Outsourced - Romeet (1-50)

1. Consider the following statements with respect to colonial acts in India.
1. The Indian Councils Act of 1861 separated, for the first time, the executive and
legislative functions of the Governor-General’s council.
2. The Government of India Act, 1935 declared for the first time the British government’s
aim to gradually introduce responsible government in India.
3. The Government of India Act, 1919 demarcated and separated the central and provincial
subjects.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: a
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect. It was the Charter Act of 1853, not the Indian Councils Act of
1861 which separated for the first time the legislative and executive functions of the
Governor-General’s council.
Statement 2 is incorrect. It was the Government of India, Act 1919, not the Government of
India Act 1909, which declared for the first time the British Government’s objective to
gradually introduce responsible government in India.
Statement 3 is correct. The government of India Act 1919 relaxed the central control over
the provinces by demarcating and separating the central and provincial subjects.
Source: M. Laxmikant, Chapter 1, Page 53-60 (pdf)
Logic: Knowledge-based question. Elimination will not work.
2. Which of the following statements is correct with regards to the regulation of

citizenship in India?
a) The Parliament is the sole authority empowered to make laws regarding citizenship in
India.
b) State Legislature regulates citizenship within the respective state.
c) Both Parliament and State Legislatures regulate citizenship.
d) The Constitution is the sole authority to regulate citizenship in India.
Answer: a
Explanation: Article 11 gave powers to the Parliament of India to regulate the right of
citizenship by law.
Elimination: Statement a and d have similar sounding phrase- “is the sole authority”.
Answer can be narrowed down to these two options.
Source: M. Laxmikant, Page 177 Table 6.2 (pdf)

3. Consider the following statements with reference to the process of alteration of
boundaries of states in India:
1. It requires a special majority with ratification of half the states.
2. Bill lapses automatically with the denial of the concerning state whose boundaries are
going to be altered.
3. Bill for formation of new State can only be introduced in Rajya Sabha with prior
permission of the President.
Which of the above statements are incorrect?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Parliament of India can form new States; alter the area,
boundaries or names of the existing States by a law passed by a simple majority.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The bills for the formation of new states or alteration of the
boundaries or names of the existing states shall be introduced in either House of the
parliament (Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha), only on the recommendation of the President of
India
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Parliament is not bound to accept or act upon the views of the
State Legislature.
Logic: Concept based question
Source: M. Laxmikant, Page 136 (pdf)

4. Under which of the following circumstances can the central government deprive a
person of their Indian citizenship?
1. The citizen has, within five years after registration or naturalisation, been imprisoned in
any country for two years
2. The citizen has obtained the citizenship by fraud.
3. The citizen has been ordinarily resident out of India for five years continuously for any
reason.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: c
Explanation:
The Citizenship Act (1955) prescribes loss of citizenship by deprivation on following grounds
- By Deprivation – It is a compulsory termination of Indian citizenship by the Central
government, if:
(a) the citizen has obtained the citizenship by fraud: (b) the citizen has shown disloyalty to
the Constitution of India. Hence, statement 1 is correct. (c) the citizen has unlawfully traded
or communicated with the enemy during a war; Hence, statement 2 is correct. (d) the citizen
has, within five years after registration or naturalisation, been imprisoned in any country
for two years; and (e) the citizen has been ordinarily resident out of India for seven years
continuously. This will not apply if he is a student abroad or is in the service of a
government in India or an international organisation of which India is a member or has
registered annually at an Indian consulate his intention to retain his Indian citizenship.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
Logic: Statement 3 has data- “five years”.
5. Consider the following statements:

1. The registered Overseas Citizens of India are entitled to the rights conferred under article
16 of the Constitution.
2. Indian citizenship cannot be acquired by the children of foreign diplomats posted in
India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: b
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect. Overseas Citizenship of India (OCI) is not to be misconstrued as
'dual citizenship'. OCI does not confer political rights. The registered Overseas Citizens of
India are not entitled to the rights conferred on a citizen of India under article 16 of the
Constitution with regard to equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
Statement 2 is correct. Though this provision is not provided under the Constitution, the
Citizenship Act of 1955 provides that the children of the foreign diplomats posted in India
will not be able to acquire Indian citizenship by virtue of just being born in India.
Logic: Knowledge based question.
6. Consider the following statements regarding the Preamble of the Constitution:
1. It is based on the Objective Resolution drafted and moved by Jawaharlal Nehru.
2. It was enacted by the Constituent Assembly before the enactment of the rest of
the Constitution.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: a
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. Preamble of the Constitution is based on the Objective Resolution

drafted and moved by Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru in the Constituent Assembly in December
1946. The Objectives Resolution were adopted by the Constituent Assembly in January
1947.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Preamble of the Constitution was enacted by the Constituent

Assembly after the rest of the Constitution was already enacted. The reason for inserting
the Preamble at the end was to ensure that it was in conformity with the Constitution as
adopted by the Constituent Assembly.
Source: M. Laxmikant, Page 118-120 (pdf)

7. Consider the following pairs:
Committees of the Constituent Assembly - Chairman
1. Provincial Constitution Committee - Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
2. Union Constitution Committee - Jawaharlal Nehru
3. Steering Committee - Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: b
Explanation:
Pair 1 is incorrectly matched. Provincial Constitution Committee was chaired by Sardar

