2017-2018 - Co Dap An

BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Họ, tên thí sinh: ..................................................................... Mã đề thi 401

Số báo danh: ..........................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 1: Silas is talking to his roommate, Salah, about the Olympic Games.
- Silas: "Do you think our country can host the Olympic Games some day in the future?"
- Salah: "______. We can't afford such a big event."
A. You can say that again B. I can't agree with you more
C. Yes, you're right D. No, I don't think so
Question 2: Laura is telling Bob about her exam results.
- Laura: "______"
- Bob: "That's great. Congratulations!"
A. I hope I'll pass the exam tomorrow. B. I've passed the exam with an A.
C. I'll get the exam results tomorrow. D. I didn't do well in the exam.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 3: Thanks to highly sophisticated technology, scientists have made many important
discoveries in different fields.
A. accessible B. confusing C. effective D. advanced
Question 4: It is firmly believed that books are a primary means for disseminating knowledge and information.
A. classifying B. distributing C. adopting D. inventing
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
Question 5: With price increases on most necessities, many people have to tighten their belt for fear of
getting into financial difficulties.
A. dress in loose clothes B. spend money freely
C. save on daily expenses D. put on tighter belts
Question 6: Today the number of start-ups in Vietnam is mounting as the government has created
favourable conditions for them to develop their business.
A. peaking B. varying C. decreasing D. rising
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 7: A. delays B. begins C. attracts D. believes
Question 8: A. head B. bean C. meal D. team
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 9: A. sympathy B. poverty C. equipment D. character
Question 10: A. intend B. install C. follow D. decide
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 11: It ______ to reason that Jason passed the exam with flying colours on account of his
working hard during the term.
A. comes B. gets C. stands D. lays
Question 12: Our father suggested ______ to Da Nang for this summer holiday.
A. to going B. going C. go D. to go
Question 13: The patients ______ with the new drug showed better signs of recovery than those
receiving conventional medicine.
A. treated B. having treated C. treating D. who treated
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Question 14: Only after she ______ from a severe illness did she realise the importance of good health.
A. would recover B. has recovered C. had recovered D. was recovering
Question 15: Several measures have been proposed to ______ the problem of unemployment among
university graduates.
A. pose B. admit C. address D. create
Question 16: There is no excuse for your late submission! You ______ the report by last Friday.
A. mightn't have finished B. should have finished
C. needn't have finished D. must have finished
Question 17: The presenter started his speech with a few ______ jokes to build rapport with the
audience.
A. whole-hearted B. light-hearted C. soft-hearted D. kind-hearted
Question 18: It is advisable that the apprentice should be ______ to learn the ins and outs of the new job.
A. permissive B. noticeable C. acceptable D. observant
Question 19: Mary rarely uses social networks, ______?
A. isn't she B. does she C. doesn't she D. is she
Question 20: Candidates are advised to dress formally to make a good ______ on job interviewers.
A. impress B. impressively C. impression D. impressive
Question 21: If Martin were here now, he ______ us to solve this difficult problem.
A. would help B. helps C. will help D. has helped
Question 22: You shouldn't lose heart; success often comes to those who are not ______ by failures.
A. left out B. put off C. switched off D. turned on
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 23: It concerns many sociologists that inadequate parents skills may lead to an increase
A B
in the number of incidents of juvenile delinquency.
C D
Question 24: It is the ASEAN Para Games that disabled athletes have an opportunity to have
A B C
their talents and efforts recognised.
D
Question 25: Teenagers is greatly influenced by not only their parents but also their peers.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 26: I find it useful to join the sports club.
A. Joining the sports club is not useful for me. B. It is useful for me to join the sports club.
C. I used to join the sports club. D. I never like joining the sports club.
Question 27: It is believed that modern farming methods have greatly improved farmers' lives.
A. Farmers are believed to have enjoyed a much better life thanks to modern farming methods.
B. Modern farming methods were believed to have greatly improved farmers' lives.
C. Modern farming methods are believed to have had negative effects on farmers' lives.
D. People believe that there is little improvement in farmers' lives thanks to modern farming methods.
Question 28: "Would you like to go to the show with me?" Anna said to Bella.
A. Anna reminded Bella to go to the show with her. B. Anna persuaded Bella to go to the show with her.
C. Anna encouraged Bella to go to the show with her. D. Anna invited Bella to go to the show with her.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29: Mary left home to start an independent life. She realised how much her family meant to her.
A. Only when Mary realised how much her family meant to her did she leave home to start an independent life.
B. To realise how much her family meant to her, Mary decided to leave home to start an independent life.
C. Not until Mary had left home to start an independent life did she realise how much her family
meant to her.
D. Mary left home to start an independent life with a view to realising how much her family meant to her.
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Question 30: Kate completed her higher education. She then decided to travel the world before
getting a job.
A. Without completing her higher education, Kate decided to travel the world before getting a job.
B. Given that Kate decided to travel the world before getting a job, she completed her higher education.
C. Having completed her higher education, Kate decided to travel the world before getting a job.
D. Kate had scarcely travelled the world before getting a job when she completed her higher education.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
Urban development is having a direct impact on the weather in many cities worldwide. It has been
noticed that the difference (31) in temperature is usually greater at night and the phenomenon occurs in
both winter and summer. Experts agree that this is due to urban development, when open green spaces
are replaced with asphalt roads and tall brick or concrete buildings. These materials retain heat
generated by the Sun and release it through the night. In Atlanta, in the US, this has even led to
thunderstorms (32) which occur in the morning rather than, as is more common, in the afternoon.
Large cities around the world are adopting strategies to combat this issue (33) and it is not
uncommon to find plants growing on top of roofs or down the walls of large buildings. In Singapore,
the government has (34)_pledged to transform it into a "city within a garden" and, in 2006, they held an
international competition calling for entries to develop a master plan to help bring this about. One
outcome was the creation of 18 "Supertrees" – metal constructions resembling very tall trees. Each one
is a vertical freestanding garden and is (35)_home to exotic plants and ferns. They also contain
solar panels used to light the trees at night and also containers to collect rainwater, making them truly self-
sufficient.(Adapted from "The Official Cambridge Guide to IELTS" by Pauline Cullen, Amanda French and Vanessa Jakeman)
Question 31: A. on B. with C. in D. out
Question 32: A. when B. which C. what D. where
Question 33: A. or B. for C. and D. but
Question 34: A. pledged B. committed C. confessed D. required
Question 35: A. home B. house C. land D. place
correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
A letter of application is a sales letter in which you are both salesperson and product, for the
purpose of an application is to attract an employer's attention and persuade him or her to grant you an
interview. To do this, the letter presents what you can offer the employer, rather than what you want
from the job.
Like a résumé, the letter of application is a sample of your work and an opportunity to demonstrate
your skills and personality. If it is written with flair and understanding and prepared with professional
care, it is likely to be very effective. While the résumé must be factual, objective, and brief, the letter is
your chance to interpret and expand. It should state explicitly how your background relates to the
specific job, and it should emphasise your strongest and most relevant characteristics. The letter should
demonstrate that you know both yourself and the company.
The letter of application must communicate your ambition and enthusiasm. Yet it must be modest.
It should be neither aggressive nor compliant: neither pat yourself on the back nor ask for sympathy. It
should never express dissatisfaction with the present or former job or employer. And you should avoid
discussing your reasons for leaving your last job.
Finally, it is best that you not broach the subject on salary. Indeed, even if a job advertisement
requires that you mention your salary requirements, it is advisable simply to call them "negotiable."
However, when you go on an interview, you should be prepared to mention a salary range. For this
reason, you should investigate both your field and, if possible, the particular company. You don't want
to ask for less than you deserve or more than is reasonable.
(Adapted from "Select Readings - Intermediate" by Linda Lee and Erik Gundersen)
Question 36: What is the passage mainly about?
A. Advice on how to find a good job
B. Things to avoid during a job interview
C. Tips for writing an effective letter of application
D. Differences between a résumé and a letter of application
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Question 37: According to paragraph 1, in a letter of application, the applicant tries to ______.
A. persuade the employer to grant him/her an interview
B. get further information about the company
C. advertise a product to attract more customers
D. present what he/she wants from the job
Question 38: The word "it" in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. the letter of application B. an opportunity
C. your work D. the résumé
Question 39: The word "explicitly" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. clearly B. shortly C. slightly D. quickly
Question 40: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE about a letter of application?
A. It should express the applicant's dissatisfaction with his/her former employer.
B. It should refer to the applicant's reasons for leaving his/her previous job.
C. It should be written very briefly, but in a formal style.
D. It should expand upon the information contained in the applicant's résumé.
Question 41: The word "broach" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. avoid B. investigate C. introduce D. understand
Question 42: According to paragraph 4, in a job interview, the applicant should be ready to ______.
A. accept any salary offered B. negotiate working conditions
C. mention their expected salary range D. talk about the company's budget
Henry is the undisputed star of Dronfield School near Sheffield. Whatever the achievements of
other members of the comprehensive school, it is Henry, with his soulful eyes and glossy hair, who has
hogged the limelight, appearing on television in Britain and abroad. Yet despite all the public
adulation, Henry stirs up no envy or resentment among the 2000 students – in fact, they all adore him.
The dog, who first arrived six months ago, is a super dog, who has improved students' behaviour and
encouraged more students to focus on their academic achievement.
Andrew Wainwright, a student at Dronfield School, says there is something magical and calming
about being able to interact with Henry during his time at the school's catch-up classes, and that if he
falls behind, that opportunity will be denied. Even doubting staff have finally been won round. Perhaps
that is because Henry, who lies on the floor during staff meetings, has also had a calming effect on them.
It was Andrew's teacher, Wendy Brown and the school counsellor, Julie Smart, who first proposed
buying a school dog. "Julie and I were talking one day about how looking after dogs can positively
affect children's conduct," says Brown. "We did some research and discovered that the presence of pets
has been shown to be therapeutic. A number of studies have shown that animals improve recovery after
surgery or illness and have a calming influence on people in a lot of settings. Some of my kids can be a
handful and some of the children Julie counsels have terrible problems."
Could the school dog become a craze? Other schools such as the Mulberry Bush, a primary school
for children with behavioural problems, have stepped forward to point out they already have one. Rosie
Johnston, a Mulberry staff member has been bringing her golden retriever, Muskoka, into school for
three years. Apart from being a calming influence, Muskoka even plays his part in literacy lessons.
Children at the school can be too shy to read to adults so they read to Muskoka. "Their anxiety about
mispronouncing something or getting the words in the wrong order is reduced when they read to him,"
says Johnston.
Psychologist Dr Deborah Wells from Queen's University Belfast specialises in animal-human
interaction. She believes that the underlying key to the Henry effect is that dogs offer unconditional
love and that cheers up adults and children and helps with self-esteem. But traditionalist Chris
Woodhead, the former chief inspector of schools says, "I don't see why a teacher cannot create a
positive learning environment through the subject they teach and their personality. Dogs strike me as a
bit of a publicity stunt. It's the kind of sentimental story journalists love." Despite this sentiment, Henry
remains as popular as ever.
(Adapted from "Ready for Advanced" by Roy Norris and Amanda French with Miles Hordern)
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Question 43: Which of the following best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Having School Dogs: Pros and Cons B. Henry – a Super Dog in Dronfield School
C. School Dogs: Useful Classroom Assistants D. Keeping School Dogs – a Prevalent Trend
Question 44: The word "adulation" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. excessive admiration B. deserved attention
C. considerable controversy D. unrealistic expectation
Question 45: The phrase "a handful" in paragraph 3 is probably descriptive of a child who is ______.
A. difficult to control B. reluctant to explore
C. inclined to disagree D. impossible to understand
Question 46: Which of the following is mentioned in paragraph 3 as a potential impact of keeping a pet?
A. A stronger tendency to misbehave B. Better recovery from illness
C. A greater desire to influence others D. Long-term changes in conduct
Question 47: The word "one" in paragraph 4 refers to _______.
A. a school dog B. a craze
C. a Mulberry staff member D. a primary school
Question 48: According to paragraph 4, which of the following is one of the roles played by Muskoka
at the Mulberry Bush?
A. Minimising the number of words mispronounced by its students
B. Helping its students to reduce their fear of making mistakes
C. Relieving its teaching staff of unnecessary workload
D. Encouraging a more proactive approach to teaching literacy
Question 49: Which of the following best summarises Chris Woodhead's viewpoint in paragraph 5?
A. Teachers underestimate the role of dogs in literacy lessons.
B. Schools have dogs just to attract media attention.
C. Students and dogs are inseparable companions in the classroom setting.
D. Dogs are capable of enlivening classroom atmosphere.
Question 50: Which of the following is implied in the passage?
A. Rosie Johnston is more experienced than Wendy Brown in working with animals.
B. Interaction with Henry is used to boost students' learning motivation at Dronfield School.
C. Administrators at Dronfield School are sceptical as to whether Henry's companion will benefit
their students.
D. Wendy Brown and Julie Smart are dedicated animal rights activists who wish to get their message
across to young people.
------------------------ HẾT ------------------------
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Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 06 trang)
Họ, tên thí sinh: ......................................................................... Mã đề thi 401

Số báo danh: .............................................................................
Question 1. A. teacher B. lesson C. action D. police
Question 2. A. importance B. happiness C. employment D. relation
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. date B. face C. page D. map
Question 4. A. played B. planned C. cooked D. lived
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 5. Liz is telling Andrew about her first novel.
Liz: "Guess what? My first novel has just been published."
Andrew: "______"
A. It's my pleasure. B. Congratulations!
C. Better luck next time! D. It's very kind of you.
Question 6. Jenny and her teacher are meeting at the bus stop.
Jenny: "Good afternoon, Miss. How are you?"
Teacher: "______. And you?"
A. I'm going home B. I'm leaving now C. I'm thirty years old D. Fine, thank you
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7. As a sociable boy, Jack enjoys spending his free time going out with friends.
A. mischievous B. outgoing C. caring D. shy
Question 8. It's not a pleasant feeling to discover you've been taken for a ride by a close friend.
A. driven away B. deceived deliberately
C. given a lift D. treated with sincerity
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 9. Heavy rain makes driving on the road very difficult.
A. hard B. easy C. interesting D. simple
Question 10. A series of programs have been broadcast to raise public awareness of healthy living.
A. experience B. understanding C. confidence D. assistance

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Question 11. It is not always easy to make a good ______ at the last minute.
A. decide B. decision C. decisive D. decisively
Question 12. Mr Brown has kindly agreed to spare us some of his ______ time to answer our questions.
A. valuable B. worthy C. costly D. beneficial
Question 13. More and more investors are pouring ______ money into food and beverage start-ups.
A. an B. the C. Ø D. a
Question 14. A survey was ______ to study the effects of smoking on young adults.
A. commented B. filled C. conducted D. carried
Question 15. The better the weather is, ______.
A. the most crowded the beaches get B. the most the beaches get crowded
C. the more crowded the beaches get D. the more the beaches get crowded
Question 16. The book ______ you gave me is very interesting.
A. when B. which C. who D. where
Question 17. The ______ of the Internet has played an important part in the development of
communication.
A. research B. occurrence C. invention D. display
Question 18. When the manager of our company retires, the deputy manager will ______ that position.
A. stand for B. take over C. catch on D. hold on
Question 19. I ______ my old school teacher last week.
A. visited B. visit C. am visiting D. have visited
Question 20. Paul has just sold his ______ car and intends to buy a new one.
A. black old Japanese B. Japanese old black C. old black Japanese D. old Japanese black
Question 21. You ______ use your mobile phone during the test. It's against the rules.
A. mightn't B. mustn't C. oughtn't D. needn't
Question 22. A university degree is considered to be a ______ for entry into most professions.
A. demand B. requisite C. claim D. request
In the early twentieth century, an American woman named Emily Post wrote a book on
etiquette. This book explained the proper behavior Americans should follow in many different social
(23)______, from birthday parties to funerals. But in modern society, it is not simply to know the
proper rules for behavior in your own country. It is necessary for people (24)______ work or travel
abroad to understand the rules of etiquette in other cultures as well.
Cultural (25)______ can be found in such simple processes as giving or receiving a gift. In
Western cultures, a gift can be given to the receiver with relatively little ceremony. When a gift is
offered, the receiver usually takes the gift and expresses his or her thanks. (26)______, in some
Asian countries, the act of gift-giving may appear confusing to Westerners. In Chinese culture, both
the giver and receiver understand that the receiver will typically refuse to take the gift several times
before he or she finally accepts it. In addition, to (27)______ respect for the receiver, it is common
in several Asian cultures to use both hands when offering a gift to another person.
(Source: Reading Advantage by Casey Malarcher)

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Question 23. A. positions B. conditions C. situations D. locations
Question 24. A. who B. which C. where D. whose
Question 25. A. differences B. different C. differently D. differ
Question 26. A. Moreover B. Therefore C. However D. Otherwise
Question 27. A. show B. get C. feel D. take
Different cultures follow their own special customs when a child's baby teeth fall out. In Korea,
for example, they have the custom of throwing lost teeth up on the roof of a house. According to
tradition, a magpie will come and take the tooth. Later, the magpie will return with a new tooth for
the child. In other Asian countries, such as Japan and Vietnam, children follow a similar tradition of
throwing their lost teeth onto the roofs of houses.
Birds aren't the only animals thought to take lost teeth. In Mexico and Spain, tradition says a
mouse takes a lost tooth and leaves some money. However, in Mongolia, dogs are responsible for
taking teeth away. Dogs are highly respected in Mongolian culture and are considered guardian
angels of the people. Tradition says that the new tooth will grow good and strong if the baby tooth
is fed to a guardian angel. Accordingly, parents in Mongolia will put their child's lost tooth in a piece
of meat and feed it to a dog.
The idea of giving lost teeth to an angel or fairy is also a tradition in the West. Many children
in Western countries count on the Tooth Fairy to leave money or presents in exchange for a tooth.
The exact origins of the Tooth Fairy are a mystery, although the story probably began in England
or Ireland centuries ago. According to tradition, a child puts a lost tooth under his or her pillow
before going to bed. In the wee hours, while the child is sleeping, the Tooth Fairy takes the tooth
and leaves something else under the pillow. In France, the Tooth Fairy leaves a small gift. In the
United States, however, the Tooth Fairy usually leaves money. These days, the rate is $1 to $5 per
tooth, adding up to a lot of money from the Tooth Fairy!
(Source: Reading Challenge 2 by Casey Malarcher & Andrea Janzen)
Question 28. What is the passage mainly about?

A. Traditions concerning children's lost teeth B. Presents for young children's lost teeth
C. Animals eating children's lost teeth D. Customs concerning children's new teeth
Question 29. The word "their" in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. houses' B. roofs' C. children's D. countries'
Question 30. According to the passage, where is a child's lost tooth thought to be taken away by a mouse?
A. In Mexico and Spain B. In Mongolia
C. In Japan and Vietnam D. In Korea
Question 31. According to paragraph 2, parents in Mongolia feed their child's lost tooth to a dog
because ______.
A. they know that dogs are very responsible animals
B. they believe that this will make their child's new tooth good and strong
C. they think dogs like eating children's teeth
D. they hope that their child will get some gifts for his or her tooth

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Question 32. The word "origins" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. countries B. families C. beginnings D. stories
Question 33. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about the tradition of
tooth giving in the West?
A. Children give money to the Tooth Fairy.
B. Children put their lost teeth under their pillows.
C. Children hope to get money or gifts from the Tooth Fairy.
D. Lost teeth are traditionally given to an angel or fairy.
Question 34. The phrase "the wee hours" in paragraph 3 probably refers to the period of time
______.
A. early in the evening B. soon after midnight
C. late in the morning D. long before bedtime
Earth is richly supplied with different types of living organisms which co-exist in their
environments, forming complex, interrelated communities. Living organisms depend on one another
for nutrients, shelter, and other benefits. The extinction of one species can set off a chain reaction
that affects many other species, particularly if the loss occurs near the bottom of the food chain. For
example, the extinction of a particular insect or plant might seem inconsequential. However, there
may be fish or small animals that depend on that resource for foodstuffs. The loss can threaten the
survival of these creatures and larger predators that prey upon them. Extinction can have a ripple
effect that spreads throughout nature.
In addition to its biological consequences, extinction poses a moral dilemma for humans, the
only species capable of saving the others. The presence of humans on the planet has affected all
other life forms, particularly plants and animals. Human lifestyles have proven to be incompatible
with the survival of some other species. Purposeful efforts have been made to eliminate animals that
prey on people, livestock, crops, or pose any threat to human livelihoods. Some wild animals have
been decimated by human desire for meat, hides, fur, or other body parts with commercial value.
Likewise, demand for land, water, and other natural resources has left many wild plants and animals
with little to no suitable habitat. Humans have also affected nature by introducing non-native species
to local areas and producing pollutants having a negative impact on the environment. The
combination of these human-related effects and natural obstacles such as disease or low birthrates
has proven to be too much for some species to overcome. They have no chance of survival without
human help.
As a result, societies have difficult choices to make about the amount of effort and money they
are willing to spend to save imperiled species. Will people accept limits on their property rights,
recreational activities, and means of livelihood to save a plant or an animal? Should saving such
popular species as whales and dolphins take priority over saving obscure, annoying, or fearful
species? Is it the responsibility of humans to save every kind of life form from disappearing, or is
extinction an inevitable part of nature, in which the strong survive and the weak perish? These are
some difficult questions that people face as they ponder the fate of other species living on this planet.
(Source: http://www.encyclopedia.com)

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Question 35. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The importance of living organisms B. Causes of animal extinction
C. Humans and endangered species D. Measures to protect endangered species
Question 36. The word "inconsequential" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. unimportant B. unavoidable C. unexpected D. unrecognizable
Question 37. Which of the following can result from the loss of one species in a food chain?
A. There might be a lack of food resources for some other species.
B. Animals will shift to another food chain in the community.
C. Larger predators will look for other types of prey.
D. The connections among the creatures in the food chain become closer.
Question 38. The word "They" in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. natural obstacles B. low birthrates
C. some species D. human-related effects
Question 39. In paragraph 2, non-native species are mentioned as ______.
A. an achievement of human beings B. a harmful factor to the environment
C. a kind of useful plants D. a kind of harmless animals
Question 40. The word "perish" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. disappear B. complete C. remain D. develop
Question 41. According to the passage, which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. Some animals and plants cannot survive without human help.
B. No other species can threaten the survival of humans on Earth.
C. The existence of humans is at the expense of some other species.
D. Humans have difficult choices to make about saving endangered species.
Question 42. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Animal and plant species which pose threats to humans will die out soon.
B. Humans will make changes in their lifestyles to save other species.
C. The dilemma humans face between maintaining their lives and saving other species remains.
D. Saving popular animal and plant species should be given a high priority.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 43. I haven't met my grandparents for five years.
A. I often met my grandparents five years ago.
B. I last met my grandparents five years ago.
C. I have met my grandparents for five years.
D. I didn't meet my grandparents five years ago.
Question 44. We survived that accident because we were wearing our seat belts.
A. But for our seat belts, we would have survived that accident.
B. Had we not been wearing our seat belts, we wouldn't have survived that accident.
C. Without our seat belts, we could have survived that accident.
D. If we weren't wearing our seat belts, we couldn't have survived that accident.
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Question 45. "No, I won't go to work at the weekend," said Sally.
A. Sally refused to go to work at the weekend.
B. Sally promised to go to work at the weekend.
C. Sally apologized for not going to work at the weekend.
D. Sally regretted not going to work at the weekend.
Question 46. Animals like frogs have waterproof skin that prevents it from drying out quickly
A B C
in air, sun, or wind.
D
Question 47. My brother usually ask me for help when he has difficulty with his homework.
A B C D
Question 48. Many people object to use physical punishment in dealing with discipline problems
A B C
at school.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water. Others live in sea water.
A. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, for others live in sea water.
B. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, and others live in sea water.
C. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, or others live in sea water.
D. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, so others live in sea water.
Question 50. My mother is very busy with her work at the office. She still takes good care of us.
A. In spite of being very busy with her work at the office, my mother takes good care of us.
B. Because my mother is very busy with her work at the office, she takes good care of us.
C. My mother is so busy with her work at the office that she cannot take good care of us.
D. My mother is too busy with her work at the office to take good care of us.
------------------------ THE END ------------------------

11
ĐỀ ĐÁNH GIÁ NĂNG LỰC KÌ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018
Môn: TIẾNG ANH

ĐỀ THI SỐ 1
Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 50 câu / 6 trang)
Ngữ âm (1,0 points)

Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others:
1. Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others: (0,25 points)
A. cooked C. stopped
B. watched D. studied
A. ruins C. leftovers (thức ăn thừa)
B. economics D. details
3. Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others: (0,25 points)
A. terrorist C. terrific (xuất sắc, tuyệt vời)
B. respectable (Đáng kính, đứng đắn) D. librarian
A. experience C. physician
B. simplify D. maternal (như mẹ, về họ ngoại)
Từ vựng (1,0 points)

Select the word that has the closest meaning to the underlined part:
5. The air is naturally contaminated by foreign matter such as plant pollens (phấn hoa) and dust. (0,25
A. points)
polluted C. filled
B. occupied (đầy, bận rộn) D. concentrated
12
6. The company empowered (cho quyền) her to declare their support for the new event. As a matter of
fact, she now has more power to do what she wants than ever before. (0,25 points)
A. forbade C. authorized (cho quyền, trao quyền, ủy quyền)
B. helped D. ordered
Select the word that has the opposite meaning to the underlined part:
7. We offer a speedy (nhanh) and secure service of transferring money in less than 24 hours. (0,25
points
A. unsure C. slow
B. uninterested (lãnh đạm, thờ ơ, không chú ý) D. open
8. The relationship between structure, process and outcome is very unclear. (0,25 points)
A. disappear C. apparent
B. external D. uncertain
Ngữ pháp (1,0 points)

Choose the sentence (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the given one:
9. They would never have accepted his money if they had known his plans. (0,2 points)
A. They took the money he offered them without realising his purposes.
B. They knew what he wanted to do, so they refused his money.
C. They agreed with his wishes because they were glad to have his money.
D. They didn’t know his plans and never took money from him.
10. I ran into Peter, a friend of mine, on my way to work this morning. (0,2 points)
A. I met Peter unexpectedly on my way to work this morning.
B. Peter and I ran to work this morning
C. Peter had to work this morning, but I did not
D. Peter ran into his friend this morning.
11. Unless you come on time, we will go without you. (0,2 points)
13
A. Come on time or we will go without you.
B. Come on time, we will go without you.
C. Because of your punctuality (tính đúng giờ), we will go without you,
D. Without your coming on time, we will go.
Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to combine two sentences:

12. He didn’t take his father’s advice. That’s why he is out of work. (0,2 points)
A. If he had taken his father’s advice, he would not have been out of work.
B. If he took his father’s advice, he would not be out of work.
C. If he had taken his father’s advice, he would not be out of work.
D. If he takes his father’s advice, he will not be out of work.
13. It is no use expecting someone else to find a job for him; he must do something about it
himself. (0,2 points)
A. You shouldn’t expect anyone else to accept a job you aren’t willing to take on yourself.
B. He shouldn’t expect others to give up their jobs for him.
C. As he doesn’t want the job himself he might as well let someone else have it.
D. He never will get a job unless he sets about getting one himself and not leaving it to others.
Ngữ pháp & từ vựng (4,0 points)

Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:
14. Only if you get to the theatre early _____ a chance to get a ticket for tonight’s
performance. (0,27 points)
A. you will have C. will you have
B. have D. you have

15. Sam was so angry that he _____ out at everyone around him. (0,27 points)
A. moaned (than van, rên rỉ) C. vexed (chọc tức, quấy rầy)
B. evoked (gợi lên, gọi lên) D. lashed (chửi mắng như tát nước vào mặt ai)
14
16. “Did you have a happy childhood?” “Yes. I remember_____ very spoiled (hư hỏng,
ương bướng, ngang ngạnh).”
(0,27 points)
A. to being C. being
B. to be D. I have been

17. The silver medalist was later _____ for running outside the lane. (0,27 points)
A. banned C. disallowed (cấm, không cho phép)
B. outlawed (đặt ngoài vòng pháp luật, cấm) D. disqualified (không đủ tư cách, bị
loại)
18. Dr. Evans has _____ a valuable contribution to the life of the school (0,27 points)
A. done C. caused
B. created D. made

19. _____ having studied, Pat still failed the test. (0,27 points)
A. Even though C. Despite
B. However D. Moreover

20. “I’m not that tired, really. _____, I’d enjoy another game.” (0,27 points)
A. As a matter of fact C. As a fact
B. As a matter D. As a fact matter

21. Europe and Asia _____a long tradition of teaching and learning foreign languages. (0,27 points)
A. has had C. have had
B. will have D. have
15
22. Deserts are arid (khô cằn) land areas where _____ through evaporation than is gained through
precipitation (mưa). (0,27 points)
A. the loss of more water C. is more water lost
B. more water is lost D. loses more water

23. Nam wanted to know what time _____. (0,27 points)
A. the movie began C. does the movie begin
B. the movie begins D. did the movie begin

24. A pipe _____ in our bathroom last night. (0,27 points)
A. burst (vỡ tung) C. has burst
B. bursting D. was burst

25. “What are you looking for?”
I can’t remember where I _____my glasses. (0,27 points)
A. leave C. had left
B. left D. was left
Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.

