Program: BE Civil Engineering

Curriculum Scheme: Revised 2016

Examination: Third Year Semester VI
Course Code: CEC603 and Course Name: Transportation Engineering-II
Time: 1 hour Max. Marks: 50
Note to the students:- All the Questions are compulsory and carry equal marks .

Q1. The rail section which is not used on Indian metre gauge tracks, is

Option A: 25 R

Option B: 30 R

Option C: 35 R

Option D: 40 R

Q2. Creep of rails is measured by

Option A: creep indicator

Option B: fishing string

Option C: anchors

Option D: sleeper

Q3. Rail section first designed on Indian railways was

Option A: bull headed

Option B: double headed

Option C: flat footed

Option D: angle section

Q4. Normally the limiting value of cant is

Option A: G/8

Option B: G/10

Option C: G/12

1|Page
Option D: G/15

Q5. Staggered joints are generally provided

Option A: on curves

Option B: on straight tracks

Option C: on straight ascending slope

Option D: on straight descending slope

Q6. What would be the expression for sleeper density if the rail length used in track
is 19m and there are 22 sleepers under one rail length
Option A: M+3
Option B: M+2
Option C: M+4
Option D: M+7

Q7. Calculate the element of turnout for BG track such as Switch Lead,where
R0= 245 mt, N=8.5, G=1.676mt, d=0.114mt.
Option A: 8mt
Option B: 13mt
Option C: 15mt
Option D: 8mt

Q8. On 80 BG track ,the average speed of different trains is 50kmph . Compute

equilibrium cant for this BG track
Option A: 16cm
Option B: 30 cm
Option C: 18cm
Option D: 20cm

Q9. Nominal size of ballast used for points and crossings is

Option A: 10 mm

Option B: 25 mm

Option C: 40 mm

Option D: 50 mm

Q10. Flat mild steel bearing plates are used

Option A: for points and crossings in the lead portion
Option B: with wooden sleepers at locations where creep is likely to be developed
Option C: on all joints and curves

2|Page
Option D: on all the above

Q11. The total gap on both sides between the inside edges of wheel flanges and
gauge faces of the rail is kept as
Option A: 10mm
Option B: 13mm
Option C: 16mm
Option D: 19 mm

Q12. The application of __________ diagram is used to find the orientation of the
runway to get the desired wind coverage.
Option A: Wind Butterfly
Option B: Wind Cycle
Option C: Wind Star
Option D: Wind Rose

Q13. According to I.C.A.O. the recommended length of air ports is decided on

Option A: sea level elevation
Option B: standard sea level temperature (15°C)
Option C: effective gradient percentage
Option D: all the above.

Q14. The height of the pilot's eye above the runway surface is assumed
Option A: 1m
Option B: 3m
Option C: 4m
Option D: 5m

Q15. When semaphore and Warner are installed on the same post, then the stop
indication is given when
Option A: both arms are horizontal
Option B: semaphore arm lowered but Warner arm horizontal
Option C: both semaphore and Warner arms lowered
Option D: none of the above

Q16. Total correction for elevation, temperature and gradient for a runway should not
be more than

Option A: 0.15

Option B: 0.2

Option C: 0.25

Option D: 0.35

Q17. The standard temperature in airport for design

3|Page
Option A: 150C
Option B: 250C
Option C: 350C
Option D: 380C

Q18. At a certain station, the mean of the average temperature is 27ᵒ C and mean of
the maximum daily temperature is 32ᵒC. What is the airport reference
temperature (ART)? All answers are in ᵒC

Option A: 29ᵒC

Option B: 25ᵒC

Option C: 35ᵒC

Option D: 30ᵒC

Q19. The total correction for altitude and temperature, in calculating the runway
length from basic runway length, normally should not exceed

Option A: 7%

Option B: 14%

Option C: 28%

Option D: 35%

Q20. The area for landing and taking off helicopter is known as

Option A: Hanger

Option B: Landing Area

Option C: Heliport

Option D: Holding Apron

Q21. The minimum width of clearway is

Option A: 50m

Option B: 100m

Option C: 150m

Option D: 200m

Q22. Maximum gross takeoff weight of an aircraft is

4|Page
Option A: equal to the maximum structural loading weight

Option B: less than the maximum structural landing weight

Option C: more than the maximum structural landing weight

Option D: equal to the empty operating weight plus the payload

Q23. A1 type of international airport is the indicative term for

Option A: basic runway length and single isolated wheel load only

Option B: runway length at standard conditions only

Option C: strength of the runway pavement only

Option D: basic runway length, maximum permissible single isolated wheel load and tyre
pressure

Q24. Which of them are a bearing.