Patel. Sardar Patel also chaired the Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities
and Tribal and excluded areas.
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar chaired the Drafting Committee. Pair 2 is correctly matched. Jawaharlal
Nehru chaired the following major committees –Union Powers Committee, Union
Constitution Committee, States Committee (Committee for negotiating with the states)
Pair 3 is correctly matched. Rules of Procedure committee was chaired by Dr. Rajendra
Prasad. In addition, the Steering Committee was also headed by Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Source- M. Laxmikant, Page 73 (pdf)
8. Which of the following was/were among the factors suggested by the State
Reorganization Commission (1953) to be taken into account in any scheme of
reorganization of states?
1. Preservation and strengthening of the unity and security of the country
2. Financial, economic and administrative considerations.
3. Planning and promotion of welfare of the people
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d
Explanation:
The committee identified four major factors that can be taken into account in any scheme of
reorganisation of states:
(a) Preservation and strengthening of the unity and security of the country.
(b) Linguistic and cultural homogeneity.
(c) Financial, economic and administrative considerations.
(d) Planning and promotion of the welfare of the people in each state as well as of the nation
as a whole.

9. Consider the following statements regarding Fundamental Duties and Fundamental

Rights:
1. Only citizens and not aliens owe Fundamental Duties towards the Indian state.
2. Protection against arrest and detention under Article 22 of the Constitution is

available to the enemy aliens.
3. All persons in India enjoy equal protection of law under Article 14 of the
constitution.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: b
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. Fundamental duties are applicable only to the citizens of India as
mentioned in the Article 51 A of the Constitution.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Protection against arrest and detention under Article 22 is not
available to enemy aliens, who are the subjects of that country that is at war with India.
Statement 3 is correct. Right to equal protection of law under Article 14 of the constitution
is available to all the citizens as well as aliens.
Source: M. Laxmikant, Page 158, 265 (pdf)
Logic: Knowledge based question
10. Consider the following statements with regard to the Fundamental Rights:
1. They are guaranteed by the Supreme Court of India.
2. They aim at establishing a government of men and not of laws
3. All the fundamental rights can be suspended during National Emergency.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
a) 1and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Fundamental Rights are guaranteed by the Constitution to all
persons without any discrimination.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Fundamental Rights are meant for aim at establishing ‘a
government of laws and not of men’.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The Fundamental Rights can be suspended during the operation
of a National Emergency except the rights guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21
Logic: Easy question. Each option can be eliminated.
1. The term ‘minority’ has been defined anywhere in the Constitution.
2. Article 30 provides for discrimination in favour of minorities.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect. The protection under Article 30 is confined only to minorities

(religious or linguistic) and does not extend to any section of citizens (as under Article 29).
Also, the term ‘minority’ has not been defined anywhere in the Constitution.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The right conferred on minorities under Article 30 is only to

ensure equality with the majority and not intended to place the minorities in a more
advantageous position vis-a-vis the majority. There is no reverse discrimination in favour of
minorities. (Reverse discrimination is discrimination against members of a dominant or
majority group, in favour of members of a minority or historically disadvantaged group.)
Logic: Data in second statement (Art. 30) can be eliminated as a last resort. As per the
trend in PYQ, questions mentioning “defined in Constitution” are usually incorrect.
12. Consider the following statements with reference to citizenship in India:
1. The term ‘citizen’ is defined by the Constitution of India.
2. The constitution deals with the problem of acquisition or loss of citizenship

subsequent to its commencement.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Constitution deals with the citizenship from Articles 5 to 11
under Part II. However, it contains neither any permanent nor any elaborate provisions in
this regard. It only identifies the persons who became citizens of India at its commencement
(i.e., on January 26, 1950).
Statement 2 is incorrect. It does not deal with the problem of acquisition or loss of
citizenship subsequent to its commencement. It empowers the Parliament to enact a law to
provide for such matters and any other matter relating to citizenship. Accordingly, the
Parliament has enacted the Citizenship Act (1955), which has been amended from time to
time.
Logic: As per the trend in PYQ, questions mentioning “defined in Constitution” are usually
incorrect.
13. Consider the following statements regarding the freedom of assembly under
article 19 of the Constitution:
1. It includes the right to strike if it is peaceful and unarmed.
2. It can be exercised only on public land.
3. A magistrate can restrain an assembly, meeting or procession if there is a risk of

obstruction, annoyance or danger to human life.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: b
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect. The freedom of assembly under article 19 of the Constitution does
not include the right to strike. Also, the assembly must be peaceful and unarmed. This
provision does not protect violent, disorderly, riotous assemblies, or one that causes breach
of public peace or one that involves arms.
Statement 2 is correct. Every citizen has the right to assemble peaceably and without arms.
It includes the right to hold public meetings, demonstrations and take out processions. This
freedom can be exercised only on public land.
Statement 3 is correct. Under Section 144 of Criminal Procedure Code (1973), a magistrate
can restrain an assembly, meeting or procession if there is a risk of obstruction, annoyance
or danger to human life, health or safety or a disturbance of the public tranquillity or a riot
or any affray.
Logic: As per the trend in PYQ, questions mentioning “defined in Constitution” are usually
incorrect.
14. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the Preamble?
a) Its provisions are not enforceable in courts of law.
b) It has been amended thrice since the enactment of the Constitution.
c) It is considered by the judiciary as an integral part of the Constitution.
d) It declares India to be of a sovereign, socialist, secular democratic and republican

polity.
Answer: b
Explanation:
Option a is correct. Preamble is non-justiciable in nature as its provisions are not

enforceable in courts of law.
Option b is incorrect. Preamble has been amended only once after the enactment of the
Constitution under the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976. The 42nd amendment
act added three new words – Socialist, Secular and Integrity to the Preamble.
Option c is correct. Preamble is considered by the judiciary as an integral part of the

