1.

In Points & Crossings , switch angle is the angle subtended between gauge face of the___
rails

a) Tongue & Check b) Points & Wings

c) Stock & Tongue d) Points & Splice

2. Resistance due to friction offered by track when a train move ?

a) 0.0016W b) 0.00008W

c) 0.004W d) 0.0010W

3. Vertical curves are provided at the junction of the grade where algebraic difference between
grade is

a) =0.4% b) =0.5%

c) =0.1% d) = 0.3%

4. Vertical curve is normally designed as ?

a) Cubic parabola b) Parabola

c) Circular d) Elliptical

5. When change of gradient is +ve it forms

a) Sag b) Summit

c) Transaction curve d) Circular curve

6. When change of gradient is –Ve it forms?

a) Sag b) Summit curve

c) Transaction curve d) Circular

7. Normal speed can be restored incase of MANUAL deep screening after _____ days?

a) 20 b) 21

c) 16 d) 10

8. 75kmph speed can be raised in deep screened track with machine packing after _______ day

a) 4th b) 6 th

c) 7th d) 9 th

9. Chemical and metallurgical testing is mandatory if rail fails after renewal within ______ Years

a) 10 b) 6

c) 5 d) 2
10. Recommended minimum depth of Ballast cushion in SWR is ____ mm?

a) 150 b) 200

c) 250 d) 300

11. Wherever 22T axle load rolling stock running, min. depth of clean ballast cushion should be
_______ mm

a) 250 b) 300

c) 350 d) 400

12. Width of ballast section in LWR for single line in straight track is __ m.

a) 4.2 b) 4.5

c) 4.72 d) 4.87

13. Side slope of formation in embankment should be kept normally?

a) 2:1 b) 1:1

c) 1:2 d) 1½:1

14. Staggered rail joints are normally provided where degree of curvature is_____ and above

a) 4 b) 5

c) 3 d) 6½

15. ECW work is to be carried out to make LWR when minimum residual life of rails is ____
years ?

a) 5 b) 8

c) 10 d) 15

16. Accidents due to weld failure can be reduced by?

a) Improved quality of weld b) Minimizing welding joints

c) USFD and joggling of weld d) All of the above

17. Resultant radius of turn out laid in similar flexture?

a) Re = (RmXRs)/RmxRs b) (RmxRs)/Rm-Rs

c) (Rm+RS)/RmxRS d) (Rm-Rs)/RmxRs
18. Satisfactory ride index for a long distance express train is ?

a) 2.5 b) 3

c) 3.5 d) 4

19. Minimum throw of switch used in thick web switch is _____mm?

a) 95 b) 110

c) 115 d) 140

20. Function of super elevation in curves is ?

a) to distribute of load an both rails b) to reduce wear and tear of rolling stocks

c) to provide comfort to passenger d) all of the above

21. Cant excess occur when train travel on curve at

a) higher speed than equilibrium speed b) on lower speed than equilibrium speed

c) equilibrium speed d) maximum sectional speed.

22. Rumble strips are to be provided at _______m length from gate post in hily terrain or flat
terrain ?

a) 20 b) 30

c) 40 d) 60

23. In ‘C’ class ODC gross clearance from standard moving dimension is ____mm

a) >225 b) >150

c) >75 d) <75

24. Desirable gauge on curve having radius less than 350m is

a) -6 to +6 b) -6 to +10

c) -6 to +15 d) -6 to +20

25. CRS sanction is mandatory where track lifting involved is more than ___ mm.

a) 300 b) 400

c) 500 d) 1000

26. Switch Entry angle of 1:12 T/out is?

a) 0º 20’0” b) 0’20º ”27º’

c) 0’27’20” d) 0º 20’37”
27. Acceleration peaks exceeding _________ g is taken for track quality assement on high speed
routes above 110 Km/h on “A” & “B” routes of BG

a) 0.2 b) 0.15

c) 0.35 d) 0.3

28. Which index is based on SD values for track monitoring

a) CTR b) A, B, C Categorization

c) TGI d) None of the above

29. Track is classified as “Very Good” if total No. of vertical and lateral acceleration peaks per Km
on high speed routes is

a) > 1.0 b) < 1.0

c) < 1.5 d) < 0.5

30. Need for urgent maintenance of track, arises when the value of individual indices of different
parameters of TGI is

a) 100 b) 36

c) 50 d) 80

31. Which tolerance has not been prescribed on Indian Railways for track?

a) Safety b) Service

c) New Track d) maintenance

32. The frequency of track recording car for group “A” & “B” routes is once in ___ months

a) 3 b) 4

c) 6 d) 2

33. The suffix with track geometry A, B, C etc., pertains to _ limit.

a) “A” b) “B”

c) “C” d) “D”

34. The weightage of alignment index in the TGI based track recording is ____ times

a) two b) six

c) four d) three
35. In TRC reports, the No. of worst peak locations for each parameter both long and short
chords are

a) 10 b) 15

c) 8 d) 6

36. Frequency of Census at a Level Crossing where TVU is between 75,000 to 1 lakh will be
_____ Years

a) 2 b) 2½
c) 3 d) 5
37. Recommended Throw of Switch in BG is ____ mm

a) 95 b) 105

c) 110 d) 115

38. The versine Versions of Turn-in Curves on Loops should be recorded at stations at 3
Mtrs interval on 6 Mtrs Chord length. The variation in Versions on two successive ie
stations should not be more than ____mm

a) 2 b) 4

c) 6 d) 8

39. Actual wear for Wing rail of 60 Kg CMS Crossing is equal to

a) measured wear - 2.5mm b) measured wear -2 mm

c) measured wear -3mm d) measured wear-1.5mm

40. Spring setting device is used in PSC turnouts for

a) increasing the throw of switch and for better housing of Tongue Rail
b) increasing the gap at JOH and for better housing of Tongue rail
c) minimising the in-built twist in the switch portion
d) both a & b

41. Junction of heads in a switch is a place where

a) TR & SR are at same level b) TR & SR have same head width

c) TR is 6mm higher than SR d)None of the above

42. The maximum wear on crossing permitted is ______ mm on Rajdhani and _____ mm on
other routes.

a) 4 & 6 b) 6 & 10

c)10 & 20 d)15& 20

43. 60 Kg, 1 in 12 PSC Fan-shaped layout has a speed potential of max _____ Kmph infacing
direction, while negotiating T/O.

a) 45 b) 75

c) 30 d) 50

44. The present day concrete sleeper Turn-outs are called Fan-shaped layout due to laying of
Sleepers

a) Perpendicular to the straight track in switch portion

b) Perpendicular to bisecting line of crossing in the crossing por tion
c) Perpendicular inclined at ½ angle between the normal to straight and curved track in
lead portion
d) None of the above

45. Guard rail is provided on bridges to ?

a) support the running rail b) support the bridge

c) prevent serious damages in case of derailment d) support the sleeper

46. The sections which are normally to be patrolled during monsoon will be identified and notified
by the

a) Sectional JE(P) b) Incharge SE(P)

c) ADEN d) DEN

47. During deep screening, it should be ensured when ballast is being removed from any sleeper,
invariably, there are atleast _______ nos fully supported sleepers between it and the next
sleeper

a) 2 b) 4

c) 5 d) 6

48. The JE(P.way) (not in over all Incharge) should check the equipment of all patrolmen and
watchmen once in a____

a) Week b) Fortnight

c) Month d) daily

49. Patrolling in pairs can be introduced with the approval of

a) PWI b) DEN

c) AEN d) CE

50. The safety radius at the time of testing of Detonators is ___ M

a) 30 b) 45

c) 50 d) 60
51. Over hang beyond the last lifting/slinging point while lifting 90 UTS rails should not exceed
___M

a) 6 b) 3

c) 3.25 d) 5.5

52. The PWI-incharge should check patrolling at nights by train once in a ______

a) Week b) Fortnight

c) Month d) daily

53. Flat tyre causes maximum damage at a speed of _____ Kmph

a) 90 -100 b) 25 - 30

c) 10-15 d) 50-60
54. The standard play on BG track is ___ mm

a) 25 b) 19

c) 20 d) 22

55. The heel of ER clip is

a) the edges of ER Clip b) which rests on insert shoulder

c) the part which is inside the insert d) which rests on rail flange

56. The Toe of ER Clip is

a) the edges of ER Clip b) which rests on insert shoulder

c) the part which is inside the insert d) which rests on rail flange

57. For checking correct curvature of tongue rail, ordinates should be measured

a) at every 3 Mtr b) at mid-point of tongue rail

c) at mid-point & qtr points of tongue rail d) None of the above

58. In case of Fan-shaped layout same sleepers can be used for a RH & LH turnout, for this
purpose

a) RH end of the sleepers should remain on RH side

b) RH end of sleepers should be brought towards LH side by rotating sleepers
c) Sleepers in the switch should remain as it is but, those in the lead should be rotated to
bring the end to LH side
d) None of the above

59. Behind the heel of switch, spherical washers should be fitted

a) On left hand side b) On right hand side

c) Towards inclined surface d) None of the above

60. Chord length for measuring lead curvature of a turnout is ___M

a) 3 b) 4

c) 6 d) 10

61. Dia. of drill bit for hole in a Gap less joint should be ____mm

a) 26 b) 26.5

c) 27 d) 30

62. Maximum permissible wear on crossing & wing rail is ____mm

a) 10 b) 8

c) 6 d) 12

63. As per IRCA rules, the rejection limit for wheel flange thickness is ____mm

a) 38 b) 25.4

c) 19 d) 16

64. CASNUB bogies are fitted in ___ Type of wagons.

a) BOX N b) BOX

c) 4 wheeler d) BCX

65. A false flange may split open points while traveling in

a) leading direction b) trailing direction

c) both direction d) None of the above

66. The 60 Kg 90 UTS rail shall be planned for renewal after passage of minimum traffic of ____
GMT

a) 525 b) 550

c) 600 d) 800

67. Half yearly report on the condition of Permanent way shall be submitted by

a) PWI b) AEN

c) DEN d) CE

68. The top table of Guard rail should not be lower than that of the running rail by more than
____mm

a) 10 b) 25

c) 50 d) 35
69. The ballast underside of Glued insulated joints must not be less than ________mm

a) 35 b) 25

c) 45 d) 50

70. TFR proposal is initiated if 20% or more sample size record toe load below __kg

a) 400 b) 500

c) 600 d) 800

71. Sleeper to sleeper gauge variation limit is ____mm

a) 4 b) 5

c) 2 d) 3

72. Desirable clearance between top of stretcher bar and bottom of stock rail is _____ mm.

a) 1 to 2.5 b)1.5 to 2.5

c) 1 to 3.5 d)1.5 to 3

73. The maximum number of Rail dollys permitted to work in group in one block section are ___
Nos.

a) 5 b) 6

c) 8 d) 10

74. In 1 in 12 Fan-shaped Layout the serial number of sleepers in lead portion is

a) 20 to 62 b) 21 to 64

c) 22 to 62 d) 20 to 64

75. Which of the following statement is not correct in connection with PSC Fan shaped layout

a) No. of Stretcher bars in Switch are increased from 3 to 4.

b) Lengths of tongue rails, Stock rails and crossing are increased.
c) Distance between SRJ and ATS is same as the conventional layout for 52kg, 1 in 12
layout.
d) Sleepers are not square to the main line track in lead and crossing portion.

76. Which of the following versines require correction in a Group B, BG line, for a curve with 3º
curvature (Ideal versine is 87 mm on 20m chord) with maximum permitted speed of 105
kmph.

a) 55,40,60,72,85 b) 87,70,50,68,50

c) 68,84,70,55,60 d) 85,87,62,78,82
77. Ideal versine measured on 3m chord on turn out curve in lead portion is _____mm

a) 20 b) 87

c) 10 d) 116

78. Which of the following machine crushed ballast stack gets rejected for under size (retention %
on sieves given)

a) 40mm,20mm-35%,99% b) 40mm,20mm-50%,96%

c) Both a & b d) None of the above

79. No. of ballast samples of 0.027 Cum. required for sieve analysis for two stacks of quantity 80
Cum, 520 Cum are

a) 6 b) 8

c) 7 d) 10

80. With reference to the formula C= GV² /127R used for calculation of equilibrium cant, which of
the following statements are false.

i. C- equilibrium cant in mm ii. G -Track gauge in mm

iii. V- Speed in Kmph. iv. R- Radius of curve in mm

a) None of the above b) Only (iii)

c) Both (i) & (ii) d) Only (ii)

81. In following junction of grades, which case requires provision of a vertical curve in a Group B
line?

a) 1 in 200 R, 1 in 200F b) Level, 1in 200R

c) Both a & b d) None of the above

82. Which of the following statement is true with reference to life of detonators

a) Normal life of detonators is 7 Yrs

b) Life of detonators can be extended to ten years on yearly basis after satisfactory testing of
2 no.s from each lot
c) Safety range of detonator is beyond a radius of 50m
d) All the above

83. Correct sequence of operations in conventional through packing is

a)Squaring, gauging , slewing, packing b) Gauging, Squaring, Slewing , Packing

c) Squaring, Slewing, gauging ,packing d) None of the above

84. The Maximum gradient in station yards should be ___________ unless special safety devices
are adopted and/or special rules enforced.

a)1 in 400 b)1 in 260

c)1 in 1000 d)1 in 1200

85. Approximate Quantity of ballast required for 1 m length of track standard ballast profile for
LWR track (Single line BG) with a clean cushion of 250 mm

a) 3 Cum b) 4 Cum

c) 2 Cum d) 5 Cum

86. Which of the following statements is correct with reference to Guard Rail arrangement in
Bridge approaches

a) Clearance between Guard Rail and running rail is 250±50 mm

b) Length of Guard rail beyond face of the ballast wall is 4875 mm for BG
c) Only (a)
d) Both (a) & (b)

87. Minimum size of bridge timber to be used in BG (b x d x l), d-exclusive of notching

a) 150 X 250 X 2440 mm b) 125 X 250 X 2745 mm

c) 175 X 300 X3050 mm d) 150 X 250 X 2745 mm
88. Which of the following statements is correct with reference to hook bolts on a bridge

a) Diameter of hook bolt is 25mm

b) Straight lipped hook bolts are used for R.S.J bridges
c) Sloping lip hook bolts are used for plate girder bridges
d) None of the above

89. Which of rail wear combinations(Vertical and Lateral) require planning for renewal, in Group
B, 60 kg track (in curves)

a) 10mm & 7mm b) 6mm & 7MM

c) 9mm &9MM d) 11mm & 7MM

90. Renewal consideration of service life in terms of total GMT for 52 kg rail is

a) 600 b) 625

c) 800 d) 525

91. In the case of single Rails, initial laying gap recommended for free rails at FP joints at 40º C
to 55º C ‘Rail temperature is ___mm

a) 8 b) 1

c) 4 d) 7

92. In calculation of TGI, multiplication factors involved for unevenness index (UI), Twist index
(TI),Gauge index (GI) and alignment index (AI) respectively are

a) 1,1,1, AND 6 b) 2,1,1 AND 6

c) 2,2,2 AND 6 d) 1,1,2 and 6

93. In a similar flexure layout where 1 in 12 turn out takes of from a 3º Curve the effective degree
of T/o becomes approximately

a) 5º b) 6º

c) 7º d) 8º

94. In which of the following cases of toe load measurement TFR shall be proposed (Sample size
%).

a) 15% records less than 400kg b) 30% records less than 400kg

c) 25% records less than 400kg d) Both b and c

95. Heel divergence in a fixed heel type switch is

a) Distance between gauge faces of tongue rails and stock rail at tongue rail joint
b) Distance between gauge faces of tongue rail and stock rail at the first block
connecting tongue rail and stock rail from ATS
c) Clear distance between tongue rail and stock rail at the first block connecting tongue rail &
stock rail from ATS
d) None of the above

96. In a loose heel type of switch, the following is required at the tongue rail & lead rail joint

a) Fishplate opposite to heel block on tongue rail side has to be bent adequately
b) Two bolts towards tongue rail shall only be hand tightened
c) Fish fit type of heel block to be used
d) All the above

97. Slide chair bolt holes in stock rail of switch are _______

a) Same as normal fish bolt hole height b) 6mm below fish bolt hole

c) 6mm above fish bolt hole d) 8mm below fish bolt hole

98. In a thick web switch, which of the following statement is correct

a) Thickness of tongue rail increased at ATS to 42 mm, and height is reduced to 134mm.
b) Tongue rail attains , normal section at the rear to connect with normal fish palates
c) Counter fort arrangement provided to stock rail for with stand ing lateral thrust, and
maximum speed permitted on T/O is 50 kmph
d) All the above.

99. Which of the following works require caution order

a) Shallow screening b) Through packing

c) Oiling and greasing of fish plated joints d) None of the above

100. 1 in 20 inward cant of rail shall not be provided at

a) Major girder bridge proper b) Points and crossings

c) Both (a) & (b) d) None of the above

101. Check rail clearance range required is not from 44 to 48 mm in BG for check rails at

a) Points and crossings b) Level crossings

c) Sharp curves d) Both (b) & (c)

102. Which of the following statements are correct in connection with protection of track in case of
automatic block system, in BG

a) If train or part of train is obstruction one detonator to be placed at 90m away from
obstruction, and two more(10m apart) detonators to be place at 180m with hand danger
signal
b) In case of obstruction other than train track has to be pro tected at 600m distance with one
detonator, and with three detonators and hand danger signal at 1200m
c) Both (a)& (b) are correct
d)None of the above

103. Action to be taken on observing parting of a train by a Gate keeper in a LC gate

a) Show hand danger signal to driver of the train

b) Put the Gate stop signal to ON if possible
c) Shout and gesticulate to attract attention of guard and driver
d) All the above

104. Periodical censes at a level crossing shall be taken

a) Once in five years normally to review classification of Gate

b) For TVU 75000 to 100000 once in 2½ Yrs to determine their eligibility/priority for
replacement with ROB/RUB
c) For all LCs once in three years
d) For all LCs once in two years

105. Which of the following need not to be a gapless fish plated joint

a) Joints on a Bridge b) Stock rail tongue and lead rail joints

c) Joints at toe and heel of crossing d) Combination Joints

106. In chemical composition of 90 UTS rails proportions of Carbon, Manganese, and Silicon in
decreasing order is

a) Mn,C, Si b) Mn, Si ,C

c) Si, C, Mn d) C, Si, Mn

107. PWI In charge and his assistant should carry out the inspection of points & Crossings in
passenger running lines once in _________months by rotation.

a) 3 b) 4

c) 6 d) 5
108. Oiling and greasing of SEJs shall be done by Key man once in _________

a) Fortnight b) month

c) 3 months d) 2 months

109. Maximum distance between two trolley refuses on a ballasted deck bridge is————M

a) 50 b) 100

c) 60 d) 40

110. Distance pieces to platform lines shall be fixed at about ———m.

a) 30 b) 13

c) 45 d) 60

111. Permitted vertical wear for 60kg tongue rails —————mm

a) 6 b)8

c) 5 d) 4

112. Permitted vertical wear for 52kg tongue rails —————mm

a) 6 b) 8

c) 5 d) 4

113. Permitted vertical wear of stock rail for 60kg section is ——mm

a) 6 b)8

c) 5 d) 4

114. Permitted vertical wear of stock rail for 52 kg section is ———mm

a) 6 b) 8

c) 5 d) 4

115. Versines in lead/turn in curve shall not beyond —— from its designed value.

a) ± 3 b) ± 4

c) ± 2 d) 60

116. Hogging of a rail end is measured by ——————cm straight edge at the center.

a) 1 b) 60

c) 15 d) 10
117. Slope of the formation top at ballast level shall be ——————

a)1 in 40 b)1 in 30

c)1in 20 d)1 in 50

118. Maximum value of rate of change of cant is ——mm per Second.

a) 35 b) 55

c) 40 d) 65

119. Maximum value of cant gradient permitted is —————

a)1 in 720 b)1 in 360

c)1 in 1000 d)1 in 1200

120. Angle of crossing between road approaches and track at level crossing shall not be less
than —————-

a) 45º b) 60º

c) 40º d) 75º

121. Height gauges in level crossing should be located at a minimum distance Of ——m from
gate post.

a) 8 b) 6

c) 10 d) 12

122. Speed breaker at LC shall be provided at location with in railway boundary, at a maximum
feasible distance but, not exceeding __________m

a) 20 b) 30

c) 45 d) 50

123. An unmanned level crossing has to be manned immediately if it gets involved in mote than
______ no. of accidents in ____ years

a) three, 3 b) three, 5

c) three,2 d) three, 6

124. In difficult terrain a diversion may be laid with radius not less than_____m

a) 225 b) 440

c) 875 d) 200
 125. Minimum length of fencing at a level crossing shall be ———m

a) 15 b) 13

c) 30 d) 20

126. Walking speed of a patrol man is normally ———————kmph

a) 3 b)4

c) 5 d) 6

127. The complete overhauling of the entire track will be accomplished with in a period of 03 to
05 years by which system of track maintenance.

a) 3 Tier system of track maintenance b) Conventional system of track

maintenance

c) Both a & b d) None of above.

128. Works such as lubrication of rails joints joint gap adjustments as required and realignment
of curves should be done during which period.

a) Post monsoon attention b) Pre monsoon attention

c) Attention during monsoon d) All of above.

129. While doing a through packing on B.G, the ballast should be opened on either side of rail
seats to the extent of .

a) One end of the sleeper to the other end

b) End of sleeper to 500mm in side of the rail seats
c) End of sleeper to 450mm out side of the rail seats
d) End of sleeper to 450mm in side of the rail seats

130. While opening of the road, care should be taken to see that the ridge between the rails
does not project.

a) More than 75mm. b) Less than 50mm.

c) More than50mm. d) More than 100mm.

131. When slewing, the crow bars should be planted well into the ballast at an angle from the
vertical.

a) Not more than 45º b) Not less than 45º

c) Not more than 30º d) Not less than 30º

 132. It is imperative that when joints are picked up, at least ______sleepers on either side of
the joints are packed.

a) One b) two

c) Three d) Four

133. In manual deep screening work, number of through packings required to make normal
speed.

a) 4 b)2

c) 3 d) Either (a) & (b)

134. In manual deep screening work, on which days second & third through packing are to be
done

a) 3rd & 9th b) 3rd & 10th

c) 4th & 9th d) 2nd & 10th

135. How many pickings are required to make the normal speed for deep screening work by
machine packing.

a) 2 b) 1

c) 4 d) 3

136. For lubrication of rail joints which caution order is required.

a) 20 KMPH b) 30 KMPH

c)20 / OES d)OES

137. For lubrication of rail joints under the supervision of keyman, how many joints normally
be opened at a time.

a) One Joint b) Two joints opposite each other

c) Consecutive joints d) Two joints

138. Bucking of track occurs when _______ forces are created in the rails associated with
inadequacy of forces in the track at the place.

a) Tensile & lateral b) Compressive & lateral

c) Tensile & compressive d) All of the above.

139. Which instrument is used for measuring hogging on rail ends

a) 1 meter long straight edge b) Leveling instrument

c) Compass d) Nylon cord

 140. In certain locations, rail table develops ridges and hollows, it is called:

a) Wheel burns b) Hogging

c) Battering d) Corrugation

141. The standard length of the fish bolt spanner is ——————mm

a) 600 to 700 b) 550 to 600

c) 680 to 760 d)700 to 750.

142. Wear of the tongue rail for fan shaped layout shall be measured at ———— mm distance
from ATS

a) 464 b) 1046

c) 814 d) 1682

143. How many wooden sleepers / KM to be test checked by ADEN on the given proposals for
renewal of wooden sleepers by PWI

a) 20Nos. b) 50 Nos.

c)40 Nos. d)30 Nos.

144. When a rail fracture of a less than 25mm gap observed on the girder bridge, the minimum
official to pass a train.

a) Keyman b) Mate

c)PWI d)AEN

145. The height gauge shall be at a height of _______m above road level

a) 4.67 b) 5.67

c) 3.57 d)4.50

146. Traction bonds are provided.

(i) To keep a distance of infringement

(ii) To ensure reliable electrical current continuity
(iii) To ensure proper earthing in case of leakage of current.
(iv) Age for earth in case of power block.

a) (i) & (ii) b) (ii) & (iii)

c)(iii) & (iv) d)(iv) & (i)

147. In D.C. traction system the whole return current flows through_____

a)Longitudinal rail bonds b) Cross bonds

c) Structure bonds d) All the above.

148. OHE power block required for

(a) Painting of plate girder bridge (b) Painting of platform cover

(c ) Painting of steel works of through girder bridge (d) Painting of rails.

a) a & d b) b & c

c) a & b d) all

149. Service life in terms of —— GMT for considering renewal on the bridge proper and in
approaches for 52Kg. 90UTS rails.

a) 525 b) 550

c) 375 d) 262.5

150. Flattering of inner rail table of a curve is due to

a) Cant excess b) Cant deficiency

c) Both a & b d) None of the above

151. In the OMS peaks, location to be urgently attended when peak exceeds:

a) 0.35g b) 0.40g

c) 0.25g d) 0.20g.

152. Minimum authorized level of supervision for dip - lorry working is __________.

a) PWI b) PWS

c) Mate d) Key man

153. Rated out put of 3 x tamping express is _______sleepers per Hour

a) 2200 b) 1800

c) 2500 d) 2700

154. The length of the guard rail outside ballast wall to be maintained to same clearance as on
bridge is ———mm.

a) 4875 b) 1675

c) 1800 d)1825

155. Maximum speed restriction in case of distressed bridge category No.I is———KMPH :

a) 15 b) 20

c) 10 d) 30.
156. The diameter of hook bolts to fix the sleepers with girders is— mm

a) 25 b) 32

c) 20 d) 22

157. Minimum clearance of check rail for a curve is—————mm.

a) 44 b) 75

c) 70 d) 51

158. ANC is kept ______ mm below rail level.

a) 2 b) 2.5

c) 3 d) 6

159. For pre-tamping attention, super elevation should be marked on every

a) 2nd sleeper b) 3rd sleeper

c) 4th sleeper d) 5th sleeper

160. While doing tamping on PSC sleepers, number of insertions necessary

a) Two b) Three

c) One d) Four

161. For spans more then 6.1m bridges, the preferred position of rail joint is at —-

a) 1/3rd span b) 1/4th of span

c) 1/2 of span d) 2/3rd of span

162. Running surface of the CMS x-ing gets work hardened after passage of __________GMT
of traffic

a) 10 b) 5

c) 20 d) 40

163. Life of the CMS x-ing is ________times more than the built up Xing.

a) 05 to06 b)2 to 3

c)4 to 5 d)3to 4

164. According to the track laying standards maximum un squareness permitted is

a)± 10mm. b)± 20mm.

c)± 5mm. d) ± 6mm.

165. In chemical composition of MM rail, percentage of carbon is —

a) 0.04% b) 0.03%

c) 0.02% d) 0.01%

166. When a diamond crossing is laid on a curved track, the maximum speed should not
exceed ___________KMPH

a) 65 b) 50

c) 30 d) 40

167. The length of fish plates of Glued joints are——mm

a) 950 b) 600

c) 750 d) 800

168. The gauge adjustment possible for CST sleepers is———mm

a) ± 5. b) ± 6.

c) ± 3. d) ± 2.

169. 1 in 8 ½ crossing angle

a) 6 º 32’ 45” b) 4º 45’ 47”

c) 6 º 42’ 35” d) 6 º 42’ 45”

170. The longitudinal section of the line shall be up dated by surveying the longitudinal profile of
the line atleast once ——— years ?

a) 5 . b) 10 .

c) 3 . d) 4 .

171. The sighting distance for slewing of track by a mate on straight line should be ______mtr

a)30 to 60 . b)13 to 30 .

c)30 to 45 . d)45 to 60 .

172. What is the easement gradient for passage of trains during lifting of track ?

a) 25mm per 13mtrs. b) 15mm per 13mtrs.

c) 20mm per 13mtrs. d) 13mm per 13mtrs.