26. I have gone to Hawaii three times this summer, I still want to spent my holiday there. (0,27 points)
A. gone C. three times
B. to D. want to spent

27. Life insurance, before available only to young, healthy persons, can now be obtained for old
people and even for pets.
(0,27 points)
A. before C. be obtained
B. only D. even
16
28. Hung Yen has long been well-known for it’s excellent longan (nhãn) fruits. (0,27 points)
A. long C. it’s
B. well-known D. fruits
Nói (1,0 points)

Choose the sentence that best completes this dialogue.
29. Mike: “I have passed all my examinations!"
Joan: “_____” (0,5 points)
A. My dear! C. Well done!
B. Best wishes! D. That’s very well

30. Pat: “Would you like something to eat?"
Kathy: “ _____. I’m not hungry now.” (0,5 points)
A. Yes, it is C. Yes, I would
B. No, thanks D. No, no problem
Đọc hiểu (2,0 points)

Read the passage below and answer questions.
Scientists do not yet thoroughly understand just how the body of an individual becomes sensitive to
a substance that is harmless or even wholesome (lành, không độc) for the average person. Milk,
wheat, and egg, for example, rank among the most healthful and widely used foods. Yet these
foods can cause persons sensitive to them to suffer greatly. At first, the body of the individual is not
harmed by coming into contact with the substance. After a varying interval (khoảng) of time usually
longer than a few weeks, the body becomes sensitive to it, and an allergy (dị ứng) has begun to
develop. Sometimes it’s hard to figure out if you have a food allergy since it can show up so many
different ways. Your symptoms could be caused by many other problems. You may have rashes
(phát ban, nổi mụn đỏ), hives (mề đay), joint (khớp) pains mimicking (giả, bắt chước) arthritis (viêm
khớp), headaches, irritability (cáu kỉnh), or depression (suy nhược). The most common food
allergies are to milk, eggs, seafood, wheat, nuts, seeds, chocolate, oranges, and tomatoes. Many of
these allergies will not develop if these foods are not fed to an infant until her or his intestines
mature at around seven months. Breast milk also tends to be protective. Migraines (chứng đau nửa
đầu, đau tiền đình) can be set off (bắt đầu) by foods containing tyramine (ty-ra-min),
phenethylamine, monosodium glutamate (bột ngọt), or sodium nitrate (ni-trát na-tri). Common foods
which contain these are chocolate, aged cheeses, sour cream, red wine, pickled (dầm) herring (cá
trích),
17
chicken livers, avocados, ripe bananas, cured (xử lý để có thể để lâu) meats, many Oriental and
prepared foods (read the labels!). Some people have been successful in treating their migraines
with supplements of B-vitamins, particularly B6 and niacin (a-xít ni-cô-ti-ních). Children who are
hyperactive (hiếu động thái quá) may benefit from eliminating food additives (chất phụ gia),
especially colorings (phẩm màu), and foods high in salicylates from their diets. A few of these are
almonds (quả hạnh), green peppers (ớt ngọt), peaches, tea, grapes. This is the diet made popular
by Benjamin Feingold, who has written the book “Why your Child is Hyperactive”. Other researchers
have had mixed results when testing whether the diet is effective.
31. The topic of this passage is _____. (0,1 points)
A. reactions to foods C. infants and allergies
B. food and nutrition D. a good diet
32. According to the passage, the difficulty in diagnosing allergies to foods is due to
_____. (0,1 points)
A. the vast number of different foods we eat
B. lack of a proper treatment plan
C. the similarity of symptoms of the allergy to other problems
D. the use of prepared formula to feed babies
33. The word symptoms is closest in meaning to _____. (0,1 points)

A. indications C. diagnosis (sự chuẩn đoán)
B. diet D. prescriptions (đơn thuốc, toa)
34. The phrase set off is closest in meaning to _____. (0,1 points)
A. relieved C. avoided
B. identified D. triggered
35. What can be inferred about babies from this passage? (0,1 points)
A. They can eat almost anything.
B. They should have a carefully restricted diet as infants.
C. They gain little benefit from being breastfed.
D. They may become hyperactive if fed solid food too early.
36. The word hyperactive is closest in meaning to _____. (0,1 points)
18
A. overly active C. excited
B. unusually low activity D. inquisitive (tọc mạch)
37. The author states that the reason that infants need to be avoided certain foods related to allergies
has to do with the infant’s _____. (0,1 points)
A. lack of teeth C. underdeveloped intestinal tract (bộ máy, đường)
B. poor metabolism (sự trao đổi chất, sự biến dưỡng) D. inability to swallow solid foods
38. The word these refers to _____. (0,1 points)

A. food additives C. unnutritious foods
B. food colourings D. foods high in salicylates
39. Which of the following was a suggested treatment for migraines in the passage? (0,1 points)
A. Eating more ripe bananas
B. Avoiding all Oriental foods
C. Getting plenty of sodium nitrate
D. Using Vitamin B in addition to a good diet
40. According to the article the Feingold diet is NOT _____. (0,1 points)
A. verified by researchers as being consistently effective
B. available in book form
C. beneficial for hyperactive children
D. designed to eliminate foods containing certain food additives
Read the passage below and fill in the blanks.

The universal symbol of the Internet era communications, the @ sign used in e-mail addresses to
signify the word ‘at’, is (1) actually a 500-year-old invention of Italian merchants, a Rome academic
has revealed. Giorgio Stabile, a science professor at La Sapienza University, (2) claims to have
stumbled on (tình cờ gặp) the earliest known example of the symbol’s use, as a(n) (3) indication of
a measure of weight or volume. He says the sign represents an amphora (vòi hai quai), a measure
of (4) capacity based on the terracotta (có màu nâu đỏ, bằng đất nung) jars used to transport grain
and liquid in the ancient Mediterranean world. The professor (5) unearthed (mò ra, tìm ra, khám
phá, phát hiện) the ancient symbol in the course of research for a visual history of the 20th century,
to be published by the Treccani Encyclopedia.
19
The first (6) known instance of its use, he says, occurred in a letter written by a Florentine merchant
on May 4, 1536. He says the sign made its (7) way along trade routes to northern Europe, where it
came to represent ’at the price of, its contemporary accountancy (8) meaning. Professor Stabile
believes that Italian banks may possess even earlier documents (9) bearing the symbol lying
forgotten in their archives. The oldest example could be of great value. It could be used (10) for
publicity purposes and to enhance the prestige of the institution that owned it, he says. The race is
on between the mercantile (mua bán) world and the banking world to see who has the oldest
documentation of @.
41. Fill in the blank (1) (0,1 points)

A. actually C. essentially
B. truly D. accurately

A. says C. claims
B. states D. tells

A. proof C. evidence
B. sign D. indication

A. ability C. capability
B. capacity D. facility

A. exposed C. dug
B. unearthed D. devised

A. known C. knowable (có thể biết được)
B. knowing D. knowledgeable (am tường, thành thạo, am hiểu)
20
A. line C. way
B. means D. method

A. sense C. meaning
B. importance D. understanding

A. taking C. delivering
B. carrying D. bearing

A. on C. with
B. for D. by
21
Môn: TIẾNG ANH

ĐỀ THI SỐ 2

A. champion C. shame
B. change D. chamber (phòng ngủ, buồng ngủ)
2. Find the word that has different pronunciation fromđích
the others:
đặc biệt(0,25
nào points)
đó
A. say C. play
B. day D. quay (bến cảng)
A. medieval (thời trung cổ) C. mediocre (xoàng, tầm thường)
B. malaria (bệnh sốt rét) D. magnificent (hoa lệ, tráng lệ; nguy nga, lộng lẫy)
A. relation C. summary
B. arrange D. eliminate

5. The republic of South Africa occupies the southern tip of the continent. (0,25 points)
A. takes up (nhặt, cầm lên, lượm lên) C. takes over (tiếp quản, kế tục)
B. takes in (tiếp nhận, nhận cho ở trọ) D. takes on (đảm nhận, gánh vác)
6. For a decade, Barzilai has studied centenarians, looking for genes that contribute to
longevity. (0,25 points)
A. who are vegetarians C. who are extraordinary (khác thường, phi thường)
B. who want to be fruitarians (người chỉ ăn trái cây) D. who live to be 100 and above
7. You can choose to send your letters by air or surface mail. (0,25 points)
22
A. have C. cast (quăng, ném, liệng, thả)
B. throw D. receive
8. We offer a very competitive rate for parcels (gói, bưu kiện) of under 15kg. (0,25 points)
A. cooperative C. individual
B. useful D. passive

9. The holiday might have been cheaper, but at least we were fortunate with the
weather. (0,2 points)
A. We didn’t realize the holiday would be so cheap, and the climate was nice, too.
B. We can be thankful that the weather was good, although the holiday was a little expensive.
C. The holiday should have been less expensive as we hardly had any nice weather.
D. Despite the favourable weather, we still paid too much for the holiday.
10. This is the most enjoyable novel I’ve read in a long time. (0,2 points)
A. It took me a long time to read this novel, but it was worth it.
B. It’s a marvellous novel; I still remember it though I read it a long time ago.
C. It’s ages since I got so much pleasure out of reading a novel.
D. It’s a long time since I read this novel but I know I enjoyed it enormously.
11. The immigration laws have been continually changed over the past few years because of no
logical (hợp lý) reasons. (0,2 points)
A. It is not fair that the laws have been changed so much over the past few years because of the
flow of immigrants.
B. There’s no reasonable explanation as to why the immigration laws have been altered repeatedly
in the last few years.
C. The reason why they changed the immigration laws recently has not been explained.
D. The fact that the immigration laws have been continually changed over the recent years must
have a reason.
23
12. If there hadn’t been such a strong wind, it would not have been so difficult to put out the
fire. (0,2 points)
A. It was the strong wind which made it difficult for us to put out the fire.
B. When a strong wind began to blow it was even more difficult to control the fire.
C. If the wind hadn’t been so strong, it would have been much easier to put out the fire.
D. As the wind was really very strong, it took them a long time to put out the fire.
13. People say that Mr. Goldman gave nearly a million pounds to charity last year. (0,2 points)
A. Nearly a million pounds was said to have been given to charity by Mr. Goldman last year.
B. Mr. Goldman was said to have given nearly a million pounds to charity last year.
C. Mr. Goldman is said to have given nearly a million pounds to charity last year.
D. Nearly a million pounds is said to be given to charity by Mr. Goldman last year.

14. I feel I really must take _____ with (không đồng ý với) your assertion that I am overpaid. (0,27 points)
A. dispute C. differ
B. issue D. discussion

15. _____he and his wife _____in their house for a long time? (0,27 points)
A. Have/live C. Have/lived
B. Has/lived D. Did/live

16. At the top of today’s _____ is the issue of salaries. (0,27 points)
A. assembly C. prospectus (tờ cáo bạch, tờ quảng cáo)
B. agenda D. transaction

17. My daughter is planning to spend a year before university working in Australia, _____ seems to
me to be a sensible idea. (0,27points)
24
A. which C. what
B. that D. where

18. Shy people often find it difficult to _____ group discussion. (0,27 points)
A. take part in C. take place in
B. get on with (ăn ý, sống hòa thuận với) D. get in touch with

19. Have you read anything _____ Hemingway? (0,27 points)
A. by C. from
B. of D. about

20. You can’t park here, it’s _____ legal. (0,27 points)
A. im- C. il-
B. ir- D. un-

21. He hit the vase with his elbow and it _____ to the floor. (0,27 points)
A. crashed (rơi vỡ loảng xoảng, đổ ầm xuống) C. broke
B. smashed (đập tan ra từng mảnh) D. knocked (đập, đánh, va đụng)

22. We can’t get everything we want from life; we must just make the best _____ it. (0,27 points)
A. for C. of
B. with D. by

23. He denied _____ in the hotel at 7 p.m. (0,27 points)
A. himself C. it’s him
B. to be D. being
25
24. The committee’s ideas were deemed to be imaginative but _____ in practical terms. (0,27 points)
A. incompatible (không tương hợp) C. unworkable (không thể thực hiện được)
B. unavoidable D. insurmountable (không thể vượt qua được)

25. The residents had no time to get away as the storm hit without _____warning (0,27 points)
A. precedent (tiền lệ) C. prior
B. initial (ban đầu, lúc đầu) D. previous

26. Together Rogers and Hammerstein wrote nine musicals, the first of whose was Oklahoma
[1943]. (0,27 points)
A. Together C. first
B. musicals D. whose

27. It announced today that an enquiry would be held into the collapse of a high-rise apartment
block in Kuala Lumpur last week.(0,27 points)
A. announced C. high-rise (cao tầng, nhiều tầng)
B. would be held D. block

28. If I am 10 centimeters taller, I would play basketball. (0,27 points)
A. am C. taller
B. centimeters D. play
Nói (1,0 points)

29. Linda: What a lovely house you have!"
Janet: “_____” (0,5 points)
A. No problem! C. Of course not. It’s not costly
B. Thank you. Hope you’ll drop in (tạt vào thăm). D. I think so.
26
30. Lan: "Happy birthday! This is a small present for you."
Nga: “ _____“ (0,5 points)
A. What a pity! C. Have a good time!
B. How terrible! D. How beautiful it is! Thanks.

The ability to conduct (dẫn điện, nhiệt...) electricity is one of the key properties of a metal. Other
solid material such as silicon can conduct electricity but only effectively at certain temperatures.
Also, some substances such as salt (sodium chloride) can conduct when molten (nấu chảy) or
when dissolved (hòa tan) in water. The ability of metals to conduct electricity is due to how their
atoms bond together. In order to bond together the metal atoms lose at least one of their
outermost electrons (điện tử). This leaves the metal atoms with a positive charge and they are now
strictly (hoàn toàn) ions. The lost electrons are free to move in what are known as a sea of
electrons. Since the electrons are negatively charged (tích điện) they attract the ions and this is
what keeps the structure together. An electric current is a flow of charge and since the electrons in
the sea of electrons are free to move they can be made to flow in one direction when a source of
electrical energy such as a battery is connected to the metal. Hence (do đó, vì thế) we have an
electric current flowing through the wire, and this is what makes metals such good conductors (chất
dẫn) of electricity. The only other common solid conducting material that pencil users are likely to
encounter is graphite (than chì) (what the ‘lead’ of a pencil is made from). Graphite is a form of
carbon and again the carbon atoms bond in such a way that there is a sea of electrons that can be
made to flow as an electric current. Likewise, if we have an ionic substance like salt we can make
the electrically charged ions flow to create a current but only when those ions are free to move,
either when the substance is a liquid or dissolved in water. In its solid state an ionic substance like
salt cannot conduct electricity as its charged ions cannot flow. Electrical insulators (chất cách điện)
are substances that cannot conduct electricity well either, because they contain no charged
particles or any charged particles they might contain do not flow easily. Water itself is a poor
conductor of electricity as it does not contain a significant amount of fully charged particles (the ends
(đoạn cuối) of a water molecule are partly charged but overall the molecule is neutral). However,
most water we encounter does contain dissolved charged particles, so it will be more conductive
than pure water. Many of the problems that occur when touching electrical devices with wet hands
result from the ever-present (luôn hiện hữu) salt that is left on our skin through perspiration (việc đổ
mồ hôi) and it dissolves in the water to make it more conductive.
27
31. Electrical conductivity is _____. (0,1 points)
A. one of the most important properties of metals
B. one of the key properties of most solid materials
C. impossible for any substance when it is dissolved in water
D. completely impossible for silicon
32. According to the passage, a metal can conduct electricity due to _____. (0,1 points)
A. the absence of free electrons
B. its atoms with a positive charge
C. the way its atoms bond together
D. the loss of one electron in the core of its atoms
33. The word “outermost“ in paragraph 1 mostly means _____. (0,1 points)
A. the lightest
B. nearest to the inside
C. furthest from the inside
D. the heaviest
34. The atoms of a metal can bond together because _____. (0,1 points)
A. the lost electrons cannot move freely in the sea of electrons
B. electrons can flow in a single direction
C. they lose all of electrons
D. negatively charged electrons attract positive ions
35. Slat (thanh gỗ) in its solid state is not able to conduct electricity because _____. (0,1 points)
A. it has free electrons
B. its charged ions can flow easily
C. it cannot create any charged ions
D. its charged ions are not free to move
36. The word “they“ in paragraph 3 refers to _____. (0,1 points)

A. charged ions B. electric currents
28
C. charged particles D. electrical insulators
37. Water is a poor conductor because it contains _____. (0,1 points)

A. no positive or negative electric charge
B. only a small amount of fully charged particles
C. only a positive electric charge
D. only a negative electric charge
38. We can have problems when touching electrical devices with wet hands because . (0,1 points)
A. the water itself is a good conductor of electricity
B. the water dissolves the salt on our skin and becomes more conductive
C. the water contains too many neutral molecules
D. the water containing no charged particles makes it more conductive
39. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage? (0,1 points)
A. Pure water is much more conductive than most water we encounter every day.
B. Graphite is a common solid substance that can conduct electricity.
C. Salt can conduct electricity when it is molten or dissolved.
D. Some materials are more conductive than others.
40. Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage? (0,1 points)
A. Electrical Energy C. Electrical Insulators
B. Electrical Devices D. Electrical Conductivity

A worrying question which requires (1) global attention is severe overpopulation and its drastic
(mạnh mẽ) effects in the countries of the Third World. In regions where the birth rate is extremely
high, poverty and starvation are predominant (nổi bật, dễ nhận thấy nhất) (2). In India, there is an
average (3) of the thirty five infants being born every minute, yet the most shocking figures are
those which indicate (4) the enormous number of the victims of famine in certain African territories.
Communities afflicted with acute (sâu sắc, gay gắt) destitution (cảnh thiếu thốn, cảnh nghèo túng)
are additionally (thêm nữa, ngoài ra) confronted with illiteracy, life in appalling (kinh khủng)
conditions and infectious diseases decimating (giết hại nhiều) (5) the indigenous (bản địa, bản xứ)
populations (dân cư). There is an urgent need for these problems to be solved. Unless measures
are taken to ease (6) the suffering of the impoverished (nghèo khổ) underdeveloped nations,
desperate crowds of immigrants will persist (7) in flooding (ùa tới, tràn tới) the richer states in
search (8) of a brighter future. 29
It’s the most challenging (9) task for the international giants nowadays to help the poor
populations get out of the poverty trap (10).

A. insists C. requires
B. wishes D. asks

A. profuse (có nhiều, dồi dào, vô khối) C. generous
B. rite D. predominant (nổi bật, dễ nhận thấy nhất)

A. a ratio (tỉ lệ) C. an average
B. a measure D. a proportion (tỷ lệ)

A. appear C. indicate
B. refer D. comprise

A. decimating C. discounting (xem nhẹ, coi thường)
B. enumerating (đếm, liệt kê danh sách) D. outnumbering (đông hơn, đông người hơn)

A. discard C. evaporate
B. vanish D. ease

A. linger (nấn ná, lần lữa, chần chừ) C. persist
B. maintain D. remain

A. search B. chase
30
C. lookout (sự canh phòng, sự giám sát) D. survey

A. confronting C. rousing (khích động, khuấy động)
B. challenging D. plaguing (quấy rầy, đòi hỏi, yêu sách)

A. lure (dỗ dành, quyến rũ, cò mồi) C. snare (cái lưới, cái bẫy)
B. pitfall (cạm bẫy, hầm bẫy) D. trap (tình huống khó chịu khó có thể
thoát ra được)
Môn: TIẾNG ANH

ĐỀ THI SỐ 3

A. form C. born
B. work D. storm
2.Find the word that has different pronunciation from the others: (0,25 points)
A. daunted đe dọa, dọa dẫm) C. commited
B. installed D. confided (thổ lộ)
Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others:
3.Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others: (0,25 points)
31
A. material C. evidence
B. harmony D. readable
4.Find the word that has different stress pattern from the others: (0,25 points)
A. referee C. attitude
B. engineer D. absentee

5.Johnny sometimes visits his grandparents in the countryside. (0,25 points)

A. calls on C. takes in
B. keeps off D. goes up
6.At times, I look at him and wonder what is going on in his mind. (0,25 points)
A. sometimes C. hardly
B. always D. never
7. In the campaign, six hundred ethnic minority students from the northern highlands were asked to
provide reading and writing skills to 1,200 illiterate people living in their home villages. (0,25 points)
A. seniority C. adulthood
B. maturity D. majority
8.However, by that time, only 94% of the population was able to read and write. (0,25 points)
A. inadequate C. incompetent
B. average D. ordinary

9. I expect to get back this evening but it really depends on the weather. (0,2 points)
32
A. If the weather continues like this I’ll spend the night there.
B. Though I’m planning to return this evening the weather may prevent me.
C. Since the weather’s so bad I don’t suppose I’ll be back tonight.
D. The weather made it impossible for me to return as planned.
10. I travel by bus only when I have no alternative. (0,2 points)
A. Traveling by bus is my only alternative.
B. It’s my only alternative to travel by bus.
C. I resort to traveling by bus only when I have no alternative.
D. I travel by bus only as a last resort.
11.Unless they comply with the rules, they won’t be allowed back into the club. (0,2 points)
A. As long as they refuse to behave, it doesn’t seem possible for them to be accepted into the club.
B. They can go to the club once more, but only if they obey the rules.
C. They can’t enter the club because they have violated the rules.
D. They can only enter the club again if they behave in accordance with the rules.
12.I can’t make any sense out of these instructions in this manual for how to start this machine.
(0,2 points)
A. The instructions given in this manual for how to start this machine are the most complicated I’ve ever seen.
B. The instructions given in this manual are too complicated for me to be able to understand how to start this
machine.
C. There’s no sense in trying to understand the instructions given in this manual for how to start this machine.
D. I’ve found the instructions in this manual quite senseless, so I may not be able to start this machine.
13. We couldn’t help feeling disappointed when, after all our hard work, we had to close down
the factory. (0,2 points)
A. By working even harder we could, perhaps, have managed to keep the factory open.
B. If only we could have kept the factory going we wouldn’t have felt that all our work had been wasted.
C. Since we’d put in so much effort it was inevitable that we should feel upset when we couldn’t keep the
factory going.
33
D. However hard we worked we could not have stopped them closing down the factory

14.You can have your office painted _____ color you want. (0,27 points)
A. whatever C. which
B. anything D. however

15.John: I speak Spanish because I lived in Spain."
Pedro: “Really? How long _____ there?” (John now lives in the UK) (0,27 points)
A. did you live C. have you lived
B. are you living D. do you live

16.The marathon, first staged (tổ chức) in 1896, _____ the legendary feat of a Greek soldier who
carried news of victory from the battlefield at Marathon to Athens. (0,27 points)
A. commemorates C. was commemorated
B. commemorated D. commemorating

17. We _____ a lot of important inventions in the future. (0,27 points)
A. have C. had
B. will have D. has had

18.Being popular isn’t _____ important to Harry. (0,27 points)
A. so much C. much
B. that D. such

19. I’ll take this tie. It’s the _____ thing I’m looking for. (0,27 points)
A. just B. very
C. sheer D. quite
34
20. After a lot of difficulty he finally _____ to start the car. (0,27 points)
A. succeeded C. managed
B. coped D. worked out

21.He’s a very difficult person to _____ with. (0,27 points)
A. deal C. get
B. do D. treat

22.This guide book _____full of useful information. (0,27 points)
A. will be C. is
B. are D. was

23. They say that they _____ their course next month (0,27 points)
A. finish C. will be finishing
B. will finish D. will be finished

24._____ daily promotes physical as well as emotional well-being in people of all ages. (0,27 points)
A. Having exercised D. Exercising
B. Those who exercise C. For exercising

25.The face of the Moon is changed by collisions with meteoroids (thiên thạch), _____ new craters
(cái hố) to appear. (0,27 points)
A. causing C. caused
B. cause D. have cause
35
26.The cotton mills of a hundred years ago were hot, dust, noisy, dangerous places and the
life of the millworkers was hard. (0,27 points)
A. ago C. noisy
B. dust D. was

27.Last week Mark told me that he got very bored with his present job and is looking for a new one. (0,27
points)
A. told C. is looking
B. got D. new one

28.Mark Twain’s Adventures of Huckleberry Finn are one of America’s national treasures. (0,27 points)
A. are C. national
B. of D. treasures
Nói (1,0 points)

29.Linda: "I've passed my driving test."

Nga: _____. (0,5 points)
A. Congratulations! C. It’s nice of you to say so.
B. That’s a good idea D. Do you?

30.“What a great haircut, Lucy!"
_____. (0,5 points)
A. Thanks. It’s very kind of you to do this. C. Oh, yes. That’s right
B. It’s my pleasure D. You think so? I think it’s a bit too short

Though Edmund Halley was most famous because of his achievement as an astronomer, he was
a scientist of diverse interests and great skill. In addition to studying the skies, Halley was also
deeply interested in exploring the unknown depths of the oceans. One of his lesser-known
accomplishments that were quite remarkable was his design for a diving bell (thiết bị hình chuông
cung cấp dưỡng khí cho thợ lặn) that facilitated exploration of the watery depths.
36
The diving bell that Halley designed had a major advantage over the diving bells that were in use
prior to his. Earlier diving bells could only make use of the air contained within the bell itself, so
divers had to surface when the air inside the bell ran low. Halley’s bell was an improvement in that
its design allowed for an additional supply of fresh air that enabled a crew of divers to remain
underwater for several hours.
The diving contraption (dụng cụ thay thế tạm thời) that Halley designed was in the shape of a bell that
measured three feet across the top and five feet across the bottom and could hold several divers
comfortably; it was open at the bottom so that divers could swim in and out at will. The bell was built
of wood, which was first heavily tarred to make it water repellent (chống thấm nước) and was then
covered with a half-ton sheet of lead to make the bell heavy enough to sink in water. The bell shape
held air inside for the divers to breathe as the bell sank to the bottom.
The air inside the bell was not the only source of air for the divers to breathe, and it was this
improvement that made Halley’s bell superior to its predecessors. In addition to the air already in the
bell, air was also supplied to the divers from a lead barrel that was lowered to the ocean floor close
to the bell itself. Air flowed through a leather pipe from the lead barrel on the ocean floor to the bell.
The diver could breathe the air from a position inside the bell, or he could move around outside the
bell wearing a diving suit that consisted of a lead bell-shaped helmet with a glass viewing window
and a leather body suit, with a leather pipe carrying fresh air from the diving bell to the helmet.
31. The subject of the preceding passage was most likely Halley’s _____. (0,1 points)
A. childhood C. work as an astronomer
B. invention of the diving bell D. many different interests
32. Halley’s bell was better than its predecessors because it _____. (0,1 points)
A. was bigger C. could rise more quickly
B. weighed less D. provided more air
33. The expression “ran low in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _____. (0,1 points)
A. sank to the bottom C. was almost exhausted
B. had been replenished (bổ sung) D. move slowly
34. How long could divers stay underwater in Halley’s bell? (0,1 points)
A. Only a few minutes C. For hours at a time
B. Just a few seconds D. For days on end
35.It is not stated in the passage that Halley’s bell _____. (0,1 points)
37
A. could hold more than one diver
B. was made of tarred wood
C. was completely enclosed
D. was wider at the top than at the bottom
36.The expression “at will“ in paragraph 3 could best be replaced by _____ (0,1 points)
A. upside down C. as they wanted
B. with great speed D. in the future
37.It can be inferred from the passage that, were Halley’s bell not covered with lead, it would _____. (0,1
points)
A. trap the divers C. get wet
B. suffocate the divers D. float
38.Where in the passage does the author indicate how air traveled from the barrel to the bell? (0,1
points)
A. Lines 8-10 C. Lines 17-18
B. Lines 11-13 D. Line 20

39.In which paragraph does the author describe the diving bells that preceded Halley’s? (0,1 points)
A. The first paragraph C. The third paragraph
B. The second paragraph D. The fourth paragraph
40.This passage would most likely be assigned reading in a course on _____. (0,1 points)
A. recreation C. oceanography
B. astronomy D. physiology

One of the most urgent environmental problems in the world today is the shortage of clean water.
Having clean drinking water is a basic human right. But acid rain, (1) industrial pollution and
garbage have made many sources of water undrinkable. Lakes, reservoirs and even entire seas
have become vast pools (2) of poison. Lake Baikal in Russia is one of the largest lakes in the
world. It (3) contains a rich variety of animals and plants, including 1,300 rare species that do not
exist (4) anywhere else in the world. But they are being destroyed by the massive volumes of toxic
effluent (nước thải) which (5) pour into the lake every day. Even where laws existed, the
government did not have the power to enforce (thực thi) them. Most industries simply ignore the
regulations. The Mediterranean
38
Sea (6) occupies 1% of the world’s water surface. But it is the dumping (đổ thành đống) (7)
ground for 50% of all marine pollution. Almost 16 countries regularly throw industrial wastes a few
miles (8) off shore. Water is free to everyone. A few years ago, people thought that the supply of
clean water in the world was limitless. Today, many water supplies have been (9) ruined by
pollution and sewage (chất thải). Clean water is now scarce (khan hiếm), and we are at last
beginning to respect this precious (10) source. We should do something now.
41.Fill in the blank (1) (0,1 points)
A. industrious C. industrial
B. industry D. industrialized

A. on B. in C. of D. to

A. composes C. encloses
B. contains D. consists

A. where C. everywhere
B. somewhere D. anywhere

A. stay C. boil
B. pour D. burn

A. makes C. comprises
B. occupies D. holds

A. shore C. ground
B. land D. soil
A. away B. of C. on D. off
39
A. ruined C. made
B. kept D. conserved
A. well C. nature
B. outlet (cửa sông) D. source
Môn: TIẾNG ANH

ĐỀ THI SỐ 4

A. tidal (thủy triều) C. idiot (thằng ngốc)
B. final D. vital (sống còn, quan trọng)
A. sabotage (phá hoại) C. massage (sự xoa bóp)
B. montage (sự dựng phim) D. beverage
A. police C. office
B. malice (ác tâm, ác ý) D. practice
40
A. musician C. museum
B. mutual D. mosaic (tranh ghép mảnh)

5. A brief outline (đề cương) of the course and bibliography were (nguồn sách tham khảo) handed out to the
students at the first meeting. (0,25 points)
A. dispensed (phân phát, phân phối) C. distributed
B. dispersed (gieo vãi, phân tán) D. contributed
Choose the phrase (A, B, C or D) which is closest in meaning to the underlined one:
6. On the second thought (sau khi suy đi tính lại), I believe I will go with you to the theatre. (0,25 points)
A. On reflection (Suy nghĩ kỹ) C. After discussing with my wife
B. For this time only D. For the second time
7. He was so insubordinate (không chịu phục tùng, không vâng lời) that he lost his job within a week. (0,25 points)
A. fresh C. obedient
B. disobedient D. understanding
8. The situation in the country has remained relatively stable for a few months now. (0,25 points)
A. constant (bất biến) C. objective (khách quan)
B. changeable D. ignorant (không biết, ngu dốt)

9. By modern standards, the first supermarkets were really quite small. (0,2 points)
A. Compared with what we have now, the early supermarkets weren’t actually very large at all.
B. The early supermarkets and the present-day ones are quite different from each other, even in size.
C. Present-day supermarkets are on the whole larger than the early ones.
D. Supermarkets have grown in size since they were first introduced, but their standards remain the same.
41
10. It would be a good idea to change your hairstyle. (0,2 points)
A. An idea is to would change your good hairstyle.
B. Your hairstyle is changing; it would be a great idea.
C. You had better change your hairstyle.
D. I have an idea to change your hairstyle for good.
11. What particularly impressed me was her excellent command (tinh thông, thành thạo) of English. (0,2 points)
A. That I liked her excellent command of English was that it impressed me at first.
B. I was particularly impressed by her excellent command of English.
C. Her excellent command of English particularly impresses me.
D. I particularly liked her excellent command of English.
12. People donated a lot, so the victims of the tsunami are now able to overcome difficulties. (0,2 points)
A. To overcome difficulties, the victims of the tsunami needed people’s generous donation (hiến tặng).
B. But for (nếu không có) people’s generous donation, the victims of the tsunami wouldn’t be able to
overcome difficulties now.
C. The victims of the tsunami are now able to overcome difficulties but for people’s donation.
D. Despite people’s generous donation, the victims of the tsunami are facing lots of difficulties.
13. “Shall I turn on the heater (bếp lò, lò) for you?” Lane said to his grandpa. (0,2 points)
A. Lane wanted to turn on the heater for his grandpa.
B. Lane offered to turn on the heater for his grandpa.
C. Lane promised to turn on the heater for his grandpa.
D. Lane asked his grandpa to turn on the heater for him.