Constitution. In the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), the Supreme Court held that
Preamble is a part of the Constitution. It observed that the Preamble is of extreme
importance and the Constitution should be read and interpreted in the light of the grand
and noble vision expressed in the Preamble. In the LIC of India case (1995), the Supreme
Court again held that the Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution.
Option d is correct. The Preamble declares the nature of Indian State. It declares India to be
of a sovereign, socialist, secular democratic and republican polity.
Source: M. Laxmikant, Chapter: Preamble
Logic: Option b has data in it and thus can be eliminated.
15. Which of the following Directive Principles were added by the 42nd Amendment
Act of 1976?
a) State to minimise inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities.
b) To make provision for just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief.
c) To provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete
the age of six years.
d) To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Option a is incorrect. The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 added one more Directive Principle,
which requires the State to minimise inequalities in income, status, facilities and
opportunities (Article 38).
Option b is incorrect. To make provision for just and humane conditions of work and
maternity relief (Article 42) was also a part of the original constitution.
Option c is incorrect. The 86th Amendment Act of 2002 changed the subject-matter of
Article 45 and made elementary education a fundamental right under Article 21 A. The
amended directive requires the State to provide early childhood care and education for all
children until they complete the age of six years.
Option d is correct. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added “To promote equal justice and
to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39 A).”
16. The Indian Independence Act of 1947 was repealed by which Article of the Indian
Constitution?
a) Article 392
b) Article 390
c) Article 395
d) Article 225
Answer: c
Explanation:
Article 395 of the Constitution of India repealed the Indian Independence Act, 1947, and
the Government of India Act, 1935, together with all enactments amending or
supplementing the latter Act.
Source: https://indiankanoon.org/doc/493040/
Logic: UPSC frequently asks important articles. (Eg: In 2020 Art 21 was asked).
17. Consider the following statements about The Directive Principles of State Policy:
1. They are legally enforceable by the courts for their violation.
2. They embody the concept of a welfare state.
3. They aim at realizing the ideals of justice and liberty.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Directive Principles are non-justiciable in nature, that is, they
are not legally enforceable by the courts for their violation. They help the courts in
examining and determining the constitutional validity of a law. The Supreme Court has
ruled many a times that in determining the constitutionality of any law, if a court finds that
the law in question seeks to give effect to a Directive Principle, it may consider such law to
be ‘reasonable’ in relation to Article 14 (equality before law) or Article 19 (six freedoms) and
thus save such law from unconstitutionality.
Statement 2 is correct. The Directive Principle of State Policy is embodying the concept of a
‘welfare state’ and not that of a ‘police state’, which existed during the colonial era. In brief,
they seek to establish economic and social democracy in the country.
Statement 3 is correct. The Directive Principles constitute a very comprehensive economic,

social and political programme for a modern democratic State. The Directive Principle of
State Policy aim at realizing the ideals of justice, liberty, equality and fraternity as outlined
in the Preamble to the Constitution.
Logic: Statement 1 can be easily be eliminated and thereby arriving at the answer.
18. In case of violation of rights outside Part III of the constitution, the aggrieved
person
1. Can avail the right to constitutional remedies under Article 32.
2. Can move to the High Court under Article 226.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: b
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect. Even though the rights outside Part III of the constitution are
justiciable, they are different from the Fundamental Rights. In case of violation of a
Fundamental Right, the aggrieved person can directly move the Supreme Court for its
enforcement under Article 32, which is in itself a fundamental right. But, in case of
violation of the rights outside Part III of the constitution, the aggrieved person cannot avail
this constitutional remedy.
Statement 2 is correct. A person can move to the High Court by an ordinary suit or under
Article 226 (writ jurisdiction of high court) in case of violation of rights Outside Part III of
the constitution.
Logic: Statement 1 can be easily eliminated and thereby arriving at the answer.
19. The term ‘liberty’ as mentioned in the Preamble means

1. It is essential for the successful functioning of the Indian democratic system
2. Granting an individual the authority to do what one likes
3. The absence of restraints on the activities of individuals
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: c
Explanation:
Statement 1 and 3 are correct: Liberty as elaborated in the Preamble is very essential for
the successful functioning of the Indian democratic system. However, liberty does not mean
‘license’ to do what one likes and has to be enjoyed within the limitations mentioned in the
Constitution itself. In brief, the liberty conceived by the Preamble or Fundamental Rights is
not absolute but qualified.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Liberty as elaborated in the Preamble is very essential for the
successful functioning of the Indian democratic system. However, liberty does not mean
‘license’ to do what one likes and has to be enjoyed within the limitations mentioned in the
Constitution itself.
Logic: Statement 2 can be logically eliminated and thereby arriving at the answer. Based on
2019-2020 PYQ.
20. Which of the following Directive Principles is/are based on Gandhian ideology?
1. To organise village panchayats and endow them with necessary powers
2. To promote cottage industries on an individual or cooperation basis in rural areas
3. To secure the right to work, to education and to public assistance in cases of

unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: a
Explanation:
Statement 1 and 2 are correct: Art 40 and 43.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Art 41- To secure the right to work, to education and to public
assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement is a Socialistic
principle.
21. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution reveal the secular character
of the Indian State?
1. All persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right to freely
profess, practice and propagate any religion
2. The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on the ground of religion.
3. The term ‘secular’ too was added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of
1976.
4. No religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution

maintained by the State.
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: d
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Art 25- All persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and
the right to freely profess, practice and propagate any religion.
Statement 2 is correct: The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on the ground of
religion (Article 15).
Statement 3 and 4 are correct: Article 28- No religious instruction shall be provided in any
educational institution maintained by the State. The term ‘secular’ too was added by the
42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976. However, as the Supreme Court said in 1974,
although the words ‘secular state’9 were not expressedly mentioned in the Constitution,
there can be no doubt that Constitutionmakers wanted to establish such a state and
accordingly Articles 25 to 28
22. Consider the following statements regarding States and Union Territories (UTs):
1. ‘Union of States’ is a wider expression than the ‘Territory of India’.
2. The states are the members of the federal system and share a distribution of
powers with the Centre.
3. Being a sovereign state, India can acquire foreign territories according to the
modes recognised by international law.
Which of the above statements is/are not correct?
a) 1 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) None of the above
Answer: a
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Territory of India is a wider expression than Union of India

because ‘Union of states’ only includes states while ‘Territory of India’ includes not only
states union territories and territories that may be acquired by the Government of India in
future
23. Consider the following statements with respect to the principles of the Rule of
Law:
1. The Supreme Court held that the ‘Rule of Law’ as embodied in Article 14 is a
‘basic feature’ of the constitution.
2. The Rule of Law ensures absence of arbitrary power, that is, no man can be
punished except for a breach of law.
3. The principle of Rule of Law is incorporated in Indian Constitution from the

Constitution of The United States.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
a) 1 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 3 is incorrect: The principle of Rule of Law is incorporated from the Constitution
of Britain.
Statement 1 and 2 are correct: The concept of ‘equality before law’ is an element of the
concept of ‘Rule of Law’, propounded by A.V. Dicey, the British jurist. His concept has the
following three elements or aspects:
(i) Absence of arbitrary power, that is, no man can be punished except for a breach of law.
(ii) Equality before the law, that is, equal subjection of all citizens (rich or poor, high or low,
official or non-official) to the ordinary law of the land administered by the ordinary law
courts.
iii) The primacy of the rights of the individual, that is, the constitution is the result of the
rights of the individual as defined and enforced by the courts of law rather than the
constitution being the source of the individual rights.
The first and the second elements are applicable to the Indian System and not the third
one. In the Indian System, the constitution is the source of the individual rights. The
Supreme Court held that the ‘Rule of Law’ as embodied in Article 14 is a ‘basic feature’ of
the constitution. Hence, it cannot be destroyed even by an amendment.
Logic: Statement 3 is a data driven statement and can be eliminated.
24. The Second Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains Provisions related to:
1. It can be amended by special majority of the parliament.
2. The emoluments, allowances, and privileges for president, the governors, the
Speakers and judges.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Simple majority is needed.
Statement 2 is correct. Provisions relating to the emoluments, allowances, privileges and so

on of: 1. The President of India 2. The Governors of States 3. The Speaker and the Deputy
Speaker of the Lok Sabha 4. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha 5.
The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Legislative Assembly in the states 6. The
Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Legislative Council in the states 7. The Judges
of the Supreme Court 8. The Judges of the High Courts 9. The Comptroller and Auditor
General of India
Source: M. Laxmikant, Page 110, 274 (pdf)
25. Consider the following statements with respect to the ‘Act for the Good
Government of India’:
1. The Act transferred the powers of the East India Company to the British Crown.
2. It ended the system of double government by abolishing the Board of Control and
Court of Directors.
3. It established a 25-member council of India to assist the Secretary of State for
India. Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 and 2 are correct: This significant Act was enacted in the wake of the Revolt of
1857–also known as the First War of Independence or the ‘sepoy mutiny’. The act known as
the Act for the Good Government of India, abolished the East India Company, and
transferred the powers of Government, territories and revenues to the British Crown. This
significant Act was enacted in the wake of the Revolt of 1857–also known as the First War
of Independence or the ‘sepoy mutiny’. The act known as the Act for the Good Government
of India, abolished the East India Company, and transferred the powers of Government,
territories and revenues to the British Crown.
Statement 3 is incorrect: It established a 15-member council of India to assist the Secretary

of State for India.
Logic: Statement 3 has data (25 member) and can be eliminated to arrive at the answer.
26. Which of the following features express the Principle of Fraternity as mentioned
in the Preamble of the Constitution?
1. It aims at overcoming hindrances to national integration like communalism,

regionalism, casteism, secessionism.
2. The Constitution promotes this feeling of fraternity by the system of single