173. In points & Crossings there should be no junction fish plates at SRJ and heel of crossing.
What is the minimum length required to be maintained on either side of points & crossing
should have same section ?

a) Atleast one rail length b) Atleast 3 rail length

c) Atleast 2 rail length d) Atleast 5 rail length

174. The permissible limits for renewal of 60kg rail for vertical wear is ___mm

a) 8 b) 6

c) 5 d) 10

175. What is the maximum permissible limit for vertical wear in mm for 52kg/90R rail?

a) 8 b) 6

c) 5 d) 4

176. The location of JOH from ATS for 10125 mm CS on PSC BG 60kg RT 4219 is ______mm

a) 5836 b) 5830

c) 4620 d) 5636

177. The frequency of deep screening of track is____________yrs

a)10 b)5

c)3 d)not mentioned

178. The bed level of the side drain should be _______cm. below the formation level required
for efficient drainage of cuttings and catch water drains.

a) 30 b) 45

c) 60 d) 15

179. The minimum length of rail to be cut in case of buckling of track occur or appears ____mtrs

a) 6.5 b) 4

c) 6 d) 13

180. The weight of standard keying hammer is———————kg

a) 1.8 b) 2

c) 1.6 d) 1.2
181. The minimum recommended rail section for traffic density 10-20 GMT on A and B class
routs is——-

a) 60kg b) 52kg

c) 90R d) All
182. The frequency of visual examination of rails on important girder bridges and their
approaches is ______

a) Twice a year b) annually

c) Once in 3 yrs d) Once in 6 months

183. The admissible speed after doing the emergency repairs by a mate/keyman in case of rail
fracture/weld failure is————KMPH

a)20 b)30

c)10 d)Stop dead & proceed

184. The minimum length of permanent rail closure required for locations such as 500 mtrs of
both side approaches of tunnels, tunnel proper, major and important bridges including
bridge proper, deep cuttings and high embankments is _________mtr

a) 11 b) 13

c) 6.5 d) 36

185. In case of rail fracture detected visually the length of rail piece that has to be sent to the
Zonal railway chemist and metallurgist by PWI directly is————mtr

a) 2 b) 1

c) 1.5 d) 1.2

186. At locations where ever there is a change in the type of sleepers, bridges and level
crossings approaches, what is the minimum length of track should be fully boxed with
ballast on either side of the junction ?

a) 6 Rail lengths b) 3 Rail lengths

c) 2 Rail lengths d) 5 Rail lengths

187. The minimum length of well anchored SWR on either side for isolation of LWR/CWR in
case of the track on girder bridges not laid with LWR/CWR is ___________mtrs.

a) 36 b) 50

c) 100 d) 13

188. The minimum width of the cess to be provided on bridge approaches for a length of about
100 mtrs is——————cm.

a) 90 b) 60

c) 45 d) 100
 189. If the No. of normal attentions to track are ———— in a year , formation is called bad
formation.

a) 06-12 b) 03to 6

c) 12 to 16 d) >12

190. What is the limiting loss of rail section for 52kg rail as a criterion for recommending rail
renewal ?

a) 6% b) 3%

b) 8% d) 4%

191. The interval of levels required to be taken of the existing track for preparing the gradient
diagram is———————mtrs.

a)20 b)25

c)30 d)10

192. The spacing of sleepers that can be permitted with respect to theorotical spacing is——
mm

a) ±20 b) ±10

c) ±25 d) ±40

193. Variation in longitudinal level which can be permitted is _________mm,

a) 50 b) 100

c) 40 d) 25

194. The maximum value of cant deficiency for speeds in excess of 100 KMPH on group A & B
routes is——————mm

a) 100 b) 75

c) 110 d) 165

195. The minimum straight length between two transitions of reverse curves for high speed in
group A & B routes is—————————mts.

a) 50 b) 30

c) 100 d) 13

196. The permissible speed allowed on 1 in 8 ½ symmetrical split with curved switches
52kg/60kg on PSC sleepers is——————KMPH

a) 30 b) 15

c) 45 d) 50
 197. The minimum radius of vertical curve to be kept in group B routes is ___________mtrs

a) 3000 b) 4000

c) 6000 d) 4500

198. SWR shall not butt against insulated joints, Heel of crossing and stock rail joints What is
the minimum length shall be interposed to isolate the SWR from such Location ?

a) Two rail lengths b) 3 rail lengths

c) 5 rail lengths d) one rail lengths

199. The anticipated residual life of the rail required for conversion of SWR to LWR is at least
________ Years

a) 10 b) 20

c) 30 d) 15

200. What is the number of points exceeding the outer limit of irregularity under each category
is allowed in 1 KM in TRC run ?

a) 10 points b) 8 points

c) 6 points d) 12 points

201. For qualifying to ROB/RUB, what is the minimum TVU required at manned LC gates ?

a) 1 lakh b) 50000

c) 40000 d) 150000

202. What is the maximum length of welded pannel that can be permitted to carry by rail dolly?

a)3 RP b)5 RP

c)2 RP d)10 RP

203. In the case of bridge openings less than _______ mtrs. rail joints should be avoided.

a) 6.1 b) 3.6

c) 12 d) 18.3

204. No fish plated joints should be located on the girder or within _________ mtr from either
abutment.

a) 6 b) 13

c) 10 d) 4

205. In the case of girder bridges (un ballasted deck) LWR can be continued over bridges where
overall length is not more than _______ mtrs.

a) 20 b) 23

c) 45 d) 30
206. The clear distance between joint sleepers on girder bridges should not exceed _______mm.

a) 200 b) 300

c) 450 d) 580

207. No part of the tree shall be nearer than _________ Mtr from the nearest live conductor.

a) 4 b) 2

c) 6 d) 1 mtr

208. While unloading of rails along the track, care shall be taken that rails do not touch each
other to form a continuous metallic mass of length greater than _____ mtrs.

a) 300 b) 30

c) 60 d) 100

209. Permanent way staff are advised to keep clear of the tracks and avoid contact with the Rails
when an electrically hauled train is within ______ mtrs

a) 250 b) 100

c) 150 d) 200

210. Corrosion beyond _________ mm in the web and foot may be taken as criterion for wear
due to corrosion.

a) 1.5 b) 2

c) 1 d) 2.5

211. Second quality rails which shall be used only in loop lines and sidings, should be with speed
restricted to _________ KMPH.

a) 50 b) 30

c) 75 d) 45

212. Length of virtual transition is _______ mtrs. on BG.

a) 14.6 b) 13

c) 20 d) 30

213. Maximum permissible cant in BG is __________mm.

a) 75 b) 100

c) 60 d) 50
214. There should be no change of cant between points for a length of __________ Mtrs out side
the toe of the switch and nose of crossing.

a) 20 b) 30

c) 13 d) 45

215. A vertical curve shall be provided only at the juction of the grade when the algebraic
difference between the grades is equal to or more than __________ mm per mtrs.

a) 4 b) 2

c) 3 d) 5

216. Gauge face lubricators should be provide on curve of radius ____________ mtrs and less.

a) 600 b) 440

c) 875 d) 583

217. On PSC sleepers, SWR may be laid on curves with radius not less than ___________Mts.

a) 440 b) 875

c) 600 d) 583

218. For OMS – 2000 speeds above 100Kmph the frequency of recording is once in every
_____ months

a) 1 b) 2

c) 3 d) 4

219. In OMS-2000 run, the track needs urgent attention if the peaks of lateral & vertical
exceeds_________

a) 0.35g b) 0.40g

c) 0.50g d) 0.25g

220. In OMS-2000 run for high speed route if the number vertical and lateral peaks are 1 to 2 per
km the track is considered as _________.

a)good b)bad

c) average d)very good

221. The normal life of the detonators is ______ years.

a) 7 b) 6

c) 10 d) 11

222. Detonators should not be used after ________ years.

a) 10 b) 6

c) 12 d) 11
223. The fusee normally burns for ________Minutes.

a) 7 b) 6

c) 10 d) 4

224. Visibility of trains for road users at manned LC’s may be assessed from a distance of
_______ mtrs from the centre line of the nearest track.

a) 5 b) 3

c) 6 d) 10

225. Rail joints should be avoided in check rails and on running rails, within the LC gate and
_______ mtrs on either side

a) 5 b) 3

c) 6 d) 10

226. Minimum distance of gate lodge from centre line of nearest track for all manned LC gates is
_____mtrs

a) 5 b) 3

c) 6 d) 10

227. The length of each patrol beat should not normally exceed _________Km

a) 5 b) 4

c) 3 d) 10

228. A period of at least ___________ minutes rest is desirable between consecutive beats
during patrolling of track by Patrol man.

a) 30 b) 20

c) 40 d) 60

229. Every rail dolly shall be manned by not less than ________________ nos. of able bodied
persons.

a) 2 b) 3

c) 4 d) 1

230. The person- in-change for the working of rail dolly shall be a railway servant not lower in
rank than a ___________

a) Key man b) Track man-I

c) Mate d) PWM
231. Rail dolly shall not be used in sections having gradients sleeper than ___________

a)1 in 200 b)1 in 100

c)1 in 150 d)1 in 400

232. When more than one track machine is running in a block section, There should be a
minimum distance of ___________mtrs between two units

a) 120 b) 100

c) 50 d)110

233. Extra shoulder ballast of___________ mm should be provided on out side of the turn in
curve.

a) 150 b) 200

c) 300 d) 450

234. On new lines and on old lines where complete renewal or through sleeper renewal is
carried out, the track should laid on straight including curves of radius up to 350 mtrs. and
more the gauge to be provided is_______________

a) -5 to +3mm b) -3 to +3 mm

c) -5 to +5 mm d) -3 to +5 mm

235. Top of the creep indication post should be about __________ mm above the rail level and
chisel mark for measuring the creep

a) 25 b) 50

c) 60 d) 20

236. What is the rail section on Broad Gauge on “E” class Route with traffic density more than
20GMT?

a) 60Kg(New) b) 60Kg(SH)

c) 52Kg(New) d) 52Kg(SH)

237. Minimum ballast cushion under rail seat of a PRC sleeper is __________mm

a) 150 b) 200

c) 250 d) 300

238. As per advance correction slip 102, clear distance between two consecutive sleepers on
bridge, for all new works like rebuilding, regirdering or through sleeper renewal shall be
________mm

a) 450 b) 600

c) 740 d) 300
239. In level crossings minimum straight length of road outside the gate on Class-I roads is
_____mtr

a) 15 b) 9

c) 4.5 d) 12

240. In level crossings minimum straight length of road outside the gate on Class-II roads is
____Mtr

a) 15 b) 9

c) 4.5 d) 12

241. In level crossings minimum straight length of road outside the gate on class-III roads is
____Mtr

a) 15 b) 9

c) 4.5 d) 12

242. In level crossings warning sign board to road traffic of the proximity of level crossing in plain
country should be provided at a distance of ________ Mtr in class-I roads from level
crossings

a) 120 b) 60-90

c) 40 d) 100

243. In level crossings warning sign board to road traffic of the proximity of level crossing in plain
country should be provided at a distance of ________mts in class-II roads from the level
crossing.

a)120 b) 60-90

c)40 d)100

244. In level crossings warning sign board to road traffic of the proximity of level crossing in plain
country should be provided at a distance of ________ mts. in class-III roads from the level
crossing.

a) 120 b) 60-90

c) 40 d) 100

245. Wear of rails is to be periodically recorded and gauge face lubricators are to be provided on
curves with radius ________m and less on B.G

a) 600 b) 440

c) 423 d) 583
246. The distance of W/L boards for unmanned level crossings on single line section where
visibility is clear should be ——— m

a) 350 b) 600

c) 500 d) 1200

247. Railways may de-man any existing level crossing gate in case the TVU falls below______%
of value of criteria for manning

a) 50% b) 60%

c) 70% d) 80%

248. Maximum speed permitted for diamond on a curve on BG is ____KMPH

a) 45 b) 50

c) 65 d) 75

249. Minimum straight length required between a curve and heel of acute crossing of diamond
necessary to permit unrestricted speed over the diamond is_______ mm

a) 50 b) 30

c) 39 d) 100

250. Permissible speed on turnout with 1 in 8½ curved switch is———KMPH

a) 15 b) 30

c) 45 d) 20

251. Permissible speed on turnout with 1 in 12 curved switch is ——KMPH

a) 15 b) 30

c) 45 d) 20

252. Permanent way inspector shall submit reports on the state of track in his charge, to the
divisional engineer through assistant engineer once in every ____ months

a) 2 b) 3

c) 6 d) 9

253. Whenever in reverse curves neither straight can be eliminated nor a straight of minimum 50
meters can be provided on B.G speed in excess of __________KMPH should not be
permitted.

a) 50 b) 75

c) 100 d) 130
254. The desirable length of transition of curve is based on rate of change of cant and cant
deficiency ______mm per second.

a) 35 b) 45

c) 55 d) 75

255. In exceptional cases where desirable length of transition is not possible to provide minimum
length of transition is decided based on the assumption that rate of change of cant/cant
deficiency is _______.

a) 35 b) 45

c) 55 d) 75

256. Spreading of rail table (of inner rails of curve) is an indication of over loading on one rail and
such tendency can be reduced by providing _____ cant

a) appropriate cant b) reduced cant

c) exess cant d) a & b above

257. Minimum sleeper density on BG on A,B,C & D Spl. Routes having traffic density more than
10 GMT is _________ per Km.

a) 1340 b) 1540

c) 1660 d) 1240

258. Minimum sleeper density on loop lines and private sidings on BG in any route is

a) 1340 b) 1540

c) 1660 d)1440

259. For LWR/CWR track, the minimum sleeper density should be ___ per Km.

a) 1340 b) 1540

c) 1660 d)1880

260. Deep screening should be carried out in following circumstances

a) Before converting existing track fish plated/SWR into LWR or CWR

b) Prior to complete track renewal
c) Once in ten years
d) In all cases mentioned in (a),(b) & (c) above

261.Deep screening work is to be done under the supervision of an official not lower in rank than

a) PWI Gr-III b) PWS

c) Mate d) Keyman
 262. At all interlocked and partially interlocked stations signal staff will be responsible for
cleaning and lubrication of slide chairs in

a) All sleepers of point zone b) All sleepers upto JOH

c) Three sleepers from ATS d)None of the above.

263. The variation in versine of two consecutive stations in lead curve and turn-in-curve portion
should not be more than____ mm and versine at each station should also not be beyond
___ mm from its designated value

a) 2mm ; + 2mm b) 3mm ; + 3mm

c) 4mm ; + 3mm d) 4mm ; + 2mm

264. Arranging immediate relief for gatemen in case of sickness, they are unable to perform the
duty, is responsibility of ______

a) Section PWI b) Incharge PWI

c) Mate d)None of the above.

265. What are the Tolerable limits of gauge during maintenance for 5º on BG?

a) 6 to +15mm b) -6 to +19mm
c) -3 to +3 mm d)None of the above.

266. What are the Tolerable limits of gauge during maintenance of curves sharper than 5º on
BG?

a) Upto +20mm b) upto +19mm

c) -6 to +15 mm d) upto +40mm

267. The maximum permissible lift / lowering at a time even under speed restriction is ______mm

a) 75 b) 50

c) 100 d) 60

268. The maximum number of consecutive jammed joints can be permitted in single rails are ___

a) 6 b) 4

c) 10 d) 8

269. The maximum permissible amount of creep is _______mm

a) 150 b) 100

c) 200 d) 180
270. The checkrail clearance opposite X-ing of BG (1673 gauge) is ____mm

a) 41 to 44 b) 44-48

c) 51-57 d)None of the above.

271. The minimum height of ballast stack in depot collection of ballast is___m

a) 1 b) 1.2

c) 2 d) 0.9

272. Without taking permit to work from OHE staff, the work shall not be done in the vicinity of live
parts within a distance of _____m

a) 1 b) 1.2

c) 2 d) 0.9

273. LC is to be upgraded to Spl class, when TVU’s more than

a) 50000 b) 40000

c) 60000 d) 45000

274. The distance of whistle board for U/M L.Cs on single line section where visibility is clear __m

a) 350 b) 600

c) 400 d) 450

275. Keymen, Mates, PWMs and PWIs are to be sent for refresher course training once in __ yrs.

a) 5 . b) 3

c) 4 d) 6

276. The minimum radius of curve on BG track is _____________ Mtrs

a) 175 b) 223

c) 190 d) 200

277. The maximum degree of curvature on a turnout is —————-

a) 8º b) 10º

c) 4º d) 6º

278. Painting of weld collars shall be done for — cm on either side of weld

a) 10 b) 15

c) 20 d) 30

279. The frequency of Rail painting in heavy corrosion area is once in ___years

a) 4 b) 3

c) 2 d) 1
280. The frequency of painting of weld collars is ________ yrs

a) 4 b) 3

c) 2 d) 1

281. For preparation of patrol charts the maximum distance covered by a patrolman should be
taken as —————Km

a) 20 b) 25

c) 30 d) 18

282. When motor trolley is worked with out block protection, in clear visibility location and with
proper protection, it should be manned by at least… trolly man

a) 4 b) 6

c) 2 d) 5

283. Pushing of material trains should not be permitted where gradient is steeper than

a) 1 in 100 b) 1 in 150

c) 1 in 200 d) 1 in 400

284. The maximum in built twist on a transition curve is ______ mm / metre for BG.

a) 2.8 b) 3.6

c) 3 d) 5.5

285. For class-II second hand rails Fit for use in running lines- Ends to be painted with _____
colour

a) White b) Yellow

c) Red d) Green

286. For class-II second hand rails Fit for use in non-running lines Ends to be painted with ___
colour

a) White b) Yellow

c) Red d) Green

287. For class-II second hand rails Unserviceable rails not fit for use Ends to be painted with
__colour

a) White b) Yellow

c) Red d) Green
288. In track circuited section clearance of ballast from foot of rail should not be less
than_____mm

a) 50 b) 40

c) 30 d) 60

289. If gauge of track adjoing the points and crossings is maintained wider/tighter than the gauge
on points and crossings the gauge on adjoining track must be brought to the same gauge as
in the points and crossings and run out at the rate of _____ to the requisite extent.

a) 1mm/3M b) 2mm/3M

c) 3mm/3M d) 1.5mm/3M

290. On B.G in the case of cause ways that are flooded and velocity is insignificant and when
P.Way inspector has satisfied himself by walking over and probing the permanent way is
intact and in a fit condition the max. depth of water above rail level at which passenger and
mixed trains can be allow is ____mm and similarly the depth of water permitted in case of a
goods train is ____mm

a) 300;450 b) 200;300

c) 300;400 d) 250;450

291. In level crossing minimum width of mettalling outside gates must be tapered to existing
carriage width within a distance of ___________mtr

a) 30 b) 20

c) 40 d) 8

292. Recommended gradient in station yard for new work ____________

a) 1 in 400 b) 1 in 1200

c) 1 in 1000 d) 1 in 800

293. The Maximum Permissible value for Cant deficiency is __________ mm on Group’A’ route
with nominated rolling stock.

a) 100 b) 75

c) 125 d) 165

294. For Level crossings with PSC sleepers, in no case opening to be delayed by more than __
years

a) 2 b) 3

c) 1 d) 4
295. A Gateman should have a Certificate of Fitness of class _______ from Medical department.

a) A-3 b) A-1

c) B-1 d) C

296. At what distance from a danger location 3 detonators should be fixed on BG track.

a)1200m b)1000m

c)600m d)800m

297. The minimum Center to Center distance of BG track in mid section is ___ mm

a) 4265 b) 5300

c) 4765 d) 5030

298. Competency certificate for LWR maintenance is issued by

a)DEN b)AEN

c)PWI d)CE

299. Minimum supervisory level for routine track maintenance on LWR is

a)PWI-III b)Key man

c)Mate d)PWM

300. The breathing length of LWR exhibits movement of -

a)Rail sleeper frame b)Rail alone

c)Sleeper alone d)Rail & sleeper both

301. The destressing temperature for a LWR with 52 Kg rail is

a)tm to tm-5º b)tm to tm +5 º

c)tm +5 º to tm+10 º d)tm-5 º to tm -10 º

302. Maintenance operation in a LWR should be restricted to a temperature range of

a)td +10 º to td-30 º b)td +5 º to td -25 º

c)td to td-20º d)td+10 º to td-20 º

303. While doing deep screening in LWR territory, if the rail temperature is anticipated to rise
above td+10º C , action to be taken is

a)Stop the work b)Cut the LWR

c)do a temporary de stressing at 10 º C lower than maximum anticipated rail
temperature
d)Continue the work
304. While repairing a fracture in which a gap ‘g’ has been created and paint marks made at a
distance of ‘a’ and ‘b’ from the fractured rail ends, the following relationship should hold
good if a closure rail piece of length ‘I’ is inserted
a)a+b+1mm = 1+(2x25mm) b)a+b+g+1mm = 1+(2x25mm)

c)a+b+1mm = 1+(2 x25mm)-g d) a+b = 1mm+1+(2x25mm)

305. While continuing the a LWR over a girder bridge, the rail sleeper fittings should be

a) rail free type b)rigid type

c)two way keys d)hook bolts

306. Gap survey of a SWR has to be done

a)Just before the monsoon b)just after the monsoon

c)before the onset of the summer season in Feb/March d)regularly

307. The distressing of LWR by tensor can be done when temperature prevailing (tp) is

a) More than td b)less than td

c)equal to td d)When td+5°C

308. If the temperature rises above td+20°C ,hot weather patrolling can be started by

a)PWI-III b)Key man

c)Gang mate d)PWM

309. In a yard with LWR, for track circuiting make use of

a)insulated block joints b)glued joints of G3L type

c)cut the LWR into SWR d)Cut the SWR to single rail

310. SEJ are inspected by the PWI/APWI once

a) every 15 days
b) every 15 days in the two hottest and two coldest months of the year and once in 2
months in remaining period
c) every 7 days
d)every 30 days

311. At a SEJ theoretical calculations of movement of one LWR end indicates an expansion of
4mm and a contraction of 3mm during falling and rising temperature trends, respectively If
the standard gap at td is 20mm what range of gap is permissible as per LWR manual

a)23mm to 16mm b)33mm to 6mm

c)3mm to 4mm d)33mm to 16mm

312. The periodicity of distressing of LWR has been fixed as

a)once in 3 years b)once in 5 years

c)once in 10 years d)none of the above

313. LWR plans to be approved by

a) SrDEN b)SrDEN/(Co)

c)PCE d)CTE

314. Authority to approve plans for continuation of LWR through points and crossings

a)RDSO b)CTE

c)PCE d) Rly board

315. Isolation of LWR with points and crossings on PSC layout to be done by providing

a)Single rail length b)Three Nos. of single rails

c)Two Nos of three rail panels d)One No of three rail panel

316. LWR plan horizontal scale is

a)1:100 b)1:1000

c)1:50 d)1:5000

317. Factor affecting ballast resistance

a)Consolidation b)Sleeper density

c)Destressing temperature d)Prevailing temperature

318. In rail temperature map, readings outside the bracket indicate.

a)Annual mean temperature b)ambient temp

c)range of rail temp d)Destressing temp

319. In rail temp. map, readings inside the bracket indicate

a)Annual mean temperature b)ambient temp

c)range of rail temp d)Destressing temp

320. Factors affecting breathing length in LWR are

a)Zone , sleeper density b)sleeper density, rail section

c)rail section, zone d)time of laying , zone

321. Breathing length of LWR can be expressed as

a)AE a v tr/2R b)AE art/2R

c)AE a Tr/2R d)AE a t/R

322. While permitting LWR on bridges, SEJ(with maximum movement of 120mm and 190mm) to
be installed at _________Mtr distance from the abutment

a)10 b)15

c)39 d)13

323. Rail Temperature range from zone -I to IV

a)Increases b)decreases

c)depends upon cambient d)temperature

324. Total No of ref mark provided for an LWR

a)10 b)12

c)14 d)8

325. Main factor effecting hysterisis of LWR track is

a)Rail section b)Prevailing rail temp

c)Type of sleeper d)Longitudinal ballast resistance

326. Heaping up of ballast in the bridge approaches starting from the foot of the rail to be done for
a length of __________m on both approaches

a)39 b)13

c)50 d)52

327. LWR/CWR may be continued upto a single span of girder of ————Mtr with in Zone-III

a)45.7 b)16.83

c)8.7 d)7.5

328. Maintenance temperature of SWR in zone -III for track where R<875m is:-

a)Tm+5 º C b)Tm+20 º C

c)Tm+10 º C d)Tm+15 º C

329. In plotting hysterisis loop the magnitude of the ballast resistance opposing the reverse
movement value is reckoned as

a)R b)2 R

c)R2 d)2R2
330. On Indian Railway generally the maximum value of gap at a rail fracture in LWR is
considered as——mm

a)25 b)75

c)50 d)40

331. To keep the gap at fracture on approach of bridge minimum to 50mm overall length of bridge
where LWR can be continued as per LWR manal with rail free fastenings on LWR on girder
bridge is——— mtr

a)45 b)50 c)20 d)305

332. Number of buffer rails to be provided for zone-III in Indian Railways

a)2 b)3

c)4 d)1

333. The initial gap to be provided at each buffer rail joint in LWR track is ———is

a)6.5 b)5

c)7.5 d)3

334. Where buffer rail gap is 15mm at temp higher than td-30ºc in zone-III it indicates

a)Defective initial gap b)creep of LWR

c)inadequate packing in breathing length d)all the above

335. Max over all length of bridge permitted on LWR/CWR in case of zone-III for 60Kg rails with
rail free fastenings is————-

a)33 b)20

c)11 d)25

336. General lift allowed on concrete sleepers track while doing machine tamping in LWR track is
————mm

a)25 b)50

c)75 d)no lifting allowed

337. Greasing of SEJ by K/man to be done ___________

a)Monthly b)weekly

c)everyday d)fortnightly
338. Replacement/repairs and adjustments of fastenings or clearances at the SEJ should be
done when rail temperature is less than

a) td-5 º c b) td+10 º c

c) at falling temperature d) no relation with td

339. While marking reference line on reference post after initial laying of SEJ the reference line
must coincide with.

a) centre of gap at SEJ b)tip of tongue rail

c) half of the theoretical gap at the time of laying of SEJ d) mean position of the stock rail

340. The gap between the reference mark and stock rail corner at various rail temperatures shall
not differ by more than ———mm from the theoretical range

a)±15 b)±10

c)±20 d)No variation allowed

341. While joining LWRs into CWR number of blocks required

a)2 b)3

c)4 d)5

342. Distressing of LWR/CWR to be done when the number of locations where temperature
repairs have been done exceeds—KM

a)3 b)4

c)1 d)5

343. Spacing of central sleepers of SEJ should not differ by more than—mm over the standard—
mm

a)±10,650 b)±20,650

c)±10,700 d)±20,700

344. LWR is permitted in zone I with radius upto ———metres

a)400 b)360

c)350 d)300
345. While providing welded rails on girder bridges between pier to pier with railfree fastenings
and with SEJ on each pier and girder supported on sliding bearings on both ends, number of
sleepers to be box anchored in the central portion of the welded rails over each span—-

a)4 b)5

c)6 d)all the sleepers

346. Continuation of LWR is restricted for a certain length of girder bridge

i) Due to excess gap created on approaches If a rail fracture occurs

ii) If on formation where no bridge gap due to fracture = 2AE(át)²/2R gap = 2AE(a t)²/2R + L
& t Where L = length of bridge
iii)gap is directly proportional to the over all length of girder bridge.