14. “The ceiling in this room doesn’t look very safe, does it?”- “ _____”. (0,27 points)
42
A. Yes, it is C. No, it is going to fall down
B. No, it isn’t D. Yes, it doesn’t fall down

15. We left New York when I was six, so my recollections (những kỷ niệm) of it are rather _____ (0,27 points)
A. faint (mờ nhạt, không rõ) C. garbled (bị lệch lạc)
B. muddled (bối rối, lúng túng, rối bời) D. unintelligible (khó hiểu, không thể hiểu được)

16. The soldiers prepared themselves (đã chuẩn bị tinh thần) for the final _____ by the rebels. (0,27 points)
A. abolition (sự thủ tiêu, sự bãi bỏ) C. obstruction (sự cản trở, sự tắc nghẽn)
B. exploitation (sự khai thác, sự bóc lột) D. onslaught (sự tấn công dữ dội)

17. Candidates for the position of office manager must be _____ with the task of supervising some twenty
assistants. (0,27 points)
A. competent (thạo, rành, giỏi) C. comfortable (thoải mái, yên tâm)
B. prepared D. capable

18. _____ furniture needs supplying for the schools in the whole country will slow down the process of the
reform of education.(0,27 points)
A. Few C. Little
B. A few D. That little

19. New sources of energy are constantly being looked for _____. (0,27 points)
A. although fossil fuels (nhiên liệu hóa thạch) continue to dwindle (giảm bớt)
B. as fossil fuels continue to dwindle
C. so that we continue to reduce fossil fuels
D. fossil fuels continuing to dwindle
43
20. What _____ you _____at weekend when you were a child? (0,27 points)
A. do/ do C. did/ use to do
B. have/done D. did/ used to do

21. I’m fed up _____ (buồn chán, chán ngấy) working, I need a holiday. (0,27 points)
A. to C. with
B. in D. for

22. Scientists brought _____ of rare butterflies from the jungle. (0,27 points)
A. tiers (dãy, tầng, lớp) C. specimens (mẫu vật)
B. embryos (phôi thai, thai nhi, mầm cây) D. traces (dấu vết, vết tích)

23. There’s no prettier place in the valley _____ our village. (0,27 points)
A. to C. than
B. that D. as

24. A semiconductor is a substance that seldom conducts electricity, but _____ under certain
circumstances. (0,27 points)
A. so can do C. can do so
B. do so can D. so do can

25. Penicillin is perhaps the drug _____ more lives than any other in the history of medicine. (0,27 points)
A. what has saved C. which saved
B. which has saved D. who saves

26. One of the students who are being considered for the scholarship are from this university. (0,27 points)
44
A. One of C. for the
B. are being D. are

27. Food prices have raised so rapidly in the past few months that some families have been forced to alter
their eating habits. (0,27 points)
A. raised (tăng, làm tăng thêm) C. that
B. so rapidly D. forced to alter their eating habits

28. Homo erectus (tổ tiên của người hiện đại) is the name commonly given into the primate (động vật linh trưởng)
species from which humans are believed to have evolved. (0,27 points)
A. commonly C. which
B. into D. are believed to
Nói (1,0 points)

29. “Would you mind helping me with these heavy boxes?"
“_____” (0,5 points)
A. “Yes, I would.” C. “What a pity!”
B. “Not at all.” D. “My Gosh!” (lạ thật)

30. “Mr. Adams is going to retire next month.”
“_____” (0,5 points)
A. Oh, I have no idea C. Right, you’d probably be the next.
B. You don’t say! (Thiệt hả?) D. Congratulations!

Very few people, groups, or governments oppose globalization in its entirety (hoàn toàn, trọn vẹn).
Instead, critics of globalization believe aspects of the way globalization operates should be changed. The
debate over globalization is about what the best rules are for governing the global economy so that its
advantages can grow while its problems can be solved. On one side of this debate are those who stress
the benefits of removing barriers to international trade and investment, allowing capital to be
45
allocated (phân phối, phân phát, chia phần) more efficiently and giving consumers greater freedom of
choice. With free-market globalization, investment funds can move unimpeded (không bị ngăn trở, không bị
cản trở) from the rich countries to the developing countries. Consumers can benefit from cheaper products
because reduced taxes make goods produced at low cost from faraway (xa xôi) places cheaper to buy.
Producers of goods gain by selling to a wider market. More competition keeps sellers on their toes (cảnh
giác, sẵn sàng hành động) and allows ideas and new technology to spread and benefit others. On the other
side of the debate are critics who see neo-liberal policies as producing greater poverty, inequality, social
conflict, cultural destruction, and environmental damage. They say that the most developed nations - the
United States, Germany, and Japan - succeeded not because of free trade but because of protectionism (chế
độ bảo vệ nền công nghiệp trong nước) and subsidies (tiền trợ cấp). They argue that the more recently
successful economies of South Korea, Taiwan, and China all had strong state-led development strategies that
did not follow neo-liberalism. These critics think that government encouragement of “infant industries“ -
that is, industries that are just beginning to develop - enables a country to become internationally
competitive. Furthermore, those who criticize the Washington Consensus suggest that the inflow (dòng vào)
and outflow (dòng ra) of money from speculative (đầu cơ, tích trữ) investors must be limited to prevent
bubbles. These bubbles are characterized by the rapid inflow of foreign funds that bid (ra giá, bỏ giá, trả giá,
đặt giá) up domestic stock markets and property values. When the economy cannot sustain such
expectation, the bubbles burst as investors panic and pull their money out of the country. Protests by what
is called the anti-globalization movement are seldom directed against globalization itself but rather against
abuses that harm the rights of workers and the environment. The question raised by nongovernmental
organizations and protesters at WTO and IMF gatherings (cuộc hội họp) is whether globalization will result in
a rise of living standards or a race to the bottom as competition takes the form of lowering living standards
and undermining (phá hoại ngầm, làm suy yếu) environmental regulations (quy tắc, quy định). One of the
key problems of the 21st century will be determining to what extent markets should be regulated (điều
chỉnh, sửa lại) to promote fair competition, honest dealing (giao dịch mua bán), and fair distribution of
public goods on a global scale.
31. It is stated in the passage that _____. (0,1 points)

A. the protests of globalization are directed against globalization itself
B. the United States, Germany, and Japan succeeded in helping infant industries
C. supporters of globalization stress the benefits of removing trade barriers
D. critics of globalization say that the successful economies are all in Asia
32. Supporters of free-market globalization point out that _____. (0,1 points)
A. consumers can benefit from cheaper products
B. there will be less competition among producers
C. taxes that are paid on goods will be increased
D. investment will be allocated only to rich countries
46
33. The word “allocated“ in the passage mostly means “ _____“. (0,1 points)
A. removed C. offered
B. solved D. distributed
34. The phrase “keeps sellers on their toes” in the passage mostly means “ _____“. (0,1 points)
A. makes sellers responsive to any changes
B. allows sellers to stand on their own feet
C. forces sellers to go bare-footed
D. prevents sellers from selling new products
35. According to critics of globalization, several developed countries have become rich because of
_____. (0,1 points)
A. their neo-liberal policies
B. their help to developing countries
C. their prevention of bubbles
D. their protectionism and subsidies
36. The word “undermining“ in the passage mostly means “ _____“. (0,1 points)
A. observing C. making less effective
B. making more effective D. obeying
37. Infant industries mentioned in the passage are _____. (0,1 points)
A. successful economies C. development strategies
B. young companies D. young industries
38. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage? (0,1 points)
A. Critics believe the way globalization operates should be changed.
B. The anti-globalization movement was set up to end globalization.
C. Some Asian countries had strong state-led economic strategies.
D. Hardly anyone disapproves of globalization in its entirety.
47
39. The debate over globalization is about how _____. (0,1 points)
A. to use neo-liberal policies for the benefit of the rich countries
C. to spread ideas and strategies for globalization
B. to govern the global economy for the benefit of the community
D. to terminate globalization in its entirety
40. The author seems to be _____ globalization that helps promote economy and raise living standards
globally. (0,1 points)
A. supportive of C. pessimistic about
B. indifferent to D. opposed to

In “Cerealizing America”, Scott Bruce and Bill Crawford remark that the cereal industry uses 816 million pounds of
sugar per year. Americans buy 2.7 billion packages of breakfast cereal each year. If (1) laid end to end (hai đầu
mút gần như chạm nhau), the empty cereal boxes from one year’s consumption would (2) stretch to the moon
and back. One point three (1.3) million advertisements for cereal are broadcast on American television every year
at a(n) (3) cost of $762 million for airtime (thời lượng phát hình/phát thanh). Only automobile manufacturers
spend more money on television advertising than the makers of breakfast cereal. (4) Most of the boxed cereals
found in supermarkets contain large amounts of sugar and some contain more than 50% sugar. Cereal
manufacturers are very clever in their marketing, making many cereals appear much healthier than they really are
by “fortifying” (củng cố, làm cho mạnh thêm, tăng cường) them with vitamins and minerals. Oh, (5) lovely - you
now have vitamin-fortified sugar! Before you eat any cereal, read the ingredient (thành phần) list and see how (6)
high sugar appears on the ingredient list. Then check the “Nutrition facts” panel. There are actually only a small
handful of national commercially-branded cereals that are made (7) from whole grains and are sugar-free. If you
shop at a health food store instead of your local supermarket, you (8) are much more likely to find a healthy,
whole grain, sugar-free (or very low sugar) cereal. But (9) watch out! Some of the health food store boxed cereals
are sweetened with fruit juice or fructose (đường trái cây). Although this may be an improvement (10) on refined
white sugar, this can really skyrocket (tăng vọt) the calories.

A. to lay C. lay
B. laying D. laid

A. reach B. prolong
48
C. stretch D. contact

A. charge (tính giá, đòi trả tiền) C. cost
B. average D. expense

A. Most C. Almost
B. Mostly D. Furthermost ;ǆĂŚҿŶŚұƚ͕ǆĂŶŚҤƚ͕ĐӌĐǀŝҴŶͿ

A. charming C. gorgeous ;ƌӌĐƌӃ͕ůҾŶŐůҧǇͿ
B. lovely D. beautiful

A. tall C. high
B. large D. many

A. by B. from C. at D. in

A. are more likelier C. would be able
B. are much more likely D. could more or less

A. see through ;ŶŚŞŶƚŚҤǇ͕ƚŚҤǇƌƁďңŶĐŚҤƚͿ C. watch out ;ĜҲƉŚžŶŐ͕ĐŚƷǉ͕ĐŽŝĐŚӉŶŐͿ
B. keep alert ;ĐңŶŚŐŝĄĐͿ D. look up

A. at C. with
B. from D. on
49
Môn: TIẾNG ANH

ĐỀ THI SỐ 5

A. vintage (mùa hái nho, cổ điển) C. advantage
B. montage (sự dựng phim) D. average
A. plugged C. begged
B. dogged (ngoan cường, kiên cường, bền bỉ) D. dragged
A. historical C. adolescence
B. librarian D. phenomenon
A. emergency C. activity
B. vulnerable (dễ bị nguy hiểm, dễ bị tấn công) D. initiative (thế chủ động, mở đầu, bắt đầu)

50
5. We spent the entire day looking for a new hotel. (0,25 points)
A. the long day C. all day long
B. day after day D. all long day
6. What do you like doing in your spare time? (0,25 points)
A. enjoyable C. quiet
B. free D. busy
7. She lived with a rich family in London during her childhood. (0,25 points)
A. selfish C. famous
B. well-off (phong lưu, sung túc, khá giả) D. penniless (nghèo xơ xác)
8. She was unhappy that she lost contact with a lot of her old friends when she went abroad to
study. (0,25 points)
A. made room for (nhường chỗ cho) C. lost control of (mất kiểm soát, không điều khiển được)
B. put in charge of (chịu trách nhiệm) D. got in touch with

9. Don’t disturb me unless it is something urgent. (0,2 points)
A. You can only interrupt me if it is some sort of emergency.
B. When you need something fast, you can call on me.
C. Unless something terrible happens, please leave me alone.
D. I will only bother you if there is some sort of emergency.
10. She should know better than to lend the money to him. (0,2 points)
A. She knew it would be better not to lend him the money
B. She oughtn’t to lend him the money.
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C. She was just being helpful when she lent him the money.
D. It would be kind of her to lend him the money.
11. As the bus arrived in Bursa an hour later than the scheduled time, I missed the opening
of the concert. (0,2 points)
A. The concert had started by the time I got there as the bus reached Bursa a full hour late.
B. The concert was due to start just an hour after my bus arrived in Bursa.
C. I arrived in Bursa at the scheduled hour and went on to the concert an hour later.
D. The concert in Bursa started an hour later than the scheduled time so I didn’t miss the start.
12. He likes people to let him have his own way (muốn gì được nấy, làm theo ý muốn). (0,2 points)
A. He doesn’t like it when people tell him what to do.
B. He doesn’t accept help from people he dislikes.
C. He likes people to think all good ideas are his own.
D. He often needs the help of other people in his work.
13. Sarah started preparing lunch as soon as her children left for school. (0,2 points)
A. The children went to school soon after Sarah had prepared lunch.
B. Sarah’s children didn’t leave for school until she had started making lunch.
C. After the children had left for school, Sarah decided to prepare lunch.
D. Sarah waited until her children had gone to school before she started making lunch

14. It’s easy in some regions to _____ electricity in hydro-electric (thủy điện) power stations (0,27 points)
A. invent C. fabricate (chế tạo, sản xuất, xây dựng)
B. create D. generate (phát, phát ra, sản sinh năng lượng)

15. Mary finds his careless attitude to work extremely _____. (0,27 points)
52
A. exacting C. abrasive (làm trầy, mài mòn)
B. askew (nghiêng, xiên, lệch) D. aggravating (làm chọc tức, chọc tức)

16. “Do you want me to clean up here?"
“I’d rather you _____ me finish the project.” (0,27 points)
A. helped C. will help
B. help D. could help

17. I have not written any letters home since I _____here (0,27 points)
A. come C. have come
B. came D. will come

18. It was impossible for her to tell the truth so she had to _____ a story. (0,27 points)
A. invent C. managed
B. combine D. lie

19. From an early lead, the team _____ to an embarrassing defeat. (0,27 points)
A. slumped (sụp xuống, hạ nhanh) C. declined (suy tàn, suy sụp)
B. fell D. dropped (giảm bớt, giảm xuống)

20. Her friend tells her that she should _____ being silly. (0,27 points)
A. stay C. give up
B. stop D. not

21. People can become very _____ when they are stuck in traffic for a long time. (0,27 points)
A. nervous C. pressed (chịu áp lực)
B. stressful (gây ra căng thẳng) D. bad-tempered (nóng nảy, cáu kỉnh, quạu quọ)
53
22. “Have you seen Ed lately?"
“No, because he _____ in (dùng thì giờ vào việc gì) more time at work.” (0,27 points)
A. has put C. has been put
B. having put D. has been putting
23. It’s time we _____home. (0,27 points)
A. go C. gone
B. went D. going

24. If he _____ more time, he’d go to Paris. (0,27 points)
A. had C. had had
B. has D. having

25. It’s vital that our children’s handwriting should be _____. (0,27 points)
A. legible (rõ ràng, dễ đọc) C. literate (có học, biết đọc biết viết)
B. legitimate (hợp pháp, xác thực, chính đáng) D. illiterate (mù chữ)
26. The populace (công chúng, quần chúng) was so terrified of the tornado that however town she visited
she found villages deserted (vắng vẻ, hiu quạnh) of inhabitants and livestock (vật nuôi). (0,27 points)
C. however
A. The
D. villages deserted
B. so terrified
54
27. Everyday she played with her ball in the garden of the palace (0,27 points)
A. played C. in
B. her D. of

28. Neither of the men arresting as terrorists would reveal information about his group. (0,27 points)
A. Neither C. would reveal

B. arresting D. his group
Nói (1,0 points)

29. Laura: "What a lovely house you have!"
Kate: “_____.” (0,5 points)
A. Thank you. Hope you will drop in (tạt vào thăm, nhân tiện ghé thăm).
B. No problem
C. Of course not, It’s not costly (tốn tiền)
D. Thanks. I think so

30. A: Would you like me to get it for you?
B: _____. (0,5 points)
A. Go ahead, please (làm đi, tiến hành đi) C. No problem
B. I’m glad to D. Me, too

In the American colonies there was little money. England did not supply the colonies with coins
and did not allow the colonies to make their own coins, except for the Massachusetts Bay Colony,
which received permission for a short period in 1652 to make several kinds of silver coins.
England wanted to keep money out of America as a means of controlling trade: America was
forced to trade only with England if it did not have the money to buy products from other countries.
The result during this pre-revolutionary period was that the colonists used various goods in place
of money: beaver pelts (da còn lông của hải ly), Indian wampum (chuỗi hạt làm bằng vỏ sò), and
tobacco leaves were all commonly used substitutes (vật thay thế) for money.
55
The colonists (những người định cư đất mới) also made use of any foreign coins they could
obtain. Dutch, Spanish, French, and English coins were all in use in the American colonies. During
the Revolutionary War, funds were needed to finance (tài trợ, cấp tiền cho) the world, so each of
the individual states and the Continental Congress (đại hội gồm 13 thuộc địa hợp nhất thành Hoa
Kỳ) issued paper money. So much of this paper money was printed that by the end of the war,
almost no one would accept it. As a result, trade in goods and the use of foreign coins still
flourished during this period. By the time the Revolutionary War had been won by the American
colonists, the monetary system was in a state of total disarray (lộn xộn, xáo trộn, hỗn loạn). To
remedy (khắc phục, giải quyết) this situation, the new Constitution (Hiến pháp) of the United
States, approved in 1789, allowed Congress to issue money. The individual states could no longer
have their own money supply. A few years later, the Coinage (hệ thống tiền tệ) Act (Đạo luật) of
1792 made the dollar the official currency of the United States and put the country on a bimetallic
(lưỡng kim) standard. In this bimetallic system, both gold and silver were legal money, and the
rate of exchange of silver to gold was fixed by the government at sixteen to one.
31. The passage mainly discusses (0,1 points)
A. American money from past to present.
B. the English monetary policies in colonial America.
C. the effect of the Revolution on American money.
D. the American monetary system of the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries.
32. The passage indicates that during the colonial period, money was (0,1 points)
A. supplied by England.
B. coined by colonists.
C. scarce.
D. used extensively (rộng rãi) for trade.
33. The Massachusetts Bay Colony was allowed to make coins (0,1 points)
A. continuously from the inception (sự khởi đầu, sự bắt đầu) of the colonies.
B. throughout the seventeenth century.
C. from 1652 until the Revolutionary War.
D. for a short time during one year.
34. The expression “a means of“ in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by. (0,1 points)
A. an example of
56
B. a method of
C. a result of
D. a punishment for
35. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as a substitute for money during the
colonial period? (0,1 points)
A. Wampum
B. Tobacco
C. Cotton
D. Beaver furs
36. The pronoun “it“ in paragraph 2 refers to which of the following (0,1 points)
A. the Continental Congress
B. Paper money
C. the War
D. Trade in goods
37. It is implied in the passage that at the end of the Revolutionary War, a paper dollar was
worth (0,1 points)
A. exactly one dollar
B. just under one dollar
C. just over one dollar
D. almost nothing
38. The word “remedy“ in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to (0,1 points)

A. resolve
B. understand
C. renew (thay mới, làm mới, đổi mới)
D. medicate (điều trị)
39. How was the monetary system arranged in the Constitution? (0,1 points)
A. Only the US Congress could issue money.
57
B. The US officially went on a bimetallic monetary system.
C. Various state governments, including Massachusetts, could issue money.
D. The dollar was made official currency of the US.
40. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about the bimetallic monetary
system? (0,1 points)
A. Either gold or silver could be used as official money.
B. Gold could be exchanged for silver at the rate of sixteen to one.
C. The monetary system was based on two matters (chất, vật liệu).
D. It was established in 1792

It is estimated the (1) correct number is not known that worldwide (khắp thế giới, cả thế giới, toàn thế giới)
some 60,000 newspapers exist with a (2) connected circulation (tổng số phát hành) of nearly 500 million.
However, the number of readers is (3) far greater-as many as three times the circulation figure. This is because
newspapers are shared, some are posted, and (4) the others placed in libraries and other (5) public places.
Worldwide, about 8,000 of these newspapers are dailies. About a third of all newspapers are published in North
America, (6) the next third in Europe, and the (7) remaining third in the rest of the world. Countries with the
highest newspaper (8) readership (lượng độc giả) are Britain, Norway, Denmark, Sweden, Japan, and the
United States. Europe has nearly half of the world’s total newspaper circulation, North America about a quarter,
and the rest of the world another quarter. Taking the world (9) as a whole, the average circulation of dailies per
1,000 persons is about 100, but there are many parts of the world where the modern newspaper is (10) almost
ever seen.
A. exact C. precise
B. correct D. right

A. mixed C. connected
B. combined D. linked

A. even C. more
B. far D. very
58
A. another C. others
B. the others D. the rest

A. open C. shared
B. common D. public

A. the other C. another
B. the next D. the last

A. extra C. spare
B. left D. remaining

A. readers C. readership
B. buyers D. subscribers (người đăng ký)

A. as a whole (toàn bộ, nói chung = as one thing or piece C. on general (in general)
and not as separate parts) D. in all (tổng cộng, tất cả, cả thảy = as a
B. generally (nói chung) total; altogether)
A. almost C. seldom
B. not D. scarcely (chỉ vừa; chắc chắn là không)
59
Môn: TIẾNG ANH

ĐỀ THI SỐ 6

A. libel C. liberal
B. revival D. recital
A. song C. season
B. start D. sing
A. cover C. legend
B. demand D. tension
A. epoch C. epic
B. episode D. equivalent

5. Humans depend on species diversity to provide food, clean air and water, and fertile soil for
agriculture. (0,25 points)
A. destruction C. fertilizer
B. contamination D. variety
60
6. I take my hat off to all those people who worked hard to get the contract. (0,25 points)
A. respect C. detest
B. discourage D. dislike
7. About 95 percent of all animals are invertebrates which can live anywhere, but most, like the
starfish and crabs, live in the ocean. (0,25 points)
A. with backbones D. without backbones
B. with ribs C. without ribs
8. The Germany’s war hysteria has accounted for its people’s hostility towards foreigners. (0,25 points)
A. disease C. malaria
B. ceremony D. serenity

9. Anne takes after her mother. (0,2 points)
A. Anne resembles her mother in action
B. Anne and her mother are alike
C. Anne looks alike her mother
D. Anne likes her mother very much
10. The theory of natural selection made the idea of organic evolution acceptable to the
majority of the scientific world. (0,2 points)
A. The world’s scientists accepted the idea of organic evolution more readily than the concept of
natural selection.
B. Without the theory of natural selection to support it, no scientists would ever have approved the
theory of organic evolution.
61
C. On the whole, the scientific world approved the concept of organic evolution once the theory of
natural selection had been postulated.
D. It was only after the introduction of the theory of natural selection that scientists paid any attention
to the idea of organic evolution.
11. Ian has no intention of coming to the party, so we may as well not invite him. (0,2 points)
A. None of us wants Ian to be at the party, so we aren’t inviting him.
B. Let’s not invite Ian to the party unless he promises to come.
C. As he doesn’t mean to come anyway, we needn’t ask Ian to the party.
D. Because he never wants to come, we never ask Ian to parties with us.
12. The switch was too high for him to reach. (0,2 points)
A. He wasn’t tall enough for reaching the switch.
B. He wasn’t tall enough to reach the switch.
C. He wasn’t enough tall to reach the switch.
D. He wasn’t so tall that he can reach the switch.
13. The noise next door did not stop until after midnight. (0,2 points)
A. Not until after midnight the noise next door stopped.
B. It was not until after midnight that the noise next door stopped.
C. The noise next door stopped at midnight.
D. It was midnight and the noise next door stopped.

14. The presidents of the two companies have been involved in a huge business _____ (0,27 points)
A. transaction C. acceleration
B. reaction D. cohesion
62
15. “Do you think the new teacher is good?” “Yes. She explains things clearly, _____ makes it easier
to learn.” (0,27 points)
A. consequently C. which
B. by which D. in that

16. _____, even though many countries are stepping up their own production (0,27 points)
A. Steel remains an important item of international trade
B. This is just one of many developments in international trade
C. England still imported a great deal of tropical fruit
D. Turkey’s exports of fruit and vegetables will have dropped sharply

17. At the hospital I was told that, _____ I gave up smoking immediately my illness would get much
worse. (0,27 points)
A. except C. without
B. until D. unless

18. The school was closed for a month because of serious _____ of fever. (0,27 points)
A. outcome C. outset
B. outburst D. outbreak

19. _____mammals, once weaned, do not routinely drink milk. (0,27 points)
A. As a whole, C. Wholly,
B. All whole, D. On a whole,

20. Honshu Island, Japan _____ by a tsunami on March 11, 2011. (0,27 points)
A. strikes C. has struck
B. is struck D. was struck
63
21. The visitors found the little girl’s stories very _____ . (0,27 points)
A. amuse C. amuses
B. amused D. amusing

22. Look out! The car _____ toward us. (0,27 points)
A. is coming C. will be coming
B. will come D. comes

23. Many scientists are sure _____ life on other planets. (0,27 points)
A. there was C. there are
B. there had been D. there is

24. “Do you think she'll get the scholarship?"
“ _____ an excellent student, she stands a good chance.” (0,27 points)
A. Since being C. To be
B. Being D. Because being

25. A (An) _____ is a person who designs buildings. (0,27 points)
A. farmer C. decorator
B. architect D. mechanic

26. Hardly he had entered the office when he realized that he had forgotten his wallet. (0,27 points)
A. Hardly he had C. that he had
B. the office D. forgotten

27. We have our doubts about whether the recently implemented regulations will be beneficial
or they are not. (0,27 points)
64
A. doubts about C. will
B. recently D. they are not

28. Each of the nurses report to the operating room when his or her name is called. (0,27 points)
A. of the C. her name
B. report D. called
Nói (1,0 points)

29. Linda: "Thomas thinks he knows everything about dinosaurs."
Jill: “_____” (0,5 points)
A. He’s such a know-all.
B. He knew a lot about dinosaurs.
C. He knows enough.
D. Everything he knows is all about dinosaurs.