Option A: Sliding bearings
Option B: rocker and pin bearing
Option C: curved bearings
Option D: All of above

Q25. A ship is berthed in a chamber and lifted by principles of buoyancy. Such a

chamber is called
Option A: Refuge dock
Option B: Wet dock
Option C: Floating dock
Option D: Dry dock

5|Page
 Program: BE Civil Engineering
Curriculum Scheme: Revised 2016
Examination: Third Year Semester VI
Course Code: CEC603 and Course Name: Transportation Engineering-II
Time: 1 hour Max. Marks: 50

Question Correct Option

Q1. D

Q2. A

Q3. B

Q4. B

Q5. A

Q6. A

Q7. A

Q8. A

Q9. B

Q10. A

Q11. D

Q12. D

Q13. D

6|Page
Q14. B

Q15. A

Q16. D

Q17. A

Q18. A

Q19. A

Q20. C

Q21. C

Q22. C

Q23. D

Q24. D

Q25. C

7|Page
 These are sample MCQs to indicate pattern, may or
may not appear in examination.
G.M. VEDAK INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY
Program: TE CIVIL Engineering
Curriculum Scheme: Revised 2016
Examination: Third Year Semester VI

Course Code: CEC603 and Course Name: Transportation Engineering. – II

Time: 1 hour Max. Marks: 50
Note to the students:- All the Questions are compulsory and carry equal marks .

Q1. Coning of wheels is done at

Option A: 1 in 10
Option B: 1 in 20
Option C: 1 in 30
Option D: 1 in 40

Q2. In daily maintenance of railway track a gang has to critically look ---- ---- -
Option A: soil stabilization
Option B: replacement of rail
Option C: signal
Option D: gauge and alignment

Q3. Following is one of the system of high speed train

Option A: Local Train
Option B: MAGLEV
Option C: Rajdhani Express
Option D: Monorail

Q4. In station yard direction of engine can be changed by using ---- -

Option A: turn table
Option B: traverser
Option C: ash pit
Option D: Turning radius

Q5. Monorail are at advantage due to

Option A: Cost Implications
Option B: Minimum footprint on ground
Option C: Highspeed travel
Option D: Higher passenger capacity

Q6. Maximum value of superelevation according to Railway for BG Track

Option A: 1/12th of Gauge
Option B: 1/20th of Gauge
Option C: 1/11th of Gauge
Option D: 1/10th of Gauge

Q7. Cant deficiency for BG track is _____

Option A: 40 mm
Option B: 50 mm
Option C: 75 mm
Option D: 54 mm

Q8. For smooth running of trains and comforts to the passengers ___is provided on
the curve
Option A: superelevation
Option B: crossing
Option C: pointing
Option D: low gradient

Q9. Switch angle is the angle between

Option A: the gauge face of the stock rail and tongue rail
Option B: the outer face of the stock rail and tongue rail
Option C: the gauge face of the stock rail and outer face of the tongue rail
Option D: the outer face of the stock rail and the gauge face of the tongue rail

Q10. In order to keep vehicles stable Degree of curve should be limited to

Option A: 25 degrees
Option B: 20 degrees
Option C: 16 degrees
Option D: 10 degrees

Q11. The bearing of the runway at threshold is 290°, the runway number is
Option A: N 70° W
Option B: 290°
Option C: 29°
Option D: W 20° N
Q12. The runway length after correcting for elevation and temperature is 2845 m. If
the effective gradient on runway is 0.5 percent then the revised runway length
will be
Option A: 2845 m
Option B: 2910 m
Option C: 3030 m
Option D: 3130 m

Q13. For Class A Air port the difference of reduced levels of higher and lower edges
of the conical surface, is
Option A: 25 m
Option B: 50 m
Option C: 75 m
Option D: 100 m

Q14. Runway lights are usually spaced at not more than

Option A: 60m
Option B: 150m
Option C: 200m
Option D: 250m

Q15. Airports can be classified on how many basis?

