyl cation ( CHCl 2 )
72. Considering Ellingham diagram, which of the
following metals can be used to reduce alumina ? (2) dichloromethyl anion ( )
(1) Fe 
(3) formyl cation ( CHO )
(2) Mg
(3) Zn (4) dichlorocarbene (:CCl2)
(4) Cu
73. The correct order of atomic radii in group 13 78. Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points than
elements is aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols of
(1) B < Al < In < Ga < Tl comparable molecular mass. It is due to their
(2) B < Ga < Al < Tl < In (1) formation of intramolecular H-bonding
(3) B < Al < Ga < In < Tl (2) more extensive association of carboxylic
(4) B < Ga < Al < In < Tl acid via van der Waals force of attraction
(3) formation of carboxylate ion
74. In the structure of ClF3, the number of lone pairs
(4) formation of intermolecular H-bonding
of electrons on central atom ‘Cl’ is
(1) one
(2) four 79. Compound A, C8H10O, is found to react with
(3) two NaOI (produced by reacting Y with NaOH) and
(4) three yields a yellow precipitate with characteristic
smell.
75. The correct order of N-compounds in its
decreasing order of oxidation states is A and Y are respectively
(1) HNO3, NO, N2, NH4Cl

(2) HNO3, NH4Cl, NO, N2
(3) HNO3, NO, NH4Cl, N2
(4) NH4Cl, N2, NO, HNO3
76. Which one of the following elements is unable to

3–
form MF6 ion ?
(1) Ga
(2) B
(3) Al
(4) In

80. Match the metal ions given in Column I with the 85. Following solutions were prepared by mixing
spin magnetic moments of the ions given in different volumes of NaOH and HCl of different
Column II and assign the correct code : concentrations :
Column I Column II M M
a. 60 mL HCl + 40 mL NaOH
3+ 10 10
a. Co i. 8 B.M.
M M
b. Cr
3+
ii. 35 B.M. b. 55 mL HCl + 45 mL NaOH
10 10
3+ M M
c. Fe iii. 3 B.M. c. 75 mL HCl + 25 mL NaOH
2+ 5 5
d. Ni iv. 24 B.M.
M M
v. 15 B.M. d. 100 mL HCl + 100 mL NaOH
10 10
a b c d pH of which one of them will be equal to 1 ?
(1) b
(1) iv v ii i
(2) d
(2) iv i ii iii
(3) a
(3) i ii iii iv (4) c
(4) iii v i ii
86. On which of the following properties does the
81. Iron carbonyl, Fe(CO)5 is coagulating power of an ion depend ?
(1) tetranuclear (1) The magnitude of the charge on the ion
(2) trinuclear alone
(3) mononuclear (2) Both magnitude and sign of the charge on
the ion
(4) dinuclear
(3) Size of the ion alone
82. The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the (4) The sign of charge on the ion alone
complex [Ni(CO)4] are
(1) square planar geometry and diamagnetic 87. The solubility of BaSO4 in water is
–3 –1
(2) square planar geometry and paramagnetic 2·42  10 gL at 298 K. The value of its
(3) tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic solubility product (Ksp) will be
–1
(4) tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic (Given molar mass of BaSO4 = 233 g mol )
83. Which one of the following ions exhibits –10 2 –2

(1) 1·08  10 mol L
d-d transition and paramagnetism as well ?
–14 2 –2
2– (2) 1·08  10 mol L
(1) CrO 4
–12 2 –2
(3) 1·08  10 mol L
–
(2) MnO 4 –8 2 –2
(4) 1·08  10 mol L
2–
(3) Cr2O7
88. Given van der Waals constant for NH3, H2, O2
2–
(4) MnO 4 and CO2 are respectively 4·17, 0·244, 1·36 and
3·59, which one of the following gases is most
84. The type of isomerism shown by the complex easily liquefied ?
[CoCl2(en)2] is
(1) NH3
(1) Geometrical isomerism
(2) O2
(2) Ionization isomerism
(3) H2
(3) Coordination isomerism
(4) Linkage isomerism (4) CO2

89. Which of the following compounds can form a 91. What type of ecological pyramid would be
obtained with the following data ?
zwitterion ?
Secondary consumer : 120 g
(1) Aniline Primary consumer : 60 g
Primary producer : 10 g
(2) Benzoic acid
(1) Inverted pyramid of biomass
(3) Acetanilide (2) Upright pyramid of numbers
(3) Pyramid of energy
(4) Glycine
(4) Upright pyramid of biomass
92. Natality refers to
(1) Death rate
90. Identify the major products P, Q and R in the (2) Number of individuals leaving the habitat
following sequence of reactions : (3) Birth rate
(4) Number of individuals entering a habitat
93. World Ozone Day is celebrated on

th
(1) 5 June
th
(2) 16 September
st
(3) 21 April
nd
(4) 22 April
94. In stratosphere, which of the following elements

acts as a catalyst in degradation of ozone and
release of molecular oxygen ?
(1) Carbon
(2) Fe
(3) Cl
(4) Oxygen
95. Niche is
(1) all the biological factors in the organism’s
environment
(2) the range of temperature that the organism
needs to live
(3) the physical space where an organism lives
(4) the functional role played by the organism
where it lives
96. Which of the following is a secondary pollutant ?
(1) CO
(2) SO2
(3) CO2
(4) O3
+
97. What is the role of NAD in cellular 104. The stage during which separation of the paired
respiration ? homologous chromosomes begins is
(1) It functions as an enzyme. (1) Pachytene
(2) It is a nucleotide source for ATP synthesis. (2) Diakinesis
(3) It functions as an electron carrier. (3) Diplotene
(4) It is the final electron acceptor for anaerobic (4) Zygotene
respiration. 105. Which of the following is true for nucleolus ?
98. Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis by (1) Larger nucleoli are present in dividing cells.
(1) Green sulphur bacteria (2) It takes part in spindle formation.
(2) Cycas (3) It is a membrane-bound structure.
(3) Nostoc (4) It is a site for active ribosomal RNA
(4) Chara synthesis.
99. Which one of the following plants shows a very 106. Which among the following is not a prokaryote ?
close relationship with a species of moth, where (1) Saccharomyces
none of the two can complete its life cycle without (2) Nostoc
the other ? (3) Mycobacterium
(1) Hydrilla (4) Oscillatoria
(2) Banana
107. Stomatal movement is not affected by
(3) Yucca
(1) Temperature
(4) Viola
(2) O2 concentration
100. In which of the following forms is iron absorbed (3) Light
by plants ?
(4) CO2 concentration
(1) Ferric
(2) Free element 108. Stomata in grass leaf are
(3) Ferrous (1) Dumb-bell shaped
(4) Both ferric and ferrous (2) Rectangular
(3) Kidney shaped
101. Which of the following elements is responsible for
(4) Barrel shaped
maintaining turgor in cells ?
(1) Magnesium 109. The two functional groups characteristic of
sugars are
(2) Potassium
(3) Sodium (1) hydroxyl and methyl
(4) Calcium (2) carbonyl and phosphate
(3) carbonyl and methyl
102. Double fertilization is
(1) Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen tube (4) carbonyl and hydroxyl
with two different eggs 110. The Golgi complex participates in
(2) Fusion of two male gametes with one egg (1) Fatty acid breakdown
(3) Fusion of one male gamete with two polar (2) Respiration in bacteria
nuclei (3) Formation of secretory vesicles
(4) Syngamy and triple fusion (4) Activation of amino acid
103. Pollen grains can be stored for several years in 111. Which of the following is not a product of light
liquid nitrogen having a temperature of reaction of photosynthesis ?
(1) – 120C (1) ATP
(2) – 196C (2) NADPH
(3) – 80C (3) NADH
(4) – 160C (4) Oxygen
112. Offsets are produced by 119. Winged pollen grains are present in
(1) Meiotic divisions (1) Mustard
(2) Parthenocarpy (2) Mango
(3) Mitotic divisions (3) Cycas
(4) Parthenogenesis
(4) Pinus
113. Select the correct statement :
(1) 120. After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores are
Franklin Stahl coined the term ‘‘linkage’’.
(2) Spliceosomes take part in translation. produced exogenously in
(3) Punnett square was developed by a British (1) Neurospora
scientist. (2) Agaricus
(4) Transduction was discovered by S. Altman. (3) Alternaria
(4) Saccharomyces
114. Which of the following has proved helpful in
preserving pollen as fossils ?
121. Which one is wrongly matched ?
(1) Pollenkitt (1) Uniflagellate gametes – Polysiphonia
(2) Oil content (2) Gemma cups – Marchantia
(3) Cellulosic intine (3) Biflagellate zoospores – Brown algae
(4) Sporopollenin (4) Unicellular organism – Chlorella
115. Select the correct match :
(1) Alec Jeffreys – Streptococcus 122. Match the items given in Column I with those in
pneumoniae Column II and select the correct option given
(2) Matthew Meselson – Pisum sativum below :
and F. Stahl Column I Column II
(3) Alfred Hershey and – TMV a. Herbarium i. It is a place having a
Martha Chase collection of preserved
(4) Francois Jacob and – Lac operon plants and animals.
Jacques Monod b. Key ii. A list that enumerates
116. The experimental proof for semiconservative methodically all the
replication of DNA was first shown in a species found in an area
(1) Fungus with brief description
(2) Plant aiding identification.
(3) Bacterium
c. Museum iii. Is a place where dried and
(4) Virus
pressed plant specimens
117. Which of the following flowers only once in its mounted on sheets are
life-time ?
kept.
(1) Bamboo species
d. Catalogue iv. A booklet containing a list
(2) Mango
of characters and their
(3) Jackfruit
alternates which are
(4) Papaya
helpful in identification of
118. Which of the following pairs is wrongly
various taxa.
matched ?
a b c d
(1) Starch synthesis in pea : Multiple alleles
(1) i iv iii ii
(2) XO type sex : Grasshopper
determination (2) ii iv iii i
(3) ABO blood grouping : Co-dominance (3) iii ii i iv
(4) T.H. Morgan : Linkage (4) iii iv i ii

123. Secondary xylem and phloem in dicot stem are 130. A ‘new’ variety of rice was patented by a foreign
produced by company, though such varieties have been
(1) Apical meristems present in India for a long time. This is related to
(2) Phellogen (1) Co-667
(3) Vascular cambium (2) Lerma Rojo
(4) Axillary meristems (3) Sharbati Sonora
(4) Basmati
124. Pneumatophores occur in
(1) Halophytes 131. Which of the following is commonly used as a
(2) Carnivorous plants vector for introducing a DNA fragment in human
lymphocytes ?
(3) Free-floating hydrophytes
(1) Retrovirus
(4) Submerged hydrophytes
(2)  phage
125. Sweet potato is a modified
(1) Stem (3) Ti plasmid
(2) Tap root (4) pBR 322

(3) Adventitious root 132. In India, the organisation responsible for
(4) Rhizome assessing the safety of introducing genetically
modified organisms for public use is
126. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(1) Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
(1) Ovules are not enclosed by ovary wall in
gymnosperms. (2) Research Committee on Genetic
Manipulation (RCGM)
(2) Horsetails are gymnosperms.
(3) Council for Scientific and Industrial
(3) Selaginella is heterosporous, while Salvinia
Research (CSIR)
is homosporous.
(4) Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee
(4) Stems are usually unbranched in both
(GEAC)
Cycas and Cedrus.
127. Select the wrong statement :
(1) Ribozyme – Nucleic acid
(1) Cell wall is present in members of Fungi
and Plantae. (2) T.H. Morgan – Transduction
(2) Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding (3) F2  Recessive parent – Dihybrid cross
structures in Sporozoans. (4) G. Mendel – Transformation
(3) Mushrooms belong to Basidiomycetes.
134. The correct order of steps in Polymerase Chain
(4) Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the cell Reaction (PCR) is
in all kingdoms except Monera.
(1) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
128. Casparian strips occur in (2) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
(1) Epidermis (3) Annealing, Extension, Denaturation
(2) Cortex (4) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
(3) Pericycle
135. Use of bioresources by multinational companies
(4) Endodermis
and organisations without authorisation from the
129. Plants having little or no secondary growth are concerned country and its people is called
(1) Grasses (1) Bio-infringement
(2) Conifers (2) Biodegradation
(3) Deciduous angiosperms (3) Biopiracy
(4) Cycads (4) Bioexploitation
136. The transparent lens in the human eye is held in 140. All of the following are part of an operon except
its place by (1) an operator
(1) ligaments attached to the ciliary body (2) an enhancer
(2) smooth muscles attached to the iris (3) structural genes
(3) ligaments attached to the iris (4) a promoter
(4) smooth muscles attached to the ciliary body 141. AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding
strand of a gene. What will be the corresponding
137. Which of the following hormones can play a sequence of the transcribed mRNA ?
significant role in osteoporosis ?
(1) AGGUAUCGCAU
(1) Aldosterone and Prolactin (2) ACCUAUGCGAU
(2) Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone (3) UGGTUTCGCAT
(3) Progesterone and Aldosterone (4) UCCAUAGCGUA
(4) Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin
142. Match the items given in Column I with those in
Column II and select the correct option given
138. Which of the following structures or regions is below :
incorrectly paired with its function ?
Column I Column II
(1) Medulla oblongata : controls respiration a. Proliferative Phase i. Breakdown of
and cardiovascular endometrial
reflexes. lining
(2) Hypothalamus : production of b. Secretory Phase ii. Follicular Phase
releasing hormones
and regulation of c. Menstruation iii. Luteal Phase
temperature, a b c
hunger and thirst.
(1) iii ii i
(3) Limbic system : consists of fibre
(2) ii iii i
tracts that
interconnect (3) i iii ii
different regions of (4) iii i ii
brain; controls
movement. 143. According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism of
(4) Corpus callosum : band of fibers evolution is
connecting left and (1) Multiple step mutations
right cerebral (2) Phenotypic variations
hemispheres.
(3) Saltation
(4) Minor mutations
139. Which of the following is an amino acid derived
hormone ? 144. A woman has an X-linked condition on one of her
X chromosomes. This chromosome can be
(1) Epinephrine inherited by
(2) Estradiol (1) Only daughters
(2) Only grandchildren
(3) Ecdysone
(3) Only sons
(4) Estriol (4) Both sons and daughters
145. In which disease does mosquito transmitted 151. Which one of the following population
pathogen cause chronic inflammation of interactions is widely used in medical science for
lymphatic vessels ? the production of antibiotics ?
(1) Elephantiasis (1) Commensalism
(2) Ringworm disease (2) Parasitism
(3) Ascariasis (3) Mutualism
(4) Amoebiasis (4) Amensalism
146. Among the following sets of examples for 152. All of the following are included in ‘Ex-situ
divergent evolution, select the incorrect option : conservation’ except
(1) Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah (1) Wildlife safari parks
(2) Brain of bat, man and cheetah (2) Botanical gardens
(3) Heart of bat, man and cheetah (3) Sacred groves
(4) Eye of octopus, bat and man (4) Seed banks
147. Which of the following is not an autoimmune
disease ?
(1) Psoriasis below :
(2) Alzheimer’s disease Column I Column II
(3) Rheumatoid arthritis a. Eutrophication i. UV-B radiation
(4) Vitiligo b. Sanitary landfill ii. Deforestation
148. The similarity of bone structure in the forelimbs c. Snow blindness iii. Nutrient
of many vertebrates is an example of enrichment
(1) Homology d. Jhum cultivation iv. Waste disposal
(2) Convergent evolution a b c d
(3) Analogy (1) ii i iii iv
(4) Adaptive radiation (2) iii iv i ii
149. Conversion of milk to curd improves its (3) i iii iv ii
nutritional value by increasing the amount of (4) i ii iv iii
(1) Vitamin D
154. In a growing population of a country,
(2) Vitamin B12
(1) pre-reproductive individuals are more than
(3) Vitamin A the reproductive individuals.
(4) Vitamin E (2) reproductive and pre-reproductive
150. Which of the following characteristics represent individuals are equal in number.
‘Inheritance of blood groups’ in humans ? (3) reproductive individuals are less than the
a. Dominance post-reproductive individuals.
b. Co-dominance (4) pre-reproductive individuals are less than
c. Multiple allele the reproductive individuals.
d. Incomplete dominance 155. Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain the
e. Polygenic inheritance drug ‘‘Smack’’ ?
(1) b, c and e (1) Flowers
(2) b, d and e (2) Roots
(3) a, b and c (3) Latex
(4) a, c and e (4) Leaves

156. Hormones secreted by the placenta to maintain 160. Which of the following options correctly
represents the lung conditions in asthma and
pregnancy are emphysema, respectively ?
(1) hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin (1) Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased
respiratory surface
(2) hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens
(2) Increased respiratory surface;
(3) hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin Inflammation of bronchioles
(4) hCG, progestogens, estrogens, (3) Increased number of bronchioles; Increased
glucocorticoids respiratory surface
(4) Decreased respiratory surface;
Inflammation of bronchioles
157. The contraceptive ‘SAHELI’
(1) blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, 161. Match the items given in Column I with those in
preventing eggs from getting implanted. below :
(2) is an IUD. Column I Column II
(3) increases the concentration of estrogen and a. Tricuspid valve i. Between left atrium
prevents ovulation in females. and left ventricle
(4) is a post-coital contraceptive. b. Bicuspid valve ii. Between right
ventricle and
pulmonary artery
158. The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived
c. Semilunar valve iii. Between right
from
atrium and right
(1) ectoderm and mesoderm ventricle
(2) mesoderm and trophoblast a b c
(3) endoderm and mesoderm (1) iii i ii
(4) ectoderm and endoderm (2) i ii iii
(3) i iii ii
159. The difference between spermiogenesis and (4) ii i iii
spermiation is 162. Match the items given in Column I with those in
(1) In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed, Column II and select the correct option given
below :
while in spermiation spermatozoa are
Column I Column II
formed.
a. Tidal volume i. 2500 – 3000 mL
(2) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from sertoli
cells are released into the cavity of b. Inspiratory Reserve ii. 1100 – 1200 mL
volume
seminiferous tubules, while in spermiation
spermatozoa are formed. c. Expiratory Reserve iii. 500 – 550 mL
volume
(3) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed,
d. Residual volume iv. 1000 – 1100 mL
while in spermiation spermatids are
formed. a b c d
(4) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, (1) iii ii i iv

while in spermiation spermatozoa are (2) i iv ii iii
released from sertoli cells into the cavity of (3) iii i iv ii
seminiferous tubules. (4) iv iii ii i
163. Match the items given in Column I with those in 165. Which of the following is an occupational
Column II and select the correct option given respiratory disorder ?
below :
(1) Anthracis
Column I Column II
(2) Botulism
(Function) (Part of Excretory
(3) Silicosis
System)
(4) Emphysema
a. Ultrafiltration i. Henle’s loop
b. Concentration ii. Ureter 166. Calcium is important in skeletal muscle

of urine contraction because it
c. Transport of iii. Urinary bladder (1) binds to troponin to remove the masking of
urine active sites on actin for myosin.
d. Storage of urine iv. Malpighian (2) detaches the myosin head from the actin
corpuscle filament.
v. Proximal (3) activates the myosin ATPase by binding to
convoluted tubule
it.
a b c d (4) prevents the formation of bonds between
(1) iv v ii iii the myosin cross bridges and the actin
filament.
(2) v iv i ii
(3) iv i ii iii 167. Match the items given in Column I with those in
(4) v iv i iii Column II and select the correct option given
below :
Column I Column II
below : a. Fibrinogen i. Osmotic balance
Column I Column II b. Globulin ii. Blood clotting
a. Glycosuria i. Accumulation of uric c. Albumin iii. Defence mechanism

acid in joints
a b c
b. Gout ii. Mass of crystallised (1) iii ii i
salts within the kidney
(2) i iii ii
c. Renal calculi iii. Inflammation in (3) i ii iii
glomeruli
(4) ii iii i
d. Glomerular iv. Presence of glucose in
nephritis urine 168. Which of the following gastric cells indirectly
a b c d help in erythropoiesis ?
(1) iii ii iv i (1) Chief cells
(2) ii iii i iv (2) Goblet cells