30. “That’s a very nice skirt you're wearing."
“_____” (0,5 points)
A. How a compliment!
B. That’s all right.
C. It’s nice of you to say so.
D. I like you said so.

Telecommuting is some form of computer communication between employees’ homes and offices.
For employees whose job involve sitting at a terminal or word processor entering data or typing
reports, the location of the computer is of no consequence. If the machine can communicate over
telephone lines, when the work is completed, employees can dial the office computer and transmit
the material to their employers. A recent survey in USA Today estimates that there are
approximately 8.7 million telecommuters. But although the numbers are rising annually, the trend
does not appear to be as significant as predicted when Business Week published “The Portable
Executive” as its cover story a few years ago. Why hasn’t telecommuting become more popular?
65
Clearly, change simply takes time. But in addition, there has been active resistance on the part of
many managers. These executives claim that supervising the telecommuters in a large work force
scattered across the country would be too difficult, or, at least, systems for managing them are not
yet developed, thereby complicating the manager’s responsibilities. It is also true that employees
who are given the option of telecommuting are reluctant to accept the opportunity. Most people
feel that they need regular interaction with a group, and many are concerned that they will not have
the same consideration for advancement if they are not more visible in the office setting. Some
people feel that even when a space in their homes is set aside as a work area, they never really
get away from the office.
31. With which of the following topics is the passage primarily concerned? (0,1 points)
A. The advantages of telecommuting.
B. A definition of telecommuting.
C. An overview of telecommuting.
D. The failure of telecommuting.
32. How many Americans are involved in telecommuting? (0,1 points)

A. More than predicted in Business Week.
B. More than 8 million.
C. Fewer than estimated in USA Today.
D. Fewer than last year.
33. The phrase “of no consequence“ means _____. (0,1 points)

A. of no use C. unimportant
B. of no good D. irrelevant
34. The author mentions all of the following as concerns of telecommuting, EXCEPT _____. (0,1 points)
A. the opportunities for advancement.

B. the different system of supervision.
C. the lack of interaction with a group.
D. The work place is in the home.
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35. The word “executives" in the passage refers to _____. (0,1 points)
A. telecommuters C. employees
B. managers D. most people
36. The word “them“ in the passage refers to _____. (0,1 points)
A. systems C. executives
B. telecommuters D. responsibilities
37. The reason why telecommuting has not become popular is that the employees _____. (0,1 points)
A. need regular interaction with their families.
B. are worried about the promotion if they are not seen at the office.
C. feel that a work area in their home is away from the office.
D. are ignorant of telecommuting.
38. It can be inferred from the passage that the author is _____. (0,1 points)
A. a telecommuter C. a statistician
B. the manager D. a reporter
39. The word “reluctant“ in the passage can best be replaced by _____. (0,1 points)
A. opposite C. hesitate
B. willing D. typical
40. When Business Week published “The Portable Executive," it implied that (0,1 points)
A. systems for managing telecommuters were not effective.
B. there was resistance on the part of many managers about telecommuting.
C. the trend for telecommuting was optimistic.
D. most telecommuters were satisfied with their work.
AS OLD AS YOU FEEL

It might after all be true that you are only as old as you feel. A British clinic is carrying out new
high-tech tests to calculate the “real” biological age of patients (1) based on the rate of
physical
67
deterioration. Information on every (2) aspect of a patient’s health, fitness, lifestyle and family
medical history is (3) fed into a computer to work out whether they are older or younger than their
calendar age suggest. The availability and increasing accuracy of the tests has (4) prompted one
leading British gerontologist to call for biological age to be used to determine when workers should
retire. He (5) argues that if an employee’s biological or “real” age is shown, for example, to be
55 when he reaches his 65th birthday, he should be (6) incited to work for another decade.
Apparently most employers only take into (7) account a person’s calendar years, and the two
may differ considerably. Some of those prepared to pay a substantial sum of money for the
examinations will be able to smugly walk away with medical (8) evidence showing that they really
are as young as they feel, giving them the confidence to act and dress as if they were younger. Dr.
Lynette Yong, resident doctor at the clinic where the tests are offered claims that the purpose of
these tests will be to motivate people to (9) improve their health.
The concept of “real” age is set to become big (10) business in the USA with books and
websites helping people work out whether their body is older or younger than their years. Others
firmly believe that looks will always be the best indicator of age.

A. prospect C. based
B. arranged D. established

A. attitude C. decided
B. position D. aspect

A. planned C. supplied
B. provided D. fed

A. provided C. projected
B. prompted D. provoked

A. argues B. discusses
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C. enquires D. debates

A. incited C. supported
B. encouraged D. promoted

A. detail C. interest
B. account D. importance

A. evidence C. signs
B. grounds D. demonstration

A. increase C. improve
B. gain D. progress

A. pursuit C. trade
B. concern D. business
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Môn: TIẾNG ANH

ĐỀ THI SỐ 7

A. mandarin C. maternal
B. manual D. manage
A. christmas C. switch
B. chemical D. character
A. multitude C. museum
B. musician D. municipal
A. tolerant C. descendant
B. ignorant D. immigrant

5. The medical community continues to make progress in the fight against cancer. (0,25 points)
70
A. speed C. do better
B. expect more D. treat better
6. Roget’s Thesaurus, a collection of English words and phrases, was originally arranged by the ideas
they express rather than by alphabetical order. (0,25 points)
A. restricted C. unless
B. as well as D. instead of
7. The Red Cross is an international humanitarian agency dedicated to reducing the sufferings of
wounded soldiers, civilians and prisoners of war. (0,25 points)
A. happiness C. pain and sorrow
B. worry and sadness D. loss
8. Children receive their “luck money” inside red envelopes. (0,25 points)
A. publish C. transmit
B. deliver D. spread

9. You should have persuaded him to change his mind. (0,2 points)
A. It was essential to persuade him to change his mind but you didn’t.
B. You didn’t persuade him to change because of his mind.
C. You should persuade him to change his mind.
D. You persuaded him to change his mind but he didn’t listen.
10. After the operation, she recovered far quicker than any of us had expected her
to. (0,2 points)
A. She recovered from the operation just as quickly as anybody could have hoped.
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B. Once the operation was over her recovery was as fast as could be expected.
C. To our great surprise she was back to normal again as soon as the operation was over.
D. We were all surprised at how fast her health returned after the operation.

11. I see no reason to change my clothes so long as they are not excessively dirty. (0,2 points)
A. If my clothes were a bit dirty, then probably I would think about changing them.
B. Provided my clothes are not too dirty, I do not think it necessary to change them.
C. I will have to change my clothes if they get any less clean than they currently are.
D. It is illogical to change my clothes when they are not actually dirty.
12. Wouldn’t it be better to let them know about the alterations to the plan? (0,2 points)
A. Why haven’t they been informed about the new development?
B. Shouldn’t they have been consulted before the scheme was changed?
C. Don’t you think they should be informed about the changes in the plan?
D. We’d better ask them to change the plan, hadn’t we?
13. He spent all his money. He even borrowed some from me. (0,2 points)
A. As soon as he borrowed some money from me, he spent it all.
B. Hardly had he borrowed some money from me when he spent it all.
C. Not only did he spent all his money but also he borrowed some from me.
D. Not only did he spend all his money but he borrowed some from me as well.

14. I failed my exam. I worked hard for it. I’m so _____ (0,27 points)
A. disappoint C. disappointingly
B. disappointing D. disappointed
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15. Are you able to _____ CDs on your computer? (0,27 points)
A. toast C. bake
B. cook D. burn

16. My family consist _____ five people: my parents, my two younger brothers and I. (0,27 points)
A. on C. over
B. of D. up

17. “They’re still looking for Jack."
“Hasn’t he _____yet?” (0,27 points)
A. found C. being found
B. been found D. to found

18. He looked very _____ when I told him the news. (0,27 points)
A. happily C. happiness
B. happy D. happiest

19. I _____ hope there won’t be a repetition of these unfortunate events. (0,27 points)
A. deeply C. strongly
B. sincerely D. thoroughly

20. You should take more exercise if you want to keep _____ (0,27 points)
A. fit C. fine
B. fat D. fresh
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21. I usually _____ out with Martin on Saturdays but he’s away this weekend. (0,27 points)
A. went C. have gone
B. is going D. go

22. We were all _____ at how well she spoke English. (0,27 points)
A. shocked C. astonished
B. shattered D. incredible

23. We _____ to see you this weekend. (0,27 points)
A. are coming C. come
B. will come D. are going to come

24. While studying, he was financially dependent _____ his parents. (0,27 points)
A. of C. from
B. to D. on.

25. These shoes are uncomfortable. I’m going to _____ (0,27 points)
A. take off C. take off them
B. take them off D. take them out

26. Nobody had known before the presentation that Sue and her sister will receive the awards for
outstanding scholarships. (0,27 points)
A. had known C. will receive
B. the D. the awards
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27. Unless you water your indoor plants regularly and give them the necessary vitamins, you can’t
expect them to look healthily.(0,27 points)
A. Unless C. the
B. and D. healthily

28. He said that he will leave there the following day. (0,27 points)
A. said that C. there
B. will leave D. the following day
Nói (1,0 points)

29. “Let’s have supper now."
“_____” (0,5 points)
A. You aren’t eating C. There aren’t many
B. I won’t D. Bill isn’t here

30. Jane: "It's going to rain."
Mary: “_____.” (0,5 points)
A. I hope not so C. I don’t hope so
B. I don’t hope either D. I hope not

One of the seven wonders of the ancient world, the Great Pyramid of Giza was a monument of
wisdom and prophecy built as a tomb for Pharaoh Cheops in 2720 B.C. Despite its antiquity, certain
aspects of its construction make it one of the truly wonders of the world. The thirteen-acre structure
near the Nile river is a solid mass of stone blocks covered with limestone. Inside are the number of
hidden passageways and the burial chamber of the Pharaoh. It is the largest single structure in the
world. The four sides of the pyramid are aligned almost exactly on true north, south, east and west -
an incredible engineering feat. The ancient Egyptians were sun worshippers and great
astronomers, so computations for the Great Pyramid were based on astronomical observations.
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Explorations and detailed examinations of the base of the structure reveal many intersecting lines.
Further scientific study indicates that these represent a type of timeline of events - past, present and
future. Many of the events have been interpreted and found to coincide with known facts of the past.
Others are prophesied for future generations and are currently under investigation. Many believe
that pyramids have supernatural powers and this one is no exception. Some researchers even
associate it with extra-terrestrial beings of ancient past. Was this superstructure made by ordinary
beings, or one built by a race far superior to any known today?
31. What has research of the base revealed? (0,1 points)

A. There are cracks in the foundation
B. Tomb robbers have stolen the Pharaoh’s body
C. The lines represent important events
D. A superior race of people built in
32. Extra-terrestrial beings are _____. (0,1 points)

A. very strong workers
B. astronomers in the ancient times
C. researchers in Egyptology
D. living beings from other planets
33. What was the most probable reason for providing so many hidden passages? (0,1 points)
A. To allow the weight of the pyramid to settle evenly
B. To permit the high priests to pray at night
C. To enable the Pharaoh’s family to bring food for his journey to the afterlife
D. To keep grave robbers from finding the tomb and the treasure buried with the pharaoh
34. The word feat in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to _____. (0,1 points)
A. accomplishment C. festivity
B. appendage D. structure
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35. What do the intersecting lines in the base symbolize? (0,1 points)
A. Architects’ plan for the hidden passages
B. Pathways of the great solar bodies
C. Astrological computations
D. Dates of important events taking place throughout time
36. In the second passage, the word prophesied is closest in meaning to _____. (0,1 points)
A. affiliated C. terminated
B. precipitated D. foretold
37. What is the best title for the passage? (0,1 points)
A. Symbolism of the Great Pyramid
B. Problems with the Construction of the Great Pyramid
C. Wonders of the Great Pyramid of Giza
D. Exploration of the Burial Chamber of Cheops
38. On what did the ancient Egyptians base their calculations? (0,1 points)
A. Observation of the celestial bodies
B. Advanced technology
C. Advanced tools of measurement
D. Knowledge of the Earth’s surface
39. Why was the Great Pyramid constructed? (0,1 points)

A. As a solar observatory
B. As a religious temple
C. As a tomb for the Pharaoh
D. As an engineering feat
40. Why is the Great Pyramid of Giza considered one of the seven wonders of the world? (0,1 points)
A. It is perfectly aligned with the four cardinal points of the compass and contains many prophecies
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B. It was selected of the tomb of Pharaoh Cheops
C. It was built by a super race
D. It is very old

You will make the interview process easier for the employer if you prepare relevant information about
yourself. Think about how you want to present your (1) strengths, experiences, education, work,
style, skills, and goals. Be prepared to supplement all your answers with examples that support the
statements you make, it is also a good idea to review your resume with a critical eye and (2) identify
areas that an employer might see as limitations or want further information. Think about how you can
answer difficult questions (3) accurately and positively, while keeping each answer brief. An interview
gives the employer a (4) chance to get to know you while you do want to market yourself to the
employer, answer each question with an honest (5) response. Never say anything negative about
past experiences, employers, or courses and professors. Always think of something positive about an
experience and talk about that. You should also be (6) enthusiastic. If you are genuinely interested
(7) in the job, let the interviewer know that. One of the best ways to show you are keen on a job is to
demonstrate that you have researched the organization prior to the interview. You can also (8) show
interest by asking questions about the job, the organization, and its services and products. The best
way to impress an employer is to ask questions that build upon your interview discussion. This shows
you are interested and (9) pay close attention to the interviewer. It is a good idea to prepare a few
questions in advance, but an insightful comment based on your conversation can make an even
stronger statement. At the (10) end of an interview, it is appropriate for you to ask when you may
expect to hear from the employer.
A. pressure C. promotions
B. practices D. strengths

A. hide C. express
B. identify D. limit

A. sharply B. hardy
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C. accurately D. rightly

A. chance C. change
B. way D. practice

A. expression C. response
B. respect D. ability

A. enthusiastic C. enthusiasm
B. enthusiast D. enthusiastically

A. on B. for C. with D. in

A. appear C. cover
B. show D. conceal

A. make C. choose
B. pay D. spend

A. final C. close
B. finish D. end
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A. poster C. Poland
B. potent D. polish
A. church C. chemist
B. choose D. cheer
A. prosecutor C. diplomat
B. satellite D. contestant
A. develop C. advertise
B. attractive D. construction
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5. Thanh Hoa is well-known for its beautiful beaches and seafood. (0,25 points)
A. rich C. honest
B. successful D. famous
6. I hope to have the privilege of working with them again. (0,25 points)
A. honor C. favor
B. advantage D. right
7. Henry has found a temporary job in a factory. (0,25 points)
A. eternal C. permanent
B. genuine D. satisfactory
8. What services do you think the post office offers? (0,25 points)
A. withdraws C. sells
B. receives D. brings

9. Nobody at all came to the meeting (0,2 points)
A. There was almost nobody at the meeting
B. Not many people came to the meeting
C. Not a single person came to the meeting
D. Only a few people came to the meeting
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10. Fiona goes to the theater once in a blue moon. (0,2 points)
A. Fiona goes to the theater when the moon is full.
B. Fiona rarely goes to the theater.
C. Fiona goes to the theater when the blue moon is on.
D. Fiona goes to the theater only once a month.
11. Were it not for the money, this job wouldn’t be worthwhile. (0,2 points)
A. This job is not rewarding at all.
B. The only thing that makes this job worthwhile is the money.
C. Although the salary is poor, the job is worthwhile.
D. This job offers a poor salary.
12. You are in this mess right now because you didn’t listen to me in the first place. (0,2 points)
A. If you listened to my advice in the first place, you wouldn’t be in this mess right now.
B. If you had listened to my advice in the first place, you wouldn’t be in this mess right now.
C. If you listen to my advice in the first place, you will not be in this mess right now.
D. If you had listened to my advice in the first place, you wouldn’t have been in this mess right now.
13. Almost everybody in the hotel took advantage of its free bus to the beach. (0,2 points)
A. Hardly anybody who was staying in the hotel travelled to the beach on its free bus.
B. Nearly everyone who was on the beach had taken the free bus from the hotel.
C. Everyone in the hotel saw its free bus to the beach as the best way to get there.
D. Only a few of the guests didn’t use the hotel’s bus, which was free, to get to the beach.
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14. I _____ to go fishing at weekends when I was a child. (0,27 points)
A. can C. use
B. used D. went

15. Her father won’t _____ her drive his car (0,27 points)
A. allow C. permit
B. leave D. let

16. Can you _____ me a favour by taking me to the market after class tomorrow
morning? (0,27 points)
A. get C. take
B. do D. have

17. Why don’t you become a teacher? There’s a great _____ of them at the moment. (0,27 points)
A. requirement C. shortage
B. need D. want

18. “Why is Laura crying?"
“Something unpleasant _____ at school.” (0,27 points)
A. happens C. had happened
B. happened D. happening
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19. Snow aids farmers by keeping heat in the lower ground levels, thereby _____ from
freezing. (0,27 points)
A. to save the seeds
B. saving the seeds
C. which save the seeds
D. the seeds save

20. _____, we couldn’t have continued with the project. (0,27 points)
A. Unless we had your contribution
B. Provided your contribution wouldn’t come
C. Even if you didn’t like to contribute
D. If you hadn’t contributed positively

21. The advancing army wreaked terrible _____ for their previous defeats. (0,27 points)
A. retaliation C. vengeance
B. reprisal D. vindictiveness

22. She used to be much shorter than I was; now she’s taller than _____ (0,27 points)
A. I C. I do
B. I has D. I am

23. Do you find it easy to _____ friends? (0,27 points)
A. take C. make
B. have D. get
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24. Traditionally, Americans and Asians have very different ideas _____ love and
marriage. (0,27 points)
A. to C. about
B. at D. in

25. I often go abroad _____ business. (0,27 points)
A. for C. in
B. on D. through

26. An important factor should be considered is Mr. Lopez’s ability to keep the new restaurant
going for several months with limited revenue. (0,27 points)
A. should be considered C. for several
B. ability D. with limited revenue

27. I was sure that some players had taken the money, even though they all denied. (0,27 points)
A. that C. though
B. taken D. denied

28. I went to the library to get as many information as I could. (0,27 points)
A. went C. many information
B. to get D. could
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Nói (1,0 points)
29. Harry: "May I smoke?"
Kate: “_____” (0,5 points)
A. What suit you?
B. You are free
C. Accommodate yourself!
D. Go ahead!

30. Student: "I would like to join the library."
Librarian: “_____” (0,5 points)
A. OK. Would you like to fill in this form?
B. OK. This is the form that requires us.
C. OK. I would like to fill in this form.
D. OK. See if you can join.

Read the passage below and answer the questions.
Why is it that flying to New York from London will leave you feeling less tired than flying to London
from New York? The answer may be a clear case of biology not being able to keep up with
technology. Deep inside the brain there is a “clock” that governs every aspect of the body’s
functioning: sleep and wake cycles, levels of alertness, performance, mood, hormone levels,
digestion, body temperature and so on. It regulates all of these functions on a 24-hour basis and is
called the circadian clock (from the Latin, circa “about” + dies “day”). This body clock programmes
us to be sleepy twice a day, between 3-5 a.m and again between 3-5 p.m. Afternoon tea and siesta
times are all cultural responses to our natural biological sleepiness in the afternoon. One of the
major causes of the travelers’ malady known as jet lag is the non-alignment of a person’s internal
body clock with clocks in the external world. Crossing different time zones confuses the circadian
clock, which then has to adjust to the new time and patterns of light and activity. To make matters
more complex, not all internal body functions adjust at the same rate. So your sleep/wake may
adjust to a new time zone at one rate, while your temperature adjusts at a different pace. Your
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digestion may be on a different schedule altogether. Though we live in a 24-hour day, the natural
tendency of the body clock is to extend our day beyond 24 hours. It is contrary to our biological
programming to shrink our day. That is why travelling in a westward direction is more body-clock
friendly than flying east. NASA studies of long haul pilots showed that westward travel was
associated with significantly better sleep quantity and quality than eastward flights. When flying
west, you are “extending” your day, thus travelling in the natural direction of your internal clock.
Flying eastward will involve “shrinking” or reducing your day and is in direct opposition to your
internal clock’s natural tendency. One of the more common complaints of travelers is that their
sleep becomes disrupted. There are many reasons for this: Changing time zones and schedules,
changing light and activity levels, trying to sleep when your body clock is programmed to be awake,
disruption of the internal circadian clock and working longer hours. Sleep loss, jet lag and fatigue
can seriously affect our ability to function well. Judgment and decision-making can be reduced by
50%, attention by 75 percent, memory by 20 percent and communication by 30 percent. It is often
suggested that you adjust your watch as soon as you board a plane, supposedly to try to help you
adjust to your destination’s schedule as soon as you arrive. But it can take the body clock several
days to several weeks to fully adjust to a new time zone.
31. The main function of the body clock is to _____ (0,1 points)
A. govern all the body’s responses.
B. regulate the body’s functions.
C. help us sleep.
D. help us adapt to a 24-hour cycle.
32. The word “It“ refers to _____ (0,1 points)

A. the programme C. the function
B. the body clock D. the brain
33. Jet lag _____ (0,1 points)

A. makes our body clock operate badly.
B. causes our body clock to change.
C. extends the hours of our body clock.
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D. upsets our body’s rhythms.
34. The word “malady“ is closest in meaning to _____ (0,1 points)

A. illness C. thought
B. bore D. feeling
35. The direction you fly in _____ (0,1 points)

A. helps you sleep better.
B. alters your body’s natural rhythms.
C. affects the degree of jet lag.
D. extends or shrinks your body clock.
36. According to the article, _____ (0,1 points)

A. various factors stop us sleeping when we fly.
B. travelers complain about the negative effects of flying.
C. flying seriously affects your judgment and decision-making.
D. jet lag can affect different abilities differently.
37. On the subject of avoiding jet lag the article _____ (0,1 points)
A. makes no suggestions.
B. says there is nothing you can do.
C. proposes gradually adjusting your body clock.
D. suggests changing the time on your watch.
38. According to the author, which of the following reasons disrupt travelers’ sleep? (0,1 points)
A. Travelers try to sleep between 3-5 p.m.
B. Travelers’ attention is reduced by 75 percent.
C. The traveler’s internal circadian clock has to adjust to patterns of light and activity.
D. Travelers fly in the natural direction of their internal clock.
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39. It can be inferred from the passage that _____ (0,1 points)
A. travelers have to spend more money flying westward than eastward.
B. there are more travelers in westward flights than in eastward ones.
C. westward travelers become friendlier than eastward ones.
D. travelers do not sleep as well in eastward flights as in westward ones.
40. The word “fatigue“ is closest in meaning to _____ (0,1 points)

A. obsession
B. exhaustion
C. sleeplessness
D. frustration

Environmental Concerns
Earth is the only place we know of in the universe that can support human life (1) despite human
activities are making the planet less fit to live on. As the western world (2) repeats on consuming
two-thirds of the world’s resources while half of the world’s population do so just to stay alive we are
rapidly destroying the (3) very resource we have by which all people can survive and prosper.
Everywhere fertile soil is (4) either built on or washed into the sea. Renewable resources are
exploited so much that they will never be able to recover (5) completely. We discharge pollutants
into the atmosphere without any thought of the consequences. As a (6) result the planet’s ability to
support people is being reduced at the very time when rising human numbers and consumption are
(7) making increasingly heavy demands on it. The Earth’s (8) natural resources are there for us to
use. We need food, water, air, energy, medicines, warmth, shelter and minerals to (9) keep us fed,
comfortable, healthy and active. If we are sensible in how we use the resources, they will (10) last
indefinitely. But if we use them wastefully and excessively, they will soon run out and everyone will
suffer.

A. Although C. Still
B. Yet D. Despite
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A. continues C. follows
B. repeats D. carries

A. individual C. very
B. alone D. solitary

A. neither C. rather
B. sooner D. either

A. utterly C. quite
B. completely D. greatly

A. result C. development
B. reaction D. product

A. making C. having
B. doing D. taking

A. living C. natural
B. real D. genuine
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A. maintain C. hold
B. stay D. keep

A. remain C. last
B. go D. stand
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A. sword C. answer
B. whole D. sweet
A. boots C. stops
B. books D. learns
A. industrial C. preparation
B. exhibition D. decoration
A. absentee D.employee
B. referee D. committee

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5. S. Mayo Hospital in New Orleans was so named in recognition of Dr. Mayo’s outstanding
humanitarianism. (0,25 points)
A. exhaustive C. remarkable
B. charitable D. widespread
6. Names of people in the book were changed to preserve anonymity. (0,25 points)
A. reveal C. cover
B. conserve D. presume
7. This meant that more work had to be done to eradicate illiteracy in our country. (0,25 points)
A. disappointed C. begun
B. neglected D. made
8. Fax transmission has now become a cheap and convenient way to transmit texts and graphics
over distances. (0,25 points)
A. inopportune C. unavailable
B. remote D. distant

9. Barely had Laura sat down at her computer in her office when she was called away to deal with
an unhappy customer (0,2 points)
A. Because Laura was instructed to sort out the complaint of an annoyed customer, she had no time
to sit down at her computer.
B. Someone called Laura out of her office to try and sort out the problem of a dissatisfied customer
just after she had sat down in front of her computer.
C. An unhappy customer called Laura out of her office to deal with his complaint, just as she was
getting into her seat in front of her computer.
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D. Laura was ordered to help resolve the problem of an upset customer before she was able to go
into her office and sit down at the computer.
10. He is an authority on primitive religion. (0,2 points)
A. He is famous for his vast knowledge of primitive religion.
B. He has authority over the people who practise primitive religion.
C. He has a great influence on the people who practise primitive religion.
D. He has official permission to practice primitive religion.
11. David broke his leg and couldn’t play in the final. (0,2 points)
A. David couldn’t play in the final due to his broken leg.
B. If David hadn’t broken his leg, he could play in the final now
C. If David didn’t break his leg, he could play in the final.
D. But for his broken leg, David couldn’t have played in the final.
12. That will put the cat among the pigeons. (0,2 points)
A. The cat will have to stay outside the house today.
B. That will cause a lot of trouble.
C. The cat will play with the pigeons.
D. Then we shall have as many cats as we have pigeons.
13. As long as you stay calm, you have nothing to fear from the interview. (0,2 points)
A. You have remained calm for a long time in spite of your fear of the interview.
B. Interviews are only intimidating for people who are not extremely calm.
C. Provided you do not get nervous, the interview won’t go badly for you.
D. Even if you are afraid of the interview, it is important not to let it show.
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14. We can’t find a place _____ (0,27 points)
A. live C. living
B. to live D. lived

15. The weather is so awful that I don’t _____ going out this evening. (0,27 points)
A. fancy C. try
B. like D. want

16. The _____ last thing I want now is to catch a cold. (0,27 points)
A. most C. utterly
B. extremely D. very

17. It was _____ of you to lie to me about where you were last night. (0,27 points)
A. misleading C. deceitful
B. false D. deceptive

18. John took a _____ course in typing before he applied for the job. (0,27 points)
A. brisk C. snap
B. crash D. prompt

19. The classroom heating was broken and all the students sat there _____. (0,27 points)
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A. sobbing C. dozing
B. shivering D. blushing

20. When I came home yesterday, my wife _____ (0,27 points)
A. cooks C. cooking
B. cooked D. was cooking

21. We should look at real examples instead of _____ ones. (0,27 points)
A. hypodermic C. hypnotic
B. hypothetical D. hypocritical

22. I _____ this letter while I was tidying up. (0,27 points)
A. came by C. brought back
B. brought in D. came across

23. Your room is in a mess! _____ it up at once! (0,27 points)
A. Arrange C. Tidy
B. Make D. Do

24. Telling him he was boring wasn’t a very _____ thing to say (0,27 points)
A. nice C. flattered
B. well-mannered D. mannered
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25. A friend of mine phoned _____ me to a party (0,27 points)
A. invite C. for invite
B. to invite D. for inviting

26. Of the more than 1,300 volcanoes in the world, only about 600 can classify as active.
(0,27 points)
A. Of C. classify
B. only D. active

27. One or the other of the secretaries have to attend the meeting. But both of them are reluctant to
do so. (0,27 points)
A. One or the other
B. of the D. both of them
C. have to
28. The original World Cup trophy was given permanent to Brazil to honor that country’s record third
world cup title in Mexico in 1970. (0,27 points)
A. was given C. to honor
B. permanent D. title
Nói (1,0 points)

29. John: "Could you tell me how to get to the nearest post office?"
Peter: “_____.” (0,5 points)
A. Sorry for this inconvenience.
B. Not at all.
C. Sorry, I’m a new comer here.
D. I have no clue.
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30. Tom: “ _____“
Mike: “I won’t say no!” (0,5 points)
A. Mike, do you know where the scissors are?
B. How are things with you, Mike?
C. What about playing badminton this afternoon?
D. What’s your favourite, tea or coffee?