citizenship.
3. The phrase ‘unity and integrity of the nation’ embraces both the psychological
and territorial dimensions of national integration..
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
All the statements are correct: Principle of Fraternity- Fraternity means a sense of
brotherhood. The Constitution promotes this feeling of fraternity by the system of single
citizenship. Also, the Fundamental Duties (Article 51-A) say that it shall be the duty of
every citizen of India to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst
all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic, regional or sectional diversities. The
phrase ‘unity and integrity of the nation’ embraces both the psychological and territorial
dimensions of national integration.
Source: M. Laxmikant, Page 126(pdf)
Logic: Statements that portray a positive character are usually correct as per PYQ trend.
1. The bill introduced under Article 3 to change the name, area, or boundary of a
State can be introduced only in Lok Sabha.
2. The bill under Article 3 can be introduced in Parliament only on the

recommendation of the President of India.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: b
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Bill under Article 3 can be introduced in any House of the
Parliament.
Statement 2 is correct: Article 3 lays down two conditions in this regard: one, a bill
contemplating the above changes can be introduced in the Parliament only with the prior
recommendation of the President; and two, before recommending the bill, the President has
to refer the same to the state legislature concerned for expressing its views within a
specified period.
Source: M. Laxmikant, Page 136(pdf)
Logic: Statement 1 is an extreme statement using the word “only”. However, one must be
cautious of such extreme words in case of polity questions.
28. Which of the following are the exceptions to the ‘Equality before Law’ as
mentioned in the Indian Constitution?
1. The President shall not be answerable to any court for the exercise and
performance of the powers and duties of his office.
2. No Member of Parliament shall be liable to any proceedings in any court in

respect of any vote given by him in Parliament or any committee thereof.
3. The United Nations Organisation and its agencies enjoy the diplomatic immunity.
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d
Explanation:
Exceptions to Equality The rule of equality before law is not absolute and there are
constitutional and other exceptions to it. These are mentioned below: 1. The President of
India and the Governor of States enjoy the following immunities (Article 361): (i) The
President or the Governor is not answerable to any court the exercise and performance of
the powers and duties of office.
(ii) No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the President or the
Governor in any court during his term office.
(iii) No process for the arrest or imprisonment of the President or Governor shall be issued
from any court during his term of office
(iv) No civil proceedings against the President or the Governor s be instituted during his
term of office in any court in respect of act done by him in his personal capacity, whether
before or a he entered upon his office, until the expiration of two months n after notice has
been delivered to him.
2. No person shall be liable to any civil or criminal proceedings in any court in respect of
the publication in a newspaper (or by radio or television) of a substantially true report of
any proceedings of either House of Parliament or either House of the Legislature of a State
(Article 361-A).
3. No member of Parliament shall be liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of

anything said or any vote given by him in Parliament or any committee thereof (Article 105).
4. No member of the Legislature of a state shall be liable to any proceedings in any court in
respect of anything said or any vote given by him in the Legislature or any committee
thereof (Article 194).
5. Article 31-C is an exception to Article 14. It provides that the laws made by the state for
implementing the Directive Principles contained in clause (b) or clause (c) of Article 39
cannot be challenged on the ground that they are violative of Article 14. The Supreme Court
held that “where Article 31-C comes in, Article 14 goes out”.
6. The foreign sovereigns (rulers), ambassadors and diplomats enjoy immunity from
criminal and civil proceedings.
7. The UNO and its agencies enjoy the diplomatic immunity.
29. Consider the following statements with respect to the term ‘Republic ’mentioned
in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution:
1. In a Republican system the Head of the State is always elected directly or

indirectly for a fixed period.
2. Every democratic country is always a republic.
3. In a republic, there is complete absence of any privileged class.

a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: b
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: In a monarchy, the head of the state (usually king or queen) enjoys a
hereditary position, that is, he comes into office through succession, e.g., Britain. In a
republic, on the other hand, the head of the state is always elected directly or indirectly for
a fixed period, e.g., USA.
Statement 2 is incorrect: There are many democratic countries which have Monarchs as
their Head of the State hence they are Democratic but not Republic. Example Britain,
Australia.
Statement 3 is correct: There is absence of any privileged class and hence all public offices
being opened to every citizen without any discrimination.
Logic: Extreme case is statement 2- “every” and “always”.
30. Consider the following statements regarding the Fundamental Rights provided in
the Indian Constitution:
1. Fundamental Rights are absolute in nature.
2. All the Rights under Article 14, 16 and 21 are enjoyed by the foreign citizens also.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: d
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: FRs are not absolute but qualified. The state can impose
reasonable restrictions on them. However, whether such restrictions are reasonable or not
is to be decided by the courts. Thus, they strike a balance between the rights of the
individual and those of the society as a whole, between individual liberty and social control.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Some of the Fundamental Rights are available only to the citizens
(Article 15, 16, 19, 29, 30) while others are available to all persons whether citizens,
foreigners or legal persons like corporations or companies.
31. Consider the following statements regarding the Preamble of the Indian
Constitution:
1. It is based on the ‘Objectives Resolution’, drafted by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar.
2. It is a part of the Indian Constitution.
3. Since the time of adoption, it has been amended two times.
4. The words Socialist, Secular and Republic were added by 42nd amendment.
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on the