(3) i ii iii iv (3) Mucous cells
(4) iv i ii iii (4) Parietal cells
169. Which of these statements is incorrect ? 175. Which one of these animals is not a
(1) Enzymes of TCA cycle are present in homeotherm ?
mitochondrial matrix. (1) Macropus
(2) Glycolysis operates as long as it is supplied
(2) Camelus
with NAD that can pick up hydrogen atoms.
(3) Glycolysis occurs in cytosol. (3) Chelone
(4) Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in (4) Psittacula
outer mitochondrial membrane.
176. Which of the following features is used to identify
170. Many ribosomes may associate with a single a male cockroach from a female cockroach ?
mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide
(1) Presence of a boat shaped sternum on the
simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are th
termed as 9 abdominal segment
(1) Polysome (2) Forewings with darker tegmina
(2) Plastidome (3) Presence of caudal styles
(3) Polyhedral bodies (4) Presence of anal cerci
(4) Nucleosome
177. Identify the vertebrate group of animals
171. Which of the following terms describe human characterized by crop and gizzard in its digestive
dentition ? system.
(1) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Homodont (1) Amphibia
(2) Pleurodont, Monophyodont, Homodont (2) Aves
(3) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont (3) Reptilia
(4) Pleurodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont (4) Osteichthyes
172. Select the incorrect match : 178. Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in
(1) Lampbrush – Diplotene bivalents (1) using flagella for locomotion
chromosomes (2) using pseudopodia for capturing prey
(2) Submetacentric – L-shaped chromososmes
(3) having a contractile vacuole for removing
chromosomes
excess water
(3) Allosomes – Sex chromosomes
(4) having two types of nuclei
(4) Polytene – Oocytes of amphibians
chromosomes 179. Which of the following organisms are known as
chief producers in the oceans ?
173. Nissl bodies are mainly composed of
(1) Dinoflagellates
(1) Proteins and lipids
(2) Cyanobacteria
(2) Nucleic acids and SER
(3) Diatoms
(3) DNA and RNA
(4) Euglenoids
(4) Free ribosomes and RER
174. Which of the following events does not occur in 180. Which of the following animals does not undergo
rough endoplasmic reticulum ? metamorphosis ?
(1) Protein folding (1) Earthworm
(2) Cleavage of signal peptide (2) Moth
(3) Protein glycosylation (3) Tunicate
(4) Phospholipid synthesis (4) Starfish

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK


Read carefully the following instructions :
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2. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave

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candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet second time will be deemed not to
have handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with as an unfair means case.
4. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
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their conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per
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7. The candidates will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet/Answer
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NEET-2018 KEY(06/05/2018) Date. 20/05/18 Page No. 17
CODE :- ALHCA Set :- WW
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Test Booklet Code
ALHCA *0XX*
XX
6. The CODE for this Booklet is XX. Make sure that the CODE printed on Side-2 of the Answer
the Answer Sheet.
: in words __________________________________________________________________________________

Centre Superintendent : ________________________________________________________________________________
ALHCA/XX/Page 1 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English

1. The bond dissociation energies of X2, Y2 and XY 6. In the reaction
are in the ratio of 1 : 0·5 : 1. H for the formation
–1
of XY is – 200 kJ mol . The bond dissociation
–1
(1) 400 kJ mol
–1
(2) 200 kJ mol the electrophile involved is
–1
(3) 800 kJ mol (1) dichlorocarbene (:CCl2)
–1
(4) 100 kJ mol 
(2) dichloromethyl cation ( CHCl 2 )
2. When initial concentration of the reactant is
(3) dichloromethyl anion ( )
reaction
(1) remains unchanged 
(2) is halved
(3) is tripled
(4) is doubled 7. Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points than
aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols of
3. The correction factor ‘a’ to the ideal gas equation comparable molecular mass. It is due to their
corresponds to
(1) forces of attraction between the gas
molecules (2) formation of intramolecular H-bonding
(2) density of the gas molecules (3) more extensive association of carboxylic
(3) electric field present between the gas acid via van der Waals force of attraction
molecules (4) formation of carboxylate ion
4. Which one of the following conditions will favour 8. Compound A, C8H10O, is found to react with
maximum formation of the product in the
NaOI (produced by reacting Y with NaOH) and
reaction,
A2 (g) + B2 (g) 
X2 (g) rH = – X kJ ? yields a yellow precipitate with characteristic
(1) High temperature and low pressure smell.
(2) Low temperature and high pressure A and Y are respectively
(3) High temperature and high pressure

5. For the redox reaction

– + 2+
Mn O 4– + C2 O42 + H  Mn + CO2 + H2O
the correct coefficients of the reactants for the
balanced equation are
+
Mn O 4– C 2O 2 – H
4
(1) 5 16 2
(2) 16 5 2
(3) 2 16 5
(4) 2 5 16

9. The correct difference between first- and 13. The difference between amylose and amylopectin
second-order reactions is that is
(1) the rate of a first-order reaction does (1) Amylose is made up of glucose and
depend on reactant concentrations; the rate galactose
of a second-order reaction does not depend (2) Amylopectin have 1  4 -linkage and
on reactant concentrations 1  6 -linkage
(2) the rate of a first-order reaction does not
1  6 -linkage
reactant concentrations (4) Amylose have 14 -linkage and
(3) a first-order reaction can be catalyzed; a 1  6 -linkage
second-order reaction cannot be catalyzed 14. Nitration of aniline in strong acidic medium also
(4) the half-life of a first-order reaction does not gives m-nitroaniline because
depend on [A]0; the half-life of a (1) In acidic (strong) medium aniline is present
second-order reaction does depend on [A]0 as anilinium ion.
(2) In spite of substituents nitro group always
10. Consider the change in oxidation state of goes to only m-position.
Bromine corresponding to different emf values as (3) In absence of substituents nitro group
shown in the diagram below : always goes to m-position.
amino group is meta directive.
15. Which of the following oxides is most acidic in
nature ?
Then the species undergoing disproportionation (1) CaO
is (2) MgO
(1) HBrO (3) BaO

(4) BeO
(2) Br O 3–
16. A mixture of 2·3 g formic acid and 4·5 g oxalic
(3) Br2
(4) Br O 4– gaseous mixture is passed through KOH pellets.
Weight (in g) of the remaining product at STP
11. Among CaH2, BeH2, BaH2, the order of ionic will be
character is
(1) 4·4
(1) BaH2 < BeH2 < CaH2
(2) 1·4
(2) BeH2 < CaH2 < BaH2 (3) 2·8
(3) BeH2 < BaH2 < CaH2 (4) 3·0
(4) CaH2 < BeH2 < BaH2 17. Regarding cross-linked or network polymers,
which of the following statements is incorrect ?
12. In which case is the number of molecules of water
(1) They contain strong covalent bonds in their
maximum ?
polymer chains.
–3
(1) 10 mol of water (2) They contain covalent bonds between
(2) 18 mL of water various linear polymer chains.
(3) 0·00224 L of water vapours at 1 atm and (3) Examples are bakelite and melamine.
273 K (4) They are formed from bi- and tri-functional
(4) 0·18 g of water monomers.
18. Magnesium reacts with an element (X) to form an 22. Following solutions were prepared by mixing
ionic compound. If the ground state electronic different volumes of NaOH and HCl of different
2 2 3 concentrations :
formula for this compound is M M
a. 60 mL HCl + 40 mL NaOH
10 10
(1) Mg3X2
M M
(2) Mg2X3 b. 55 mL HCl + 45 mL NaOH
10 10
(3) Mg2X M M
c. 75 mL HCl + 25 mL NaOH
(4) MgX2 5 5
M M
19. Iron exhibits bcc structure at room temperature. d. 100 mL HCl + 100 mL NaOH
10 10
Above 900C, it transforms to fcc structure. The
ratio of density of iron at room temperature to pH of which one of them will be equal to 1 ?
that at 900C (assuming molar mass and atomic (1) c
radii of iron remains constant with temperature) (2) b
is (3) d
1 (4) a
(1)
2
23. The solubility of BaSO4 in water is
3 –3 –1
(2) 2·42  10 gL at 298 K. The value of its
2
solubility product (Ksp) will be
3 3 (Given molar mass of BaSO4 = 233 g mol )
–1
(3)
4 2
–8 2 –2
(1) 1·08  10 mol L
4 3
(4) –10 2 –2
3 2 (2) 1·08  10 mol L
–14 2 –2
20. Which one is a wrong statement ? (3) 1·08  10 mol L
(1) The value of m for d z 2 is zero. (4) 1·08  10
–12
mol L
2 –2
(2) Total orbital angular momentum of electron 24. On which of the following properties does the
in ‘s’ orbital is equal to zero. coagulating power of an ion depend ?
(3) The electronic configuration of N atom is (1) The sign of charge on the ion alone
(2) The magnitude of the charge on the ion
alone
(3) Both magnitude and sign of the charge on
(4) An orbital is designated by three quantum the ion
numbers while an electron in an atom is (4) Size of the ion alone
designated by four quantum numbers.
21. Consider the following species : 25. Given van der Waals constant for NH3, H2, O2
+ – and CO2 are respectively 4·17, 0·244, 1·36 and
CN , CN , NO and CN
Which one of these will have the highest bond easily liquefied ?
order ?
(1) CO2
(1) CN
(2) NH3
(2) NO
+ (3) O2
(3) CN
(4) CN
– (4) H2

26. The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the 31. The compound A on treatment with Na gives B,
complex [Ni(CO)4] are
(1) tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic
(2) square planar geometry and diamagnetic
(3) square planar geometry and paramagnetic (1) C2H5OH, C2H5ONa, C2H5Cl
(4) tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic
(2) C2H5OH, C2H6, C2H5Cl
27. Iron carbonyl, Fe(CO)5 is
(1) dinuclear
(2) tetranuclear (4) C2H5OH, C2H5Cl, C2H5ONa
(3) trinuclear
(4) mononuclear 32. The compound C7H8 undergoes the following
reactions :
28. Match the metal ions given in Column I with the
spin magnetic moments of the ions given in
Column II and assign the correct code :
Column I Column II
a. Co
3+
i. 8 B.M. (1) p-bromotoluene
3+ (2) m-bromotoluene
b. Cr ii. 35 B.M.
3+
c. Fe iii. 3 B.M. (3) 3-bromo-2,4,6-trichlorotoluene
2+
d. Ni iv. 24 B.M. (4) o-bromotoluene
v. 15 B.M.
33. Hydrocarbon (A) reacts with bromine by
a b c d
(1) iii v i ii Wurtz reaction is converted to gaseous
(2) iv v ii i hydrocarbon containing less than four carbon
(3) iv i ii iii atoms. (A) is
(4) i ii iii iv (1) CH4
29. The type of isomerism shown by the complex (2) CH  CH

[CoCl2(en)2] is
(3) CH3 – CH3
(1) Linkage isomerism
(2) Geometrical isomerism (4) CH2 = CH2
(3) Ionization isomerism
(4) Coordination isomerism 34. Which oxide of nitrogen is not a common
30. Which one of the following ions exhibits pollutant introduced into the atmosphere both
d-d transition and paramagnetism as well ? due to natural and human activity ?
2–
(1) MnO 4 (1) NO
2– (2) N2O5
(2) CrO 4
(3) MnO 4
– (3) N2O
2– (4) NO2
(4) Cr2O7

35. Identify the major products P, Q and R in the 37. Which of the following molecules represents the
2 2
following sequence of reactions : order of hybridisation sp , sp , sp, sp from left to
right atoms ?
(1) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3
(2) HC  C – C  CH
(3) CH2 = CH – CH = CH2
(4) CH2 = CH – C  CH
38. Which of the following carbocations is expected to

be most stable ?
36. Which of the following compounds can form a

zwitterion ? 39. Which of the following is correct with respect to
– I effect of the substituents ? (R = alkyl)
(1) Glycine
(1) – NR2 > – OR > – F
(2) Aniline
(2) – NH2 < – OR < – F
(3) Benzoic acid (3) – NH2 > – OR > – F
(4) Acetanilide (4) – NR2 < – OR < – F

40. Which of the following statements is not true for 46. Which of the following options correctly
halogens ? represents the lung conditions in asthma and
(1) Chlorine has the highest electron-gain emphysema, respectively ?
enthalpy. (1) Decreased respiratory surface;
(2) All form monobasic oxyacids.
(2) Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased
(3) All but fluorine show positive oxidation
respiratory surface
states.
41. Considering Ellingham diagram, which of the (4) Increased number of bronchioles; Increased
following metals can be used to reduce alumina ? respiratory surface
(1) Cu 47. Match the items given in Column I with those in
(2) Fe Column II and select the correct option given
below :
(3) Mg
Column I Column II
(4) Zn
a. Tricuspid valve i. Between left atrium
42. The correct order of atomic radii in group 13 and left ventricle
elements is b. Bicuspid valve ii. Between right
(1) B < Ga < Al < In < Tl ventricle and
(2) B < Al < In < Ga < Tl pulmonary artery
(3) B < Ga < Al < Tl < In
atrium and right
(4) B < Al < Ga < In < Tl ventricle
43. In the structure of ClF3, the number of lone pairs a b c
of electrons on central atom ‘Cl’ is (1) ii i iii
(1) three (2) iii i ii
(2) one (3) i ii iii
(3) four (4) i iii ii
(4) two
44. The correct order of N-compounds in its Column II and select the correct option given
decreasing order of oxidation states is below :
Column I Column II
a. Tidal volume i. 2500 – 3000 mL
(2) HNO3, NO, N2, NH4Cl
b. Inspiratory Reserve ii. 1100 – 1200 mL
(3) HNO3, NH4Cl, NO, N2 volume
(4) HNO3, NO, NH4Cl, N2 c. Expiratory Reserve iii. 500 – 550 mL
volume
3– d. Residual volume iv. 1000 – 1100 mL
form MF6 ion ?
a b c d
(1) In (1) iv iii ii i
(2) Ga (2) iii ii i iv
(3) B (3) i iv ii iii
(4) Al (4) iii i iv ii
49. The transparent lens in the human eye is held in 53. AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding
its place by strand of a gene. What will be the corresponding
(1) smooth muscles attached to the ciliary body sequence of the transcribed mRNA ?
(2) ligaments attached to the ciliary body (1) UCCAUAGCGUA
(3) smooth muscles attached to the iris (2) AGGUAUCGCAU

(3) ACCUAUGCGAU
(4) ligaments attached to the iris
(4) UGGTUTCGCAT
50. Which of the following is an amino acid derived 54. Match the items given in Column I with those in
hormone ? Column II and select the correct option given
below :
(1) Estriol
Column I Column II
(2) Epinephrine a. Proliferative Phase i. Breakdown of
endometrial
(3) Estradiol
lining
(4) Ecdysone b. Secretory Phase ii. Follicular Phase
c. Menstruation iii. Luteal Phase
51. Which of the following structures or regions is
a b c
(1) iii i ii
(1) Corpus callosum : band of fibers
connecting left and (2) iii ii i
right cerebral (3) ii iii i
hemispheres.
(4) i iii ii
(2) Medulla oblongata : controls respiration
and cardiovascular 55. All of the following are part of an operon except
reflexes. (1) a promoter
(3) Hypothalamus : production of (2) an operator
releasing hormones (3) an enhancer
and regulation of (4) structural genes
temperature,
hunger and thirst. 56. According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism of
(4) Limbic system : consists of fibre evolution is
tracts that (1) Minor mutations
interconnect (2) Multiple step mutations
different regions of
(3) Phenotypic variations
brain; controls
movement. (4) Saltation
57. A woman has an X-linked condition on one of her

52. Which of the following hormones can play a
significant role in osteoporosis ? X chromosomes. This chromosome can be
inherited by
(1) Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin
(1) Both sons and daughters
(2) Aldosterone and Prolactin
(2) Only daughters
(3) Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone
(4) Progesterone and Aldosterone
(4) Only sons
58. In which disease does mosquito transmitted 64. Match the items given in Column I with those in
pathogen cause chronic inflammation of Column II and select the correct option given
lymphatic vessels ? below :
(1) Amoebiasis Column I Column II
(2) Elephantiasis a. Eutrophication i. UV-B radiation
(3) Ringworm disease b. Sanitary landfill ii. Deforestation
(4) Ascariasis c. Snow blindness iii. Nutrient
59. Among the following sets of examples for enrichment
divergent evolution, select the incorrect option : d. Jhum cultivation iv. Waste disposal
(1) Eye of octopus, bat and man a b c d
(2) Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah (1) i ii iv iii
(3) Brain of bat, man and cheetah (2) ii i iii iv
(4) Heart of bat, man and cheetah (3) iii iv i ii
(4) i iii iv ii
60. Conversion of milk to curd improves its
nutritional value by increasing the amount of 65. All of the following are included in ‘Ex-situ
(1) Vitamin E conservation’ except
(2) Vitamin D (1) Seed banks
(3) Vitamin B12 (2) Wildlife safari parks
(4) Vitamin A (3) Botanical gardens
61. Which of the following is not an autoimmune (4) Sacred groves
disease ?
66. Which one of the following population
(1) Vitiligo interactions is widely used in medical science for
(2) Psoriasis the production of antibiotics ?
(3) Alzheimer’s disease (1) Amensalism
(4) Rheumatoid arthritis (2) Commensalism
62. The similarity of bone structure in the forelimbs (3) Parasitism

of many vertebrates is an example of (4) Mutualism
(1) Adaptive radiation
(2) Homology
(1) pre-reproductive individuals are less than
(3) Convergent evolution the reproductive individuals.
(4) Analogy (2) pre-reproductive individuals are more than
63. Which of the following characteristics represent the reproductive individuals.
‘Inheritance of blood groups’ in humans ? (3) reproductive and pre-reproductive
a. Dominance individuals are equal in number.
b. Co-dominance (4) reproductive individuals are less than the
c. Multiple allele post-reproductive individuals.