a) All the above b) one of the above

c) i) and ii) only d)ii) and iii) only

347. What is the % of reduction of ballast resistance on LWR track after one round of T/packing
for concrete sleepers

a)23% b)33%

c)15% d)40%

348. What is the % of reduction of ballast resistance on LWR track after one round of T/packing
for conventional sleepers

a)36% b)23%

c)30% d)40%

349. The maximum length of LWR under Indian conditions is restricted to

a)one block section b)3 Kms

c)1 Km d)200m

350. LWR/CWR shall not be laid on curve sharper than _______ Mtr Radius on BG

a)440 b)400

c)360 d)875

351. Bridges on which LWR/CWR is not permitted shall be isolated by a minimum length
of_____mm either side

a)36 b)13

c)42 d)50

352. Regular track maintenance in LWR/CWR shall be done at a rail temperature in between

a)((td + 10ºC) and (td - 30ºC) b)(td + 20º & td -10º)

c)(td + 30º & td 50º) d)None

353. On a LWR/CWR curved track with cushion of 300mm, quantity of ballast requirement is
________CUM/Mtr of track

a)2243 b)2

c)25 d)3243

354. Cross slope on formation top for LWR / CWR track should be ________

a) 01 in 40 b)1 in 30

c)1 in 20 d) None

355. SEJ with straight tongue & stock shall not be located on curves sharper than ___________

a) 5” b)1º

c)2º d)3º

356. LWR/CWR may be continued through reverse curves not sharper than ———Mtr radius

a) 875 b)1750

c) 440 d)3500

357. For reverse curves sharper than 1500 mtr Radius, shoulder ballast of__________ mm over
a length of 100 mtr On either side of the common point should be provided

a)600 b)300

c)450 d) 500

358. In case of double line BG curved LWR / CWR track Bank / cutting width should be increased
by ___________ mm on the out side of the curve

a)300 b)450

c)600 d) 500

359. Minimum radius of the vertical curve for Gr’B’ routes is _________Mtrs

a)3000 b)6000

c)4500 d) 500

360. Deep screening of LWR may be done without cutting or temporary distressing at a rail
temperature of ______________________

a) (t d + 10º c) to (t d – 20º C) b) (td + 20º to td-20º)

c) (td + 10º) to (td-10º) d) None

361. LWR/CWR can be laid on vertical curve where algebraic difference between two grades is
______________mm/Mtr

a)4 b)2

c)3 d)1

362. For consolidation of track in case of using hand operated compactors / consolidations on
BG, passage of minimum gross tones of traffic required is ____________________ tones

a)3,00,000 b)4,00,000

c)2,00,000 d) 1,00,000

363. Percentage reduction of maintenance cost by eliminating rail joints by introducing LWR is __

a)25 to 33% b)30 to 33%

c)33% to 40% d)40% to 45%

364. Lubrication of buffer rail joint in LWR is done in between temperature range of

a)’ (t d + 15º C) to (t d - 15º C) b) (t d + 10º C to t d - 10º C)

c) (t d + 20º C to td -20º C) d) None

365. Temporary destressing during deep screening on LWR is done at a temperature below
maximum rail temperature :

a)20º C b)15º C

c)10º C d)5º C

366. Standard expansion gap at the buffer rail joint in LWR should be —mm

a)5.5 b)6.5

c)7.5 d)8

367. Longitudinal ballast resistance in LWR does not depend on

a)Type of sleeper b)Ballast profile

c)Ballast consolidation d) Age of sleeper

368. Hot weather patrolling in LWR can be introduced by

a) AEN b) PWI

c)Mate d)SrDEN
369. In LWR track following work is not covered under “Regular track maintenance while
considering the need of requisite consolidation before having unrestricted speed :

a) Machine packing b) Shallow screening

c) Manual packing d) Distressing

370. Which of the following thermometer attains the rail temperature quickly?

a) Embedded type b)Dial type

c) Digital type d) None

371. To arrive mean rail temperature (t m) how many years of maximum & minimum temperature
to be considered?

a)4 years b)5 years

c) 6 Years d) 10 Years

372. Modulus of elasticity of rail steel is —————Kg/Sqcm

a) 21.5 x 10 5 b) 1.152 x 10 5
c) 2.15 x 10 6 d) None
373. New constructions/doublings / gauge conversions/diversion shall be opened with ———

a) Fishplate b)SWR

c)LWR/CWR d) None

374. The ballast section & cushion provided for LWR/CWR shall be continued upto ______when
followed by SWR track

a) SEJ b) Breathing length

c) Over SEJ & upto 3 rails beyond it d) None

375. The minimum sleeper density for zone – II for PSC sleeper is

a)1310 b) 1540

c)1660 d)1818

376. Speed restriction for destressing work in LWR should be————KMPH

a)20 b)30

c)45 d) one of above

377. If rail temperature after maintenance operation exceeds (t d + 20º C), speed restriction to be
imposed during the period of consolidation for a steel track having LWR/CWR should be
——— KMPH

a)20 b)30

c) 40 d) 50

378. After temporary distressing deep screening can be done for ——— days if rail temporary is
varying ?

a) 10 b)15

c) 20 d) 30

379. Minimum level of supervision in case of emergency repairs for a buckled LWR track –_____

a) Hot weather patrolman b) Mate

c) PWM d) PWI

380. Speed restriction after completion of machine working should be imposed as per new
Provisions?

(a) 30 (b) 45

(c) 60 (d) 50

381. In which temperature Zone the maximum part of WAT division falls?

(a) Zone-II (b) Zone-I

(c) Zone-III (d) Zone-IV

382. The steepest permitted grade for LWR shall be —————

(a) 1 in 100 (b) 1 in 150

(c) 1 in 200 (d) 1 in 400

383. The min radius of the vertical curve shall be kept—————— mtr for ‘ A ‘ group route for
BG

(a) 4000 (b) 3000

(c) 2000 (d) 3500

384. Where speed in higher than 130 kmph the min cushion on LWR track should be ———mm

(a) 300 (b) 250

(c) 200 (d) 350

385. Min. rail section for forming LWR is ———————————.

(a) 90R (b) 52 Kg

(c) 60 kg d) None

386. During machine packing a general lift in LWR/CWR track should not exceed ———mm in
case of PSC sleepers

(a) 50 (b) 40

(c) 25 (d) 75

387. More than 30 sleepers up to 100 sleepers can be tracked when the temp ranges bet Td-30
ºC to Td+10 ºC and work should be taken up under direct of supervision of

(a) PWI (b) APWI

(c) PWM (d) Mate

388. Whenever rail renewal is due and to be carried out shortly, LWR/CWR may be cut and
converted in to ————— for work of deep screening

(a) 3 RP (b) SR

(c) 5 RP d) None

389. Deep screening on LWR may be done from ———————— end

(a) One end to other (b) Centre towards either end

(c) Both (d) None

390. During the rectification of rail fracture / weld failure preferably the min————— metre
length of rail is required for permanent rectification

(a) 6.50 (b) 4

(c) 6 (d) 13

391. The certificate of competency issued by divisional or zonal training centre shall be valid for
———— years from date of issue

(a) 3 (b) 5

(c) 2 (d) 4

392. When temperature range exceeds the limits Td+20 ºC during maintenance period
watchman __________should be posted

(a) Mobile (b) stationery

(c) None
393. Longitudinal ballast resistance for the PRC sleepers for density 1660 sleepers/Km is ———
Kg/Cm/Rail

a) 13.74 (b) 60

(c) 30 (d) None of above

394. In SWR track, no fish plated joint should be located on the girder or within ___m from either
side

a) 6 b) 4

c) 13 d) 65

395. Girder bridges on which LWR/CWR is not permitted shall be isolated by a minimum length
of_____________m well accored track on either side

a) 36 b) 39

c) 13 d) 50

396. Track on girder bridges with standard single rails should be isolated from SWR on
approaches by at least _______________numbers of well anchored rail lengths

a) 2 b) 3

c) 5 d) 11

397. Proper consolidation is required between two stages if general lift exceeds ———— mm in
case of concrete sleepers during lifting of LWR track

a) 50 b) 40

c) 75 d) 100

398. Key man can supervise the work of fastenings renewal when there is no requirement of
lifting and at least——————nos of sleepers in between shall be kept intact

a) 30 b)50

c) 100 d) 40

399. Initial gap of SEJ for 60 Kg & 52 Kg rail at destressing temp —mm

a) 40 b) 50

c)60 d) 30

400. The supervision can be done by ———— if the fastenings being renewal / recouped by
requiring lifting

a) Mate b) PWM

c) Key man d) Gangman

401. When creep in the fixed portion of LWR/CWR exceeds ————— mm full investigation
shall be carried out

a) 20 b) 10

c) 30 d) 25

402. The creep of LWR to be measured at the interval of —— m on the curves sharper than
360m radius

a) 50 b) 30

c) 20 d) 25

403. On compulsory basis if two different graded rails needs welding, portion to be used shall be
of

a) higher grade chemistry b) Lower grade chemistry

(c) Both (d) None

404. Pre heating time for air petrol and Oxy-LPG, welding of rails are - minutes respectively

a) 10 to 12 and 2 to 3 b) 5 to 10 and 4 to 5

c) 7 to 13 and 3 to 6 d) 8 to 10 and 3 to 5

405. Punching marking should be done on strip of _________ in case of AT welding of rails

a) Aluminum b) Copper

c) Lead d) Stain less steel

406. How many rejected AT Welding portions can ignited at a time ?

a) 5 b) 8

c)10 d) 6

407. The clear working space required between sleepers during welding of rail joints is _____mm

a) 150 b)200

c)250 d) 300

408. Controlled quenching for a specific time is required for AT welding of _________rails

a) 90 UTS b)72 UTS

c) HH d)mm
409. How many welding teams can be supervised by a welding supervisor in case of AT Welding
of rails

a) Two teams with in 50Mts distance b) Three teams with in 100Mts distance

c) As many as he can d) None

410. In case of AT of rails compressor tank shall be kept at a safe distance of ______mts away
from burner

a) 2 to 3 b) 1 to 3

c) 3 to 4 d) > 1M

411. Length of rail is to be leveled for welding of rails on cess is————-

a) Full length of rail b) Half length or minimum 5 Mts

c)3 Mts d) 6 mtrs.

412. In case of AT welding, Pre-heating shall be done from the top of the mould box, to achieve
temperature is————

a) 600 ±20ºc b) 350 ±25ºc

c) 800 ± 30º c d) 500 ±20ºc

413. In AT welding of rails using air petrol burner, the compressor tank pressure during operation
shall be maintained at _______Kg/Cm2 / Lb per Sqin

a) 7 + 0.70 (100 + 10) b) 9 + 0.90 (130 + 13)

c) 6 + 0.60 (80 + 09) d) 6 + 0.90 (130 + 13)

414. In AT Welding technique used for rail joints, what is the strength of the weld with respective
to the rail

a) 96% b) 90%

c) 79% d) 56%

415. Rails older than ________ years shall not be used for AT welding

a) 25 b) 40

c) 50 d) 60

416. Minimum width of head of 60 Kg Rail permissible for AT welding is _______mm

a)72 b)60

c)56 d)63
417. The distance of HAZ ( Heat Affected Zone) in AT welding of rails ___mm

a)85 b)75

c)60 d)50

418. The bolt hole of the rail should be at ________ mm distance from the weld of rails

a) 60 b) 50

c) 40 d) 80

419. In AT welding of Rails, reaction takes place in

a) Aluminum lined Crucible b) Sodium lined Crucible

c)Magnasite lined Crucible d) None of the above

420. Equipment used in AT welding for preheating of rail ends is ____

a) Pressure tank b) Oxy, LPG Torch

c) Compressed Air Blower d) All the above

421. Which component in the welding portion provides elasticity to weld of rail joint

a) Steel Chips b) Silicon Carbide

c) Ferro Manganese d) Ferro Vanadium

422. What are the main components in the AT welding portion

a) Steel Chips b) Silicon Carbide

c) Aluminum Powder d) All the above

423. The weight of the 52Kg welding portion is _________ Kg

a) 28 b) 30

c)11.8 d) 10.0

424. What temperature is to be should achieved while preheating of rail ends for AT welding

a) 550 + 20 º C b) 600 + 20 º C

c) 500 + 20 º C d) 400 + 20 º C

425. The temperature measuring device in AT welding of rails is ______

a) Contact type Pyrometer b) Optical Pyrometer

c) Temperature measuring device d) All the above

426. The reaction time in 25mm gap technique at AT welding of rails is ________ sec

a) 0 – 5 b) 5 – 6

c) 17 – 23 d) 23 – 26

427. In case of AT Welding, during aligning Rail ends should kept in peak position due to

a) To allow early solidification of molten metal b)To bear excess load of rolling stock

c)To compassionate sagging of molten metal d) All of the above

428. In case of AT Welding, delayed tapping will cause loss of

a) Thermit Steel b) Molten Metal

c) Super heat d) Slag inclusion

429. In case of AT Welding, early tapping will cause

a) Sand inclusion b) Slag inclusion

c) Excess Metal d) Shortage of meta

430. During In-situ welding of rails at least _____ nos of sleepers Rail fastenings should be
loosened on either side

a)4 b)8

c)6 d)5

431. In case of AT Welding the chipping time for excess metal is _______ minutes

a) 3 – 4 b) 4 – 6

c) 6 – 8 d) 8 – 0

432. In case of AT Welding, crack due to shrinkage happens due to

a) Improper squaring b) Poor heating

c) Auto tapping d) Early chipping

433. In case of AT Welding latest technique introduced to avoid the defect of fins

a) Self tapping thimble b) One time use crucible

c) Oxy-LPG system d) Three piece dry mould

434. In case of AT Welding, for which Rail section, it is necessary to cool the joint after welding

a) UTS Rails b) HH Rails

c) MM Rails d) None
435. The life of welding portion kept in good storage conditionm is _______ years from date of
manufacturing

a)5 b)4

c)3 d)2

436. In case of AT Welding, the cooling arrangement for HH Rail section ________ minutes

a)2 b)4

c)5 d)8

437. In case of AT Welding, after completion of the reaction, which component will come on the
top of crucible

a) Fe b) Al

c) Al2 O3 d) All the above

438. In case of AT Welding, rail joints welded by firm shall be guaranteed against failure for
______ years

a) 1 b)4

c) 5 d)2

439. In case of AT Welding color of the pre-fabricated mould after sufficient heating is

a) Pink Color b) Pale red

c) Orange Yellow d) Thick red

440. In case of AT Welding , brinell hardness test shall be carried out for

a) The welded zone b) HAZ

c) Parent metal of rail d) All the above

441. The processes of welding of rail joints in their ascending order of fatigue strength is

a)FB, AT, Electric Arc, Gas pressure b)AT, FB, Electric Arc, Gas pressure

c) AT, Gas Pressure, Electric Arc, FB d)AT, Electric Arc, FB, Gas pressure

442. In case of AT Welding during, the number of defective welds shall not exceed ______% of
the total No of Joints Welded against a particular contract

a) 2 b)3

c) 4 d) None
443. In case of AT Welding, lack of fusion is caused due to

a) Excess gap b)insufficient heating

c)Before tapping d)Improper mould fixing

444. In case of AT Welding, slag inclusion is caused due to

a) Excess gap b)insufficient heating

c)Before tapping d)Improper mould fixing

445. In case of AT Welding, shortage of metal is caused due to

a) Excess gap b)insufficient heating

c)Before tapping d)Improper mould fixing

446. In case of AT Welding, fins are caused due to

a) Excess gap b)insufficient heating

c)Before tapping d)Improper mould fixing

447. While executing the AT welding work if sudden rain fall occurs, what precaution has to take
to complete the work

a) Joint should be protected by trolley umbrella

b)Joint should be protected by the tarpaulin
c)Joint should be protected by the rain guard
d)Welding should not be carried out

448. If 2Nos of 25mm weld (AT) are to be done and a portion of 50 mm is only Available which
out of the following is the best option for welding of rails joints

a)Do not weld b)Split 50 mm portion in 2 parts and weld

(c) Both (d) None

449. In case of AT Welding of rails on cess, full rail length should be supported on at least
______ nos wooden blocks on either side of proposed weld case of welding of rails on cess

a)10 b)20

c)6 d)8

450. In case of AT Welding of rails, for proper and uniform preheating of both rail ends, height of
Goosen neck from rail top should be ________mm

a) 40 b)30

c)20 d)50
451. In case of AT Welding of rails, minimum traffic block required in the process of preheating
with air Petrol mixture for SPW is ________minutes

a)60 b)45

c)75 d)90

452. In case of AT Welding, minimum traffic block required in the process of preheating with air
Petrol mixture for wide gap is _______minutes

a) 70 b) 60

c) 90 d) 45

453. In case of AT Welding, reaction time of ignition of Portion is __________ seconds

a) 20± 3 b)25± 3

c) 30± 3 d) 45± 3

454. In case of AT Welding, molten metal should be taped with in _________seconds

a) 20± 3 b)25± 3

c) 30± 3 d)45± 3

455. In case of AT Welding of rails of 90 UTS Rails, controlling of cooling should be ensured by
post heating of rail & flange up to ________cms on either side of mould Box with the help of
Vaporizer

a) 50 b) 45

c) 60 d) 30

456. In case of AT Welding of rails, chipping of hot metal should be done with in
_________minutes of Pouring of molten metal in to the gap

a) 4 to 5 b) 5 to 6

c)3 to 4 d) 6 to 7

457. In case of AT Welding, if a Portion need to be used beyond 02 Years after the Date of
Manufacturing , one random sample for batch ________or part there of shall be tested for
reaction test and if reaction in normal , batch represented by the sample can be used
without further tests

a) 300 b) 200

c) 250 d) 150

458. Normally, no alumino – thermit welded joint shall be located closer than _________mts from
any other welded or Fish Plated Joint

a) 4 b) 6

c) 45 d) 65
459. Weld collar painting to be done once in _______ years in area not Prone to corrosion

a) 4 b) 3

c) 2 d) 5

460. Weld collar painting to be done once in _______ years in corrosion prone area

a) 4 b) 3

c) 2 d) 1

461. For sample testing one out of every 100 Joints welded shall be selected at random and
should be got tested within ________month of welding for its hardness, traverse loads and
Porosity

a) 1 b)2

c) 3 d) 4

462. The 1st train should be Passed only after _____________ minutes ff Pouring of molten
metal and after rough finishing of welded Joint

a) 30 b)15

c) 45 d) 20

463. The rail end face and adjacent sides at foot, web and head up to ___________ mm shall be
thoroughly cleaned using kerosene oil and brushing with wire brush to remove all dirt,
grease & rust before welding

a) 50 b) 60

c)45 d)75

464. For vertical alignment of Joint before welding after alignment, the Joint shall be kept higher
by __________ mm for 90 UTS rails when measured at the end of 10m straight edge

a)2 to 4 b)3 to 4

c)4 to 6 d)1 to 2

465. In case AT welding, the compressor tank shall be kept at least _____________ meters away
from burner to prevent fire hazard

a) 2 to 3 b)3 to 4

c)1 to 2 d) 4 to 6

466. In case of AT welding, the life period of premixed lutting sand is __________ months

a)4 b)6

c)2 d)12
467. In case of AT Welding, minimum time period up to which the wedges should not be
removed after trimming is _________ minutes

a) 20 b) 30

c)15 d) 10

468. What is the limiting value of defective weld executed by the welder to obtain permanent
regular competency certificate as per the TW2 programme?

a) 1% b) 2%

c)3% d)5%

469. USFD is a type of

(a) Non destructive testing (b) Destructive testing

(c) Magnetic particle testing (d) Dye penetration testing

470. Frequency of Ultrasonic wave is ___ KHz

(a) Below 20 (b) Above 10

(c) Above 20 (d) Below 10

471. Frequency of USFD testing of rails on B/G section below or equal to 5GMT

(a) Once in 5 years (b) Once in six months

(c) Once in year (d) Once in two years

472. In USFD Velocity of longitudinal wave in steel

(a) 273x10³ (b) 59x10³

(c) 378x10³ (d) 18x10³

473. In USFD, longitudinal wave is more than shear wave by ____ times

(a) 1.82 (b) 1.6

(c) 2 (d) 2.82

474. In USFD, Velocity of shear wave in steel is _____m/s

(a) 2.73 x10³ (b) 5.9 x10³

(c) 3.23 x10³ (d) 1.8 x10³

475. In USFD, Linearity of time base means

(a)Verification of vertical scale (b) Verification of horizontal scale

(c) Calibration of linear scale (d) None of these

476. In USFD, Transverse fatigue cracks in head are detected by__ probe

(a) 0º normal (b) 80º

(c) 70º (d) 37º

477. In USFD, Defect codification of Transverse crack in Thermit weld joint is

(a) 111 (b) 212

(c) 421 (d) 422

478. Total life of USFD machine is_______ Years

(a) 8 (b) 5

(c) 2 (d) 10

479. For USFD, Single rail tester is provided with _______ No of probes

(a) 3 (b) 5

(c) 2 (d) 1

480. In USFD, Concept of need based inspection is

(a) Inspection frequency dependent on type of machine

(b) Inspection frequency dependent on the incidence of defects
(c) Inspection frequency dependent on type of rail
(d) All the above

481. In USFD, If classification of rail defect is IMR, then paint mark on both faces of web is

(a) XX with red paint (b) X with red paint

(c) XXX with red paint (d) XXX with yellow paint

482. In USFD, Dead zone is more in

(a) Single crystal probe (b) Double crystal probe

(c) Single & double crystal (d) None of these

483. The sensitivity of USFD equipment shall be set up, with help of standard test rail piece at
once in a

(a) Week (b) Day

(c) Month (d) 2 days

484. In USFD, the gap between the contact face of normal probe and the sole of probe shoe
shall be _____mm

(a) 0.1 (b) 0.5

(c) 1 (d) 0.2

485. In USFD, ____probe is used to detect porosity, blow hole and slag inclusion in head and up
to mid web of AT weld

(a) 0º 4 MHz (b) 70º 2 MHz

(c) 0º 2 MHz (d) 37º 2 MHz

486. In USFD, Horizontal distance of the flaw from the probe index mark shall be calculated
using formula

(a) H = D Sinè (b) H = S Sinè

(c) H = S Cos è (d) H = D Tan è

487. In USFD, Periodicity of setting the sensitivity calibration against temperature variation shall
be carried out at least once in ________

(a) month (b) year

(c) week (d) 3 months

488. In USFD, Minimum flaw size which can be detected by present ultrasonic probes used in
the rail tester is____mm

(a) 1 (b) 0.5

(c) 0.8 (d) 3

489. In USFD, Latest technical specification No for digital ultra sonic testing equipment for
welded rail joint with LCD screen, trigonometrically function and A- scan storage is

(a) M&C/NDT/129/2005 (b) M&C/NDT/200/2005

(c) M&C/NDT/128/2007 (d) None of these

490. In USFD, Length of co-axial cable for probes shall not be more than_______ m

(a) 2.0 (b) 5

(c) 2.5 (d) 3

491. In USFD, Frequency of Gauge face corner testing of rails is _____

(a) Once in year (b) Same as flange testing

(c) At the same frequency specified under NBC (d) None of these
492. In USFD, Defects lying below, scabs / wheel burns can be detected by ______ probe on
head

(a) 0º 4 MHz normal (b) 70º angle

(c) 0º 2 MHz (d) 45º 2MHz side

493. In USFD, Defects are nearly vertical; they can be detected by using ____

(a) additional gain of 10 db (b) horizontal crystal

(c) vertical crystal (d) None of the above

494. In USFD, Frequency of first periodic testing of SKV welds on B/G section route GMT is
more than 45

(a) Once in 2 years (b) One year

(c) Once in a month (d) Once in 3 years

495. In USFD, If classification of rail weld defect is DFW (un protected), then the speed
restriction imposed by USFD PWI is____ Kmph

(a) 20 (b) 30

(c) 50 (d) 70

496. In USFD, accomplish GFC testing in present available SRT machines, shifted 70º (F&B)
GFC probes are used in place of __ probe

(a) 0º (b) 70º (F&b)

(c) 37º (F &B) (d) None of the above

497. In USFD, No of probes in DRT modified to suit GFC testing are

(a) 10 (b) 5

(c) 6 (d) 4

498. In USFD, First periodic test of Gauge face corner testing of rails in new rails to be done at

(a) Once in year (b) After passage of 40GMT

(c) At the same frequency specified under NBC (d) None of the above

499. In USFD, Linearity of amplitude means

(a)Verification of vertical scale (b) Verification of horizontal scale

(c) Calibration of linear scale (d) None of these

500. In USFD, If classification of rail weld defect is DFW protected), then the speed restriction for
passenger trains shall be imposed is ___ Kmph

(a) 20 (b) 30

(c) 70 (d) 100

501. As per Para (iv) of USFD manual/correction slip No, check proper function of 70ºangle
probes with respect to

(a) rail ends at fish plated joint (b) Gauge face corner

(c) Head web junction (d) None of these

506. Quantity of ballast/ m on concrete sleeper track with 300mm ballast cushion on Straight

a) 1.682 M3 b) 2.158 M3.

c) 2.314 M3 d) 1.962M3

507. For ballast supply on B.G. the maximum permitted aggregate abrasion value is

a) 10 % b) 20 %

c) 30% d) 40%

508. For ballast supply on B.G. the maximum permitted aggregate Impact value is

a) 10 % b) 20 %

c) 30% d) 40 %

509. The permitted range of % retention on 40mm square mesh sieve in case of machine
crushed ballast.

a) 10 - 20 b) 20 - 40

c) 40 - 60 d) 60 - 80

510. In case of ballast supply, if retention is 65 to 70% on 40mm square mesh sieve, how much
% of rate in contracted rate is reduced.

a) 25 % b) 20 %

c) 15 % d) 10%

511. The minimum height of ballast stack permitted in plain terrain in meters

a) 0.5 b) 1

c) 1.5 d) 2
512. Minimum ballast quantity of each stack permitted is

a) 10 M3 b) 20 M3

c) 30 M3 d) 40 M3

513. The% deduction for voids in shrinkage permitted on the gross measurement in cess
collection for making payment in case of ballast supply

a) Nil b) 4 %

c) 8 % d) 12 %

514. Can inadequate ballast depth affect maintenance of track ?

(a) No, it has no concern (b) No, but drainage will be affected

(c) Yes, but the effect will be marginal (d) Yes, the formation pressure will increase

515. Concrete Sleeper is a structural member which may fail due to –

(a) High compression stress

(b) High tensile stress
(c) High axial compressive prestressing stress
(d) Fatigue failure due to poor maintenance of fittings and depth of ballast.

516 .Proposal for through fastenings renewal should be initiated when

(a) 20% or more of sample size records toe load below 400 kg & confirmed by 5% sample
size
(b) 20% or more of sample size records toe load below 600 kg out more than 400 kg.
(c) 25% or more of sample size records toe load below 400 kg & confirmed by 5% sample size.
(d) 25% or more of sample size records toe load below 300 kg. & confirmed of 5% sample size.

517. If 20% or more of sample size of ERC records toe load below 600 kg., the frequency of
inspection and sample size shall be respective (for non-corrosion prone area)

(a) Once in four years, 1% on every 100 sleepers

(b) Once in four years , 2% on every 700 sleepers
(c) Once in two years, 1% on every 100 sleepers.
(d) Once in two years, 2% on every 100 sleepers.

518. While doing track renewal, minimum cushion to be ensured in a cutting is

(a) 150 mm (b) 200 mm

(c) 250 mm (d) Immaterial, being a solid base

519. When is a concrete sleeper due for next round of packing ?

(a) After 1 year in service (b) After 50 GMT Traffic has passed

(c) Before centre binding produced stresses are 40% of rail seat bottom stresses

(d) After two years or 100 GMT which ever is earlier.

520. Lubrication of ERCs shall be done in corrosion prone areas –

(a) Every 3 months (b) Every year

(c) Once in 2 years (d) Once in 4 years

521. As per Testing Criteria of Toe Load on ERCs, Which one of the following is correct

(a) Testing be done at a frequency of 4 years or passage of 100 GMT

(b) In corrosion prone areas every year testing be done
(c) If 20% of results (verified by 5% sample) are less than 600 kg TFR proposal be initiated
(d) TFR proposal be initiated if 20% of results (verified by 5% sample) are less than 400
kg

522. Formation cross slope shall be 1 in

a)10 b)20

c)30 d)40

523. Overhauling of track is essential because it improves:

(a) Longitudinal resistance of track (b) load bearing capacity

( c) drainage. (d) Longitudinal resistance of track

524. The sieve size used for manual Deep screening in mm. [ d ]

a) 10 b)15

c) 20 d) 25

525. In through packing, ballast should be opened out on either side of rail seat to a depth of

a)15mm. b)25mm.

c) 35 mm. d) 50 mm.