‘Objectives Resolution’, drafted and moved by Pandit Nehru, and adopted by the
Constituent Assembly.
Statement 2 is correct: In the Kesavananda Bharati case, the Supreme Court held that
Preamble is a part of the Indian Constitution.
Statement 3 and 4 are incorrect: Since the time of adoption, it has been amended only once
by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976), which added three new words: Socialist,
Secular and Integrity.
Logic: Statement 1 has data- “drafted by Dr. Ambedkar”. Statement 3 has data – “two
times” and can be easily eliminated.
32. Which of the following statements correctly describes the Writ of Certiorari?
a) The court orders a lower court or another authority to transfer a matter pending
before it to the higher authority or court.
b) The higher court (High Court or Supreme Court) orders a lower court as when a
case goes beyond its jurisdiction.
c) The court finds that a particular office holder is not doing his/her legal duty and
thereby is infringing on the rights of an individual.
d) The court orders that the arrested person should be presented before it
Answer: a
Explanation:
Certiorari: Under this writ, the court orders a lower court or another authority to transfer a
matter pending before it to the higher authority or court.
33. Which of the following are the unitary features of the Indian Constitution?
1. The Constitution of India embodies not only the Constitution of the Centre but
also those of the states.
2. The bulk of the Constitution can be amended by the unilateral action of the
Parliament, either by simple majority or by special majority.
3. The Parliament is empowered to legislate on any subject of the State List if Rajya
Sabha passes a resolution to that effect in the national interest.
4. The governor is empowered to reserve certain types of bills passed by the state
legislature for the consideration of the President.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: d
Explanation: All the statements are correct. No explanation required in this regard.
34. The definition of ‘State’, as provided in Article 12 of the Indian Constitution,

includes which of the following authorities?
1. Parliament of India
2. The Legislature of each of the States
3. LIC and ONGC
4. District Boards
(a) 1 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: d
Explanation:
The term ‘State’ has been used in different provisions concerning the fundamental rights.
Hence, Article 12 has defined the term for the purposes of Part III. According to it, the State
includes the following: (a) Government and Parliament of India, that is, executive and
legislative organs of the Union government.
(b) Government and legislature of states, that is, executive and legislative organs of state
government.
(c) All local authorities, that is, municipalities, panchayats, district boards, improvement
trusts, etc.
(d) All other authorities, that is, statutory or non-statutory authorities like LIC, ONGC,
SAIL, etc.
Thus, State has been defined in a wider sense so as to include all its agencies. It is the
actions of these agencies that can be challenged in the courts as violating the Fundamental
Rights. According to the Supreme Court, even a private body or an agency working as an
instrument of the State falls within the meaning of the ‘State’ under Article 12.

35. Which of the following is/are not the Fundamental Duty of the Citizen of India
under Article 51A of Indian Constitution?
1. The Indian Constitution has imposed the duty to vote to all Indian citizens of
sound mind above the age of 18, irrespective of an individual’s caste, religion, social
or economic status.
2. To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National
Flag and the National Anthem.
3. To cherish and follow the noble ideals that inspired the national struggle for
freedom.
4. To defend the country and render national service when called upon to.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Answer: a
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: To vote in general elections is not the Fundamental Duty of the
citizen of India.
36. Which of the following items come under the ambit of Right to Freedom of
Religion provided in Indian Constitution?
1. Practicing the religion of one’s own choice.
2. Converting others into the religion against their will.
3. Propagating the religion of one’s own choice.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) All of the above
Answer: C
Explanation:
Article 25 says that all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right to
freely profess, practice and propagate religion. The implications of these are: (a) Freedom of
conscience: Inner freedom of an individual to mould his relation with God or Creatures in
whatever way he desires.
(b) Right to profess: Declaration of one’s religious beliefs and faith openly and freely.
(c) Right to practice: Performance of religious worship, rituals, ceremonies and exhibition of
beliefs and ideas.
(d) Right to propagate: Transmission and dissemination of one’s religious beliefs to others or
exposition of the tenets of one’s religion. But, it does not include a right to convert another
person to one’s own religion. Forcible conversions impinge on the ‘freedom of conscience’
guaranteed to all the persons alike.
37. Which of the following features represent the Federal structure of Indian Polity?
1. Bicameralism.
2. Written Constitution.
3. Supremacy of the Constitution.
4. Single Citizenship.
5. Integrated Judiciary.
(a) 2, 3, and 4 only
(b) 1, 2, and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Answer: c
Explanation:
Statement 4 and 5 are incorrect: Single Citizenship and integrated judiciary are the unitary
(not federal) features of the Constitutions.
Logic- Based on latest UPSC polity pattern of 5 options. Option 4 can easily be eliminated
as single citizenship is a unitary feature and thus we can arrive at our answer.
38. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Socialism in the
Indian context?
1. Indian brand of socialism is a ‘communistic socialism’.
2. Democratic socialism, holds faith in a ‘mixed economy’ where both public and
private sectors co-exist.
3. Economic Reforms of 1991 strengthen the Socialistic values of Indian Polity.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: b
Explanation.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Indian brand of socialism is a ‘democratic socialism’ and not a