Option A: 5
Option B: 4
Option C: 3
Option D: 2

Q16. Which of the following is used for servicing and repairs of the aircraft?
Option A: Apron
Option B: Hanger
Option C: Terminal building
Option D: Holding apron

Q17. Effective length of a runway is the distance between

Option A: Ends of the runway
Option B: Point of intersection of the obstruction clearance line and the extended plane
of the runway surface, and the other end of the runway
Option C: Point of intersection of the glide path and the extended plane of the runway
surface and the other end of the runway
Option D: Ends of the clear way on either side

Q18. The capacity of parallel runway pattern depends upon

Option A: Weather conditions and navigational aids available
Option B: Lateral spacing between two runways and weather conditions
Option C: Lateral spacing between two runways and navigational aids available
Option D: Lateral spacing between two runways, weather conditions and navigational
aids available.

Q19. The lift off distance is the distance along the centre of the runway between the
starting point and ----
Option A: End of the runway
Option B: End of stop-way
Option C: Point where air craft becomes air borne
Option D: Point where air craft attains a height of 10.7 m

Q20. For supersonic transport aircraft, the minimum turning radius of taxiway is
Option A: 60 m
Option B: 120 m
Option C: 180 m
Option D: 240 m

Q21. Which of the transportation modes is cheaper from the following

Option A: Waterways
Option B: Railway
Option C: Highways
Option D: Airways

Q22. Bombay harbor is ___ ___ ___ ___

Option A: natural harbor
Option B: semi artificial harbor
Option C: artificial harbor
Option D: semi natural harbor

Q23. A bridge culvert is to be constructed across a proposed lined canal. The afflux at
this site for a contracted canal width can be computed by ___ ___ ____
Option A: Unwin’s formula
Option B: Broad-crested weir formula
Option C: Orifice formula
Option D: Molesworth formula

Q24. The proposed masonry arch bridge having the total height of its abutments or
piers from top to bottom as H can be proposed to have economical spans each
equal to ___ ___
Option A: 2/3 H
Option B: 2H
Option C: 1.2 H
Option D: 1.5 H

Q25. which is NOT substructure of bridge from following

Option A: Abutments
Option B: Piers
Option C: Wing walls
Option D: Span
 Program: BE Civil Engineering
Curriculum Scheme: Revised 2016
Examination: Third Year Semester VI
Course Name: Transportation Engineering-II
QUESTION BANK

1. In Shunting signal the red band inclined at 45 degree indicates

a) Stop
b) Proceed
c) Proceed Cautiously
d) None of the above

2. The Normal Size of ballast used for point and crossing is

a) 40 mm
b) 25 mm
c) 10 mm
d) 30 mm

3. The Standard Rail length for broad gauge and meter gauge are respectively
a) 12 m and 12 m
b) 12 m and 13 m
c) 13 m and 12 m
d) 13 m and 13 m

4. The Number of keys used in CST-9 Sleeper are

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

5. How does the depth of ballast cushion affect rail section?

a) Higher the depth bigger the rail section
b) Depth is less, bigger the rail section
c) Depth is less, smaller the rail section
d) Depth and Rail section same

6. Select the tests which are conducted on rail section

i) Falling weight test
ii) Tensile Test
iii) Hammer Test
a) i) and ii)
b) ii) and iii)
c) iii) and i)
d) i), ii) and iii)

7. The Limiting value of Cant/Super Elevation is

a) Gauge/8
 b) Gauge/9
c) Gauge/10
d) Gauge/11

8. Due to Bettering action of wheels over the rail end, the rail get bent and deflected
down at ends. These rails are called
a) Roaring Rails
b) Hogged Rails
c) Tilted Rails
d) Kinked Rails

9. he standard dimensions of a wooden sleeper for a B.G. railway track are

a) 2.74 m × 25 cm × 13 cm
b) 1.83 m × 20 cm × 11 cm
c) 1.52 m × 15 cm × 10 cm
d) 1.75 cm × 20 cm × 12 cm

10. The limiting value of cant excess for Broad Gauge is

a) 55 mm
b) 65 mm
c) 75 mm
d) 100 mm

11. The gradient on which an additional engine is required to negotiate the gradient, is
called
a) Momentum gradient
b) Pusher gradient
c) Ruling gradient
d) Steep gradient

12. One degree of curve is equivalent to

a) 1600/R
b) 1700/R
c) 1750/R
d) 1850/R

13. If D is the distance between the parallel sidings and α is the angle of crossing, the
distance between the noses of crossing measured parallel to the gathering line, is
a) D tan α
b) D cot α
c) D sin α
d) D cos α