69. Hormones secreted by the placenta to maintain 73. Match the items given in Column I with those in
pregnancy are Column II and select the correct option given
below :
(1) hCG, progestogens, estrogens,
glucocorticoids Column I Column II
(2) hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin a. Glycosuria i. Accumulation of uric

acid in joints
(3) hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens
b. Gout ii. Mass of crystallised
(4) hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin
70. The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived c. Renal calculi iii. Inflammation in
glomeruli
from
(1) ectoderm and endoderm
nephritis urine
(2) ectoderm and mesoderm
a b c d
(3) mesoderm and trophoblast
(1) iv i ii iii
(4) endoderm and mesoderm
(2) iii ii iv i
71. The contraceptive ‘SAHELI’ (3) ii iii i iv
(1) is a post-coital contraceptive. (4) i ii iii iv
(2) blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus,
preventing eggs from getting implanted.
(3) is an IUD. below :
(4) increases the concentration of estrogen and
Column I Column II
prevents ovulation in females.
(Function) (Part of Excretory
System)
72. The difference between spermiogenesis and
spermiation is a. Ultrafiltration i. Henle’s loop
(1) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, b. Concentration ii. Ureter

of urine
released from sertoli cells into the cavity of c. Transport of iii. Urinary bladder
seminiferous tubules. urine
(2) In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed, d. Storage of urine iv. Malpighian

while in spermiation spermatozoa are corpuscle
formed. v. Proximal
(3) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from sertoli convoluted tubule
cells are released into the cavity of a b c d
(1) v iv i iii
spermatozoa are formed.
(2) iv v ii iii
while in spermiation spermatids are (3) v iv i ii
formed. (4) iv i ii iii

75. Which of the following gastric cells indirectly 79. Which of the following events does not occur in
rough endoplasmic reticulum ?
help in erythropoiesis ?
(1) Phospholipid synthesis
(1) Parietal cells
(2) Protein folding
(2) Chief cells (3) Cleavage of signal peptide
(3) Goblet cells (4) Protein glycosylation
(4) Mucous cells 80. Many ribosomes may associate with a single
76. Match the items given in Column I with those in simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are
Column II and select the correct option given termed as
below : (1) Nucleosome
Column I Column II (2) Polysome

(3) Plastidome
a. Fibrinogen i. Osmotic balance
(4) Polyhedral bodies
b. Globulin ii. Blood clotting
81. Nissl bodies are mainly composed of
c. Albumin iii. Defence mechanism
a b c (2) Proteins and lipids
(1) ii iii i (3) Nucleic acids and SER
(2) iii ii i (4) DNA and RNA
(3) i iii ii 82. Which of these statements is incorrect ?
(4) i ii iii (1) Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in
77. Which of the following is an occupational
(2) Enzymes of TCA cycle are present in
respiratory disorder ? mitochondrial matrix.
(1) Emphysema (3) Glycolysis operates as long as it is supplied
with NAD that can pick up hydrogen atoms.
(2) Anthracis
(4) Glycolysis occurs in cytosol.
(3) Botulism
83. Select the incorrect match :
(4) Silicosis
(1) Polytene – Oocytes of amphibians
chromosomes
78. Calcium is important in skeletal muscle
(2) Lampbrush – Diplotene bivalents
contraction because it
chromosomes
(1) prevents the formation of bonds between (3) Submetacentric – L-shaped chromososmes
the myosin cross bridges and the actin chromosomes
filament. (4) Allosomes – Sex chromosomes
(2) binds to troponin to remove the masking of 84. Which of the following terms describe human
active sites on actin for myosin. dentition ?
(3) detaches the myosin head from the actin (1) Pleurodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
filament. (2) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Homodont
(4) activates the myosin ATPase by binding to (3) Pleurodont, Monophyodont, Homodont
it. (4) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont

85. Which one of these animals is not a 91. The two functional groups characteristic of
homeotherm ? sugars are
(1) Psittacula (1) carbonyl and hydroxyl
(2) hydroxyl and methyl
(2) Macropus
(3) carbonyl and phosphate
(3) Camelus (4) carbonyl and methyl
(4) Chelone 92. Which among the following is not a prokaryote ?
(1) Oscillatoria
86. Which of the following features is used to identify (2) Saccharomyces
a male cockroach from a female cockroach ?
(3) Nostoc
(1) Presence of anal cerci (4) Mycobacterium
(2) Presence of a boat shaped sternum on the 93. Which of the following is not a product of light
th
9 abdominal segment reaction of photosynthesis ?
(3) Forewings with darker tegmina (1) Oxygen
(4) Presence of caudal styles (2) ATP
(3) NADPH
87. Which of the following organisms are known as (4) NADH
chief producers in the oceans ?
(1) Euglenoids (1) CO2 concentration
(2) Dinoflagellates (2) Temperature
(3) Cyanobacteria (3) O2 concentration
(4) Diatoms (4) Light
95. The Golgi complex participates in
88. Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in
(1) Activation of amino acid
(2) Fatty acid breakdown
(2) using flagella for locomotion
(3) Respiration in bacteria
(3) using pseudopodia for capturing prey
(4) Formation of secretory vesicles
96. Which of the following is true for nucleolus ?
excess water
(1) It is a site for active ribosomal RNA
89. Which of the following animals does not undergo synthesis.
metamorphosis ? (2) Larger nucleoli are present in dividing cells.
(1) Starfish (3) It takes part in spindle formation.
(2) Earthworm (4) It is a membrane-bound structure.
(3) Moth 97. The stage during which separation of the paired
homologous chromosomes begins is
(4) Tunicate
(1) Zygotene
90. Identify the vertebrate group of animals (2) Pachytene
characterized by crop and gizzard in its digestive (3) Diakinesis
system. (4) Diplotene
(1) Osteichthyes 98. Stomata in grass leaf are
(2) Amphibia (1) Barrel shaped
(3) Aves (2) Dumb-bell shaped
(3) Rectangular
(4) Reptilia
(4) Kidney shaped
99. Pollen grains can be stored for several years in 106. Select the correct match :
liquid nitrogen having a temperature of (1) Francois Jacob and – Lac operon
(1) – 160C Jacques Monod
(2) – 120C (2) Alec Jeffreys – Streptococcus
(3) – 196C pneumoniae
(4) – 80C (3) Matthew Meselson – Pisum sativum
100. Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis by and F. Stahl
(1) Chara (4) Alfred Hershey and – TMV
(2) Green sulphur bacteria Martha Chase
(3) Cycas 107. The experimental proof for semiconservative
(4) Nostoc replication of DNA was first shown in a
(1) Virus
101. Double fertilization is
(2) Fungus
(1) Syngamy and triple fusion
(3) Plant
(2) Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen tube (4) Bacterium
with two different eggs
(3) Fusion of two male gametes with one egg 108. Select the correct statement :
(4) Fusion of one male gamete with two polar (1) Transduction was discovered by S. Altman.
nuclei (2) Franklin Stahl coined the term ‘‘linkage’’.
102. Which one of the following plants shows a very (3) Spliceosomes take part in translation.
close relationship with a species of moth, where (4) Punnett square was developed by a British
none of the two can complete its life cycle without scientist.
the other ?
109. Which of the following pairs is wrongly
(1) Viola matched ?
(2) Hydrilla (1) T.H. Morgan : Linkage
(3) Banana
(4) Yucca
(3) XO type sex : Grasshopper
103. Which of the following elements is responsible for determination
maintaining turgor in cells ?
(4) ABO blood grouping : Co-dominance
(1) Calcium
(2) Magnesium 110. Offsets are produced by
(1) Parthenogenesis
(3) Potassium
(2) Meiotic divisions
(4) Sodium
(3) Parthenocarpy
104. In which of the following forms is iron absorbed (4) Mitotic divisions
by plants ?
111. Which of the following flowers only once in its
(1) Both ferric and ferrous life-time ?
(2) Ferric (1) Papaya
(3) Free element (2) Bamboo species
(4) Ferrous (3) Mango
105. What is the role of NAD
+
in cellular (4) Jackfruit
respiration ? 112. Which of the following has proved helpful in
(1) It is the final electron acceptor for anaerobic preserving pollen as fossils ?
respiration. (1) Sporopollenin
(2) It functions as an enzyme. (2) Pollenkitt
(3) It is a nucleotide source for ATP synthesis. (3) Oil content
(4) It functions as an electron carrier. (4) Cellulosic intine
113. Use of bioresources by multinational companies 119. Which of the following is a secondary pollutant ?
(1) O3
concerned country and its people is called
(1) Bioexploitation (2) CO
(2) Bio-infringement (3) SO2
(3) Biodegradation (4) CO2
(4) Biopiracy
120. Natality refers to
114. Which of the following is commonly used as a (1) Number of individuals entering a habitat
vector for introducing a DNA fragment in human (2) Death rate
lymphocytes ?
(3) Number of individuals leaving the habitat
(1) pBR 322
(4) Birth rate
(2) Retrovirus
121. Niche is
(3)  phage
(1) the functional role played by the organism
(4) Ti plasmid where it lives
115. The correct order of steps in Polymerase Chain (2) all the biological factors in the organism’s
Reaction (PCR) is environment
(1) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension (3) the range of temperature that the organism
needs to live
(2) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
(4) the physical space where an organism lives
(3) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
(4) Annealing, Extension, Denaturation 122. World Ozone Day is celebrated on
116. A ‘new’ variety of rice was patented by a foreign nd
(1) 22 April
company, though such varieties have been
th
present in India for a long time. This is related to (2) 5 June
(1) Basmati (3) 16
th
September
(2) Co-667
st
(3) Lerma Rojo (4) 21 April
(4) Sharbati Sonora 123. In stratosphere, which of the following elements
(1) G. Mendel – Transformation
(1) Oxygen
(2) Ribozyme – Nucleic acid (2) Carbon
(3) T.H. Morgan – Transduction (3) Fe
(4) F2  Recessive parent – Dihybrid cross (4) Cl
118. In India, the organisation responsible for 124. What type of ecological pyramid would be
assessing the safety of introducing genetically obtained with the following data ?
modified organisms for public use is Secondary consumer : 120 g
(1) Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee Primary consumer : 60 g
(GEAC)
(2) Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
(3) Research Committee on Genetic
Manipulation (RCGM)
(3) Upright pyramid of numbers
(4) Council for Scientific and Industrial
Research (CSIR) (4) Pyramid of energy
125. Pneumatophores occur in 132. Match the items given in Column I with those in
(1) Submerged hydrophytes Column II and select the correct option given
(2) Halophytes below :
(3) Carnivorous plants Column I Column II
(4) Free-floating hydrophytes a. Herbarium i. It is a place having a
126. Sweet potato is a modified collection of preserved
plants and animals.
(1) Rhizome
(2) Stem b. Key ii. A list that enumerates
methodically all the
(3) Tap root
species found in an area
(4) Adventitious root
with brief description
127. Secondary xylem and phloem in dicot stem are aiding identification.
produced by
c. Museum iii. Is a place where dried and
(1) Axillary meristems pressed plant specimens
(2) Apical meristems mounted on sheets are
(3) Phellogen kept.
(4) Vascular cambium d. Catalogue iv. A booklet containing a list
128. Which of the following statements is correct ? of characters and their
alternates which are
(1) Stems are usually unbranched in both
Cycas and Cedrus. helpful in identification of
various taxa.
gymnosperms. a b c d
(3) Horsetails are gymnosperms. (1) iii iv i ii
(4) Selaginella is heterosporous, while Salvinia (2) i iv iii ii
is homosporous. (3) ii iv iii i
129. Casparian strips occur in (4) iii ii i iv
(1) Endodermis
133. After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores are
(2) Epidermis
produced exogenously in
(3) Cortex (1) Saccharomyces
(4) Pericycle (2) Neurospora
130. Select the wrong statement : (3) Agaricus
(1) Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the cell (4) Alternaria
in all kingdoms except Monera.
(2) Cell wall is present in members of Fungi
and Plantae. (1) Unicellular organism – Chlorella
(2) Uniflagellate gametes – Polysiphonia
(3) Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding
structures in Sporozoans. (3) Gemma cups – Marchantia
(4) Mushrooms belong to Basidiomycetes. (4) Biflagellate zoospores – Brown algae
131. Plants having little or no secondary growth are 135. Winged pollen grains are present in
(1) Cycads (1) Pinus
(2) Grasses (2) Mustard
(3) Conifers (3) Mango
(4) Deciduous angiosperms (4) Cycas

136. The fundamental frequency in an open organ 140. A metallic rod of mass per unit length
pipe is equal to the third harmonic of a closed 0·5 kg m
–1
is lying horizontally on a smooth
organ pipe. If the length of the closed organ pipe
inclined plane which makes an angle of 30 with
is 20 cm, the length of the open organ pipe is
the horizontal. The rod is not allowed to slide
(1) 16 cm
down by flowing a current through it when a
(2) 13·2 cm
magnetic field of induction 0·25 T is acting on it
(3) 12·5 cm
in the vertical direction. The current flowing in
(4) 8 cm
137. At what temperature will the rms speed of (1) 11·32 A
oxygen molecules become just sufficient for
escaping from the Earth’s atmosphere ? (2) 7·14 A
(Given : (3) 14·76 A
Mass of oxygen molecule (m) = 2·76  10
–26
kg (4) 5·98 A
–23 –1
Boltzmann’s constant kB = 1·38  10 JK ) 141. An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 100 F and a
(1)
4
1·254  10 K resistor 50  are connected in series across a
4 source of emf, V = 10 sin 314 t. The power loss in
(2) 2·508  10 K
the circuit is
4
(3) 5·016  10 K
(1) 1·13 W
4
(4) 8·360  10 K (2) 0·79 W
138. The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working (3) 2·74 W
between the freezing point and boiling point of
water, is (4) 0·43 W
(1) 12·5% 142. A thin diamagnetic rod is placed vertically
(2) 26·8% between the poles of an electromagnet. When the
(3) 6·25% current in the electromagnet is switched on, then
(4) 20% the diamagnetic rod is pushed up, out of the
139. The volume (V) of a monatomic gas varies with horizontal magnetic field. Hence the rod gains
its temperature (T), as shown in the graph. The gravitational potential energy. The work
ratio of work done by the gas, to the heat required to do this comes from
state A to state B, is (1) the induced electric field due to the
changing magnetic field
(2) the current source
rod
143. Current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer

2
(1) is 5 div/mA and its voltage sensitivity (angular
7
2
(2) The resistance of the galvanometer is
5
(1) 500 
1
(3) (2) 40 
3
2 (3) 250 
(4)
3 (4) 25 

144. A moving block having mass m, collides with 148. Unpolarised light is incident from air on a plane
another stationary block having mass 4m. The
surface of a material of refractive index ‘’. At a
the initial velocity of the lighter block is v, then particular angle of incidence ‘i’, it is found that
the value of coefficient of restitution (e) will be the reflected and refracted rays are
(1) 0·4 perpendicular to each other. Which of the
(2) 0·5
(3) 0·8
(4) 0·25 –1  1 
(1) i = tan  
145. A body initially at rest and sliding along a 
frictionless track from a height h (as shown in
the figure) just completes a vertical circle of (2) Reflected light is polarised with its electric
diameter AB = D. The height h is equal to vector parallel to the plane of incidence
–1  1 
(3) i = sin  


5 incidence
(1) D
4
3
(2) D 149. In Young’s double slit experiment the separation
2
7 d between the slits is 2 mm, the wavelength  of
(3) D
5 the light used is 5896 Å and distance D between
(4) D the screen and slits is 100 cm. It is found that the
146. Which one of the following statements is angular width of the fringes is 0·20. To increase
incorrect ? the fringe angular width to 0·21 (with same 
(1) Coefficient of sliding friction has and D) the separation between the slits needs to
dimensions of length.
be changed to
(2) Rolling friction is smaller than sliding
friction. (1) 1·7 mm
(3) Frictional force opposes the relative motion. (2) 1·8 mm
(4) Limiting value of static friction is directly (3) 2·1 mm
proportional to normal reaction.
(4) 1·9 mm
147. Three objects, A : (a solid sphere), B : (a thin
circular disk) and C : (a circular ring), each have
the same mass M and radius R. They all spin 150. An astronomical refracting telescope will have
with the same angular speed  about their own
symmetry axes. The amounts of work (W) large angular magnification and high angular
required to bring them to rest, would satisfy the resolution, when it has an objective lens of
relation
(1) small focal length and small diameter
(1) WA > WC > WB
(2) WC > WB > WA
(3) large focal length and large diameter
(3) WB > WA > WC
(4) large focal length and small diameter
(4) WA > WB > WC
151. In the circuit shown in the figure, the input 154. A carbon resistor of (47  4·7) k is to be marked
voltage Vi is 20 V, VBE = 0 and VCE = 0. The with rings of different colours for its
identification. The colour code sequence will be
values of IB, IC and  are given by
(1) Green – Orange – Violet – Gold
(2) Violet – Yellow – Orange – Silver
(3) Yellow – Green – Violet – Gold

connected in series to a battery of emf ‘E’ and
Now, the ‘n’ resistors are connected in parallel to
the same battery. Then the current drawn from
battery becomes 10 I. The value of ‘n’ is
(1) IB = 40 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 125
(1) 9
(2) IB = 40 A, IC = 10 mA,  = 250 (2) 10
(3) IB = 20 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 250 (3) 20

(4) 11
(4) IB = 25 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 200
156. A battery consists of a variable number ‘n’ of
152. In a p-n junction diode, change in temperature identical cells (having internal resistance ‘r’
due to heating each) which are connected in series. The
(1) affects the overall V – I characteristics of terminals of the battery are short-circuited and
p-n junction the current I is measured. Which of the graphs
(2) affects only reverse resistance shows the correct relationship between I and n ?
(4) affects only forward resistance
153. In the combination of the following gates the

output Y can be written in terms of inputs A and
B as
(1) AB
(2) A.B
(3) A.B +A.B
– –
(4) A. B + A .B

157. Two wires are made of the same material and 161. An electron falls from rest through a vertical
have the same volume. The first wire has distance h in a uniform and vertically upward
cross-sectional area A and the second wire has directed electric field E. The direction of electric
cross-sectional area 3A. If the length of the first field is now reversed, keeping its magnitude the
wire is increased by  l on applying a force F, same. A proton is allowed to fall from rest in it
how much force is needed to stretch the second through the same vertical distance h. The time of
wire by the same amount ? fall of the electron, in comparison to the time of
(1) F fall of the proton is
(2) 9 F (1) equal
(3) 4 F (2) smaller
(4) 6 F
158. A sample of 0·1 g of water at 100C and normal (4) 5 times greater
5 –2
heat energy to convert to steam at 100C. If the
sufficiently high building and is moving freely to
and fro like a simple harmonic oscillator. The
change in internal energy of the sample, is acceleration of the bob of the pendulum is
(1) 84·5 J 2
(2) 104·3 J position. The time period of oscillation is
(3) 42·2 J
(1) 1 s
(4) 208·7 J
(2) 2 s
(3) 2 s
viscous liquid. As a result, heat is produced due
to viscous force. The rate of production of heat (4)  s
when the sphere attains its terminal velocity, is
proportional to 163. A tuning fork is used to produce resonance in a
4 glass tube. The length of the air column in this
(1) r tube can be adjusted by a variable piston. At
3
(2) r room temperature of 27C two successive
(3) r
5 resonances are produced at 20 cm and 73 cm of
2 column length. If the frequency of the tuning fork
(4) r is 320 Hz, the velocity of sound in air at 27C is
160. The power radiated by a black body is P and it (1) 300 m/s
radiates maximum energy at wavelength, 0. If (2) 330 m/s
the temperature of the black body is now (3) 350 m/s
changed so that it radiates maximum energy at (4) 339 m/s
3
wavelength  , the power radiated by it 164. The electrostatic force between the metal plates
4 0
becomes nP. The value of n is of an isolated parallel plate capacitor C having a
81
(1) (1) inversely proportional to the distance
256
between the plates.
3
(2) (2) independent of the distance between the
4
plates.
256
(3) (3) proportional to the square root of the
81 distance between the plates.
4 (4) linearly proportional to the distance
(4)
3 between the plates.