Although they are an inexpensive supplier of vitamins, minerals, and high-quality protein, eggs also
contain a high level of blood cholesterol one of the major causes of heart diseases. One egg yolk,
in fact, contains a little more than two-thirds of the suggested daily cholesterol limit. This
knowledge has driven egg sale to plummet in recent years, which in turn has brought about the
development of several alternatives to eating regular eggs. One alternative is to eat substitute
eggs. These eggs substitutes are not really eggs, but they look somewhat like eggs when they are
cooked. They have the advantage of having low cholesterol rates, and they can be scrambled or
used in baking. One disadvantage, however, is that they are not good for frying, poaching, or
boiling. A second alternative to regular eggs is a new type of egg, sometimes called “designer“
eggs. These eggs are produced by hens that are fed low-fat diets consisting of ingredients such as
canola oil, flax, and rice bran. In spite of their diet, however, these hens produce eggs that contain
the same amount of cholesterol as regular eggs. Yet, the producers of these eggs claim that eating
their eggs will not raise the blood cholesterol in humans. Eggs producers claim that their product
has been portrayed unfairly. They cite scientific studies to back up their claim. And, in fact,
studies on the relationship between eggs and human cholesterol levels have brought mixed
results. It may be that is not the type of eggs that is the main determinant of cholesterol but the
person who is eating the eggs. Some people may be more sensitive to cholesterol derived from
food than other people. In fact, there is evidence that certainly dietary fats stimulate the body’s
production of blood cholesterol. Consequently, while it still makes sense to limit one’s intake of
eggs, even designer eggs, it seems that doing this without regulating dietary fat will probably not
help reduce the blood cholesterol level.
31. What is the main purpose of the passage? (0,1 points)

A. To introduce the idea that dietary fat increases the blood cholesterol level.
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B. To make people know about the relationship between eggs and cholesterol.
C. To persuade people that eggs are unhealthy and should not be eaten.
D. To convince people to eat “designer” eggs and egg substitutes.
32. According to the passage, which of the following is a cause of heart disease? (0,1 points)
A. Minerals C. Canola
B. Cholesterol D. Vitamins
33. What has been the cause for changes in the sale of eggs? (0,1 points)
A. Increasing price
B. Decreased production
C. Dietary changes in hens
D. Concerns about cholesterol
34. What is meant by the phrase “mixed results”? (0,1 points)

A. The results are blended
B. The results are a composite of things
C. The results are inconclusive
D. The results are mingled together
35. According to the author, which of the following may reduce blood cholesterol? (0,1 points)
A. Reducing egg intake but not fat intake
B. Increasing egg intake and fat intake
C. Decreasing egg intake and fat intake
D. Increasing egg intake but not fat intake
36. Which of the following could best replace the word “somewhat”? (0,1 points)
A. in fact C. indefinitely
B. a little D. a lot
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37. According to the passage, one yolk contains approximately of _____ the suggested daily limit for
human consumption of cholesterol? (0,1 points)
A. 3/4 C. 1/2
B. 2/3 D. 1/3
38. The word “portrayed“ could best be replaced by which of the following? (0,1 points)
A. studied C. tested
B. destroyed D. described
39. What is the meaning of “back up“? (0,1 points)

A. reverse C. block
B. advance D. support
40. According to the passage, egg substitutes cannot be used to make any of the following types of
eggs EXCEPT _____. (0,1points)
A. boiled C. scrambled
B. poached D. fried

Interpreting the feelings of other people is not always easy, as we all know, and we (1) rely as
much on what they seem to be telling us, as on the actual words they say. Facial (2) expression
and tone of voice are obvious ways of showing our (3) reaction to something, and it may well be
that we unconsciously express views that we are trying to hide. The art of being (4) tactful lies in
picking up these signals, realizing what the other person is trying to say, and acting so that they are
not embarrassed in any way. For example, we may understand that they are in fact (5) reluctant to
answer our question, and so we stop pressing them. Body movements in general may also indicate
feelings, and interviewers often pay particular attention to the way a candidate for a job walks into
the room and sits down. However it is not difficult to present the right kind of appearance, while
what many employers want to know relates to the candidate’s character traits, and (6)
psychological stability. This raises the awkward question of whether job candidates should be
asked to complete psychological tests, and the further problem of whether such tests actually
produce (7) reliable results. For many people, being asked to take part in such a test would be an
objectionable (8) intrusion into their private lives. After all, a prospective employer would hardly
ask a candidate to run a hundred meters, or expect his or her family doctor to provide (9)
confidential medical information. Quite apart from this problem, can such tests predict whether a
person is likely to be a (10) conscientious employee or a valued colleague?
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A. reckon C. trust
B. rely D. estimate

A. manner C. expression
B. image D. looks

A. notion C. view
B. feeling D. reaction

A. successful C. good at
B. humble D. tactful
A. hesitant C. tending
B. reluctant D. used

A. psychological C. similar
B. physical D. relevant

A. reliable C. faithful
B. predictable D. regular

A. invasion C. intrusion
B. infringement D. interference
101
A. confidential C. reticent
B. secretive D. classified
A. laborious C. thorough
B. particular D. conscientious
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Môn: TIẾNG ANH

ĐỀ THI SỐ 10

A. stripe C. recipe
B. tribe D. ripen
A. double C. bubble
B. trouble D. trough
A. deteriorate C. disinfectant
B. discriminate D. disparaging
A. igneous C. ignorant
B. igloo D. ignore

5. “He insisted on listening to the entire story”. (0,25 points)
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A. part C. whole
B. funny D. interesting
6. When their rent increased from $200 to $400 a month, they protested against such
a tremendous increase (0,25 points)
A. light C. tiring
B. huge D. difficult
7. “That is a well-behaved boy whose behaviour has nothing to complain about” (0,25 points)
A. good behavior C. behaving nice
B. behaving improperly D. behaving cleverly
8. She could not hide her dismay at the result. (0,25 points)
A. disappointment C. happiness
B. depression D. pessimism

9. She only felt relaxed after a few months working for him. (0,2 points)
A. She used to feel relaxed working for him a few months.
B. A few months ago, she didn’t find it relaxed working for him.
C. Only after a few months working for him did she feel relaxed.
D. It was not until a few months working for him did she feel relaxed.
10. If I’d known where they lived I would certainly have gone to visit them while I was in
Paris. (0,2 points)
A. I didn’t even know they were living in Paris so I never thought of visiting them.
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B. I visited them when I was living in Paris but now I’ve lost touch with them.
C. I wanted to visit them while I was in Paris but as I didn’t have their address, I couldn’t.
D. Last week I was in Paris but I didn’t feel like going to visit them.
11. There is little pleasure to be gained from a gift given unwillingly. (0,2 points)
A. More enjoyment can be found in giving a present than in receiving it.
B. Presents should only be given if you think it’ll make the receiver happy.
C. You will certainly not enjoy giving a present to a person you don’t like.
D. Unless a present is given freely, it won’t bring much happiness.
12. Much to my surprise, I found his lecture on the civilization of Mesopotamia extremely
interesting. (0,2 points)
A. Contrary to expectations, his lecture on ancient Mesopotamia was the most fascinating of all.
B. It was at his lecture on the civilization of Mesopotamia that I realized how fascinating the subject
is.
C. I was fascinated by what he had to say in his lecture on the civilization of Mesopotamia though I
hadn’t expected to be.
D. I hadn’t expected him to lecture on the civilization of Mesopotamia, but he spoke remarkably well.
13. All the best items had been sold by the time we got to the exhibition. (0,2 points)
A. We stayed on at the exhibition until all the best things had been sold.
B. By the time we arrived at the exhibition they had sold all but a few expensive items
C. We arrived at the exhibition too late to find anything worth buying
D. Some of the most valuable things at the exhibition weren’t sold till much later.

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14. Today is their golden wedding anniversary. They _____married for 50 years. (0,27 points)
A. have been C. was
B. has been D. will be

15. _____ because they help to prepare the student for the final examination. (0,27 points)
A. A dictionary is a reliable guide to pronunciation
B. Surely you understood the importance of being able to speak and write effectively
C. None of them was adequately prepared
D. Examinations given during the term are useful

16. The lower tax rate is particularly _____ to poorer families. (0,27 points)
A. advantage C. disadvantage
B. advantageous D. disadvantageous

17. We’ll stay in the United States until our visa runs _____ (0,27 points)
A. up C. off
B. out D. away

18. Her parents were very _____ when she didn’t phone to say she had arrived home
safely. (0,27 points)
A. sorry C. insulted
B. worried D. strained
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19. I always try to _____ something each month for my holidays. (0,27 points)
A. spare C. spend
B. save D. put

20. “Could I speak to Mai, please?”-“ Yes, _____” (0,27 points)
A. answering C. saying
B. talking D. speaking

21. She _____here since I came here. (0,27 points)
A. lives C. is living
B. lived D. has lived

22. They said they were happy they had put their trust _____ me. (0,27 points)
A. on to C. in
B. on D. with

23. Do you get _____ well with your neighbors? (0,27 points)
A. during C. next
B. on D. last

24. Should we _____ dinner now or later? (0,27 points)
A. to having C. have
B. to have D. having
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25. The mother put a rug _____ her sleeping child (0,27 points)
A. at C. on
B. in D. over

26. Thunder can be listened from a maximum distance of about ten miles except under unusual
atmospheric
conditions. (0,27 points)
A. listened C. except
B. maximum D. unusual

27. Several million points on the human body registers either cold, heat, pain, or
touch. (0,27 points)
A. Several C. registers
B. on the D. pain

28. Faced with petroleum shortages in the 1970s, scientists and engineers in the United States
stepped up its efforts to develop more efficient heating systems and better insulation. (0,27
points)
A. Faced with C. to develop
B. its D. heating system
Nói (1,0 points)

29. “Wow! What a nice coat you are wearing!"
“_____.” (0,5 points)
A. Certainly. Do you like it, too?
B. I like you to say that.
C. Yes, of course. It’s expensive.
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D. Thanks. My mother bought it for me.

30. Sue: "I've got a new grammar book."
Robert: “ _____ ” (0,5 points)
A. What its price?
B. How many cost?
C. How much was it?
D. How much you paid?

The Winterthur Museum is a collection and a house. There are many museums devoted to the
decorative arts and many house museums, but rarely in the United States is a great collection
displayed in a great country house. Passing through successive generations of a single family,
Winterthur has been a private estate for more than a century. Even after the extensive renovations
made to it between 1929 and 1931, the house remained a family residence. This fact is of
importance to the atmosphere and effect of the museum. The impression of a lived-in house is
apparent to the visitor: the rooms look as if they were vacated only a short while ago whether by
the original owners of the furniture or the most recent residents of the house can be a matter of
personal interpretation. Winterthur remains, then, a house in which a collection of furniture and
architectural elements has been assembled. Like an English country house, it is an organic
structure; the house, as well as the collection and manner of displaying it to the visitor, has
changed over the years. The changes have coincided with developing concepts of the American
arts, increased knowledge on the part of collectors and students, and a progression toward the
achievement of a historical effect in period-room displays. The rooms at Winterthur have followed
this current, yet still retained the character of a private house.
The concept of a period room as a display technique has developed gradually over the years in an
effort to present works of art in a context that would show them to greater effect and would give
them more meaning for the viewer. Comparable to the habitat group in a natural history museum,
the period room represents the decorative arts in a lively and interesting manner and provides an
opportunity to assemble objects related by style, date, or place of manufacture.
31. What does the passage mainly discuss? (0,1 points)
109
A. Historical furniture contained in Winterthur
B. How Winterthur compares to English country houses
C. Elements that make Winterthur an unusual museum
D. The reason that Winterthur was redesigned
32. The phrase devoted to in the passage is closest in meaning to _____ . (0,1 points)
A. specializing in C. surrounded by
B. sentimental about D. successful in
33. What happened at Winterthur between 1929 and 1931? (0,1 points)
A. The old furniture was replaced
B. The estate became a museum
C. The owners moved out
D. The house was repaired
34. What does the author mean by stating the impression of a lived-in house is apparent to the
visitor? (0,1 points)
A. Few people visit Winterthur
B. The furniture at Winterthur looks comfortable
C. Winterthur does not look like a typical museum
D. Winterthur is very old
35. The word assembled in the passage is closest in meaning to _____ . (0,1 points)
A. summoned C. fundamentally changed
B. appreciated D. brought together
36. The word it in the passage refers to _____ . (0,1 points)

A. collection C. visitor
B. English country house D. Winterthur
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37. The word developing in the passage is closest in meaning to _____ . (0,1 points)
A. evolving C. informative
B. exhibiting D. traditional
38. According to the passage, objects in a period room are related by all of the following EXCEPT
_____ . (0,1 points)
A. place of manufacture C. past ownership
B. date D. style
39. What is the relationship between the two paragraphs in the passage? (0,1 points)
A. Paragraph 2 explains a philosophy of art appreciation that contrasts with that explained in
Paragraph 1.
B. Paragraph 2 explains a term that was mentioned in Paragraph 1.
C. Each paragraph describes a different historical period
D. Each paragraph describes a different approach to the display of objects in a museum
40. Where in the passage does the author explain why displays at Winterthur have
changed? (0,1 points)
A. This fact is of importance …… matter of personal interpretation.
B. Passing through successive …… for more than a century.
C. The Winterthur Museum is a collection ….. displayed in a great country house.
D. Winterthur remains, then, a house …… has changed over the years.

If you’re an environmentalist, plastic is a word you tend to say with a sneer or a snarl. It has
become a symbol of our wasteful, throw-away society. But there seems little (1) doubt it is here to
stay, and the truth is, of course, that plastic has brought enormous (2) benefits even
environmental ones. It’s not really the plastics themselves that are the environmental (3) evil - it’s
the way society choose to use and (4) abuse them. Almost all the 50 or so different kinds of
modern plastic are made from oil, gas or coal - non-renewable natural resources. We import well
over three million tons of the stuff in Britain each year and, sooner or later, most of it is thrown
away. A high (5) proportion of our annual consumption is in the (6) form of packaging, and this
constitutes about seven per cent by weight of our domestic (7) refuse. Almost all of it could be
recycled, but very little
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of it is, though the plastic recycling industry is growing fast. The plastics themselves are extremely
energy-rich - they have a higher calorific (8) value than coal and one (9) method of ‘recovery’
strongly favoured by the plastic manufacturers is the (10) conversion of waste plastic into a fuel.

A. evidence C. doubt
B. concern D. likelihood

A. pleasures C. savings
B. benefits D. profits

A. poison C. disadvantage
B. disaster D. evil

A. dispose C. endanger
B. store D. abuse

A. portion C. proportion
B. amount D. rate

A. way C. form
B. kind D. type

A. refuse B. goods
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C. requirements D. rubble

A. degree C. demand
B. value D. effect

A. measure C. method
B. mechanism D. medium

A. conversion C. develop
B. embarrass D. industry
113
ĐỀ THI SỐ 11 Môn: TIẾNG ANH

Ngữ Âm (1,0 point)

Find thethe
1. Find word that
word has
that different
has pronunciation
different from
pronunciation thethe
from others:
others: (0,25 points)
A. took C. food
B. look D. foot
A. stone C. shone
B. alone D. cyclone
A. sensitive C. vertical
B. compliment D. assurance
A. document C. fountain
B. maintain D. access

114
5. Each year about fifty hundred species of plants and animals are already being
eliminated. (0,25 points)
A. dropped C. kicked
B. removed D. tossed
6. Hypertension is one of the most widespread and potential dangerous
diseases. (0,25 points)
A. colossal C. common
B. popular D. scattered
7. This time the Vietnam Society of Learning Promotion decided to expand its activities
to the central mountainous provinces. (0,25 points)
A. contract C. deflate
B. diminish D. wane
8. People are busy buying gifts, cleaning and decorating the house and cooking traditional
foods. (0,25 points)
A. uninteresting C. unfamiliar
B. irregular D. unexciting

9. You must make allowances for his inexperience. (0,2 points)
A. He was not allowed to go because his inexperience.
B. Although he was inexperienced, we must let him in.
C. You shouldn’t pay attention to his inexperience.
115
D. You should take his inexperience into account.
10. The singer has given up performing live. (0,2 points)
A. The singer is accustomed to performing live.
B. The singer used to perform live.
C. The singer’s live performance has been cancelled.
D. The singers got used to performing live.
11. If motorists were to drive carefully, they would have fewer accidents. (0,2 points)
A. Motorists are careful and there are few accidents.
B. Motorists are careful and yet there are many accidents.
C. Motorists are not careful and yet there are few accidents.
D. Motorists are not careful and there are many accidents.
12. “I wouldn’t apply for that job, Lan, if I were you,” said Minh. (0,2 points)
A. Minh advised Lan not to apply for that job.
B. Minh recommended Lan not apply for that job.
C. Minh felt sorry because Lan applied for that job.
D. Minh apologized to Lan for applying for that job.

13. He was successful because he was determined to pursue personal goals. He was not
talented. (0,2 points)
A. His determination to pursue personal goals made him successful and talented.
B. It was his determination to pursue personal goals, not talent, that contributed to his
success.
116
C. His success lay in his natural ability, not in his determination to pursue personal goals.
D. In addition to his determination, his talent ensured his success in pursuing his goals.

14. Mary has a lot of homework _____today. (0,27 points)
A. for doing C. to do
B. which to do D. doing

15. No matter how much pressure you put on Simon, he won’t budge a(n)
_____. (0,27 points)
A. hand C. foot
B. mile D. metre

16. I don’t want much sugar in my coffee. Just _____ , please. (0,27 points)
A. few C. little
B. a few D. a little

17. _____ it not been for the torrential rain, we would have gone out. (0,27 points)
A. But C. Had
B. If D. Should

18. “Shall we wait a little longer?” - “ _____“ (0,27 points)
A. No, we don’t
B. No, I’d rather not
117
C. No, it’s still early.
D. Yes, it’s very late now.

19. Her life becomes _____ than it was before. (0,27 points)
A. more happy C. happier
B. as happy D. the happiest

20. This is _____you have ever made. (0,27 points)
A. a more silly mistake than
B. the silliest mistake
C. the most silliest mistake
D. a sillier mistake than

21. Have a piece of chocolate, _____? (0,27 points)
A. do you C. don’t you
B. would you D. haven’t you

22. Lunch will be ready _____ the time you get back. (0,27 points)
A. by C. in
B. during D. at

23. The grape is the _____, juicy fruit of a woody vine. (0,27 points)
A. skin B. smooth-skinned
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C. smooth skin D. which is smooth

24. Who _____ was coming to see me this morning? (0,27 points)
A. you said C. did you say that
B. you did say D. did you say

25. Matthew’s hands were covered in oil because he _____ his bike. (0,27 points)
A. had been mending
B. has mended
C. has been mending
D. had mended

26. To be one of the earliest known human diseases, malaria is a widespread and
often fatal disease. (0,27 points)
A. To be C. a
B. earliest known D. and often

27. Although the two signatures are supposed to be exactly the same, they are not at all
like. (0,27 points)
A. Although the C. exactly
B. to be D. at all like
119
28. Eli Whitney, born in Westborough, Massachusetts in 1765, was always interested in
machines, working in his father’s shop, taking apart a watch (watches) and putting
them back together. (0,27 points)
A. in C. taking
B. working D. a watch
Nói (1,0 points)

29. A: "Do you think it will rain?"
B: “ _____“ (0,5 points)
A. I hope not C. I don’t hope so
B. I not hope so D. So do I hope

30. “_____”
“Yes. I’d like to buy a computer.” (0,5 points)
A. Do you look for something?
B. Good morning. Can I help you?
C. Excuse me. Do you want to buy it?
D. Can you help me buy something?

Marianne Moore (1887-1972) once said that her writing could be called poetry only
because there was no other name for it. Indeed her poems appear to be extremely
compressed essays that happen to be printed in jagged lines on the page. Her subjects
were varied: animals, laborers, artists, and the craft of poetry. From her general reading
came quotations that she found striking or insightful. She included these in her poems,
scrupulously enclosed in quotation marks, and sometimes identified in footnotes. Of this
practice, she wrote, “ ‘Why many quotation marks?’ I am asked. When a thing has been
so well that it could not be said better, why paraphrase it? Hence, my writing is, if not a
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cabinet of fossils, a kind of collection of flies in amber.“ Close observation
and concentration on detail are the methods of her poetry.
Marianne Moore grew up in Kirkwood, Missouri, near St. Lois. After graduation from
Bryn Mawr College in 1909, she taught commercial subjects at the Indian School
in Carlisle, Pennsylvania. Later she became a librarian in New York City. During the
1920s she was editor of The Dial, an important literary magazine of the period.
She lived quietly all her life, mostly in Brooklyn, New York. She spent a lot of time at
the Bronx Zoo, fascinated by animals. Her admiration of the Brooklyn Dodgers-
before the team moved to Los Angeles-was widely known. Her first book of poems
was published in London in 1921 by a group of friends associated with the Imagist
movement. From that time on her poetry has been read with interest by succeeding
generations of poets and readers. In 1952 she was awarded the Pulitzer Prize for her
Collected Poems. She wrote that she did not write poetry “for money or fame. To earn a
living is needful, but it can be done in routine ways. One writes because one has a
burning desire to objectify what it is indispensable to one’s happiness to express.
31. What is the passage mainly about? (0,1 points)

A. The influence of the imagists on Marianne Moore.
B. Essayists and poets of the 1920’s.
C. The use of quotations in poetry.
D. Marianne Moore’s life and work.
32. Which of the following can be inferred about Moore’s poems? (0,1 points)
A. They are better known in Europe than the United States.
B. They do not use traditional verse forms.
C. They were all published in The Dial.
D. They tend to be abstract.
33. According to the passage Moore wrote about all of the following EXCEPT
_____. (0,1 points)
A. artists C. fossils
B. animals D. workers
121
34. What does Moore refer to as “flies in amber“? (0,1 points)
A. A common image in her poetry.
B. Poetry in the twentieth-century.
C. Concentration on detail.
D. Quotations within her poetry.
35. The author mentions all of the following as jobs held by Moore EXCEPT
_____. (0,1 points)
A. commercial artist
B. teacher
C. magazine editor
D. librarian
36. The word “period“ is closest in meaning to _____. (0,1 points)

A. movement C. region
B. school D. time
37. Where did Moore spend most of her adult life? (0,1 points)
A. In Kirkwood.
B. In Brooklyn.
C. In Los Angeles.
D. In Carlisle.
38. The word “succeeding“ in the passage is closest to _____. (0,1 points)
A. inheriting C. diverse
B. prospering D. later
39. The word “it” in the passage refers to _____. (0,1 points)
A. writing poetry
B. becoming famous
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C. earning a living
D. attracting readers
40. It can be inferred from the passage that Moore wrote because she _____. (0,1 points)
A. wanted to win awards
B. was dissatisfied with what others wrote
C. felt a need to express herself
D. wanted to raise money for the Bronx Zoo

Getting friends and family to pose for photos is hard enough, but how would you cope
with a rabbit, an owl or a butterfly that simply (1) refuses to keep still? Simon King,
wildlife film-maker and photographer, says you don’t need any formal (2) training to get
started. “The whole idea is that photographing wildlife should be fun”. Simon offers the
following (3) tips. Specialise from the start. You’re more likely to get good result sooner
if you (4) concentrate on one type of wildlife - insects for instance (5) rather than just
going off to the woods or park with your camera and snapping whatever you see. Pick
something that isn’t hard to photograph. Choosing an animal that’s hard to (6) spot or
will run away if it sees you (7) creates unnecessary problems. How about flowers or a
group of birds? Search second-hand camera shops and local papers for quality (8)
equipment. You don’t need to (9) spend a fortune - Simon started with just a second-
hand camera that cost around 30 pounds. But you will need a single lens reflex camera.
Remember it’s the whole photograph that counts, not just the subject. (10) Imagine
you‘re composing a picture and try to be as artistic as possible.

A. disobeys C. refuses
B. dislikes D. avoid

A. training B. education
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C. exercise D. lecture

A. lessons C. warnings
B. facts D. tips

A. think C. limit
B. concentrate D. depend

A. more C. better
B. other D. rather

A. spot C. meet
B. notice D. glance

A. creates C. puts
B. starts D. leads

A. instruments C. material
B. equipment D. tools

A. cost C. spend
B. make D. lose
124
A. think C. invent
B. guess D. imagine
125


A. young C. couple
B. plough D. cousin
A. fought C.bough
B. bought D. sought
A. referee C. affluence
B. influenza D. absentee
A. rhetoric C. climatic
B. dynamic D. phonetic

126
5. The lost hikers stayed alive by eating wild berries and drinking spring water. (0,25 points)
A. revived C. connived
B. surprised D. survived
6. Aquatic sports have long been acknowledged as excellent ways to take physical
exercise (0,25 points)
A. reduced C. recognized
B. encouraged D. practiced
7. His career advancement was slow and he did not gain any promotion until he was 40,
when he won the position of the company’s Chief Executive. (0,25 points)
A. progress C. rise
B. elevation D. decrease
8. The distinction between schooling and education implied by this remark is
important. (0,25 points)
A. explicit C. obscure
B. implicit D. odd

9. Wouldn’t it be better to let them know about the alterations to the plan? (0,2 points)
A. Why haven’t they been informed about the new developments?
B. Shouldn’t they have been consulted before the scheme was changed?
C. Don’t you think they should be informed about the changes in the plan?
D. We’d better ask them to change the plan, hadn’t we?
10. The fire must have been started on purpose; otherwise, it couldn’t have caused so
much damage. (0,2 points)
127
A. The fire might have been very serious if nobody had tried to prevent it.
B. If someone were to start a fire there, it could prove highly damaging.
C. No one can say for sure how the fire broke out, but the harm it did is obvious.
D. Seeing that it destroyed so many things, the fire can’t have been accidental.
11. So far during their stay at this hotel, that couple have done nothing but
complain. (0,2 points)
A. All that couple have done since they arrived at this hotel is complain.
B. Throughout their time at this hotel, that couple have had no complaints.
C. Up until now, that couple haven’t had anything to complain about this hotel.
D. Since they got to this hotel, nothing has caused that couple to complain.