14. Which of the following mechanical devices is used to ensure that route cannot be
changed while the train is on the point even after putting back the signal?
a) Detectors
b) Point lock
c) Lock bar
d) Stretcher bar
 15.Airports can be classified on how many basis?
A) 5
B) 4
C) 3
D) 2

16.The FAA classification of the airport is based on:

A) Function
B) Geometric design
C) Airport approach speed
D) Length of Runway

17.Which of the below does not affect the site-selection of an airport site?
A) Adequate access
B) Air traffic potential
C) Sufficient airspace
D) Number of ground staff

18.The wind intensity during a calm period in runways should be:

A) Below 4.6km/hr
B) Above 5km/hr
C) Between 5-10 km/hr
D) Below 6.4km/hr

19.How many types of Fly Rules are there?

A) 2
B) 5
C) 4
D) 3
A
19.The thickness design of the pavement, is decided on the load carried by
A)main gears
B)nose wheel
C)tail wheel
D)all the above.

20.The meteorological condition which influences the size and location of an air port
is
A)atmosphere pressure
B)air density
C)wind direction
D)all the above.

21.The reduced level of the proposed site of an air port is 2500 m above M.S.L. If the
recommended length by I.C)A)O. for the runway at sea level is 2500 m, the required
length of the runway is
A)2500 m
B)3725 m
C)3000 m
 D)3250 m

22.The reduced levels of the ends A and B of a runway are 3025 m and 3035 m and
that of its mid-point is 3015 m. The reduced level of the horizontal surface, is
A)3070 m
B)3060 m
C)3075 m
D)3015 m

23.The height of the pilot's eye above the runway surface is assumed
A)1 m
B)3 m
C)4 m
D)5 m
 University of Mumbai
Examination 2020
Program: T.E. (Civil) (REV. -2016) Engineering
Curriculum Scheme: Rev 2016
Examination: Third Year Semester VI
Course code: CE C604 Course Name: Transportation Engineering - II

Time: 1 hour Max. Marks: 50

=====================================================================
For the students:- All the Questions are compulsory and carry equal marks .
Q1. A culvert having a length less than 1m is called
Option A: Minor Bridge
Option B: Vent way
Option C: Culvert
Option D: Viaduct

Q2.
The bridge having its floor supported at the top of structure is known as

Option A: Semi through bridge

Option B: Deck Bridge
Option C: Through Bridge
Option D: Submersible Bridge

Q3. The bridge constructed to enable a road to pass under another land
communication route is called an
Option A: Under Bridge
Option B: Over Bridge
Option C: Subway
Option D: Flyover Bridge

Q4. The sleepers which satisfy the requirements of an ideal sleeper are ___ Sleepers
Option A: Wooden
Option B: Steel
Option C: Cast iron
Option D: Pre stressed

Q5. The tread of wheels is provided an outward slope of 1 in ___

Option A: 10
Option B: 15
Option C: 20
Option D: 25

Q6. The gradient on which an additional engine is required to negotiate the gradient is
called
Option A: momentum gradient
Option B: pusher gradient
Option C: ruling gradient
Option D: Steep gradient.

1 | Page
 University of Mumbai
Examination 2020

Q7. Degree of a railway curve is defined as number of degrees subtended at the center
of a curve by an arc of ____ m
Option A: 10.5
Option B: 22.75
Option C: 30.5
Option D: 45

Q8. Maximum cant deficiency prescribed on Indian Board Gauge Railways, is __ mm

Option A: 25
Option B: 50
Option C: 75
Option D: 100

Q9. Heel divergence, the distance between the running faces of stock rail and gauge
face of tongue rail, as recommended for Indian B.G. tracks, is ___ mm
Option A: 135
Option B: 120
Option C: 100
Option D: 85

Q10. In a diamond crossing, number of noses is

Option A: 0
Option B: 2
Option C: 4
Option D: 6

Q11. The check rails are placed opposite the crossing so that
Option A: it is symmetrically placed opposite nose of crossing
Option B: its one-third length is ahead of the nose of crossing
Option C: its two-third length is ahead of the nose of crossing
Option D: its three fourth lengths is ahead of the nose of crossing.