165. When the light of frequency 2v0 (where v0 is 169. A solid sphere is in rolling motion. In rolling
threshold frequency), is incident on a metal motion a body possesses translational kinetic
energy (Kt) as well as rotational kinetic energy
is v1. When the frequency of the incident (Kr) simultaneously. The ratio Kt : (Kt + Kr) for
radiation is increased to 5v0, the maximum the sphere is
velocity of electrons emitted from the same plate (1) 2 : 5
is v2. The ratio of v1 to v2 is (2) 7 : 10
(1) 2 : 1 (3) 10 : 7
(2) 1:2 (4) 5:7
(3) 4:1 170. If the mass of the Sun were ten times smaller
(4) 1 : 4 and the universal gravitational constant were
166. For a radioactive material, half-life is following is not correct ?
10 minutes. If initially there are 600 number of (1) ‘g’ on the Earth will not change.
nuclei, the time taken (in minutes) for the (2) Raindrops will fall faster.
(3) Time period of a simple pendulum on the
(1) 15 Earth would decrease.
(2) 20 (4) Walking on the ground would become more
(3) 30 difficult.
(4) 10 171. A solid sphere is rotating freely about its
symmetry axis in free space. The radius of the
167. The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy of
sphere is increased keeping its mass same.
an electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom, Which of the following physical quantities would
is remain constant for the sphere ?
(1) 1 : – 2 (1) Angular momentum
(2) 1:1 (2) Angular velocity
(3) 2:–1 (3) Rotational kinetic energy
(4) 1:–1 (4) Moment of inertia
168. An electron of mass m with an initial velocity 172. The kinetic energies of a planet in an elliptical
 ^ orbit about the Sun, at positions A, B and C are
V = V0 i (V0 > 0) enters an electric field
 KA, KB and KC, respectively. AC is the major
^
E = – E0 i (E0 = constant > 0) at t = 0. If 0 is axis and SB is perpendicular to AC at the
its de-Broglie wavelength initially, then its position of the Sun S as shown in the figure.
Then
de-Broglie wavelength at time t is
(1) 0
0
(2)
 eE0 
1  t 
 mV (1) KB > KA > K C
 0 
(3) 0 t (2) KA < KB < K C
 eE0  (3) KB < KA < K C

(4) 0  1  t
 mV0  (4) KA > KB > K C
173. The refractive index of the material of a prism is 177. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth inclined
wedge ABC of inclination  as shown in the
2 and the angle of the prism is 30. One of the figure. The wedge is given an acceleration ‘a’
two refracting surfaces of the prism is made a towards the right. The relation between a and 
for the block to remain stationary on the wedge
mirror inwards, by silver coating. A beam of is
other face will retrace its path (after reflection
on the prism is
(1) zero (1) a = g tan 
(2) 60 g
(2) a=
(3) 30 cosec 
(3)a = g cos 
(4) 45
g
(4) a =
174. The magnetic potential energy stored in a certain sin 
178. A student measured the diameter of a small steel
inductor is 25 mJ, when the current in the ball using a screw gauge of least count
inductor is 60 mA. This inductor is of inductance 0·001 cm. The main scale reading is 5 mm and
zero of circular scale division coincides with
(1) 13·89 H 25 divisions above the reference level. If screw
(2) 0·138 H gauge has a zero error of – 0·004 cm, the correct
diameter of the ball is
(3) 1·389 H (1) 0·529 cm
(4) 138·88 H (2) 0·521 cm
(3) 0·053 cm
(4) 0·525 cm 
175. An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm from a ^ ^ ^
179. The moment of the force, F = 4 i + 5 j – 6 k at
concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. If the object (2, 0, – 3), about the point (2, – 2, – 2), is given by
is displaced through a distance of 20 cm towards ^ ^ ^
(1) – 7 i – 4 j – 8 k
the mirror, the displacement of the image will be ^ ^ ^
(2) – 8 i – 4 j – 7 k
^ ^ ^
(3) – 7 i – 8 j – 4 k
^ ^ ^
(3) 30 cm towards the mirror (4) – 4 i – j – 8 k
(4) 36 cm away from the mirror 180. A toy car with charge q moves on a frictionless
horizontal plane surface under the influence ofa

176. An em wave is propagating in a medium with a uniform electric field E . Due to the force q E ,
 ^ its velocity increases from 0 to 6 m/s in one
second duration. At that instant the direction of
electric field of this em wave is along +y axis. the field is reversed. The car continues to move
Then the direction of oscillating magnetic field of for two more seconds under the influence of this
field. The average velocity and the average speed
the em wave will be along
of the toy car between 0 to 3 seconds are
(1) – x direction respectively
(2) – z direction (1) 1·5 m/s, 3 m/s
(2) 2 m/s, 4 m/s
(3) – y direction
(3) 1 m/s, 3·5 m/s
(4) + z direction (4) 1 m/s, 3 m/s



his/her seat.

CODE :- ALHCA Set :- XX
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Test Booklet Code
ALHCA *0YY*
YY
6. The CODE for this Booklet is YY. Make sure that the CODE printed on Side-2 of the Answer
the Answer Sheet.
: in words __________________________________________________________________________________

Centre Superintendent : ______________________________________________________________________________
ALHCA/YY/Page 1 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English

1. Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis by 8. Select the correct match :
(1) Nostoc (1) F2  Recessive parent – Dihybrid cross
(2) Cycas (2) T.H. Morgan – Transduction
(3) Green sulphur bacteria
(3) Ribozyme – Nucleic acid
(4) Chara
(4) G. Mendel – Transformation
2. Which one of the following plants shows a very
close relationship with a species of moth, where 9. Which of the following is commonly used as a
none of the two can complete its life cycle without vector for introducing a DNA fragment in human
the other ? lymphocytes ?
(1) Yucca (1) Ti plasmid
(2) Banana (2)  phage
(3) Hydrilla
(3) Retrovirus
(4) Viola
(4) pBR 322
3. In which of the following forms is iron absorbed
by plants ? 10. Use of bioresources by multinational companies
(1) Ferrous and organisations without authorisation from the
(2) Free element concerned country and its people is called
(3) Ferric (1) Biopiracy
(4) Both ferric and ferrous (2) Biodegradation
4. Which of the following elements is responsible for (3) Bio-infringement
maintaining turgor in cells ? (4) Bioexploitation
(1) Sodium
11. In India, the organisation responsible for
(2) Potassium assessing the safety of introducing genetically
(3) Magnesium modified organisms for public use is
(4) Calcium (1) Council for Scientific and Industrial
5. Pollen grains can be stored for several years in Research (CSIR)
liquid nitrogen having a temperature of (2) Research Committee on Genetic
(1) – 80C Manipulation (RCGM)
(2) – 196C (3) Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
(3) – 120C (4) Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee
(4) – 160C (GEAC)
6. Double fertilization is 12. The correct order of steps in Polymerase Chain
(1) Fusion of one male gamete with two polar Reaction (PCR) is
nuclei (1) Annealing, Extension, Denaturation
(2) Fusion of two male gametes with one egg (2) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
(3) Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen tube (3) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
with two different eggs
(4) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
(4) Syngamy and triple fusion
+ 13. A ‘new’ variety of rice was patented by a foreign
7. What is the role of NAD in cellular
respiration ?
present in India for a long time. This is related to
(1) It functions as an electron carrier.
(1) Sharbati Sonora
(2) It is a nucleotide source for ATP synthesis.
(2) Lerma Rojo
(3) It functions as an enzyme.
(4) It is the final electron acceptor for anaerobic (3) Co-667
respiration. (4) Basmati
14. Natality refers to 20. Which of the following pairs is wrongly
(1) Birth rate matched ?
(2) Number of individuals leaving the habitat (1) ABO blood grouping : Co-dominance
(3) Death rate (2) XO type sex : Grasshopper
determination
(4) Number of individuals entering a habitat
15. World Ozone Day is celebrated on (4) T.H. Morgan : Linkage
st 21. Select the correct statement :
(1) 21 April
th (1) Punnett square was developed by a British
(2) 16 September scientist.
th (2) Spliceosomes take part in translation.
(3) 5 June
nd (3) Franklin Stahl coined the term ‘‘linkage’’.
(4) 22 April
(4) Transduction was discovered by S. Altman.
16. Which of the following is a secondary pollutant ?
22. The experimental proof for semiconservative
(1) CO2 replication of DNA was first shown in a
(1) Bacterium
(2) SO2
(2) Plant
(3) CO (3) Fungus
(4) O3 (4) Virus
17. Niche is 23. Select the correct match :

(1) the physical space where an organism lives (1) Alfred Hershey and – TMV
Martha Chase
(2) the range of temperature that the organism
needs to live (2) Matthew Meselson – Pisum sativum
(3) all the biological factors in the organism’s and F. Stahl
environment (3) Alec Jeffreys – Streptococcus
(4) the functional role played by the organism pneumoniae
where it lives (4) Francois Jacob and – Lac operon
Jacques Monod
18. What type of ecological pyramid would be
obtained with the following data ? 24. Offsets are produced by
Secondary consumer : 120 g (1) Mitotic divisions
(2) Parthenocarpy
Primary consumer : 60 g
(3) Meiotic divisions
(4) Parthenogenesis
25. Which of the following flowers only once in its
(2) Upright pyramid of numbers life-time ?
(3) Inverted pyramid of biomass (1) Jackfruit
(4) Upright pyramid of biomass (2) Mango
(3) Bamboo species
19. In stratosphere, which of the following elements (4) Papaya
26. Which of the following has proved helpful in
preserving pollen as fossils ?
(1) Cl
(1) Cellulosic intine
(2) Fe (2) Oil content
(3) Carbon (3) Pollenkitt
(4) Oxygen (4) Sporopollenin
27. The two functional groups characteristic of 35. Casparian strips occur in
sugars are (1) Pericycle
(1) carbonyl and methyl (2) Cortex
(2) carbonyl and phosphate (3) Epidermis
(3) hydroxyl and methyl (4) Endodermis
(4) carbonyl and hydroxyl
36. Plants having little or no secondary growth are
28. Which among the following is not a prokaryote ?
(1) Deciduous angiosperms
(1) Mycobacterium
(2) Conifers
(2) Nostoc
(3) Grasses
(3) Saccharomyces
(4) Oscillatoria (4) Cycads
29. Which of the following is not a product of light 37. Pneumatophores occur in
reaction of photosynthesis ? (1) Free-floating hydrophytes
(1) NADH (2) Carnivorous plants
(2) NADPH (3) Halophytes
(3) ATP
(4) Submerged hydrophytes
(4) Oxygen
30. Stomatal movement is not affected by 38. Sweet potato is a modified
(1) Light (1) Adventitious root
(2) O2 concentration (2) Tap root
(3) Temperature (3) Stem
(4) CO2 concentration (4) Rhizome
31. The Golgi complex participates in 39. Secondary xylem and phloem in dicot stem are
(1) Formation of secretory vesicles produced by
(2) Respiration in bacteria (1) Vascular cambium
(3) Fatty acid breakdown (2) Phellogen
(4) Activation of amino acid (3) Apical meristems
32. Which of the following is true for nucleolus ? (4) Axillary meristems
(1) It is a membrane-bound structure. 40. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(2) It takes part in spindle formation. (1) Selaginella is heterosporous, while Salvinia
(3) Larger nucleoli are present in dividing cells. is homosporous.
(4) It is a site for active ribosomal RNA (2) Horsetails are gymnosperms.
synthesis. (3) Ovules are not enclosed by ovary wall in
33. The stage during which separation of the paired gymnosperms.
homologous chromosomes begins is (4) Stems are usually unbranched in both
(1) Diplotene Cycas and Cedrus.
(2) Diakinesis 41. Select the wrong statement :
(3) Pachytene (1) Mushrooms belong to Basidiomycetes.
(4) Zygotene (2) Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding
34. Stomata in grass leaf are structures in Sporozoans.
(1) Kidney shaped (3) Cell wall is present in members of Fungi
(2) Rectangular and Plantae.
(3) Dumb-bell shaped (4) Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the cell
(4) Barrel shaped in all kingdoms except Monera.
42. Winged pollen grains are present in 46. Which of these statements is incorrect ?
(1) Cycas (1) Glycolysis occurs in cytosol.
(2) Mango (2) Glycolysis operates as long as it is supplied
(3) Mustard with NAD that can pick up hydrogen atoms.
(4) Pinus (3) Enzymes of TCA cycle are present in
mitochondrial matrix.
(4) Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in
produced exogenously in outer mitochondrial membrane.
(1) Alternaria
(2) Agaricus 47. Nissl bodies are mainly composed of
(3) Neurospora (1) DNA and RNA
(4) Saccharomyces (2) Nucleic acids and SER
(3) Proteins and lipids
below : 48. Select the incorrect match :
Column I Column II (1) Allosomes – Sex chromosomes
a. Herbarium i. It is a place having a (2) Submetacentric – L-shaped chromososmes
collection of preserved chromosomes
plants and animals. (3) Lampbrush – Diplotene bivalents
b. Key ii. A list that enumerates chromosomes
methodically all the (4) Polytene – Oocytes of amphibians
chromosomes
species found in an area
with brief description 49. Which of the following events does not occur in
aiding identification. rough endoplasmic reticulum ?
c. Museum iii. Is a place where dried and (1) Protein glycosylation
pressed plant specimens (2) Cleavage of signal peptide
mounted on sheets are (3) Protein folding
kept.
d. Catalogue iv. A booklet containing a list
of characters and their 50. Which of the following terms describe human
alternates which are dentition ?
helpful in identification of (1) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
various taxa. (2) Pleurodont, Monophyodont, Homodont
a b c d (3) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Homodont
(1) iii ii i iv (4) Pleurodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
(2) ii iv iii i
(3) i iv iii ii 51. Many ribosomes may associate with a single
(4) iii iv i ii simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are
termed as
(1) Polyhedral bodies
(1) Biflagellate zoospores – Brown algae
(2) Gemma cups – Marchantia (2) Plastidome
(3) Uniflagellate gametes – Polysiphonia (3) Polysome
(4) Unicellular organism – Chlorella (4) Nucleosome

52. Which one of these animals is not a 58. Which of the following options correctly
homeotherm ? represents the lung conditions in asthma and
emphysema, respectively ?
(1) Chelone
(1) Increased number of bronchioles; Increased
(2) Camelus respiratory surface
(3) Macropus (2) Increased respiratory surface;
(4) Psittacula
(3) Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased
respiratory surface
53. Identify the vertebrate group of animals
characterized by crop and gizzard in its digestive (4) Decreased respiratory surface;
system. Inflammation of bronchioles
(1) Reptilia 59. Match the items given in Column I with those in
(2) Aves Column II and select the correct option given
below :
(3) Amphibia
Column I Column II
(4) Osteichthyes
a. Tricuspid valve i. Between left atrium
54. Which of the following features is used to identify and left ventricle
a male cockroach from a female cockroach ? b. Bicuspid valve ii. Between right
(1) Presence of caudal styles ventricle and
pulmonary artery
(2) Forewings with darker tegmina
(3) Presence of a boat shaped sternum on the
th
atrium and right
9 abdominal segment ventricle
(4) Presence of anal cerci a b c
55. Which of the following organisms are known as (1) i iii ii

chief producers in the oceans ? (2) i ii iii
(1) Diatoms (3) iii i ii
(2) Cyanobacteria (4) ii i iii
(3) Dinoflagellates 60. Match the items given in Column I with those in
(4) Euglenoids Column II and select the correct option given
below :
56. Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in Column I Column II
(1) having a contractile vacuole for removing a. Tidal volume i. 2500 – 3000 mL
excess water
b. Inspiratory Reserve ii. 1100 – 1200 mL
(2) using pseudopodia for capturing prey
volume
(3) using flagella for locomotion
c. Expiratory Reserve iii. 500 – 550 mL
volume
57. Which of the following animals does not undergo d. Residual volume iv. 1000 – 1100 mL
metamorphosis ? a b c d
(1) Tunicate (1) iii i iv ii
(2) Moth (2) i iv ii iii
(3) Earthworm
(3) iii ii i iv
(4) Starfish
(4) iv iii ii i
61. Which of the following is an amino acid derived 65. Hormones secreted by the placenta to maintain
hormone ? pregnancy are
(1) Ecdysone (1) hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin
(2) Estradiol (2) hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens

(3) hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin
(3) Epinephrine
(4) hCG, progestogens, estrogens,
(4) Estriol
glucocorticoids
62. Which of the following structures or regions is