‘communistic socialism’.
Statement 2 is correct: Notably, the Indian brand of socialism is a ‘democratic socialism’

and not a ‘communistic socialism’ (also known as ‘state socialism’) which involves the
nationalisation of all means of production and distribution and the abolition of private
property. Democratic socialism, on the other hand, holds faith in a ‘mixed economy’ where
both public and private sectors co-exist
Statement 3 is incorrect: The new Economic Policy (1991) of liberalisation, privatisation and
globalisation has, however, diluted the socialist credentials of the Indian State.
Logic- Based on latest UPSC trend of dissimilar statements. Option 1 and 2 are talking
about contrasting brands of socialism and the aspirant and negate options containing 1
and 2 together.
39. Consider the following statements regarding the Ninth Schedule:
1. Originally (in 1951), the Ninth Schedule contained only 13 acts and regulations
but at present (in 2016) their number is 382.
2. It deals with the provisions of the Panchayati Raj institutions.
3. Article 39B saves the acts and regulations included in the Ninth Schedule from
being challenged and invalidated on the ground of contravention of any of the
fundamental rights.
Which of the above statement is/are incorrect?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Originally (in 1951), the Ninth Schedule contained only 13 acts
and regulations but at present, their number has reached to 284.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The eleventh schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the
provisions of the Panchayati Raj institutions.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Article 31B saves the acts and regulations included in the Ninth
Schedule from being challenged and invalidated on the ground of contravention of any of
the fundamental rights
Logic- Statement 1 and 3 have data in it (382 and Art 39B) and can be easily eliminated
hence arriving at the correct answer.
40. Which of the following Fundamental Rights is available to citizens as well as

foreigners in India?
(a) Article 15
(b) Article 16
(c) Article 17
(d) Article 19
Answer: c
Explanation:
Article 17 is available to both citizens and foreigners. Article 15, Article 16, Article 19,
Article29, and Article 30 are available to only citizens and not foreigners.
Source: M. Laxmikant, Page 186, Table 7.2 (pdf)
Logic- Based on latest UPSC trend of asking important Articles of the Constitution.
Knowledge based question.
41. Consider the following statements with reference to the ‘Preamble’ of Indian
Constitutional:
1. It specifies justice, liberty, equality and fraternity as the objectives of the

Constitution.
2. It cannot be amended even by the Parliament as it forms the basic structure of

the Constitution.
3. It mentions the ideals to be achieved in independent India.
4. It was the first section under the constitutional scheme to be drafted and enacted
by the Constituent Assembly.
Which of the above statements are incorrect?
(a) 2 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Answer: a
Explanation:
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Preamble can be amended, subject to the condition that no
amendment is done to the ‘basic features’ of the Constitution.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The constitution as adopted on November 26, 1949, content a

preamble. The Preamble was enacted after the entire constitution was already enacted.
Logic- Knowledge based question.
1. Citizens of Pakistan or Bangladesh are eligible to apply for Overseas Citizenship of

India.
2. An Overseas Citizens of India (OCI) shall not be eligible for appointment as a

Judge of the Supreme Court.
3. Overseas Citizens of India (OCI) are entitled to multiple entry lifelong visa.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2005, expanded the scope of grant
of OCI for PIOs of all countries except Pakistan and Bangladesh as long as their home
countries all dual citizenship under their local laws.
Logic- Statement 1 is extremely specific and UPSC tends to make specific statements
incorrect.
1. The laws made by Parliament are applicable to Indian citizens and their property
in any part of the world with some restrictions.
2. The laws passed by State Legislature are applicable on whole or any part of the
territory of India.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: a
Explanation:
Statement 2 is incorrect: A State Legislature can make laws for the whole or any part of the
state. The laws made by a State Legislature are not applicable outside the state, except
when there is a sufficient nexus between the state and the object.
Article 245 deals with the territorial extent of laws made by Parliament and by the
Legislatures of States.
rticle 246 deals with the subject matter of laws made by Parliament and by the Legislatures
of States (i.e., Union List, State List and Concurrent List).
Articles 251 and 254 provide that in case of a conflict between the central law and state
law, the central law prevails over the state law and the state law shall be void.
44. Consider the following provisions:
1. It abolished the office of the Secretary of State for India and transferred his
functions to the Secretary of State for Commonwealth Affairs.
2. It designated the Governor-General of India and the provincial governors to act on

the advice of their respective Council of Ministers in all matters.
3. It discontinued the appointment to civil services and reservation of posts by the

Secretary of State for India.
Which of the following have the above said provisions?
(a) Government of India Act, 1935
(b) Cabinet Mission
(c) Indian Independence Act of 1947
(d) Cripps Mission
Answer: c
Explanation:
Indian Independence Act, 1947 - It ended the British rule in India and declared India as an
independent and sovereign state from August 15,1947.
 It abolished the office of the Secretary of State for India and transferred his
functions to the secretary of state for Commonwealth Affairs.
 It provided for the governance of each of the dominions and the provinces by the
Government of India Act of 1935, till the new Constitutions were framed. The
dominions were however authorised to make modifications in the Act.
 It designated the Governor-General of India and the provincial governors to act on
the advice of the respective Council of Ministers in all matters.
 It discontinued the appointment to civil services and reservation of posts by the
Secretary of State for India.
Source: https://www.legislation.gov.uk/ukpga/1947/30/pdfs/ukpga_19470030_en.pdf