526. While doing slewing operation, angle between planted crow bar and vertical of rail should
not be more than

a) 10 b) 20

c) 30 d) 40

527. Easement gradient at the time of passage of trains while doing lifting should not be steeper
than

a) 25 mm. per rail b) 10 mm. per rail

c) 15 mm. per rail d) 30 mm. per rail

528. During deep screening, it should be ensured that when ballast is being removed from any
sleeper, invariably, there are at least ___________ fully supported sleepers between it and
the next sleeper worked upon.

a) 2 b) 4
c) 6 d) 8

529. The gap at Junction & combination fish plated joint should be

a) 6 mm. b) 4 mm.

c) 2 mm. d) Zero

530. The gap at machined joint should be

a) 6 mm. b) 4 mm.

c) 2 mm. d) Zero

531. The schedule of inspection of ADEN for manned level crossing is

a)once a month b) once in two months

c) once in three months d) once in six months

532. The sections, which are normally to be patrolled during monsoon will be identified and
notified by

a) PWI b) ADEN

c) DEN d) CE

533. The authority for introducing or continuing night patrolling outside the stipulated dates,
duly advising all concerned is

a) Gang Mate b) PWS

c) PWI d) ADEN

534. Who will prepare patrol charts for each of the sections where monsoon patrolling is
required to be done.
a) PWI b) ADEN

c) DEN d) CE

535. Patrolling in pairs can be introduced with the approval of

a) PWI b) ADEN

c) DEN d) CE
536. If a patrolman on the arrival at the end of his beat does not find the next patrolman, then
he should

a) continue patrolling as per patrol chart. b) Continue further and report to the SM

c) Wait for him d) Suspend the traffic

537. The selected patrolman should pass…………test and then only should be employed.

a)A-I b) A-III

c)B-I d) Not necessary

538. The PWI should submit a certificate to the DEN through AEN…………..in advance before
commencement of monsoon.

a)one month b) 2 months

c)6 months d) 1 year

539. When no danger is apprehended, the patrolman should stand on the ___ on the left hand
side facing the train and exhibit his number plate.

a)Middle of the Two lines b) Cess

c)Under a Tree d) Ballast

540. The PWI overall Incharge shall cover his entire sub-division once in…….by train/push trolly
in night and check the patrolmen.

a) Fortnight b) a month

c) a week d) a year

541. The PWI should check the equipment of all patrolmen and watchman once in a

a)Fortnight b) a month

c) a week d) a year

542. The PWI incharge should check over patrolling at nights by train once a________

a)Fortnight b) a month

c) a week d) a year
543. The Railway affecting tank which still requires heavy repairs, despite repeated reminders of
Railway, should be considered and included in the list of___ locations.

a)Vulnerable b) Bad

c)Important d) Waste

544. A list of vulnerable locations should be maintained by each ________in a register form and
updated.

a)AEN b) PWI

c)DEN d) HQ

545. The …………will be responsible for instructing patrolmen in their duties and stationary
watchman to posses the correct equipment.

a) APWI b) AEN

c) PWI in charge d) DEN

546. In PQRS working, Auxiliary track should be laid at a gauge of

a) 3400 mm b) 1676 mm

c) 5400 mm d) 4400 mm
547. There are………….no. of categories of Engineering works. [ c ]

a) 1 b) 2

c) 3 d) 4

548. Works of “short duration” are those. [ a ]

a) Can complete one day b)To put Engg. Indicators

c)Dose not require any SR d) Take prior permission from CRS

549. For works of short duration, when train has to stop at worksite, then hand signals shall be
exhibited at _____, _____, and ______.m. in case of BG

a) 30, 600, 1200 b) 30, 400, 800

c) At spot, 400, 600 d) at spot, 270, 540

550. The flagman placing detonators should station himself at a distance not less than………………
m from the place of detonators. [ b ]

a)100 b)45

c)1200 d)600

551. The ……………..will be responsible for obtaining sanction of CRS and sending safety
certificate on completion. [ d ]

a)CPWI b)ADEN

c)PCE d)DEN

552. In multi speed restrictions when s1 is less than s2, then minimum length of s1 zone should
be ………………m. [ b ]

a)100 b)200

c)300 d)400

553. For intermediate tracks on triple or multiple lines, Engineering indicators shall be fixed
between tracks to within……………mm from rail level.

a)100 b)200

c)300 d)400

554. Indicators shall be placed on the ………….side as seen by the Drivers except on CTC sections
(Single line)

a) left b)right

c)centrally d)oblique

555. When works at times of poor visibility are to be undertaken and site is protected by
temporary engineering fixed signals……nos..detonators, 10m apart be fixed not less
than…………..m in rear of CI and a caution hand signal exhibited to approaching trains.

a)3&600 b) 2&270

c)2&800 d)3&1200

556. Whistle Indicators should be provided at a distance of …………..m.

a)500 b)400

c)600 d)300
557. The normal life of detonator is

a) 10 years b) 5 years

c) 15 years d) 7 years
558. The life of detonators can be extended to ……………….years on an yearly basis after
testing……………..detonators from each lot of over 7 years.

a) 7&one b) 8 & two

c) 10 & one d) 10 & two

559. The safety radius at the time of testing of detonators is ….m.

a)10 b)20

c)40 d)50

560. The bottom most parts of CI, SI should be …………..m above R.L

a)1 b)2

c)1.5 d)2.5

561. The bottom most part of T/P & T/G should be ………………m above R.L.

a)1.20 b)1.55

c)1.65 d)2.00

562. When more than one person holding competency certificate travels in a trolley, the
………………………………is responsible for its safe working.

a) The Head Trolley man b) Trolley Holder

c)The man who is manning the brakes d) Higher official accompanying trolley

563. The quantity of petrol in the tank of motor trolley should not exceed……liters while loading
into train as per G&SR

a)3 b)5

c)8 d)9
564. In cuttings and high banks trolley refuges should be provided at …m intervals. [ b ]

a)50 b)100

c)150 d)20

565. The night signal for trolley/motor trolley/lorry on single line shall be….. [ a ]

a)Both side Red b) red on one side and green on the other

c)both side green d) one side white and otherside red

566. Push Trollys shall be manned by atleast ……men. [ c ]

a)2 b)3

c)4 d)5

567. During night and at times of poor visibility the trolly shoul work under [ d ]

a)supervision of SM b) Trolley memo

c)following a train d) Block Protection

568. Protection of trollies with H.S. flags is required only when the visibility is less than………….m

a)1200 b)800

c)600 d)350

569. When two or more trollies are running together in the same direction in the same line,
minimum separation required is …………m. [ b ]

a)50 b)100

c)150 d)200

570. When a motor trolly is worked with block protection, it should be manned by at least…men

a)2 b)3

c)4 d)5

571. Sample size for measurement of toe load of elastic clip is –]

(a) 1% of ERCs randomly on every 100 sleepers
(b) 2% of ERCs randomly on every 100 sleepers
(c) 3% of ERCs randomly on every 100 sleepers
 (d) 0.5% of ERCs randomly on every 100 sleepers.

572. When the lorry is required to remain stationery for more than…………..minutes in Station
limits then it should be protected. [ d ]

a)5 b)10

c)8 d)15

573. Lorries working in gradients steeper than ………………..should be controlled by hand brakes
as well as by rope tied in rear.

a) 1 in 200 b) 1 in 100

c) 1 in 400 d) 1 in 300

574. The check rail clearances in BG turnouts and L-Xings are –

(a) 44-48mm and 51-57 mm respectively

(b) 38-41mm and 48-51 mm respectively
(c) 48-51mm and 63-68 mm respectively
(d) 63-68mm and 76-80mm respectively

575. While lifting the track on a gradient, the lifting should proceed –

(a) from downhill to uphill (b) from uphill to downhill

(c) from both the ends towards a central meeting point
(d) It does not matter.

576. What is the minimum horizontal distance of a platform coping (goods or passenger) from
the adjacent track centre ?

(a) 1670mm (b) 1690mm

( c) 840mm (d) 760mm

577. What is the maximum distance apart of trolley refugees in tunnels

(a) 30.5 mts. (b)50 mts.

(c) 80 mts. (d)100 mts.

578. What is the minimum height of the bottom of an ROB in AC traction area from rail level

(a) 5870 (b)5500

(c)5460 (d)5200
579. What is the minimum centre to centre on B.G. tracks in mid section ?

(a) 4265mm (b)1676mm

(c)4725mm (d) 2350mm

580. For all routes identified for running 22.1 axle load wagons, sleeper density of ___ nos./km
must be maintained.

(a) 1560 (b) 1620

(c) 1660 (d) 1600

581. Second hand 52 kg rails can be used on Group ____ routes.

(a) A route (b) B route

(c) D and E route (d) only C route

582. A sleeper density of ___ sleepers per km is a must on Shatabdi/Rajdhani routes.

(a) 1880 (b) 1760

(c) 1660 (d) 1720

583. Life of rail not only depends upon the ___ but also on the maximum axle load moving over
it.

(a) Speed (b) GMT

(c) Both speed and GMT (d) Fastening

584. The width of ballast shoulder to be provided on the outside of the curve in case of LWR is
provided on the reverse curve –

(a) 500mm (b) 550 mm

(c) 600 mm (d) 650 mm

585. SEJ to be provided from the abutment at a minimum distance away of

(a) 10 m (b) 20 m

(c) 30 m (d) 40 m
586. The minimum depth of bridge timber excluding notching for 80‟ span as per RDSO‟s Drg.
No.BA 11075 is – [ c ]

(a) 150 mm (b) 125 mm

(c) 180 mm (d) 240 mm

587. The maximum cant that can be provided on BG has to be [ b ]

(a) 150 mm (b) 165 mm

(c) 200 mm (d) 240 mm

588. The Recommended yard gradient for new lines in B.G. [ d ]

(a) 1 in 200 (b) 1 in 400

(c) 1 in 1000 (d) 1 in 1200

589. The formation is said to be very bad when

a) less than 6 attentions are given per year

b) 6-12 attentions/year are given
c) More than 12 attentions/year are given
d) Formations are classified based on the TRC and OMS-2000 results.

590. The regular greasing of ERC‟s shall be done by – [ a ]

(a) keyman (b) gangs

(c) contractor (d) all the above

591. 20 Kmph caution order is prevailing at a deep screening spot. The caution indicator board
should be fixed at a distance of _______meters from the work spot as per IRPWM

(a) 400 m (b) 600 m

(c) 800 m (d) 1200 m

592. Existing 90 R rails can be allowed to continue in main line upto max. permissible speed of -

(a) 100 Kmph (b) 130 Kmph

(c) 160 Kmph (d) 80 kmph

593. In comparison with non-corrosion prone area, the frequency of toe load testing of ERC in
corrosion prone area is -

(a) Doubled (b) Same

(c) Half (d) No relaltion.

594. 1 in 20 cross cant is not provided at –

(a) SEJ (b) Derailing switch

(c) Buffer rails (d) Points and Crossing.

595. Gauge is measured ___________mm below rail table.

(a) 10mm (b) 13mm

(c) 15mm (d) 18mm

596. Sleeper spacing on a curve is the centre to centre distance between two consecutive
sleepers when measured at

(a) Outer rail (b) Inner rail

(c) Centre line of track (d)average of all the above.

597. What is not marked in gang chart

(a) Casual rail renewal (b) Deep screening of track

(c) Cleaning of side drains (d) Machine packing

598. Laying tolerance of sleeper spacing are

(a) ± 20 mm (b) ± 2mm

(c) ±15mm (d) ±10 mm

599. Maximum permissible gradient on LWR is

(a) 1in100 (b) 1 in 200

(c) 1 in 300 (d) 1in400

600. Deficiency of ballast on LWR track during summer may result in

(a) Creep (b) Buckling

(c) sinking (d) cracking

601. Most feasible parameter to judge the health of an LWR will be

(a) gaps measured at the SEJs

(b) creep at measuring posts fixed at the ends of breathing lengths
( c) Creep at the measuring post fixed at the centre of LWR
(d) Creep at the middle of the breathing length

602. Hot whether patrolling is to be introduced in LWR territory

(a) when the rail temperature goes beyond tm + 10

(b)When the rail temperature goes beyond td + 10
(c) When the rail temperature goes beyond td +20
(d) When the air temperatures goes beyond tm + 20

603. In PSC sleeper track what speed restriction should be imposed during consolidation period
on LWR when the temperature goes beyond td +20º when crib and shoulder ballast
compaction has been done.

(a) 15 Kmph (b) 20 Kmph

(c) 30 Kmph (d) 50 Kmph

604. The breathing length of an LWR exhibits movement of

(a) rail sleeper frame (b) rail alone

( c) sleeper alone (d) none of the above.

605. CWR is similar to an LWR except for – [ c ]

(a)its movement at the SEJ is different

(b)it requires more careful attention
(c)its distressing has to be done by splitting it into parts
(d)always requires patrolling

606. The distressing temperature of a 52 kg rail is - [ c ]

(a) tm to tm –5 (b) tm to tm +5

(c) tm + 5 to tm +10 (d ) tm + 10 to tm +15.

607. Of the various types of thermometers, the most reliable and quick device for rail
temperature measurement is –

(a) Black bulb thermometer (b) rail embedded thermometer

(c) dial type thermometer (d) the clinical thermometer.

608. Maintenance operations in a LWR should be restricted to a temperature range of – [ a ]

(a) td + 10 to td – 30 (b) td + 5 to td – 25

(c) td to td – 20 (d) td + 20 to td - 20.

609. In other than concrete sleeper track, if the temperature rises above td+20oC after a
maintenance job, during the period of consolidation, when only manual ballast compaction
has been done, SR to be imposed is –

(a) 50 km/h in BG and 40 km/h in MG (b) 30 km/h in BG and 20 km/h in MG

(c) 75 km/h in BG and 50 km/h in MG (d) none of the above.

610. While doing deep screening in LWR territory, if the rail temperature is anticipated to rise
above td+10oC, we should do the following –

(a) stop the work (b) immediately cut the LWR

(c) do a temporary destressing at a temperature of tmax – 10oC
(d) continue

611. While repairing a fracture in which a gap 'g' has been created and paint marks made at a
distance of 'a' and 'b' from the fractured rail ends, the following relationship should hold
good if a closure rail piece of length 'L' is inserted –

(a) a + b + 1 mm = L + (2 x 25mm) (b)a + b + g + 1 mm = L + (2 x 25mm)

(c) a + b - 1 mm = L + (2 x 25mm) – g (d) none of the above.

612. While passing an LWR over a girder bridge the rail-sleeper fittings should be

(a) rail free type (b) rigid type

(c) two way keys (d) elastic rail clips with effective toe load.

613. The maximum span of a girder bridge with LWR in MG is –

(a) 20m (b)30m

(c) 43m (d) depends upon bearing arrangements in the bridge.

614. The gap at SEJ at the time of laying / Subsequent distressing of LWR for a 52 kg Rail section
is

(a) 60 mm (b) 40 mm

(c) 20 mm (d) 120 mm.

615. Gap survey of an SWR has to be done

(a) Just before the monsoon (b) just after the monsoon

(c) before the onset of the summer season in Feb / March (d) none of the above.

616. Destressing by tensor has to be resorted to when – [ c ]

(a) labour force available is small (b) the blocks are not available
(c) the prevailing temperature is less than td
(d) a more sophisticated method has to be used.

617. Hot weather patrolman have a beat of – [ a ]

(a) 2 km on single line track (b) 1 km of a single line track

(c) 2 km on a double line track (d) not more than 5 km

618. If the temperature rises above td+20oC, hot weather patrolling can be started by

(a) DEN (b)AEN

(c) Keyman (d) Gangmate.

619. In a yard with LWR, for track circuiting make use of – [ b ]

(a) insulated block joints (b)glued joints of G3L type

(c) cut the LWR into SWR (d) none of the above.

620. Gap at fracture in an LWR is more than the theoretical value. This is due to:

(a) a sudden fall of temperature

(b) the battering received from the moving wheels
(c) the longitudinal ballast resistance mobilised is less
(d) the longitudinal ballast resistance mobilsed is more.

621. The maximum curvature permitted for laying an LWR is

(a) 4o Curve (b) 2o Curve

(c) 3o Curve (d) ) 1o Curve

622. SEJs are inspected by the PW / APWI once

(a) every 15 days (b) every 7 days

(c) As desired by the AEN (Open Line).

(d) every 15 days in the two hottest and two coldest months of the year and once in 2
months from the remaining period
623. Generally, while performing through packing manually on LWR, opening of sleepers is
limited to –
(a) alternate sleeper to be opened
(b) upto 100 sleepers to be opened at a time
(c) no restriction but the temperature restriction to be observed
(d) only 30 sleepers to be opened within a temperature range of td + 10 and td - 30oC.

624. Permissible speed on 1 in 8.5 turnout with curved switch 52/60 kg on PSC sleepers [ b ]

(a) 10 kmph (b) 15 kmph

(c) 20 kmph (d) 25 kmph

625. Minimum and maximum rail temperatures at Bareilly shown in the map as 70 (30) will be

(a) –30 and + 30 (b) – 55 and + 35

(c) – 5 and 65 (d) 0 and 60.

626. While maintaining CST-9 track with LWR, it should be ensured that

(a) requisite no. of reverse jaw sleepers are provided

(b)reverse jaw sleepers are removed
(c)LWR cannot be laid on CST-9
(d) Constant patrolling of track is done.

627. Emergency repairs to a buckled track involve –

(a) Slewing track to original position

(b) Machine cut a rail piece out of track and slew back the track
(c) Gas cut and slew back to original alignment
(d) Wait for temperature to go down before slewing back track to original position.

628. At an SEJ theoretical calculations of movement of one LWR end indicates an Expansion of 4
mm and a contraction of 3 mm during rising and falling temperature trends, Respectively, If
the standard gap at td is 20mm what range of gap is permissible as per LWR manual –

(a) 23mm to 16mm (b) 33mm to 6mm

(c) 3mm to 4mm (d) None of the above.

629. Formation is classified on “very bad” when number of attention received in a year are more
than
(a) 6 (b) 8

(c) 10 (d) 12
630. Maximum permissible vertical wear on wing rail or nose of crossing shall be [ a ]

(a) 10mm (b) 5 mm

(c) 15 mm (d) 20 mm

631. SEJ can be laid on transition curve with degree not sharper than – [ b ]

(a) 1° (b)0.5°

(c)2° (d) SEJ shall not be located on transition.

632. OMS equipment measures [ a ]

(a) Ride Index (b) CTR

(c) TGI (d) Performance index

633. The competency certificate for LWR maintenance is issued by

(a) DEN (b)AEN

(c) PWI (d) PCE

634. For checking correct curvature of tongue rail, ordinates should be measured [ c ]

(a) at every 3m (b) at mid point of the tongue rail

(c) at mid point and quarter points of the tongue rail (d) at every 20 m

635. On a fan-shaped lay-out same sleepers can be used for a right hand T/O and left hand T/O.
For this purpose

(a) right end of the sleepers should remain on right side

(b) right end of the sleepers should be brought towards the left side by rotating the sleepers
(c) sleepers in the switch should remain as it is but those in the lead should be rotated to
bring the right end to the left side

636. Recommended throw of switch on BG is [ d ]

(a)95mm (b) 105mm

(c) 110mm (d) 115mm.

637. Behind the heel of a switch spherical washers should be fitted on left hand side towards
____surface.

(a)vertical (b) inclined

(c)gauge (d) horizontal

638. Chord length for measuring lead curvature of a turn-out is

(a) 3m (b) 4m

(c) 6m (d) 9m.

639. Frequency of inspection of Points & Crossings on running lines by a PWI incharge & his
Assistant is once in _____ in rotation

(a) month (b) two months

(c) 3 months (d) 4 months

640. Max. permissible speed on 1 in 8 ½ curved switch is ___ kmph and that on 1 in 12 curved
switch is ___ kmph.

(a)15&30 (b) 30&15

(c) 15&25 (d) 30&50

641. Maximum permissible wear on nose of crossing, wing rail is ___

(a)4mm (b) 6mm

(c) 8mm (d) 10mm

642. The maximum permissible value for cant deficiency is _________ mm on group „A‟ route
with nominated rolling stock.

(a)50mm (b)75mm

(c)100mm (d)125mm

643. The maximum permissible value for actual cant, cant deficiency and cant excess is ___ ,
___, __ and mm respectively for BG, group „E‟ route.

(a)100,50,50 (b)165,75,75

(c) 140,65,65 (d) 180,100,100

644. The maximum in built twist on a transition curve is ____mm/meter for BG.

(a)1.4mm/m (b)2.8mm/m

(c)3.6mm/m (d)4.2mm/m

645. Frequency of inspection of a curve by PWI in BG group-A routes is once in

(a)3 months (b)4 months

(c) 5 months (d) 6 months

646. Extra shoulder width of ballast on curve double line in LWR is __

(a) 200mm (b) 300mm

(c) 400mm (d) 500mm

647. On wooden sleeper track, the number of spikes/under each rail seat on the outside of a
curve is

(a)Zero (b)One

( c) Two (d)Three

648. Station to station versine variation permitted for 110 kmph speed is _____mm.

(a)15mm (b)10mm

(c)20mm (d)40mm

649. Flat tyre causes maximum damage at a speed of

(a)90 to 100 kmph (b)25 to 30 kmph

(c)10 to 15 kmph (d) 50 to 75 kmph

650. As per IRCA rules, the rejection limits for wheel flange thickness is – ]

(a) 38 mm (b) 25.4mm

(c) 16 mm (d) 20mm

651. The standard play on B.G. is

(a) 25 mm (b) 19 mm

(c) 20 mm (d) 15mm

652. Emergency crossovers should be

(a) lubricated on the gauge faces to reduce derailment proneness

(b) lubricated on the rail table to reduce derailment proneness
(c) lubricated on the gauge tie plates to reduce derailment proneness
(d) Lubricated on non gauge face to reduce derailment proneness

653. Track Geometry to be achieved after track maintenance should be better than

(a) New Track Tolerance (b) Maintenance Tolerance

(c) Service Tolerance (d) Safety tolerance

654. TGI can not assume the following value –

(a) Less than 100 (b) Less than 50

(c) Less than 0 (d) Less than 25

655. Radius of a 5˚ curve is

(a) 1750 (b) 875

(c) 350 (d) 550

656. The suffix with track category A, B, C etc. pertains to number of peaks exceeding the outer
limit of which category

(a) „A‟ Category (b) „B‟ Category

(c) „C‟ Category (d) „D‟ Category

657. Acceleration peaks exceeding following is taken for track quality assessment on BG high
speed routes.

(a) 0.2g (b) 0.15g

(c) 0.35 g (d) 0.3g

658. Which Index is based on SD Values – [ c ]

(a) CTR (b) A, B, C categorisation

(c) TGI (d) OMS

659. Track is classified as „Very Good‟ if the average no.of total vertical and lateral acceleration
peaks/Km on High speed routes is –

(a) >1.0 (b) <1.0

(c) <1.5 (d) <2.0

660. Urgent attention is required at all locations where vertical & lateral acceleration peaks
exceed –

(a) 0.2g (b) 0.15g

(c) .30g (d) 0.35g

661. If the average number of peaks of vertical and lateral accelerations exceeding 0.3g is more
than____per km. Or more than____ in any particular km.,the track will need attention.

(a) 1 &1 (b) 0.5 & 1

(c) 0.25 & 1 (d) 0.25 & 2

662. Need for urgent maintenance of track, arises when the value of individual indices of
different parameters of TGI is less than

(a) 100 (b) 75

(c) 50 (d) 35

663. Frequency of overhauling of a level crossing is once a ______

(a) year (b) two year

(c) six months (d) three

664. Height gauges should be located at a minimum distance of ___ m from the gatepost.

(a) 6 (b)8

(c) 10 (d)20

665. Frequency of census at a level crossing where TVU is between 75,000 to 1,00,000 will be
___years.

(a) 1 (b)1 ½

(c)2 (d)2 1/2

666. In skew level crossings, the angle of crossing should not be less than _______

(a)200 (b)300

(c)400 d)450

667. Drivers of trains shall get no light indication except at ________ level crossings where they
will observe red lights when the gates are closed across the railway line and are open for
road traffic.

(a)Special (b)A class

(c)B class (d) C class

668. Level crossings beyond the ____________signals shall be under the control of the
Permanent Way Inspectors both as regards to their operation and maintenance.

(a) Home (b)LSS

(c)Outermost Stop (d) Starter

669. A gateman should have certificate of fitness of Class _________from Medical Department.

(a)A-I (b)A-III

(c)B-I (d)B-II

670. At night the gateman should lit ____nos. hand signal lamps.

(a) 2 (b)1

(c) nil (d)3

671. The minimum clearance of check rails at a level crossing should be ____mm

(a) 41 (b) 51

(c) 61 (d) 31

672. For level crossing with PSC sleepers, in no case opening be delayed by more than___ years.

(a)half (b)one

(c) one and half (d)Two

673. As per IRPWM one speed breaker should be provided on either approach of level crossing
located within the railway boundary at a distance maximum feasible but not exceeding
__________ m.

(a)5 (b)10

(c)20 (d)30

674. There should be no rail joint on running rails for a distance of _____m on either side at a
level crossing in SWR

(a)1 (b)2

(c) 3 (d) 6

675. Minimum number of gate keepers on „B‟ class level crossing should be __________

(a) 1 (b) 2

(c) 3 (d) 4

676. Whistle indicator board on the approaches of unmanned level crossings should be provided
at a distance of

(a) 200m (b) 400 m

(c) 600 m (d) 800 m

677. At the close of tamping work in mechanised maintenance P.Way Manual prescribes a ramp
gentler than

(a) 1 in 100 (b) 1 in 500

(c) 1 in 1000 (d) 1 in 720

678. Hot weather patrolling in LWR/CWR shall be introduced when temperature is

(a) td + 10˚ or above (b) td + 20˚ or above

(c) td + 30˚ or above (d) td + 50˚ or above

679. Formation slope is 1 in _________

(a)10 (b)20

(c)30 (d)40
680. Name the equipment that can be effectively used to warn the driver of an approaching
train on a track fouled by a derailed train on an adjacent track _____________

(a)Flare signal (b)Detonator

(c)Red flag (d)Red lamp

681. What distance from a danger location should 3-detonators be fixed on BG?

(a) 270 mtrs. (b) 600 mtrs

(c) 800 mtrs. (d)1200 mtrs

682. During deep screening, it should be ensured that when ballast is being removed from any
sleeper, invariably, there are at least ___ fully supported sleepers between it and the next
sleeper worked upon.

(a)1 (b)2

(c)3 (d)4

683. The sections, which are normally to be patrolled during monsoon will be identified and
notified by the ___________

(a)PWI (b)ADEN

(c)DEN (d)CTE

684. Who is authorized level of supervisor for deep screening works in LWR works

(a)PWM (b)PWI

(C) Mate (d) Keyman

685. After emergency repairs to fracture in LWR Track, the first train has to pass at a speed of

(a) Stop Dead & 10 kmph (b) Stop Dead & 20 kmph

(c) 20 kmph (d) 30 kmph

686. CWR/LWR shall not be laid as curves sharper than __________m radius both For BG and
MG track

(a) 440 m (b) 340m

(C) 240m (d) 140m

687. Clearance between Guard rail and Running rail on bridges in case of BG track

(a) 250 + 50 mm (b) 200 + 25 mm

(c) 150 + 25 mm (d) 25 + 25 mm

688. The PWI should submit a certificate to the DEN through AEN _______ in advance before
commencement of monsoon.

(a)1 month (b) 2 months

(c) 3 months (d) 4 months

689. The PWI should check the equipment of all patrolmen and watchmen once in a _________

(a)1 month (b) 2 months

(c) 3 months (d) 4 months

690. The PWI incharge should check over patrolling at nights by train once a __________

(a)1 month (b) 2 months

(c) 3 months (d) 4 months

691. The _________will be responsible for instructing patrolmen in their duties and ________
will be responsible to ensure that the patrolmen and stationary watchmen posses the
correct equipment.

(a)PWI and MATE (b)ADEN & PWI

(c) DEN & AEN (d) CTE&DEN

692. Overhang beyond the last lifting/ slinging point while lifting 90 UTS rails should not exceed
________ m.

(a)2.5 (b) 3.0

(c) 3.25 (d)3.5

693. After ignition of „portion‟ in AT welding, efforts should be made to follow a tapping time of
very near to ____ sec.