(1) increases the concentration of estrogen and
(1) Limbic system : consists of fibre
tracts that
interconnect (2) is an IUD.
different regions of (3) blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus,
brain; controls
movement.
(4) is a post-coital contraceptive.
(2) Hypothalamus : production of
releasing hormones
and regulation of 67. The difference between spermiogenesis and
temperature, spermiation is
hunger and thirst.
(3) Medulla oblongata : controls respiration while in spermiation spermatids are
and cardiovascular
formed.
reflexes.
(2) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from sertoli
(4) Corpus callosum : band of fibers
cells are released into the cavity of
connecting left and
right cerebral seminiferous tubules, while in spermiation
hemispheres. spermatozoa are formed.
(3) In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed,
63. The transparent lens in the human eye is held in while in spermiation spermatozoa are
its place by formed.
(1) ligaments attached to the iris (4) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed,
(2) smooth muscles attached to the iris while in spermiation spermatozoa are
(3) ligaments attached to the ciliary body released from sertoli cells into the cavity of
(4) smooth muscles attached to the ciliary body seminiferous tubules.
64. Which of the following hormones can play a 68. The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived
significant role in osteoporosis ? from
(1) Progesterone and Aldosterone (1) endoderm and mesoderm
(2) Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone (2) mesoderm and trophoblast
(3) Aldosterone and Prolactin (3) ectoderm and mesoderm
(4) Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin (4) ectoderm and endoderm
69. Among the following sets of examples for 75. Which one of the following population
divergent evolution, select the incorrect option : interactions is widely used in medical science for
(1) Heart of bat, man and cheetah the production of antibiotics ?
(2) Brain of bat, man and cheetah (1) Mutualism
(3) Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah (2) Parasitism
(4) Eye of octopus, bat and man (3) Commensalism
(4) Amensalism
70. Which of the following is not an autoimmune
disease ? 76. Match the items given in Column I with those in
(1) Rheumatoid arthritis Column II and select the correct option given
(2) Alzheimer’s disease below :
(3) Psoriasis Column I Column II
(4) Vitiligo a. Eutrophication i. UV-B radiation
b. Sanitary landfill ii. Deforestation
71. In which disease does mosquito transmitted
pathogen cause chronic inflammation of c. Snow blindness iii. Nutrient
lymphatic vessels ? enrichment
(1) Ascariasis d. Jhum cultivation iv. Waste disposal
(2) Ringworm disease a b c d
(3) Elephantiasis (1) i iii iv ii
(4) Amoebiasis (2) iii iv i ii
(3) ii i iii iv
72. Conversion of milk to curd improves its
nutritional value by increasing the amount of (4) i ii iv iii
(1) Vitamin A
77. All of the following are included in ‘Ex-situ
(2) Vitamin B12 conservation’ except
(3) Vitamin D (1) Sacred groves
(4) Vitamin E (2) Botanical gardens
73. The similarity of bone structure in the forelimbs (3) Wildlife safari parks
of many vertebrates is an example of (4) Seed banks
(1) Analogy
(2) Convergent evolution
(1) reproductive individuals are less than the
(3) Homology post-reproductive individuals.
(4) Adaptive radiation (2) reproductive and pre-reproductive
74. Which of the following characteristics represent individuals are equal in number.
‘Inheritance of blood groups’ in humans ? (3) pre-reproductive individuals are more than
a. Dominance the reproductive individuals.
b. Co-dominance (4) pre-reproductive individuals are less than
c. Multiple allele the reproductive individuals.

80. All of the following are part of an operon except 85. Match the items given in Column I with those in
(1) structural genes Column II and select the correct option given
(2) an enhancer below :
(3) an operator Column I Column II
(4) a promoter
a. Glycosuria i. Accumulation of uric
81. A woman has an X-linked condition on one of her acid in joints
X chromosomes. This chromosome can be b. Gout ii. Mass of crystallised
inherited by salts within the kidney
(1) Only sons
c. Renal calculi iii. Inflammation in
(2) Only grandchildren glomeruli
(3) Only daughters
(4) Both sons and daughters nephritis urine
82. According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism of a b c d
evolution is
(1) i ii iii iv
(1) Saltation
(2) ii iii i iv
(3) iii ii iv i
(3) Multiple step mutations
(4) Minor mutations (4) iv i ii iii
83. AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding 86. Match the items given in Column I with those in
strand of a gene. What will be the corresponding Column II and select the correct option given
sequence of the transcribed mRNA ? below :
(1) UGGTUTCGCAT Column I Column II
(2) ACCUAUGCGAU (Function) (Part of Excretory
(3) AGGUAUCGCAU System)
(4) UCCAUAGCGUA a. Ultrafiltration i. Henle’s loop
84. Match the items given in Column I with those in b. Concentration ii. Ureter
Column II and select the correct option given of urine
below :
c. Transport of iii. Urinary bladder
Column I Column II urine
a. Proliferative Phase i. Breakdown of
d. Storage of urine iv. Malpighian
endometrial
corpuscle
lining
b. Secretory Phase ii. Follicular Phase v. Proximal
convoluted tubule
a b c d
a b c
(1) iv i ii iii
(1) i iii ii
(2) ii iii i (2) v iv i ii
(3) iii ii i (3) iv v ii iii
(4) iii i ii (4) v iv i iii

87. Which of the following is an occupational 91. A battery consists of a variable number ‘n’ of
respiratory disorder ? identical cells (having internal resistance ‘r’
each) which are connected in series. The
(1) Silicosis terminals of the battery are short-circuited and
(2) Botulism the current I is measured. Which of the graphs
shows the correct relationship between I and n ?
(3) Anthracis
(4) Emphysema
88. Calcium is important in skeletal muscle

contraction because it
(1) activates the myosin ATPase by binding to
it.
(2) detaches the myosin head from the actin
filament.
(3) binds to troponin to remove the masking of
active sites on actin for myosin.
(4) prevents the formation of bonds between
the myosin cross bridges and the actin
filament.
89. Which of the following gastric cells indirectly

help in erythropoiesis ?
(1) Mucous cells
(2) Goblet cells 92. A carbon resistor of (47  4·7) k is to be marked
(3) Chief cells with rings of different colours for its
(4) Parietal cells
90. Match the items given in Column I with those in (2) Yellow – Green – Violet – Gold
Column II and select the correct option given (3) Violet – Yellow – Orange – Silver
below : (4) Green – Orange – Violet – Gold
Column I Column II
a. Fibrinogen i. Osmotic balance connected in series to a battery of emf ‘E’ and
b. Globulin ii. Blood clotting internal resistance ‘R’. The current drawn is I.
c. Albumin iii. Defence mechanism the same battery. Then the current drawn from
battery becomes 10 I. The value of ‘n’ is
a b c
(1) 11
(1) i ii iii
(2) 20
(2) i iii ii
(3) 10
(3) iii ii i
(4) 9
(4) ii iii i
94. An em wave is propagating in a medium with a 98. An electron of mass m with an initial velocity
 ^ 
velocity V = V i . The instantaneous oscillating ^
V = V0 i (V0 > 0) enters an electric field
 ^
electric field of this em wave is along +y axis. E = – E0 i (E0 = constant > 0) at t = 0. If 0 is
Then the direction of oscillating magnetic field of its de-Broglie wavelength initially, then its
the em wave will be along de-Broglie wavelength at time t is
(1) + z direction
 eE0 
(2) – y direction (1) 0  1  t
 mV0 
(3) – z direction
(2) 0 t
(4) – x direction
0
(3)
95. The magnetic potential energy stored in a certain  eE0 
1  t
inductor is 25 mJ, when the current in the  mV0 

inductor is 60 mA. This inductor is of inductance
(4) 0
(1) 138·88 H
(2) 1·389 H 99. When the light of frequency 2v0 (where v0 is
threshold frequency), is incident on a metal
(3) 0·138 H
(4) 13·89 H is v1. When the frequency of the incident
radiation is increased to 5v0, the maximum
96. The refractive index of the material of a prism is
velocity of electrons emitted from the same plate
2 and the angle of the prism is 30. One of the is v2. The ratio of v1 to v2 is
two refracting surfaces of the prism is made a (1) 1:4
mirror inwards, by silver coating. A beam of (2) 4:1
monochromatic light entering the prism from the (3) 1:2
other face will retrace its path (after reflection (4) 2:1
100. The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy of
on the prism is
an electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom,
(1) 45 is
(2) 30 (1) 1:–1
(3) 60 (2) 2:–1
(4) zero (3) 1:1
(4) 1:–2
97. An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm from a
concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. If the object 101. For a radioactive material, half-life is
10 minutes. If initially there are 600 number of
is displaced through a distance of 20 cm towards
nuclei, the time taken (in minutes) for the
the mirror, the displacement of the image will be
(1) 36 cm away from the mirror (1) 10
(2) 30 cm towards the mirror (2) 30
(3) 30 cm away from the mirror (3) 20
(4) 36 cm towards the mirror (4) 15
102. Unpolarised light is incident from air on a plane 105. An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 100 F and a
surface of a material of refractive index ‘’. At a resistor 50  are connected in series across a
source of emf, V = 10 sin 314 t. The power loss in
particular angle of incidence ‘i’, it is found that
the circuit is
(1) 0·43 W
(2) 2·74 W
(3) 0·79 W
(4) 1·13 W
incidence 106. A metallic rod of mass per unit length
–1
0·5 kg m is lying horizontally on a smooth
–1  1 
(2) i = sin   inclined plane which makes an angle of 30 with
 the horizontal. The rod is not allowed to slide
(3) Reflected light is polarised with its electric down by flowing a current through it when a
vector parallel to the plane of incidence magnetic field of induction 0·25 T is acting on it
–1  1  the rod to keep it stationary is
(4) i = tan  
 (1) 5·98 A
(2) 14·76 A
(3) 7·14 A
103. In Young’s double slit experiment the separation
(4) 11·32 A
d between the slits is 2 mm, the wavelength  of
the light used is 5896 Å and distance D between 107. Current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer
the screen and slits is 100 cm. It is found that the is 5 div/mA and its voltage sensitivity (angular
angular width of the fringes is 0·20. To increase deflection per unit voltage applied) is 20 div/V.
the fringe angular width to 0·21 (with same  The resistance of the galvanometer is
(1) 25 
and D) the separation between the slits needs to
(2) 250 
be changed to
(3) 40 
(1) 1·9 mm
(4) 500 
(2) 2·1 mm
108. A thin diamagnetic rod is placed vertically
(3) 1·8 mm
between the poles of an electromagnet. When the
(4) 1·7 mm current in the electromagnet is switched on, then
the diamagnetic rod is pushed up, out of the
horizontal magnetic field. Hence the rod gains
104. An astronomical refracting telescope will have
gravitational potential energy. The work
large angular magnification and high angular
required to do this comes from
resolution, when it has an objective lens of
(1) large focal length and small diameter
(2) large focal length and large diameter rod
(3) small focal length and large diameter (3) the current source
(4) the induced electric field due to the
(4) small focal length and small diameter
changing magnetic field

109. A tuning fork is used to produce resonance in a 113. The volume (V) of a monatomic gas varies with
glass tube. The length of the air column in this its temperature (T), as shown in the graph. The
tube can be adjusted by a variable piston. At ratio of work done by the gas, to the heat
room temperature of 27C two successive absorbed by it, when it undergoes a change from
resonances are produced at 20 cm and 73 cm of state A to state B, is
column length. If the frequency of the tuning fork
is 320 Hz, the velocity of sound in air at 27C is
(1) 339 m/s
(2) 350 m/s
(3) 330 m/s
(4) 300 m/s
2
110. An electron falls from rest through a vertical (1)
3
distance h in a uniform and vertically upward
1
directed electric field E. The direction of electric (2)
field is now reversed, keeping its magnitude the 3
same. A proton is allowed to fall from rest in it 2
(3)
through the same vertical distance h. The time of 5
fall of the electron, in comparison to the time of 2
fall of the proton is (4)
7
(1) 5 times greater
114. The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working
(2) 10 times greater between the freezing point and boiling point of
(3) smaller water, is
(1) 20%
(4) equal
(2) 6·25%
111. A pendulum is hung from the roof of a (3) 26·8%
sufficiently high building and is moving freely to (4) 12·5%
and fro like a simple harmonic oscillator. The
115. At what temperature will the rms speed of
acceleration of the bob of the pendulum is
2 oxygen molecules become just sufficient for
escaping from the Earth’s atmosphere ?
(Given :
(1)  s –26
(2) 2 s –23 –1
(3) 2 s 4
(1) 8·360  10 K
(4) 1 s 4
(2) 5·016  10 K
112. The electrostatic force between the metal plates 4
(3) 2·508  10 K
of an isolated parallel plate capacitor C having a
4
charge Q and area A, is (4) 1·254  10 K
(1) linearly proportional to the
distance 116. The fundamental frequency in an open organ
between the plates. pipe is equal to the third harmonic of a closed
(2) proportional to the square root of the organ pipe. If the length of the closed organ pipe
distance between the plates. is 20 cm, the length of the open organ pipe is
(3) independent of the distance between the (1) 8 cm
plates. (2) 12·5 cm
(4) inversely proportional to the distance (3) 13·2 cm
between the plates. (4) 16 cm
117. Two wires are made of the same material and 121. In the combination of the following gates the
have the same volume. The first wire has output Y can be written in terms of inputs A and
cross-sectional area A and the second wire has
B as
cross-sectional area 3A. If the length of the first
wire is increased by  l on applying a force F,
how much force is needed to stretch the second
wire by the same amount ?
(1) 6 F
(2) 4 F
(3) 9 F
(4) F – –
(1) A . B + A . B
118. A sample of 0·1 g of water at 100C and normal (2)
5 –2 A.B +A.B
heat energy to convert to steam at 100C. If the (3) A.B
change in internal energy of the sample, is (4) AB
(1) 208·7 J
(2) 42·2 J 122. In the circuit shown in the figure, the input
(3) 104·3 J voltage Vi is 20 V, VBE = 0 and VCE = 0. The
(4) 84·5 J values of IB, IC and  are given by
119. The power radiated by a black body is P and it

radiates maximum energy at wavelength, 0. If
the temperature of the black body is now
changed so that it radiates maximum energy at
3
4 0
becomes nP. The value of n is
4
(1)
3
256
(2)
81 (1) IB = 25 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 200
3
(3) (2) IB = 20 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 250
4
81 (3) IB = 40 A, IC = 10 mA,  = 250
(4)
256
(4) IB = 40 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 125
viscous liquid. As a result, heat is produced due 123. In a p-n junction diode, change in temperature
to viscous force. The rate of production of heat due to heating
when the sphere attains its terminal velocity, is
proportional to (1) affects only forward resistance
2 (2) does not affect resistance of p-n junction
(1) r
5
(2) r (3) affects only reverse resistance
3
(3) r (4) affects the overall V – I characteristics of
(4) r
4 p-n junction

 ^ ^ ^
124. The kinetic energies of a planet in an elliptical 128. The moment of the force, F = 4 i + 5 j – 6 k at
orbit about the Sun, at positions A, B and C are (2, 0, – 3), about the point (2, – 2, – 2), is given by
KA, KB and KC, respectively. AC is the major ^ ^ ^
(1) – 4 i – j – 8 k
axis and SB is perpendicular to AC at the ^ ^ ^
(2) – 7 i – 8 j – 4 k
position of the Sun S as shown in the figure.
^ ^ ^
Then (3) – 8 i – 4 j – 7 k
^ ^ ^
(4) – 7 i – 4 j – 8 k
129. A toy car with charge q moves on a frictionless
horizontal plane surface under the influence of a
 
uniform electric field E . Due to the force q E ,
(1) KA > KB > K C its velocity increases from 0 to 6 m/s in one
(2) KB < KA < K C second duration. At that instant the direction of
the field is reversed. The car continues to move
(3) KA < KB < K C for two more seconds under the influence of this
(4) KB > KA > K C field. The average velocity and the average speed
of the toy car between 0 to 3 seconds are
125. A solid sphere is in rolling motion. In rolling respectively
motion a body possesses translational kinetic (1) 1 m/s, 3 m/s
energy (Kt) as well as rotational kinetic energy (2) 1 m/s, 3·5 m/s
(Kr) simultaneously. The ratio Kt : (Kt + Kr) for (3) 2 m/s, 4 m/s
the sphere is (4) 1·5 m/s, 3 m/s
130. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth inclined
(1) 5:7 wedge ABC of inclination  as shown in the
(2) 10 : 7 figure. The wedge is given an acceleration ‘a’
(3) 7 : 10 towards the right. The relation between a and 
(4) 2:5 is
(1) Walking on the ground would become more
difficult. g
(1) a=
(2) Time period of a simple pendulum on the sin 
Earth would decrease. (2) a = g cos 
(3) Raindrops will fall faster. g
(3) a=
(4) ‘g’ on the Earth will not change. cosec 
(4) a = g tan 
127. A solid sphere is rotating freely about its 131. A student measured the diameter of a small steel
symmetry axis in free space. The radius of the ball using a screw gauge of least count
sphere is increased keeping its mass same. 0·001 cm. The main scale reading is 5 mm and
Which of the following physical quantities would zero of circular scale division coincides with
remain constant for the sphere ? 25 divisions above the reference level. If screw
gauge has a zero error of – 0·004 cm, the correct
(1) Moment of inertia diameter of the ball is
(2) Rotational kinetic energy (1) 0·525 cm
(2) 0·053 cm
(3) Angular velocity (3) 0·521 cm
(4) Angular momentum (4) 0·529 cm
132. Three objects, A : (a solid sphere), B : (a thin 136. The correct difference between first- and
circular disk) and C : (a circular ring), each have second-order reactions is that
the same mass M and radius R. They all spin (1) the half-life of a first-order reaction does not
with the same angular speed  about their own depend on [A]0; the half-life of a
symmetry axes. The amounts of work (W) second-order reaction does depend on [A] 0
required to bring them to rest, would satisfy the
relation (2) a first-order reaction can be catalyzed; a
second-order reaction cannot be catalyzed
(1) WA > WB > WC
(3) the rate of a first-order reaction does not
(2) WB > WA > WC depend on reactant concentrations; the rate
(3) WC > WB > WA of a second-order reaction does depend on
reactant concentrations
(4) WA > WC > WB (4) the rate of a first-order reaction does
133. A moving block having mass m, collides with depend on reactant concentrations; the rate
another stationary block having mass 4m. The of a second-order reaction does not depend
lighter block comes to rest after collision. When on reactant concentrations
the initial velocity of the lighter block is v, then
137. Among CaH2, BeH2, BaH2, the order of ionic
the value of coefficient of restitution (e) will be
character is
(1) 0·25
(2) 0·8 (1) CaH2 < BeH2 < BaH2
(3) 0·5 (2) BeH2 < BaH2 < CaH2
(4) 0·4 (3) BeH2 < CaH2 < BaH2
134. A body initially at rest and sliding along a (4) BaH2 < BeH2 < CaH2
frictionless track from a height h (as shown in
the figure) just completes a vertical circle of 138. In which case is the number of molecules of water
diameter AB = D. The height h is equal to maximum ?
(1) 0·18 g of water
(2) 0·00224 L of water vapours at 1 atm and
273 K
(3) 18 mL of water
–3
(4) 10 mol of water
(1) D
7 139. Consider the change in oxidation state of
(2) D
5 Bromine corresponding to different emf values as
3 shown in the diagram below :
(3) D
2
5
(4) D
4
135. Which one of the following statements is
incorrect ?
Then the species undergoing disproportionation
(1) Limiting value of static friction is directly is
proportional to normal reaction.
(2) Frictional force opposes the relative motion. (1) Br O 4–
(3) Rolling friction is smaller than sliding (2) Br2