45. Consider the following statements regarding the Principle of Secularism
mentioned in the Indian Constitution:
1. The term ‘Secular’ was added in preamble by the 44th Constitutional Amendment
Act of 1976 and besides this it is nowhere mention in the constitution
2. The Indian concept of secularism connotes a complete separation between the

religion and the state.
3. Indian Constitution embodies the negative concept of secularism.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) None of the above
Answer: d
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The term ‘Secular’ was added in preamble by the 42nd
Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 and besides this it is nowhere mention in the
constitution
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Western concept of secularism connotes a complete

separation between the religion (the church) and the state (the politics).
Statement 3 is incorrect: Indian Constitution embodies the positive concept of secularism
Logic- Statement 1 has data and can be easily eliminated.
46. Which of the following shall adopt the ideals of the Principles of Directive
Principles of State Policy while formulating policies and laws?
1. Union Legislature
2. State Government
3. Local authorities
4. Public Sector Enterprises
(a) 1 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: d
Explanation:
All Statements are correct: According to Article 36, the term ‘State’ in Part IV has the same
meaning as in Part III dealing with Fundamental Rights. Therefore, it includes the
legislative and executive organs of the central and state governments, all local authorities
and all other public authorities in the country.
47. The Third Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains names of the:
1. Provisions relating to the administration and control of scheduled areas and

scheduled tribes.
2. Provisions relating to the emoluments, allowances, privileges.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: d
Explanation:
The third Schedule contains the “Forms of Oaths or Affirmations” of various constitutional
posts. It deals with Articles 75(4), 99, 124(6), 148(2), 164(3), 188 and 219.
48. India adopted the Parliamentary form of government because:
1. It is the most stable form of government.
2. Presence of nominal and real executives.
3. Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: c
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Parliamentary form of government is unstable government
because the ministers for their continuity and survival in office depend on the mercy of the
majority legislators.
49. Consider the following statements regarding Article 32 of the Indian Constitution:
1. It is considered as the heart and soul of the Constitution.
2. The right to move the Supreme Court can be suspended as provided for by the
Constitution.
3. The legal and customary rights can also be enforced under this article.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: b
Explanation:
Statement 2 is incorrect: The right to move the Supreme Court shall not be suspended
except as otherwise provided for by the Constitution. Thus the Constitution provides that
the President can suspend the right to move any court for the enforcement of the
fundamental rights during a national emergency (Article 359).
Statement 3 is incorrect: Only the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Constitution can
be enforced under Article 32 and not any other right like non-fundamental constitutional
rights, statutory rights, and customary rights and so on.
50. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Constitution of
India?
1. It generates a degree of trust and coordination among people.
2. It specifies how the government will be constituted.
3. It lays down limits on the powers of the government.
4. It provides a standard to examine and evaluate any law and action.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: d
Explanation:
All statements are correct: Constitution of India generates a degree of trust and
coordination among people. It specifies how the government will be constituted. It lays
down limits on the powers of the government and It provides a standard to examine and
evaluate any law and action.
Source: NCERT class IX Political Science, Chapter 2-3 (pdf)
Logic- Positive statements are generally correct.

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1. Consider the following statements with respect to colonial acts in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

Source: M. Laxmikant, Chapter 1, Page 53-60 (pdf)

Logic: Knowledge-based question. Elimination will not work.

2. Which of the following statements is correct with regards to the regulation of

b) State Legislature regulates citizenship within the respective state.

c) Both Parliament and State Legislatures regulate citizenship.

d) The Constitution is the sole authority to regulate citizenship in India.

Source: M. Laxmikant, Page 177 Table 6.2 (pdf)

1. It requires a special majority with ratification of half the states.

Which of the above statements are incorrect?

Logic: Concept based question

Source: M. Laxmikant, Page 136 (pdf)

2. The citizen has obtained the citizenship by fraud.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

5. Consider the following statements:

6. Consider the following statements regarding the Preamble of the Constitution:

1. It is based on the Objective Resolution drafted and moved by Jawaharlal Nehru.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Statement 1 is correct. Preamble of the Constitution is based on the Objective Resolution

Statement 2 is incorrect. Preamble of the Constitution was enacted by the Constituent

Source: M. Laxmikant, Page 118-120 (pdf)

7. Consider the following pairs:

Committees of the Constituent Assembly - Chairman

1. Provincial Constitution Committee - Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

2. Union Constitution Committee - Jawaharlal Nehru

3. Steering Committee - Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Pair 1 is incorrectly matched. Provincial Constitution Committee was chaired by Sardar

Source- M. Laxmikant, Page 73 (pdf)

Logic: Knowledge based question.

1. Preservation and strengthening of the unity and security of the country

2. Financial, economic and administrative considerations.

3. Planning and promotion of welfare of the people

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(b) Linguistic and cultural homogeneity.

(c) Financial, economic and administrative considerations.

Source: M. Laxmikant, Page 144 (pdf)

9. Consider the following statements regarding Fundamental Duties and Fundamental

2. Protection against arrest and detention under Article 22 of the Constitution is

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Source: M. Laxmikant, Page 158, 265 (pdf)

Logic: Knowledge based question

1. They are guaranteed by the Supreme Court of India.

2. They aim at establishing a government of men and not of laws

3. All the fundamental rights can be suspended during National Emergency.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

Source: M. Laxmikant, Page 179 (pdf)

Logic: Easy question. Each option can be eliminated.

11. Consider the following statements:

1. The term ‘minority’ has been defined anywhere in the Constitution.

2. Article 30 provides for discrimination in favour of minorities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Statement 1 is incorrect. The protection under Article 30 is confined only to minorities

Statement 2 is incorrect. The right conferred on minorities under Article 30 is only to

Source: M. Laxmikant, Page 214 (pdf)

12. Consider the following statements with reference to citizenship in India:

1. The term ‘citizen’ is defined by the Constitution of India.

2. The constitution deals with the problem of acquisition or loss of citizenship

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

Source: M. Laxmikant, Page 159 (pdf)

1. It includes the right to strike if it is peaceful and unarmed.

2. It can be exercised only on public land.