(a)10 (b)20

(c)30 (d)40
694. Class „C‟ ODC is one where net clearance available is less than _________mm.

(a) 75 (b)100

( c) 125 (d) 150

695. For spans more than 6.1m, rail joints should preferably be provided at ____ of span from
either end.

(a)full length (b)half

(c)1/3rd (d)2/3rd.

696. Length of bridge timbers should be distance of outside to outside of girder flanges plus
______ mm but not less than _________mm for B.G.

(a)205 &2340 (b)305&2440

(c) 405&2220 (d)505&1320

697. The clear distance between bridge timbers at joints should not exceed ________mm both
B.G and M.G. is

(a)100 (b)450

(c)200 (d)50

698. The top table of the guard rail should not be lower than that of the running rail by more
than ___________mm.

(a)10 (b)15

(c)20 (d)25

699. On the bridge approaches, for a length of about ______mtrs. the width of cess should be
____ cm clear of full ballast section.

(a)50 &100 (b)100 &90

(c)150&120 (d)120&60

700. Permissible amount of creep on BG track

(a) 100 mm (b) 150 mm

(c) 200 mm (d) 250 mm

701. Any deviations from the dimensions of Schedule I will require prior sanction of _______

(a) RDSO (b) PCE

(c) RB (d) CTE

702. In tunnels, through and semi-through girder bridges, the minimum distance centre to
centre of tracks for B.G. shall be ____mm

(a)4495 (b)4725

(c)4265 (d)1676

703. The maximum gradient in station yards BG should be __________ unless special safety
devices are adopted and/or special rules enforced.

(a)1in260 (b)1in400

(c)1in1000 (d)1in1200

704. The recommended minimum distance centre to centre of track BG is _______m, for B.G.

(a)4265 (b)4725

(c)5300 (d)1676

705. For B.G, the minimum radius of a curve is ____________m.

(a)350 (b)275

(c)200 (d)175

706. The recommended minimum widths of embankment for B.G. single line is _______mm

(a)5300 (b)6850

(c)6250 (d)4725

708. The recommended minimum widths of embankment for B.G. double line is ________ mm

(a) 4495 (b)12155

(c) 4265 (d)1676

709. The recommended minimum widths of cutting for B.G. Single line

(a) 4495 (b)12550

(c) 6250 (d)1676

710. The recommended minimum widths of cutting for B.G. double line

(a)4495 (b)11550

(c)4265 (d)1676

711. Check rails should normally be provided where the radius is ______m or less in B.G.

(a)158 (b)258

(c)318 (d)218
712. On B.G., minimum and maximum clearances of check rails at a level crossing are
_________mm & ___________mm respectively.

(a)44 &48 (b) 51 & 57

(c) 41 &45 (d) 48 &54

713. Minimum depth of space for wheel flange from rail level in B.G. [ c ] is _________mm.

(a)18 (b)28.5

(c)38 (d)44

714. For buildings and structures on B.G., the minimum horizontal distance from centre of track
to any structure from rail level to 305 mm above rail level is __________mm.

(a) 1540 (b) 1675

(c) 1905 (d)1690

715. For buildings and structures on B.G., the minimum horizontal distance from centre of track
to any structure from rail level to 305 mm above rail level is __________mm for new works
or alterations to existing works.

(a) 1540 (b) 1675

(c) 1905 (d)1690

716. Minimum distance of any telegraph post measured from the center of track and at right
angles to the nearest track excluding the height of postis __________ mm for B.G.

(a) 1540 (b) 1675

(c) 1905 (d)2135

717. Minimum height above rail level for a distance of 915 mm on either side of the centre of
track for B.G. for overhead structures is____ mm.

(a) 4540 (b) 4875

(c) 5905 (d)4690

718. For B.G., maximum height above rail level of any part of interlocking or signal gear for a
width of 1600 mm is __________mm.

(a) 95 (b) 85

(c) 75 (d)65
719. The maximum and minimum horizontal distances from centre of track to face of passenger
platform coping for B.G. are ________ mm & ________ mm respectively.

(a) 1540 &1500 (b) 1680 &1670

(c) 1905 &1675 (d)1690 &1575

720. ______mm & _______mm are the maximum and minimum distances from centre of track
to the face of goods platform coping for B.G.

(a) 1540 &1500 (b) 1905 &1675

(c) 1680 &1670 (d)1690 &1575

721. The maximum and minimum distances from center of track to the face of any platform wall
are ___________mm & ____________mm respectively.

(a) 1540 &1500 (b) 1905 &1675

(c) 1680 &1670 (d)1690 &1575

722. Maximum and minimum heights above rail level for B.G. high level passenger platforms are
__________ mm & ___________ mm.

(a) 840 &760 (b) 950 &1050

(c) 1680 &1670 (d)1690 &1575

723. The maximum height above rail level for B.G. goods platforms is _____mm

(a) 1500 (b) 1200

(c) 1065 (d)1690

724. The minimum horizontal distance of any building on B.G. passenger platforms from centre
line of track, from platform level to 305mm above platform level is

(a) 5540mm (b) 5180

(c) 5180mm gradually increasing uniformly to 5330mm

(d)5330 gradually decreasing to 5180

725. The minimum horizontal distance from centre line of track to a pillar, column, lamp or
similar isolated structure on a passenger platform or any building on a goods platform from
platform level to 305mm above platform level for B.G_________ mm.

(a) 4570mm increasing uniformly to 4720mm

(b)4720mm decreasing uniformly to 4570mm

(c)4570 mm. (d)4720 mm.

726. A pillar or column which has more than ___________cm2 in plan for B.G. must be classed
building and not as isolated structure.

(a) 1550 (b) 1915

(c) 3716 (d)2560

727. The clear distance between consecutive sleepers laid over unballasted bridge on BG should
not exceed_____________

(a)510 mm (b)650 mm

(c)450mm (d)150

728. The width of BG wooden sleeper over bridge should be ___________mm

(a)180 mm (b)210 mm

( c) 250 mm (d) 300 mm

729. Vertical curves are introduced when the algebraic difference between two grades becomes
equal to or more than _______%

a) 0.04 b) 0.40

c) 4.00 (d) 0.20

730. In single line CST-9 sleeper track, the keys are to be driven in the direction

a) Along the traffic b) Against the traffic

c) Opposite to each other on alternate sleepers

d) Three sleepers in one direction and fourth in opposite direction

731. In need based system of USFD testing, rail with IMR defect should be replaced within

a) 10 days b) 5 days

c) 3 days (d) 7 days

732. In BG track, the opening of road for through packing should be done from end of sleeper to
a distance of ______ inside the rail seat

a) 450 mm b) 350mm

c) 250mm (d) 150mm

733. In case of mass lubrication by gangs, the minimum level of supervision should be

a) PWay Supervisor b) APWI

c) Gang Mate d) CPWI

734. Toe Load should be tested for ERC in other than corrosion prone areas for every

a) 2 years or after passage of 100 GMT of traffic whichever is earlier

b) 4 years or after passage of 200 GMT of traffic whichever is earlier

c) None of the above.

735. The minimum depth of ballast cushion for SWR track is

a) 150mm b) 200 mm

c) 250mm (d) 300 mm

736. In a turnout, the turnout side stock rail should be given a bend at

a) Actual Toe of Switch b) Heel of Switch

(c) Theoretical Toe Switch (d) SRJ

737. The work that requires CRS sanction is

(a) Alteration in main line turnouts

b) Permanent diversion of 1 km length with station

c) All the above

738. IR Designation of a curve is done by

a) degree b) radius

c) degree or radius d) Curvature

739. Degree of a curve of radius 1750m

a) 1.250 b) 10

c) 20 c) 0.50

740. Dynamic gauge for BG

a)1750mm b) 1776 mm

b)1676mm c) 1057mm

741. The difference between actual cant provided on track and the cant calculated
corresponding to minimum speed in the section

a) cant deficiency
b) cant excess
c) rate of change of cant
d) equilibrium cant

742. Maximum permissible cant deficiency on BG Group D route is

a) 100mm. b) 65mm

c) 75mm d) 50 mm
743. Cant gradient is

a) actual cant/cant defficiency b) actual cant / transition length

c) actual cant/cant excess d) actual cant / length of a curve

744. The compensation for curve when added to the Existing gradient should not exceed
the______

(a) Falling gradient (b) Rising gradient

(c) Ruling gradient (d) Exceptional gradient

745.Recommended center to center distance of tracks for new lines_______

(a) 7265mm (b)4265mm

(c)5300mm (d)4725mm
746. Minimum radius of curve___________mtrs.

(a) 175 (b) 200

(c) 225 (d)250

747. Maximum clearance of check rail at level crossing___________

(a) 44mm (b) 51mm

(c) 48mm (d)57mm

748. Minimum horizontal distances, Telegraph posts measured from the center of track and at
right angles to the nearest track is Ht. of Telegraph post__mm

(a)1635 (b) 1915

(c) 1675 (d)2135

749. The maximum distance apart from refuges in the tunnel_______mtrs.

(a) 125 (b) 80

(c) 100 (d) 50

750. Maximum gradient of the station yard 1 in __________

(a) 1200 (b) 400

(c) 100 (d)500

751. Recommended gradient in station yard_________________________

(a) 1200 (b) 400

(c) 100 (d)500

752. Horizontal distance from center of track to place of any platform wall Minimum
________mm. and Maximum______________mm

(a) 1600,1800 (b) 1675,1905

(c) 1905,1670 (d)1670,1680

753. The Maximum height above the rail level for high level platform_________________

(a) 760mm (b) 1000mm

(c) 900mm (d)840mm

754. Minimum check rail clearance opposite nose of crossing is

(a) 57mm (b) 44mm

(c) 48mm (d)51mm

755. Maximum check rail clearance opposite nose of crossing__________

(a) 57mm (b) 44mm

(c) 48mm (d)51mm

756. Minimum length of tongue rail ______________________

(a) 1200m (b)1425mm

(c) 3200mm (d)3660mm

757. Minimum radius of vertical curve in LWR of Group `A‟ route is –

(a) 1550 m (b) 1915m

(c) 3716m (d) 4000 m

758. Rail dolly shall not work where gradient is steeper than________

(a) 1 in 400 (b)1 in 200

(c)1 in 100 (d) 1 in 300

759.Minimum no. of men required for working of Trolleys

(a) 1 (b) 2

(c) 3 (d) 4

760. Tolerance for head finishing on side at welding with 10 cm. straight edge

(a) +-0.1mm (b)+0.3mm.

(c)-0.3mm (d) +-0.3mm

761. Preheating time for AT welding by SKV process is in minutes for 60kg.(90UTS) rails

(a)6-8 (b)8-10

(c)10-12 (d)4-6

762. Frequency of refresher course for keyman/ Mate/PWM is once in

(a) 2 years (b)6 years

(c)8 years (d) 5 years

763. When more than one track machine is running in a block section, there should be a
minimum distance of ________ m between two units.

(a) 120m (b)160m

(c)200m (d)220m

764.Lubrication of ERCs should be done once in a _________in corrosion prone area.

(a)4 years (b)3 years

(c)2 years (d) year

765. Metal lines are used in track circuit areas with PSC track

(a) True (b) False

(c) irrelevant
766. Medical category of LC gateman is

(a) A1 (b)A2

(c)A3 (d)B1

767. Speed restriction on the fourth day after Deep screening manually in BG line

(a) 30 Kmph (b)20 Kmph

(c)45 Kmph (d)50 Kmph

768. Limiting lateral wear for rail renewal in `A‟ route curved track

(a) 6mm (b) 7mm

(c) 4mm (d) 8mm

769. The limit for vertical wear for 60 kg. rail is

(a) 4.5mm (b)5.0mm

(c) 8.0mm (d)13.0mm

770. Where ever LWR is followed by fish plated track/SWR, the same track structure as that of
LWR shall be continued beyond SEJ for-

(a)two rail length. (b)three rail length.

(c)four rail length. (d)five rail length.

771. In other than concrete sleeper track, if the temperature rises above td + 20deg.C after a
maintenance job, during the period of consolidation, when only manual ballast compaction
has been done, SR to be imposed is –

(a)50 km/h in BG and 40 km/h in MG

(b)30 km/h in BG and 20 km/h in MG
(c)75 km/h in BG and 50 km/h in MG
(d) 30 km/h in BG and 10 km/h in MG

772 .While doing deep screening in LWR territory, if the rail temperature is anticipated to rise
above td+10 deg. C,

(a)stop the work (b)cut the LWR

(c)do a temporary distressing at 10 deg.C lower than maximum anticipated rail

temperature

(d) Tamping destressing is not necessary

773. While continuiong the LWR over a girder bridge the rail- sleeper fittings should be

(a)rail free type (b)rigid type

(c)two way keys (d) Freed type

774. Gap survey of a SWR has to be done –

(a)just before the monsoon

(b)just after the monsoon
(c)before the onset of the summer season in Feb /March
(d) during summer

775. The distressing by tensor can be done whem temperature prevailing (tp) is –

a)More than td (b)Less than td

(c)Equal to td (d) td + 5˚ C

776.The maximum curvature permitted for laying an LWR is

(a)4 degree (b)2 degree

(c)1 degree (d) 50 degree

777. SEJs are inspected by the PWI / APWI once

(a)every 15 days
(b)every 15 days in the two hottest and two coldest months of the year and once in e
months from the remaining period
(c)every 7 days
(d)Once in every month

778.Generally, while performing through packing manually on LWR, opening of sleepers is

limited to

(a) upto 100 sleepers to opened at a time

(b) no restriction but the temperature restriction to be observed
(c) only 30 sleepers to be opened within a temperature range of td + 10 and td- 30 deg.C
(d) Only 50 sleepers

779.Track Geomentry to be achieved after track maintenance should be better than

(a)New Track Tolerance (b)Maintenance Tolerance

(c)Service Tolerance (d) Normal tolerance

780. Track is classified as „Very Good‟ if total no. of vertical and lateral acceleration peaks/km
on High speed routes is –

(a)>1.0 (b)<1.0

(c)<1.5 (d) <0.5

781.The standard play on BG is

(a)25mm (b)19mm

(c)20mm (d) 16mm

782. Emergency crossovers should be

(a)lubricated on the gauge faces to reduce derailment proneness

(b)lubricated on the rail table to reduce derailment proneness
(c)lubricated on the gauge tie plates to reduce derailment proneness
(d)Lubricated on non-guage face to reduce derailment proneness

783. The effect on wheel off loading in a vehicle having spring defect in two diagonally opposite
spring is a result of

(a) twist (b) alignment

(c) versine (d)Superelevation

784. Wear on switches can be reduced by

(a)Lubrication of guage face of tongue rail

(b) Lubrication of guage face of stove rail
(c) Lubrication of non-guage face of tongue rail
(d) Lubrication of non-guage face of stove rail

785. A false flange may split open points while traveling in

(a)leading direction (b)trailing direction

(c)both the above condition (d) Straight track

786. In design mode of levelling, lift values should be fed at

(a)front bogie of tamping machine (b)at middle measuring trolley

(c)at the rear measuring trolley (d) Rear bogie of tamping machine
787. At the close of tamping work in mechanized maintenance, P.Way Manual prescribes a ramp
gentler than

(a)1 in 100 (b)1 in 500

(c)1 in 1000 (d) 1 in 400

788. Maximum accumulation of LAP is _______days

(a) 100 (b) 200

(c) 300 (d) 400

789. LAP is and advance credit at the rate of _______ days for every half year.

(a) 10 (b) 15

(c) 20 (d) 25

790. The maximum days Lap can be availed at a time is _______ days.

(a) 180 (b) 200

(c) 20 (d) 300

791. LHAP is an advance credit at the rate of _______ days for every half year.

(a) 5 (b) 15

(c) 20 (d) 10

792. The eligibility of CL for field staff is _______

(a) 8 (b) 10

(c) 11 (d) 12

793. If a male employee undergone family planning operation, then he is eligible for _______
days as a special casual leave

(a) 8 (b) 6

(c) 10 (d) 12
794. If a female employee undergone family planning operation, then she is eligible for _______
days as a special casual leave

(a) 10 (b) 12

(c) 14 (d) 16

795. If a male employee‟s wife undergone for family planning operation then male employee is
eligible for _______days as special casual leave

(a) 8 (b) 10

(c) 12 (d) 7

796. Maternity leave for female Rly.employee is eligible for _______days

(a) 135 (b) 120

(c) 150 (d) 90

797. Paternity leave for male Rly.employee is eligible for _______days.

(a) 5 (b) 10

(c) 15 (d) 20

798. The no. of privilege passes eligible for a Rly.Employee having three and a half years of
service is _______ set.

(a) 1 set (b) 2 sets

(c) 3 sets (4) 4 sets

799. The Standard Form (SF) used for minor penalty charge sheet is_______

(a) SF 5 b) SF 1

c) SF11 d) SF3

800. The Standard Form (SF) used for major penalty charge sheet is _______

(a) SF 5 b) SF 1

(c) SF1 d) SF3

801. The validity of half set privilege pass_______

(a) 1 month b) 2 months

c) 3 months d) 4 months

802. When employee is kept under suspension, he is eligible for _____________________

(a) Subsistence Allowance (b) Failing Allowance

(c) Supervision Allowance

803. When was the official language act formed _____

(a) 1947 b) 1956

c) 1963 d) 1976

804. When the official language rules were formed _______

(a) 1947 b) 1956

c) 1963 d) 1976

805. As per OL policy Jammu & Kashmir comes under ________ region

(a) A b) B*

c) C d) none

806. Leave on average pay of a Railway servant will be credited with _______days in a year.

(a) 30 b) 20

c) 10 d) 40

807. A railway servant shall be entitled to leave on half average pay of _______ days in respect
of each completed year of service.

(a) 15 b) 20

c) 15 d) 30

808. Maximum leave on half average pay that can be granted at one time is _______ Months

(a) 12 b) 16

c) 24 d) 18
809. LHAP can be converted into half the period of such leave on an average pay on medial
grounds is called ________

(a) Sick Leave b) Rest Leave

c) Hospital Leave d) Commuted Leave

810. LAP upto a maximum of _______days shall be allowed to be commuted during entire
service.

(a) 90 b) 120

c) 150 d) 180

811. „Leave not due‟ during the entire service shall be limited to a maximum of _______ days
on medical certificate

(a) 180 b) 250

c) 360 d) 300

812. Maximum number of dependents can be included in a pass / PTO _______

(a) 2 b) 3

c) 4 d) 1

813. Group „D‟ employees with service 25 years and more are eligible for ____ set of post
retirement complimentary passes every year

(a) 2 b) 1

c) 3 d) 4

814. Reduction to a lower time scale of grade is a _______penalty.

(a) Censure b) Minor

c) Major d) Stipulated

815. The appointment of enquiring authority is done on a standard form no. _______

(a) 7 b) 5

c) 11 d) 8
816. In case of major penalties, the final orders passed by the disciplinary authority, giving
reasons for, are known as_______.

(a) Speaking (b) Penalty

(c) Punishment (d) passing

817. Minimum clean ballast cushion required for tamping is——mm

a) 150 b) 200

c) 300 d) 250

818. Gap between TOP edge of tamping tool blade and bottom edge of flat bottom sleeper is
———mm

a) 10-12 b) 16-18

c) 08-10 d) 06-08

819. What is the maintenance packing squeezing time for tamper is ________sec

a) 04-06 b) 02-04

c) 06-08 d) 08-10

820. How much wear of t/tools are allowed

a) 20% b) 10%

c) 30% d) 40%

821. The CSM tamping squeezing pressure to be adjusted for flat bottom PSC sleeper is ———
Kg/cm2

a)110-120 b)120-140

c)140-160 d)100-110

822. The UNI tamping squeezing pressure to be adjusted for flat bottom PSC sleeper is————
kg/cm2

a)135-140 b)120-135

c)100-120 d)140-1601
823. The minimum general lift is req for tamping is ———mm

a) 10 b) 20

c) 30 d) 40

824. Max lift to be given on LWR/CWR track while tamping at a time is———mm

a) 50 b) 40

c) 60 d) 100

825. The lifting cap of PQRS machine is——tone

a) 9 b) 10

c) 12 d) 6

827. The maximum speed of PQRS Portal crane is—————KMPH

a) 14 b) 20

c) 15 d) 8

828. How many insertion are required for lifting of 50mm for concert sleeper tamping

a) 2 b) 4

c) 3 d) 1

829. The permissible speed on self profiled for BCM is _________KMPH

a) 30 b) 20

c) 40 d) 50

830. The permissible speed on self profiled for CSM is ————KMPH

a) 50 b) 60

c) 30 d) 20

831. The permissible speed on self profiled for FRM is ————KMPH,

a) 30 b) 40

c) 20 d) 50
832. The permissible speed on self profiled for DGS is ———KMPH

a) 60 b) 50

c) 40 d) 30

833. The permissible speed on self profiled for UNI is ————KMPH

a) 60 b)50

c) 40 d) 30

834. Stabilization equivalent for DGS machine carries one pass

a) 1 lakh b) 2 lakh

c) 50,000 d) 40,000

835. The speed of cutting chain of BCM is ————m/s

a) 24 -40 b) 5

c) 2 d) 15

836. Width of obstruction free required for BCM cutting chain movement is —mm

a) 4100 b) 3100

c) 2500 d) 4000

837. How may machines can be allowed run through movement from one station to another
station on line clear ?.

a) 3 b) 4

c) 2 d) 5

838. How many machines can be allowed in ghat section steeper than 1/100 gradient ?.

a) 1 b) 2

c) 3 d) 4

839. What is medical category is required for staff working in track machines ?.

a) A-3 b) A-1

c) B d) B-2
840. What min safe distance to be maintain while moving machines in a convey ?.

a) 120 b) 100

c) 50 d) 60

841. In 09-32 CSM machine________ nos of tamping tools are provided

a) 32 b) 30

c) 24 d) 36

842. For tamping of one sleeper ———nos tamping tools are provided

a) 16 b) 20

c) 32 d) 36

843. __________speed to be resumed after deep screening with BCM and one round of tamping
along with DGS?

a) 40 b)50

c)30 d) 65

844. The level of auxiliary track should not be more than_______mm higher than the existing
track

a) 50 b) 75

c) 25 d) 100

845. What is the frequency of training that the operator should undergo in train working rules?

a) once in 3 yrs b) once in 5 yrs

c) once in 2 yrs d) Annually

846. What is the size of tamping blade?

a) 140 x 70mm b) 140 x 60mm

c) 120 x 70mm d) 150 x 70mm

847. The lifting capacity of T-28 machine ——tonnes

a) 30 b)20

c) 40 d) 25

848. What is the weight age factor of Ballast cleaning machine, Shoulder ballast cleaning
machine?

a) 15 b) 20

c) 12 d) 25
849. What is the stipulated out put of CSM machine for one effective block hour ?.

a)1.2 Km b) 1.0Km

c) 0.8 Km d) 1.3 Km

850. What is the stipulated out of DUO machine for one effective block hour ?.

a)1.2 Km b) 1.0Km

c) 0.8 Km d) 1.3 Km

851. What is the stipulated out put of the T-28 machine ?.

a)1T/Out in three gross block hours

b)1T/Out in 3 ½ has block hours

852. What is the stipulated out put of UNIMAT machine in gross block hour?.

a) 0.3 Km or 1 T/out b) 0.5 Km or 1 T/out

c) 0.4 Km or 1 T/out

853. What is the stipulated out put of BCM machine per effective block hour ?.

a) 0.2 Km b) 0.3 Km

c) 0.4 Km d) 0.25 Km

854. What is the stipulated out put of he FRM machine per effective block hour ?.

a) 0.30 Km b) 0.4 KM

c) 0.2 Km d) 0.5 Km

855. In BCM machine how many engines are available ?.

a) Two b) Three

c) one d) five

856. With RM-76 BCM —— mm width excavation can be done

a) 772 b) 760

c) 672 d) 700

857. Who is responsible for pre block, block operation (other than machine operation) and post
block operations of machines?

a) PWI b) Machine in –charge

c) BTC d) All the above

858. After ——— Km of work POH of CSM be done

a) 3750 b) 4000

c) 3000 d) 3500

859. The rated out put of CSM one effective block hour ———sleepers

a) 2000 b) 1500

c) 2500 d) 1800

860. After ——nos of T/o’s work, POH of UNIMAT is to be done

a) 5000 b) 4000

c) 3000 d) 4500

861. During lubrication of rail joints under the supervision of Keyman, there should be not less
than ————————————connecting rail should be ensured.

862. Designed versine for 1 in 8½ T/out and 1 in 12 T/out are ————-

863. On sanded catch siding, the rails shall be kept clear of sand at a distance ———— Beyond
section insulator.

864. Cant should be indicated by painting its values on —————

865. The approach curves of diamond crossing already laid should be laid ———————.on
either side of diamond crossing.

866. Other than Railway servant can travel on push trolly / Motor trolly by ——— 7 In sections
with permitted speed more than 75KMPH after doing relaying of track, speed must be made
normal with manual packing on_____day and with machine packing on ______ day.

867. The trees and bushes that interfere or tend to interfere with the view from train or trolly, of
signals or level crossings or along the inside of curves, shall be cut. When such trees or
bushes require to be cut which exist in private land it is dealt as laid down in _____ of Indian
Railway Act.

868. The second summation of versine difference represents ________at any stations?

869. If the ruling gradient of a section is 1 in 200, flattened gradient to be provided on a curve with
radius 583 meters is ___________

870. “When “L” is length of transition, “R” is redius of curve and “S” is shift. Then S = ______”

871. Longitudinal movement of rail is called _____________

872. Correcting couples apply for _____________

873. Equilibrium cant for turnout curve in contrary flexure _____________

874. Over non transitioned curve cant has to be run up and run out over some distance it is
called_____________
875. Minimum percentage of machine crushed ballast should retain on 20mm Sq mesh sieve
is_____________

876. Thickness of web of 60kg T/Rail in thick web switch is_____________

877. Diamond Xing should not be flatter than_____________

878. Track centre in new work in case of double line section is _____________mm

879. Sanction authority of ‘C’ class ODC is _________

880. Length of virtual transition is based on bogie centre distance and is equal to _____________
m for B.G.

881. Length required to resist the pull extended on rail by rail tensor is called_____________

882. The maximum permissible value for actual Cant, Cant deficiency and Cant Excess are
________ , _________ , ________ mm respectively for BG, Group-”E” route.

883. A 2½º Curve on 20 Mtr chord length will have _______ mm Versine on Circular portion.

884. At Night Gateman should lit two Nos hand signal lamps and exhibit ______ colour HS lamps
to Driver and Guard while passage of train.

885. The Min. & Max. clearances of Check rails at LC should be _______ mm and _______mm.

886. The Census of Level Crossing is carried out by a Multi-disciplinary inspectorial team
consisting of representatives of ________ , __________ , __________ departments

887. The TVU of Level Crossing between 25,000 and 20,000 is ________ class level crossing.

888. The classification of Level Crossing shall be based on volume of rail and road traffic and
_________ conditions.

889. length of a PSC sleeper is __________ mm .

890. The Max weight of a ER clip __________ Kg.

891. The dia of a ER clip Mark-III is ___________ mm.

892. The length of 60Kg Glued Joint fish plate is __________ mm

893. In a Left hand turnout, ___________ end side stock rail will be given straight bend and the
location of this bend will be at ___________

894. Minimum depth of space for wheel flange from rail level in BG is ____ mm.

895. For building structures on BG, the maximum horizontal distance from centre of track to any
structure from rail level to 305 mm above rail level is _________ mm.

896. Minimum height above rail level for a distance of 915 mm on either side of the Center of
track for BG for overhead structure is ___ mm.