friction.
(3) Br O 3–
(4) Coefficient of sliding friction has
dimensions of length. (4) HBrO
140. In the structure of ClF3, the number of lone pairs 146. Regarding cross-linked or network polymers,
of electrons on central atom ‘Cl’ is which of the following statements is incorrect ?
(1) two (1) They are formed from bi- and tri-functional
monomers.
(2) four
(2) Examples are bakelite and melamine.
(3) one
(3) They contain covalent bonds between
(4) three
various linear polymer chains.
141. The correct order of N-compounds in its (4) They contain strong covalent bonds in their
decreasing order of oxidation states is polymer chains.
(1) HNO3, NO, NH4Cl, N2 147. The difference between amylose and amylopectin
(2) HNO3, NH4Cl, NO, N2 is
(1) Amylose have 14 -linkage and
(3) HNO3, NO, N2, NH4Cl 1  6 -linkage
(4) NH4Cl, N2, NO, HNO3 (2) Amylopectin have 1  4 -linkage and
1  6 -linkage
3–
form MF6 ion ? 1  6 -linkage
(1) Al (4) Amylose is made up of glucose and
galactose
(2) B
(3) Ga 148. Nitration of aniline in strong acidic medium also
gives m-nitroaniline because
(4) In
143. The correct order of atomic radii in group 13 amino group is meta directive.
elements is (2) In absence of substituents nitro group
always goes to m-position.
(1) B < Al < Ga < In < Tl
(3) In spite of substituents nitro group always
(2) B < Ga < Al < Tl < In goes to only m-position.
(3) B < Al < In < Ga < Tl (4) In acidic (strong) medium aniline is present
(4) B < Ga < Al < In < Tl as anilinium ion.
144. Considering Ellingham diagram, which of the 149. Which of the following oxides is most acidic in
following metals can be used to reduce alumina ? nature ?
(1) BeO
(1) Zn
(2) BaO
(2) Mg
(3) MgO
(3) Fe
(4) CaO
(4) Cu
145. Which of the following statements is not true for acid is treated with conc. H2SO4. The evolved
halogens ? gaseous mixture is passed through KOH pellets.
(1) All are oxidizing agents. Weight (in g) of the remaining product at STP
(2) All but fluorine show positive oxidation will be
states. (1) 3·0
(3) All form monobasic oxyacids. (2) 2·8
(4) Chlorine has the highest electron-gain (3) 1·4
enthalpy. (4) 4·4
151. The compound A on treatment with Na gives B, 155. Which of the following molecules represents the
2 2
and with PCl5 gives C. B and C react together to order of hybridisation sp , sp , sp, sp from left to
give diethyl ether. A, B and C are in the order right atoms ?
(1) C2H5OH, C2H5Cl, C2H5ONa (1) CH2 = CH – C  CH
(2) CH2 = CH – CH = CH2

(3) HC  C – C  CH
(3) C2H5OH, C2H6, C2H5Cl
(4) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3
156. Which of the following carbocations is expected to
152. Hydrocarbon (A) reacts with bromine by be most stable ?
Wurtz reaction is converted to gaseous
hydrocarbon containing less than four carbon
atoms. (A) is
(1) CH2 = CH2
(2) CH3 – CH3
(3) CH  CH
(4) CH4
153. Which oxide of nitrogen is not a common

pollutant introduced into the atmosphere both
due to natural and human activity ?
(1) NO2
(2) N2O
(3) N2O5
(4) NO
154. The compound C7H8 undergoes the following

reactions :
157. Which of the following is correct with respect to

(1) o-bromotoluene (1) – NR2 < – OR < – F
(2) 3-bromo-2,4,6-trichlorotoluene (2) – NH2 > – OR > – F
(3) m-bromotoluene (3) – NH2 < – OR < – F
(4) p-bromotoluene (4) – NR2 > – OR > – F

158. In the reaction 161. Identify the major products P, Q and R in the
following sequence of reactions :




(4) dichlorocarbene (:CCl2)
159. Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points than

comparable molecular mass. It is due to their
(2) more extensive association of carboxylic
acid via van der Waals force of attraction
(3) formation of intramolecular H-bonding
160. Compound A, C8H10O, is found to react with

yields a yellow precipitate with characteristic
smell.
A and Y are respectively

zwitterion ?
(1) Acetanilide
(2) Benzoic acid
(3) Aniline
(4) Glycine

163. The correction factor ‘a’ to the ideal gas equation 168. Iron exhibits bcc structure at room temperature.
corresponds to Above 900C, it transforms to fcc structure. The
(1) volume of the gas molecules ratio of density of iron at room temperature to
(2) electric field present between the gas that at 900C (assuming molar mass and atomic
molecules radii of iron remains constant with temperature)
is
(3) density of the gas molecules
(4) forces of attraction between the gas 4 3
(1)
molecules 3 2
3 3
164. For the redox reaction (2)
– + 2+ 4 2
Mn O 4– + C2 O42 + H  Mn + CO2 + H2O
3
the correct coefficients of the reactants for the (3)
balanced equation are 2
+ 1
Mn O 4– C 2O 2 – H (4)
4 2
(1) 2 5 16
169. Consider the following species :
(2) 2 16 5 + –
CN , CN , NO and CN
(3) 16 5 2
Which one of these will have the highest bond
(4) 5 16 2
order ?
165. When initial concentration of the reactant is –
(1) CN
doubled, the half-life period of a zero order (2) CN
+
reaction
(3) NO
(1) is doubled
(4) CN
(2) is tripled
(3) is halved 170. Magnesium reacts with an element (X) to form an
(4) remains unchanged ionic compound. If the ground state electronic
2 2 3
166. The bond dissociation energies of X2, Y2 and XY formula for this compound is
–1 (1) MgX2
of XY is – 200 kJ mol . The bond dissociation
energy of X will be (2) Mg2X
2
–1 (3) Mg2X3
(1) 100 kJ mol
–1 (4) Mg3X2
(2) 800 kJ mol
–1 171. Which one is a wrong statement ?
(3) 200 kJ mol
–1 (1) An orbital is designated by three quantum
(4) 400 kJ mol
numbers while an electron in an atom is
167. Which one of the following conditions will favour designated by four quantum numbers.
maximum formation of the product in the (2) The electronic configuration of N atom is
reaction,
A2 (g) + B2 (g) 
X2 (g) rH = – X kJ ?
(2) High temperature and high pressure (3) Total orbital angular momentum of electron
(3) Low temperature and high pressure in ‘s’ orbital is equal to zero.
(4) High temperature and low pressure (4) The value of m for d z 2 is zero.

172. Following solutions were prepared by mixing 176. The type of isomerism shown by the complex
different volumes of NaOH and HCl of different [CoCl2(en)2] is
concentrations :
(1) Coordination isomerism
M M
a. 60 mL HCl + 40 mL NaOH (2) Ionization isomerism
10 10
(3) Geometrical isomerism
M M
b. 55 mL HCl + 45 mL NaOH (4) Linkage isomerism
10 10
M M 177. Which one of the following ions exhibits
c. 75 mL HCl + 25 mL NaOH d-d transition and paramagnetism as well ?
5 5
2–
M M (1) Cr2O7
d. 100 mL HCl + 100 mL NaOH
10 10 –
(2) MnO 4
pH of which one of them will be equal to 1 ?
2–
(1) a (3) CrO 4
(2) d 2–
(4) MnO 4
(3) b
(4) c 178. Iron carbonyl, Fe(CO)5 is
173. On which of the following properties does the (1) mononuclear

coagulating power of an ion depend ? (2) trinuclear
(1) Size of the ion alone (3) tetranuclear
(2) Both magnitude and sign of the charge on (4) dinuclear
the ion
179. Match the metal ions given in Column I with the
(3) The magnitude of the charge on the ion
spin magnetic moments of the ions given in
alone
Column II and assign the correct code :
(4) The sign of charge on the ion alone
Column I Column II
174. Given van der Waals constant for NH3, H2, O2 a. Co
3+
i. 8 B.M.
and CO2 are respectively 4·17, 0·244, 1·36 and 3+
3·59, which one of the following gases is most b. Cr ii. 35 B.M.
3+
easily liquefied ? c. Fe iii. 3 B.M.
(1) H2 d. Ni
2+
iv. 24 B.M.
(2) O2
v. 15 B.M.
(3) NH3
a b c d
(4) CO2
(1) i ii iii iv
175. The solubility of BaSO4 in water is (2) iv i ii iii
–3 –1
2·42  10 gL at 298 K. The value of its
(3) iv v ii i
solubility product (Ksp) will be
–1 (4) iii v i ii
(Given molar mass of BaSO4 = 233 g mol )
–12 2 –2
180. The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the
(1) 1·08  10 mol L complex [Ni(CO)4] are
–14 2 –2
(2) 1·08  10 mol L (1) tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic
–10 2 –2 (2) square planar geometry and paramagnetic
(3) 1·08  10 mol L
(3) square planar geometry and diamagnetic
–8 2 –2
(4) 1·08  10 mol L (4) tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic



his/her seat.

CODE :- ALHCA Set :- YY
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| 2 1 | 47 4 | 92 1 | 137 3 |
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| 3 3 | 48 4 | 93 3 | 138 3 |
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Test Booklet Code
ALHCA *0ZZ*
ZZ
6. The CODE for this Booklet is ZZ. Make sure that the CODE printed on Side-2 of the Answer
the Answer Sheet.
: in words __________________________________________________________________________________

Centre Superintendent : ________________________________________________________________________________
ALHCA/ZZ/Page 1 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English

1. A tuning fork is used to produce resonance in a 5. Current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer
glass tube. The length of the air column in this is 5 div/mA and its voltage sensitivity (angular
tube can be adjusted by a variable piston. At
room temperature of 27C two successive
resonances are produced at 20 cm and 73 cm of The resistance of the galvanometer is
column length. If the frequency of the tuning fork (1) 40 
is 320 Hz, the velocity of sound in air at 27C is (2) 25 
(1) 330 m/s (3) 500 
(2) 339 m/s (4) 250 
(3) 300 m/s
6. A thin diamagnetic rod is placed vertically
(4) 350 m/s
between the poles of an electromagnet. When the
2. An electron falls from rest through a vertical current in the electromagnet is switched on, then
distance h in a uniform and vertically upward the diamagnetic rod is pushed up, out of the
directed electric field E. The direction of electric horizontal magnetic field. Hence the rod gains
field is now reversed, keeping its magnitude the gravitational potential energy. The work
same. A proton is allowed to fall from rest in it
required to do this comes from
through the same vertical distance h. The time of
fall of the electron, in comparison to the time of (1) the current source
fall of the proton is (2) the magnetic field
(1) smaller (3) the induced electric field due to the
(2) 5 times greater changing magnetic field
(3) equal (4) the lattice structure of the material of the
rod
7. An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 100 F and a
sufficiently high building and is moving freely to resistor 50  are connected in series across a
and fro like a simple harmonic oscillator. The source of emf, V = 10 sin 314 t. The power loss in
acceleration of the bob of the pendulum is the circuit is
2
20 m/s at a distance of 5 m from the mean (1) 0·79 W
(2) 0·43 W
(1) 2 s
(3) 1·13 W
(2) s
(4) 2·74 W
(3) 1s
8. A metallic rod of mass per unit length
(4) 2s –1
0·5 kg m is lying horizontally on a smooth
4. The electrostatic force between the metal plates inclined plane which makes an angle of 30 with
of an isolated parallel plate capacitor C having a the horizontal. The rod is not allowed to slide
down by flowing a current through it when a
(1) independent of the distance between the
magnetic field of induction 0·25 T is acting on it
plates.
(2) linearly proportional to the distance
between the plates.
(1) 7·14 A
(3) inversely proportional to the distance
between the plates. (2) 5·98 A
(4) proportional to the square root of the (3) 11·32 A
distance between the plates. (4) 14·76 A

9. A carbon resistor of (47  4·7) k is to be marked 12. In Young’s double slit experiment the separation
with rings of different colours for its d between the slits is 2 mm, the wavelength  of
the light used is 5896 Å and distance D between
(1) Violet – Yellow – Orange – Silver
the screen and slits is 100 cm. It is found that the
(2) Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver angular width of the fringes is 0·20. To increase
(3) Green – Orange – Violet – Gold the fringe angular width to 0·21 (with same 
(4) Yellow – Green – Violet – Gold and D) the separation between the slits needs to
be changed to
connected in series to a battery of emf ‘E’ and (1) 1·8 mm
(2) 1·9 mm
the same battery. Then the current drawn from (3) 1·7 mm
battery becomes 10 I. The value of ‘n’ is (4) 2·1 mm
(1) 10
(2) 11 13. An astronomical refracting telescope will have
(3) 9 large angular magnification and high angular
(4) 20 resolution, when it has an objective lens of
11. A battery consists of a variable number ‘n’ of
identical cells (having internal resistance ‘r’ (2) large focal length and small diameter
each) which are connected in series. The (3) small focal length and small diameter
terminals of the battery are short-circuited and
the current I is measured. Which of the graphs (4) large focal length and large diameter
shows the correct relationship between I and n ?
14. Unpolarised light is incident from air on a plane
surface of a material of refractive index ‘’. At a
particular angle of incidence ‘i’, it is found that

vector parallel to the plane of incidence

incidence
–1  1 
(3) i = tan  

–1  1 
(4) i = sin  


15. An em wave is propagating in a medium with a 19. For a radioactive material, half-life is
 ^ 10 minutes. If initially there are 600 number of
nuclei, the time taken (in minutes) for the
electric field of this em wave is along +y axis. disintegration of 450 nuclei is
Then the direction of oscillating magnetic field of (1) 20
the em wave will be along (2) 10
(1) – z direction (3) 15
(2) + z direction (4) 30
(3) – x direction 20. The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy of
(4) – y direction an electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom,
is
16. The refractive index of the material of a prism is (1) 1:1
2 and the angle of the prism is 30. One of the (2) 1:–1
two refracting surfaces of the prism is made a (3) 1:–2
mirror inwards, by silver coating. A beam of (4) 2:–1
other face will retrace its path (after reflection 21. An electron of mass m with an initial velocity
 ^
from the silvered surface) if its angle of incidence V = V0 i (V0 > 0) enters an electric field
 ^
on the prism is E = – E0 i (E0 = constant > 0) at t = 0. If 0 is
(1) 60 its de-Broglie wavelength initially, then its
(2) 45 de-Broglie wavelength at time t is
(3) zero
0
(4) 30 (1)
 eE0 
1  t
 mV0 
17. An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm from a 
concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. If the object  eE0 

(2) 0  1  t
is displaced through a distance of 20 cm towards  mV0 
the mirror, the displacement of the image will be (3) 0
(4) 0 t
22. When the light of frequency 2v0 (where v0 is
(3) 36 cm towards the mirror threshold frequency), is incident on a metal
(4) 30 cm towards the mirror plate, the maximum velocity of electrons emitted
is v1. When the frequency of the incident
18. The magnetic potential energy stored in a certain radiation is increased to 5v0, the maximum
inductor is 25 mJ, when the current in the velocity of electrons emitted from the same plate
inductor is 60 mA. This inductor is of inductance is v2. The ratio of v1 to v2 is
(1) 0·138 H (1) 1:2
(2) 138·88 H (2) 1:4

(3) 2:1
(3) 13·89 H
(4) 4:1
(4) 1·389 H

23. In the combination of the following gates the 26. A solid sphere is rotating freely about its
output Y can be written in terms of inputs A and symmetry axis in free space. The radius of the
sphere is increased keeping its mass same.
B as
Which of the following physical quantities would
remain constant for the sphere ?
(1) Angular velocity
(2) Moment of inertia
(3) Angular momentum
(4) Rotational kinetic energy
(1) A.B 27. The kinetic energies of a planet in an elliptical

– – orbit about the Sun, at positions A, B and C are
(2) A. B + A .B KA, KB and KC, respectively. AC is the major
axis and SB is perpendicular to AC at the
(3) AB
position of the Sun S as shown in the figure.
(4) A.B +A.B Then
24. In the circuit shown in the figure, the input

voltage Vi is 20 V, VBE = 0 and VCE = 0. The
values of IB, IC and  are given by
(1) KA < KB < K C
(2) KA > KB > K C
(3) KB > KA > K C
(4) KB < KA < K C