Q12. The percentage of time in a year during which the cross wind
component remains within the limit is ____
Option A: Wind coverage
Option B: Head wind
Option C: Prevailing wind
Option D: Cross wind

Q13. For a runway at an elevation of 1000m above MSL and airport

reference temperature of 16°C, the rise in temperature to be taken
into account as per ICAO is
Option A: 24.5°C
Option B: 15°C
Option C: 7.5°C
Option D: 6°C

2 | Page
 University of Mumbai
Examination 2020

Q14. According to the International Civil Aviation Organisation (I.C.A.O.) the

strength of runway pavements, have been coded by
Option A: Seven English alphabets
Option B: Last Seven English alphabets
Option C: First Seven English alphabets
Option D: First seven numbers

Q15. The Bridge having its floor flush or a little above the bed of stream which allows
flood water always to pass over its super structure
Option A: Vent way
Option B: minor Bridge
Option C: Cause way
Option D: Viaduct

Q16. It is an instrument which provides to the controller at the ATC (Air traffic
Control) tower an overall picture of all the aircrafts within the airspace
surrounding the terminal
Option A: Localizer
Option B: Glide slope antenna
Option C: Beacon
Option D: Airport surveillance radar

Q17. The runway length after correction for elevation and temperature is
2845m. If the effective gradient on runway is 0.5%, the revised runway
length will be
Option A: 2845m
Option B: 2910m
Option C: 3030m
Option D: 3130m

Q18. The minimum turning radius of taxiway for supersonic and subsonic
respectively is ____
Option A: 120m and 180m
Option B: 180m and 120m
Option C: 60m and 120m
Option D: 180m and 60m

Q19. A runway is being constructed in a new airport as per ICAO

recommendations. The elevation and the ART of this airport are 535m
above MSL and 22.65°C, respectively. Consider the effective gradient
of runway as 1%. The length of runway required for a design aircraft
under the standard conditions is 2000m. within the timeframe of
applying sequential corrections as per the ICAO recommendations,
the length of runway corrected for the temperature is
Option A: 2223m

3 | Page
 University of Mumbai
Examination 2020
Option B: 2250m
Option C: 2500m
Option D: 2750m

Q20. For a runway at an elevation of 1000m above MSL and airport

reference temperature of 16°C, the rise in temperature to be taken
into account as per ICAO is
Option A: 24.5°C
Option B: 15°C
Option C: 7.5°C
Option D: 6°C

Q21. As compared to wall type breakwater, mound type breakwater

Option A: Requires skilled labor
Option B: Requires low maintenance cost
Option C: Requires less material
Option D: Results in less damage due to gradual failure

Q22. If F is the fetch, the straight-line distance of open water available in kilometres,
the height of the wave in metres is
Option A: 0.15√
Option B: 0.34√
Option C: 0.32√
Option D: 0.25√

Q23. Littoral drift

Option A: is a current parallel to the shore, caused due to tangential component of the wind
Option B: is the raised line of sand, parallel to the sea coast
Option C: is the slow movement of surface water at sea caused by the wind
Option D: is a current perpendicular to the shore line caused due to wind

Q24. When the bottom is rock, maximum harbour depth is

Option A: Loaded Draft + 1.2m
Option B: Loaded Draft + 2.8m
Option C: Loaded Draft + 1.5m
Option D: Loaded Draft + 1.8m

Q25. Topographic Survey is carried out to obtain ground contours at intervals of

Option A: 1.5m to 2m
Option B: 0.5m to 1.5m
Option C: 1m to 2m
Option D: 2.5m to 2.75m

4 | Page
 Program: BE Civil Engineering
Curriculum Scheme: Revised 2012
Examination: Third Year Semester VI
Course Code: CEC303 Course Name: Transportation Engineering-II
Time: 1 hour Max. Marks: 50
==============================================================================
Note to the students:- All the Questions are compulsory and carry equal marks .

Q1. The main objective of transportation is?

Option A: Economical transport of goods
Option B: Economical transport of passengers
Option C: To generate revenue
Option D: Safe economical and efficient transport of goods and passengers

Q2. The current highway development works in India are undertaken by?
Option A: NHAI
Option B: Govt. of India
Option C: State governments
Option D: NHDP

Q3. The broken stones that were used in the construction of roads in macadam’s
construction were?
Option A: 10mm and 20mm
Option B: 20mm and 40mm
Option C: 30mm and 50mm
Option D: 50mm and 100mm

Q4. The first 20 year development plan is also called as?

Option A: Nagpur road plan
Option B: Lucknow road plan
Option C: Bombay road plan
Option D: Delhi road plan

Q5. Which type of roads can be utilized during monsoon?