897. Versine of a tongue rail on 1in 8½ symmetrical split will be ——

898. Surface water flowing from top of hill slope towards the track can be diverted by provision of
_______

899. The permissible limit of flat wheel on rolling stock for BG Diesel locomotives ___mm

890. The permissible limit of flat wheel on rolling stock for BG ICF and BEML Coaches is
______mm

891. The permissible limit of flat wheel on rolling stock for BG IRS Coaches is ____mm

892. The permissible limit of flat wheel on rolling stock for BG Wagons is ____mm

893. The frequency of greasing on rail gauge face for BG track for curves sharper than 600m is
______ .

894. The frequency of greasing on rail gauge face for BG track for curves with radius more than
600m is ______ .

896. The frequency of greasing on rail gauge face for BG track for all other locations like turnouts
& SEJs is ______.

897. For calculation of TGI value, the card length for unevenness is _______ mts.

898. For calculation of TGI value, the card length for Twist is ________ mts.

899. For calculation of TGI value, the card length for Alignment _____ mts. 50 In TRC run, the
standard deviation for unevenness for newly laid track is _____________

900. In TRC run, the standard deviation for Twist

901. In TRC run, the standard deviation for gauge for newly laid track is _____________.

902. In TRC run, the standard deviation for alignment for newly laid track is _____________.

903. In a TRC digital printout, the bocks where SD value for urgent maintenance is exceeded and
where planned maintenance is exceeded are identified by ________ for Urgent
maintenance.

904. In a TRC digital printout, the bocks where SD value for urgent maintenance is exceeded and
where planned maintenance is exceeded are identified by ________ for Planned
maintenance.

905. In a TRC digital printout, what do you mean by ALIL 13/85——-

906. In ballast testing, the maximum value of Abrasion test is ____ %.

907. In ballast testing, the maximum value of Agregate impact test is ____ %.

908. In ballast testing, the maximum value of Water absorption test is _ %.

909. In a non-transitioned curve, the length of transition is 14.6m on BG. What is the 14.6?

910. A layer of coarse material of specified quality, inter posed between ballast and sub grade
laid for more stability of formation is called________
911. The service life in terms of GMT of traffic carries for considering TRR on Bridge proper,
approaches for all major bridge where bank height more than 4.0m, all tunnel, and their
approaches shall be______

912. The shape of transition curves on Indian Railways _______

913. On non-transitioned curve, Curve should be run up or run out on the_____

914. Shift of circular curve required in a non – transitioned curve is _____

915. The slew in any direction at a station affects the versines at adjacent station by _______

916. An extra clearance on the account of lean will be required on which side of curve ______

917. The normal position of B class LC with TVU < 25000 will be kept as ____

918. For testing of soil, sample should be collected at a distance of ______

919. Battering of a rail end is measured at a point ——————— away from the rail end.

920. First coat of anti corrosive painting of rails shall be with ——.

921. Second and third coat of anti corrosive painting of rails shall be with ————————, with
a minimum dry film thickness of ————— for each coat.

922. Permitted srinkage for wagon measurement of ballast, compared to stack measurement is
——.

923. Width of formation required for BG, LWR, single line track in cutting,and embankment is
——————————— respectively.

924. Sizes of square mesh sieves used for sieve analysis of ballast are ———.

925. Side slopes of ballast stack shall not be flatter than —————-

926. Extension of guard rails beyond the face of ballast wall of bridge/tunnel in BG is—————-

927. Mark III flot toe ERC exerts a toe load of ————————

928. Toe load of ERC –J Clip _________.

929. Formation is classified as bad where either speed restrictions or No. of normal attentions to
track in a year are ———, and as very bad if they are ——-

930. For a given radius of curve , Ca & Cd , permitted speed can be determined using the formula
for BG, is —————————

931. For BG ,distance of banner flag and detonators with hand signals in case of works of short
duration, from work site shall be ————————— respectively

932. Second summation of versine difference at any station in curve re alignment represents
—————————at that station

933. Minimum radius of centre line of road at an LC approach for a National/ State highway shall
b ——————— for plain terrain,————— for hilly terrain
934. Maximum slinging distance for lifting of 90 UTS rails shall be————— ,and maximum
overhang shall be ———-

935. Deficiency of ballast on LWR track during summer may result in __________

936. Mate can supervise the work on LWR track but he must be possesses with the
————————————— on LWR track

937. ——————— must be carried out after completion of work of TFR (distressing/ deep
screening)

938. The use of ineffective fastenings resulting in loss of ———————and———— Resistance

939. During cold weather patrolling, patrolman should look out for ——

940. In case of AT Welding, Centre line of rail gap should co-inside with __________________

941. Welding portion used for welding of rail joints is a composition of _____________

942. In case of AT Welding after heating Alumina and iron oxide changes to ___________

943. In USFD, NBC means —————

944. In USFD, Any horizontal defect progressing at an angle in vertical plane in the rail when
tested with normal probe 4 MHZ, when these is no back echo and no flaw echo should be
marked as ___________

945. In USFD, Normal probe 4HZ used to detect defect of with in fish plated area with
osscillogram Patten no back echo, flaw echo is classified as ______________

946. In USFD, 70º probe 2MZ, of any traverse defect in rail head with flaw echo of 50% horizontal
scale movement and 60% of full scale height or more in classified as________

947. ________________shall be used for acoustic coupling in stead of water for AT welding
testing with USFD

948. In USFD, Oscillogram Patten of no back echo and no flaw echo defected by normal probe
out side the fish plated area on major bridges & bridge approaches should be marked
as_____________

949. In USFD, No back echo with or without shifting flaw echo detected by normal probe outside
fish plated are in vicinity of holes near the weld should marked as____________

949. In USFD, horizontal crack below neutral axis in AT weld area can be tested or not with 0º
probe ?(Yes or NO)

950. As per CS No 3, In USFD, oscillogram Patten of loss of signal height equal to more than
20% but less than 80% of full scale height detected by 45º should be classified as
___________

951. In USFD, Defect modification of transverse crack in Flash weld is ____________

952. The distance between two-welded joint is-----------.

953. The hot weather patrolling as per IRPWM is done when rail temperature exceeds--------------
954. The SEJ on a PSC sleeper track is laid at a initial gap of--------------mm.

955. The toe load prescribed for a ERC on a new track is-------------.

956. The number of sleeper in a PSC track on D Spl. Route is-------------.

957. The length of tongue rail is PSC layout of 52 Kg. rail sections is -----------.

958. The Max. Cant deficiency permitted on a group ‘A’ route of BG is-------.

959. 52 Kg. rail sections the welding gap provided in SKV will be----------------.

960. The checkrail clearance at L-xing is----------------.

961. The Max length of LWR on a girder bridge is-------permitted for a 60 Kg. track in zone-IV.

962. The number of casual leave given to gang man is-------------days.

963. The form SF-7 is issued for --------------under DAR.

964. The Zonal HQ Office of SOUTH EAST CENTRAL Railway is---------.

965. As per official language Act the PUNJAB State lies in----------region.

966. The caution indication board for a temporary speed restriction should be placed--------meter
before actual site of work.

967. Joining time for less than 1000 Km. distance on transfer is-------- days.

968. A Gateman at ‘C’ class level x-ing working for 12 hrs duty is classified as-------------under
HOER.

969. The Price list No. (PL No.))has--------digit.

970. The amount of TA to be paid for gang for JABALPUR stay for a days is-------

971. The target of correspondence in Hindi from region ‘C’ to region ‘A’ is------% as per official
language act.

972. The Paternally leave given to a employee for--------------.

973. RE-9B is prepared for -------------------.

974. A Gang man is entitle for -------sets of passes on complimentary account.

975. Form----------is used to realize credit through scrap auctions.

976. There are------number of national Holiday in a year.

977. Length of Tongue Rail for B.C. 1 in 12 Turnout c-jrve Switch is........................

978. Maximum distance apart of trolley refugees on bridge with main span of less than l00 mtrs.
shall be ..................... metres.

979. The distance between two distance piece of platform line shall be ............... metre.

980. The recommended depth of ballast cushion on Group 'A' route is ...............mm on B.G.
981. The clearance between guard rail and running rail on bridge shall be ..................mm.

982. The full form of CTR(P) is ...................................

983. The maximum cant on curved track on B.G. for Group 'A 1 route shall be ................mm

984. The minimum radius of vertical curve cr B.G. 'B 1 Route shall be ............metres.

985. The normal life of a detonator is ............................years.

986. The temperature range for distressing of LWR/CWR for 52kg & heavier rail section is ...........

987. Hot weather patrolling is started when rail temperature exceeds .......... ...........

988. The steepest gradient permitted for making LWR/CWR is .....................

989. The level crossing in LWR/CWR track shall not fall within ...... .......

990.The initial gap in SEJ for 52kg/60kg rail .section to be provided ................. mm in LWC/CWR.

991. Regular track maintenance in LWR/CWR track to be done when rail temperature is
between ..................... and ............................

992. Steep gradients which need extra engine for hauling is known as

a) Pusher gradient* b) Rulling Gradient

c) Reasonable gradient d) Momentum gradient

993. Rising gradient followed by a falling gradient is known as

a) Rulling gradient b) Momentum gradient*

c) Pusher graient d) Aangular gradient

994. The safety in Railway in India is looked after by

a) Ministry of Railways b) Commission of Railway Safety*

c) Railway Board d) Headquarter Office

995. Longest platform of the world on BG is

a) At Sonepur station* b) At Sasaram station

c) At Allahabad station d) At Kharagpur station

996. The ruling gradient is 1 in 200 on a section of the BG track. If the track is laid in that place at
a curve of 5 degrees then the allowable ruling gradient on the curve will be

a) 1 in 16.7 b) 1 and 400

c) 1 in 240 d) 1 in 333*
997. The number of stations on Indian Railways is

a) 6000 approximately b) 7070 approximately*

c) 8000 proximately d) 9000 approximately

998. Longest tunnel on Indian Railway is

a) Kharbude tunnel on Konkan Railway*

b) Near Lonavala between Monkey hill and Khandala station
c) Kalka Shimla
d) Darjeeling hill Railway

999. Longest Railway Bridge on Indian Railway is

a). Sone Bridge at Dehri on Sone* b). Yamuna Bridge at Kalpi

c). Ganga Bridge near Patna d). Pamban Bridge

1000. Longest passenger train on Indian Railway is

a). Prayagraj Express* b). Kalka Mail

c). Himsagar express d). Lucknow mail

1001. Railway station at the highest altitude on Indian Railway is

a). Ghum station in Darjeeling Himalayan Railway*

b). Shimla station on Kalka Shimla railway line
c). Mount Abu and Abu Road Mount Road station
d). Joginder Nagar on Pathankot jogindernagar section

1002.Track Structure for private siding with operating speed of 80 to 100 kmph is same as the
track structure as specified for

a) Group B route b) Group A route

c) Group D route* d)Group C route

1003. Track structure for private siding with operating speed 50 to 80 kmph is the same as track
structure as specified for

a)Group A route b) Group B route

c) Group D route d)Group E route*

1004. Indicate which of the statement is incorrect with regard to coning of Wheels

a)coning of wheels help the vehicle to negotiate a curve smoothly

b) It helps in smooth riding
c) It increases wear and Tear of wheel flanges*
d)it enables the outer wheel of vehicle to take a longer distance
e) it restricts the swaying of vehicles
1005. Tilting of rails is done at a slope of

a. 1 in 30 b. 1 in 25

c. 1 in 20* d. 1 in 15

1006. Clear perpendicular distance between inner faces of two rails is

a. Gauge of track* b. Inner gauge

c. Wheel base d. Wheel gauge

1007. The ratio of wheel diameter to gauge is about

a. 0. 40 b. 0.55

c. 0. 75* d. 0. 90

1008. The train runs faster on BG than on MG rail because its speed is directly proportional to

a) Weight of the train* b) Gauge width

c)Policy of Railway Board d) Length of the train

1009. The ratio of maximum cant e and gauge G in India is about

a)1 / 100 b) 1 / 50

c)1 /10* d) 1 / 25

1010. “Composite sleeper index” is employed to determine

a) sleeper density requirement

b) number of fixtures required for a particular type of sleeper
c) durability of sleeper
d) mechanical strength of wooden sleepers and thereby gives its suitability as to be used as
li sleepers.*

1011. The maximum permissible speed recommended for Indian Railways for 1 in 8 and half
crossing is

a)16 kmph* b) 20 kmph

c)24 kmph d) 32 kmph

1012. What is the weight per meter length of 52 kg Rail?

a. 54.14 kg b. 50.25 kg

c. 51.89 kg* d. 53.85 kg

 1013.What is the height of 60 kg rail section?

a. 180 mm b. 172 mm*

c. 185 mm d. 165 mm

1014. In M+7 sleeper density, how many sleepers are there in a km Track.

a. 1660 nos b. 1540 nos.*

c. 1310 nos. d. 1440 nos.

1015. What is the assessed GMT service life of 60 kg 90 UTS rail?

a. 650 GMT b. 600 GMT

c. 800 GMT* d. 500 GMT

1016. What is the assessed GMT service life of 52 kg 90 UTS rail.

a. 650 GMT b. 600 GMT

c. 525 GMT* d. 500 GMT

1017. What is the full form UTS of rails

a. Ultimate technical Strength b. Ultimate tensile Strength*

c. Upper Top surface d. None of above

1018. What is the width of Head of 52 kg Rail section

a. 70 mm b. 75 mm

c. 67 mm* d. 60 mm

1019. What is the full form of GMT

a. Gross Million Tonnes* b. Gross minimum thickness

c. Gross Maximum thickness d. None of above

1020. In Indian Railway how many Gauges of Track has been adopted

a. 1 b. 3*

c. 2 d. 4
1021. What is the Highest speed of train in Indian Railway

a. 140 KMPH b. 120 kmph

c. 160 kmph* d. 130 kmph

1022. How many divisions in Northern Railway

a. 5* b. 4

c. 6 d. 3

1023. What do you mean by BG

a. Big Gauge b. Broad Gauge*

c. Buffer gauge d. None of above

1024. What do you mean by RDSO

a. Research & Development Standard organisation*

b. Railway Development & Standard organization
c. Regional Development & Standard organisation d. None of above

1025. Where is the Head Quarter of Northern Railway

a. New Delhi* b. Lucknow

c. Mumbai d. Calcutta

1026.What is the highest post in Railway

a. General Manager b. Chief Engineer

c. Chairman Railway Board* d. Divisional Railway Manager

1027. What is the standard distance between lines in Broad Gauge

a. 1670 mm b. 1676 mm*

c. 1665 mm d. 1680 mm

1028. What do you mean by LWR

a. Long welded Rail* b. Long weld able Rail

c. Linear welded rail d. None of above.

1029. On the basis of temperature how many zones are in Indian railway

a. 2 b. 6

c. 4* d. 7

1030. What is the minimum distance centre to centre of straight tracks for new
works/alterations to existing works.

a. 4265 mm. b.3660 mm.

c.5300 mm.* d 4365 mm.

1031. What is the full form of OMS used for track recording

a. Outer most Surface b. Oscillation Monitoring system*

c. Only measuring system d. Official measurement system

1032. What is the frequency of track recording of the sections having speed more than 110
kmph to 130 kmph

a. 4 Months b. 2 Months

c. 6 Months d. 3 Months*

1033. What is the full form of PQRS used for Track renewal works.

a. Plasser quick Relaying system* b. Please quick return services

c. Poor Quality renewal system d. None of above

1034. Minimum radius of curve on Broad gauge

a. 175 meter* b. 215 meter

c. 146 meter d. 200 meter
1035. Minimum check rail clearance at Level crossing

a. 45 mm b. 51 mm*

c. 50 mm d. 57 mm

1036. Maximum height above rail level of high passenger Platform

a. 860 mm b. 900 mm

c. 840 mm&* d. 875 mm

1037. Minimum clearance between toe of Open switch and stock rail for new works

a. 115 mm* b. 120 mm

c. 95 mm d. 110 mm

1038. What is the formula of TGI for track recording

a. UI+4TI+6GI+AI/10 b. 2UI+TI+GI+6AI/10*

c. 3UI+TI+2GI+5AI/10 d. 2UI+2tI+2GI+4AI/10

1039. What is the limit of Unevenness of A category of track

a. 0 to 10 mm b. 0 to 5 mm

c. 0 to 6 mm* d. 0 to 8 mm

1040. What is the difference between rail flange of 60 kg & 52 rail section

a. 20 mm b. 18 mm

c. 14 mm* d. 16 mm

1041. what is the value of long chord for measuring unevenness in track recording

a. 3.6 meter b. 9.6 meter*

c. 7.2 meter d. 4.8 meter

1042. Frequency of TTM tamping on PSC sleepers track

a. 2 years or 100 GMT which ever is earlier*

b. 2 years or 150 GMT which ever is earlier
c. 1.5 years or 200 GMT which ever is earlier
d. 2 years or 175 GMT which ever is earlier

1043. How many sleepers are there in Fan shaped 1 in 12 turnout

a. 85 sleepers b. 96 sleepers*

c. 90 sleepers d. 100 sleepers

1044. Minimum wing rail clearance opposing nose of crossing on Fan shaped turnout

a. 45 mm b. 40 mm

c. 41 mm* d. 44 mm
1045. Overall length of fan shaped 1 in 12 Turnout

a. 39975 mm* b. 41004 mm

c. 28613 mm d. None of above

1046. What is the full form of TGI

a. Track Geometry Index* b. Track general Index

c. Track gravity Index d. None of above

1047. Permissible speed of Turnout with 1 in 12 curved switches

a. 40 kmph* b. 25 kmph

c. 15 kmph d. 20 kmph

1048. Permissible speed of Turnout with 1 in 8.5 curved switches

a. 40 kmph b. 25 kmph*

c. 15 kmph d. 20 kmph

1049. How many green flags are with Patroller during Hot weather patrolling.

a. 02 b. 03

c. 01 d. None of above*

1050. Lowest level of staff/supervisor competent for TTM tamping operation in LWR/CWR.

a. Gang Mate b. PWS

c. PWI* d. Keyman.

1051. Lowest level of staff/supervisor competent for Lifting/Lowering of track in LWR/CWR.

a. Keyman. b. Gangmate.

c. PWI. d. PWS.*
1052. Lowest level of staff/supervisor competent for packing or renewal of single isolated
sleeper not requiring lifting or slewing of track in LWR/CWR.

a. PWI b. Keyman

c. Gangmate* d. PWS

1053. Lowest level of staff/supervisor competent of Renewal of fastenings not requiring lifting in
LWR/CWR.

a. PWS b. Gangmate

c. Keyman* d. Gangman

1054. Lowest level of staff/supervisor competent for Renewal/recoupment of fastenings

requiring
lifting in LWR/CWR.

a. PWS b. Gangmate*

c. Keyman d. Gangman

1055. Lowest level of staff/supervisor competent for Screening of ballast other than deep
screening
in LWR/CWR.
a. PWS b. Keyman

c. Gangmate* d. Gangman

1056. Lowest level of staff/supervisor competent for Organising Hot weather patrolling during
summer months in LWR/CWR.

a. Gangmate b. PWI*

c. Keyman d. PWS

1057. Lowest level of staff/supervisor competent for all operations regarding distressing in
LWR/CWR.

a. PWI* b. PWS

c. Gangmate d. Keyman
1058. Lowest level of staff/supervisor competent for passing of first train after buckling in
LWR/CWR.

a. PWI* b. PWS

c. Gangmate d. Keyman

1059. How many zones are in Indian railway

a. 8 b. 10

c. 16* d. 12

1060. In LWR What is the range of Destressing temperature in 52 kg and heavier section

a. Mean rail temp+5 0 C to Mean rail temp+10 0 C*

b. Mean rail temp+5 0 C to Mean rail temp+15 0 C
c. Mean rail temp to Mean rail temp+10 0 C
d. Mean rail temp+2 0 C to Mean rail temp+10 0 C

1061. What is full form of SPURT car

a. Self propelled ultrasonic rail testing car* b. Self pulled united rail testing car

c. Self pumped universal testing car d. None of above

1062. What do you mean by 60 kg rail

a. Weight of rail in 1 meter* b. Area of rail of 1 meter

c. Weight of rail in 1 feet d. Volume of rail in 1 meter

1063. Points & Crossing is laid at a cant of

a. 1 in 20 b. 1 in 10

c. 1 in 15 d. NIL*

1064. Minimum permissible vertical wear on nose of a 52 kg CMS crossing on Rajdhani route is

i) 6mm ii) 8mm*

iii) 10mm iv) 12 mm

1065. Normal life of detonators is

a. 5 years b. 10 years

c. 7 years * d. 6 years.
1066. Maximum distance apart of trolley refuges on bridges with main spans of 100metre or
more is

a. 50 mtr b. 100 mtr

c. 200 mtr d. a refuge over each pair*

1067. Permissible creep in track is

a. 50 mm b. 100 mm

c. 125 mm d. 150 mm.*

1068. Maximum distance covered in a day by a Patrolman should not normally exceed

a. 2 km. b. 5 km.

c. 10 km. d. 20 km .*

1069. Curve inspection shall be carried out by Sectional PWI

a. Once in three months b. Once in six months

c. Once in four months* d. None of above

1070. An accident has taken place at out station and main line is blocked and relief train is to be
turned out without medical car. The hooter shall be:

a. 3 long b. 4 long*

c. 4 long, 1 short d. 3 long, and 1 short

1071. Minimum speed restriction to be imposed for Track renewal is:-

(a) Stop dead & 10 Kmph (b) 10 Kmph

(c) 15 Kmph (d) 20 Kmph*

1072. Service life in terms of total GMT carried for 52 kg. 90 UTS rail is:-

(a) 425 GMT (b) 475 GMT

(c) 525 GMT* (d) 545 GMT

1073. Minimum rail section recommended for section having traffic more than 20 GMT is

(a) 90 UTS (b) 52 Kg.

(c) 60 Kg.* (d) None of the above.

1074. Lubrication of ERC and inserts in corrosion prone areas and platform line is done:-

(a) Once in a month. (b) Once in a fortnight.

(c) Once in a week. (d) Once in a year.*

1075. Vertical wear permissible for 60kg/90UTS. rails is:-

(a) 23 mm. (b) 10 mm.

(c) 13 mm.* (d) 15 mm.

1076. Permissible wear of web & foot of rail due to corrosion is:-

(a) 15 mm. (b) 1.5 mm.*

(c) 0.5 mm. (d) 2.5 mm.

1077. Minimum depth of ballast cushion below the bottom of sleeper at the rail seat on BG
group A route should be :-

(a) 350 mm. (b) 250 mm.

(c) 300 mm.* (d) 325 mm.

1078. Sleeper density for group ‘A’ route with traffic density more than 20 GMT is:-

(a) 1560 sleepers/ Km. (b) 1660 sleepers/ Km.*

(c) 1540 sleepers/ Km. (d) 1340 sleepers/ Km.

1079. Track structure for CC+8 t+ 2 t loaded trains is:-

(a) 52 Kg 90 UTS;PSC 1540 sleepers/ Km.; 250 mm ballast.

(b) 60 Kg 90 UTS;PSC 1660 sleepers/ Km.; 300 mm ballast.*
(c) 52 Kg 72 UTS;PSC 1540 sleepers/ Km.; 300 mm ballast.
(d) 90 R;PSC 1340 sleepers/ Km.; 250 mm ballast.
1080. Deep screening of entire track must be done at least:-

(a) Once in a quarter. (b) Once in a year.

(c) Once in 5 years. (d) Once in 10 years.*

1081. Service life of Glued insulated rail joint of 60 Kg rail is:-

(a) 300 GMT. (b) 200 GMT.*

(c) 400 GMT. (d) 150 GMT.

1082. Service life of improved SEJ of 60 Kg rail is:-

(a) 400 GMT. (b) 300 GMT.

(c) 200 GMT.* (d) 150 GMT.

1083. Service life of CMS crossing ( 52 Kg rail) is:-

(a) 400 GMT. (b) 300 GMT.

(c) 200 GMT. (d) 150 GMT.*

1084. D&G charges for works estimates of CTR(P) is:-

(a) 2.25%. (b) 1.8%.*

(c) 1.35%. (d) 1.62%.

1085. What is speed restriction on deep screening site done by BCM and tamped by machine
followed with DGS?

(a) 20 (b) 30

(c) 40* (d) 10

1086. ACD means

(a) Anti collision Devise* (b) Accidents causing death

(c) Accidents causing derailment (d) None of the above

1087. Duration of short hooter is……..

(a) 5 seconds* (b) 10 seconds

(c) 15 seconds (d) 20 seconds

1088. For taking track measurement at accident site stations shall be marked at …….. Apart.

(a) 1 m (b) 2m

(c) 3m* (d) 5m

1089. Flat tyre causes maximum damage at a speed of

(a) 90 to 100 kmph (b) 25 to 30 kmph*

(c) 10 to 15 kmph (d) 15 to 20 kmph

1090. As per IRCA rules, the rejection limits for wheel flange thickness is –

(a) 38mm (b) 25.4mm

(c) 16mm* (d) 20 mm

1091. Where Enquiries are ordered by DRM the enquiry report should be submitted to DRM
within

(a) 5 days (b) 7 days*

(c) 10 days (d) 12 days

1092. In a semi permanent (BG) diversion the gradient should not be steeper then

(a) 1 in 75 (b) 1 in 125

(c) 1 in 100 * (d) 1 in 150

1093. An accident will be termed as serious accident when the loss of Railway property is more
then

(a) 3 lacs (b) 10 lacs

(c) 25lacs* (d) 15 lacs

1094. Collision as per new classification is classified as

(a) A class* (b) B class

(C) C class (d) none of these

1095. Number of hooters to be sounded, when the accident takes place is Loco shed or in traffic

(a) One long hooter (b) Two long hooters

(c) Two long & one short (d) none to these

1096. Number of hooters to be sounded, when accident takes place out station, but main line is
clear:

(a) 02 long (b) 03 long*

(c) 03 long 01 short* (d) none of these

1097. Duration of lone Hooter is:

(a) 20 seconds (b) 25 seconds

(c) 30 seconds* (d) 50 seconds

1098. “Accident Drill” is organized by:

(a) Engg. Officers (b) Operating Officers

(c) Engg. & operating officers * (d) none of these

1099. When flange contact of wheel leads tread contact. Then it is known as:

(a) Zero angularity (b) Negative angularity

(c) Positive angularity* (d) none of these

1100. The condition will be called as thin flange, when the flange thickness becomes less the:

(a) 10mm (b) 12mm

(c) 16mm* (d) 15mm

1101. Min. sleeper density in case of semi permanent diversion-

(a) (m + 2) (b) (m + 3)*

(c) (m + 4) (d) ( m + 7 )
1102. As per new classification of railway accident, floods breaches & land slides’ is classified in
the following class

(a) Class J (b) Class K

(c) Class Q (d) Class R*

1103. Diplorry can be worked:

(a) In block* (B) without block

(c) With look put caution (d) None of these

1104. Min. authority to be Incharge of lorry.

(a) Keyman (b) Mate

(c) PWS* (d) none of these

1105. UCC is abbreviated for

(a) Uncontrolled cement concrete (b) Unified Control Command

(c) Unified Command Centre* (d) none of them

1106. In a semi permanent (BG) diversion the gradient should not be steeper then

(a) 1 in 75 (b) 1 in 125

(c) 1 in 100* (d) 1 in 150

1107. The minimum centre to centre distance of a B.G. track in mid-section is ……….. mm

(a) 4200 (b) 4265*

(C) 4350 (d) 4000

1108. Any deviations from the Schedule of dimensions will require prior sanction of ……….

(a) Zonal Rly (b) Rly Board*

(c) CRS (d) All of them

1109. The maximum gradient in station yards should be ……. Unless special safely devices are
adopted and/or special rules enforced.