(1) Raindrops will fall faster.
(1) IB = 40 A, IC = 10 mA,  = 250 (2) Walking on the ground would become more
difficult.
(2) IB = 25 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 200
(3) ‘g’ on the Earth will not change.
(3) IB = 40 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 125 (4) Time period of a simple pendulum on the
Earth would decrease.
(4) IB = 20 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 250
29. A solid sphere is in rolling motion. In rolling
25. In a p-n junction diode, change in temperature motion a body possesses translational kinetic
due to heating energy (Kt) as well as rotational kinetic energy
(Kr) simultaneously. The ratio Kt : (Kt + Kr) for
(1) affects only reverse resistance
the sphere is
(2) affects only forward resistance
(1) 7 : 10
(3) affects the overall V – I characteristics of
(2) 5:7
p-n junction
(3) 2:5
(4) 10 : 7
30. A small sphere of radius ‘r’ falls from rest in a 34. At what temperature will the rms speed of
viscous liquid. As a result, heat is produced due oxygen molecules become just sufficient for
to viscous force. The rate of production of heat escaping from the Earth’s atmosphere ?
when the sphere attains its terminal velocity, is (Given :
proportional to –26
3
(1) r –23 –1
2
(2) r
4
4 (1) 2·508  10 K
(3) r
4
(4) r
5 (2) 8·360  10 K
4
(3) 1·254  10 K
31. A sample of 0·1 g of water at 100C and normal 4
5 –2 (4) 5·016  10 K
heat energy to convert to steam at 100C. If the 35. The volume (V) of a monatomic gas varies with
volume of the steam produced is 167·1 cc, the its temperature (T), as shown in the graph. The
ratio of work done by the gas, to the heat
change in internal energy of the sample, is
(1) 104·3 J state A to state B, is
(2) 208·7 J
(3) 84·5 J
(4) 42·2 J
32. Two wires are made of the same material and
have the same volume. The first wire has
cross-sectional area A and the second wire has
cross-sectional area 3A. If the length of the first
wire is increased by  l on applying a force F, 2
(1)
how much force is needed to stretch the second 5
wire by the same amount ? 2
(2)
(1) 9 F 3
(2) 6 F 2
(3)
(3) F 7
(4) 4 F 1
(4)
3
33. The power radiated by a black body is P and it
radiates maximum energy at wavelength, 0. If 36. The fundamental frequency in an open organ
pipe is equal to the third harmonic of a closed
the temperature of the black body is now organ pipe. If the length of the closed organ pipe
changed so that it radiates maximum energy at is 20 cm, the length of the open organ pipe is
3 (1) 13·2 cm
4 0 (2) 8 cm
becomes nP. The value of n is
(3) 16 cm
3 (4) 12·5 cm
(1)
4
37. The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working
4 between the freezing point and boiling point of
(2)
3 water, is
81 (1) 26·8%
(3)
256 (2) 20%
256 (3) 12·5%
(4)
81 (4) 6·25%
38. A body initially at rest and sliding along a 42. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth inclined
frictionless track from a height h (as shown in wedge ABC of inclination  as shown in the
the figure) just completes a vertical circle of figure. The wedge is given an acceleration ‘a’
diameter AB = D. The height h is equal to towards the right. The relation between a and 
is
3
(1) D
2 g
(1) a=
(2) D cosec 
5 g
(3) D (2) a=
4 sin 
7 (3) a = g tan 
(4) D
5 (4) a = g cos 
39. Three objects, A : (a solid sphere), B : (a thin 43. A toy car with charge q moves on a frictionless
circular disk) and C : (a circular ring), each have horizontal plane surface under the influence of a
 
the same mass M and radius R. They all spin uniform electric field E . Due to the force q E ,
with the same angular speed  about their own its velocity increases from 0 to 6 m/s in one
symmetry axes. The amounts of work (W)
second duration. At that instant the direction of
required to bring them to rest, would satisfy the
relation the field is reversed. The car continues to move
for two more seconds under the influence of this
(1) WC > WB > WA
field. The average velocity and the average speed
(2) WA > WB > WC of the toy car between 0 to 3 seconds are
(3) WA > WC > WB respectively
(1) 2 m/s, 4 m/s
(4) WB > WA > WC (2) 1 m/s, 3 m/s
(3) 1·5 m/s, 3 m/s
40. Which one of the following statements is (4) 1 m/s, 3·5 m/s
incorrect ?  ^ ^ ^
44. The moment of the force, F = 4 i + 5 j – 6 k at
(1) Rolling friction is smaller than sliding (2, 0, – 3), about the point (2, – 2, – 2), is given by
friction. ^ ^ ^
(1) – 8 i – 4 j – 7 k
(2) Limiting value of static friction is directly
proportional to normal reaction. ^ ^ ^
(2) – 4 i – j – 8 k
(3) Coefficient of sliding friction has ^ ^ ^
(3) – 7 i – 4 j – 8 k
dimensions of length.
^ ^ ^
(4) Frictional force opposes the relative motion. (4) – 7 i – 8 j – 4 k
41. A moving block having mass m, collides with 45. A student measured the diameter of a small steel
another stationary block having mass 4m. The ball using a screw gauge of least count
0·001 cm. The main scale reading is 5 mm and
zero of circular scale division coincides with
the initial velocity of the lighter block is v, then 25 divisions above the reference level. If screw
the value of coefficient of restitution (e) will be gauge has a zero error of – 0·004 cm, the correct
(1) 0·5 diameter of the ball is
(2) 0·25 (1) 0·521 cm
(2) 0·525 cm
(3) 0·4 (3) 0·529 cm
(4) 0·8 (4) 0·053 cm
46. The difference between spermiogenesis and 50. Match the items given in Column I with those in
spermiation is Column II and select the correct option given
below :
(1) In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed,
Column I Column II
formed. a. Proliferative Phase i. Breakdown of
endometrial
(2) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, lining
while in spermiation spermatids are
b. Secretory Phase ii. Follicular Phase
formed.
a b c
released from sertoli cells into the cavity of (1) iii ii i
seminiferous tubules. (2) i iii ii
(4) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from sertoli (3) iii i ii
cells are released into the cavity of (4) ii iii i
51. All of the following are part of an operon except
spermatozoa are formed.
(1) an operator
(2) structural genes
47. The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived
(3) a promoter
from
(4) an enhancer
(1) ectoderm and mesoderm
(2) endoderm and mesoderm 52. A woman has an X-linked condition on one of her
X chromosomes. This chromosome can be
(3) ectoderm and endoderm
inherited by
(4) mesoderm and trophoblast
(1) Only daughters
(2) Only sons
(3) Both sons and daughters
(1) blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus,
(2) increases the concentration of estrogen and 53. According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism of
evolution is
(1) Multiple step mutations
(3) is a post-coital contraceptive.
(2) Saltation
(4) is an IUD.
(3) Minor mutations
49. Hormones secreted by the placenta to maintain
pregnancy are 54. AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding
strand of a gene. What will be the corresponding
(1) hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin
sequence of the transcribed mRNA ?
(2) hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin (1) AGGUAUCGCAU
(3) hCG, progestogens, estrogens, (2) UGGTUTCGCAT
glucocorticoids (3) UCCAUAGCGUA
(4) hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens (4) ACCUAUGCGAU
55. Among the following sets of examples for 61. All of the following are included in ‘Ex-situ
divergent evolution, select the incorrect option : conservation’ except
(1) Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah (1) Wildlife safari parks
(2) Heart of bat, man and cheetah (2) Sacred groves
(3) Eye of octopus, bat and man (3) Seed banks
(4) Brain of bat, man and cheetah (4) Botanical gardens
56. Conversion of milk to curd improves its 62. Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain the
nutritional value by increasing the amount of drug ‘‘Smack’’ ?
(1) Vitamin D (1) Flowers
(2) Vitamin A (2) Latex
(3) Vitamin E (3) Leaves
(4) Vitamin B12 (4) Roots
57. Which of the following is not an autoimmune 63. In a growing population of a country,
disease ?
(1) pre-reproductive individuals are more than
(1) Psoriasis the reproductive individuals.
(2) Rheumatoid arthritis (2) reproductive individuals are less than the
(3) Vitiligo post-reproductive individuals.
(4) Alzheimer’s disease (3) pre-reproductive individuals are less than
58. The similarity of bone structure in the forelimbs the reproductive individuals.
of many vertebrates is an example of (4) reproductive and pre-reproductive
(1) Homology individuals are equal in number.
(2) Analogy 64. Which one of the following population
(3) Adaptive radiation interactions is widely used in medical science for
(4) Convergent evolution the production of antibiotics ?
59. Which of the following characteristics represent (1) Commensalism
‘Inheritance of blood groups’ in humans ? (2) Mutualism
a. Dominance (3) Amensalism
b. Co-dominance (4) Parasitism
c. Multiple allele
d. Incomplete dominance
e. Polygenic inheritance below :
(1) b, c and e Column I Column II
(2) a, b and c a. Eutrophication i. UV-B radiation
(3) a, c and e b. Sanitary landfill ii. Deforestation
(4) b, d and e c. Snow blindness iii. Nutrient
60. In which disease does mosquito transmitted enrichment
pathogen cause chronic inflammation of d. Jhum cultivation iv. Waste disposal
lymphatic vessels ? a b c d
(1) Elephantiasis (1) ii i iii iv
(2) Ascariasis (2) i iii iv ii
(3) Amoebiasis (3) i ii iv iii
(4) Ringworm disease (4) iii iv i ii

66. Which of the following options correctly 69. Which of the following is an amino acid derived
represents the lung conditions in asthma and hormone ?
emphysema, respectively ?
(1) Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased (1) Epinephrine
respiratory surface
(2) Ecdysone
(2) Increased number of bronchioles; Increased
respiratory surface (3) Estriol
(3) Decreased respiratory surface;
Inflammation of bronchioles (4) Estradiol
Inflammation of bronchioles 70. Which of the following structures or regions is
Column II and select the correct option given (1) Medulla oblongata : controls respiration
below : and cardiovascular
Column I Column II reflexes.
a. Tricuspid valve i. Between left atrium (2) Limbic system : consists of fibre
and left ventricle tracts that
b. Bicuspid valve ii. Between right interconnect
ventricle and different regions of
pulmonary artery brain; controls
movement.
atrium and right (3) Corpus callosum : band of fibers
ventricle connecting left and
a b c right cerebral
hemispheres.
(1) iii i ii
(2) i iii ii (4) Hypothalamus : production of
releasing hormones
(3) ii i iii
and regulation of
(4) i ii iii temperature,
hunger and thirst.
below : 71. The transparent lens in the human eye is held in
Column I Column II its place by
a. Tidal volume i. 2500 – 3000 mL (1) ligaments attached to the ciliary body
b. Inspiratory Reserve ii. 1100 – 1200 mL (2) ligaments attached to the iris
volume (3) smooth muscles attached to the ciliary body
c. Expiratory Reserve iii. 500 – 550 mL (4) smooth muscles attached to the iris
volume
d. Residual volume iv. 1000 – 1100 mL 72. Which of the following hormones can play a
a b c d significant role in osteoporosis ?
(1) iii ii i iv (1) Aldosterone and Prolactin
(2) iii i iv ii (2) Progesterone and Aldosterone
(3) iv iii ii i (3) Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin
(4) i iv ii iii (4) Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone

73. Which of the following gastric cells indirectly 77. Select the incorrect match :
help in erythropoiesis ? (1) Lampbrush – Diplotene bivalents
chromosomes
(1) Chief cells (2) Allosomes – Sex chromosomes
(2) Mucous cells (3) Polytene – Oocytes of amphibians
chromosomes
(3) Parietal cells
(4) Submetacentric – L-shaped chromososmes
(4) Goblet cells chromosomes
74. Match the items given in Column I with those in 78. Nissl bodies are mainly composed of
Column II and select the correct option given (1) Proteins and lipids
below : (2) DNA and RNA
Column I Column II (3) Free ribosomes and RER

(4) Nucleic acids and SER
a. Fibrinogen i. Osmotic balance
79. Which of these statements is incorrect ?
b. Globulin ii. Blood clotting
(1) Enzymes of TCA cycle are present in
c. Albumin iii. Defence mechanism mitochondrial matrix.
a b c (2) Glycolysis occurs in cytosol.
(1) iii ii i (3) Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in

(2) i ii iii
(4) Glycolysis operates as long as it is supplied
(3) ii iii i with NAD that can pick up hydrogen atoms.
(4) i iii ii
80. Which of the following events does not occur in
rough endoplasmic reticulum ?
75. Which of the following is an occupational
(1) Protein folding
respiratory disorder ?
(2) Protein glycosylation
(1) Anthracis
(2) Silicosis (4) Cleavage of signal peptide
(3) Emphysema
81. Many ribosomes may associate with a single
(4) Botulism mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide
simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are
76. Calcium is important in skeletal muscle termed as
contraction because it (1) Polysome
(1) binds to troponin to remove the masking of (2) Polyhedral bodies
active sites on actin for myosin. (3) Nucleosome
(2) activates the myosin ATPase by binding to (4) Plastidome

it. 82. Which of the following terms describe human
(3) prevents the formation of bonds between dentition ?
the myosin cross bridges and the actin (1) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Homodont
filament. (2) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
(4) detaches the myosin head from the actin (3) Pleurodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
filament. (4) Pleurodont, Monophyodont, Homodont

83. Identify the vertebrate group of animals 89. Match the items given in Column I with those in
characterized by crop and gizzard in its digestive
system.
below :
(1) Amphibia
(2) Reptilia Column I Column II
(3) Osteichthyes (Function) (Part of Excretory

System)
(4) Aves
a. Ultrafiltration i. Henle’s loop
84. Which one of these animals is not a
homeotherm ? b. Concentration ii. Ureter
of urine
(1) Macropus
c. Transport of iii. Urinary bladder
(2) Chelone urine
(3) Psittacula d. Storage of urine iv. Malpighian
(4) Camelus corpuscle
v. Proximal
85. Which of the following features is used to identify convoluted tubule
a male cockroach from a female cockroach ?
(1) Presence of a boat shaped sternum on the a b c d
th
9 abdominal segment (1) iv v ii iii
(2) Presence of caudal styles (2) iv i ii iii
(3) Presence of anal cerci
(3) v iv i iii
(4) Forewings with darker tegmina
(4) v iv i ii
86. Which of the following organisms are known as
chief producers in the oceans ? 90. Match the items given in Column I with those in
(1) Dinoflagellates Column II and select the correct option given
(2) Diatoms below :
(3) Euglenoids Column I Column II
(4) Cyanobacteria a. Glycosuria i. Accumulation of uric
acid in joints
87. Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in
(1) using flagella for locomotion b. Gout ii. Mass of crystallised
excess water c. Renal calculi iii. Inflammation in
(3) having two types of nuclei glomeruli
(4) using pseudopodia for capturing prey d. Glomerular iv. Presence of glucose in
nephritis urine
88. Which of the following animals does not undergo
metamorphosis ? a b c d
(1) Earthworm (1) iii ii iv i
(2) Tunicate (2) i ii iii iv
(3) Starfish (3) iv i ii iii
(4) Moth (4) ii iii i iv

+
91. What is the role of NAD in cellular 98. Which among the following is not a prokaryote ?
respiration ? (1) Saccharomyces
(1) It functions as an enzyme. (2) Mycobacterium
(2) It functions as an electron carrier. (3) Oscillatoria
(3) It is the final electron acceptor for anaerobic (4) Nostoc
respiration. 99. The two functional groups characteristic of
(4) It is a nucleotide source for ATP synthesis. sugars are
92. Which one of the following plants shows a very (1) hydroxyl and methyl
close relationship with a species of moth, where (2) carbonyl and methyl
none of the two can complete its life cycle without (3) carbonyl and hydroxyl
the other ?
(4) carbonyl and phosphate
(1) Hydrilla
100. Which of the following is not a product of light
(2) Yucca
reaction of photosynthesis ?
(3) Viola
(1) ATP
(4) Banana
(2) NADH
93. Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis by (3) Oxygen
(1) Green sulphur bacteria (4) NADPH
(2) Nostoc
(3) Chara
(1) Temperature
(4) Cycas
(2) Light
94. In which of the following forms is iron absorbed (3) CO2 concentration
by plants ?
(4) O2 concentration
(1) Ferric
(2) Ferrous 102. The Golgi complex participates in
(3) Both ferric and ferrous (1) Fatty acid breakdown
(4) Free element (2) Formation of secretory vesicles
95. Double fertilization is (3) Activation of amino acid

(1) Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen tube (4) Respiration in bacteria
with two different eggs 103. Which of the following is true for nucleolus ?
(2) Fusion of one male gamete with two polar (1) Larger nucleoli are present in dividing cells.
nuclei (2) It is a membrane-bound structure.
(3) Syngamy and triple fusion (3) It is a site for active ribosomal RNA
(4) Fusion of two male gametes with one egg synthesis.
96. Which of the following elements is responsible for (4) It takes part in spindle formation.
maintaining turgor in cells ? 104. Stomata in grass leaf are
(1) Magnesium (1) Dumb-bell shaped
(2) Sodium (2) Kidney shaped
(3) Calcium (3) Barrel shaped
(4) Potassium (4) Rectangular
97. Pollen grains can be stored for several years in 105. The stage during which separation of the paired
liquid nitrogen having a temperature of homologous chromosomes begins is
(1) – 120C (1) Pachytene
(2) – 80C (2) Diplotene
(3) – 160C (3) Zygotene
(4) – 196C (4) Diakinesis
106. Which of the following is commonly used as a 112. Select the correct match :
vector for introducing a DNA fragment in human (1) Alec Jeffreys – Streptococcus
lymphocytes ? pneumoniae
(1) Retrovirus (2) Alfred Hershey and – TMV
(2) Ti plasmid Martha Chase
(3) pBR 322 (3) Francois Jacob and – Lac operon
Jacques Monod
(4)  phage
(4) Matthew Meselson – Pisum sativum
107. Use of bioresources by multinational companies
and F. Stahl
concerned country and its people is called 113. Which of the following has proved helpful in
(1) Bio-infringement preserving pollen as fossils ?
(2) Biopiracy (1) Pollenkitt
(2) Cellulosic intine
(3) Bioexploitation
(3) Sporopollenin
(4) Biodegradation
(4) Oil content
108. In India, the organisation responsible for 114. The experimental proof for semiconservative
assessing the safety of introducing genetically replication of DNA was first shown in a
modified organisms for public use is (1) Fungus
(1) Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) (2) Bacterium
(2) Council for Scientific and Industrial (3) Virus
Research (CSIR) (4) Plant
(3) Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee 115. Which of the following pairs is wrongly
(GEAC) matched ?
(4) Research Committee on Genetic (1) Starch synthesis in pea : Multiple alleles
Manipulation (RCGM) (2) ABO blood grouping : Co-dominance
109. The correct order of steps in Polymerase Chain (3) T.H. Morgan : Linkage
Reaction (PCR) is (4) XO type sex : Grasshopper
(1) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing determination
(2) Annealing, Extension, Denaturation 116. Offsets are produced by
(3) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension (1) Meiotic divisions
(4) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing (2) Mitotic divisions
(3) Parthenogenesis
110. Select the correct match : (4) Parthenocarpy
(1) Ribozyme – Nucleic acid 117. Select the correct statement :
(2) F2  Recessive parent – Dihybrid cross (1) Franklin Stahl coined the term ‘‘linkage’’.
(3) G. Mendel – Transformation (2) Punnett square was developed by a British
(4) T.H. Morgan – Transduction scientist.
(3) Transduction was discovered by S. Altman.
111. A ‘new’ variety of rice was patented by a foreign
(4) Spliceosomes take part in translation.
present in India for a long time. This is related to 118. Which of the following flowers only once in its
(1) Co-667 life-time ?
(1) Bamboo species
(2) Sharbati Sonora
(2) Jackfruit
(3) Basmati
(3) Papaya
(4) Lerma Rojo (4) Mango
119. Niche is 125. Match the items given in Column I with those in
(1) all the biological factors in the organism’s Column II and select the correct option given
environment below :
(2) the physical space where an organism lives Column I Column II
(3) the functional role played by the organism a. Herbarium i. It is a place having a
where it lives
collection of preserved
(4) the range of temperature that the organism plants and animals.
needs to live
b. Key ii. A list that enumerates
120. In stratosphere, which of the following elements methodically all the
acts as a catalyst in degradation of ozone and species found in an area
release of molecular oxygen ? with brief description
(1) Carbon aiding identification.
(2) Cl c. Museum iii. Is a place where dried and
(3) Oxygen pressed plant specimens
(4) Fe mounted on sheets are
121. What type of ecological pyramid would be kept.
obtained with the following data ? d. Catalogue iv. A booklet containing a list
Secondary consumer : 120 g of characters and their
Primary consumer : 60 g alternates which are
Primary producer : 10 g helpful in identification of
various taxa.
a b c d
(1) i iv iii ii
(2) iii ii i iv
(4) Upright pyramid of numbers
(3) iii iv i ii
122. Which of the following is a secondary pollutant ? (4) ii iv iii i
(1) CO
(2) CO2 (1) Uniflagellate gametes – Polysiphonia
(3) O3 (2) Biflagellate zoospores – Brown algae
(3) Unicellular organism – Chlorella
(4) SO2
(4) Gemma cups – Marchantia
123. World Ozone Day is celebrated on
th
(1) 5 June produced exogenously in
(2)
st
21 April (1) Neurospora
(2) Alternaria
nd
(3) 22 April (3) Saccharomyces
(4) 16
th
September (4) Agaricus
124. Natality refers to 128. Winged pollen grains are present in