12. Had it not been for the attendance of a famous film star, the party couldn’t have been a
success. (0,2 points)
A. The film star didn’t attend, so the party was a failure.
B. If the famous film star hadn’t attended, the party could have been a success.
C. The party was successful without the attendance of the famous film star.
D. The only reason the party was a success was that a famous film star attended.
13. I couldn’t help admiring the way he managed to finish the programme even after such a
bad fall. (0,2 points)
A. In spite of the fall, he should have finished the programme and we could have admired him
for that.
B. It was really a very bad fall, but somehow he was still able to finish the programme and I
had to admire him for that.
C. The way he finished the programme was certainly admirable, as the fall had shaken him
up badly.
D. I really admire the way he got up after the fall and completed the programme.
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14. He went to a seaside resort because he was _____ on windsurfing. (0,27 points)
A. keen C. interested
B. fond D. enjoyed

15. “I’m going for an interview for a job this afternoon” – “Good luck! I’ll keep my _____crossed
for you. (0,27 points)
A. hands C. fingers
B. legs D. arms

16. The bridge goes _____ the river. (0,27 points)
A. at C. for
B. on D. over

17. He is so kind. He always _____a favor. (0,27 points)
A. does C. makes
B. helps D. takes

18. Considering his unhappy childhood, it’s not surprising he’s so _____. (0,27 points)
A. mystified C. mixed-up
B. lost D. baffled

19. She laughed _____ at her neighbor’s embarrassment. (0,27 points)
A. grudgingly C. maliciously
B. negligibly D. diligently
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20. “I heard that Cathy passed the exam."
“Yes, _____ she didn’t study, she somehow succeeded.” (0,27 points)
A. unless C. in contrast to
B. since D. even though

21. If the rain doesn’t _____ soon, we shall have to look for a taxi. (0,27 points)
A. set about C. slow down
B. let up D. go off

22. My younger sister is the girl who _____ a hat like mine. (0,27 points)
A. is wearing C. was wearing
B. wears D. wore

23. I’m still too _____ his sudden outburst to know what to say. (0,27 points)
A. stunned by C. stunned with
B. shattered at D. speechless by

24. When wood, natural gas, oil, or any other fuel burns, _____ with oxygen in the air to
produce heat. (0,27 points)
A. combining substances in the fuel
B. substances in the fuel combine
C. substances in the fuel that combine
D. a combination of substances in the fuel

25. The hotel was _____ and comfortable. (0,27 points)
A. home C. homeless
B. homely D. homeland
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26. Cartilage covers the ends of bones helps to protect the joints from wear and
tear. (0,27 points)
A. covers C. to protect
B. the ends D. from

27. The discovery of gold in 1848 transformed San Francisco suddenly from a quiet port into
one of the world’s richest and most famous city. (0,27 points)
A. discovery C. quiet
B. transformed D. city

28. Alike light waves, microwaves may be reflected and concentrated. (0,27 points)
A. Alike C. may be
B. waves D. concentrated
Nói (1,0 points)

29. David: "Could you bring me some water?"
Waiter: “ _____.” (0,5 points)
A. I don’t want to C. No, I can’t
B. Yes, I can D. Certainly, sir

30. Jane: “ _____"
David: “Thanks. I’ll write to you when I arrive there.” (0,5 points)
A. Good luck C. Have a good trip
B. Have a go D. Good bye
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Millions of people are using cell phones today. In many places, it is actually considered
unusual not to use one. In many countries, cell phones are very popular with young people.
They find that the phones are more than a means of communication - having a mobile
phone shows that they are cool and connected. The explosion in mobile phone use around the
world has made some health professionals worried. Some doctors are concerned that in the
future many people may suffer health problems from the use of mobile phones. In
England, there has been a serious debate about this issue. Mobile phone companies are
worried about the negative publicity of such ideas. They say that there is no proof that
mobile phones are bad for your health. On the other hand, medical studies have shown
changes in the brain cells of some people who use mobile phones. Signs of change in the
tissues of the brain and head can be detected with modern scanning equipment. In one
case, a traveling salesman had to retire at young age because of serious memory loss. He
couldn’t remember even simple tasks. He would often forget the name of his own son. This man
used to talk on his mobile phone for about six hours a day, every day of his working week,
for a couple of years. His family doctor blamed his mobile phone use, but his employer’s
doctor didn’t agree. What is it that makes mobile phones potentially harmful? The answer is
radiation. High-tech machines can detect very small amounts of radiation from mobile
phones. Mobile phone companies agree that there is some radiation, but they say the amount
is too small to worry about. As the discussion about their safety continues, it appears that it’s
best to use mobile phones less often. Use your regular phone if you want to talk for a long time.
Use your mobile phone only when you really need it. Mobile phones can be very useful and
convenient, especially in emergencies. In the future, mobile phones may have a warning label
that says they are bad for your health. So for now, it’s wise not to use your mobile phone too
often.
31. According to the passage, cell phones are especially popular with young people because
_____ . (0,1 points)
A. they make them look more stylish.
B. they keep the users alert all the time.
C. they cannot be replaced by regular phones.
D. they are indispensable in everyday communications.
32. The word “means“ in the passage most closely means _____ . (0,1 points)
A. meanings C. transmission
B. expression D. method
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33. Doctors have tentatively concluded that cell phones may _____ . (0,1 points)
A. cause some mental malfunction
B. change their users’ temperament.
C. change their users’ social behaviours.
D. damage their users’ emotions.
34. “Negative publicity“ in the passage most likely means _____ . (0,1 points)
A. widespread opinion about bad effects of cell phones.
B. information on the lethal effects of cell phones.
C. the negative public use of cell phones.
D. poor ideas about the effects of cell phones.
35. The changes possibly caused by the cell phones are mainly concerned with _____
. (0,1 points)
A. the smallest units of the brain.
B. the mobility of the mind and the body.
C. the resident memory.
D. the arteries of the brain.
36. The man mentioned in the passage, who used his cell phone too often, _____
. (0,1 points)
A. had a problem with memory.
B. abandoned his family.
C. suffered serious loss of mental ability.
D. could no longer think lucidly.
37. The word “potentially“ in the passage most closely means _____ . (0,1 points)
A. certainly C. privately
B. obviously D. possibly
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38. According to the passage, what makes mobile phones potentially harmful is _____
. (0,1 points)
A. their radiant light.
B. their raiding power.
C. their power of attraction.
D. their invisible rays.
39. According to the writer, people should _____ . (0,1 points)

A. keep off mobile phones regularly.
B. never use mobile phones in all cases.
C. only use mobile phones in medical emergencies.
D. only use mobile phones in urgent cases.
40. The most suitable title for the passage could be _____ . (0,1 points)
A. Technological Innovations and Their Price.
B. The Way Mobile Phones Work.
C. The Reasons Why Mobile Phones Are Popular.
D. Mobile Phones: A Must of Our Time

Nearly 200 of the 1500 native plant species in Hawaii are at risk of going extinct in the near
future because they have been (1) reduced to such low numbers. Approximately 90 percent
of Hawaii’s plants are found nowhere else in the world but they are (2) threatened by alien
invasive species such as feral goats, pigs, rodents and (3) non-native plants. The Hawaii
Rare Plant Restoration Group is striving to (4) prevent the extinction of the 182 rare
Hawaiian plants with fewer than 50 individuals remaining in the (5) wild.
Since 1990, (6) as a result of their “Plant Extinction Prevention Program”, sixteen species
have been brought into (7) cultivation and three species have been reintroduced. Invasive
weeds have been removed in key areas and fencing put up in order to (8) protect plants in
the wild. In the future the Hawaii Rare Plant Restoration Program aims (9) at collecting
genetic material from the remaining plants in the wild for storage as a safety net for the
future. They also aim to manage wild populations and where possible reintroduce species
into (10) reserves.
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A. disappeared C. increased
B. reduced D. developed

A. guarded C. conserved
B. invested D. threatened

A. national C. international
B. native D. non-native

A. prevent C. stimulate
B. encourage D. influence

A. wild C. hole
B. atmosphere D. sky

A. so C. as
B. due D. but

A. contamination C. cultivation
B. production D. generation

A. derive C. remain
B. vary D. protect
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A. at C. with
B. for D. on

A. shelters C. gardens
B. reserves D. halls
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A. compromise C. demise
B. promise D. devise
A. modern C. orange
B. faucet D. shopping
A. argument C. medicine
B. enquiry D. justify
A. luxurious C. necessary
B. conservative D. dependent
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5. It was very difficult to understand what he was saying about the noise of the
traffic. (0,25 points)
A. pick up C. turn out
B. make up D. make out
6. Chicken pox results in an eruption on the skin and sometimes it leaves permanent
marks. (0,25 points)
A. rash C. erosion
B. hole D. division
7. One of Tet’s most special foods is banh tet, which is made from sticky rice, green mung
beans and fatty pork. (0,25 points)
A. typical C. unrestricted
B. unlimited D. weekly
8. Besides the ordinary telephone call service, our Post Office provides the Messenger Call
Service. (0,25 points)
A. noteworthy C. unusual
B. impressive D. irregular

9. It was not until after I had got home that I realized I had not set the burglar alarm in the
office (0,2 points)
A. On the way home, I suddenly realized that I had not set the burglar alarm in the office
138
B. Fortunately, I realized that I hadn’t set the burglar alarm just before I left for home;
otherwise, I would have had to travel all the way back to the office
C. I didn’t turn the burglar alarm on before I left the office, but I only became aware of this after
I’d arrived home
D. I wish I had realized before I arrived home that I hadn’t turned on the burglar alarm in the
office; then it would have been easier to go and set it
10. I get the impression that it will take some time for the family to overcome their
grief. (0,2 points)
A. Apparently, the family have taken a very long time to deal with their sorrow.
B. It appears to me that the family will take some time before they are able to cope with their
sorrow.
C. As far as I can see, the family have been suffering now for quite some time.
D. The only thing that will heal this family’s suffering, as we can all see, is time.
11. You should get some professional advice if you’re thinking about changing the
system radically. (0,2 points)
A. If you’re considering major alterations in procedures, I suggest you consult an expert.
B. My professional advice to you is to avoid any major changes in the system.
C. It would be very unprofessional behaviour if you were to make any major changes in the
system.
D. Without consulting an expert you were ill advised to introduce any major changes to the
system.
12. I would prefer you not to smoke in here. (0,2 points)
A. I’d rather you shouldn’t smoke in here.
B. I’d rather you didn’t smoke in here.
139
C. I’d rather you not to smoke in here.
D. I’d rather you don’t smoke in here.
13. I wouldn’t mind having a late meeting tomorrow since I’m quite used to going home
late. (0,2 points)
A. I’m trying to get more accustomed to going home late, so I think I’ll start the meeting late
tomorrow.
B. As it’s rather normal for me to go home late, conducting a meeting late tomorrow would be
no problem for me.
C. It’s rare that I go home late, but it’ll be no problem if tomorrow’s meeting is a bit later than
usual.
D. Why don’t we start the meeting late tomorrow, even though I know none of us is used to
leaving so late?

14. Children with parents whose guidance is firm, consistent and rational are inclined _____
high levels of self-confidence. (0,27 points)
A. possess C. to possess
B. have possessed D. possessing

15. Most people were no longer listening to his long _____ story. (0,27 points)
A. irritable C. tiring
B. boring D. annoying

16. A serious _____ has been reported by doctors in the area. (0,27 points)
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A. epidemic C. onslaught
B. encounter D. outburst

17. The Louisiana Territory, an area _____ the size of France, was bought by the United States
from France for $15,000,000 in 1803. (0,27 points)
A. than more four times
B. more than four times
C. four times than more
D. is four times more than

18. It gets _____ to understand what the professor has explained. (0,27 points)
A. the more difficult
B. difficult more and more
C. more difficult than
D. more and more difficult

19. “Why aren't you coming with us?"
“I’m not ready. My room needs _____ .” (0,27 points)
A. to clean C. cleaning
B. clean D. to have cleaned

20. The swallows of Capistrano are famous _____ to the same nests in California each
spring. (0,27 points)
A. to return C. they returned
B. who returned D. for returning
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21. It _____ me if she _____ you. (0,27 points)
A. would surprise - didn’t help
B. will surprise - don’t help
C. would surprise - doesn’t help
D. will surprise - didn’t help

22. _____all our careful plans, a lot of things went wrong. (0,27 points)
A. Although C. Because of
B. Because D. In spite of

23. You should have a _____ with your boss (0,27 points)
A. story C. phrase
B. word D. sentence

24. Paul got married _____ 18 May 1991. (0,27 points)
A. on C. at
B. in D no preposition

25. The temperatures _____ take place vary widely for different materials. (0,27 points)
A. at which they melt and freeze
B. which melting and freezing
C. which they melt and freeze
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D. at which melting and freezing.

26. Thanks to the timely laws, some elephant populations, especially that in southern Africa,
have recovered over the last decade. (0,27 points)
A. Thanks to C. that
B. timely D. have recovered

27. Either the carpenter or the electrician can store their tools in the shed, but there is no room
for both sets. (0,27 points)
A. Either C. in the shed
B. their D. there is

28. Modern transportation can speed a doctor to the side of a sick person, even if the patient
lives on an isolating farm. (0,27 points)
A. to C. even if
B. sick person D. isolating farm
Nói (1,0 points)

29. Maria: "Thanks for the lovely evening."
Diana: “ _____.” (0,5 points)
A. Oh, that’s right
B. I’m glad you enjoyed it
C. No, it’s not good
D. Yes, it’s really great
143
30. Would you mind turning down your stereo?"
“ _____“ (0,5 points)
A. I’m really sorry! I'm not paying attention
B. Oh! I’m sorry! I didn’t realize that
C. No. I don’t
D. Yes, I do

MOBILE PHONES: Are they about to transform our lives? We love them so
much that some of us sleep with them under the pillow, yet we are increasingly
concerned that we cannot escape their electronic reach. We use them to convey
our most intimate secrets, yet we worry that they are a threat to our privacy. We
rely on them more than the Internet to cope with modern life, yet many of us
don’t believe advertisements saying we need more advanced services.
Sweeping aside the doubts that many people feel about the benefits of new third
generations phones and fears over the health effects of phone masts, a recent
report claims that the long-term effects of new mobile technologies will be
entirely positive so long as the public can be convinced to make use of them.
Research about users of mobile phones reveals that the mobile has already
moved beyond being a mere practical communications tool to become the
backbone of modern social life, from love affairs to friendship to work. The close
relationship between user and phone is most pronounced among teenagers,
the report says, who regard their mobiles as an expression of their identity. This
is partly because mobiles are seen as being beyond the control of parents. But
the researchers suggest that another reason may be that mobiles, especially
text messaging was seen as a way of overcoming shyness. The impact of
phones, however, has been local rather than global, supporting existing
friendship and networks, rather than opening users to a new broader
community. Even the language of texting in one area can be incomprehensible
to anybody from another area. Among the most important benefits of using
mobiles phones, the report claims, will be a vastly improved mobile infrastructure,
144
providing gains throughout the economy, and the provision of a more
sophisticated location-based services for users. The report calls on government
to put more effort into the delivery of services by mobile phone, with suggestion
including public transport and traffic information and doctors’ text messages to
remind patients of appointments. There are many possibilities. At a recent trade
fair in Sweden, a mobile navigation product was launched. When the user
enters a destination, a route is automatically downloaded to their mobile and
presented by voices, pictures and maps as they drive. In future, these devices
will also be able to plan around congestion and road works in real time. Third
generation phones will also allow for remote monitoring of patients by doctors. In
Britain scientists are developing an asthma management solution using mobiles
to detect early signs of an attack. Mobile phones can be used in education. A
group of teachers in Britain use third generation phones to provide fast internet
service to children who live beyond the reach of terrestrial broadband services
and can have no access to online information. ‘As the new generation of mobile
technologies takes off, the social potential of them vastly increase,’ the report
argues.
31. What does the writer suggest in the first paragraph about our attitudes to mobile
phones? (0,1 points)
A. We can’t live without them.
B. We are worried about using them so much.
C. We have contradictory feelings about them.
D. We need them more than anything else to deal with modern life.
32. What does “them“ in paragraph 2 refer to? (0,1 points)

A. long-term effects C. doubts
B. new mobile technologies D. benefits
33. What is the connection between social life and mobile phones? (0,1 points)
A. Modern social life relies significantly on the use of mobile phones
B. Mobile phones makes romantic communication easier
145
C. Mobile phones encourage people to make friends.
D. Mobile phones enable people to communicate while moving around
34. Why do teenagers have such a close relationship with their mobile phones? (0,1 points)
A. They use text messages more than any other group
B. They are more inclined to be late than older people
C. They feel independent when they use them
D. They tend to feel uncomfortable in many situations
35. Which of the following is NOT true? (0,1 points)

A. Mobile phone is considered as a means for the youth to show their characters.
B. Mobile phones are playing a wide range of roles in people’s life.
C. People can overcome shyness by using texting to communicating things that make them
uncomfortable.
D. There is no need to suspect the harmfulness of mobile phones.
36. In what sense has the impact of phones been “local“ in paragraph 3? (0,1 points)
A. People tend to communicate with people they already know.
B. Users generally phone people who live in the same neighborhood.
C. It depends on local dialects.
D. The phone networks use different systems.
37. How might mobile phones be used in the future? (0,1 points)
A. To give the address of the nearest doctor’s surgery
B. To show bus and train timetables
C. To arrange deliveries
D. To cure diseases
146
38. The navigation product launched in Sweden is helpful for drivers because
_____. (0,1 points)
A. it can suggest the best way to get to a place
B. it provides directions orally
C. it tells them which roads are congested
D. it shows them how to avoid road works
39. What is the general attitude of the report described here? (0,1 points)
A. Manufacturers need to produce better equipment.
B. The government should take over the mobile phone networks.
C. There are problems with mobile phones that cannot be overcome.
D. Mobile phones can have a variety of very useful applications.
40. The word “pronounced“ in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _____. (0,1 points)
A. obvious C. voiced
B. serious D. overwhelmed

It is relatively easy for computers to speak. A computer that says ‘please’ and
‘thank you’ in the right places is (1) no miracle of science, but recognizing the
words that make up normal, continuous human speech is another (2) topic. Not
until now have computer been programmed to (3) answer to a range of spoken
commands. Until recently it was thought that computers would have to be
programmed to the accent and speech habits of each user, and only then would
be able to respond (4) completely to their master’s or mistress’s voice. Now
rapid progress is being made (5) for systems programmed to adapt easily to
each new speaker. The IBM Tangora system, under development at the end of
1980s was claimed to (6) realize a spoken vocabulary of 20,000 words with 95
percent accuracy. The system includes a processor that can make informed
guesses as to (7) which is a likely sentence. That system has been
programmed not only with grammatical rules, but also with an analysis of a vast
quantity of office
147
correspondence. On the (8) ground of this information, the machine can calculate
the probability of one particular word following another. Statistical probability is
necessary for computers to interpret not only speech but also (9) visible data.
Security systems can distinguish between faces they have been taught to recognize,
but never has a computer been able to match a human’s ability to make sense of a
three-dimensional scene(10) from identifying all objects in it.

A. no C. nothing
B. not D. none

A. problem C. matter
B. topic D. theme

A. talk C. communicate
B. answer D. react

A. truly C. accurately
B. completely D. right

A. with C. within
B. for D. as

A. know C. master
B. recognize D. realize
148
A. which C. how
B. what D. that

A. foundation C. ground
B. principle D. basis

A. visual C. seen
B. noticeable D. visible

A. from C. of
B. by D. without
149


A. ready C. sweat
B. steady D. steak
A. battle C. gentle
B. little D. castle
A. collector C. furniture
B. concert D. comics
A. accommodate C. accessory
B. appreciate D. competition
150
5. “Please speak up a bit more, Jason. You’re hardly loud enough to be heard from the back”,
the teacher said. (0,25 points)
A. eligible C. edible
B. audible D. visible
6. He seemed exhausted after work. (0,25 points)
A. very tired C. happy
B. worried D. surprised
7. She had a cozy little apartment in Boston. (0,25 points)
A. uncomfortable C. lazy
B. dirty D. warm
8. The maximum weight limit of a parcel is 31.5kg. (0,25 points)
A. tiny C. minimum
B. small D. little

9. I started working for the company a year ago. (0,2 points)
A. I’ve been in this company a year ago.
B. It’s been a year since I started working for the company.
C. It’s the company that I started work a year ago.
D. It’s a year that I work for the company.
151
10. A club member who had a funny surname made a long speech. (0,2 points)
A. A club member gave a long speech about his funny surname.
B. The speech of the club member with a strange surname was very long.
C. Everyone found the speech of the club member with a strange surname long but funny.
D. We had to wait for the club member who had a funny surname to speak.
11. “Let’s go out for a walk now.” he suggested. (0,2 points)
A. He suggested going out for a walk then.
B. He suggested to go out for a walk then.
C. He suggested them to go out for a walk then.
D. He suggested them going out for a walk then.
12. People who are unhappy sometimes try to compensate by eating too much. (0,2 points)
A. Unhappy people are usually overweight because they tend to eat too much.
B. Eating too much occasionally makes people unhappy and depressed.
C. For some people, eating too much is a reason to be miserable.
D. When depressed, people occasionally attempt to offset their misery by overeating.
13. But for his father’s early retirement, Richard would not have taken over the family
business. (0,2 points)
A. Richard didn’t take over the family business because his father didn’t retire.
B. Richard only took over the family business because his father decided to retire early.
C. His father retired early, but he still ran the family business.
D. Richard’s father didn’t want him to take over the family business despite his retirement.
152
14. The computer has dramatically affected _____ photographic lenses are
constructed. (0,27 points)
A. is the way C. which way do
B. that the way D. the way

15. Unfortunately they _____ us in the auction to the tune of £500. (0,27 points)
A. outbid C. overdid
B. outweighed D. underwrote

16. The music was so _____ that you couldn’t hear anything. (0,27 points)
A. loud C. loudness
B. loudly D. loudly

17. All the way along the wind street _____ (0,27 points)
A. he came C. did he came
B. came he D. comes he

18. We were facing the _____ competition imaginable. (0,27 points)
A. hardest C. fullest
B. strictest D. stiffest
153
19. The children have been well brought up and are certainly not _____. (0,27 points)
A. neglected C. omitted
B. undone D. prevented

20. One of the first exercises in math class is _____ measure the radius of a circle. (0,27 points)
A. to learn and C. learn to
B. learning to D. to learn how to

21. The stolen paintings were eventually restored _____ their rightful owner. (0,27 points)
A. for C. to
B. by D. with

22. _____, I dislike Hollywood films but this was an exception. (0,27 points)
A. As a result C. As a rule
B. As far as I know D. As it turns out

23. She gave him some money, just enough to buy a _____ of cigarettes. (0,27 points)
A. bundle C. parcel
B. packet D. case

24. I can’t believe it. My bicycle _____ last night. (0,27 points)
A. was stolen C. stolen
B. was stealing D. stole
154
25. _____, manufacturers could bring down the prices of their products. (0,27 points)
A. In spite of careful market research
B. Instead of spending so much money on advertising
C. As companies misjudge the market
D. Knowing how much the public was prepared to pay

26. One-cent coins issued in the United States in 1982 was 96 percent zinc. (0,27 points)
A. issued C. in
B. the D. was

27. Mosquitoes usually lay eggs on top stagnant water. (0,27 points)
A. Mosquitoes C. lay
B. usually D. top stagnant

28. A huge amount of immigrants passed through the Great Hall on Ellis Island between 1892
and 1954. (0,27 points)
A. amount C. on
B. through D. between
Nói (1,0 points)

29. Tom: "I'm sorry. I won't be able to come."
Mary: “_____.” (0,5 points)
155
A. Great C. Well, never mind
B. Oh, that’s annoying D. Sounds like fun

30. Jane: "Would you mind if I use your computer for an hour?"
Laura: “_____.” (0,5 points)
A. Not at all. I’ve finished my job
B. Yes, you can use it.
C. Of course not. I still need it now
D. Yes, It’s all right.

Although they are an inexpensive supplier of vitamins, minerals, and high-quality
protein, eggs also contain a high level of blood cholesterol, one of the major
causes of heart diseases. One egg yolk, in fact, contains a little more than two-
thirds of the suggested daily cholesterol limit. This knowledge has caused egg
sales to plummet in recent years, which in turn has brought about the
development of several alternatives to eating regular eggs. One alternative is to
eat substitute eggs. These egg substitutes are not really eggs, but they look
somewhat like eggs when they are cooked. They have the advantage of having
low cholesterol rates, and they can be scrambled or used in baking. One
disadvantage, however, is that they are not good for frying, poaching, or boiling. The
second alternative to regular eggs is a new type of egg, sometimes called ‘designer’
eggs. These eggs are produced by hens that are fed low-fat diets consisting of
ingredients such as canola oil, flax, and rice bran. In spite of their diets, however,
these hens produce eggs that contain the same amount of cholesterol as regular
eggs. Yet, the producers of these eggs claim that eating their eggs will not raise
the blood cholesterol in humans. Egg producers claim that their product has been
portrayed unfairly. They cite scientific studies to back up their claim. And, in fact,
studies on the relationship between eggs and human cholesterol levels have
156
brought mixed results. It may be that it is not the type of egg that is the main
determinant of cholesterol but the person who is eating the eggs. Some people
may be more sensitive to cholesterol derived from food than other people. In fact,
there is evidence that certain dietary fats stimulate the body’s production of blood
cholesterol. Consequently, while it still makes sense to limit one’s intake of eggs,
even designer eggs, it seems that doing this without regulating dietary fat will
probably not help reduce the blood cholesterol level.
31. What is the main purpose of the passage? (0,1 points)

A. To introduce the idea that dietary fat increases the blood cholesterol level.
B. To inform people about the relationship between eggs and cholesterol.
C. To persuade people that eggs are unhealthy and should not be eaten
D. To convince people to eat ‘designer’ eggs and egg substitutes.
32. According to the passage, which of the following is a cause of heart diseases? (0,1 points)
A. minerals C. canola oil
B. cholesterol D. vitamins
33. Which of the following could best replace the word somewhat? (0,1 points)
A. in fact C. indefinitely
B. a little D. a lot
34. What has been the cause for changes in the sale of eggs? (0,1 points)
A. increasing price
B. decreased production
C. dietary changes in hens
D. concerns about cholesterol
35. According to the passage, one yolk contains approximately what fraction of the suggested
daily limit for human consumption of cholesterol? (0,1 points)
157
A. 3/4 C. 1/2
B. 2/3 D. 1/3
36. The word portrayed could best be replaced by which of the following? (0,1 points)
A. studied C. tested
B. destroyed D. described
37. What is the meaning of back up? (0,1 points)

A. reverse C. block
B. advance D. support
38. What is meant by the phrase mixed results? (0,1 points)

A. The results are blended.
B. The results are a composite of things.
C. The results are inconclusive.
D. The results are mingled together.
39. According to the passage, egg substitutes cannot be used to make any of following types of
eggs EXCEPT? (0,1 points)
A. boiled C. scrambled
B. poached D. fried
40. According to the author, which of the following may reduce blood cholesterol? (0,1 points)
A. reducing egg intake but not fat intake
B. increasing egg intake and fat intake
C. decreasing egg intake and fat intake
D. increasing egg intake but not fat intake
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In this week’s issue, our resident film critic discusses the etiquette of cinema
going, and the (1) audiences who prefer chewing hot-dogs, slurping drinks,
gossiping and rustling crisp papers to actually watching the film. Fair complaint, or
just cinema snobbery? It’s the munchers and talkers, not those who complain
about them, who are (2) spoiling other people’s (3) simple pleasures and the (4)
reasons seem to me to be self-evident. Junk (5) foods and even popcorns and
choc ices, when eaten in a (6) confined and possibly crowded space, are inclined
to demand living space. They spread themselves about - usually onto other
people’s (7) clothing Crisps, peanuts, and boiled sweets make a lot of noise, first
when being (8) unwrapped then when being crushed or sucked. These are
definite (9) irritations, especially if you yourself - having merely come to see and
hear the film - are not eating and therefore generously (10) sharing your friend
onions, mustard and ketchup with the trousers of the stranger in the next seat.

A. spectators C. witnesses
B. observers D. audiences

A. damaging C. hurting
B. spoiling D. injuring

A. Simple C. Primary
B. natural D. elementary

A. excuses C. reasons
B. accusations D. complaints
159
A. diets C. dishes
B. meals D. foods

A. confined C. reduced
B. closed D. narrow

A. dress C. outfit
B. costume D. clothing

A. unpacked C. unwrapped
B. untied D. unfolded

A. irritations C. anxieties
B. amusements D. inconveniences

A. exchanging C. splitting
B. dividing D. sharing
160


A. archaic
B. chivalry
C. archive
D. architect
A. dubious
B. dubbing
C. durable
D. duplicate
A. consignation
B. abnormality
C. supplementary
D. confidence
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A. discuss
B. waving
C. airport
D. often

5. He made one last futile effort to convince her and left home. (0,25 points)
A. favorable
B. difficult
C. ineffectual
D. firm
6. When being interviewed, you should concentrate on what the interviewer is saying or asking
you. (0,25 points)
A. be related to
B. be interested in
C. pay all attention to
D. express interest in
7. This service helps you to notify the recipient of the time and place to receive the call. (0,25 points)
A. miss
B. deliver
C. publish
D. expel
8. They have not made any effort to integrate with the local community. (0,25 points)
162
A. cooperate
B. put together
C. separate
D. connect

9. It’s impossible to cross the road because of the traffic. (0,2 points)
A. The traffic makes people be impossible to cross the road.
B. The traffic makes everyone be impossible to cross the road.
C. The traffic makes it be impossible to cross the road.
D. The traffic makes it impossible to cross the road.
10. You can cancel your ticket with a full refund only if you do so one week before your scheduled
departure. (0,2 points)
A. You can apply for a full refund for your ticket within a week if you’re had a change of plan and can’t
make the flight.
B. When you purchase a ticket for a flight, it’s impossible to get a refund on it in advance of the date
that your flight will be leaving.
C. In order to get all the money you’ve paid for the ticket back, the cancellation has to be done seven
days prior to your plane’s scheduled take-off.
D. When a flight has been canceled by the airlines, you must ask for a full refund within one week of
the day of departure.
11. No sooner had he entered the house than the police arrested him. (0,2 points)
A. He had just entered the house when the police arrested him.
B. Hardly that he had entered the house when the police arrested him.
C. Never have housewives spent as much time doing housework as they do now.
D. No longer do housewives have to spend a lot of time doing housework.
12. He took the food eagerly because he had eaten nothing since dawn. (0,2 points)
A. He had eaten nothing since dawn although he took the food eagerly.
163
B. The food was taken at dawn and he had nothing to eat theft.
C. He had eaten something before but he took the food eagerly.
D. Having eaten nothing since dawn, he took the food eagerly.
13. The 1980s brought a surge of new interest in expanding the definition of intelligence. (0,2 points)
A. Efforts to widen the definition of intelligence are immensely characteristic of the 1980s.
B. It was during the 1980s that the definition of intelligence attracted some attention.
C. During the 1980s the desire to broaden the definition of intelligence appeared with compelling
force.
D. With the 1980s radical new definitions of intelligence suddenly and unexpectedly came into being.

14. Henry will not accept that I am _____; he expects everything I do to be perfect. (0,27 points)
A. fallible
B. reversible
C. destitute
D. notorious

15. Happiness is something _____ money cannot buy. (0,27 points)
A. whom
B. whose
C. where
D. that

16. There were one or two _____ voices, although the majority were in favour of the
proposal. (0,27 points)
A. dissenting
B. clamoring
C. refuting
D. acclaiming
164
17. Mrs. Brown was the first owner _____ dog won three prizes in the same show. (0,27 points)
A. who
B. her
C. whom
D. whose

18. She’s so _____. One minute she’s your best friend, and the next minute she doesn’t want to know
you. (0,27 points)
A. deceptive
B. two-faced
C. deceitful
D. misleading

19. I love lying in the sun, drinking Coca-Cola, _____ poems. (0,27 points)
A. read
B. reading
C. to read
D. to read

20. There was a _____ to overthrow the dictator. (0,27 points)
A. consistency
B. consolidation
C. consortium
D. conspiracy
165
21. Alice was _____ hear the news of her brother’s accident. (0,27 points)
A. devastating to
B. devastated
C. devastating
D. devastated to

22. While Ms. Montello was at one meeting, her assistant was _____ another one for
her. (0,27 points)
A. arrangement
B. arranging
C. arranged
D. arrange

23. A good essay must _____contain enough interesting ideas and specific exam but also have good
organization. (0,27 points)
A. in addition
B. either
C. not only
D. as well

24. After he _____his driving test he bought a car. (0,27 points)
A. had passed
B. pass
C. passed
D. passing
166
25. Fire safety in family houses, _____ most fire deaths occur, is difficult. (0,27 points)
A. how
B. when
C. why
D. where

26. With tears in our eyes, we watched her train slowly depart the platform. (0,27 points)
A. With
B. in
C. slowly
D. depart

27. All sewing was done with hand until the invention of the sewing machine in the nineteenth
century. (0,27 points)
A. All sewing
B. done
C. with hand
D. in

28. Twenty-four is enough old to live with his parents. (0,27 points)
A. is
B. enough
C. to
D. parents
167
Nói (1,0 points)
29. “_____.”
“I love it. It’s great, especially at night.” (0,5 points)
A. When do you often listen to classical music?
B. How do you like classical music?
C. What kind of music do you like?
D. How often do you listen to classical music?