(a) 1 in 400* (B) 1 in 500

(c) 1 in 1000 (D) 1 In 600

1110. The recommended maximum gradient in the year for B.G is-

(a) 1 in 1000 (b) 1 in 1200*

( c) 1 in 1500 (d) 1 in 1800

1111. For B.G. the minimum radius of a curve is ………

(a) 150m (b) 175*

(c) 200m (d) 225m

1112. Check rails should normally be provided where the radius is ……. M or less in B.G.

(a) 150m (b) 200m

(c) 208m* (d) 225m

1113. On B.G. maximum clearances of check rails at a level crossing are

(a) 51mm ( b ) 57mm*

(c) 65mm (d) 54mm

1114. Minimum depth of space for wheel flange form rail level in B.G. is …… mm

(A) 35 (B) 38*

(C) 42 (D) 45

1115. The minimum horizontal distances form centre of track to face of passenger platform
coping for B.G. is ……. Mm

(A) 1650 MM. (B) 1670 MM*

(C)1676 MM (D) 1685 MM

1116. What is maximum height above rail level for low-level passenger platform for BG?

(a) 300mm (b) 455mm*

(c) 525mm (d) 550mm

1117. Maximum curvature permitted on B.G. is

(a) 8 degree (b) 10 degree*

(c) 12 degree (d) 16 degree

1118. The minimum track centres in B.G. double line is

(a) 4500 mm (b) 4750 mm

(c) 5000 mm (d) 5300 mm*

1119. Maximum height of rolling stock on BG should be

(a) 2745mm (b) 3250mm

(c) 3450mm (d) 4140mm*

1120. Maximum width of rolling stock on BG should be

(a) 4745mm (b) 3250mm*

(c) 3450mm (d) 4140mm

1121. The gradient of a platform is generally

(a) 1 in 1000 (b) 1 in 750

(c) 1 in 500* (d) 1 in 250

1122. Maximum clearance of check rails at level crossing for B.G. should be

(a) 48mm (b) 57mm*

(c) 51mm (d) 44mm

1123. Height gauges should be located at a minimum distance of….. from gate post.

(a) 5 m (b) 7.5m

(c) 8m* (d)10m

1124. O.D.C. Stands for

(a) On direct current (b) Over dimensioned consignment*

(c) None of them (d) Operating & gate

1125. In case of ‘A’ Class ODC escort is………..

(a) Necessary (b) not necessary*

(c) does not matter (d) on direct current

1126. For A class ODC, the gross clearance over maximum moving dimension of B.G is

(a) 150mm (b) 175mm

(c) 225 mm* (d) 250mm

1127. For A Class, the gross clearance of over maximum moving dimension for BG is

(a) 100mm (b) 125mm

(c) 150mm* (d) 175mm

1128. Check rails should normally be provided where the radius is …. M or less in B.G.

(a) 150m (b) 200m

(c) 218m* (d) 240m

1129. On B.G. maximum clearances of check rails at a level crossing are

(a) 51 mm (b) 57mm*

(c) 65mm (d) 70mm

1130. The maximum height above rail level for B.G. goods platform is ……. Mm

(a) 1000mm (b) 1050mm

(c) 1065mm* (d) 1075mm

1131. Minimum clearance of check rails for B.G. at level crossing should be

(a) 48mm (b) 57mm

(c) 51mm* (d) 44mm

1132. Specific yield of well is

a) Discharge per unit time b) Yield of well per metre of drawdown*

c) Velocity of water per unit time d)None of the above

 1133.While taking sample of water from well, sample is collected

a)About 2 metre above the bottom of wel b) About 1 metre above the bottom of well
*

c)About 1 metres below the bottom of well d) none of the above

1134. While collecting sample of water from tap the

a) Mouth of tap is heated for 5 minutes* b) Mouth of tap is heated for 10 minutes

c)Mouth of tap is not heated d)none of the above

1135. Demand of water for passengers on railway station is

a)10 litres per passenger b)15 litres per passenger

c) 20 litres for passenger d) 25 litres per passenger*

1136. Peak hour demand of water is taken as ---------- times the average daily demand

a)1.5 b)1.9

c)2.25* d)2.75

1137. The spacing of tube wells should generally be more than ----------from the circle of
influence

a)10 metre b)50 metre

c)100 metre* d) 500 metre

1138. The capacity of highest storage tank with efficient standby pump should be higher of the
following figures

i)1/4 the maximum water consumption in 24 hours

ii)1/3 the normal water consumption in 24 hours
iii)1/4 the normal water consumption in 24 hours.

a) i or ii* b) ii or iii

c)i of iii d) None of this

1139. With regard to standard of quality of drinking water as laid down by Indian Railway , the
requirement (desirable) limit of total dissolved solids should not be more than----------
mg/l

a)200 b) 300

c) 400 d) 500*

1140. Chandigarh is a city which has roads generally parallel or perpendicular to each other. The
ideal water supply system in such a city should be

a. Dead and system b. Grid Iron system*

c. Ring system d. Any of them

1141. Indication post for detonator should be provided at a distance of ---------meter and ---------
meter for BG level crossing

a) 400 meters in 800 meters b) 500 meters and 1200 meters

c) 600 meters and 1200 meter * d)600 meters and 1000 meters

1142. For protection of level crossing gate in an emergency on BG double line the Gateman
should place one detonator at one place and 3 detonators at a subsequent place at a
distance of ------- and------- meters respectively

a) 400 meters in 800 meters b) 500 meters and 1000 meters

c) 600 meters and 1200 meters* d) 800 meters in 1500 meters

1143. Periodical Census of traffic at unmanned level Crossings should be done once in

a) Once in 6 years b) Every year

c) Once in 3 years* d) Once in 5 years

1144. Level Crossing beyond the outermost stop signals is called

a) Engineering Gate* b) Traffic Gate

c) Engineering and Signal Gate d) Signal Gate

1145. On an unmanned level crossing stop board should be provided at a distance of ---------
from the centre of nearest track

a) 5 meters * b) 6 meters

c) 3 meters d) 7.5 meters

1146. Speed breaker has to be provided on road approaches of level crossing at maximum
feasible distance within Railway boundary but not exceeding

a) 10 meters b) 15 meters

c) 20 meters* d) 200 meters

1147. The rail joint should be located at ----------- from the end of level crossing

a) 2 meters b) 3 meters *

c) 5 meters d)6 meters

1148. The frequency of census at a level crossing having TVU between 75000 to 1 lakh will be
once

a) In 2 years b) In 3 years*

c) In 4 years d) Every year

1149. For Skew level crossings the angle of crossing should not be less than

a) 60 degree b) 45 degree

c) 30 degree d) 15 degree

1150. Minimum distance of gate post from centre line of nearest track on BG is

a) 2 meters b) 3 meters*
c) 4 meters d) 5 meters

1151. Minimum distance of duty hut from centre line of nearest track on BG is

a) 2 meters b) 3 meters

c) 4 meters d) 6 meters*

1152. Level crossing is classified on the basis of

a) Class of road b) TVU*

c) Volume of road traffic d) Volume of rail traffic

1153. The Assistant Divisional Engineer should inspect the equipment at every manned level
crossing on the subdivision once in

a) 2 months b) 3 months

c) 4 months d) 6 months*

1154. On Broad gauge tracks whistle indicator shall be provided at a distance of ----------
from level crossing along the track

a) 400 meters b) 600 meters*

c) 350 meters d) 500 meters

1155. On Broad Gauge tracks Banner flag at a level crossing shall be provided at a distance
of--- ---------- from ends of check rail before opening the gate for road traffic.

a) 5 meters* b) 3 meters

c) 6 meters d) 30 meters

1156. Fish plated joint shall be avoided in check raisl and on the running rails within---------
from the end of level crossing

a) 3 meters* b) 5 meters

c) 10 meters d) 12 meters

1157. Stop boards on either side of approaches of all unmanned level crossings shall be
provided at -------------from the centre line of nearest track.

a) 3meters b) 5 meters*

c) 6 meters d) 10 meters

1158. Speed breaker of approved design shall be provided on either side of level crossing at
------ within Railway boundary

a) 5 meters b) 15 meters

c) 20 meters* d)0 30 meters

1159. Minimum length of check rail for square crossing shall be -------- more than the width
of gate

a) 1 meters b) 2 meters*

c) 3 meters d) 5 meters
 1160. The minimum and maximum clearances of check rails at all BG level crossings shall be

a) 51 to 57 mm* b) 44 to 48 mm

c) 41 to 45 mm d) 55 to 70 mm

1161. Quantity of ballast/ m on concrete sleeper track with 300mm ballast cushion on
Straight                                                                                                                                     

a)        1.682 M3                                     b)         2.158 M3.

              c)        2.314 M3                                 d)         1.962M3

1162. For ballast supply on B.G. the maximum permitted aggregate abrasion value is    

              a)        10 %                            b)  20 %

             c)        30%                             d)  40%

1163. For ballast supply on B.G. the maximum permitted aggregate Impact value is

              a)       10 %                            b)  20 %

               c)       30%                             d)  40 %

1164. The permitted range of % retention on 40mm square mesh sieve in case of  machine
crushed ballast.                                                                                                     ]

              a) 10 - 20                                           b) 20 - 40

              c)  40 - 60                                          d)  60 - 80

1165. In case of ballast supply, if retention is 65 to 70% on 40mm square mesh sieve, how
much % of rate in contracted rate is reduced.                                                                

   a)      25 %                            b) 20 %

   c)      15 %                            d)  10%

1166. The minimum height of ballast stack permitted in plain terrain in meters                 

            a)         0.5                               b)  1

             c)        1.5                               d)  2

 1167.  Minimum  ballast quantity of each stack  permitted  is                                             

            a)         10 M3                          b) 20 M3

            c)         30 M3        d)  40M3                    

1168.  The% deduction for voids in shrinkage permitted on the gross measurement  in cess
collection for making payment in case of ballast supply                             

             a)        Nil                                b) 4 %

              c)        8 %                              d) 12 %

1169.  Can inadequate ballast depth affect maintenance of track                                                

            (a)        No, it has no concern           

(b)        No, but drainage will be affected

            (c)        Yes, but the effect will be marginal

            (d)        Yes, the formation pressure will increase

1170. Concrete Sleeper is a structural member which may fail due to -                            

            (a)        High compression stress

            (b)        High tensile stress

            (c)        High axial compressive prestressing stress

(d)Fatigue failure due to poor maintenance of fittings and depth of ballast.

1171. Proposal for through fastenings renewal should be initiated when    ]

(a)20% or more of sample size records toe load below 400 kg & confirmed by 5%
sample size

(b)20% or more of sample size records toe load below 600 kg out more than 400 kg.

(c)25% or more of sample size records toe load below 400 kg & confirmed by 5%
sample size.

(d)25% or more of sample size records toe load below 300 kg. & confirmed of 5%
sample size.
 1172.  If 20% or more of sample size of ERC records toe load below 600 kg., the frequency of
inspection and sample size shall be respective (for non-corrosion prone area)       

(a)Once in four years, 1% on every 100 sleepers

(b)Once in four years , 2% on every 700 sleepers

(c)Once in two years, 1% on every 100 sleepers.

(d)Once in two years, 2% on every 100 sleepers.

1173. While doing track renewal, minimum cushion to be ensured in a cutting is     

            (a)        150 mm             (b)        200 mm

            (c)        250 mm (d) Immaterial, being a solid base

1174.  When is a concrete sleeper due for next round of packing ?   

             (a)        After 1 year in service

             (b)        After 50 GMT Traffic has passed

           (c)        Before centre binding produced stresses are 40% of rail seat bottom stresses

            (d)        After two years or 100 GMT which ever is earlier.

1175.       Lubrication of ERCs shall be done in corrosion prone areas -             

            (a)        Every 3 months             (b)        Every year

            (c)        Once in 2 years             (d)        Once in 4 years

1176. As per Testing Criteria of Toe Load on ERCs, Which one of the following is correct 

            (a)        Testing be done at a frequency of 4 years or passage of 100 GMT

            (b)        In corrosion prone areas every year testing be done

            (c)        If 20% of results (verified by 5% sample) are less than 600 kg TFR proposal be
initiated

            (d)        TFR proposal be initiated if 20% of results (verified by 5% sample) are less
than 400 kg
 1178. Formation cross slope shall be 1 in                                                                            

    a)10                                     b)20

    c)30                                     d)40

1179. Overhauling of track is essential because it improves:                                             

(a) Longitudinal resistance of track   (b) load bearing capacity
( c) drainage.                                      (d) Longitudinal resistance of track  

1180.  The sieve size used for manual Deep screening in mm.              

         a)      10                                b)15

   c)      20                                d) 25

1181.  In through packing, ballast should be opened out on either side of rail seat to a depth
of

          a)15mm.                                          b)25mm.

   c) 35 mm.                                        d) 50 mm.

1182.   While doing slewing operation, angle between planted crow bar and vertical of rail
should not be more than                                                                                             

    a)     10                                b) 20

   c)      30                                d) 40

1183. Easement gradient at the time of passage of trains while doing lifting should not be
steeper  than

    a) 25 mm. per rail                                       b) 10 mm. per rail          

    c) 15 mm. per rail                                       d) 30 mm. per rail

1184. During deep screening, it should be ensured that when ballast is being removed from
any sleeper, invariably, there are at least ___________ fully supported sleepers
between it and the next sleeper worked upon.    

   a)      2                                  b) 4

   c)      6                                  d) 8

1185. The gap at Junction & combination fish plated joint should be                                 
   a) 6 mm.                                          b) 4 mm.

   c) 2 mm.                                          d) Zero

1186.  The gap at machined joint should be                                                                         

   a) 6 mm.                                          b) 4 mm.

   c) 2 mm.                                          d) Zero

1187.  The schedule of inspection of ADEN for manned level crossing is                          

   a)once a month                    b) once in two months

   c) once in three months       d) once in six months

1188.  The sections, which are normally to be patrolled during monsoon will be identified
and notified by                                                                                                         

   a) PWI                                  b)ADEN                              

   c) DEN                                 d) CE

1189.  The authority for introducing or continuing night patrolling outside the stipulated
dates, duly advising all concerned is                                                                                      

   a) Gang Mate                       b) PWS

   c) PWI                                  d) ADEN

1190.  Who will prepare patrol charts for each of the sections where monsoon patrolling is
required to be done.                                                                                                            
   a)      PWI                             b) ADEN

   c)      DEN                            d) CE

1191.  Patrolling in pairs can be introduced with the approval of                                         

   a)      PWI                             b) ADEN

   c)      DEN                            d) CE

1192. If a patrolman on the arrival at the end of his beat does not find the next patrolman,
then he  should                                                                                                             
                a) continue patrolling as per patrol chart. B) Continue further and report to the SM
               
c) Wait for him                                           c) Suspend the traffic

1193.The selected patrolman should pass…………test and then only should be employed.
            a)A-I                                                                b) A-III
            c)B-I                                                                d) Not necessary

1194.The PWI should submit a certificate to the DEN through AEN…………..in advance before
commencement of monsoon.                                                                                       
            a)one month                                                    b) 2 months
            c)6 months                                                      d) 1 year
1195. When no danger is apprehended, the patrolman should stand on the ___ on the left
hand side facing the train and exhibit his number plate.                                                 
            a)Middle of the Two lines                                b) Cess

            c)Under a Tree                                               d) Ballast

1196.The PWI overall Incharge shall cover his entire sub-division once in…….by train/push
trolly in night and check the patrolmen.       
                                                                  
  a) Fortnight                                                     b) a month
            c) a week                                                        d) a year
1197.The PWI should check the equipment of all patrolmen and watchman once in a      
            a)Fortnight                                                       b) a month
            c) a week                                                       d) a year

1198.The PWI incharge should check over patrolling at nights by train once a_________

            a)Fortnight                                                       b) a month

            c) a week                                                        d) a year         

1199. The Railway affecting tank which still requires heavy repairs, despite repeated
reminders of Railway, should be considered and included in the list of___ locations.      
               
            a)Vulnerable                                                    b) Bad
            c)Important                                                     d) Waste
1200. A list of vulnerable locations should be maintained by each ________in a register
form and updated.           
            a)AEN                                                 b) PWI
            c)DEN                                                d) HQ
1201.The …………will be responsible for instructing patrolmen in their duties and stationary
watchman to posses the correct equipment.                                                                       
           a) APWI                                                          b) AEN
            c) PWI in charge                                             d) DEN   
        
1202.In PQRS working, Auxiliary track should be laid at a gauge of                               
 a) 3400 mm                                       b) 1676 mm
            c) 5400 mm                                        d)  4400 mm
1203. There are………….no. of categories of Engineering works.                                    
              a)       1                                                                      b)         2
              c)       3                                                                      d)         4
1204. Works of “short duration” are those.
            a) Can complete one day                               b)To put Engg. Indicators
            c)Dose not require any SR                             d) Take prior permission from CRS

1205. For works of short duration, when train has to stop at worksite, then hand signals
shall be exhibited at _____, _____, and ______.m. in case of                                      
a)         30, 600, 1200                                                  b)         30, 400, 800
            c)         At spot, 400, 600                                             d)         at spot, 270,
540
1206. The flagman placing detonators should station himself at a distance not less
than………………m from the place of detonators.
            a)100                                                               b)45
            c)1200                                                             d)600

1207. The ……………..will be responsible for obtaining sanction of CRS and sending safety
certificate on completion.
            a)CPWI                                                           b)ADEN
            c)PCE                                                             d)DEN
 1208. In multi speed restrictions when s1 is less than s2, then minimum length of s1 zone
should be ………………m.
a)100                                                               b)200
            c)300                                                               d)400
1209. For intermediate tracks on triple or multiple lines, Engineering indicators shall be
fixed between tracks to within……………mm from rail level.
            a)100                                                               b)200
            c)300                                                               d)400
1210. Indicators shall be placed on the ………….side as seen by the Drivers except on CTC
sections          (Single line)
a) left                                                               b)right
            c)centrally                                                       d)oblique
1211. When works at times of poor visibility are to be undertaken and site is protected by
temporary engineering fixed signals……nos..detonators, 10m apart be fixed not less
than…………..m in rear of CI and a caution hand signal exhibited to approaching trains.
            a)3&600                                                          b) 2&270
            c)2&800                                                          d)3&1200
1212. Whistle Indicators should be provided at a distance of …………..m.
            a)500                                                               b)400
            c)600                                                               d)300
1213. The normal life of detonator is
            a) 10 years                                                      b) 5 years
            c) 15 years                                                      d) 7 years  
1214. The life of detonators can be extended to ……………….years on an yearly basis after
testing……………..detonators from each lot of over 7 years.
            a)         7&one                                                  b)         8 & two
            c)         10 & one                                              d)         10 & two

1215. The safety radius at the time of testing of detonators is ….m.                      
            a)10                                                                 b)20
            c)40                                                                 d)50

1216. The bottom most parts of CI, SI should be …………..m above R.L
            a)1                                                                   b)2
            c)1.5                                                                d)2.5
 1217. The bottom most part  of T/P & T/G should be ………………m above R.L. [    c     ]
            a)1.20                                                              b)1.55
            c)1.65                                                              d)2.00

1218. When more than one person holding competency certificate travels in a trolley, the
………………………………is responsible for its safe working.
           a) The Head Trolley man                                b) Trolley Holder
            c)The man who is manning the brakes          d) Higher official accompanying trolley
1219. The quantity of petrol in the tank of motor trolley should not exceed……liters while
loading into train as per G&SR
            a)3                                                                   b)5
            c)8                                                                   d)9

1220. In cuttings and high banks trolley refuges should be provided at …m intervals.      
            a)50                                                                 b)100
            c)150                                                               d)20
1221. The night signal for trolley/motor trolley/lorry on single line shall be…..               
            a)Both side Red                                              b) red on one side and green on the other
            c)both side green                                            d) one side white and otherside red
1222. Push Trollys shall be manned by atleast ……men.                                                  
            a)2                                                                   b)3
            c)4                                                                   d)5
1223. During night and at times of poor visibility the trolly shoul work under                     
            a)supervision of SM                                        b) Trolley memo
            c)following a train                                            d) Block Protection

1224. Protection of trollies with H.S. flags is required only when the visibility is less
than……………..m
            a)1200                                                             b)800
            c)600                                                               d)350
 1225. When two or more trollies are running together in the same direction in the sameline,
minimum separation required is ………m.                                                                                 
a)50                                                                 b)100
            c)150                                                               d)200
1226. When a motor trolly is worked with block protection, it should be manned by
atleast…………men
           a)2                                                                   b)3
            c)4                                                                   d)5

1227. Sample size for measurement of toe load of elastic clip is –                                    

(a)1% of ERCs randomly on every 100 sleepers

(b)2% of ERCs randomly on every 100 sleepers

(c)3% of ERCs randomly on every 100 sleepers

(d)0.5% of ERCs randomly on every 100 sleepers.

1228. When the lorry is required to remain stationery for more than…………..minutes in
Station   limits then it should be protected.
            a)5                                                                   b)10
            c)8                                                                   d)15
1229. Lorries working in gradients steeper than ………………..should be controlled by hand          
brakes   as well as by rope tied in rear.
            a)         1 in 200                                                                       b)         1 in 100
            c)         1 in 400                                                                       d)         1 in 300

1230. The check rail clearances in BG turnouts and L-Xings are

(a)44-48mm and 51-57 mm respectively
(b)38-41mm and 48-51 mm respectively
(c)48-51mm and 63-68 mm respectively
(d)63-68mm and 76-80mm respectively

1231.       While lifting the track on a gradient, the lifting should proceed -
(a)from downhill to uphill
(b)from uphill to downhill
(c)from both the ends towards a central meeting point
 (d)It does not matter.
1332. What is the minimum horizontal distance of a platform coping (goods or passenger)
from the adjacent track centre ?

            (a)        1670mm                                 (b)        1690mm

            ( c)        840mm                                   (d)        760mm

1333. What is the maximum distance apart of trolley refugees in tunnels                         
(a)30.5 mts.                             (b)50 mts.
(c)  80 mts.                            (d)100 mts.

1234.  What is the minimum height of the bottom of an ROB in AC traction area
from rail level
(a)5870                                  (b)5500
(c)5460                                    (d)5200

1235.  What is the minimum centre to centre on B.G. tracks in mid section ?                   

(a)4265mm                                       (b)1676mm

(c)4725mm                                          (d) 2350mm
1236. For all routes identified for running 22.1 axle load wagons, sleeper density of
           ___ nos./km must be aintained.                                                                                         
(a) 1560                                   (b) 1620
            (C )1660                                    (d) 1600

1237. Second hand 52 kg rails can be used on Group ____ routes.

            (a) A route                               (b) B route

            ©  D and E route                     (d) only C route

1238.  A sleeper density of ___ sleepers per km is a must on Shatabdi/Rajdhani routes.  

            (a) 1880                                   (b) 1760

            © 1660                                    (d) 1720

1239.  Life of rail not only depends upon the ___ but also on the maximum                       
            axle load moving over it.
            (a) Speed                                (b) GMT
            © Both speed and GMT          (d) Fastening
1240.  The width of ballast shoulder to be provided on the outside of the curve                 
            in case of LWR is provided on the reverse curve –

(a) 500mm                  (b)  550 mm   

(c)  600 mm    (d) 650 mm

1241.  SEJ to be provided from the abutment at a minimum distance away of -

(a)  10 m                     (b)  20 m        

(c)   30 m        (d)  40 m

1242. The minimum depth of bridge timber excluding notching for 80’ span as per RDSO’s
Drg.             No.  BA 11075 is -

(a)   150 mm   (b)   125 mm  

(c)        180 mm                       (d)        240 mm

1243. The maximum cant that can be provided on BG has to be                                        

(a)   150 mm   (b)   165 mm  

(c)        200 mm   (d)        240 mm

1244. The Recommended yard gradient for new lines in B.G.

(a) 1 in 200      (b)  1 in 400    

(c) 1 in 1000                      (d) 1 in 1200

1245. The formation is said to be very bad when  -

a)less than 6 attentions are given per year
b)6-12 attentions/year are given
c)More than 12 attentions/year are given
d)Formations are classified based on the TRC and OMS-2000 results.

1246. The regular greasing of ERC’s shall be done by -

(a)     keyman     (b)  gangs        

  (c)  contractor        (d) all the above

1247. 20 Kmph caution order is prevailing at a deep screening spot.  The caution 
indicator board should be fixed at a distance of _______meters from the work spot
as per IRPWM

(a)   400 m      (b)  600 m      

(c)   800 m      (d)  1200 m

1248. Existing 90 R rails can be allowed to continue in main line upto max.                       

             permissible speed of  -

(a)  100 Kmph     (b)    130 Kmph      

(c)   160 Kmph  2(d) 80 kmph

1249. In comparison with non-corrosion prone area, the frequency of toe load testing of ERC
in  corrosion prone area is  -

(a)   Doubled               (b)   Same      

(c)       Half         (d) No relaltion.

1250. 1 in 20 cross cant is not provided at -

(a)  SEJ       (b)  Derailing switch     

(c)   Buffer rails     (d) Points and Crossing.

1251. Gauge is measured ___________mm below rail table.

            (a)  10mm           (b)    13mm

(c)   15mm  (d) 18mm

1252. Sleeper spacing on a curve is the centre to centre distance between two consecutive
sleepers when measured at

(a)  Outer rail     (b)   Inner rail           

 (c)  Centre line of track    (d)average of all the above.

1253.  What is not marked in gang chart                                                                                  

(a)        Casual rail renewal                 (b)   Deep screening of track

(c)        Cleaning of side drains           (d)  Machine packing

1254.  Laying tolerance of sleeper spacing are                                                            

(a)   ± 20 mm          (b)     ± 2mm      

(c)        ±15mm            (d) ±10 mm                

1255.  Maximum permissible gradient on LWR is

            (a) 1in100        (b) 1 in 200     

(c) 1 in 300      (d) 1in400
1256.  Deficiency of ballast on LWR track during summer may result in                             
          (a) Creep           (b) Buckling    
(c) sinking       (d) cracking
1257. Most feasible parameter to judge the health of an LWR will be                                  
(a) gaps measured at the SEJs
(b) creep at measuring posts fixed at the ends of breathing lengths
 ( c) Creep at the measuring post fixed at the centre of LWR
(d) Creep at the middle of the breathing length
1258.  Hot whether patrolling is to be introduced in LWR territory                                         
(a) when the rail temperature goes beyond tm + 10
(b)When the rail temperature goes beyond td + 10
© When the rail temperature goes beyond td +20
(d) When the air temperatures goes beyond tm + 20

1259.  In PSC sleeper track what speed restriction should be imposed during consolidation
period on LWR when the temperature goes beyond td +20º when crib and shoulder
ballast compaction has been done.
(a)      15  Kmph                                 (b)          20 Kmph
 ( c)     30 Kmph                                  (d)         50 Kmph
1260.  The breathing length of an LWR exhibits movement of –                                           
(a)      rail sleeper frame                     (b)       rail alone
  ( c)    sleeper alone                             (d)       none of the above.
1261.   CWR is similar to an LWR except for –                                                                      
(a)its movement at the SEJ is different      
(b)it requires more careful attention       
(c)its distressing has to be done by splitting it into parts 
(d)always requires patrolling
1262.   The distressing temperature of a 52 kg rail is -
 (a)  tmto tm –5                        (b) tm to tm +5
©  tm + 5 to tm +10                   (d )  tm + 10 to tm +15.
1263.  Of the various types of thermometers, the most reliable and quick device               
           for rail temperature measurement is  –
(a)Black bulb thermometer               (b) rail embedded thermometer
©   dial type thermometer                   (d) the clinical thermometer.
1264.   Maintenance operations in a LWR should be restricted to a temperature range of – 
(a)  td + 10 to td – 30                           (b)  td + 5 to td – 25
©  td  to td – 20                                    (d)  td + 20 to td - 20.
1265. In other than concrete sleeper track, if the temperature rises above td+20oC  after  a
maintenance job, during the period of consolidation, when only manual ballast
compaction has been done,  SR to be imposed is –
(a)  50 km/h in BG and 40 km/h in MG          (b)  30 km/h in BG and 20 km/h in MG
©  75 km/h in BG and 50 km/h in MG            (d)  none of the above.
1266.   While doing deep screening in LWR territory, if the rail temperature is anticipated  to
rise above td+10oC, we should do the following  –
(a)  stop the work                                (b)  immediately cut the LWR
©  do a temporary destressing at a temperature of tmax – 10oC   (d) continue

1267.  While repairing a fracture in which a gap 'g' has been created and paint marks made
at a distance of 'a' and 'b'  from the fractured rail ends, the following relationship
should hold good if a closure rail piece of length 'L' is inserted –
(a)  a + b + 1 mm = L + (2 x 25mm)              (b)a + b + g + 1 mm = L + (2 x 25mm)
©  a + b - 1 mm = L + (2 x 25mm) – g           (d)  none of the above.
1268. While passing an LWR over a girder bridge the rail-sleeper fittings should be –        
 (a)  rail free type                                 (b)  rigid type
©  two way keys                                 (d)  elastic rail clips with effective toe load.
1269. The maximum span of a girder bridge with LWR in MG is  -
(a)  20m      (b)30m        
(c) 43m      (d)  depends upon bearing arrangements in the bridge.
1270.   The gap at SEJ at the time of laying / Subsequent distressing of LWR for a 52 kg Rail
section is                                                                                                                              
(a)  60 mm       (b)  40 mm       
(c) 20 mm         (d) 120 mm.
1271. Gap survey of an SWR has to be done -
(a) Just before the monsoon                 (b) just after the monsoon
©   before the onset of the summer season in Feb / March      (d) none of the above.