(1) Death rate (1) Mustard
(2) Birth rate (2) Cycas
(3) Number of individuals entering a habitat (3) Pinus
(4) Number of individuals leaving the habitat (4) Mango

129. Pneumatophores occur in 136. The correct order of N-compounds in its
(1) Halophytes decreasing order of oxidation states is
(2) Free-floating hydrophytes (1) HNO3, NO, N2, NH4Cl
(3) Submerged hydrophytes (2) HNO3, NO, NH4Cl, N2
(4) Carnivorous plants
130. Plants having little or no secondary growth are
(4) HNO3, NH4Cl, NO, N2
(1) Grasses
(2) Deciduous angiosperms 137. The correct order of atomic radii in group 13
(3) Cycads elements is
(4) Conifers (1) B < Al < In < Ga < Tl
131. Casparian strips occur in (2) B < Al < Ga < In < Tl
(1) Epidermis (3) B < Ga < Al < In < Tl
(2) Pericycle (4) B < Ga < Al < Tl < In
(3) Endodermis
138. Considering Ellingham diagram, which of the
(4) Cortex
following metals can be used to reduce alumina ?
132. Secondary xylem and phloem in dicot stem are (1) Fe
produced by
(2) Zn
(1) Apical meristems
(3) Cu
(2) Vascular cambium
(3) Axillary meristems (4) Mg
(4) Phellogen 139. Which one of the following elements is unable to
3–
133. Select the wrong statement : form MF6 ion ?
(1) Cell wall is present in members of Fungi (1) Ga
and Plantae.
(2) Al
(2) Mushrooms belong to Basidiomycetes.
(3) Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the cell (3) In
in all kingdoms except Monera. (4) B
(4) Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding
structures in Sporozoans. 140. Which of the following statements is not true for
halogens ?
134. Which of the following statements is correct ? (1) All form monobasic oxyacids.
gymnosperms.
(3) Chlorine has the highest electron-gain
(2) Selaginella is heterosporous, while Salvinia
enthalpy.
is homosporous.
(3) Stems are usually unbranched in both (4) All but fluorine show positive oxidation
Cycas and Cedrus. states.
(4) Horsetails are gymnosperms. 141. In the structure of ClF3, the number of lone pairs
135. Sweet potato is a modified of electrons on central atom ‘Cl’ is
(1) Stem (1) one
(2) Adventitious root (2) two
(3) Rhizome (3) three
(4) Tap root (4) four

142. The difference between amylose and amylopectin 147. The compound A on treatment with Na gives B,
is
1  6 -linkage
(2) Amylose have 14 -linkage and (1) C2H5OH, C2H6, C2H5Cl
1  6 -linkage
(2) C2H5OH, C2H5Cl, C2H5ONa
(3) Amylose is made up of glucose and
galactose
1  6 -linkage (4) C2H5Cl, C2H6, C2H5OH
143. Regarding cross-linked or network polymers,
which of the following statements is incorrect ? 148. Hydrocarbon (A) reacts with bromine by
(1) They contain covalent bonds between substitution to form an alkyl bromide which by
various linear polymer chains. Wurtz reaction is converted to gaseous
(2) They are formed from bi- and tri-functional hydrocarbon containing less than four carbon
monomers. atoms. (A) is
(3) They contain strong covalent bonds in their
polymer chains. (1) CH  CH
(4) Examples are bakelite and melamine. (2) CH2 = CH2
(3) CH4
gaseous mixture is passed through KOH pellets. (4) CH3 – CH3
Weight (in g) of the remaining product at STP
will be 149. The compound C7H8 undergoes the following
(1) 1·4 reactions :
(2) 3·0
(3) 4·4
(4) 2·8 The product ‘C’ is
145. Which of the following oxides is most acidic in (1) m-bromotoluene
nature ?
(1) MgO (2) o-bromotoluene
(2) BeO (3) p-bromotoluene
(3) CaO
(4) 3-bromo-2,4,6-trichlorotoluene
(4) BaO
146. Nitration of aniline in strong acidic medium also 150. Which oxide of nitrogen is not a common
gives m-nitroaniline because pollutant introduced into the atmosphere both
(1) In spite of substituents nitro group always due to natural and human activity ?
goes to only m-position.
(1) N2O5
amino group is meta directive. (2) NO 2
(3) In acidic (strong) medium aniline is present
as anilinium ion. (3) NO
(4) In absence of substituents nitro group (4) N2O
always goes to m-position.
151. Which of the following molecules represents the 154. In the reaction
2 2
order of hybridisation sp , sp , sp, sp from left to
right atoms ?
(1) HC  C – C  CH
(2) CH2 = CH – C  CH
(3) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3 
(4) CH2 = CH – CH = CH2

152. Which of the following carbocations is expected to (3) dichlorocarbene (:CCl2)
be most stable ?
155. Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points than

comparable molecular mass. It is due to their
(1) formation of intramolecular H-bonding
(4) more extensive association of carboxylic
acid via van der Waals force of attraction
156. Compound A, C8H10O, is found to react with

yields a yellow precipitate with characteristic
smell.
A and Y are respectively
153. Which of the following is correct with respect to

(1) – NH2 < – OR < – F
(2) – NR2 < – OR < – F
(3) – NR2 > – OR > – F
(4) – NH2 > – OR > – F

157. Identify the major products P, Q and R in the 159. For the redox reaction
– + 2+
following sequence of reactions : Mn O 4– + C2 O42 + H  Mn + CO2 + H2O
the correct coefficients of the reactants for the
balanced equation are
+
Mn O 4– C 2O 2 – H
4
(1) 16 5 2
(2) 2 5 16
(3) 5 16 2
(4) 2 16 5
160. Which one of the following conditions will favour

maximum formation of the product in the
reaction,
A2 (g) + B2 (g) 
X2 (g) rH = – X kJ ?
(1) Low temperature and high pressure
(3) High temperature and low pressure
(4) High temperature and high pressure
161. When initial concentration of the reactant is

reaction
(1) is halved
(2) is doubled
(3) remains unchanged
(4) is tripled
162. The correction factor ‘a’ to the ideal gas equation

corresponds to
(1) density of the gas molecules
(3) forces of attraction between the gas
molecules
(4) electric field present between the gas
molecules
163. The bond dissociation energies of X2, Y2 and XY
zwitterion ?
–1
(1) Aniline of XY is – 200 kJ mol . The bond dissociation
(2) Acetanilide –1
(1) 200 kJ mol
–1
(3) Glycine (2) 100 kJ mol
–1
(4) Benzoic acid (3) 400 kJ mol
–1
(4) 800 kJ mol

164. Magnesium reacts with an element (X) to form an 168. The correct difference between first- and
ionic compound. If the ground state electronic second-order reactions is that
2 2 3 (1) the rate of a first-order reaction does not
formula for this compound is depend on reactant concentrations; the rate
(1) Mg2X3 reactant concentrations
(2) MgX2 (2) the half-life of a first-order reaction does not
(3) Mg3X2 depend on [A]0; the half-life of a
second-order reaction does depend on [A] 0
(4) Mg2X
(3) the rate of a first-order reaction does
165. Iron exhibits bcc structure at room temperature. depend on reactant concentrations; the rate
Above 900C, it transforms to fcc structure. The of a second-order reaction does not depend
ratio of density of iron at room temperature to on reactant concentrations
that at 900C (assuming molar mass and atomic (4) a first-order reaction can be catalyzed; a
radii of iron remains constant with temperature) second-order reaction cannot be catalyzed
is
169. In which case is the number of molecules of water
3
(1) maximum ?
2
(1) 18 mL of water
4 3 (2) 0·18 g of water
(2)
3 2 –3
(3) 10 mol of water
1 (4) 0·00224 L of water vapours at 1 atm and
(3)
2 273 K
3 3 170. Among CaH2, BeH2, BaH2, the order of ionic
(4)
4 2 character is
166. Consider the following species : (1) BeH2 < CaH2 < BaH2
+ – (2) CaH2 < BeH2 < BaH2
CN , CN , NO and CN
Which one of these will have the highest bond (3) BaH2 < BeH2 < CaH2
order ?
(4) BeH2 < BaH2 < CaH2
(1) NO
–
(2) CN 171. Consider the change in oxidation state of
(3) CN Bromine corresponding to different emf values as
(4) CN
+ shown in the diagram below :
167. Which one is a wrong statement ?

(1) Total orbital angular momentum of electron
in ‘s’ orbital is equal to zero.
(2) An orbital is designated by three quantum
numbers while an electron in an atom is Then the species undergoing disproportionation
designated by four quantum numbers. is
(3) The value of m for d z 2 is zero.
(1) Br O 3–
(4) The electronic configuration of N atom is (2) Br O 4–
(3) HBrO
(4) Br2
172. The solubility of BaSO4 in water is 176. Iron carbonyl, Fe(CO)5 is
–3 –1
2·42  10 gL at 298 K. The value of its (1) tetranuclear
solubility product (Ksp) will be (2) mononuclear
–1
(Given molar mass of BaSO4 = 233 g mol ) (3) dinuclear
–10 2 –2 (4) trinuclear
(1) 1·08  10 mol L
–12 2 –2
177. The type of isomerism shown by the complex
(2) 1·08  10 mol L [CoCl2(en)2] is
–8 2 –2
(3) 1·08  10 mol L (1) Geometrical isomerism
–14 2 –2 (2) Coordination isomerism
(4) 1·08  10 mol L
(3) Linkage isomerism
173. Following solutions were prepared by mixing (4) Ionization isomerism
different volumes of NaOH and HCl of different
concentrations : 178. Which one of the following ions exhibits
d-d transition and paramagnetism as well ?
M M
a. 60 mL HCl + 40 mL NaOH 2–
10 10 (1) CrO 4
M M 2–
b. 55 mL HCl + 45 mL NaOH (2) Cr2O7
10 10
M M 2–
c. 75 mL HCl + 25 mL NaOH (3) MnO 4
5 5 –
M M
(4) MnO 4
d. 100 mL HCl + 100 mL NaOH
10 10 179. The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the
pH of which one of them will be equal to 1 ? complex [Ni(CO)4] are
(1) b (1) square planar geometry and diamagnetic
(2) a (2) tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic
(3) c (3) tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic
(4) d (4) square planar geometry and paramagnetic
174. On which of the following properties does the 180. Match the metal ions given in Column I with the
coagulating power of an ion depend ? spin magnetic moments of the ions given in
(1) The magnitude of the charge on the ion Column II and assign the correct code :
alone Column I Column II
(2) Size of the ion alone 3+
a. Co i. 8 B.M.
(3) The sign of charge on the ion alone
3+
(4) Both magnitude and sign of the charge on b. Cr ii. 35 B.M.
the ion c. Fe
3+
iii. 3 B.M.
175. Given van der Waals constant for NH3, H2, O2 2+
d. Ni iv. 24 B.M.
and CO2 are respectively 4·17, 0·244, 1·36 and
v. 15 B.M.
easily liquefied ? a b c d
(1) NH3 (1) iv v ii i
(2) H2 (2) i ii iii iv
(3) CO2 (3) iii v i ii
(4) O2 (4) iv i ii iii




his/her seat.

CODE :- ALHCA Set :- ZZ
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| 1 2 | 46 3 | 91 2 | 136 1 |
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| 2 1 | 47 1 | 92 2 | 137 3 |
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| 3 2 | 48 1 | 93 1 | 138 4 |
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| 4 1 | 49 4 | 94 1 | 139 4 |
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| 5 4 | 50 4 | 95 3 | 140 1 |
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| 6 3 | 51 4 | 96 4 | 141 2 |
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| 7 1 | 52 3 | 97 4 | 142 1 |
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| 8 3 | 53 2 | 98 1 | 143 3 |
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| 9 2 | 54 1 | 99 3 | 144 4 |
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| 10 1 | 55 3 | 100 2 | 145 2 |
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| 11 1 | 56 4 | 101 4 | 146 3 |
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| 12 2 | 57 4 | 102 2 | 147 3 |
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| 13 4 | 58 1 | 103 3 | 148 3 |
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| 14 2 | 59 2 | 104 1 | 149 1 |
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| 15 2 | 60 1 | 105 2 | 150 1 |
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| 16 2 | 61 2 | 106 1 | 151 2 |
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| 17 2 | 62 2 | 107 2 | 152 4 |
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| 18 3 | 63 1 | 108 3 | 153 1 |
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| 19 1 | 64 3 | 109 3 | 154 3 |
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| 20 2 | 65 4 | 110 1 | 155 3 |
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| 21 1 | 66 1 | 111 3 | 156 4 |
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| 22 1 | 67 1 | 112 3 | 157 3 |
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| 23 2 | 68 2 | 113 3 | 158 3 |
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| 24 3 | 69 1 | 114 2 | 159 2 |
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| 25 3 | 70 2 | 115 1 | 160 1 |
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| 26 3 | 71 1 | 116 2 | 161 2 |
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| 27 2 | 72 4 | 117 2 | 162 3 |
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| 28 3 | 73 3 | 118 1 | 163 4 |
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| 29 2 | 74 3 | 119 3 | 164 3 |
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| 30 4 | 75 2 | 120 2 | 165 4 |
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| 31 2 | 76 1 | 121 1 | 166 2 |
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| 32 1 | 77 3 | 122 3 | 167 4 |
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| 33 4 | 78 3 | 123 4 | 168 2 |
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| 34 2 | 79 3 | 124 2 | 169 1 |
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| 35 1 | 80 3 | 125 3 | 170 1 |
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| 36 1 | 81 1 | 126 1 | 171 3 |
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| 37 1 | 82 2 | 127 4 | 172 1 |
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| 38 3 | 83 4 | 128 3 | 173 3 |
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| 39 1 | 84 2 | 129 1 | 174 4 |
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| 40 3 | 85 2 | 130 1 | 175 1 |
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| 41 2 | 86 2 | 131 3 | 176 2 |
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| 42 3 | 87 3 | 132 2 | 177 1 |
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| 43 2 | 88 1 | 133 4 | 178 3 |
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| 44 3 | 89 2 | 134 1 | 179 2 |
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| 45 3 | 90 3 | 135 2 | 180 1 |
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NEET 2018 English Question Papers With Answer Key Code WW Hn1Ttnc

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NEET2018

Name of the Candidate (in Capitals) : _____________________________________________________________________

Roll Number : in figures _________________________________________________________________________________

Centre of Examination (in Capitals) : _____________________________________________________________________

Candidate’s Signature : __________________________ Invigilator’s Signature : ________________________________

Facsimile signature stamp of

ALHCA/WW/Page 1 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English

7. A set of ‘n’ equal resistors, of value ‘R’ each, are

ALHCA/WW/Page 2 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English

(1) 0·79 W (1) 60

ALHCA/WW/Page 3 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English

(1) Reflected light is polarised with its electric

(3) Reflected light is polarised with its electric

(4) IB = 40 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 125

21. An astronomical refracting telescope will have

(4) AB (4) small focal length and small diameter

ALHCA/WW/Page 4 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English

48. A mixture of 2·3 g formic acid and 4·5 g oxalic (1) CH  CH

49. Regarding cross-linked or network polymers,

(4) – NR2 > – OR > – F (3) MgX2

(3) An orbital is designated by three quantum

70. Consider the following species :

(1) HNO3, NO, N2, NH4Cl

76. Which one of the following elements is unable to

ALHCA/WW/Page 11 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English

83. Which one of the following ions exhibits –10 2 –2

ALHCA/WW/Page 12 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English

93. World Ozone Day is celebrated on

94. In stratosphere, which of the following elements

ALHCA/WW/Page 15 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English

(2) Tap root (4) pBR 322

ALHCA/WW/Page 18 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English

(4) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, (1) iii ii i iv

b. Concentration ii. Ureter 166. Calcium is important in skeletal muscle

Column I Column II b. Globulin ii. Blood clotting

a. Glycosuria i. Accumulation of uric c. Albumin iii. Defence mechanism

(1) iii ii iv i (1) Chief cells

(2) ii iii i iv (2) Goblet cells

ALHCA/WW/Page 21 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English

ALHCA/WW/Page 22 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English

ALHCA/WW/Page 23 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English

2. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave

4. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.

ALHCA/WW/Page 24 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English

Name of the Candidate (in Capitals) : _____________________________________________________________________

Roll Number : in figures _________________________________________________________________________________

Centre of Examination (in Capitals) : _____________________________________________________________________

Candidate’s Signature : __________________________ Invigilator’s Signature : ________________________________

Facsimile signature stamp of

ALHCA/XX/Page 1 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English

(3) High temperature and high pressure

5. For the redox reaction

ALHCA/XX/Page 2 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English

(1) HBrO (3) BaO

ALHCA/XX/Page 4 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English

(4) i ii iii iv (1) CH4

29. The type of isomerism shown by the complex (2) CH  CH

ALHCA/XX/Page 5 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English

(1) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3

(3) CH2 = CH – CH = CH2

38. Which of the following carbocations is expected to

36. Which of the following compounds can form a

ALHCA/XX/Page 6 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK English

Candidate’s Signature : Invigilator’s Signature : ______

Candidate’s Signature : Invigilator’s Signature : ______

Candidate’s Signature : Invigilator’s Signature : ______