Option A: Unpaved roads
Option B: Gravel roads
Option C: Fair weather roads
Option D: Bituminous roads

Q6. The roads that connect the district headquarters to important city of other
state is called ___________

1|Page
Option A: National Highway
Option B: State Highway
Option C: Major district road
Option D: Other district road

Q7. The improper alignment of road will not result in __________

Option A: Increase in construction cost
Option B: Increase in maintenance cost
Option C: Increase of population
Option D: Increase in accidents

Q8. The coefficient of lateral friction as recommended by IRC is __________

Option A: 0.15
Option B: 0.40
Option C: 0.35
Option D: 0.30

Q9. The most raised portion of the pavement is called ___________

Option A: Super elevation
Option B: Camber
Option C: Crown
Option D: Kerb

Q10. Transition curve is introduced in ___________

Option A: Horizontal curve
Option B: Circular curve
Option C: Between horizontal curve and circular curve
Option D: Vertical curve

Q11. A part of pavement raised with respect to one side keeping the other side
constant is called __________
Option A: Footpath
Option B: Kerb
Option C: Super elevation
Option D: Camber

Q12. In India, the type of traffic assumed to design pavements is?

Option A: Low traffic
Option B: Heavy traffic
Option C: Mixed traffic flow
Option D: Very low traffic

Q13. The length visible to driver at any instance of time is called ___________
Option A: Sight distance
Option B: Visibility limit
Option C: Head light distance

2|Page
Option D: Overtaking sight distance

Q14. The SSD is based on ___________

Option A: Speed of vehicle
Option B: PIEV theory
Option C: Voluntary action of brain
Option D: Reflex action of brain

Q15. The reaction time of a driver assumed in OSD is ___________

Option A: 1 sec
Option B: 2 sec
Option C: 2.5sec
Option D: 3 sec

Q16. The ruling minimum radius in the curve is given by ___________

Option A: R=V2/127(e+f)
Option B: R=V’2/127 (e+f)
Option C: R=127(e+f)
Option D: R=127/(e+f)

Q17. The extra widening is the sum of ___________

Option A: Mechanical widening and psychological widening
Option B: Two times of mechanical widening
Option C: Two times of psychological widening
Option D: Mechanical widening – physical widening

Q18. The total shift of a transition curve is ___________

Option A: L2/12R
Option B: L2/24R
Option C: L2/48R
Option D: L2/96R

Q19. The angle which is measured at the change of direction of two gradients is
called ___________
Option A: Standard angle
Option B: Subtended angle
Option C: Deviation angle
Option D: Setback angle

Q20. The equation for L<OSD for summit curve is given by ___________
Option A: NS/8H
Option B: NS2/8H
Option C: NS2/10H
Option D: NS2/12H

3|Page
Q21. The minimum length of vertical curve recommended by IRC for a design
speed of 100kmph is?
Option A: 30m
Option B: 40m
Option C: 50m
Option D: 60m

Q22. Give way sign is of __________

Option A: Triangular shape
Option B: Circular shape
Option C: Octagonal shape
Option D: Hexagonal shape

Q23. What is the standard wheel load in Ewl factor?

Option A: 4080 kg
Option B: 9160 kg
Option C: 8170 kg
Option D: 5100 kg

Q24. The process of removing and controlling excess surface and sub soil water
within roadway is ___________
Option A: Highway Engineering
Option B: Highway maintenance
Option C: Highway drainage
Option D: Highway finance

Q25. A pier is an intermediate supporting structure of a bridge which transfers the

load directly to
Option A: Foundation
Option B: Abutment
Option C: Soil
Option D: Wing-walls

4|Page
 University of Mumbai
Examination 2020 under cluster ___ (Lead College Short name)
Program: Civil Engineering
Curriculum Scheme: Rev2016
Examination: Third Year Semester VI
Course Code: CEC603 and Course Name: Transportation Engineering-II
Time: 1 hour Max. Marks: 50
=====================================================================
For the students:- All the Questions are compulsory and carry equal marks .
Q1. The main function of a fish plate is_____
Option A: to join the two rails together
Option B: To join rails with the sleeper
Option C: to allow rail to expand and contract freely
Option D: reduce the wear

Q2. Gauge is the distance between_____

Option A: centre to centre of rails
Option B: running faces of rails
Option C: outer faces of rails
Option D: Inner to outer faces of rails