            1272.   Destressing by tensor has to be resorted to when –                                                   

(a)  labour force available is small                 

(b)  the blocks are not available
©  the prevailing temperature is less than td
(d)  a more sophisticated method has to be used.

1273.  Hot weather patrolman have a beat of –                                                                     

(a)  2 km on single line track              (b) 1 km of a single line track
© 2 km on a double line track             (d) not more than 5 km

1274. If the temperature rises above td+20oC,  hot weather patrolling can be started by –
(a)  DEN        (b)AEN            
(c) Keyman                 (d)  Gangmate.

                   

                                                                                                                            

1275. In a yard with LWR, for track circuiting make use of  -
(a)  insulated block joints                    (b)glued joints of G3L type
© cut the LWR into SWR                    (d)  none of the above.
1276. Gap at fracture in an LWR is more than the theoretical value. This is due to:
(a)  a sudden fall of temperature       
 (b)  the battering received from the moving wheels
© the longitudinal ballast resistance mobilised is less
(d)  the longitudinal ballast resistance mobilsed is more.
1277. The maximum curvature permitted for laying an LWR is –
(a)   4o Curve  (b) 2o Curve   
(c)   3o Curve  (d)  )   1o Curve

1278.  SEJs are inspected by the PW / APWI once -

(a)  every 15 days      

(b) every 7 days         
(c)  As desired by the AEN (Open Line).
(d)  every 15 days in the two hottest and two coldest months of the year and once
in 2 months from the remaining period
1279. Generally, while performing through packing manually on LWR, opening of sleepers is
limited to –
(a) alternate sleeper to be opened     
(b) upto 100 sleepers to be opened at a time
©  no restriction but the temperature restriction to be observed
(d)  only 30 sleepers to be opened within a temperature range of td + 10 and td -
30oC.

1280.  Permissible speed on 1 in 8.5 turnout with curved switch 52/60 kg on PSC sleepers

            (a)        10 kmph          (b) 15 kmph   

(c) 20 kmph    (d) 25 kmph

1281. Minimum and maximum rail temperatures at Bareilly shown in the map as 70 (30) will
be                                                                                                    
(a) –30 and + 30         (b) – 55 and + 35       
(c)  – 5 and 65      (d) 0 and 60.

1282.   While maintaining CST-9 track with LWR, it should be ensured that –                    
(a) requisite no. of reverse jaw sleepers are provided     
(b)reverse jaw sleepers are removed
©LWR cannot be laid on CST-9                                
(d) Constant patrolling of track is done.
 1283.  Emergency repairs to a buckled track involve -
(a) Slewing track to original position
(b)  Machine cut a rail piece out of track and slew back the track
© Gas cut and slew back to original alignment
(d)  Wait for temperature to go down before slewing back track to original  position.

1284.   At an SEJ theoretical calculations of movement of one LWR end indicates an Expansion of
4 mm and a contraction of 3 mm during rising and falling temperature
trends, Respectively,  If the standard gap at td is 20mm what range of gap is permissible
as per LWR manual –

(a) 23mm to 16mm     (b) 33mm to 6mm      

(c) 3mm to 4mm         (d) None of the above.

1285. Formation is classified on “very bad” when number of attention received in a year are
more than                                                                                                                            

  (a) 6                (b)  8               

(c)    10           (d) 12

1286.   Maximum permissible vertical wear on wing rail or nose of crossing shall be     
(a) 10mm        (b)   5 mm                  
(c)    15 mm   (d)  20 mm

1287.    SEJ can be laid on transition curve with degree not sharper than -
(a) 1°   (b)0.5°
(c)2°    (d)  SEJ shall not be located on transition.
1288.   OMS equipment measures                                                                                         
(a)  Ride Index   (b) CTR    
(c) TGI   (d)   Performance index
1289.   The competency certificate for LWR maintenance is issued by                                
          (a) DEN             (b)AEN           
(c) PWI            (d) PCE

1290.    For checking correct curvature of tongue rail, ordinates should be measured         

(a)        at every 3m        

(b)   at mid point of the tongue rail

 (c)        at mid point and quarter points of the tongue rail

(d)        at every 20 m

1291.     On a fan-shaped lay-out same sleepers can be used for a right hand T/O and left hand T/O.
For this purpose                                                                                                          

(a) right end of the sleepers should remain on right side

(b) right end of the sleepers should be brought towards the left side by rotating the sleepers

©  sleepers in the switch should remain as it is but those in the lead should be rotated to
bring the right end to the left side

1292.    Recommended throw of switch on BG is                                                                  

    (a)95mm           (b) 105mm     

(c) 110mm      (d) 115mm.
1293.  Behind the heel of a switch spherical washers should be fitted on left hand side towards
_____surface.
            (a)vertical        (b) inclined     
(c)gauge          (d) horizontal
1294.    Chord length for measuring lead curvature of a turn-out is

           (a)  3m             (b)  4m                       

(c) 6m             (d) 9m.

1295.   As per the provisions of IRPWM, the gauge just ahead of actual toe switch shall  be _______
for switch entry angle (SEA)   020’0” and ________ for SEA  >
020’0”                                                                                                           

(a)+6mm,  Neat          (b) Neat,  +6mm        

(c) Neat, Neat      (d) +6mm, +6mm

1296.     Frequency  of   inspection  of  Points  &  Crossings  on   running   lines by a PWI incharge &
his Assistant is once in _____ in rotation                                                                    
          (a) month          (b) two months           
(c) 3 months    (d)  4 months
1297.    Max. permissible speed on 1 in 8 ½ curved  switch  is ___ kmph and that on 1 in 12 curved
switch is ___ kmph.                                                                                                 
            (a)15&30         (b) 30&15       
 (c) 15&25        (d) 30&50  

1298.     Maximum permissible wear on nose of crossing, wing rail is ___                            

            (a)4mm           (b) 6mm        

(c) 8mm          (d) 10mm

1299.     The maximum permissible value for cant deficiency is _________ mm                 
           on group ‘A’ route with nominated rolling stock. 
            (a)50mm         (b)75mm        
©100mm         (d)125mm
1300. The  maximum  permissible value for actual cant, cant  deficiency  and  cant       
           excess  is ___ , ___, __ and mm respectively for BG, group ‘E’ route.
            (a)100,50,50    (b)165,75,75   
©  140,65,65   (d) 180,100,100
1301.     The maximum in built twist on a transition curve is ____mm/meter   for BG.

            (a)1.4mm/m    (b)2.8mm/m   

©3.6mm/m      (d)4.2mm/m

1302.     Frequency of inspection of a curve by  PWI  in BG group-A routes is once in        
            (a)3 months     (b)4 months    

(c) 5 months    (d) 6 months

1303.     Extra shoulder width of ballast on curve double line in LWR is -

            (a) 200mm      (b) 300mm     

©  400mm       (d) 500mm

1304.     On wooden sleeper track, the number of spikes/under each rail seat on the outside of a
curve is
           (a)Zero                        (b)One            
( c) Two                       (d)Three

1305.     Station to station versine variation permitted for 110 kmph speed is   __mm.
            (a)15mm         (b)10mm        
 ©20mm           (d)40mm

1306.     Flat tyre causes maximum damage at a speed of                                        

(a)90 to 100 kmph      (b)25 to 30 kmph     

(c)10 to 15 kmph (d) 50 to 75 kmph

1307.     As per IRCA rules, the rejection limits for wheel flange thickness is –         

(a)        38 mm (b)        25.4mm          

(c)        16 mm  (d) 20mm

1308.     The standard play on B.G. is                                                                       

(a)        25 mm (b)        19 mm

(c)        20 mm (d) 15mm

1309.     Emergency crossovers should be                                                                 

(a)        lubricated on the gauge faces to reduce derailment proneness

(b)        lubricated on the rail table to reduce derailment proneness

(c)        lubricated on the gauge tie plates to reduce derailment proneness

(d)        Lubricated on non gauge face to reduce derailment proneness

1310.      Track Geometry to be achieved after track maintenance should be better than

(a) New Track Tolerance    (b) Maintenance Tolerance 

(c) Service Tolerance               (d) Safety tolerance

1311.     TGI can not assume the following value -

            (a) Less than 100        (b) Less than 50  

(c) Less than 0  (d)   Less than 25

1312.     Radius of a 5˚ curve is

            (a) 1750           (b) 875

(c) 350    (d) 550  

1313.     The suffix with track category A, B, C etc. pertains to number of peaks     

            exceeding the outer limit of which category                                                  

            (a) ‘A’ Category      (b) ‘B’ Category    

(c)  ‘C’ Category      (d) ‘D’ Category

1314.   Acceleration peaks exceeding following is taken for track quality                 

          assessment on BG high speed routes.

            (a) 0.2g                        (b) 0.15g         

(c) 0.35 g         (d) 0.3g           

1315.     Which Index is based on SD Values –                                                          

            (a) CTR           (b) A, B, C categorisation      

(c) TGI  (d) OMS 

1316.     Track is classified as ‘Very Good’ if the average no.of total vertical and lateral acceleration
peaks/Km on High speed routes is –                             

            (a)>1.0                       (b) <1.0                      

(c) <1.5           (d) <2.0      

    

1317.   Urgent attention is required at all locations where vertical & lateral  acceleration peaks
exceed

            (a) 0.2g            (b) 0.15g         

(c) .30g            (d) 0.35g         

1318.     If the average number of peaks of vertical and lateral accelerations exceeding 0.3g is more
than____per km. Or more than____ in any particular km.,the track will need
attention.                                                                                                                                      
             (a) 1 &1           (b) 0.5 & 1      

(c) 0.25 & 1     (d) 0.25 & 2

1319.     Need for urgent maintenance of track, arises when the value of individual indices different
parameters of TGI is less than                                                                      

(a) 100              (b) 75              

(c) 50               (d) 35  

            1320.     Frequency of overhauling of a level crossing is once a _______                 

            (a) year           (b) two year                
© six months               (d) three

            1321.   Height gauges should be located at a minimum distance of ___ m from the gatepost     
            (a) 6                 (b)8                 
©10                 (d)20
            1322.     Frequency of census at a level crossing where TVU is  between 75,000 to 1,00,000 will be
___years.
            (a) 1                 (b)1 ½            
(c)2                  (d)2 1/2        
   
1323.    In skew level crossings, the angle of crossing should not  be less than _______0
            (a)20                (b)30               
©40                 (d)45                  

1324.  Drivers of trains shall get no light indication except at -------- level crossings where they will observe red
lights when the gates are closed across  the railway line and are open for road traffic.
(a)Special        (b)A class       
©B class          (d) C class

1325. Level crossings beyond the ____________signals shall be under  the control of the Permanent
Way Inspectors both as regards to their operation and maintenance.
(a) Home         (b)LSS
©Outermost Stop        (d) Starter
 1326.     A gateman should have certificate of fitness of Class _____from Medical Department.    
(a)A-I               (b)A-III
©B-I                (d)B-II
1327.     At night the gateman should  lit ____nos. hand signal lamps.
            (a) 2                 (b)1                 
© nil                 (d)3
1328.    The minimum clearance of check rails at a level crossing should be ____mm
 (a) 41                          (b 51               

© 61               (d) 31

1329.     For level crossing with PSC sleepers, in no case opening be  delayed by more than ___ years.
(a)half              (b)one             
© one and half            (d)Two
           
1330.      As per IRPWM one speed breaker should be provided    on either approach of level crossing
located within the railway boundary at a distance maximum feasible but not exceeding
______ m.
(a)5                  (b)10               
©20                (d)30
           
1331.      There should be no rail joint on running rails for a distance of _____m on either side at a
level crossing in SWR
(a)1                  (b)2                 
© 3                 (d) 6

1332.      Minimum number of gate keepers on ‘B’ class level  crossing should be __________
(a) 1                 (b) 2                
© 3                 (d) 4
1333.     Whistle indicator board on the approaches of unmanned level crossings should be provided
at a distance of

            (a) 200m         (b)  400 m      

(c)        600 m              (d)   800 m

 1334.     At the close of tamping work in mechanised maintenance P.Way Manual prescribes a ramp
gentler than

(a)        1 in 100           b)         1 in 500          

(c)        1 in 1000   (d) 1 in 720

1335.     Hot weather patrolling in LWR/CWR shall be introduced when temperature is       

            (a) td + 10˚ or above    (b) td + 20˚ or above  

(c) td + 30˚ or above  (d) td + 50˚ or above

1336.     Formation slope is 1 in _________                                                    

(a)10                (b)20   
©30                (d)40
1337.    Name the equipment that can be effectively used to warn  the driver of an approaching train
on a track fouled by a derailed train on an adjacent track _____________                            
(a)Flare signal (b)Detonator   
©Red flag                  (d)Red lamp

1338. What distance from a danger location should   3-detonators be fixed on BG?
(a) 270 mtrs.               (b) 600 mtrs   
© 800 mtrs.                (d)1200 mtrs  

1339.     During deep screening, it should be ensured that when ballast    is being removed from any
sleeper, invariably, there are at least  ___ fully supported    sleepers between it and the next
sleeper  worked upon.
(a)1                  (b)2     
©3                  (d)4
1340.    The sections, which are normally to be patrolled during   monsoon will be identified and notified by
the ___________
(a)PWI             (b)ADEN        
©DEN            (d)CTE           
1341.     Who is authorized level of supervisor for deep screening works in LWR works      
  (a)PWM                     (b)PWI  
(C) Mate     (d) Keyman
1342.    After emergency repairs to fracture in LWR Track, the first train has to pass at a speed of
  (a) Stop Dead & 10 kmph    (b) Stop Dead & 20 kmph    
(c) 20 kmph    (d) 30 kmph

1343.     CWR/LWR shall not be laid as curves sharper than __________m radius both  For BG and MG track
 (a) 440 m      (b) 340m  
(C) 240m    (d) 140m
1344      Clearance between Guard rail and Running rail on bridges in case of BG track      
            (a) 250 + 50 mm     (b) 200 +25 mm
(c)  150 + 25 mm        (d) 25 + 25 mm                
1345.     The PWI should submit a certificate to the DEN through    AEN _______ in advance before
commencement of monsoon.
(a)1 month      (b) 2 months     
© 3 months               (d) 4 months           
1346.     The PWI should check the equipment of all patrolmen and   watchmen once in a ____________
(a)1 month      (b) 2 months     
© 3 months               (d) 4 months   
1347.     The PWI incharge should check over patrolling at nights   by train once a __________
(a)1 month      (b) 2 months     
© 3 months               (d) 4 months   
1348.     The ____will be responsible for instructing patrolmen      in their duties and ____will be responsible
to ensure that the  patrolmen and stationary watchmen posses the correct equipment.
(a)PWI and MATE      (b)ADEN & PWI         
© DEN & AEN            (d) CTE&DEN

1349. Overhang beyond the last lifting/ slinging point while   lifting 90 UTS rails should not exceed __ m. 
(a)2.5               (b) 3.0             
© 3.25            (d)3.5  
1350.    After ignition of ‘portion’ in AT welding, efforts should be     made to follow a tapping time of very
near to ____ sec.
(a)10                (b)20               
©30                 (d)40

1351.    Class ‘C’ ODC is one where net clearance available is less     than _________mm.
 (a) 75               (b)100             
( c) 125                        (d) 150
1352.    For spans more than 6.1m, rail joints should preferably  be provided at ____ of span from either end.
(a)full length                (b)half             
©1/3rd  (d)2/3rd.
1353. Length of bridge timbers should be distance of outside to outside girder flanges plus _______ mm
but not less than _________mm for B.G.
(a)205 &2340  (b)305&2440              
© 405&2220                (d)505&1320  

1354.     The clear distance between bridge timbers at joints   should not exceed __mm both B.G and M.G. is
(a)100              (b)450             
©200               (d)50
1355.     The top table of the guard rail should not be lower than that of  the running rail by more
than_________mm.
(a)10                (b)15               
©20                 (d)25
1356.    On the bridge approaches, for a length of about ______mtrs.      the width of cess should be ____ cm
clear of full ballast section.
(a)50 &100                  (b)100  &90     
©150&120                   (d)120&60

1357.    Permissible amount of creep on BG track                                         

            (a) 100 mm                 (b)   150 mm  

(c)  200 mm    (d) 250 mm

1358.     Any deviations from the dimensions of Schedule I will require      prior sanction of  _______
(a) RDSO                    (b) PCE                      

© RB               (d) CTE

1359.     In tunnels, through and semi-through girder bridges, the minimum  distance centre to   centre of
tracks for B.G. shall be ____mm
(a)4495                        (b)4725                       
 ©4265             (d)1676          
1360.     The maximum gradient in station yards BG should be __________ unless special safety   devices are
adopted and/or special rules enforced.
(a)1in260                     (b)1in400                    
©1in1000                     (d)1in1200     
1361.    The recommended minimum distance centre to centre of track BG is    _____m, for B.G.
(a)4265                        (b)4725           
©5300             (d)1676           
1362.    For B.G, the minimum radius of a curve is ____________m.                       
(a)350              (b)275             
©200               (d)175
1363.    The recommended minimum widths of embankment for     B.G. single line is _______mm 
(a)5300                        (b)6850                       

©6250             (d)4725  

1364.    The recommended minimum widths of embankment for     B.G. double line is ____________ mm
(a) 4495                       (b)12155                     
© 4265                        (d)1676                       
1365.    The recommended minimum widths of cutting  for B.G. Single line             
(a) 4495                       (b)12550                     
© 6250                        (d)1676
1366.     The recommended minimum widths of cutting  for B.G. double line                       
(a)4495                        (b)11550                     
©4265             (d)1676           
1367.     Check rails should normally be provided where the radius is ______m or less in B.G.
(a)158              (b)258             
©318               (d)218 
1368.   On B.G., minimum and maximum clearances of check rails at  a level crossing are _________mm &
___________mm respectively.
(a)44 &48                    (b) 51 & 57                 
© 41 &45         (d) 48 &54      
1369.     Minimum depth of space for wheel flange from rail level in B.G. is _________mm.
(a)18                (b)28.5            
©38     (d)44   
1370.     For buildings and structures on B.G., the minimum horizontal     distance from centre of  track to any
structure from rail level to 305 mm above rail level is __________mm.
(a) 1540           (b) 1675                      
© 1905                        (d)1690
1371.     For buildings and structures on B.G., the minimum horizontal  distance from centre of  track to any
structure from rail level to 305 mm above rail level is __________mm for new works or alterations
to existing works.
(a) 1540           (b) 1675                      
© 1905            (d)1690           
1372.    Minimum distance of any telegraph post measured from the center of track  and at right angles to
the nearest track excluding the height of postis _________ mm for B.G.
(a) 1540           (b) 1675                      
© 1905            (d)2135         
1373.    Minimum height above rail level for a distance of 915 mm on  either side of the  centre of track for
B.G. for overhead structures is____ mm.
(a) 4540           (b) 4875                      
© 5905            (d)4690           
1374.      For B.G., maximum height above rail level of any part of   interlocking or signal gear  for a width of
1600 mm is __________mm.
(a) 95   (b) 85              
© 75    (d)65
1375.   The maximum and minimum horizontal distances from centre of track   to face of   passenger
platform coping for B.G. are ________ mm & ________   mm respectively.
(a) 1540 &1500           (b) 1680 &1670          
© 1905 &1675 (d)1690 &1575
1376.    ______mm & _______mm are the maximum and     minimum   distances from  centre of track to the
face of goods platform coping for B.G.
(a) 1540 &1500           (b) 1905 &1675          
© 1680 &1670 (d)1690 &1575    
       
1377.    The maximum and minimum distances from center of track to  the face of any platform wall are
___________mm & ____________mm respectively.
(a) 1540 &1500           (b) 1905 &1675          
© 1680 &1670 (d)1690 &1575
1378.     Maximum and minimum heights above rail level for B.G. high level   passenger    platforms are
__________ mm & ___________ mm.
(a) 840 &760               (b) 950 &1050
© 1680 &1670 (d)1690 &1575           
1379.   The maximum height above rail level for B.G. goods platforms is _____mm  
(a) 1500           (b) 1200          
© 1065            (d)1690
1380.    The minimum horizontal distance of any building on B.G.  passenger platforms  from centre line of
track, from platform level to 305mm above platform  level is
(a) 5540mm   
(b) 5180
© 5180mm gradually increasing uniformly to 5330mm 
(d)5330 gradually decreasing to 5180          
1381. The minimum horizontal distance from centre line of track to pillar, column, lamp or  similar
isolated structure on a passenger platform or any           building on a goods  platform from
platform level to 305mm above platform level  for       B.G_________ mm.
(a)4570mm increasing uniformly to 4720mm   
(b)4720mm decreasing uniformly to 4570mm
©4570 mm.          
(d)4720 mm.  
1382. A pillar or column which has more than ___________cm2 in plan for   B.G. must be     classed
building and not as isolated structure.
(a) 1550           (b) 1915          
© 3716            (d)2560
1383.     The clear distance between consecutive sleepers laid over unballasted bridge on BG should not
exceed_____________ 

(a)510 mm      (b)650 mm     

(c)450mm       (d)150

1384.     The width of BG wooden sleeper over bridge should be ___________mm 

(a)180 mm                  (b)210 mm                 

( c)   250 mm   (d) 300 mm

1385.     Vertical curves are introduced when the algebraic difference between two   grades  becomes equal
to or more than _______%
 a)         0.04                 b)         0.40                

c)         4.00  (d) 0.20

1386.   In single line CST-9 sleeper track, the keys are to be driven in the direction 

a) Along the traffic                

b) Against the traffic

c) Opposite to each other on alternate sleepers 

d) Three sleepers in one direction and fourth in opposite direction

1387.     In need based system of USFD testing, rail with IMR defect should be   replaced within

a)   10 days                 b)   5 days                  

c)  3 days  (d) 7 days

1388.     In BG track, the opening of road for through packing should be done from end of sleeper to a
distance of ______ inside the rail seat

a) 450 mm                     b) 350mm                

c) 250mm   (d) 150mm

1389.     In case of mass lubrication by gangs, the minimum level of supervision should be

a) PWay Supervisor   b) APWI         

c) Gang Mate  d) CPWI

1390.     Toe Load should be tested for ERC in other than corrosion prone areas for every

a) 2 years or after passage of 100 GMT of traffic whichever is earlier

b) 4 years or after passage of 200 GMT of traffic whichever is earlier

c) None of the above.

1391.     The minimum depth of ballast cushion for SWR track is                             

a)   150mm                 b)   200 mm                  

c) 250mm   (d) 300 mm

1392.       In a turnout, the turnout side stock rail should be given a bend at              

a)  Actual Toe of Switch                     b) Heel of Switch        

© Theoretical Toe Switch    (d) SRJ

1393.     The work that requires CRS sanction is                                                                    

(a)   Alteration in main line turnouts

b)   Permanent diversion of 1 km length with station

c)  All the above

1394.      IR Designation of a curve is done by                                                                       

a) degree b) radius

c) degree or radius d) Curvature

1395.     Degree of a curve of radius 1750m                                                              

  a) 1.25     b) 1      

c) 2    c) 0.5 

1396.     Dynamic gauge for BG                                                                                             

a)1750mm     b) 1776 mm             

c)1676mm                      d)   1057mm

1397.     The difference between actual cant provided on track and the cant calculated corresponding to
minimum speed in the section

a)cant deficiency b)cant excess  

c)rate of change of cant d)  equilibrium cant

1398.     Maximum permissible cant deficiency on BG Group D route is                  

 a) 100mm.                  b) 65mm                    

c)   75mm     d) 50 mm                                     

1399.     Cant gradient is                                                                                              

a) actual cant/cant deficiency b) actual cant / transition length

c) actual cant/cant excess d) actual cant / length of a curve

1400.    The compensation for curve when added to the Existing gradient should not exceed
the______                                                                                                  

            (a) Falling gradient      (b) Rising gradient      

(c) Ruling gradient  (d) Exceptional gradient

1401.Recommended center to center distance of tracks for new lines_______     

(a) 7265mm    (b)4265mm    

©5300mm       (d)4725mm
1402.Minimum radius of curve___________mtrs.                                                     
(a) 175             (b) 200
© 225  (d)250

1403. Maximum clearance of check rail at level crossing___________                    

(a) 44mm        (b) 51mm       

© 48mm          (d)57mm

1404. Minimum horizontal distances, Telegraph posts measured from the center of track and at right angles
to the nearest track is Ht. of Telegraph post__mm

(a)1635            (b) 1915            © 1675             (d)2135

1405. The maximum distance apart from refuges in the tunnel_______mtrs.

(a) 125             (b) 80  
© 100  (d) 50

1406. Maximum gradient of the station yard 1 in __________                                   

(a) 1200           (b) 400

 © 100  (d)500

1407. Recommended gradient in station yard_________________________

(a) 1200           (b) 400

© 100  (d)500

1408. Horizontal distance from center of track to place of any platform wall Minimum _______mm. and
Maximum______________mm            

(a) 1600,1800  (b) 1675,1905 

© 1905,1670   (d)1670,1680

1409. The Maximum height above the rail level for high level platform_________________                    

(a) 760mm      (b) 1000mm   

© 900mm        (d)840mm

1410. Minimum check rail clearance opposite nose of crossing is      ]

(a) 57mm        (b) 44mm       

© 48mm          (d)51mm

1411. Maximum check rail clearance opposite nose of crossing__________

(a) 57mm        (b) 44mm       

© 48mm          (d)51mm

1412. Minimum length of tongue rail ________________                                                                                            

(a) 1200m       (b)1425mm    

© 3200mm      (d)3660mm

1413. Rail dolly shall not work where gradient is steeper than________       

     (a) 1 in 400 (b)1 in 200

(c)1 in 100 (d) 1 in 300

1414.Minimum no. of men required for working of Trolleys   

        (a) 1                      (b) 2                

(c) 3                 (d) 4

1415. Tolerance for head finishing on side at welding with 10 cm. straight edge

(a)+-0.1mm        (b)+0.3mm.    

(c)-0.3mm (d) +-0.3mm  

1416. Preheating time for AT welding by SKV process is in minutes for 60kg.(90UTS)    rails                    

       (a)6-8                   (b)8-10                       

(c)10-12                      (d)4-6

1417. Frequency of refresher course for keyman/ Mate/PWM is once in

       (a) 2 years            (b)6 years       

(c)8 years                    (d) 5 years                 

1418. When more than one track machine is running in a block section, there should be a   minimum
distance of ________ m between two units.                                   

      (a) 120m               (b)160m                     

(c)200m                      (d)220m

1419. Lubrication of ERCs should be done once in a _________in corrosion prone area. 

      (a)4 years              (b)3 years                   

(c)2 years                    (d) year

1420. Metal lines are used in track circuit areas with PSC track                 

       (a) True                (b) False          (c) irrelevant

1421. Medical category of LC gateman is                              

       (a) A1                   (b)A2              

(c)A3               (d)B1

1422. Speed restriction on the fourth day after Deep screening  manually in BG line                   
         (a) 30 Kmph                    (b)20 Kmph                

(c)45 Kmph                 (d)50 Kmph

1423. Limiting lateral wear for rail renewal in `A’ route curved track  

        (a) 6mm              (b) 7mm                     

(c) 4mm                      (d) 8mm

1424. The limit for vertical wear for 60 kg. rail is                                            

        (a) 4.5mm                       (b)5.0mm                   

(c) 8.0mm                   (d)13.0mm