30. “You stepped on my toes!"
“ _____“ (0,5 points)
A. Are you sure? It’s understandable
B. Really? I’m glad
C. I’m sorry but I meant it
D. I’m terribly sorry. I didn’t mean it

In 776 B.C., the first Olympic games were held at the first of Mount Olympus to honor
the Greeks’ chief god, Zeus. The warm climate for outdoor activities, the need for
preparedness in war, and their lifestyle caused the Greeks to create competitive
sports. Only the elite and military could participate at first, but later the games were
open to all free Greeks male who had no criminal record. The Greeks emphasized
physical fitness and strength in their education of youth. Therefore, contests in
running, jumping, discus and javelin throwing, boxing and horse and chariot racing
were held individual cities, and the winners competed every four years at Mount
Olympus. Winners were greatly honored by having olive wreaths placed on their
heads and having poems sung about their deeds. Originally these contests were held
as games of friendship, and any wars in progress were halted to allow the games to
take place. They also helped to strengthen bonds among competitors and the
different cities represented. The Greeks attached so much importance to the games
168
that they calculated time in four-year cycles called Olympiads,” dating from 776 B.C.
The contests coincided with religious festivities and constituted an all-out effort on the
part of the participants to please the gods. Any who disobeyed the rules were
dismissed and seriously punished. These athletes brought shame not only to
themselves, but also to the cities they represented.
31. Which of the following is NOT true ? (0,1 points)

A. Winners placed olive wreaths on their heads.
B. The games were held in Greece every four years.
C. Battles were interrupted to participate in the games.
D. Poets glorified the winners in song.
32. The word “elite” is closest in meaning to (0,1 points)

A. aristocracy
B. intellectuals
C. brave
D. muscular
33. Why were the Olympic Games held ? (0,1 points)

A. To stop wars.
B. To honor Zeus.
C. To crown the best athletes.
D. To sing songs about the athletes.
34. Approximately how many years ago did these games originate ? (0,1 points)
A. 800 years
B. 1.200 years
C. 2.300 years
D. 2.800 years
35. What conclusion can we draw about the ancient Greeks ? (0,1 points)
169
A. They were pacifists.
B. They believed athletic events were important
C. They were very simple.
D. They couldn’t count, so they used “Olympiads” for dates.
36. What is the main idea of this passage? (0,1 points)

A. Physical fitness was an integral part of the lives of the ancient Greeks.
B. The Greeks severely punished those did not participate in physical fitness programs.
C. The Greeks had always encouraged everyone to participate in the games.
D. The Greeks had the games coincided with religious festivities so that they could go back to war
when the games were over.
37. The word “deeds” is closest in meaning to _____. (0,1 points)

A. accomplishments
B. documents
C. ancestors
D. property
38. The word” halted ” means most nearly the same as _____. (0,1 points)
A. encouraged
B. started
C. curtailed
D. fixed
39. Which of the following was ultimately required of all athletes competing in the
Olympics? (0,1 points)
A. They must have completed military service.
B. They had to attend special training sessions.
C. They had to be Greek males with no criminal record.
D. They had to be very religious.
170
40. What is an “Olympiad”? (0,1 points)
A. The time it took to finish the games.
B. The time between games.
C. The time it took to finish a war.
D. The time it took the athletes to train

The overall outlook for the hotel and tourism industry in Vietnam is very (1) positive.
Tourism is viewed as an important economic (2) force in the future development of
this country, and it is easy to see why Vietnam, among the countries in South East
Asia, has become increasingly popular as a new (3) tourism destination. The
sublime beauty of the country’s natural settings is very (4) impressive. The sights,
the sounds and the tastes of Vietnam leave a lasting memory for many foreign (5)
visitors. Its key destination such as Dalat, PhanThiet, Hoi An or NhaTrang are
offering, indeed, great tourism (6) value. Combine this with the friendly nature of the
Vietnamese people and the current political (7) stability, and we are set for solid
growth pattern for the years to come. It is therefore not a surprise that foreign (8)
arrivals to Vietnam have steadily increased during the past few years. Also important
is the increasing demand from the domestic market. It is projected that 17 million
domestic (9) tourists will make a short trip in 2005 within the country for leisure and
(10) relaxation.

A. famous
B. good
C. positive
D. proud

A. force
B. goal
C. growth
171
D. task

A. tour
B. tourist
C. tourism
D. touring

A. impress
B. impressive
C. impressing
D. impression

A. friends
B. foreigners
C. visitors
D. people

A. industry
B. value
C. growth
D. worth

A. stable
B. stability
C. unstable
172
D. instability

A. arrive
B. arriving
C. arrival
D. arrivals

A. tourists
B. people
C. guides
D. interpreters

A. relax
B. relaxation
C. relaxed
D. relaxing
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Môn: TIẾNG ANH

ĐỀ THI SỐ 16

A. radium
B. radiate
C. radiant
D. radical
A. hotel
B. post
C. local
D. prominent
A. example
B. continue
C. sensible
D. contestant
174
A. discourage
B. document
C. general
D. politics

5. School uniform is required in most of Vietnamese schools. (0,25 points)
A. divided
B. depended
C. compulsory
D. paid
6. Van Mieu was representative of Confucian ways of thought and behaviors (0,25 points)
A. traditional
B. typical
C. memorial
D. cultural
7. Thousands are going starving because of the failure of this year’s harvest. (0,25 points)
A. hungry
B. poor
C. rich
D. full
175
8. Besides, the kumquat tree with its ripe deep orange fruits is popular throughout the
country. (0,25 points)
A. green
B. unfit
C. small
D. unready

9. If the others had taken sensible precautions like we did, this tragedy need never have
happened. (0,2 points)
A. If they had not behaved so foolishly, they would not have involved us, either, in this tragedy.
B. The tragedy is that this could have been avoided if only they had all controlled their emotions.
C. This tragic outcome could have been avoided, but, unlike us, the rest of them behaved rashly.
D. If only they would follow our example and behave in a reasonable manner, all this suffering could
be avoided.
10. If I hadn’t had so much work to do, I would have gone to the movies. (0,2 points)
A. Because I had to do so much work I couldn’t go to the movies.
B. I would go to the movies when I had done so much work.
C. A lot of work couldn’t prevent me from going to the movies.
D. I never go to the movies if I have work to do.
11. Since the 1960s, water pollution has increased, leading to a reduction in the number of fish
species. (0,2 points)
A. Despite sea pollution dating back to the 1960s, the number of fish in the seas has increased.
B. There was a sharp decrease in the number of fish because of a sudden rise in sea pollution in the
1960s.
C. Sea water was cleaner and there were more varieties of fish before the 1960s.
176
D. The drop in the number of fish in the sea is directly connected with the increase in sea pollution.
12. Whether you like it or not, my aunt is coming to stay for the next two weeks. (0,2 points)
A. I wonder if you’d mind if my aunt came here to stay for the following two weeks.
B. My aunt will be staying for the next fortnight, regardless of your feelings in the matter.
C. If it doesn’t bother you too much, my aunt would like to stay here for the next two weeks.
D. I don’t know if you’ll like her or not, but my aunt is going to stay for the next couple of weeks.
13. I didn’t mean to offend you. (0,2 points)
A. Offending you was meaningless to me.
B. I had no intention of offending you.
C. It was meaningless of me to offend you.
D. What I offended you was meaningless.

14. Sue’s handwriting is _____, she usually has to type letters. (0,27 points)
A. flexible
B. inflexible
C. comprehensible
D. incomprehensible

15. The purpose of the examination was to _____ the students’ knowledge of the
subject. (0,27 points)
A. try
B. inspect
C. prove
177
D. test

16. Ralph Waldo Emerson’s unusual views on literature were regarded as quite _____ during his
lifetime. (0,27 points)
A. fundamental
B. radical
C. distinguished
D. preconceived

17. “Why don't you come with us?"
“Unfortunately, I have _____ plans.” (0,27 points)
A. other
B. another
C. others
D. some others

18. By this time next week, he _____his novel for 6 months. (0,27 points)
A. will have been writing
B. will have written
C. will be writing
D. has been writing

19. The thief was _____ after a brief struggle. (0,27 points)
A. apprehended
B. confronted
C. immersed
178
D. induced

20. The post _____ every morning. (0,27 points)
A. is delivered
B. was delivered
C. delivered
D. being delivered

21. The police _____for the thief at the moment. (0,27 points)
A. was looking
B. are looking
C. have been looking
D. is going to look.

22. They are very proud _____ their son’s success. (0,27 points)
A. for
B. of
C. on
D. at

23. _____ the storm, the ship couldn’t reach its destination on time. (0,27 points)
A. In case of
B. But for
C. Because of
D. In spite of
179
24. A. “I apologize to you for not keeping my promise” - B.” _____” (0,27 points)
A. Well, that’s out of question.
B. Your apology is accepted.
C. I am grateful to that.
D. That was very sweet of you.

25. Nutritionists _____ goat milk to be rich, nourishing and readily digested. (0,27 points)
A. considering
B. is considered
C. are considered
D. consider

26. I have been working hardly for two weeks and now I feel like a rest. (0,27 points)
A. have been working
B. hardly
C. and
D. a rest

27. My sister and I do not study at the same school. That is the reason for why my father has bought two
bikes. (0,27 points)
A. do not study
B. the same school
C. for why
D. has bought
180
28. A red-hair boy is needed to play the part of Alfred in this new comedy. (0,27 points)
A. red-hair
B. is needed
C. the part of Alfred
D. this
Nói (1,0 points)

29. “I think we should recycle these bags. It will help protect the environment. ”
• “_____.”
(0,5 points)
A. Never mind
B. I can’t agree with you more
C. You can say that again
D. It’s rubbish. We shouldn’t use it

30. Lora: "How do you do?"
Jane: “ _____ “ (0,5 points)
A. I am a nurse
B. I am doing OK
C. I work in a bank
D. How do you do?

Quite different from storm surges are the giant sea waves called tsunamis, which derive their name
181
from the Japanese expression for “high water in a harbor.” These waves are also referred to by the
general public as tidal waves, although they have relatively little to do with tides. Scientists often
referred to them as seismic sea waves, far more appropriate in that they do result from undersea
seismic activity. Tsunamis are caused when the sea bottom suddenly moves, during an underwater
earthquake or volcano for example, and the water above the moving earth is suddenly displaced.
This sudden shift of water sets off a series of waves. These waves can travel great distances at
speeds close to 700 kilometers per hour. In the open ocean, tsunamis have little noticeable
amplitude, often no more than one or two meters. It is when they hit the shallow waters near the
coast that they increase in height, possible up to 40 meters. Tsunamis often occur in the Pacific.
The Pacific is an area of heavy seismic activity. Two areas of the Pacific well accustomed to the
threat of tsunamis are Japan and Hawaii. Because the seismic activity that causes tsunamis in
Japan often occurs on the ocean bottom quite close to the islands, the tsunamis that hit Japan often
come with little warning and can, therefore, prove disastrous. Most of the tsunamis that hit the
Hawaiian Islands, however, originate thousands of miles away near the coast of Alaska, so these
tsunamis have a much greater distance to travel and the inhabitants of Hawaii generally have time
for warning of their imminent arrival. Tsunamis are certainly not limited to Japan and Hawaii. In
1755, Europe experienced a calamitous tsunami, when movement along the fault lines near the
Azores caused a massive tsunami to sweep onto the Portuguese coast and flood the heavily
populated area around Lisbon. The greatest tsunami on record occurred on the other side of the
world in 1883 when the Krakatoa volcano underwent a massive explosion, sending waves more
than 30 meters high onto nearby Indonesian islands; the tsunami from this volcano actually traveled
around the world and was witnessed as far away as the English Channel.
31. The paragraph preceding this passage most probably discusses _____ . (0,1 points)
A. tides
B. storm surges
C. tidal waves
D. underwater earthquakes
32. According to the passage, all of the following are true about tidal waves EXCEPT that _____
. (0,1 points)
A. they are caused by sudden changes in high and low tides
182
B. this terminology is not used by the scientific community
C. they are the same as tsunamis
D. they refer to the same phenomenon as seismic sea waves
33. The word “displaced“ in the passage is closest in meaning to _____ . (0,1 points)
A. not pleased
B. located
C. moved
D. filtered
34. It can be inferred from the passage that tsunamis _____ . (0,1 points)
A. are often identified by ships on the ocean
B. generally reach heights greater than 40 meters
C. are far more dangerous on the coast than in the open ocean
D. cause severe damage in the middle of the ocean
35. In the passage, water that is “shallow“ is NOT _____ . (0,1 points)
A. deep
B. coastal
C. tidal
D. clear
36. A main difference between tsunamis in Japan and in Hawaii is that tsunamis in Japan are more
likely to _____ . (0,1 points)
A. come from greater distances
B. originate in Alaska
C. arrive without warning
D. be less of a problem
37. The possessive “their“ in the passage refers to _____ . (0,1 points)
183
A. the Hawaiian Islands
B. these tsunamis
C. thousands of miles
D. the inhabitants of Hawaii
38. A “calamitous“ tsunami, in the passage, is one that is _____ . (0,1 points)
A. disastrous
B. expected
C. extremely calm
D. at fault
39. From the expression “on record“ in the passage, it can be inferred that the tsunami that
accompanied the Krakatoa volcano _____ . (0,1 points)
A. was filmed as it was happening
B. occurred before efficient records were kept
C. was not as strong as the tsunami in Lisbon
D. might not be the greatest tsunami ever
40. The passage suggests that the tsunami resulting from the Krakatoa volcano (0,1 points)
A. was unobserved outside of the Indonesian islands
B. resulted in little damage
C. was far more destructive close to the source than far away
D. caused volcanic explosions in the English Channel

People’s personalities (1) vary considerably from one another as there are no two alike. Our
ingrained characteristics which (2) determine the patterns of our behavior, our reactions and
temperaments are unparalleled on (3) account of the diversified processes that (4) mould our
personality in the earliest (5) stages of human development. Some traits of character may, to some
(6) extent, be hereditary stimulating the attributes that (7) identify our parents. Others may stem
from the conditions experienced during pregnancy and infancy in this way reflecting the parents’
approach
184
towards (8) rearing their offspring. Consequently, the environmental factor (9) plays a crucial role
in strengthening or eliminating behavioral systems making an individual more prone to comfort to
the patterns that (10) deserve a prize.

A. distinguish
B. coverage
C. differentiate
D. vary

A. denote
B. resolve
C. inflict
D. determine

A. account
B. means
C. token
D. event

A. mould
B. design
C. conceive
D. fabricate

A. states
B. instants
185
C. stages
D. terms

A. scope
B. area
C. extent
D. length

A. pertain
B. recognize
C. associate
D. identify

A. breeding
B. rearing
C. growing
D. yielding

A. makes C. finds
B. does D. plays

A. yearn
B. deserve
C. wish
D. necessitate
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Môn: TIẾNG ANH

ĐỀ THI SỐ 17

A. feat C. peak
B. heaven D. defeat
A. bother D.breath
B. both D. month
A. recognize C. reconcile
B. resounding D. recompense
A. aftermath C. aggravate
B. affluent D. pedestrian

5. I’d rather stay in a hotel with all the amenities than camp in the woods. (0,25 points)
A. expenses B. friends
187
C. sports D. conveniences
6. In contrast to her husband, she is a very down-to-earth sort of person who manages
to control his wild ideas. (0,25 points)
A. cynical
B. boring
C. critical
D. practical
7. By July 2000, sixty-one provinces and cities throughout Vietnam had completed the
programs of "Universalisation of Primary Education" and "Illiteracy Eradication." (0,25
points)
A. following C. secondary
B. subsequent D. assistant
8. His extravagant ideas were never brought to fruition. (0,25 points)
A. impressive C. unacceptable
B. exaggerated D. practical

9. Look out for those falling rocks. (0,2 points)
A. Let’s look for falling rocks.
B. Don’t let those falling rock hit you.
C. Look for these falling rocks.
D. Look out the window at those falling rocks.
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10. “I will let you know the answer by the end of this week,” Tom said to Janet. (0,2 points)
A. Tom suggested giving Janet the answer by the end of this week.
B. Tom promised to give Janet the answer by the end of this week.
C. Tom insisted on letting Janet know the answer by the end of this week.
D. Tom offered to give Janet the answer by the end of this week.
11. Citrus trees thrive on a wide range of soils, but well-drained and slightly acid
types are more suitable. (0,2 points)
A. The ideal soil for citrus trees is one that is well-drained and rather acid; they do not
do well in other soils.
B. Though citrus trees prefer a well-drained and slightly acid soil, they do well in many
other types.
C. Citrus trees grow in many different places, but the soil must always be well-drained
and fairly acid.
D. Citrus trees are particular about soil on which they grow and do best on well-drained
and slightly acid soil types.
12. Their dog was so fierce that nobody would visit them. (0,2 points)
A. They had a such fierce dog that nobody would visit them.
B. They had so fierce a dog that nobody would visit them.
C. Their dog was too fierce to visit.
D. They had a so fierce dog that nobody would visit them.
13. The purpose of any invention is to make our lives better, so good or bad, it depends
on the way by which we use these inventions. (0,2 points)
A. Good or bad as they are, all inventions have the same purpose: to make our lives
better.
B. We can use either good or bad invention to make our lives better.
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C. Whether an invention is good or bad depends on the way by which we use it
because the purpose of any invention is to make our lives better.
D. The purpose of any invention, whether good or bad, is to make our lives better. This
depends on the way by which we use these inventions.

14. John is such a good friend that I know I can _____ him. (0,27 points)
A. count on C. face up to
B. look into D. pass off as

15. This movie is the most _____ (0,27 points)
A. entertaining C. entertain
B. entertained D. entertainment

16. It couldn’t have been Bill you met at the party last night. He _____ China. (0,27 points)
A. has been to C. will be
B. was in D. has gone to

17. One of _____ days I’m going to give him a piece of my mind. (0,27 points)
A. these
B. those
C. our
D. the

18. They were _____ for smuggling jewellery into the country. (0,27 points)
A. judged B. arrested
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C. accused D. warned

19. Did you hear _____upstairs? (0,27 points)
A. she sing C. she singing
B. her singing D. her to sing

20. Oceans continually lose by evaporation much of the river water _____. (0,27 points)
A. to constantly flow into them
B. constantly flowing into them
C. is constantly flowing into them
D. constantly flows into them

21. _____for their strong fiber include flax and hemp. (0,27 points)
A. Plants are grown C. Plants that grow
B. Plants grown D. To grow plants

22. No matter what the weather _____ like on Sunday, I want to go hiking. (0,27 points)
A. be C. is
B. would be D. being

23. They _____to the theatre twice so far this month. (0,27 points)
A. are going C. went
B. go D. have been
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24. “I see that you have finished your project."
“Yes, and it took less time than I _____ .” (0,27 points)
A. had anticipated
B. would anticipate
C. anticipate
D. am anticipating

25. The _____ of the Titanic was caused by an iceberg. (0,27 points)
A. plunge C. drowning
B. descent D. sinking

26. What we know about certain diseases are still not sufficient to prevent them from
spreading easily among the population. (0,27 points)
A. What we know about
B. are
C. from spreading
D. among

27. Drug addiction has resulted of many destroyed careers and expulsions from school
or college. (0,27 points)
A. has C. destroyed
B. of D. expulsions

28. My father used to give me a good advice whenever I had a problem. (0,27 points)
A. give C. whenever
B. a good advice D. a problem
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Nói (1,0 points)
29. A: "Cheer up - it might never happen."
B: “_____.” (0,5 points)
A. It’s so very unlikely, isn’t it?
B. It already has.
C. That was the last thing I did before I told you.
D. What do you think?

30. “How well you are playing!"
-“_____” (0,5 points)
A. Say it again. I like to hear your words.
B. Many thanks. That’s a nice compliment.
C. I think so. I am proud of myself.
D. Thank you too much.

Accustomed though we are to speaking of the films made before 1927 as “silent”, the
film has never been, in the full sense of the word, silent. From the very beginning, music
was regarded as an indispensable accompaniment; when the Lumiere films were shown
at the first public film exhibition in the United States in February 1896, they were
accompanied by piano improvisations on popular tunes. At first, the music played bore
no special relationship to the films; an accompaniment of any kind was sufficient. Within
a very short time, however, the incongruity of playing lively music to a solemn film
became apparent, and film pianists began to take some care in matching their pieces to
the mood of the film. As movie theaters grew in number and importance, a violinist, and
perhaps a cellist, would be added to the pianist in certain cases, and in the larger movie
theaters small orchestras were formed. For a number of years the selection of music for
each film program rested entirely in the hands of the conductor or leader of the
orchestra, and very often the principal qualification for holding such a position was not
193
skill or taste so much as the ownership of a large personal library of musical pieces.
Since the conductor seldom saw the films until the night before they were to be shown
(if, indeed, the conductor was lucky enough to see them then), the musical
arrangement was normally improvised in the greatest hurry. To help meet this difficulty,
film distributing companies started the practice of publishing suggestions for musical
accompaniments. In 1909, for example, the Edison Company began issuing with their
films such indications of mood as “pleasant, “sad”, “lively”. The suggestions became
more explicit, and so emerged the musical cue sheet containing indications of mood,
the titles of suitable pieces of music, and precise directions to show where one piece led
into the next. Certain films had music especially composed for them. The most famous
of these early special scores was that composed and arranged for D. W. Griffith’s film
Birth of a Nation, which was released in 1915.
31. The passage mainly discusses music that was _____. (0,1 points)
A. performed before the showing of a film
B. played during silent films
C. recorded during film exhibitions
D. specifically composed for certain movie theaters
32. What can be inferred that the passage about the majority of films made after
1927? (0,1 points)
A. They were truly “silent”.
B. They were accompanied by symphonic orchestras.
C. They incorporated the sound of the actors’ voices.
D. They corresponded to specific musical compositions.
33. It can be inferred that orchestra conductors who worked in movie theaters needed to
_____. (0,1 points)
A. be able to play many instruments
B. have pleasant voices
C. be familiar with a wide variety of music
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D. be able to compose original music
34. The word them in paragraph 2 refers to _____. (0,1 points)

A. years C. pieces
B. hands D. films
35. According to the passage, what kind of business was the Edison Company? (0,1 points)
A. It produced electricity.
B. It distributed films.
C. It published musical arrangements.
D. It made musical instruments.
36. It may be inferred from the passage that the first musical cue sheets appeared around
_____. (0,1 points)
A. 1896 C. 1915
B. 1909 D. 1927
37. Which of the following notations is most likely to have been included on a musical cue
sheet of the early 1900’s? (0,1 points)
A. “Calm, Peaceful”
B. “Piano, violin”
C. “Key of C major”
D. “Directed by W. Griffith’s”
38. The word composed in paragraph 4 is close in meaning to _____ (0,1 points)
A. selected C. played
B. combined D. created
39. The word scores in paragraph 4 is close in meaning to _____. (0,1 points)
A. totals B. successes
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C. groups of musicians D. musical compositions
40. The passage probably continues with a discussion of _____. (0,1 points)
A. other films directed by D. W. Griffith
B. famous composers of the early twentieth century
C. silent films by other directors
D. the music in Birth of a Nation

Everybody has heard about the Internet, do you know what an intranet is? It is this: just
as the Internet connects people around the world, intranets connect people within a (1)
single company. In fact, intranets make use of the same software programs as the
Internet to (2) contact computers and people. This (3) means that you do not have to
buy a lot of additional programs to set up an intranet service. If your intranet is working
properly, it can link together a huge amount of (4) information which is stored in
different places in the company. In this way, people can get the information they need,
regardless (5) of where it comes from. A company intranet can, of course, be used for
unimportant information like office memos or canteen menus. But an intranet should (6)
provide important information which people need to make decision about new products,
costs and so on. The intranet is (7) willing to share their information with other people.
(8) Unfortunately, many departments don’t want to share their specialist knowledge
with others. Another problem which often occurs is (9) that top managers like to use the
intranet to “communicate down” rather than to “communicate across”. That is, they use
the intranet to give orders, not to (10) share information between themselves and
others working in the same organization.
A. branch C. single
B. jointed D. large

A. contact C. distinguish
B. compare D. introduce
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A. indicates C. means
B. is D. is said

A. information C. elements
B. properties D. parts

A. to C. with
B. on D. of

A. provide C. give
B. take D. bring

A. going C. likely
B. willing D. happened

A. However
B. Luckily
C. Unfortunately
D. Consequently

A. which C. what
B. it D. that
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A. enjoy C. share
B. provide D. divide
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ĐỀ THI SỐ 18

A. booked
B. missed
C. described
D. pronounced
A. laid
B. said
C. raid
D. paid
A. artistic
B. architect
C. argument
D. arduous
A. eventually
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B. capacity
C. altogether
D. particular

5. He is an honest man. You can rely on him to do a good job. (0,25 points)
A. take in
B. base on
C. count on
D. put up with
6. They decided to postpone their journey till the end of the month because of the
epidemic. (0,25 points)
A. take up
B. turn round
C. put off
D. do with
7. There has been no discernible improvement in the noise levels since lorries were
banned. (0,25 points)
A. clear
B. obvious
C. thin
D. insignificant
8. Certain courses are compulsory; others are optional. (0,25 points)
A. voluntary
B. free
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C. pressure
D. mandatory

9. As the city grew industrially, more and more immigrants were attracted to the newly-created
jobs. (0,2 points)
A. The number of citizens in the city remained very low as long as there was a limited amount of
industrial work available.
B. The more the city’s industry grew, making new jobs available, the more immigrants arrived to fill
them.
C. The city drew in a lot of immigrants, although industry grew only slowly and thus job vacancies
were scarce.
D. While industry was increasing, there was also a growing need for immigrants to work in the newly-
created jobs.
10. It was the worst speech he had ever made. (0,2 points)
A. He hadn’t made a better speech than it.
B. He had ever made a worse speech.
C. He had never made a worse speech.
D. He had never made a worst speech before
11. You needn’t have taken so many warm clothes there. (0,2 points)
A. It’s not necessary for you to take so many warm clothes there.
B. You have taken so many warm clothes there that I don’t need.
C. There’s no need for you to take so many warm clothes there.
D. You took lots of warm clothes there but it turned out not necessary.
12. “I would be grateful if you could send me further details of the job,” he said to me (0,2 points)
201
A. He politely asked me to send him further details of the job.
B. He thanked me for sending him further details of the job.
C. He flattered me because I sent him further details of the job.
D. He felt great because further details of the job had been sent to him.
13. Nobody is helping me, so I can’t finish my science project on time. (0,2 points)
A. I could finish my science project on time if I were being helped by someone.
B. I needed help with my science project, but everyone just ignored me.
C. My science project will be difficult to do alone, so I should ask someone for help.
D. No one had time to help me, so I couldn’t finish my science project on time.

14. Its success seems to work in _____ proportion to the number of people involved. (0,27 points)
A. contrary
B. opposite
C. inverse
D. retrograde

15. She’s going to let me _____her shoes. (0,27 points)
A. to borrow
B. borrowing
C. borrow
D. borrowed

16. She has just bought _____. (0,27 points)
A. a French old interesting painting
B. an old interesting painting French
C. an interesting old French painting
202
D. a French interesting old paint

17. Intended to display the work of twentieth century artists, _____ in 1929. (0,27 points)
A. the opening of the Museum of Modern Art
B. so the Museum of Modern Art opened
C. why the Museum of Modern Art opened
D. the Museum of Modern Art opened

18. The report was written in technical language, which would have been _____ to most
people. (0,27 points)
A. illegible
B. incomprehensible
C. inarticulate
D. garbled

19. Did he manage _____ the table upstairs? (0,27 points)
A. to carry
B. carry
C. to carrying
D. carrying

20. He didn’t settle into the new job _____. (0,27 points)
A. as quickly as he had expected to
B. If they had offered a higher salary
C. whether he was experienced or not
D. unless he had to work occasionally on a Sunday
203
21. “Can you describe the bag you left on the train?"
“It was white leather with _____ straps.” (0,27 points)
A. two short black
B. two black short
C. short two black
D. black two short

22. Many people take it for granted _____. (0,27 points)
A. that the new interest policy contributed to the greater degree of stability in prices at this period
B. why no survivors whatsoever were found
C. how all receipts and papers concerning the transaction mysteriously disappeared
D. why the other passengers had absolutely no comment to make at all about the accident

23. There’s a lot more to Willie than one would think: still waters run _____ (0,27 points)
A. deep
B. deeply
C. deepness
D. depth

24. Getting a good school _____ is what you need to do. (0,27 points)
A. report
B. mark
C. raise
D. comment

25. The children have _____ an excellent plan for raising money for charity. (0,27 points)
A. put up with
B. brushed up on
204
C. looked down on
D. come up with

26. When I was small I quite like listening to music. (0,27 points)
A. When
B. was
C. like
D. listening

27. During the Middle Ages, handwriting notices kept groups of nobles informed of important
events. (0,27 points)
A. During
B. handwriting
C. kept
D. informed

28. When our neighbor’s grandson caught his finger in the car door, he did not cry even though
it must have hurted him a great deal. (0,27 points)
A. caught
B. did not cry
C. must have hurted
D. a great deal
Nói (1,0 points)

29. Kevin: "How far is it from here to the nearest post office?"
Lan: “ _____.” (0,5 points)
A. Two kilometers at least
B. Turn left and then turn right
205
C. No, it’s rather far
D. Yes, it’s quite near here

30. “I am terribly sorry!"
“_____.” (0,5 points)
A. It’s nothing.
B. Nothing.
C. Don’t worry.
D. Never mind!