Q3. Due to battering action of wheels over the end of the rails, the rails get bent down
and are deflected at ends. These rails are called
Option A: roaring rails
Option B: hogged rails
Option C: corrugated rails
Option D: buckled rails

Q4. creep is the______

Option A: longitudinal movement of rails
Option B: lateral movement of rails
Option C: vertical movement rails
Option D: difference of level in rails

Q5. For a Broad Gauge route with M+7 sleeper density, number of sleepers per rail
length is
Option A: 18
Option B: 19
Option C: 20
Option D: 22

Q6. When the rail ends rest on a joint sleeper, the joint is termed as
Option A: supported rail joint
Option B: suspended rail joint
Option C: bridge joint
Option D: base joint

Q7. Cant deficiency occurs when a vehicle travels around a curve at

1|Page
 University of Mumbai
Examination 2020 under cluster ___ (Lead College Short name)
Option A: equilibrium speed
Option B: speeds higher than equilibrium speed
Option C: speeds lower than equilibrium speed
Option D: booked speed

Q8. Arrangement of of signals, points and other appliances, interconnected by

mechanical or electrical locking is known as______
Option A: switches
Option B: crossings
Option C: interlocking
Option D: permanent way

Q9. For smooth running of trains and comforts to the passenger_______is provided on
the curve
Option A: superelevation
Option B: crossing
Option C: pointing
Option D: low gradient

Q10. Switch angle is the angle between_____

Option A: the gauge face of the stock rail and tongue rail
Option B: the outer face of the stock rail and tongue rail
Option C: the gauge face of the stock rail and outer face of the tongue rail
Option D: the outer face of the stock rail and the gauge face of the tongue rail

Q11. Yellow lighthand signal indicates

Option A: Stop
Option B: proceed
Option C: proceed cautiously
Option D: Start to move

Q12. Dimond crossing consists of_______

Option A: Two acute angles and one obtuse angle
Option B: Two acute angles and two obtuse angles
Option C: four acute angles
Option D: four obtuse angles

Q13. The FAA classification of the airport is based on

Option A: Function
Option B: Geometric design
Option C: Airport approach speed
Option D: Length of Runway

Q14. The wind intensity during a calm period in runways should be:
Option A: Below4.6km/hr

Option B: Above 5km/hr

1|Page
 University of Mumbai
Examination 2020 under cluster ___ (Lead College Short name)
Option C: Between5-10km/hr
Option D: Below 6.4km/hr

Q15. The application of __________ diagram is used to find the orientation of the
runway to get the desired wind coverage.
Option A: Wind Butterfly
Option B: WindCycle
Option C: Wind Star
Option D: Wind Rose

Q16. The total correction percentage for altitude, in calculating runway length from
basic runway length, normally does not exceed

Option A: 7
Option B: 14
Option C: 35
Option D: 28

Q17. For night landing, the thresholds are lighted

Option A: green
Option B: red
Option C: white
Option D: yellow

Q18.
Which of the following is not the form of markings?
Option A: Airport markings
Option B: Airport lightings
Option C: signage
Option D: runway

Q19. the path to be traversed during parking in or out operation near terminal location is
known as_____
Option A: Threshold markings
Option B: Apron Markings
Option C: Runway markings
Option D: Taxiway markings

Q20. ground based radio navigation system is known as

Option A: Instrument Landing System
Option B: Precision Approach Path Indicator
Option C: Visual Approach Slope Indicator
Option D: Threshold Lighting

Q21. Canal transportation comes under type of______

Option A: Harbour
Option B: Ocean transportation
Option C: Inland transportation

1|Page
 University of Mumbai
Examination 2020 under cluster ___ (Lead College Short name)
Option D: port

Q22. harbours enable the navigation inside the country from non-coastal areas is known
as
Option A: Canal harbour
Option B: Commercial harbour
Option C: Fishery harbour
Option D: River harbour

Q23. Which of the following is not part of superstructure?

Option A: Deck Slab
Option B: Girder
Option C: Pier
Option D: Bearing

Q24. Which of the following is not type of bridge according to Material

Option A: Timber bridge
Option B: R C C bridge
Option C: Truss bridge
Option D: Stone bridge

Q25. Maximum amount of superelevation for B.G. track is ____cm

Option A: 16.5
Option B: 10.0
Option C: 7.6
Option D: 22

1|Page