Animation traditionally is done by hand-drawing or painting successive frames of an object, each
slightly different than the preceding frame. In computer animation, although the computer may be the
one to draw the different frames, in most cases the artist will draw the beginning and ending frames
and the computer will produce the drawings between the first and the last drawing. This is generally
referred to as computer-assisted animation, because the computer is more of a helper than an
originator. In full computer animation, complex mathematical formulas are used to produce the final
sequence of pictures. These formulas operate on extensive databases of numbers that define the
objects in the pictures as they exist in mathematical space. The database consists of endpoints, and
color and intensity information. Highly trained professionals are needed to produce such effects
because animation that obtains high degrees of realism involves computer techniques for three-
dimensional transformation, shading, and curvatures. High-tech computer animation for film involves
very expensive computer systems along with special color terminals or frame buffers. The frame
buffer is nothing more than a giant image memory for viewing a single frame. It temporarily holds the
image for display on the screen. A camera can be used to film directly from the computer’s display
screen, but for the highest quality images possible, expensive film recorders are used. The computer
computes the positions and colors for the figures in the picture, and sends this information to the
recorder, which captures it on film. Sometimes, however, the images are stored on a large magnetic
disk before being sent to the recorder. Once this process is completed, it is repeated for the next
frame. When the entire sequence has been recorded on the film, the film must be developed before
the animation can be viewed. If the entire sequence does not seem right, the motions must be
corrected, recomputed, redisplayed, and rerecorded. This approach can be very expensive and time
206
consuming. Often, computer-animation companies first do motion tests with simple computer-
generated line drawings before selling their computers to the task of calculating the high-resolution,
realistic-looking images.
31. What aspect of computer animation does the passage mainly discuss? (0,1 points)
A. The production process
B. The equipment needed
C. The high cost
D. The role of the artist
32. According to the passage, in computer-assisted animation the role of the computer is to draw the
_____. (0,1 points)
A. first frame
B. middle frames
C. last frame
D. entire sequence of frames
33. The word “they“ in the second paragraph refers to _____. (0,1 points)
A. formulas
B. databases
C. numbers
D. objects
34. According to the passage, the frame buffers mentioned in the third paragraph are used to
_____. (0,1 points)
A. add color to the images
B. expose several frames at the same time
C. store individual images
D. create new frames
35. According to the passage, the positions and colours of the figures in high-tech animation are
determined by _____. (0,1 points)
A. drawing several versions
207
B. enlarging one frame at a time
C. analyzing the sequence from different angles
D. using computer calculations
36. The word “captures“ in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to _____. (0,1 points)
A. separates
B. registers
C. describes
D. numbers
37. The word “Once“ in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to _____. (0,1 points)
A. before
B. since
C. after
D. while
38. According to the passage, how do computer-animation companies often test motion? (0,1 points)
A. They experiment with computer-generated line drawings.
B. They hand-draw successive frames.
C. They calculate high-resolution images.
D. They develop extensive mathematical formulas.
39. The word “task“ in the 4th paragraph is closest in meaning to _____. (0,1 points)
A. possibility
B. position
C. time
D. job
40. Which of the following statements is supported by the passage? (0,1 points)
A. Computers have reduced the costs of animation.
B. In the future, traditional artists will no longer be needed.
208
C. Artists are unable to produce drawings as high in quality as computer drawings.
D. Animation involves a wide range of technical and artistic skills.

NEIGHBOURS INFLUENCE BUYING DECISIONS
However objective we believe ourselves to be, most of us do not judge a product solely on its merits,
considering quality, value and style before making a decision. (1) Instead, we are easily influenced
by the people around us. There is nothing (2) wrong with this. It is probably a smarter way to make
decisions than (3) relying on only our own opinions. But it does make life hard for companies. They
have long understood that groups of friends and relatives tend to buy the same products, but
understanding the reasons has been tricky. It is because they are so similar with (4) regard
to how much money they make and what television ads they watch that they independently (5)
arrive at the same decision? Or do they copy one another, perhaps (6) out of envy or perhaps
because they have shared information about the products? Research in Finland recently found
overwhelming evidence that neighbours have a big influence on buying decisions. When one of a
person’s ten nearest neighbours bought a car, the chances that that person would buy a car of the
same brand during the next week and a half (7) rose by 86 per cent. The researchers argued that it
was not just a (8) matter of envy. Used cars seemed to attract neighbours even more than new
cars. This suggested that people were not trying to (9) keep up with their neighbours, they were
keen to learn from them. Since used cars are less reliable, a recommendation of one can (10)
strongly influence a buying decision.

A. What’s more
B. Instead
C. Unlike
D. In place

A. wrong
B. silly
C. bad
D. daft
209
A. basing
B. trusting
C. supposing
D. relying

A. connection
B. regard
C. relation
D. concern

A. reach
B. come
C. arrive
D. get

A. for
B. as to
C. out of
D. about

A. boosted
B. rose
C. enlarged
D. lifted
210
A. thing
B. point
C. matter
D. fact

A. keep
B. stay
C. hold
D. follow

A. fiercely
B. strongly
C. firmly
D. intensely
200
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ĐỀ THI SỐ 19

A. decided
B. engaged
C. expected
D. attracted
A. park
B. yard
C. card
D. carry
A. dialect
B. dynasty
C. diabetes
D. diagnose
A. category
212
B. accompany
C. experience
D. compulsory

5. You may find that jogging is detrimental to your health rather than beneficial. (0,25 points)
A. useful
B. facile
C. depressing
D. harmful
6. The National Institute of Mental Health is conducting far-reaching research to determine the
psychological effects of using drugs. (0,25 points)
A. refined
B. extensive
C. prevalent
D. tentative
7. A frightening number of illiterate students are graduating from college. (0,25 points)
A. able to read and write
B. able to join intramural sport
C. inflexible
D. unable to pass an examination in reading and writing
8. People believe that what they do on the first day of the year will influence their luck during the
whole year. (0,25 points)
A. failure
B. mishap
213
C. fall
D. unsuccess

9. You have to finish your homework if you want to go to the party. (0,2 points)
A. Unless you finish your homework, you can go to the party.
B. Finish your homework, you can go to the party.
C. Finish your homework, otherwise you can go to the party.
D. Finish your homework, or else you cannot go to the party.
10. By the time I had got up the courage to ask her to marry me, she was engaged to somebody
else. (0,2 points)
A. At the moment I felt brave enough to propose to her, I learnt that she had already promised to
marry another man.
B. Before I felt brave enough to propose to her, she had agreed to marry another man.
C. Just when I asked her to marry me, she accepted an engagement to another man.
D. I offered her a proposal of marriage, but she said she was already engaged to someone else.
11. If I’d known how much they were going to charge at this hotel, I’d have stayed somewhere
else. (0,2 points)
A. The prices were so high at that hotel that I decided to find a more reasonable one.
B. I didn’t realize just how expensive this hotel was, but if I had, I’d have gone elsewhere.
C. If only I’d checked the prices of a few hotels I could have found a less expensive one.
D. Although I knew this was an expensive hotel I didn’t look around for a cheaper one.

12. We cut down many forests. The Earth becomes hot. (0,2 points)
A. The more forests we cut down, the hotter the Earth becomes.
B. The more we cut down forests, the hotter the Earth becomes.
214
C. The more forests we cut down, the Earth becomes hotter.
D. The more we cut down forests, the Earth becomes hotter.
13. Kate immediately phoned her boyfriend and told him the unexpected news. She was surprised at
it. (0,2 points)
A. Kate immediately phoned her boyfriend and told him the unexpected news, which she was
surprised.
B. Kate immediately phoned her boyfriend and told him, surprising by the unexpected news.
C. Surprised to hear the unexpected news, Kate phoned her boyfriend and told him immediately.
D. Surprised as she has to hear the news, Kate phoned her boyfriend and told him immediately.

14. The UN has called for an immediate _____ of hostilities. (0,27 points)
A. cessation
B. deletion
C. cancellation
D. ceasefire

15. You’ve lived in the city for most of your life, so _____ you’re used to the noise. (0,27 points)
A. apparently
B. presumably
C. allegedly
D. predictably

16. I _____ as soon as you come back. (0,27 points)
A. went
B. have gone
C. am going
215
D. will go

17. My work’s got worse and worse. Unless I _____ I’ll fail my exams in the summer. (0,27 points)
A. get well
B. get back
C. increase
D. improve

18. I’m going away _____ the end of January (0,27 points)
A. at
B. on
C. in
D. to

19. We regret to inform you that the materials you ordered are _____. (0,27 points)
A. out of work
B. out of stock
C. out of reach
D. out of practice

20. Don’t you think it was rather _____ of you not to let us know that you weren’t coming? (0,27 points)
A. mean
B. unkind
C. unsympathetic
D. thoughtless

21. When the phone rang she _____ a letter. (0,27 points)
216
A. writes
B. will write
C. has written
D. was writing

22. In Roman numerals, _____ symbols for numeric values. (0,27 points)
A. letters are the alphabet’s
B. letters of the alphabet are
C. which uses letters of the alphabet
D. in which letters of the alphabet are

23. If I were you, I would regard their offer with considerable _____ because it seems too good to be
true. (0,27 points)
A. reservation
B. disbelief
C. suspicion
D. doubt

24. He loves _____ her about all her boyfriends. (0,27 points)
A. teasing
B. joking
C. kidding
D. pulling

25. With age, the mineral content of human bones decreases, _____ them more fragile. (0,27 points)
A. make
B. and to make
C. which it makes
217
D. thereby making

26. Slightly over half of the population of El Paso, Texas, says both English and
Spanish. (0,27 points)
A. Slightly
B. half
C. population
D. says

27. The widely-known story that the Swedish tennis player Bjorn Borg’s pulse rate was only 35 beats
per minute is not more than an exaggeration. (0,27 points)
A. widely-known
B. that
C. not
D. an

28. We’ve had to postpone to go to France because the children are ill. (0,27 points)
A. We’ve had to
B. to go
C. because
D. ill
Nói (1,0 points)

29. “Excuse me. Do you do watch-repair?"
“_____” (0,5 points)
A. Why not?
B. That’s all.
C. Yes, we do, madam
218
D. Here we are

30. “How do you do?”
“ _____“ (0,5 points)
A. I’m very fine, thanks!
B. With my brother.
C. Thanks to my mother!
D. How do you do?

The Roman alphabet took thousands of years to develop, from the picture writing of the ancient
Egyptians through modification by Phoenicians, Greeks, Romans, and others. Yet in just a dozen
years, one man, Sequoyah, invented an alphabet for the Cherokee people. Born in eastern
Tennessee, Sequoyah was a hunter and a silversmith in his youth as well as an able interpreter
who knew Spanish, French, and English. Sequoyah wanted his people to have the secret of the
“talking leaves” as he called his books of white people, and so he set out to design a written form
of Cherokee. His chief aim was to record his people’s ancient tribal customs. He began by
designing pictographs for every word in the Cherokee vocabulary. Reputedly his wife, angry with
him for his neglect of garden and house, burned his notes, and he had to start over. This time,
having concluded that picture-writing was cumbersome, he made symbols for the sounds of
Cherokee language. Eventually, he refined his system to eighty-five characters, which he borrowed
from the Roman, Greek, and Hebrew alphabets. He presented this system to the Cherokee General
Council in 1821, and it was wholeheartedly approved. The response was phenomenal. Cherokees
who had struggled for months to learn English lettering school picked up the new system in days.
Several books were printed in Cherokee, and in 1828, a newspaper, the Cherokee Phoenix, was
first published in the new alphabet. Sequoyah was acclaimed by his people. In his later life,
Sequoyah dedicated himself to the general advancement of his people. He went to Washington,
D.C, as a representative of the Western tribes. He helped settle bitter differences among Cherokee
after their forced movement by the federal government to the Oklahoma territory in the 1830s. He
died in Mexico in 1843 while searching for groups of lost Cherokee. A statue of Sequoyah
represents Oklahoma in the Statuary Hall in the Capitol building in Washington, D.C. However, he is
219
probably chiefly remembered today because Sequoyas, the giant redwood trees of California, are
named after him.
31. The passage is mainly concerned with _____. (0,1 points)
A. Sequoyah’s experiences in Mexico,
B. the development of the Roman alphabet
C. the pictographic system of writing
D. the accomplishments of Sequoyah
32. According to the passage, a memorial statue of Sequoyah is located in _____. (0,1 points)
A. Tennessee
B. Oklahoma
C. Mexico
D. Washington, D.C
33. According to the passage, how long did it take to develop the Cherokee’s alphabet? (0,1 points)
A. twelve years
B. eighty-five years
C. twenty years
D. thousands of years
34. In the final version of the Cherokee alphabet system, each of the characters represents a
_____. (0,1 points)
A. picture
B. sound
C. word
D. thought
35. Why does author mention the giant redwood trees of California in the passage? (0,1 points)
A. The trees inspired Sequoyah to write a book.
B. Sequoyah was born in the vicinity of the redwood forest.
C. The trees were named in Sequoyah’s honor.
220
D. Sequoyah took his name from those trees.
36. According to the passage, Sequoyah used the phrase talking leaves to refer to
_____. (0,1 points)
A. redwood trees
B. newspaper
C. books
D. symbols for sounds
37. There is no indication in the passage that, as a young man, Sequoyah _____. (0,1 points)
A. served as a representative in Washington
B. served as an interpreter
C. made things from silver
D. hunted game
38. What was Sequoyah’s main purpose in designing a Cherokee alphabet? (0,1 points)
A. to record Cherokee customs
B. to write about his own life
C. to publish a newspaper
D. to write books in Cherokee
39. The word "cumbersome" is closest in meaning to _____. (0,1 points)

A. radical
B. awkward
C. unfamiliar
D. simplistic
40. All of the following were mentioned in the passage as alphabet systems that Sequoyah borrowed
from except _____. (0,1points)
A. Egyptian
B. Hebrew
221
C. Roman
D. Greek

INFLUENCES OF TELEVISION
Television has changed the lifestyle of people in every industrialized country in the world. In the
United States, where sociologists have studied the effects, some interesting observations have
been made. Television, although not essential, has become a(n) (1) integral part of most people’s
lives. It has become a baby-sitter, an initiator of conversations, a major transmitter of culture, and a
keeper of traditions. Yet when what can be seen on TV in one day is critically analyzed, it becomes
evident that television is not a teacher but a sustainer. The poor (2) quality of programs does not
elevate people into greater (3) understanding. The (4) primary reason for the lack of quality in
American television is related to both the history of TV development and the economics of TV.
Television in America began with the radio. Radio companies and their sponsors first experimented
with television. Therefore, the close relationship, (5) which the advertisers had with radio programs,
became the system for American TV. Sponsors not only paid money for time within programs, but
many actually produced the programs. Thus, (6) coming from the capitalistic, profit-oriented sector
of American society, television is primarily (7) concerned with reflecting and attracting society (8)
rather than innovating and experimenting with new ideas. Advertisers want to attract the largest
viewing audience possible; to do so requires that the programs be entertaining rather than
challenging. Television in America today remains, to a large (9) extent, with the same organization
and standards as it had thirty years ago. The hope for some evolution and true achievement toward
improving society will require a change in the (10) entire system.
A. integral C. fractional
B. mixed D. superior

A. quantity C. effect
B. quality D. product

A. preconception C. understanding
B. knowledge D. feeling
222
A. adequate C. inexplicable
B. unknown D. primary

A. which C. where
B. that D. what

A. going C. coming
B. leaving D. getting

A. concerned C. worried
B. interested D. connected

A. more C. less
B. rather D. better

A. extent C. size
B. degree D. amount

A. total C. entire
B. full D. complete
223
Môn: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ MINH HỌA Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 05 trang)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. wanted B. stopped C. decided D. hated
Question 2: A. century B. culture C. secure D. applicant
Question 3: A. offer B. canoe C. country D. standard
Question 4: A. pollution B. computer C. currency D. allowance
Question 5: Measles are an infectious disease that causes fever and small red spots.
A B C D
Question 6: He passed the exams with high scores, that made his parents happy.
A B C D
Question 7: For such a demanding job, you will need qualifications, soft skills and having full commitment.
A B C D
Question 8: I haven’t met him again since we school ten years ago.
A. have left B. leave C. left D. had left
Question 9: A recent survey has shown that increasing number of men are willing to share the
housework with their wives.
A. a B. an C. the D. some
Question 10: The more demanding the job is, I like it.
A. more B. most C. the more D. the most
Question 11: John wanted to know in my family.
A. there were how many people B. how many people were there
C. were there how many people D. how many people there were
Question 12: Richard, my neighbor, in World War II.
A. says to fight B. says to have fought C. is said to fight D. is said to have fought
Question 13: Students are less pressure as a result of changes in testing procedures.
A. under B. above C. upon D. out of
Question 14: Tom is getting ever keener on doing research on .
A. biology B. biological C. biologist D. biologically
Question 15: Many people and organizations have been making every possible effort in order to save
species.
A. endangered B. dangerous C. fearful D. threatening
Question 16: A number of young teachers nowadays themselves to teaching disadvantaged children.
A. offer B. stick C. give D. devote
Question 17: Whistling or clapping hands to get someone’s attention is considered and even rude in
some circumstances.
A. suitable B. unnecessary C. appropriate D. impolite
Question 18: ―Sorry for being late. I was in the traffic for more than an hour.
A. carried on B. held up C. put off D. taken after
Question 19: She was tired and couldn’t keep the group.
A. up with B. up against C. on to D. out of
224
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 20: Two friends Diana and Anne are talking about Anne’s new blouse.
- Diana: ―That blouse suits you perfectly, Anne.
- Anne: ― .
A. Never mind. B. Don’t mention it. C. Thank you. D. You’re welcome.
Question 21: Mary is talking to a porter in the hotel lobby.
- Porter: ―Shall I help you with your suitcase?
- Mary: ― .
A. Not a chance. B. That’s very kind of you.
C. I can’t agree more. D. What a pity!
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
Question 22: Students are expected to always adhere to school regulations.
A. question B. violate C. disregard D. follow
Question 23: A number of programs have been initiated to provide food and shelter for the underprivileged in
the remote areas of the country.
A. rich citizens B. active members C. poor inhabitants D. enthusiastic people
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
Question 24: Drivers are advised to get enough petrol because filling stations are few and far between on the
highway.
A. easy to find B. difficult to access C. unlikely to happen D. impossible to reach
Question 25: We managed to get to school in time despite the heavy rain.
A. earlier than a particular moment B. later than expected
C. early enough to do something D. as long as expected
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 26: I’m sure Luisa was very disappointed when she failed the exam.
A. Luisa must be very disappointed when she failed the exam.
B. Luisa must have been very disappointed when she failed the exam.
C. Luisa may be very disappointed when she failed the exam.
D. Luisa could have been very disappointed when she failed the exam.
Question 27: ―You had better see a doctor if the sore throat does not clear up, she said to me.
A. She reminded me of seeing a doctor if the sore throat did not clear up.
B. She ordered me to see a doctor if the sore throat did not clear up.
C. She insisted that I see a doctor unless the sore throat did not clear up.
D. She suggested that I see a doctor if the sore throat did not clear up.
Question 28: Without her teacher’s advice, she would never have written such a good essay.
A. Her teacher advised her and she didn’t write a good essay.
B. Her teacher didn’t advise her and she didn’t write a good essay.
C. She wrote a good essay as her teacher gave her some advice.
D. If her teacher didn’t advise her, she wouldn’t write such a good essay.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 29: She tried very hard to pass the driving test. She could hardly pass it.
A. Although she didn’t try hard to pass the driving test, she could pass it.
B. Despite being able to pass the driving test, she didn’t pass it.
C. No matter how hard she tried, she could hardly pass the driving test.
D. She tried very hard, so she passed the driving test satisfactorily.
225
Question 30: We didn’t want to spend a lot of money. We stayed in a cheap hotel.
A. Rather than spending a lot of money, we stayed in a cheap hotel.
B. In spite of spending a lot of money, we stayed in a cheap hotel.
C. We stayed in a cheap hotel, but we had to spend a lot of money.
D. We didn’t stay in a cheap hotel as we had a lot of money to spend.
WAYS TO IMPROVE YOUR MEMORY
A good memory is often seen as something that comes naturally, and a bad memory as something that
cannot be changed, but actually (31) is a lot that you can do to improve your memory.
We all remember the things we are interested in and forget the ones that bore us. This no doubt explains
the reason (32) schoolboys remember football results effortlessly but struggle with dates from their
history lessons! Take an active interest in what you want to remember, and focus on it (33) . One way
to make yourself more interested is to ask questions — the more the better!
Physical exercise is also important for your memory, because it increases your heart (34) and sends
more oxygen to your brain, and that makes your memory work better. Exercise also reduces stress, which is
very bad for the memory.
The old saying that ―eating fish makes you brainy may be true after all. Scientists have discovered that the
fats (35) in fish like tuna, sardines and salmon — as well as in olive oil — help to improve the memory.
Vitamin-rich fruits such as oranges, strawberries and red grapes are all good brain food, too.
(Source: ―New Cutting Edge, Cunningham, S. & Moor. 2010. Harlow: Longman)
Question 31: A. there B. it C. that D. this
Question 32: A. why B. what C. how D. which
Question 33: A. hardly B. slightly C. consciously D. easily
Question 34: A. degree B. level C. rate D. grade
Question 35: A. made B. existed C. founded D. found
It used to be that people would drink coffee or tea in the morning to pick them up and get them going for
the day. Then cola drinks hit the market. With lots of caffeine and sugar, these beverages soon became the
pick-me-up of choice for many adults and teenagers. Now drink companies are putting out so-called "energy
drinks." These beverages have the specific aim of giving tired consumers more energy.
One example of a popular energy drink is Red Bull. The company that puts out this beverage has stated in
interviews that Red Bull is not a thirst quencher. Nor is it meant to be a fluid replacement drink for athletes.
Instead, the beverage is meant to revitalize a tired consumer's body and mind. In order to do this, the makers
of Red Bull, and other energy drinks, typically add vitamins and certain chemicals to their beverages. The added
chemicals are like chemicals that the body naturally produces for energy. The vitamins, chemicals, caffeine, and
sugar found in these beverages all seem like a sure bet to give a person energy.
Health professionals are not so sure, though. For one thing, there is not enough evidence to show that all of
the vitamins added to energy drinks actually raise a person's energy level. Another problem is that there are so
many things in the beverages. Nobody knows for sure how all of the ingredients in energy drinks work together.
Dr. Brent Bauer, one of the directors at the Mayo Clinic in the US, cautions people about believing all the
claims energy drinks make. He says, ― It is plausible if you put all these things together, you will get a good
result. However, Dr. Bauer adds the mix of ingredients could also have a negative impact on the body. ―We just
don't know at this point, he says.
(Source: ―Reading Challenge 2, Casey Malarcher & Andrea Janzen, Compass Publishing)
Question 36: The beverages mentioned in the first paragraph aim to give consumers .
A. caffeine B. sugar C. more energy D. more choices
Question 37: The word “it” in the second paragraph refers to .
A. one example B. the company C. Red Bull C. thirst quencher
226
Question 38: According to the passage, what makes it difficult for researchers to know if an energy drink
gives people energy?
A. Natural chemicals in a person’s body B. The average age of the consumer
C. The number of beverage makers D. The mixture of various ingredients
Question 39: The word ― plausible in the passage is closest in meaning to .
A. impossible B. reasonable C. typical D. unlikely
Question 40: What has Dr. Bauer probably researched?
A. Countries where Red Bull is popular B. Energy drinks for teenage athletes
C. Habits of healthy and unhealthy adults D. Vitamins and chemicals in the body
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Bauer does not seem to believe the claims of energy drink makers.
B. Colas have been on the market longer than energy drinks.
C. It has been scientifically proved that energy drinks work.
D. The makers of Red Bull say that it can revitalize a person.
Question 42: What is the main idea of this passage?
A. Caffeine is bad for people to drink. B. It is uncertain whether energy drinks are healthy.
C. Red Bull is the best energy drink. D. Teenagers should not choose energy drinks.
What is extreme weather? Why are people talking about it these days? Extreme weather is an unusual
weather event such as rainfall, a drought or a heat wave in the wrong place or at the wrong time. In theory,
they are very rare. But these days, our TV screens are constantly showing such extreme weather events. Take
just three news stories from 2010: 28 centimetres of rain fell on Rio de Janeiro in 24 hours, Nashville, USA, had
33 centimetres of rain in two days and there was record rainfall in Pakistan.
The effects of this kind of rainfall are dramatic and lethal. In Rio de Janeiro, landslides followed, burying
hundreds of people. In Pakistan, the floods affected 20 million people. Meanwhile, other parts of the world suffer
devastating droughts. Australia, Russia and East Africa have been hit in the last ten years. And then there are
unexpected heat waves, such as in 2003 in Europe. That summer, 35,000 deaths were said to be heat-related.
So, what is happening to our weather? Are these extreme events part of a natural cycle? Or are they caused by
human activity and its effects on the Earth’s climate? Peter Miller says it’s probably a mixture of both of these
things. On the one hand, the most important influences on weather events are natural cycles in the climate. Two
of the most famous weather cycles, El Niño and La Niña, originate in the Pacific Ocean. The heat from the warm
ocean rises high into the atmosphere and affects weather all around the world. On the other hand, the
temperature of the Earth‘s oceans is slowly but steadily going up. And this is a result of human activity. We are
producing greenhouse gases that trap heat in the Earth’s atmosphere. This heat warms up the atmosphere, land
and oceans. Warmer oceans produce more water vapour – think of heating a pan of water in your kitchen. Turn
up the heat, it produces steam more quickly. Satellite data tells us that the water vapour in the atmosphere has
gone up by four percent in 25 years. This warm, wet air turns into the rain, storms, hurricanes and typhoons that
we are increasingly experiencing. Climate scientist, Michael Oppenheimer, says that we need to face the reality of
climate change. And we also need to act now to save lives and money in the future.
(Source: © 2015 National Geographic Learning.www.ngllife.com/wild-weather)
Question 43: It is stated in the passage that extreme weather is .
A. becoming more common B. not a natural occurrence
C. difficult for scientists to understand D. killing more people than ever before
Question 44: The word ― lethal in the second paragraph probably means .
A. far-reaching B. long-lasting C. happening soon D. causing deaths
Question 45: What caused thousands of deaths in 2003?
A. a period of hot weather B. floods after a bad summer
C. a long spell of heavy rain D. large-scale landslides
Question 46: According to the passage, extreme weather is a problem because .
A. we can never predict it B. it only affects crowded places
C. it’s often very destructive D. its causes are completely unknown
Question 47: The word ― that in the third paragraph refers to .
A. Earth’s oceans B. human activity C. greenhouse gases D. Earth’s atmosphere
227
Question 48: Extreme weather can be caused by _.
A. satellites above the Earth B. water vapour in the atmosphere
C. very hot summers D. water pans in your kitchen
Question 49: Satellites are used to __________.
A. change the direction of severe storms
B. trap greenhouse gases in the atmosphere
C. measure changes in atmospheric water vapour
D. prevent climate from changing quickly
Question 50: Which statement is NOT supported by the information in the passage?
A. Extreme weather is substantially influenced by human activity.
B. Unusual weather events are part of natural cycles.
C. We can limit the bad effects of extreme weather.
D. Such extreme weather is hardly the consequence of human activity.
THE END
228

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2018

Họ, tên thí sinh: ..................................................................... Mã đề thi 401

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Họ, tên thí sinh: ......................................................................... Mã đề thi 401

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Question 28. What is the passage mainly about?

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Môn: TIẾNG ANH

(Đề thi có 50 câu / 6 trang)

Ngữ âm (1,0 points)

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Ngữ pháp (1,0 points)

Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to combine two sentences:

Ngữ pháp & từ vựng (4,0 points)

Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:

Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:

Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:

Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:

Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:

Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:

Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:

Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:

Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.

Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.

Nói (1,0 points)

Choose the sentence that best completes this dialogue.

Đọc hiểu (2,0 points)

33. The word symptoms is closest in meaning to _____. (0,1 points)

38. The word these refers to _____. (0,1 points)

Read the passage below and fill in the blanks.

41. Fill in the blank (1) (0,1 points)

42. Fill in the blank (2) (0,1 points)

43. Fill in the blank (3) (0,1 points)

44. Fill in the blank (4) (0,1 points)

45. Fill in the blank (5) (0,1 points)

46. Fill in the blank (6) (0,1 points)

48. Fill in the blank (8) (0,1 points)

49. Fill in the blank (9) (0,1 points)

50. Fill in the blank (10) (0,1 points)

Môn: TIẾNG ANH

(Đề thi có 50 câu / 6 trang)

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Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:

Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:

Choose the best answer among A, B, C, D to complete each sentence:

Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.

Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.

Choose the underlined word or phrase (A, B, C, or D) that needs correcting.

Nói (1,0 points)